20 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH BÁM SÁT VÀ PHÁT TRIỂN ĐỀ MINH HỌA CỦA BỘ GD&ĐT

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH

vectorstock.com/31086119

Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú eBook Collection

20 ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH BÁM SÁT VÀ PHÁT TRIỂN ĐỀ MINH HỌA CỦA BỘ GD&ĐT (BẢN HỌC SINH) WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

ĐỀ SỐ 1 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. watched B. collapsed C. caused D. laughed Question 2: A. ship B. lift C. fit D. drive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. implant B. waver C. worship D. double Question 4: A. summary B. interact C. portable D. specify Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: People like to be made to feel important, ______?

A. did they B. don’t they C. were they D. aren’t they Question 6: Joe’s leg ______ while he was playing football.

A. broke B. was breaking C. was broken D. was being broken Question 7: I didn't realize we had to write each answer ______ a new sheet of paper.

A. for B. to C. in D. on Question 8: ______ you drive, the more likely you are to have an accident.

A. Fastest B. The fastest C. Faster D. The faster Question 9: She gave him a ________ wallet as a gift at his birthday party.

A. small brown leather B. small leather brown C. brown small leather D. leather small brown Question 10: He has taught many pupils of all ages since he ______ our school.

A. joins B. joined C. will join D. was joining Question 11: He hated being in the army ______ he had to obey commands.

A. because of B. instead of C. because D. although Question 12: You should take your car in for a service ______.

A. until it was starting to make weird noises B. because it's starting to make weird noises C. in case it had started to make weird noises D. as long as it has started to make weird noises Question 13: ________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.

A. To win B. Being won C. Having won D. Won Question 14: The fund provides money to clean up chemically polluted ______ sites.

A. industrial B. industry C. industrialize D. industrially Question 15: He ______ playing the piano to answer the door.

A. left off B. let out C. put off D. put out Question 16: I don't let the children ______ sweet fizzy drinks.

A. make B. take C. throw D. have

Question 17: The new teaching ______ encourage children to think for themselves.

A. methods B. subjects C. tools D. locations Question 18: She didn’t do much, but she got the lion’s ______ of the attention from the teachers.

A. part B. bite C. share D. meal Question 19: We want clean rivers and lakes, where you can swim without risk to your ______ .

A. thought B. health C. feeling D. mind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: This booklet provides useful information about local services.

A. helpful B. medical C. grateful D. similar Question 21: What the dogs do is a natural function but where they do it is chosen by humans.

A. feature

B. portion

C. part

D. role

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We need to think carefully about the possible consequences of this decision.

A. smoothly B. solemnly C. incautiously Question 23: My mother feels a bit under the weather today.

A. wealthy B. healthy C. weak

D. seriously D. sick

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Tom is inviting Linda to his birthday party.

Tom: “Would you like to come to my birthday party next week?”

Linda: “__________” A. Why not?

B. Yes, I’d love to.

C. I don’t think so.

D. No, I’d love to.

Question 25: Minh want to borrow Hoa’s pencil as he left his at home.

Minh: “May I borrow your pencil for a while?”

Hoa: “__________” A. Sure.

B. Yes, you can.

C. Why don’t you carry yours?

D. No, you can.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The Pennsylvania Department of Health is working to ensure all enrolled vaccine providers have information publicly available for those currently eligible to be vaccinated. This map will be (26) ________ weekly on Monday afternoon. Click on a marker to see details on vaccination locations. All locations listed on the map are enrolled providers. The dark blue circles represent locations (27) ________ received vaccine from the Pennsylvania Department of Health (28) ________ the light blue diamonds are locations which received vaccine directly from the federal government. It is important to note that the supply of vaccine compared to the demand is very limited. Please note that an allocation of vaccine does not guarantee that appointments are still available. Contact the provider directly to schedule an appointment if you are eligible in Phase 1A.

This map is intended for people seeking their first (29) ________ of vaccine. If you already received your first dose of Pfizer or Moderna vaccine, you should return to provider for your second dose regardless of whether they appear on this map.

Question 26: A. prevented B. updated C. discussed Question 27: A. who B. where C. whose Question 28: A. and B. although C. because Question 29: A. piece B. dose C. drop Question 30: A. each B. another C. same

the (30) ________ D. realized D. which D. but D. unit D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

In both the Convention on the Rights of the Child and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), countries committed to end violence against children. The SDGs call for the end of abuse, exploitation and all forms of violence and torture against children by 2030. UNICEF works with governments and partners worldwide to prevent and respond to violence against children in all contexts.

We collaborate with governments across sectors – including health, education, the justice system, and other social services – and with partners in business, civil society, faith-based organizations and the media to prevent and respond to violence against children. At the national and local levels, our efforts strengthen laws and policies to improve public service delivery for children and families in their homes, communities and schools.

We also support parents and caregivers through parenting initiatives, while working with young people themselves to ensure their voices shape UNICEF programming. And we work with communities, too, to tackle harmful behaviours and social norms, advocating for social change that promotes safe environments.

UNICEF plays a pivotal role in establishing global alliances and setting technical guidance to comprehensively address violence against children. By improving data availability and building evidence, we help raise awareness, enhance political will and hold decision makers to account.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Violence against Children and Development B. UNICEF’s Response to Violence against Children C. All Violence against Children is Preventable D. Typical Violence against Children Question 32: According to paragraph 1, UNICEF works with governments and partners worldwide because ________.

A. It tries to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals B. It ignores all forms of violence and torture against children C. It cooperates economically more with governments D. It wants to prevent violence against children Question 33: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. behaviours B. social norms C. social change D. environments

Question 34: The word “pivotal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. crucial B. anxious C. senior D. secret Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a method UNICEF does to prevent violence against children?

A. Collaborating with governments B. Strengthening laws and policies C. Supporting parents and caregivers D. Asking decision makers to improving data Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Simply put, children are not equipped to manage life on their own. After all, children can’t earn income and provide for their own economic security. They need a stable home and strong parents who are committed to their well-being. Children need to feel safe and protected to engage in a healthy way with the world.

When children feel protected, they can enjoy the magic and wonder of childhood. They won’t need to waste energy worrying about issues that they can’t control and can engage in meaningful play and favorite pastimes. If difficulties do arise, children can trust that their parents will handle those issues as well.

While physical protection is important, don’t overlook the importance of family providing emotional protection. You may have concerns about finances, the health of aging family members, or the stability of your employment. These are common concerns for adults, but it’s usually best to shield children from unnecessary burdens that they have little or no influence over. By doing so, you give them better odds of being able to shoulder the emotional burdens that are typical for their age - keeping up with homework, making new friends, and so forth.

What if a serious issue arises? While it may be necessary to involve them at some point, it should be done in a way that is age-appropriate, and only after you have discussed the issue with your partner, spouse, or other adults. Make sure such conversations are not able to be overheard by children. Then, when it’s time to discuss the concern with them, limit the details to those that are appropriate, while answering their questions honestly. In doing so, you’ll help your children feel secure and loved.

When serious difficulties arise, seek support from trusted friends and family to ensure you have enough time for self-care and reflection. Taking care of yourself is key to ensuring that you can be a sensitive and loving parent when your children need you most.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Income and economic security B. Concerns about Finances C. Families Provide Protection D. Why a serious issue arises Question 37: The word "magic" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. affair B. study C. level D. charm Question 38: In paragraph 2, children can enjoy their childhood when ______.

A. they can’t control some issues B. they don’t have meaningful play and favorite pastimes

C. they can handle issues they encounter as well D. they feel protected Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. concerns B. children C. burdens D. odds Question 40: The word “appropriate” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. relevant B. envious C. critical D. tolerant Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. A stable home and strong parents are crucial to children’s well-being.

B. It’s also important for the family to provide children with emotional protection.

C. All adults’ conversations must be overheard by children.

D. Parents should be sensitive and available when children need them most.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?

A. Only physical protection is important, other things can be overlooked.

B. Children themselves have their own burden, so don’t force them to shoulder more.

C. Children also have concerns about finances, the health of aging family members.

D. All common concerns for adults must be discussed directly with children.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: He left London 2 years ago and I didn’t see him since then.

A. London B. ago C. didn’t see D. since Question 44: Australia has their own cultural identity, which is very different from that of Britain.

A. their B. identity C. very D. that Question 45: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak to each other.

A. The whole B. farther C. the fact that D. to each Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: I last talked to my daughter 2 months ago.

A. I haven’t talked to my daughter for 2 months.

B. I didn’t talk to my daughter 2 years ago.

C. I have talked to my daughter for 2 years.

D. I had a conversation with my daughter for 2 years.

Question 47: “Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.

A. Adam advised Gavin to have his hair cut.

B. Adam invited Gavin to have his hair cut.

C. Adam promised to cut Gavin’s hair.

D. Adam suggested Gavin should have his hair cut.

Question 48: Perhaps I will not go jogging this afternoon.

A. I may not go jogging this afternoon.

B. I must go jogging this afternoon.

C. I mustn’t go jogging this afternoon.

D. I shouldn’t go jogging this afternoon.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Her father is away on business. She really needs his help now.

A. If only her father had been at home and could have helped her.

B. As long as her father is at home, he will be able to help her.

C. If her father is at home, he can help her now.

D. She wishes her father were at home and could help her now.

Question 50: Her negative thoughts are serious. They have damaged her self-esteem.

A. Only if her negative thoughts were serious would they damage her self-esteem.

B. Not until her negative thoughts had damaged her self-esteem were they serious.

C. So serious are her negative thoughts that they have damaged her self-esteem.

D. But for her serious negative thoughts, they would have damaged her self-esteem.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 2 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. structured B. embroidered C. preserved D. embarrassed Question 2: A. put B. bulb C. slum D. hunt Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. unique B. attire C. custom D. pursue Question 4: A. designer B. ancestor C. proposal D. tradition Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: ______ the wind, the heavier the rain.

A. The stronger B. stronger C. The strongest D. strongest Question 6: He bought a ________ house near the city center.

A. big pink beautiful B. beautiful big pink C. pink big beautiful D. beautiful pink big Question 7: She didn’t study modern European history at college, ______?

A. isn’t she B. was she C. doesn’t she D. did she Question 8: I almost missed my flight ______ there was a long queue in the duty-free shop.

A. in spite of B. before C. thanks to D. because Question 9: ________ the homework, she ate a sandwich.

A. Having done B. Did C. To do D. Being done Question 10: Her ______ isn't good with her father, but she's very close to her mother.

A. relate B. relationship C. relative D. relatively Question 11: All the houses in the area ______ immediately.

A. have to rebuild B. have to be rebuilt C. had to rebuild D. has to be rebuilt Question 12: The actor was happy with a part in a movie ______.

A. even though the part was small B. because the part has been small C. when the part will be small D. after the part had been small Question 13: The fire doesn't seem to be ______ much heat.

A. giving up B. giving off C. taking up D. taking off Question 14: He seemed very young, but he was ______ reality older than all of us.

A. by B. with C. in D. at Question 15: When you buy a new ______, you usually get software included at no extra cost.

A. insurance B. cigarette C. computer D. medicine Question 16: Mr. Trung has met many foreigners since he ______ here last summer.

A. moves B. will move C. was moving D. moved

Question 17: Hotel bookings are at a pace to ______ a new record this year.

A. set B. earn C. send D. owe Question 18: Politicians promise the ______ before an election, but things are different afterwards.

A. sea B. earth C. hill D. moon Question 19: Our neighbours are very inconsiderate - they're always playing loud ______ late at night.

A. toy B. tennis C. virus D. music Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: An additional grant has enabled the team to push forward with research plans.

A. global B. extra C. typical D. serious Question 21: None of Arrino's vague references or allusions had prepared me for what she was saying.

A. hints B. illusions C. proposal D. suggestion Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Healthcare in the capital compares poorly with that in the rest of the country.

A. terribly B. swiftly C. suddenly D. acceptably Question 23: It has been raining cats and dogs since yesterday.

A. constantly B. continuously C. lightly D. heavily Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Linda is talking to David about friends in the class.

Linda; “Do you think Anna is the best student in our class?”

David: “__________” A. Do you think so?

B. Yes, I don’t think so.

C. You cant say so.

D. You can say that again.

Question 25: Laura is asking Tom for his idea about a vacation at the beach.

Laura: “Do you think a vacation at the beach will do me good?”

Tom: “__________” A. Sure. Have a good time there.

B. Yes, I think.

C. Could you bye me something?

D. Yes, it does.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The Isthmus of Suez, the sole land bridge between the continents of Africa and Asia, is of relatively recent geologic origin. Both continents once (26) ________ a single large continental mass, but during the Paleogene and Neogene periods (about 66 to 2.6 million years ago) the great fault structures of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aqaba developed, with the opening and subsequent drowning of the Red Sea trough as far as the Gulf of Suez and the Gulf of Aqaba. In the succeeding Quaternary Period (about the past 2.6 million years), there was considerable oscillation of sea (27)

________, leading finally to the emergence of a low-lying isthmus (28) ________ broadened northward to a low-lying open coastal plain. There the Nile delta once extended farther east—as a result of periods of abundant rainfall coincident with the Pleistocene Epoch (2,588,000 to 11,700 years ago)—and two river arms, (29) ________ distributaries, formerly crossed the northern isthmus, one branch reaching the Mediterranean Sea at the narrowest point of the isthmus and the (30) ________ entering the sea some 14.5 km (9 miles) east of present Port Said.

Question 26: A. made B. solved C. occurred D. formed Question 27: A. level B. basket C. basement D. amount Question 28: A. when B. what C. that D. who Question 29: A. or B. so C. since D. but Question 30: A. many B. other C. every D. another Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

There are generally considered to be eight subspecies of tiger (Panthera tigris), three of which are now extinct. The remaining subspecies include the Bengal, Indo-Chinese, South China, Amur, and Sumatran tigers. Pressures from illegal killing, a shrinking food supply, and habitat loss led to the extinction of the Bali, Javan, and Caspian subspecies, and continue to threaten the survival of the remaining subspecies.

Tigers live in a variety of habitats from the temperate forests of the Russian Far East, to the mangrove swamps of the Sunderbans of Bangladesh and western India, to the tropical forests, grasslands, and marshes of India and Indonesia. Historically, they were also found near the Caspian Sea in Turkey and Iran, and on the islands of Bali and Java in Indonesia.

By some estimates, a century ago 50,000 to 80,000 tigers roamed India alone. Today, the tiger is classified as Endangered in the Red List of Threatened Species published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and it is estimated that there are only 3,500 tigers remaining in the wild worldwide.

Until it was banned, trophy hunting and a market for tiger rugs and coats threatened the tiger’s survival. Today, habitat destruction, human population growth, and a demand for tiger parts threaten the tiger’s survival. In some cultures, tiger parts are thought to cure diseases such as rheumatism, convulsions, typhoid fever, and dysentery. Tiger bone used in these traditional medicines sells for as much as $75 to $115 per pound. In the Russian Far East, logging threatens the Amur tiger’s already shrinking habitat. Poaching has also increased since the international borders between Russia and its neighbours opened.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Tigers under Threat B. The Number of Subspecies of Tiger C. Tigers Living in India D. Market for Tiger Rugs and Coats Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. subspecies B. tiger C. Bengal D. pressure Question 33: According to paragraph 4, before hunting was banned, the tiger’s survival was threatened because of ________.

A. the low temperate in forests

B. the demand for tiger rugs and coats

C. human population growth D. the long Russian international borders Question 34: The word “traditional” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. potential B. practical C. conventional D. financial Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor causing the extinction of the Bali, Javan, and Caspian subspecies?

A. Illegal killing B. Shrinking food supply C. Habitat loss D. Mangrove swamps Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The largest bear in the world and the Arctic's top predator, polar bears are a powerful symbol of the strength and endurance of the Arctic. The polar bear's Latin name, Ursus maritimus, means "sea bear." It's an apt name for this majestic species, which spends much of its life in, around, or on the ocean–predominantly on the sea ice. In the United States, Alaska is home to two polar bear subpopulations.

Considered talented swimmers, polar bears can sustain a pace of six miles per hour by paddling with their front paws and holding their hind legs flat like a rudder. They have a thick layer of body fat and a water-repellent coat that insulates them from the cold air and water.

Polar bears spend over 50% of their time hunting for food. A polar bear might catch only one or two out of 10 seals it hunts, depending on the time of year and other variables. Their diet mainly consists of ringed and bearded seals because they need large amounts of fat to survive.

Polar bears rely heavily on sea ice for traveling, hunting, resting, mating and, in some areas, maternal dens. But because of ongoing and potential loss of their sea ice habitat resulting from climate change–the primary threat to polar bears Arctic-wide–polar bears were listed as a threatened species in the US under the Endangered Species Act in May 2008. As their sea ice habitat recedes earlier in the spring and forms later in the fall, polar bears are increasingly spending longer periods on land, where they are often attracted to areas where humans live.

The survival and the protection of the polar bear habitat are urgent issues for WWF. In October 2019, the International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Polar Bear Specialist Group released a new assessment of polar bear populations showing that the number of polar bear subpopulations experience recent declines has increased to four, with eight populations still being data-deficient. The good news is that five populations are stable while two have been experiencing an upward trend.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Facts about Polar Bears B. The Polar Bear's Latin Name C. One or Two out of 10 Seals Polar Bears Hunt D. Urgent Issues for WWF Question 37: In paragraph 1, The polar bear's Latin name means “sea bears” because ______.

A. it spends much of its life on the sea ice

B. it’s the largest bear in the world C. it’s the most powerful animal of the Arctic D. it can be found on Alaska sea only Question 38: The word "pace" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. mood B. debt C. mode D. speed Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Polar bears’ thick layer of body fat prevents them from being cold.

B. Polar bears need large amounts of fat to survive.

C. Polar bears’ sea ice habitat recedes earlier in the fall.

D. It’s urgent for WWF to protect polar bear habitat.

Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. periods B. polar bears C. areas D. humans Question 41: The word “declines” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. database B. conclusion C. reductions D. judgement Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. IUCN’s assessment is important to maintain polar bear populations.

B. WWF survives thanks to the protection of polar bears.

C. No polar bear subpopulation experiences decline.

D. The number of polar bears of some subpopulations has increased.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: My mother couldn't bare waste - she always made us eat everything on our plates.

A. couldn't bare B. always C. eat everything D. our plates Question 44: I don’t go to work tomorrow, so I was staying up late tonight.

A. work B. so C. was staying D. tonight Question 45: Since their establishment two years ago, the advice centre has seen over 500 people a week.

A. their B. ago C. over D. week Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: Perhaps she will not come to see me this evening.

A. She must come to see me this evening.

B. She may not come to see me this evening.

C. She have to come to see me this evening. D. She should come to see me this evening.

Question 47: I last ate this kind of food five years ago.

A. I ate this kind of food for five years.

B. I didn’t eat this kind of food five years ago.

C. I have eaten this kind of food for five years.

D. I haven’t eaten this kind of food for five years.

Question 48: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady at the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

B. The lady promised to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

C. The lady agreed to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

D. The lady deny calling the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: His mother has gone to London. He really needs her advice now.

A. If only his mother had been at home and could have given him some advice.

B. He wishes his mother at home and could give him some advice.

C. As long as his mother is at home, she can give him some advice.

D. If his mother is at home, she can give him some advice now.

Question 50: My relationship with my father is important. It has shaped my attitude towards men.

A. But for the important relationship with my father, it would have shaped my attitude towards men.

B. Only if my relationship with my father were important would it shape my attitude towards men.

C. So important is my relationship with my father that it has shaped my attitude towards men.

D. Not until my relationship with my father had shaped my attitude towards men was it important.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 3 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. finished B. defeated C. developed D. looked Question 2: A. climb B. hide C. sit D. fine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you’re answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. unite B. lifelong C. urban D. trailer Question 4: A. benefit B. activate C. article D. aquatic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: This is a ________ bag that I bought for my son.

A. new sleeping black B. sleeping black new C. new black sleeping D. black new sleeping Question 6: I have to save this coupon ______.

A. in case I come back to the store tomorrow B. so that I has come back to the store tomorrow C. when I will come back to the store tomorrow D. as I had come back to the store tomorrow Question 7: She was in Mumbai to ______ an award for her latest novel.

A. acceptance B. acceptable C. accept D. acceptably Question 8: My digital camera ______ away. I can’t find it.

A. is taken B. took C. was taken D. has been taken Question 9: ________ his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

A. Having finished B. Finished C. To finish D. Being finished Question 10: Security checks have become really strict ______ the airport.

A. like B. on C. about D. at Question 11: The more he learns, ______ he becomes.

A. smarter B. the smarter C. smartest D. the smartest Question 12: They flew from Los Angeles to Toronto by way of Chicago, ______?

A. didn’t they B. was they C. don’t they D. are they Question 13: I didn't tell her that he was late ______ I didn't want to cause her any alarm.

A. because B. however C. although D. unless Question 14: We walked to the next beach to ______ from the crowds.

A. pass away B. pass over C. get away D. get over Question 15: For most people, the desire to study ______ begins with a love of reading.

A. science B. literature C. psychology D. mathematics

Question 16: You have violated the rules for many time since you ______ here.

A. will come B. come C. was coming D. came Question 17: If you ______ the rule, you’re going to be punished for it.

A. added B. broke C. found D. solved Question 18: Although they are twins, they are ______ apart in their attitude to life.

A. gates B. lakes C. miles D. worlds Question 19: This research seems to give some validity to the ______ that the drug might cause cancer.

A. theory B. fame C. reaction D. lesson Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Recently there has been some movement away from traditional methods of teaching.

A. realistic B. obvious C. conventional D. efficient Question 21: The building scheme comes as an enormous boon for the building industry.

A. source B. gift C. obstacle D. help Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: They were both critically injured in the accident.

A. slightly B. vaguely C. verbally D. seriously Question 23: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.

A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. relaxing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Jack is asking Laura to open the window.

Jack: “Would you mind opening the window?”

Laura: “__________” A. Yes, I would.

B. Of course not.

C. Forget it.

D. No, I mind.

Question 25: The hotel receptionist is asking the customer his name.

Receptionist: “Could you please say your name again please?”

Customer: “__________” A. How can you say so?

B. Why do I have to?

C. No, I don’t remember.

D. Sure, that’s Mike.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Autism, or autism spectrum disorder (ASD), refers to a broad range of conditions characterized by challenges with social skills, repetitive behaviours, speech and nonverbal (26) ______. According to the Centres for Disease Control, autism affects an estimated 1 in 54 children in the United States today.

We know that there is not one autism but many subtypes, most influenced by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. (27) ______ autism is a spectrum disorder, each person with

autism has a distinct set of strengths and challenges. The ways in (28) ______ people with autism learn, think and problem-solve can (29) ______ from highly skilled to severely challenged. Some people with ASD may require significant support in their daily lives, while others may need less support and, in some cases, live entirely independently.

Several factors may influence the development of autism, and it is often accompanied by sensory sensitivities and medical issues (30) ______ as gastrointestinal (GI) disorders, seizures or sleep disorders, as well as mental health challenges such as anxiety, depression and attention issues.

Question 26: A. authorization B. promotion C. reflection D. communication Question 27: A. So B. Because C. And D. Although Question 28: A. which B. that C. where D. whom Question 29: A. suffer Question 30: A. such

B. follow B. some

C. range C. any

D. invest D. no

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The clouds floating overhead contain water vapour and cloud droplets, which are small drops of condensed water. These droplets are way too small to fall as precipitation, but they are large enough to form visible clouds. Water is continually evaporating and condensing in the sky. If you look closely at a cloud you can see some parts disappearing (evaporating) while other parts are growing (condensation). Most of the condensed water in clouds does not fall as precipitation because their fall speed is not large enough to overcome updrafts which support the clouds.

For precipitation to happen, first tiny water droplets must condense on even tinier dust, salt, or smoke particles, which act as a nucleus. Water droplets may grow as a result of additional condensation of water vapour when the particles collide. If enough collisions occur to produce a droplet with a fall velocity which exceeds the cloud updraft speed, then it will fall out of the cloud as precipitation. This is not a trivial task since millions of cloud droplets are required to produce a single raindrop. A more efficient mechanism for producing a precipitation-sized drop is through a process which leads to the rapid growth of ice crystals at the expense of the water vapour present in a cloud. These crystals may fall as snow, or melt and fall as rain.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. How much water falls during a storm B. What do raindrops look like?

