Test Bank for Modern Database Management 13th Edition Heikki Topi, Jeffrey A Hoffer, Ramesh Venkatar

Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 1 The Database Environment and Development Process 1) According to a McKinsey Global Institute Report, in 2010 alone, global enterprises stored more than: A) 1 terabyte of data.

B) 3 gigabytes of data.

C) at least 100 petabytes of data.

D) more than 7 billion exabytes of data.

Answer: D LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) Database management involves all of the following EXCEPT: A) collecting data.

B) organizing data.

C) design web pages.

D) managing data.

Answer: C LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) A database is an organized collection of ________ related data.

A) logically B) physically C) loosely D) badly Answer: A LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 4) Legacy systems often contain data of ________ quality and are generally hosted on ________.

A) poor; personal computers B) excellent; mainframes C) poor; mainframes D) excellent; workgroup computers Answer: C LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 1 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Program-data dependence is caused by: A) file descriptions being stored in each database application.

B) data descriptions being stored on a server.

C) data descriptions being written into programming code.

D) data cohabiting with programs.

Answer: A LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) Because applications are often developed independently in file processing systems: A) the data is always non-redundant.

B) unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception.

C) data can always be shared with others.

D) there is a large volume of file I/O. Answer: B LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by means of common fields included in a file called a(n): A) entity.

B) relationship.

C) relation.

D) association.

Answer: C LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) A(n) ________ is often developed by identifying a form or report that a user needs on a regular basis.

A) enterprise view B) reporting document C) user view D) user snapshot Answer: C LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data is called a(n): A) XML data model.

B) hypertext graphic.

C) relational database.

D) data model.

Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) Data that describe the properties of other data are: A) relationships.

B) logical.

C) physical.

D) metadata.

Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) Metatdata typically describes all of the following EXCEPT: A) data definitions.

B) length.

C) allowable values.

D) location on disk.

Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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12) A person, place, object, event, or concept about which the organization wishes to maintain data is called a(n): A) relationship.

B) object.

C) attribute.

D) entity.

Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) ________ are established between entities in a well-structured database so that the desired information can be retrieved.

A) Entities B) Relationships C) Lines D) Ties Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) All of the following are primary purposes of a database management system (DBMS) EXCEPT: A) creating data.

B) updating data.

C) storing data.

D) providing an integrated development environment.

Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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15) With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a central location known as a: A) server.

B) mainframe.

C) PC. D) repository.

Answer: D LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) A user view is: A) what a user sees when he or she looks out the window.

B) a table or set of tables.

C) a logical description of some portion of the database.

D) a procedure stored on the server.

Answer: C LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) A major difference between data warehouses and transactional systems as compared to big data is: A) the data is unstructured in big data systems.

B) the size of the CPU used.

C) the programming required to access data.

D) all of the above.

Answer: A LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) Which organizational function should set database standards?

A) Management B) Application development C) Technical services D) Database Administration Answer: D LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) ________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access information from a database.

A) ODBC B) Structured query language C) ASP D) Data manipulation query language Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database systems?

A) Redundant data B) Program-data independence C) Better data quality D) Reduced program maintenance Answer: A LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) The most common source of database failures in organizations is: A) lack of planning.

B) inadequate budget.

C) inadequate hardware.

D) failure to implement a strong database administration function.

Answer: D LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a: A) password.

B) constraint.

C) program.

D) view.

Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the logic for accessing the data are built into: A) application programs.

B) database descriptors.

C) fields.

D) records.

Answer: A LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) E. F. Codd developed the relational model in the: A) 1960s.

B) 1970s.

C) 1980s.

D) 1990s.

Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 25) Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the development and evolution of database technology?

A) The need to provide greater independence between programs and data.

B) The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures.

C) The desire to require programmers to write all file handling functionality.

D) The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision support applications.

Answer: C LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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26) The period that can be considered a "proof of concept" time was the: A) 1950s.

B) 1960s.

C) 1970s.

D) 1990s.

Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) A departmental multi-tiered client/server database is stored on a central device called a: A) client.

B) server.

C) remote PC. D) network.

Answer: B LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend as much as ________ of their IS development budget on maintenance.

A) 40 percent B) 25 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent Answer: D LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database approach?

A) Specialized personnel B) Cost of conversion C) Improved responsiveness D) Organizational conflict Answer: C LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of which type of risk in the database environment?

A) Specialized personnel needs B) Organizational conflict C) Conversion costs D) Legacy systems Answer: B LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) A knowledge base of information or facts about an enterprise is called a(n): A) enterprise information system.

B) repository.

C) systems information unit.

D) database process.

Answer: B LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to databases?

A) Network operating system B) User view C) Database management system (DBMS) D) Attribute Answer: C LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) A centralized knowledge base of all data definitions, data relationships, screen and report formats, and other system components is called a(n): A) index.

B) data warehouse.

C) repository.

D) database management system.

Answer: C LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) Languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact with the database are collectively called a(n): A) client.

B) user interface.

C) icon.

D) development environment.

Answer: B LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) Database development begins with ________, which establishes the range and general contents of organizational databases.

A) database design B) cross-functional analysis C) departmental data modeling D) enterprise data modeling Answer: D LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain, and replace information systems is called the: A) Enterprise Resource Model.

B) Systems Development Life Cycle.

C) Unified Model.

D) Systems Deployment Life Cycle.

Answer: B LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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37) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every category of data is listed, and every business relationship between data entities is defined is called the ________ phase.

A) planning B) design C) analysis D) implementation Answer: C LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are created is the ________ phase.

A) planning B) design C) analysis D) implementation Answer: D LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) The SDLC phase in which the detailed conceptual data model is created is the ________ phase.

A) planning B) design C) analysis D) implementation Answer: C LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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40) Specifying how data from a logical schema are stored in secondary memory is part of the: A) design.

B) maintenance.

C) analysis.

D) implementation.

Answer: A LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) An iterative methodology that rapidly repeats the analysis, design, and implementation phases of the SDLC is called: A) CASE. B) CAD. C) RAD. D) MST. Answer: C LO: 1.9: Explain the prototyping and agile-development approaches to database and application development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) One of the most popular RAD methods is: A) automated design.

B) structured walkthrough.

C) prototyping.

D) crafting.

Answer: C LO: 1.9: Explain the prototyping and agile-development approaches to database and application development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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43) ________ specify computer systems requirements.

A) Programmers B) Users C) Systems analysts D) Database analysts Answer: C LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) ________ do NOT concentrate on determining the requirements for the database component of an information system.

A) Database analysts B) Systems analysts C) Programmers D) End Users Answer: D LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) The three-schema approach includes which of the following schemas?

A) Internal B) Logical C) Cross-functional D) Dissecting Answer: A LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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46) A data warehouse derives its data from: A) on-line transactions.

B) various operational data sources.

C) reports.

D) a data mart.

Answer: B LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) Determining the structure of data and the relationships between data elements either right before or at the time of use of the data is called: A) tables on write.

B) schema on write.

C) on demand paging.

D) caching.

Answer: B LO: 1.5: Distinguish between operational (transactional) and informational (data warehousing and big data) data management approaches and related technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) Information is processed data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) Metadata are data that describe the properties of other data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) Databases were developed as the first application of computers to data processing.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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51) File processing systems have been replaced by database systems in most critical business applications today.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception in file processing systems.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) Organizations that utilize the file processing approach spend only 20 percent of development time on maintenance.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) Many of the disadvantages of file processing systems can also be limitations of databases.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) With the traditional file processing approach, each application shares data files, thus enabling much data sharing.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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56) Development starts from scratch with the traditional file processing approach because new file formats, descriptions, and file access logic must be designed for each new program.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) A data model is a graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) A well-structured database establishes the entities between relationships in order to derive the desired information.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) A person is an example of an entity.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) The data that you are interested in capturing about an entity is called an instance.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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61) A relational database establishes the relationships between entities by means of a common field.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) Separation of metadata from application programs that use the data is called data independence.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) Data redundancy is used to establish relationships between data but is never used to improve database performance.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) Redundancy increases the risk of inconsistent data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) A user view is how the user sees the data when it is produced.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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66) One reason for improved application development productivity with the database approach is that file design and low-level implementation details do not need to be handled by the application programmer.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) The data repository assists database administrators in enforcing standards.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) The failure to implement a strong database administrative function is the most common source of database failures in organizations.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) A constraint is a rule in a database system that can be violated by users.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) Reduced program maintenance is an advantage of file processing systems.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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71) Cost and complexity are just two of the disadvantages of database processing.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) The term legacy system refers to a newly installed database management system.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) A modern database management system automates more of the backup and recovery tasks than a file system.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) Organizational commitment to a database project is not necessary for its success.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) Data management technologies are also increasing often used as information systems, as a foundation for analytics or the systematic analysis of data to understand a real-world problem better.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.5: Distinguish between operational (transactional) and informational (data warehousing and big data) data management approaches and related technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) Repositories are always used in file processing systems.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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77) The user interface includes languages, menus, and other facilities by which users interact with various system components.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) Personal databases are designed to support a small group of individuals working together on a project.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) Database development begins with the design of the database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) An enterprise data model describes the scope of data for only one information system.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) Database development projects are never done in a bottom-up fashion.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.7: Identify four categories of applications that use databases and their key characteristics.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) The systems development life cycle is the traditional methodology used to develop, maintain, and replace information systems.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) The steps of the systems development life cycle can only be viewed as a linear process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) Enterprise modeling sets the range and general contents of organizational databases.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) All projects move from the planning-enterprise modeling step to the planning-conceptual data modeling step of the systems development life cycle.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) The repository is populated during the analysis phase of the systems development life cycle.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) The physical structure and storage organization of the database is decided upon during the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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88) Database processing programs are coded and tested during the design stage of the systems development life cycle.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 89) Data from prior systems is converted to the new system during the implementation phase of the systems development life cycle.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) Database maintenance is typically the longest step of the database development process.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) Characteristics of the structure of the database are generally changed during the implementation phase of the database development process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.8: Describe the life cycle of a systems development project, with an emphasis on the purpose of database analysis, design, and implementation activities.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 92) Prototyping is a type of rapid application development.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.9: Explain the prototyping and agile-development approaches to database and application development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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93) In prototyping, implementation and maintenance activities are repeated as necessary until the product is correct.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.9: Explain the prototyping and agile-development approaches to database and application development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 94) Visual programming tools such as Visual Basic have made prototyping more difficult.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 95) Systems analysts work directly with both management and users to analyze the business situation and develop detailed project specifications.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 96) Database architects establish standards for data in business units.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 97) In 1998, ANSI/SPARC published an import document describing the three-schema architecture.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.12: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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98) The conceptual schema is always technology specific.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.12: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 99) The external schema contains a subset of the conceptual schema relevant to a particular group of users.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.12: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 100) A physical schema contains the specifications for how data from a conceptual schema are stored in a computer's secondary memory.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.12: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 101) The internal schema consists of the physical schema and the enterprise data model.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.12: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 102) E. F. Codd developed the relational data model during the 1970s.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 103) The relational data model is no longer popular in the 21 st century.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

104) Although personal databases improve productivity, one risk is that data cannot be shared with other users.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 105) The most common way to support a group of individuals who work together on a project or group of similar projects is with a multi-tier client/server database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 106) In multi-tier database architectures, little functionality needs to be programmed into the client application.

Answer: FALSE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 107) Multi-tier client/server database applications contain a business logic layer.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 108) An enterprise resource planning system integrates all functions of the enterprise.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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109) A data warehouse contains summarized and historical information.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 110) An extranet uses Internet protocols to establish limited access to company data by the company's customers and suppliers.

Answer: TRUE LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 111) Discuss the differences between data and information.

Answer: Data consists of raw facts, such as figures, strings, images, etc. Most of the time, data itself is not very meaningful until we add some additional information, such as descriptive fields as well as some structure. For example, if one were looking at set of student grades with just course numbers and a semester key, this might not be very useful. If we were to add in some additional information, such as course title, semester and year, then we would have information.

LO: 1.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 112) Discuss some of the disadvantages of file processing systems.

Answer: File processing systems have several disadvantages, including: 1. Program-data dependence–The program is tied to the underlying data. Whenever the data changes, (in the sense of structurally), then the program must be modified.

2. Duplication of data–Applications are often developed separately, resulting in duplicate data.

3. Limited data sharing–This is closely related to disadvantage 2, since often applications are developed in a silo. So, for example, the accounting department might develop an application which uses some of the same data as another department. However, there is no data sharing, so two sets of data are maintained.

4. Excessive program maintenance and lengthy development times–Since the programmer has to write all of the low-level file I/O for the application, this adds to the complexity of the application. Also, since the program might need maintenance whenever there is a change to the attributes of the data, there is a need for a lot of program maintenance.

LO: 1.2: Name several limitations of conventional file processing systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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113) Discuss some of the advantages to the database approach.

Answer: The database approach has several advantages including: 1. Program-data independence–Since the metadata is stored in a repository, the underlying data can change and evolve without the need for maintenance to the applications.

2. Improved data consistency–Since there is less redundant data, the data is much more consistent.

3. Improved data sharing–A database can be created once, and then several different applications for organization units can access the underlying tables.

4. Increased application development productivity–Increased productivity since database management systems contain tools for development which aid in productivity. In addition, the developer does not have to worry about writing low-level file I/O. 5. Improved data quality–Data quality improves because of integrity constraints and range controls that can be built into the database.

LO: 1.3: Explain at least 10 advantages of the database approach, compared to traditional file processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 114) Discuss some of the costs associated with the database approach.

Answer: The database approach does not come without additional costs. These are specifically tied to the following: 1. New specialized personnel 2. Cost of installation and management 3. Conversion costs 4. Need for explicit backup and recovery LO: 1.4: Identify several costs and risks of the database approach.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 115) Provide a brief overview of the various components of the database environment.

Answer: Components of the database environment include: CASE tools, a repository, the database management system, the database itself, application programs and the user interface. In addition, there are people such as the end users, system developers, data and database administrators. All of this is an integrated environment which improves the productivity of the organization.

LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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116) Discuss why alternative IS development approaches have evolved, and provide an overview of a couple of these methodologies.

Answer: The SDLC is often criticized for being too long from the time of system start until a finished product is delivered. As such, organizations have begun to adopt rapid application development techniques. One technique is prototyping, where a system is designed as a prototype, given to the user for testing and then corrected as needed. This is an iterative process.

Another methodology is Agile software development, which focuses more on people than processes.

LO: 1.6: List and briefly describe nine components of a typical database environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 117) Discuss who is involved in the database development process.

Answer: There are many different types of individuals involved in the database development process. First there are the users, next the business analysts who work with the users to develop business specifications. Systems analysts turn the specifications into technical specifications.

Database analysts and modelers develop the actual database design. Programmers write the application. Project managers manage the entire project from start to finish.

LO: 1.10: Explain the roles of individuals who design, implement, use, and administer databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 118) Discuss Enterprise Resource Planning Systems, and contrast these to data warehouses.

Answer: An ERP system integrates all functions of the enterprise. ERP systems provide the data necessary for an organization to manage all of its data. While ERP systems rely on operational data, data warehouses are designed to use summarized, historical data and are used more in the role of decision support.

LO: 1.11: Explain the differences among external, conceptual, and internal schemas and the reasons for the three-schema architecture for databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 119) Discuss big data and data warehousing. How is it different from operational systems?

Answer: Data warehousing systems use static data and are used for reporting and some analytics. A data warehouse is implemented using the same technology as relational database management systems. Big data, on the other hand, can use a variety of data, both structured and unstructured. Often, big data uses a schema on read mode, where the database is built just before or while it is being used.

LO: 1.5: Distinguish between operational (transactional) and informational (data warehousing and big data) data management approaches and related technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 28 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 2 Modeling Data in the Organization 1) The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n): A) database model.

B) entity-relationship model.

C) relationship systems design.

D) database entity diagram.

Answer: B LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a data object EXCEPT: A) subtleties.

B) examples.

C) who determines the value of the data.

D) who can delete the data.

Answer: D LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) A fact is an association between two or more: A) words.

B) terms.

C) facts.

D) nuggets.

Answer: B LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems development process because: A) data characteristics are important in the design of programs and other systems components.

B) the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in development.

C) data are less stable than processes.

D) it is the easiest.

Answer: A LO: 2.2: State reasons why many system developers and business leaders believe that data modeling is the most important part of the systems development process with a high return on investment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) The most common types of entities are: A) strong entities.

B) weak entities.

C) associative entities.

D) smush entities.

Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) In an E-R diagram, there are/is ________ business rule(s) for every relationship.

A) two B) three C) one D) zero Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT: A) managing employees.

B) creating data.

C) updating data.

D) removing data.

Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) A ________ defines or constrains some aspect of the business.

A) business constraint B) business structure C) business control D) business rule Answer: D LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business rule?

A) Declarative B) Atomic C) Inconsistent D) Expressible Answer: C LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data name?

A) Relates to business characteristics B) Readable C) Repeatable D) Relates to a technical characteristic of the system Answer: D LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) Customers, cars, and parts are examples of: A) entities.

B) attributes.

C) cardinals.

D) relationships.

Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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12) Which of the following is an entity that exists independently of other entity types?

A) Codependent B) Weak C) Strong D) Variant Answer: C LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a ________ entity.

A) strong B) weak C) codependent D) variant Answer: B LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) The following figure shows an example of:

A) a one-to-many relationship.

B) a strong entity and its associated weak entity.

C) a co-dependent relationship.

D) a double-walled relationship.

Answer: B LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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15) A(n) ________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and its owner.

A) member chain B) identifying relationship C) jump path D) chain link Answer: B LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) An entity type name should be all of the following EXCEPT: A) concise.

B) specific to the organization.

C) as short as possible.

D) a singular noun.

Answer: C LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to the organization is called a(n): A) attribute.

B) coexisting entity.

C) relationship.

D) cross-function.

Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) An attribute that must be present for every entity (or relationship) instance is a(n): A) composite attribute.

B) required attribute.

C) optional attribute.

D) multivalued attribute.

Answer: B LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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19) A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all examples of: A) attributes.

B) entities.

C) relationships.

D) descriptors.

Answer: A LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) An attribute of an entity that is computed is a(n): A) optional attribute.

B) composite attribute.

C) derived attribute.

D) fuzzy attribute.

Answer: C LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called a(n) ________ attribute.

A) associative B) simple C) composite D) complex Answer: C LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) The number of entity types that participate in a Unary relationship is: A) zero.

B) one.

C) two.

D) three.

Answer: B LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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23) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is called the: A) number.

B) identifying characteristic.

C) degree.

D) counter.

Answer: C LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is called a ________ relationship.

A) ternary B) primary C) binary D) unary Answer: D LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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25) In the following diagram, what type of relationship is depicted?

A) Unary B) Binary C) Ternary D) Quad Answer: C LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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26) In the following diagram, which is true?

A) It depicts a ternary relationship.

B) It depicts a many-to-many relationship.

C) Item represents a column.

D) BOM_STRUCTURE represents a row.

Answer: B LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 27) A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a ________ relationship.

A) ternary B) tertiary C) primary D) binary Answer: A LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) The following figure shows an example of:

A) a composite attribute.

B) a relational attribute.

C) a derived attribute.

D) a multivalued attribute.

Answer: A LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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29) In the figure below, which attribute is multivalued?

A) Years_Employed B) Employee_ID C) Skill D) Address Answer: C LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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30) In the figure below, which attribute is derived?

A) Years_Employed B) Employee_ID C) Skill D) Address Answer: A LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 31) An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is called a ________ attribute.

A) simple B) composite C) multivalued D) derived Answer: D LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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32) The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n) ________ attribute.

A) derived B) mixed C) stored D) addressed Answer: A LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting an identifier?

A) Choose an identifier that is not stable.

B) Choose a null identifier.

C) Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite attributes.

D) Choose the most complex identifier possible.

Answer: C LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a composite attribute is called a(n): A) composite attribute.

B) composite identifier.

C) identifying attribute.

D) relationship identifier.

Answer: B LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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35) An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes peculiar to the relationships is called a(n): A) associative entity.

B) build entity.

C) gateway entity.

D) smush entity.

Answer: A LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that can be associated with each instance of another entity.

A) degree B) cardinality constraint C) counter constraint D) limit Answer: B LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are both one is a(n) ________ relationship.

A) optional B) unidirectional C) mandatory link D) mandatory one Answer: D LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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38) A mutually exclusive relationship is one in which: A) an entity instance can participate in many different relationships.

B) an entity instance can participate in only one of several alternative relationships.

C) an entity instance cannot participate in a relationship with another entity instance.

D) an entity instance bridges other XML documents.

Answer: B LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) In the figure shown below, which of the following is true?

A) A person can marry at most one person.

B) A person has to be married.

C) A person can marry more than one person, but that person can only be married to one person.

D) A person can marry more than one person.

Answer: A LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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40) For the relationship represented in the figure below, which of the following is true?

A) An employee can work in more than one department but does not have to work for any department.

B) A department must have at least one employee.

C) A department can have more than one employee.

D) An employee has to work for more than one department.

Answer: C LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 41) In the following diagram, which of the answers below is true?

A) Each patient has one or more patient histories.

B) Each patient has one and only one visit.

C) Each patient history belongs to zero and one patient.

D) Each patient history belongs to many patients.

Answer: A LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge

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42) In the figure shown below, which of the following business rules would apply?

A) Each vendor can supply many parts to any number of warehouses, but need not supply any parts.

B) Each part must be supplied by exactly one vendor to any number of warehouses.

C) Each warehouse can be supplied with any number of parts from more than one vendor, and each warehouse could be supplied with no parts.

D) VENDOR is not allowed.

Answer: A LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 43) In the following diagram, which answer is true?

A) Each employee can supervise one employee, no employees, or many employees.

B) Each employee can manage many departments.

C) Each employee works in more than one department.

D) Each employee was fired.

Answer: A LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 45 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) A student can attend five classes, each with a different professor. Each professor has 30 students. The relationship of students to professors is a ________ relationship.

A) one-to-one B) many-to-many C) one-to-many D) strong Answer: B LO: 2.7: Convert a many-to-many relationship to an associative entity type.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) A value that indicates the date or time of a data value is called a: A) value stamp.

B) time stamp.

C) checkpoint.

D) check counter.

Answer: B LO: 2.8: Model simple time-dependent data using time stamps and relationships in an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) The E-R model is used to construct a conceptual model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) A business rule is a statement that defines or constrains some aspect of the business.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) One of the roles of a database analyst is to identify and understand rules that govern data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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49) The intent of a business rule is to break down business structure.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) Enforcement of business rules can be automated through the use of software that can interpret the rules and enforce them.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) A business rule is a statement of how a policy is enforced or conducted.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) While business rules are not redundant, a business rule can refer to another business rule.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) A business rule should be internally consistent.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) Business rules are formulated from a collection of business ramblings.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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55) Data names should always relate to business characteristics.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) An example of a term would be the following sentence: "A student registers for a course."

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) A fact is an association between two or more terms.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) A good data definition is always accompanied by diagrams, such as the entity-relationship diagram.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) An entity is a person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) A single occurrence of an entity type is called an entity instance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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61) In the figure below, Name would be an ideal identifier.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 62) When choosing an identifier, choose one that will not change its value often.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) Most systems developers believe that data modeling is the least important part of the systems development process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.2: State reasons why many system developers and business leaders believe that data modeling is the most important part of the systems development process with a high return on investment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) Data, rather than processes, are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.2: State reasons why many system developers and business leaders believe that data modeling is the most important part of the systems development process with a high return on investment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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65) Data modeling is about documenting rules and policies of an organization that govern data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.2: State reasons why many system developers and business leaders believe that data modeling is the most important part of the systems development process with a high return on investment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) The purpose of data modeling is to document business rules about processes.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.2: State reasons why many system developers and business leaders believe that data modeling is the most important part of the systems development process with a high return on investment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) In an E-R diagram, strong entities are represented by double-walled rectangles.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) In an E-R diagram, an associative entity is represented by a rounded rectangle.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) Data names do not have to be unique.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) The relationship between a weak entity type and its owner is an identifying relationship.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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71) An entity type on which a strong entity is dependent is called a covariant entity.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) An entity type name should always be a singular noun.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) The name used for an entity type should never be the same in other E-R diagrams on which the entity appears.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) Some examples of attributes are: eye_color, weight, student_id, STUDENT. Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) A simple attribute can be broken down into smaller pieces.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) An attribute whose values can be calculated from related attribute values is called a derived attribute.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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77) A multivalued attribute may take on more than one value for a particular entity instance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) Relationships represent action being taken using a verb phrase.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) Participation in a relationship may be optional or mandatory.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) A ternary relationship is equivalent to three binary relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) The degree of a relationship is the number of attributes that are associated with it.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) The relationship between the instances of two entity types is called a binary relationship.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) The relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a unary relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) It is desirable that no two attributes across all entity types have the same name.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) It is not permissible to associate attributes with relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) A relationship instance is an association between entity instances where each relationship instance includes exactly one entity from each participating entity type.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) One reason to use an associative entity is if the associative entity has one or more attributes in addition to the identifier.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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88) In the figure below, the name of the relationship follows the guidelines for naming a relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 89) A cardinality constraint tells what kinds of properties are associated with an entity.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) The maximum criminality of a relationship is the maximum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A. Answer: FALSE LO: 2.5: Model each of the following constructs in an E-R diagram: composite attribute, multivalued attribute, derived attribute, associative entity, identifying relationship, and minimum and maximum cardinality constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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91) In the figure shown below, a person has to be married.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 92) For the relationship represented in the figure below, a department can have more than one employee.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.6: Draw an E-R diagram to represent common business situations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology, Application of Knowledge 93) A customer can order many items, and an item can be ordered by many customers is an example of a recursive relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 2.7: Convert a many-to-many relationship to an associative entity type.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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94) A time stamp is a time value that is associated with a data value.

Answer: TRUE LO: 2.8: Model simple time-dependent data using time stamps and relationships in an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 95) On what premises are business rules based?

Answer: A business rules approach is based on the following: 1. Because business rules are an expression of business policy, they are a core concept in an enterprise.

2. Natural language for end-users and a data model for developers can be used to state business rules.

LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 96) What is the difference between an entity type and an entity instance?

Answer: An entity type is a collection of entities that share common properties. An entity instance is a single occurrence of an entity type. So, for example, STUDENT is an entity type and John Smith is an entity instance.

LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) How is a strong entity different from a weak entity?

Answer: A strong entity type exists independently of any other entities. A weak entity type depends on another (strong) entity type. When an instance of the strong entity type no longer exists, any weak entity instances which depend upon the strong entity cease to exist.

LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) What is the difference between a simple attribute and a composite attribute?

Answer: A simple attribute cannot be broken down into smaller components, whereas a composite attribute can be. An example of a simple attribute is last name. An example of a composite attribute is mailing address, which would have street, city, state and zip code as components.

LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 56 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

99) What is a derived attribute, and how is it different from a stored attribute?

Answer: A derived attribute is an attribute whose value can be calculated from other related attributes. A derived attribute is not stored in the physical table which is eventually created from the ERD. A stored attribute, as its name implies, is stored as a column in the physical table.

