Test Bank For Introduction to Genetics A Molecular Approach 2nd Edition Terry A. Brown

A T G T C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T G C A T C G T A A T G C G2 MCQs with Answers

Only one answer is correct for each question.

Correct answer is in bold

CHAPTER 2 1. In the early 20th century, cell biologists estab‑ lished that chromosomes are made of which two substances?

6. How did Hershey and Chase separate the infected bacteria from empty bacteriophage particles?

(A) They treated the culture with deoxyribonuclease (B) They agitated the culture with a blender and then used a centrifuge

(A) Protein and carbohydrate

(C) They added radioactive DNA to the culture

(B) DNA and carbohydrate

(D) They injected the culture into a mouse

(C) Protein and DNA (D) DNA and lipid 2. What was the name given to the substance that can change the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae from one form to another?

(A) Transforming principle (B) Serotype (C) Capsule (D) Bacteriophage 3. What happened when Griffith mixed an extract from heat‑killed, virulent Type I bacteria with live, harmless Type II bacteria and injected this mixture into the bloodstream of a mouse?

(A) The mouse developed pneumonia. Its lungs contained live Type I bacteria

7. What is the name of the sugar component of a nucleotide (A) Pentose (B) Hexose (C) Glucose (D) Sucrose 8. What is the name of the sugar present in DNA? (A) 2′‑deoxypentose (B) 2′‑deoxyglucose (C) 2′‑deoxycytosine (D) 2′‑deoxyribose 9. A hydroxyl group is attached to which carbon of the deoxyribose sugar in DNA? (A) 1′

(B) The mouse developed pneumonia. Its lungs contained live Type II bacteria

(B) 2′

(C) The mouse developed pneumonia. Its lungs contained deal Type I bacteria

(D) 4′

(D) The mouse survived. Its lungs contained no bacteria 4. Which of these enzymes destroyed the transform‑ ing ability of a bacterial cell extract?

(A) Protease (B) Ribonuclease (C) Deoxyribonuclease (D) Lipase 5. Hershey and Chase labeled bacteriophage DNA with which isotopes?

(A) 32P and 14C (B) 32P and 35P (C) 35P and 32S (D) 32P and 35S

(C) 3′ 10. Which of these compounds have a double‑ring molecular structure?

(A) Purines (B) Pyrimidines (C) Both purines and pyrimidines (D) Neither purines nor pyrimidines 11. What are the names of the two purines that are found in DNA molecules?

(A) Adenine and cytosine (B) Adenine and guanine (C) Adenine and thymine (D) Cytosine and thymine 12. The link between the nitrogenous base and the sugar component of a nucleotide is called a _____.

(A) Base pair (B) β‑N‑glycosidic bond

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS (C) Hydrogen bond (D) Phosphodiester bond

13. The link between two nucleotides in a polynucleo‑ tide is called a _____.

(A) Base pair (B) β‑N‑glycosidic bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) Phosphodiester bond 14. In a polynucleotide, the link between adjacent nucleotides forms between which pair of carbons?

(A) 1′ and 2′ (B) 1′ and 3′ (C) 1′ and 5′ (D) 3′ and 5′ 15. What are the names give to the two ends of a polynucleotide?

(A) 3′‑P and 5′‑OH termini (B) 5′‑P and 3′‑OH termini (C) 5′‑P and 3′‑COOH termini (D) 5′‑P and 3′‑P termini 16. Why are X‑rays used to study the structures of molecules?

(A) They agitate a molecule causing it to break into pieces

19. Which one of the following techniques was not used in work that led to discovery of the double helix structure of DNA? (A) Model building (B) Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy (C) Paper chromatography (D) X‑ray diffraction analysis 20. Which pair of features correctly describe the struc‑ ture of the double helix?

(A) Antiparallel strands, left‑handed helix (B) Antiparallel strands, right‑handed helix (C) Parallel strands, left‑handed helix (D) Parallel strands, right‑handed helix 21. What are the names given to the two groves on the outside of the double helix?

(A) Major and minor (B) A and B (C) Parallel and antiparallel (D) anti and syn 22. The pairing between the two strands of the DNA helix involves which type of chemical bond?

(A) Covalent bonds (B) Ionic interactions (C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Hydrophobic forces

(B) Their wavelengths are comparable with the spacings between atoms in chemical structures

23. What is the meaning of the term ‘complementary’ when applied to the double helix?

(C) They result in atoms becoming labeled, reveal‑ ing their positions in a molecule

(A) Pairs of electronegative atoms form weak chemical interactions

(D) They cause a molecule to vibrate at a charac‑ teristic wavelength

(B) Polynucleotides wind around one another so that a helix is formed

17. Who was the first scientist to use X‑ray diffraction analysis with DNA?

(C) The sequence of one polynucleotide determines the sequence of the other polynucleotide

(A) Rosalind Franklin (B) James Watson (C) Florence Bell (D) Raymond Gosling 18. How did the work carried out by Erwin Chargaff contribute to elucidation of the structure of DNA? (A) Chargaff’s photo 51 showed that DNA has a helical structure (B) Chargaff carried out nuclear magnetic reso‑ nance studies that showed that DNA contains base pairs (C) Chargaff’s density measurements showed that a DNA molecule contains two polynucleotides (D) Chargaff showed that the amount of ade‑ nine is always the same as the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine

(D) The base pairing between adenine and thy‑ mine involves two hydrogen bonds, and that between guanine and cytosine involves three hydrogen bonds 24. Which of these are the two conformations of the base relative to the sugar in a nucleotide?

(A) Major and minor (B) A and B (C) Parallel and antiparallel (D) anti and syn 25. How many base pairs are there per turn of the B‑form of the double helix?

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 12

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

25. How many base pairs are there per turn of the A‑form of the double helix?

2. Approximately how many genes do humans have?

(A) 4,500

(A) 8

(B) 25,000

(B) 10

(C) 45,000

(C) 11

(D) 450,000

(D) 12 26. Which type of DNA forms a left‑handed helix with 12 bp per turn and a diameter of only 1.84 nm?

3. Human genes range in size between ____ and ____ bp.

(A) 100, 2,400

(A) A‑form

(B) 100, 24,000

(B) B‑form

(C) 1,000, 24,000

(C) Z‑DNA

(D) 100, 2,400,000

(D) None of the above

4. 1 Mb is equal to how many base pairs?

27. Which of the following statements describes the genetic code?

(A) 1,000

(A) The nucleotide sequence of a DNA molecule

(C) 100,000

(B) The process by which the biological informa‑ tion in a gene is expressed (C) The language used to store biological information in DNA (D) The base pairing rules – A always base pairs with T, and G always base pairs with C 28. What formula is used to calculate the number of possible sequences for a polynucleotide made up of n nucleotides?

(A) 4n (B) 10n (C) n4 (D) There is no formula, the number is infinite 29. An enzyme that makes copies of DNA molecules is called a _____?

(A) Deoxyribonuclease (B) Polynuclease (C) DNA replicase (D) DNA polymerase 30. What is the name given to the process by which DNA is replicated?

(A) Gene expression (B) Template‑dependent DNA synthesis (C) Unwinding (D) DNA sequencing

CHAPTER 3

Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

1. What is the name given to the process by which the information contained in a gene is utilized by the cell?

(A) Gene expression (B) Template‑dependent DNA synthesis (C) Unwinding (D) DNA sequencing

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(B) 10,000 (D) 1,000,000 5. Genes are separated from one another by what type of DNA? (A) Discontinuous DNA (B) Intergenic DNA (C) Intragenic DNA (D) Introns 6. What is an exon?

(A) The part of a discontinuous gene that contains biological information (B) The extra part of a discontinuous gene, the part that does not contain biological information (C) A large gene (D) A DNA molecule that contains genes 7. What name is given to the first stage of gene expression, when DNA is copied into RNA? (A) Translation (B) Decoding (C) Replication (D) Transcription 8. What name is given to the second stage of gene expression, when RNA directs synthesis of a protein?

(A) Translation (B) Decoding (C) Replication (D) Transcription 9. What is messenger RNA? (A) The RNA that is copied from an intron (B) An RNA molecule that directs synthesis of a protein (C) The end‑product of gene expression (D) All of the above

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

10. Which of the following biological roles are carried out by proteins?

18. What is the biochemical difference between round and wrinkled peas?

(A) Catalysis

(A) Round peas have a higher starch content

(B) Regulation

(B) Wrinkled peas have a higher sucrose content

(C) Transport

(C) Wrinkled peas absorb more water when devel‑ oping in the pod

(D) All of the above 11. What is the most abundant type of noncoding RNA?

(D) All of the above 19. The gene called SBE1 codes for which enzyme?

