Test Bank For Memory 4th Edition By Alan Baddeley, Michael W. Eysenck, Michael C. Anderson

Test Bank For Memory 4e By Alan Baddeley, Michael W. Eysenck, Michael C. Anderson Chapter 1-17 1

How did Clive Wearing acquire brain damage?

(A) Bike accident (B) Car accident (C) Encephalitis (D) Syphilis (E) Epilepsy

Answer: 2

(C) Encephalitis

Which element of Clive Wearing‟s memory remained relatively intact?

(A) Episodic memory formation (B) Delayed recall (C) Memory for music (D) Associative memory encoding (E) Declarative memory formation

Answer: 3

(C) Memory for music

Who devised the concept of cognitive maps in rats?

(A) Edward Tolman (B) Endel Tulving (C) Herman Ebbinghaus (D) Clark Hull (E) Alan Baddeley

Answer: 4

(A) Edward Tolman

From the highest to lowest, what is the correct order of these levels according to reductionism?

(A) Social behavior, biochemistry, cognition, physics, physiology (B) Cognition, social behavior, physiology, biochemistry, physics (C) Social behavior, cognition, biochemistry, physiology, physics (D) Physiology, biochemistry, cognition, social behavior, physics (E) Social behavior, cognition, physiology, biochemistry, physics

Answer: 5

(E) Social behavior, cognition, physiology, biochemistry, physics

Introspection refers to the capacity to do which of the following?

(A) Select a random sample

(B) Record from an individual neuron (C) Reflect and report on ongoing thoughts (D) Repress unwanted thoughts (E) Formulate an animal model of memory Answer: 6

(C) Reflect and report on ongoing thoughts

The attempt to systematically map the relationship between physical stimuli onto mental phenomena like sensation and perception is most characteristic of which of the following disciplines?

(A) Psychophysics (B) Psychosis (C) Psycholinguistics (D) Psychoanalysis (E) Psychosomatics

Answer: 7

(A) Psychophysics

Who is credited as inventing what has come to be known as the nonsense syllable to study memory experimentally?

(A) Hull (B) Freud (C) Piaget (D) Ebbinghaus (E) Tolman

Answer: 8

(D) Ebbinghaus

Which branch of psychology, developed in 1930s Germany, largely applied ideas from the study of perception to the understanding of human memory?

(A) Freudianism (B) Behaviorism (C) Gestalt (D) Connectionism (E) Phrenology

Answer: 9

(C) Gestalt

Bartlett (1932) is famous for utilizing which of the following to study memory and the rememberer‟s “effort after meaning?”

(A) Nonsense syllables (B) Folk tales (C) Visual illusions (D) Visual masks (E) Placebos

Answer:

(B) Folk tales

10 Who of the following is most associated with early information-processing accounts of memory?

(A) Bartlett (B) Broadbent (C) Tulving (D) Hull (E) Tolman Answer:

(B) Broadbent

11 What term refers to Bartlett‟s idea of how our memories are structured?

(A) Schema (B) Model (C) Node (D) Store (E) Map Answer:

(A) Schema

12 Cognitive psychology is largely based on which of the following metaphors?

(A) Allocentric (B) Egocentric (C) Computer (D) Blank slate (E) Black box Answer:

(C) Computer

13 The modal model of memory assumed: (A) Long-term memories cannot be retrieved into the short-term store (B) A single memory system (C) Only simple stimulus-response associations (D) Memory cannot be studied empirically (E) Sensory memory systems provide the interface between perception and memory Answer:

(E) Sensory memory systems provide the interface between perception and memory

14 Iconic memory is a key element of which memory system?

(A) Long-term (B) Short-term (C) Episodic

(D) Sensory (E) Semantic Answer:

(D) Sensory

15 Echoic memory refers to which sensory modality?

(A) Smell (B) Vision (C) Taste (D) Hearing (E) Extrasensory Answer:

(D) Hearing

16 According to Sperling (1960), how many items could people keep in sensory memory?

(A) Two or three (B) Four or five (C) Five or six (D) Six or seven (E) Eight or nine Answer:

(B) Four or five

17 According to Sperling (1963), What effect did bright lights during testing intervals have on performance?

(A) Had no effect (B) Increased capacity (C) Increased accuracy (D) Caused drowsiness (E) Impaired performance Answer: (E) Impaired performance 18 Which type of masking, studied by Turvey (1973), occurs when targets are followed by a mask comprising of broadly similar features to the target?

(A) Deterministic (B) Brightness (C) Seismic (D) Confirmation (E) Pattern Answer:

(E) Pattern

19 With visual presentation of a series of digits, the likelihood of a memory error is generally highest where in the list?

(A) It is constant throughout (B) At the beginning (C) In the middle (D) At the end (E) Every other item Answer:

(D) At the end

20 Crowder and Morton proposed which of the following stores to account for the auditory recency effect?

(A) Precategorical acoustic (B) Postprocessing audition (C) Visuospatial sketchpad (D) Perceptive loop (E) Acoustic priming Answer:

(A) Precategorical acoustic

21 Who devised the multicomponent model of working memory?

(A) Schacter (B) Baddeley and Hitch (C) Conrad (D) Crowder and Raeburn (E) Deutsch Answer:

(B) Baddeley and Hitch

22 Endel Tulving (1972) highlighted a distinction between which forms of memory?

(A) Declarative and procedural (B) Short-term and long-term (C) Implicit and explicit (D) Schemata and mental maps (E) Semantic and episodic Answer:

(E) Semantic and episodic

23 Warrington and Weiskrantz (1968) demonstrated that which type of learning was preserved in densely amnesic patients under certain conditions?

(A) Autobiographical (B) Explicit (C) Retroactive (D) Perseverative (E) Implicit

Answer:

(E) Implicit

24 Ulric Neisser gave the opening address at an international conference in South Wales in the late 1970s primarily concerned with advancing the study of which aspect of memory?

(A) Practical (B) Innate (C) In vitro (D) Computational (E) Evolutionary Answer:

(A) Practical

25 Remembering to do things in the future is most associated with which form of memory?

(A) Foregoing (B) Prospective (C) Advanced (D) Perspective (E) Foremost Answer:

(B) Prospective

26 Which phenomenon of implicit memory is found across perceptual tasks and complex mental activities?

(A) Priming (B) Multi-tasking (C) Associative pairing (D) Semantic recall (E) Learned recall Answer:

(A) Priming

27 Identify one way in which researchers can gain particularly useful information from their studies.

(A) Conduct research later in the day (B) Use trickery to hide the purpose of a study (C) Conduct studies earlier in the day (D) Pay attention to participants‟ reports about strategies they used during a study (E) Instruct participants to avoid using any strategies Answer:

(D) Pay attention to participants‟ reports about strategies they used during a study

28 Contemporary approaches to memory acknowledge a need for which of the following?

(A) More research with participants from a variety of cultures

(B) More research published in English-language journals (C) Longer memory questionnaires (D) More emphasis on strengthening memory skills in children (E) Shorter memory questionnaires Answer:

(A) More research with participants from a variety of cultures

29 Identify the learning model embodied in many artificial intelligence (AI) models.

(A) Complex parallel processing (B) Associationism (C) Classical conditioning (D) Connectionism (E) Robotic learning Answer:

30

(D) Connectionism

Identify the model in which semantic memory and its representations of the world can be embedded in language and derived from it.

(A) Modal model (B) Learning Language Model (LLM) (C) Cognitive map models (D) Connectionism (E) Digital model

Answer: 1

(B) Learning Language Model (LLM)

Which neuropsychological approach is well suited to providing a clinical overview of a condition, but may yield ambiguous answers to theoretical questions about particular processes if the condition is relatively nonspecific?

(A) Randomized clinical trial (B) Computer modeling (C) Selective lesioning (D) Neuropsychological group design (E) Transcranial-magnetic stimulation

Answer: 2

(D) Neuropsychological group design

The more severe the accident leading to traumatic brain injury (TBI), the: (A) Longer the expected period of unconsciousness (B) Poorer the chance of a good recovery (C) Greater the memory disturbance (D) Worse the prognosis

(E) All of these Answer: 3

(E) All of these

An especially powerful way of ruling out the possibility that a deficit in one task represents a simple disparity in difficulty with another task, for which performance is preserved, is the: (A) Occam's razor (B) Case study (C) Single dissociation (D) Double dissociation (E) Counterfactual

Answer: 4

(D) Double dissociation

The process of carrying out a large set of experiments focused on addressing the same theoretical question, but using different methods and participant groups is called: (A) Exact replication (B) Divergence (C) Converging operations (D) Bootstrapping (E) Default mode

Answer: 5

(C) Converging operations

Identify the anatomical structure that complicates the conclusions that can be drawn in a lesion-focused group design: (A) Left hippocampus (B) Prefrontal cortex (C) Fibres of passage (D) Temporal lobe (E) Right hippocampus

Answer: 6

(C) Fibres of passage

Which statement(s) describes voxel-based lesion-symptom mapping (VBLSM): (A) It is used to examine the impact of brain lesions on cognitive function.

(B) It involves use of volumetric pixels to map brain regions.

(C) It can involve the use of magnetic resonance imaging.

(D) It is consistent with a view that cognitive operations may not localize to a small area of cortical tissue.

(E) All of these

Answer: 7

(E) All of these

Rotating an X-ray detector around a person's head to form a three-dimensional

representation of their brain is an example of: (A) Intracranial cellular recording (B) Magnetic resonance imaging (C) Electrocardiography (D) Electroencephalography (E) Computerized tomography Answer: 8

(E) Computerized tomography

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can distinguish various structures in the brain (e.g. white matter from gray matter) by doing which of the following?

(A) Staining the cells differently (B) Implanting electrodes at different depths (C) Directing ionizing radiation at the brain from different angles (D) Varying the frequency of the radio pulse (E) Observing infrared reflectance

Answer: 9

(D) Varying the frequency of the radio pulse

Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS): (A) Has largely fallen out of favor with researchers (B) Permits brain area mapping (C) Permits measurement of brain neurochemistry (D) Is the preferred method for measuring brain anatomy (E) Is highly invasive

Answer: 1 0

(C) Permits measurement of brain neurochemistry

The first functional neuroimaging method developed that relies on quantifying changes in blood flow to the brain is: (A) fMRI (B) PET (C) MEG (D) CT (E) EEG

Answer: 1 1

(B) PET

Identify the statement that accurately describes fMRI:

(A) It is a more precise measure of neural activity than PET. (B) It indirectly measures brain damage.

(C) It directly measures blood flow in the brain with better spatial resolution than PET.

(D) It is an invasive measure of brain activity.

(E) It relies on voxels.

Answer: 1 2

(C) It directly measures blood flow in the brain with better spatial resolution than PET.

Which research design involves the examination of differences between brain activity when cognition is engaged (experimental condition) and when it is not (control condition)?

(A) Inception (B) Tractography (C) Granger causality (D) Effective connectivity (E) Subtraction method

Answer: 1 3

(E) Subtraction method

Which of the following terms refers to difficulty in inferring a cognitive process from a single area of brain activity?

(A) Subtraction method (B) Reverse inference (C) Granger causality (D) Addition method (E) Converging inference

Answer: 1 4

(B) Reverse inference

Functional connectivity (interactions between brain regions when one either is engaged in a task or is resting) is information provided by which technique?

(A) fMRI (B) EEG (C) PET (D) MVPA (E) None of these

Answer: 1 5

(A) fMRI

MVPA is an abbreviation for which of the following?

(A) Multi-view photon array (B) Multi-voxel pattern analysis (C) Myelin vector product arrangement (D) Minute vacillation prototype analysis (E) Measured vasopressin accumulation Answer:

(B) Multi-voxel pattern analysis

1 6

What information does machine learning applied to fMRI data in MVPA provide?

(A) Voxel activity patterns specific to particular cognitive states, processes, or stimuli (B) Categories of different cognitive states associated with a single voxel (C) How the brain represents different stimuli across no more than two voxels (D) Voxel activity patterns in both resting and non-resting states (E) Similarities between software code and blood flow in the brain Answer: 1 7

(A) Voxel activity patterns specific to particular cognitive states, processes, or stimuli

EEG involves recording which of the following across the scalp?

(A) Neurotransmitter release (B) Fluctuating voltages (C) Changes in the oxygenation of blood (D) Structural bone density (E) Tiny magnetic fields generated by groups of neurons and picked up by SQUIDs Answer: 1 8

(B) Fluctuating voltages

Event-related potentials typically can be extracted by doing which of the following?

(A) Taking a blood sample (B) Looking at the power of different frequency bands during a task (C) Averaging over many repetitions of the same cognitive activity (D) Brain surgery to remove the ERPs (E) Injecting a tracer Answer: 1 9

(C) Averaging over many repetitions of the same cognitive activity

Relative to ERP, MEG is:

(A) More expensive (B) Less subject to distortion from the skull (C) Able to potentially offer better spatial localization (D) More sensitive to activity in the sulci (E) All of these Answer: 2 0

(E) All of these

Currently, the best temporal resolution of ERP and MEG is on the order of:

(A) Milliseconds (B) Seconds (C) Minutes

(D) Picoseconds (E) Hours Answer: 2 1

(A) Milliseconds

Delivering TMS via which procedure has been known to lead to a temporary "lesion" lasting many minutes?

(A) Repetitive stimulation (B) Single pulse stimulation (C) Radioactive tracing (D) Deep-brain stimulation (E) Intravenous drug injection

Answer: 2 2

(A) Repetitive stimulation

Which technology enables researchers to study relationships between deep brain structures and memory using non-invasive, direct stimulation of these structures?

(A) transcranial focused ultrasound (tFUS) (B) computerized tomography (CT) (C) Radioactive tracing (D) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) (E) Intravenous drugs Answer:

2 3

(A) transcranial focused ultrasound (tFUS)

Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding brain lesion techniques:

(A) They are some of the oldest methods in the study of memory in animals.

(B) Precision and control in their use progressed during the 20th century.

(C) Their use in rats and primates confirmed the role of the medial temporal lobes in memory.

(D) Reversible lesion methods exist.

(E) All of these Answer: 2 4

(E) All of these

Identify the accurate statement(s) concerning neurobiological approaches to memory:

(A) Optogenetics uses light to activate or inhibit certain neurons.

(B) Chemogenetics involves introducing genetically engineered receptors into neurons.

(C) Neurobiological approaches are employed in animal research.

(D) Pharmacological methods either enhance or inhibit specific neurotransmitter systems.

(E) All of these Answer: 2

(E) All of these

What is an advantage of calcium imaging methods?

5 (A) They permit study of the relationship between diet and memory.

(B) They permit observation of neural processing in animals during a memory task.

(C) They are suitable for use in human populations.

(D) They inform researchers about the relationship between diet and neural function.

(E) They often supplement lesioning methods in TBI patients.

Answer:

1

(B) They permit observation of neural processing in animals during a memory task.

Which of the following does best at predicting performance on reasoning tasks used to assess intelligence?

(A) Short-term buffer size (B) Digit span (C) Wing span (D) Life span (E) Working memory span

Answer: 2

(E) Working memory span

The capacity to store small amounts of information over brief intervals that is reflected in actual performance describes which concept?

(A) Short-term buffer size (B) Short-term memory (C) Working memory (D) Buffer memory (E) None of these

Answer: 3

(B) Short-term memory

Which researcher‟s pioneering study provided evidence that memory capacity is best understood in number of chunks rather than number of items?

(A) George Miller (1956) (B) Ryan (1969) (C) Jacobs (1887) (D) Conrad (1964) (E) None of these

Answer: 4

(A) George Miller (1956)

Chunking random digits into groups of how many numbers generally works best at maximizing recall, according to Wickelgren (1964) and Ryan (1969)?

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Five (E) Six Answer: 5

(B) Three

Conrad (1964) suggested that visually presented consonant sequences depended on a short-term memory store that relies on which type of code?

(A) Latent (B) Visual (C) Somatosensory (D) Semantic (E) Acoustic

Answer: 6

(E) Acoustic

When word lists are increased in length, and participants are allowed several learning trials, which type of similarity between items becomes much more important?

(A) Sound (B) Phonological (C) Meaning (D) Visual (E) Typographical

Answer: 7

(C) Meaning

Which concept is thought to involve both short-term memory store and articulatory rehearsal?

(A) Phonological loop (B) Central executive (C) Visuo-spatial sketchpad (D) Episodic buffer (E) Peripheral nervous system

Answer: 8

(A) Phonological loop

As word length increases, retention of five monosyllable words drops from 90% to about what?

(A) 0.6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3 (E) 0.2

Answer:

(B) 0.5

9

Which of the following tends to impair short-term memory for sequences of visually presented digits?

(A) Classical instrumental music (B) The sound of barking dogs (C) Classical instrumental music and tones varying in pitch (D) Unpatterned noise and music with vocals (E) Irrelevant foreign speech, tones varying in pitch, and music with vocals

Answer: 10

(E) Irrelevant foreign speech, tones varying in pitch, and music with vocals

What do research findings with Chinese speakers suggest concerning verbal digit span?

(A) Speakers using both articulation and auditory imagery can increase their verbal digit span.

(B) English and Chinese speakers relied only on subvocal articulatory rehearsal of digits.

(C) It is not important to consider complexities of different languages when studying this topic.

(D) There is little to be gained in studying memory processes across cultures.

(E) All of these

Answer:

11

(A) Speakers using both articulation and auditory imagery can increase their verbal digit span.

Identify the most striking feature in performance seen in a free recall research design: (A) Age differences in recall are prominent (B) Order in which the words are presented matters (C) Words that use similar-looking letters yield better rates of recall (D) Word length matters (E) List length matters

Answer: 12

(B) Order in which the words are presented matters

Which of these variables influence the recency effect?

(A) None of these (B) Presentation rate (C) Word frequency (D) Word imageability (E) Age of the participant

Answer: 13

(A) None of these

Baddeley and Hitch (1977) tested rugby players‟ memory and reported evidence for which form of recency?

(A) Visually guided (B) Short-term

(C) Trauma-induced (D) Long-term (E) Flashbulb Answer: 14

(D) Long-term

Which of these tasks would NOT rely heavily on visuo-spatial short-term memory?

(A) Remembering your way through an unfamiliar city (B) Remembering what was in the corner of your room (C) Remembering a special occasion from your life (D) Recalling patterns for half-completed matrixes (E) Remembering a series of block taps

Answer: 15

(C) Remembering a special occasion from your life

Visual short-term memory is thought to solve the problem of combining ________ into a coherent representation.

(A) Rapid and discrete eye movements (B) Rapid neural spikes (C) Overlapping refractory periods (D) Event-related potentials (E) Optical illusions

Answer: 16

(A) Rapid and discrete eye movements

Which term best describes the applicability of experimental findings to the real world?