LO: 2.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 100) What are some of the guidelines for good data names of objects in general?

Answer: Data names always should: 1. Relate to the business, not technical characteristics. Student would be a good name but not filest023 2. Be meaningful so that the name tells what the object is about 3. Be unique 4. Be readable 5. Be composed of words taken from an approved list 6. Be repeatable 7. Follow a standard syntax LO: 2.3: Write good names and definitions for entities, relationships, and attributes.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 101) What are the three different degrees of relationship?

Answer: The three possible degrees are: Unary (an instance of one entity is related to an instance of the same entity type), Binary (an entity instance of one type is related to an entity instance of another type), and Ternary (instance of three different types participate in a relationship).

LO: 2.4: Distinguish unary, binary, and ternary relationships and give a common example of each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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102) What is an associative entity? What four conditions should exist in order to convert a relationship to an associative entity?

Answer: An associative entity is an entity type that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes that are peculiar to the relationship between those entity instances.

Often, a many-to-many relationship is converted to an associative entity. The following four conditions should exist in order to do this: 1. All the relationships for the participating entities types are many relationships.

2. The resulting associative entity has independent meaning.

3. The associative entity has one or more attributes other than the identifier.

4. The associative entity participates in one or more relationships independent of the entities in the associative relationship.

LO: 2.7: Convert a many-to-many relationship to an associative entity type.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 3 The Enhanced E-R Model 1) The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all attributes of a supertype is called: A) hierarchy reception.

B) class management.

C) multiple inheritance.

D) attribute inheritance.

Answer: D LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a relationship with one or more subtypes?

A) Megatype B) Supertype C) Subgroup D) Class Answer: B LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) Given the following entities, which of the choices below would be the most complicated?

Automobile: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfDoors, NumberOfPassengers, FuelType, Transmission SUV: VIN, EngineSize, NumberOfPassengers, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission 58 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

Truck: VIN, EngineSize, NoWheelDrive, FuelType, Transmission, Payload A) Define one vehicle entity type to hold all entities.

B) Define a separate entity type for each entity.

C) Define a supertype called vehicle and make each of the entities subtypes.

D) Keep only the Truck entity type.

Answer: A LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) Subtypes should be used when: A) there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type.

B) supertypes relate to objects outside the business.

C) the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that is unique to that subtype.

D) a recursive relationship is needed.

Answer: A LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) In the figure below, which of the following apply to both OUTPATIENTs and RESIDENT_PATIENTs?

A) Checkback_Date B) Date_Discharged C) Patient_Name D) XML Answer: C LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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6) In the figure below, which of the following is a subtype of patient?

A) Outpatient B) Physician C) Bed D) Date_Hired Answer: A LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 7) The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and forming relationships is called: A) specialization.

B) generalization.

C) creating discord.

D) selecting classes.

Answer: A LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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8) In the figure below, to which of the following entities are the entities "CAR" and "TRUCK" generalized?

A) Make B) Vehicle C) Model D) Price Answer: B LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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9) The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types is called: A) generalization.

B) specialization.

C) normalization.

D) extrapolation.

Answer: A LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) The following figure is an example of:

A) partial specialization.

B) completeness.

C) total specialization.

D) disjointness.

Answer: C LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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11) The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype.

A) semi-specialization B) total specialization C) partial specialization D) disjointness Answer: C LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 12) The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.

A) semi-specialization B) total specialization C) partial specialization D) total convergence Answer: B LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) Which of the following is a completeness constraint?

A) Total specialization B) Partial generalization C) Total recall D) Partial hybridization Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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14) A(n) ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses whether an instance of a supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype.

A) disjoint B) overlap C) completeness D) weak Answer: C LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) In the figure below, a student:

A) must be a graduate student, an undergraduate, a special student or some other type of student.

B) must be a graduate student or an undergraduate student.

C) must be at least a special student.

D) must be a doctoral student.

Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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16) The ________ rule specifies that an entity can be a member of only one subtype at a time.

A) exclusion B) disjoint C) removal D) inclusion Answer: B LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes.

A) disjointness constraint B) disjoint rule C) partial specialization D) total specialization Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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18) In the figure below, the patient must be either an outpatient or a resident patient. This is an example of the ________ rule.

A) disjoint B) specialization C) generalization D) overlap Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 19) An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s) is called the: A) determinant.

B) subtype decision.

C) disjoint indicator.

D) subtype discriminator.

Answer: D LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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20) The ________ rule states that an entity instance can simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.

A) disjoint B) overlap C) partial specialization D) total specialization Answer: B LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) The following diagram shows:

A) total specialization.

B) partial specialization.

C) the overlap rule.

D) subtype discriminator.

Answer: D LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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22) The subtype discriminator in the figure below is:

A) Part_Type.

B) Part_No. C) Manufactured Part.

D) Location.

Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 23) The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is a(n): A) overlap rule.

B) disjoint rule.

C) partial specialization.

D) full specialization.

Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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24) The following figure shows an example of:

A) the disjoint rule.

B) the completeness rule.

C) the underdog rule.

D) the overlap rule.

Answer: D LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 25) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has: A) only one supertype.

B) many supertypes.

C) at most two supertypes.

D) at least one subtype.

Answer: A LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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26) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time.

B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.

C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both.

D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

Answer: B LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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27) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time.

B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.

C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both.

D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

Answer: A LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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28) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time.

B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.

C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both.

D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

Answer: C LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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29) Which of the following statements is true about the figure shown below?

A) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and cannot be both at the same time.

B) A rental unit can be an apartment, house or just a rental unit; it may not be more than one at the same time.

C) A rental unit must be either an apartment or a house, and could be both.

D) A rental unit can be an apartment, a house or just a rental unit. It could be both an apartment and a house at the same time.

Answer: D LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 30) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, subtypes that are lower in the hierarchy inherit attributes from not only their immediate supertype but from all ________ in the hierarchy.

A) subtypes B) supertypes C) constraints D) dimensions Answer: B LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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31) The following figure shows a:

A) disjoint constraint.

B) completeness constraint.

C) supertype/subtype hierarchy.

D) spindle constraint.

Answer: C LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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32) Which statement is true about the following diagram?

A) A person can only be a faculty, student, or staff.

B) A student can be both an undergraduate and a graduate student at the same time.

C) All attributes of person and student are inherited by undergraduate.

D) All attributes of graduate are inherited by person.

Answer: A LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 33) An entity cluster is: A) a formal method for specifying attributes of related entities.

B) a set of one or more entity types and associated relationships grouped into a single abstract entity type.

C) a useful way to present data for a small and fairly simple organization.

D) a way of developing more granular views of the data model.

Answer: B LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) The figure below is an example of a(n):

A) supertype/subtype hierarchy.

B) hierarchical data model.

C) entity cluster.

D) column cluster.

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Answer: C LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 35) An entity cluster can be formed by: A) deleting a supertype and its subtype.

B) combining metadata.

C) combining a strong entity and its weak entities.

D) deleting metadata.

Answer: C LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) Packaged data models: A) are ready to use right out of the box.

B) require customization.

C) allow partial specialization.

D) cannot be used for most applications.

Answer: B LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) Which of the following is true of packaged data models?

A) Relationships are connected to the highest-level entity type in an order that makes sense.

B) All subtype/supertype relationships follow the total specialization and disjoint rules.

C) No entities on the many sides of a relationship can be weak.

D) All weak entities are considered strong.

Answer: A LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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38) A generic or template data model that can be reused as a starting point for a data modeling project is called a(n): A) packaged data model.

B) universal data model.

C) enterprise data model.

D) collection data model.

Answer: B LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) Using a packaged data model, projects take less time and cost because: A) less personnel are required.

B) essential components and structures are already defined.

C) there is more time taken to model the enterprise.

D) packaged data models only run in Oracle.

Answer: B LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) All of the following are advantages of packaged data models EXCEPT: A) packaged data models can be built using proven components evolved from cumulative experiences.

B) projects take less time and cost less.

C) the data model is easier to evolve.

D) more one-to-one relationships give the data model more flexibility.

Answer: D LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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41) All of the following are steps to using a packaged data model EXCEPT: A) identify the parts of the data model that apply to your data modeling situation.

B) utilize all business rules that come with the packaged data model.

C) rename the identified data elements.

D) map data to be used in packages with existing data in the current databases.

Answer: B LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) When identifying the parts of the packaged data model that apply to your organization, one should first start with: A) entities.

B) attributes.

C) primary keys.

D) relationships.

Answer: A LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) The third step in the data modeling process with a packaged data model is: A) rename identified data elements.

B) rename relationships.

C) map data to be used from package to data in current databases.

D) interview users.

Answer: C LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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44) A good method for identifying inconsistencies and finding hidden meaning in the customized purchased data model is: A) data analysis.

B) data volume usage analysis.

C) user interviews.

D) data profiling.

Answer: D LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) The most important challenge of customizing a purchased data model is: A) getting user buy-in.

B) determining the business rules that will be established through the data model.

C) implementation.

D) user training.

Answer: B LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) In packaged data models, strong entities always have ________ between them.

A) weak entities B) 1:1 relationships C) 1:M relationships D) M:N relationships Answer: D LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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47) In packaged data models, all subtype/supertype relationships follow the ________ and ________ rules.

A) partial specialization; disjoint B) total specialization; disjoint C) total specialization; overlap D) partial specialization; overlap Answer: C LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) A subtype is a generic entity that has a relationship with one or more entities at a lower level.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) An entity instance of a subtype represents the same entity instance of the supertype.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) A member of a subtype does NOT necessarily have to be a member of the supertype.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) Supertype/subtype relationships should not be used when the instances of a subtype participate in no relationships which are unique to that subtype.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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52) One of the major challenges in data modeling is to recognize and clearly represent entities that are almost the same.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) The following figure is an example of total specialization.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) Specialization is the reverse of generalization.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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55) The total specialization rule states that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) Generalization is a top-down process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) A completeness constraint may specify that each entity of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) When the total specialization rule is set for a supertype/subtype relationship, one could roughly compare the supertype to an abstract class in object-oriented programming.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) The disjoint rule specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one subtype, it MUST simultaneously be a member of another subtype.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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60) The overlap rule specifies that if an entity instance of the supertype is a member of one subtype, it can simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) The following figure is an example of the overlap rule.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) When subtypes are overlapping, an additional field must be added to the supertype to act as a discriminator.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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63) There are three separate discriminators in the following diagram because of the overlap rule.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) A subtype can become a supertype if the subtype has other subtypes beneath it.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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65) The following diagram is an example of a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, attributes are assigned at the highest logical level that is possible in the hierarchy.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) Subtypes at the lowest level of a hierarchy do not inherit attributes from their ancestors.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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68) In the figure shown below, a rental unit can be both a house and an apartment.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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69) In the figure shown below, a rental unit has to be either a house or an apartment.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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70) In the figure shown below, there could be an instance of a rental unit that is neither an apartment nor a house.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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71) In the figure shown below, a rental unit can be both an apartment and a house but must be at least one.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 72) Regardless of the business situation, a member of the supertype is always a member of more than one subtype.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) Entity clustering is a methodology for grouping one or more entity types and associated relationships into a single abstract entity type.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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74) An entity cluster should focus on some area of interest to some community of users, developers, or managers.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) An entity cluster can have a relationship with another entity cluster much the same way that an entity can have a relationship with another entity.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) Packaged data models are meant to be customized.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) Packaged data models use an entity type to store union data.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) A universal data model is a generic or template data model that can be reused as a starting point for a data modeling project.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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79) Packaged data models cause projects to take more time to build.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) Packaged data models can be developed using proven components.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) Data models of an existing database are harder for data modelers to read.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) Packaged data models are as flexible as possible, because all supertype/subtype relationships allow the total specialization and overlap rules.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 83) Creating a data model from a packaged data model requires much more skill than creating one from scratch.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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84) It is easier to share information across organizations if companies in the same industry use the same universal data model as the basis for their organizational databases.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) Adapting a packaged data model from your DBMS vendor makes it difficult for the application to work with other applications from the same vendor.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) Because a purchased data model is extensive, you begin by identifying the parts of the data model that apply to your data modeling situation.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) You will never need to map data in current databases to data in a packaged data model.

Answer: FALSE LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 88) Mapping existing data to new data in a packaged data model is useful for developing migration plans.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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89) It is easy to miss the opportunity to visualize future requirements shown in the full data model when using a packaged data model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) The most important challenge of customizing a purchased data model is determining the business rules that will be established through the data model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) Explain why the E-R model needed to be expanded into the enhanced E-R model.

Answer: The business environment has drastically changed since the relational model was first introduced in the 1970s. Business relationships are more complex, and organizations must have ways to represent data to represent the complexity. Organizations must be prepared to segment their markets as well as customize their products. The enhanced E-R model has evolved to represent these changes and also is similar to the object-oriented data model.

LO: 3.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 92) Explain the terms subtype and supertype. Discuss the differences between them.

Answer: A subtype is an entity which represents data meaningful to the organization. For example, an undergraduate student and a graduate student might be a subtype. A supertype is a generalization of various subtypes and contains attributes which are common to both. Supertypes and subtypes may have relationships with other entities. Also, a subtype inherits the attributes of its supertype.

LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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93) Discuss the reasoning behind using supertype/subtype relationships.

Answer: It is best to use a supertype/subtype hierarchy when there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type. For example, if we have an employee entity type and there is an hourly wage attribute that only applies to hourly employees, it may be best to use a supertype/subtype relationship. Another reason for using supertype/subtype relationships is when you have instances of a subtype that participate in a relationship unique to that subtype. For example, if we have a contractor subtype of employee that has a relationship with staffing agency, then it would be best to use supertype/subtype relationship.

LO: 3.2: Recognize when to use supertype/subtype relationships in data modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 94) Compare and contrast generalization and specialization.

Answer: Generalization is the process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types. For example, if we had undergraduate and graduate students with similar attributes, then we might create a student supertype. The student supertype would then contain the attributes that all subtypes have in common. Specialization, on the other hand, would occur when we discover that we have a student type but there are different attributes for different types of students. In this case, we would create subtypes which would contain unique attributes for that subtype.

LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) Discuss when one would use total specialization and when one would use partial specialization.

Answer: Total specialization would be used when you know that there are no other subtypes of a supertype other than those defined. For example, if we only had undergraduate and graduate students but no other types of students, then we would use total specialization. However, if there were students other than graduate and undergraduate, such as just a general student, then we would want to use partial specialization.

LO: 3.3: Use both specialization and generalization as techniques for defining supertype/ subtype relationships.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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96) Contrast the overlap rule to the disjoint rule.

Answer: The disjoint rule is used when you wish to specify that an entity instance can only be one type of subtype. For example, if a student could only be a graduate or undergraduate student, but not both. The overlap rule specifies that an entity instance could be one or more subtypes.

For example, if an instance of a person supertype could be a faculty member as well as a student subtype, then we would use the overlap rule.

LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Describe how subtype discriminators are used when we have overlapping subtypes.

Answer: When we have overlapping subtypes, we need to create a composite subtype discriminator with Boolean values.

LO: 3.4: Specify both completeness constraints and disjointness constraints in modeling.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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98) Discuss how attributes are assigned in a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

Answer: Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level that is possible in the hierarchy. For example, in the following diagram, one would assign the name to the person supertype so that it could be shared by as many subtypes as possible.

LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) Discuss how attribute inheritance works in a supertype/subtype hierarchy.

Answer: Subtypes that are lower in the hierarchy inherit attributes not only from their immediate supertype but also from all supertypes higher in the hierarchy all the way to the root.

LO: 3.5: Develop a supertype/subtype hierarchy for a realistic business situation.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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100) Explain what entity clustering is.

Answer: An entity cluster is a group of entities and relationships which act as one entity. Entity clustering can be thought of as a way to decompose a data model hierarchically, gaining finer and finer views. Entity clusters can interact with other entity clusters just like entities can interact with each other.

LO: 3.6: Develop an entity cluster to simplify presentation of an E-R diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) Why are packaged data models gaining popularity?

Answer: Most organizations can no longer afford to have data models developed in house, both in terms of labor costs as well as time. As such, the role of data modeler is evolving from artisan to that of engineer. A packaged data model allows one to customize an organization's database needs using a superset of the model needed by the organization.

LO: 3.7: Explain the major features and data modeling structures of a universal (packaged) data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 102) How is the data modeling process different when starting with a purchased solution?

Answer: A packaged data model is quite extensive, so you would begin with the part of the data model that you will use for your situation. You would start first with entities, then attributes and then relationships. The next step is to rename the data elements to terms that are meaningful to your organization. Since the packaged data model may be used to replace an existing system, the next step is to map the packaged model to the current database. This mapping will be used later for data migration. Perhaps the most challenging step is to determine the business rules for the new system.

LO: 3.8: Describe the special features of a data modeling project when using a packaged data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 4 Logical Database Design and the Relational Model 1) A form of database design which maps conceptual requirements is called: A) logical designs.

B) response designs.

C) security design.

D) physical design.

Answer: A LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept 99 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

AACSB: Information Technology 2) Data is represented in the form of: A) data trees.

B) tables.

C) data notes.

D) chairs.

Answer: B LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a: A) group.

B) set.

C) declaration.

D) relation.

Answer: D LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 4) ________ is a component of the relational data model included to specify business rules to maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated.

A) Business rule constraint B) Data integrity C) Business integrity D) Data structure Answer: B LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a relation is called a: A) column.

B) foreign field.

C) primary key.

D) duplicate key.

Answer: C LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 100 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the same database is called a: A) link attribute.

B) link key.

C) foreign key.

D) foreign attribute.

Answer: C LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called a(n): A) global primary key.

B) inter-table primary key.

C) enterprise key.

D) foreign global key.

Answer: C LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a: A) foreign key.

B) composite key.

C) multivalued key.

D) cardinal key.

Answer: B LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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9) In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make table definitions.

A) create session B) create table C) create index D) select Answer: B LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) In the figure below, the primary key for "Order Line" is which type of key?

A) Composite B) Foreign C) Standard D) Grouped Answer: A LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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11) Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a relational schema with sample data?

A) Sample data can be used to improve user communications.

B) Sample data can be used for prototype generation.

C) Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.

D) Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design.

Answer: C LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 12) A domain definition consists of all of the following components EXCEPT: A) domain name.

B) data type.

C) integrity constraints.

D) size.

Answer: C LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) Which of the following are properties of relations?

A) Each attribute has the same name.

B) No two rows in a relation are identical.

C) There are multivalued attributes in a relation.

D) All columns are numeric.

Answer: B LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) Which of the following violates the atomic property of relations?

A) Sam B) Hinz C) Sam Hinz D) Atomic Answer: C LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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15) The entity integrity rule states that: A) no primary key attribute can be null.

B) referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.

C) each entity must have a primary key.

D) a primary key must have only one attribute.

Answer: A LO: 4.3: State two essential properties of a candidate key.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.

A) referential integrity constraint B) entity integrity rule C) partial specialization rule D) range domain rule Answer: B LO: 4.3: State two essential properties of a candidate key.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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17) In the figure below, Customer_ID in the CUSTOMER Table is which type of key?

A) Composite B) Candidate C) Standard D) Grouped Answer: B LO: 4.3: State two essential properties of a candidate key.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 18) All of the following are the main goals of normalization EXCEPT: A) minimize data redundancy.

B) simplify the enforcement of referential integrity.

C) maximize storage space.

D) make it easier to maintain data.

Answer: C LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 105 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a relation, it is said to be in: A) first normal form.

B) second normal form.

C) Boyce-Codd normal form.

D) third normal form.

Answer: A LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) The normal form which removes any remaining functional dependencies because there was more than one primary key for the same nonkeys is called: A) fifth normal form.

B) fourth normal form.

C) Boyce-Codd normal form.

D) sixth normal form.

Answer: C LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) The normal form which deals with multivalued dependencies is called: A) fifth normal form.

B) fourth normal form.

C) Boyce-Codd normal form.

D) sixth normal form.

Answer: B LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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22) A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has nonkey attributes solely dependent on the primary key but contains transitive dependencies is in which normal form?

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth Answer: B LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) A constraint between two attributes is called a(n): A) functional relation.

B) attribute dependency.

C) functional dependency.

D) functional relation constraint.

Answer: C LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A) the key must uniquely identify the row.

B) the key must indicate the row's position in the table.

C) the key must be nonredundant.

D) each nonkey attribute is functionally dependent upon it.

Answer: B LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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25) The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional dependency is the: A) candidate key.

B) determinant.

C) foreign key.

D) primary key.

Answer: B LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) A functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a ________ dependency.

A) partial key-based B) partial functional C) cross key D) merged relation Answer: B LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes is called a: A) partial functional dependency.

B) partial nonkey dependency.

C) transitive dependency.

D) partial transitive dependency.

Answer: C LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) ________ problems are encountered when removing data with transitive dependencies.

A) Insertion B) Modification C) Deletion D) Merging Answer: C LO: 4.4: Give a concise definition of each of the following: first normal form, second normal form, and third normal form.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) The need to ________ relations commonly occurs when different views need to be integrated.

A) metadata B) system C) drop D) merge Answer: D LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) Two or more attributes having different names but the same meaning are called: A) homonyms.

B) aliases.

C) synonyms.

D) alternate attributes.

Answer: C LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) An attribute that may have more than one meaning is called a(n): A) homonym.

B) alias.

C) double defined attribute.

D) synonym.

Answer: A LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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32) An alternative name for an attribute is called a(n): A) synonym.

B) alias.

C) alternate attribute.

D) related characteristic.

Answer: B LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) Understanding the steps involved in transforming EER diagrams into relations is important because: A) one must be able to check the output of a CASE tool.

B) there are rarely legitimate alternatives from which to choose.

C) CASE tools can model any situation.

D) CASE tools model hypothetical business problems.

Answer: A LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) A nonkey attribute is also called a(n): A) column.

B) unimportant datum.

C) descriptor.

D) address.

Answer: C LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, one must: A) create a single relation with multiple lines for each instance of the multivalued attribute.

B) create two new relations, one containing the multivalued attribute.

C) create two new relations, both containing the multivalued attribute.

D) delete the relation and start over.

Answer: B LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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36) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict?

A) Identifying entity/weak entity B) Multivalued C) Composite foreign key D) One-to-many Answer: A LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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37) In the figure below, what type of relationship do the relations depict?

A) Identifying entity/weak entity B) One-to-many C) Ternary D) Many-to-many Answer: B LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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38) In the figure below, what is depicted?

A) A one-to-one relationship B) A unary relationship C) A one-to-many relationship D) An associative entity Answer: D LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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39) In the figure below, what type of key is depicted?

A) Primary B) Recursive primary C) Composite D) Recursive foreign Answer: D LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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40) Referring to the figure below, which of the following is NOT true?

A) A component is part of an item.

B) A component is always used in only one item.

C) A component can be part of an item.

D) A component may be used in many items.

Answer: B LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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41) The figure below is an example of mapping which type of relationship?

A) First B) Second C) Unary D) Ternary Answer: D LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 42) A rule that states that each foreign key value must match a primary key value in the other relation is called the: A) referential integrity constraint.

B) key match rule.

C) entity key group rule.

D) foreign/primary match rule.

Answer: A LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 116 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) ________ anomalies can be caused by editing data in tables.

A) Insertion B) Deletion C) Modification D) Creation Answer: C LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use is considered to be: A) clean.

B) simple.

C) complex.

D) well-structured.

Answer: D LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) Data structures include data organized in the form of tables with rows and columns.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) A composite key consists of only one attribute.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) A primary key is an attribute that uniquely identifies each row in a relation.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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48) A foreign key is a primary key of a relation that also is a primary key in another relation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) Sample data are useful for developing prototype applications and for testing queries.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) An enterprise key is a foreign key whose value is unique across all relations.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) One property of a relation is that each attribute within a relation has a unique name.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) There can be multivalued attributes in a relation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) The columns of a relation can be interchanged without changing the meaning or use of the relation.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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54) Unlike columns, the rows of a relation may not be interchanged and must be stored in one sequence.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) All values that appear in a column of a relation must be taken from the same domain.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) View integration is the process of merging relations together.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) A synonym is an attribute that may have more than one meaning.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) When two or more attributes describe the same characteristic of an entity, they are synonyms.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.5: Briefly describe four problems that may arise when merging relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) CASE tools can model more complex data relationships, such as ternary relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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60) When a regular entity type contains a multivalued attribute, two new relations are created.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) When transforming a weak entity, one should create one relation with both the attributes of the strong entity and the attributes of the weak entity.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) The primary key of the many side migrates to the one side when transforming a one-to-many relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) When transforming a one-to-one relationship, a new relation is always created.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) If an identifier is not assigned, the default primary key for an associative relation consists of the two primary key attributes from the other two relations.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) An identifier assigned to an associative entity is also called a cross-relation key.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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66) In the figure below, each employee has exactly one manager.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 67) When transforming a unary many-to-many relationship to relations, a recursive foreign key is used.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) The relational data model does, at this time, directly support subtype/supertype relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) Data integrity consists of powerful operations to manipulate data stored in relations.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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70) The allowable range of values for a given attribute is part of the domain constraint.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) The entity integrity rule states that a primary key attribute can be null.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) In the relational data model, associations between tables are defined through the use of primary keys.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) A referential integrity constraint is a rule that maintains consistency among the rows of two relations.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) A cascading delete removes all records in other tables associated with the record to be deleted.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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75) The truncate table statement in SQL creates a new table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) A well-structured relation contains minimal redundancy and allows users to manipulate the relation without errors or inconsistencies.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) An anomaly is a type of flaw in the database server.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) When normalizing, the goal is to decompose relations with anomalies to produce smaller, well-structured relations.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) A relation in fifth normal form may not contain any anomalies.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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80) A co-dependency is a constraint between two attributes or two sets of attributes.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) A candidate key is an attribute, or combination of attributes, that uniquely identifies a row in a relation.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) A relation is in first normal form if it has no more than one multivalued attribute.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 83) A partial functional dependency is a functional dependency in which one or more nonkey attributes are functionally dependent on part (but not all) of the primary key.

Answer: TRUE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) A transversal dependency is a functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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85) Anomalies do not generally arise out of transitive dependencies.

Answer: FALSE LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) Discuss the various relational keys.

Answer: A primary key uniquely identifies each row of a relation (or table). It can be either a single column or a composite of two or more columns, which is called a composite key. A foreign key allows us to represent the relationship between two tables. A foreign key in one table is generally a reference to a primary key in another table.

LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 87) Discuss the properties of relations.

Answer: Each relation (or table) has a unique name. An entry at the intersection of each row and column is atomic and each row is unique. Each attribute (or column) within a table has a unique name. The sequence of rows and columns is insignificant.

LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 88) Discuss why it is important to remove multivalued attributes from a relation.

Answer: A multivalued attribute is one that can take on more than one value. According to the definition of a relation, there can be no multivalued attributes. The reason for this will be seen later when the schema is normalized. A multivalued attribute can be resolved by creating a separate instance for each value and repeating the data from the non-multivalued attributes.

LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 89) Discuss why it is a good idea to create an instance of your relational schema with sample data.

Answer: Using sample data allows you to test any assumptions that you may have regarding the design. In addition, it provides a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design and helps to improve communication with users. A final benefit is that you will be able to develop prototype applications and sample queries with the data.

LO: 4.2: List five properties of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 125 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

90) Explain what a candidate key is and how it might be used.

Answer: A candidate key is an attribute or a combination of attributes that uniquely identifies a row in a relation. A candidate key must be nonredundant and must also uniquely identify each row. When we look at functional dependencies and candidate keys, we can always say that a determinant is always a candidate key.

LO: 4.3: State two essential properties of a candidate key.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 91) Discuss how you would map a regular entity to a relation.

Answer: Each regular entity is transformed into a relation. There are a couple of things that need to be done with some special types of attributes. Composite attributes are broken down into their individual components. Multivalued attributes are broken down into separate relations. For example, if there was a multivalued skill attribute, this would become a skill relation. Also, we ignore derived attributes.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 92) How do you convert weak entities to relations?

Answer: A weak entity becomes a relation. However, since a weak entity instance does not exist by itself, we must create a relation with the primary key from the strong relation as the primary key, as well as the identifying attribute.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 93) Discuss when it is best to create a surrogate key for an associative entity.

Answer: A surrogate key should be created when any of the following conditions hold: there is a composite primary key, the natural primary key is inefficient (such as a long name), or the natural primary key is recycled. When you have an associative entity, it is often best to use a surrogate key when you have more than two relations that the associative entity is related to, since the primary key would be a composite of the primary keys of all entities related to the associative entity.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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94) Discuss the two possible scenarios when mapping an associative entity.

Answer: There are two possible cases for associative entities. In one case, you can have an identifier assigned. You would then use this as the primary key. The other case is where the identifier is not assigned. In this case, you would use the primary keys from the other two (or more) relations that are related to the associative entity.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) Discuss how to map a unary one-to-many relationship.

Answer: The entity type in the unary relationship is mapped to a relation in the same way as we did for a relation. We next add a foreign key attribute, which maps back to the primary key. This is called a recursive foreign key. So, if we had a relation such as a person supervises one or more persons, the person_id would be a primary key and then there would be a supervisor id which points back to the person_id.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 96) Discuss how to map a unary many-to-many relationship.

Answer: Two relations are created. One represents the entity type in the relationship, and the other is an associative relation to represent the M:N relationship. The primary key of the associative relation consists of two attributes which take their value from the primary key of the other relation.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 97) Explain how subtype/supertype relationships are converted to relations.

Answer: When we have a supertype/subtype relationship, we need to assign one entity for the supertype and one for each subtype. The supertype has all attributes common to all subtypes as well as a primary key. Each subtype relation has the primary key of the supertype as well as any attributes that are specific to that subtype. Finally, we assign one or more attributes to the supertype to function as subtype discriminators.

LO: 4.6: Transform an E-R (or EER) diagram into a logically equivalent set of relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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98) Discuss the types of integrity constraints.

Answer: The three major types of integrity constraints are domain constraints, entity integrity, and referential integrity. A domain is a set of attributes assigned to an attribute and consists of the domain name, data type, size, and allowable values. The entity integrity rule is designed to ensure that every relation has a primary key and that the data values for the primary key are valid (in particular, not null). The referential integrity constraint is a rule that maintains consistency among the rows of two relations. If there is a foreign key in one relation, there must be a matching primary key in the other relation or the foreign key must be null.

LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) What is an anomaly, and what are the three types of anomalies?

Answer: An anomaly is an error or inconsistency that may result when a user attempts to update a table that contains redundant data. There are three types of anomalies. An insert anomaly occurs when a user attempts to enter new information for part of a table. For example, if we stored customer address with an order. A deletion anomaly occurs when the user wants to delete part of a record but also has to delete related data. A modification anomaly occurs when we have to change the same data in multiple places.

LO: 4.7: Create relational tables that incorporate entity integrity and referential integrity constraints.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 100) Discuss the two major occasions when you benefit from using normalization.

Answer: During logical database design, normalization is used as a check and balance to make sure that your E-R diagram is correct as well as your relational schema before doing physical design. Another occasion when you benefit is reverse-engineering an older system, since many of the tables and user views are redundant.

LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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101) List and explain 1st, 2nd, 3rd, BCNF, 4th, and 5th normal forms.

Answer: There are six different normal forms, all of which build upon each other. When a relation is in first normal form, all repeating groups have been removed. Second normal form means that any partial functional dependencies have been removed. A partial functional dependency occurs when a primary key is a composite key and a nonkey attribute is dependent upon part of the key. A relation is in third normal form when all transitive dependencies have been resolved. A transitive dependency occurs when one nonkey attribute is dependent upon another nonkey attribute. Boyce-Codd normal form removes any further dependencies that may result from anomalies. A relation is in fourth normal form when any dependencies from multivalued attributes have been removed. Fifth normal form removes any further anomalies.

LO: 4.8: Use normalization to decompose a relation with anomalies into well-structured relations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 5 Introduction to SQL 1) The ________ is the structure that contains descriptions of objects such as tables and views created by users.

A) SQL B) schema C) catalog D) master view Answer: B LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) ________ is a set of commands used to control a database, including security.

A) DML B) DDL C) DCL D) DPL Answer: C LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) ________ is a set of commands used to update and query a database.

A) DML B) DDL C) DCL D) DPL 129 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 4) DDL is typically used during which phase of the development process?

A) Implementation B) Physical design C) Analysis D) Evaluation Answer: B LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) The main concept of relational databases was published in 1970 by: A) Itzak Ben-Gan. B) Hoffer.

C) Mills.

D) E.F.Codd.

Answer: D LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) Relational databases are heavily based on the mathematical concept of: A) set theory.

B) bet theory.

C) get theory.

D) met theory.

Answer: A LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) The command for creating a database is: A) CREATE TABLE. B) CREATE VIEW. C) CREATE SCHEMA. D) CREATE AUTHORIZATION. Answer: C LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

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Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) The command for removing a table is: A) CREATE TABLE. B) REMOVE TABLE. C) DROP TABLE. D) TRUNCATE TABLE. Answer: C LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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9) Any create command may be reversed by using a(n) ________ command.

A) undo B) drop C) delete D) unpack Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) The first in a series of steps to follow when creating a table is to: A) identify columns that must be unique.

B) identify each attribute and its characteristics.

C) create an index.

D) identify columns that must be null.

Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) The SQL command ________ adds one or more new columns to a table.

A) CREATE TABLE B) ALTER TABLE C) CREATE VIEW D) CREATE RELATIONSHIP Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 12) What does the following SQL statement do?

ALTER TABLE Customer_T ADD (Type Varchar (2)); A) Alters the Customer_T table to accept Type 2 Varchars B) Alters the Customer_T table to be a Type 2 Varchar C) Alters the Customer_T table by adding a field called "Type" D) Alters the Customer_T table by adding a 2-byte field called "Varchar" Answer: C LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 132 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) INSERT INTO is an example of ________ code.

A) DDL B) DML C) DCL D) TIO Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) What does the following SQL command do?

INSERT INTO Customer_T values (001,'John Smith','231 West St','Boston','MA','02115'); A) Adds a new record to the Customer_T table B) Creates the Customer_T table C) Deletes the Customer_T table D) Updates the Customer_T table Answer: A LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) Given a table named store with 5 fields: store_id, address, city, state, zipcode, why would the following insert command not work?

INSERT INTO store values ('234 Park Street') A) It would work just fine.

B) You must specify the fields to insert if you are only inserting some of the fields.

C) There is no table keyword.

D) INSERT INTO should be INSERT to.

Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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16) What does the following SQL statement do?

DELETE FROM Customer_T WHERE state = 'HI'; A) Deletes all records from Customer_t where the state is equal to HI B) Removes the Customer_T table from the database C) Deletes all records from the Customer_T table D) Doesn't delete anything because of a syntax error Answer: A LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) What does the following SQL statement do?

UPDATE Product_T SET Unit_Price = 775 WHERE Product_ID = 7 A) Changes the price of a unit called Product_T to 7 B) Changes the unit price of Product 7 to 775 C) Changes the length of the Unit_Price field to 775 D) Updates the Product_T table to have a unit price of 775 Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) Which of the following is a technique for optimizing the internal performance of the relational data model?

A) Avoiding indexes on secondary keys B) Clustering data C) Not reporting statistics to save machine resources D) Using random index organizations Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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19) Indexes are created in most RDBMSs to: A) provide a quicker way to store data.

B) decrease the amount of disk space utilized.

C) provide rapid random and sequential access to base-table data.

D) increase the cost of implementation.

Answer: C LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) In an SQL statement, which of the following parts states the conditions for row selection?

A) SELECT B) FROM C) WHERE D) GROUP BY Answer: C LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) The first part of an SQL query to be read is the ________ statement.

A) SELECT B) FROM C) WHERE D) ORDER BY Answer: B LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) The last part of an SQL query to be read is the ________ statement.

A) SELECT B) FROM C) WHERE D) ORDER BY Answer: D LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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23) What does the following SQL statement do?

SELECT * From Customer WHERE Cust_Type = "Best" A) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best" B) Selects the "*" field from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled "Best" C) Selects fields with a "*" in them from the Customer table D) Selects all the fields from the Customer table for each row with a customer labeled " *" Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) What result will the following SQL statement produce?

SELECT Avg(Standard_Price) as average from Product_V; A) The average of all products in Product_V B) The average Standard_Price of all products in Product_V C) The average price of all products D) The mode of all prices Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 25) Which of the following questions is answered by the SQL statement?

SELECT COUNT (Product_Description) FROM Product_T; A) How many products are in the table Product_T? B) How many products have product descriptions in the Product Table?

C) How many characters are in the field name "Product_Description"?

D) How many different columns named "Product_Description" are there in table Product_T? Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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26) What results will be produced by the following SQL query?

SELECT SUM(Standard_Price) as Total_Price from Product_V where Product_Type = 'WOOD'; A) The total price of all products that are of type wood B) The total price of all products C) The Standard_Price of the first wood product in the table D) The Standard_Price of any wood product in the table Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 27) Which of the following counts ONLY rows that contain a value?

A) COUNT B) COUNT(*) C) TALLY(*) D) CHECKNUM Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) Which of the following will produce the minimum of all standard prices?

A) SELECT Standard_Price FROM Product_V WHERE Standard_Price = min; B) SELECT MIN(Standard_Price) FROM Product_V; C) SELECT Standard_Price FROM min(Product_V); D) SELECT MIN(Standard_Price) FROM Product_V WHERE Standard_Price = min(Standard_Price); Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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29) What will result from the following SQL Select statement?

SELECT MIN(Product_Description) FROM Product_V; A) The minimum value of Product_Description will be displayed.

B) An error message will be generated.

C) The first product description alphabetically in Product_V will be shown.

D) SELECT @ will be displayed.

Answer: C LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) Which of the following is the wildcard operator in SQL statements?

A) < > B) * C) = D) & Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) What result set will the following query return?

SELECT Item_No FROM Order_V WHERE quantity > 10; A) The Item_No of all orders that had more than 10 items B) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than one item C) The Order_Id of all orders that had more than 10 items D) The Item_No of all orders that had 10 or more items Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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32) What result set will the following query return?

SELECT Item_No, description FROM item WHERE weight > 100 and weight < 200; A) The Item_No and description for all items weighing less than 100 B) The Item_No for all items weighing between 101 and 199 C) The Item_No and description for all items weighing between 101 and 199 D) The Item_No for all items weighing more than 200 Answer: C LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) To eliminate duplicate rows in a query, the ________ qualifier is used in the SQL Select command.

A) ALTER B) DISTINCT C) CHECK D) SPECIFIC Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) What result set is returned from the following query?

SELECT Customer_Name, telephone FROM customers WHERE city in ('Boston','New York','Denver'); A) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers B) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in either Boston, New York or Denver C) The Customer_Name and telephone of all customers living in Boston and New York and Denver D) The Customer_Name of all customers living in Boston, New York or Denver Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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35) To get all the customers from Hawaii sorted together, which of the following would be used?

A) ORDER BY B) GROUP BY C) HAVING D) SORT Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) A single value returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function is called a(n): A) agate.

B) scalar aggregate.

C) vector aggregate.

D) summation.

Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) Multiple values returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function are called: A) vector aggregates.

B) scalar aggregates.

C) agates.

D) summations.

Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) Which of the following can produce scalar and vector aggregates?

A) ORDER BY B) GROUP BY C) HAVING D) SORT Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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39) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed?

SELECT driver_no,count(*) as num_deliveries FROM deliveries GROUP BY driver_no; A) A listing of all drivers, sorted by driver number B) A listing of each driver as well as the number of deliveries that he or she has made C) A count of all of the deliveries made by all drivers D) An error message Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 40) What will be returned when the following SQL statement is executed?

SELECT driver_no, count(*) as num_deliveries FROM deliveries WHERE state = 'MA' GROUP BY driver_no; A) A listing of all drivers who made deliveries to state = 'MA', sorted by driver number B) A listing of each driver who made deliveries to state = 'MA' as well as the number of deliveries that each driver has made to that state C) A count of all of the deliveries made to state = 'MA' by all drivers D) An error message will be generated Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 41) Which of the following finds all groups meeting stated conditions?

A) SELECT B) WHERE C) HAVING D) FIND Answer: C LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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42) What will be returned when the following SQL query is executed?

SELECT driver_no, COUNT(*) as num_deliveries FROM deliveries GROUP BY driver_no HAVING COUNT(*) > 2; A) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries as well as a count of the number of deliveries B) A listing of all drivers C) A listing of the number of deliveries greater than 2 D) A listing of all drivers who made more than 2 deliveries Answer: A LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) Which of the following is true of the order in which SQL statements are evaluated?

A) The SELECT clause is always processed first.

B) The SELECT clause is always processed last.

C) The SELECT clause is processed before the ORDER BY clause.

D) The GROUP BY clause is processed before the WHERE clause.

Answer: C LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) A view may not be updated directly if it contains: A) the SELECT clause.

B) the HAVING clause.

C) the FROM clause.

D) the WHERE clause.

Answer: B LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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45) Requiring a CustomerID to exist in a Primary table before it can exist in a foreign table is an example of: A) referential referring.

B) referential integrity.

C) ethical integrity.

D) the Hoffer Principle.

Answer: B LO: 5.5: Establish referential integrity using SQL. Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) Which of the following is a purpose of the SQL standard?

A) To specify syntax and semantics of SQL data definition and manipulation languages B) To specify maximum and incomplete standards C) To define every operation for every SQL database D) To permit no degrees of freedom for SQL DBMS Answer: A LO: 5.6: Discuss the SQL:1999 and SQL:2016 standards.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 47) The benefits of a standardized relational language include: A) application turnover.

B) increased training costs.

C) cross-system communication.

D) confusing the SQL programmers.

Answer: C LO: 5.6: Discuss the SQL:1999 and SQL:2016 standards.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 48) A catalog is the structure that contains object descriptions created by a user.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) DCL is used to update the database with new records.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

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50) A database table is defined using the data definition language (DDL).

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) A database is maintained and queried using the data mapping language (DML).

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) The content of dynamic views is generated when they are referenced.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) The views are created by executing a CREATE VIEW SQL command.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) When the SELECT clause in the create view statement contains the keyword DISTINCT, the view can be used to update data.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) The CREATE SCHEMA DDL command is used to create a table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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56) SQL is both an American and international standard for database access.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) SQL has been implemented only in the mainframe and midrange environments.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) SQL originated from a project called System-S. Answer: FALSE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) One of the original purposes of the SQL standard was to provide a vehicle for portability of database definition and application modules between conforming DBMSs. Answer: TRUE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) A major benefit of SQL as a standard is reduced training costs.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) Implementation of a standard can never stifle creativity and innovation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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62) Applications can be moved from one machine to another when each machine uses SQL. Answer: TRUE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) Some DBMS can handle graphic data types as well as text and numbers.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) When creating tables, it's important to decide which columns will allow null values before the table is created.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) In databases, null values are equivalent to zero.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) The DELETE TABLE DDL command is used to remove a table from the database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) The ALTER TABLE command is used to change a table definition.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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68) The SQL command used to populate tables is the INSERT command.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) An INSERT command does not need to have the fields listed.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) The following INSERT command would work fine: INSERT INTO budget values 121,222,111; Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) The DROP command deletes rows from a table individually or in groups.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) In order to update data in SQL, one must inform the DBMS which relation, columns, and rows are involved.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) Indexes generally slow down access speed in most RDMS. Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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74) Expressions are mathematical manipulations of data in a table that may be included as part of the SELECT statement.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) COUNT(*) tallies only those rows that contain a value, while COUNT counts all rows.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) The asterisk (*) wildcard designator can be used to select all fields from a table as well as in WHERE clauses when an exact match is not possible.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) The comparison operators = and != are used to establish a range of values.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) If multiple Boolean operators are used in an SQL statement, NOT is evaluated first, then AND, then OR. Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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79) The following two SQL statements will produce the same results.

SELECT last_name, first_name FROM customer WHERE credit_limit > 99 AND credit_limit < 10001; SELECT last_name, first_name FROM customer WHERE credit_limit BETWEEN 100 and 10000; Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) Adding the DISTINCT keyword to a query eliminates duplicates.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) The following two SQL statements will produce different results.

SELECT last_name, first_name FROM customer WHERE state = 'MA' OR state = 'NY' OR state = 'NJ' OR state = 'NH' OR state = 'CT'; SELECT last_name, first_name FROM customer WHERE state in ('MA','NY','NJ','NH','CT'); Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) The ORDER BY clause sorts the final results rows in ascending or descending order.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) A single value returned from an SQL query that includes an aggregate function is called a vector aggregate.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) When a GROUP BY clause is included in an SQL statement, only those columns with a single value for each group can be included.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) The HAVING clause and the WHERE clause perform the same operation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) The following query totals sales for each salesperson.

SELECT salesperson_id, sum(sales) FROM salesperson GROUP BY salesperson_id; Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) The following query totals sales in state= 'MA' for each salesperson.

SELECT salesperson_id, sum(sales) FROM salesperson GROUP BY salesperson_id HAVING state = 'MA'; Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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88) The ORDER BY clause is the first statement processed in an SQL command.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 89) The WHERE clause is always processed before the GROUP BY clause when both occur in a SELECT statement.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) The FROM clause is the first statement processed in an SQL command.

Answer: TRUE LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) When creating a table, it is not important to consider foreign key–primary key mates.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.5: Establish referential integrity using SQL. Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 92) A referential integrity constraint specifies that the existence of an attribute in one table depends upon the existence of a foreign key in the same or another table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 5.5: Establish referential integrity using SQL. Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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93) Explain the three classes of SQL commands and when they would be used.

Answer: There are three classes or types of SQL commands. Data definition language commands are used to create tables, alter and drop tables, views and indexes. These commands are used to build the structure of the database as well as some additional objects. The next type is Data Manipulation Language commands, which are used to maintain and query a database.

Commands in this class include select, update, delete and insert. The last type is the data control language commands, which are used to grant and revoke privileges on tables and other objects in the database.

LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 94) Discuss the pros and cons of using dynamic views.

Answer: A dynamic view is useful, since it provides a way to access part of a table or a combination of columns from multiple tables. A view can simplify query commands, since much of the complicated syntax of a query can be done to create the view. A view can also improve programmer productivity, since programmers can access views rather than have to rewrite the SQL commands for a query. Security is increased, since users can only see what the view presents. Also, views use little or no storage space. On the downside, views use processing time each time that the view is recreated for reference. Also, the views may or may not be recreatable.

LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 95) What is a materialized view, and when would it be used?

Answer: Materialized views are just like dynamic views, except that an actual copy of the data is kept. With a dynamic view, the SQL is stored on the server and executed when the view is referenced. A materialized view, on the other hand, keeps a copy of the actual data. This increases performance and is particularly useful if the data are relatively static and the number of queries against the view are high.

LO: 5.1: Define key terms.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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96) What were the original purposes of SQL, and does SQL as we know it today live up to those standards?

Answer: The following were the original purposes of SQL: 1. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition and manipulation languages 2. To define the data structures and basic operations for designing, accessing, maintaining, controlling, and protecting an SQL database 3. To provide a vehicle for portability of database definition and application modules between conforming DBMSs 4. To specify both minimal (Level 1) and complete (Level 2) standards, which permit different degrees of adoption in products 5. To provide an initial standard, although incomplete, that will be enhanced later to include specifications for handling such topics as referential integrity, transaction management, userdefined functions, join operators beyond the equi-join, and national character sets While SQL as we know it today does have some variants, there is a basic standard which is adhered to. As mentioned in the text, it seems that industry lags behind the standards somewhat.

Each vendor has its own set of proprietary features which differ from the standard.

LO: 5.2: Interpret the history and role of SQL in database development.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 97) What steps should be followed when preparing to create a table?

Answer: When preparing to create a table, one should: 1. Identify the appropriate data type and length for each attribute 2. Identify the columns that should accept null values 3. Identify that columns that need to be unique 4. Identify all primary-foreign key mates 5. Determine default values 6. Identify any columns for which domain constraints, such as check, need to be stated 7. Create the table and any indexes using create table and create index statements LO: 5.3: Define a database using the SQL data definition language.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 98) What three clauses are contained in most SQL retrieval statements?

Answer: The SELECT clause, which lists the columns and calculated expression from base tables. The FROM clause, which identifies tables and views which we want to gather data from in the query. Finally, the WHERE clause, which is used to specify conditions for selection of rows in the result set.

LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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99) What are some of the standard SQL functions that can be used in the SELECT clause?

Answer: The standard functions can be broken down into 4 categories: Mathematical, String, Date, and Analytical. Mathematical functions include: Min, Max, Count, Sum, Round, Trunc and Mod. String functions include lower, upper, initcap, concat, substr, and coalesce. Date functions are used for converting dates and calculating dates and include next_day, add_months and months_between. Top (to find the top n values) is one of the analytical functions.

LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 100) Discuss when to use the GROUP BY clause.

Answer: The GROUP BY clause is useful when you have a set of values for one column (such as a salesperson ID) and you would like to then calculate something like total sales for each salesperson. Rather than having to use the sum function with one salesperson's ID in the WHERE clause (and run multiple queries) you can use the GROUP BY to get the same results in one query.

LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 101) How is the HAVING clause different from the WHERE clause?

Answer: While the WHERE clause works on each row in a query resultset, the HAVING clause works on the aggregate (or combined) rows in a GROUP BY. WHERE does not allow aggregates while the HAVING does allow aggregates. For example, if you had the following query: SELECT customer_id, sum(purchase_price*quantity) FROM customer WHERE sum(purchase_price*quantity) > 100 this would not work. However, with a GROUP BY and HAVING written as follows we would get back all customers whose total purchases were greater than $100 SELECT customer_id, sum(purchase_price*quantity) FROM customer GROUP BY customer_id HAVING SUM(purchase_price*quantity) > 100 LO: 5.4: Write single-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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102) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages to an SQL standard?

Answer: Some of the advantages are: reduced training costs, increased productivity, application portability, application longevity, reduced dependence on a single vendor, and cross-system communication. Some disadvantages include: stifling creativity, difficulty in changing standard, and loss of application portability when adding additional proprietary features.

LO: 5.6: Discuss the SQL:1999 and SQL:2016 standards.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 6 Advanced SQL 1) The ________ operator is used to combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.

A) INTERSECT B) DIVIDE C) COLLATE D) UNION Answer: D LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) A ________ is a temporary table used in the FROM clause of an SQL query.

A) correlated subquery B) derived table C) view table D) trigger Answer: B LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) In order for two queries to be UNION-compatible, they must: A) both have the same number of lines in their SQL statements.

B) both output compatible data types for each column and return the same number of rows.

C) both return at least one row.

D) both return exactly one row.

Answer: B LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 155 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The UNION clause is used to: A) combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.

B) join two tables together to form one table.

C) find all rows that do not match in two tables.

D) find all rows that are in one table, but not the other.

Answer: A LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Establishing IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing within an SQL statement can be accomplished by: A) using the if-then-else construct.

B) using the immediate if statement.

C) using the CASE key word in a statement.

D) using a subquery.

Answer: C LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) All of the following are guidelines for better query design EXCEPT: A) understand how indexes are used in query processing.

B) use a lot of self-joins.

C) write simple queries.

D) retrieve only the data that you need.

Answer: B LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) A join operation: A) brings together data from two different fields.

B) causes two tables with a common domain to be combined into a single table or view.

C) causes two disparate tables to be combined into a single table or view.

D) is used to combine indexing operations.

Answer: B LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common columns is called a(n): 156 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) equi-join.

B) unilateral join.

C) natural join.

D) both A and C. Answer: D LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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9) The following code is an example of a(n): SELECT Customer_T.CustomerID, Order_T.CustomerID, CustomerName, OrderID FROM Customer_T, Order_T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = Order_T. CustomerID; A) equi-join.

B) subquery.

C) Full Outer JOIN. D) Right Outer JOIN. Answer: A LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 10) The following code would include: SELECT Customer_T.CustomerID,CustomerName, OrderID FROM Customer_T RIGHT OUTER JOIN Order_T ON Customer_T.CustomerID = Order_T.CustomerID; A) all rows of the Order_T Table regardless of matches with the Customer_T Table.

B) all rows of the Customer_T Table regardless of matches with the Order_T Table.

C) only rows that match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

D) only rows that don't match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

Answer: A LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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11) The following code would include: SELECT Customer_T.CustomerID,CustomerName, OrderID FROM Customer_T LEFT OUTER JOIN Order_T ON Customer_T.CustomerID = Order_T.CustomerID; A) all rows of the Order_T Table regardless of matches with the Customer_T Table.

B) all rows of the Customer_T Table regardless of matches with the Order_T Table.

C) only rows that match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

D) only rows that don't match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

Answer: B LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 12) The following code would include: SELECT Customer_T.CustomerID, Order_T.CustomerID, CustomerName, OrderID FROM Customer_T, Order_T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = Order_T. CustomerID; A) all rows of the Order_T Table regardless of matches with the Customer_T Table.

B) all rows of the Customer_T Table regardless of matches with the Order_T Table.

C) only rows that match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

D) only rows that don't match both Customer_T and Order_T Tables.

Answer: C LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 13) A join that is based upon equality between values in two common columns with the same name and where one duplicate column has been removed is called a(n): A) equi-join.

B) natural join.

C) multivariate join.

D) inner join.

Answer: B LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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14) The most commonly used form of join operation is the: A) outer join.

B) union join.

C) equi-join.

D) natural join.

Answer: D LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) A join in which rows that do not have matching values in common columns are still included in the result table is called a(n): A) natural join.

B) equi-join.

C) outer join.

D) union join.

Answer: C LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) The outer join syntax does not apply easily to a join condition of more than ________ tables.

A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: A LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) In which of the following situations would one have to use an outer join in order to obtain the desired results?

A) A report is desired that lists all customers who placed an order.

B) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders.

C) A report is desired that lists all customers and the total of their orders during the most recent month, and includes customers who did not place an order during the month (their total will be zero).