(A) Messenger RNA

(A) Sugar biosynthesis enzyme type 1

(B) Ribosomal RNA

(B) Starch branching enzyme type 1

(C) Short noncoding RNA

(C) Starch breakdown enzyme type 1

(D) Transfer RNA

(D) Starch biosynthesis enzyme type 1

12. Which type of noncoding RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?

20. The human CFTR gene is _____ in length and has ___ introns.

A) Messenger RNA

(A) 2,500 kb, 25

(B) Ribosomal RNA

(B) 250 kb, 26

(C) Short noncoding RNA

(C) 25 kb, 26

(D) Transfer RNA

(D) 25 kb, 25

13. Long noncoding RNAs comprise molecules greater than ____ in length.

(A) 100 nucleotides (B) 200 nucleotides (C) 1,000 nucleotides (D) 2,000 nucleotides 14. Most small nuclear RNAs are involved in which process?

(A) RNA splicing (B) Methylation of rRNAs (C) Control of gene expression (D) RNA interference 15. Which type of noncoding RNA is located in the nucleoli?

(A) miRNA (B) siRNA (C) snRNA (D) snoRNA 16. Which two types of noncoding RNA are involved in control of gene expression?

(A) snRNA and snoRNA (B) miRNA and siRNA (C) miRNA and snoRNA (D) siRNA and snoRNA 17. The majority of human lncRNAs are located in which part of the genome?

(A) The intergenic DNA (B) Within introns (C) Within exons (D) In ribosomal RNA genes

21. What is the result of conversion of nucleotide 1624 in the CFTR gene from G to T? (A) The CFTR protein cannot attach to the cell membrane (B) The CFTR mRNA is degraded so no pro‑ tein is made (C) The CFTR protein transports chloride ions at 4% of the normal rate (D) There is no change to the functioning of the CFTR protein 22. The bacterium Escherichia coli has ___ copies of each of its three rRNA genes.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 10 23. What is the name given to a set of identical genes that are arranged head‑to‑tail?

(A) Complex multigene family (B) Gene amplification (C) Haplotype (D) Tandem array 24. Replication of rRNA genes into multiple DNA cop‑ ies which exist as independent molecules is called ______.

(A) Gene copying (B) Gene multiplication (C) Gene amplification (D) Gene replication

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

25. Which of the following is not a human β‑like glo‑ bin protein?

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2. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(A) δ

(A) A typical eukaryotic cell contains a mem‑ brane‑bound nucleus

(B) γA

(B) A typical eukaryotic cell contains mitochondria

(C) ε

(C) Most eukaryotic cells are larger than prokary‑ otic cells

(D) ζ 26. Which of these globin genes is expressed in the early human embryo?

(D) All eukaryotes are multicellular organisms 3. Which of these species is not a bacterium?

(A) ε

(A) Leptinotarsa decemlineata

(B) γA

(B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(C) δ

(C) Vibrio cholerae

(D) β

(D) Escherichia coli

27. What is the name given to the process by which DNA sequence alterations arise?

(A) Mutation

4. The organisms that live in extreme environments such as hot strings and high‑salt lakes are called _____.

(B) Gene amplification

(A) Bacteria

(C) Polymorphism

(B) Eukaryotes

(D) Duplication

(C) Fungi (D) Archaea

28. What is a molecular clock used for?

(A) To work out the rate at which mutations accu‑ mulate in genes (B) To work out the order in which the globin genes are expressed

5. What name is given to the cutting and chemi‑ cal modification events that convert the primary transcripts of noncoding RNAs into functional molecules?

(C) To assign dates to gene duplications

(A) Processing

(D) To work out the rate at which replication errors occur in genes

(C) Transcription

29. A duplication about 800 million years ago gave rise to the ancestor of the globin genes and the gene for which protein?

(A) Bioglobin

(B) Splicing (D) Translation 6. What name is given to the set of proteins that is assembled on the DNA adjacent to a eukaryotic gene that is going to be expressed?

(B) Neuroglobin

(A) RNA polymerase

(C) Cytoglobin

(B) Transcription initiation complex

(D) Myoglobin

(C) Promoter (D) Transcription bubble

30. Ψα1 and Ψβ1 are examples of ____.

7. Why is the turnover of RNA important?

(A) α‑globin genes

(A) It plays an active role in controlling gene expression by influencing the amount of an RNA that is present in the cell at any particular time

(B) Pseudogenes (C) Cytoglobin genes (D) β‑globin genes

(B) It is a key step in the series of events that result in an mRNA being translated

CHAPTER 4 | chapter 02 | figure 01 1. Which Genomes of these statements is incorrect?

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition

(C) It results in a primary transcript being con‑ verted to a functional molecule cellular

(D) It enables an antisense version of an mRNA to be synthesized

(B) Prokaryotic DNA is not enclosed in a distinct structure

8. Which of the following describes the structure of the E. coli RNA polymerase holoenzyme?

© garlandscience design by blink studio ltd (A) Prokaryotes lack an architecture

extensive

(C) Prokaryotes have distinctive membra‑ nous organelles

(A) αβσ

(D) Most prokaryotes are unicellular

(C) α2ββ′σ

(B) α2βσω (D) α2ββ′σω

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

9. Which subunit of the E.coli RNA polymerase is absent in the core version of the enzyme?

(A) α (B) β (C) σ (D) ω 10. What is the name of the eukaryotic RNA polymer‑ ase that synthesizes mRNA? (A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II (C) RNA polymerase III (D) RNA polymerase IV 11. What is the name of the eukaryotic RNA polymer‑ ase that synthesizes tRNAs? (A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II (C) RNA polymerase III (D) RNA polymerase IV 12. Where are bacterial promoters found?

(A) Randomly within bacterial DNA (B) Inside a gene that is being expressed (C) Upstream of all genes (D) Upstream of those genes that are being expressed 13. Which of the following describes the consensus sequence of the E. coli –35 box?

(A) 5′–TATAAT–3′ (B) 5′–TTGACA–3′ (C) 5′–TATACA–3′ (D) 5′–TTGAAT–3′ 14. What is the definition of ‘promoter efficiency’?

(A) The tightness with which the RNA polymerase binds to the promoter (B) The number of productive initiations of transcription that are promoted per second (C) The number of RNA polymerases that attach to the promoter at any one time (D) The closeness of the promoter to the start of the gene 15. The most efficient promoters are called ______.

(C) Upstream control element (D) Strong promoter 17. What is the consensus sequence of the TATA box.

(A) 5′–TATAWAAR–3′ (B) 5′–TATATAAT–3′ (C) 5′–TATA–3′ (D) 5′–TATATATA–3′ 18. What is a null gene?

(A) A eukaryotic protein‑coding gene that is never expressed (B) A eukaryotic protein‑coding gene that is tran‑ scribed by RNA polymerase III (C) A eukaryotic protein‑coding gene whose RNA product in undetectable (D) A eukaryotic protein‑coding gene that lacks a TATA box and Inr sequence 19. What is unusual about some RNA polymerase III promoters?

(A) They contain an upstream control element (B) They contain both a TATA box and an Inr element (C) They have highly variable sequences (D) The important sequences are located within the genes whose transcription they promote 20. How many alterative promoters does the human dystrophin gene have?

(A) At least seven (B) At least 12 (C) 2 (D) Fewer than 6 21. Approximately how many promoters are active in human fibroblast cells?

(A) 1,500 (B) 10,500 (C) 8,000 (D) 105,000 22. Recognition of an E. coli promoter involves what interaction?

(A) Between the σ subunit and the –10 box (B) Between the σ subunit and the –35 box

(A) Pribnow boxes

(C) Between the β′ subunit and the –10 box

(B) Consensus sequences

(D) Between the β′ subunit and the –35 box

(C) Basal rate promoters (D) Strong promoters 16. What name is given to a site in eukaryotic DNA at which the initiation complex containing the RNA polymerase is assembled.

(A) Core promoter (B) Pribnow box

23. Which protein recognizes the core promoter for RNA polymerase II? (A) TATA‑binding protein (B) Transcription factor IID (C) TBP‑associated factor (D) Initiator‑dependent cofactor

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

24. Transcription factor IIH is an example of what type of enzyme?

(A) RNA polymerase (B) Elongation factor

CHAPTER 5

1. What is the transcriptome?

(C) Capping enzyme

(A) The complex of enzymes and proteins that transcribes DNA into RNA

(D) Helicase

(B) The mRNA content of a cell

25. The C‑terminal domain is a part of which protein?

(A) TATA‑binding protein (B) The largest subunit of RNA polymerase II (C) Helicase (D) Guanylyl transferase 26. What is the size of the transcription bubble that is formed when a gene is being transcribed by the bacterial RNA polymerase?

(A) 12–14 bp (B) 20–22 bp (C) Up to 50 bp (D) 127 bp 27. Which of these events occurs during backtracking?

(A) The RNA polymerase cuts off the end of the RNA that it has just made (B) The RNA polymerase moves in reverse along the template

(C) The noncoding RNA content of a cell (D) The RNA content of a cell 2. What is the name given to the process that ena‑ bles a single primary transcript to give rise to more than one mRNA? (A) Translation (B) Alternative splicing (C) mRNA surveillance (D) Decapping 3. How many genes are expressed in a single human tissue?