C. How do raindrops form?

D. Precipitation size and speed Question 32: According to paragraph 1, the condensed water in clouds does not fall as rain because ________.

A. the fall speed is not large enough B. it is too small to fall C. it is continually evaporating D. the fall speed makes it disappear Question 33: The word “additional” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. administrative B. supplementary C. representative D. competitive Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. particles B. collisions C. droplet D. fall velocity

Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor causing precipitation to happen?

A. Tiny water droplets condensed on a nucleus B. Collision of particles C. Fall velocity larger than the cloud updraft speed D. Growth of ice crystals Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

If you’re an Australian Facebook user who loves to share the news on your timeline, you may have noticed something different recently: You can’t.

In the next few days, though, things should go back to normal. Less than a week after suddenly banning news links for Australian users and shutting down Australian news pages to protest an upcoming law, Facebook says it’s gotten reassurances from the Australian government that it won’t be forced to pay publishers but will instead be given the chance to negotiate agreements with them — which it’s already starting to do. According to the Sydney Morning Herald, Facebook has agreed to pay the major Australian media company Seven West Media for news content and is in negotiations with another called Nine Entertainment.

Australia has now passed the News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code, which could force Facebook and Google to pay publishers if they host their content. The law is a response to years-long complaints from news outlets around the world about the role that Google and Facebook — and their mammoth digital ad businesses — have played in the decline of journalism and the decimation of its business model in the internet age. The two companies responded to the then-potential law in very different ways: Google made deals with Australian news publishers; Facebook decided to cut them off entirely.

After a few days of Australians seeing what Facebook was like without the news, a sizable amount of worldwide backlash against the company, and talks with the Australian government that resulted in a few last-minute changes to the law, Facebook decided that the new terms were good enough for its ban to end. The law passed a few days later.

Previously, Facebook had banned all users from sharing links to Australian news sources, Australian publications’ pages from hosting any of their own content, and Australian users from sharing any news links, Australian or international.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. News Links for Australian Users B. Australia and The News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code C. A Sizable Amount of Worldwide Backlash Against A Company D. Why Facebook Banned and Then Unbanned News in Australia Question 37: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. publishers B. reassurances C. Australian media D. negotiations Question 38: In paragraph 2, Facebook suddenly banned news links for Australian users to ______.

A. protest an upcoming law B. get reassurances from the Australian government C. protect Australian news pages D. negotiate agreements with publishers Question 39: The word “major” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. public B. stupid C. main D. stylish Question 40: The word “content” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. word B. article C. force D. name Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Facebook has agreed to pay Seven West Media for news content.

B. Google and Facebook responded to the law differently.

C. The laws issued by Australian government was changed at the last minute.

D. Facebook has never banned users from sharing links to Australian news sources.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. Australians will never see the news on Facebook.

B. Facebook ended its ban thanks to acceptable teams, and things went back to normal.

C. There was a huge amount of worldwide protest against the Australian government.

D. Australian government’s law shouldn’t have been changed at the last minute.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: I prefer the second option - their advantages are simplicity and cheapness.

A. prefer B. their C. simplicity D. cheapness Question 44: I arrived in Wolverhampton lately this evening, as I'm doing a small part in a short film here tomorrow.

A. arrived in B. lately C. as D. in a short film Question 45: I detest having to get up when it was dark outside.

A. having B. when C. was D. outside Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “I will help you to finish this work, Gloria” said Ivan.

A. Ivan promised to help Gloria to finish her work.

B. Ivan expected to help Gloria to finish her work.

C. Ivan admitted helping Gloria to finish her work.

D. Ivan suggested helping Gloria to finish her work.

Question 47: Perhaps the boy will not take a nap today.

A. The boy should take a nap today.

B. The boy need to take a nap today.

C. The boy may not take a nap today.

D. The boy mustn’t take a nap today.

Question 48: They last visited this museum 3 years ago.

A. They paid a visit to this museum for 3 years.

B. They didn’t visit this museum 3 years ago.

C. They have visited this museum for 3 years.

D. They haven’t visited this museum for 3 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Nam’s friends have all gone to the movie. He really needs their help now.

A. If Nam’s friends are here, they can help him now.

B. If only Nam’s friends hadn’t gone to the movie and could have helped them.

C. Nam wishes his friends were here and could help him now.

D. As long as Nam’s friends are here, they will be able to help him now.

Question 50: The new generation of computers is powerful. It can process faster than any earlier models.

A. Not until the new generation of computers had processed faster than any earlier models was it powerful.

B. So powerful is the new generation of computers that it can process faster than any earlier models.

C. But for the new powerful generation of computers, it would have processed faster than any earlier models.

D. Only if the new generation of computers were powerful could it process faster than any earlier models.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 4 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. approached B. washed C. noticed D. supported Question 2: A. cheat B. great C. meat D. heat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. college B. upset C. mature D. support Question 4: A. decorate B. privacy C. collection D. modify Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Friends and relatives came to ______ their last respects to Mr Clarke.

A. pack B. pay C. give D. send Question 6: The business ______ better than expected and profits were slightly up.

A. found for B. found out C. made for D. made out Question 7: We are aiming our campaign ______ at young people.

A. specify B. specification C. specific D. specifically Question 8: ________ the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.

A. Being defeated B. Having defeated C. Defeated D. To defeat Question 9: Make sure your hands are clean ______.

A. after you had your dinner B. though you will have your dinner C. before you have your dinner D. unless you was having your dinner Question 10: I have the greatest respect for his ideas ______ I don't agree with them.

A. in spite of B. although C. because of D. because Question 11: My father ______ as a journalist since he graduated from the university.

A. has worked B. was working C. works D. will work Question 12: It is an ________ woman whom I met at the supermarket.

A. intelligent English young B. English young intelligent C. young intelligent English D. intelligent young English Question 13: The more she eats, ______ she becomes.

A. the fattest B. fattest C. the fatter D. fatter Question 14: Those seats are reserved for senior members ______ the club.

A. of B. over C. by D. from Question 15: The gallery doesn’t have any excellent collection of modern art, ______?

A. is it B. wasn’t it C. does it D. didn’t it

Question 16: This newspaper ______ every day. It’s a daily newspaper.

A. publishing B. is publishing C. is published D. published Question 17: She has an intimate ______ of Tuscany, where she has lived for 20 years.

A. service B. economy C. knowledge D. reputation Question 18: The losing team went off with their tails between their ______.

A. legs B. hands C. teeth D. fingers Question 19: Computer literacy is now as essential as the ______ to drive a car.

A. amount B. repair C. ownership D. ability Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: It's the good weather that makes Spain such a popular tourist destination.

A. nervous B. sudden C. massive D. favourite Question 21: The postwar vogue for tearing down buildings virtually destroyed the city's architecture.

A. means B. fashion C. trend D. media Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: In 1918, the Spanish flu infected one in five people globally.

A. locally B. happily C. usefully D. truthfully Question 23: I'm looking for something a little more out of the ordinary.

A. different B. popular C. similar D. foreign Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Linh is inviting Loan to her company’s party.

Linh: “Will you come to my company’s year end party tomorrow?”

Loan: “__________” A. Yes, I promise you.

B. No, I don’t know.

C. Welcome.

D. Tomorrow’s too early.

Question 25: Linh’s mother is asking her about the test.

Linh’s mother: “How have you done with the test?”

Linh: “__________” A. The test is good B. I could have done it better if I had had more time.

C. I don’t know.

D. Don’t ever ask so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Violence against children takes many forms. It can be physical, emotional or sexual. It happens in all countries and any setting – in a child's home, community, school and online. In (26) ________ parts of the world, violent discipline is socially accepted and common. And for many girls and boys, violence comes at the hands of the people they trust – their parents or caregivers, teachers, peers and neighbours.

(27) ________ the most devastating types of violence are often hidden from public view.

Perpetrators go to great lengths to conceal their acts, leaving children – especially those (28) ________ lack the capacity to report or even understand their experience – vulnerable to further exposure.

Violence affects all children. But children living with disabilities or HIV and AIDS, those suffering extreme (29) ________ , girls and boys in institutional care, and children separated from their families or on the move – as migrants, refugees or asylum seekers – face the greatest risk.

Sexual orientation, gender identity and belonging to a marginalized social or ethnic group also (30) ________ a child’s chance of suffering violence.

Question 26: A. some B. another C. many D. much Question 27: A. Until B. Since C. But D. Although Question 28: A. which Question 29: A. question Question 30: A. heightens

B. whom B. poverty B. hesitates

C. why C. training C. persuades

D. who D. business D. happens

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Depression and anxiety while abroad are more common than people like to admit. It’s hard to complain when you’ve spent the whole day lounging in the European countryside and get to go home to your castle-view new apartment, but for people with depression or anxiety, even the most amazing things can be drowned out by emotion. It’s easy for people who are battling this type of disorder to feel guilty, spoiled, or even confused for being down even when they’re “living the high life” abroad, so they keep their feelings to themselves and hide the problem, potentially ruining their time abroad.

Chances are, if you think you’re developing depression or anxiety while abroad, you’ve probably been feeling some of these things for a long time, but nothing has made them surface quite like going abroad does. It’s crucial to deal with the problem as you first begin to notice it and take self-care seriously while abroad, as they aren’t feelings that are going to be magically fixed.

Illnesses like depression and anxiety are different for everyone, but ultimately you will need to take similar steps to make it more bearable while abroad. Start by talking to your family back home, program director, or school guidance counsellor and have them help you speak with your host family, find a suitable doctor and/or therapist while abroad, and work through any international treatment or insurance issues. You are not the first person to go abroad with baggage, and there are people available and programs set up to help those who need it.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The Culture Shock Stages B. Final Tips for Handling the Culture Shock C. Months of Ups and Downs Abroad D. Recognizing Depression and Anxiety Question 32: The word “who” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. amazing things B. emotion C. people D. disorder Question 33: According to paragraph 1, those who are battling disorder may have their time abroad ruined because they _______.

A. never feel guilty, spoiled, or even confused B. keep their feelings to themselves and hide the problem C. spend too much time lounging in the European countryside D. are living the high life abroad Question 34: The word “bearable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. acceptable B. suitable C. reasonable D. inevitable Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a step to make depression and anxiety more bearable abroad?

A. Going abroad without any baggage B. Talking to the family back home C. Speaking with the host family D. Finding a suitable doctor and/or therapist Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Panama, country of Central America located on the Isthmus of Panama, the narrow bridge of land that connects North and South America. Embracing the isthmus and more than 1,600 islands off its Atlantic and Pacific coasts, the tropical nation is renowned as the site of the Panama Canal, which cuts through its midsection. It is equally well known for its natural beauty, for its diverse plant and animal life, including hundreds of bird and tree species, and for its vibrant music and culture.

The home of several Native American peoples, such as the Guaymí, Kuna, and Chocó, Panama became the first Spanish colony on the Pacific. Celebrated as “the door to the seas and key to the universe,” it served in the 1530s as the staging point for the Spanish conquest of the Inca empire, and until the 19th century it was a transhipment point for gold and silver destined for Spain. With the independence of Colombia, which once controlled Panama, from Spain, Panama came to serve as another staging point, this time for oceangoing migrants to the gold fields of California.

Since 1914 the 51-mile-long Panama Canal, which connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, has afforded a long-sought shortcut for shipping and assures the country’s standing as one of the most strategic transportation hubs of the world. The canal also secures Panama’s ongoing role in international affairs and world commerce. The United States relinquished jurisdiction of the Panama Canal on December 31, 1999, marking an unprecedented shift in Panamanian society. For the first time in nearly a century as an independent nation, Panama controlled the entirety of its national territory.

Panama enjoys a lively mix of cultural influences, expressed in the country’s cuisine, artwork, music, and literature. Its capital, Panama City, is located on the Pacific coast just east of the canal. A cosmopolitan city where skyscrapers tower above whitewashed bungalows, it enjoys a handsome setting and a growing importance as a commercial and financial services centre for the region. However, its economic progress has been hampered periodically by environmental problems and political turmoil.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Central America B. Facts on Panama

C. Native American peoples in Panama

D. a lively mix of cultural influences of Panama

Question 37: The word “vibrant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. exciting B. clumsy C. steady D. dynamic Question 38: In paragraph 2, Panama functioned in the 1530s as the staging point for ______.

A. the Spanish to conquest the Inca empire B. gold and silver destined for Spain C. Colombia to achieve its independence D. Panama to control Spain Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. colony B. Inca empire C. Panama D. transhipment point Question 40: The word “affairs” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. services B. courses C. objects D. events Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The Isthmus of Panama connects North and South America.

B. Panama became the first Portugese colony on the Pacific.

C. The United States renounced jurisdiction of the Panama Canal in 1999.

D. Panama City is located on the Pacific coast.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. There is no cultural mix in Panama.

B. Panama is such a small country that it has no capital name.

C. Panama is a beautiful and important country in the region with its own problems.

D. All skyscrapers in Panam are whitewashed.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: We have a very happy party at Tom’s house last weekend.

A. have B. very C. party D. Tom’s Question 44: Everyone has its own ideas about the best way to bring up children.

A. its B. about C. way D. children Question 45: How long does it take for the planet Jupiter to make a complete evolution around the sun?

A. How long B. for C. to make D. evolution Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: She last travelled by bus many years ago.

A. She has travelled by bus for many years. B. She travelled by bus for many years.

C. She hasn’t travelled by bus for many years. D. She didn’t travel by bus many years ago.

Question 47: “If I were you, I would take a break,” Tom said to Daisy.

A. Tom informed Daisy to take a break.

B. Tom advised Daisy to take a break.

C. Tom warned Daisy to take a break.

D. Tom apologized to Daisy for taking a break.

Question 48: Perhaps he will finish all his work tonight.

A. He must finish all his work tonight.

B. He shouldn’t finish all his work tonight.

C. He needn’t finish all his work tonight.

D. He may finish all his work tonight.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I have to do my homework. I can’t go out with my friends.

A. As long as I don’t have to do my homework, I will be able to go out with my friends.

B. If I don’t have to do my homework, I can go out with my friends.

C. I wish I didn’t have to do my homework and could go out with friends.

D. If only I hadn’t had to do my homework and could have gone out with my friends.

Question 50: The man was presumed innocent. He was then proven guilty.

A. Not until the man had been presumed innocent was he proven guilty.

B. Had the man been proven guilty, he wouldn’t be presumed innocent.

C. Only after the man was proven guilty was he presumed innocent.

D. Having been proven guilty, the man was presumed innocent.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 5 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained Question 2: A. post B. role C. dome D. loch Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. impose B. childcare C. access D. curfew Question 4: A. analyst B. organise C. emission D. emperor Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: I think I'll ______ a visit to Louvre museum while I'm in Paris this summer.

A. drop B. raise C. bring D. pay Question 6: I was trying to remember what I had learnt about gravity in school ______ .

A. science B. chemistry C. history D. literature Question 7: Modern computers can hold huge amounts of information, ______?

A. were they B. can’t they C. did they D. don’t they Question 8: Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ______ to hospital.

A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking Question 9: You can walk from here ______ the school in under ten minutes.

A. against B. after C. to D. about Question 10: The more she sleeps, ______ she becomes.

A. laziest B. the laziest C. lazier D. the lazier Question 11: She wore a ________ dress that made her more pretty.

A. long white wedding B. long wedding white C. white long wedding D. wedding white long Question 12: Mr. Nam ______ many items in his grocery since he moved to this area.

A. will sell B. has sold C. sells D. was selling Question 13: At 84 he's still quite active ______ he walks with the aid of a stick.

A. since B. moreover C. although D. instead of Question 14: It may be many years ______.

A. if the situation improved B. when the situation had improved C. before the situation improves D. because the situation will improve Question 15: ________ his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.

A. To write B. Being written C. Having written D. Wrote Question 16: An unexpected surge in ______ power caused the computer to crash.

A. electricity B. electrical C. electrically D. electrify

Question 17: The firm was badly in need of restructuring when she ______.

A. took over B. took up C. looked over D. looked up Question 18: Five years after her debut, the diminutive star of the Royal Ballet has the world at her ______.

A. heads B. hands C. feet D. shoulders Question 19: A figure like that is usually the ______ of many hours spent in the gym.

A. weight B. product C. item D. issue Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: After the party I collected up bottles from various parts of the house.

A. diverse B. current C. public D. formal Question 21: Accumulations of sand can be formed by the action of waves on coastal beaches.

A. Requirement B. Acquisition C. Inquiry D. Acknowledgement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: It is extremely unlikely that the new owner would want to make people redundant.

A. softly B. strictly C. speedily D. probably Question 23: Don’t get angry with such a thing. It’s only a storm in a teacup.

A. commercial tension B. trivial thing C. serious problem D. financial issue Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Quang is asking Bach about the questions in the test.

Quang: “Was any of the questions difficult for you?”

Bach: “__________” A. No, I’m not.

B. The second one.

C. No one.

D. Please ask me again.

Question 25: Minh is asking his mother about attending a Chinese language course.

Minh: “Do I have to take that Chinese language course?”

Minh’s mother: “__________” A. It’s up to you.

B. Welcome to China. C. Thank you.

D. No, you have to.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Human beings have become an increasingly powerful environmental force over the last 10,000 years. With the advent of agriculture (26) ________ started about 8,000 years ago, we began to change the land. And with the industrial revolution, we began to (27) ________ our atmosphere. The recent increase in the world’s population has magnified the effects of our agricultural and economic activities. But the growth in world population has masked what may be an even more important human-environmental interaction: (28) ________ the world’s population is doubling, the world’s urban population is tripling. Within the next few years, more than half the world’s population will be living in urban areas.

The level and growth of urbanization differ considerably by region. Among developing countries, Latin American countries have the highest proportion of their population living in urban areas. But East and South Asia are likely to have the fastest growth (29) ________ in the next 30 years. Almost all of future world population growth will be in towns and cities. (30) ________ the increase in and the redistribution of the earth’s population are likely to affect the natural systems of the earth and the interactions between the urban environments and populations.

Question 26: A. where B. that C. when D. who Question 27: A. release B. insist C. apply D. affect Question 28: A. While B. After C. Though D. Unless Question 29: A. tools B. rules C. rates D. chances Question 30: A. Both B. Either C. Each D. Some Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

As the world makes the transition to a clean energy future, sustainability is clearly a primary ingredient and priority in driving future economic growth. In fact, the adoption of sustainable measures across industries to reduce carbon emissions can save the global economy an estimated $26 trillion by 2030. The global finance industry needs to contribute.

Examining long-term sustainability of money is one way we can contribute. Most currencies today aren’t environmentally friendly, with the production and movement of money contributing to pollution, deforestation and a large carbon footprint. By offering an alternative to cash that is more efficient, accessible and sustainable, blockchain and digital assets are helping drive impact today—and their crucial role in creating a more sustainable future for finance will grow over time.

When it comes to sustainability, however, digital assets aren’t all made equally. Bitcoin is arguably the most widely known cryptocurrency, but by no means, is it the most sustainable.

Current cryptocurrency mining methods consume relatively large amounts of energy. In 2019 alone, Bitcoin transactions consumed almost as much energy as the country of Portugal does on average, each year. In contrast, the digital asset XRP is a staggering 61,000x more energy efficient than Bitcoin.

With the adoption of innovative financial technologies like cryptocurrency and blockchain, we must prioritize sustainability in parallel with this push toward digitization.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The Global Finance Industry B. Sustainability Informs Future Economic Growth C. Production and Movement of Money D. Amounts of Energy in 2019 Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. alternative to cash B. digital assets C. impact D. carbon footprint Question 33: The word “accessible” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. remarkable B. comfortable C. acceptable D. attainable

Question 34: According to paragraph 3, cryptocurrency like Bitcoin is by no means sustainable because ______.

A. The production and movement of cryptocurrency cause pollution B. It emits a large carbon footprint C. Bitcoin transactions consumed much energy D. It contribute nothing to global finance industry Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a drawback of most currencies today?

A. deforestation B. slow transition C. carbon footprint D. pollution Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Given the American manufacturing tradition, it was also inevitable that cars would be produced in larger volume at lower prices than in Europe. The absence of tariff barriers between the states encouraged sales over a wide geographic area. Cheap raw materials and a chronic shortage of skilled labour early encouraged the mechanization of industrial processes in the United States.

This in turn required the standardization of products and resulted in the volume production of such commodities as firearms, sewing machines, bicycles, and many other items. In 1913, the United States produced some 485,000 of the world total of 606,124 motor vehicles.

The Ford Motor Company greatly outpaced its competitors in reconciling state-of-the-art design with moderate price. Cycle and Automobile Trade Journal called the four-cylinder, fifteenhorsepower, $600 Ford Model N (1906-1907) “the very first instance of a low-cost motorcar driven by a gas engine having cylinders enough to give the shaft a turning impulse in each shaft turn which is well built and offered in large numbers.” Deluged with orders, Ford installed improved production equipment and after 1906 was able to make deliveries of a hundred cars a day.

Encouraged by the success of the Model N, Henry Ford was determined to build an even better “car for the great multitude.” The four-cylinder, twenty-horsepower Model T, first offered in October 1908, sold for $825. Its two-speed planetary transmission made it easy to drive, and features such as its detachable cylinder head made it easy to repair. Its high chassis was designed to clear the bumps in rural roads. Vanadium steel made the Model T a lighter and tougher car, and new methods of casting parts (especially block casting of the engine) helped keep the price down.

Committed to large-volume production of the Model T, Ford innovated modern mass production techniques at his new Highland Park, Michigan plant, which opened in 1910 although he did not introduce the moving assembly line until 1913-1914. The Model T runabout sold for $575 in 1912, less than the average annual wage in the United States.

By the time the Model T was withdrawn from production in 1927, its price had been reduced to $290 for the coupe, 15 million units had been sold, and mass personal “automobility” had become a reality.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Tariff Barriers B. Ford Model N C. Model T D. Highland Park, Michigan

Question 37: The word “moderate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. reasonable B. endurable C. comfortable D. reliable Question 38: In paragraph 1, the mechanization of industrial processes in the United States was the result of ______.

A. American manufacturing tradition B. larger volume of production C. the shortage of skilled labour D. a wide geographic area Question 39: The word “detachable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. inactive B. removable C. excellent D. imaginative Question 40: The word “its” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.

A. reality B. coupe C. production D. Model T Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Mechanization of industrial processes didn’t require the standardization of products.

B. The Ford Motor Company greatly outpaced its competitors.

C. Twenty-horsepower Model T was first offered 1908, sold for $825.

D. Ford innovated modern mass production techniques in 1910.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. Large-volume production of the Model T couldn’t be operated.

B. New production techniques made the price of the Model T runabout reasonable.

C. Innovated modern mass production techniques failed to open in 1910.

D. The new Highland Park, Michigan plant was introduced in 1913-1914.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: The boy looked uncomfortable and out of place between the adults.

A. The boy B. uncomfortable C. out of D. between Question 44: When I was a girl, I walk five miles to school every day.

A. When B. walk C. miles D. every day Question 45: Many miners have suffered from the effects of coal dust in his lungs.

A. suffered B. the C. coal D. his Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: Perhaps they will build a new supermarket here.

A. They may build a new supermarket here. B. They should build a new supermarket here.

C. They mustn’t build a new supermarket here. D. They needn’t build a new supermarket here.

Question 47: He last spoke Chinese one year ago.

A. He didn’t speak Chinese one year ago.

B. He has spoken Chinese for one year.

C. He spoke Chinese for one year.

D. He hasn’t spoken Chinese for one year.

Question 48: “Let’s go for a walk today?” said Jane.

A. Jane promised to go for a walk today.

B. Jane suggested going for a walk that day.

C. Jane agreed to go for a walk that day.

D. Jane admitted going for a walk today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: We are too busy with chores. We really want to go camping now.

A. As long as we weren’t busy with chores, we will be able to go camping.

B. If we aren’t busy with chores, we can go camping now.

C. We wish weren’t busy with chores and could go camping now.

D. If only we hadn’t been busy with chores and could have gone camping.

Question 50: There was an explosion. The plane then dropped from the sky.