D) There is never a situation that requires only an outer join.

Answer: C LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 160 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) One major advantage of the outer join is that: A) information is easily accessible.

B) information is not lost.

C) the query is easier to write.

D) information's data type changes.

Answer: B LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) An operation to join a table to itself is called a(n): A) sufficient-join.

B) inner join.

C) outer join.

D) self-join.

Answer: D LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) A type of join between three tables is called a(n): A) ternary join.

B) self-join.

C) unnatural join.

D) pinned join.

Answer: A LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) A type of query that is placed within a WHERE or HAVING clause of another query is called a: A) master query.

B) subquery.

C) superquery.

D) multi-query.

Answer: B LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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22) SQL provides the ________ technique, which involves placing an inner query within the WHERE or HAVING clause of an outer query.

A) grouping B) joining C) subquery D) union Answer: C LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) ________ takes a value of TRUE if a subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows.

A) IN B) HAVING C) EXISTS D) EXTENTS Answer: C LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) EXISTS will take a value of ________ if the subquery returns an intermediate results table which contains one or more rows.

A) false B) 1 C) true D) undefined Answer: C LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 25) In SQL, a(n) ________ subquery is a type of subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query.

A) correlated B) paired C) natural D) inner Answer: A LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 162 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) ________ use the result of the inner query to determine the processing of the outer query.

A) Correlated subqueries B) Outer subqueries C) Inner subqueries D) Subqueries Answer: D LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) The following code is an example of a: SELECT CustomerName, CustomerAddress, CustomerCity, CustomerState, CustomerPostalCode FROM Customer_T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = (SELECT Order_T.CustomerID FROM Order_T WHERE OrderID = 1008); A) correlated subquery.

B) subquery.

C) join.

D) FULL OUTER JOIN. Answer: B LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) A materialized view is/are: A) a virtual table created dynamically on request by a user.

B) an in-line query.

C) copies or replica of data based on queries.

D) always an exact copy of the source table.

Answer: C LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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29) When a user creates a virtual table it is called a(n): A) materialized view.

B) virtual table.

C) inline view.

D) dynamic view.

Answer: D LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) What would the following view contain for values?

Create view CustomerOrders as Select CustID, Count(*) as TotOrders, Sum(ordertotal) as Value From customer inner join sale on customer.customer_id = sale.customer_id; A) A listing of all customers in the customer table B) A listing of the customer ID as well as the total number of orders and the total amount spent by the customer C) A listing of the customer ID as well as the total orders D) An error message Answer: B LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) A named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs are called: A) stored procedures.

B) treatments.

C) triggers.

D) trapdoors.

Answer: C LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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32) All of the following are part of the coding structure for triggers EXCEPT: A) event.

B) condition.

C) selection.

D) action.

Answer: C LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) While triggers run automatically, ________ do not and have to be called.

A) trapdoors B) routines C) selects D) updates Answer: B LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) SQL-invoked routines can be: A) part of a DDL statement.

B) functions or procedures.

C) part of a DCL statement.

D) contained within a CREATE statement.

Answer: B LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) All of the following are advantages of SQL-invoked routines EXCEPT: A) flexibility.

B) efficiency.

C) sharability.

D) security.

Answer: D LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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36) A procedure is: A) stored outside the database.

B) given a reserved SQL name.

C) called by name.

D) unable to be modified.

Answer: C LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) User-defined data types: A) are not allowed in any DBMS. B) are only allowed in Oracle.

C) can have defined functions and methods.

D) can be used once in a system.

Answer: C LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) A new set of analytical functions added in SQL:2008 is referred to as: A) OLAF functions.

B) MOLAP functions.

C) average functions.

D) OLAP functions.

Answer: D LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) The MERGE command: A) allows one to combine the INSERT and UPDATE operations.

B) allows one to combine the INSERT and DELETE operations.

C) joins 2 tables together.

D) is always a single table operation.

Answer: A LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 166 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) The ________ DBA view shows information about all users of the database in Oracle.

A) DBA_USERS B) USERS C) DBA_VIEWS D) DBA_INDEXES Answer: A LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) If the DBA wishes to describe all tables in the database, which data dictionary view should be accessed in Oracle?

A) DBA_TAB_PRIVS B) DBA_TAB_COMMENTS C) DBA_TABLE_LABEL D) DBA_TABLES Answer: D LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) The following statement is an example of: CREATE TABLE Customer_t ( CustNmbr number(11,0), CreditLimit number(6,2), CustStart date, CustEnd date, PERIOD for Custperiod(CustStart,CustEnd)); A) a materialized view.

B) an application time period table.

C) a system-versioned table.

D) a dynamic view.

Answer: B LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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43) The UNION clause is used to combine the output from multiple queries into a single result table.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing cannot be accomplished within an SQL statement.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) Figuring out what attributes you want in your query before you write the query will help with query writing.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) It is better not to have a result set identified before writing GROUP BY and HAVING clauses for a query.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) Specifying the attribute names in the SELECT statement will make it easier to find errors in queries and also correct for problems that may occur in the base system.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) Combining a table with itself results in a faster query.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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49) An equi-join is a join in which one of the duplicate columns is eliminated in the result table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) A join in which the joining condition is based on equality between values in the common column is called an equi-join.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) The joining condition of an equi-join is based upon an equality.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) A natural join is the same as an equi-join, except that it is performed over matching columns that have been defined with the same name, and one of the duplicate columns is eliminated.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) The natural join is very rarely used.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) An SQL query that implements an outer join will return rows that do not have matching values in common columns.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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55) Using an outer join produces this information: rows that do not have matching values in common columns are not included in the result table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) One major disadvantage of the outer join is that information is easily lost.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) There is a special operation in SQL to join a table to itself.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) The following code is an example of a Subquery.

SELECT Customer_T.CustomerID, Order_T.CustomerID, CustomerName, OrderID FROM Customer_T, Order_T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = Order_T. CustomerID; Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 59) Joining tables or using a subquery may produce the same result.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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60) The following queries produce the same results.

SELECT DISTINCT Customer_Name, Customer_City FROM Customer, Salesman WHERE Customer.Salesman_ID = Salesman.Salesman_ID and Salesman.Lname = 'SMITH'; SELECT Customer_Name, Customer_City FROM Customer WHERE Customer.Salesman_ID = (SELECT Salesman_ID FROM Salesman WHERE Lname = 'SMITH'); Answer: TRUE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) The following query will execute without errors.

SELECT Customer.Customer_Name, Salesman.Sales_Quota FROM Customer WHERE Customer.Salesman_ID = (SELECT Salesman_ID WHERE Lname = 'SMITH'); Answer: FALSE LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) In order to find out what customers have not placed an order for a particular item, one might use the NOT qualifier along with the IN qualifier.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) EXISTS takes a value of false if the subquery returns an intermediate result set.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 171 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) When EXISTS or NOT EXISTS is used in a subquery, the select list of the subquery will usually just select all columns as a placeholder because it doesn't matter which columns are returned.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) A subquery in which processing the inner query depends on data from the outer query is called a codependent query.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) The following SQL statement is an example of a correlated subquery.

SELECT First_Name, Last_Name, Total_Sales FROM Salesman s1 WHERE Total_Sales > all (SELECT Total_Sales FROM Salesman s2 WHERE s1.Salesman_ID != s2.Salesman_ID); Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) A correlated subquery is executed once for each iteration through the outer loop.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) Subqueries can only be used in the WHERE clause.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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69) Correlated subqueries are less efficient than queries that do not use nesting.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) When a subquery is used in the FROM clause, it is called a denied table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) The following code is an example of a correlated subquery.

SELECT CustomerName, CustomerAddress, CustomerCity, CustomerState, CustomerPostalCode FROM Customer_T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = (SELECT Order_T.CustomerID FROM Order_T WHERE OrderID = 1008); Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 72) A materialized view is not persistent.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) A base table is the underlying table that is used to create views.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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74) A dynamic query is created by the user.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.5: Write queries to create dynamic and materialized views.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) A routine is a named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) Constraints are a special case of triggers.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) Triggers can be used to ensure referential integrity, enforce business rules, create audit trails, and replicate tables, but cannot call other triggers.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) Triggers have three parts: the event, the condition, and the action.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) A function has only input parameters but can return multiple values.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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80) The advantages of SQL-invoked routines are flexibility, efficiency, sharability, and applicability.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) A procedure is run by calling it by its name.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) A trigger is a named set of SQL statements that are considered when a data modification occurs.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 83) SQL allows one to calculate linear regressions, moving averages, and correlations without moving the data outside of the database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) MULTISET is similar to the table datatype.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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85) Establishing IF-THEN-ELSE logical processing within an SQL statement can now be accomplished by using the CASE keyword in a statement.

Answer: TRUE LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) User-defined functions can improve system performance because they will be processed as sets rather than individually, thus reducing system overhead.

Answer: FALSE LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) What is a derived table? When is it used? Can you describe any situations where you would have to use it over a subquery in the WHERE clause?

Answer: A derived table can be created by placing a subquery within the FROM clause. The derived table is simply a temporary table in memory which can be accessed just like a table or view. Sometimes, these are referred to as inline views. A derived table is useful for situations where you need to create aggregate values (such as a sum) and then use these in another query. A derived table would be used instead of a subquery in cases where you need to display results from multiple tables. If the results need to come from a subselect, this is not possible, so we would have to use a derived table.

LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 88) Explain how to combine queries using the UNION clause.

Answer: The UNION clause is used to combine the output of multiple queries into one set of output. In order for the union to work, each query must return the same number of columns.

Also, each output column must be union compatible, meaning it is of the same type. The CAST command can be used to convert from one datatype to another if need be. If you wish to order the output rows, you must specify an ORDER BY clause in the last query.

LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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89) What are some tips for developing queries?

Answer: Some suggestions to help the query writing process include: gaining familiarity with the data model, entity, and attributes that you are querying. It is also very important to think about the results that you wish to obtain from the query. Related to this, figure out what attributes you want the query to return. Once this is done, figure out which tables contain the attributes and include these in the FROM clause. By reviewing the ERD, you can determine which columns in each table will be used to establish relationships and establish a link in the WHERE clause. Once everything works fine, then you can look at the use of GROUP BY and HAVING. LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 90) What strategies can be used to write queries that run more efficiently?

Answer: It makes sense to specify the attribute names rather than just * in the SELECT clause.

If you are writing a query for a wide table, specifying only the attributes that are needed is going to save a great deal of processing time. Also, changes in the base table post-production could affect query results. Specifying the attribute names will make it easier to notice and correct for such errors. Use subqueries sparingly, since these increase processing time. If you have several separate reports which need data from one table, write one query to retrieve all of the data and use what you need in each report.

LO: 6.2: Write single- and multiple-table queries using SQL commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 91) Discuss the differences between an equi-join, natural join, and outer join.

Answer: Both a natural join and an equi-join create a join based upon equality between some common columns. While the equi-join keeps the redundant columns that are used for the match, the natural join removes duplicates. There are situations where one table may contain information that is not in the other table. However, it is necessary to display both matching data as well as records which do not have a match in the second table. This situation is where we would use an outer join.

LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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92) What is a self-join and how is it used?

Answer: A self-join is a join of one table to itself. This is often used for unary relationships where you have a recursive foreign key. One possible use for this would be to produce a list of who is supervised by another staff member. Self-joins can be slow, so they should be used with caution.

LO: 6.3: Define three types of join commands and use SQL to write these commands.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 93) When is it better to use a subquery over using a join?

Answer: Often, a subquery and join will return the same results. Joining is most useful when data from several tables needs to be retrieved and there is no nesting. When relationships are nested, it is best to use a subquery. Also, some queries (such as some not in queries) could not be done with joins.

LO: 6.4: Write noncorrelated and correlated subqueries and know when to write each.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 94) What is the difference between a trigger and a routine?

Answer: A trigger, once written and compiled, sits silently on the database server waiting for an event to happen. It is usually tied to one table and some action, such as insert, update, or delete.

Conversely, a routine has to be called even though it resides on the database server. It may access one, many, or no tables in order to produce the desired results.

LO: 6.6: Understand common uses of database triggers and stored procedures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 95) Discuss some of the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 enhancements and extensions to SQL. Answer: Several built-in functions were added in SQL:2011 and SQL:2016. These include ceiling, floor, SQRT, rank, dense_rank, rollup, cube, sample, and window. Many operations, such as OLAP operations, can be done within the SQL SELECT statement. There were also three new data types: BIGINT, MULTISET and XML. In addition, the merge operation was added.

LO: 6.7: Discuss the SQL:2011 and SQL:2016 standards and explain SQL enhancements and extensions Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 7 Databases in Applications 1) Which of the following is a component of processing logic?

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B) Output C) Retrieval D) Business rules Answer: D LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) A client PC that is responsible for processing presentation logic, extensive application and business rules logic, as well as many DBMS functions is called a: A) file server.

B) file processor.

C) database server.

D) fat client.

Answer: D LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) ________ is the process of assigning pieces of application code to clients or servers.

A) Application partitioning B) Modularizing programs C) Code distribution D) Program breakup Answer: A LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) The client/server architectures that have evolved can be distinguished by the distribution of ________ across clients and servers.

A) memory B) files C) application logic components D) query logic components Answer: C LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Which of the following is NOT a common distribution logic for two-tiered server environments?

A) Fat client B) Tall client C) Thin client D) Distributed Answer: B LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) ________ is/are any of several classes of software that allow an application to interoperate with other software without requiring the user to understand all software involved.

A) User interface enhancers B) Middleware C) Interface managers D) MPP Answer: B LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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7) A client PC that is responsible for processing presentation logic, extensive application and business rules logic, and many DBMS functions is called a(n): A) server.

B) fat client.

C) thin client.

D) workstation.

Answer: B LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) A PC configured to handle user interfaces with limited local storage is called a(n): A) fat client.

B) thin client.

C) light client.

D) overweight client.

Answer: B LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) A(n) ________ is a set of application routines that programs use to direct the performance of procedures by the computer's operating system.

A) API B) MOM C) RPC D) LAN Answer: A LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) A computer that provides database storage and access in a client/server environment is called a(n): A) database server.

B) file server.

C) cloud data store.

D) info server.

Answer: A LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 181 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) All of the following are key components of a web application EXCEPT: A) database server.

B) web server.

C) processing-logic server.

D) web browser.

Answer: C LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 12) An application server A) provides basic functionality for receiving and responding to requests from browsers.

B) provides the building blocks for creating dynamic web sites and web-based applications.

C) provides storage logic.

D) none of the above.

Answer: B LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) The LAMP stack consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) Apache.

B) MySQL. C) PHP or Python.

D) IIS. Answer: D LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) Which of the following is not a basic step to accessing a database from an application: A) register database driver.

B) open a connection.

C) define physical storage.

D) query the database.

Answer: C LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 182 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) A mechanism in a ResultSet object in Java that points to the current row of data is called a: A) stored procedure.

B) trigger.

C) table.

D) cursor.

Answer: D LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) Which Java method retrieves the next row of a cursor?

A) next() B) first() C) get() D) load() Answer: A LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) One major disadvantage of JSP is: A) it runs slow.

B) HTML, Java cod,e and SQL code are mixed together.

C) it is not popular.

D) it does not use XML. Answer: B LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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18) The architecture that most applications use that separates the business logic, presentation logic, and database logic is called: A) model-value-controller.

B) model-view-controller.

C) JSP. D) frameworks.

Answer: B LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) Many Python web applications use: A) iPython.

B) Django.

C) jQuery.

D) stored procedures.

Answer: B LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) A data-interchange format easily for humans to read and machines to parse and process is called: A) Java Oriented Notation (JON).

B) HTML. C) XML. D) JavaScript Object Notation (JSON).

Answer: D LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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21) How the database results are read into memory is determined by: A) the program.

B) the database driver.

C) the operating system.

D) none of the above.

Answer: B LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) All of the following are advantages of stored procedures EXCEPT: A) performance improves for compiled SQL statements.

B) network traffic deceases.

C) portability.

D) thinner client.

Answer: C LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) A sequence of steps that constitute a well-defined business activity is called a: A) transaction.

B) transfixture.

C) database.

D) table.

Answer: A LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) A business transaction requires: A) a trigger.

B) a stored procedure.

C) several actions against the database.

D) human intervention.

Answer: C LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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25) All of the following are well-accepted characteristics of transactions EXCEPT: A) Atomicity.

B) Consistency.

C) Persistence.

D) Durability.

Answer: C LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) In order for a transaction to be consistent: A) it must run the same way all the time.

B) it must tell the truth.

C) it must run using the same amount of memory.

D) any database constraints that must be true before the transaction must also be true after the transaction.

Answer: D LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) A transaction is considered isolated when: A) it runs in a vacuum.

B) any changes in the database are not revealed to the user until the transaction is complete.

C) it can only be run on one server.

D) users can see changes to tables before the transaction is complete.

Answer: B LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) Durability means that: A) transactions can't be erased.

B) once a transaction is committed, no subsequent failure of the database can reverse the effect of the transaction.

C) transactions can withstand failure.

D) transactions never finish on time.

Answer: B LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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29) The actions that must be taken to ensure data integrity is maintained during multiple simultaneous transactions are called ________ actions.

A) logging B) concurrency control C) transaction authorization D) multiple management Answer: B LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) The extent of the database resource that is included with each lock is called the level of: A) impact.

B) management.

C) lock granularity.

D) TIO. Answer: C LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) A(n) ________ prevents another transaction from reading and therefore updating a record until it is unlocked.

A) record controller B) exclusive lock C) authorization rule D) shared lock Answer: B LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) A(n) ________ is a procedure for acquiring the necessary locks for a transaction where all necessary locks are acquired before any are released.

A) record controller B) exclusive lock C) authorization rule D) two-phase lock Answer: D LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 187 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) An optimistic approach to concurrency control is called: A) versioning.

B) denormalization.

C) deadlock resolution.

D) HappyControl.

Answer: A LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) Which of the following threats involves outside parties using information to embarrass a company?

A) Accidental loss B) Theft and fraud C) Loss of confidentiality D) Loss of data integrity Answer: C LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) The role that is responsible for developing overall policies and procedures for database security is: A) Data Administration.

B) Database Administration.

C) Database Development.

D) Accounting.

Answer: A LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) The role responsible for administering database security is: A) Data Administration.

B) Database Administration.

C) Security.

D) Developers.

Answer: B LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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37) A common encryption method to secure data traveling between a client and a server is called: A) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

B) Secure Synchronization Layer (SSL).

C) RSA. D) ITT. Answer: A LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) All of the following are additional methods of Web security EXCEPT: A) restrict the number of users on the Web server.

B) restrict access to the Web server.

C) remove unneeded programs.

D) blacklist bad users.

Answer: D LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) Which of the following is a type of network security?

A) Authentication of the client workstation B) Password naming conventions C) Guidelines for frequency of password changes D) Random password guessing Answer: A LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) Security measures for dynamic Web pages are different from static HTML pages because: A) dynamic Web pages are built "on the fly."

B) static Web pages contain more sensitive data.

C) the connection requires full access to the database for dynamic pages.

D) HTML is more complex than dynamic Web pages.

Answer: C LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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41) The W3C standard for Web privacy is called: A) the Web privacy act.

B) Platform for Privacy Preferences.

C) Freedom of Web Information Act. D) the Magna Carta.

Answer: B LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) Client/server describes a networked computing model that distributes processes between computers that request services and computers that provide services.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) Geolocation logic is the application logic component responsible for data storage and retrieval.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) A client PC that is responsible for presentation logic, application logic, and many DBMS functions is called a fat client.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) The presentation logic component of a client/server system is responsible for formatting and presenting data on the user's screen.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 190 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Business rules logic includes such activities as data validation and identification of processing errors.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) The storage component of a client/server architecture is responsible for data storage and retrieval from the physical storage devices associated with the application.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) A fat client does most of its processing on the server.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) Application partitioning gives developers the opportunity to write application code that can later be placed on either a client workstation or a server, depending upon which location will give the best performance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) When developing an application, one must decide where it will be placed when it is developed.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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51) The process of assigning parts of an application to a client or server is called application partitioning.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) An API is a set of routines that a database server uses to access database objects.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) ODBC is an application programming interface that provides a common language for application programs to access and process an SQL database independent of the particular RDBMS that is accessed.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) In some three-tier architectures, most application code is stored on the application server.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) Java servlets execute from within another program and reside on the server.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) Two-tier architectures are much more scalable than three-tier architectures.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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57) A client/server configuration that has three layers (one client and two servers) has a three-tier architecture.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) Three-tier architectures generally result in higher long-term costs.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) A web server is a key component of web applications.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) An application server provides basic functionality for receiving and responding to requests from browsers.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) The LAMP stack consists of Apache, PHP and MySQL. Answer: TRUE LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) Storage logic is provided by an application server.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 193 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) Open Database Connectivity is an application programming interface that provides a common language for application programs to access and process SQL databases independent of the particular RDBMS that is accessed.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) All .html files can be processed by the web server itself.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) A database is a sequence of steps that constitute a well-defined business activity.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) A business transaction requires several actions against a database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) All transactions must have the ACID characteristics.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) A transaction is consistent if it always runs with the same amount of memory.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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69) When changes to the database that a transaction imposes are not revealed to the user until the transaction is completed then it is considered isolated.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) A transaction is durable if it can resist failure.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.6: Understand the notion of transaction integrity.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) During multiple simultaneous transactions data integrity is maintained by logging.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) Level of lock granularity is the extent of a database resource include with each lock.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) A shared lock prevents another transaction from reading a record.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) Two-phase locking is a procedure for acquiring locks for a transaction before any are released.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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75) Versioning is a pessimistic approach to concurrency control.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.7: Compare optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) Loss of confidentiality is a threat that involves outside parties using information to embarrass a company.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) Loss of data integrity means that someone has stolen data from the database server.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) Database administrators are responsible for developing overall policies and procedures for database security.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) Database administrators are responsible for administering database security.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) ABET is a common encryption method used to secure data traveling between a client and a server.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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81) Restricting access to the Web server is one method of Web security.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) Random password guessing is a type of network security.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 83) Since dynamic Web pages require full access to the database, security is different from static HTML pages.

Answer: TRUE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) The Magna Carta is the W3C standard for Web privacy.

Answer: FALSE LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) Discuss the distribution of application logic components across clients and servers in the client/server environment.

Answer: The first component is the presentation logic or I/O component, which is responsible for formatting and presenting data on the user's screen. The second is the processing component, which handles data processing logic, business rules, and data management logic. The third component is storage, which is responsible for data storage and retrieval.

LO: 7.2: Explain the three components of client/server systems: data presentation services, processing services, and storage services.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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86) Explain how middleware is used in a two-tier application.

Answer: Middleware is any class of software that allows an application to interoperate with other software without requiring the user to understand and code the low-level operations required for the interoperability. Database-related middleware consists of an application programmer interface (API) which allows a programmer to connect to an instance of a database.

Some examples of these are ODBC, ADO.net, and JDBC. The second type of database middleware is a database driver, which is specific to the database that is being accessed. When middleware is used, there are six basic steps to access a database from within an application: 1. Identify and register a database driver 2. Open a connection to the database 3. Execute a query against the database 4. Process the results of the query 5. Repeats steps 3-4 as needed 6. Close the database connection LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 87) Discuss some of the key benefits of three-tier applications.

Answer: Three-tier applications can lead to several benefits in organizations: 1. Scalability–three-tier architecture are more scalable than two-tier. One example would be to use the application server to reduce the load to the database server by using transaction processing monitors 2. Flexibility– in the three-tier architecture, it is easier to switch database engines.

3. Lower long-term costs 4. Improved customer service–multiple interfaces on different clients can access the same business processes 5. Competitive advantage LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 88) Discuss the differences between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Answer: While a two-tier architecture only includes client and database server, a three-tier architecture includes another server in addition to the database server. This can either be an application server, which will contain much of the application logic or a web server. Three-tier architecture has been widely adopted because of increased performance, scalability, flexibility, and reusability.

LO: 7.3: Distinguish between two-tier and three-tier architectures.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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89) What are the components of a Web application?

Answer: Four key components must be used together to create a Web application site: 1. A database server–hosts the storage logic for the application as well as the database 2. Web server–the Web server provides all of the functionality to receive and respond to requests from browser clients 3. Application server–provides building blocks for dynamic Web sites and Web-based applications. Some examples are the Java platform, .Net, and Coldfusion.

4. Web browser LO: 7.4: Describe the key components of a Web application and the information flow between the various components.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 90) Discuss some of the advantages to using model and view classes in Python.

Answer: You can change the type of database by changing the values in the settings file.

Changes to the table structure require changes to the model but will not affect the view class.

Programmers do not need to know the details of SQL because there are methods preprogrammed by the framework.

LO: 7.5: Describe how to connect to databases in a three-tier application using Java (JSP) and Python.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 91) What are the most important security features for data management software?

Answer: The most important security features of data management software are: 1. Views or subschemas. These restrict user views of the database.

2. Integrity controls such as domains, assertions, checks, etc.

3. Authorization rules which identify users and restrict the actions they may take against a database 4. User-defined procedures which define additional constraints 5. Encryption procedures which encode data in an unrecognizable form 6. Authentication schemas–positively identify individuals trying to gain access to the database LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking

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92) What threats to data security must be addressed in a comprehensive data security plan?

Answer: A comprehensive data security plan must address the following threats: 1. Accidental losses, which could be caused by human error, software and hardware-caused breaches 2. Theft and fraud 3. Loss or privacy or confidentiality 4. Loss of data integrity 5. Loss of availability LO: 7.8: Understand the basics of application security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 93) What is the difference between shared locks and exclusive locks?

Answer: Shared locks allow other transactions to read but not update a record or other resource.

This is most useful when preventing another user from placing a lock on a record. An exclusive lock prevents another transaction from reading and writing a record until an update is done by the transaction that locked the record.

LO: 7.7: Compare the optimistic and pessimistic systems of concurrency control.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 8 Physical Database Design and Database Infrastructure 1) A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is: A) normalized relations.

B) physical tables created.

C) implementation complete.

D) all datatypes determined.

Answer: A LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) A key decision in the physical design process is: A) ignoring the size of the database.

B) selecting structures.

C) deciding on the monitor.

D) deciding the e-r diagrams.

Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 200 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when data are used in various ways.

A) maps B) descriptions C) keys D) hints Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 4) Database access frequencies are estimated from: A) transaction volumes.

B) user logins.

C) security violations.

D) random number generation.

Answer: A LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data is called a(n): A) DBMS code.

B) data type.

C) SQL. D) DB layout.

Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type EXCEPT: A) represent all possible values.

B) improve data integrity.

C) support all data manipulations.

D) use a lot of storage space.

Answer: D LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) All of the following are valid datatypes in Oracle 12c EXCEPT: 201 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) VARCHAR2.

B) BOOLEAN. C) BLOB. D) NUMBER. Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 8) The smallest unit of application data recognized by system software is a: A) field.

B) row.

C) data type.

D) column.