(A) Criterion validity (B) Internal validity (C) Test-retest reliability (D) Ecological validity (E) Predictive validity

Answer: 17

(D) Ecological validity

Luck and Vogel (1997) used a variant of which method to investigate visual short-term memory?

(A) Change blindness test (B) Change detection task (C) Complex span test (D) Serial reaction time test (E) Priming task

Answer: 18

(B) Change detection task

Identify the accurate statement comparing visual short-term memory (STM) and visual

long-term memory (LTM): (A) Relative to visual STM, visual LTM has much smaller capacity.

(B) Relative to visual STM, visual LTM has much greater capacity.

(C) Relative to visual STM, visual LTM becomes more detailed over time.

(D) Both visual STM and visual LTM become more detailed over time.

(E) None of these Answer: 19

(B) Relative to visual STM, visual LTM has much greater capacity.

Identify the accurate statement regarding findings by Baddeley and colleagues on visual STM and multidimensional stimuli: (A) Significant age effects were observed across all experimental conditions.

(B) Perceptual binding significantly impairs recall for single- and multiple feature stimuli.

(C) Relative to remembering, perceptual binding is relatively automatic.

(D) Visual STM is totally divorced from attentional processes.

(E) None of these

Answer: 20

(C) Relative to remembering, perceptual binding is relatively automatic.

The block tapping test, used in the study of spatial STM, establishes which metric?

(A) Corgi span (B) Digit span (C) Object span (D) Episodic span (E) Corsi span

Answer: 21

(E) Corsi span

Asking participants to reproduce a matrix pattern provides a measure of which of the following?

(A) Visual span (B) Digit span (C) Corsi span (D) Ideographs (E) None of these

Answer: 22

(A) Visual span

Identify the phenomenon that illustrates that the capacity of visual STM is limited: (A) Working memory span (B) Articulatory suppression (C) Attentional blindness (D) Word length effect (E) Memory chunking

Answer: 23

(C) Attentional blindness

Generally, evidence suggests that the number of objects retained in visual STM: (A) Ranges between 8 and 10 (B) Has an upper limit of 2 (C) Has an upper limit of 4 (D) Depends heavily on the estimated rate of discrete eye movements (E) Varies inversely with the number of digit spans

Answer: 24

(C) Has an upper limit of 4

Patient KF (Shallice & Warrington, 1970) displayed deficits for which memory system?

(A) Long-term memory (B) Semantic memory (C) Verbal short-term memory (D) Long-term episodic memory (E) Visual short-term memory

Answer: 25

(C) Verbal short-term memory

Patient MV had damage to the right frontal lobe and particularly severe concomitant impairments in which domain?

(A) Visual short-term memory (B) Spatial memory (C) Color memory (D) Shape memory (E) Semantic memory

Answer:

1

(B) Spatial memory

Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding Atkinson and Shiffrin‟s (1968) modal model: (A) It conceptualizes processes involved in rote rehearsal of verbal items and the role of rehearsal in the transformation of information from short- to long-term store.

(B) It is essentially the idea that STM functions as working memory.

(C) Later research exposed difficulty with the assumption that holding items in the short-term store long enough guaranteed learning.

(D) Neuropsychological data could not be adequately accounted for in their model.

(E) All of these

Answer: 2

(E) All of these

Identify the accurate statement regarding the working memory model developed by Baddeley and Hitch: (A) It conceptualizes short-term memory (STM) as a static, but essential part of memory.

(B) It is essentially the idea that STM functions as working memory.

(C) It conceptualizes STM as a functional system that underpins complex cognitive activities.

(D) It describes 5 major components of STM. (E) None of these Answer:

3

(C) It conceptualizes STM as a functional system that underpins complex cognitive activities.

What did Baddeley and colleagues conclude from their studies of deficits observed in patient PV? (A) The phonological loop is involved in language acquisition.

(B) The episodic buffer is involved in language acquisition.

(C) Impairments in intelligence were associated with the phonological loop.

(D) Impairments in short term visual memory were associated with the phonological loop.

(E) The phonological loop functions differently when speaking native versus new languages.

Answer: 4

(A) The phonological loop is involved in language acquisition

In the nonword repetition test devised by Gathercole and Baddeley, which is the correct order of presentation of pseudo words?

(A) ballop, woogalamic, versatrational (B) ballop, woogalamic, ballop (C) ballop, versatrational, versatrational (D) versatrational, woogalamic, ballop (E) ballop, ballop, woogalamic

Answer: 5

(A) ballop, woogalamic, versatrational

In the context of the multicomponent model of working memory, what do studies that involve carrying out instructions (action) suggest?

(A) Age differences exist in the importance of memory in carrying out instructions.

(B) Acting on an instruction is an automatic process, requiring little working memory.

(C) Traditional educational methods are ineffective.

(D) The model may need to address a motor component in working memory.

(E) None of these

Answer: 6

(D) The model may need to address a motor component in working memory.

Baddeley, Chincotta, and Adlam (2001) found evidence suggesting that participants had been relying on which of the following to keep their place in an alternating task?

(A) Iconic store (B) Visuo-spatial sketchpad (C) Motor memory (D) Subvocal instructions (E) Method of loci

Answer: 7

(D) Subvocal instructions

Evidence suggests that people reporting especially vivid imagery tend to: (A) Have better memory than those with weaker reported visual imagery (B) Use vividness as a sign of accuracy in their recall (C) Be less likely to misjudge the veracity of a vivid memory (D) Ignore vividness in making memory judgments (E) Have profound memory impairments relative to the general population

Answer: 8

(B) Use vividness as a sign of accuracy in their recall

Imagining folding a piece of paper takes longer to complete: (A) For blindfolded participants (B) For males than females, on average (C) When the phonological loop is occupied (D) If the participant usually relies on visuo-spatial imagery (E) When more folds are required

Answer: 9

(E) When more folds are required

According to Norman and Shallice, what is the SAS? (A) Suspended attentional system (B) Systematic attentional system (C) Supervisory attentional system (D) Sensory arousal system (E) Senior attentional system

Answer:

(C) Supervisory attentional system

10 Which part of the brain did Shallice link to deficits in attentional control of action?

(A) Hippocampus (B) Temporal lobe (C) Frontal lobes (D) Parietal lobe (E) Cerebellum Answer:

(C) Frontal lobes

11 The behavior in which patients uninhibitedly make use of whatever object is around is best termed: (A) Gratification (B) Utilization (C) Neglect

(D) Confabulation (E) Projection Answer:

(B) Utilization

12 Identify the phenomenon that may result when the frontal lobes fail to monitor behavior, as observed in Patient RR (Baddeley & Wilson, 1986): (A) Neglect (B) Utilization (C) Confabulation (D) Inhibition (E) Alzheimer‟s disease Answer:

(C) Confabulation

13 How many chunks of information is the episodic buffer assumed to hold?

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 +/- 2 (D) 8 (E) 3 Answer:

(A) 4

14 Baars (1997, 2002) suggested that which of the following allows for the integration of information from various senses and binding them into perceived objects and scenes?

(A) Implicit memories (B) Subvocal rehearsal (C) Conscious awareness (D) Non-declarative systems (E) The id Answer:

(C) Conscious awareness

15 The text refers to an elaborated version and an initial version of the multicomponent model of working memory. Identify the accurate statement(s) about these models: (A) The initial model conceptualizes central executive, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and phonological loop components.

(B) The elaborated model adds an episodic buffer component.

(C) The episodic buffer addresses how working memory and long-term memory interact.

(D) The elaborated model conceptualizes the flow of different forms of information (e.g., visual, tactile) to working memory.

(E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

16 In Baddeley and Andrade (2000), ratings of the vividness of imagery were employed: (A) To address the problem of reliably detecting and measuring contents of conscious awareness.

(B) To address the problem of reliably detecting and measuring contents of the unconscious.

(C) To revive behaviorist theories of conscious awareness.

(D) To study the relationship between the visuo-spatial sketchpad and the unconscious.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) To address the problem of reliably detecting and measuring contents of conscious awareness.

17 Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding working memory, Functional Imagery Training (FIT), and addiction: (A) Research has found that visual imagery is strongly linked to emotion.

(B) Elaborated Intrusion Theory and FIT address the phenomenon of craving.

(C) FIT uses the emotion of imagery and the vividness of familiar images.

(D) FIT involves developing a vivid image of a desired goal (e.g., cessation of smoking) and using it to suppress images associated with addictive behavior (e.g., act of smoking).

(E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

18 Cowan believes working memory depends on activation within long-term memory that: (A) Decays unless maintained by rehearsal or attention (B) Is unidimensional (C) Is fully represented in the episodic buffer (D) All of these (E) Has a capacity of about seven chunks Answer:

(A) Decays unless maintained by rehearsal or attention

19 Turner and Engle (1989) asked participants to remember words, each of which was followed by a math problem. The resulting measure is called: (A) Corsi span (B) Digit span (C) Operation span (D) Arithmetic mean (E) Standard error Answer:

(C) Operation span

20 Pierre Barrouillet, Valerie Camos, and their group in 1989 developed the hypothesis of: (A) Proactive interference (B) Task-switching (C) Recency effect

(D) Resource-sharing (E) Levels of processing Answer:

(D) Resource-sharing

21 Klingberg presented evidence that his program, called ________, improved working memory measures in children with ADHD. (A) Brainboost (B) Work4It! (C) Neuroboost (D) Cogmed (E) GetRaven Answer:

(D) Cogmed

22 Melby-Lervåg and Hulme‟s (2013) meta-analysis suggested that working memory training programs generally yielded: (A) Little evidence for generalization to real-world tasks (B) Short-term gains that generalized to other tasks (C) No evidence for lasting verbal WM gains at long delays (D) Modest evidence for lasting visual WM gains at long delays (E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

23 The authors of the 2012 paper titled “Let‟s be realistic about intervention research” are: (A) McNab and Klingberg (B) Gathercole, Dunning, and Holmes (C) Baddeley, Eysenck, and Anderson (D) Conway, Cowan, and Bunting (E) Norris, Baddeley, and Lewandowsky Answer:

(B) Gathercole, Dunning, and Holmes

24 Early neuroimaging studies using positron emission tomography found that phonological storage and verbal short-term memory are associated with which brain area(s)?

(A) Left and right hemispheres (B) Right hemisphere only (C) Frontal lobes (D) Left hemisphere and Broca‟s area (E) Posterior lobes Answer:

(D) Left hemisphere and Broca‟s area

25 Identify the accurate statement regarding findings by Mishkin, Ungerleider, and Macko (1983) concerning visual processing streams in nonhuman primates:

(A) A dorsal processing stream is concerned with spatial location; a ventral processing stream is concerned with shape and object coding.

(B) Binding is important in manipulating information from dorsal, ventral and posterior processing streams.

(C) Dorsal and ventral processing streams are concerned with object coding.

(D) A dorsal processing stream is concerned with shape and object coding; a ventral processing stream is concerned with spatial location.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) A dorsal processing stream is concerned with spatial location; a ventral processing stream is concerned with shape and object coding.

26 According to the text, which neuromodulator appears to be especially associated with the executive control system and to involve the anterior cingulate area of the brain?

(A) Dopamine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Adrenalin (D) Hydrocortisone (E) Serotonin Answer:

(A) Dopamine

27 Duncan and Owen‟s (2000) meta-analysis of studies relating to task novelty, working memory, load, response competition, delay, and perceptual difficulty found that all these factors tend to load on which area of the brain?

(A) Primary visual cortex (B) Anterior cingulate (C) Lateral occipital complex (D) Hippocampus (E) Primary motor cortex Answer:

(B) Anterior cingulate

28 The text refers to the use of which technique to understand „how‟ and „when‟ long-term memory is involved in working memory tasks?

(A) Event related potentials (ERPs) (B) Multi-voxel pattern analysis (MVPA) (C) Positron emission tomography (PET) (D) Computerized tomography (CT) (E) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Answer:

(B) Multi-voxel pattern analysis (MVPA)

29 What does evidence suggest regarding individuals with aphasia and hyperphantasia?

(A) Their conditions reflect their actual experiences.

(B) Their conditions reflect their unique way of describing their experiences.

(C) Their LTM performance suggests that amount of information stored is a variable central to understanding their conditions.

(D) It is highly likely that their LTM performance is actually confabulation.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) Their conditions reflect their actual experiences.

1- Hermann Ebbinghaus primarily focused on studying which of the following?

(A) Cross-cultural differences in memory effects (B) The maximum capacity of memory systems (C) The brain regions supporting memory (D) Memory errors people typically make (E) The rate of input into the memory system Answer: (E) The rate of input into the memory system 2 - The idea that the amount learned directly corresponds to the time spent learning is called the: (A) Limitless learning hypothesis (B) Learning ratio theory (C) Parabolic studying function (D) Total time hypothesis (E) Matched practice theory Answer: (D) Total time hypothesis 3 - Astin (1993) reported that the SECOND best predictor of self-reported writing skill was: (A) Number of languages spoken fluently (B) Number of writing skills classes taken (C) Number of books in their apartment (D) Age in years (E) Amount of feedback provided by the instructor Answer: (E) Amount of feedback provided by the instructor 4 – Ericsson (2013): (A) Agreed with Gladwell’s 10,000 hours rule (B) Argued that becoming a true expert requires deliberate practice (C) Was the first one to discover the phenomenon of structural plasticity (D) Extensively studied the testing effect (E) Conducted a series of important experiments on change blindness Answer: (B) Argued that becoming a true expert requires deliberate practice

5 – The non-monotonic lag effect (Cepeda et al., 2008) refers to: (A) The detrimental effect of boredom on learning (B) The boosting effect of curiosity on learning and memory (C) A synonym of instrumental conditioning (D) The tendency for the lag effect to first increase and then decrease (E) A key aspect of motor skill learning

Answer: (D) The tendency for the lag effect to first increase and then decrease

6 - According to Baddeley and Longman (1978), postal workers who spent a single one-hour session learning to type per day on a distributed practice schedule showed which of the following pattern of results, compared to postal workers using massed learning?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

They were least contented with their training schedule.

They learned the keyboard in fewer training hours.

They improved their performance more rapidly.

They retained their skills better over the long term.

All of these

Answer: (E) All of these 7- In their 2008 study, Kornell and Bjork investigated whether people can learn the style of an artist better by viewing many paintings by that artist in a row, or instead by interleaving paintings by the artist with paintings by other artists. They found that: (A) 78% of the participants said that the massed presentation was better for learning than the spaced condition.

(B) 78% of the participants said that the spaced condition was better for learning than the massed presentation.

(C) 78% of the participants reported verbal overshadowing during the experiment.

(D) 22% of the participants showed extinction of the conditioned response (interleaved paintings).

(E) 68% of the participants reported sleep deprivation and impaired learning.

Answer: (A) 78% of the participants said that the massed presentation was better for learning than the spaced condition.

8 – The study by Xue et al., 2010, compared the study-phase retrieval hypothesis with the encoding variability hypothesis. The data: (A) Overwhelmingly supported the encoding variability hypothesis (B) Overwhelmingly supported the study-phase retrieval hypothesis (C) Contrary to their predictions, overwhelmingly supported the deficient processing hypothesis (D) Did not support either of them (E) Led the authors to discover the testing effect Answer: (B) Overwhelmingly supported the study-phase retrieval hypothesis

9 – Identify the accurate statement regarding retrieval-based learning: (A) It can produce improved long-term memory when the act of retrieval is emphasized in learning.

(B) It can produce improved long-term memory when repetitive rehearsal is emphasized in learning.

(C) It can produce impairments in short-term memory when the act of retrieval is emphasized in learning.

(D) It is effective when the act of encoding material is emphasized in learning.

(E) It is effective when the number of hours practiced is emphasized in learning.

Answer: (A) It can produce improved long-term memory when the act of retrieval is emphasized in learning.

10- In a 2011 study, Jeff Karpicke and Janell Blunt asked students to study a science text under one of four conditions (study, repeated study, concept mapping, retrieval practice). They found that: (A) Despite the clear superiority of the concept mapping condition, participants judged retrieval practice as more effective.

(B) Despite the clear superiority of repeated study, participants judged concept mapping as more effective.

(C) Despite the four conditions being equally effective, participants judged repeated study as more effective.

(D) Despite the clear superiority of retrieval practice, participants judged retrieval practice to be the least effective.

(E) Despite the impact of stem completion, participants judged retrieval practice and concept mapping as the most effective methods.

Answer: (D) Despite the clear superiority of retrieval practice, participants judged retrieval practice to be the least effective.

11- In a 2014 study, Mathias Gruber, Bernard Gelman, and Charan Ranganath used fMRI to investigate what curiosity does to the brain. They found that when people felt very curious about a soon- to-be-received answer, this increased activity in which brain regions?

(A) Hippocampus and Amygdala (B) Left-Hippocampus and Right-Amygdala (C) Right Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Hippocampus (D) Ventromedial Prefrontal Cortex and Motor Cortex (E) Ventral Tegmental Area and Nucleus Accumbens Answer: (E) Ventral Tegmental Area and Nucleus Accumbens

12 – From the research presented in the text, one can conclude that divided attention: (A) Is very good for learning (B) Is very detrimental for learning (C) Is neither good nor bad (D) Has a different effect depending on the tasks you are doing (E) Causes encoding variability

Answer: (B) Is very detrimental for learning 13 - What phenomenon does “change blindness” refer to?

(A) (B)

The inability to distinguish between similar coins where one is counterfeit The inability to distinguish between similar visual scenes

(C) (D) (E)

Overlooking significant changes in the visual environment Refusal to accept changes to your perceptions and memories Congenital blindness

Answer:(C) Overlooking significant changes in the visual environment

14 – Identify the correct statement regarding the relationship between sleep and memory: (A) Sleep enhances memory.

(B) Sleep inhibits memory.

(C) Sleep is neither good nor bad for memory.

(D) It depends on which kind of memory.

(E) Sleep causes change blindness.

Answer: (A) Sleep enhances memory.

15 - Stickgold and Walker (2013) proposed that sleep plays a pivotal role in what they call sleep dependent triage, in which: (A) Repeated attempts to memorize something before sleep causes memories to fade away due to inhibition.

(B) All memories from the day are favoured for consolidation and integration with existing knowledge.

(C) All memories from the past three days are more prone to inhibition and forgetting.

(D) Only the more salient and important memories are favored for consolidation and integration with existing knowledge.

(E) Only the more salient and important memories are favoured for inhibition.

Answer: (D) Only the more salient and important memories are favored for consolidation and integration with existing knowledge.

16- The three subcategories of implicit memory presented in the chapter are: (A) Classical conditioning, instrumental conditioning, repetition suppression (B) Classical conditioning, priming, procedural learning (C) Instrumental conditioning, change blindness, retrieval-based learning (D) Procedural learning, encoding variability, inhibition (E) Priming, consolidation, monotonic lag effect Answer: (B) Classical conditioning, priming, procedural learning

17 – The latent inhibition effect refers to which phenomenon?