A. Not until had there been an explosion did the plane drop from the sky.

B. Had the plane dropped from the sky, there would be an explosion.

C. Only after the plane dropped from the sky was there an explosion.

D. Having dropped from the sky, there was an explosion.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 6 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated Question 2: A. shoe B. hoe C. doe D. toe Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. obey B. forbid C. current D. donate Question 4: A. efficient B. addicted C. historic D. fantasy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The station was closed for two hours because of a ______ alert.

A. shopping B. information C. safety D. security Question 6: People are worried about inflation biting into their savings and ______ .

A. departments B. managements C. investments D. developments Question 7: If we could all ______ an effort to keep this office tidier it would help.

A. make B. take C. have D. move Question 8: My birthday seems to ______ more quickly every year.

A. come on B. come around C. turn on D. turn around Question 9: Children rarely show any ______ for what their parents do for them.

A. appreciate B. appreciative C. appreciation D. appreciatively Question 10: ________ the fire for 12 hours, the firemen were able to put it out.

A. Fought B. To fight C. Being fought D. Having fought Question 11: I went to the post office straight ______.

A. before I leave you B. after I left you C. because I had left you D. as long as I will leave you Question 12: I presume that they're not coming ______ they haven't replied to the invitation.

A. in spite of B. unless C. because of D. since Question 13: When I opened the door yesterday, the wind ______ very hard.

A. blows B. will blow C. was blowing D. blew Question 14: We are happy today because today is a ________ day.

A. memorable training long B. long memorable training C. memorable long training D. training memorable long Question 15: ______ you study, the more you will learn.

A. The harder B. Harder C. The hardest D. Hardest Question 16: We're having a collection ______ Tom's retirement present.

A. without B. during C. for D. into

Question 17: If I didn’t do my job properly, I __________.

A. would sack B. would be sacked C. would have sacked D. would be sacking Question 18: I'd love to buy a Porsche, but they cost an arm and a ______.

A. hand B. leg C. nail D. palm Question 19: This map has contours marked at 250-metre intervals, ______?

A. was it B. isn’t it C. did it D. doesn’t it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: I went to the meeting armed with the relevant facts and figures.

A. separate B. significant C. excellent D. natural Question 21: Ever since the advent of hi-fi, nobody has paid real money for a real band in this country.

A. import

B. disappearance

C. arrival

D. introduction

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Some senators reacted angrily to the president's remarks.

A. aggressively B. thankfully C. surprisingly D. amicably Question 23: It is important to keep in touch with the latest research.

A. lose contact with B. look forward to C. pay attention to D. be interested in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Hoa’s father is asking her about her new job in the bank.

Hoa’s father: “Do you enjoy your new job in that bank?”

Hoa: “__________” A. Yes, I did.

B. Thank you for asking.

C. Not very much.

D. Why not enjoying?

Question 25: Jack is offering something to David to drink.

Jack: “Would you like a cup of coffee please?”

David: “__________” A. No coffee.

B. No, thanks.

C. No, I wouldn’t D. Yes, ok.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Research on the impacts of mass media began in the 1920s and 1930s, with the rise of muckraking journalism—elites became concerned about the effects of investigative reporting in magazines such as McClure's on political decision-making. Mass media became a prominent (26) ________ of study in the 1950s after television became widely available, and academic departments dedicated to communication studies were (27) ________. These early studies investigated the cognitive, emotional, attitudinal, and behavioural effects of media on both children and adults; in the 1990s, researchers began to use those earlier studies to draw up theories (28) ________ concerned the use of media today.

In the 1970s theorists such as Marshall McLuhan and Irving J. Rein warned that media critics needed to watch how media affects people. Today, this remains a key concern; (29) ________ attention has been paid, for example, to the impact on the 2016 election of false messaging distributed on social media. (30) ________ the myriad forms of mass communication available today have also encouraged some researchers to begin to investigate "what people do with media."

Question 26: A. career B. shape C. focus D. cycle Question 27: A. created B. claimed C. expressed D. struggled Question 28: A. who B. which C. when D. where Question 29: A. every B. another C. much D. many Question 30: A. So B. Although C. Because D. But Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Internet of Things (IoT) is considered the third revolution of the computer, after the first revolution of bringing computing to governments and big companies and the second one to the public via PC and smartphone. IoT aims at baking computing power into everything else via countless tiny chips, which will enable them to calculate, process information and decide, by gathering and analysing troves of data about the product, process and customers. A computerised world will allow its inhabitants to quantify and analyse all manner of things that used to be intuitive and inexact. The direct market size of IoT will be $320 billion by 2027, according to GSMA. Although it is hard to predict the exact impact of IoT on economics, it is believed to be over $500 billion by 2021 and $1 trillion by 2025.

Expanding from the computer to everything else, IoT projects are found to be very fragmented. Some IoT projects are led by the government, such as smart traffic systems, to reduce waiting times or mandate the use of smart meters. Some projects are utilised in the industry with the aims to improve productivity. One example is the use of advanced algorithms to predict the downtime of machines and schedule maintenance before it happens. Other IoT projects focus on consumers; one of the hot topics is the smart home, including smart speakers, smart lighting, remote-controlled appliances etc.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The first revolution of computing B. Benefits of a computerised world C. IoT projects around the world D. IoT Applications: Great Opportunities to Come Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. computing power B. everything C. tiny chips D. information Question 33: According to paragraph 1, people around the world can quantify and analyse all manner of things exactly thanks to ______.

A. the revolution of big companies B. a computerised system C. the impacts led by the government D. the direct market size Question 34: The word “fragmented” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. divided B. united C. embarrassed D. interested

Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an application of IoT projects?

A. Smart traffic systems C. Productivity improvement

B. Prediction of industry development D. Remote-controlled appliances

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Whereas currents arise in areas of Earth where water is "supposed" to be, floods, by definition, do not. They often occur in valleys or on coastlines and can be caused by various natural and man-made factors. Among natural causes are rains and the melting of snow and ice, while human-related causes can include poor engineering of irrigation or other water-management systems as well as the bursting of dams. In addition, the building of settlements too close to rivers and other bodies of water that are prone to flooding has resulted in the increase of human casualties from flooding over the centuries.

In terms of natural causes, changes in weather patterns typically are involved—but not always. For example, a low-lying coastal area may be susceptible to flooding at times when the ocean reaches high tide. On the other hand, such weather conditions as low barometric pressure and high winds also can bring about heightened high tides. Additionally, floods can be caused by earthquakes and other geologic phenomena that have no relation to the weather.

From ancient times people have located settlements near water. This settlement pattern resulted from the obvious benefits that accrued from access to water, and even though flooding was naturally a hazard in some cases flooding itself was found to be beneficial. For the ancient Egyptians, the yearly cycles of flooding on the part of the Nile caused the deposition of rich soil, which played a major part in the fertility of the farmlands that, in turn, made possible the brilliant civilization of the pharaohs.

Along with these benefits, however, ancient peoples learned to fear the changes in weather and other circumstances that could bring about sudden flooding. This feeling is reflected, for instance, in Jesus' parable about the wise and foolish house builders. In the parable, a favourite Sunday school topic, the foolish man builds his house upon the sand, so that when the floods come, they sweep away his household. On the other hand, the wise man builds his house on rock, so that his household withstands the inevitable flood—an illustration about spiritual values that likewise reflects a reality of daily life in the ancient Near East.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Changes in Weather B. Settlements Near Water C. House Builders D. Flooding Question 37: The word “susceptible” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. cautious B. vulnerable C. immodest D. precious Question 38: In paragraph 1, living too close to rivers and other bodies of water has resulted to ______.

A. increasing human casualties from flooding B. currents arising in many areas of Earth C. floods due to man-made factors D. the bursting of dams

Question 39: The word “hazard” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. danger B. product C. direction D. context Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. circumstances B. builders C. floods D. values Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Poor engineering of irrigation is a human-related cause to floods.

B. Floods are not caused by phenomena not related to the weather.

C. Yearly flooding causes the deposition of rich soil.

D. The changes in weather could bring about sudden flooding.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. In ancient time, flooding brought about a lot of benefits.

B. Even a foolish house builders could make a house for himself.

C. Flooding was inevitable, and people of ancient time learnt to get used to it.

D. Floods swept away the household though the owner was a wise man.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: There were scenes of great joy as the hostages were re-united with her families.

A. There B. as C. re-united D. her Question 44: The movie was an instant success and went on to beat five Academy Awards.

A. was B. and C. to beat D. Academy Awards Question 45: The children were doing their homework when I get home.

A. The

B. their

C. when

D. get

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “I’m sorry I have to leave so early,” he said.

A. He apologized for having to leave early.

B. He urged to have to leave early.

C. He imagined having to leave early.

D. He denied having to leave early.

Question 47: If I were you, I would go to bed early every day.

A. You may not go to bed early every day.

B. You should go to bed early every day.

C. You must go to bed early every day.

D. You needn’t go to bed early every day.

Question 48: She bought a new mobile phone 3 years ago.

A. She hasn’t bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.

B. She didn’t buy a new mobile phone 3 years ago.

C. She has bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.

D. She bought a new mobile phone for 3 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: They work so slowly. I really want the work finished faster.

A. Unless they work so slowly, they can’t finish the work faster.

B. While they work so slowly, I really want the work finished faster.

C. I wish they didn’t work so slowly and could finish the work faster.

D. Now that they work so slowly, they can finish the work faster.

Question 50: He did not appear at work. His colleagues then became suspicious.

A. Having become suspicious, he did not appear at work.

B. Had his colleagues become suspicious, he wouldn’t appear at work.

C. Only after his colleagues became suspicious did he not appear at work.

D. Not until he hadn’t appeared at work did his colleagues become suspicious.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 7 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. needed B. washed C. laughed D. watched Question 2: A. slide B. side C. knit D. five Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. afford B. graceful C. become D. impaired Question 4: A. musical B. library C. applicant D. organic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: You haven’t got a family of squirrels living in your garden, ______?

A. have you B. are you C. did you D. were you Question 6: The electric light bulb __________ by Thomas Edison.

A. was inventing B. invent C. was invented D. invented Question 7: Mix the butter ______ the sugar and then add the egg.

A. before B. by C. under D. with Question 8: The older he got, ______ he became.

A. quieter B. the quieter C. quietest D. the quietest Question 9: The flower girl wore a ________ dress at the wedding ceremony last night.

A. white silk pretty B. silk white pretty C. pretty white silk D. white pretty silk Question 10: I met many foreigners by the lake while I ______ home last night.

A. walk B. will walk C. walked D. was walking Question 11: I can testify to the foregoing ______ I was actually present when it happened.

A. since B. although C. thanks to D. because of Question 12: I'll call and tell you something ______.

A. after I've spoken to them B. when I had spoken to them C. since I will speak to them D. as soon as I was speaking to them Question 13: ________ me since 1990, she couldn't recgonize me at first.

A. Not being seen B. Not to see C. Not saw D. Not having seen Question 14: Satellite broadcasting is helping to ______ television.

A. globe B. global C. globally D. globalize Question 15: If you really ______ it, you'll probably find it's not such a good deal.

A. look up B. run up C. look into D. run into Question 16: The talks failed to ______ any progress toward a settlement.

A. ask B. make C. let D. call

Question 17: It was an unpopular ______ and caused a number of conflicts within the party.

A. policy B. unit C. status D. mood Question 18: I had to believe it, because it was there in black and ______.

A. grey B. green C. white D. blue Question 19: The secret to public speaking is to get the ______ on your side.

A. speaker B. audience C. manager D. producer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: We'll need accurate costings before we can agree to fund the scheme.

A. sensitive B. objective C. precise D. valuable Question 21: It was a mistake which eliminated any chance of an Australian victory.

A. theory

B. opportunity

C. software

D. problem

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Though he had tried to be enthusiastic about the plans, privately he felt more sceptical.

A. publicly B. vainly C. desperately D. secretly Question 23: He makes no bones about the fact that his apartment is a mess.

A. fails to ensure B. fails to confirm C. tries to show D. tries to hide Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: My father is suggesting eating out this evening.

My father: “Do you feel like eating out this evening?”

My mother: “__________” A. I’m sorry for that.

B. Why should we?

C. No, I think I can cook myself.

D. No, I don’t know.

Question 25: Linda is asking the hotel receptionist for help.

Linda: “Could you help me to carry this bag to my room please?”

Receptionist: “__________” A. Yes, you carry it. B. No, I don’t like.

C. Why me?

D. Sure!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The A380 is a modern icon that has flown over 500,000 revenue flights carrying over 190 million passengers. This includes more than 300 commercial (26) ________ per day, which take off or land around the world every two minutes.

Flying with the A380 is a unique experience that introduces passengers to new standards of in-flight comfort, from first class to economy. As the world’s largest and most spacious passenger aircraft, its cabin (27) ________ travellers to stretch out in the widest seats in a calm and relaxing environment. With the unparalleled freedom it gives passengers to move about the aircraft, it’s no surprise that the A380 is a favourite in all cabin classes.

The double-deck A380 makes excellent use of its space to offer passengers attainable luxury.

With enough room to install stylish first-class suites, an eye-catching bar or business areas, beautifully inviting cabin lighting and the quietest cabin in the sky, passengers can enjoy (28) ________ aspect of the flight (29) ________, thanks to innovative cabin air supply technology, will arrive at the destination feeling inspired and ready to go. The A380 Forward and aft lowerdeck cargo compartments are equipped with semi-automatic Cargo Loading Systems, (30) ________ operate independently.

Question 26: A. flights B. charts C. clubs D. clicks Question 27: A. delays B. covers C. allows D. divides Question 28: A. much B. every C. a few D. several Question 29: A. but B. though C. except D. and Question 30: A. where

B. which

C. who

D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

More and more, technology is moving to the cloud. It’s not just a fad — the shift away from traditional software models to software as a service, or Saas, has steadily gained momentum over the last 10 years. Looking ahead, the next decade of cloud computing promises even more ways to collaborate from anywhere, using mobile devices.

So what is cloud computing? Essentially, cloud computing is a kind of outsourcing of software, data storage, and processing. Users access applications and files by logging in from any device that has an internet connection. Information and programs are hosted by outside parties and reside on a global network of secure data centres instead of on the user’s hard drive. This frees up processing power, facilitates sharing and collaboration, and allows secure mobile access regardless of where the user is or what device is being used.

Cloud computing is a more efficient way of delivering computing resources. With cloud computing, software and service environments are subscription-based — users pay a monthly fee instead of buying licenses. Software and platforms are managed by the providers and are updated continuously for maximum performance and security. Computing power is remote instead of centralized, so users can tap into extra capacity if business spikes. Multiple people can access a shared program or file and collaborate in real time from different locations.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The Shift Away from Traditional Software B. What is Cloud Computing?

C. The Kind of Outsourcing of Software D. How are Software and Platforms Managed Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. device B. internet connection C. information and programs D. outside parties Question 33: The word “efficient” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. sensitive B. competitive C. alternative D. productive

Question 34: According to paragraph 3, software and platforms have the maximum performance and security because ______.

A. They don’t work as computing resources B. They require no subscription C. They are updated continuously D. They are centralized Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a good thing cloud computing can do?

A. Information and programs are on the user’s hard drive.

B. Freeing up processing power C. Facilitating sharing and collaboration D. Allowing secure mobile access Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The economic benefits from the expansion of Poland’s network of highways would have been much greater, had it not been for the excessive length of the investment process and the remarkably high construction costs. Protracted construction works mean longer traffic jams, and therefore longer delivery or commute times, higher fuel consumption, and higher financial costs.

The costs of motorway investments are much higher in Poland than that in the US. In the summer of 2018, Deputy Minister of Infrastructure and Construction Marek Chodkiewicz said that in the years 2013-2016 the construction of motorways cost an average of PLN53.1m (USD17.7m) per one kilometre (0.62 miles) , while the construction of expressways cost PLN38.7m (USD13m) per one kilometre in the years 2017-2018.

A comparison with the figures provided in the study by Allen and Arkolakis is not sufficiently reliable, because the Americans probably did not take into account the costs of road junctions, animal crossings, parallel roads for local traffic, etc. However, more reliable data are also available. The American Road and Transportation Builders Association reported that the average cost of a four-lane highway is USD4-6m per one mile in rural and suburban areas or USD8-10m in cities.

Most of this enormous difference in costs could probably be explained by the much smaller scope of works included in the American estimates, e.g. due to the fact that environmental requirements in the United States are much less stringent than in Europe. The fact that the average density of population and physical structures in the Unites States is much lower than in Poland could also have an impact on the costs. Another important factor reducing costs in the Unites States is probably the extensive experience and efficiency of local road construction giants, as well as greater market competition. However, a large part of the unfavourable difference in prices can still be blamed on the low efficiency of the investment process in Poland.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Protracted Construction Works B. Average Cost of A Four-lane Highway C. Density of Population in The Unites States D. Road Investments in Poland Are Slow and Expensive

Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. consumption B. costs C. investments D. Poland Question 38: In paragraph 1, protracted construction works cause all of the following except ______.

A. longer traffic jams B. longer commute times C. higher fuel consumption D. lower investments in summer Question 39: The word “figures” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. agencies B. categories C. statistics D. powers Question 40: The word “enormous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. huge B. mild C. magic D. fierce Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Poland had to pay USD13m for one kilometre of expressway in the years 2017-2018.

B. The average cost of a four-lane highway in the US is USD8-10m per one mile in cities.

C. The physical structures in the Unites States and Poland are similar.

D. The low efficiency of the investment process in Poland is the main cause.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?

A. The difference in costs of highway construction is due to many reasons.

B. America can do better, so has cheaper highway than Poland.

C. Poland must change its environmental requirements to have cheaper expressways.

D. Poland should hire American road construction giants with extensive experience and efficiency.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: My boss’ anger suddenly erupts into furious shouting several days ago.

A. boss’ B. suddenly C. erupts D. furious Question 44: I've had continual problems with these car ever since I bought it.

A. had B. problems C. these D. bought Question 45: In principal there is nothing that a human can do that a machine might not be able to do one day.

A. In principal B. that C. be able to D. one day Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: He started learning French six years ago.

A. He started learning French for 6 years.

B. He has learnt French for six years.

C. He hasn’t learnt French for six years.

D. He didn’t start learning English 6 years ago.

Question 47: “Why don’t you put a better lock on the door?” said John.

A. John promised to put better lock on the door B. John asked to put a better lock on the door.

C. John suggested putting a better lock on the door.

D. John refused to put a better lock on the door.

Question 48: If I were you, I would find a better job with higher salary.

A. You should find a better job with higher salary.

B. You have to find a better job with higher salary.

C. You can find a better job with higher salary.

D. You mustn’t find a better job with higher salary.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: She is not good at English. She really wants to communicate with foreigners.

A. In case she is good at English, she wants to communicate with foreigners.

B. As soon as she is good at English, she will be able to communicate with foreigners.

C. Until she is good at English, she can communicate with foreigners.

D. She wishes she were good at English and could communicate with foreigners.

Question 50: My car engine overheated. It made a strange grinding noise.

A. No sooner had my car engine overheated than it made a strange grinding noise.

B. Had it not been for my overheated car engine, it wouldn’t have made a strange grinding noise.

C. Not only did my car engine overheat but it also made a strange grinding noise.

D. However my car engine overheated, it was making a strange grinding noise.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 8 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked Question 2: A. boost B. flood C. food D. shoot Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. compare B. global C. native D. billion Question 4: A. dominant B. confident C. piano D. serious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: I was just getting into the bath ______.

A. because the phone B. when the phone rang C. as long as the phone had rung D. if the phone was ringing Question 6: ________ my keys, I wasn’t able to get into the house and had to wait until Ann got home.

A. Having lost B. Being lost C. To lose D. Lost Question 7: He gave up work because of ill health, ______?

A. wasn’t he B. is he C. didn’t he D. does he Question 8: The director will introduce the film ______ at its world premiere.

A. person B. personal C. personally D. personalize Question 9: Mickey Mouse cartoons __________ into sixty languages.

A. have translated B. have been translating C. had translated D. have been translated Question 10: The military government is determined to ______ all opposition.

A. bring on B. bring down C. put on D. put down Question 11: It's about half a kilometre ______ your hotel to the town centre.

A. from B. between C. to D. with Question 12: Our firm ______ a lot of business with overseas customers.

A. checks B. does C. turns D. buys Question 13: The warmer the weather is, ______ I like it.

A. the best B. best C. the better D. better Question 14: The report shows that poor families spend a larger proportion of their ______ on food.

A. income B. effort C. heart D. advice Question 15: She has ________ eyes, so she is really different from others.

A. big glassy blue B. glassy blue big C. blue big glassy D. glassy big blue

Question 16: There are serious penalties for ______ to comply with the regulations.

A. collection B. failure C. success D. attitude Question 17: She ______ me back when she has finished her work.

A. called B. calls C. was calling D. will call Question 18: Each time they asked him a question he was like a deer ______ in the headlights.

A. carried B. taken C. brought D. caught Question 19: It was another half hour ______ the ambulance finally arrived.

A. despite B. before C. because of D. unless Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: There has been a dramatic shift in public opinion towards peaceful negotiations.

A. exciting B. existing C. confident D. general Question 21: Successful applicants will receive notification within the week.

A. patient B. scientist C. candidates D. secretary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The plan to build the road through the forest is wholly misconceived.

A. perfectly B. readily C. totally D. partially Question 23: You'd think he would have blown his lid when he realized the chef was downstairs.

A. become tired B. stayed calm C. felt happy D. been furious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Khanh is requesting her sister to help her with the chore.

Khanh: “I wonder if you could do the washing for me today?”

Khanh’s sister: “__________” A. No problem.

B. Why do I have to?

C. Thank you so much.

D. Yes, you do it now.

Question 25: Mark is asking Laura for the help of typing the letter.

Mark: “Could you help me type this letter please?”

Laura: “__________” A. I can.t agree more.

B. No matter what you say.

C. Sorry, I’m busy now.

D. I appreciate it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Whether we would agree to it or not, gender to has a major influence on our career choice.

Around the world, there are various gender stereotypes at play and from a very young age, we are encouraged and even trained to adhere to these gender stereotypes (26) _______ we like it or not.

If in a particular field women are preferred for a job, then it is likely that the men will always be offered a less salary. On the (27) _______ end of the spectrum if men are preferred for a given

position then the women are invariably paid less. It is mostly women (28) _______ are made to feel that they are incompetent and will not be able to do the task as well as men.

Nothing is ever certain in the business world. If you wish to succeed in life you must turn a deaf (29) _______ to what others are saying and pay attention to what your heart is telling you to do. Irrespective of how strong these various individual influences are in your life, you must ensure that you do not let them (30) _______ unnecessary control over your emotions. If you do through your life trying to live up to the impossible expectations of a third person, you will never be able to find true contentment. Constantly trying to silence your inner desires is surely going to make you have many regrets in the time to come.

Question 26: A. but B. so C. and D. whether Question 27: A. many B. same C. other D. another Question 28: A. when Question 29: A. ear Question 30: A. fill

B. who B. nose B. pull

C. which C. eye C. take

D. where D. cheek D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Blockchain seems complicated, and it definitely can be, but its core concept is really quite simple. A blockchain is a type of database. To be able to understand blockchain, it helps to first understand what a database actually is.

A database is a collection of information that is stored electronically on a computer system.

Information, or data, in databases is typically structured in table format to allow for easier searching and filtering for specific information. What is the difference between someone using a spreadsheet to store information rather than a database?

Spreadsheets are designed for one person, or a small group of people, to store and access limited amounts of information. In contrast, a database is designed to house significantly larger amounts of information that can be accessed, filtered, and manipulated quickly and easily by any number of users at once.

Large databases achieve this by housing data on servers that are made of powerful computers. These servers can sometimes be built using hundreds or thousands of computers in order to have the computational power and storage capacity necessary for many users to access the database simultaneously. While a spreadsheet or database may be accessible to any number of people, it is often owned by a business and managed by an appointed individual that has complete control over how it works and the data within it.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. What is Large Databases?

B. Collection of Information C. Database designed to house more information D. Computational Power and Storage Capacity Question 32: According to paragraph 2, information in databases is easier to search and filter because ______.

A. it is complicated without any core concept B. it shares nothing with any other type of database C. it is typically structured in table format D. it uses a spreadsheet to store information Question 33: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. database B. information C. users D. people Question 34: The word “powerful” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. decent B. obvious C. severe D. mighty Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of large databases?

