Test Bank For Introduction to Hospitality, Global Edition, 9th Edition By John R. Walker

Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 1 Introducing Hospitality 1) The word hospitality comes from A) hospital.

B) inns and taverns.

C) hospice.

D) All of the above.

Answer: C 2) Since its introduction, the pineapple has been internationally recognized as A) non-nutritional.

B) a widely used vegetable in the southwest.

C) a symbol of hospitality.

D) a symbol of danger.

Answer: C 3) Key to being successful in the hospitality industry is A) being service-oriented.

B) waiting tables.

C) knowing how to cook.

D) bartending skills.

Answer: A 4) Intangible means A) something the guest uses but does not possess.

B) assets of the business.

C) a souvenir purchased as a gift.

D) physical property.

Answer: A 5) In the hospitality industry, the concept of perishability means A) spoiled food that must be discarded.

B) an unsold airline seat, hotel room, or empty restaurant table.

C) it cannot be measured.

D) it is intangible.

Answer: B 6) Inseparability refers to A) the fact that production and consumption occur independently.

B) hospitality products being inherently heterogeneous.

C) the fact that production and consumption occur simultaneously.

D) hospitality products are tangible.

Answer: C

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7) Each of the following is a characteristic of the Hospitality Industry except A) characterized by shift work.

B) the service product and the guest are separate.

C) no such thing as business hours.

D) product is intangible and perishable.

Answer: B 8) Mention of hospitality is found in writing dating back to A) Medieval times.

B) the Sumerians.

C) Ancient Greece and Rom. D) the Silk Road.

Answer: B 9) Anyone who receives or benefits from the output of someone's work is a(n) A) internal guest.

B) employee.

C) vendor.

D) guest.

Answer: A 10) Internal customers are A) the employees.

B) restaurant dining room customers.

C) loyal customers who return often.

D) hotel guests.

Answer: A 11) Quality guest service requires that we A) increase service advertising.

B) prioritize our profit motive.

C) focus on food quality.

D) understand our guests' needs.

Answer: D 12) Associate empowerment leads to A) increased guest satisfaction.

B) increased productivity.

C) the Ritz-Carlton associates spending up to $2,000 to make a guest completely happy.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

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13) Empowerment is A) delegated to management only.

B) a process that eliminates the need for management.

C) allowing all employees to make any decision they want.

D) a feeling of partnership in which employees feel responsible for their jobs and have a stake in the organization's success.

Answer: D 14) The central focus in hospitality is A) guest service.

B) attitude.

C) communication.

D) provide a big profit.

Answer: A 15) Corporate philosophy A) embraces the values of the organization.

B) embraces the values of guests including ethics and equality.

C) embraces the values of the associates including ethics, morals, fairness, and equality.

D) Both A and C. Answer: A 16) Recruiters are looking for A) creativity.

B) well-rounded candidates.

C) honesty.

D) service-oriented people.

Answer: D 17) The concept of protecting the natural resources of the planet while achieving corporate profitability is known as A) perishability.

B) operational values.

C) sustainability.

D) productivity.

Answer: C 18) In the United States, which tavern was the Revolutionary Headquarters of General George Washington?

A) Coles Ordinary B) Fraunces C) Krieger's D) Both A and C Answer: B

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19) Who is regarded as the father of the modern restaurant?

A) Pot au Feu B) Thomas Jefferson C) August Escoffier D) M. Boulanger Answer: D 20) In the hospitality industry, the reason we are in business is A) to make a return on investment.

B) for society.

C) for non-consumers.

D) Both A and C. Answer: A 21) What is the reason for success in the hospitality industry?

A) Handling guest complaints B) Being of assistance to all guests C) Service, service, service D) Both A and C Answer: C 22) Pineapples are A) displayed on bedroom doors.

B) an exotic fruit reserved for hospitality students.

C) a symbol of hospitality.

D) Both A and C Answer: D 23) The heart of the house is A) the front desk.

B) the concierge.

C) the doorman.

D) behind the scenes.

Answer: D 24) In the hospitality industry, our services are mostly A) intangible.

B) tangible.

C) inseparable.

D) Both A and C. Answer: A

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25) Another unique dimension of our industry is A) sold seats go unused.

B) empty cabins are paid for.

C) sustainability.

D) perishability.

Answer: D 26) Using the four facets of the hospitality industry (travel, lodging, foodservice, and recreation), differentiate between the methods of service offered to customers. Use specific examples.

Answer: Student answers will vary according to specific type of service they choose from each facet.

27) Compare and contrast your ideal weekly work schedule with that of a typical manager in the hospitality field. Where are the main differences and how does the hospitality industry justify the differences.

Answer: Most students will note their perfect schedule as Monday—Friday 9 a.m.-5 p.m. with weekends and holidays off. The reality of a 60- to 70-hour workweek and holidays being the busiest days is not the most appealing schedule for young people. The rationale has been that the service the hospitality industry offers best is convenience, yet convenience to the guest does not always mean convenience to the provider.

28) You are a service leader for a national airline preparing to leave on a transcontinental flight from Atlanta to Los Angeles. List the "moments of truth" your customer will encounter from the time they arrive at the terminal to the time they land in LA. Answer: The list will vary from student to student, depending on their perspective. Some lists will be all inclusive and some will be more limited to the moments that they are more passionate about. Stress the importance of every nuance of the service experience.

29) Using the concept of "sustainability," describe at least three goals your hotel may target that will help to ensure a healthy and protected local environment and also achieve economic prosperity.

Answer: The student should focus their answer on water conservation, solid waste management, alternative power, and reduction of energy. They should discuss the effectiveness of a cost-effective program versus a sustained profitability. Students should also include a discussion about how the program may enable guest loyalty.

30) You are the owner of a new hotel chain. Outline the corporate culture you hope to create for your employees. Give examples.

Answer: Students should outline how they want their employees to view them as a manager, how they intend to treat their employees, and the importance of the customer in the day-to-day implementation of a cultural philosophy.

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31) Discuss the pros and cons of an internship program, a job-shadowing program, and a mentoring program. Which do you think is most effective and why?

Answer: Students will look at each program with a variety of pros and cons. Internships are often viewed as an opportunity for "real world" experience, but if they are not managed properly, students often fall into the "gopher " role. Shadowing is effective for a short-term glimpse into the industry, but the experience is exactly that: short term. Mentoring is usually most effective as part of the new employee orientation process.

32) You are being interviewed for an entry-level management position with a cruise line.

Generate a list of five questions that you think would best allow you to portray yourself as the perfect candidate for the job.

Answer: The common answers here will center around the proverbial "What are your strengths and weaknesses?" and "What makes you the best candidate for the job?" Encourage students to ask more open-ended questions that allow them the flexibility to showcase those strengths and minimize the weaknesses.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 2 The Hotel Business 1) Purchasing the right to use a company's trademark to expand more rapidly and use copyrighted materials is known as A) leasing.

B) syndication.

C) franchising.

D) a partnership.

Answer: C 2) Hotel companies are increasingly opting for ________ because considerably less capital is tied up in managing as compared to ownership.

A) real estate investment trusts B) management companies C) referral companies D) franchising Answer: B 3) In franchising, the franchisee is granted rights to A) use trademarks, operating procedures, and other business procedures.

B) full ownership of the land.

C) change the name of the business.

D) full ownership of the building.

Answer: A 4) The primary growth and development strategy of hotels during the 1960s was A) referral associations.

B) real estate investment trusts.

C) management contracts.

D) franchising.

Answer: D 5) Franchasie Central reservations generally produce A) between 17 and 26 percent of reservations.

B) between 8 and 18 percent of reservations.

C) between 12 and 22 percent of reservations.

D) between 14 and 28 percent of reservations.

Answer: A 6) The lack of operational power, high fees, and low percentage of reservations from the central reservation system are all ________ of franchising.

A) bonuses B) benefits C) trends D) drawbacks Answer: D 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) The benefits of franchising include all of the following except A) set of plans and specifications for building.

B) participating in the volume purchasing discounts.

C) high fee percentages charged by credit card companies.

D) national advertising.

Answer: C 8) Hotels and motels that are part of a ________ share a centralized reservation system and a common image, logo, or advertising slogan.

A) franchise B) referral association C) REIT D) proprietorship Answer: B 9) In this type of "ownership," investors do not pay corporate income tax; however, they distribute the majority of net income to shareholders and are publicly traded.

A) Partnerships B) Franchises C) Independent ownership D) Real estate investment trusts Answer: D 10) Marriott builds a hotel for $34 million and sells it to a banking firm for $52 million. Marriott charges the banking firm 2 to 4 percent of gross revenues to operate the hotel. This business transaction is known as A) REIT. B) management contract.

C) franchising.

D) investment partnership.

Answer: B 11) Corporations that operate a hotel without capital outlay in exchange for a percentage of gross sales are known as A) vacation brokers.

B) franchisees.

C) management companies.

D) leasing companies.

Answer: C 12) An organization that rates and classifies hotels and awards them Diamonds is the A) American Hotel & Motel Association.

B) U.S. Automobile Club.

C) American Automobile Association.

D) Exxon Excellence Association.

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13) Hotels may be classified by A) size.

B) location, price, and service.

C) country.

D) type of recreational facilities.

Answer: B 14) Examples of hotel location include A) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast.

B) luxury, all suites, economy, budget.

C) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service.

D) city, resort, airport, freeway.

Answer: D 15) Examples of hotel price classification include A) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service.

B) city, resort, airport, freeway.

C) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast.

D) luxury, all suites, economy, budget.

Answer: D 16) Examples of hotel level of service classification include A) full service, mid-scale, extended stay, limited service.

B) city, resort, airport, freeway.

C) luxury, all suites, economy, budget.

D) spa, convention, casino, bed and breakfast.

Answer: A 17) To determine if a hotel development project would likely succeed, we would perform a(n) A) operating assessment.

B) trust initiative.

C) feasibility study.

D) property appraisal.

Answer: C 18) Airport hotels A) are often smaller, budget hotels.

B) are generally not full service.

C) range from 200 to 600 rooms with full service.

D) face less competition than other types of hotels.

Answer: C

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19) Casino hotels A) are marketing themselves as business hotels.

B) are becoming more family friendly.

C) are focusing more on the budget traveler.

D) make more money from gaming than from rooms.

Answer: A 20) All of the following are characteristics of airport hotels except A) budget focused.

B) 200 to 600 rooms.

C) full service.

D) airport shuttle service.

Answer: A 21) Hotels that are a cross between a chain and a marketing group for independent hotels are classified as A) corporate hotels.

B) independent hotels.

C) chain hotels.

D) quasi-chain.

Answer: D 22) City center, resort, airport, and freeway are all examples of hotels being classified by A) price.

B) location.

C) service.

D) amenities.

Answer: B 23) Hotels that are typically furnished, have a well-stocked kitchen, and cater to guests staying for longer periods of time are A) boutique hotels.

B) convention hotels.

C) full-service hotels.

D) extended-stay hotels.

Answer: D 24) Mixed-use hotel development indicates that a hotel A) may also have residences.

B) is near transportation.

C) can be used for meetings and lodging.

D) serves food.

Answer: A

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25) As the hotel industry matures, corporations are either acquiring or merging with each other.

This is A) consolidation.

B) diversification.

C) safety and security.

D) capacity control.

Answer: A 26) List five factors involved in the growth of franchising.

Answer: Fresh look–curb appeal Location–near highways, airports, and suburbs Expansion in smaller cities throughout the United States New markets–located in proximity to golf courses and other attractions Foreign expansion–increasing brand awareness 27) List three popular forms of ownership used in the lodging industry that allow for rapid expansion.

Answer: Franchising, management contracts, and REITs 28) Compare and contrast the following concepts: franchise, partnership, leasing, and syndication.

Answer: Students should cover the positive aspects of each (liability issues, initial investment, and freedom to manage). The negatives will mirror the positives (liability, overinvestment, and limited freedom to manage).

29) Of the ten hotel classifications, select five and give a general description of the types of hotels in each segment. Be sure to include price, location, and degree of service and target market.

Answer: The text lists the classifications of hotels. Students should select five of those classifications on the list and give an outline of the segment. Answers will vary depending on which five they select.

30) List the six main types of hotels by price segment and give two examples of each. Outline a general profile of the typical customer for each segment.

Answer: In this question, the student needs to look at the needs and wants of the customer in each price range. The primary focus is the hotel meeting the customer's expectations. For example, a person looking for a budget hotel is most like price sensitive, needing a room for one night, and is in transit from one destination to another.

31) Discuss marketability of the sustainable hotel industry. Discuss costs versus a standard hotel, guest demographic, and the positive or negative impact in the local community.

Answer: The student may discuss the cost of building a sustainable building versus the cost saving in energy: gas, electric, air conditioning, water conservation, and waste disposal.

Marketing the hotel as a LEED certified structure to conservation-minded, conscientious guests may find a new guest base. Using local materials and leaving a small "footprint" in the environment can foster partnerships with the local community and result in positive public relations which translates to low-cost marketing opportunities.

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32) You own a three-star hotel in an upscale area of town and find it necessary to upgrade to four-star to be competitive in your market. List and describe how you intend to accomplish the upgrade.

Answer: Student answers should reflect the various rating systems, the rating system requirements, and the projected impact on occupancy. Discussions will hover around hotel infrastructure upgrades, training of staff, technology, décor, menu selection, etc. In general, the type of clientele will change and the hotel must upgrade all services to accommodate the new guest.

The discussion may also involve which of the several rating agencies to focus efforts on. AAA, Forbes, and Smith Travel each have their economic-minded followers.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 3 Rooms Division 1) The executive committee of a hotel is A) made up of key executives who head major departments.

B) the top three executives in the hotel.

C) the general manager and executive housekeeper.

D) the general manager and director of sales.

Answer: A 2) The ultimate responsibility and authority of running a hotel rests with the A) front office manager.

B) executive committee.

C) general manager.

D) regional vice president.

Answer: C 3) Which of the following would not be considered a hotel department?

A) Food and beverage B) Front office C) Property management system D) Housekeeping Answer: C 4) The front office, housekeeping, security, and communications all fall under what department?

A) Night auditor B) Comptroller division C) Concierge D) Rooms division Answer: D 5) The area of a hotel most often described as the nerve center or hub of a hotel is A) the front office.

B) banquets.

C) the night auditor.

D) housekeeping.

Answer: A 6) The basic functions of the front office include all of the following except A) reviewing the previous night's ADR and occupancy.

B) maintaining sales and catering records.

C) reviewing arrivals and departures.

D) staffing and scheduling.

Answer: B

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7) When selling rooms, a front desk associate might try to "upsell." This means A) selling the room at the rack rate.

B) honoring a guest's discount coupon.

C) suggestively selling the features of a larger room, a higher floor, or perhaps a better view.

D) providing a discount rate.

Answer: C 8) The more common name for a guest's account is A) a file.

B) open ledger.

C) folio.

D) rewards account.

Answer: C 9) Guest folios are typically managed by A) the general manager.

B) concierge.

C) sales department.

D) hotel property management system.

Answer: D 10) Special hotel accounts for a company that has established credit with a hotel are called A) city ledger.

B) city rates.

C) block rates.

D) city folios.

Answer: A 11) The individual responsible for the task of balancing the guests accounts receivables is the A) front office manager.

B) guest services agent.

C) night auditor.

D) front desk manager.

Answer: C 12) The Hotel California has 642 rooms and 413 are occupied. The occupancy percentage is A) 64%.

B) 60%.

C) 73%.

D) 32%.

Answer: A

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13) The Hotel California has 642 rooms with 413 occupied and the room revenue is $84,593.

The REV PAR is A) $131.76.

B) $130.94.

C) $83.91.

D) $215.45.

Answer: A 14) The daily report performed by the night auditor contains key operating ratios used by management including A) previous evening's banquets.

B) total number of rooms in the hotel.

C) room occupancy percentage.

D) front office schedule.

Answer: C 15) Allocating the right type of room to the right guest at the right price is the job of A) the concierge.

B) the revenue management system.

C) the sales department.

D) the point-of-sale system.

Answer: B 16) Room occupancy percentage, or ROP, is A) room cost divided by room sales.

B) total rooms occupied divided by total available rooms.

C) room revenue divided by number of rooms sold.

D) total rooms available divided by number of rooms sold.

Answer: B 17) Average daily room rate is A) total rooms occupied divided by total available rooms.

B) total rooms available divided by number of rooms sold.

C) room cost divided by room sales.

D) room revenue divided by number of rooms sold.

Answer: D 18) Hotels can avoid overselling (overbooking) rooms by too large a margin by using a(n) A) point-of-sale system.

B) call accounting system.

C) central reservation system.

D) energy management system.

Answer: C

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19) One of the most important concerns for guests in a hotel is A) cost of the room.

B) security.

C) food and beverage.

D) in-room movies.

Answer: B 20) Property management systems are designed to assist front office employees in performing functions related to what tasks?

A) Guests' meeting schedules B) Restaurant reservations C) Reservations, rooms, and guest account management D) Catering and banquet reservations Answer: C 21) A demand-forecasting technique used to maximize room revenue is known as A) return on investment.