(A) 100–150 (B) 100–1,500 (C) 10,000–15,000 (D) 100,000–150,000 4. What is the name of the method used to identify the mRNAs in a transcriptome?

(C) The RNA polymerase undergoes a slight struc‑ tural rearrangement

(A) PCR

(D) All of the above

(C) mRNA editing

28. Which of the following describes the cap structure that is found at the 5′ end of a eukaryotic mRNA? (A) 7–MeGpNpN. . .

(B) RNA cloning (D) RNA‑seq 5. Approximately how many mRNA molecules are pre‑ sent in the average human cell?

(B) 7–MeGppNpN. . .

(A) 2,000

(C) 7–MeGppNppN. . .

(B) 20,000

(D) 7–MeGpppNpN. . .

(C) 200,000

29. Which of the following is a difference between an intrinsic and Rho‑dependent terminator?

(A) A Rho‑dependent terminator has a run of As in the DNA that is being transcribed (B) An intrinsic terminator results in a more stable hairpin structure forming in the RNA (C) Termination at an intrinsic terminator requires the action of a helicase enzyme (D) All of the above 30.

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Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 In mammals, the Edition polyadenylation site for an RNA II Terry Brown | Fourth © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

polymerase transcript is located ____ downstream of the signal sequence ____.

(A) 40–50 nucleotides, 5′–AAUAAA–3′

(D) 2,000,000 6. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the use of transcriptome studies in can‑ cer research?

(A) Transcriptome studies can diagnose a cancer at an early stage (B) Transcriptome studies can provide an accurate diagnosis of cancers that are difficult to distin‑ guish by other means (C) Transcriptome studies have provided new information of the genetic basis to metastasis (D) All of the above 7. What is the average half‑life for mRNAs in yeast cells?

(B) 10–30 nucleotides, 5′–AUAUAUA–3′

(A) 10–20 seconds

(C) 10–30 nucleotides, 5′–AAUAAA–3′

(B) 10–20 minutes

(D) 40–50 nucleotides, 5′– AUAUAUA –3′

(C) Several hours (D) Several days

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

8. What is the name given to the type of enzyme that cuts internal phosphodiester bonds in RNA molecules?

15. What is the name given to the complex mixture of RNA molecules, many over 20 kb in length, found in the nucleus?

(A) Endonuclease

(A) Homogeneous nuclear RNA

(B) Exosome

(B) Spliceosomal RNA

(C) Exonuclease

(C) Foldback RNA

(D) Decapping enzyme

(D) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA

9. What is the name of the multiprotein structure that carries out nonspecific mRNA degradation in bacteria?

16. What is the consensus sequence of the 5′ splice site in vertebrate mRNA? (A) 5′–AG↓GUAAGU–3′

(A) Helicase

(B) 5′–AGGU↓AAGU–3′

(B) Exosome

(C) 5′–AGGUAA↓GU–3′

(C) Ribonuclease

(D) 5′–AGGUAAGU↓–3′

(D) Degradosome 10. How are aberrant mRNAs detected by the mRNA surveillance process?

17. What is the consensus of the conserved sequence located between 18 and 140 nucleotides upstream of the 3′ splice site in yeast introns?

(A) By decapping

(A) 5′–PyPyPyPyPyPyNCAG↓–3′

(B) By searching for internal termination codons

(B) 5′–TATATA–3′ (C) 5′–UACUAAC–3′

(C) By searching for internal hairpin loops

(D) 5′–GUAG–3′

(D) By identifying mRNAs that contain unusual nucleotides 11. What is the first step in the deadenylation‑depend‑ ent decapping pathway?

(A) Removal of the cap structure (B) Degradation of the mRNA from the 5′ end (C) Degradation of the mRNA from the 3′ end (D) Removal of the poly(A) tail 12. What is the name of the ribonuclease that cuts viral RNA into siRNAs? (A) Splicer (B) Dicer (C) Slicer (D) Mincer 13. Which type of RNA is produced by cutting up of foldback RNAs? (A) snRNA (B) siRNA (C) microRNA (D) snoRNA 14. Genes for mRNA are transcribed in which part of the nucleus?

(A) Spliceosome (B) Nucleoplasm (C) Nuclear membrane (D) Nucleolus

18. Which of these is an alternate name for the 5′ splice site?

(A) The polypyrimidine tract (B) The branch site (C) The acceptor site (D) The donor site 19. The internal nucleotide that forms the branch site during splicing is always a _?

(A) A (B) C (C) G (D) T 20. U1, U2, etc, are examples of what type of RNA? (A) Small nucleolar RNA (B) Small cytoplasmic RNA (C) Small nuclear RNA (D) Small nucleoplasmic RNA 21. Which of these is an example of an accessory pro‑ tein involved in splicing?

(A) SF1 (B) U1AF1 (C) U1AF2 (D) All of the above 22. Excision of an intron and ligation of the exons is catalyzed by which pair of snRNPs? (A) U1‑ and U2‑snRNPs (B) U1‑ and U6‑snRNPs

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

(C) U2‑ and U5‑snRNPs

(B) Adenosine to inosine

(D) U2‑ and U6‑snRNPs

(C) Adenosine to 6‑methyladenosine

23. What name is given to the different mRNAs that arise by alternative splicing of a single primary transcript?

(A) Isomorphs (B) Isoforms (C) Isotypes (D) Isosplices 24. Which of the following is a type of alternative splic‑ ing event?

(A) Exon skipping (B) Alternative exons (C) Alternative splice site selection (D) All of the above 25. Which type of protein binds to splicing enhancers?

(A) Sn proteins (B) Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (C) SR proteins (D) Splicing code proteins 26. Which type of protein binds to splicing silencers?

(A) Sn proteins (B) Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (C) SR proteins (D) Splicing code proteins 27. What is the name given to a structural altera‑ tion that changes the base pairing properties of a nucleotide in an mRNA? (A) RNA‑seq (B) ADAR (C) RNA editing (D) RNA writing 28. Which nucleotide alteration converts the human mRNA for apolipoprotein B100 into the mRNA for apolipoprotein B48?

(A) C to U (B) C to A (C) A to C (D) A to C 29. The enzymes called adenosine deaminases acting | chapter 02 | figure 01 nucleotide conversion? on RNAGenomes catalyse which (A)

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscienceto design by blink studio ltd Adenosine cytidine

(B) Adenosine to inosine (C) Adenosine to guanosine (D) Adenosine to thymidine 30. In mammals, what is the commonest chemical modification that does affect the sequence of an mRNA? (A) Adenosine to 1‑methyladenosine

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(D) Adenosine into 5‑methyladenosine

CHAPTER 6 1. Approximately what percentage of the weight of a bacterium is contributed by noncoding RNA? (A) 0.06% (B) 0.6% (C) 6% (D) 60% 2. What are the dimensions of a bacterial ribosome?

(A) 29 nm × 22 nm (B) 29 nm × 21 nm (C) 32 nm × 22 nm (D) 32 nm × 21 nm 3. What are the average dimensions of a eukaryotic ribosome?

(A) 29 nm × 22 nm (B) 29 nm × 21 nm (C) 32 nm × 22 nm (D) 32 nm × 21 nm 4. What is the name given to the method that results in separation of cell components in a sucrose solution?

(A) Thin‑layer chromatography (B) X‑ray diffraction analysis (C) Sedimentation (D) Density gradient centrifugation 5. What is the sedimentation coefficient of a eukary‑ otic ribosome?

(A) 30S (B) 50S (C) 70S (D) 80S 6. What is the sedimentation coefficient of the large subunit of a bacterial ribosome?

(A) 30S (B) 50S (C) 70S (D) 80S 7. How many rRNAs are present in the large subunit of a eukaryotic ribosome?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

8. The equivalent of which eukaryotic rRNA is con‑ tained within the bacterial 23S molecule?

(A) 5S rRNA

16. In the three‑dimensional structure of a tRNA, addi‑ tional base pairs form between nucleotides in the loops of which two arms?

(B) 5.8S rRNA

(A) D and anticodon

(C) 16S rRNA

(B) D and acceptor

(D) 18S rRNA

(C) Anticodon and acceptor

9. How many proteins are present in the large subu‑ nit of the bacterial ribosome?

(A) 23

(D) D and TΨC 17. What is the sedimentation coefficient of the bacte‑ rial pre‑rRNA molecule?

(B) 33

(A) 30S

(C) 34

(B) 40S

(D) 50

(C) 50S

10. What is the name of the technique that is used to identify the positions of bound proteins on an RNA molecule?

(D) 60S 18. What is the order of the mature rRNAs in the bacte‑ rial pre‑rRNA?

(A) Nuclease protection

(A) 5S–16S–23S

(B) RNA‑seq

(B) 16S–23S–5S

(C) PCR

(C) 5S–23S–16S

(D) RNA cloning

(D) 23S–216S–5S

11. What is the name of the technique that uses anti‑ bodies to detect the positions of proteins on the surface of a ribosome?