A. Their servers are made of powerful computers.

B. Their servers consist of hundreds or thousands of computers.

C. Their data can be accessed simultaneously by many users.

D. They are owned by a business.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Finnish government will be adding a digital ID option to supplement its passport requirements by 2023, reports VerietyInfo. The move will help assist around one million Finnish citizens who do not own a valid form of identification, many of them being minors. According to the report the nation has also seen a decrease in child passports and certificates.

Authorities attribute the decline in passport and ID applications to the ongoing pandemic.

Within one year, passport and ID ownership in Finland has fallen from 4.35 million to 4.18.

“Traditionally, the Finns update these documents very quickly. The COVID period had a significant impact on this,” said the Police Department Inspector General Juhani Rouuta.

Despite this temporary decline, Finland is expecting passport applications to spike again once travel picks up again post-COVID. The Finnish digital ID will not only supplement passports, which are still required for travel but also help individuals authenticate themselves with more ease for business and other digital transactions.

According to Information Management Advisor Maria Nikkilä, the new digital ID will be easy-to-use for individuals who have difficulties in acquiring and using mobile devices and other digital means. “The idea is also that in addition to the mobile application, an alternative device will be offered, such as a pen that can be connected to a computer,” says Nikkilä. “So, owning a phone won’t be a mandatory requirement.”

Whether or not Finland will adopt a digital ID for international travel remains to be seen.

“International research is being conducted on the possibility of a digital travel document. It has long-term goals worldwide. In a few years, it will probably be possible in a certain area, such as Europe,” Rouuta added. This year, the country will be adding fingerprint biometrics to its identity cards, following new EU regulations.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Finland to Introduce Digital ID by 2023 B. Impacts of the COVID Period in Findland

C. More Ease for Business in Findland

D. Mobile Devices and Other Digital Means

Question 37: The word “decline” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. revenue B. decrease C. device D. solution Question 38: In paragraph 2, authorities assume the reason for the decline in passport and ID applications to be ______.

A. the Finns’ traditionally slow action B. the close of Police Department C. the pandemic D. the useless ID card Question 39: The word “mandatory” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. coherent B. fantastic C. compulsory D. gigantic Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. international travel B. research C. possibility D. digital travel document Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Around one million Finnish citizens do not have a valid form of identification.

B. The Finnish digital ID will not supplement passports.

C. The new digital ID will be very easy to use.

D. A digital travel document has long-term goals worldwide.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. Application of digital ID is essential and inevitable in Finland and EU. B. It’s sure that Finland will adopt a digital ID in 2023.

C. International research showed that a digital travel document is unnecessary.

D. Fingerprint biometrics will be added to Finnish passports.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: You looked equally nice in both dresses - I wouldn't know which one to advice you to buy.

A. equally nice B. wouldn't know C. advice D. to buy Question 44: When they got home last night. They found that someone have broken into the house.

A. When B. that C. have broken D. house Question 45: Is there any significant difference in quality between this two items?

A. any B. difference C. quality D. this Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: It’s not good for you to eat so much sugar every day.

A. You needn’t eat so much sugar every day. B. You must eat so much sugar every day.

C. You may eat so much sugar every day.

D. You shouldn’t eat so much sugar every day.

Question 47: She started to work as a journalist three months ago.

A. She has worked as journalist for three months.

B. She started to work as a journalist for three months.

C. She hasn’t worked as a journalist for three months.

D. She didn’t start to work as a journalist three months ago.

Question 48: “Would you like to stay for dinner?” she asked me.

A. She insisted me on staying for dinner.

C. She promised me to stay for dinner.

B. She invited me to stay for dinner.

D. She ordered me to stay for dinner.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Nga doesn’t have a new computer. She really needs it to finish her thesis early.

A. Nga wishes she had a new computer and could finish her thesis early.

B. As long as Nga has a new computer, she will be able to finish her thesis early.

C. Nga not only has a new computer but she also needs to finish her thesis early.

D. Before Nga has a new computer, she needs to finish her thesis early.

Question 50: He is a brave person. He can die for his beliefs.

A. However brave he is, he can die for his beliefs.

B. Not only is he a brave person but he can also die for his beliefs.

C. No sooner had he been a brave person than he could die for his beliefs.

D. Had it not been for his bravery, he couldn’t have died for his beliefs.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 9 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. watched B. astonished C. closed D. cooked Question 2: A. nail B. faint C. fail D. fair Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. flashy B. protect C. coffee D. current Question 4: A. historic B. privacy C. principle D. charity Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: She was 74 years of age ______.

A. in case she was writing her first novel B. as soon as she has written her first novel C. when she wrote her first novel D. before she had written her first novel Question 6: Television is an increasingly important means of ______.

A. protection B. communication C. agreement D. membership Question 7: ______ we make a decision, does anyone want to say anything else?

A. After B. Despite C. Before D. Therefore Question 8: Acupuncture has long been a part of traditional Chinese ______.

A. currency B. medicine C. communication D. martial art Question 9: When he was busy with his work, his mother ______ care of his son.

A. was taking B. takes C. will take D. took Question 10: Who ______ most of the cooking in your house?

A. holds B. deals C. makes D. does Question 11: She has a ________ face, so she is quite beautiful.

A. oval happy pretty B. happy pretty oval C. pretty oval happy D. pretty happy oval Question 12: We'll need to ______ some of the budget for travel later in the year.

A. keep back B. keep away C. call back D. call away Question 13: The colder it is, ______ I get.

A. hungriest B. the hungriest C. hungrier D. the hungrier Question 14: The meeting is on the fifth and we're hoping everyone will ______.

A. attend B. attention C. attentive D. attentively Question 15: He learned English ______ listening to the radio.

A. under B. over C. at D. by Question 16: ________ classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in public.

A. Studied B. To study C. Being studied D. Having studied

Question 17: If it is foggy, that sport event __________.

A. will be cancelled B. will cancel C. will be calcelling D. will have cancelled Question 18: The tabloid press had a ______ day with the latest government scandal.

A. hard B. field C. nice D. great Question 19: The bank has streamlined systems for switching accounts, ______?

A. had it B. hasn’t it C. has it D. hadn’t it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: In cases of severe mental handicap, constant supervision is recommended.

A. serious B. negative C. opposite D. effective Question 21: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US. A. awareness

B. tension

C. confusion

D. delivery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: When you fill in the form, please write clearly in black ink.

A. freely B. vaguely C. frankly D. hardly Question 23: In the initial days and weeks, it was literally a case of living from hand to mouth.

A. sending all the money B. spending a large amount of money C. saving lots of money D. losing all the money Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Nam is talking to his father about the driving test the next week.

Nam: “Do you think I can pass my driving test next week?”

Nam’s father: “__________” A. Don’t pass it.

B. Go ahead. You can!

C. No way.

D. No, you can’t.

Question 25: Trang is asking her father for permission to use the car.

Trang: “May I borrow your car tonight?”

Trang’s father: “__________” A. Yes, you can’t.

B. No, it’s mine.

C. I’d love to.

D. I’m afraid you can’t.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Jet lag occurs when you travel across multiple time zones and have trouble adjusting to the new schedule. After traveling a long distance by air, your circadian (26) ________ may still be aligned with the previous time zone. Your body may expect to sleep when it is daytime in the new time zone or be awake when you are supposed to sleep.

Jet lag is a temporary condition. It may begin (27) ________ you travel across at least two time zones. The severity of the jet lag depends on how many time zones (28) ________ you crossed and which direction you travelled. Flying east is usually more difficult of an adjustment than

westward travel. It is estimated that it takes one day per time zone for your body clock to fully adjust to local time.

You may have a difficult time functioning when you are jet lagged. You may not feel awake and alert when you need to do your job, socialize or sightsee. Anyone of any age can have jet lag, although older adults are likely to have (29) ________ severe jet lag, and may need a much longer time to (30) ________ . Some people are able to adjust more quickly than others to rapid shifts in time zones. Pilots, flight attendants and business travellers are most likely to have jet lag due to their lifestyle.

Question 26: A. corners B. rhythms C. degrees D. tickets Question 27: A. after B. but C. before D. until Question 28: A. whom B. when C. that D. who Question 29: A. another Question 30: A. recover

B. many B. respond

C. every C. connect

D. more D. cancel

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Cloud computing services are operated from giant datacentres around the world. AWS divides this up by 'regions' and 'availability zones'. Each AWS region is a separate geographic area, like EU (London) or US West (Oregon), which AWS then further subdivides into what it calls availability zones (AZs). An AZ is composed of one or more datacentres that are far enough apart that in theory a single disaster won't take both offline, but close enough together for business continuity applications that require rapid failover. Each AZ has multiple internet connections and power connections to multiple grids: AWS has over 50 AZs. Google uses a similar model, dividing its cloud computing resources into regions which are then subdivided into zones, which include one or more datacentres from which customers can run their services. It currently has 15 regions made up of 44 zones: Google recommends customers deploy applications across multiple zones and regions to help protect against unexpected failures.

Microsoft Azure divides its resources slightly differently. It offers regions which it describes as is a "set of datacentres deployed within a latency-defined perimeter and connected through a dedicated regional low-latency network". It also offers 'geographies' typically containing two or more regions, that can be used by customers with specific data-residency and compliance needs "to keep their data and apps close". It also offers availability zones made up of one or more data centres equipped with independent power, cooling and networking.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Separate AWS Region According to Geographic Areas B. Cloud computing region and computing availability zone C. Cloud computing resources of Google D. How Microsoft Azure divides its resources Question 32: According to paragraph 1, datacentres in an AZ are neither too far nor too near from one another because ______.

A. they have to be able to avoid disaster and ensure rapid failover

B. they have multiple internet connections and power connections C. they have multiple grids of AWS D. they are divided into 'regions' and 'availability zones' Question 33: The word “similar” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. available B. capable C. comparable D. remarkable Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. Microsoft Azure B. resources C. datacentres D. regions Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of Microsoft Azure?

A. It offers availability zones made up of only one data centre.

B. It offers regions which it describes as is a set of datacentres.

C. Its datacentres are deployed within a latency-defined perimeter.

D. It offers geographies typically containing two or more regions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

As Hubble orbits Earth, the Fine Guidance Sensors lock onto stars. The Fine Guidance Sensors are part of the Pointing Control System and aim Hubble in the right direction. The telescope can lock onto a target that is one mile away without moving more than the width of a human hair.

Once the target is acquired, Hubble's primary mirror collects light. The mirror can collect about 40,000 times more light than the human eye. The light bounces off the primary mirror to the secondary mirror. The secondary mirror focuses the light back through a hole in the primary mirror. From there, the light shines to Hubble's scientific instruments. Each instrument has a different way of interpreting the light.

Hubble has five scientific instruments which include cameras and spectrographs. A spectrograph is an instrument that splits light into its individual wavelengths.

The Wide Field Camera 3 is Hubble’s main camera. It studies everything from the formation of distant galaxies to the planets in the solar system. The camera can see three different kinds of light: near-ultraviolet, visible and near-infrared. But Hubble can only see each kind of light one at a time. Human eyes can see visible light. Near-ultraviolet and near-infrared are just beyond what our eyes can see.

The Advanced Camera for Surveys captures images of large areas of space. These images have helped scientists study some of the earliest activity in the universe.

The Cosmic Origins Spectrograph reads ultraviolet light. This spectrograph studies how galaxies, stars and planets formed and changed.

The Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph helps scientists determine the temperature, chemical composition, density and motion of objects in space. It also has been used to detect black holes.

The Near Infrared Camera and Multi-Object Spectrometer, or NICMOS, sees objects in deep space by sensing the heat they emit. It captures images and it is also a spectrograph. NICMOS helps scientists study how stars, galaxies and planetary systems form.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. the Fine Guidance Sensors B. Hubble's primary mirror C. The Advanced Camera for Surveys D. What Instruments Are on Hubble?

Question 37: The word “instruments” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. apartments B. apparatuses C. collections D. communities Question 38: In paragraph 2, the light shone to Hubble's scientific instruments will be ______.

A. interpreted by the instruments B. targeted by Hubble's primary mirror C. made visible to human eye D. observed through a hole Question 39: The word “distant” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. remote B. sturdy C. shadowy D. awesome Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.

A. temperature B. chemical composition C. Space Telescope Imaging Spectrograph D. space Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. A target can be locked onto one mile away by the telescope.

B. Light cannot be split into its individual wavelengths by a spectrograph.

C. Hubble can see each kind of light one at a time.

D. Images captured by the Advanced Camera for Surveys will be used to study activities in the universe.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 7?

A. NICMOS can see objects in deep space by sensing the heat only.

B. NICMOS captures images like an ordinary camera.

C. The way stars, galaxies and planetary systems form can be studied with NICMOS. D. NICMOS helps scientists reach stars and other galaxies earlier.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: The ancient Britons inhabited this parts of England before the Roman invasion.

A. The B. this C. before D. invasion Question 44: A dangerous number of radioactivity was released into the environment last month.

A. number of B. was released C. the D. last month Question 45: When I reach there, the highest building had been destroyed by the storm!

A. reach B. the C. destroyed D. the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t go abroad at this time,” he said.

A. He reminded me not to go abroad at this time.

B. He informed me not to go abroad at that time.

C. He advised me not to go abroad at that time.

D. He inquired me not to go abroad at this time.

Question 47: It’s not good for you to drive at that high speed.

A. You may drive at that high speed.

B. You needn’t drive at that high speed.

C. You must drive at that high speed.

D. You shouldn’t drive at that high speed.

Question 48: The police started investigating the case a week ago.

A. The police didn’t investigate the case a week ago.

B. The police haven’t investigated the case for a week.

C. The police have investigated the case for a week.

D. The police started to investigate the case for a week.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I can’t sing that English song. I really want to sing it with my favourite singer.

A. Although I can’t sing that English song, I will sing it with my favourite singer.

B. I wish I could sing that English song and could sing it with my favourite singer.

C. Since I can’t sing that English song, I can sing it with my favourite singer.

D. Though I can’t sing that English song, I will be able to sing it with my favourite singer.

Question 50: The doctor's waiting room was bright. It was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

A. Not only was the doctor's waiting room bright but it was also cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

B. However the doctor's waiting room was, it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

C. No sooner had the doctor's waiting room been bright than it was cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

D. Had it not been for the doctor's bright waiting room, it wouldn’t have been cheerful with yellow walls and curtains.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 10 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. looked B. visited C. watched D. passed Question 2: A. come B. month C. some D. comb Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. digest B. country C. flora D. fortune Question 4: A. interact B. entertain C. fantastic D. submarine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The nuclear plant provides a fifth of the nation's ______ supplies.

A. labour B. vegetable C. water D. energy Question 6: ________ the dog coming towards her, she quickly crossed the road.

A. saw B. To see C. Having seen D. Being seen Question 7: A joke can be very revealing about what someone's ______ thinking.

A. real B. reality C. realize D. really Question 8: They ______ the proposal and decided to give it their approval.

A. talked out B. talked over C. pulled out D. pulled over Question 9: If you cook a good meal for the family, I'll ______ the washing-up.

A. do B. catch C. touch D. hit Question 10: The children were vaccinated against the major childhood ______.

A. activities B. memories C. diseases D. mistakes Question 11: The crisis hasn’t led to price rises in basic foodstuffs, ______?

A. hasn’t it B. has it C. hadn’t it D. had it Question 12: The examinees __________ the result of the examination next week.

A. will tell B. will be told C. will have told D. will be telling Question 13: I really don't know what all the fuss is ______ .

A. with B. at C. about D. on Question 14: The more I know him, ______ I like him.

A. the less B. less C. the least D. least Question 15: Mrs. Annie looks so graceful because she has ________ hair.

A. black beautiful long B. beautiful long black C. long black beautiful D. long beautiful black Question 16: The shop near her house had closed before she ______ there last night.

A. got B. has got C. gets D. will get

Question 17: Students are not allowed to handle these chemicals ______ they are under the supervision of a teacher.

A. because of B. because C. except D. unless Question 18: The smell of that bacon cooking is making my mouth ______.

A. wet B. water C. dry D. swallow Question 19: You're not going out ______.

A. because you had finished this B. when you finished this C. as soon as you were finishing this D. until you've finished this Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Children with single parents at my school were very much in the minority.

A. unhappy B. personal C. unmarried D. appropriate Question 21: We must invest our time and energy in the development of our craft.

A. proposal B. power C. penalty D. ambition Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I'm tired of all these cloak-and-dagger meetings - let's discuss the issues openly.

A. closely B. highly C. anxiously D. secretly Question 23: I only thought about it the day before the game and had my heart in my mouth from then on.

A. was very composed B. was extremely nervous C. was very tired

D. was extremely panic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: John is complaining about Mark’s using his car without asking.

John: “Why on earth did you use my car without asking me first?”

Mark: “__________” A. I’m terribly sorry for that.

B. I don’t think so.

C. Why should I? D. No problem at all.

Question 25: Nam is giving wishes to his teacher at Christmas.

Nam: “Wish you a merry Christmas and a happy new year!”

Nam’s teacher: “__________” A. Thank you!

C. You can wish me again!

B. Wish you too!

D. The same to you!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

An internal “body clock” regulates your sleep cycle, controlling when you feel tired and ready for bed or refreshed and alert. This clock operates on a 24-hour cycle known as the circadian rhythm. After waking up from sleep, you’ll become increasingly tired throughout the day. These feelings will (26) ________ in the evening leading up to bedtime.

This sleep drive – also known as sleep-wake homeostasis – may be linked to adenosine, an organic compound produced in the brain. Adenosine levels increase throughout the day as you become (27) ________ tired, and then the body breaks down this compound during sleep.

Light also influences the circadian rhythm. The brain contains a special region of nerve cells known as the hypothalamus, (28) ________ a cluster of cells in the hypothalamus called the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which processes (29) ________ when the eyes are exposed to natural or artificial light. These signals help the brain determine whether it is day or night.

As natural light disappears in the evening, the body will release melatonin, a hormone that induces drowsiness. When the sun rises in the morning, the body will release the hormone known as cortisol (30) ________ promotes energy and alertness.

Question 26: A. peak B. wrap C. fold D. lay Question 27: A. every Question 28: A. because Question 29: A. missions Question 30: A. where

B. each B. so B. signals B. who

C. many C. and C. options C. when

D. more D. although D. projects D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The Schengen Agreement is a treaty between European nations which eventually led to the creation of a common travel area in which there are few internal border checks. The agreement gets its name from the town of Schengen in Luxembourg, where it was signed by representatives of five of the ten member states of the then European Economic Community (EEC). The agreement proposed measures intended to gradually abolish border checks at the signatories' common borders, including hugely reducing vehicle checks, freedom for citizens to cross borders, and the harmonization of visa policies.

In 1990, the original agreement was supplemented by the Schengen Convention which proposed the complete abolition of systematic internal border controls and a common visa policy.

This led to the creation of the Schengen Area in 1995. It operates very much like a single state for international travel purposes, with external border controls imposed on travellers entering and exiting the area, but with no internal border controls.

Originally, the Schengen treaties and the rules adopted under them were officially independent from the EEC and its successor, the European Union (EU). In 1999, they were incorporated into European Union law by the Treaty of Amsterdam, which codified Schengen into EU law while providing opt-outs for Ireland and the U.K., with the latter since leaving the EU. EU member states that don’t have an opt-out which have not already joined the Schengen Area are legally obliged to do so when they meet technical requirements. Although it is linked to EU law, several non-EU countries are included in the area, having signed up to the agreement.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The Town of Schengen in Luxembourg B. Abolition of Systematic Internal Border Controls C. The EEC and Its Successor

D. What is the Schengen Agreement?

Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Schengen Agreement was signed by the representatives because ______.

A. the harmonization of visa policies couldn’t be achieved B. they want to gradually abolish border checks C. they want to reducing the number of vehicles D. the number of citizens crossing borders must be controlled Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. visa policy B. agreement C. Schengen Convention D. abolition Question 34: The word “obliged” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. enforced B. interested C. sacred D. united Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the Schengen treaties?

A. The Schengen treaties were independent from the EEC. B. The Schengen Area included Ireland and the U.K as well.

C. They were incorporated into European Union law.

D. Some member are legally obliged to joined the Schengen Area.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

In addition to light, the sun radiates heat and a steady stream of charged particles known as the solar wind. The wind blows about 280 miles (450 kilometres) a second throughout the solar system, extending the sun's magnetic field out more than 10 billion miles. Beyond that distance, the solar wind gives way to the colder, dense material that drifts in between stars, forming a boundary called the heliopause. So far, just two spacecraft—Voyager 1 and Voyager 2—have crossed this cosmic threshold, which defines the start of interstellar space.

Every so often, a patch of particles will burst from the sun in a solar flare, which can disrupt satellite communications and knock out power on Earth. Flares usually stem from the activity of sunspots, cool regions of the photosphere that form and dissipate as the sun's internal magnetic field shifts. Solar flares and sunspots obey a regular cycle, rising and falling in number every 11 years as the poles of the sun's magnetic field flip back and forth.

Sometimes, the sun will also launch huge bubbles of magnetized particles from its corona, in events called coronal mass ejections (CMEs). Some CMEs can grow as large as the sun itself and fling as much as a billion tons of material in a given direction. As they rush from the sun, CMEs can send huge shockwaves through the solar wind. If a CME collided with Earth, its particles could pack enough power to fry electronics in orbit and on Earth's surface.

Like many energy sources, the sun will not last forever. It has already used up nearly half of the hydrogen in its core. The sun will continue to burn through the hydrogen for another five billion years or so, and then helium will become its primary fuel. At that point, the sun will expand to

about a hundred times its current size, swallowing Mercury and Venus—and maybe Earth. It will burn as a red giant star for another billion years and then collapse into a white dwarf star.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Solar Wind and Flares B. Material That Drifts in Between Stars C. Huge Shockwaves Through the Solar Wind D. Hydrogen in Sun’s Core Question 37: The word “dense” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. quiet B. mature C. hopeful D. thick Question 38: In paragraph 2, Solar flares and sunspots ______.

A. burst from the sun in a solar flare B. change when sun's magnetic field changes C. share the same characteristics D. form and dissipate cool regions of the photosphere Question 39: The word “ejections” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. sessions B. versions C. emissions D. passions Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. billion tons B. CMEs C. shockwaves D. particles Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The speed of the solar wind can reach 450 kilometres a second.

B. Flares are usually created by the activity of sunspots.

C. CMEs can grow larger than the sun itself.

D. Like many energy sources, the sun will die one day.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. The sun will exist as long as Mercury and Venus.

B. The sun will expand to about a thousand times its current size.

C. It’s impossible for the sun to collapse into a white dwarf star.

D. The sun will die when it runs out of the hydrogen in its core.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: When I last see Carrie, she was thinking of buying a house, but now she’s changed her mind.

A. When B. see C. buying D. mind Question 44: Do you think this jacket looks a bit funny with this trousers?

A. think B. jacket C. a bit D. this Question 45: The organizers failed to do the necessary arrangements for dealing with so many people.

A. The organizers B. to do C. necessary D. for dealing with Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: I have not met her and her husband for three years.

A. I last met her and her husband three years ago.

B. I have met her and her husband for three years.

C. I did not meet her and her husband three years ago.

D. I met her and her husband for three years.

Question 47: “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” Harry told Mary.

A. Harry asked Mary to forget his birthday.

B. Harry admitted having forgetting Mary’s birthday.

C. Harry apologized Mary for having forgotten her birthday.

D. Harry denied to have forget Mary’s birthday.

Question 48: It’s not good for you to be aggressive to customers.

A. You need to be aggressive to customers.

B. You shouldn’t be aggressive to customers.

C. You may not be aggressive to customers. D. You must be aggressive to customers.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: She is busy with her work. She really wants to go out with them for dinner.

A. She wishes weren’t busy with her work and could go out with them for dinner.

B. She is busy with her work, so she wants to go out with them for dinner.

C. As soon as she isn’t busy with her work, she will go out with them for dinner.

D. Even if she is busy with her work, she still wants to go out with them for dinner.

Question 50: My father supported me much in my career. I did really well in my business.