Answer: A LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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9) An appropriate datatype for one wanting a fixed-length type for last name would include: A) VARCHAR. B) CHAR. C) BLOB. D) DATE. Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 10) An appropriate datatype for adding a sound clip would be: A) VARCHAR. B) CHAR. C) BLOB. D) DATE. Answer: C LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 11) Which of the following is an objective of selecting a data type?

A) Represent a small number of possible values B) Maximize storage space C) Limit security D) Improve data integrity Answer: D LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 12) In which data model would a code table appear?

A) Conceptual B) Logical C) Physical D) Data layout Answer: C LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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13) An integrity control supported by a DBMS is: A) substitute estimates.

B) security.

C) range control.

D) GUI guards.

Answer: C LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) The value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that field is called a: A) default value.

B) null value.

C) range control.

D) gurand.

Answer: A LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) A method for handling missing data is to: A) substitute with random numbers for the missing data.

B) track missing data with special reports.

C) perform insensitivity testing.

D) delete the associated row.

Answer: B LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) Sensitivity testing involves: A) checking to see if your teeth hurt when you brush.

B) seeing how accurate data are.

C) checking to see if missing data will greatly impact results.

D) deleting the associated row.

Answer: C LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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17) The storage format for each attribute from the logical data model is chosen to maximize ________ and minimize storage space.

A) query design B) programmer productivity C) data integrity D) data integration Answer: C LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) Within Oracle, the named set of storage elements in which physical files for database tables may be stored is called a(n): A) extent.

B) table.

C) tablespace.

D) partition.

Answer: C LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) While Oracle has responsibility for managing data inside a tablespace, the tablespace, as a whole, is managed by the: A) user.

B) CEO. C) XML. D) operating system.

Answer: D LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) A contiguous section of disk storage space is called a(n): A) track.

B) sector.

C) extent.

D) tablespace.

Answer: C LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 205 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) A method to allow adjacent secondary memory space to contain rows from several tables is called: A) cluttering.

B) clustering.

C) concatenating.

D) compiling.

Answer: B LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) A(n) ________ is a field of data used to locate a related field or record.

A) key B) index C) lock D) pointer Answer: D LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) A(n) ________ is a technique for physically arranging the records of a file on secondary storage devices.

A) physical pointer B) retrieval program C) file organization D) update program Answer: C LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) Which type of file is most efficient with storage space?

A) Sequential B) Hashed C) Indexed D) Clustered Answer: A LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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25) Which type of file is easiest to update?

A) Sequential B) Hashed C) Indexed D) Clustered Answer: B LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) A factor to consider when choosing a file organization is: A) inefficient data retrieval.

B) DDL. C) efficient storage.

D) DML. Answer: C LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) One field or combination of fields for which more than one record may have the same combination of values is called a(n): A) secondary key.

B) index.

C) composite key.

D) linked key.

Answer: A LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) In which type of file is multiple key retrieval not possible?

A) Sequential B) Hashed C) Indexed D) Clustered Answer: B LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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29) A file organization that uses hashing to map a key into a location in an index where there is a pointer to the actual data record matching the hash key is called a: A) hashed file organization.

B) hash key.

C) multi-indexed file organization.

D) hash index table.

Answer: D LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) A file organization where files are not stored in any particular order is considered a: A) hashed file organization.

B) hash key.

C) multi-indexed file organization.

D) heap file organization.

Answer: D LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) An index on columns from two or more tables that come from the same domain of values is called a: A) bitmap index.

B) multivalued index.

C) join index.

D) transaction index.

Answer: C LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) A(n) ________ is a routine that converts a primary key value into a record address.

A) record index calculator B) index pointer program C) hashing algorithm D) pointing algorithm Answer: C LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 208 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) A method that speeds query processing by running a query at the same time against several partitions of a table using multiprocessors is called: A) multiple partition queries.

B) perpendicular query processing.

C) parallel query processing.

D) query optimization.

Answer: C LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) A command used in Oracle to display how the query optimizer intends to access indexes, use parallel servers, and join tables to prepare query results is the: A) explain plan.

B) show optimization.

C) explain query.

D) analyze query.

Answer: A LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) All of the following are common denormalization opportunities EXCEPT: A) two entities with a one-to-one relationship.

B) a one-to-many relationship.

C) a many-to-many relationship with nonkey attributes.

D) reference data.

Answer: B LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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36) In most cases, the goal of ________ dominates the design process.

A) efficient data processing B) security C) quick pointer updates D) shorter design times Answer: A LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) Distributing the rows of data into separate files is called: A) normalization.

B) horizontal partitioning.

C) vertical partitioning.

D) file allocation.

Answer: B LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) Horizontal partitioning makes sense: A) when different categories of a table's rows are processed separately.

B) when less security is needed.

C) when partitions must be organized the same.

D) when only one category is allowed.

Answer: A LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) An advantage of partitioning is: A) efficiency.

B) remote optimization.

C) extra space and update time.

D) increase redundancy.

Answer: A LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 210 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) A disadvantage of partitioning is: A) simplicity.

B) remote optimization.

C) extra space and update time.

D) shorter technology spans.

Answer: C LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) ________ partitioning distributes the columns of a table into several separate physical records.

A) Horizontal B) Crossways C) Vertical D) Final Answer: C LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) A form of denormalization where the same data are purposely stored in multiple places in the database is called: A) data duplication.

B) data replication.

C) advanced placement.

D) horizontal partitioning.

Answer: B LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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43) Which of the following threats involves outside parties using information to embarrass a company?

A) Accidental loss B) Theft and fraud C) Loss of confidentiality D) Loss of data integrity Answer: C LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) Guidelines for server security should include all of the following EXCEPT: A) securing the network between client and server.

B) guidelines for password lengths.

C) password naming conventions.

D) guidelines for frequency of password changes.

Answer: A LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) While views promote security by restricting user access to data, they are not adequate security measures because: A) an unauthorized person may gain access to a view through experimentation.

B) all users can read any view.

C) a view's data does not change.

D) views are not possible to create in most DBMS. Answer: A LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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46) A trigger can be used as a security measure in which of the following ways?

A) To check for viruses B) To cause special handling procedures to be executed C) To design a database D) To conduct a DFD analysis Answer: B LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) Controls designed to restrict access and activities are called: A) schemas.

B) business rules.

C) encryption controls.

D) authorization rules.

Answer: D LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) Which of the following is a principal type of authorization table?

A) Subject B) Transaction C) View D) Index Answer: A LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) A device to measure or detect fingerprints or signatures is called a(n) ________ device.

A) biometric B) view C) ink D) laser Answer: A LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 213 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) The coding or scrambling of data so that humans cannot read them is called: A) demarcation.

B) hiding.

C) encoding.

D) encryption.

Answer: D LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) A credit-card sized plastic card with an embedded microprocessor chip with the ability to store, process, and output electronic data in a secure manner is called a(n): A) smart chip.

B) smart card.

C) e-credit card.

D) secure card.

Answer: B LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Sarbanes-Oxley Act was enacted to ensure the integrity of: A) SQL. B) public companies' financial statements.

C) private companies' shareholders meetings.

D) Entity-Relationship Diagrams.

Answer: B LO: 8.9: Understand the role of databases in Sarbanes-Oxley compliance.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) An audit trail of database changes is kept by a: A) change control device.

B) subschema.

C) before image.

D) journalizing facility.

Answer: D LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 214 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

54) A DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals through the use of a: A) checkpoint facility.

B) backup facility.

C) recovery manager.

D) database change log.

Answer: A LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) A discrete unit of work that must be processed completely or not at all within a computer system is called a: A) change control device.

B) transaction.

C) before image.

D) journalizing facility.

Answer: B LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) A ________ is a DBMS module that restores the database to a correct condition when a failure occurs.

A) backup facility B) recovery manager C) restart facility D) transaction logger Answer: B LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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57) ________ is used to undo unwanted database changes.

A) Rollback B) Rollforward C) Restart D) Encryption Answer: A LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) Forward recovery is faster than restore/rerun because: A) transactions do not have to be repeated.

B) security can be avoided.

C) images are mirrored.

D) systems are more complete.

Answer: A LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) The preferred method of fixing an aborted transaction is: A) repairing the schema.

B) switching.

C) duplication of data.

D) backing out the transaction.

Answer: D LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) When incorrect data have been introduced, the database is best recovered by: A) starting with a new ERD. B) formatting server.

C) restarting from the most recent checkpoint and processing subsequent transactions.

D) reloading RDMS software.

Answer: C LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 216 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

61) A transaction that terminates abnormally is called a(n) ________ transaction.

A) terminated B) aborted C) completed D) deleted Answer: B LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) With ________, the database itself is lost, destroyed, or cannot be read.

A) aborted transaction B) database destruction C) incorrect data D) system failure Answer: B LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) All of the following are characteristics of cloud technologies EXCEPT: A) unlimited bandwidth.

B) on-demand self-service IT capabilities.

C) broad network access.

D) rapid elasticity.

Answer: A LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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64) A cloud computing approach in which the service consists of infrastructure resources and additional tools that enable application and solution data management solution developers to reach a high level of productivity is called: A) Software-as-a-service.

B) Platform-as-a-service.

C) Infrastructure-as-a-service.

D) Tools-as-a-service.

Answer: B LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) A cloud computing approach in which the service consists mainly of hardware and systems software resources is called: A) Infrastructure-as-a-service.

B) Platform-as-a-service.

C) Software-as-a-service.

D) IDE. Answer: A LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) A cloud computing approach in which the service consists of software solutions intended to address the needs of a noncompeting activity is called: A) Infrastructure-as-a-service.

B) Platform-as-a-service.

C) Software-as-a-service.

D) Soft-computing-service.

Answer: C LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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67) A data management platform service is called: A) Infrastructure-as-a-service.

B) Platform-as-a-service.

C) Software-as-a-service.

D) Database-as-a-service.

Answer: D LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) All of the following are advantages to cloud-based computing EXCEPT: A) no need for initial investment in hardware, physical facilities and systems software.

B) elasticity.

C) organizations can explore new data management technologies more easily.

D) ACID support for database as a service.

Answer: D LO: 8.13: Describe the advantages and disadvantages of cloud-based database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) All of the following are disadvantages to cloud-based computing EXCEPT: A) the promise of elasticity is not fulfilled because the model will not adapt to changing requirements.

B) live migration from one environment to another is a challenge.

C) DBaaS is still struggling to provide ACID properties of databases.

D) the visibility of costs of data management is better.

Answer: D LO: 8.13: Describe the advantages and disadvantages of cloud-based database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) Requirements for response time, data security, backup, and recovery are all requirements for physical design.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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71) One decision in the physical design process is selecting structures.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) The logical database design always forms the best foundation for grouping attributes in the physical design.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) Efficient database structures will be beneficial only if queries and the underlying database management system are tuned to properly use the structures.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) SOX stands for the Sorbet-Oxford Act. Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) Adding notations to the EER diagram regarding data volumes and usage is of no value to the physical design process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) The smallest unit of named application data is a record.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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77) One objective of selecting a data type is to minimize storage space.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) The Number datatype would be appropriate for a zip code.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 79) VarChar2 would be appropriate for a user that wanted a text datatype for LastName that would only consume the required space.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 80) A default value is the value that a field will always assume, regardless of what the user enters for an instance of that field.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) A range control limits the set of permissible values that a field may assume.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) Sensitivity testing involves ignoring missing data unless knowing a value might significantly change results.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) One method to handle missing values is to substitute an exact value.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) An extent is a named portion of secondary memory allocated for the purpose of storing physical records.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) A tablespace is a named set of disk storage elements in which physical files for the database tables may be stored.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.3: Choose storage formats for attributes from a logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) A pointer is a field of data that can be used to locate a related field or record of data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) A file organization is a named portion of primary memory.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 88) A key is a data structure used to determine the location of rows in a file that satisfy some condition.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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89) Fast data retrieval is one factor to consider when choosing a file organization for a particular database file.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) A hashing algorithm is a routine that converts a primary key value into a relative record address.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) Clustering allows for adjacent secondary memory locations to contain rows from several tables.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 92) In a sequential file, the records are stored in sequence according to a primary key value.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 93) In a Heap file organization, files are not stored in any particular order.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 94) A join index is a combination of two or more indexes.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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95) Indexes are most useful on small, clustered files.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 96) Indexes are most useful for columns that frequently appear in WHERE clauses of SQL commands, either to qualify the rows to select or for linking.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 97) Using an index for attributes referenced in ORDER BY and GROUP BY clauses has no significant impact upon database performance.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 98) Denormalization is the process of transforming relations with variable-length fields into those with fixed-length fields.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 99) Keeping the zip code with the city and state in a table is a typical form of denormalization.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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100) Denormalization almost always leads to more storage space for raw data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 101) Horizontal partitioning refers to the process of combining several smaller relations into a larger table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 102) Horizontal partitioning is very different from creating a supertype/subtype relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 103) Security is one advantage of partitioning.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 104) Reduced uptime is a disadvantage of partitioning.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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105) Hash partitioning spreads data evenly across partitions independent of any partition key value.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 106) Free range partitioning is a type of horizontal partitioning in which each partition is defined by a range of values for one or more columns in the normalized table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 107) Vertical partitioning means distributing the columns of a table into several separate physical tables.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 108) Parallel query processing speed is not significantly different from running queries in a nonparallel mode.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 109) Along with table scans, other elements of a query can be processed in parallel.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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110) The query processor always knows the best way to process a query.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 111) The goal of database security is the protection of data from accidental or intentional threats to its integrity and access.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 112) Loss of data integrity does not impact the quality of data in a database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 113) A view can be built to present only the data to which a user requires access.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 114) A domain is a way to create a structure that acts like a table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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115) A trigger can be used for security purposes to prohibit inappropriate actions, such as changing a salary value outside of a business day.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 116) Authorization rules are controls incorporated in the data management system that restrict access to data and also restrict the actions that people may take when they access the data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 117) There are two principal types of authorization tables: one for subjects and one for facts.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 118) With a one-key encryption standard, both the sender and the receiver need to know the key that is used to scramble the transmitted or stored data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 119) The first line of defense for authentication is the use of passwords, which is a one-factor authentication scheme.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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120) Three-factor authentication is most often implemented with a credit card.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 121) Controls incorporated into a data management system that restrict access to data are called authentication rules.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 122) An audit trail of transactions and database changes is kept by a journalizing facility.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 123) A key component of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act was enacted to ensure the integrity of IT infrastructure in use within an organization.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.9: Understand the role of databases in Sarbanes-Oxley compliance.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 124) The record log is a record of the essential data for each transaction that has been processed against the database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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125) A checkpoint facility is a facility by which the DBMS refuses to accept any new transactions.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 126) The restoration manager allows the DBMS to restore the database to a correct condition and restart processing transactions.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 127) The restore/rerun technique involves reprocessing the day's transactions against the backup copy of the database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 128) A database management system needs to provide only three basic facilities for backup and recovery of a database: backup facilities, journalizing facilities, and a recovery manager.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 129) A DBMS must provide journalizing facilities to provide an audit trail of transactions and database changes.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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130) The transaction log contains before and after images of records that have been modified.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 131) A DBMS may perform checkpoints automatically or in response to commands in user application programs.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 132) In order to perform a restore/rerun, the database must be mirrored.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 133) A business transaction is a sequence of steps that constitute some well-defined business activity.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 134) Backward recovery starts with an earlier copy of the database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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135) A typical cause of database destruction is a disk crash.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 136) Database applications are not very disk intensive.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.11: Describe the problem of tuning a database to achieve better performance, and list five areas where changes may be made when tuning a database.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 137) Examination and modification of the SQL code in an application may lead to performance improvements.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.11: Describe the problem of tuning a database to achieve better performance, and list five areas where changes may be made when tuning a database.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 138) Unlimited bandwidth is a characteristic of cloud computing.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 139) Broad network access is a characteristic of cloud computing.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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140) Platform-as-a-service is an approach for providing infrastructure resources and tools for developers to be productive.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.12: Understand the impact of the use of cloud-based database services on database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 141) ACID support for database-as-a-service is easily provided in a cloud computing environment.

Answer: FALSE LO: 8.13: Describe the advantages and disadvantages of cloud-based database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 142) Live migration from one environment to another in cloud computing is a challenge.

Answer: TRUE LO: 8.13: Describe the advantages and disadvantages of cloud-based database infrastructure.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 143) Discuss the critical decisions that must be made during physical database design.

Answer: First, one must choose the storage format (or data types) of each attribute. These should be chosen to maximize data integrity and minimize storage space. Next, one must decide how to group the attributes from the logical model into tables. One must also decide upon the file organization to be used to store records, and also think about protecting data and how to recover if errors are found. Finally, one has to think about indexing and query optimization. What types of indexes will be required for the most efficient retrieval? How can queries be optimized?

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 144) Discuss why physical database design is a foundation for compliance with regulations on financial reporting.

Answer: Careful physical design enables an organization to demonstrate that data are accurate and well protected. Laws such as Sarbanes-Oxley and Basel III have been enacted to protect investors by requiring an internal control report within each financial report. Without a good physical design, an organization would be hard pressed to prove that its data are accurate.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 233 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

145) Discuss the rationale behind data volume and usage analysis.

Answer: Data volume and frequency of use statistics are important inputs to the database design process. One has to maintain a good understanding of the size and usage patterns throughout the lifecycle of the database in order to plan the design.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 146) Explain how one goes about choosing data types.

Answer: Selecting a datatype involves four objectives that have different levels of importance for different applications. One must represent all possible values, improve data integrity, support all data manipulations, and minimize storage space.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 147) Discuss coding techniques and how they could be used.

Answer: Coding techniques are used in cases when attributes have a sparse set of values or have large values which would negatively impact storage space. In this case, one can translate the values into codes. For example, one may have a list of colors for a car, which would have a limited number of values. In this case, one could create a lookup table for color and then replace the value for color with a code.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 148) Discuss how data integrity can be controlled.

Answer: In many database management systems, data integrity controls can be built into the field. The data type is one integrity control. Another integrity control is default values, where one specifies the value that the field will take if no data has been entered. Range control is another data integrity constraint which indicates the upper and lower bounds for the field. Null value control allows one to specify whether null values are allowed or not in the field. Finally, referential integrity ensures that any value entered into a foreign key must have a corresponding value in the primary key of the related table. This ensures that there are no misplaced values in the foreign key.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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149) How are missing values generally handled in database management systems?

Answer: When dealing with missing data, there are many options. Two integrity controls (default value and null control) will handle this problem. One also could substitute an estimate for the missing value which would then be stored in place of the missing value (and marked as an estimate). Another possible method is to use triggers to track missing values and create a log which can be viewed later. One other method is to perform sensitivity testing, which will tell us whether having missing data greatly impacts results. If results are not impacted, then the missing values are ignored.

LO: 8.2: Describe the physical database design process, its objectives, and its deliverables.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 150) List the seven factors to consider when choosing a file organization for a particular file in a database.

Answer: The seven factors are: 1. Fast data retrieval 2. High throughput for processing data input and maintenance transactions 3. Efficient use of storage space 4. Protection from failures or data loss 5. Minimizing need for reorganization 6. Accommodating growth 7. Security from unauthorized use LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 151) Explain what a tablespace is and how it is used.

Answer: A tablespace is a named logical storage unit in which data from one or more tables, views, and indexes can be stored. A tablespace is mapped to one or more physical files in the OS and can be set to increase in size automatically. A tablespace can, in many ways, be thought of as its own file system available to the RDBMS. LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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152) What is a hashing algorithm and how is it used in hashed file organizations?

Answer: A hashing algorithm is a routine which converts a primary key value into a record address. Hashing algorithms are typically mathematical routines which perform computations such as dividing a primary key by a prime number and then using the remainder for a storage location. The hashing algorithm is used in a file organization to determine where to store the record. One limitation of this is that only one key value can be used for an index.

LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 153) What is clustering?

Answer: Clustering is a technique used in some database management systems (such as Oracle) to allow adjacent secondary memory space to contain rows from several tables. A cluster is defined by the tables used as well as the column or columns used for clustering. To create a cluster in Oracle, for example, we would create a cluster first with a create cluster command and then reference the cluster when we create each individual table.

LO: 8.4: Select an appropriate file organization by balancing various important design factors.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 154) Explain the differences between sequential and indexed file organizations.

Answer: In sequential file organization, the records are stored sequentially according to a primary key value. In index file organizations, the records are stored either sequentially or nonsequentially. An index is created that allows the application software to locate individual records.

The index can be thought of as a card catalog.

LO: 8.5: Describe three important types of file organization.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 155) Explain what primary, secondary and unique key indexes are.

Answer: A primary key index is automatically generated when a table is created (provided that a primary key is specified). The primary key index identifies uniquely each row of the table. Thus, there is one entry in the primary key index for each row. A unique key index is similar, except that we have to define this with a separate create index command. A secondary key is nonunique.

So, for example, we might create a secondary index on state. Since many records would have the same state, this is non-unique.

LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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156) Discuss when it is best to use indexes.

Answer: One should always specify a primary key index for each table. Also, indexes are most useful on larger tables. Columns that frequently appear in WHERE clauses of SQL statements are good candidates for indexes, as well as those fields referenced by WHERE clauses and GROUP BY clauses. Any field where there is a wide variety of values is also a good candidate.

One should use caution when creating indexes, however, since indexes do require overhead and must be updated for each insert, delete and update. This can cause significant overhead if there are a large number of transactions taking place against the database.

LO: 8.6: Describe the purpose of indexes and the important considerations in selecting attributes to be indexed.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 157) Discuss three possible opportunities for denormalization.

Answer: There are several possible situations when denormalization makes sense. When we have two entities with a one-to-one relationship and high access frequency between them, then it makes sense to combine them into one entity. If one entity is optional, then there will be fields with null values in the combined entity.

Another scenario is when you have an associative entity with nonkey attributes. If there is a high frequency of join operations between the entities, it might be more efficient to combine the associative entity with one of the other entities.

The third case is reference data. If we have a 1:M relationship and the entity on the one side does not participate in any other relationships, then it might be wise to merge the entities.

LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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158) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of partitioning.

Answer: Partitioning data has several advantages. First, queries are more efficient since data queried together are stored close to one another. Also, each partition of data can be stored in such a way as to optimize its own use. Partitioned data is more secure, since it is much easier to isolate data and make it available only to a group of users. Since smaller files take less time to backup and recover, it is easier to keep a partitioned database up and running. Also, the effects of damage are isolated, since other files (partitions) may not be affected by one damaged file. It is also easier to load balance, since the smaller files can be spread across multiple disks.

Some disadvantages include inconsistent access speed. Different partitions may have different access times, depending upon physical storage of the file. Also, partitioning adds complexity for the programmer. Although to the user, partitioning appears transparent, this is often not the case for a programmer. Finally, data may be replicated across multiple partitions, which will require more storage space and possibly more time for updates.

LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 159) When would you use horizontal partitioning, and when would you use vertical partitioning?

Answer: Horizontal partitioning is best used when different categories of rows are processed differently. For example, if you would like to have a report for each region, then it might make sense to partition the data by region. This type of partitioning will increase query performance.

Horizontal partitioning is most often done by using a single column value or a date.

Vertical partitioning splits up the columns of a table, repeating the primary key. This would best be used for only allowing access by a group of users to a portion of the data. Of course, in both cases, tables could be joined to retrieve all data.

LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 160) What is parallel query processing and how is it useful?

Answer: Since many of today's computers have either multiple processors or multi-core processors, many database management systems have introduced parallel query processing. With parallel query processing, a query can be broken apart and partitions can be run separately on each processor. The partitions have to be defined in advance by the database designer. The advantage to parallel query processing is speed, since the query can be done in much less time in parallel. The query has to be tuned to achieve the best degree of parallelism.

LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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161) Why would you want to override automatic query optimization?

Answer: Sometimes, the query designer may know information that can be overlooked by the query optimizer. Often, in the course of testing queries, one may find that it is actually faster not to use a certain index or to use a different index. When this is the case, database management systems such as Oracle include a facility to override the query optimizer, called query hints.

LO: 8.7: Translate a relational data model into efficient database structures, including knowing when and how to denormalize the logical data model.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 162) What threats to data security must be addressed in a comprehensive data security plan?

Answer: A comprehensive data security plan must address the following threats: 1. Accidental losses, which could be caused by human error, software and hardware-caused breaches 2. Theft and fraud 3. Loss or privacy or confidentiality 4. Loss of data integrity 5. Loss of availability LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 163) What are the most important security features for data management software?

Answer: The most important security features of data management software are: 1. Views or subschemas. These restrict user views of the database.

2. Integrity controls such as domains, assertions, checks, etc.

3. Authorization rules which identify users and restrict the actions they may take against a database 4. User-defined procedures which define additional constraints 5. Encryption procedures which encode data in an unrecognizable form 6. Authentication schemas–positively identify individuals trying to gain access to the database 7. Backup, journaling and checkpointing capabilities–these all aid in backup and recovery LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking

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164) What are integrity controls? Describe the different types.

Answer: Integrity controls protect data from unauthorized use and update. One form of an integrity control is a domain, which is like a user-define data type. Once the domain has been created, any field can be assigned that domain as its datatype. The domain definition need only be changed in one place if the domain does change. Assertions are constraints that enforce certain database conditions. For example, an assertion might be used to make sure that someone is not married to themselves. Finally, triggers can be used as an integrity control. For example, we might want to log changes to a table or prevent certain changes.

LO: 8.8: Describe the problem of database security and list five techniques that are used to enhance security.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 165) What is backward and forward recovery?

Answer: Backward recovery, often called rollback, undoes unwanted changes to the database.

Before images of the changed records are applied and the database is returned to an earlier state.

Forward recovery, or rollforward, starts with an earlier copy of the database and applies good records from after images to bring the database to a later state.

LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 166) What is a journalizing facility?

Answer: A journalizing facility provides an audit trail of transactions. Several log files are maintained as well as images. The transaction log contains a set of the data needed for each transaction which has been processed against the database. The database change log contains before and after images of records that have been modified by transactions. The before image is a copy of the record before it was modified. The after image is a copy of the record after the modifications.

LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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167) What are the four basic facilities that a database management system should provide for backup and recovery?

Answer: The four basic facilities are: 1. Backup facilities which provide periodic backup copies of portions or all of the database 2. Journalizing facilities, which maintain an audit trail of transactions and changes to the database 3. A checkpoint facility–DBMS can periodically suspend and synchronizes files to establish a recovery point 4. Recovery manager–allows the DBMS to restore the database to a correct condition LO: 8.10: Describe the problem of database recovery and list four basic facilities that are included with a DBMS to recover databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 9 Data Warehousing and Data Integration 1) The analysis of data or information to support decision making is called: A) operational processing.

B) informational processing.

C) artificial intelligence.

D) data scrubbing.

Answer: B LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) The characteristic that indicates that a data warehouse is organized around key high-level entities of the enterprise is: A) subject-oriented.

B) integrated.

C) time-variant.

D) nonvolatile.

Answer: A LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) When we consider data in the data warehouse to be time variant, we mean: A) that the time of storage varies.

B) data in the warehouse contain a time dimension so that they may be used to study trends and changes.

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C) that there is a time delay between when data are posted and when we report on the data.