19. Which of the eukaryotic rRNAs is transcribed inde‑ pendently of the main rRNA transcription unit?

(A) 5S

(A) Immunoelectron microscopy

(B) 5.8S

(B) X‑ray diffraction analysis

(C) 18S

(C) Phosphoimaging

(D) 28S

(D) Antibody protection 12. The majority of tRNAs fall into which range of lengths?

20. How many copies of the rRNA transcription unit are present in the E. coli chromosome?

(A) 2

(A) 74–95 nucleotides

(B) 3

(B) 100–120 nucleotides

(C) 5

(C) 250–300 nucleotides

(D) 7

(D) 750–875 nucleotides 13. The base‑paired structure of a tRNA is referred to as the _______.

(A) Anticodon (B) TΨC structure (C) Cloverleaf (D) L shape 14. To which part of a tRNA is the amino acid attached during protein synthesis?

(A) Acceptor arm (B) Anticodon arm (C) D arm (D) TΨC arm 15. The D arm of a tRNA is named after which modi‑ fied nucleotide, always present in this structure?

21. What is gene amplification?

(A) The replication of rRNA genes into multiple copies that are located at different positions in the chromosomes (B) The replication of rRNA genes into multiple copies that become attached to the ends of the chromosomes (C) The replication of rRNA genes into multi‑ ple DNA copies which subsequently exist as independent molecules not attached to the chromosomes (D) The replication of rRNA genes into multi‑ ple copies that form a tandem array in a chromosome 22. Which of these ribonucleases is not involved in processing of pre‑tRNAs in E. coli?

(A) Deoxyadenosine

(A) Ribonuclease A

(B) Pseudouridine

(B) Ribonuclease D

(C) Dihydrouridine

(C) Ribonuclease E

(D) 2′‑O‑Methyladenosine

(D) Ribonuclease F

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

23. What is the name of the enzyme that adds the tri‑ nucleotide 5′–CCA–3′ to the end of a tRNA?

30. An intron is sometimes located in which part of a pre‑tRNA?

(A) Ribonuclease A

(A) Acceptor arm

(B) tRNA nucleotidyltransferase

(B) Anticodon arm

(C) tRNA transferase

(C) D arm

(D) Maturase

(D) TΨC arm

24. The conversion of guanosine to inosine is an example of what type of chemical modification?

(A) Double‑bond saturation (B) Methylation (C) Base rearrangement (D) Deamination 25. The conversion of uridine to dihydrouridine is an example of what type of chemical modification?

(A) Double‑bond saturation (B) Methylation (C) Base rearrangement (D) Deamination 26. Replacement of the hydrogen of the –OH group attached to the 2′‑carbon of a nucleotide by a methyl group is called _____.

(A) 2′‑Methylation (B) 2′‑O‑Methylation (C) 2′‑H‑Methylation (D) 2′‑OH‑Methylation 27. Which type of noncoding RNA is involved in chem‑ ical modification of eukaryotic rRNAs? (A) snRNA (B) miRNA (C) siRNA (D) snoRNA 28. How are the majority of the noncoding RNAs involved in chemical modification of eukaryotic rRNAs obtained?

(A) They are transcribed as foldback RNAs which are cut up to provide the functional molecules (B) They are transcribed from short genes, just like any other RNA molecule (C) They are specified by sequences within the introns of other genes and released by cutting up the intron after splicing (D) They are transcribed from antisense versions Genomes | genes chapter 02 | figure 01 of rRNA Terry Brown | Fourth Edition

design by blink studio ltd 29. What is© garlandscience the name given to an RNA molecule that has catalytic activity?

(A) Ribozyme (B) Ribocatalase (C) Ribosome (D) Ribonuclease

11

CHAPTER 7 1. Polypeptides are rarely more than ____ amino acids in length.

(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 1,000 (D) 2,000 2. What is the designation given to the central carbon of an amino acid?

(A) 1‑carbon (B) 1′‑carbon (C) α‑carbon (D) primary carbon 3. Which of the following amino acids has a nega‑ tively‑charged R group?

(A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine (C) Valine (D) Glutamic acid 4. Which of the following amino acids has a posi‑ tively‑charged R group?

(A) Lysine (B) Tyrosine (C) Valine (D) Glutamic acid 5. An R group that lacks an affinity for water is said to be ____.

(A) Uncharged (B) Charged (C) Nonpolar (D) Polar 6. The end of a polynucleotide with a free amino group is called the ____ terminus.

(A) Amino (B) NH2 (C) N (D) Any of the above 7. Which of these is a type of protein secondary structure?

(A) Double helix (B) α helix

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS (C) β helix (D) Disulfide bridge

8. Disufide bridges form between pairs of which amino acid?

(A) Leucine (B) Cysteine (C) Methionine (D) Tryptophan 9. The subunit composition of the bacterial RNA pol‑ ymerase, described as α2ββ′σω, is an example of which level of protein structure?

(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary 10. How many identical protein subunits are present in the coat of the tobacco mosaic virus?

(A) 1,673 (B) 1,960 (C) 2,050 (D) 2,130 11. The loss of higher levels of structure that occurs when a protein is heated is called?

(A) Renaturation (B) Decomposition (C) Denaturation (D) Protein folding 12. Cro is an example of what family of DNA‑binding proteins?

(A) Leucine zipper (B) α helix (C) Helix‑turn‑helix (D) Dimeric 13. What is meant by the term ‘colinear’ when describ‑ ing the relationship between a gene and protein?

(A) The order of nucleotides in the gene cor‑ relates directly with the order of amino acids in the corresponding protein (B) The gene contains introns (C) The number of nucleotides in the gene is three times the number of amino acids in the protein (D) The amino terminus of the protein corresponds to the 3′ end of the gene 14. If the genetic code was doublet (codons such as AT, TA, etc.), then how many different codons would there be?

(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) 48

15. Why were acridine dyes used to test the hypothesis that codons are triplets of nucleotides?

(A) An acridine dye binds to DNA by attaching to three adjacent nucleotides (B) Acridine dyes cause base pair deletions or additions in double‑stranded DNA molecules (C) Acridine dyes cause genes to fluoresce when DNA is examined by confocal microscopy (D) Acridine dyes cause breaks in double‑stranded DNA molecules 16. What is the name of the enzyme that enables artificial RNA molecules of known or predicted sequence to be made?

(A) Ribonuclease A (B) RNA synthase (C) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (D) RNA polymerase I 17. Which amino acid is specified by the codon UUU? (A) Lysine (B) Proline (C) Glycine (D) Phenylalanine 18. How many different codons will be contained in a random heteropolymer of A and C nucleotides?

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9 19. Which of the following describes the triplet binding assay?

(A) Purified ribosomes attach to an mRNA mole‑ cule of three nucleotides, and having done so synthesize polymers of the amino acid that is specified by that particular codon (B) Purified ribosomes are assayed on an artificial RNA molecule revealing which triplet is bound when a particular amino acid is present (C) Purified ribosomes are mixed with a polypep‑ tide of known sequence, resulting in the triplet RNAs that specify the amino acids in the pro‑ tein binding to the ribosomes (D) Purified ribosomes attach to an mRNA molecule of three nucleotides, and having done so bind the amino acid that is speci‑ fied by that particular codon 20. What is meant by ‘degeneracy’ as applied to the genetic code?

(A) Some codons have two or more meanings (B) The code is universal (C) Some amino acids are specified by more than one codon (D) The code contains punctuation codons

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

21. The initiation codon AUG specifies which amino acid?

29. Which unusual type of base pairs are allowed at the wobble position?

(A) Glycine

(A) A–G

(B) Methionine

(B) A–C

(C) Cysteine

(C) C–U

(D) It does not specify an amino acid

(D) G–U

22. Which of these combinations are the termination codons in the standard genetic code?

30. Due to wobble, the anticodon UAI, where I is ino‑ sine, can base pair with which codons?

(A) UAA, UAG, UGA

(A) AUA, AUC and AUG

(B) UAA. UAG, UAC

(B) AUC, AUG and AUU

(C) UAG, UGA, UGG

(C) AUA, AUG and AUU

(D) UGA, UGC, UGG

(D) AUA, AUC and AUU

23. Which of the following is not a nonstandard codon meaning in human mitochondria?

(A) UGA codes for tryptophan (B) AGA codes for stop (C) CCA codes for stop (D) AUA codes for methionine 24. Which two amino acids are specified by con‑ text‑dependent codon reassignment?

(A) Selenocysteine and selenomethionine (B) Lysine and pyrrolysine (C) Selenomethionine and pyrrolysine (D) Selenocysteine and pyrrolysine 25. What is the name given to the process by which the correct amino acid is attached to a tRNA? (A) Aminoacylation (B) Codon‑anticodon recognition (C) Coding (D) Aminolyation 26. What is the name given to different tRNAs that are specific for the same amino acid?

CHAPTER 8 1. What is the consensus sequence for the E. coli ribosome binding site?