(A)

The gradual deterioration of conditioned responses

(B) (C) (D) (E)

Repeated presentation of a neutral stimulus impairs its later ability to elicit a conditioned response The resurfacing of a response previously believed to have been unlearned Learned helplessness A form of operant conditioning

Answer: (B) Repeated presentation of a neutral stimulus impairs its later ability to elicit a conditioned response

18 - In Bechara et al.’s (1995) study, a patient with damage to the ___ failed to demonstrate increased skin conductance to a color paired with a sound, despite being able to recall the colors in the experiment and the one that co-occurred with the noise.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Amygdala Hippocampus Frontal lobe Primary visual cortex Bilateral ACC

Answer: (A) Amygdala 19 – Evaluative conditioning refers to which phenomenon?

(A) Repeated presentation of a neutral stimulus impairs its later ability to elicit a conditioned response.

(B) Reduced reaction times in evaluating something due to lack of sleep.

(C) The extinction of a conditioned response.

(D) The lack of sleep conditioning memory performance.

(E) The tendency to one’s liking of a stimulus to be influenced by how frequently it is followed by pleasant or unpleasant stimuli.

Answer: (E) The tendency to one’s liking of a stimulus to be influenced by how frequently it is followed by pleasant or unpleasant stimuli.

20 – Identify the accurate statement regarding repetition priming: (A) It occurs without awareness.

(B) It produces improved memory when paired with repeated learning sessions.

(C) It is the tendency to prefer a stimulus based on how frequently it is followed by pleasant or unpleasant stimuli.

(D) It degrades memory when paired with repeated learning sessions.

(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) It occurs without awareness.

21 – What conclusion(s) can be drawn regarding the benefits of repetition priming?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Because it requires conscious memory, it improves the accuracy of later memory.

Benefits to performance are actually due to the time spent memorizing stimulus material.

Performance benefits are partly due to the way in which the brain initially perceives and represents stimuli.

Performance benefits are mainly due to deliberate retrieval processes.

All of these

Answer: (C) Performance benefits are partly due to the way in which the brain initially perceives and represents stimuli.

22 - A hallmark of habits is that they often persist when rewards for their outcomes are lessened or removed. This is known as: (A) Repetition suppression (B) Stem completion (C) Repetition priming (D) Outcome devaluation (E) Latent inhibition Answer: (D) Outcome devaluation

23 – Verbal overshadowing refers to which process?

(A) The tendency to one’s verbal description of a stimulus to be influenced by how frequently it is followed by pleasant or unpleasant stimuli (B) The disruption of difficult to articulate knowledge when we try to verbalize it (C) When a skill is practiced to the extent that it no longer requires significant attentional monitoring (D) The result of a traumatic brain injury (E) A form of working memory training Answer: (B) The disruption of difficult to articulate knowledge when we try to verbalize it 24 – Donald Hebb developed the concept of cell assemblies in his physiological account of longterm learning. Identify this concept: (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Repeated activation of neural synapses causes chemical changes in the synapse that strengthen those neurons.

Repeated activation of two or more neurons strengthens those neurons.

Repeated activation of two or more neurons strengthens surrounding synapses.

One activated neuron produces new neurons in assembly line fashion.

When neural synapses are activated, neurons multiply in mass.

Answer: (A) Repeated activation of neural synapses causes chemical changes in the synapse that strengthens those neurons.

25 - According to Bliss and Lomo (1973), what is the process by which synaptic transmissions may become more effective after a cell's recent activation?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Long-term permeation Short-term potentiation Back propagation Spreading activation Long-term potentiation

Answer: (E) Long-term potentiation

26 – The term consolidation of memory can refer to: (A) Synaptic and cognitive consolidation (B) Synaptic and system consolidation (C) Cognitive and system consolidation (D) System and linguistic consolidation (E) Synaptic and neuronal consolidation

Answer: (B) Synaptic and system consolidation 27 – The tendency for a neuron to send action potentials, given a certain amount of input is called: (A) Long-term potentiation (B) Intrinsic excitability (C) Synaptic consolidation (D) Back propagation (E) Neuronal consolidation

Answer: (B) Intrinsic excitability 1

Which is the best definition of an episodic memory?

(A) A memory for how to perform a certain task (B) A memory consisting of generalized knowledge about the world (C) A memory of specific events that occurred at a specific time and place (D) A memory that can only be recalled in parts (E) A memory that cannot be stated explicitly

Answer: 2

(C) A memory of specific events that occurred at a specific time and place

Which data did Sir Frederic Bartlett (1932) utilize to identify how information may be encoded?

(A) Response rates for shapes and nonsense syllables (B) Patterns of correct responses in the recall of complex material (C) Response times in the recall of number lists (D) Patterns of errors in the recall of complex material

(E) Patterns of errors in the recall of nonsense syllables Answer: 3

(D) Patterns of errors in the recall of complex material

Bartlett (1932) emphasized the role of which of the following influences on the development of schemas?

(A) Social and cultural (B) Cultural (C) Social (D) Genetic (E) Ideographic

Answer: 4

(A) Social and cultural

Sulin and Dooling (1974) demonstrated that schema-driven errors are more likely to occur when: (A) There is a longer retention interval (B) A villain is the main character (C) Little general knowledge is available before the experiment (D) Less time is given to learn the text (E) Participants are under duress

Answer: 5

(A) There is a longer retention interval

Bower, Karlin, and Dueck (1975) argued that memory is facilitated whenever _____ arouse the correct schemata.

(A) Contextual cues during encoding (B) Familiar visual cues during retrieval (C) Verbal cues during retrieval (D) Droodles that accompany the test stimuli (E) None of these

Answer: 6

(A) Contextual cues during encoding

What did Bartlett believe Ebbinghaus‟ memory research using nonsense syllables had actually demonstrated?

(A) Experimenter effects (B) Stereotyping (C) Response bias (D) Reasoning (E) Repetition habits

Answer: 7

(E) Repetition habits

Which school of thought was one of the main driving forces behind the increased reliance on word lists in verbal learning studies?

(A) Information processing (B) Functionalism (C) Response-reward associationism (D) Stimulus-response associationism (E) Connectionism Answer: 8

(D) Stimulus-response associationism

Jenkins and Russell (1952) observed that _____ are more likely to be grouped together during recall?

(A) Nonsense words of the same length (B) Unfamiliar words (C) Words conceptually associated with each other (D) Words that rhyme (E) Words that refer to abstract concepts

Answer: 9

(C) Words conceptually associated with each other

The dual coding hypothesis argues that which type of words are more memorable due to having numerous retrieval routes?

(A) Words with multiple syllables (B) Words in an unfamiliar language (C) Imageable words (D) Nonsense words (E) Single syllable words

Answer:

(C) Imageable words

10 The suggestion that visual characteristics of a printed word are processed first, its spoken sound is processed next, and its meaning processed last, is an example of which of the following?

(A) The levels of processing hypothesis (Paivio, 1969) (B) The levels of processing hypothesis (Craik & Lockhart, 1972) (C) The spotlight hypothesis (Craik & Lockhart 1972) (D) The dual-coding hypothesis (Paivio, 1969) (E) The dual-coding hypothesis (Craik & Tulving, 1975) Answer:

(B) The levels of processing hypothesis (Craik & Lockhart, 1972)

11 What is the central principle behind the transfer-appropriate processing hypothesis?

(A) Recognition tests are almost always an invalid measure of previous learning.

(B) Studied words should all be unrelated to avoid pre-existing memory associations.

(C) A test should match encoding conditions in order to reveal prior learning.

(D) New memories interfere with older memories.

(E) Studying should be carried out in numerous contexts to generalize learning.

Answer:

(C) A test should match encoding conditions in order to reveal prior learning.

12 When participants are not warned in advance that there will be a memory test, this can still result in what phenomenon?

(A) Incidental learning (B) Incidental forgetting (C) Participant attrition (D) Generalization (E) Demand characteristics Answer:

(A) Incidental learning

13 According to Craik and Lockhart (1972), which form of rehearsal reflects deeper encoding?

(A) Elaborative (B) Maintenance (C) Rote rehearsal (D) Infrequent rehearsal (E) Clustering Answer:

(A) Elaborative

14 Tulving‟s “subjective organization” refers to which phenomenon?

(A) Older learners use rehearsal strategies more effectively than younger learners.

(B) Younger learners spontaneously chunk material while older learners do not.

(C) Learners employ a strategy to organize unstructured material into chunks.

(D) Learners who work in groups use multiple strategies to complete memory tasks.

(E) Learners employ a strategy to deconstruct material into manageable chunks.

Answer:

(C) Learners employ a strategy to organize unstructured material into chunks.

15 What were Bower and colleagues (1969) able to conclude based on their study involving the recall of names of minerals?

(A) Subvocal rehearsal, as a strategy to memorize large amounts of information, greatly improves recall for individual items.

(B) Visualization, as a strategy to memorize large amounts of information, improves recall for individual items.

(C) Focusing on details in large amounts of information improves recall for individual items.

(D) Finding organizational structure in large amounts of information greatly improves recall for individual items.

(E) None of these.

Answer:

(D) Finding organizational structure in large amounts of information greatly improves recall for individual items.

16 Compared to the learning benefits of finding organization in facts and surrounding events, one‟s intention to learn something typically has what effect?

(A) Reduces retention and accuracy of recall (B) Fails to demonstrate a significant effect (C) Enhances the accuracy of recall substantially (D) Decreases the chance of distortions (E) Reduces the amount of time required to learn material Answer:

(B) Fails to demonstrate a significant effect

17 Chase and Ericsson (1981) tested SF, who by the end of the experiment, could remember sequences of 80 digits. How did SF manage to achieve this result?

(A) SF was a genius.

(B) SF‟s hippocampus was larger than normal.

(C) SF developed an organization scheme based on his personal knowledge of running times.

(D) SF had a hyperactive prefrontal cortex.

(E) SF paired high caffeine consumption with subvocal rehearsal.

Answer:

(C) SF developed an organization scheme based on his personal knowledge of running times.

18 Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding long-term working memory as conceptualized by Ericsson and Kintsch (1995): (A) It refers to the development of structures in long-term memory one actively uses to temporarily store new information during a task.

(B) It does not refer to a complete cognitive system.

(C) It is domain specific.

(D) It can reflect different mechanisms and processes occurring in different brain areas.

(E) All of these.

Answer:

(E) All of these.

19 How do Zacks and colleagues conceptualize event segmentation?

(A) As a real-time perceptual and organizational process of dividing time into meaningful parts.

(B) As a cognitive skill required to accurately recall events in one‟s past.

(C) As a retrieval strategy used to integrate past memories into current events.

(D) As a retrieval strategy used to distinguish significant life events from insignificant ones.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) As a real-time perceptual and organizational process of dividing time into meaningful parts.

20 The ability to represent the temporal sequence of occurrences within a larger event is called: (A) Episodic short-term memory (B) Sequential short-term memory

(C) Episodic sequence learning (D) Sequential event segmentation (E) Event-based learning Answer:

(C) Episodic sequence learning

21 The deficits in episodic long-term memory demonstrated by patient HM are attributed to damage to which structures?

(A) Basal ganglia and hypothalamus (B) Hypothalamus and frontal lobes (C) Hippocampus, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes (D) Hippocampus and hypothalamus (E) Hippocampus, parahippocampus, entorhinal cortex, perirhinal cortex Answer:

(E) Hippocampus, parahippocampus, entorhinal cortex, perirhinal cortex

22 In a case study of Jon (Vargha-Khadem et al., 1997), damage limited specifically to his hippocampus resulted in which of the following outcomes in adulthood?

(A) He is completely unable to live independently.

(B) He demonstrates below-average intelligence.

(C) His semantic memory is significantly impaired.

(D) He demonstrates amnesia.

(E) He demonstrates aphasia.

Answer:

(D) He demonstrates amnesia.

23 According to the text, clinical case studies and neuroimaging studies together provide strong evidence of the relationship between a particular brain area and a particular memory process. Identify the correct brain area and memory process: (A) The hippocampus and episodic encoding (B) The cerebellum and episodic encoding (C) The hippocampus and chunking (D) The occipital lobe and event segmentation (E) None of these Answer:

(A) The hippocampus and episodic encoding

24 Identify the accurate statement(s) about systems consolidation: (A) It is a hypothesized process.

(B) It proposes that episodic memory is gradually integrated into long-term memory.

(C) It proposes that episodic memory eventually becomes independent of the hippocampus.

(D) It accounts for the increased importance of the neocortex in memory.

(E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

25 Identify the accurate statement(s) about offline processing: (A) It has been observed in rats using a variety of neuroimaging techniques.

(B) It is assumed to involve the hippocampus and cortex and to occur when one is concentrating on a task.

(C) It is assumed to involve the hippocampus and cortex and to occur during sleep.

(D) It refers to increased activity in the cortex when one reduces cell phone usage.

(E) It has been reliably observed in patients with lesions in the frontal lobes.

Answer:

(C) It is assumed to involve the hippocampus and cortex and to occur during sleep.

26 In research using rats, Morris and colleagues demonstrated that rapid consolidation of schema-linked knowledge was due largely to the involvement of which brain area?

(A) The hippocampus (B) The medial prefrontal cortex (C) The occipital cortex (D) The entorhinal cortex (E) None of these Answer:

1

Which of these statements best defines semantic memory?

(A)

Memory with a strong recollective component

(B)

Memory of specific events located at a specific point in time

(C)

Memory of steps taken that were needed to perform a certain task

(D)

Knowledge of the world and the self that is represented apart from specific experiences in which it was acquired

(E)

Knowledge that is known but cannot be stated explicitly

Answer:

2

(D) Knowledge of the world and the self that is represented apart from specific experiences in which it was acquired

Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding semantic and episodic memory: (A)

Semantic memory lacks the „when‟, and „where‟ information central to episodic memory.

(B)

Language-specific knowledge is important to semantic memory.

(C)

Episodic memory is more vulnerable to neuronal dysfunction.

(D)

Retrieval from episodic memory is accompanied by a conscious sense of recollection.

(E)

All of these

Answer: 3

(B) The medial prefrontal cortex

(E) All of these

Spiers, Maguire, and Burgess (2001) observed that which form of memory was most

robust to damage in the 147 cases of amnesia they reviewed?

(A)

Visual short-term memory

(B)

Episodic

(C)

Semantic

(D)

Verbal short-term memory

(E)

Phonological

Answer: 4

Semantic dementia is most associated with damage to the: (A)

Ventral frontal lobe

(B)

Posterior occipital lobe

(C)

Dorsal frontal lobe

(D)

Anterior frontal temporal lobes

(E)

Medial temporal lobe

Answer: 5

(D) Anterior frontal temporal lobes

Patients with semantic dementia generally have great difficulty doing which of the following?

(A)

Tracking moving objects

(B)

Episodic recall

(C)

Recollection of the context in which events occurred

(D)

Retrieving recent autobiographical memories

(E)

Accessing information about concepts

Answer: 6

(C) Semantic

(E) Accessing information about concepts

Identify the accurate statement concerning semantic memory according to Collins and Quinlan (1969): (A)

It is a memory system highly dependent on episodic memory and intelligence.

(B)

Its functioning is best understood as a hierarchy of networks comprised of concepts and their associated features.

(C)

Its functioning is best understood as a hierarchy of networks dependent on time between encoding and retrieval.

(D)

It is a memory system comprised of distributed nodes.

(E)

It is a memory system used to store information about simple concepts.

Answer:

7

What does the typicality effect suggest about Collin and Quinlan‟s (1969) theory of semantic memory?

(A)

Time needed to verify that a concept belongs to a category depends on whether the concept is typical or atypical of that category; the position of the concept in a hierarchy of networks is less important.

(B)

Time needed to verify that a concept belongs to a category depends on whether that concept is tangible or intangible.

(C)

The time it takes to decide that a concept belongs to a category varies with perceived category size; the position of the concept in a hierarchy of networks is less important.

(D)

The time it takes to decide that a concept belongs to a category depends on whether the hierarchy of networks is judged to be typical or atypical.

(E)

None of these.

Answer:

8

(A)

Multi-store model

(B)

Spreading activation model

(C)

Dual-route model

(D)

Hierarchical network model

(E)

Tripartite model

(D) Hierarchical network model

A node is a theoretical construct that is central to which theory/model of concept organization?

(A)

Semantic activation theory

(B)

Schema theory

(C)

Grounded cognition theory

(D)

Hierarchical network theory

(E)

Hub-and-spoke model

Answer: 10

(A) Time needed to verify that a concept belongs to a category depends on whether the concept is typical or atypical of that category; the position of the concept in a hierarchy of networks is less important.

Collins and Quillian (1969) devised which model of semantic memory?

Answer: 9

(B) Its functioning is best understood as a hierarchy of networks comprised of concepts and their associated features.

(A) Semantic activation theory

Conrad (1972) observed that _____ is more important for true/false decisions than is hierarchical distance.

(A)

Imageability

(B)

Resonance

(C)

Familiarity

(D)

Orthography

(E)

Feedback

Answer: 11

Collins and Loftus (1975) devised which theory/model of semantic memory?

(A)

Hierarchical network theory

(B)

Semantic activation theory

(C)

Dual-route model

(D)

Typicality theory

(E)

Semantic priming theory

Answer: 12

(B) Semantic activation theory

Semantic priming validates which assumption about how semantic memory functions according to semantic activation theory?

(A)

Nodes are more highly activated for concepts with simple meanings and less highly activated for concepts with complex meanings.

(B)

Nodes are activated in a way that mirrors the chronology of events that generate concepts.

(C)

Nodes are more highly activated for concepts whose meanings are closely related than for concepts whose meanings are not closely related.

(D)

Nodes are more highly activated for concepts with contradictory meanings and less highly activated for concepts with multiple meanings.

(E)

None of these

Answer:

13

(C) Familiarity

(C) Nodes are more highly activated for concepts whose meanings are closely related than for concepts whose meanings are not closely related.

Relative to theories of semantic memory, what is the importance of the observation that information about most concepts is distributed across multiple brain regions?

(A)

It represents a limitation to semantic activation theory.

(B)

It provides evidence for semantic activation theory.

(C)

It suggests a need for theories that conceptualize semantic memory as a database.

(D)

It provides evidence for semantic priming theory.

(E)

None of these

Answer:

(A) It represents a limitation to semantic activation theory.

14

Identify the accurate statement regarding hierarchical network theory and semantic activation theory: (A)

Both theories address how we form schemas in early childhood.

(B)

Both theories focus on developmental aspects of semantic memory.

(C)

Both theories see semantic memory as analogous to computer software.

(D)

Both theories address how concepts are organized in semantic memory.

(E)

Both theories were developed in the 1800s.

Answer: 15

In the context of work by Rosch, Mervis, Gray, Johnson, and Boyes-Braem (1976), “chair” represents a _____ category, whereas “rocking chair” represents a _______ category.