A. So well did I do in my business that my father supported me much in my career.

B. Hardly had I done so well in my business when my father supported me much in my career.

C. Only after I had done so well in my business did my father support me much in my career.

D. Had it not been for my father’s support, I couldn’t have done so well in my business.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 11 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. cleaned B. caused C. decided D. studied Question 2: A. snap B. after C. fast D. glass Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. patient B. release C. human D. hopeless Question 4: A. cultural B. qualify C. property D. invalid Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: We are campaigning for a repeal of the abortion laws, ______?

A. don’t we B. didn’t we C. aren’t we D. weren’t we Question 6: ________ for twelve hours, I felt marvelous.

A. Being slept B. Having slept C. Slept D. To sleep Question 7: This machine __________ for quite a long time.

A. hasn’t been using B. weren’t used C. hasn’t been used D. hadn’t been used Question 8: Many people lack the ______ and training that is needed for these jobs.

A. structure B. education C. material D. question Question 9: Would you put the jar back ______ the cupboard for me, please?

A. against B. into C. after D. like Question 10: They made a ______ of different countries' eating habits.

A. compare B. comparative C. comparatively D. comparison Question 11: The more she smiles, ______ she becomes.

A. most graceful B. more graceful C. the most graceful D. the more graceful Question 12: This opportunity ______ at just the right time for me.

A. gave up B. gave out C. turned up D. turned out Question 13: We bought some ________ glasses.

A. German lovely old B. old lovely German C. lovely old German D. German old lovely Question 14: The producers didn't want to ______ a chance on an unknown actor.

A. hold B. take C. have D. put Question 15: I will tell David you are looking for him when I ______ him tomorrow.

A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing Question 16: Many doctors want to see a law banning all tobacco ______.

A. example B. purpose C. intention D. advertising Question 17: He managed to eat a big lunch ______ having eaten an enormous breakfast.

A. despite B. because of C. although D. because

Question 18: She did slim down a couple of years ago but has piled on the ______ again.

A. halls B. knees C. pounds D. ears Question 19: I hadn't realized she wasn't English ______.

A. until she spoke B. when she will speak C. because she had spoken D. although she has spoken Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: They use special chemicals to accelerate the growth of crops.

A. independent B. equivalent C. sensitive D. particular Question 21: In addition to a competitive salary, the company offers attractive employee benefits.

A. manager B. assistant C. staff D. client Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: This is an interactive museum where children can actively manipulate the exhibits.

A. idly B. badly C. clearly D. angrily Question 23: We respectfully advise the Culture Secretary not to put her shirt on it.

A. get rid of B. be doubtful about C. become interested in D. be sure about Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: David is suggesting eating at the new Chinese restaurant.

David: “What do you think of eating in that new Chinese restaurant?”

Laura: “__________” A. You try it first.

B. It sounds great. Let’s go there.

C. Don’t go there.

D. No, I don’t like.

Question 25: Linh is promising his father when coming home late.

Linh: “I promise I won’t come home late again.”

Linh’s father: “__________” A. I’m not sure.

B. Yes, please!

C. I hope so.

D. Why not?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In today’s hyper-connected world, it’s easy to get over-exposed to unhealthy ideas and images. However, a close family with strong values can help young family (26) ________ avoid or resist negative influences. Without strong family values, young people can succumb to peer pressure and stumble upon unwanted consequences, including substance abuse and various forms of addiction. It’s best to start embodying good values (27) ________ your kids are young. That way, as your children encounter critical decisions, they are already prepared to make good choices.

In children’s earliest years, they look to parents as role models. If you show them positive behaviour, such as kindness and caring for those in need, your children are more likely to follow

in your footsteps. Remember, much of (28) ________ you teach your children is taught indirectly through what you say and do every day.

As children grow, they’ll start to (29) ________ new social situations at school and in the community. Your communications towards friends, neighbours, and others you interact with (30) ________ day will show them how to interact with peers. They’ll learn how to form healthy friendships and how to navigate difficult situations. Knowing your family’s values and staying true to them will help your children embrace them and follow suite as they grow.

Question 26: A. soldiers B. members C. candidates D. crews Question 27: A. when B. unless C. whether D. because Question 28: A. whom B. where C. what D. that Question 29: A. determine B. encourage C. recommend D. encounter Question 30: A. many

B. each

C. much

D. another

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Visa is a prominent processing network and its cards are accepted by businesses in more than 200 countries and territories across the world. Other payment processing companies with ownership of payment processing networks include Mastercard, American Express, and Discover.

A financial institution chooses to partner with a single transaction processing network provider such as Visa for all of their payment card products. Each issuer sets its own terms and conditions for the Visa cards it offers and decides the customers to which it offers Visa cards. Visa cards are available to individual and business customers through a range of financial institution partnerships.

Service agreements include bank transaction fees and Visa network charges. Visa also partners with merchants through varying types of service agreements. Merchants that accept Visa cards pay Visa Inc. a small transaction fee for each customer transaction as part of the cost for the network processing services that the company provides.

Each Visa card relies on the Visa payment processing network to execute transactions.

Partnering with Visa as a primary payment processing network allows payments to be taken electronically and debited—or credited—to a cardholder's account purchases are made with merchants that accept Visa cards. All Visa cards come with a unique 16-digit number that is printed or embossed on the front along with a microchip that provides the cardholder with protection against card fraud. There's a magnetic stripe on the back along with a panel for the cardholder's signature.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Payment Processing Companies B. Bank Transaction Fees and Visa Network Charges C. Cardholder's Account Purchases D. Understanding Visa Cards Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. issuer B. terms and conditions C. customers D. Visa cards

Question 33: According to paragraph 3, Merchants that accept Visa cards pay Visa Inc. a small transaction fee because ______.

A. service agreements don’t include bank transaction fees B. it charges the cost for the network processing services C. it has to deal with varying types of service agreements D. the company doesn’t provide the service Question 34: The word “primary” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. main B. huge C. strict D. broad Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of Visa card?

A. Each Visa card has to work with Visa payment processing network.

B. Visa functions as a payment processing network.

C. All Visa cards have a unique 16-digit number printed on both sides.

D. Magnetic stripe can be found on the back of the card.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

When new copies of the viral genome are ready to leave the host cell, some viruses fuse the infected cell with a neighbouring cell to allow faster spread. Other viruses condense their genome inside a protective protein shell with the right receptors to get the new virus to the next cell. To condense their genome, some herpesviruses and bacteriophages use a powerful molecular motor that can build up a pressure of 50 atmospheres!

Ultimately, a virus may need to spread between organisms. It can then rely on the natural behaviour of the host or a vector, such as a tick, or manipulate its host’s behaviour. The rabies virus, for instance, uses a snake-venom-like compound that makes animals aggressive and froth at the mouth with virus-laden saliva in order to increase the chance that a bite will spread the virus.

Similarly, some baculoviruses can turn caterpillars into ‘zombies’ that climb up to high leaves and burst, spreading infectious virus particles to healthy caterpillars below.

Although viruses use their host, they are also incredibly useful. Molecular biology uses viral enzymes to manipulate RNA and DNA. Moreover, we can now alter viral receptors to re-target viruses to specific cells, such as cancerous cells. In addition, we can create attenuated viruses that can only proliferate in cancer cells, which often lack antiviral sensors; we can lyse tumours and keep healthy tissues, which are still able to control the infection, unharmed.

Viruses are masters at infecting cells, utilising life’s diverse abundance of molecules, systems and behaviours for their propagation. By studying them, we are learning from their expertise about ourselves and other organisms. This knowledge, combined with advances in other scientific fields, is enabling us to re-engineer viruses for our own purposes. Viruses may not only be the most abundant and diverse biological entities, but also some of the most useful.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Atomic Modelling and Structure B. The Shape of Viruses C. Vectors and Spread D. Replication and Adaptation

Question 37: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. vector B. host C. behaviour D. virus Question 38: In paragraph 2, the rabies virus makes animals aggressive and froth at the mouth to ______.

A. increase the chance of spreading the virus B. rely on its host’s behaviour C. spread between organisms D. turn caterpillars into ‘zombies’ Question 39: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. possibility B. community C. security D. activity Question 40: The word “diverse” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. precious B. various C. hilarious D. envious Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. A pressure of 50 atmospheres can be created by some herpesviruses.

B. ‘Zombies’ caterpillars spread infectious virus particles to healthy caterpillars.

C. Attenuated viruses can be created to multiply cancer cells.

D. Men are learning from viruses’ expertise about other organisms.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. All viruses are masters at infecting cells and dangerous.

B. Viruses know much about ourselves and other organisms.

C. Each type of viruses has their own purposes.

D. Some viruses are useful, and understanding them helps humans treat diseases.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Every time I take a suggestion at work, my boss overrides it.

A. Every time B. take C. at work D. overrides Question 44: Don't phone me between 7 and 8 p.m. We will have dinner then.

A. phone B. and C. will have D. dinner Question 45: In that days it was considered not quite proper for young ladies to be seen talking to men in public.

A. that B. considered C. ladies D. in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: It’s necessary for you to type this document as soon as possible.

A. You can’t type this document as soon as possible.

B. You may not type this document as soon as possible.

C. You need to type this document as soon as possible.

D. You must type this document as soon as possible.

Question 47: I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.

A. I have gone to the cinema for ten years.

B. I didn’t go to the cinema ten years ago.

C. I went to the cinema ten for years.

D. I last went to the cinema ten years ago.

Question 48: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarha?” asked Frederic.

A. Frederic invited Sarha to his birthday party.

B. Frederic asked Sarha to his birthday party.

C. Frederic promised Sarha to come to her birthday party.

D. Frederic reminded Sarha of his birthday party.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Her mother doesn’t stay with her. She really needs her to understand how she feels.

A. Her mother doesn’t stay with her because she doesn’t understand how she feels.

B. She wishes her mother stayed with her and could understand how she feels.

C. As long as her mother stays with her, she understands how she feels.

D. While Her mother doesn’t stay with her, she still understands how she feels.

Question 50: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.

A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.

B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.

C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.

D. Hardly had he been promoted to chief executive when his wife helped him much in his work.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 12 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. naked B. started C. intended D. watched Question 2: A. weave B. cleanse C. treat D. please Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. donate B. husband C. public D. obvious Question 4: A. evidence B. violent C. religious D. delicate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Scientists are working to harness the power of the atom, ______?

A. aren’t they B. don’t they C. weren’t they D. didn’t they Question 6: The boy suddenly ______ his bike while he was riding it very fast yesterday.

A. falls off B. fell off C. was falling D. will fall Question 7: She felt she had been discriminated against ______ her age.

A. despite B. because of C. although D. because Question 8: I __________ to the party last night but I didn’t come.

A. invite B. was inviting C. invited D. was invited Question 9: I'm not a very good advertisement for the diet ______.

A. before I was putting weight B. since I've actually put on weight C. although I’d actually put on weight D. in case I actually put on weight Question 10: ________ with a smile, he left the hall quickly.

A. Not being rewarded B. Not rewarding C. Not to reward D. Not rewarded Question 11: The youngest boys are so close in age they look ______ twins.

A. like B. on C. for D. with Question 12: Any new company is seen as an invader in an already ______ market.

A. compete B. competition C. competitive D. competitively Question 13: I know you don't like Jack's idea, but just ______ with him for a while.

A. get out B. get along C. play out D. play along Question 14: ______ a car is, the more comfortable it is.

A. More expensive B. Most expensive C. The more expensive D. The most expensive Question 15: The doctor advised him to ______ a complete rest from football.

A. lay B. take C. lie D. hunt Question 16: The produce is sorted into ______ according to quality.

A. couples B. shares C. categories D. steps

Question 17: It’s difficult to understand this ________ script.

A. boring TV series outdated B. outdated boring TV series C. boring TV series outdated D. boring outdated TV series Question 18: He's ______ on thin ice by lying to the police when stopped in the street.

A. skating B. saying C. playing D. rolling Question 19: The government raised prices to encourage production, further fuelling ______.

A. culture B. dimension C. capital D. inflation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: The primary aim of this course is to improve your spoken English.

A. narrow B. basic C. solid D. minor Question 21: The college produces a glossy brochure to advertise its training courses.

A. reception B. letter C. perception D. booklet Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: When they saw how much money they could save, they quickly changed their minds.

A. gradually B. recently C. shortly D. swiftly Question 23: I'm not an impulsive person, I don't generally do things on the spur of the moment.

A. quickly B. industriously C. intentionally D. attentively Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Jack is inviting Janet to drink something.

Jack: “Would you like a cup of tea?”

Janet: “__________” A. No, thanks.

B. I don’t drink tea any more.

C. Sorry for that.

D. When did you make it?

Question 25: Harry is talking to Garry about Tom’s birthday.

Harry: “Tomorrow is Tom’s birthday.”

Garry: “__________” A. Really? So quick!

B. I don’t think so.

C. What present should we give him?

D. Where is it held?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Families can be a source of support in good times and in bad. When kids are young, parents can provide advice on playground or friendship issues. As children grow, parents can help them (26) ________ school, sports, activities, and a complex web of relationships.

Parental guidance can extend to helping young people choose (27) ________ and careers.

For many people, family members are present at major milestones from engagements, to purchasing first homes, to the birth of children. When hardships arise, family can help people traverse difficult passages and build resilience.

It is critical, however, to be mindful and considerate of your child’s needs and wants (28) ________ it comes to offering guidance. In (29) ________ cases, offering too much support or unwanted guidance can be harmful to family relationships. In general, as children grow and mature, parents should seek to take a mentoring role in their children’s lives, offering support in a more Socratic, indirect way, rather than simply telling them (30) ________ to do or doing it for them.

Question 26: A. continue B. remember C. illustrate D. navigate Question 27: A. employees B. assistants C. colleges D. tourists Question 28: A. when B. since C. after D. but Question 29: A. every B. some C. another D. much Question 30: A. what B. that C. whom D. who Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Originally intended as a temporary exhibit, the Eiffel Tower was almost torn down and scrapped in 1909. City officials opted to save it after recognizing its value as a radiotelegraph station. Several years later, during World War I, the Eiffel Tower intercepted enemy radio communications, relayed zeppelin alerts and was used to dispatch emergency troop reinforcements. It escaped destruction a second time during World War II: Hitler initially ordered the demolition of the city’s most cherished symbol, but the command was never carried out. Also during the German occupation of Paris, French resistance fighters famously cut the Eiffel Tower’s elevator cables so that the Nazis had to climb the stairs.

Over the years, the Eiffel Tower has been the site of numerous high-profile stunts, ceremonial events and even scientific experiments. In 1911, for instance, the German physicist Theodor Wulf used an electrometer to detect higher levels of radiation at its top than at its base, observing the effects of what are now called cosmic rays. The Eiffel Tower has also inspired more than 30 replicas and similar structures in various cities around the world.

Now one of the most recognizable structures on the planet, the Eiffel Tower, which is repainted every seven years, underwent a major facelift in 1986. It welcomes more visitors than any other paid monument in the world—an estimated 7 million people per year. Some 500 employees are responsible for its daily operations, working in its restaurants, manning its elevators, ensuring its security and directing the eager crowds flocking the tower’s platforms to enjoy panoramic views of the City of Lights.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. The Eiffel Tower Becomes a Permanent Feature of the Paris Skyline B. The Eiffel Tower during World War I C. The German Physicist Theodor Wulf and The Eiffel Tower D. The Eiffel Tower and The Major Facelift in 1986 Question 32: According to paragraph 1, the Eiffel Tower was saved because ______.

A. it was a famous temporary exhibit B. it was too dangerous to tear it down in 1909

C. it could absorb enemy radio communications D. it could be used as a radiotelegraph station Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. planet B. Eiffel Tower C. seven years D. major facelift Question 34: The word “eager” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. private B. weird C. anxious D. secrete Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an incident happened to the Eiffel Tower?

A. During World War II, the Eiffel Tower was completely demolished by Hitler.

B. The Eiffel Tower’s elevator cables used to be cut.

C. An electrometer was installed on the tower to observe the effects of cosmic rays.

D. The tower underwent a major facelift in 1986.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The goal of blockchain is to allow digital information to be recorded and distributed, but not edited. Blockchain technology was first outlined in 1991 by Stuart Haber and W. Scott Stornetta, two researchers who wanted to implement a system where document timestamps could not be tampered with. But it wasn’t until almost two decades later, with the launch of Bitcoin in January 2009, that blockchain had its first real-world application.

The Bitcoin protocol is built on a blockchain. In a research paper introducing the digital currency, Bitcoin’s pseudonymous creator, Satoshi Nakamoto, referred to it as “a new electronic cash system that’s fully peer-to-peer, with no trusted third party.”

The key thing to understand here is that Bitcoin merely uses blockchain as a means to transparently record a ledger of payments, but blockchain can, in theory, be used to immutably record any number of data points. As discussed above, this could be in the form of transactions, votes in an election, product inventories, state identifications, deeds to homes, and much more.

Currently, there is a vast variety of blockchain-based projects looking to implement blockchain in ways to help society other than just recording transactions. One good example is that of blockchain being used as a way to vote in democratic elections. The nature of blockchain’s immutability means that fraudulent voting would become far more difficult to occur.

For example, a voting system could work such that each citizen of a country would be issued a single cryptocurrency or token. Each candidate would then be given a specific wallet address, and the voters would send their token or crypto to whichever candidate's address they wish to vote for. The transparent and traceable nature of blockchain would eliminate the need for human vote counting as well as the ability of bad actors to tamper with physical ballots.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Blockchain Technology B. Bitcoin vs. Blockchain C. Digital Currency D. A Single Cryptocurrency Question 37: The word “key” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. creative B. artificial C. dynamic D. essential

Question 38: In paragraph 1, Blockchain technology was created in order to ______.

A. allow digital information to be recorded and distributed B. edit the system of document recorded and distributed earlier C. outline the launch of Bitcoin in January 2009 D. implement document timestamps that could not be tampered with Question 39: The word “nature” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. presence B. reference C. essence D. evidence Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. voters B. actors C. ballots D. citizens Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Satoshi Nakamoto called Bitcoin a new electronic cash system.

B. Bitcoin uses blockchain as a means to transparently record payments.

C. Blockchain can be used as a way to vote in democratic elections.

D. Each citizen of a country would be issued a lot of cryptocurrencies.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. Blockchain would eliminate the need for human vote counting.

B. Candidate would be given a specific wallet to contain money.

C. Voters wouldn’t know for whom they should vote without blockchain.

D. Physical ballots would be more popular after the application of blockchain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: I've met him so much times and I still can't remember his name!

A. met B. much C. still D. his Question 44: The decision has been got to move UN troops in to try and stop the fighting.

A. has been got B. UN troops C. and D. the fighting Question 45: They learn how to use the lawnmower in the garden now.

A. learn B. the C. in D. garden Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “Let’s go to the cinema tonight,” he said.

A. He decided to go to the cinema tonight.

B. He proposed to go to the cinema tonight.

C. He suggested going to the cinema that night. D. He denied going to the cinema that night.

Question 47: It’s necessary for you to go home early tonight.

A. You may go home early tonight.

B. You mustn’t go home early tonight.

C. You shouldn’t go home early tonight.

D. You need to go home early tonight.

Question 48: They haven’t gone to see their children for 3 months.

A. They didn’t go to see their children 3 months ago.

B. They last went to see their children 3 months ago.

C. They went to see their children for 3 months.

D. They have gone to see their children for 3 months.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: You are not in my situation. I really need your advice on what to do now.

A. I wish you were in my situation and could give me advice on what to do now.

B. You are not in my situation, so I need your advice on what to do now.

C. Now that you are not in my situation, I need your advice on what to do now.

D. If only you had been in my situation and could have given advice on what to do now.

Question 50: Her father encouraged her much. She finished the essay on endangered species.

A. Hardly had she finished the essay on endangered species when her father encouraged her much.

B. Only after she had finished the essay on endangered species did her father encourage her much.

C. Had it not been for her father’s encourage, she couldn’t have finished the essay on endangered species.

D. Not only did she finish the essay on endangered species but her father also encouraged her much.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 13 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. gifted B. moved C. educated D. generated Question 2: A. came B. fame C. shame D. drama Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. ailment B. process C. address D. marry Question 4: A. abundant B. critical C. terrible D. generous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: She won't eat anything ______ chicken nuggets and chips.

A. in spite of B. since C. except D. before Question 6: It was the first time I'd had visitors ______.

A. because I’ve moved to London B. until I will move to London C. since I'd moved to London D. when I was moving to London Question 7: Baking a cake isn't difficult - it's just a matter of following the ______.

A. ingredient B. recipe C. powder D. roller Question 8: ________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.

A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging Question 9: Sales of organic food aren’t growing rapidly, ______?

A. are they B. weren’t they C. do they D. didn’t they Question 10: During a ______ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.

A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful Question 11: I am looking forward to __________ fairly.

A. be treating B. be treated C. being treated D. treating Question 12: I ______ several old friends when I went back to my hometown.

A. ran across B. ran up C. put across D. put up Question 13: She was amazed at how calm she felt ______ the accident.

A. into B. before C. to D. after Question 14: The film ______ a cold over the outstanding debt.

A. had B. stuck C. struck D. caught Question 15: Vietnam has become ______ to foreign tourists.

A. the more and more attractive B. most and most attractive C. the most and most attractive D. more and more attractive Question 16: His ______ lies in his ability to communicate quite complex ideas very simply.

A. health B. skill C. mind D. pain

Question 17: He’s just bought a ________ phone.

A. smart new Chinese B. new smart Chinese C. smart Chinese new D. Chinese new smart Question 18: After six months of ______ and changing, we've decided to go back to our old system.

A. chopping B. moving C. fixing D. cutting Question 19: I will talk to you when you ______ your meal.

A. finished B. have finished C. will finish D. were finishing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: A number of potential buyers have expressed interest in the company.

A. temporary B. possible C. spiritual D. frequent Question 21: Volunteers must provide their own transportation.

A. vehicle B. article C. channel

D. sentence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We need to ensure that handwriting is properly taught in our primary schools.

A. actually B. exactly C. easily D. incorrectly Question 23: The next time somebody tries to push your buttons, remember what Mom said and resist reacting.

A. encourage you B. hate you C. stop you D. urge you Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Mark appreciates Laura’s new dress.

Mark: “It’s such a beautiful dress, Laura.”

Laura: “__________” A. Thank you.

B. It’s expensive.

C. Welcome!

Question 25: Trinh is complaining about his bike with Lan. Trinh: “What a nuisance! My bike is broken again.”

Lan: “__________” A. Good luck.

B. That’s why.

C. Have it repaired.

D. It’s made in Japan.

D. Have it repair.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination is observed annually on the day the police in Sharpeville, South Africa, opened fire and killed 69 people at a peaceful demonstration against apartheid "pass laws" in 1960.

In 1979, the General Assembly (26) ________ a programme of activities to be undertaken during the second half of the Decade for Action to Combat Racism and Racial Discrimination. On that occasion, the General Assembly decided that a week of solidarity with the peoples struggling against racism (27) ________ racial discrimination, beginning on 21 March, would be organized annually in all States.

Since then, the apartheid system in South Africa has been dismantled. Racist laws and practices have been abolished in (28) ________ countries, and we have built an international (29) ________ for fighting racism, guided by the International Convention on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination. The Convention is now nearing universal ratification, yet still, in all regions, too many individuals, communities and societies suffer from the injustice and stigma (30) ________ racism brings.

Question 26: A. accused B. admired C. admitted D. adopted Question 27: A. and B. although C. so D. but Question 28: A. every B. many C. another D. much Question 29: A. distance B. product C. entrance D. framework Question 30: A. where B. when C. that D. who Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

We have documented the history of individual metals before and we have also visualized their annual production. However, we have not seen all of the metals on one timeline before such as in an infographic.

Worth noting is gold’s prominence ever since the beginning of history. Because the yellow metal is one of the rare elements that can be found in native form, it was used by the earliest of our ancestors.

Comparatively, it is only recently that the technology has advanced to allow us to discover or extract the rest of the metals on today’s periodic table. For example, even though we knew of titanium as early as 1791, it was relatively useless all the way up until the 1940’s because of its metallurgy. In the 20th century, scientists advanced a way to remove the impurities, making it possible to get the strong and hard titanium we know today.