(A) 5′–AGGACCU–3′ (B) 5′–AGGAGGU–3′ (C) 5′–ACCAGGU–3′ (D) 5′–ACCACCU–3′ 2. The E. coli ribosome binding site is complementary to which part of which rRNA? (A) The 5′ end of the 16S rRNA (B) The 3′ end of the 16S rRNA (C) The 5′ end of the 23S rRNA (D) The 3′ end of the 23S rRNA 3. What compound is used as the energy source at the start of the elongation phase of translation in bacteria?

(A) GTP (B) Glucose

(A) Isomorphic tRNAs

(C) ATP

(B) Charged tRNAs

(D) Methionine

(C) Isoaccepting tRNAs (D) Context‑dependent tRNAs 27. What provides the energy required to attach an amino acid to a tRNA?

4. Which amino acid is attached to the initiator tRNA in bacteria?

(A) N‑Farnylmethionine (B) N‑Methionine

(A) GTP

(C) Methionine

(B) Glucose

(D) N‑Formylmethionine

(C) ATP Genomes | chapter 02 | figuresynthetase 01 (D) Aminoacyl‑tRNA Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

28. In Bacillus megaterium, tRNAgln molecules are ini‑ tially aminoacylated with which amino acid?

(A) Serine (B) Methionine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Glutamine

13

5. What is the role of bacterial initiation factor IF‑2?

(A) It directs the initiator tRNA to its cor‑ rect position on the small subunit of the ribosome (B) It prevents the large subunit from joining the initiation complex until it is needed (C) It coordinates the transition from initiation to elongation (D) It prevents the second aminoacyl‑tRNA from entering the complex until it is needed

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

6. What is the role of bacterial initiation factor IF‑3?

(A) It directs the initiator tRNA to its correct posi‑ tion on the small subunit of the ribosome

13. X‑ray crystallography has shown that the A and P sites are located in which part of the bacterial ribosome?

(B) It prevents the large subunit from joining the initiation complex until it is needed

(A) In the small subunit

(C) It coordinates the transition from initiation to elongation

(C) In a cavity between the small and large subunits

(D) It prevents the second aminoacyl‑tRNA from entering the complex until it is needed

(D) On the surface of the ribosome

7. What are the principal components of the eukary‑ otic pre‑initiation complex?

(B) In the large subunit

14. What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bond formation?

(A) Protein transferase

(A) The two subunits of the ribosome

(B) Peptidyl transferase

(B) The two subunits of the ribosome and the ini‑ tiator tRNA

(C) Elongase

(C) The small subunit of the ribosome and the initiator tRNA (D) The large subunit of the ribosome and the ini‑ tiator tRNA 8. To which part of the mRNA does the eukaryotic pre‑initiation complex attach?

(A) The cap structure (B) The Kozak consensus sequence (C) The AUG triplet closest to the 5′ end of the mRNA (D) The poly(A) tail 9. Which of the following is the Kozak consensus sequence?

(A) 5′–AGGAUGG–3′ (B) 5′–ACCAUGG–3′ (C) 5′–ACCAUCC–3′ (D) 5′–AGGAUCC–3′ 10. What is the name of the structure formed by the eukaryotic initiation factors eIF‑4A, eIF‑4E and eIF‑4G?

(D) Protein synthase 15. What is the name given to the step in translation that involves movement of the ribosome three nucleotides along the mRNA? (A) Translocation (B) Transportation (C) Transferation (D) Termination 16. What is the function of the E site in a bacterial ribosome?

(A) It is occupied by the aminoacyl‑tRNA whose amino acid has just been attached to the end of the growing polypeptide (B) It is entered by the aminoacyl‑tRNA carrying the next amino acid that will be used (C) It is the site through which the tRNA departs after its amino acid has been attached to the polypeptide (D) It is the site or peptide bond formation 17. What is the name given to an mRNA that is being translated by several ribosomes at once?

(A) Scanning complex

(A) Multisome

(B) Initiation complex

(B) Megasome

(C) Pre‑initiation complex

(C) Primosome

(D) Cap binding complex

(D) Polysome

11. The mRNAs of which viruses are not capped, but instead contain internal ribosome entry sites?

(A) Picornaviruses (B) Coronaviruses (C) Poxviruses (D) Parvoviruses 12. Which initiation factor is inactivated in order to suppress cap‑dependent translation when a eukar‑ yotic cell is placed under stress?

(A) eIF‑1 (B) eIF‑2 (C) eIF‑3 (D) eIF‑4

18. What is the role of the E. coli ribosome recycling factor?

(A) Disassociation of the ribosome into subu‑ nits after completion of translation (B) Hydrolysis of disassociation

GTP

needed

for

ribosome

(C) Synthesis of the final peptide bond in the poly‑ peptide that is being made (D) Transfer of the ribosome to the start of a new mRNA 19. Which termination factor acts as the ribosome recycling factor in eukaryotes?

(A) eRF‑1 (B) eRF‑2

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

(C) eRF‑3 (D) eRF‑4

20. Which protein was used in the first experiments that showed that the amino acid sequence of a protein specifies its tertiary structure?

27. Processing or melittin involves proteolytic cleav‑ age yielding peptides containing how many amino acids?

(A) 2 (B) 3

(A) Protease

(C) 5

(B) Chaperone

(D) 11

(C) Ribonuclease (D) Melittin 21. Which chemical disrupts hydrogen bonding and can be used to denature a protein?

(A) Phenol (B) Urea (C) Ubiquitin (D) Ethanol 22. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Hsp70 chaperones specify the tertiary structure of a protein (B) Hsp70 chaperones are thought hold a protein in a closed conformation (C) Hsp70 chaperones bind to hydrophobic regions of proteins (D) All of the above 23. What percentage of bacterial proteins are folded exclusively by the GroEL/GroES chaperonin?

15

28. Which of the following is not obtained by process‑ ing of proopiomelanocortin?

(A) Lipotropin (B) Endorphin (C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (D) Thyroid‑stimulating hormone 29. What is the name of the enzyme that attaches ubiquitin molecules to proteins that are to be degraded?

(A) Ubiquitin ligase (B) Ubiquitin conjugating enzyme (C) Ubiquitin activator protein (D) Ubiquitin attachment protein 30. What is the name of the large, multisubunit struc‑ ture comprising a hollow cylinder and two caps that is involved in protein degradation?

(A) Degradosome (B) Proteasome

(A) 1%

(C) Chaperonin

(B) 5%

(D) Proteome

(C) 20% (D) 90% 24. Which of the following is a common chemical modification of protein?

(A) Addition of an acetyl group

CHAPTER 9 1. Genes that are active all the time are called _____ genes.

(B) Addition of an methyl group

(A) Regulatory

(C) Addition of an phosphate group

(B) Structural

(D) All of the above

(C) Housekeeping

25. Which proteins are components of nucleosomes and undergo a variety of chemical modifications?

(A) Histones

(D) Metabolic 2. Humans have approximately how many special‑ ized cell types?

(B) Chaperones

(A) 100

(C) Globins

(B) 250

(D) Polyproteins

(C) 400

Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 involves attachment of a 26. N‑linked glycosylation Terry Brown | Fourth Edition carbohydrate side toltdwhich amino acid? © garlandscience designchain by blink studio

(D) 1,000 3. What is the role of the lactose permease of E. coli?

(A) Serine

(A) Inducer of the lactose operon

(B) Threonine (C) Asparagine

(B) Mediates the effect of glucose on transcription of the lactose operon

(D) Arginine

(C) Splits lactose to galactose and glucose (D) Transports lactose into the cell

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

4. What is the role of β‑galactosidase?

11. What is the role of the IIAGlc protein of E. coli?

(A) Inducer of the lactose operon

(A) Inducer of the lactose operon

(B) Mediates the effect of glucose on transcription of the lactose operon

(B) Mediates the effect of glucose on tran‑ scription of the lactose operon

(C) Splits lactose to galactose and glucose

(C) Splits lactose to galactose and glucose

(D) Transports lactose into the cell

(D) Transports lactose into the cell

5. Which gene codes for β‑galactosidase in E. coli?

(A) lacA

12. Which of the following is an example of a repress‑ ible operon?

(B) lacI

(A) Lactose operon

(C) lacY

(B) Galactose operon

(D) lacZ

(C) Arabinose operon

6. Inactivation of which gene results in the lactose operon being switched on continuously?

(A) lacA

(D) Tryptophan operon 13. What is the protein that binds to the heat shock module in human DNA?

(B) lacI

(A) HSP50

(C) lacY

(B) HPS50

(D) lacZ

(C) HPS70

7. The repressor binding site is called the ____?

(A) Promoter (B) Operator (C) CAP binding site (D) Operon 8. Which statement describes the situation when lac‑ tose is present?

(A) Repressor binds to inducer and prevents tran‑ scription of the lactose operon (B) Repressor does not bind to inducer and pre‑ vents transcription of the lactose operon (C) Repressor binds to inducer and allows transcription of the lactose operon (D) Repressor does not bind to inducer and allows transcription of the lactose operon 9. Which compound is the inducer of the lactose operon?