D) that time is relative.

Answer: B LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) The key discovery that triggered the development of data warehouses was: A) computer viruses.

B) new ways to present information using mobile devices.

C) the recognition of the differences between transactional systems and informational systems.

D) the invention of the iPad. Answer: C LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Which of the following factors drive the need for data warehousing?

A) Businesses need an integrated view of company information.

B) Informational data must be kept together with operational data.

C) Data warehouses generally have better security.

D) Reduce virus and Trojan horse threats.

Answer: A LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) Which of the following organizational trends does not encourage the need for data warehousing?

A) Multiple, nonsynchronized systems B) Focus on customer relationship management C) Downsizing D) Focus on supplier relationship management Answer: C LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) Going from a summary view to progressively lower levels of detail is called data: A) cubing.

B) drill down.

C) dicing.

D) pivoting.

Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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8) Which of the following data-mining applications identifies customers for promotional activity?

A) Population profiling B) Target marketing C) Usage analysis D) Product affinity Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) Informational systems are designed for all of the following EXCEPT: A) running a business in real time.

B) supporting decision making.

C) complex queries.

D) data mining.

Answer: A LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) Operational and informational systems are generally separated because of which of the following factors?

A) A data warehouse centralizes data that are scattered throughout disparate operational systems and makes them readily available for decision support applications.

B) A properly designed data warehouse decreases value to data.

C) A separate data warehouse increases contention for resources.

D) Only operational systems allow SQL statements.

Answer: A LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) A data mart is a(n): A) enterprise-wide data warehouse.

B) smaller system built upon file processing technology.

C) data warehouse that is limited in scope.

D) generic on-line shopping site.

Answer: C LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

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12) One characteristic of independent data marts is complexity for end users when they need to access data in separate data marts. This complexity is caused by not only having to access data from separate databases, but also from: A) the possibility of a new generation of inconsistent data systems, the data marts themselves.

B) lack of user training.

C) denormalized data.

D) incongruent data formats.

Answer: A LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) All of the following are limitations of the independent data mart EXCEPT: A) separate extraction, transformation, and loading processes are developed for each data mart.

B) data marts may not be consistent with one another.

C) there is no capability to drill down into greater detail in other data marts.

D) it is often more expedient to build a data mart than a data warehouse.

Answer: D LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) A dependent data mart: A) is filled with data extracted directly from the operational system.

B) is filled exclusively from the enterprise data warehouse with reconciled data.

C) is dependent upon an operational system.

D) participates in a relationship with an entity.

Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) An operational data store (ODS) is a(n): A) place to store all unreconciled data.

B) representation of the operational data.

C) integrated, subject-oriented, updateable, current-valued, detailed database designed to serve the decision support needs of operational users.

D) small-scale data mart.

Answer: C LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 245 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A logical data mart is a(n): A) data mart consisting of only logical data.

B) data mart created by a relational view of a slightly denormalized data warehouse.

C) integrated, subject-oriented, detailed database designed to serve operational users.

D) centralized, integrated data warehouse.

Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) All of the following are unique characteristics of a logical data mart EXCEPT: A) logical data marts are not physically separate databases, but rather a relational view of a data warehouse.

B) the data mart is always up-to-date since data in a view is created when the view is referenced.

C) the process of creating a logical data mart is lengthy.

D) data are moved into the data warehouse rather than a separate staging area.

Answer: C LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) The real-time data warehouse is characterized by which of the following?

A) It accepts batch feeds of transaction data.

B) Data are immediately transformed and loaded into the warehouse.

C) It provides periodic access for the transaction processing systems to an enterprise data warehouse.

D) It is based on Oracle technology.

Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) ________ technologies are allowing more opportunities for real-time data warehouses.

A) Web B) MOLAP C) RFID D) GPS Answer: C LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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20) All of the following are some beneficial applications for real-time data warehousing EXCEPT: A) just-in-time transportation.

B) e-commerce. For example, an abandoned shopping cart can trigger an e-mail promotional message.

C) fraud detection in credit card transactions.

D) data entry.

Answer: D LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) Data that are detailed, current, and intended to be the single, authoritative source of all decision support applications are called ________ data.

A) reconciled B) subject C) derived D) detailed Answer: A LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) A database action that results from a transaction is called a(n): A) transition.

B) event.

C) log entry.

D) journal happening.

Answer: B LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) Data that are never physically altered once they are added to the store are called ________ data.

A) transient B) override C) periodic D) complete Answer: C LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

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24) Which of the following is NOT an objective of derived data?

A) Ease of use for decision support systems B) Faster response time for user queries C) Support data mining applications D) Eliminate the need for application software Answer: D LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 25) A star schema contains both fact and ________ tables.

A) narrative B) cross functional C) dimension D) starter Answer: C LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) Every key used to join the fact table with a dimension table should be a ________ key.

A) primary B) surrogate C) foreign D) secondary Answer: B LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) The level of detail in a fact table determined by the intersection of all the components of the primary key, including all foreign keys and any other primary key elements, is called the: A) span.

B) grain.

C) selection.

D) aggregation.

Answer: B LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) Grain and duration have a direct impact on the size of ________ tables.

A) selection B) grain C) fact D) figure Answer: C LO: 9.6: Estimate the number of rows and total size, in bytes, of a fact table, given reasonable assumptions concerning the database dimensions.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) When determining the size of a fact table, estimating the number of possible values for each dimension associated with the fact table is equivalent to: A) determining the number of DDL statements made to create a table.

B) determining the number of possible values for each foreign key in the fact table.

C) determining the number of DML statements made to create a table.

D) determining the number of TRIGGERS used in the database.

Answer: B LO: 9.6: Estimate the number of rows and total size, in bytes, of a fact table, given reasonable assumptions concerning the database dimensions.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) Factless fact tables may apply when: A) we are deleting sales.

B) we are tracking sales.

C) we are taking inventory of the set of possible occurrences.

D) we are deleting correlated data.

Answer: D LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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31) An expanded version of a star schema in which all of the tables are fully normalized is called a(n): A) snowflake schema.

B) operational schema.

C) DSS schema.

D) complete schema.

Answer: A LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) All of the following are ways to handle changing dimensions EXCEPT: A) overwrite the current value with the new value.

B) for each dimension attribute that changes, create a current value field and as many old value fields as we wish.

C) create a new dimension table row each time the dimension object changes.

D) create a snowflake schema.

Answer: D LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) ________ is an ill-defined term applied to databases where size strains the ability of commonly used relational DBMSs to manage the data.

A) Mean data B) Small data C) Star data D) Big data Answer: D LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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34) ________ is/are a new technology which trade(s) off storage space savings for computing time.

A) Dimensional modeling B) Columnar databases C) Fact tables D) Snowflake schemas Answer: B LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) Conformed dimensions allow users to do the following: A) delete correlated data.

B) query across fact tables with consistency.

C) identify viruses in web sites.

D) fix viruses in html documents.

Answer: B LO: 9.8: Develop the requirements for a data mart from questions supporting decision making.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) A class of database technology used to store textual and other unstructured data is called: A) mySQL. B) NoSQL. C) KnowSQL. D) PHP. Answer: B LO: 9.9: Understand the trends that are likely to affect the future of data warehousing in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) All of the following are ways to consolidate data EXCEPT: A) application integration.

B) data rollup and integration.

C) business process integration.

D) user interaction integration.

Answer: B LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 251 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Data federation is a technique which: A) creates an integrated database from several separate databases.

B) creates a distributed database.

C) provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually creating one centralized database.

D) provides a real-time update of shared data.

Answer: C LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) ________ duplicates data across databases.

A) Data propagation B) Data duplication C) Redundant replication D) A replication server Answer: A LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) Event-driven propagation: A) provides a means to duplicate data for events.

B) pushes data to duplicate sites as an event occurs.

C) pulls duplicate data from redundant sites.

D) triggers a virus.

Answer: B LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) The major advantage of data propagation is: A) real-time cascading of data changes throughout the organization.

B) duplication of non-redundant data.

C) the ability to have trickle-feeds.

D) virus elimination.

Answer: A LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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42) User interaction integration is achieved by creating fewer ________ that feed different systems.

A) clients B) networks C) computers D) user interfaces Answer: D LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) A characteristic of reconciled data that means the data reflect an enterprise-wide view is: A) detailed.

B) historical.

C) normalized.

D) comprehensive.

Answer: D LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) Informational and operational data differ in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) level of detail.

B) normalization level.

C) scope of data.

D) data quality.

Answer: A LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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45) A method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture is called ________ extract.

A) static B) incremental C) partial D) update-driven Answer: B LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) A technique using artificial intelligence to upgrade the quality of raw data is called: A) dumping.

B) data reconciliation.

C) completion backwards updates.

D) data scrubbing.

Answer: D LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) All of the following are tasks of data cleansing EXCEPT: A) decoding data to make them understandable for data warehousing applications.

B) adding time stamps to distinguish values for the same attribute over time.

C) generating primary keys for each row of a table.

D) creating foreign keys.

Answer: D LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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48) An approach to filling a data warehouse that employs bulk rewriting of the target data periodically is called: A) dump mode.

B) overwrite mode.

C) refresh mode.

D) update mode.

Answer: C LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) Which type of index is commonly used in data warehousing environments?

A) Joint index B) Bitmapped index C) Secondary index D) Tri-dex Answer: B LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) Loading data into a data warehouse does NOT involve: A) appending new rows to the tables in the warehouse.

B) updating existing rows with new data.

C) purging data that have become obsolete or were incorrectly loaded.

D) formatting the hard drive.

Answer: D LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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51) A technique using pattern recognition to upgrade the quality of raw data is called: A) data scrounging.

B) data scrubbing.

C) data gouging.

D) data analysis.

Answer: B LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Data may be loaded from the staging area into the warehouse by following: A) SQL commands (Insert/Update).

B) SQL purge.

C) custom-written letters.

D) virus checking.

Answer: A LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) Converting data from the format of its source to the format of its destination is called: A) data transformation.

B) data loading.

C) data scrubbing.

D) data storage.

Answer: A LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) The process of combining data from various sources into a single table or view is called: A) extracting.

B) updating.

C) selecting.

D) joining.

Answer: D LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 256 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) The process of transforming data from a detailed to a summary level is called: A) extracting.

B) updating.

C) joining.

D) aggregating.

Answer: D LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) Which of the following is a basic method for single-field transformation?

A) Table lookup B) Cross-linking entities C) Cross-linking attributes D) Field-to-field communication Answer: A LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) The development of the relational data model did not contribute to the emergence of data warehousing.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) The need for data warehousing in an organization is driven by its need for an integrated view of high-quality data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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59) When multiple systems in an organization are synchronized, the need for data warehousing increases.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) Informational systems are designed to support decision making based on historical point-intime and prediction data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) A separate data warehouse causes more contention for resources in an organization.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) Organizations adopt data mart architectures because it is easier to have separate, small data warehouses than to get all organizational parties to agree to one view of the organization in a central data warehouse.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) An independent data mart is filled with data extracted from the operational environment without the benefit of a data warehouse.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) A data mart is a data warehouse that contains data that can be used across the entire organization.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 258 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) Independent data marts do not generally lead to redundant data and efforts.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) An enterprise data warehouse is the control point and single source of all data made available to end users for decision support applications.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) A corporate information factory (CIF) is a comprehensive view of organizational data in support of all user data requirements.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) Logical data marts are physically separate databases from the enterprise data warehouse.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) Scalable technology is often critical to a data mart.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) An enterprise data warehouse that accepts near-real time feeds of transactional data and immediately transforms and loads the appropriate data is called a real-time data warehouse.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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71) Reconciled data are data that have been selected, formatted, and aggregated for end-user decision support applications.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) The enterprise data model controls the phased evolution of the data warehouse.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) Operational metadata are derived from the enterprise data model.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) A dependent data mart is filled from the enterprise data warehouse and its reconciled data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) Periodic data are data that are never physically altered or deleted once they have been added to the store.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) Transient data are never changed.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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77) The representation of data in a graphical format is called data mining.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 78) Drill-down involves analyzing a given set of data at a finer level of detail.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) An event is a database action that results from a transaction.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) The status of data is the representation of the data after an event has occurred.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) A fact table holds descriptive data about the business.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) The grain of a data warehouse indicates the size and depth of the records.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) For performance reasons, it may be necessary to define more than one fact table for a star schema.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) There are applications for fact tables without any nonkey data, only the foreign keys for the associated dimensions.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) A conformed dimension is one or more dimension tables associated with only one fact table.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) When a dimension participates in a hierarchy, the database designer can normalize the dimension into a nested set of tables with 1:M relationships between them.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 87) An operational data store (ODS) is not designed for use by operational users.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 88) Grain and duration have a direct impact on the size of fact tables.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.6: Estimate the number of rows and total size, in bytes, of a fact table, given reasonable assumptions concerning the database dimensions.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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89) An operational data store is typically a relational database and normalized, but it is tuned for decision-making applications.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 90) An operational data store typically holds a history of snapshots of the state of an organization whereas an enterprise data warehouse does not typically contain history.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) A snowflake schema is usually heavily aggregated.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 92) Multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) tools use variations of SQL and view the database as a relational database, in either a star schema or other normalized or denormalized set of tables.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 93) The first requirement for building a user-friendly interface is a set of metadata that describes the data in the data mart in business terms that users can easily understand.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.8: Develop the requirements for a data mart from questions supporting decision making.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 263 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

94) Medical claims and pharmaceutical data would be an example of big data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.9: Understand the trends that are likely to affect the future of data warehousing in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 95) NoSQL is a great technology for storing well-structured data.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.9: Understand the trends that are likely to affect the future of data warehousing in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 96) User interaction integration is achieved by creating fewer user interfaces.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 97) Data federation consolidates all data into one database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 98) The major advantage of the data propagation approach to data integration is the near realtime cascading of data changes throughout the organization.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 99) Application integration is achieved by coordinating the flow of event information between business applications.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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100) Data nationalization provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually bringing the data into one physical database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 101) Data propagation duplicates data across databases, usually with some real-time delay.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 102) The data reconciliation process is responsible for transforming operational data to reconciled data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 103) ETL is short for Extract, Transform, Load.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 104) There are six major steps to ETL. Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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105) After the extract, transform, and load is done on data, the data warehouse is never fully normalized.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 106) Data reconciliation occurs in two stages, an initial load and subsequent updates.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 107) Static extract is a method of capturing only the changes that have occurred in the source data since the last capture.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 108) One of the biggest challenges of the extraction process is managing changes in the source system.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 109) Data are moved to the staging area before extraction takes place.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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110) Data scrubbing is a technique using pattern recognition and other artificial intelligence techniques to upgrade the quality of raw data before transforming and moving the data to the data warehouse.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 111) Refresh mode is an approach to filling the data warehouse that employs bulk rewriting of the target data at periodic intervals.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 112) Update mode is used to create a data warehouse.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 113) Bitmapped indexing is often used in a data warehouse environment.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 114) Loading data into the warehouse typically means appending new rows to tables in the warehouse as well as updating existing rows with new data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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115) A method of capturing data in a snapshot at a point in time is called static extract.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 116) An approach in which only changes in the source data are written to the data warehouse is called refresh mode.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 117) Data transformation is not an important part of the data reconciliation process.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 118) Joining is often complicated by problems such as errors in source data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 119) The process of transforming data from detailed to summary levels is called normalization.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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120) The process of partitioning data according to predefined criteria is called aggregation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 121) The process of transforming data from a detailed to a summary level is called selection.

Answer: FALSE LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 122) Discuss the four key terms (subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, and nonupdateable) related to data warehousing.

Answer: A data warehouse is subject-oriented, meaning that it is organized around key subjects of the enterprise. It is also integrated, meaning that the warehouse holds verified data that is the gold standard. It is also time-variant, meaning that we keep track of time using a time dimension.

Finally, a data warehouse is nonupdateable, meaning that data are loaded from operational systems and not users.

LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 123) What is data mining, and what are its goals?

Answer: Data mining is knowledge discovery using a sophisticated blend of statistics, artificial intelligence, and computer graphics. The goals of data mining are: 1. To explain some observed event or condition 2. To confirm a hypothesis 3. To analyze data for new or unexpected relationships LO: 9.2: Give two important reasons why an "information gap" often exists between an information manager's need and the information generally available.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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124) Discuss the history of data warehousing.

Answer: Several key advances in information systems led to the emergence of data warehousing. In particular, as the relational model came to be popular and computer hardware advanced, data warehousing had a platform to build from. In addition, advances in middleware products as well as the emergence of end-user computing contributed to this. Perhaps the major player in the development of data warehousing was the separation of operational data from informational data.

LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 125) What types of applications would benefit from real-time data warehousing?

Answer: Since the goal of real-time data warehousing is to take immediate action at touch points with customers, any type of E-commerce application would benefit–for example, if you wanted to design an application to send an email message when a user abandons a shopping cart.

Another example would be fraud-detection with credit card payment processing. Any type of just-in-time system, such as a transportation or scheduling system, would benefit by using a realtime data warehouse.

LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 126) Why are data mining applications growing rapidly?

Answer: Data mining applications are growing rapidly because of the growth of data in data marts and data warehouses, the continual introduction of new data mining tools, and increasing competitive pressures.

LO: 9.3: List two major reasons most organizations today need data warehousing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 127) Explain the difference between operational and informational systems as well as the primary factors that contribute to the need for separation.

Answer: An operational system is built to run a business in real-time using current data. An informational system is designed to support decision making based on historical point-in-time data. There are three primary factors which dictate the need to separate operational and informational systems: 1. A data warehouse centralizes data that may reside on several different systems.

2. A properly designed data warehouse improves the quality and consistency of data.

3. Contention for resources can be reduced by separating the informational system from the operational system.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 270 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

128) Explain the four basic steps to build an independent data mart.

Answer: 1. Extraction–data are extracted from internal and external source system files and databases.

2. Transformation and loading–data are transformed, integrated and loaded.

3. At this point, data warehouse is a set of physically distinct databases.

4. Users access the data warehouse using query language and tools.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 129) Discuss the limitations of the independent data mart architecture.

Answer: There are several limitations to the independent data mart including: 1. A separate ETL process for each data mart.

2. Inconsistencies between data marts because they are developed with different technologies sometimes.

3. It is difficult to relate data across data marts.

4. Scaling costs are excessive. Every new application that creates a separate data mart repeats the ETL process.

5. It is very expensive to make the data marts consistent.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 130) Explain the dependent data mart and operational data store architecture.

Answer: The dependent data mart and operational data store architecture address some of the limitations of the independent data mart. Data is loaded from source data systems into a data staging area (called the operational data store). As part of this load process, the data are cleaned, reconciled, derived and transformed. The enterprise data warehouse is then loaded from the operational data store. Each individual data mart is loaded from the enterprise data warehouse.

This is different from an independent data mart architecture, where each data mart is loaded from the data staging area. By having an enterprise data warehouse, the organization can maintain control of data quality and integrity by having one "gold standard," which is the enterprise data warehouse.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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131) What is a logical data mart and what makes this architecture unique?

Answer: A logical data mart is created by a relational view of a data warehouse. Some of the unique characteristics include: 1. Rather than having separate data marts, one can have several logical data marts which are only relational views of one physical data warehouse.

2. The data warehouse is used for cleansing and transformation rather than a separate staging area.

3. New data marts can be created quickly. There is no need to create a new physical database or write any loading routines.

4. The logical data mart is always up to date because it is a view of the warehouse. The data warehouse only needs to be updated, since views are populated when used.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 132) Discuss the three-layer data architecture.

Answer: The three-layer data architecture describes how we view data in the data warehouse.

The architecture is characterized by operational data, which is stored in various operational systems; reconciled data, which are stored in the enterprise data warehouse. Reconciled data are intended to be the single source for accurate data used by all decision support applications.

Derived data are used by the data marts. It has been selected, formatted and aggregated for decision support applications.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 133) What is the role of metadata in the three-layer data architecture?

Answer: Metadata describe other data. There are three types of metadata used in the three-layer architecture: 1. Operational–describes the data in the operational systems that feed the enterprise data warehouse. May exist in different formats and is often poor quality.

2. Enterprise data warehouse metadata describe the reconciled data layer as well as the rules for extracting, transforming, and loading operational data into reconciled data.

3. Data mart metadata–describe the derived data layer and the rules for transforming reconciled data to derived data.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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134) Discuss the difference between transient data and periodic data.

Answer: Transient data are data in which changes to existing records are written over previous records. Periodic data are data which are never physically altered or deleted once added to the store.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 135) What is OLAP and what types of OLAP tools are available?

Answer: OLAP stands for On-Line Analytical Processing. It is the use of a set of reporting and querying tools which allows the user to use simple windowing techniques to analyze multidimensional views of their data. The multi-dimensional view of the data can be thought of as a data cube. There are several variations of OLAP including: ROLAP (Relational OLAP) which uses SQL and view the database as a traditional relational database. MOLAP (Multi-dimensional OLAP) creates a data store where the data is viewed in its multi-dimensional format. Some less common tools are DOLAP, which builds OLAP into the query language, and HOLAP, which offers both multi-dimensional as well as relation query language access to the data.

LO: 9.4: Name and briefly describe the three levels in a data warehouse architecture.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 136) Explain what the star schema is.

Answer: The star schema is a simple database design. Dimensional (or descriptive) data are separated from fact or event data. The star schema consists of a fact table, which contains event data as well as links to dimensions. Dimension tables contain descriptive information. For example, we might have a dimension for sales territory which would have a unique ID as well as several levels of granularity. There might be a territory description, state, city, zip code, etc. The dimension key is also in the fact table. In this way, it is fairly simple to look up information and do some drill-down type queries.

LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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137) What is the surrogate key rule for the star schema, and what are the main reasons for this rule?

Answer: Each and every key used to join the fact table with a dimension table should be a surrogate key (meaning system-assigned) and not a key which uses a business value. The reasons that a surrogate key is required are the following: 1. Slowly, over time, business keys change. A surrogate key allows us to handle changing business keys easily.

2. Surrogate keys are shorter and simpler.

3. Surrogate keys can be the same length and format, regardless of the business dimension.

LO: 9.5: Describe the two major components of a star schema.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 138) Explain a situation where multiple fact tables may be necessary.

Answer: Multiple fact tables are useful in situations where different groups of users may need different sets of facts. One example would be a fact table to keep track of when a product is manufactured and another to keep track of when it is sold to a wholesaler. In this case, we may have two shared dimensions: date and product. These are called conformed dimensions.

LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 139) When would it be appropriate to use factless fact tables?

Answer: There are some situations where we would want to just keep keys to dimensions but no facts. One case would be a data warehouse to keep track of events, such as attendance in a course. Another case would be coverage, taking inventory of the set of possible occurrences.

LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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140) What are some approaches to handling slowly changing dimensions?

Answer: Dimensional data changes slowly over time. There are three possible ways to handle slowly changing dimensions: 1. Overwrite the current value with the new value. This is not an acceptable solution, since it eliminates the description of the past which might be needed to interpret some data.

2. If we know how many changes there will be, make a multi-valued attribute which will contain old values as dimensions change. This might make queries fairly complex, though.

3. Create a new dimensional table row each time the dimensional object changes. The surrogate key will contain the date.

LO: 9.7: Design a data mart using various schemes to normalize and denormalize dimensions and to account for fact history, hierarchical relationships between dimensions, and changing dimension attribute values.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 141) What are some of the approaches to data integration?

Answer: Data integration creates a unified view of business data. There are three approaches to data integration. The first approach, which is widely used in data warehousing, is consolidation.

In this approach, data are loaded and transformed into a dataset useful for reporting or decision support. Another approach, data federation, provides a virtual view of integrated data without actually bringing the data into one database. The third approach, data propagation, duplicates data across databases.

LO: 9.10: Describe the three types of data integration approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Analytical Thinking 142) Discuss the ETL process.

Answer: The goal of the ETL process is data reconciliation. This data reconciliation occurs in two stages: when the data is initially loaded and when updates occur. There are five steps to the process of reconciliation (called the ETL process): 1. Mapping and metadata management–here the data needed for the warehouse are mapped back to the data in the operational system.

2. Extract–in this step, we capture any relevant data from the source system.

3. Cleanse–in this step, the data are cleansed so that things such as misspelled names, duplicate data, etc. are removed.

4. Load and Index–here the cleansed data are loaded into the data warehouse and appropriate indexes are created.

LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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143) What are the characteristics of data after ETL? Answer: The goal of ETL is to provide a single, authoritative source for data that support decision making. Ideally, the data layer will have the following characteristics: 1. Detailed, providing maximum flexibility 2. Historical 3. Normalized–fully normalized to third normal form 4. Comprehensive 5. Timely 6. Quality controlled LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 144) What is the difference between an incremental extract and a static extract?

Answer: A static extract captures a snapshot of source data at a specific point in time. An incremental extract captures only the changes in the source data that have occurred since the last snapshot.

LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 145) What are some of the errors and inconsistencies in data that the cleansing process is looking to rectify?

Answer: There are many errors and inconsistencies in data which the cleansing process needs to take care of. Some of these are: - misspelled names and addresses - old formats for addresses - impossible or invalid dates of birth - fields used for purposes not intended - missing data - mismatched addresses - duplicate data - different primary keys across sources LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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146) In the load and index stage of ETL, what is the difference between refresh mode and update mode?

Answer: Refresh mode is an approach to filling a data warehouse that involves bulk rewriting of the target data at periodic intervals. Initially, the warehouse is filled. Then, at periodic intervals, the warehouse is rewritten, replacing the previous contents. Update mode, on the other hand, only writes changes to the source data without overwriting old data.

LO: 9.11: Describe the four steps and activities of the Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) process for data integration for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 147) Discuss data governance and what needs to be included in a data governance program.

Answer: Data governance is a set of processes and procedures aimed at managing the data within an organization with an eye towards availability, integrity, and compliance with regulations. Data governance oversees security by providing data access policies. It also provides a mandate for dealing with data issues. A data governance program generally includes the following: 1. Sponsorship from senior management and business units 2. A data steward manager 3. Data stewards 4. A governance committee LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 148) What is data transformation?

Answer: Data transformation involves converting data in the format of the operational system into the format of the data warehouse. Data is accepted from the data capture component (after data scrubbing), is mapped to the format of the reconciled data layer, and then passed to the load and index component.

LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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149) What are the record-level data transformation functions?

Answer: Record-level data transformation functions operate on a set of records, such as a file or a table. The most important record level functions are: 1. Selection–this is the process of partitioning data according to some pre-defined conditions 2. Joining–combines the data from several tables into a single view 3. Normalization–decomposing relations with anomalies 4. Aggregation–process of transferring data from a detailed level to a summary level LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 150) What is a field-level transformation, and what different types exist?

Answer: A field-level function converts data from a given format in a source record to a different format in the target record. There are two types: single-field transformation converts data from a single source field to a single target field. A multifield transformation converts data from one or more source fields to one or more target fields.

LO: 9.12: Explain the various forms of data transformations needed to prepare data for a data warehouse.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 10 Big Data Technologies 1) At a basic level, analytics refers to: A) collecting data.