Another standout fact is that it took all the way until the early 19th century for two very important elements to be discovered. Both are not found free in nature very often and thus slipped detection for many centuries. Silicon, which actually makes up 26% of the earth’s crust, was discovered in 1823. Then in 1827, aluminium was discovered – we now know today that it is the most common metal in the earth’s crust. It’s actually 1200X more abundant than copper.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Today’s Periodic Table B. Rare Metal Elements C. The History of Metals D. When Silicon was discovered Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. prominence B. history C. yellow metal D. rare elements Question 33: According to paragraph 3, titanium was relatively useless until the 1940’s because ______.

A. Men did not discover it until 1940 B. Metallurgy technology was too poor to make it strong and hard C. There were no the impurities in titanium at the time D. Titanium at the time was different from the one we know today

Question 34: The word “standout” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. remarkable B. specific C. efficient D. additional Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an information of aluminium?

A. Aluminium was discovered in 1827.

B. Aluminium is the most common metal on earth.

C. The discovery of aluminium was not important.

D. Aluminium’s 1200 times more abundant than copper.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The practice of gathering and storing large amounts of information, and then attempting to make sense of that information has been around for centuries. For example, the U.S. Census Bureau started recording population data on punch cards in 1790. Fast forward 100 years, and the invention of the “Tabulating Machine” processed information on these punch cards hundreds of times faster than humans could.

With the “information explosion” of the 1940s, society desperately needed a better way to both store and access large amounts of data. In 1970, IBM Research Labs published the first paper on relational databases – allowing for more efficient ways to locate data in large databases. Think of something similar to an Excel spreadsheet.

The commercialization of the internet in 1995 paved the way for Web 2.0. In its infancy, the internet was information-only, and featured static websites that provided dull user experiences.

When Web 2.0 launched in 2004, end-users were now able to generate, distribute, and store their own content in a virtual community.

Internet users flooded social media networks like Facebook and Twitter in the mid-2000s, which led to the distribution of even more data. Around this time, YouTube and Netflix forever changed the ways we would view and stream video content. Data used from these platforms provided near-real-time insight into consumer behaviour as well.

With the 2011 launch of Hadoop, a powerful open-source framework for storing data and running applications, experts agreed that big data was the next frontier for innovation and competition.

The internet of things (IoT) revolutionized big data in 2014. With an internet-connected world, more businesses decided to shift spending towards big data to reduce operational costs, boost efficiency, and develop new products and services.

Now, the scope of big data is nearly endless. Researchers in “smart cities” are using realtime data to look at electricity consumption, pollution, traffic, and much more. Emerging technologies like artificial intelligence and machine learning are harnessing big data for future automation and helping humans unveil new solutions.

All of these milestones were made possible when the world decided to go digital.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Population Data B. Content in A Virtual Community

C. Internet-connected World

D. History of Big Data

Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. internet B. websites C. information D. experiences Question 38: In paragraph 1, the “Tabulating Machine” was invented to ______.

A. gather and store large amounts of information B. make sense of information collected C. record population data D. process information faster Question 39: The word “distribution” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. attention B. application C. allocation D. definition Question 40: The word “operational” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. functioning B. encouraging C. inspiring D. shivering Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The first paper on relational databases was published by IBM Research Labs in 1940.

B. YouTube and Netflix forever changed the ways we watch video content.

C. More businesses invested in big data to reduce operational costs.

D. New solutions will be unveiled thanks to artificial intelligence.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 7?

A. Big data is going to end in the near future.

B. Application of artificial intelligence and machine learning is very large and useful.

C. Electricity consumption, pollution, traffic can all be controlled by AI. D. Emerging technologies will soon eliminate current machinery.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Linda was going to the supermarket to buy some sugar at the moment.

A. Linda B. was going C. the D. some Question 44: There aren't very much weekends between now and Christmas.

A. There B. much C. between D. Christmas Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors, under which computer and phone wires can be lain.

A. office buildings B. false floors C. which D. can be lain Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: My father hasn’t played chess for three years.

A. My father last played chess three years ago. B. My father didn’t play chess three years ago.

C. My father has played chess for three years. D. My father played chess for three years.

Question 47: “I was not there at the time,” said the man.

A. The man promised to be there at the time. B. The man swore to be there at the time.

C. The man denied being there at the time.

D. The man predicted to be there at the time.

Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to finish this work today.

A. You needn’t finish this work today.

B. You mustn’t finish this work today.

C. You should finish this work today.

D. You can finish this work today.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.

A. If she doesn’t live so far way, she will be able to visit him more regularly.

B. He wishes she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.

C. If only she had lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.

D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.

Question 50: He was appointed to the post. He then called to inform his wife.

A. Had it not been for his call to inform his wife, he wouldn’t have been appointed to the post.

B. Not only did he call to inform his wife but he was also appointed to the post.

C. Only after he had called to inform his wife was he appointed to the post.

D. Hardly had he been appointed to the post when he called to inform his wife.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 14 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. hoped B. faced C. missed D. arrived Question 2: A. push B. stuck C. lush D. fund Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. muscle B. organ C. disease D. poultry Question 4: A. popular B. essential C. plentiful D. national Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: He is reading various kinds of books, ______?

A. doesn’t he B. did he C. isn’t he D. wasn’t he Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.

A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing Question 7: I put my hands ______ my ears because I couldn't bear to listen.

A. in B. into C. over D. under Question 8: The more video games he plays, ______ he is.

A. the more stupid B. the most stupid C. more stupid D. most stupid Question 9: My ________ bike is so much fun! I’m very happy with it.

A. pretty electric new B. electric new pretty C. pretty new electric D. new pretty electric Question 10: You are not allowed to go anywhere until I ______ you to.

A. told B. was telling C. tell D. will tell Question 11: You can make shortbread with margarine ______ butter, but it isn't the same.

A. although B. in spite of C. because D. instead of Question 12: I knew there was something wrong ______.

A. until I was seeing her B. as long as I have seen her C. because I had seen her D. as soon as I saw her Question 13: ________ to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

A. Having suspected B. Suspected C. Suspecting D. To suspect Question 14: There's an Egyptian art ______ on display at the museum at the moment.

A. collection B. collectively C. collect D. collective Question 15: The Fed ______ interest rates to encourage growth in the economy.

A. held off B. held down C. burnt off D. burnt down Question 16: Everyone wishes the war would ______ to an end soon.

A. come B. move C. reach D. go

Question 17: She spent three months in the ______ working on her latest album.

A. kitchen B. lab C. studio D. casino Question 18: We had real ______ and games trying to bath the dog yesterday afternoon.

A. fish B. fun C. job D. hat Question 19: The exhibition features a magnificent ______ of bronze statues.

A. pack B. herd C. crowd D. collection Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: The school is keen to involve the whole community in this project.

A. complete B. remote C. external D. relative Question 21: Travellers might stop at the village but they rarely stay.

A. Professors

B. Analysts

C. Indicators

D. Commuters

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The forest has been so heavily logged that it is in danger of disappearing.

A. seriously B. gracefully C. lightly D. noisily Question 23: I lasted four years, finally throwing in the towel and heading back to the UK in 1997.

A. terminating B. succeeding C. activating D. deactivating Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Lan is reminding Minh of lending her the book.

Lan: “Don’t forget to bring me the book you just bought!”

Minh: “__________” A. I don’t remember.

B. Don’t worry. I will.

C. Tell me again.

D. What book?

Question 25: Mr. Quang is informing his wife about his business trip to Japan.

Mr. Quang: “I’m going to Japan for business tomorrow.”

Mr Quang’s wife: “__________” A. Go early, OK? B. Can I go there too?

C. Why don’t you do now?

D. Have a safe journey.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Where Edison succeeded and surpassed his competition was in developing a practical and inexpensive light bulb, according to the DOE. Edison and his team of researchers in Edison's laboratory in Menlo Park, N.J., tested more than 3,000 (26) ________ for bulbs between 1878 and 1880. In November 1879, Edison filed a patent for an electric lamp with a carbon filament.

The patent listed (27) ________ materials that might be used for the filament, including cotton, linen and wood. Edison spent the next year finding the perfect filament for his new bulb, testing more than 6,000 plants to determine which material would burn the longest.

Several months after the 1879 patent was granted, Edison and his team (28) ________ that a carbonized bamboo filament could burn for more than 1,200 hours. Bamboo was used for the filaments in Edison's bulbs (29) ________ it began to be replaced by longer-lasting materials in the 1880s and early 1900s.

In 1882, Lewis Howard Latimer, one of Edison's researchers, patented a more efficient way of manufacturing carbon filaments. And in 1903, Willis R. Whitney invented a treatment for these filaments (30) ________ allowed them to burn bright without darkening the insides of their glass bulbs.

Question 26: A. designs B. budgets C. targets D. functions Question 27: A. no B. little C. several D. much Question 28: A. concentrated B. discovered C. contributed D. hesitated Question 29: A. because B. except C. once D. until Question 30: A. why

B. that

C. when

D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

For millennia, the range of metals available for making things comprised a limited set of elements. Apart from precious metals used for money and jewellery, the practical metals were exclusively forms or alloys of lead, copper, or iron. This changed in the late 19th century, most spectacularly with the introduction of aluminium. This was a metal that was not even suspected to exist until about 200 years ago, when chemists began to use new tools to explore the composition of common minerals.

One of the minerals they investigated was alum, which people had relied on since ancient times as an astringent and in making dyes more stable. This material appeared to have an unknown metallic origin, but the metal was not separated out until the 1820s and not purified until the 1850s.

Even then, it was very expensive and difficult to make. The wonderful properties of aluminium— especially its remarkable light weight and its silvery luster—attracted wide attention. Precious jewellery and exotic objects such as opera glasses were fabricated from it. It was even seen fitting to make the small apex of the Washington Monument, completed in 1884, out of pure aluminium.

The status of aluminium changed dramatically in the 1880s, when two young chemists, one in France and the other in the United States, discovered how to make pure aluminium metal using strong electric currents. This "electrolytic process" made the metal readily available, depending only on the availability of cheap electricity. The coming of aviation in the early 1900s gave aluminium new strategic value, and expanded production to meet wartime demand led to the metal becoming one of the most ubiquitous of the 20th century.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Is Aluminium a Metal?

B. Aluminium and Opera Glasses C. Wartime Demand for Metal D. Aluminium Question 32: According to paragraph 1, people used to think aluminium didn’t exist because ______.

A. it wasn’t used for money and jewellery B. the composition of common minerals wasn’t explored

C. it wasn’t an alloy of lead, copper, or iron D. the introduction of aluminium was not accepted Question 33: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. alum B. minerals C. ancient times D. astringent Question 34: The word “ubiquitous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. complex B. complete C. common D. competitive Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an application of aluminium in human’s activities?

A. Opera glasses B. Small apex of the Washington Monument C. Aviation D. Money and jewellery Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The first modern air conditioner was invented in 1902 by Willis Haviland Carrier, a skilled engineer who began experimenting with the laws of humidity control to solve an application problem at a printing plant in Brooklyn, NY. Borrowing from the concepts of mechanical refrigeration established in earlier years, Carrier’s system sent air through coils filled with cold water, cooling the air while at the same time removing moisture to control room humidity. In 1933, the Carrier Air Conditioning Company of America developed an air conditioner that used a beltdriven condensing unit and associated blower, mechanical controls, and evaporator coil, and this device became the model in the growing U.S. marketplace for air-cooling systems.

Today’s air conditioners, while operating on the same fundamental science as Carrier’s 1933 system, incorporate advancements in vapour compression, diagnostics and controls, electronic sensors, materials, and energy efficiency. Carrier’s new top-of-the line central air conditioner, the Infinity, is far different than the founder’s early models, featuring advanced components including a two-stage scroll compressor for quieter, more energy-efficient performance.

Energy efficiency standards set by the U.S. Department of Energy are driving improvements in air-conditioning systems. “Minimum efficiency standards for air conditioner systems have progressively increased, particularly in the last five years, requiring manufacturers to optimize systems to reduce energy consumption,” says Dennis Thoren, vice president of engineering and technology at Ingersoll Rand, Davidson, NC, which markets the popular Trane line of air conditioners.

To comply with the regulations, air-conditioning manufacturers have successfully increased the Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (SEER) to 16 or 18, exceeding the DOE’s efficiency standards. Some high-end models like the Lennox XC21 and Trane XL20i, in addition to the Infinity, are rated up to 21 SEER, further aiding the environment while enabling energy cost savings for customers.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. The Father of the Air Conditioner B. Smart Technologies C. Experimenting with The Laws of Humidity D. Air-conditioning Manufacturers

Question 37: The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. room humidity B. air conditioner C. condensing unit D. associated blower Question 38: In paragraph 1, Willis Haviland Carrier did the experiment with the laws of humidity control to ______.

A. invent the modern air conditioner B. solve problems at a printing plant C. borrow the concepts of mechanical refrigeration D. remove the cooling air from the room Question 39: The word “efficiency” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. quality B. opportunity C. productivity D. reality Question 40: The word “popular” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. unnatural B. colossal C. sentimental D. universal Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. In Carrier’s system, the air was cooled by sending air through coils filled with cold water.

B. Today’s air conditioners incorporate advancements to work more effectively.

C. The Infinity air conditioner is totally the same as the founder’s early models.

D. People have increased minimum efficiency standards for air conditioner systems.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. The regulations made air-conditioning manufacturers to limit their products.

B. The Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio was a difficulty for the manufacturers.

C. Some high-end models like the Lennox XC21 and Trane XL20i are too costly.

D. Air-conditioning manufacturers have made their products greener and more economical.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: He introduced himself to me and asked if I'd like him to visit once in awhile on his rounds.

A. introduced B. if C. to visit D. once in awhile Question 44: He spent hours talking about interesting things he did in his life.

A. hours B. about C. did D. his Question 45: If there are only five of us going to the concert, then I've booked one too much seats.

A. only B. the C. booked D. much Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.

A. You may worry about these trivial things.

B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.

C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.

D. You must worry about these trivial things.

Question 47: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.

A. We last went to the concert two years ago. B. We have gone to the concert for two years.

C. We went to the concert for two years.

D. We didn’t go to the concert two years ago.

Question 48: “Don’t forget to phone the office,” she said to her friend.

A. She promised her friend to phone the office.

B. She insisted on her friend phoning the office.

C. She reminded her friend to phone the office.

D. She instructed her friend to phone the office.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: He doesn’t have any car. He really wants to know how comfortable it is.

A. He doesn’t have any car so that he knows how comfortable it is.

B. He wishes he had a car and could know how comfortable it is.

C. While he doesn’t have any car, he still knows how comfortable it is.

D. Until he has a car, he doesn’t know how comfortable it is.

Question 50: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.

A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.

B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.

C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.

D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 15 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. pocket B. engaged C. open D. fortune Question 4: A. technical B. permanent C. generous D. addicted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The game has been cancelled ______ adverse weather conditions.

A. due to B. since C. despite D. unless Question 6: You can stay in the room ______.

A. as long as you promise to be quiet B. because you will promise to be quiet C. although you have promised to be quiet D. until you had promised to be quiet Question 7: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the United States.

A. To found B. Having founded C. Founded D. Founding Question 8: He's often been accused of cynicism in his ______ towards politics.

A. nature B. health C. possibility D. attitude Question 9: It's important to ______ your skin from the harmful effects of the sun.

A. protection B. protect C. protective D. protectively Question 10: We're waiting until they ______ a new version of the system.

A. let out B. let up C. bring out D. bring up Question 11: We must ______ to a decision about what to do next.

A. force B. come C. list D. hand Question 12: When you finish doing the crossword, the ______ is on the back page.

A. solution B. creation C. completion D. end Question 13: Your mom is cooking beef with cabbage, ______?

A. was he B. doesn’t he C. did he D. isn’t she Question 14: How old is this tower ? It __________ to be over 600 years ago.

A. is believing B. believes C. is believed D. believed Question 15: The town lies halfway ______ Rome and Florence.

A. with B. between C. about D. among Question 16: The more time he teaches at the school, ______ he becomes.

A. more popular B. the more popular C. most popular D. the most popular

Question 17: The ________ pick-up truck puttered along the road.

A. red old ugly B. old ugly red C. ugly red old D. ugly old red Question 18: So how does a government revive an economy that is ______ in the water?

A. deaf B. moist C. dead D. wet Question 19: The boy ______ a lot before his mother came back from work.

A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: You’ll need to be a little more imaginative if you want to hold their attention.

A. emotional B. historical C. inventive D. available Question 21: People gathered at points along the route to wave and cheer.

A. road

B. lock

C. club

D. edge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: She is expected to announce officially her candidacy for president early next week.

A. fairly B. unreliably C. deeply D. eagerly Question 23: I should keep a stiff upper lip and take the high road and all that, so I will.

A. be talkative B. be calm C. be quiet D. be nervous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Kate is talking to her colleague.

Kate: “I stayed up all night to finish this work.”

Colleague: “__________” A. You’re so silly.

B. Poor you.

C. Next time don’t.

D. A day off will do you good.

Question 25: Linda is talking to her friend about her father’s trip.

Linda: “My father’s coming back from his business trip.”

Linda’s friend: “__________” A. How can he go?

B. Thank you very much.

C. Really? I didn’t know when he went.

D. He shouldn’t.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Another area of AI research is evolutionary computation, which borrows from Darwin's theory of natural selection, (26) ________ sees genetic algorithms undergo random mutations and combinations between generations in an (27) ________ to evolve the optimal solution to a given problem.

This approach has even been used to help design AI models, effectively using AI to help build AI. This use of evolutionary algorithms to (28) ________ neural networks is called neuroevolution, and could have an important role to play in helping design efficient AI as the use of intelligent systems becomes (29) ________ prevalent, particularly as demand for data scientists

often outstrips supply. The technique was showcased by Uber AI Labs, which released papers on using genetic algorithms to train deep neural networks for reinforcement learning problems.

Finally, there are expert systems, (30) ________ computers are programmed with rules that allow them to take a series of decisions based on a large number of inputs, allowing that machine to mimic the behaviour of a human expert in a specific domain. An example of these knowledgebased systems might be, for example, an autopilot system flying a plane.

Question 26: A. and B. but C. or D. because Question 27: A. aspect B. addition C. instance D. attempt Question 28: A. compare B. contain C. optimize D. supply Question 29: A. many B. more C. few D. another Question 30: A. when B. who C. where D. that Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Electricity makes marvellous things happen and its capacity to produce bright, radiant light makes an especially striking impression when it arrives. Electricity’s introduction thus tends to be associated with progress and modernity.

This was the case in 1879 when Thomas Edison displayed an incandescent lamp for the first time in Menlo Park in New Jersey and seven years later when the sultan’s palaces in Zanzibar Town were lit.

Energy has traditionally been studied by researchers within the fields of natural sciences and economy. Anthropologists who have engaged with energy and society have mainly concerned themselves with fossil fuels and the role of these in global politics—specifically, around issues of climate change, energy security, and oil depletion. The societal impact of introducing electricity and the enormous transformation going on in the South in recent years have received little attention.

Tanja Winther and Harold Wilhite at the Centre for Development and Environment have recently published an article where they used their fieldwork from Kenya and Tanzania to show how electricity’s arrival in new places affects community and household practices, social relations, local economy and power relations.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Capacity to Produce Light B. Traditional Study about Energy C. Life Changes with Electricity D. Electricity’s Arrival in New Places Question 32: According to paragraph 3, the societal impact of electricity received little attention because ______.

A. no researchers studied this type of energy B. it’s not a field of natural sciences and economy C. issues of climate change were too serious at the time D. people paid attention to fossil fuels and their role Question 33: The word “enormous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. immense

B. unique

C. distinct

D. entire

Question 34: The word “where” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. Centre for Development and Environment B. article C. fieldwork D. Kenya and Tanzania Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an important event of electricity?

A. The first display of an incandescent lamp was in 1879.

B. The sultan’s palaces in Zanzibar Town were lit in 1886.

C. Much attention has always been paid to the societal impact of electricity.

D. Tanja Winther and Harold Wilhite used their fieldwork to illustrate effects of electricity.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The best cloud computing services offer the opportunity for businesses to undergo digital transformation in order to improve efficiency and reduce costs.

Cloud services have revolutionized computing, not least through IaaS, PaaS, and especially SaaS, which have allowed businesses to develop virtualized IT infrastructure and deliver software through the cloud, independent of a user's operating system.

Even better still, businesses can also mix and match cloud services from different providers through cloud brokers in order to ensure these services work to maximum efficiency and cost effectiveness, but also to reduce the chances of vendor lock-in while also improving redundancy.

This may require additional cloud management software, but for larger businesses the economic benefits can be significant.

Because cloud services are run through software platforms and virtualized networks, it means that it's easy to access and analyse data for the purposes of analytics as well as for business intelligence purposes. It also makes it easier to simplify all aspects of monitoring through cloud orchestration and the easy processing of log files through cloud logging services. The result is IT infrastructure that allows for better maintenance and patching, while providing for insights that would have previously been much more difficult to access.

Cloud computing services also offer the advantage of being scalable, which means not only can you access additional resources exactly as you need them, but you are also charged only for the services you use so there's no need to buy in extra hardware for additional redundancy.

This especially applies to when storing data, as online cloud storage can be treated as effectively limitless. Even though you might be using cloud databases for your structured data, you can also archive everything else into massive data lakes for additional processing using AI and machine learning for greater insights. Altogether, cloud services offer unparalleled potential for improving business performance and increasing profits, and here we'll look at the best cloud computing service provider.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Best cloud computing services B. Virtualized IT Infrastructure C. Software Platforms and Virtualized Networks D. Cloud Computing Services

Question 37: The word “benefits” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. messages B. advantages C. products D. percentages Question 38: In paragraph 2, cloud services from different providers can be mixed and matched in order to ______.

A. ensure maximum efficiency and cost effectiveness B. find suitable cloud brokers C. make these potential services free D. have additional cloud management software Question 39: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. files B. services C. result D. IT infrastructure Question 40: The word “limitless” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. drowsy B. vicious C. infinite D. gorgeous Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Cloud services have allowed businesses to develop virtualized IT infrastructure.

B. With cloud services, it's easy to access and analyse data for the purposes of analytics.

C. Cloud computing services are powerful but not scalable.

D. You can archive everything else using AI and machine learning.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 6?

A. Online cloud storage cannot be treated as effectively limitless.

B. Cloud services improve business performance and increasing profits dramatically.

C. Cloud databases for your structured data haven’t been ready to use.

D. Machine learning for greater insights is technology of the far future.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: High prices are deterring much young people from buying houses.

A. prices B. much C. from D. houses Question 44: He acknowledges that sometime art simply holds up a mirror to the society it is born from.

A. acknowledges B. sometime C. holds up D. born from Question 45: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.

A. am watching B. interesting C. match D. the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.

A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take the job.

C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to take the job.

Question 47: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.

A. You must go out at this time at night.

B. You should go out at this time at night.

C. You needn’t go out at this time at night.

D. You may not go out at this time at night.

Question 48: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.

A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.

B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.

C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.

D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Trang cannot speak Chinese. I really need her to understand how interesting it is.

A. If Trang can speak Chinese, she will understand how interesting it is.

B. I wish Trang could speak Chinese and could understand how interesting it is.

C. Once Trang can speak Chinese, she will understand how interesting it is.

D. Trang cannot speak Chinese in order to understand how interesting it is.

Question 50: I heard the full story. Then, I understood what it was about.

A. Only after I had understood what it was about did I hear the full story.

B. Having understood what it was about, I heard the full story.

C. Only when I heard the full story did I understand what it was about.

D. No sooner had I understood what it was about than I heard the full story.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 16 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. needed B. watered C. contaminated D. decided Question 2: A. broth B. spot C. both D. knock Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: I ordered two ________ pizzas for the game.

A. tasty large round B. round large tasty C. tasty round large D. large tasty round Question 6: We'll go and have a party outdoor ______.

A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good Question 7: We've received a(n) ______ from one of our listeners about offensive language.

A. influence B. character C. complaint D. implement Question 8: You are watching a movie in this Cineplex, ______?

A. did you B. don’t you C. were you D. aren’t you Question 9: ________ he got lost, he started to call for help.

A. Having been realized B. Realizing C. Realized D. To realize Question 10: The television was functioning ______ until yesterday.