B) property management system.

C) upselling.

D) revenue management.

Answer: D 22) Rack rate is A) discounted room rates.

B) the price a room is sold for.

C) revenue management.

D) the highest published room rate.

Answer: D 23) The purpose of revenue management is to A) monitor hotel restaurant and room service profitability.

B) assist housekeeping in scheduling.

C) sell more rooms at discounted rates.

D) increase profitability.

Answer: D 24) In house and guest communications in a hotel are managed by A) the F.O.M. B) point-of-sales systems.

C) CBX or PBX. D) the sales department.

Answer: C

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25) The person at a desk in the lobby of a hotel who assists guests with restaurant reservations, directions, tickets to shows and other advice is the A) concierge.

B) front desk associate.

C) rooms manager.

D) bell captain.

Answer: A 26) List the members of the executive committee of a large hotel. What is the purpose of this committee?

Answer: Directors of HR, F&B, rooms division, security, marketing and sales, engineering, and accounting. The purpose of the committee is to compile the hotel's occupancy forecast together with all revenues and expenses to make up the budget. They meet regularly to discuss guest and employee satisfaction, TQM, occupancy forecasts, sales and marketing plans, training, renovations, ownership relations, energy conservation, recycling, new legislation, security, and profitability.

27) List and describe the duties of the front office manager.

Answer: Review night audit, previous night occupancy, average rates; compare market mix; check complimentary rooms; verify group rooms activity; review arrivals and departures; review VIP list and prepare preregistration; attend rooms divisions and operations meetings; make staffing adjustments as necessary; meet with guest service associates.

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28) Describe the duties of the night auditor.

Answer: 1. The night audit team runs a preliminary reconciliation report that shows the total revenue generated from room and tax, banquets and catering, food and beverage outlets, and other incidentals (phone, gift shop, etc.).

2. All errors on the report are investigated.

3. All changes are posted and balanced with the preliminary charges.

4. A comparison of charges is carried out, matching preliminary with actual charges.

5. Totals for credit card charges, rooms operations, food and beverages, and incidentals are verified.

6. The team "rolls the date"–they go forward to the next day.

Other duties of the night audit staff include the following: 1. Post any charges that the evening shift was not able to post.

2. Pass discrepancies to shift managers in the morning. The room and tax charges are then posted to each folio and a new balance shown.

3. Run backup reports so that if the computer system fails, the hotel will have up-to-date information to operate a manual system.

4. Reconcile point-of-sale and PMS to guest accounts. If this does not balance, the auditor must balance it by investigating errors or omissions. This is done by checking that every departmental charge shows up on guest folios.

5. Complete and distribute the daily report. This report details the previous day's activities and includes vital information about the performance of the hotel.

6. Determine areas of the hotel where theft could potentially occur.

29) The Hotel Walker is a luxury downtown property that includes lush suites and a five-star restaurant. The hotel has 750 rooms available with 680 of the rooms occupied. What is the room occupancy percentage of Hotel Walker?

Answer: 90.6% 30) Hotel Walker has had a very successful weekend, booking the majority of its rooms at close to rack rates. Room revenue for Saturday alone was $125,550 with 700 of the rooms sold for that evening. What was the average daily rate for Saturday at Hotel Walker?

Answer: $179.36 31) Compare the management structure of a 300+ room resort hotel to that of a 75-room freeway hotel. Outline the reasons for the differences and discuss how one could argue that the responsibility of the general manager would be comparable in either setting.

Answer: Students should draw the conclusion that no matter how large a hotel is, the function of the manager is basically the same. Jobs still need to get done, there are just less people to do them. The larger hotel most likely will host a food and beverage director, a director of housekeeping and a security team, whereas the smaller hotel may have vending, a limited housekeeping staff and a part-time security guard.

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32) Discuss the importance of keeping an accurate record of ADR and ROP. In what areas is this information used in the strategic planning of the hotel's operations?

Answer: Students should acknowledge that ADR is an industry standard, as is occupancy percentage. Finding the average for your area is critical in planning, and in setting and meeting goals. Also, the ROP is crucial when planning staffing needs and forecasting needs.

33) List the steps in the guest cycle. Is one step more important than another? Why or why not?

Answer: No one step is more important than another, but each is critical to the end result. If a customer makes a reservation with a pleasant, helpful person at the reservation center and then checks in to find someone having a bad day, the good experience is forgotten. This is why we call the experience a "cycle." Everything plays into one another for the complete circle.

34) Make an argument that the night auditor and the housekeeper are the backbone of hotel operations.

Answer: The night auditor's role of billing and recording all financial transactions is critical to the financial success of the operation. The housekeeper's role of keeping the hotel aesthetically appealing is equally important. Hotel customers are interested in two primary areas, cost, and cleanliness.

35) Discuss the concept of revenue management. Under what specific conditions can it be applied? Some critics of the concept argue that yield management is a form of legal discrimination. Do you agree or disagree? Justify your answer.

Answer: The idea of charging different prices for the same product is controversial until you place the conditions on the concept. Having a perishable item (seat on a plane) that needs to be sold or the revenue lost is a risky business. What is wrong with an airline rewarding early buyers with lower rates?

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 4 Hotel Food and Beverage 1) All of the following are included in the Food and Beverage Division except A) stewarding.

B) room service.

C) housekeeping.

D) banquets.

Answer: C 2) Labor cost benchmarks are measured by A) comparing individual hotel food outlets.

B) covers-per-person-hour.

C) food cost compared to labor cost.

D) dividing labor costs by food costs.

Answer: B 3) The second in command in the kitchen is called the A) chef tournant.

B) executive chef.

C) station chef.

D) sous chef.

Answer: D 4) An acceptable profit margin for food in many hotels is ________ percent.

A) 30 to 35 B) 20 to 25 C) 25 to 30 D) 28 to 32 Answer: C 5) The dollar differential between the cost and sales price of a menu item is called A) labor cost.

B) food cost.

C) contribution margin.

D) profit margin.

Answer: C 6) Introduced by Escoffier, this kitchen system organizes work stations more effectively.

A) Squad B) Team C) Task force D) Brigade Answer: D

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7) Hotel restaurants present a challenge to Food and Beverage directors because A) guests generally prefer room service.

B) hotel food is usually not as good as name brand establishments.

C) menus are limited.

D) guests needs are unpredictable.

Answer: D 8) The sale price of a steak dinner is $22.95 and the cost is $5.45; the contribution margin is A) $13.72.

B) 23.7%.

C) $28.40.

D) $17.50.

Answer: D 9) Food and Beverage directors expect a pour cost of A) 14 to 16 percent.

B) 20 to 27 percent.

C) 12 to 14 percent.

D) 16 to 24 percent.

Answer: D 10) The capture rate is defined as the number of guests A) staying at the hotel who dine in the hotel's restaurant.

B) attending a banquet.

C) dining at the restaurant that are not hotel guests.

D) drinking in the bar.

Answer: A 11) Responsibilities of the chief steward include which of the following?

A) Cleanliness of the front of the house B) Coordination of pest control C) Cleanliness of guest rooms D) Supervising the kitchen staff Answer: B 12) A banquet refers to a A) large group of people who eat together at one time in one place.

B) dinner party in a private home.

C) candlelight dinner for two.

D) group of people eating a lunch at the zoo.

Answer: A

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13) The Catering Director normally works with the following people except the A) Executive Chef.

B) Food and Beverage Director.

C) Director of Sales.

D) Director of Housekeeping.

Answer: D 14) The cost of depleted inventory for a cocktail is $0.74 and the selling price is $3.75. What is the pour cost percentage?

A) 23.4% B) 21.7% C) 14.3% D) 19.7% Answer: D 15) Theatre-style seating is best for A) training.

B) a lecture.

C) a board meeting.

D) a workshop.

Answer: B 16) One method to prevent pilferage in a bar is to use A) cash registers.

B) coupons or tokens.

C) higher drink prices.

D) shoppers.

Answer: D 17) Bar efficiency is measured by A) pour/cost percentage.

B) total bartender hours.

C) contribution margins.

D) profit margins on spirits.

Answer: A 18) Room service is typically found in A) large city center hotels.

B) freeway hotels.

C) extended stay hotels.

D) midscale hotels.

Answer: A

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19) The document prepared for the catering department to follow that contains all of the critical information about the event is the A) chart of events.

B) banquet diagram.

C) catering event order.

D) catering plan.

Answer: C 20) The hotel requires the number of guests attending a catering function at least seven days in advance. This number is called the A) certification.

B) agreement.

C) pledge.

D) guarantee.

Answer: D 21) Some hotels have a policy of preparing ________ more meals than the number attending a function to accommodate additional people.

A) 3 to 5 percent B) 2 to 3 percent C) 4 to 6 percent D) 5 to 7 percent Answer: A 22) More hotels are converting at least one of their bar outlets to A) a dessert bar.

B) a nightclub.

C) a high-end wine bar.

D) a sports-themed bar.

Answer: D 23) The food and beverage director is responsible for A) kitchen, restaurants, banquets, bars, minibars.

B) restaurants, bars, stewarding laundry and kitchens.

C) stewarding, lounges, bars, in-room dining.

D) Both A and C. E) Both B and C. Answer: D 24) The contribution margin is A) sales less the labor cost percentage.

B) food cost minus food sales.

C) the cost of food divided by the amount of food sales.

D) the difference between the cost of preparing an item and its selling price.

Answer: D

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25) The capture rate is A) the house counts.

B) the estimated number of hotel guests having in-room dining.

C) forecasting the number of hotel guests to dine in the hotel restaurants.

D) coaxing the number of hotel guests to dine in the hotel restaurants.

Answer: C 26) Why is contribution margin important? Give an example.

Answer: Chefs not only examine the food cost of particular items, but also examine the contribution margin of food items. The contribution margin is the difference between the cost and the sale price of an item. The larger the contribution, the more cash can be deposited in the bank.

27) What are the responsibilities of a restaurant manager?

Answer: Restaurant managers are responsible for quality guest service; hiring, training, and developing employees; setting and maintaining quality standards; and presenting annual, monthly, and weekly forecasts and budgets to the food and beverage directors. In some hotel restaurants, managers may also be responsible for room service minibars and/or cocktail lounges.

28) How is the stewarding department important to the hotel operation?

Answer: The chief steward reports to the F&B manager and is responsible for: cleanliness of the back of the house, maintaining clean glassware, china, etc.; maintaining strict inventory controls; maintaining dishwashing machines, pest control and coordination with exterminating company; and forecasting labor and cleaning supplies.

29) Explain the significance of the catering event order (CEO).

Answer: The Catering event order (CEO), or Banquet Event Order (BEO), is prepared and completed for each function to inform the client and the hotel personnel. It communicates essential information about the function–what needs to happen and when. It details all the important criteria that make up the contract between guest and the hotel.

30) Discuss the primary duties of the Director of Food and Beverage. Why is this position so critical in a full-service hotel?

Answer: The role is so critical because hoteliers are in the business of selling rooms. F&B is not usually a profit center for the hotel so there needs to be someone in the position who can manage the food side in a cost effective and quality conscious manner.

31) Outline the pros and cons of hotel bars, room service and a concierge. Are these services always cost effective?

Answer: Most full-service hotels offer a heightened level of service for their guests, but those services are utilized by a small percentage of the clientele. There are many cases where the cost of a concierge is not justified, but there is an expectation. So, guest services people often trade off the role so that someone is always available during peak hours. Hotel bars can be profitable if they are positioned properly and used by locals. Room service is always a gamble. To have personnel available for extended hours is a huge labor cost to be utilized so infrequently.

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32) Describe how you would set up the room for a group of 24 business people holding a 2-hour training meeting followed by a sit-down lunch, and then a workshop requiring interaction between the presenter and the attendees. What do you see as the challenges with this event?

Answer: A diagram of each of the seating arrangements can be found in the text. Student answers will vary depending on their perspective. Students should focus on how the different segments will transition. Perhaps, if the hotel has room, the events might be held in different meeting rooms to accommodate the transitions.

33) Explain how you will identify and correct a pour cost of 25.6% when the budget requires a pour cost of 22.5%. Identify what may have caused the pour cost to be this high and corrective action to bring it into line with the budget.

Answer: The student should begin with a comprehensive list of factors that might lead to this high cost. Areas such as over-pouring bartenders, theft of spirits from outlets or storage areas, receiving and storage challenges, issuing, etc. Once a set of possibilities has been identified, corrective action might include retraining bar staff, instituting a check-and-balance system when ordering and receiving, securing the storage areas, adding a written system of issuing spirits to the outlets, installing cameras in critical locations throughout the hotel, employing spotters to determine if bar staff is stealing. The list will be endless.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 5 Beverages 1) Wines with carbon dioxide produced either naturally or mechanically are known as A) sparkling.

B) cuvée.

C) still.

D) refined.

Answer: A 2) White, rosé, and red table wines are also known as A) fortified wines.

B) still wines.

C) aperitifs.

D) aromatic wines.

Answer: B 3) Cabernet sauvignon and pinot noir are types of ________ wine.

A) rosé B) white C) red D) zinfandel Answer: C 4) Pinot blanc, sauvignon blanc, and Riesling are all types of ________ wine.

A) red B) white C) zinfandel D) rosé Answer: B 5) The term "varietal" means A) there are a variety of grapes in the bottle.

B) the label contains the name of the grape.

C) the bottle contains at least two types of grapes.

D) the bottle contains only "still" wine.

Answer: B 6) In France, the wines are usually named after the A) name of the grape.

B) wine region.

C) name of the winemaker.

D) village where the wine is produced.

Answer: D

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7) Any game or red meat is best served with ________ wine.

A) white B) red C) sparkling D) rosé Answer: B 8) Champagne is best served A) anytime throughout the meal.

B) only in the beginning of the meal.

C) immediately before dessert.

D) only at the end of the meal.

Answer: A 9) Still wines are those with A) added color.

B) no carbonation.

C) extra aging.

D) carbon dioxide added.

Answer: B 10) Methode champenoise refers to A) the color of the grape used to make champagne.

B) the type of grape used to make champagne in California.

C) the type of glassware used to serve champagne.

D) a second fermentation in the bottle.

Answer: D 11) Fortified wines have ________ added.

A) wine B) sugar C) champagne D) color E) brandy or wine alcohol Answer: E 12) Examples of fortified wines are A) Port, Sherry, and Madeira.

B) Riesling, Chablis, and Sauvignon Blanc.

C) chardonnay and champagne.

D) cabernet and pinot noir.

Answer: A

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13) Aromatized wines are fortified and flavored with A) herbs, flowers, bark, and roots.

B) Madeira and Marsala.

C) Port, grapes, and coloring.

D) natural and organic vegetable juices.

E) grapes, stems, and seeds.

Answer: A 14) Aromatic wines are known as ________, which generally are consumed before meals as a digestive stimulant.

A) fortified wines B) Chablis C) aperitifs D) sparkling wines Answer: C 15) The four characteristics of a good wine are A) the grape, the climate, the soil, and the winemaker.

B) soil conditions, winemaker expertise, cost of equipment, and grape quality.

C) the grape variety, the grape farmer, soil moisture, and the yeast variety.

D) climatic conditions, dry/arid soil, age of the grapevine, winemaker.

Answer: A 16) A good rule of thumb when pairing wine and food is that A) champagne is only consumed after a meal, with dessert.

B) red wine pairs well with lightly flavored foods.

C) the heavier the food, the heavier and more robust the wine should be.

D) white wine should only be consumed with red meats that have been grilled to order.

Answer: C 17) Beer is a brewed and fermented beverage made from ________ and flavored with ________.

A) hops; grains and wheat B) grapes; fruits C) malted barley, starchy cereals; hops D) yeast; barley Answer: C 18) A(n) ________ tends to be fuller bodied and more bitter than the average beer.

A) light beer B) lager C) pilsner D) ale Answer: D

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19) ________ tends to be clear and light-bodied.

A) Lager B) Ale C) Stout D) Hefeweizen Answer: A 20) A dark ale that is sweet, strong, and hosts a malt flavor is known as a A) lager.

B) wheat beer.

C) stout.

D) pilsner.

Answer: C 21) The most important, and abundant, ingredient in beer is A) hops.

B) water.

C) wheat.

D) rice.

Answer: B 22) Spirits differ from wine and beer in that they are A) only made from fruits.

B) made only from potatoes.

C) made from grapes and grain.

D) fermented and then distilled.

Answer: D 23) Proof is equal to A) a liter bottle of 80% alcohol.

B) twice the percentage of alcohol by volume.

C) age or vintage.

D) the type of product used in a spirit.

Answer: B 24) A spirit or liquor is made from a liquid that has been A) proofed for alcohol.

B) treated with yeast.

C) cooked with grain or fruit.

D) fermented and distilled.

Answer: D

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25) A bottle of vodka costs $28.00 per liter and yields 25 each 1.25 ounce shots that sell for $7.75. What does this bottle bring in to liquor sales?

A) $195.95 B) $197.50 C) $191.50 D) $188.25 E) $193.75 Answer: E 26) List the ways in which wine may be classified.