B) conducting a needs analysis.

C) analysis and interpretation of data.

D) normalizing data.

Answer: C LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) Big data includes: A) large volumes of data with many different data types that are processed at very high speeds.

B) large volumes of data entry with a single data type processed at very high speeds.

C) large volumes of entity relationship diagrams (ERD) with many different data types that are processed at very high speeds.

D) large volumes of entity relationship diagrams (ERD) with a single data type processed at very high speeds.

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LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) ________ generally processes the largest quantities of data.

A) Operational databases B) Transaction processing C) Big data D) Data marts Answer: B LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) Big data requires effectively processing: A) a single data type (numeric).

B) two data types (text and numeric).

C) many data types.

D) a single data type (text).

Answer: C LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Big data: A) requires a normalized dataset to 3rd Normal Form.

B) does not require a strictly defined data model.

C) requires a strictly defined schema.

D) requires a normalized dataset to BCNF. Answer: B LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) According to your text, NoSQL stands for: A) Numbered SQL. B) No SQL. C) Not Only SQL. D) Numeric Only SQL. Answer: C LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) NoSQL includes data storage and retrieval: A) based on the relational model.

B) based on normalized tables.

C) not based on the relational model.

D) not based on data.

Answer: C LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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8) NoSQL focuses on: A) avoidance of replication of data.

B) minimizing storage space.

C) normalized data.

D) flexibility.

Answer: D LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) NoSQL systems allow ________ by incorporating commodity servers that can be easily added to the architectural solution.

A) scaling down B) scaling out C) scaling up D) scaling over Answer: B LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) The NoSQL model that includes a simple pair of a key and an associated collection of values is called a: A) key-value store.

B) document store.

C) wide-column store.

D) graph database.

Answer: A LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) The NoSQL model that incorporates 'column families' is called a: A) key-value store.

B) document store.

C) wide-column store.

D) column-SQL database.

Answer: C LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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12) The NoSQL model that is specifically designed to maintain information regarding the relationships (often real-world instances of entities) between data items is called a: A) key-value store.

B) document store.

C) wide-column store.

D) graph-oriented database.

Answer: D LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) Data in MongoDB is represented in: A) JSON. B) BSON. C) CSON. D) SON. Answer: B LO: 10.4: Understand the basics of MongoDB as an example of a NoSQL database management system, Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) MongoDB databases are composed of: A) collections.

B) tables.

C) rowsets.

D) columns.

Answer: A LO: 10.4: Understand the basics of MongoDB as an example of a NoSQL database management system, Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) ________ is the most popular key-value store NoSQL database management system.

A) Access B) Apache Cassandra C) Neo4j D) Redis Answer: D LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 282 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) An organization that requires a sole focus on performance with the ability for keys to include strings, hashes, lists, and sorted sets would select ________ database management system.

A) Access B) Excel Spreadsheet C) Neo4j D) Redis Answer: D LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 17) An organization that requires a graph database that is highly scalable would select the ________ database management system.

A) Access B) Excel Spreadsheet C) Neo4j D) Redis Answer: C LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 18) An organization that decides to adopt the most popular NoSQL database management system would select: A) Access.

B) MongoDB. C) Neo4j.

D) Redis.

Answer: B LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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19) Apache Cassandra is a leading producer of ________ NoSQL database management systems.

A) key-value store B) wide-column C) relational D) graph Answer: B LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) The three 'v's' commonly associated with big data include: A) viewable, volume, and variety.

B) volume, variety, and velocity.

C) verified, variety, and velocity.

D) vigilant, viewable, and verified.

Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) ________ includes NoSQL accommodation of various data types.

A) Velocity B) Vigilant C) Verified D) Variety Answer: D LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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22) ________ includes the value of speed in a NoSQL database.

A) Velocity B) Vigilant C) Verified D) Variety Answer: A LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) ________ includes concern about data quality issues.

A) Velocity B) Vigilant C) Veracity D) Variety Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) When reporting and analysis organization of the data is determined when the data is used is called a(n): A) entity relationship diagram.

B) schema binding.

C) schema on read.

D) cognitive schema.

Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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25) When a data repository (including internal and external data) does NOT follow a predefined schema, this is called a: A) data dump.

B) data ocean.

C) data lake.

D) data stream.

Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) Although volume, variety, and velocity are considered the initial three v dimensions, two additional Vs of big data were added and include: A) veracity and verified.

B) volume and verified.

C) verified and valuable.

D) veracity and value.

Answer: D LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) NoSQL systems enable automated ________ to allow distribution of the data among multiple nodes to allow servers to operate independently on the data located on it.

A) sharing B) sharding C) SQL D) mongo Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) The Hadoop framework consists of the ________ algorithm to solve large scale problems.

A) MapSystem B) MapReduce C) MapCluster D) MapComponent Answer: B LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) ________ is an important scripting language to help reduce the complexity of MapReduce.

A) Pig B) Horse C) Dog D) Cat Answer: A LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) Hive is a(n) ________ data warehouse software.

A) Oracle B) Microsoft C) Macintosh D) Apache Answer: D LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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31) The Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) is the foundation of a ________ infrastructure of Hadoop.

A) relational database management system B) DBBMS C) Java D) data management Answer: D LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) An organization using HDFS realizes that hardware failure is a(n): A) norm.

B) irregularity.

C) anomaly.

D) inconsistency.

Answer: A LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 33) With HDFS it is less expensive to move the execution of computation to data than to move the: A) data to hardware.

B) data to systems analysis.

C) data to computation.

D) data to processes.

Answer: C LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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34) It is true that in an HDFS cluster the NameNode is the: A) large number of slaves.

B) single master server.

C) language library.

D) business intelligence.

Answer: B LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) It is true that in an HDFS cluster the DataNodes are the: A) large number of slaves.

B) single master servers.

C) language libraries.

D) business intelligences.

Answer: A LO: 10.7: List the key technology components of a typical Hadoop environment and describe their uses.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) The primary use of Pig is to: A) transform raw data into a format that is useful for analysis.

B) query large databases.

C) create large databases.

D) create data warehouses.

Answer: A LO: 10.8: Understand the basics of Pig and Hive Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) Hive uses ________ to query data.

A) SQL B) HiveQL C) BeesNest D) Honeyquery Answer: B LO: 10.8: Understand the basics of Pig and Hive Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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38) Big data allows for two different data types (text and numeric).

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) The original three 'v's' attributed to big data include volume, variety, and velocity.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) Value (related to the five 'v's' of big data) addresses the pursuit of a meaningful goal.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) The 'schema on read' approach often incorporates JSON or XML. Answer: TRUE LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) Structured Query Language (SQL) is a set of methodologies, processes, architectures, and technologies that transform raw data into meaningful information.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) NoSQL stands for 'Not only SQL.' Answer: TRUE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 290 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) NoSQL focuses on avoidance of replication and minimizing storage space.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) NoSQL databases DO NOT support ACID (atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability).

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) A business owner that needs carefully normalized tables would likely need a relational database instead of a NoSQL database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 47) Transaction processing and management reporting tend to fit big data databases better than relational databases.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 48) Economies of storage indicate data storage costs increase every year.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 49) Word processing documents are commonly stored in a 'document store' NoSQL database model.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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50) JSON is commonly used in conjunction with the 'document store' NoSQL database model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) Graph-oriented databases are designed to maintain information regarding the relationships between data items.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Apache Cassandra is a wide-column NoSQL database management system.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) Neo4j is a wide-column NoSQL database management system developed by Oracle.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) MapReduce is an algorithm for massive parallel processing utilized by Hadoop.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) MongoDB is a proprietary NoSQL database management system created by Oracle.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 292 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

56) The target market for Hadoop is small to medium companies using local area networks.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) HP HAVEn integrates HP technologies with open source big data technologies.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) HBASE is a wide-column store database that runs on top of HDFS (modeled after Google).

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) Collect everything is a characteristic of a data lake.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) The dive in anywhere characteristic of a data lake overrides constraints related to confidentiality.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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61) Server logs are considered a big data variety data type.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) The schema on write and schema on read are considered synonymous approaches.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) The philosophical underpinnings of big data are based on schema on write.

Answer: FALSE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) Big data databases tend to sacrifice consistency for availability.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) Hive creates MapReduce jobs and executes them on a Hadoop Cluster.

Answer: TRUE LO: 10.8: Understand the basics of Pig and Hive Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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66) Describe conceptually how big data differs from traditional relational database management systems.

Answer: Not only SQL and relational database management systems provide value in different ways. Traditional RDBMS focus on avoidance of replication and reduced storage costs. Data is stored in tables and usually normalized to avoid update, delete, and modification problems.

NoSQL discounts the avoidance of replication and storage costs and focuses on scalability, flexibility, agility, and versatility. NoSQL allows for large databases (i.e., Google) that would be impossible using traditional REBMS approaches.

LO: 10.2: Describe the reasons why data management technologies and approaches have expanded beyond relational databases and data warehousing technologies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 67) Describe the Five Vs of Big Data.

Answer: Volume, variety, and velocity were the initial Vs used to describe big data. Volume represents the amount of data collected (larger than typical relational databases), variety represents different data types (beyond just text and numeric) allowed, and velocity relates to the speed and needed to process large amounts of data. Veracity and value were the other V's added to the initial three. Veracity describes the quality issues in a big data context and value focuses on obtaining the overall goals since having large amounts of data and speed is useless without solving a particular business problem.

LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 68) There are four main types of NoSQL database data models that include key-value stores, document stores, wide-column stores, and graph databases. Provide a brief description of each.

Answer: Key-value Stores consist of a pair of a key and related collection of values. The keyvalue store database allows one to access information based on a key. Redis is the most popular key-value score database on the market.

Document Stores typically use standard formats such as JSON to access and modify contents of a document based on its structure. Similar to key-value stores, documents stores also access data based on a key.

Wide-Column Stores consist of rows and columns and distribution of data is based on the use of both (rows and columns) to access data. Each row is allowed to have a different column structure, something that is not possible in an RDMS. Graph-Oriented Databases are designed to maintain information regarding relationships between data items. This data is stored in nodes with properties and connections between the nodes which represent relationships.

LO: 10.3: List the main categories of NoSQL database management systems.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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69) There are four main types of NoSQL database data models that include key-value stores, document stores, wide-column stores, and graph databases. Provide an example of a NoSQL database management system for each model.

Answer: Key-value Stores – Redis Document Stores – MongoDB Wide-Column Stores – Apache Cassandra Graph-Oriented Databases – Neo4j LO: 10.5: Choose between relational databases and various types of NoSQL databases depending on the organization's data management needs.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 11 Analytics and Its Implications 1) Descriptive, predictive, and ________ are the three main types of analytics.

A) adaptive B) comparative C) prescriptive D) decisive Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) Allowing users to dive deeper into the view of data with online analytical processing (OLAP) is an important part of: A) predictive analytics.

B) descriptive analytics.

C) prescriptive analytics.

D) comparative analytics.

Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) Application of statistical and computational methods to predict data events is: A) predictive analytics.

B) descriptive analytics.

C) prescriptive analytics.

D) comparative analytics.

Answer: A 296 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) When an organization must decide on optimization and simulation tools to make things happen it is using: A) predictive analytics.

B) descriptive analytics.

C) prescriptive analytics.

D) comparative analytics.

Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) ________ are examples of Business Intelligences and Analytics 3.0 because they have millions of observations per second.

A) Administrative systems B) Web-based interaction logs C) Web-based customer platforms D) Smartphones Answer: D LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 6) The oldest form of analytics is: A) predictive analytics.

B) descriptive analytics.

C) prescriptive analytics.

D) comparative analytics.

Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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7) When online analytical processing (OLAP) studies last year's sales, this represents: A) predictive analytics.

B) descriptive analytics.

C) prescriptive analytics.

D) comparative analytics.

Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 8) ________ are not used for querying and analyzing data stored in data warehouses.

A) Word processing programs B) OLAP tools C) MOLAP tools D) Dashboard tools Answer: A LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) ________ tools commonly load data into intermediate hypercube structures.

A) OLAP B) MOLAP C) ROLAP D) TLAP Answer: B LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) The goal of data mining related to analyzing data for unexpected relationships is: A) explanatory.

B) confirmatory.

C) exploratory.

D) laboratory.

Answer: C LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 299 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A researcher trying to explain why sales of garden supplies in Hawaii have decreased would be an example of ________ data mining.

A) explanatory B) confirmatory C) exploratory D) laboratory Answer: A LO: 10.6: Describe the meaning of big data and the demands big data will place on data management technology.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 12) All of the following are applications for big data and analytics EXCEPT: A) business.

B) science and technology.

C) security and public health.

D) personal finances.

Answer: D LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) First-degree or complete price discrimination relates to: A) the minimum price customers are willing to pay.

B) the maximum price customers are willing to pay.

C) the preferred product based on personal preference.

D) the number of products customers are willing to purchase.

Answer: B LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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14) ________ is arguably the most common concern by individuals regarding big data analytics.

A) Saving money B) Taking up large amounts of computer storage C) Personal privacy D) Processing time Answer: C LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) All of the following are categorizations of human activity affected by big data analytics EXCEPT: A) business.

B) science and technology.

C) security and public safety.

D) trash collection.

Answer: D LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) One of the best known uses of data analytics in business is: A) overdue bill collection.

B) hiring employees.

C) targeting market communications to specific customers.

D) hiring consultants.

Answer: C LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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17) Companies learn a lot about customers because they leave clues in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) actions taken when navigating a company website.

B) how they write code.

C) searches with search engines.

D) making comments about the company on social media.

Answer: B LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 18) One major source of data for analytics is: A) government.

B) index cards.

C) search engine data.

D) newspapers.

Answer: A LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) Devices which collect personal health data are: A) cool.

B) outdated.

C) wearable.

D) never going to be used.

Answer: C LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) Descriptive analytics is the oldest form of analytics.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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21) The three major types of analytics are: descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) Predictive analytics answers the question: "How can we make it happen?"

Answer: FALSE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) Descriptive analytics answers the question: "What happened yesterday?"

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) Using data to predict events is an example of predictive analytics.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 25) Smartphones can produce millions of observations per second making them Business Intelligence and Analytics 3.0.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) OLAP, ROLAP, and TLAP are tools commonly used to load data into intermediate hypercube structures.

Answer: FALSE LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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27) Human intervention is an important part of big data analytics.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) Many developing countries are using advanced applications of analytics to utilize data collected from mobile devices.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) Customers leave clues about their preferences when navigating a company's Web site.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) The applications of analytics are not just limited to business but extend to a wide-array of human activity.

Answer: TRUE LO: 11.4: Analyze and articulate the implications and potential consequences of the use of analytics technologies Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) Analytics are typically divided into three major categories (i.e. descriptive analytics).

Describe each category and provide an example question that each category would address.

Answer: Analytics are divided into descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive. Descriptive addresses questions like "what happened to our sales last month." The focus is on describing the past through reporting, data visualization, and dashboards. Predictive analytics address "what will our sales likely be next month." Statistical models use past and current events to predict the future. Finally, prescriptive analytics addresses questions such as "what needs to change to improve sales of our worst selling product." Simulation tools are often used to better understand relationships and dependencies among variables of interest.

LO: 11.2: Articulate the differences between descriptive, predictive, and prescriptive analytics.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 304 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Discuss some of the technologies enabling infrastructure advances in data management Answer: Some of the technologies are: Massively Parallel Processing (MPP) which divides a computing task up, in-memory DBMS, which creates faster processing. In addition, in-database analytics, enabling analytics to be built into the queries. Finally, reorienting the structure of data.

LO: 11.3: Describe the impact of advances in analytics on data management technologies and practices.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 12 Data and Database Administration with Focus on Data Quality 1) Which of the following is NOT true of poor data and/or database administration?

A) Data timing problems B) Multiple entity definitions C) Unknown meanings of stored data D) Maintaining a secure server Answer: D LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) ________ is a technical function responsible for database design, security, and disaster recovery.

A) Data administration B) Database administration C) Tech support D) Operations Answer: B LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) Which of the following functions do cost/benefit models?

A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database design D) Operations Answer: A LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 305 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which of the following functions design integrity controls?

A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database implementation D) Database design Answer: D LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Which of the following functions model business rules?

A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database design D) Operations Answer: B LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) An open source DBMS is: A) a free source code RBMS that provides the functionality of an SQL-compliant DBMS. B) a beta release of a commercial RDBMS. C) an object-oriented database management system.

D) source code for a commercial RDBMS. Answer: A LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) Data governance can be defined as: A) a means to slow down the speed of data.

B) high-level organizational groups and processes that oversee data stewardship.

C) a government task force for defining data quality.

D) a means to increase the speed of data.

Answer: B LO: 12.4: Describe the importance of data governance and identify key goals of a data governance program.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 306 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Data quality ROI stands for: A) return on installation.

B) risk of incarceration.

C) rough outline inclusion.

D) rate of installation.

Answer: B LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) Data quality is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) it minimizes project delay.

B) it aids in making timely business decisions.

C) it provides a stream of profit.

D) it helps to expand the customer base.

Answer: C LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) Quality data can be defined as being: A) unique.

B) inaccurate.

C) historical.

D) precise.

Answer: A LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) Conformance means that: A) data have been transformed.

B) data are stored, exchanged, or presented in a format that is specified by its metadata.

C) data are stored in a way to expedite retrieval.

D) data is a harbinger.

Answer: B LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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12) Data that are accurate, consistent, and available in a timely fashion are considered: A) Oracle-based.

B) Microsoft-based.

C) high-quality.

D) low-quality.

Answer: C LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) One characteristic of quality data which pertains to the expectation for the time between when data are expected and when they are available for use is: A) currency.

B) consistency.

C) referential integrity.

D) timeliness.

Answer: D LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) External data sources present problems for data quality because: A) data are not always available.

B) there is a lack of control over data quality.

C) there are poor data capture controls.

D) data are unformatted.

Answer: B LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 15) Data quality problems can cascade when: A) data are not deleted properly.

B) data are copied from legacy systems.

C) there is redundant data storage and inconsistent metadata.

D) there are data entry problems.

Answer: B LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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16) Getting poor data from a supplier is a(n) ________ reason for deteriorated data quality.

A) external data source B) inconsistent metadata C) data entry problem D) lack of organizational commitment Answer: A LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 17) Including data capture controls (i.e., dropdown lists) helps reduce ________ deteriorated data problems.

A) external data source B) inconsistent metadata C) data entry D) lack of organizational commitment Answer: C LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 18) The best place to improve data entry across all applications is: A) in the users.

B) in the level of organizational commitment.

C) in the database definitions.

D) in the data entry operators.

Answer: C LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) Which of the following are key steps in a data quality program?

A) Avoid a data quality audit B) Apply TQM principles and practices C) Do not allow outside data D) Keep all data on one server Answer: B LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 309 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) One simple task of a data quality audit is to: A) interview all users.

B) statistically profile all files.

C) load all data into a data warehouse.

D) establish quality metrics.

Answer: B LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 21) One way to improve the data capture process is to: A) allow all data to be entered manually.

B) provide little or no training to data entry operators.

C) check entered data immediately for quality against data in the database.

D) not use any automatic data entry routines.

Answer: C LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) TQM stands for: A) Thomas Quinn Mann, a famous data quality innovator.

B) Total Quality Manipulation.

C) Transforming Quality Management.

D) Total Quality Management.

Answer: D LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) The methods to ensure the quality of data across various subject areas are called: A) Variable Data Management.

B) Master Data Management.

C) Joint Data Management.

D) Managed Data Management.

Answer: B LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 310 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) All of the following are popular architectures for Master Data Management EXCEPT: A) identity registry.

B) integration hub.

C) persistent.

D) normalization.

Answer: D LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 25) In the ________ approach, one consolidated record is maintained, and all applications draw on that one actual "golden" record.

A) persistent B) identity registry C) federated D) integration hub Answer: A LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) In the ________ approach, one consolidated record is maintained from which all applications draw data.

A) persnickity B) cautious C) persistent D) data-oriented Answer: C LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) The data administrator takes responsibility for the overall management of data resources.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) Databases are generally the property of a single department within an organization.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) The role of database administration is typically a more hands-on, physical involvement with the management of databases.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) Specifications for transactions do not need to be reviewed quickly.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 31) A high-level function that is responsible for the overall management of data resources in an organization is called database administration.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) Specifying database access policies is done during the database implementation phase.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) Open source DBMS are free software that provide the core functionality of an SQL compliant DBMS. Answer: TRUE LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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34) Open source software always comes with complete documentation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) Quality data are not essential for well-run organizations.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.4: Describe the importance of data governance and identify key goals of a data governance program.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) A data steward is a person assigned the responsibility of ensuring the organizational applications properly support the organization's enterprise goals for data quality.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.4: Describe the importance of data governance and identify key goals of a data governance program.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 37) A data governance committee is always made up of high-ranking government officials.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.4: Describe the importance of data governance and identify key goals of a data governance program.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) Dirty data saves work for information systems projects.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) Data quality is essential for SOX and Basel II compliance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 313 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) Dirty data can cause delays and extra work on information systems projects.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) Quality data does not have to be unique.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) Completeness means that all data that are needed are present.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) Retention refers to the amount of data that is not purged periodically from tables.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) Generally, records in a customer file never become obsolete.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) Completeness means that all data that must have a value does not have a value.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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46) Data which arrive via XML and B2B channels is always guaranteed to be accurate.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) The uncontrolled proliferation of spreadsheets, databases, and repositories leads to data quality problems.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) Lack of organizational commitment is a potential reason for an organization's deteriorated data quality.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) A data quality audit helps an organization understand the extent and nature of data quality problems.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) Conformance refers to whether the data is stored, exchanged, or presented in a format that is as specified by its metadata.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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51) A review will thoroughly review all process controls on data entry and maintenance.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Improving data capture process is a fundamental step in data quality improvement.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) A data expeditor is a person assigned the responsibility of ensuring that organizational applications properly support the organization's enterprise goals of data quality.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) Sound data modeling is a central ingredient of a data quality program.

Answer: TRUE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) A data stewardship program does not help to involve the organization in data quality.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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56) Total quality management (TQM) focuses on defect correction rather than defect prevention.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) Master data management is the disciplines, technologies, and methods to ensure the currency, meaning, and quality of data within one subject area.

Answer: FALSE LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) What are some of the core roles of the traditional data administrator?

Answer: Some of the core roles for a data administrator are the following: 1. Setting data policies, procedures, and standards 2. Planning–providing leadership in designing the organization's information architecture 3. Data conflict resolution–establishing procedures when conflicts occur over which unit owns the data 4. Managing the information repository 5. Internal marketing LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 59) What are some of the core roles of a database administrator?

Answer: Some of the core roles of a database administrator are: 1. Analyzing and designing the database 2. Selecting DBMS and related software tools 3. Installing and upgrading the DBMS 4. Tuning database performance 5. Improving database query processing performance 6. Managing data security, privacy and integrity 7. Performing data backup and recovery LO: 12.2: List several major functions of data administration and of database administration.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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60) What factors should one consider when choosing an open source DBMS? Answer: There are several factors to consider when choosing an open source DBMS: 1. Features–you need to make sure that all of the features and functionality that you need are available 2. Support–what kind of documentation is available, is there any technical support? How do you get answers to technical questions?

3. Ease of use–are there toolsets (such as GUIs) available for the product?

4. Stability–how frequently does the DBMS malfunction? Can it handle high volumes of data and transactions?

5. Speed–how rapid is the response time to queries and transactions?

6. Training–how easy is it to get training on the product?

7. Licensing–what type of licensing arrangement is available?

LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 61) What new trends and technologies have driven the need for changes in the data administration and database administration roles?

Answer: There have been several recent trends and changes in technology which have prompted changed roles for data administrators and database administrators. Since there are many proprietary and open source databases available, all of this must be managed concurrently in many organizations. Also, database size has increased rapidly over the years. In addition, many databases now embed business as triggers within the database. Finally, there has been an explosion of e-business applications that are accessible from outside the organization, leaving databases more vulnerable to outside attacks.

LO: 12.3: Describe the changing roles of the data administrator and database administrator in the current business environment.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 62) Why is data quality important?

Answer: Data quality is important to minimize IT project risk, since dirty data can cause delays and extra work. It is also important for making timely business decisions. One especially important point is the confidence that managers have in their data before making a decision.

Regulatory compliance is also something else to consider when talking about data quality. In addition, accurate data makes it easier to expand the customer base.

LO: 12.5: Describe the importance of data quality and list several measures to improve quality.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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63) What are some of the characteristics of quality data?

Answer: There are many characteristics that define quality data: 1. Uniqueness–each entity exists no more than once within the database 2. Accuracy 3. Consistency–values in one set of data are consistent with values in another set 4. Completeness–data have assigned values if they need assigned values 5. Timeliness–meeting expectations for the time between having the data and making it available for access 6. Currency–how up to date is the data set?

7. Conformance–is the data stored in conformance to the metadata?

8. Referential integrity LO: 12.6: Define the characteristics of quality data.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 64) What are some of the reasons for deteriorated data quality?

Answer: There are several reasons for the deterioration of data quality: 1. External data sources. When we use an external data source, we have no control over the data quality since it might be coming from another organization.

2. Redundant data storage and inconsistent metadata. Having redundant data can cause the proliferation of databases with uncontrolled redundancy.

3. Data entry problems due to poor data capture controls.

4. Lack of organizational commitment. Often, an organization will not recognize poor data quality as an organizational issue.

LO: 12.7: Describe the reasons for poor-quality data in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 65) What are the key steps in a data quality program?

Answer: There are several key steps to establishing a data quality program: 1. Show the value of data quality management to executives. This is called getting buy-in.

2. Understand the extent and nature of data quality by conducting a data quality audit.

3. Achieve organizational commitment and involvement through the establishment of a data stewardship program.

4. Improve the data capture process to overcome the garbage in, garbage out problem.

5. Use proven techniques to make more thorough data quality activities easier to execute.

6. Follow best practices such as TQM. LO: 12.8: Describe a program for improving data quality in organizations, including data stewardship.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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66) Discuss Master Data Management.

Answer: Master Data Management refers to the disciplines, technologies, and methods to ensure the currency, meaning, and quality of reference data within various subject areas. MDM ensures that everyone knows facts such as the current salary of an employee, the current address of a customer, etc. Master data could be a simple list. MDM does not address transactional data.

LO: 12.9: Describe the purpose and role of master data management.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 13 Distributed Databases 1) A(n) ________ is a database stored on multiple computers in multiple locations that are NOT connected by a data communications link.

A) distributed database B) decentralized database C) unlinked database D) data repository Answer: B LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) Which of the following are business conditions that encourage the use of distributed databases?

A) Companies with less than 10 employees B) Lack of Data sharing needs C) Data communication reliability D) Companies that only store data on spreadsheets Answer: C LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) Which of the following environments uses the same DBMS at each node with a central or master DBMS coordinating database access across nodes?

A) Centralized; maximum B) Centralized; minimum C) Homogeneous; nonautonomous D) Federated; nonautonomous Answer: C LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

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Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) Which of the following environments uses a different DBMS at each node and supports local databases for unique data requests?