A. normally B. normal C. normalize D. normality Question 11: Teacher’s day __________ largely since 1982.

A. was celebrated B. has been celebrating C. has celebrated D. has been celebrated Question 12: We ______ most of the evening, waiting for Jake and drinking beer.

A. pushed back B. pushed around C. sat back D. sat around Question 13: Criminal charges will be brought ______ the driver.

A. against B. without C. during D. into Question 14: We had to ______ permission from the city to build an extension to our house.

A. act B. plan C. get D. set Question 15: The more time passes by, ______ she looks.

A. the most different B. most different C. the more different D. more different Question 16: The new factory will provide ______ for about a hundred local people.

A. employment B. management C. engagement D. development

Question 17: The man ______ with his son after he had solved all problems with his work.

A. will play B. was playing C. played D. plays Question 18: Now research has proved that the drug is effective, everyone wants a ______ of the action.

A. share B. part C. move D. slice Question 19: ______ the efforts of the whole team, the project was completed on time.

A. Because B. Thanks to C. Although D. Instead of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: It's a very complex issue to which there is no straightforward answer.

A. traditional B. interested C. additional D. complicated Question 21: The salesperson verifies the signature by comparing it with the one on the card.

A. challenge

B. autograph

C. attempt

D. function

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: These normally harmless substances combine to form a highly poisonous gas.

A. uselessly B. unwillingly C. unusually D. scarcely Question 23: As summer merges into autumn the grey squirrels are on the go again.

A. idle B. active C. busy D. free Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Thanh is showing her appreciation to Nam’s new fridge.

Thanh: “What a modern fridge you have!”

Nam: “__________” A. Not very modern.

B. You know it?

C. Thanks. I bought it yesterday.

D. How can you know?

Question 25: Giang is showing his appreciation to Loan’s new shirt.

Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”

Loan: “__________” A. You like it, right?

B. I appreciate it.

C. I don’t think so.

D. That’s kind of you to say so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19 outbreak.

Our global SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution Working Group, which (26) ________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their possible impact.

Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27) ________ shared these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global collaboration allows scientists to better track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends that all countries increase the sequencing of the COVID-19 virus where possible and share data to help one (28) ________ monitor and respond to the evolving pandemic.

WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework to identify, monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like surveillance, research on variants of concern, and (29) ________ of the impact on diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework will serve as a guide for manufacturers and countries on changes (30) ________ may be needed for COVID-19 vaccines.

Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other Question 29: A. conversation B. transportation C. preparation D. evaluation Question 30: A. that B. when C. whom D. where Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Non-verbal business communication is an essential part of how we communicate. One famous (and often misunderstood) study from the 1960s estimated that the emotional content and interpretation of about 93 percent of human communication is significantly influenced by body language, attitude, and tone, with only 7 percent of the emotional content relying solely on the actual words that are used. While the study focused on the emotions, not the literal meanings, behind what we communicate, this is still significant.

In the world of business too, as well as in our everyday lives, non-verbal communication expresses a range of emotional content that we wish to convey. When we shake hands upon meeting someone, for instance, it usually signifies that we are pleased to see or meet them and often reinforces verbal utterances like, “It’s great to see/meet you.”

But the COVID-19 pandemic has made it more difficult to convey the emotions we can normally show through our culturally diverse repertoire of body language. As a result, people have been coming up with creative solutions like the “Wuhan shake” or the “air handshake.” Some voices in the media have even been asking if the “new normal” might mark the end of the traditional handshake.

The truth is that the pandemic has not changed the use of body language and other nonverbal communication in the world of business or in human interaction in general. It is simply escalating the changes that have already been happening or were bound to happen at some point.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Emotional Content and Interpretation B. When We Shake Hands C. How COVID-19 is changing the way we communicate D. Solutions to Life with COVID-19 Pandemic Question 32: According to paragraph 1, body language, attitude, and tone are crucial to communication because _____.

A. they’re part of non-verbal business communication B. they influenced about 93 percent of human communication C. they’re faster than the actual words that are used

D. speaker doesn’t focus on the emotions Question 33: The word “significant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. noteworthy B. temporary C. appropriate D. independent Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. business B. everyday lives C. non-verbal communication D. emotional content Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of the COVID-19 pandemic?

A. It’s more difficult to convey the emotions by body language.

B. People have created the “Wuhan shake” and the “air handshake.”

C. The use of body language and other non-verbal communication has been changed.

D. The traditional handshake might come to an end.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Among the various summer schools and seminars in existence, a special position is held by the International Summer School in Oslo. For the past 20 years, students and teachers have gathered here from around the world. With regard to the number of courses, the quality of the lecturers and the type of participants, this Summer School undoubtedly holds a respected position.

In the space of six weeks in Norway, participants from almost all continents had the opportunity to live and study together. They studied not only their particular subjects in the special courses, the general aspects of Norway, its people and their way of life, but they also had a unique occasion for the exchange of experiences and thoughts ranging over a wide area.

Today, when we are striving for the full affirmation of active peaceful coexistence— creating, developing and accepting conditions for forming a real international community—every action in the field of international understanding holds importance. Thus the gathering of nations in Oslo ideally presents the opportunity for the creating of the new ideas needed for cooperation and understanding. The problem is to avoid accepting the existing status quo in world relations.

During the international evenings, chats after lectures, various discussions and, most important, during personal talks each person had the opportunity to comprehend and finally accept some of his friends’ ideas which at firsts appeared to be so strangely different.

The system of studies in different countries, problems of living standards, economic politics, political freedom and, what is more important, ideological orientation was clarified for many of us after six weeks of living together. The 42 days of lectures, conversations in the cafeteria, and excursions laid a strong foundation for the development of new friendships. The need for cooperation and broader contact has become clearer to most of the participants.

After the end of school, the small international society of Blindern composed of a mixture of people from East and West, the North and South of the world will disappear. Each returns to his respective country, but the rich and useful experiences prove how urgently international friendship is needed today, and that it must be striven for and achieved.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. The Number of Courses, The Quality of The Lecturers B. Affirmation of Active Peaceful Coexistence C. Mutual Understanding - The International Summer School (ISS) D. Strong Foundation for The Development of New Friendships Question 37: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. participants B. six weeks C. continents D. subjects Question 38: In paragraph 2, participants from almost all continents had ______.

A. some time to live and study separately B. a chance to exchange experiences and thoughts C. knowledge about the general aspects of Norway only D. unique occasion to visit a wild and wide area Question 39: The word “gathering” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. recipe B. assembly C. passion D. concept Question 40: The word “respective” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. magic B. chaotic C. melodic D. specific Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The Summer School undoubtedly holds a respected position.

B. The new ideas presented in Oslo are needed for cooperation and understanding.

C. The 40 days of lectures is the precious time for the development of new friendships.

D. The small international society includes people from almost all over the world.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. A school must have people from East and West, the North and South of the world.

B. Experiences students have got at school must be rich and useful.

C. Many more school like the International Summer School must be striven for and achieved.

D. People around the world should try to have international friendship that is urgently needed.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: I have gone to see Peter yesterday evening, but he was not at home.

A. have gone B. see C. but D. home Question 44: The school has pupils from much different ethnic and cultural backgrounds.

A. The B. has C. much D. and Question 45: She has maintained an Olympian detachment from the every day business of the office.

A. has maintained B. from C. every day business D. the office Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.

A. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.

B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party long time ago.

C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.

D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.

Question 47: “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine,” the doctor said.

A. The doctor suddenly ordered Jasmine to rest for a few days.

B. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to rest for a few days.

C. The doctor clearly informed Jasmine to rest for a few days.

D. The doctor simply apologized to Jasmine for resting a few days.

Question 48: It’s compulsory for you to correct all these mistakes.

A. You must correct all these mistakes.

B. You should correct all these mistakes.

C. You needn’t correct all these mistakes.

D. You may not correct all these mistakes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: She doesn’t have any apartment. She really wants to live comfortably here.

A. If only she had had an apartment and could have lived comfortably here.

B. Unless she has an apartment, she will be able to live comfortably here.

C. She wishes she had an apartment and could live comfortably here.

D. Even if she doesn’t have any apartment, she wants to live comfortably here.

Question 50: I asked the boys what happened. Then, I knew why my son was hurt.

A. No sooner had I known why my son was hurt than I asked the boys what happened.

B. Only after I had known why my son was hurt did I ask the boys what happened.

C. Having known why my son was hurt, I asked the boys what happened.

D. Only when I asked the boys what happened did I know why my son was hurt.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 17 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. worked B. placed C. needed D. missed Question 2: A. land B. ban C. mass D. swap Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. shadow B. unique C. worship D. printer Question 4: A. volunteer B. creative C. exciting D. delicious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: This is one possible solution to the problem. ______, there are others.

A. Therefore B. Although C. However D. Because Question 6: The journey was quite quick ______.

A. as soon as the road has been clear B. although the road had been clear C. because the road was clear D. in case the road will be clear Question 7: Hoa went to bed after she ______ all her homework.

A. is completing B. has completed C. will complete D. had completed Question 8: ________ most of his money to charity, he hopes to ease the pain and suffering of the disadvantaged.

A. Gave B. To give C. Giving D. Having been given Question 9: It was made of a ________ material.

A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic C. green strange metallic D. green metallic strange Question 10: Exercising should come as ______ as brushing your teeth.

A. nature B. naturally C. natural D. naturalize Question 11: ______ Mr. Nam is, the more pressure we have to face.

A. Most powerful B. The most powerful C. More powerful D. The more powerful Question 12: How can you ______ and see him accused of something he didn't do?

A. stand by B. stand down C. get by D. get down Question 13: The traffic congestion in the city gets even worse ______ the summer.

A. of B. at C. under D. during Question 14: Let's ______ in touch over the next few days while the installation is in progress.

A. let B. meet C. hold D. keep Question 15: We are having our house __________ at the moment.

A. painted B. is painted C. painting D. is painting

Question 16: Tell the mechanic that the ______ was making a strange grinding noise.

A. lamp B. engine C. table D. door Question 17: She wasn’t talking constantly in class in those days, ______?

A. did she B. isn’t she C. was she D. doesn’t she Question 18: Her Spanish has improved in ______ and bounds this year.

A. leaps B. risks C. points D. parts Question 19: The unions assured the new ______ of the workers' loyalty to the company.

A. lawyers B. owners C. labourers D. employees Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: They live in a remote corner of Scotland, miles from the nearest shop.

A. major B. lower C. proper D. distant Question 21: To comply with government hygiene regulations, there must be a separate sink for hand washing.

A. principals B. principles C. priorities D. primaries Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The company recently announced plans to lay off one-fifth of its workforce.

A. sharply B. correctly C. anciently D. greatly Question 23: You must not stand on ceremony with me, or I shall find you exceedingly boring.

A. behave informally B. perform too much C. be faithful D. tell lies Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Huy is advising Nam to buy the car.

Huy: “If I were you, I would buy that new car.”

Nam: “__________” A. Why should I? B. Yes, I will.

C. That’s a good idea. D. No, I can’t.

Question 25: Nam is talking to his classmate named Minh.

Nam: “I don’t understand what the teacher has just said.”

Minh: “__________” A. Me either B. Neither do I. C. Me too.

D. So do I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Vaccinating many people against SARS-CoV-2 could stall infection rates even among unvaccinated children in the same community. Last December, Israel launched one of the fastest vaccination schemes in the world, reaching 50% of the population in 9 weeks. (26) ________ only people aged 16 and over were eligible for the jab.

To test the ripple effects of widespread vaccination, Tal Patalon at Maccabi Healthcare Services in Tel Aviv-Yafo, Israel, Roy Kishony at the Technion — Israel Institute of Technology in Haifa and their colleagues analysed COVID-19 vaccinations and test results (27) ________

between January and March 2021 for people in 223 Israeli communities. In (28) ________ community, the authors examined the relationship between the vaccination rate in adults over three 3-week intervals and the rate of positive results for a COVID-19 test in children 35 days later.

The authors found that, in the weeks after older people had received the Pfizer–BioNTech vaccine, the infection risk among children under 16 dropped proportionally to the percentage of adults (29) ________ had been vaccinated. The authors warn that their results might be influenced by children who had previously been infected, even though the study included communities with low (30) ________ rates. The findings have not yet been peer reviewed.

Question 26: A. Because B. Although C. Before D. But Question 27: A. recorded B. intended C. depended D. afforded Question 28: A. neither B. any C. each D. some Question 29: A. which Question 30: A. infection

B. who B. pollution

C. where C. impression

D. when D. conclusion

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Depression drains your energy, hope, and drive, making it difficult to take the steps that will help you to feel better. Sometimes, just thinking about the things you should do to feel better, like exercising or spending time with friends, can seem exhausting or impossible to put into action.

It’s the Catch-22 of depression recovery: The things that help the most are the things that are the most difficult to do. There is a big difference, however, between something that’s difficult and something that’s impossible. While recovering from depression isn’t quick or easy, you do have more control than you realize—even if your depression is severe and stubbornly persistent.

The key is to start small and build from there. You may not have much energy, but by drawing on all your reserves, you should have enough to take a walk around the block or pick up the phone to call a loved one, for example.

Taking the first step is always the hardest. But going for a walk or getting up and dancing to your favorite music, for example, is something you can do right now. And it can substantially boost your mood and energy for several hours—long enough to put a second recovery step into action, such as preparing a mood-boosting meal or arranging to meet an old friend. By taking the small but positive steps day by day, you’ll soon lift the heavy fog of depression and find yourself feeling happier, healthier, and more hopeful again.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Why Is Dealing with Depression So Difficult?

B. Depression - Your Energy and Hope C. Depression Isn’t Quick or Easy D. Your Mood and Energy for Several Hours Question 32: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. recovery B. difference C. things

D. something

Question 33: According to paragraph 2, it’s possible to recover from depression because ______.

A. it’s the most difficult thing to do B. people have more control than they realize C. it’s stubbornly persistent D. people can pick up the phone to call regularly Question 34: The word “severe” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. mental B. secure C. typical D. acute Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the first step to recover depression?

A. Dancing to the favourite music isn’t the thing you can do immediately.

B. The first step is always the hardest.

C. It can substantially boost your mood and energy.

D. You’ll soon lift the heavy fog of depression.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The history of paper dates back almost 2,000 years to when inventors in China first crafted cloth sheets to record their drawings and writings. Before then, people communicated through pictures and symbols etched on stone, bones, cave walls, or clay tablets.

Paper as we know it today was first made in Lei-Yang, China by Ts'ai Lun, a Chinese court official. In all likelihood, Ts'ai mixed mulberry bark, hemp and rags with water, mashed it into pulp, pressed out the liquid, and hung the thin mat to dry in the sun. During the 8th century, Muslims (from the region that is now Syria, Saudi Arabia, and Iraq) learned the Chinese secret of papermaking when they captured a Chinese paper mill. Later, when the Muslims invaded Europe, they brought this secret with them. The first paper mill was built in Spain, and soon, paper was being made at mills all across Europe. Over the next 800 years, paper was used for printing important books, bibles, and legal documents. England began making large supplies of paper in the late 15th century and supplied the colonies with paper for many years. Finally, in 1690, the first U.S. paper mill was built in Pennsylvania.

At first, American paper mills used the Chinese method of shredding old rags and clothes into individual fibres to make paper. As the demand for paper grew, the mills changed used fibre from trees because wood was less expensive and more abundant than cloth.

Today, paper is made from trees mostly grown on working forests and from recovered paper.

Recycling has always been a part of papermaking. When you recycle your used paper, paper mills will use it to make new newspapers, notebook paper, paper grocery bags, corrugated boxes, envelopes, magazines, cartons, and other paper products.

Besides using recovered paper and trees to make paper, paper mills may also use wood chips and sawdust left over from lumber operations (whose products are used to make houses, furniture, and other things). Today, more than 36 percent of the fibre used to make new paper products in the United States comes from recycled sources.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. The Chinese Secret of Papermaking B. First American Paper Mills C. The History of Paper D. The Fibre Used to Make New Paper Products Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. Chinese B. Muslims C. secrets D. rags Question 38: In paragraph 2, technology to make paper was available in Europe because ______.

A. Ts'ai Lun moved to Europe B. People from Spain learnt it from the Chinese C. Chinese people revealed it to the European. D. the Muslims brought it to Europe Question 39: The word “supplies” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. priorities B. penalties C. estates D. sources Question 40: The word “abundant” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. plentiful B. wasteful C. graceful D. skilful Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Stone, bones, cave walls, or clay tablets were used to communicate more than 2,000 years ago.

B. Muslims knew how to make paper after capturing a Chinese paper mill.

C. Cloth to make paper was less expensive and more abundant than wood.

D. Recovered paper is also a source of material to make paper.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?

A. Once made, paper cannot be recycled.

B. People try to make use of every source of material to make paper.

C. Wood chips and sawdust will no longer be used to make paper.

D. More than 36 percent of paper manufactured was consumed in the United States.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Certain chemicals have been banned because of their damaging affect on the environment.

A. Certain chemicals B. because of C. their D. affect on Question 44: When I arrived at the stadium, the football match have started.

A. at B. stadium C. the D. have started Question 45: The company was losing money and they had to let people go.

A. The

B. losing

C. they

D. people

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: It’s compulsory for you to call him and tell him the truth.

A. You must call him and tell him the truth. B. You can call him and tell him the truth.

C. You shouldn’t call him and tell him the truth. D. You may not call him and tell him the truth.

Question 47: This is the first time she has travelled so far.

A. She has ever travelled so far before.

B. She has never travelled so far before.

C. She travelled so far long time ago.

D. She didn’t travel so far for such a long time.

Question 48: “You’d better put your money in the bank,” I told him.

A. I encouraged him to put his money in the bank.

B. I promised him to put his money in the bank.

C. I requested him to put his money in the bank.

D. I advised him to put his money in the bank.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I don’t have much free time. I really want to go somewhere to refresh.

A. Because I don’t have much free time, I want to go somewhere to refresh.

B. If I have much free time, I can go somewhere to refresh.

C. I wish I had much free time and could go somewhere to refresh.

D. Though I don’t have much free time, I still go somewhere to refresh.

Question 50: I spoke to my sister. Then, I know what she had experienced.

A. Only after I had spoken to my sister did I know what she had experienced.

B. Having known what my sister had experienced, I spoke to her.

C. Hardly had I known what my sister had experienced when I spoke to her.

D. But for what my sister had experienced, I wouldn’t have spoken to her.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 18 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. opened B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed Question 2: A. scull B. pull C. full D. bull Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. upset B. preserve C. shadow D. expand Question 4: A. important B. relevant C. effective D. expensive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Linda was waiting for us when we got off the plane, ______?

A. does she B. didn’t she C. is she D. wasn’t she Question 6: Some trees __________ on the sidewalk at the moment.

A. will plant B. are being planted C. are planting D. are planted Question 7: You shouldn't drive for more than three hours ______ taking a break.

A. from B. about C. without D. over Question 8: ______ the information is, the easier for us to understand.

A. The more accurate B. More accurate C. The most accurate D. Most accurate Question 9: Panettone is a ________ Christmas cake.

A. round bread-like Italian B. bread-like Italian round C. round Italian bread-like D. Italian round bread-like Question 10: When his wife ______ home from work, he was having dinner alone.

A. comes B. will come C. came D. was coming Question 11: There is little chance that we will succeed in changing the law. ______, it is important that we try.

A. Nevertheless B. Although C. Moreover D. Since Question 12: People think I'm satisfied ______.

A. although I don’t complained B. until I had complained C. when I have complained D. because I don't complain Question 13: ________ that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

A. Seeing B. Saw C. To see D. Having been seen Question 14: These children have special ______ needs and require one-to-one attention.

A. educational B. educate C. educationally D. education Question 15: All her hard work ______ in the end, and she finally passed the exam.

A. paid in B. paid off C. called in D. called off

Question 16: Don't worry about it—it's an easy mistake to ______ !

A. make B. take C. get D. catch Question 17: Water ______ taken from streams were analysed for contamination by chemicals.

A. features B. indications C. samples D. illustrations Question 18: They’re over the ______ about their trip to Japan.

A. stream B. moon C. hole D. hill Question 19: The magazine misreported its sales figures in order to boost advertising ______.

A. challenge B. structure C. section D. revenue Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: There is a regular train service between Glasgow and Edinburgh.

A. frequent B. popular C. recent D. several Question 21: He said the primary responsibility of a state is to protect its citizens from attack.

A. speakers B. strangers C. inhabitants D. inspectors Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We need to react toughly against those who were harbouring terrorists.

A. sadly B. safely C. openly D. gently Question 23: We've done a little research, and that revealed we were a little behind the times with our methods.

A. successful B. up to date C. disappointed D. enthusiastic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Thanh is saying goodbye to Giang after the party.

Thanh: “Good bye. Thank you for the tasty food tonight.”

Giang: “__________” A. You’re welcome.

B. Yes, you can go.

C. Why do you go?

D. Sure, I’m a good cook.

Question 25: Alex is talking to David about his bookshelf.

Alex: “I regret that I bought such a small bookshelf.”

Davis: “__________” A. What a pity.

C. Why are you so stupid?

B. You bet!

D. Yeah. A bigger one is better.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

The 1901 Mercedes, designed by Wilhelm Maybach for Daimler Motoren Gesellschaft, deserves credit for being the first modern motorcar in all essentials. Its thirty-five-horsepower engine weighed only fourteen pounds per horsepower, (26) ________ it achieved a top speed of fifty-three miles per hour. By 1909, with the most integrated automobile factory in Europe,

Daimler employed (27) ________ seventeen hundred workers to produce fewer than a thousand cars per year.

Nothing illustrates the superiority of European design better than the sharp contrast between this first Mercedes model and Ransom E. Olds‘ 1901-1906 one-cylinder, three-horsepower, tillersteered, curved-dash Oldsmobile, (28) ________ was merely a motorized horse buggy. But the Olds sold for only $650, putting it within reach of middle-class Americans, and the 1904 Olds output of 5,508 units (29) ________ any car production previously accomplished.

The central problem of automotive technology over the first (30) ________ of the twentieth century would be reconciling the advanced design of the 1901 Mercedes with the moderate price and low operating expenses of the Olds. This would be overwhelmingly an American achievement.

Question 26: A. as B. and C. although D. for Question 27: A. some Question 28: A. where Question 29: A. submitted Question 30: A. decade

B. any B. who B. committed B. package

C. either C. that C. surpassed C. contest

D. each D. which D. assumed D. debate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The ancient Egyptians were the first to incorporate perfume into their culture, followed by the ancient Chinese, Hindus, Israelites, Carthaginians, Arabs, Greeks, and Romans. The oldest perfumes were discovered by archaeologists in Cyprus. They were more than 4,000 years old. A cuneiform tablet from Mesopotamia, dating back more than 3,000 years, identifies a woman named Tapputi as the first recorded perfume maker. But perfumes could also be found in India at the time.

The earliest use of perfume bottles is Egyptian and dates to around 1000 B.C. The Egyptians invented glass, and perfume bottles were one of the first common uses for glass. Persian and Arab chemists helped codify the production of perfume and its use spread throughout the world of classical antiquity. The rise of Christianity, however, saw a decline in the use of perfume for much of the Dark Ages. It was the Muslim world that kept the traditions of perfume alive during this time—and helped trigger its revival with the onset of international trade.

The 16th century saw the popularity of perfume explode in France, especially among the upper classes and nobles. With help from “the perfume court,” the court of Louis XV, everything got perfumed: furniture, gloves, and other clothing. The 18th-century invention of eau de Cologne helped the perfume industry continue to grow.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Perfume Incorporated into Culture B. Perfume and Its Use Throughout the World C. History of Perfume Around the World D. The Popularity of Perfume in France Question 32: The word “common” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. usual B. narrow C. legal D. standard Question 33: According to paragraph 1, the traditions of perfume were alive during the Dark Ages because ______.

A. Persian and Arab chemists helped preserved them

B. the rise of Christianity maintained them C. the production of perfume and its use were popular D. the Muslim world tried to keep them Question 34: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. Dark Ages B. Muslim world C. traditions of perfume D. this time Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an important timeline of perfume?