Answer: Color, vintage, varietal, still, sparkling, fortified, aromatic, regional, etc. There are major classifications as well as many sub-categories.

27) What are the six steps in wine production?

Answer: Crushing, fermenting, racking, maturing, filtering, and bottling.

28) Define the following terms associated with beer making: hops, wort, malt, lager, and ale.

Answer: Hops are the flowers of a vine that add bitterness to beer.

Wort is the liquid that is fermented into beer, containing hops, water, yeast, malt, and grain Malt is germinated barley.

Yeast is what causes the fermentation process–brewer's yeast forms carbon dioxide.

Lager is a clear, light-bodied, refreshing beer.

Ale is fuller bodied and more bitter, darker than lager.

29) Where do the different types of tea originate? Provide two examples of types of tea from each location.

Answer: China: Oolong, Orange pekoe India: Darjeeling, Assams, Dooars Indonesia: Java, Sumatra 30) Discuss dram shop legislation, what it is, how it works and the benefits of training versus having these laws.

Answer: Dram shop is legislation that governs the sale of alcoholic beverages. These laws or civil damage acts were enacted in the 1850s and dictated that owners and operators of drinking establishments are liable for injuries caused by intoxicated customers. Most states do not have dram shop legislation. Rather they advocate training developed by national and state restaurant and hotel associations (like ServSafe).

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31) Explain the traditional concept of matching wine with food.

Answer: Over the years, traditions have developed a how-to approach to the marrying of wines and food. Generally, the following traditions apply: • White wine is best served with white meat (chicken, pork, or veal), shellfish, and fish.

• Red wine is best served with red meat (beef, lamb, duck, or game).

• The heavier the food, the heavier and more robust the wine should be.

• Champagne can be served throughout the meal.

• Port and red wine go well with cheese.

• Dessert wines best complement desserts and fresh fruits that are not highly acidic.

• When a dish is cooked with wine, it is best served with that wine.

• Regional food is best complemented by wines of the region.

• Wines should never accompany salads with vinegar dressings or curries; the tastes will clash or be overpowering.

• Sweet wines should be served with foods that are not too sweet.

32) Differentiate between the United States and Europe wine labeling. How do the two wine regions label their wines? List some examples.

Answer: In the United States, we label wines by their varietal grape and include the name of their region on the label. In Europe, wines tend to be labeled regionally rather than by varietal.

The wine label on the front of the bottle generally has five headings: 1. The name of the vineyard 2. The grape variety 3. The growing area 4. The vintage 5. The producer Wine labels are helpful in telling you a lot about what is in the bottle. Most wine bottles have two labels applied to each bottle. The front label is meant to attract your attention, while the back label may be used to provoke your senses.

33) Your restaurant just received a citation from your Liquor License Enforcement Agency for serving to underage individuals. Devise a short-term solution to correct the problem and ensure your service staff follows the laws regarding service of alcoholic spirits.

Answer: The focus should be on training all alcohol-serving staff members. Locate either a national or local service that provides authorized alcohol training to service staff. The National Restaurant Association and the American Hotel & Lodging Association might have training available to members or a national program developed by ServSafe trains and promotes responsible alcohol service. The training should include setting up records that ensure all service staff receives alcohol training on a regular basis (sometimes state regulated) and the certifications are kept on file for inspection.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 6 The Restaurant Business 1) The average household spends about what percent of their food dollar away from home?

A) 33.0% B) 50.0% C) 40.0% D) 25.0% Answer: B 2) With chain restaurants, most of the important managerial decisions are made A) at the district level.

B) by the franchise owner.

C) by the local management.

D) at the corporate level.

Answer: D 3) The word restaurant is a French word meaning to A) rest.

B) restore.

C) refuel.

D) respond.

Answer: B 4) The ________ are credited with the "Culinary Arts."

A) French B) Germans C) Austrians D) British Answer: A 5) ________ simplified French cooking and reduced the number of sauces to five "mother sauces."

A) Auguste Escoffier B) Charlie Trotter C) Julia Child D) Marie-Antoine Carême Answer: A 6) "Nouvelle cuisine" translates into what?

A) Creative foods B) New creation C) New ideas D) Lighter cuisine Answer: D

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7) ________ are operations owned by one or more owners who are usually involved with day-today operations of the business.

A) Fast-food restaurants B) Franchises C) Chains D) Independent restaurants Answer: D 8) Groups of restaurants identical in market, concept, design, service, food, and name are known as A) ethnic restaurants.

B) multi-owner independent restaurants.

C) quick-service restaurants.

D) chains.

Answer: B 9) Franchises are most often affiliated with A) dinner houses.

B) chains.

C) ethnic restaurants.

D) independent ownership.

Answer: B 10) The founders of classical cuisine are A) Alice Waters and Julia Child.

B) Julia Child and James Beard.

C) Marie Antoine Carême and Auguste Escoffier.

D) Thomas Jefferson and Auguste Escoffier.

Answer: C 11) Noise level, sounds, decorations, table settings, and other subconscious cues a customer receives when entering a restaurant collectively make up the A) location.

B) niche.

C) environment.

D) demographics.

E) ambience.

Answer: E 12) A(n) ________ menu offers items that are individually priced.

A) tourist B) table d'hote C) du jour D) cyclical E) a la carte Answer: E 2 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) A(n) ________ menu offer a selection of one or more items for each course at a fixed price.

A) du jour B) a la carte C) table d'hote D) cyclical E) tourist Answer: C 14) A(n) ________ menu repeat themselves after a period of time.

A) a la carte B) cyclical C) table d'hote D) tourist E) du jour Answer: B 15) The ________ must harmonize with the theme of the restaurant.

A) menu B) kitchen equipment C) kitchen layout D) cooks Answer: A 16) The classification of restaurant categorized by price, decor, atmosphere, higher level of formality, and a menu made from scratch using quality fresh ingredients is A) fusion.

B) casual.

C) fine dining.

D) family.

Answer: C 17) The target market and concept, to a large extent, will determine the A) menu prices.

B) contribution margin.

C) food cost percentage.

D) rental/lease costs.

Answer: A 18) Fusion restaurants are A) French in style.

B) a blend of two cuisines.

C) fast-food establishments.

D) dinner houses.

Answer: B

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19) TGI Friday's, Houlihan's, and Bennigan's are examples of A) dinner house theme restaurants.

B) ethnic restaurants.

C) celebrity-owned restaurants.

D) fusion restaurants.

Answer: A 20) Ponderosa, Bonanza, Chart House, and Outback are examples of A) fine dining restaurants.

B) celebrity-owned restaurants.

C) steak houses.

D) fast food restaurants.

Answer: C 21) Good examples of casual dining restaurants are A) McDonald's and Burger King.

B) Ruth's Chris and Morton's Steak House.

C) Chipotle and Baja Fresh.

D) Macaroni Grill and Red Lobster.

Answer: D 22) Most ethnic restaurants are A) independently owned and operated.

B) franchised.

C) family style.

D) celebrity owned.

Answer: A 23) Family restaurants evolved from the A) coffee shop-style restaurant.

B) steak house.

C) fusion restaurant.

D) ethnic restaurant.

Answer: A 24) Which of the following is considered a themed restaurant?

A) Chipotle B) Kentucky Fried Chicken C) Rainforest Cafe D) McDonald's Answer: C

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25) Examples of quick-service/fast-food restaurants are A) TGI Friday's and Cheeseburger in Paradise.

B) Outback and Red Lobster.

C) Ruth's Chris and Chart House.

D) Pizza Hut, KFC, and Subway.

Answer: D 26) Compare and contrast independent restaurants and chain restaurants.

Answer: Independent–typically owned by one or more owners, usually involved in the day-today activities. If owners own more than one store, they operate independently. Not affiliated with any national brand or name. Owner realizes all risks and opportunities. Owner is independent, can be creative and flexible.

Chain–rapid expansion due to franchising; using other people's money for growth. These groups of restaurants share markets, concepts, design, service, food, and name. The marketing strategy of a chain is to remove uncertainty from the dining experience–consistency is all but guaranteed from one location to another.

27) Briefly discuss the evolution of classical cuisine to the United States. Include those individuals responsible for its legacy.

Answer: Classical cuisine's roots are in France. Two main events were responsible for the United States' culinary legacy from France. The French revolution in 1793–French chefs lost jobs or had the freedom to look for new jobs abroad. Thomas Jefferson spent five years as an envoy to France and brought a French chef to the White House when he became president. This stimulated interest in French cuisine and enticed U.S. restaurateurs to offer better quality and more interesting cuisine. Carême is credited as being the founder of classical cuisine and Escoffier was known as the chef of kings.

28) List five classifications of restaurants and briefly describe each.

Answer: Fine dining Theme Celebrity Steak house Casual dining Family Ethnic Quick-service/fast-food 29) List five trends in the restaurant industry and discuss what they mean to you and how they affect the business.

Answer: Social media-based marketing Sustainability and local foods Concerns over public health Environmental responsibility Globalizing the menu Locally sourced foods Healthful kids' menus 5 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

30) Discuss the importance of matching the restaurant's concept to the location.

Answer: The example in the textbook depicts the relationship between the concept and the market. The important factors dealing with location are listed in the text.

31) List the six facets that influence a restaurant's menu prices. Which do you think has the greatest impact? Justify your answer.

Answer: What is the competition charging?

What is food cost?

What is cost of labor?

What are other costs involved?

What profit is expected?

What is the contribution margin?

32) Discuss the phenomena of celebrity-themed restaurants. Why do some fail and some succeed?

Answer: This trend has taken hold of many tourism-driven areas in the past five years. New Orleans (Emeril Lagasse), Las Vegas (Wolfgang Puck), and Miami (Jennifer Lopez, Britney Spears) are popular areas for celebrity restaurants. Also, themed establishments like Planet Hollywood, Hard Rock Cafe, Fashion Cafe, and the NASCAR Cafe have found their niche markets. These facilities are not always profitable in the long haul. The ones that offer a quality product on a consistent basis are the ones that tend to last.

33) List and describe six main types of menus. Identify where each might be used.

Answer: A la carte: offer items that are individually priced Table d'hote: offer a selection of one or more items for each course at a fixed price. This type of menu is used more frequently in hotels and in Europe. The advantage is the perception guests have of receiving good values.

Du jour: list the items of the day Tourist menus: are used to attract tourists' attention. They frequently stress value and food that is acceptable to the tourists.

California: are so named because, in some California restaurants, guest may order any item on the menu any time of the day (sometimes called a static menu) Cyclical menu: repeat themselves over a period of time 34) Pricing is one of the most critical elements of designing the menu. Discuss some of the elements of designing a menu for your new independent, themed restaurant.

Answer: The target market and concept determine the menu pricing. There are two main ways to price menus. A comparative approach analyzes the price ranges of the competition and determines the price range for appetizers, entrées, and desserts. The second method is to cost the individual dish item on the menu and multiply it by the ratio amount necessary to achieve the desired food cost percentage.

Menu engineering is a sophisticated approach to setting menu prices and controlling costs. It operates on the principle that the food cost percentage of each menu item is not as important as the total contribution margin of the menu as a whole.

A menu is a sales tool and motivational device. A menu's design can affect what guests order and how much they spend.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 7 Restaurant Management 1) There are ________ accounting periods per fiscal year in a typical restaurant.

A) 12 B) 10 C) 11 D) 13 Answer: D 2) The person usually responsible for greeting and seating guests and to rotate arriving guests among the dining room stations is the A) waiter or waitress.

B) greeter or hostess or host.

C) general manager.

D) valet.

Answer: B 3) A "cover" is also known as a(n) A) guest.

B) table.

C) entrée.

D) hat.

Answer: A 4) Curbside appeal includes A) the appearance of the property from the parking lot to the restrooms.

B) the style of the menu.

C) a well-equipped kitchen.

D) the speed of service.

Answer: A 5) The average guest check is calculated by A) dividing total sales by the number of guests.

B) food sales divided by the number of entrees sold in a period.

C) dividing total sales by the number of tables used during a meal period.

D) weekly sales divided by the forecasted sales.

Answer: A 6) If total sales are $2550.00 and 110 guests were served, the average guest check would be A) $23.18.

B) $19.50.

C) $11.25.

D) $15.82.

Answer: A

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7) Forecasting sales has what two components?

A) Food budget and guest counts or covers B) Total sales and average entrée price C) Guest counts or covers, and average check amount D) Average check amount and total sales Answer: C 8) Describing, recommending, showing, and offering a variety of food and beverage choices to a guest is known as A) sales competition.

B) suggestive selling.

C) serving.

D) order taking.

Answer: B 9) Forecasting is used A) for sales projections, staff levels, and cost percentages.

B) to determine staff efficiency.

C) for determining all expenditures.

D) to estimate profits.

Answer: A 10) American Service refers to A) number of servers.

B) more formal dining.

C) style of the menu.

D) less formal, yet professionally served.

Answer: D 11) The "back of the house" is usually run by the A) kitchen manager.

B) sous chef.

C) service manager.

D) expeditor.

Answer: A 12) The first step in creating ________ is to count the product on hand for each station.

A) production sheets B) contribution margin C) food cost percentages D) cost containment Answer: A

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13) The ________ is the most important part of the kitchen layout.

A) cooking line B) food line C) stove tops D) prep line Answer: A 14) Personal digital assistants (PDAs) are usually used by A) employers to track hours.

B) accountants.

C) restaurant servers.

D) managers.

Answer: C 15) Organization and performance on the cooking line as well as good results depend on A) the back-of-the-house manager.

B) servers.

C) sales forecast.

D) teamwork.

Answer: D 16) Management can make an immediate impact on the quality of operations through A) good relationships with guests.

B) retaining employees.

C) staff recognition.

D) promotions.

Answer: C 17) Setting up purchasing systems that determine standards for each item involves creating A) sales projections.

B) prime costs.

C) product specification sheets.

D) cost analysis projections.

Answer: C 18) Production sheets serve which of the following purposes?

A) Inventory the product used the day before.

B) Determine production level for day before.

C) Serve as the key to consistency and food quality.

D) Determine projected sales.

Answer: C

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19) Production sheet calculations include A) counting products on hand.

B) expected daily sales.

C) number of workers in the kitchen.

D) costs of food.

Answer: A 20) The person responsible for ordering and receiving should never be the A) same person.

B) chef.

C) line cook.

D) manager.

Answer: A 21) Placing the most recent purchases, in rotation, behind previous purchases is called A) LIFA. B) FIFA. C) FIFO. D) LIFO. Answer: C 22) Prime cost is A) food and labor cost.

B) food and beverage costs.

C) food and overhead costs.

D) labor and overhead costs.

Answer: A 23) Product specification determines A) temperature and humidity.

B) the cost of the food item.

C) cut of meat, weight, fat, etc.

D) how to order food.

Answer: C 24) A par stock A) is the reorder procedure.

B) is the level to keep on hand.

C) is a record of product received.

D) indicates who is responsible for ordering.

E) is the total on hand.

Answer: B

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25) The Beacon Drive Inn had food sales of $45,000, an opening inventory of $8,000, purchases of $13,000 and an ending inventory of $9,000. What was the food cost percentage?

A) 27.6% B) 26.7% C) 27.3% D) 26.3% Answer: B 26) What are the seven suggested steps to take in table service?

Answer: Greet the guests Introduce and suggestively sell beverages Suggest appetizers Take orders Check to see that everything is to the guests liking within two bites of the entrees Ask if the guest would like another drink Bring out dessert tray/cart and suggest after dinner drinks and coffee 27) What are five reasons for setting up a purchasing system?

Answer: To develop standards for each item; product specifications To minimize effort and maximize control of loss (theft, pilferage or spoilage) and losses from other sources To determine the amount of each item that should be on hand (par stock and reorder point) To determine who will do the buying and keep the purchasing system in motion To determine who will do the receiving, storage and issuing of items 28) What are three concepts or ideas that could be used for suggestive selling?

Answer: Dessert tray or cart Table tents Special wine or entree suggestions Upselling Guiding the guest through the dining experience 29) Forecasting restaurant sales has two components. Identify and describe or define each.

Answer: Guest counts or covers–the number of guests patronizing the restaurant over a given period of time Average guest check, determined by dividing total sales for a time period by number of guests served in the same period 30) Discuss the relationship between the purchase order and receiving.

Answer: Using the product specifications, a purchase order is generated to order a specific quantity and quality of product from a vendor that has been designated by the restaurant. The order is then delivered and the product is checked to ensure it matches the purchase order for product specifications and price.

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31) What is the primary difference between the front of the house and the back of the house?

Answer: The primary difference is that customers can see what happens in the front of the house. There is a trend towards a more open kitchen, but the challenge is to create synergy between the front and the back.

32) Explain the importance of forecasting. What are the pros and cons of relying solely on past performance to predict future performance?

Answer: Everything is based on forecasting. Staffing, budgeting, marketing, and every other kind of planning is based on the forecast. The challenge of only using past performance to predict future performance is that it does not take into account any new events or strategies the company may have implemented.

33) Why is the purchasing, receiving, storing, and issuing cycle so critical to the financial stability of a foodservice facility?