(D) HSP70 14. Which of the following is an example of a regu‑ latory sequence that controls the basal rate of transcription of a eukaryotic gene?

(A) CAAT box (B) GC box (C) Octamer sequence (D) All of the above 15. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to enhancers in eukaryotic DNA? (A) A single enhancer controls expression of a sin‑ gle gene (B) An enhancer is 800–900 bp in length (C) Enhancers are located some distance away from their target genes (D) All of the above

(A) Allolactose

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the mediator protein?

(B) Actolactose

(A) The yeast mediator comprises 21 subunits

(C) Glucose

(B) The tail of the mediator protein makes contact with an activator protein attached to its regula‑ tory sequence

(D) Lactose 10. Which statement describes the situation when glu‑ cose and lactose are present?

(A) Catabolite activator protein and repressor bound, lactose operon is transcribed (B) Catabolite activator protein and repressor bound, lactose operon is not transcribed (C) Neither catabolite activator protein nor repressor bound, lactose operon is not transcribed (D) Catabolite activator protein but not repressor bound, lactose operon is not transcribed

(C) The middle and head sections interact with the initiation complex (D) Mediators in higher eukaryotes smaller than the yeast protein

are

17. The eukaryotic initiation complex is unable to begin transcription until which chemical groups have been added to the C‑terminal region of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II? (A) Phosphate groups (B) Methyl groups (C) Acetyl groups (D) Formyl groups

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

18. In which part of a eukaryotic cell is a steroid recep‑ tor protein located?

(A) Outer cell membrane (B) Cytoplasm (C) Nuclear membrane (D) Nucleus 19. What is a cytokine?

(A) A type of cell‑surface receptor protein (B) An extracellular signalling protein that controls cell growth and division (C) A transcription activator protein (D) A signal transduction protein 20. What is the name of the protein that phosphoryl‑ ates MAP in the MAP kinase pathway?

(A) Raf (B) Mitogen receptor (C) STAT (D) Mek 21. The standard σ subunit of the E. coli RNA polymer‑ ase is called ___.

(A) σ32 (B) σ70 (C) σ76 (D) σ90 22. The σ subunit of the E. coli RNA polymerase that is used during heat shock is called ___.

(A) σ32 (B) σ70 (C) σ76 (D) σ90 23. Which type of bacterium uses alternative σ subu‑ nits during its sporulation pathway?

(A) Escherichia coli (B) Bacillus species (C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) Sporobacteria 24. How many genes does bacteriophage λ have?

(A) 48 (B) 78 (C) 130 (D) Over 1,000 Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01

25. Which Terry of Brown these isEdition a protein that acts as an antiter‑ | Fourth © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd minator in bacteriophage λ?

26. With regards to attenuation control of the E. coli tryptophan operon, which statement describes the situation when tryptophan is present?

(A) Ribosome stalls, terminator structure forms, transcription terminates (B) Ribosome stalls, terminator structure does not form, transcription terminates (C) Ribosome does not stall, terminator structure forms, transcription terminates (D) Ribosome does not stall, terminator structure does not form, transcription terminates

27. Which of these E. coli operons is controlled solely by attenuation?

(A) Lactose operon (B) Arabinose operon (C) Tryptophan operon (D) Histidine operon 28. What is unusual about regulation of the tryptophan operon of Bacillus subtilis?

(A) The operon is always expressed regardless of the amount of tryptophan in the cell (B) The operon is controlled by both a repressor protein and by attenuation (C) The operon also responds to the amount of lactose in the cell.

(D) Attenuation is mediated by an RNA‑binding protein rather than by the speed at which the ribosome moves along the mRNA 29. Which of these statements is correct regarding control of iron levels in mammals?

(A) In the absence of iron, ferritin synthesis is inhibited by proteins that bind to sequences located in the trailer region of the ferritin mRNA (B) The bound proteins block the ribosome as it attempts to scan along the mRNA in search of the initiation codon (C) The mRNA for a related protein – the transfer‑ rin receptor involved in excretion of iron by the cell – also has iron‑response elements (D) Detachment of the binding proteins from the transferrin receptor mRNA results in transla‑ tion of the mRNA 30. The OxyS RNA of E. coli is ___ nucleotides in length and regulates translation of ___ or so mRNAs. (A) 109, 40

(A) nutL

(B) 190, 400

(B) nutR

(C) 99, 4

(C) N protein

(D) 1900, 40

(D) tL1

17

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

CHAPTER 10 1. Which of the possible replication processes for DNA would result in one daughter molecule con‑ taining both parent polynucleotides and the other daughter containing both newly synthesized strands?

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to rolling-circle replication?

(A) It is the process used to replicate the human mitochondrial genome (B) It initiates at a nick in one of the parent polynucleotides

(A) Conservative

(C) It results in a series of identical molecules linked head to tail

(B) Dispersive

(D) It is used by various types of bacteriophage

(C) Replicative

9. The proofreading function of a DNA polymerase uses which activity?

(D) Semiconservative 2. The double helix is ____, meaning that the two strands cannot be separated without unwinding.

(A) 3′ → 5′ exonuclease (B) 5′ → 3′ exonuclease

(A) Paranemic

(C) 3′ → 5′ polymerase

(B) Parallel

(D) 5′ → 3′ polymerase

(C) Plectonemic (D) Pentagrammic 3. The Meselson‑Stahl experiment made us of which chemical isotopes?

(A) 14N and 15N (B) 12C and 13C (C) 2H and HN (D) 32P and 34P 4. The Meselson‑Stahl experiment showed that DNA replication is ___.

(A) Conservative (B) Dispersive (C) Replicative (D) Semiconservative 5. What is the function of a DNA topoisomerase?

(A) To unwind the double helix (B) To prevent the two single strands from forming base pairs (C) To break base pairs (D) To prime DNA synthesis 6. The mode of action of a DNA topoisomerase involves each cut polynucleotide becoming cova‑ lently attached to which type of amino acid at the active site of the enzyme?

10. The main DNA replicating enzyme of E. coli is ___.

(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase II (C) DNA polymerase III (D) DNA polymerase IV 11. The 3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity of DNA polymer‑ ase III is specified by which subunit?

(A) α (B) β (C) ε (D) θ 12. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to eukaryotic DNA polymerases?

(A) The main replicating enzymes are DNA poly‑ merase δ and DNA polymerase ε (B) DNA polymerase α also has an important func‑ tion in DNA replication (C) DNA polymerase γ replicates the mitochondrial DNA (D) DNA polymerase β replicates the lagging strand 13. Which enzyme synthesizes the primers during bacterial DNA replication?

(A) DNA polymerase I

(A) Serine

(B) DNA polymerase II

(B) Tyrosine

(C) Primase

(C) Histidine

(D) RNA polymerase III

(D) Glycine 7. In displacement replication, what is the name given to the region of approximately 500 bp where the double helix is disrupted by an RNA molecule?

14. Which eukaryotic DNA polymerase participates in synthesis of primers?

(A) DNA polymerase α (B) DNA polymerase δ

(A) A‑loop

(C) DNA polymerase ε

(B) D‑loop

(D) DNA polymerase β

(C) R‑loop (D) S‑loop

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

15. The Okazaki fragments in E. coli are how long?

(A) Less than 200 nucleotides

23. The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae has how many replication origins?

(B) 200–300 nucleotides

(A) 8

(C) 500–1,000 nucleotides

(B) 27

(D) 1,000–2,000 nucleotides

(C) 250

16. The Okazaki fragments in humans are how long?

(A) Less than 200 nucleotides (B) 200–300 nucleotides (C) 500–1,000 nucleotides (D) 1,000–2,000 nucleotides 17. The E. coli origin of replication spans approxi‑ mately how many base pairs?

(A) 25 bp (B) 75 bp (C) 150 bp (D) 245 bp 18. Which proteins form a right‑handed filament struc‑ ture at the E. coli origin of replication?

(A) DnaA

19

(D) 400 24. What is the name given to the set of six proteins that attach to a yeast origin recognition sequence?

(A) Replisome (B) Primosome (C) Origin recognition complex (D) Pre‑priming complex 25. What is the name given to the main single‑strand binding protein in eukaryotes?

(A) Replication protein A (B) Replication protein B (C) PCNA (D) FEN1 26. What is the key feature of the flap endonuclease?

(B) DnaB

(A) It has 5′ → 3′ exonuclease activity

(C) SSBs

(B) It synthesizes DNA in a relatively error‑prone manner

(D) Helicase 19. The prepriming complex in E. coli is initially made up of which proteins?

(A) DnaA and DnaB (B) DnaB and DnaC (C) DnaB and SSBs (D) DnaC and SSBs 20. What is the function of a helicase.

(A) To unwind the double helix (B) To prevent the two single strands from forming base pairs (C) To break base pairs (D) To prime DNA synthesis 21. What is the main function of the γ complex during DNA replication in E. coli?