A. The ancient Arabs were the first to incorporate perfume into their culture.

B. The earliest use of perfume dates to around 1000 B.C. C. Perfume was extremely popular in France in 16th century.

D. Eau de Cologne was invented in the 18th-century.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

For thousands of years, our ancestors appreciated a small number of materials distinguished by their smooth and often colourful appearance: Ivory, tortoiseshell, and horn could be turned into small luxury items that bore a warmth and elegance hard to achieve in other substances. In the 1800s, the growth of markets, combined with a greatly enlarged understanding of chemistry, gave rise to a whole new class of artificial substances that made it possible to turn out such items in great quantities at low cost. The first commercial plastic was celluloid, made from nitrated cotton and camphor. When this combination was heated under pressure, it was transformed into an astonishingly versatile substance that could be made into everything from combs and collars to dolls, playing cards, and, eventually, ping pong balls.

In the 20th century, this first plastic was joined by a host of substances that were even more, well, plastic. The new plastics, by then typically made from by-products of coal or petroleum production, were sometimes fashioned into more ersatz luxury items. But their properties also lent themselves to a host of technical uses, from telephones and other electrical devices to substitute body parts and other medical devices that would be all but unthinkable made out of any other substance.

Closely related to these plastics was rubber, which started out as a natural product brought to Europe by early explorers of South America. Natives used the milky sap of Hevea brasiliensis for waterproofing and making bouncing balls. The Europeans adapted lumps of dried sap to rub out pencil marks (hence the name "rubber"). It was not until about 1840 that Charles Goodyear discovered how to make the material into a range of stable forms, good for everything from combs to inflatable rafts. The rubber pneumatic tire proved indispensable for motor transport in the 20th century, and this dependence led to the invention of synthetic rubber, much in the same fashion as the plastics.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Plastics & rubber B. Artificial Substances C. By-products of Coal D. Rubber Pneumatic Tire

Question 37: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. celluloid B. combination C. substance D. everything Question 38: In paragraph 1, the growth of markets in the 1800s gave rise to ______.

A. small luxury items B. a greatly enlarged understanding of chemistry C. a whole new class of artificial substances D. nitrated cotton and camphor Question 39: The word “properties” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. advantages B. consequences C. characteristics D. establishments Question 40: The word “stable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. bloody B. muddy C. tidy D. steady Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Smooth materials with colourful appearance were not appreciated by our ancestors.

B. Celluloid was the first commercial plastic.

C. Luxury items were sometimes made of the new plastics.

D. Rubber was brought to Europe by early explorers of South America.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3?

A. The milky sap of Hevea brasiliensis is the best material to make bouncing balls.

B. Since discovered, rubber has become more and more essential for motor transport.

C. Charles Goodyear adapted lumps of dried sap to rub out pencil marks.

D. The invention of synthetic rubber was first discovered in 1840.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: The argument was upsetting for us all - I don't want to talk about them.

A. The B. for C. to talk D. them Question 44: The new trade agreement should felicitate more rapid economic growth.

A. The B. should felicitate C. more D. economic growth Question 45: Mr. Smith went to the church to feel relaxed every day.

A. Mr. B. went C. the D. relaxed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “You should turn off the ceiling fan now,” I told the girl.

A. I reminded the girl to turn off the ceiling fan then.

B. I insisted on the girl turning off the ceiling fan now.

C. I advised the girl to turn off the ceiling fan then.

D. I ordered the girl to turn off the ceiling fan now.

Question 47: It’s compulsory for you to contact the customer and give her an explanation.

A. You needn’t contact the customer and give her an explanation.

B. You must contact the customer and give her an explanation.

C. You may contact the customer and give her an explanation.

D. You shouldn’t contact the customer and give her an explanation.

Question 48: I started to work as a teacher 14 years ago.

A. I last worked as a teacher 14 years ago.

B. I didn’t work as a teacher 14 years ago C. I haven’t worked as a teacher for 14 years. D. I have worked as a teacher for 14 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: They cannot give birth any more. They really want to have one more daughter.

A. Although they cannot give birth any more, they have one more daughter.

B. As long as they can give birth, they want to have one more daughter.

C. If only they could have given birth and could have had one more daughter.

D. They wish they could give birth and could have one more daughter.

Question 50: I went home. Then, I realized I had left my laptop at the office.

A. But for the fact that I had left my laptop at the office, I wouldn’t have gone home.

B. Only after I had gone home did I realize I had left my laptop at the office.

C. Having realized I had left my laptop at the office, I went home.

D. Hardly had I left my laptop at the office when I went home.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 19 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. introduced B. wanted C. completed D. decided Question 2: A. smug B. tuck C. bury D. sum Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. mushroom B. conduct C. surface D. tackle Question 4: A. faculty B. habitat C. opposite D. detective Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The more famous she is, ______ for us to meet her.

A. more difficult B. the more difficult C. most difficult D. the most difficult Question 6: I ski for the ______, but I'm also always aware of the risks.

A. excite B. excitement C. exciting D. excitingly Question 7: I want you to clear all these toys away ______ bedtime.

A. before B. in C. over D. with Question 8: There is still much to discuss. We shall, ______, return to this item at our next meeting.

A. because B. therefore C. unless D. however Question 9: They were always coming to class late, ______?

A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they Question 10: ________ at the pictures, she found a familiar face.

A. Looked B. To look C. Having been looked D. Looking Question 11: I was sure she had seen me ______.

A. though she gave no sign B. in case she will give no sign C. as she was giving no sign D. because she has given no sign Question 12: She ______ with the aim of becoming the youngest ever winner of the championship.

A. turned out B. turned up C. set out D. set up Question 13: My car has disappeared. It __________ by my brother.

A. was taking B. takes C. was taken D. took Question 14: I gave Jim very clear instructions, but even then he managed to ______ a mess of it.

A. get B. make C. set D. take Question 15: On the envelope was a firm ______ to open the letter immediately.

A. instruction B. competition C. attention D. combination Question 16: What an ________ cup and saucer!

A. amazing Chinese old B. Chinese old amazing C. old amazing Chinese D. amazing old Chinese

Question 17: When I looked down and saw how far I had to jump, my ______ failed me.

A. courage B. aspect C. member D. moment Question 18: There are 30 people coming to dinner tonight, so it's all ______ on deck.

A. feets B. sandals C. hands D. boots Question 19: He will make a cup of coffee and enjoy it when he ______ this work.

A. completes B. is completing C. completed D. has completed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: He has established himself as the leading candidate in the election.

A. strict B. main C. rare D. huge Question 21: The economy has shown significant improvement over the past 9 months.

A. innovation

B. intention

C. indication

D. invention

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We don't want to get too deeply involved with these people.

A. unexpectedly B. optimistically C. inadequately D. superficially Question 23: You may not have this hot list out of the box, but you can hone it over time.

A. shortly B. however C. hereafter D. immediately Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: The porter at the hotel is offering help to Marry.

Porter: “Let me help you with that heavy luggage.”

Marry: “__________” A. My pleasure.

B. I don’t think you can.

C. I’m sad to hear that.

D. Thank you. You are so kind.

Question 25: Linh is inviting Trang to her brother’s wedding on Sunday.

Linh: “I would like to invite you to my brother’s wedding this Sunday.”

Trang: “__________” A. No way.

B. That sounds great.

C. Forget it.

D. I don’t think so.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Tsunamis have occurred often throughout history. So frequently in Japan, in fact, that they invented the word specifically for the phenomenon: ‘tsu‘ meaning harbour and ‘nami‘ meaning wave.

“It’s actually quite frightening to think that the Japanese tsunami event is smaller than the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, smaller even than the 1960 Chilean tsunami, yet the (26) ________ to Japan’s people and economy is still profound,” says Professor James Goff, co-director of the Australian Tsunami Research Centre and Natural Hazards Research Lab at the University of New

South Wales. “It’s a horrendous tragedy, (27) ________ was caused by a completely unpredictable event.”

(28) ________ little historical data exist on the size of tsunami waves, how many occur in one event, or how far they advance on shore, scientists rank them according to how much damage they wreak. However, assessing just how much damage a single tsunami event (29) ________ may take many months to years; and it may be (30) ________ time before the Japan earthquake and tsunami can be truly rated on a historical scale.

Question 26: A. standard B. account C. damage D. notice Question 27: A. who B. that C. when D. which Question 28: A. Because B. Except C. Before D. Although Question 29: A. solves B. causes C. proves D. searches Question 30: A. any

B. another

C. some

D. every

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

The Earth used to spin on its axis faster than it does today. After the hypothetical giant impact that led to the formation of the moon, the Earth's day was as short as 6 hours. How did it get to a leisurely 24?

That's right, it was the moon! The moon makes some pretty nice tides, but the Earth is also spinning on its axis. That spinning physically drags the tidal bulges around the planet. So instead of the tides appearing directly beneath the moon, they're slightly ahead of it, orbitally speaking.

So you've got a big lump of extra ocean water in a place where it's not supposed to be. Since gravity is a two-way street, that lump pulls on the moon. Like tugging a reluctant dog on a leash, that tidal bulge yanks on the moon bit by bit, accelerating it into ever-higher orbits.

By the way, the moon is slowly getting farther away from Earth. And that energy to accelerate the moon has to come from somewhere, and that somewhere is the Earth itself: Day by day, millennium by millennium, the Earth slows down, converting its rotational energy into the moon's orbital energy.

If you took away the moon, itꞌs not like this process would reverse, but it wouldn't keep going. That might or might not be a good thing, depending on how much you like the length of your workday.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Do You Like 24 Hours in A Day? B. The Moon Makes Tides C. Extra Ocean Water in A Place D. The Earth’s rotational energy Question 32: According to paragraph 2, the tides appear slightly ahead of the moon because ______.

A. the moon is also spinning on its axis B. the moon moves orbitally C. the Earth’s spinning physically drags them D. the Earth is much bigger than the moon

Question 33: The word “where” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. big lump B. ocean water C. place D. gravity Question 34: The word “reluctant” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. unique B. unwilling C. conscious D. relevant Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a fact related to the moon?

A. The distance between the moon and the Earth is slowly farther.

B. The moon's orbital energy originates from the Earth’s rotational energy.

C. The disappearance of the moon wouldn’t reverse the process.

D. The length of your workday depends much on the moon.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Going beyond body language that involves skin contact, there are other business-related practices involving contact with surfaces that will also likely be phased out. Again, this would probably have happened anyway, but COVID-19 has hastened the process. The use of AirPlay and other mirroring technology will become the mainstay, and using a public desktop computer in a meeting room, with people bringing their files on USB flash drives, will become a thing of the past. Is your boss still printing hard copies of the meeting agenda and passing it out prior to the meeting? This is the time to finally start sharing all those forms digitally and have them live on a cloud.

Touchless technology in general will become more standard across the board. For example, if your workplace cafeteria currently doesn’t have a touchless payment system, it likely soon will.

Accessible doors will finally gain traction. Automatic doors for bathrooms and meeting rooms have been sold for years in the name of accessibility. Now that they can serve a dual purpose (i.e. accessibility and the prevention of viral transmissions), more companies will implement them.

Business travel, a source of much surface contact (as well as skin contact from all that handshaking), will also be transformed. Most likely we’ll see an overall decrease of it, just like we did after 9/11 and the Great Recession. Teleconferencing is here to stay and it will become much more immersive, eliminating the need for a significant amount of business travel. In-person, physical travel will be reserved for the more essential trips.

Tim Cook, CEO of Apple, once said “For all of the beauty of technology and all the things we’ve helped facilitate over the years, nothing yet replaces human interaction.” And it’s true.

When it comes to effective business communication, nothing will replace human interaction.

Rather, human interaction, both in-person and digital, is simply evolving. And this evolution, particularly when it is in response to shifting societal needs, is mostly a good thing.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. The Use of AirPlay B. Touchless Technology in General C. Business Setups, Practices, and Travel Will Change D. The Great Recession

Question 37: The word “process” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. inspection B. position C. reaction D. evolution Question 38: In paragraph 1, practices involving contact with surfaces will ______.

A. happen more regularly B. be eliminated faster due to COVID-19 C. become the mainstay D. be passed out prior to the meeting Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. cafeteria B. system C. traction D. accessibility Question 40: The word “overall” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. practical B. general C. rational D. colossal Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Public desktop computer in a meeting room will become a thing of the past.

B. Touchless technology will become more and more popular.

C. Teleconferencing will never eliminate business travel.

D. According to Tim Cook, nothing can replace human interaction.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. Human interaction is irreplaceable, but it may change.

B. The beauty of technology will make things more interesting.

C. Effective business communication must be made with a digital device.

D. Shifting societal needs is mostly a good thing.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Scientists think there is water on Mars a long time ago.

A. Scientists B. is C. on D. a Question 44: When you've finished your work sheets, clip them together and hand it in to me.

A. When B. finished C. and D. it Question 45: Kazakova's performance made her the heroin of the Moscow Film Festival.

A. Kazakova's B. made C. the heroin of D. Film Festival Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: They started to build their house two months ago.

A. They haven’t built their house for two months. B. They have built their house for two months.

C. They last built their house two months ago. D. They didn’t build their house two months ago.

Question 47: “Stop crying or I will leave you outside,” said the woman to the boy.

A. The woman promised the boy to stop crying or she would leave him outside.

B. The woman made the boy stop crying or she would leave him outside.

C. The woman instructed the boy to stop crying or she would leave him outside.

D. The woman ordered the boy to stop crying or she would leave him outside.

Question 48: You are not allowed to use red ink in the exam.

A. You should use red ink in the exam.

B. You may use red ink in the exam.

C. You mustn’t use red ink in the exam.

D. You needn’t use red ink in the exam.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I don’t feel sleepy at all. I really want to sleep some more.

A. If I feel sleepy, I want to sleep some more.

B. Since I don’t feel sleepy at all, I want to sleep some more.

C. If only I had felt sleepy and could have slept some more.

D. I wish I felt sleepy and could sleep some more.

Question 50: He graduated from the university. He started to work for the local hospital soon after that.

A. No sooner had he graduated from the university than he started to work for the local hospital.

B. Only after he had started to work for the local hospital did he graduate from the university.

C. Not only did he start to work for the local hospital but he also graduated from the university.

D. Having started to work for the local hospital, he graduated from the university.

--------------------HẾT--------------------

ĐỀ SỐ 20 (Đề thi có 06 trang)

ĐỀ THI THỬ TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2021 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. enjoyed B. called C. joined D. helped Question 2: A. slope B. bomb C. whole D. home Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. explore B. mission C. threaten D. sector Question 4: A. chemical B. medical C. solution D. decorate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: He has already achieved his main ______ in life - to become wealthy.

A. location B. direction C. definition D. ambition Question 6: How long the journey takes will ______ on how long it takes to get through the traffic.

A. dependent B. dependently C. depend D. dependence Question 7: ________ to wake him up, I turned off the radio.

A. Not wanting B. Not wanted C. Not to want D. Not have been wanted Question 8: Anne was fond of Tim ______.

A. after he often annoys her B. though he often annoyed her C. when he has often annoyed her D. until he will often annoy her Question 9: The whole report is badly written. ______, it's inaccurate.

A. Despite B. Therefore C. Because of D. Moreover Question 10: Trang went to see the dentist after she ______ able to suffer the toothache.

A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. hadn’t been D. won’t be Question 11: The older Ms. Lucy is, ______ she becomes.

A. the most attractive B. most attractive C. the more attractive D. more attractive Question 12: The discount applies only to children ______ the age of ten.

A. under B. between C. during D. among Question 13: So as not __________ by paparazzi, Angelina Jolie wore a veil.

A. recognize B. to be recognizing C. recognizing D. to be recognized Question 14: These parts of the world don’t have different climatic conditions, ______?

A. didn’t they B. do they C. weren’t they D. are they Question 15: Ms. Hoa is a ______ girl who always smiles with everyone friendly.

A. beautiful tall young B. young beautiful tall C. young tall beautiful D. tall young beautiful Question 16: It is the job of the ______ to enforce compliance with the regulations.

A. employers B. owners C. inspectors D. players

Question 17: I ______ sight of my former teacher while I was out shopping yesterday.

A. seen B. caught C. viewed D. faced Question 18: I’ve tried to get him to leave, but he can’t take a ______.

A. card B. care C. key D. hint Question 19: They said the operation had been successful and they expected his wife to ______.

A. pull through B. come through C. pull away D. come away Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: She's just left a secure job to start up her own company.

A. odd B. weak C. safe D. fair Question 21: I don't eat meat, only fish, but there's a good variety available here.

A. ability

B. activity

C. security

D. diversity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: All non-violent religious and political beliefs should be respected equally.

A. frankly B. differently C. properly D. joyfully Question 23: Sure, I've tried to live a benign life, putting my shoulder to the wheel for peace.

A. being indifferent to B. feeling tired of C. looking happy in D. becoming strong in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: The postman is talking to Tom on the phone.

Postman: “I will come and give you the package a bit late.”

Tom: “__________” A. Thanks anyway.

B. Why late?

C. No way.

Question 25: Mary is feeling grateful to Gorge for his help.

Mary: “Thank you very much for your help in time.”

George: “__________” A. Don’t thank.

B. You say well.

C. It’s my duty.

D. I don’t agree.

D. Never mind.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

We might be drinking the recommended amount of fluid each day, but are we drinking the right things? Very few of us can say that water is the only thing we drink and tea, coffee, fruit juices and carbonated drinks are a daily choice for most of us, (26) ________ does the wrong choice of drink means we might actually be doing more (27) ________ than good? If thirst sees you reaching for a sweetened, caffeinated drink, you will be loading your system with sugar and stimulants that bring with them excess calories, and a temporary boost (28) ________ is bound to result in an energy slump soon afterwards.

Fruit juice and smoothies should also be limited because of the natural ‘free’ sugars they contain and the high caffeine levels of (29) ________ tea and coffee can cause anxiety, insomnia and digestive uses. Few of us will want to give up all these choices but swapping some of them for more tap water in our diet each day can only be a

good thing and if you are finding tap water a bit dull, try (30) ________ a slice of lemon, lime or cucumber for a subtle taste. Also interested about how it works with food and health? And would like to get a clear view on what is a healthy body fat percentage? Then take a look at our body fat percentage page.

Question 26: A. but B. because C. although D. as Question 27: A. item B. harm C. face D. step Question 28: A. who B. when C. where D. which Question 29: A. few B. another C. some D. every Question 30: A. adding B. building C. showing D. holding Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

A lot of wealthy individuals and companies around the world have personal and corporate jets. As you can imagine, these jets do not come with a small price tag. And when money becomes tight, there are times when the payments on these jets are not made, and they have to be repossessed. Enter the airplane repossession specialists. These men and women are responsible for recovering commercial aircraft from around the world, sometimes from less-than-ideal locations or owners, making it occasionally risky but equally thrilling work.

You will be responsible for finding the aircraft's location and monitoring the site, somewhat like that of a private investigator. You will be determining the most opportune time to jump into the plane and take off with it. It is not as simple as the car repo man who shows up with a tow truck in the middle of the night. When an owner does not want to turn over their plane, planning to legally apprehend it can feel a bit like you're a secret agent in the latest Hollywood blockbuster.

It is almost unheard of for airplane repo specialists to repossess planes on their own. You are typically sent as part of a team, which includes a mechanic who checks the plane to ensure that it is safe for take-off. Although airplane repo professionals come from all different kinds of backgrounds, you will have to become a commercial pilot since you need to fly the plane. And you could expect to receive good compensation for doing so. You will likely work on a commission basis. Forbes has reported that an airplane repo person can make anywhere from $10,000 to $90,000 per plane, depending on its resale value.

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

A. Payments on The Jets B. Most Opportune Time to Jump into The Plane C. Mechanic Checks The Plane D. Airplane Repo Person Question 32: According to paragraph 1, some jets have to be repossessed because ______.

A. wealthy individuals and companies stop hiring them B. they come with a small price tag C. the payments for these jets are not made D. they make the trip occasionally risky Question 33: The word “thrilling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. willing

B. exciting

C. opening

D. leading

Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. team B. plane C. blockbuster D. compensation Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an information about the job of the airplane repossession specialists?

A. They are responsible for finding the aircraft's location.

B. They check the plane to ensure that it is safe for take-off.

C. They are typically sent as part of a team.

D. They themselves need to fly the plane.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The coronavirus pandemic has changed the way we live and interact with each other. We often speak of the “new normal”. This concerns our social norms – meaning patterns of behaviour, aspirations, attitudes. Norms can be visible (overt) and hidden (covert); if we behave in a certain way long and frequently enough, it becomes normal for us. Our norms have changed during the pandemic since the disease caused by the virus is so infectious that we need to change our behaviour to prevent it from spreading further. These altered social norms include, among others, social distancing, the way we greet each other (e.g. by touching elbows), and the way we work (e.g. many of us are now working and learning remotely).

Changing social norms also affect our social bonds. Because of the lockdown, some relationships have grown stronger (e.g. with family members, friends), and some – weaker (e.g. with more distant acquaintances, colleagues). We’ve worked out new ways to keep in touch with each other, and even to form new relationships – by, for example, organising online meetings or even parties. For many of us, this model of work and communication has already become the “new normal”, and it’s hard to imagine that we won’t keep at least some of today’s behaviours alive after the pandemic ends.

There are many threats underlying these changes, though. It may happen, for instance, that people will become used to communicating only or almost only online, which will make their “offline” relationships weaker. The sense of alienation at work may increase – employees can become more alienated not only from their workplace but also from work itself. It’s still hard to tell what long-term social consequences the intensifying economic crisis will be for our lifestyle and how the way we work and our consumer behaviours will change. Much depends on how long the pandemic will last and how much our behaviour needs to change for us to be able to adapt to the new reality.

It may appear that long after the threat is gone and all COVID-19-related restrictions, prohibitions, and “lockdowns” are abolished, even if we forget about the coronavirus, some of the social norms having emerged during the pandemic may be here to stay.

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. How to Alter Social Norms?

B. The Impact of COVID-19 on Social Norms

C. The Model of Work and Communication D. COVID-19-related Restrictions and Prohibitions Question 37: The word “norms” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. markets B. volumes C. penalties D. standards Question 38: In paragraph 1, we need to change our behaviour to ______.

A. interact with each other B. behave in a certain way long and frequently enough C. prevent virus from spreading further D. greet each other Question 39: The word “model” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. matter B. value C. type D. body Question 40: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. online communication B. people C. changes D. relationships Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Altered social norms include the way we greet and work.

B. We have no new ways to keep in touch with each other.

C. People will become used to online communicating only.

D. It’s still hard to tell how our consumer behaviours will change.

Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4?

A. The threat of COVID-19 will soon disappear.

B. All COVID-19-related restrictions, prohibitions weren’t necessary.

C. People will soon forget about the coronavirus.

D. Some of the social norms emerged during the pandemic will exist for ages.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Today's students also appear more formerly dressed and conservative-looking these days.

A. Today's B. also C. formerly D. these days Question 44: She was studying English when the light goes out.

A. She B. English C. the D. goes out Question 45: If anyone rings for me, please tell it I'll be back in the office at four o'clock.

A. rings B. it C. back D. at Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: You are not allowed to step on the grass in this area.

A. You cannot step on the grass in this area. B. You may step on the grass in this area.

C. You should step on the grass in this area. D. You mustn’t step on the grass in this area.

Question 47: My father started planting orchids several years ago.

A. My father has planted orchids for several years.

B. My father last planted orchids several years ago.

C. My father didn’t plant orchids several years ago.

D. My father hasn’t planted orchids for several years.

Question 48: “You can’t wear your dirty shoes in the class,” said the teacher to the student.

A. The teacher asked the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.

B. The teacher forbade the student from wearing his dirty shoes in the class.

C. The teacher invited the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.

D. The teacher informed the student wear his dirty shoes in the class.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Ms. Nga has little money. She really wants to buy a new mobile.

A. Because Ms. Nga has little money, she can buy a new mobile.

B. As long as Ms. Nga has more money, she will be able to buy a new mobile.

C. Ms. Nga wishes she had more money and could buy a new mobile.

D. Although Ms. Nga has little money, she still wants to buy a new mobile.

Question 50: She finished the meal. Her children came home after school soon after that.

A. Had it not been for her children’s coming home after school, she couldn’t have finished the meal.

B. Only after her children had come home after school did she finish the meal.

C. Not only did her children come home after school but she also finished the meal.

D. No sooner had she finished the meal than her children came home after school.

--------------------HẾT--------------------