(A)

Subordinate; basic-level

(B)

Basic-level; superordinate

(C)

Basic-level; subordinate

(D)

Foundational; stratified

(E)

Stratified; locomotive

Answer: 16

(C) Basic-level; subordinate

Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding Barsalou‟s grounded cognition theory (2009, 2012) and concept representation in semantic memory: (A)

Theoretical assumptions of the traditional approach to concept representation are incorrect.

(B)

We process concepts in context, not in isolation.

(C)

Concept representation is influenced by goals and is flexible.

(D)

The theory predicts extensive use of perceptual and motor systems in concept representation.

(E)

All of these

Answer: 17

(D) Both theories address how concepts are organized in semantic memory.

(E) All of these

Spokes in the hub-and-spoke model represent _______ brain areas in which sensory and motor processing occur.

(A)

Modality-independent

(B)

Modality-specific

(C)

Cross-modality

(D)

Integration

(E)

Cognitive control

Answer: 18

(B) Modality-specific

According to the text, which of the following was NOT listed by Cree and McRae (2003) as one of the most impaired features/properties following brain damage?

(A)

Smell

(B)

Color

(C)

Function

(D)

Tactility

(E)

Visual Motion

Answer:

(D) Tactility

19

In research on models of concept processing, transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) is a means to identify what?

(A)

Semantic knowledge related to abstract concepts

(B)

Modality-specific brain areas where sensory and motor processing occur

(C)

Modality-independent, unified representations of a particular concept

(D)

Semantic activation networks

(E)

None of these

Answer: 20

Which model in the text links concept processing and semantic memory to brain areas?

(A)

Script and frame model

(B)

Grounded cognition theory

(C)

Hub-and-spoke model

(D)

Semantic activation theory

(E)

Semantic priming theory

Answer: 21

(B) Modality-specific brain areas where sensory and motor processing occur

(C) Hub-and-spoke model

Scripts are responsible for processing which form of information?

(A)

Knowledge about sequences of events

(B)

Knowledge about some aspect of the world containing fixed structural information plus slots (place holders) for variable information

(C)

Binary code

(D)

Mathematical formulae and theoretical constructs used in science

(E)

Episodic information

Answer:

22

Frames are responsible for processing which form of information?

(A)

Knowledge about some aspect of the world containing fixed structural information plus slots (place holders) for variable information

(B)

Knowledge about sequences of events

(C)

Binary code

(D)

Mathematical formulae and theoretical constructs used in science

(E)

Episodic information

Answer:

23

(A)

Such distinctions are only useful in studies using neuroimaging data.

(B)

Such distinctions are minimally useful in studies of brain-damaged patients.

(C)

Evidence supports such distinctions, but one should interpret evidence cautiously, as many situations require both types of knowledge.

(D)

Neuroimaging data from studies of the hippocampus confirm such distinctions.

(E)

None of these

(C) Evidence supports such distinctions, but one should interpret evidence cautiously, as many situations require both types of knowledge.

According to work by Macrae and Bodenhausen (2000), use of stereotypes is known, in certain situations, to: (A)

Be misleading

(B)

Permit one to avoid focusing on another person‟s actual behavior

(C)

Prevent cognitive overload

(D)

Form an impression of a person

(E)

All of these

Answer: 25

(A) Knowledge about some aspect of the world containing fixed structural information plus slots (place holders) for variable information

What does research tell us about theoretical distinctions between schemas and concepts in storing information in semantic memory?

Answer:

24

(A) Knowledge about sequences of events

(E) All of these

According to the text, what is the relationship between schemas and the accuracy of memory?

(A)

New schemas lead to errors and distortion to a greater extent than do older schemas.

(B)

Long-term schematic information can facilitate errors and distortion.

(C)

Schema training implemented in education can strengthen the accuracy of memories.

(D)

Lying can be interpreted as the equivalent of possessing strong schemas.

(E)

None of these

Answer:

1

(B) Long-term schematic information can facilitate errors and distortion.

"Tip of the tongue" refers to which psychological phenomenon?

(A) Being aware of an answer but unable to produce it (B) Being unaware of an answer but producing it automatically (C) The phenomenon of stuttering when retrieving complex information (D) The tendency for participants to recognize more items than they can recall freely (E) Forgetting when the context at encoding and retrieval are inconsistent

Answer: 2

(A) Being aware of an answer but unable to produce it

Which type of stimuli is traditionally employed to test the tip of the tongue effect (e.g., Brown and McNeil, 1966)?

(A) Auditory stimuli (B) Pseudo words (C) Numeric chains (D) Pictures (E) Obscure words

Answer: 3

(E) Obscure words

Retrieval can best be understood according to which pattern of progress?

(A) From cognition to physiology (B) From sensory to phonological processing (C) From older to more recent memories (D) From psycholinguistic to connectionist processing (E) From cues to the target memory via associative connections

Answer: 4

(C) From older to more recent memories

The term “content addressable memory” most accurately suggests that: (A) The content of memories is packaged in isolated modules

(B) Memories are organized in chronological order (C) Any aspect of the memory‟s content can serve as a reminder/gateway to the experience (D) The transfer of memory content is regulated by a cognitive tax (E) Memories can only be cued by a single entry point Answer:

5

(C) Any aspect of the memory‟s content can serve as a reminder/gateway to the experience

Retrieval involves the reinstatement of a pattern of activation over _______, which serve to represent a memory.

(A) Environmental cues (B) Feature units (C) Interference resolution processes (D) Lures (E) Attentional blinks

Answer: 6

(B) Feature units

Fernandes and Moscovitch (2000, 2003) observed that the most accurate retrieval is reported under which condition?

(A) Free recall (B) Divided attention (C) Full attention (D) Recognition testing (E) Word completion tests

Answer: 7

(C) Full attention

The _____ states that the more alike cues are across study and test, the more accurate recall will be.

(A) The stimuli specificity hypothesis (B) General encoding principle (C) Levels of processing theory (D) The retrieval inhibition hypothesis (E) Encoding specificity principle

Answer: 8

(E) Encoding specificity principle

Badre and Wagner have argued that a controlled retrieval process mediated by which part of the brain is engaged when retrieval cues are too weak to automatically activate a target memory?

(A) Anterior aspect of the left inferior prefrontal cortex (B) Posterior portion of the amygdala (C) Ventrolateral portion of the right peduncle (D) Left-lateralized dorsal temporal cortex

(E) Posterior cingulate cortex Answer: 9

(A) Anterior aspect of the left inferior prefrontal cortex

The subsequent memory effect Wagner et al. (1998) found near the hippocampus revealed: (A) Amnesia for events acquired early in life (B) Greater activity for forgotten than successfully remembered items (C) More distributed activity on prospective memory tasks (D) Greater activity for successfully remembered than forgotten items (E) Greater contextual drift for forgotten items compared to remembered items

Answer:

(D) Greater activity for successfully remembered than forgotten items

10 Rubin and Wallace (1989) reported that dual cuing increased the probability of generating a particular item from 14% correct (when given a semantic category cue alone) to what when a rhyme cue was added?

(A) 0.97 (B) 0.56 (C) 0.47 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.16 Answer:

(A) 0.97

11 What variable did Herron and Wilding (2006) argue was important for correct recall?

(A) Study time (B) Frequency of exposure (C) Cognitive set (D) Familiarity of stimuli (E) Personal salience Answer:

(C) Cognitive set

12 If individuals were to encode and retrieve cues in two different circumstances, they may lack the correct _____ for retrieval.

(A) Content cues (B) Memory traces (C) Context cues (D) Direct routes (E) Associations Answer:

(C) Context cues

13 According to the text, repetition suppression is primarily thought to reflect:

(A) Changes to participants‟ field of view (B) Increased efficiency of neural processing (C) Divided attention (D) Cell death (E) Motivated forgetting Answer:

(B) Increased efficiency of neural processing

14 Which of these is not an especially prominent type of cue in context-dependent memory?

(A) Physiological (B) Spatio-temporal (C) Mood (D) Word frequency (E) Cognitive Answer:

(D) Word frequency

15 Goodwin et al. (1969) provided evidence for state-dependent memory by testing participants who had learned in a [blank] state in various conditions.

(A) Drunk (B) Happy (C) Depressed (D) Retrieval-focused (E) Underwater Answer:

(A) Drunk

16 Miles and Hardman (1998) observed that maintaining a stable cardiovascular state improved recall by what percentage compared to when it fluctuated?

(A) 0.9 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.05 (E) 0.1 Answer:

(C) 0.2

17 The tendency to recall more positive memories when happy and more negative memories when unhappy is known as which type of memory?

(A) Mood congruent (B) Biologically congruent (C) Context congruent (D) Life biased (E) Mood dependent

Answer:

(A) Mood congruent

18 Marian and Neisser (2000) studied the effect of a particular cognitive context on which group of participants?

(A) Non-human primates (B) Bilingual (C) Rats (D) Patients with semantic dementia (E) Newborns Answer:

(B) Bilingual

19 The process in which memory gaps are filled using logic and previous experience is termed: (A) Rationalization (B) Degeneration (C) Contextualization (D) Reconstruction (E) Suppression Answer:

(D) Reconstruction

20 Forced-choice and yes/no decisions are two ways of probing which form of memory?

(A) Episodic (B) Recall (C) Autobiographical (D) Recognition (E) Semantic Answer:

(D) Recognition

21 Green and Swets (1966) devised which theory that can help explain performance in an auditory detection experiment, for example?

(A) State dependent (B) Signal detection (C) Context dependent (D) Dual process (E) Source monitoring Answer:

(B) Signal detection

22 The ability to discriminate between old and new items would appear to depend most directly on the strength of which of the following?

(A) Familiarity (B) Frequency

(C) Imageability (D) Distance (E) Discrepancies Answer:

(A) Familiarity

23 Tulving (1985) and Migo, Mayes, and Montaldi (2012) devised which of the following procedures to isolate the relevant components of recognition memory?

(A) Visual search (B) Remember/forget (C) Familiarity-based decisions (D) Process dissociation (E) Remember/know Answer:

(E) Remember/know

24 Which of the following procedures was developed by Jacoby (1991) and involves inclusion and exclusion conditions?

(A) List method (B) Remember/know (C) Random sampling (D) Remember/forget (E) Process dissociation Answer:

(E) Process dissociation

25 What is assessed in the process of source monitoring?

(A) Contextual origins of a memory (B) Whether one‟s mood influenced how a memory was encoded (C) Whether a memory‟s source is based in reality or fantasy (D) Whether others can confirm the source of one‟s particular memory (E) Whether a memory reflects actual events or events in one‟s dreams Answer:

1

(A) Contextual origins of a memory

Which term best describes forgetting that arises WITHOUT the intention to forget?

(A) Intentional forgetting (B) Accidental forgetting (C) Motivated forgetting (D) Incidental forgetting (E) Episodic forgetting

Answer: (D) Incidental forgetting 2

From their work with patient AJ, Parker, Cahill, and McGaugh (2006) inspired research on which condition?

(A) Fugue state (B) Organic amnesia (C) Hyperthymia syndrome (D) Highly superior autobiographical memory (E) Prosopagnosia Answer: (D) Highly superior autobiographical memory 3

The rate of forgetting exhibited by Ebbinghaus could best be described as which of the following?

(A) Linear (B) Bimodal (C) Logarithmic (D) Power (E) Quadratic

Answer: (C) Logarithmic 4

Meeter, Murre, and Janssen (2005) reported that while 31% of public events were recalled successfully over the years, _____ were successfully recognized.

(A) 0.83 (B) 0.01 (C) 1 (D) 0.52 (E) 0.16

Answer: (D) 0.52 5

Bahrick (1984) suggested the term permastore to describe the observation that forgetting of what stabilizes after about two years?

(A) Motor sequences (B) Map locations (C) Foreign language (D) Unrelated scenes (E) People‟s names

Answer: (C) Foreign language 6

According to Endel Tulving‟s terminology, whether a memory is in storage or not refers to its: (A) Associative neighborhood (B) Accessibility (C) Activation level (D) Attenuation (E) Availability

Answer: (E) Availability 7

Jost‟s Law states that if two memories are equally strong at a given time, which memory will tend to be more durable and forgotten less rapidly?

(A) That which was encoded in a happy mood (B) The newer (C) The shallower (D) The one associated with a more positive context (E) The older

Answer: (E) The older 8

Synaptic consolidation is generally considered to last on the order of:

(A) Seconds to minutes (B) Hours to days (C) Milliseconds to seconds (D) Years (E) Weeks to months Answer: (B) Hours to days 9

Exposing people to a reminder of a previously consolidated memory is thought to render that memory: (A) Subject to reconsolidation (B) Vulnerable to disruption (C) Reactivated (D) In need of restabilization (E) All of these

Answer: (E) All of these 10 Linton (1975) demonstrated that doing what to personal memories helped protect them from forgetting?

(A) All of these (B) Suppressing them (C) Writing about them a single time in a diary (D) Retrieving related memories to the exclusion of the target memories (E) Retrieving them periodically Answer: (E) Retrieving them periodically 11 Which of these factors may explain incidental forgetting?

(A) Retroactive interference (B) Trace decay (C) Contextual shifts (D) Proactive interference (E) All of these Answer: (E) All of these 12 Frankland, Kohler, and Josselyn (2013) specifically proposed that which of the following may, counterintuitively, be bad for the retention of existing memories, though it may benefit new learning?

(A) Neurotransmission (B) Cell death (C) Deterioration of existing tissue (D) Neurogenesis (E) Long-term potentiation Answer: (D) Neurogenesis 13 The difficulty most people have in remembering the first several years of their life is called: (A) Childhood blackout (B) Alzheimer‟s Disease (C) Infantile amnesia (D) Early-onset dementia (E) Critical period Answer: (C) Infantile amnesia 14 According to Delaney, Sahakyan, Kelly and Zimmerman‟s (2010) results, doing what after

studying a list of unrelated words REDUCED memory for that list the most on a later test?

(A) Daydreaming about a domestic trip (B) Daydreaming about an international trip (C) Reading aloud from a psychology textbook (D) Rehearsing the words on the list (E) Imagining the words from the list interacting with each other Answer: (B) Daydreaming about an international trip 15 Anderson, Bjork, and Bjork (1994) term any associates of a target memory which of the following?

(A) Addressees (B) Pointers (C) Competitors (D) Integrators (E) Bystanders Answer: (C) Competitors 16 Assuming that one learned “SHOE-LEMON” after studying “SHOE-POOL,” forgetting which of the following items would be the best evidence of the consequences of PROACTIVE interference?

(A) SHINE (B) POOL (C) SHOE (D) CITRUS (E) LEMON Answer: (E) LEMON 17 What was the critical factor related to forgetting in the Baddeley and Hitch (1977) study of rugby players' memories for names of teams they had played earlier in the season?

(A) Number of team members (B) Number of preceding games (C) Familiarity (D) Number of times retrieved (E) Number of intervening games Answer: (E) Number of intervening games 18 When the target information is distorted by subsequent information, this is known as which form of interference?

(A) Retroactive (B) Proactive (C) Retrograde (D) Cue (E) Associative Answer: (A) Retroactive 19 Proactive interference effects are pronounced in studies in which the experimental design assesses which ability?

(A) Yes/no recognition (B) Recall (C) Procedural steps (D) Discrimination (E) Forced-choice recognition

Answer: (B) Recall 20 Bäuml and Aslan (2004) found which of the following groups did NOT show reliable evidence of forgetting of the non-cue items on the first test?

(A) Part-set re-study (B) Part-set retrieval (C) Part-set cuing (D) Partial inhibition of return (E) Cue overload Answer: (A) Part-set re-study 21 Identify collaborative inhibition: (A) Peer pressure marginalizes individuals in brainstorming.

(B) Groups recall more information than individuals combined.

(C) Group members‟ memories compete with each other during memory tasks.

(D) Groups recall less information than individuals combined.

(E) Groups members inhibit each other‟s ability to encode material in memory tasks.

Answer: (D) Groups recall less information than individuals combined.

22 What term did Anderson et al. (1994) coin to refer to the predisposition for selective retrieval of some exemplars from long-term memory to impair later recall of related items?

(A) Proactive interference (B) Part-set curing (C) Response competition (D) Cue-overload hypothesis (E) Retrieval-induced forgetting Answer: (E) Retrieval-induced forgetting 23 How does interference arise according to associative blocking?

(A) The cue fails to retrieve the target due to persistently evoking a stronger competitor (B) The cue fails to retrieve all possible responses (C) The target item overpowers the competitors (D) Semantic categories cause interference during retrieval (E) The researcher uses a masking technique Answer: (A) The cue fails to retrieve the target due to persistently evoking a stronger competitor 24 The left and right ventrolateral prefrontal cortex and the anterior cingulate cortex regions have largely been associated with the resolution of response conflict and which of these general abilities?

(A) Autonomic responses (B) Cognitive control (C) Motion detection (D) Primary motor responses (E) Heart rate Answer: (B) Cognitive control 25 Which of the following properties support a role of inhibition as a source of forgetting?

(A) Retrieval-specificity (B) Cue-independence (C) Attention-dependence (D) Interference-dependence (E) All of these

Answer: (E) All of these

1

Charles, Mather, and Carstensen (2003) observed which pattern of memory findings in older adults?

(A) Recall biased towards neutral memories but similar recognition of neutral and positive memories (B) Recognition biased towards positive memories but similar recall of negative and positive memories (C) Recall biased towards negative memories but similar recognition of negative and positive memories (D) Recall biased towards neutral memories but similar recognition of negative and positive memories (E) Recall biased towards positive memories but similar recognition of negative and positive memories

Answer: (E) Recall biased towards positive memories but similar recognition of negative and positive memories 2

Mather and Carstensen (2005) argue that as people advance in age, their focus on maintaining a sense of which of the following tends to increase, along with their emotion regulation skill?

(A) Well-being (B) Neurogenesis (C) Loss (D) Regret (E) None of these

Answer: (A) Well-being 3

In psychoanalytic theory, which defense mechanism is believed to unconsciously banish memories that may cause pain and conflict?

(A) Regression (B) Sublimation (C) Denial (D) Repression (E) Projection

Answer: (D) Repression 4

Psychogenic amnesia is: (A) Mechanistically neutral (B) A form of forgetting not readily attributable to neurological damage or dysfunction (C) Generally, the term used for lapses in surprisingly large or important episodes of life (D) Of an assumed psychological, rather than biological source (E) All of these

Answer: (E) All of these 5

According to the selective rehearsal account, individuals exert more of what after a remember instruction, compared to a forget instruction?