A) Gateways; local B) Centralized; minimum C) Homogeneous; cross-linked D) Heterogeneous; federated Answer: D LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Which of the following supports a simple path to other databases, without the benefits of one logical database?

A) Linked; differential B) Gateways C) Autonomous; cross-linked D) Federated; nonautonomous Answer: B LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) Which of the following characterizes homogeneous environments?

A) Contains simple pathways B) Same DBMS used at all locations C) Some users require only local access D) Cross-linked systems easily communicate Answer: B LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) ________ is a design goal for a distributed database, which says a user does not need to know the location of data to use the data.

A) Location transparency B) Location autonomy C) Location dependency D) Distributed locatability Answer: A LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 322 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Simple paths to other databases without the benefits of one logical database are called: A) freeways.

B) parkways.

C) gateways.

D) highways.

Answer: C LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) ________ is a design goal for a distributed database that says a site can independently administer and operate its database.

A) Remote autonomy B) Local authority C) Local autonomy D) Location transparency Answer: C LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) Which of the following is true of distributed databases?

A) Less reliable B) Better local control C) Slower response time D) Centralized Answer: B LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) A form of distributed database in which all data across a network are kept continuously updated, so a user can access any data anywhere on the network and get the same answer is called a(n) ________ distributed database.

A) synchronous B) asynchronous C) private D) cloud-based Answer: A LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 323 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) ________ is an application that can effectively employ snapshot replication in a distributed environment.

A) Data cloning B) Data replication C) Distributed data D) Data warehousing Answer: D LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) Which of the following is true of data replication?

A) Reduced storage requirements B) Slower response C) Node decoupling D) Requires Oracle Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) All of the following are disadvantages of data replication EXCEPT: A) storage requirements.

B) reduced network traffic at prime time.

C) cost of updating.

D) complexity.

Answer: B LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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15) Data replication allowing for each transition to proceed without coordination is called: A) reliability.

B) fast response.

C) node decoupling.

D) node coupling.

Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) Snapshot replication is most appropriate for: A) a data warehouse application.

B) an application where the processing of data follows a workflow across the business units.

C) a transaction processing system.

D) a spreadsheet application.

Answer: A LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) One way to generate, store, and forward messages for completed transactions to be broadcast across a network is through the use of: A) stored procedures.

B) triggers.

C) functions.

D) SQL statements.

Answer: B LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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18) With a pull strategy of replication, the ________ node determines when a database is updated.

A) user B) source C) target D) banner Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) Replication should be used when: A) data currency and timing don't matter.

B) there is a highly heterogeneous network.

C) there are no or few triggers.

D) spreadsheet pages need to be linked.

Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 20) Which of the following is true about horizontal partitioning?

A) Data can be stored to optimize local access.

B) Data are less secure.

C) There is consistent access speed.

D) It only works with Macintosh systems.

Answer: A LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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21) All of the following are advantages of horizontal partitioning EXCEPT: A) efficiency.

B) security.

C) ease of querying.

D) easier to set up than horizontal partitioning.

Answer: D LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 22) A centralized strategy has ________ expandability.

A) excellent B) good C) poor D) medium Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 23) A synchronized replication strategy has a(n) ________ reliability.

A) excellent B) good C) fair D) medium Answer: A LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) An integrated partition strategy is ________ to manage.

A) excellent B) difficult C) easy D) medium Answer: B LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 327 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Which of the following factors in deciding on database distribution strategies is related to autonomy of organizational units?

A) Organizational forces B) Frequency of data access C) Reliability needs D) Organizational development Answer: A LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 26) A distributed database must: A) keep track of data locations.

B) present a single logical database that is physically distributed.

C) require Oracle.

D) require SQL Server.

Answer: B LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 27) In a distributed database, a transaction that requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites is called a ________ transaction.

A) link B) tight C) global D) loose Answer: C LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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28) With ________, users can act as if all the data were located at a single node.

A) location transparency B) local autonomy C) client-based control D) location consistency Answer: A LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) A design goal for distributed databases to allow programmers to treat a data item replicated at several sites as though it were at one site is called: A) location transparency.

B) replication accessibility.

C) replication transparency.

D) data accessibility.

Answer: C LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) With ________, all of the actions of a transaction are either committed or not committed.

A) location transparency B) replication transparency C) failure transparency D) commit transparency Answer: C LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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31) An optimization strategy that allows sites that can update to proceed and other sites to catch up is called: A) read-only commit.

B) lazy commit.

C) sequenced commit.

D) linear set up.

Answer: B LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) ________ ensures that a transaction is successfully completed or else it is aborted.

A) Failure protocol B) TCP/IP protocol C) Commit protocol D) Go/No Go protocol Answer: C LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) A design goal for distributed databases that states that although a distributed database runs many transactions, it appears that a given transaction is the only one in the system is called: A) linear run.

B) concurrency transparency.

C) transaction CPU transparency.

D) location transparency.

Answer: B LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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34) The step in which a distributed database decides the order in which to execute the distributed query is called: A) decomposition.

B) localization.

C) step optimization.

D) global optimization.

Answer: D LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 35) A joining operation in which only the joining attribute from one site is transmitted to the other site is called a(n): A) attribute linkup.

B) key data element transfer.

C) key data element join.

D) semijoin.

Answer: D LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 36) The sequence of instructions required to process a transaction is called the: A) unit of work.

B) logical program unit.

C) rollback.

D) commit.

Answer: A LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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37) A ________ allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS. A) distributed UOW B) join SQL statement C) distributed request D) data transfer command Answer: C LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 38) A distributed database is NOT just a collection of files.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) Distributed databases make data sharing more difficult because of the data communication problems.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) Distributed databases do not easily satisfy both transaction and analytical processing systems.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 41) A distributed database is a single logical database spread physically across computers in multiple locations that are connected by a data communication link.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 332 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) In a homogeneous environment, the same DBMS is used at each location.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) In a heterogeneous environment, not all users use the same DBMS. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) Users of distributed database systems always need to know the location of the data.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) Local autonomy means that data are not accessible from remote sites.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) With an asynchronous distributed database, all data across the network is continuously kept up to date.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 47) An environment in which data are distributed across all nodes, and there is a global schema, is called a heterogenous environment.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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48) A distributed database may require more costly and complex software than a centralized database.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) Location efficiency enables a user to access data without knowing exactly where the data are located.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) Replicated databases usually result in tightly coupled nodes.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) Replication is often used for noncollaborative data.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 52) Replication should NOT be used if timely updates are important.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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53) Applications such as decision support or data warehousing often do not require current data and are supported by periodic snapshots.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) Shared ownership of data is most appropriate as business activities move across time zones.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) One way to generate messages for near-real-time replication is through the use of database triggers.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) Applications that can tolerate out-of-date data are not the best candidates for data replication.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 57) Horizontal partitioning offers increased efficiency because data are close to use areas.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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58) Combining data across vertical partitions is generally more difficult than combining across horizontal partitions.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) The overriding principle in distributed database design is that data should be stored at one central site.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) When separate copies of data are stored at each of two or more sites, it is called replication.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) In a push replication strategy, the target, not the source, controls when a local database is updated.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 62) Horizontal partitioning is implemented by placing some rows of a table at one site and other rows at another site.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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63) Organizational forces such as funding availability drive the choice of distributed database strategy.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) The reliability of a decentralized distributed database system with independent partitions is poor.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) A replicated database with snapshots is very manageable.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) A distributed DBMS must provide consistency among copies of data across the remote sites.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 67) A local transaction is one that requires reference only to data that are stored at the site where the transaction originates.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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68) Location transparency is used to inform users of where data are located within the distributed database.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) Replication transparency allows a programmer or user to treat a replicated data item as if it were a single item at a single node.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) A transaction manager is an algorithm that coordinates updates or aborts them.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) Failure transparency is a design goal for distributed databases that guarantees that all the actions associated with a transaction are either committed or none of them are committed.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 72) Two-phase commit is an algorithm for coordinating deletions in a distributed database management system.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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73) With a two-phase commit strategy for synchronizing distributed data, committing a transaction is faster than if the originating location were able to work alone.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) Concurrency transparency allows each transaction to appear as if it were the only activity in a distributed database management system.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) The purpose of time-stamping is to allow transactions to be processed in parallel.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) In general, data should be located away from the applications that use those data.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) Scalability is the ability to grow, reduce in size, and become more heterogeneous as the needs of the business change.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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78) A transaction that requires only reference to data that are stored at the site is a remote transaction.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) A transaction that requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites to satisfy the request is a global transaction.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) Location translucency enables users and programmers to treat data as if it were located at one node even though it may move from node to node.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) Replication transparency is a design goal in distributed database systems, which says that even though a data item may be replicated at several nodes throughout the network, a user may treat the data item as if it were a single data item at a single node.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) The transaction processor at each site maintains an appropriate concurrency scheme to ensure data integrity during parallel execution of transactions at that site.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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83) Data localization involves transforming a query into fragments that explicitly reference data at one site.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 84) In a semijoin, all of the selected attributes from every selected row are transmitted to each site.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) A remote unit of work allows updates at the single remote computer.

Answer: TRUE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) A distributed unit of work does not support location transparency.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) A distributed unit of work allows a single SQL UPDATE statement to update data at more than one location.

Answer: FALSE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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88) A distributed request allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS. Answer: FALSE LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 89) What business conditions encourage the use of distributed databases?

Answer: There are several business conditions which encourage the use of distributed databases: 1. Distribution and autonomy of business units 2. Data sharing 3. Data communication costs and reliability 4. Multiple application vendor environment 5. Database recovery 6. Satisfying both transaction and analytical processing LO: 13.2: Explain the business conditions that are drivers for the use of distributed databases in organizations.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 90) Describe the range of distributed database environments.

Answer: The range of distributed databases falls into two categories: homogeneous and heterogeneous. Homogeneous environments have the same DBMS at each node, either working independently, called autonomous, or using a central DBMS to coordinate database access and updates across nodes. Heterogeneous environments can have different DBMSs at each node and can either be systems or gateways. A gateway is simply a path to other databases. Systems can either include full database functionality or partial database functionality.

LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 91) Explain the difference between a synchronous and asynchronous distributed database.

Answer: A synchronous distributed database keeps all data constantly up to date across the network. A user at any site can access data anywhere on the network at any time and get the same result. An asynchronous distributed database keeps replicated copies of databases on local servers. In this way, local servers can access data without reaching out across the network.

LO: 13.3: Describe the salient characteristics of a variety of distributed database environments.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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92) What are the functions of a distributed DBMS? Answer: In a distributed database environment, the local database at each site will have a DBMS managing the local database. However, there is a centralized DBMS which handles the following: 1. Keeping track of where data are located in the distributed data dictionary 2. Determine the location from which to retrieve requested data and the location at which to process each part of a distributed query 3. Translate the request at one node using a local DBMS into a request at another node, perhaps using a different DBMS 4. Provide security, concurrency, deadlock control and other data management functions 5. Provide consistency among copies of data across multiple sites 6. Provide a single logical database that is physically distributed 7. Provide scalability 8. Replicate data and stored procedures across the nodes of the distributed database 9. Use residual computing power to improve the performance of database processing 10. Permit different nodes to run different DBMSs 11. Allow different versions of application code to reside on different nodes of the distributed database LO: 13.4: Explain the potential advantages and risks associated with distributed databases.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 93) What is data replication?

Answer: Data replication is a popular option for data distribution in which a copy of the database is stored at two or more sites. This makes for a fault tolerant system. Replication may use either synchronous or asynchronous distributed database technologies. In most cases, asynchronous technology is used. By having multiple copies of the database, reliability is increased as well as response time, since queries can be done against a local copy of the database. Also, network traffic is reduced. A disadvantage of data replication is that a full copy of the database must be stored at each site, which increases storage costs.

LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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94) Discuss the different types of data replication.

Answer: There are several different types of replication that can be employed. Snapshot replication allows the replicated database to be updated for a snapshot of time. This works best for data warehousing applications, since real-time data is not needed. Near-real-time replication broadcasts information about each completed transaction across the network, asking each node to update the data as soon as possible. Another type is pull replication, where the local database determines when it needs to be updated. The advantage here is that the local site controls when it needs and can handle updates.

LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 95) What is horizontal and vertical partitioning?

Answer: With horizontal partitioning, some of the rows of a table are put in one table at one site and other rows of the table are put in one table at another site. There are four major advantages to horizontal partitioning: efficiency, since data are stored close to where they are; local optimization; security: it is easier to control who has access to a set of data at one site; and ease of querying. Vertical partitioning splits a table up by columns, so that some columns are in one table at one location and other columns are in another location.

LO: 13.5: Explain four strategies for the design of distributed databases, options within each strategy, and the factors to consider in selecting among these strategies.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 96) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of a distributed database?

Answer: Either form of distributed databases has numerous advantages, including: 1. Increased reliability and availability 2. Local control 3. Modular growth 4. Lower communication costs 5. Faster response There are also some costs and disadvantages associated with distributed databases, including: 1. Software cost and complexity 2. Processing overhead 3. Data integrity 4. Slow response LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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97) What are the five unique ways that a data distribution strategy can be organized?

Answer: A distributed database can be organized in five unique ways: 1.Totally centralized at one location and accessed from many different locations 2. Partially or totally replicated across distributed sites with each copy updated with snapshots 3. Partially or totally replicated across distributed sites with near-real-time synchronization of updates 4. Partitioned into segments at multiple locations, but considered to be one logical database 5. Partitioned into nonintegrated segments spanning multiple computers LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 98) What is the difference between a local transaction and a global transaction?

Answer: A local transaction is one in a distributed database environment that requires reference to data that are stored at the site where the transaction originates. A global transaction requires reference to data in one or more nonlocal sites.

LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 99) What are the three different kinds of transparencies used in distributed database management systems?

Answer: Transparency isolates a user from the complexities of the distributed database management system. Location transparency makes data appear to the user like it is all in one place. Replication transparency allows the user to treat data as if it were on one node, even though it may be replicated at many different sites. Failure transparency ensures that either all actions of a transaction are committed or not.

LO: 13.6: State the relative advantages of synchronous and asynchronous data replication and partitioning as three major approaches for distributed database design.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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100) What are the three steps that a distributed DBMS uses to develop a query plan?

Answer: 1. Query decomposition–simplify and rewrite 2. Data localization–query is transformed to access data across network as if at one location 3. Global optimization–here decisions are made about the best way to execute the query LO: 13.7: Outline the steps involved in processing a query in a distributed database and several approaches used to optimize distributed query processing.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking Modern Database Management, 13e (Hoffer) Chapter 14 Object-Oriented Data Modeling 1) A(n) ________ is a concept, abstraction, or thing that has a state, behavior, and identity.

A) relationship B) attribute C) key D) object Answer: D LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 2) The object-oriented systems development cycle consists of: A) two phases.

B) three phases.

C) four phases.

D) five phases.

Answer: B LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 3) A model of a real-world application and associated properties are created in the: A) analysis phase.

B) design phase.

C) implementation phase.

D) evaluation phase.

Answer: A LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

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Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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4) A(n) ________ encompasses an object's properties and the values of those properties.

A) state B) attribute C) method D) behavior Answer: A LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 5) Which of the following is a reason for using an object-oriented design?

A) The analysis model is not formal enough to be implemented in a programming language.

B) The actual system is not adapted to the environment in which the system will actually be implemented.

C) Documentation is provided.

D) Traditional ERD is preferred.

Answer: A LO: 14.3: State the advantages of object-oriented modeling vis-à-vis structured approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 6) All of the following are benefits of object-oriented modeling EXCEPT: A) the ability to tackle more challenging problem domains.

B) increased consistency among analysis, design, and programming activities.

C) decreased communication among the users, analysts, designers, and programmers.

D) reusability of analysis, design, and programming results.

Answer: C LO: 14.3: State the advantages of object-oriented modeling vis-à-vis structured approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 7) Both E-R model and object-oriented models are centered around: A) objects.

B) encapsulation.

C) polymorphism.

D) object diagrams.

Answer: A LO: 14.4: Compare the object-oriented model with the E-R and EER models.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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8) Object-oriented model objects differ from E-R models because: A) OO store data.

B) OO allow data types.

C) OO objects exhibit behavior.

D) OO stores information.

Answer: C LO: 14.4: Compare the object-oriented model with the E-R and EER models.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 9) The Unified Modeling Language: A) is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented analysis or design model.

B) is used in traditional ERD modeling.

C) was developed by E.F. Codd.

D) is a SQL sublanguage.

Answer: A LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 10) A diagram that shows the static structure of an object-oriented model is called a(n): A) structure diagram.

B) class diagram.

C) entity diagram.

D) data flow diagram.

Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 11) Which of the following refers to a set of objects that share common structures and behaviors?

A) Supertype B) Object class C) Model D) Entity group Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 349 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which of the following is a function or service provided by all instances of a class?

A) Operation B) Implementation C) Class group D) Query Answer: A LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 13) An operation that creates a new instance of a class is called a(n): A) query operation.

B) update operation.

C) scope operation.

D) constructor operation.

Answer: D LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 14) Which of the following operations does NOT alter the state of an object?

A) Update B) Query C) Constructor D) Class-Scope Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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15) ________ is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

A) Grouping B) Encapsulation C) Classification D) Mining Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 16) An operation that applies to a class rather than an object instance is a(n): A) constructor operation.

B) query operation.

C) class-scope operation.

D) update operation.

Answer: C LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 17) A(n) ________ is shown as a solid line between the participating classes.

A) connector B) update C) entity D) association Answer: D LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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18) The end of an association where it connects to a class is called a(n): A) connector.

B) terminator.

C) initiator.

D) association role.

Answer: D LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 19) ________ indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.

A) Bound B) Multiplicity C) Role D) Relationship Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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20) In the figure below, which of the following is true?

A) A faculty may advise only one student.

B) A faculty may advise up to a maximum of 10 students.

C) A course offering may be offered for multiple courses.

D) A student can have more than one advisor.

Answer: B LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 21) An association ________ is an association that has attributes or operations of its own.

A) link B) group C) class D) body Answer: C LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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22) In the figure below, which of the following is true?

A) Students use various software tools for different courses.

B) Students can only register for one course.

C) Students use only one type of software.

D) Each course uses specific software.

Answer: A LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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23) A graph of instances that are compatible within a class diagram is called a(n): A) object group.

B) method chart.

C) object diagram.

D) ERD. Answer: C LO: 14.6: Provide a snapshot of the detailed state of a system at a point in time, using a UML object diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 24) The following figure is an example of a(n):

A) class diagram.

B) method chart.

C) object diagram.

D) ERD. Answer: C LO: 14.6: Provide a snapshot of the detailed state of a system at a point in time, using a UML object diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology

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25) In the following diagram, ________ objects are present (i.e., :Registration).

A) link B) object C) XML D) ERD Answer: A LO: 14.6: Provide a snapshot of the detailed state of a system at a point in time, using a UML object diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 26) A class that has direct instances is called a(n) ________ class.

A) abstract B) multiplicity C) large D) concrete Answer: D LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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27) According to the UML Notation Guide, overlapping means: A) a descendant may be descended from more than one of the subclasses.

B) a descendant may not be descended from more than one of the subclasses.

C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.

D) the list of objects is stable, but relationships will change.

Answer: A LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 28) According to the UML Notation Guide, complete means: A) a descendant may come from more than one supertype.

B) a descendant may be not descended from more than one of the subclasses.

C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.

D) the list of objects is NOT stable.

Answer: C LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 29) A(n) ________ is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an entire class.

A) completion attribute B) class-scope attribute C) overall descriptor D) summary descriptor Answer: B LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 30) A(n) ________ defines the form or protocol of an operation, but not its implementation.

A) meta-operation B) inquisitor C) abstract operation D) operation descriptor Answer: C LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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31) A ________ is the implementation of an operation.

A) meta-operation B) method C) query D) constructor Answer: B LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 32) ________ means that the same operation can apply to two or more classes in different ways.

A) Polymorphism B) Inheritance C) Combined operations D) Checkpoint Answer: A LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 33) The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of the method in a subclass is called: A) inheritance.

B) encapsulation.

C) polymorphism.

D) overriding.

Answer: D LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 34) When an object is an instance of more than one class, it is called: A) multiplicity.

B) polymorphism.

C) multiple classification.

D) multiple associations.

Answer: C LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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35) In the figure below, what relationship is shown?

A) Overlaps B) Disjoints C) Rejoinders D) Aggregation Answer: D LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 36) A part object which belongs to only one whole object and which lives and dies with the whole object is called a: A) dependent.

B) weak entity.

C) composition.

D) declarative.

Answer: C LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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37) {disjoint, complete} is an example of a UML: A) expansion.

B) HTML link.

C) business rule constraint.

D) database clause.

Answer: C LO: 14.8: Specify different types of business rules in a class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 38) When specifying a business rule between graphical symbols, a ________ is drawn from one element to the other.

A) dashed arrow B) dashed asterisk C) highlighted union D) highlighted intersect Answer: A LO: 14.8: Specify different types of business rules in a class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 39) The implementation of an operation is called a(n): A) attribute.

B) class.

C) method.

D) object.

Answer: C LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 40) A(n) ________ is a named relationship between or among classes.

A) association B) named relationship C) assumption D) attribute Answer: A LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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41) A state represents how an object acts.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 42) The object-oriented systems development cycle consists of four phases.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 43) Both E-R model and object-oriented models are centered around objects.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.4: Compare the object-oriented model with the E-R and EER models.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 44) Both Object-oriented and E-R objects exhibit behaviors.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.4: Compare the object-oriented model with the E-R and EER models.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 45) An object encapsulates both data and behavior.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.3: State the advantages of object-oriented modeling vis-à-vis structured approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 46) A class diagram shows the dynamic structure of an object-oriented model.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.3: State the advantages of object-oriented modeling vis-à-vis structured approaches.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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47) A constructor operation does not alter an instance of a class.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 48) A class-scope operation applies to a class rather than an object instance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 49) An object class is a set of objects that share a common structure and behavior.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 50) An operation is a function or service that is provided by all of the classes.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 51) State encompasses an object's properties and the values of those properties.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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52) An entity that has a well-defined role in the application domain and has a state, behavior, and identity is called an object.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 53) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 54) An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 55) Each role has a duplicity, which indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 56) The most common multiplicities are 0,1, *, and 1.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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57) A ternary relationship can easily be replaced by three binary relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 58) An association class is an association that participates in no relationships.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 59) An association class is similar to an associative entity in the E-R model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 60) A derived attribute, association, or role is one that can be computed or derived from other attributes, associations, or roles.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 61) An instance of a subclass is not always an instance of its superclass.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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62) A class diagram shows the static structure of an object-oriented model.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 63) A UML is a graph of instances that are compatible with a given class diagram.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 64) It is only through an operation that other objects can access or manipulate information stored in an object.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 65) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 66) A destructor operation creates a new instance of a class.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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67) An update operation has side effects since it alters the state of an object.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 68) A query operation does not alter the state of an object.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 69) An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 70) A duplicity specification in a class diagram is shown as a text string representing an interval (or intervals) of integers.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 71) An association that has its own attributes or operations or that participates in relationships with other classes is called an association class.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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72) A deprived attribute, role, or association is one that can be computed from other attributes, roles, or associations.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 73) A graph of instances that are compatible within a class diagram is called an object diagram.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.6: Provide a snapshot of the detailed state of a system at a point in time, using a UML object diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 74) A class that can have direct instances is called an abstract class.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 75) According to the UML Notation Guide, the term disjoint means that a descendent may not be descended from more than one of the subclasses.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 76) A class-scope attribute is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an instance of a class.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 77) In addition to specifying the multiplicity of an association role, you can also specify other properties, for example, if the objects playing the role are ordered or not.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 367 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

78) An abstract operation describes the implementation of an operation.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 79) Polymorphism occurs when the same operation may apply to two or more classes in different ways.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 80) Overriding is the process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 81) If a subclass of a company inherits an operation to compute a tax but extends the inherited behavior by adding a foreign surcharge, this is an example of overriding for extension.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 82) Overriding for optimization implements a new operation with improved code by exploiting the restrictions imposed by the superclass.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Difficult Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 83) In overriding for restriction, the protocol of the new operation in the subclass is restricted.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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84) An aggregation expresses a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 85) A composition is an instance of class that is made up of more than one class.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 86) In composition, a part belongs to many whole objects.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 87) In aggregation, some of the operations of the whole automatically apply to its parts.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 88) A class that has no direct instances but whose descendants may have direct instances is called an abstract class.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 89) The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of that method in a subclass is called underwriting.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology

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90) When an object is an instance of more than one class, this is known as multiple classification.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 91) Aggregation is a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 92) A part object that belongs to only one whole object and lives and dies with the whole object is called composting.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 93) When some of the operations on a whole class automatically apply to its parts, the operation is said to propagate.

Answer: FALSE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 94) A class-scope attribute is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an entire class, rather than a specific value for an instance.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 95) When an operation may apply to two or more classes in different ways, this is known as polymorphism.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 370 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

96) {disjoint, complete} is an example of a UML linking to XML. Answer: FALSE LO: 14.8: Specify different types of business rules in a class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Application AACSB: Information Technology 97) When specifying a business rule between graphical symbols, a dashed arrow is drawn from one element to the other.

Answer: TRUE LO: 14.8: Specify different types of business rules in a class diagram.

Difficulty: Easy Classification: Concept AACSB: Information Technology 98) What is the difference between a class and an object?

Answer: A class is an entity type with a well-defined role in the application domain. An object is an instance of a class.

LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 99) What is encapsulation?

Answer: The technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object is called encapsulation. It also can be thought of as information hiding. In essence, the methods or behavior of the object is readily accessible, but the details of how the methods work is not shown.

LO: 14.2: Describe the activities in the different phases of the object-oriented development life cycle.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology

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100) What are several motivations and benefits of object-oriented modeling?

Answer: Coad and Yourdon identified several motivations and benefits: 1. The ability to tackle more challenging problem domains 2. Improved communication between users, analysts, designers and programmers 3. Increased consistency among analysis, design and programming activities 4. Explicit representation of a commonalty among system components 5. Robustness of systems 6. Reusability of analysis, design and programming results 7. Increase consistency among all of the models LO: 14.3: State the advantages of object-oriented modeling vis-à-vis structured approaches.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking 101) What is the purpose of a constructor operation?

Answer: A constructor operator creates a new instance of a class.

LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 102) What is an association and an association role?

Answer: An association is a named relationship between or among object classes. An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

LO: 14.5: Model a real-world domain by using a Unified Modeling Language (UML) class diagram.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Information Technology 103) What is the difference between an abstract class and a concrete class?

Answer: An abstract class is a class that has no direct instances but whose direct descendants may have direct instances. A concrete class, on the other hand, can have no direct instances.

LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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104) What is polymorphism?

Answer: Polymorphism is the ability of an operation with the same name to respond in different ways depending on the class context. Polymorphism is often used with inheritance, where you might have two children of a class with a method that has the same name but does different things for each child.

LO: 14.7: Recognize when to use generalization, aggregation, and composition relationships.

Difficulty: Moderate Classification: Synthesis AACSB: Reflective Thinking

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