Answer: This process is critical in that your inventory is the basis of your bottom line. The degree to which you manage your inventory and decrease spoilage and keep theft and misuse to a minimum, your profit margin will increase.

34) Discuss the merits of installing a cash register or a P.O.S. system in your restaurant. List and describe several positive and/or negative challenges in making your choice.

Answer: A cash register is able to track limited data on a macro level. A P.O.S. system is used to track cash and other forms of payment but also is able to track all food and beverage sales on a micro scale. A P.O.S. is also able to interface with other terminals and the back office systems.

Back-of-the-house systems are also known as product management systems and include inventory control and food costing, labor management, and financial reporting features. P.O.S. is considerably more expensive but able to overcome its expense in a very short period of time.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 8 Managed Services 1) Managed foodservice differs from commercial foodservice in that A) both are used to describe foodservice in hotels.

B) managed foodservice includes only restaurants.

C) commercial foodservice includes restaurants only.

D) commercial includes only chain restaurants.

E) managed foodservice is mostly contracted.

Answer: E 2) Which of the following would be considered a disadvantage of using managed contract services?

A) Variety of services B) Resources and support available C) Experience in size and types of operations D) May be perceived as institutional Answer: D 3) Which of the following is not usually included in managed services?

A) Airports B) Colleges and universities C) Hotel cafeteria D) Prisons Answer: C 4) Compared to commercial operations, managed services have the advantage of A) being able to predict the number of meals and portion sizes.

B) focusing exclusively on the guest.

C) putting out all the food at the same time.

D) busier weekends.

Answer: A 5) Inflight foodservice refers to A) airport terminal foodservice.

B) airport kiosks.

C) food service onboard aircraft.

D) chain restaurant foodservice establishments in airports.

Answer: C 6) Airlines regard inflight foodservice as a(n) A) way to test new menu items for use in partner chain businesses.

B) way to promote business in chain restaurants in airports.

C) expense that needs to be controlled, resulting in less food served onboard.

D) major profit center with their business.

Answer: C 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) Inflight foodservice management operators A) can only contract with an airline if the airport facility provides customer foodservice.

B) prepare food for airlines as well as select airport restaurants.

C) plan menus, develop products specifications, and arrange purchasing contracts.

D) develop specific tours for major commercial airlines and their partners.

Answer: C 8) Examples of the types of service a company like Sodexo might provide include A) preventive maintenance contracts with independent restaurant owners in rural areas.

B) nutrition consultation with fast food companies like McDonald's.

C) sanitation and chemical services.

D) housekeeping, groundskeeping and plant operations.

Answer: D 9) Sodexo, a leading food and facilities management services company in North America, deals primarily in the areas of serving A) chain restaurant foodservice.

B) schools, health care, government, and corporate.

C) independently owned commercial operations.

D) airport terminal kiosks.

E) fast-food restaurants.

Answer: B 10) Which one is a major challenge in elementary and secondary school foodservice?

A) Offering free meals B) Reducing carbohydrates C) Achieving acceptance of students D) Balancing salability with good nutrition Answer: D 11) Businesses use managed food services for many reasons, one of which is that A) they invest in the foodservice company.

B) they don't like to cook.

C) food service is not practical.

D) quality and financial arrangements are better.

Answer: D 12) Military foodservice is interested in management companies mostly to A) have better diets.

B) save time.

C) save money and be more efficient.

D) not cook for field troops.

E) make the quality better.

Answer: C

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13) A popular trend in military foodservice that offers alternatives to its personnel is A) MREs that can be cooked a variety of ways, including grilled and braised.

B) more seafood choices in MREs. C) McDonald's, Burger King, and other QSRs on military bases.

D) a wide selection of meal choices and menu items.

Answer: C 14) In terms of managed services, feeding military personnel includes A) feeding troops on the battlefield.

B) feeding troops, officers in clubs, dining halls, and military hospitals.

C) full-service upscale foodservice on military bases.

D) off-premises catering to meet non-military public needs.

Answer: B 15) Schools that participate in the National School Lunch Program are able to take advantage of A) a higher quality food product, similar to that served in restaurants.

B) higher profits for each school that participates and highly nutritious foods.

C) a direct line of contact and reduced costs with fast food chains.

D) federal funding in the amount of about $2.60 per meal per student.

Answer: D 16) Elementary and secondary schools may participate or not in the National School Lunch Program. Participating allows the school to A) control fat intake.

B) get better food.

C) save money when federally funded.

D) create better diets.

E) have more variety in food.

Answer: C 17) Some of the driving forces and trends with college campus foodservice are A) McDonald's and Burger King Visa bank cards.

B) programs similar to the National School Lunch Program.

C) students pay one fee for all meals each day, whether they eat them or not.

D) branded concepts, privatization, campus cards and computer use.

Answer: D 18) The rationale behind the enactment of the National School Lunch Act of 1946 was A) students could be trained like military recruits.

B) fast-food opportunities at schools could be increased.

C) more crops could be imported from foreign farmers.

D) if students received good meals, the military would have healthier recruits.

Answer: D

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19) ________ is the process of producing food in large-quantities for consumption within fixed time periods.

A) Batch cooking B) Consignment cooking C) Contract production D) Mass pre-processing Answer: A 20) If foodservice expenses for one semester of 101 days amount to $695,000 for an operation with 1100 students eating, the daily rate would be A) $5.50.

B) $8.95.

C) $7.65.

D) $6.25.

Answer: D 21) Colleges are more diverse in their foodservice operations A) because the hours might be long.

B) because costs may be prohibitive.

C) so students are not bored with the same food.

D) because there are many places and occasions for foodservice.

E) because the schedules of students are varied.

Answer: D 22) Budgeting is easier with on campus college foodservice because A) there are few venues that provide foodservice on college campuses.

B) all the food is very inexpensive.

C) students do not expect great food, so costs can be lowered to accommodate that trend.

D) students have prepaid for their meals and their numbers are easier to forecast.

Answer: D 23) In college campus foodservice, the daily rate refers to the A) amount of food needed to prepare each day.

B) number of meal plans offered to students who live on campus.

C) amount of money required per day from each person to pay for the foodservice.

D) number of students and faculty necessary to realize a profit each week, based on the number of days in a semester.

Answer: C 24) In an effort to increase cash sales and to manage profitability, managers of health care operations have become more resourceful by A) decreasing portion sizes of meals served to staff and patients in medical care facilities.

B) charging more for cafeteria food and eliminating discounts to staff.

C) adding an extra charge to service users not affiliated with the medical facility.

D) developing concepts like medical malls with retail shops, bakeries, catering, and restaurants.

Answer: D 4 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) Senior Living Management includes the following except A) independent living.

B) assisted living.

C) memory care.

D) rollerblading.

Answer: D 26) List five features that distinguish managed services from commercial foodservice.

Answer: In a restaurant the challenge is to please the guest, whereas managed services must please the client as well. In some operations the guest may or may not have alternative dining options available to them and are a captive clientele. These guests may be eating at the foodservice operation only once or on a daily basis. Many managed operations are housed in host organizations that do not have foodservice as their primary business. Most managed service operations produce food in large quantity batches for service and consumption within fixed periods of time.

The volume of business is more consistent and therefore easier to cater; it is easier to predict the number of meals and portion sizes. The atmosphere is less hurried that of a restaurant.

27) What are five reasons a company or organization might contract its food or other services with a managed service company?

Answer: Financial reasons–there is increased pressure to either break even or make a profit.

Quality of program–if providing food is not the primary task of the company, quality probably suffers.

Recruitment of management and staff–contractors have the expertise and skills to manage foodservice personnel much better.

Expertise in management and of service operations–contractors have hundreds or even thousands of similar operations and are more capable of managing these tasks.

Resources available–like people, management systems, labor relations, IT–contractors have developed support for the management of foodservice operations and are better equipped to do so.

28) Using the following figures, calculate the daily rate or amount of money required per day from each person to pay for foodservice: foodservice expenses for one semester of 105 days amounts to $695,000 for an operation with 1350 students using the facilities. You must show your work to receive full credit.

Answer: = $4.90 29) What are eight general areas of responsibility of a managed services manager?

Answer: Employee relations, human resource management, financial/budgeting, safety administration, foodservice production/service, sanitation, and FBI prevention, purchasing, and staff training/development.

30) How are soldiers fed while in the field? What do they eat?

Answer: Technological advances mean that field troops do not eat out of tin cans anymore; instead, they receive their food portions in plastic-and-foil pouches called meals ready-to-eat (MREs).

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31) Managed services are thought of as being one of the most lucrative areas of foodservice.

Why is this facet more likely to thrive financially?

Answer: This topic is discussed throughout the chapter. One of the primary reasons managed services are so lucrative is the concept of a captive audience. In a hospital, on an airplane, or in prison, the customer base is not given a list of choices of food service providers. The clientele is already determined. The managed food service company has contractual rights as the only provider on the property.

32) Discuss the impact the National School Lunch Act of 1946 had on managed services in the elementary and secondary schools.

Answer: This 1946 legislation turned the focus onto nutritious meals for school-age children.

The government mandated that meals for children meet the federal dietary guidelines. The rationale was that if students received good meals, the military would have healthier recruits. In addition, the program would make use of surplus food that farmers produced.

33) Outline the scope of college and university foodservice. What are the advantages of managing a college dining hall versus a commercial restaurant.

Answer: The scope of college services ranges from regular dining services to food court-type facilities. Also included can be vending services, catering, special events, etc. Budgeting is made easier because the on-campus students have already paid for their meals and their numbers are easy to forecast; therefore, planning and scheduling are easier.

34) Your company is large enough that employees have been asking for an in-house foodservice (cafeteria) to supply lunches so employees don't have to go out during lunch. Create a list of positives and negatives to help you make a decision whether you should hire a managed foodservice company or provide the service yourself.

Answer: The list should include areas such as: Financial–how will the program affect costs? Hiring a managed food service company would not cost the company anything, whereas setting up our own restaurant service would be very expensive.

Quality of program–can another company do it better?

Recruitment of management and staff–add to our payroll or the managed food service company would be responsible for all hiring and management.

Expertise in management of service departments–the managed food service company employs experts … we are not in the food business.

Resources available: people, programs, management systems, and information systems–they have the resources …we do not.

Labor relations and other support–they handle all labor from hiring to training, etc.

Outsourcing of administrative functions–our expense or their business.

In short, they are in the business to supply foodservices and we are not. The discussion should include a financial component. How do we minimize the costs and maximize the benefit?

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 9 Tourism 1) A person who spends less than a year traveling to places other than their usual environment is known as a A) resident.

B) traveler.

C) sightseer.

D) tourist.

Answer: D 2) The greatest global employment opportunity is A) computer systems.

B) education.

C) health.

D) tourism.

Answer: D 3) Travel is on the increase and expected to continue to increase in the coming years due to A) fewer college graduates.

B) increased cost of travel.

C) lower incomes.

D) longer life span.

Answer: D 4) The leading international organization in the field of travel and tourism is A) World Trade Organization.

B) World Tourism Organization.

C) Worldwide Tour Operations.

D) Western Tours Organization.

Answer: B 5) What organization supports the World Tourism Organization?

A) United Nations B) Automobile Association of America C) Hotel Motel Association D) United States Answer: A 6) Interdependency between various segments of the hospitality industry means A) tourism has little effect on other segments of the industry.

B) each segment, to an extent, depends on another for business.

C) when airlines lower fares, tourism increases.

D) all segments are very independent and do not rely on one another at all.

Answer: B

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7) Travel in the Middle Ages was mostly for A) religious reasons.

B) health.

C) pleasure.

D) education.

Answer: A 8) Rail travel in the United States was established around the A) 1910s.

B) 1830s.

C) 1870s.

D) 1930s.

Answer: B 9) The benefits of the hub-and-spoke system include all of the following except A) passengers can travel from smaller city to smaller city via the hub.

B) passenger loads can be maximized.

C) larger capacity planes can be used.

D) airlines can provide services at lower costs.

Answer: C 10) One of the greatest influences on tourism is A) geography.

B) airlines.

C) national tourism.

D) interdependency.

Answer: B 11) The airline industry, like other segments of the hospitality industry, rely on ________ markets as a source of business.

A) feeder B) economic C) international D) central Answer: A 12) When major airline carriers eliminated unprofitable routes, it was replaced with A) alliance or partner airlines.

B) Amtrak.

C) rental cars.

D) the hub and spoke system.

Answer: D

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13) Since the recent economic recession, business travelers A) stay shorter periods of time yet spend more money.

B) spend more time traveling to cities in the U.S. C) stay longer and spend more money.

D) continue to spend less money.

Answer: D 14) New money spent by tourist and then re-spent by hotels and restaurants in the community for goods and services is known as A) disposable income.

B) the multiplier effect.

C) the ripple effect.

D) a tax exemption.

Answer: B 15) The largest expense for most airlines is A) landing fees at airports.

B) the cost of airplanes.

C) labor.

D) the cost of fuel.

Answer: C 16) The pleasure traveler constitutes what percentage of the rental car market?

A) 40% B) 20% C) 30% D) 10% Answer: C 17) Most cruise ships are registered under a foreign flag or government because A) the taxes are either very low or nonexistent.

B) foreign government visas are easier to obtain.

C) most cruise ship passengers originate in foreign countries.

D) the U.S. limits the size of cruise ships.

Answer: A 18) Tour operators A) act in the same capacity as travel agents.

B) are a middle person acting as a travel counselor on behalf of airlines, cruise lines, and hotels.

C) bring together tourists and rental companies.

D) promote tours and trips that they plan and organize.

Answer: D

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19) Travel agents A) act in the same capacity as tour operators.

B) promote tours and trips that they plan and organize.

C) bring together tourists and rental companies.

D) are a middle person acting as a travel counselor on behalf of airlines, cruise lines, and hotels.

Answer: D 20) Which of the following would be considered business travel?

A) River boat excursion B) Gaming C) Trade shows and expositions D) Ecotourism Answer: C 21) Business travelers stay over a Saturday night when they travel in order to A) take advantage of lower airfares.

B) have quiet time to complete essential work tasks.

C) take advantage of lower weekend hotel rates.

D) have a long weekend on the company's budget.

Answer: A 22) The following are all considered part of the social and cultural impact of tourism on destinations except A) heightened cultural awareness.

B) pollution.

C) lower rates of employment.

D) damage to cultural artifacts.

Answer: C 23) Ecotourism refers to A) visiting areas of a country that have the greatest impact on the economy.

B) geological digs for a fee.

C) an emphasis on nature and native cultures.

D) dude ranches.

Answer: C 24) The world's largest travel market is A) Italy.

B) United States.

C) France.

D) Asia Pacific.

Answer: D

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25) What is the breakeven point of airlines?

A) 80.4% B) 90.2% C) 82.6% D) 84.6% Answer: D 26) What are two main benefits of the airline hub and spoke system?

Answer: Airlines can service more cities at lower cost and can maximize passenger loads from small cities, thereby saving fuel.

27) List and describe three promoters of tourism.

Answer: Tour operators–promote tours/trips that they plan and organize Travel agencies–middle person that sells on behalf of hospitality industries; a broker of sorts that brings together client and supplier Tour wholesalers and consolidators–wholesalers take open airline seats and package a tour along with it and sell these to retail agents.

28) Compare the reasons people traveled in the pre-Industrial Revolution period versus the reasons people travel in the twenty-first century. Do you see significant differences? In what areas? Discuss.

Answer: Students should draw the conclusion that people have traveled over history for basically the same reasons: business, leisure, or necessity.

29) Create a chart outlining the evolution of modes of transportation over the past 200 years. Has the tourism industry seen stagnation in the creation of new methods of travel? If so, how can the industry continue in a growth pattern? Discuss.

Answer: Methods of travel have been the same for over 50 years. The quality of service buses, airplanes, and cruise ship operators offer has improved significantly but the actual mode has not changed.

30) Discuss the multiplier effect of tourism dollars on a community. Could you argue that the effect is not always positive? Defend your position with examples.

Answer: Economists argue that the multiplier effect on an economy is always a good thing.

Others counter with discussion about the destruction of tourist infrastructure, national treasures, and the land itself.

31) Some argue the Internet has diminished the need for travel agents. Others boast that travel agents offer a unique level of personalized service the Internet lacks. Profile the customer that would utilize a travel agent versus the typical Internet consumer.

Answer: The customer that is less price-sensitive would be more likely to use a travel agent. To some customers, the service is the driving force in the buying decision so having to service themselves on the Internet is not very appealing. Others may argue that many people fear using the Internet for commerce and prefer to use a face-to-face relationship. Using the Internet is not always the less expensive path.

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32) You have been asked to organize a golf outing for 24 salespeople to Sedona, Arizona, for a three-day stay. Organize your plan by steps. These people are high maintenance, high energy, and have a need to stay busy. How will you get them to Sedona (not a major airline hub), where will they stay, where will they play golf, what will they eat, and what will they do after they finish their day of golf? Research Sedona and find areas of entertainment, cuisine … generally keep them busy. Money is no object.

Answer: Start with researching hotels, resorts, spas, golf courses, off-road activities, western activities like horseback riding, hot-air ballooning, restaurants, etc.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 10 Recreation, Attractions, and Clubs 1) Recreation is defined as A) not working.