(A) Contextual shift (B) Active inhibition (C) Cognitive effort (D) Daydreaming (E) Mental time travel

Answer: (C) Cognitive effort

6

Sedikides and Green‟s (2000) mnemic neglect effect refers to tendency for individuals to limit the encoding of: (A) Neutral feedback (B) Negative feedback (C) Physical (D) features of social inferiors (E) Statistical information about the world around them

Answer: (B) Negative feedback 7

How frequently are participants instructed whether to remember or forget the stimuli they had just seen in the list-method directed forgetting procedure?

(A) After the very last item (B) After each item (C) After half the stimulus set has been presented (D) Before each item (E) At the beginning of the experiment

Answer: (C) After half the stimulus set has been presented 8

Bjork and Bjork (2003) found that their directed forgetting participants had forgotten from where they knew a tested name, misattributing the name‟s familiarity to: (A) Physical symmetry (B) Word frequency (C) Onomatopoeia (D) The name-letter effect (E) Fame

Answer: (E) Fame 9

Which theory of list-method directed forgetting argues that items from a forget list are temporarily rendered less accessible through a reduction in activation?

(A) Trace inhibition theory (B) Cue retention hypothesis (C) Retrieval inhibition hypothesis (D) Levels of processing principle (E) Context-dependent hypothesis

Answer: (C) Retrieval inhibition hypothesis 10 How does the context shift hypothesis explain list-method directed forgetting?

(A) First-list items cause interference (B) First-list items are encoded in a different cognitive set that cannot be reinstated (C) Second-list items cause interference (D) First and second lists are encoded in two separate contexts, which may be reinstated (E) None of these Answer: (D) First and second lists are encoded in two separate contexts, which may be reinstated 11 Avoidance of retrieval cues, preventing the reactivation of traces, and environment changes all fall under the umbrella term: (A) Proactive interference (B) Motivated context shifts (C) Repression (D) Unintentional context shifts (E) Confabulation Answer: (B) Motivated context shifts

12 The ability to selectively determine what enters conscious thought is considered a form of what?

(A) Cognitive control (B) Reflexivity (C) Consolidation (D) Fractionalization (E) Transference Answer: (A) Cognitive control 13 Which experimental paradigm is typically used to test retrieval suppression?

(A) Tower of Hanoi (B) Item-method directed forgetting (C) Think/no-think paradigm (D) Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Cognitive Abilities (E) Myers Bring Type Indicator Answer: (C) Think/no-think paradigm 14 Which of the following is often referred to as suppression-induced forgetting?

(A) Amnesic penumbra (B) Total memory control effect (C) Positive control effect (D) Negative control effect (E) Retrieval-induced forgetting phenomenon Answer: (D) Negative control effect 15 Anderson et al. (2004) discovered that which brain structures tend to be recruited while people are actively suppressing retrieval?

(A) Right lateral prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate cortex (B) Anterior cingulate cortex and hypothalamus (C) Hippocampus and left ventricle (D) Lateral medial cingulate and temporal lobes (E) Cerebellum and amygdala Answer: (A) Right lateral prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate cortex 16 In terms of suppression-induced forgetting, research suggests all of the following, EXCEPT: (A) Forgetting tends to increase with more suppression attempts (B) Individuals with attention deficit disorder show enhanced suppression abilities compared to controls (C) Forgetting can occur whether the materials are neutral or negative in valence (D) Autobiographical experiences are subject to the effects of suppression (E) The effects have been known to last at least 24 hours Answer: (B) Individuals with attention deficit disorder show enhanced suppression abilities compared to controls 17 Anderson et al. (2004) notably observed DECREASED activation in which structure when participants suppressed retrieval?

(A) Pons (B) Hypothalamus (C) Superior parietal lobule (D) Brain stem (E) Hippocampus

Answer: (E) Hippocampus 18 Benoit and Anderson (2012) compared which two strategies of controlling unwanted memories to see whether they engaged different mechanisms?

(A) Latent inhibition and operant conditioning (B) Direct suppression and meditation (C) Ironic processing and thought substitution (D) Hypnosis and direct suppression (E) Thought substitution and direct suppression Answer: (E) Thought substitution and direct suppression 19 Identify the phenomenon, originally observed in classical conditioning, that refers to forgotten declarative memories that recover over time?

(A) False memory syndrome (B) Spontaneous recovery (C) Psychogenic memory (D) Motivated remembering (E) Iatrogenic memory Answer: (B) Spontaneous recovery 20 Ballard‟s (1913) term for the “gradual process of improvement in the capacity to revive past experiences” without relearning is: (A) Reminiscence (B) Refractory period (C) Hypermania (D) Residual amnesia (E) Psychogenic amnesia Answer: (A) Reminiscence 21 Identify the phenomenon observed when repeated testing using the same stimuli results in an improvement in overall recall: (A) Hypermnesia (B) Hypermania (C) Reminiscence (D) Residual amnesia (E) Psychogenic amnesia Answer: (A) Hypermnesia 22 Goernert and Larson (1994) reported a release of directed forgetting after they: (A) Gave participants an extended delay (B) Provided a monetary incentive to remember the first list (C) Provided punishment for failing to remember the first list (D) Warned participants that memory is fallible (E) Supplied a subset of the items participants studied on the first list Answer: (E) Supplied a subset of the items participants studied on the first list 23 Sahakyan and Kelley (2002) observed that ______ the mental context eradicated the effects of instructions to forget.

(A) Extinguishing (B) Reconsolidating (C) Repressing (D) Reinstating (E) Regressing

Answer: (D) Reinstating 24 32% of cases of recovered memories noted by Andrews et al. (1999) reported recovering their memories: (A) After suggestive therapy (B) After hypnosis therapy (C) Spontaneously (D) Through guided imagery (E) After re-exposure therapy Answer: (C) Spontaneously 25 Geraerts and colleagues (2007) found that they could corroborate what percentage of memories recovered through suggestive therapy?

(A) 82 (B) 45 (C) 37 (D) 22 (E) 0 Answer: (E) 0

1

Which of these definitions best describes autobiographical memory?

(A) Memory that cannot be stated explicitly (B) Memory consisting of generalized knowledge about the world and historic events (C) Memory of specific events located at a specific point in time (D) Memory of procedural steps to complete a particular task (E) Memory across one‟s lifespan for both event-specific and self-related information

Answer: 2

(E) Memory across one‟s lifespan for both event-specific and self-related information

What is the main difficulty related to studying autobiographical memory?

(A) Time of day effects (B) A lack of control over the test environment (C) A lack of real-world situations (D) Participants are always honest about themselves (E) A lack of control over the learning environment

Answer: 3

(E) A lack of control over the learning environment

The directive function of autobiographical memory refers to: (A) Remembering to solve current problems or plan future action (B) Its ability to bind people together in a social way (C) Remembering to maintain one‟s self-image (D) Remembering pleasant memories when depressed (E) Remembering to give meaning to childhood experiences

Answer:

(A) Remembering to solve current problems or plan future action

4

Identify the phenomena studied in the context of its role in mental health challenges and benefits: (A) Self-clarity and self-continuity (B) Self-representation and self-continuity (C) Overgeneral memory and nostalgia (D) Retrograde memory and mood enhancement (E) Self-preservation and mood enhancement

Answer: 5

(C) Overgeneral memory and nostalgia

According to the text, social psychological theories of self-clarity and self-continuity suggest the importance of which function of autobiographical memories?

(A) Directive (B) Emotion regulation (C) Social (D) Self-representation (E) Mood enhancement

Answer: 6

(D) Self-representation

Which methodology did Linton (1975) use to explore her own autobiographical memory?

(A) Suggestive therapy (B) Beeper (C) Memory probe (D) Word association (E) Diary study

Answer: 7

(E) Diary study

Wagenaar (1986) found that which of the following memory cues was the LEAST effective at evoking the appropriate memory?

(A) Who (B) When (C) What (D) Where (E) All these cues proved equally useful

Answer: 8

(B) When

What limitation did Brewer‟s laboratory study (1988) attempt to avoid by sampling participants‟ tape-recorded events at random times?

(A) Participant effects (B) Forced-choice free recall (C) Biased recall of autobiographical events (D) Memory decay for autobiographical events

(E) Demand characteristics Answer: 9

(C) Biased recall of autobiographical events

What conclusion can we draw regarding the resiliency of memory from diary studies?

(A) We retain memories we think about a lot or discuss with others, as well as memories that are pleasant, novel, vivid, and related to oneself.

(B) We retain memories that reflect recurring experiences and are related to oneself.

(C) We retain memories that can be both easily articulated and described in writing.

(D) We retain memories that strengthen positive and fictional views of ourselves.

(E) The ability to retain memories is correlated with one‟s intelligence and writing skills.

Answer:

(A) We retain memories we think about a lot or discuss with others, as well as memories that are pleasant, novel, vivid, and related to oneself.

10 To what period of life does the term „infantile amnesia‟ typically apply?

(A) The first five years (B) The first six years (C) The first seven years (D) The first four years (E) The first ten years Answer:

(A) The first five years

11 The reminiscence bump refers to which phenomenon?

(A) Marked increase of memories between ages 10-15 in adults over the age of 40.

(B) Marked decrease of memories between ages 10-30 in adults over the age of 40.

(C) Marked increase of memories between ages 10-30 in adults over the age of 40.

(D) Marked increase of memories between ages 10-20 in adults over the age of 70.

(E) Marked increase of memories between ages 10-20 in adults aged 25-30 years.

Answer:

(C) Marked increase of memories between ages 10-30 in adults over the age of 40.

12 Which of the following has been proposed as an interpretation of infantile amnesia, according to the text?

(A) Late development of the hippocampus (B) Freudian repression (C) Neurogenesis-induced forgetting (D) Underdeveloped nature of a coherent self in infancy (E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

13 A coherent account of one‟s life is often referred to as a what?

(A) Internet blog

(B) Life narrative (C) Discourse (D) Content analysis (E) Working self Answer:

(B) Life narrative

14 Glück and Bluck (2007) observed that participants recalled more _____ during the reminiscence bump.

(A) Negative events for which they felt they had a low degree of control (B) Negative events for which they felt they had a high degree of control (C) Neutral events for which they felt they had a high degree of control (D) Positive events for which they felt they had a high degree of control (E) Positive events for which they felt they had a low degree of control Answer:

(D) Positive events for which they felt they had a high degree of control

15 Identify a potential benefit(s) of integrating wearable camera technology into memory research: (A) Improving the quality of life for individuals with memory deficiencies due to physical diseases (B) Creating a record of one‟s life (C) Exploring the way in which memory summarizes the continuous flow of daily events (D) Exploring the phenomenon of memory in naturalistic, real-life settings (E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

16 Conway and Pleydell-Pearce (2000) argued that the autobiographic system depends on interaction between the knowledge base and which construct?

(A) The working self (B) The working memory (C) The idealized self (D) The experienced self (E) The aught self Answer:

(A) The working self

17 When discrepancies arise amidst the complex set of active goals and self-images proposed by Conway, this may result in: (A) All of these (B) Delusion (C) Confabulation (D) False memories (E) A disconnection from reality

Answer:

(A) All of these

18 Autonoetic consciousness refers to what phenomenon?

(A) Our ability to reflect on other people's thoughts (B) Our ability to reflect on our own thoughts (C) An awareness of how we influence technology (D) A state between sleep and consciousness when some information can be recalled (E) A chemically induced state in which memory is hindered Answer:

(B) Our ability to reflect on our own thoughts

19 Alan Baddeley‟s investigation of RM (2012) illustrates the use of which strategy to encode memories?

(A) Funnel framework (B) Hierarchical mapping (C) Date-based calendar framework (D) Longitudinal framework (E) Chronological flow framework Answer:

(C) Date-based calendar framework

20 Which of the following is NOT true of flashbulb memories?

(A) They don‟t need to be life-threatening (B) They are reportedly very vivid (C) They depend on the degree to which the remember was likely affected by the event (D) Their accuracy tends to be incredibly stable over the years (E) They tend to lose detail at the same rate as everyday memories, despite claims of being clearer Answer:

(D) Their accuracy tends to be incredibly stable over the years

21 Research by Sedikides and colleagues permits which conclusion regarding positivity bias?

(A) One set of motives drives recall for autobiographical memories; a different set of motives drives recall for others‟ behavior.

(B) We attribute to others‟ behavior the motivation that actually drives our own behavior.

(C) Personal feelings about others had a negligible effect on recall concerning others‟ behavior.

(D) It is a retrieval strategy that non-depressed participants employed significantly more often than depressed participants.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) One set of motives drives recall for autobiographical memories; a different set of motives drives recall for others‟ behavior.

22 Gilbertson et al. (2002) found that Vietnam veterans who had developed PTSD and which other group both had reduced hippocampal volumes relative to controls, suggesting that the small hippocampus made the PTSD patients more vulnerable to the disorder?

(A) London taxi drivers (B) Unexposed twins (C) World War II veterans (D) Their spouses (E) Their children Answer:

(B) Unexposed twins

23 According to Brewin (2001), which form of memory is exceptionally vivid during a flashback but cannot be retrieved intentionally?

(A) Semantic memory (B) Verbally accessible memory (C) Visually accessible memory (D) Episodic memory (E) Situationally accessible memory Answer:

(E) Situationally accessible memory

24 In studying voluntary control of the retrieval process and PTSD, Catarino et al (2015), found that: (A) Participants with PTSD showed significantly less suppression-induced forgetting than did control participants.

(B) Participants with PTSD showed significantly less suppression- induced forgetting than did control participants.

(C) Participants with PTSD showed increased activation in the left and right hippocampus and adjacent parahippocampal cortex.

(D) Participants with PTSD showed decreased activation in the left and right hippocampus and adjacent parahippocampal cortex.

(E) Participants with PTSD showed reduced spatial imagery.

Answer: (B) Participants with PTSD showed significantly less suppression- induced forgetting than did control participants.

25 Which term is applied to a sudden loss of autobiographical memory which is often accompanied by wandering and often resolves quickly?

(A) Prosopagnosia (B) Focal amnesia (C) Substance-induced amnesia (D) Multiple personality (E) Fugue Answer:

(E) Fugue

26 „Reverse temporal gradient‟ refers to: (A) The tendency, in fugue state, for the oldest autobiographical memories to be forgotten less than more recent ones (B) The amount of time required to forget an autobiographical memory

(C) The tendency, in focal retrograde amnesia, for the oldest autobiographical memories to be forgotten more than more recent ones (D) The amount of time required to encode an autobiographical memory (E) The amount of time required for Fugue- to-FRA to resolve Answer:

(C) The tendency, in focal retrograde amnesia, for the oldest autobiographical memories to be forgotten more than more recent ones

27 In a meta-analysis of autobiographical memory studies using neuroimaging in healthy participants (Shepardson, Dahlgren, & Hamann, 2023), which brain areas activated during retrieval?

(A) Left hippocampus and posterior midline cortex (B) Right hippocampus and posterior midline cortex (C) Amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex (D) Hippocampus, posterior midline cortex, and ventromedial prefrontal cortex (E) Amygdala, hippocampus, and ventromedial prefrontal cortex Answer: (D) Hippocampus, posterior midline cortex, and ventromedial prefrontal cortex

1

According to the text, the role of memory in eyewitness accounts is a subject area that would benefit from more research on which factor?

(A) DNA test results (B) Recognition of unfamiliar faces (C) Recognition of familiar voices (D) Personality as measured by personality inventories (E) Lie detector results

Answer: 2

(B) Recognition of unfamiliar faces

Identify the phenomenon in which describing a previously seen face can impair its later recognition: (A) Verbal overshadowing effect (B) Language-impaired facial recognition (C) Facial recognition deficit (D) Verbally induced recognition deficit (E) None of these

Answer: 3

(A) Verbal overshadowing effect

Tuckey and Brewer‟s (2003b) research findings regarding eyewitness memory are consistent with which theory of memory?

(A) Bartlett‟s (1932) information processing account of memory (B) Loftus and Palmer‟s (1974) theory of accident reconstruction memory (C) Own-age bias theory (D) Bartlett‟s (1932) schema theory

(E) None of these Answer: 4

(D) Bartlett‟s (1932) schema theory

In terms of external factors that influence eyewitness memory, which phenomenon exemplifies the fragility of one‟s memory for an event?

(A) The misinformation effect (B) The event-to-memory correlation effect (C) The memory inconsistency effect (D) Confirmation bias (E) Memory consistency bias

Answer: 5

(A) The misinformation effect

The correct ordering of the words used in the Loftus and Palmer (1974) study that prompted the SLOWEST numeric group estimate of car speed to the FASTEST is: (A) Bumped, contacted, hit, collided, smashed (B) Smashed, collided, bumped, hit, contacted (C) Contacted, hit, bumped, collided, smashed (D) Bumped, collided, contacted, hit, smashed (E) Contacted, bumped, hit, collided, smashed

Answer: 6

(C) Contacted, hit, bumped, collided, smashed

Which factor did Johnson, Hashtroudi, and Lindsay (1993) suggest explains the effects of misleading post-event information?

(A) Information processing (B) Source misattribution (C) Schema theory (D) Operant conditioning (E) Associationism

Answer: 7

(B) Source misattribution

In contrast to Loftus‟ (1975) trace-alteration theory, Oeberst and Blank (2012) argued that: (A) Misinformation does not exist (B) Misinformation typically changes memory traces.

(C) Misinformation typically does not permanently change memory traces.

(D) Misinformation sometimes changes memory traces, depending on the situation.

(E) Misinformation is closely related to classical conditioning.

Answer: (C) Misinformation typically does not permanently change memory traces.

8

What does research by Körner, Faul, and Nuthmann (2023) suggest about eyewitness

memory under conditions of anxiety and violence?

(A) In laboratory conditions, high anxiety/stress generally negatively impacts face recognition and recall of crime scene details.

(B) Attentional factors and culture, rather than the weapon focus effect, may explain the accuracy of eyewitness recall.

(C) Laboratory research on eyewitness memory is inferior to real-life eyewitness crime reports.

(D) Laboratory research on eyewitness memory is superior to real-life eyewitness crime reports.

(E)

Answer:

9

None of these

(B) Attentional factors and culture, rather than the weapon focus effect, may explain the accuracy of eyewitness recall.

Which group of individuals did Jacoby, Bishara, Hessels, and Toth (2005) find was most strongly influenced by misleading suggestions?

(A) Judges (B) Younger adults (C) Older adults (D) Lawyers (E) Psychologists

Answer: 10

(C) Older adults

The tendency for witnesses to attend to an object used in a crime rather than the perpetrator(s) is known as the _[BLANK]_ effect.

(A) Generation (B) Allocentric orienting (C) Egocentric orienting (D) Self-reference (E) Weapon-focus

Answer: 11

(E) Weapon-focus

Pickel (2009) obtained specific support for the prediction that people pay attention to stimuli that are _______ in a situation, such as a female criminal carrying a folding knife or a male criminal with a knitting needle.

