Hemorrhage of 20% of a patient's blood volume is usually associated with which of the following?
A. Confusion
B. Blood transfusion requirement
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypotension
Explanation:
Clinical signs of class II hemorrhage (15 30% blood volume loss) include tachycardia (heart rate over 100 bpm in an adult), tachypnea, and decreased pulse pressure. Systolic pressure changes are minimal in early stages of hemorrhagic shock, and it is, therefore, important to evaluate pulse pressure rather than systolic pressure.
Confusion, hypotension, and blood transfusions would be associated with class III and IV hemorrhage greater than 30 % blood loss.
JumpSTART triage should be used when the patient:
A. is less than 60 inches tall.
B. has a heart rate of under 100 bpm.
C. weighs less than 70 kg. D. weighs less than 100 lbs.
Explanation:
The JumpSTART triage system is intended for use in children younger than eight years of age or those who weigh less than 100 pounds (45 kg). Similar to START triage, JumpSTART begins by identifying walking wounded. Infants and children who are not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs, should be taken to the treatment area as soon as possible for secondary triage.
Treatment of cardiogenic shock should begin with which of the following?
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A. Placing the patient in a position of comfort
B. Placing the patient in a supine position
C. Providing low flow oxygen
D. Placing the patient in a reverse Trendelenberg position
Explanation:
Treatment of cardiogenic shock should begin by placing the patient in a position of comfort and providing high flow oxygen. Prepare for assisting ventilation and suctioning the airway should there be emesis. Transport promptly and initiate IV access. Reassurance is important for someone suspected of experiencing a myocardial infarction. If the patient is unresponsive, check for pulse and determine the need for use of an AED.
What is the term for premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preeclampsia
C. Abortion
D. Placenta previa
Explanation:
Abruptio placentae is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall; also called placental abruption, it typically presents with bleeding, uterine contractions, and fetal distress.
Delivery of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks' gestation is a spontaneous abortion, also referred to as miscarriage.
Placenta previa is an obstetric complication that presents as painless vaginal bleeding due to the development of the placenta near or over the internal cervical os.
Preeclampsia is a vascular disorder of widespread endothelial malfunction and vasospasm occurring after 20 weeks' gestation and up to 4 6 weeks postpartum. It is diagnosed by hypertension (>140 SBP) and proteinuria (>3.5g/day), with or without edema.
What is metabolism that proceeds only in the presence of oxygen?
A. Aerobic metabolism
B. Anaerobic catabolism
C. Oxymetabolism
D. Anaerobic metabolism
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Explanation:
Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen is aerobic metabolism. Anaerobic metabolism is that which proceeds in the absence of oxygen. Catabolism is a type of metabolism; oxymetabolism is a fabricated term.
Question: 6
Which nerve supplies the diaphragm?
A. Phrenic nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Long thoracic nerve
D. Brachial plexus
Explanation:
The phrenic nerve originates in the neck (C3 5) and descends bilaterally through the thorax to provide the only motor innervation to the diaphragm. The long thoracic nerve originates from the C5 7 nerve roots and innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage can occur with common sports injuries, resulting in a "winged scapula." The vagus nerves and their plexuses mediate esophageal swallowing, gastric emptying, and peristalsis. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by C5 7 and T1 that innervate the upper limbs.
Question: 7
At what vertebral level is there an imaginary line dividing the mediastinum into superior and inferior compartments?
A. T1
B. T4 C. T10 D. C8
Explanation:
The mediastinum is a compartment within the thoracic cavity. Anatomically, it is divided by a theoretical line that runs between the sternal angle (the angle formed by the junction of the sternal body and the manubrium) and the T4 vertebrae. The superior mediastinum extends upward, to the superior thoracic aperture, and the inferior mediastinum extends downward, to the diaphragm. Additional subdivisions include the anterior, middle, and posterior mediastinum.
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Which of the following is not an indication of a large vessel occlusion (LVO) stroke?
A. Agnosia
B. Unequal pupils
C. Gaze deviation
D. Aphasia
Explanation:
Signs of an ischemic stroke that affects a large vessel (LVO) include gaze deviation, aphasia, and agnosia. These are referred to as the cortical signs. Patients who are suspected of having an LVO need to be transported to a primary stroke center. Unequal pupils are a sign of an ischemic stroke, not an LVO.
The "perfusion triangle" consists of:
A. Heart, brain, and kidneys
B. Heart, blood vessels, and blood
C. Heart, blood vessels, and brain
D. Heart, lungs, and blood
Explanation:
Heart, blood vessels, and blood represent the components of the perfusion triangle. The cardiovascular system can be simplified to three parts: a pump (the heart), a container (blood vessels), and the contents (blood). Perfusion is the circulation of blood to tissues. Adequate perfusion requires a pumping heart, a competent vasculature, and an adequate volume of blood. A deficiency in any of these will result in hypoperfusion, and hypoperfusion leads to shock (not to be confused with hypoxia).
Question: 10
You are off duty when an incident is declared and additional resources are needed. You should do which of the following?
A. Check in at incident command.
B. Wait until a request is made.
C. Depart for the scene as quickly as possible.
D. Check in at the staging area.
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When an incident has been declared and the need for additional resources identified, a request will be made for additional resources. After such a request, emergency resources may be mobilized to deploy to the scene. To minimize the potential for freelancing, wait until the request is made before you depart for the scene. When you arrive, check in with the incident command at the command post, base, staging area, or other designated location. Follow all local protocols.
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