B) a healthy workout.

C) refreshment of body and mind.

D) playing an organized sport.

Answer: C 2) There is a direct relationship between recreation and A) stress.

B) burnout.

C) wellness and balance.

D) leisure.

Answer: C 3) Destination or retreat spas have the purpose of A) decompression.

B) recreation.

C) making guests feel better and lead healthier lives.

D) getting a back rub between conference sessions and meetings.

Answer: C 4) In managing attractions, a programmed decision is a decision A) planned by associates.

B) involving management and associates planning a response to a situation.

C) involving situations that occur frequently to be handled with a "programmed" response.

D) on the guests' program.

Answer: C 5) Attractions revenue comes from A) parking, vending sales, retail sales, and food and beverage sales.

B) ticket sales, parking, vending sales, retail sales, food and beverage sales, and donations.

C) ticket sales, vending sales, retail sales, food and beverage sales, and donations.

D) parking, vending sales, retail sales, food and beverage sales, and donations.

Answer: B 6) Walt Disney World includes which four theme parks?

A) Walt Disney, Hollywood Studios, EPCOT, Magic Kingdom B) Disney's Animal Kingdom, EPCOT, Knotts Berry Farm, Hollywood Studios C) Disney's Magic Kingdom, Disneyland, EPCOT, Hollywood Studios D) EPCOT, Magic Kingdom, Animal Kingdom, Disneyland E) Magic Kingdom, EPCOT, Animal Kingdom, Hollywood Studios Answer: E

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7) Which of the following is a recreation offered to the public with an incentive of making a profit?

A) The Elks Club B) YMCA C) Special Olympics D) Knott's Berry Farm Answer: D 8) Typical theme parks are Opryland and Disneyland, areas set aside just for A) hotels.

B) recreation for families.

C) shows.

D) refreshments.

E) music Answer: B 9) The two major themes of Epcot are A) Frontierland and Tomorrowland.

B) Tomorrowland and Fantasyland.

C) Fantasyland and Adventureland.

D) Future World and World Showcase.

Answer: D 10) Which destination attraction is known for its success in adapting movies into thrill rides?

A) Disneyland B) Universal Studios C) Hershey's D) Sea World Answer: B 11) Which theme park allows faculty and students members to intern?

A) Busch Gardens B) Universal Studios C) Hershey's D) Walt Disney World E) Six Flags Answer: D 12) Which park is considered to be the first major water park opened in the United States?

A) Sea World B) Wet 'n Wild C) Blizzard Beach D) Six Flags Answer: B

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13) Which company originally opened its theme park for employees to relax and have fun when they were not on the job?

A) Six Flags B) Disney C) Busch Gardens D) Hershey's Answer: D 14) Which theme park company is dedicated to preserving marine life and uses innovative programs to research wildlife dilemmas?

A) Sea World Parks B) Universal Studios C) Disney D) Six Flags America E) Knott's Berry Farm Answer: A 15) What attraction features more than 700,000 exotic plants?

A) San Diego Zoo B) Walt Disney World C) Hershey's D) The National Aquarium Answer: A 16) The most popular destination resort in the world is A) Universal Studios.

B) Knott's Berry Farm.

C) Walt Disney World.

D) Six Flags.

Answer: C 17) Which parks create the atmosphere of another place and time?

A) Theme parks B) Zoos C) Private clubs D) National parks Answer: A 18) Concerts, musicals, and comedy shows are examples of A) adventure parks.

B) heritage tourism.

C) city park entertainment.

D) performance arts.

Answer: D

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19) Places where members gather for social, recreational, professional, or fraternal reasons are called A) private clubs.

B) conference centers.

C) attractions.

D) theme parks.

Answer: A 20) What destination breeds endangered animal species and participates in visitor education programs and biological research?

A) Sea World B) Smithsonian Institute C) GatorLand Theme Park D) National Zoo, Washington, D.C. Answer: D 21) The type of club that is predominantly business oriented is a A) military club.

B) dining club.

C) city club.

D) social club.

E) professional club.

Answer: C 22) With country clubs, the type of membership that enables members to use all the facilities all the time is a(n) A) monthly membership.

B) social membership.

C) seasonal membership.

D) full membership.

E) annual membership.

Answer: D 23) Which of the following is the primary difference between club management and hotel management?

A) Hotels offer more services than clubs.

B) Club members feel more ownership of the property than hotel guests.

C) Clubs are used more frequently than hotels.

D) Hotels cost more to operate.

Answer: B 24) Foodservice, a pool, a tennis court, and a golf course are all services offered in a(n) A) festival.

B) country club.

C) convention.

D) attraction.

Answer: B 4 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) The hierarchy (from the top down) of club management is as follows: A) board of directors, executive committee, members, general manager.

B) executive committee, board of directors, general manager, members.

C) members, board of directors, executive committee, general manager.

D) general manager, executive committee, board of directors, members.

Answer: C 26) Briefly describe the purpose of private clubs.

Answer: They are places where members gather for social, recreational, professional or fraternal reasons. Members enjoy entertaining guests at their clubs, as they are like second homes. They have diverse facilities and staff to accommodate member needs and expectations.

27) Describe the following types of clubs and their membership: professional, social, athletic, military, and fraternal.

Answer: Professional–clubs for people in the same profession Social–different professions, similar socioeconomic status Athletic–give city workers and residents an opportunity to work out, swim, or participate in other sports with some social aspects, like a lounge or community center or meeting rooms Military–cater to noncommissioned and enlisted officers for recreation and entertainment Fraternal–include many special organizations like Veterans of Foreign Wars, Elks, Shriners, to foster camaraderie and to assist charitable causes.

28) Discuss the elements of management as they relate to theme park management.

Answer: Planning–two parts, pre-opening and then operations Organizing–creating a structure of support in the various departments Decision making–long-range decisions by top management and short-range decisions by front line managers and supervisors Communicating–at all levels and using all types of technology Motivating–for guest satisfaction, keeping employees happy Control–providing information to management for decision-making.

29) Name five theme parks and the focus or attraction of each.

Answer: Knott's Berry Farm–rides, attractions, historical exhibits, emphasis on learning; one of the first theme parks Walt Disney World–four major theme parks based on all aspects of entertainment and learning Universal Studios–movie sets, rides, attractions, adaptation of movies into thrill rides, and commitment to guest participation Anheuser-Busch Companies–largest corporate owned theme/animal park; a leader in conservation and education, development of educational programs based on animal, conservation and environmental issues Six Flags–largest regional U.S. theme park, parks in 40 of the 50 metropolitan areas in the United States, licensing agreements with DC Comics and Warner Brothers Hershey Park–originally developed for employees to relax and have fun when not at work, chocolate theme Others include Dollywood, LegoLand, GatorLand, Wet 'n Wild 5 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

30) Aside from the hospitality employment areas (food, beverage, and lodging) what other employment opportunities are there in the theme park industry?

Answer: Designer, artists, inspectors, engineers, scientists, computer specialists, landscape architects, public relations, human resources, sales and marketing, actors.

31) Studies have shown a direct correlation between recreation and leisure to wellness. Do you agree with this assertion? Justify your answer.

Answer: Student answers will vary mainly depending on their personal experiences. Some students will have worked in facilities that promote wellness through some kind of program.

Some students will use their interest in a recreational activity to make this assessment.

32) Discuss the rationale behind the national park service. Do you think this concept has outlived its original mission?

Answer: The original mission of the national park services was to allow Americans to access their most beautiful resource, the land. There could be an argument that with the vast growth in destination vacationing, travelers will not be interested in "roughing it." On the other hand, there is also an increase in ecotourism, which is directly related to the outdoors.

33) Compare a country club to a city club.

Answer: The biggest difference between them is the offering of activities such as swimming, golf, tennis, and croquet in the country club setting. City clubs are predominantly business oriented with very few, if any, activities.

34) The Walker Golf Club is an exclusive, upscale golf facility in south Florida, and you are the general manager. A new member has approached you with a complaint about a dining room server that has been employed by the club for more than 15 years. The club member wants this person terminated. The Board of Directors requires all hires and terminations to be approved at official board meetings. Discuss how you will research, document, and ultimately handle this situation.

Answer: Answers will vary.

Clubs are sensitive to members' needs, and the general manager's primary job is to mediate issues to the guests' satisfaction. These issues may be difficult, particularly if the complaint comes from only one member.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 11 Gaming Entertainment 1) The net amount spent by the guest is called A) the bet.

B) the handle.

C) the wager.

D) the win zX. Answer: D 2) The total amount wagered in gambling is called the A) wager.

B) win.

C) handle.

D) bet.

Answer: C 3) Placing a bet on an unknown outcome with the hope of securing a gain is A) gambling.

B) risk.

C) gaming.

D) an opportunity.

Answer: A 4) Betting against the "house" is ________ gambling.

A) resort B) social C) mixed D) commercial Answer: D 5) Offering free goods and services to casino patrons in return for their business is called A) comps.

B) guest satisfaction.

C) gratis.

D) on-the-house.

Answer: A 6) Gaming revenue is produced from A) lodging.

B) entertainment.

C) tours and attractions.

D) food and beverage.

E) casino winnings.

Answer: E

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7) Casinos track patron play (gambling) through the use of A) dealers.

B) loyalty programs.

C) pit bosses.

D) spotters.

Answer: B 8) A horse track that also has slot machines is known as A) a racino.

B) a horse parlor.

C) off-track betting.

D) a slot parlor.

Answer: A 9) The origins of gambling are ________ years old.

A) 5,000 B) 2,500 C) 7,000 D) 6,500 Answer: C 10) A public gambling house was legalized for the first time in 1626 in A) Venice.

B) Russia.

C) England.

D) Paris.

E) North America.

Answer: A 11) IGRA stands for A) Indian Gambling Regulatory Act. B) Indian Gaming Regulatory Act. C) Intermediary Gaming Regulatory Act. D) International Gaming Regulatory Act. Answer: B 12) In most parts of the United States, slot machines produce ________ of the casino revenue.

A) about 10 percent B) about 25 percent C) about half D) the bulk Answer: D

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13) The fastest growing sector of casino gaming in the world is A) Africa.

B) Asia.

C) Europe.

D) Las Vegas.

Answer: B 14) Nevada legalized gambling in A) 1931.

B) 1941.

C) 1950.

D) 1910.

Answer: A 15) The first modern casino in Las Vegas was opened on the strip in A) 1947.

B) 1931.

C) 1941.

D) 1951.

Answer: C 16) Atlantic City legalized casino gambling in A) 1976.

B) 1961.

C) 1970.

D) 1947.

Answer: A 17) The Supreme Court allowed Indian reservation gambling in 1987 with the ________ decision.

A) Fernandez B) Arizona C) Mallory D) Cabazon Answer: D 18) Tribal gambling now consists of more than ________ facilities in ________ states.

A) 250; 35 B) 470; 29 C) 150; 25 D) 200; 30 Answer: B

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19) ________ has become the highest grossing casino market in the world.

A) Las Vegas B) Mexico City C) Macau D) Atlantic City Answer: C 20) Which of the following is not one of the five functional areas of casino operations?

A) Casino services B) Marketing C) Human Resources D) Food and Beverage Answer: D 21) One of the first forms of gambling was A) roulette.

B) poker.

C) dice throwing.

D) dog races.

Answer: C 22) From the early 1940s until 1976, what city had a virtual monopoly on the gaming entertainment business?

A) Atlantic City B) Reno C) Las Vegas D) New Orleans Answer: C 23) Las Vegas and what other city are the most popular gaming entertainment resort cities in the United States?

A) New Orleans B) San Diego C) Atlantic City D) Reno Answer: C 24) Gourmet dining and increased restaurant revenues for casinos began in 1992 with A) Emeril Lagasse.

B) James Beard.

C) Jacques Pepin.

D) Wolfgang Puck.

Answer: D

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25) Outside of Nevada, ________ is still illegal in the United States.

A) dog betting B) horse betting C) sports betting D) roulette Answer: C 26) How would you define gambling?

Answer: Gambling is playing a game of risk for the thrill of the action and the chance of making money–gamblers learn and understand the game of risk and enjoy trying to beat the house or odds.

27) What does gaming entertainment refer to and what forms does gaming entertainment take?

Answer: The casino gaming business and all its aspects, including hotel operations, entertainment offerings, retail shopping, and recreational activities, as well as wagering on the gaming floor. Gaming entertainment forms include Vegas, Atlantic City, riverboats, cruises, Native American tribes.

28) Define the term "win" in reference to a casino.

Answer: A casino win is the cost of gambling to guests, who often win over the house in the short run, and are therefore willing to place bets and try their luck.

29) Describe how and why tribal gambling was legalized in 1987?

Answer: Indian gaming has its roots in the concept of tribal sovereignty, meaning that a tribe is not subject to the commercial restrictions of the state in which it is located. In the 1987 Cabazon decision, the Supreme Court affirmed that if a state allowed betting on bingo or card games, Indian tribes could offer these games without limits imposed by state regulator.

30) What are five initial career tracks in the gaming industry?

Answer: Hotel operations, food and beverage operations, casino operations, retail operations, and entertainment operations 31) Outline the rationale for the Native American involvement in the gaming industry.

Answer: Native Americans have often been to Washington fighting for the right to ownership of land they felt was taken from them unjustly. The U.S. government has allowed Native Americans the right to govern their own people on their own reservations for many years.

Another incentive is the right to own and operate gaming facilities on these reservations with limited tax liability and limited governmental influences.

32) Why are there so many career opportunities in the gaming industry?

Answer: Gaming involves so many of the hospitality facets. There are hotels, restaurants, attractions, recreational activities, and games that have to be managed. Workers are needed en masse to fill this growing segment.

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33) Outline the government's involvement in the gaming system.

Answer: Students should mention IGRA, the Casino Control Act and the other legislative acts mentioned in the text. The efforts of the Federal government to regulate Native American casinos should be mentioned. The issue of taxes will also be a topic.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 12 Cruising 1) Until the 1830s, which of the following was not a principal reason for traveling by water?

A) Immigration B) Trade C) Pleasure D) War Answer: C 2) The company credited with inventing cruising is A) Peninsula and Oriental Steam Navigation Company.

B) British Cruise Line, Incorporated.

C) White Star.

D) Cunard.

Answer: A 3) The first American cruise ship to set sail from New York City in 1867 was named A) Manhattan.

B) Queen Mary.

C) Quaker City.

D) Olympic.

Answer: C 4) The White Star Line built ships that were quiet, stable, and luxurious. The Titanic was one of these ships. Which were the other two built by White Star in the early 1900s?

A) Quaker City and Orient B) Olympic and Britannic C) Queen Mary and Queen Elizabeth D) Lusitania and Athena Answer: B 5) The average cruise lasts how long?

A) 4 to 6 days B) about 8 days C) 7 days or less D) 10 days Answer: C 6) Air-cruise packages made cruising an option for many passengers because A) it enabled more passengers to reach the embarkation point.

B) of the high price of airline tickets.

C) it was a marketing tool used by travel agents to increase commissions.

D) it promoted Mediterranean cruises.

Answer: A

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7) Currently, the largest cruise line in the industry is A) Carnival.

B) Royal Caribbean.

C) Norwegian.

D) Crystal.

Answer: A 8) Carnival Cruise Lines are the most financially successful netting about ________ percent of sales.

A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25 Answer: C 9) For most cruise lines, the largest source of income comes from A) fares.

B) casino.

C) food service.

D) beverage service.

Answer: A 10) The second largest cruise line in the industry is Royal Caribbean, which operates two brands: Royal Caribbean International and A) Star Cruises.

B) Celebrity Cruises.

C) Princess Cruises.

D) Disney Cruises.

Answer: B 11) The average cruise passenger is A) retired.

B) about 46 years old and married.

C) single and traveling solo.

D) traveling with an average of 2 children.

Answer: B 12) A perpetual cruiser is one who spends ________ months aboard different cruise ships each year.

A) three to five B) two to three C) six to eight D) eight to ten Answer: A

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13) The main market segment of the cruise industry generally consists of A) people with income in the $30k–$60k range.

B) people with income in the $60k–$80k range.

C) people with incomes greater than $80k.

D) discount travelers.

Answer: A 14) The middle market segment of the cruise industry has an average cost per person of A) $100 to $300 per day.

B) $300 to $400 per day.

C) $250 to $500 per day.

D) more than $500 per day.

Answer: C 15) The luxury segment of the cruise industry caterers to travelers who earn A) $25–$35k per year.

B) $40k–$75k per year.

C) $80k–$120k per year.

D) over $150k per year.

Answer: D 16) Regional cruises are considered A) the most popular, often specializing in one area such as the Caribbean.

B) having the feel of a luxury hotel.

C) friendly with an international atmosphere.

D) to be what cruising is all about—traveling under white sails and being one with nature.

Answer: A 17) Coastal cruises provide passengers with an opportunity to A) explore hard-to-reach areas.

B) experience a unique American tradition.

C) establish a close-knit environment with their fellow travelers.

D) visit local ports and experience the local culture and cuisine.