(A) Shiny (B) Manufactured, rather than organic (C) Schema-consistent (D) Typical (E) Unexpected

Answer: 12

(E) Unexpected

The meta-analysis conducted by Deffenbacher et al. (2004) identified that eyewitness testimony was most accurate in which condition?

(A) High stress and high anxiety (B) Low mood and low anxiety (C) Low stress and low anxiety (D) High mood and low anxiety (E) None of these Answer: 13

(C) Low stress and low anxiety

Which research finding gives cause to be concerned about the influence of eyewitness accounts on jurors‟ decisions?

(A) The finding from Dahl, Granér, Fransson, Bertilsson, and Fredriksson (2018) that eyewitnesses gave reports that were both inaccurate and very dissimilar to each other.

(B) The finding from Dahl, Granér, Fransson, Bertilsson, and Fredriksson (2018) that eyewitnesses gave reports that were both inaccurate and very similar to each other.

(C) The finding from Loftus and Palmer (1974) that questioning multiple witnesses after an event produces highly variable accounts.

(D) The finding from Loftus and Palmer (1974) that waiting too long to question witnesses after an event will result in memory decay.

(E) None of these

Answer:

14

(B) The finding from Dahl, Granér, Fransson, Bertilsson, and Fredriksson (2018) that eyewitnesses gave reports that were both inaccurate and very similar to each other.

Identify the type of processing that accounts for the finding that minor changes to facial appearance greatly affect facial recognition: (A) Serial (B) Sparse (C) Parabolic (D) Holistic (E) Distributed

Answer:

15

(D) Holistic

Identify the conclusion(s) that one can draw from the textbook regarding the other-race effect in facial recognition: (A) Experimenter bias has tainted research in this area.

(B) Laboratory research findings in this area have not been replicated in naturalistic studies.

(C) Verbal overshadowing can negate the other-race effect.

(D) Perception, familiarity with one‟s own race, and motivation all seem to play a part.

(E) Intelligence correlates highly with the ability to accurately perceive and recall faces.

Answer:

16

(D) Perception, familiarity with one‟s own race, and motivation all seem to play a part.

What did Jones, Dwyer, and Lewis (2017) find in their study of the variability that exists in facial recognition across different photographs/images of a single individual?

(A) Face-recognition performance was best following presentation of a single photograph and worst following presentation of digitally synthesized images.

(B) Face-recognition performance was the same following presentation of a single photograph and following presentation of digitally synthesized images.

(C) Face-recognition performance was worst following presentation of a single photograph and best following presentation of digitally synthesized images.

(D) Super-recognizers are better at recognizing digitally synthesized images.

(E) Face-recognition performance is always at ceiling.

Answer:

17

(C) Face-recognition performance was worst following presentation of a single photograph and best following presentation of digitally synthesized images

The study of which set of variables in eyewitness testimony must take into consideration differing legal and criminal justice systems across nations?

(A) Estimator variables (B) System variables (C) Other-race variables (D) Intelligence, problem-solving, and related cognitive variables (E) Motivational variables

Answer: 18

(B) System variables

Identify the accurate statement(s) regarding the author‟s summary of contemporary research on lineups: (A) Sequential and simultaneous lineups produce broadly similar overall performance.

(B) Simultaneous lineups are superior to sequential ones.

(C) Digitally produced lineups are superior to hand-drawn sketches.

(D) In this area, academic research has had a negligible effect on actual jurisprudence.

(E) None of these

Answer: 19

(A) Sequential and simultaneous lineups produce broadly similar overall performance.

Knowledge of retrieval rules is the basis of which of these components of the cognitive interview (Geiselman, Fisher, MacKinnon, & Holland, 1985) that might accompany eyewitness testimony?

(A) Recording different viewpoints of an incident (B) Mental reinstatement of the environment and personal contact during an incident (C) Encouraging recall of all details of an incident (D) Recounting an incident in different chronological orders (E) All of these

Answer: 20

(E) All of these

According to the text, limitations of the cognitive interview that accompanies eyewitness testimony include all of the following, EXCEPT: (A) Interview procedures typically do not require an eyewitness to recall events with eyes closed.

(B) Early versions of the cognitive interview neglected the value of rapport between interviewer and interviewee.

(C) An eyewitness‟s intelligence and language skills present challenges in the interview.

(D) A small increase in recalled information that is factually incorrect often results in a detective‟s misinterpretation of the evidence.

(E) The interview does not reduce the negative effects of misinformation.

Answer: 21

(C) An eyewitness‟s intelligence and language skills present challenges in the interview.

Identify the accurate statement regarding the author‟s description of the use of hypnosis in eyewitness testimony: (A) Hypnosis has been found to be more effective with female witnesses than with male witnesses.

(B) Hypnosis is an unreliable procedure when eyewitnesses are children or the elderly.

(C) Despite public belief in the efficacy of hypnosis, research finds minimal evidence for its efficacy.

(D) Hypnosis is effective as a procedure to improve eyewitness testimony in crimes of murder but less effective in lesser crimes, e.g., robbery.

(E) All of these

Answer:

22

(C) Despite public belief in the efficacy of hypnosis, research finds minimal evidence for its efficacy.

Each of the following is given as a reason why laboratory findings are not relevant to real-life eyewitness testimony, EXCEPT: (A) An eyewitness account of an incident in a laboratory study comes from bystanders, not victims.

(B) Eyewitnesses in a laboratory incident are exposed to less stressful situations than those in real-life incidents.

(C) Eyewitnesses in a laboratory passively observe a situation from a single perspective, while crime eyewitnesses move around and may interact with the perpetrator.

(D) Exposure to an incident in the laboratory is of less duration than exposure time in a real incident.

(E) Eyewitnesses to a real-life crime are not typically acquainted with the perpetrator.

Answer: 23

(E) Eyewitnesses to a real-life crime are not typically acquainted with the perpetrator.

Leippe, Eisenstadt, Rauch, and Seib (2004) presented evidence that exposing mock jurors to which of the following reduced guilty verdicts from 74% to 59%, independent of the strength of the case against the defendant?

(A) Fingerprint evidence (B) DNA evidence (C) Expert testimony (D) Video recordings (E) Written confessions

Answer:

(C) Expert testimony

24

The ability to accurately weigh the quality of evidence provided by an eyewitness refers to what Martire and Kemp (2001) labeled: (A) Misattribution (B) Scepticism (C) Animosity (D) Sensitivity (E) Suggestibility

Answer: 25

(D) Sensitivity

Ihlebaek et al. (2003) presented evidence that eyewitnesses in which of their conditions recalled more accurate information (e.g., height, age, and weight estimates of the perpetrator)?

(A) Suggestive therapy (B) Live (C) Real-life (D) Hypnosis (E) Video

Answer: 26

(E) Video

What does the I-I-Eye method described in the text involve?

(A) Written instructions for jurors to follow that can increase their sensitivity to the strength of eyewitness testimony.

(B) Written instructions for jurors to empathize with bystanders who witness crimes.

(C) Visual images given to jurors that can increase their sensitivity to the strength of eyewitness testimony.

(D) Hypnotic instructions for detectives to use in cognitive interviews of an eyewitness.

(E) None of these

Answer:

1

(A) Written instructions for jurors to follow that can increase their sensitivity to the strength of eyewitness testimony.

Memory for people, words, and events encountered in the past is termed: (A) Reactive memory (B) Prospective memory (C) Prosthetic memory (D) Retrospective memory (E) Semantic memory

Answer: 2

(D) Retrospective memory

All of these situations speak to the importance of prospective memory in human functioning, EXCEPT: (A) Setting your alarm on your clock to avoid sleeping through a morning exam

(B) Placing medication at your kitchen table in the evening to follow doctor‟s orders to take the medication with breakfast (C) Reserving an hour each day to practice your violin in anticipation of the concert next week (D) Associating a melody with a past romance (E) Remembering to purchase groceries on Monday to bake a cake on Wednesday Answer:

3

(D) Associating a melody with a past romance

Identify the feature of prospective memory that defines it as an entity different from retrospective memory: (A) It is subject to decay and is not very robust.

(B) When it fails, the explanation is that you are lack motivation and reliability.

(C) When it fails, the explanation is that you just have a poor memory.

(D) Its functioning is at its highest during adulthood between the ages of 25 and 40.

(E) None of these

Answer:

4

(B) When it fails, the explanation is that you lack motivation and reliability.

Remembering to purchase orange juice when you next go to the store is best conceptualized as an example of: (A) Goal-irrelevant memory (B) Time-based prospective memory (C) Event-based retrospective memory (D) Time-based retrospective memory (E) Event-based prospective memory

Answer: 5

(E) Event-based prospective memory

Kvavilashvili and Rummel‟s (2020) model of prospective memory included all of the following stages EXCEPT: (A) Intention formation (B) Cue execution (C) Intention retrieval (D) Intention execution (E) Intention retention

Answer: 6

(B) Cue execution

Marsh, Hicks, and Landau (1998) found people reported an average of 15 plans for the forthcoming week of which 25% were not completed. Why? (A) Rescheduling and reprioritization (B)Forgetting (C)Working memory span

(D)Inhibitory control (E) Peer pressure Answer:

7

(A) Rescheduling and reprioritization

Anderson and McDaniel (2019) found prospective memory occupied our thoughts approximately: (A) 50-55% of the time (B) 75% of the time (C) 90-92% of the time (D) 13-15% of the time (E) 2% of the time

Answer:

8

(D) 13-15% of the time

According to the PlaneCrashInfo.com.accident database, 49% of the fatal accidents were due at least in part to: (A) Mechanical failure (B) Adverse weather (C) Pilot error (D) Sabotage (E) Terrorist attacks

Answer:

9

(C) Pilot error

What conclusions can be permitted from research regarding memory failure among pilots and air traffic controllers?

(A) Memory failure largely involves prospective memory.

(B) Interruptions that affect cognitive processes like monitoring and rehearsing may be important.

(C) The order of cues in an action sequence may be important.

(D) Interruptions that affect habitually performed tasks may be important.

(E) All of these

Answer:

(E) All of these

10 Cuttler and Graf (2009) reported that compulsive checkers: (A) Have impaired visual short-term memory (B) Did not differ from controls in prospective memory (C) Overestimate their memory abilities (D) Did not differ from controls in retrospective memory (E) Suffer from a deflated sense of personal responsibility

Answer:

(D) Did not differ from controls in retrospective memory

11 What did Jondani, Yazdhasti, and Abedi (2023) conclude from their meta-analysis regarding memory and repeated checking in individuals with obsessional symptoms?

(A) Repeated checking reduced memory confidence and had a small negative impact on memory accuracy.

(B) Memory was impaired due to these individuals‟ poor inhibitory control.

(C) Repeated checking increased memory confidence but had no impact on memory accuracy.

(D) Repeated checking plus verbal rehearsal increased memory confidence and accuracy.

(E) None of these Answer:

(A) Repeated checking reduced memory confidence and had a small negative impact on memory accuracy.

12 According to Kourtesis, Collina, Doumas, and MacPherson (2021), performance is generally better on focal event-based tasks than time-based ones primarily because: (A) Time-based tasks are extremely rare in real life.

(B) Focal event-based tasks generally require extensive self-initiated processing.

(C) Time-based tasks typically lack environmental cues and require self-initiated processing.

(D) Focal event-based tasks tend to depend on good vision.

(E) None of these Answer:

(C) Time-based tasks typically lack environmental cues and require self-initiated processing.

13 In research on event-based prospective memory, a task that requires processing similar to that required on an ongoing task is what?

(A) A dual-pathways task (B) A visual task (C) A verbal task (D) A focal task (E) None of these Answer:

(D) A focal task

14 The greater ERP amplitude observed by Cona, Arcara, Tarantino, and Bisiacchi (2012) in their event-based condition was thought to reflect: (A) Impaired source monitoring (B) Reduced attentional resources (C) More distributed focus of attention (D) Sleep spindles (E) Greater frequency of target checking Answer:

(E) Greater frequency of target checking

15 In a lexical decision task:

(A) Participants presented with a string of letters must decide whether the string forms a word.

(B) Participants presented with a string of letters must read the word aloud.

(C) Participants presented with a word must decide whether they have encountered the word before.

(D) Participants presented with a word must state the number of syllables.

(E) Participants presented with a series of sounds must repeat the sounds as accurately as they can.

Answer:

(A)

Participants presented with a string of letters must decide whether the string forms a word.

16 In studies of prospective memory, nonfocal tasks involve: (A) Spontaneous retrieval (B) Processing that is very different to that needed on the ongoing task (C) Processing nearly identical to that needed on the ongoing task (D) Verbal recall (E) None of these Answer:

(B) Processing that is very different to that needed on the ongoing task

17 Strategic monitoring per the dual-pathways model of event-based prospective memory (McDaniel, Umanath, Einstein, and Waldum, 2015) requires: (A) Bottom-up attentional control processes to maintain the prospective-memory intention (B) Rehearsal to maintain the prospective-memory intention (C) Inhibitory processes to maintain attentional control processes to maintain the prospective-memory intention (D) Top-down attentional control processes to maintain the prospective-memory intention (E) None of the above Answer:

(D) Top-down attentional control processes to maintain the prospective-memory intention

18 Shelton and Scullin‟s (2017) dynamic multi-process framework identifies which cognitive processes in successful prospective-memory performance?

(A) Perception, top-down attentional control to search for cues (monitoring), and bottom-up rehearsal (B) Top-down attentional control to search for cues (monitoring) and bottom-up processing (intentional retrieval) (C) Top-down attentional control to search for cues (monitoring) and bottom-up processing (spontaneous retrieval) (D) Intention formation and intention execution (E) None of these Answer:

(C) Top-down attentional control to search for cues (monitoring) and bottom-up processing (spontaneous retrieval).

19 The dynamic multi-process framework was proposed in 2017 by: (A) Cooper and Nimoy (B) Shelton and Scullin (C) Anderson and Green (D) Baddeley and Scullin (E) Einstein and McDaniel Answer:

(B) Shelton and Scullin

20 According to the dynamic multi-process framework (Shelton and Scullin, 2017) the use of monitoring depends on: (A) Working memory span (B) Metamemory (C) Inhibitory control (D) Digit span (E) Spontaneous retrieval Answer:

(B) Metamemory

21 Define metamemory: (A) Knowledge and beliefs about one‟s own memory processes and performance (B) Subconscious memory processes that control everyday memory function (C) A vast store of memories that we hold but cannot reliably articulate (D) A vast store of repressed memories (E) None of these Answer: (B) Knowledge and beliefs about one‟s own memory processes and performance

22 How is the dual-process theory developed by Cole and Kvavilashvili (2020) an improvement over earlier similar theories?

(A) It addresses the interaction of goals, motivation, and prospective memory.

(B) It addresses the role that the intention formation phase plays in prospective memory, rather than retention and retrieval phases.

(C) It addresses top-down, sideways, and bottom-up processes in prospective memory.

(D) Its‟ predictions can be confirmed in naturalistic, real-life settings, rather than just the laboratory.

(E) None of these Answer:

(B) It addresses the role that the intention formation phase plays in prospective memory, rather than retention and retrieval phases.

23 The following statements represent limitations of event-based theories EXCEPT: (A) Ambiguity of focal versus nonfocal tasks (B) These theories have not been adequately tested in the laboratory.

(C) These theories may lack ecological validity.

(D) These theories say relatively little about prospective memory during intention formation.

(E) Proponents of such theories may interpret study findings based on faulty assumptions about whether participants follow instructions in the research setting.

Answer:

(B) These theories have not been adequately tested in the laboratory.

24 Sporadic monitoring to synchronize internal and external time followed by close monitoring occurring at progressively shorter time intervals summarizes which theory?

(A) An event-based theory of prospective memory by Cole and Kvavilashvili (2020) (B) A time-based theory of prospective memory by McDaniel, Umanath, Einstein, and Waldum (2015) (C) A time-based theory of prospective memory by Munaretto et al. (2022) (D) An event-based theory of prospective memory by Munaretto et al. (2022) (E) None of these Answer:

(C) A time-based theory of prospective memory by Munaretto et al. (2022)

25 Identify practical way(s) to strengthen prospective memory outlined in the text: (A) Create distinctive and salient reminder cues (B) Form a mental intention to resume to a task when it has been interrupted (C) Strengthen mnemonic and cognitive training skills (D) Place reminders in prominent and conveniently located positions (E) All of these Answer:

1

(E) All of these

In early stages of human development prior to birth, neurons that migrate to form „grey matter‟ become: (A) The innermost layer of the brain (B) The outermost layer of the brain (C) A combination of innermost and outmost layers of the brain (D) The hippocampal formation (E) The amygdala

Answer: (B) The outermost layer of the brain 2

Which brain structure functions to protect the transmission of information between neurons?

(A)

Grey matter

(B)

Myelin

(C)

Spinal cord

(D)

Temporal lobe

(E)

None of these

Answer: 3

(B) Myelin

„Pruning‟ refers to: (A) The gradual learning of walking (B) The gradual learning of reading (C) The working memory span in children (D) The gradual elimination of unused neurons that extends up to adolescence (E) The gradual maturation of the prefrontal cortex

Answer: (D) The gradual elimination of unused neurons that extends up to adolescence 4

In the context of psychological functions, identify the order in which brain areas peak in their development: (A) Prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, angular gyrus and Broca‟s area (B) Angular gyrus and Broca‟s area, prefrontal cortex, visual cortex/auditory cortex (C) Prefrontal cortex, visual/auditory cortex (D) Visual cortex/auditory cortex, angular gyrus and Broca‟s area, prefrontal cortex (E) Prefrontal cortex, visual/auditory cortex, neural tube

Answer: 5

(D) Visual cortex/auditory cortex, angular gyrus and Broca‟s area, prefrontal cortex

How did infants demonstrate memory in the series of studies by Rovee-Collier and colleagues (1980)?

(A) Waving their arms in their cribs (B) Kicking to move a ribbon tied to one leg and to a mobile hanging above their cribs (C) Turning their head when their mothers approached them in their cribs (D) Kicking their legs when their mothers approached them in their cribs (E) None of these

Answer: 6

(B) Kicking to move a ribbon tied to one leg and to a mobile hanging above their cribs

Research on stunting and wasting in children permit which conclusion(s) regarding memory, and more broadly, cognition?

(A) Cognitive deficits are not improved by later improvements in nutrition and environment.

(B) Adequate nutrition and positive psychosocial stimulation from a caregiver can erase deficits stunted and wasted children show relative to matched control groups.

(C) Cognitive deficits among institutionalized children adopted before age 6 show no improvement later in life.

(D) The need for children to eat a good breakfast to start their day is a myth.

(E) None of these Answer:

7

(B) Adequate nutrition and positive psychosocial stimulation from a caregiver can erase deficits stunted and wasted children show relative to matched control groups.

Identify the accurate statement regarding the study of infant memory as described in the text: (A) The smiling response to colors and shapes has been a fruitful research paradigm.