(A) It controls the attachment and removal of the polymerase from the template DNA

(C) It cuts the phosphodiester bond at the branch point that is formed when the 5′ end of a polynucleotide is displaced from its template (D) It can break the base pairs holding the primer to the template strand 27. What is the name of the enzyme that separates the interlinked daughter molecules that result when two replication forks meet during eukaryotic DNA replication?

(A) Top2 (B) DNA gyrase (C) FEN1 (D) Resolvase 28. During which period of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

(A) G1 phase

(B) It holds apart the two strands of the parent DNA

(B) S phase

(C) It joins up the Okazaki fragments

(C) G2 phase

(D) It synthesizes the primer for each Okazaki Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 fragment

(D) M phase

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

22. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to termination of replication in E. coli?

29. Which cell cycle checkpoint must be passed in order for the cell to replicate its DNA? (A) G2‑M checkpoint

(A) There are ten terminator sequences

(B) S‑G2 checkpoint

(B) Each terminator sequence is the binding site for a Tus protein

(C) M‑G1 checkpoint

(C) A Tus protein contains an RNA subunit (D) When approaching from one direction, the replisome is able to bypass the Tus protein

(D) G1‑S checkpoint

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

20

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

30. Which proteins phosphorylate and activate enzymes and other proteins that have specific functions during the cell cycle?

8. 2‑Aminopurine is an example of what type of mutagen?

(A) Base analog

(A) Cyclin‑dependent kinases

(B) Deaminating agent

(B) Cdc9 and Cdt1

(C) Alkylating agent

(C) Geminins

(D) Intercalating agent

(D) Licensing proteins

9. Ethidium bromide is an example of what type of mutagen?

CHAPTER 11

(A) Base analog

1. Which of the following is a transition mutation?

(C) Alkylating agent

(A) C to A (B) C to G

(B) Deaminating agent (D) Intercalating agent 10. Which nucleotide base cannot be deaminated?

(C) C to T

(A) Adenine

(D) A to G

(B) Cytosine

2. What are the alternative structural forms of a nucleotide base called?

(A) Tautomers (B) Automers

(C) Guanine (D) Thymine 11. What is the most common example of a cyclobutyl dimer?

(C) Aptamers

(A) A C‑T dimer

(D) Synomers

(B) A C‑C dimer

3. To which nucleotide does enol‑thymine base pair?

(A) A (B) C

(C) A C‑G dimer (D) A T‑T dimer 12. What effect does heat have on nucleotide structure?

(C) G

(A) It acts as a deaminating agent

(D) T

(B) It stimulates cleavage of the β‑N‑glycosidic bond

4. Insertion and deletion mutations can be caused by ____.

(A) Point mutation (B) Replication slippage (C) Substitution (D) Frameshifting 5. Which sequence is repeated between 6 and 29 times in tandem in the human HTT gene?

(A) 5′–CGG–3′ (B) 5′–CAA–3′ (C) 5′–GAG–3′ (D) 5′–CAG–3′ 6. What effect does a clastogen have on a human cell?

(A) It causes breaks in DNA molecules (B) It causes tumor formation (C) It causes developmental abnormalities (D) It causes cancer 7. 5‑Bromouracil is an example of what type of mutagen?

(A) Base analog (B) Deaminating agent (C) Alkylating agent (D) Intercalating agent

(C) it acts as an alkylating agent (D) It causes cyclobutyl dimers to form 13. What is the name of the E. coli enzyme that removes an alkyl group attached to the oxygen at position 4 of a thymine?

(A) AdA enzyme (B) DNA photolyase (C) DNA glycosylase (D) AP endonuclease 14. What is the full name of the human MGMT enzyme?

(A) N6‑methylguanine–DNA methyltransferase (B) O6‑methylguanine–DNA methyltransferase (C) N5‑methylguanine–DNA methyltransferase (D) N4‑methylguanine–DNA methyltransferase 15. What is the name given to the process involv‑ ing DNA photolyase which can repair cyclobutyl dimers in E. coli?

(A) The adaptive process (B) Photoreactivation (C) Excision repair (D) Dedimerization

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

16. Deamination of adenine results in ____.

(A) Xanthine (B) Uracil (C) Thymine (D) Hypoxanthine

17. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to base excision repair?

(A) The process is initiated by an enzyme that cleaves the β‑N‑glycosidic bond between a damaged base and the sugar component of the nucleotide (B) The damaged base is flipped to a position out‑ side of the helix and then detached (C) This creates an baseless site which is con‑ verted into a single nucleotide gap (D) The single nucleotide gap is filled by an RNA polymerase 18. The short patch version of nucleotide excision repair in E. coli involves excision of how many nucleotides?

(A) 12 (B) 24

21

23. What is the name given to the pair of proteins that enclose the two cut DNA ends during the nonho‑ mologous end‑joining (NHEJ) process?

(A) Ku70 heterodimer (B) Ku80 heterodimer (C) Ku70‑Ku80 heterodimer (D) Ku70‑Ku90 heterodimer

24. In E. coli, which DNA polymerase, involved in the SOS response, is also called the UmuD′2C complex?

(A) DNA polymerase II (B) DNA polymerase III (C) DNA polymerase IV (D) DNA polymerase V 25. Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in nucleotide excision repair?

(A) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (B) Xeroderma pigmentosum (C) Spinocerebellar ataxia (D) Ataxia telangiectasia 26. Conversion of a codon from 5′‑TTA‑3′ to 5′‑TTG‑3′ results in what type of mutation?

(A) Nonsynonymous

(C) 32

(B) Synonymous

(D) 8 19. MutS and MutH are involved in which repair pro‑ cess in E. coli?

(A) Base excision repair

(C) Termination (D) Frameshift 27. What is a nonsense mutation?

(B) Mismatch repair

(A) A mutation that never occurs

(C) Nucleotide excision repair

(B) A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a termina‑ tion codon

(D) Repair of double‑strand breaks 20. UvrA and UvtB are involved in which type of repair process in E. coli?

(A) Base excision repair (B) Mismatch repair (C) Nucleotide excision repair (D) Repair of double‑strand breaks 21. What type of DNA modification enables the daugh‑ ter strand to be recognized during mismatch repair?

(C) A point mutation that changes a codon spec‑ ifying an amino acid into one specifiying s different amino acid (D) A mutation that results in readthrough of a ter‑ mination codon 28. What is the name given to the situation where an organism is unable to tolerate the approximately 50% reduction in protein activity resulting from the loss of one of a pair of gene copies?

(A) Acetylation

(A) Haploinsufficiency

(B) Methylation

(B) Second site reversion

(C) Phosphorylation

(C) Gain of function

Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 (D) Deamination

(D) Suppression

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

22. What is the name given to the proteins that protect single‑stranded regions prior to repair in humans?

29. What name is given to a point mutation that reverses the effect of a previous point mutation?

(A) Ku proteins

(A) Second side reversion

(B) NHEJ proteins

(B) Suppression

(C) Mut proteins

(C) Inversion

(D) PARP1 proteins

(D) Back mutation

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

22

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

30. Conversion of the anticodon for tRNAtrp from 5′‑CCA‑3′ to 5′‑UCA‑3′ would mean that this mutated tRNA would now recognize which codons?

(A) Tryptophan codons (B) Some termination codons (C) Proline codons (D) Glycine codons

5. What are the individual protein subunits of a virus capsid called?

(A) Receptor proteins (B) Spikes (C) Protomers (D) Outer membrane proteins 6. Which of the following bacteriophages has a double‑stranded linear RNA genome?

(A) λ

CHAPTER 12

(B) M13

1. What is a genome?

(D) φ6

(A) The entire collection of RNA molecules pos‑ sessed by an organism

(C) T4 7. Which of the following bacteriophages has a seg‑ mented genome?

(B) The entire collection of units of biological information possessed by an organism

(A) λ

(C) The entire collection of DNA molecules possessed by an organism

(C) T4

(D) The entire collection of genes possessed by an organism 2. Which if the following statements is incorrect with regards to viruses?

(A) Viruses are obligate parasites of the most extreme kind (B) Some viruses possess genes coding for their own DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase enzymes

(B) M13 (D) φ6 8. Which of the following bacteriophages has a genome of 169 kb, one of the largest known?

(A) λ (B) M13 (C) T4 (D) φ6 9. Approximately how long is the latent period during infection of E. coli with T4 bacteriophage?

(C) Some viruses possess genes coding for their own ribosomes

(A) 3 minutes

(D) Individual types cannot infect a broad spec‑ trum of species

(C) 33 minutes

3. Which if the following statements is incorrect with regards to bacteriophages?

(A) A bacteriophage is a virus that infects a bacterium (B) Bacteriophages have been used as model organisms with which to study virus infection cycles (C) The AIDS virus is an example of a bacteriophage (D) It is relatively easy to grow cultures of bacteria that are infected with bacteriophages 4. Which of the following is not a type of bacterio‑ phage capsid structure?

(A) Spherical (B) Head‑and‑tail (C) Filamentous (D) Icosohedral

(B) 22 minutes (D) 40 minutes 10. What is the name of the protein on the outer sur‑ face of an E. coli cell, to which a T4 bacteriophage attaches at the start of its infection cycle?