Answer: D 18) River cruises are found throughout the world and European river cruises are known for their A) close-knit environment.

B) friendly and international atmosphere.

C) providing an opportunity to experience the local culture and cuisine.

D) providing a chance to explore hard-to-reach areas.

Answer: B

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19) Barge cruises A) are the most popular and specialize in one area such as American canals.

B) have the feel of a small hotel.

C) cruise inland waterways and canals and offer close-knit and personal atmospheres.

D) offer passengers a chance to see river locations and a country's major cities.

Answer: C 20) Steamboat cruises A) provide a unique American experience, providing a chance to see America's heartland.

B) designed for passengers who want to explore exotic locations such as the Amazon.

C) provide a friendly and international atmosphere.

D) only cruise during the warm months of April–October.

Answer: A 21) One of the most well-known adventure cruisers is A) Abercrombie and Fitch.

B) Abercrombie and Kent.

C) South Pacific Line.

D) Alaskan Outfitters.

Answer: B 22) A world cruise A) is inexpensive, sometimes costing less than $100 per day.

B) is geared towards families with small children.

C) the ultimate chance to see the world in style.

D) usually offered only once per year.

Answer: C 23) In cruising, the term "crossing" implies A) the point where two ships meet and cross paths during a cruise.

B) a cruise that visits multiple destinations.

C) a cruise that visits the same port of call twice.

D) a cruise that sails across an ocean one way or round trip.

Answer: D 24) Luxury ships delineate themselves from mass market ships by having a crew-to-passenger ratio of A) 1 crew member to every 10 guests.

B) 1 crew member to every 5 guests.

C) 1 crew member to every 1.5 guests.

D) 1 crew member to every 3.5 guests.

Answer: C

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25) The highest ranking position on a cruise ship is the A) hotel manager.

B) captain.

C) cruise director.

D) food and beverage director.

Answer: B 26) The position on a cruise ship responsible for administration, cruise staff, entertainment, food and beverage, and housekeeping is the A) hotel manager.

B) purser.

C) cruise director.

D) captain.

Answer: A 27) The position on a cruise ship responsible for supervising all departments onboard except for the deck and engine is the A) hotel manager.

B) captain.

C) chief steward.

D) purser.

Answer: D 28) The position responsible for creating, coordinating, and implementing all daily activities is the A) hotel manager.

B) purser.

C) cruise director.

D) chief steward.

Answer: C 29) The position responsible for regulating and accounting for all cleaning supplies, equipment used, cabin services, and more is the A) hotel manager.

B) purser.

C) cruise director.

D) chief steward.

Answer: D 30) One of the most popular cruise destinations in the world is A) the Baltic.

B) the Caribbean.

C) the Great Barrier Reef.

D) Alaska.

Answer: B

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31) For sunlight and temperature purposes, Alaskan cruises are only offered A) in the spring.

B) in the fall.

C) in the summer.

D) in the winter.

Answer: C 32) One way cruise lines are becoming more sustainable is build ships that use A) nuclear power.

B) oil instead of coal.

C) solar power.

D) hydrogen power.

Answer: D 33) "Aloha" is literally translated into all of the following meanings except A) I'm hungry!

B) Hello.

C) I love you.

D) Good-bye.

Answer: A

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Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

A) Carnival Cruise Lines B) Star Cruises C) Cabin D) Chief steward E) Food and beverage director F) The Peninsula and Oriental Steam Navigation Company G) Crossing H) Hotel manager I) Luxury market J) Cruise director 34) Company associated with the invention of cruising 35) Term associated with very high expectations of comfort and service 36) A term that implies sailing across an ocean 37) The name given to a passenger's room 38) The most financially successful cruise line company 39) The position responsible for administration, cruise staff, entertainment, food and beverage, dining room, and housekeeping 40) The position in charge of all onboard entertainment and activities 41) The supervisor of housekeeping, cleaning supplies, cabin services, room services, bell services and passenger luggage 42) The position responsible for food costs, overall quality of food and beverage 43) The third largest cruise line in the industry Answers: 34) F 35) I 36) G 37) C 38) A 39) H 40) J 41) D 42) E 43) B

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44) The Peninsula and Oriental Steam Navigation Company is recognized as the ________ of cruising.

Answer: inventor 45) The cruise industry has experienced steady ________ over the past 10 years.

Answer: growth 46) The largest source of income for a cruise ship other than the fare itself is ________.

Answer: beverage service 47) Most of the cruise market is for trips of ________ days or less.

Answer: seven 48) Middle market cruise ships are stylish and comfortable, and each vessel often has its own ________.

Answer: personality 49) ________ are the most popular and include sailing the Caribbean and Mediterranean.

Answer: Regional cruises 50) ________ cruises take passengers to exotic and exciting places where they become active in every aspect of the trip, exploring and studying nature.

Answer: Expedition/Nature 51) A cruise passenger's accommodation is called the ________.

Answer: cabin 52) World cruises must be totally ________.

Answer: self-sufficient 53) The highest ranking position on a cruise ship, receiving the most perks, is the ________.

Answer: captain 54) List the top three cruise line companies and briefly describe the types of customers they appeal to.

Answer: Carnival—the most successful financially targeting adults between the ages of 25-54. Provide lots of entertainment and gambling. Smaller cabins to accommodate greater public areas.

Royal Caribbean—target market of ages 35-plus with a relatively high income, welcome families.

Norwegian (Star Cruises)—freestyle cruising, dress as you wish, eat when and where you want, more casual.

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55) Visit the Cruise Lines International Association (http://www.cruising.org). Describe five services provided by this association.

Answer: Cruise news Planning cruises List of cruise lines/ships Cruise industry news Association news Research Travel agent services 56) List and briefly describe five types of cruises.

Answer: Regional—most popular, usually cruising to the Caribbean or Mediterranean, offered by most cruise line companies.

Coastal—smaller ships that sail closer to land, seeking out areas not accessible to larger ships.

Passengers get the opportunity to disembark to visit more ports and experience the culture.

River—friendly atmosphere with the feeling of a small hotel.

Barges—smaller vessels cruising inland waterways and canals. Offer personal and informal atmosphere.

Steam boating—unique to the United States, sailing the Mississippi River and other major rivers, mostly in America's heartland.

Expeditions and Natural—cruise to exotic and exciting places. Passengers play an active part in every aspect of the trip, exploring and studying rather than ritzy entertainment—like ecotourism.

Adventure—cruise areas like Alaska, Amazon, Antarctica, Greenland, Galapagos—like ecotourism.

Sail cruises—traveling under sail being propelled by the wind; being one with nature, little to no structure.

World cruises—very expensive, lasting three to six months. Luxury accommodations. Mostly very wealthy retired passengers.

57) Describe three things cruisers can do to help create a more sustainable experience.

Answer: Conserve – take shorter showers, use fewer towels, eat in moderation In port – travel by foot, support local cultures Look into alternatives – try sailing, look into smaller cruises, cruise only with members of the Cruise Lines International Association

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58) List four shore excursions a passenger might enjoy.

Answer: Snorkeling Scuba diving Swimming with dolphins Tubing and rafting Tours Canoeing Hiking/Climbing Nature walks Shopping Sightseeing 59) List five trends in the cruise industry.

Answer: A rapid expansion in number of ships Cruise lines will continue to create new accommodations and entertainment to distinguish themselves An increase in the number of North American ports An increase in itineraries offered through North American ports An increase in the number of refurbished ships to add capacity Expanding passenger base Development of the different types of cruises offered Growth in the number of job opportunities 60) Discuss a brief history of cruising. When did it start? What companies were involved? Where did the ships travel?

Answer: Cruising got its start around 1844 when the P&O Steam Navigation Company sailed around the Mediterranean with novelist Makepeace Thackeray.

61) Identify the various markets and types of cruise passenger. List and briefly describe each segment.

Answer: The typical cruise passenger is about 46-years-old, married, no children, with an annual income greater than $90,000.

Mass market consists of people with incomes from $30,000 to $60,000 and an average cost per day between $60 and $250.

Middle market includes people with incomes from $60,000 to $80,000 and an average cost per person between $250 and $500 per day.

The luxury market consists of people with incomes higher than $150,000, and they see an average cost per day of more than $500.

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62) Describe the hierarchy of a ship's crew. List six management positions and give a brief description of their duties.

Answer: Captain is the highest-ranking position and makes most of the executive decisions.

Hotel manager is in charge of all hotel operations: administration, staff, entertainment, food and beverage, and housekeeping.

Food and beverage manager is responsible for all the food and beverages served shipwide.

Chief purser is virtually the second in command on the ship, supervising all departments except deck and engine.

Cruise director is in charge of all entertainment.

The chief steward is the equivalent of the director of housekeeping in a hotel.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 13 Meetings, Conventions, and Expositions 1) Associations began in the United States at the beginning of the eighteenth century when what group organized itself?

A) Rhode Island candle makers B) U.S. restaurateurs C) Orlando conventioneers D) New York hoteliers Answer: A 2) Which of the following are not benefits of being part of an association?

A) Government/political voice B) Networking C) Education/professional development D) Banking Answer: D 3) What group or market sector is the greatest percentage of convention center utilization?

A) Religious B) Educational C) Exposition trade shows D) Government and social services E) Professional and trade shows Answer: E 4) What is the primary outcome of the responsibilities of a convention and visitors bureau?

A) Increase city population B) Generate and increase revenues for the city C) Develop infrastructure D) Increase government involvement in hospitality Answer: B 5) A FAM trip is A) a trip to relax prior to a big convention in a large city.

B) the trip visitors take when they attend a convention or an event in a city.

C) a visit to a city to do a site inspection for an event.

D) a trip an event planner takes after a trade show.

Answer: C 6) A not-for-profit organization that represents an urban area that tries to solicit business or pleasure-seeking visitors is a(n) A) convention and visitors bureau.

B) destination management company.

C) exposition.

D) familiarization trip.

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7) A service organization within the visitor industry that offers a host of programs and services to meet clients' needs is a A) convention management company.

B) convention and exposition bureau.

C) destination management company.

D) convention and visitors bureau.

Answer: C 8) Which of the following would not be included on the staff of a destination management company?

A) Chef B) Operations manager C) Special events manager D) Audio visual specialist E) Theme/events creative director Answer: A 9) Attendee registration, exhibit space rentals, and sponsorship are all sources of revenue for A) a convention and visitors bureau.

B) a destination management company.

C) meetings.

D) conventions.

Answer: D 10) Expositions have also been called A) conventions.

B) trade shows.

C) meetings.

D) workshops.

Answer: B 11) The combination of a meeting and an exposition is called a A) workshop.

B) forum.

C) trade show.

D) convention.

Answer: D 12) A person that contracts out their services to (or works for) associations and corporations and plans meetings down to the last detail is a A) DMC. B) catering manager.

C) service contractor.

D) meeting planner.

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13) Individuals hired by the convention center and responsible for providing all the services needed to run the facilities for a trade show are known as A) convention and visitors bureaus.

B) event planners.

C) meeting planners.

D) destination managers.

E) service contractors.

Answer: E 14) A workshop-type educational experience in which attendees learn by doing is called a A) forum.

B) symposium.

C) clinic.

D) seminar.

Answer: C 15) What is an assembly for the discussion of common concerns where experts in a given field take opposite sides of an issue in a panel discussion, with opportunity for audience participation?

A) Symposium B) Forum C) Seminar D) Workshop E) Clinic Answer: B 16) A lecture and a dialogue that allow participants to share experiences in a particular field is known as a A) seminar.

B) workshop.

C) clinic.

D) forum.

E) symposium.

Answer: A 17) An event as which a particular subject is discussed by experts and opinions are gathered is known as a A) symposium.

B) workshop.

C) seminar.

D) clinic.

E) forum.

Answer: A

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18) A small group led by a facilitator or trainer–generally including exercises to enhance skills or develop knowledge in a specific topic is a A) seminar.

B) symposium.

C) workshop.

D) clinic.

E) forum.

Answer: C 19) Which type of meeting room set up is generally intended for a large audience that does not need to make a lot of notes or refer to documents?

A) Boardroom B) Theater style C) Classroom D) Tea room Answer: B 20) Which type of meeting room set up is used when the meeting format is more instructional and participants take detailed notes or refer to documents?

A) Tea room B) Boardroom C) Classroom D) Theater style Answer: C 21) Which type of meeting room setup is for small numbers of people, with the meeting taking place around one block rectangular table?

A) Ballroom style B) Tea room C) Boardroom D) Theater style Answer: C 22) Large meetings with some form of exposition or trade show included are called A) symposiums.

B) conventions.

C) seminar.

D) workshops.

Answer: B 23) An event that brings together sellers of products and services, where they can show their products and services to a group of attendees is known as a(n) A) exposition.

B) clinic.

C) symposium.

D) convention.

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24) Large facilities where meetings and expositions are held, usually in city centers are called A) visitors bureaus.

B) destination centers.

C) conference centers.

D) convention centers.

Answer: D 25) An industry group that is generally a public relations organization founded by and funded by a corporation that operates in a specific industry is known as a A) government organization.

B) professional association.

C) religious organization.

D) trade association.

Answer: D 26) What are the five primary responsibilities of a convention and visitors bureau?

Answer: 1. Enhance the image of tourism in the area 2. Market the area and encourage people to visit and stay longer 3. Target and encourage selected associations and others to hold meetings, expositions, and conventions in the city 4. To assist associations and others with convention preparations and to give support 5. To encourage tourists to partake of the historical, cultural, and recreational opportunities 27) Describe what staff responsibilities would fall under a sales manager in a destinations management company.

Answer: Special events manager who still has expertise in sound, lighting, and staging; accounts manager who is an assistant to the sales manager; a theme/events creative director; audio visual specialist; operations manager who coordinates everything, especially on-site arrangements, to ensure that the specifications meet the outlined needs.

28) Name five types or forms of meetings, and describe each.

Answer: 1. Clinic–a workshop-type educational experience in which attendees learn by doing; small groups interacting with each other 2. Forum–an assembly for the discussion of common concerns where experts in a given field take opposite sides of an issue in a panel discussion, with opportunity for audience participation 3. Seminar–A lecture and a dialogue that allow participants to share experiences in a particular field 4. Symposium–an event at which a particular subject is discussed by experts and opinions are gathered 5. Workshop–A small group led by a facilitator or trainer–generally includes exercises to enhance skills or develop knowledge in a specific topic

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29) What are five types of associations?

Answer: 1. Trade association–industry trade group that is generally a public relations organization 2. Professional association–professional body or organization that exists to further a profession; usually nonprofit 3. Medical and scientific associations–usually based on specific specialties, offering conferences and continuing education 4. Religious organizations–groups that are part of churches, mosques, synagogues. or other spiritual congregations. They come together to further develop their faith.

5. Government organizations–made up of numerous public bodies and agencies–federal, state, and local 30) What are the components that make up an enforceable contract?

Answer: An offer–what the offering party is willing to do and what is expected in return.

Consideration–the payment exchanged for the promises made in a contract; considerations must flow both ways, for example, services provided and payment for services.

31) Explain the differences between meetings, expositions, and conventions.

Answer: Meetings are conferences, workshops, seminars are other events designed to bring people together for the purpose of exchanging information. Expos are events designed to bring together purveyors of products where they can demo and show their wares. Conventions are a combo of meetings and expos.

32) Outline the role of the CVB in your area.

Answer: The answers here will vary depending on where you live. Some areas enjoy an active CVB that is aggressive in attracting new businesses and tourist to the area, and some areas have more passive bureaus.

33) Discuss the steps you would take to organize a meeting at a nearby hotel for 100 members of a local sports league. Discuss areas such as: the meeting's purpose, location, meeting agendas, food, activities, speakers, etc. Be thorough.

Answer: The discussion will focus on planning a meeting from the needs analysis to post event evaluation.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 14 Events 1) Which of the following is not true of special events?

A) Always arouse expectations B) Are usually motivated by a reason for celebration C) Are always planned D) Occur spontaneously Answer: D 2) Which of the following events would not be considered a special event?

A) Sales meeting B) Convention C) Festival D) Wedding Answer: A 3) Which of the stages of event management is the time for asking questions about a potential event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage Answer: C 4) Which of the stages of event management is the time for freedom in creativity and implementation of new ideas that support the objectives of the special event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage Answer: A 5) Which of the stages of event management is often driven by the determined budget for the event and the time for contracting out services and activities that will become part of the event?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage Answer: B

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6) Which of the stages of event management involves decision-making skills and abilities as the event progresses?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage Answer: D 7) Which of the stages of event management should take place at each stage of the event and is the final step that can measure the success of the event in meeting the goals and objectives?

A) Design stage B) Planning stage C) Research stage D) Coordination stage E) Evaluation stage Answer: E 8) According to the Event Solutions Black Book, what is the most popular site for holding events?

A) Convention center B) Hotel/resort C) Outdoors D) Clubs E) Banquet hall Answer: B 9) Which type of event would include annual meeting, sales meetings, workshops, training meeting, or awards ceremony?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event Answer: A 10) Which type of event would usually be based on a theme, have a very limited budget and provide a great return for the group having the event?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event Answer: C

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11) Which type of event would be planned two to five years in advance and the destination is a determining factor in the planning process?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event Answer: B 12) Which type of event would include SMERFs as well as wedding and party planners?