(B) Rewards and reminders promote learning and the retention of information.

(C) Withholding rewards is effective in promoting learning and the retention of information.

(D) Research with infants younger than 24 months is generally unreliable.

(E) Research with infants too young to speak is generally unreliable.

Answer: 8

(B) Rewards and reminders promote learning and the retention of information.

According to the text, each of these is a method that researchers have used to investigate memory in infants EXCEPT? (A) Pressing a lever to make a train move around a track (B) Imitating a target action performed by another (C) Preferential looking to demonstrate that infants can distinguish between categories of stimuli (D) Recording electrophysiological measures, e.g., evoked responses and pupil dilation (E) Conditioning a feeding response after pairing the sound of a bell to the sight of a bottle

Answer: 9

(E) Conditioning a feeding response after pairing the sound of a bell to the sight of a bottle

Schaal, Marlier, and Soussignan (2000) found what?

(A) Adaptation to novel tastes and smells can occur during gestation.

(B) Adaptation to novel sounds can occur during gestation.

(C) Adaptation to novel languages can occur during gestation.

(D) Adaptation to novel sleep patterns can occur during gestation.

(E) Adaptation to novel visual stimuli can occur during gestation.

Answer:

(A) Adaptation to novel tastes and smells can occur during gestation.

10 What happens to the pupil of the eye when a remembered item is presented?

(A) It remains fixed.

(B) It dilates.

(C) It constricts.

(D) It depends.

(E) None of the above Answer:

(B) It dilates.

11 Identify the issue(s) in language acquisition that present challenges to Large Language Models (LLMs): (A) Human memory span is restricted and children must learn to turn a continuous stream of sounds into separate words.

(B) LLMs cannot account for the large number of human languages that exist.

(C) LLMs cannot account for „motherese‟.

(D) Motherese increases memory load on an infant and interferes with later acquisition of more adultlike language and speech.

(E) None of the above Answer:

(A) Human memory span is restricted and children must learn to turn a continuous stream of sounds into separate words.

12 Identify the accurate statement regarding infantile amnesia: (A) It refers to the phenomenon of dating one‟s earliest memories from age three years.

(B) Sigmund Freud coined the term and attributed it to repression of memories of early infantile drives/passions.

(C) Research has confirmed that by age three, a child‟s verbal skills are developed enough to permit study of episodic memory.

(D) Theories regarding its origin include maturation of the hippocampus and emergence of a selfconcept.

(E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

13 In studies by Wang (2001, 2006), clear differences in average age of first memory between US and Chinese children suggested: (A) The influence of the complexity of a language in mother-child interactions on later memory recall.

(B) Chinese mothers use more efficient strategies to help their children develop a self-concept, and therefore better memory recall.

(C) Chinese mothers use more efficient strategies to help their children develop language skills, and therefore, better memory recall.

(D) Cultural factors, in particular mother-child interactions, influence later memory recall.

(E) Freud‟s theory of infantile amnesia accounts for memory recall in English, but not Chinese, speakers.

Answer:

(D) Cultural factors, in particular mother-child interactions, influence later memory recall.

14 Memory for chess positions is primarily determined by which factor?

(A) Working memory capacity (B) Intelligence (C) Expertise (D) Age

(E) Digit span capacity Answer:

(C) Expertise

15 Howe, Courage, and Edison (2003), working with infants aged between 15 and 23 months, found that: (A) Self-recognizers have worse semantic memory.

(B) Self- recognizers have better semantic memory.

(B) Self-recognizers have better working memory span.

(D) Self-recognizers have worse memory for personal events.

(E) Self-recognizers have better memory for personal events.

Answer:

(E) Self-recognizers have better memory for personal events.

16 How did Gathercole, Pickering, Ambridge, and Wearing (2004) test predictions from the multicomponent working memory framework in children aged between four and 15 years?

(A) They used measures of verbal storage, complex memory span, and visuo-spatial memory.

(B) They used measures of verbal storage and visuo-spatial memory.

(A) They used measures of intelligence, verbal skills, and visual acuity.

(D) They assessed intelligence, complex memory span, and visual acuity.

(E) They assessed self-concept and complex memory span.

Answer:(A) They used measures of verbal storage, complex memory span, and visuospatial memory.

17 In discussing children‟s performance on tests of working memory, the author notes 1) greater variability within a certain age than variability between successive ages and 2) great variability in a single child from one year to the next. From this, what does he conclude regarding the multicomponent working memory framework?

(A) More research is needed on the role of intelligence on the subsystems of working memory across the lifespan to understand what appear to be simple developmental trends in working memory.

(B) The model would benefit from addressing the role of intelligence across different age groups.

(C) One must consider both the operation of complex subsystems of working memory and the variability of rates of development within and between children to understand what appear to be simple developmental trends in working memory.

(D) The strength of the model lies in explaining working memory among same-age adults, rather than children.

(E) None of these Answer:(C) One must consider both the operation of complex subsystems of working memory and the variability of rates of development within and between children to understand what appear to be simple developmental trends in working memory.

18 Findings from Bathelt, Gathercole, Johnson, and Astle (2017) point to the importance of the development of which brain structure in working memory?

(A) The corpus callosum

(B) The amygdala (C) The hippocampus (D) The cerebellum (E) The right hemisphere Answer:

(A) The corpus callosum

19 The importance of background knowledge on retention performance was studied by O‟Reilly, Wang, and Sabatini (2019), who found an overall correlation between: (A) Age and forgetting rate for complex concepts (B) Knowledge and forgetting rate for simple concepts (C) Knowledge and forgetting rate for complex concepts (D) Knowledge and performance when participants were knowledgeable about basic concepts (E) Knowledge and performance when participants were knowledgeable about complex concepts Answer:

(E) Knowledge and performance when participants were knowledgeable about complex concepts

20 Nelson (1989) presented the case of _____ whose night-time monologues appeared to aid the formation of memories?

(A) HM (B) Sally-Anne (C) Identical twins (D) Emily (E) Clive Answer:

(D) Emily

21 Howe and Courage (1997) argued that infants could only form autobiographical memories after they develop a: (A) Sufficient mental lexicon (B) Working memory (C) Comprehension of language (D) Self-schema (E) Sense of self Answer:

(E) Sense of self

22 In Nelson‟s (1989) study, which mother-child interaction style during a museum visit produced better performance when children were questioned about the visit after a week‟s delay?

(A) Freely-interacting (B) Practical (C) Focused

(D) Uniformly engaged (E) Authoritative Answer:

(A) Freely-interacting

23 Use of the Working Memory Rating Scale in research by Alloway, Gathercole, and Elliott (2010) points to what possibility regarding working memory and attention disability hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

(A) That ADHD is a unitary syndrome (B) That ADHD rather than reflecting a unitary syndrome, may reflect the combination of two separable problems—a working-memory based attentional limitation and hyperactivity (C) That educational instruction must be simple and straightforward for children who struggle with distractibility (D) That working memory deficits correlate highly with hyperactivity and distractibility (E) That teachers are not well educated regarding psychological research on working memory in children Answer:

(B) That ADHD rather than reflecting a unitary syndrome, may reflect the combination of two separable problems—a working-memory based attentional limitation and hyperactivity

24 Susan Gathercole‟s Centre for Attention, Learning and Memory (CALM) implements treatment for learning difficulties consistent with which of these ideas?

(A) That educators and psychologists are better equipped to diagnose learning issues than psychiatrists (B) That memory deficits, as one of several symptom clusters in learning deficits, are often overlooked in the educational environment (C) That behaviors that constitute a diagnosable condition actually lie along different dimensions ranging from non-symptomatic (normal) to symptomatic (D) That pharmacological treatments for learning difficulties do little to address underlying memory deficiencies (E) That deficiencies in working memory should be included in diagnostic checklists for learning disabilities Answer:

(C) That behaviors that constitute a diagnosable condition actually lie along different dimensions ranging from non-symptomatic (normal) to symptomatic

25 To address the discovery that in 83% of studies they reviewed (Ceci and Bruck, 1993), suggestibility in recall tasks reduces as children age, the authors proposed: (A) That younger children are less intelligent than older ones (B) That younger children are more likely to yield to social pressure, especially if their memory is less than clear (C) That the hippocampus is less developed in younger children (D) That younger children do not have an adequately developed self-concept (E) That older children gain self-confidence in language skills Answer:

(B) That younger children are more likely to yield to social pressure, especially if their memory is less than clear

26 What can be done to avoid or minimize memory errors and distortions when children are witnesses?

(A) Improve pretrial training practices (B) Permit children to recall events with their eyes closed (C) Reenact the context in which the remembered event occurred (D) Permit children to draw the events they are asked to remember (E) All of these Answer:

1

(E) All of these

Sunderland, Watts, Baddeley, and Harris (1986) suggested that: (A) We become less good at reporting memory lapses with age.

(B) Memory-related complaints in the elderly have no association with depression.

(C) Age-related memory impairments do not exist.

(D) Our subjective feelings about progressive memory failure can be trusted almost completely.

(E) All of these

Answer: 2

(A) We become less good at reporting memory lapses with age.

Practice effects and participant drop-out are two problems especially associated with which principal method for studying the effects of aging on memory?

(A) Archival (B) Cross-sectional (C) Meta-analysis (D) Longitudinal (E) Survey

Answer: 3

(D) Longitudinal

The tendency for people born in different times to demonstrate different behaviors simply due to environmental changes is known as the _____ effect.

(A) Cross-sectional (B) Temporal (C) Independent samples (D) Longitudinal (E) Cohort

Answer: 4

(E) Cohort

Using IQ scores from 11-year-olds in 1932 and subsequent follow-up tests, Deary et al.

(2004; 2006) found evidence for all of the following, EXCEPT: (A) A main effect of reduced mental test performance at age 80 (B) A 0.66 correlation coefficient between IQ scores at the two time points

(C) No relationship between sex and physical fitness at age 80 (D) A significant relationship between IQ at 11 and physical fitness at age 80 (E) A significance influence of social class on physical fitness at age 80 Answer: 5

(C) No relationship between sex and physical fitness at age 80

Parkinson, Inman, and Dannenbaum (1985) observed that digit span decreased from 6.6 to _____ over the course of a lifetime?

(A) 5.8 (B) 7.2 (C) 4.1 (D) 3.2 (E) 1.8

Answer: 6

(A) 5.8

May, Hasher, and Kane (1999) argued that aging deficits in working memory may result from _____ rather than problems with storage or processing.

(A) Familiarity (B) Interference (C) Concentration (D) Impatience (E) Practice

Answer: 7

(B) Interference

Under practice conditions, Bäckman and Molander (1986) found that both young and older golfers had a slowed heart rate when making a shot. During competition, this occurred only in young golfers. Slowed heart rate was taken as an indication of: (A) Dual-tasking (B) Lower concentration (C) Risk aversion (D) Higher concentration (E) Greater perseveration

Answer: 8

(D) Higher concentration

Craik (2005) identifies two variables that modulate the overall decline in episodic memory performance in the elderly, which include environmental support during retrieval and which other factor?

(A) Processing capacity of the learner (B) Dopamine activation in the learner (C) Social support at the time of retrieval (D) Overall level of fitness in the learner (E) Decrease in the number of competing stimuli at the time of retrieval

Answer: 9

(A) Processing capacity of the learner

Naveh-Benjamin‟s associative deficit hypothesis argues against which idea?

(A) That the elderly suffer motivational deficits in prospective memory (B) That deficits in the ability to form associations between previously unrelated stimuli are purely due to age (C) That intelligence explains why the elderly do not form associative links as well as younger adults (D) That a reduction in brain mass explains why the elderly do not form associative links as well as younger adults (E) None of these

Answer:

(B) That deficits in the ability to form associations between previously unrelated stimuli are purely due to age

10 Identify the reason given for the self-performed task effect: (A) An expanded episodic buffer makes the memory trace more robust.

(B) Use of the method of loci reduces distractibility.

(C) An enriched level of coding across modalities makes the memory trace more robust.

(D) An increased reliance on shallow encoding makes the information easily accessible.

(E) An enriched level of coding permits neural energy to be directed to retrieval.

Answer:

(C) An enriched level of coding across modalities makes the memory trace more robust.

11 The proposal that the age deficit in memory comes from an impaired capacity to form associations between previously unrelated stimuli is called: (A) Suppression-Induced Forgetting (B) Associative Deficit Hypothesis (C) Retrieval-Induced Forgetting (D) Pattern Completion (E) Myelination Answer: :

(B) Associative Deficit Hypothesis

12 Research, including a meta-analysis (Henry, MacLeod, Phillips et al., 2004) shows that which types of prospective memory decline with age?

(A) Both time- and event-based (B) Time-based only (C) Event-based only (D) Retrospective (E) Retrospective and time-based Answer:

(A) Both time- and event-based

13 Mäntylä and Nilsson (1997) demonstrated that 61% of 35- to 45-year-olds could remember to sign a form upon completion of a test session, whereas _____ of 70- to 80-

year-olds followed this instruction.

(A) 0.05 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.7 (E) 0.82 Answer:

(B) 0.25

14 Tan et al. (2017) used which technique to study arterial health of participants aged between 55 and 87?

(A) PET (B) EEG and fMRI (C) Diffuse optical imaging (D) EEG (E) MEG Answer:

(C) Diffuse optical imaging

15 Ihle et al. (2012) used a diary-based approach to study prospective memory in older and younger adults. One of the main findings from the study was that: (A) The younger group used significantly more reminders to complete a list of intended actions.

(B) The older group reported higher stress levels than the young participants.

(C) The older group used significantly more reminders to complete a list of intended actions.

(D) For both age groups, participants remembered to complete a list of intended actions when they rated the actions as having high importance.

(E) None of these Answer:

(D) For both age groups, participants remembered to complete a list of intended actions when they rated the actions as having high importance.

16 Knowledge of historical facts tends to increase with age, although Burke et al. (1991) reported that what declines in tandem?

(A) Goal regulation (B) Interest in history (C) General semantic memory (D) Vocabulary knowledge (E) Speed of access to information Answer:

(E) Speed of access to information

17 Which aspect of human functioning influences prospective memory in everyday life, but may not be apparent in research results?

(A) Avoiding responsibility for remembering important tasks (B) Discriminating between important and trivial pieces of information

(C) Motivation to avoid the negative consequences of forgetting (D) The ability to direct one‟s attention to meaningful items of information (E) None of these Answer:

(C) Motivation to avoid the negative consequences of forgetting

18 Identify the accurate statement regarding episodic and semantic memory processes: (A) Both generally decline at the same rate as we age.

(B) Episodic memory remains stable while semantic memory rapidly declines.

(C) The stability of both processes differs depending on verbal fluency and intelligence.

(D) Episodic memory steadily declines as we age, while semantic memory is maintained.

(E) Nutrition and exercise over a lifetime affect semantic memory but not episodic memory.

Answer:

(D) Episodic memory steadily declines as we age, while semantic memory is maintained.

19 Kramer et al. (1999) studied 124 sedentary but healthy older adults and found the greatest positive effect of which of the following on maintaining cognitive function?

(A) Engaging in a mentally demanding occupation (B) Completing daily crossword puzzles (C) Monthly travel excursions (D) Aerobic walking-based exercise (E) Television programming with greater educational content Answer:

(D) Aerobic walking-based exercise

20 What did Black, Isaacs, Anderson et al. (1990) find in their study of the effects of environmental enrichment and exercise?

(A) Aerobic training was more beneficial to rats‟ memories than nonaerobic training.

(B) Elderly adults exposed to motor skill training showed an increase in synapses in the cerebellum while those exposed to fitness training showed increased vascularization in other brain regions.

(C) Middle-aged adults exposed to motor skill training showed an increase in synapses in the cerebellum while elderly adults showed a decrease in such synapses.

(D) Groups of rats exposed to motor skill and fitness training showed few improvements in memory.

(E) Rats exposed to motor skill training showed an increase in synapses in the cerebellum and those exposed to fitness training showed increased vascularization in other brain regions.

Answer:

(E) Rats exposed to motor skill training showed an increase in synapses in the cerebellum and those exposed to fitness training showed increased vascularization in other brain regions.

21 Salthouse (1996) proposed that the cognitive effects of aging can largely be accounted for by which factor, which has received a good deal of correlational evidence?

(A) Shrinking brain volume (B) Shrinking brain mass (C) Changes in brain neurochemistry

(D) Reduced memory storage (E) Reduced speed of processing Answer:

(E) Reduced speed of processing

22 Which of the following issues discussed in the text is a major criticism of the correlational approach used by Salthouse (1996) and others?

(A) It depends on the particular set of tasks tested.

(B) It depends on the nature and purity of the measure of interest.

(C) It depends on the reliability of the measure of interest.

(D) It depends on the number of observations on which the measurement is based.

(E) All of these Answer:

(E) All of these

23 Squire (1987) reported that the hippocampus loses what percentage of its neurons by the age of 80?

(A) Between 10-15% (B) Between 20-30% (C) Between 60-75% (D) Less than 5% (E) Greater than 75% Answer:

(B) Between 20-30%

24 Cabeza et al. (2004) observed which discrepancy between older and younger adults when performing working memory and visual attention tasks?

(A) Older adults show activity largely confined to the right hemisphere.

(B) Older adults show activity largely confined to the left hemisphere.

(C) Older adults demonstrate a broader spread of activation across the two brain hemispheres.

(D) Younger adults demonstrate more bilateral activation across the two brain hemispheres.

(E) Both older and younger adults use only 10% of the brain on these tasks.

Answer:

(C) Older adults demonstrate a broader spread of activation across the two brain hemispheres.

25 Identify ways in which researchers explore age-related changes in brain function as described in the text: (A) They measure changes in the size of ventricles and the frontal lobes.

(B) They measure changes in the size of ventricles and serotonin release in brain regions.

(C) They use neuroimaging techniques to measure serotonin levels in the bloodstream.

(D) They use neuroimaging techniques to measure activation in brain regions, distribution and operation of dopamine, and hippocampal volume.

(E) None of these

Answer:

1

(D) They use neuroimaging techniques to measure activation in brain regions, distribution and operation of dopamine, and hippocampal volume.

Which of the following deficits did Malcom Meltzer NOT experience?

(A) Failing to recognise his family (B) He didn‟t remember the period during his coma (C) He had difficulty remembering events from just before his attack (D) He could not remember where he put things after returning from the hospital (E) He had problems remembering how to set an alarm clock

Answer: 2

(A) Failing to recognise his family

Assessment is particularly important for all of the following reasons described in the text, EXCEPT: (A) To accurately disseminate research findings (B) To understand the nature and extent of the deficit, compared to healthy individuals (C) To facilitate communication of patient information to other professionals (D) To help plan possible treatment programs (E) To occupy the patient‟s time

Answer:

3

(E) To occupy the patient‟s time

Identify a potential source(s) of memory impairment: (A) Loss of brain tissue from physical trauma (B) A non-penetrating traumatic brain injury (C) Brain damage caused by serious cardiovascular conditions (D) Disruptions in the brain‟s electrophysiology (E) All of these

Answer:

4

(E) All of these

Headaches, cognitive difficulties, and rapid mood changes, including aggression are symptomatic of which condition?

(A) Fugue state (B) Parkinson‟s disease (C) Confabulation (D) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (E) Accelerated long-term forgetting

Answer:

(D) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

5

Identify the accurate statement regarding chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE): (A) Its symptoms are likely to be associated with particular biomarkers that are, in turn, associated with nutritional deficiencies.

(B) Its symptoms are likely to be associated with particular biomarkers that are, in turn, associated with exposure to repeated head contact such as in high-contact sports.

(C) Its symptoms correlate with a significant reduction in brain mass following long-term participation in thrill-seeking activities such as sky-diving.

(D) It became a topic of public concern when US physicians reported a high incidence of cognitive difficulties in American male football players aged between 10 and 15 years.

(E) It became a topic of public concern when UK physicians reported a high incidence of cognitive difficulties in British male rugby players aged between 15 and 20 years.

Answer:

6

(B) Its symptoms are likely to be associated with particular biomarkers that are, in turn, associated with exposure to repeated head contact such as in high-contact sports.

The type of amnesia referring to a problem in encoding, storing, or retrieving ongoing information that can be used in the future is most precisely termed: (A) Anterograde (B) Retrograde (C) Ensuing (D) Regressive (E) Antagonistic

Answer: 7

(A) Anterograde

What is the author‟s position regarding psychological explanations for amnesia?

(A) Amnesia reflects a reduced capacity for deep processing.

(B) Amnesia reflects a greater susceptibility to interference, and consequently, retrieval deficits.

(C) It is likely that amnesia disrupts the capacity to associate a specific event with its context.

(D) Amnesia is a consequence of faster forgetting.

(E) None of these

Answer:

8

(C) It is likely that amnesia disrupts the capacity to associate a specific event with its context.

A movement within memory to extend the study of memory from the confines of the laboratory to the world outside is called: (A) Normal memory (B) Current memory (C) Everyday memory (D) World memory (E) Mainstream memory

Answer: 9

(C)

Everyday memory

A method of treating patients in the latter stages of dementia who have lost their orientation in time and place is called: (A) Imaging reality training (B) Episodic semantic training (C) Rehabilitation semantic training (D) Reality orientation training (E) Imaging orientation training

Answer:

(D) Reality orientation training

10 While amnesic patients may not have difficulty imagining components of future activities, they tend to have difficulty integrating them into a whole, a problem Hassabis and colleagues (2007) attribute to: (A) Limited visual short-term memory span (B) Lack of hope for the future sometimes experienced by depressed amnesic patients (C) Faulty echoic memory (D) The role of the hippocampus in spatial processing as well as memory (E) Damage to the angular gyrus Answer:

(D) The role of the hippocampus in spatial processing as well as memory

11 Baddeley‟s simplified modal model of the amnesic syndrome (1990) assumes all of the following, EXCEPT: (A) The essence of episodic memory is associating items to context with “mnemonic glue” (B) Recall and recognition place the exact same constraints on subsequent retrieval (C) Recall and recognition involve the same underlying storage processes (D) Semantic memories represent the residue accumulated over multiple episodes (E) Semantic memory could be retrieved over a mechanism separate from that of episodic retrieval Answer:

(B) Recall and recognition place the exact same constraints on subsequent retrieval

12 The hypothesis that memory traces are initially fragile and become more resistant to forgetting over time is a neurobiological account of which conditions?

(A) Anterograde and retrograde amnesia (B) Absentmindedness and semantic dementia (C) Everyday memory and confabulation (D) Confabulation and serial lying (E) None of these Answer:

(A) Anterograde and retrograde amnesia

13 Factual knowledge about one‟s own past is called:

(A) Personal semantic memory (B) Personal episodic memory (C) Episodic memory (D) Semantic memory (E) Incidental memory Answer :

(A)

Personal semantic memory

14 All single-case treatment methods involve beginning with a measure of: (A) Intelligence (B) Reaction time prior to actual treatment (C) Visualization abilities (D) Mathematical abilities (E) Baseline performance prior to actual treatment Answer:

(E) Baseline performance prior to actual treatment

15 Stickgold, James and Hobson (2000) and Gaskell and Dumay (2003) provided some of the evidence suggesting that long-term retention is improved when learning is followed by which of these?

(A) Video game play (B) Proactive interference (C) Retroactive interference (D) Sleep (E) Magnetoencephalography Answer:

(D) Sleep

16 Della Sala‟s research group in Edinburgh observed that information retention by amnesic patients was greatly improved if the learning was immediately followed by which of the following?

(A) Heightened sensory stimulation (B) Removal of the patient to a quiet, dim room (C) Standard cognitive tasks related to assessment (D) Deep-brain stimulation (E) Crossword puzzle solving Answer:

(B) Removal of the patient to a quiet, dim room

17 Which type of confabulation tends to be the more florid, less common variety and is often linked to frontal lobe damage?

(A) Prompted (B) Provoked (C) Spontaneous

(D) Situational (E) Psychosomatic Answer:

(C) Spontaneous

18 The process by which information is transferred from the hippocampus to other brain regions is: (A) Systems confabulation (B) Modal confabulation (C) Systems consolidation (D) Localized reorganization (E) Information reestablishment Answer:

(C) Systems consolidation

19 The Multiple Trace Hypothesis argues for a role of the hippocampus in: (A) Both retrieval and encoding (B) Retrieval only (C) Encoding only (D) Neither encoding nor retrieval (E) Only in olfaction Answer:

(A) Both retrieval and encoding

20 When asked the current date, patients with post-traumatic amnesia tend to: (A) Have superior calendrical memory, compared to healthy controls (B) Displace it forwards (C) Provide the correct date (D) Forget what the word “date” means (E) Displace it backwards Answer:

(E) Displace it backwards

21 Having recovered from post-traumatic amnesia, the patient is likely to present: (A) Retrograde amnesia that grows with time (B) Retrograde amnesia that shrinks over time (C) No retrograde amnesia (D) Retrograde amnesia that usually remains fixed over time (E) An inability to recall significant historical events Answer:

(B) Retrograde amnesia that shrinks over time

22 Which memory phenomenon is important theoretically in demonstrating that learning and forgetting are independent processes?

(A) Retrograde amnesia (B) Everyday memory (C) Accelerated long-term forgetting (D) Post-traumatic amnesia (E) Confabulation Answer:

(C) Accelerated long-term forgetting

23 The most prominent cause of senile dementia currently is: (A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (B) Dementia with Lewy bodies (C) Parkinson‟s disease (D) Alzheimer‟s disease (E) Huntington‟s disease Answer:

(D) Alzheimer‟s disease

24 Two cardinal signs of Alzheimer‟s disease are: (A) Increased medial temporal and parietal lobe volume (B) Increase in white blood cell count and hypertension (C) Large tumors and reduced ventricles (D) Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles (E) Sleep apnea and profound headaches Answer:

(D) Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

25 Which of the following is NOT typically true of Alzheimer‟s disease?

(A) The recency effect in free recall tends to be preserved in the earlier stages.

(B) Episodic memory deficits are particularly marked.

(C) Cognitive decline may occur with well-preserved social and emotional skills.

(D) Their impaired episodic memory tends to lead to faster forgetting.

(E) Ability to perform two tasks at the same time is particularly impaired.

Answer:

(D) Their impaired memory tends to lead to faster forgetting.

26 Atrophy related to semantic dementia principally occurs in the: (A) Left temporal lobe (B) Medial temporal lobe (C) Right frontal lobe (D) Posterior cingulate cortex (E) Anterior cingulate cortex

Answer:

(A) Left temporal lobe

27 Which of the following is specifically designed to help patients with Alzheimer‟s disease maintain a sense of personal identity by recollecting their past in the form of a life story book, for example?

(A) Rivastigmine (B) Reality orientation training (C) Reminiscence therapy (D) Exposure therapy (E) Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) Answer:

1

(C) Reminiscence therapy

The finding that there is generally a higher probability that distinctive items will be recalled, relative to non-distinctive ones, has become known as the: (A) Simon effect (B) Generation effect (C) Spacing effect (D) von Restorff effect (E) Gestalt effect

Answer: 2

(D) von Restorff effect

Identify the accurate statement regarding the role of distinctiveness in memory: (A) Distinctiveness enhances recall and long-term memory.

(B) Research has shown that distinctiveness plays a role in memory in studies using word lists.

(C) Research has shown that distinctiveness plays a role in memory in studies using name and face recognition.

(D) The phenomenon that distinctive words were more likely to be remembered than nondistinctive ones was initially described by von Restorff (1933).

(E) All of these

Answer: 3

(E) All of these

Chee and Goh (2018) concluded that their findings supported which of Eysenck‟s theoretical statements (1972, 1979) about the von Restorff effect?

(A) That distinctiveness impedes long-term memory (B) That retrieval cues uniquely associated with a single distinctive item enhances our ability to discriminate between the correct memory trace and incorrect ones during retrieval (C) That recall is better for distinctive items than nondistinctive ones because they attract more attention at encoding.

(D) That distinctiveness enhances long-term memory for visual stimuli only (E) None of these

Answer:

(B) That retrieval cues uniquely associated with a single distinctive item enhances our ability to

discriminate between the correct memory trace and incorrect ones during retrieval 4

The use of visual imagery can be particularly hampered by introducing an interfering task of which sort?

(A) Auditory (B) Verbal (C) Spatial (D) Olfactory (E) Synesthetic

Answer: 5

(C) Spatial

Visualization, using physical location as an aid to memory, and „looking‟ by using what is in the „mind‟s eye‟ together refer to which classical mnemonics system?

(A) von Restorff recall (B) Visual rehearsal (C) The method of visual mapping (D) The method of loci (E) Imagined navigation

Answer: 6

(D) The method of loci

In light of the meta-analysis of studies on the method of loci from Twomey and Kroneisen (2021), what does the author conclude regarding this method?

(A) Evidence that this method is effective in increasing long-term memory must be considered in the context of limitations with the studies that were included in the meta-analysis.

(B) Evidence that this method is effective in increasing long-term memory suggests that it should be formally implemented in educational settings.

(C) The use of a method reliant on physical location is outdated in today‟s digital world.

(D) The effectiveness of this method is actually largely due to imagined navigation.

(E) None of these

Answer:

7

(A) Evidence that this method is effective in increasing long-term memory must be considered in the context of limitations with the studies that were included in the meta-analysis.

Beni, Moè, and Cornoldi (1997) found that: (A) There was no difference learning strategy when the text was in written form at the long delay (B) The method of loci was better than rehearsal following oral presentation at a short delay (C) The method of loci was better than rehearsal following oral presentation at a long delay (D) There was no difference learning strategy when the text was in written form at the short delay (E) All of these

Answer: 8

(E) All of these

“Heaven” is the pegword provided in the text for which of the following:

(A) Five (B) One (C) Three (D) Two (E) None of these Answer: 9

(E) None of these

Morris, Fritz, Jackson, Nichol, and Roberts (2005) invited students to a party with instructions to learn the names of the other attendees. Students in which group recalled the most names after a delay of 24-72 hours?

(A) Those given no instructions at all (no specific strategy group) (B) Those instructed to simply learn people‟s names (control group) (C) Those instructed to use face-name mnemonics (face-name mnemonics group) (D) Those instructed to use face-name mnemonics and to retrieve the names at increasing intervals after hearing them first (expanded retrieval practice group) (E) Those told to focus on name distinctiveness (distinctiveness group)

Answer:

10

(D) Those instructed to use face-name mnemonics and to retrieve the names at increasing intervals after hearing them first (expanded retrieval practice group)

The author advises the use of which practice(s) to increase one‟s ability to remember people‟s names?

(A) Associate each name with a meaningful entity, for example the name of a pet.

(B) Use silent verbal rehearsal.

(C) Emphasize distinctive facial features or other distinctive physical features paired with retrieval practice.

(D) Use silent verbal rehearsal with eyes open and then with eyes closed.

(E) Set each name to a favorite melody so that the name and melody are encoded together and lead to easier retrieval.

Answer:

11

(D) Emphasize distinctive facial features or other distinctive physical features paired with retrieval practice.

Hu, Ericsson, Yang, and Lu (2009) reported that mnemonist Chao Lu‟s ability to recite so many digits of pi was based primarily on which type of strategy?

(A) Pegword (B) Story mnemonic (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Acronym (E) Method of loci

Answer: 12

(B) Story mnemonic

A greater degree of spatial knowledge of Helsinki streets accounts for which finding in street name recall among taxi cab drivers and students (Kalakoski and Saairluoma, 2001)?

(A) Better recall among cab drivers for names presented in an order forming a spatially continuous physical route; no difference in name recall between groups for street names presented in a random order.

(B) Better recall among students for names presented in an order forming a spatially continuous physical route; no difference in name recall between groups for street names presented in a random order.

(C) Better recall among cab drivers for names presented alphabetically; no difference in name recall between groups for street names presented in a random order.

(D) Better recall among students for names presented alphabetically; no difference in name recall between groups for street names presented in a random order.

(E) There was no recall difference between taxi drivers and students in either condition.

Answer:

13

(A) Better recall among cab drivers for names presented in an order forming a spatially continuous physical route; no difference in name recall between groups for street names presented in a random order.

What are Ericsson‟s (1988) requirements for achieving an exceptional memory skill?

(A) Flexibility, motivation, and meaning (B) Practice, practice, and practice (C) Training, practice, and innate skill (D) Meaningful encoding, retrieval structure, and speed-up (E) Retrieval structure, flexibility, and training

Answer: 14

(D) Meaningful encoding, retrieval structure, and speed-up

Ericsson and Kintsch (1995) introduced the notion of long-term working memory, which would permit someone to access information in long-term memory through _________ in working memory.

(A) Retrieval cues (B) Sensory gates (C) Nodes (D) Inhibitory interneurons (E) Stabilization factors

Answer: 15

(A) Retrieval cues

Brain-training programs are aimed at enhancing which aspect of memory?

(A) The capacity and efficiency of working memory (B) The capacity and efficiency of encoding (C) Memory for historical and autobiographical events (D) Memory developed through conditioned responses (E) Memory for cause-and-effect relationships

Answer: 16

(A) The capacity and efficiency of working memory

One deficiency of brain-training programs as a means to improve working memory is that they: (A) Have not received enough government funding

(B) Have not been implemented frequently enough with non-English speaking populations (C) Seem to benefit attentional processes rather than memory (D) Produce benefits that are not long-lasting ones (E) Are expensive to implement beyond their use in studies with university students Answer:

17

(D) Produce benefits that are not long-lasting ones

Which researcher famously studied the Russian mnemonist, Solomon Shereshevskii?

(A) Sigmund Freud (B) Alexander Luria (C) Ivan Pavlov (D) Donald Hebb (E) Feng Weng

Answer: 18

(B) Alexander Luria

When presented with a tone having a pitch of 2,000 cycles per second, Shereshevskii claimed to exhibit synesthesia, in that he said he experienced: (A) A quiet hum (B) A 1000 Hz tone (C) A 150 Hz tone (D) Fireworks tinged with a pink-red hue and having an ugly taste (E) A loud buzz

Answer: 19

(D) Fireworks tinged with a pink-red hue and having an ugly taste

Which study finding suggests that excellent memory can be developed through training?

(A) Greater recall among participants who constructed narrative stories compared with those who had not (Bower and Clark, 1969) (B) Greater recall among taxi cab drivers compared with students when shown street names in an order forming a spatially continuous route through Helsinki (Kalakoski and Saariluoma, 2001) (C) Greater recall among students compared with taxi cab drivers when shown street names in an order forming a spatially continuous route through Helsinki (Kalakoski and Saariluoma, 2001) (D) Better performance on strategic tasks among participants who reported frequent use of memory strategies compared with those who reported a naturally superior memory from childhood (Wilding and Valentine, 1994) (E) None of these

Answer:

20

(D) Better performance on strategic tasks among participants who reported frequent use of memory strategies compared with those who reported a naturally superior memory from childhood (Wilding and Valentine, 1994)

Identify the accurate statement regarding individuals who possess highly superior autobiographical memory: (A) They often suffer from clinical depression.

(B) They often show obsessional characteristics.

(C) Their memory skills peak between 20 and 30 years of age.

(D) They typically demonstrate a very high degree of intelligence.

(E) They often are born into families with many children.

Answer:

21

(B) They often show obsessional characteristics.

Which factor may explain memory in super-recognizers, per Russell, Duchaine, and Nakayama (2009): (A) Synesthesia (B) Emotional intelligence (C) Birth order (D) Genetics (E) None of these

Answer:

22

(D) Genetics

Which of the following represents learning techniques ordered from low to high in usefulness, according to Dunlosky and colleagues (2013)?

(A) Summarization, self-explanation, testing effect (B) Elaborative interrogation, re-reading, imagery for text (C) Self-explanation, testing effect, summarization (D) Testing effect, re-reading, self-explanation (E) Re-reading, interleaved practice, imagery from text

Answer:

23

(A) Summarization, self-explanation, testing effect

Karpicke, Butler, and Roediger (2009) found that most of their student sample selected which of the following as their chosen method to most effectively study material?

(A) Test themselves on material from the chapter, without restudying (B) Go back and restudy the entire chapter (C) Read the chapter aloud quickly (D) Listen to a recording of the chapter while sleeping (E) None of these

Answer: 24

(B) Go back and restudy the entire chapter

As Gobet (2016, p. 40) pointed out, “Mnemonics work by using LTM [long- term memory] as a means to compensate for the limited capacity of STM [short- term memory] by creating what are known as_______________” : (A) Retrieval structures (B) Retrieval cues

(C) Memory structures (D) Forgetting barriers (E) Retrieval facilitation effects Answer: 25

Retrieval structures

Identify three factors central to theories of the testing effect as described in the text: (A)

Motivation, transfer-appropriate processing, and retrieval effort

(B)

Intelligence, verbal skills, and attentional processes

(C)

Attentional processes, self-discipline, and retrieval effort

(D)

Attentional processes, transfer-appropriate processing, and naturally superior encoding ability

(E)

None of these

Answer: 26

(A)

(A) Motivation, transfer-appropriate processing, and retrieval effort

Studying material shortly after initially studying it is not actually beneficial to memory. Why? (A) The material has not yet been transferred to long-term memory storage.

(B) The material has not yet had enough time to be properly encoded.

(C) We have not had enough time to develop a sufficient concept map of the material.

(D) Our interest level in the material has decreased and we are less invested in learning.

(E) We tend to quickly and superficially process material we‟ve just learned.

Answer:

(E) We tend to quickly and superficially process material we‟ve just learned.