A) Corporate event B) Association event C) Charity or fundraising event D) Social event Answer: D 13) What event's purpose is usually related to the agriculture industry and evokes memories of games, attractions, and fun food?

A) Mardi Gras B) Fairs C) Oktoberfest D) Festivals Answer: B 14) Which type of events are often themed to the celebrations purpose, like Mardi Gras celebrates the beginning of Lent?

A) Catering B) Fairs C) Weddings D) Festivals Answer: D 15) A contract or ________ stipulates in writing all the client's requirements and gives all of the relevant information.

A) financial plan B) budget C) request for proposal (RFP) D) event profile Answer: D 16) Mega events are made up mainly of what type of attraction?

A) Fairs B) Weddings C) Sporting events D) Festivals Answer: C

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17) Which of the following event management skills would be characterized by the process by which a meeting planner and supplier reach an agreement on the terms and conditions that will govern their relationship?

A) Budgeting skills B) Delegating skills C) Project management sills D) Negotiating skills Answer: D 18) Which of the event management skills aids in completing projects on time and within budget and where parts of an event can be managed as separate components?

A) Project management skills B) Budgeting skills C) Delegating skills D) Negotiating skills Answer: A 19) The use of flow charts and graphs for scheduling, clearly defined work setup and breakdown and policy statements to help guide decision making and the fulfilling of commitments are examples of A) project management.

B) coordination management.

C) human resource management.

D) budgeting management.

Answer: A 20) Which group or agency does not engage in the actual planning or organization of meetings, conventions, and other events?

A) Event planner B) Conference center C) Convention and visitors bureau D) Hotels/resorts Answer: C 21) Sporting events, festivals, and social events are all part of the ________ market.

A) convention B) corporate C) special event D) private party Answer: C

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22) A special event consultant A) should be a CPA. B) must have been a hotel manager.

C) should have climbed the "experience ladder."

D) should have been a food and beverage manager.

E) should have at least a bachelor's degree.

Answer: C 23) An event such as the Olympics requires ________ to provide money or in-kind contributions and receive recognition in return.

A) sales representatives B) consultants C) sponsors D) caterers Answer: C 24) Management of events often takes place at convention centers or hotels where ________ handle all arrangements after the sales manager has completed the contracts.

A) event managers B) banquet managers C) food and beverage directors D) catering managers Answer: A 25) The final and most important tool for event planners and managers is A) financial management.

B) technology.

C) time management.

D) human resources.

Answer: D 26) What are the key differences in planning a wedding and planning a fundraising event?

Answer: Weddings are social events where the event manager works from a specific budget. A fundraiser usually has no formal budget and bases its "profits" on spending as little as possible while providing the attendees with an extravagant event. Strong negotiating skills are used in both to maximize the effects.

27) What does it mean to have sponsorship for a large event and why is it important?

Answer: Sponsors provide money or in-kind contributions and receive recognition as a sponsor of the event, including use or display of their logo in the event's promotion. Sponsorship is important because is it too costly to stage an event without their financial support.

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28) What special skills are necessary for event management?

Answer: Marketing and sales–attracting the business Planning–attention to details Organization–keeping staff organized Financial–formulating and adhering to budgets Human resources–hiring the right people with the right job motivation 29) What are the five stages of the event planning process?

Answer: Research Design Planning Coordination Evaluation 30) In the research stage of event planning, what important questions must the planner ask/answer?

Answer: Why should a special event be held?

Who should hold it?

Where should it be held?

What should the focus on the event be?

What outcomes are expected?

31) Describe the process you would use to create a charity event for your organization. Include what questions you would ask and what information you need to complete the process.

Answer: The student should list and discuss the event-planning process including research, design, planning, coordination, and evaluation of the event.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 15 Leadership, Management, and Marketing 1) Courage, endurance, integrity, and judgment are all traits common to A) managers.

B) supervisors.

C) CEOs. D) leaders.

Answer: D 2) Some of the important characteristics of good leadership are A) dependence on others to give you answers.

B) integrity, judgment, and dependability.

C) neatness and appearance.

D) ability to give unquestioned orders.

E) using ideas from your peers.

Answer: B 3) Leadership can be identified as A) always giving rewards.

B) showing transactional or transformational traits.

C) someone who has followers.

D) achieving a goal.

E) acting out theories.

Answer: B 4) Which of the following is not an identifiable practice common to leaders?

A) Creating a model.

B) Encouraging the heart.

C) Inspiring a shared vision.

D) Challenging the process.

Answer: A 5) The ________ model outlines the coming together of a leader, the followers, and the situation.

A) charismatic leader B) transformational leader C) transactional leader D) traditional leader Answer: C 6) Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. was an example of what specific type of leadership?

A) Transactional B) Experienced C) Incentive D) Transformational E) Peer led Answer: D 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) ________ leadership involves charisma, individual consideration, and intellectual stimulation.

A) Transformational B) Traditional C) Charismatic D) Transactional Answer: A 8) ________ is the set of moral principles and values that people use to answer questions about right and wrong.

A) Values B) Beliefs C) Ethics D) Codes Answer: C 9) Leaders possess a mental and physical intensity that causes them to be assertive by A) taking control, assuming responsibility.

B) performance, regardless of the method.

C) producing guaranteed outcomes.

D) taking moderated risks.

Answer: A 10) Some important leadership skills in the hospitality work area are A) not showing excessive enthusiasm.

B) honor, integrity, and a sense of humor.

C) taking moderate risks.

D) reading and public speaking.

Answer: B 11) One of the first questions a leader asks is usually A) "What are the organization's missions and goals?"

B) "What can and should I do to make a difference?"

C) "What needs to be done?"

D) "Do I pass the mirror test?"

Answer: C 12) Which of the following is not a distinction of management?

A) Control risks B) Create opportunities C) Work in the system D) Enforce organizational rules E) Coordinate effort Answer: B

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13) Management is defined as the A) authority to control the work process.

B) ability to lead a group of workers.

C) process of coordinating work activities.

D) control of a work situation.

Answer: C 14) Looking at the past and using that information to predict the future is known as A) planning.

B) forecasting.

C) motivating.

D) organizing.

Answer: B 15) Decision-making, communicating, and controlling are key functions of a A) leader.

B) CEO. C) supervisor.

D) manager.

Answer: D 16) ________ manage the work of line employees.

A) Top managers B) Executives C) Frontline managers D) Midlevel managers Answer: C 17) Efficiency and effectiveness are most important for A) decision-making.

B) controlling.

C) management to have good results.

D) housekeeping employees.

Answer: C 18) Management is simply what managers do to A) plan, organize, and control the business.

B) schedule employees.

C) pay bills and do office work.

D) answer the phone and make reservations.

E) research the market.

Answer: A

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19) ________ are responsible for short term planning.

A) Frontline managers B) Supervisors C) Top managers D) Midlevel managers Answer: D 20) Long range strategic goals are determined by A) frontline management.

B) supervisors.

C) top management.

D) midlevel management.

Answer: C 21) Setting goals and creating objectives to achieve those goals is the process of A) organizing.

B) planning.

C) forecasting.

D) controlling.

Answer: B 22) Keeping morale high and managing conflict is part of the ________ function.

A) organizing B) planning C) motivating D) controlling Answer: C 23) Setting standards and comparing actual performance to the standard is known as A) controlling.

B) leading.

C) planning.

D) organizing.

Answer: A 24) The ability to view a corporation as a complete entity is a ________ skill.

A) communication B) technical C) interpersonal D) conceptual Answer: D

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25) A hotel room not sold today is A) revenue gained.

B) revenue delayed.

C) replaceable.

D) irreplaceable.

Answer: D 26) Of the three management skill areas (technical, human and conceptual), which is the most important and why?

Answer: Answers will vary depending on the student point of view. All three are important to be an effective manager.

27) Define leadership in terms of hospitality.

Answer: In terms of hospitality leadership, the definition "Leading is the process by which a person with vision is able to influence the activities and outcomes of others in a desired way" is appropriate. Leaders know what they want and why they want it–and they are able to communicate those desires to others to gain their cooperation and support.

28) What is a transformational leader and what three practices are common?

Answer: A transformational leader is one that elicits performance above and beyond normal expectations and inspires others to reach beyond themselves to do more.

29) List the five main approaches to being a leader rather than a manager.

Answer: The text outlines the practices common to leaders: challenge the process, inspire a shared vision, enable others to act, model the way, and encourage the heart.

30) Define management in terms of efficiency and effectiveness.

Answer: Efficiency is getting the most done with the fewest number of inputs, where effectiveness is "doing the right thing." Ideal management balances the two.

31) Discuss a situation where you will be in a position to justify your decisions and satisfy the demands of guests, employees, the owners (stakeholders), and the community. How do you balance each of these groups?

Answer: Answers will vary. Some suggestions may be to plan, organize, and delegate many tasks to free up the time to evaluate. Using the three managerial skills will free up the time to look at the big picture.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 16 Planning 1) Planning involves selecting the various ________ that the organization wants to achieve and the ________ to be taken to ensure that they are accomplished.

A) strategies; objectives B) objectives; strategies C) goals; strategies D) targets; tactics Answer: C 2) Which of the following is not a key operating area?

A) Productivity B) Employee satisfaction C) Guest satisfaction D) Scheduling Answer: D 3) ________ planning is often done at the last minute with little or no sharing of goals and strategies.

A) Recognized B) Formal C) Informal D) Strategic Answer: C 4) Which of the following gives direction not only to top management but to all associates as they focus on goal accomplishment?

A) Staff scheduling B) Strategies C) Forecasting D) Planning Answer: D 5) Which of the following creates long-term plans that steer the organization toward its goals in the accomplishment of its mission and vision?

A) Informal planning B) Forecasting C) Strategic planning D) Scheduling Answer: C

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6) ________ develops the mission, goals, and strategies by identifying the business of the corporation today and the business it wants for the future.

A) Strategic management B) Informal planning C) The planning department D) Line-level management Answer: A 7) Most of the strategic planning that takes place at the top management level is A) pre-planning strategy.

B) goal-oriented strategy.

C) mission and goals development.

D) corporate-level strategy.

Answer: D 8) Which of the following is not one of the key corporate level strategies?

A) Strategic alliance B) Growth C) Diversification D) Restructure Answer: D 9) ________ aims to increase market share by promoting sales aggressively in existing markets.

A) Product development B) Geographic expansion C) Horizontal integration D) Market penetration Answer: D 10) ________ is the process of acquiring ownership or control of competitors with similar products in the same or similar markets.

A) Market penetration B) Horizontal integration C) Product development D) Geographic expansion Answer: B 11) A(n) ________ is used to assess the company's internal and external processes and use them to their advantage.

A) productivity analysis B) SWOT analysis C) operating analysis D) internal analysis Answer: B

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12) Which of the following is not one of the traditional four Ps of marketing?

A) Price B) Position C) Place D) Product Answer: B 13) What is the process of screening large amounts of information to anticipate and interpret changes in the surrounding economic area?

A) Environmental scanning B) SWOT analysis C) Forecasting D) Planning Answer: A 14) ________ is the prediction of future outcome.

A) Forecasting B) Development C) Planning D) Scheduling Answer: A 15) ________ are generally created for periods of up to one year and fit in with long-range plans of the organization.

A) Goals and objectives B) Financial scheduling C) Operational plans D) Strategic plans Answer: C 16) What is the process of determining outcomes for each area and associate?

A) Forecasting B) Goal setting C) Selecting alternatives D) Environmental analyzing Answer: B 17) ________ refers to the amount of labor (input) it takes to do a particular task.

A) Demand scheduling B) Value pricing C) Productivity D) Task analysis Answer: C

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18) ________ are operational statements of activities that should be quantifiable and attainable within a stated time.

A) Plans B) Objectives C) Tactics D) Strategies Answer: B 19) What is the managerial process that determines the goals of the organization and then plans the objective?

A) Operational analysis B) Operational assessment C) Management by objectives D) Strategic goals assessment Answer: C 20) Strategic plans A) are long-range plans that steer an organization to its goals.

B) are medium-range plans that steer an organization to its goals.

C) identify where the organization is and what its objectives are.

D) are plans that steer an organization to its SWOT analysis.

Answer: A 21) This concept identifies the best way of doing something, which companies excel in that area, and how our company can improve upon it.

A) Targeting B) Leveling C) Benchmarking D) Scaling Answer: C 22) ________ are broad guidelines for associates to use when making decisions.

A) Policies B) Rules C) Procedures D) Strategies Answer: A 23) ________ are specific actions that associates must follow.

A) Policies B) Strategies C) Procedures D) Rules Answer: D

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24) A plan allocating money to a specific activity is A) budget.

B) schedule.

C) arrangement.

D) forecast.

Answer: A 25) A budget is a plan for A) allocating money to specific activities.

B) capital equipment.

C) labor costs.

D) All of the above.

E) Both A and C. Answer: D 26) Discuss the purpose of planning. Who does it and why?

Answer: Planning gives direction not only to top management but to all associates as they focus on goal accomplishment. Top executives do most of the strategic planning, and operational or frontline managers do the short-term or operational planning.

27) How would you create an operational plan? Discuss the seven steps of operational planning.

Answer: Operational plans are generally created for periods of up to one year and fit in with the strategic plan. Operational plans provide managers with a step-by-step approach to accomplish goals. The overall purpose of planning is to have the entire organization moving harmoniously toward the goals. These are the seven steps in operational planning: Setting goals, analyzing and evaluating the environment, determining alternatives, evaluating alternatives, selecting the best solution, implementing the plan, and controlling and evaluating the results.

28) What is an environmental scan? How and why would you perform one?

Answer: Environmental scanning is the process of screening large amounts of information to anticipate and interpret changes in the environment. Environmental scanning creates the basis for forecasts. Forecasting is the prediction of future outcomes. Information gained through scanning is used to form scenarios. The two main types of outcomes that managers seek to forecast are future revenues and new technology breakthroughs.

29) Discuss the strategic planning process and how it coordinates with corporate level and operational planning. Include the three corporate strategies in your discussion.

Answer: Student answers should include who performs this planning phase, the three corporate level strategies (growth, strategic alliances and joint ventures, and diversification), a SWOT analysis, environmental scanning, and the process by which managers plan.

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30) Define and give an example of using Total Quality Management in a hotel environment.

Answer: TQM not only involves planning but also touches on the other functions of management. The idea of improving efficiency and increasing productivity while placing a larger emphasis on quality has caught on fast. Take guest check-in as an example. The TQM team would include members from the front office and guest services (bellpersons, etc.) who identify lineups for check-in from 4:00 to 7:00 p.m. The group writes a challenge or problem statement and various ways of improving the situations are presented.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 17 Organizing 1) ________ refers to the arrangement of activities so that they systematically contribute to goal accomplishment.

A) Departmentalization B) Specialization C) Control D) Organization Answer: D 2) What provides the total framework by which job tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated?

A) Job rotation B) Organizational structure C) Project structure D) Span of control Answer: B 3) What is used to describe the extent to which jobs in an organization are divided into separate tasks?

A) Job rotation B) Job project C) Function analysis D) Work specialization Answer: D 4) Once jobs have been divided up by work specialization, they have to be grouped back together so that the common tasks can be coordinated. This is called A) departmentalization.

B) job enrichment.

C) structure.

D) organizational control.

Answer: A 5) ________ are created to coordinate the work of several associates in a given area.

A) Chains of command B) Departments C) Productive teams D) Fair Labor Standards Act Answer: B 6) The simplest form of departmentalization is by A) product.

B) function.

C) guest.

D) territory.

Answer: B 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) What is the term when an organization departmentalizes by brand?

A) Function B) Territory C) Guest D) Product Answer: D 8) What is closely associated with chain of command because it gives manager the right to exercise their power in a given situation?

A) Authority B) Power C) Influence D) Control Answer: A 9) When authority is delegated, so should commensurate A) responsibility.

B) liability.

C) training.

D) command.

Answer: A 10) The ________ begins at the top of the organization with the board of directors selecting a president or CEO. A) organizational chart B) control C) chain of command D) power Answer: C 11) An increase in the number of associate a manager supervises refers to A) direct control.

B) authority.

C) span of control.

D) responsibility.

Answer: C 12) When an associate has the authority to solve problems without the intervention of a manager, this is A) authority.

B) responsibility.

C) empowerment.

D) span of control.

E) chain of command.

Answer: C 2 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) Some organizations make most of the decisions at the corporate level and inform unit manager. This is A) responsibility.

B) decentralization.

C) centralization.

D) empowerment.

E) chain of command.

Answer: C 14) Some organizations make most of the decisions at the unit level. This is A) responsibility.

B) chain of command.

C) empowerment.

D) decentralization.

Answer: D 15) A "what-if" scenario in the hospitality industry refers to A) semi-structured.

B) unstructured.

C) forecasting.

D) contingency factor.

E) organizational structure.

Answer: D 16) Productive teams are A) built by giving associates the authority, responsibility, and encouragement to come together to work on guest-related improvements.

B) built by giving associates the leadership to make guest-related decisions.

C) members interacting to focus on resources.

D) Both A and C. Answer: A 17) ________ are assigned a goal, and the team plans, organizes, leads, and controls to achieve the goal.

A) Self-managed work teams B) Integrated work teams C) Empowered supervisors D) Independent teams Answer: A 18) Which type of structure is designed so that employees do not return to their departments after completion of the project?

A) Project structures B) Independent structures C) Work team structures D) Boundaryless organizations Answer: A 3 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

19) Which type of structure can implement strategies that will improve guest satisfaction or reduce costs by finding quicker or better ways of doing something?

A) Project structure B) Integrated work teams C) Work team structure D) Independent business unit Answer: D 20) Which type of organization is not defined by, or limited to, the horizontal, vertical, or external boundaries imposed by a predefined structure?

A) Work team structures B) Boundaryless organizations C) Independent business unit D) Informal structure Answer: B 21) The ________ seeks to eliminate the chain of command, to have appropriate spans of control, and to replace departments with empowered teams.

A) project structure B) informal structure C) work team structure D) boundaryless organization Answer: D 22) Which type of task-oriented work groups either are formally appointed or evolve informally?

A) Project structures B) Teams C) Boundaryless work groups D) Informal structures Answer: B 23) Saving managers time and making decisions that were once made by managers is the task of A) integrated work teams.

B) formal structures.

C) self-managed teams.

D) project-task structures.

Answer: C 24) Which of the following are built by giving associates the authority, responsibility, and encouragement to come together to work on guest-related improvements that will not only enhance the guest experience but also make the associates' jobs easier?

A) Productive teams B) Integrated team structures C) Self-managed teams D) Empowered teams Answer: A 4 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

25) Which of the following is a way to relieve the boredom and monotony that can be a disadvantage of work specialization?

A) Empowerment B) Job enrichment C) Job enlargement D) Job rotation Answer: D 26) Discuss how structure is important to an organization.

Answer: An organizational structure is like a skeleton in that it supports the various departments in an organization. It provides the total framework by which job tasks are divided, grouped, and coordinated.

27) Describe the four forms of departmentalization and give an example of each.

Answer: The simplest form of departmentalization is by function. A large hotel rooms division has a reservations department, uniformed service department, front desk, communications department, concierge, housekeeping, and so on–each with its own specialized function. Choice Hotels International departmentalizes its lodging properties by product in the form different hotel brands. Hotels may also departmentalize by guest needs or territory.

28) How many associates can one manager supervise? Explain your answer.

Answer: The answer used to be between 8 and 12. Now, however, the answer is likely to be 12 to 18. The reason for this increase in span of control is that organizations needed to become more competitive with not only other U.S. companies but foreign ones, too.

Although hospitality corporations have increased their span of control, it is also fair to say that they realize that there is a point when the number of people reporting to managers overburdens associates. At that point, managers don't have the time to give advice, nor do they have time to properly supervise their associates, so standards decline.

29) Describe the relationship between job enlargement and job enrichment. How do they differ and how are they similar?

Answer: Job enlargement increases the scope of the associates' work. Today, hospitality management professionals have more work and responsibilities than ever before. Job enrichment adds some planning and evaluating responsibilities to a position. It gives associates greater control over their work by allowing them to assume some tasks typically done by their supervisors.

30) Describe the changes that came about when the traditional organization chart was turned upside down.

Answer: The general manager used to be at the top of the organizational chart and the frontline associate at the bottom, the guest never appeared on the chart. Now the guest is at the top of the inverted pyramid and the general manager at the bottom.

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31) Explain the advantage and disadvantage of empowerment.

Answer: Advantage, guests get what they need more quickly and smoothly without interruption of service. Disadvantage, staff may take advantage of this privilege and abuse of policy can occur.

32) Discuss the importance of contingency factors.

Answer: Contingency factors deal with what hospitality organizations refer to as what-ifs.

33) Explain the concept of group dynamics.

Answer: Group dynamics includes variables such as the abilities of the group's members, the size of the group, the level of conflict, and the internal pressures on members to conform to the group's norms.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 18 Communication and Decision-Making 1) Communication is defined as A) speaking to someone.

B) an exchange of information and meaning.

C) listening to someone.

D) understanding others.

Answer: B 2) Managerial communication includes A) managers to managers.

B) managers to CEOs. C) organizational.

D) computer to computer.

Answer: C 3) Interpersonal communications are only successful if A) there is no noise present.

B) feedback has been received.

C) the message is decoded.

D) a computer is used.

Answer: B 4) The largest part of a message in communicating interpersonally is seen in A) face-to-face conversation.

B) paying attention.

C) gestures, facial expressions, postures, and clothing.

D) communicating the message to someone else.

E) the response.

Answer: C 5) Emotions are typically conveyed by A) body language.

B) face-to-face communications.

C) electronic communications.

D) verbal communications.

Answer: A 6) In overcoming barriers in good communication, one must A) understand the language.

B) have a good self-image.

C) not interrupt.

D) use feedback.

E) not do two things at once.

Answer: D 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) The difference between formal and informal communication is that A) informal is not within the company.

B) formal is a form of the "grapevine."

C) formal is job related and follows the chain of command.

D) formal is not within the company.

E) informal is job related.

Answer: C 8) It is important in lateral communication to remember to A) put the message in writing.

B) let the supervisor know decisions.

C) use the cross-functional team.

D) pass the message along.

Answer: B 9) Forms of communication networks are A) computer, phone, and cell.

B) dependent on the type and style.

C) chain, wheel, and all-channel.

D) slow, moderate, and fast.

Answer: C 10) Decision-making includes A) scheduling guests, what to put on the menu, and responding to guest needs.

B) responding to guests needs, analysis of alternatives, who will do it and controlling human resources.

C) determining the vision, mission, goals, and objectives.

D) Both A and C. Answer: D 11) The final step in decision-making is A) evaluation of effectiveness.

B) analysis of alternatives.

C) selecting an alternative.

D) implementation.

Answer: A 12) Managers make most decisions based on A) pleasing guests and employees.

B) rationality, commitment, and intuition.

C) food choices and schedules.

D) finances, rules, and time.

E) learned skills.

Answer: B

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13) A non-programmed decision is A) an unusual circumstance.

B) an alternative choice.

C) a recurring problem.

D) easier to decide.

E) clearly structured problem.

Answer: A 14) Of the four major styles of decision-making, two are A) rational and practical.

B) direct and indirect.

C) analytical and conceptual.

D) certain and possible.

Answer: C 15) The ________ style entails having a low tolerance for ambiguity as well as being a rational thinker.

A) directive B) conceptual C) analytical D) behavioral Answer: A 16) Trends in communication and decision-making include A) better trained and experienced employees.

B) an improved "grapevine."

C) improving technology in communication.

D) better record keeping systems.

E) sharing profits.

Answer: C 17) The MSS has two elements, which are the A) MIS and DSS. B) internal and external communication.

C) corporate financial systems.

D) criteria and development.

E) sales and face-to-face communication.

Answer: A 18) The first step to active learning is A) writing.

B) feedback.

C) listening.

D) talking.

Answer: C

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19) Semantics is A) active communications.

B) nonverbal communications.

C) meaning of words.

D) rational.

Answer: C 20) The first criteria for making a decision is A) it must be rational.

B) intelligence.

C) information.

D) intuition.

Answer: A 21) Managers interact with others in the following ways except A) personal face to face meetings.

B) encoding their own messages.

C) telephone and e-mail.

D) social media websites.

E) memos, reports, and logbooks.

Answer: B 22) The last step in the communication process is A) feedback.

B) active listening.

C) decoding.

D) message.

Answer: A 23) Social media can help promote a hospitality business and includes all but A) Twitter.

B) Facebook and Snapchat.

C) big data.

D) Pinterest.

Answer: C 24) Informal communication A) follows a company chain of command.

B) has subject matter related to the job.

C) may be employees talking in the breakroom.

D) Both A and C. Answer: C

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25) Which of the following is not a decision-making style?

A) Participative B) Directive C) Conceptual D) Behavioral Answer: A 26) Define the term communications.

Answer: The exchange of information and the transfer of meaning 27) What are four things that can distort the sending of a message?

Answer: The sender can have too little or too much knowledge; he or she can't communicate what he or she does not know. Receiver could falsely interpret the message if proper explanations are not given. Too much knowledge might cause the message not to be understood at all. Preexisting attitudes and the cultural system of the sender can influence the encoding of the message. Attitudes and beliefs about subject matters will leave their traces in the message and may be picked up by the receiver.

28) Explain the use of body language in the communications process.

Answer: Body language is facial expressions, gestures, and any other ways of communicating a message with your body.

29) Explain how semantics affects communications.

Answer: Semantics is the actual meaning of words. The literal meaning of words and actual meaning of words can be two different things, but can be expressed in the same way.

30) What is meant by active listening?

Answer: Active listening is really listening to the meaning of a message rather than just hearing it; listening for full meaning without making premature judgments or interpretations.

31) Explain the concept of the wheel communications network.

Answer: In the wheel network, communication flows between a strong leader and each individual in a group or team; coworkers do not need to communicate with each other, they communicate solely with their leader.

32) Explain the term bounded rationality.

Answer: Bounded rationality means that managers make decisions based on the decisionmaking process that is bounded, or limited, by an individual's ability to gain information and make decisions.

33) How can feedback be used to help eliminate misunderstandings and inaccuracies regarding the message being conveyed?

Answer: Feedback can be verbal or nonverbal and will help ensure there are no misunderstandings. After sending the message, the sender should check that the receiver has not only received the message but will act on it as requested. The sender can always request the receiver to explain what they understood from the message communicated.

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34) Describe three ways to overcome communication barriers.

Answer: Use feedback, active listening, and interpersonal dynamics; avoid triggering defensiveness.

35) Explain the difference between formal and informal communications.

Answer: With formal communication, the subject matter is work related and seen as essential to the employment, for example when a manager tells an employee his or her schedule for the following week. Informal communication may be job related but may not be essential to performing job duties.

36) Explain the positive and negative aspects of the "grapevine" as a communications tool.

Answer: The grapevine is an informal organizational communication network.

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Introduction to Hospitality, 9e, Global Edition (Walker) Chapter 19 Control 1) Control is a A) food and beverage function.

B) financial function.

C) board of directors' function.

D) management function.

Answer: D 2) Control works by A) providing good benefits.

B) monitoring activities.

C) keeping records.

D) having strong leadership.

Answer: B 3) Control is important because it A) produces better revenues.

B) holds managers accountable.

C) shows leadership.

D) requires desirable standards be set.

Answer: D 4) The control process has five steps, the first of which is A) measuring performance.

B) determining goals.

C) managerial action to correct performance.

D) setting standards.

E) comparing actual performance to standards.

Answer: B 5) Sources of information for measuring performance are A) word of mouth.

B) observations and reporting.

C) increases in business.

D) company financial records.

Answer: B 6) We measure results to compare with expectations. What is measured may be more important than how, as in the case of A) labor costs.

B) time management.

C) profits.

D) food costs.

E) manager's reports.

Answer: E 1 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

7) The final step in the control process is A) changing procedures.

B) measuring performance.

C) feedback control.

D) taking managerial action.

E) employee satisfaction.

Answer: D 8) There are three main types of control, one of which is A) feedback.

B) corporate.

C) managerial.

D) food and beverage.

E) economic.

Answer: A 9) Concurrent control takes place A) after receipt of reports.

B) at the time of correction.

C) concurrently with another control method.

D) from the corporate office.

E) during work activity.

Answer: E 10) An example of a written report-type of control is A) an income statement.

B) management's expectations.

C) capital expenditures.

D) employee vacation.

Answer: A 11) Two qualities of an effective control system are A) speed and quality.

B) quality of employees' performance.

C) flexibility and corrective action.

D) evaluation and standards.

Answer: C 12) The contingency plan factor that affects the control system most is the A) financial support.

B) flexibility.

C) technology.

D) experience of the management.

E) size of the organization.

Answer: E 2 © 2025 Pearson Education Ltd.

13) Cultural differences may change controls by A) measurement and corrective action.

B) keeping the managers closer.

C) fully scripted responses.

D) financial success in the global market.

E) inability to communicate.

Answer: B 14) Workplace privacy is an increasing responsibility for managers because of A) wasted computer resources while on the job.

B) computer availability.

C) financial costs.

D) e-mails.

Answer: A 15) Unfortunately, employee theft and fraud are high, partly due to A) social problems.

B) poor morals.

C) inappropriate behavior.

D) opportunity and lax controls.

E) weak rationalizing.

Answer: D 16) Zero-based budgeting starts with A) a fixed dollar amount.

B) zero, and costs are added.

C) budgeted costs.

D) placing controls on all expenses.

E) controlling finances.

Answer: B 17) Correcting actual performance is A) a correcting method.

B) a goal-oriented result.

C) analyzed results.

D) action taken due to observance.

Answer: D 18) Workplace violence is a responsibility of A) the HR department.

B) the CEO. C) training.

D) the manager or supervisor.

Answer: D

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19) In a global hospitality corporation, managers may be controlled A) less by the home office.

B) more by financial results.

C) less by financial results.

D) more by the home office.

Answer: A 20) To make the job of control easier and quicker, the hospitality industry has increased the use of A) technology.

B) training.

C) feedforward controls.

D) financial reports.

Answer: A 21) An effective control system is important because managers need to A) show better financial results.

B) delegate duties and empower staff.

C) enhance performance.

D) decrease theft.

Answer: B 22) When developing a method of measurement, one must be sure that the goals are A) attainable.

B) objective.

C) fair.

D) measurable.

Answer: D 23) Feedforward control is an activity performed A) with financial measurements.

B) in advance.

C) after completion.

D) simultaneously with the activity.

Answer: B 24) Which of the following is used extensively in the hospitality industry as a means of control because it is results driven?

A) Income statements B) Feedback C) Budgets D) Performance appraisals Answer: A

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25) Hospitality associates steal because A) the opportunity presents itself.

B) some people have financial problems.

C) because they feel underpaid.

D) All of the above.

Answer: D 26) What is control?

Answer: Control is the management function that provides information on the degree to which goals and objectives are being accomplished. Management engages in controlling by monitoring activities and taking corrective actions whenever the goals are not being met. An effective control system ensures that activities are completed that lead to the attainment of the organization's goals.

27) Identify the five steps in the control process.

Answer: The control process is a five-step process of determining goals, setting standards, measuring actual performance, comparing actual performance against those standards, and taking managerial action to correct deviations or inadequate performances. These standards are the specific goals created during the planning process against which performance progress can be measured.

28) Explain the concept of zero-based budgeting.

Answer: The concept of zero-based budgeting has managers begin with a budget of zero dollars and justify all the cost of goods sold, controllable costs, and capital expenditures (things like equipment) they plan on making so that there will be an appropriate amount of profit.

29) Discuss the significance of workplace privacy.

Answer: Concern about sexual harassment is one of the reasons why the companies might want to monitor or keep the backup copies of all e-mail. This electronic device can help establish what actually happened if an incident arises and can help managers react instantly. Managers also need to be certain that employees are not inadvertently passing information on to others who could use that information to harm the company.

30) Explain four reasons why employees steal.

Answer: People steal because the opportunity presents itself through lax controls and favorable circumstances. Some people have different social financial problems or pressures such as gambling debts. People steal because they can rationalize whatever they're doing as being correct and appropriate behavior. Hospitality associates also steal because they often feel underpaid, so whether it's a phone call here or a knife, fork, and spoon there, if the opportunity arises, they may take advantage of it.

31) Discuss the factors that contribute to workplace violence.

Answer: Factors contributing to workplace violence include employee stress caused by long working hours, information overload, daily interruptions, unrealistic deadlines, and uncaring managers.

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32) Explain the difference between immediate corrective action and basic corrective action and give examples.

Answer: Immediate corrective action corrects problems at once to get performance back on track, and basic corrective action looks at how and why performance has deviated and then proceeds to correct the source of deviation.

33) Explain the following types of control: feedforward, concurrent, and feedback.

Answer: Feedforward control focuses on preventing anticipated problems since it takes place in advance of the actual work activity. Concurrent control is a type of control that takes place while a work activity is in progress. When control is enacted while the work is being performed, management can correct problems before they become too costly. Feedback control, the most popular type of control, takes place after the activity is done.

34) Describe the ten qualities of effective control systems and why they are used by management.

Answer: 1. Accuracy. An effective control system is reliable and produces valid data.

2. Timeliness. An effective control system provides timely information.

3. Economy. An effective control system must be economical to operate.

4. Flexibility. An effective control system is flexible enough to adjust to changes and opportunities.

5. Understandability. The users can understand an effective control system.

6. Reasonable criteria. Control standards must be reasonable and attainable.

7. Strategic placement. Because managers can't control everything, they must choose to control those factors that are strategic to the organization's performance.

8. Emphasis on exceptions. Managers can't control all activities; control devices should call attention only to the exceptions.

9. Multiple criteria. Measures decrease tendencies toward a narrow focus.

10. Corrective action. The control system not only indicates significant deviations, but also suggests appropriate corrective action.

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