(A) OmpC (B) Cro (C) Cos (D) cI 11. What is the name given to the process that involves the translation products from the early set of genes switching on transcription of the late genes during a bacteriophage infection cycle?

(A) Induction system (B) One‑step growth curve (C) Concatemer system (D) Cascade system

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

12. How does T4 bacteriophage modify the host bac‑ terium’s RNA polymerase so that the polymerase transcribes bacteriophage genes?

(A) It modifies methylation

the

bacterial

σ

subunit

by

(B) One of the early T4 genes specifies a new σ subunit (C) It cuts the RNA polymerase in half (D) One of the bacteriophage genes specifies a repressor protein that binds to the RNA polymerase 13. What is a prophage?

(A) The version of a bacteriophage that exists out side of the cell before infection

(B) OmpC

(C) Gene A protein (D) RecA

18. Which of these bacteriophages has a genome of 6,400 nucleotides and follows an unusual infection cycle that is neither truly lytic nor truly lysogenic?

(A) M13 (B) φ6 (C) φX174 (D) T7 19. Which of these viruses has a double‑stranded lin‑ ear DNA genome?

(A) Adenovirus

(B) A bacteriophage that has attached to a cell sur‑ face protein and is ready to enter the cell

(B) Coronavirus

(C) A bacteriophage genome that has become integrated into the host genome

(D) Reovirus

(D) An assembled bacteriophage ready to be released by an infected cell 14. How many base pairs make up the λ cos site?

(C) Poliovirus 20. Which of these viruses has a double‑stranded lin‑ ear RNA genome?

(A) Adenovirus (B) Coronavirus

(A) 6

(C) Poliovirus

(B) 8

(D) Reovirus

(C) 10 (D) 12 15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the maintenance of lysogeny during λ infection?

(A) During lysogeny, the promoters PL and PR are switched off because the cI repressor is bound to the operators OL and OR (B) Lysogeny is maintained for numerous cell divisions because the cI gene is continuously expressed (C) cI is continuously expressed because the cI repressor, when bound to OR, stimulates tran‑ scription for the cI gene (D) All of the above statements are correct 16. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the choice between the λ lytic and lyso‑ genic infection cycles?

(A) If the cI repressor is synthesized more quickly than the Cro repressor, then early gene expres‑ sion is blocked and the bacteriophage enters Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 theTerry lytic Browninfection | Fourth Edition cycle © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(B) If the Cro repressor is synthesized more quickly than the cI repressor, then it blocks expression of the cI gene and lysogeny follows (C) Neither of statements A and B is correct (D) Both statements A and B are correct 17. What is the name of the protein that inactivates the cI repressor during the SOS response?

(A) Cro

23

21. What is the key feature of a viral retroelement?

(A) The presence of surface spike proteins that interfere with the host immune system (B) The ability to integrate into the host genome (C) The absence of a virus capsid (D) Their ability to infect plants 22. What is the name of the enzyme that makes a DNA copy of an RNA template?

(A) Retropolymerase (B) Taq polymerase (C) Reverse polymerase (D) Reverse transcriptase 23. What is the name of the protein on the surface of lymphocytes which acts as a receptor for a human immunodeficiency virus?

(A) CD4 (B) gag (C) onc (D) env 24. What name given to the changes in cell morphol‑ ogy and physiology that are induced by some retroviruses?

(A) Cell transformation (B) Cell transfection (C) Cancer (D) Oncogenesis

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

24

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

25. What word describes a retrovirus that is unable to replicate and produce new viruses, as it has lost genes coding for vital replication enzymes and/or capsid proteins?

(A) Deceptive (B) Defective (C) Deleted (D) Quiescent 26. What name given to the process by which an RNA transposon moves from place to place in a genome?

(A) Retrotransposition (B) Oncogenesis (C) Translocation (D) Retropositioning 27. Which gene is present in a viral retroelement but absent in a Ty1/copia retrotransposon?

(A) env (B) gag (C) gypsy (D) pol 28. What is the name given to the decayed viral retro‑ elements that are present in genomes of humans and other mammals?

2. Which of these bacteria has the largest genome size?

(A) Escherichia coli (B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) Mycoplasma genitalium (D) Sorangium cellulosum 3. Which species of bacterium was the first discov‑ ered to have a linear chromosome?

(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) Borrelia burgdorferi (C) Sorangium cellulosum (D) Streptomyces coelicolor 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to plasmids?

(A) Most plasmids are circular (B) Their sizes vary from approximately 1 kb for the smallest to over 250 kb for the larger ones (C) All plasmids possess at least one DNA sequence that can act as an origin of replication (D) The most plasmids

(B) Rbk (C) Ti

(C) Endogenous retroviruses

(D) TOL

(A) Satellite RNA (B) Virusoid (C) Viroid (D) Prion 30. Which of the following causes scrapie in sheep and goats?

(A) Satellite RNA (B) Virusoid (C) Viroid (D) Prion

are

fertility

(A) F

(B) Ty3/gypsy elements

29. What name is given to the infectious RNA mole‑ cules of 240–475 nucleotides which spread from cell to cell as naked RNA?

type

5. Which of these is an example of a resistance plasmid?

(A) Virusoids

(D) Defective retroviruses

common

6. Which of these is an example of a degradative plasmid?

(A) F (B) Rbk (C) Ti (D) TOL 7. The Ti plasmid is found in which bacterial species?

(A) Escherichia coli (B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (C) Pseudomona putida (D) Vibrio cholerae 8. What is the difference between a stringent and relaxed plasmid?

(A) Stringent plasmids have a lower copy number than relaxed plasmids

CHAPTER 13

(B) Stringent plasmids have a very restricted host range compared to relaxed plasmids

1. Which of these bacteria has the smallest genome size?

(C) Stringent plasmids are supercoiled, relaxed plasmids are not

(A) Escherichia coli (B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) Mycoplasma genitalium (D) Sorangium cellulosum

(D) Stringent and relaxed are two types of incom‑ patibility group

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

9. How is the Vibrio cholera genome organized?

(A) One circular molecule

17. Which of these proteins is involved in packaging of the E. coli chromosome?

(B) Two circular molecules

(A) HU proteins

(C) Three circular molecules

(B) Loop proteins

(D) Four circular molecules

(C) Histones

10. What name is given to the set of genes and other DNA sequences that enable plasmids to capture genes from bacteriophages and other plasmids?

(A) Chromid

(D) DNA gyrase 18. Single or multiple copies of which partitioning sequence are located on a bacterial chromosome close to the origin of replication?

(B) Acceptor region

(A) parA

(C) Integron

(B) parB

(D) K region

(C) parC

11. What is the designation of the common laboratory strain of Escherichia coli?

(A) E. coli O157:H7

(D) parS 19. Which protein binds to the partitioning sequence on a bacterial chromosome?

(B) E. coli R1

(A) ParA

(C) E. coli El Tor N16961

(B) ParB

(D) E. coli K12

(C) ParC

12. What are the two components of a pan‑genome?

(A) Primary genome and secondary genome (B) Core genome and accessory genome (C) Closed genome and open genome (D) Genome and epigenome 13. The bacterial chromosome is located in the _____.

(A) Nucleolus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Nucleoid (D) Nucleus 14. What is the circumference of the E. coli genome?

(A) 1.6 µm (B) 1.6 mm (C) 1.6 cm (D) 1.6 m 15. What type of enzyme can induce supercoiling of a DNA molecule?

(A) DNA helicase (B) DNA polymerase (C) DNA glycosylase (D) DNA topoisomerase 16. What is the name given to the supercoiled loops present in E. coli, each containing 40–300 kb of Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 DNA, that radiate out from a protein core?

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(A) Chromosomal interaction domains (B) Nucleoid loops (C) Nuclear loops (D) Chromosome arms

25

(D) ParS 20. Which of these is the Type II partitioning system used by some R plasmids?

(A) ParABS (B) ParDEF (C) ParABC (D) ParMRC 21. What designation is used for a donor cell that con‑ tains a fertility plasmid?

(A) F+ (B) F– (C) F' (D) Hfr 22. What is the name of the tube‑like structure that is involved in bacterial conjugation?

(A) Fibril (B) Pilus (C) Microtubule (D) Twiglet 23. Which set of genes on an F plasmid code for pro‑ teins involved in DNA transfer?

(A) F genes (B) hfr genes (C) prime genes (D) tra operon 24. What designation is used for a donor cell in which the F plasmid has become integrated into the E. coli chromosomal DNA? (A) F+ (B) F′

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

26

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS (C) Fr

(B) 42

(D) Hfr

(C) 107

25. What designation is used for a donor cell in which the F plasmid contains a small segment of E. coli chromosomal DNA?

(D) 236 2. Approximately how many genes are present in a chloroplast genome?

(A) F+

(A) 40

(B) F′

(B) 100

(C) Fr

(C) 150

(D) Hfr

(D) 200

26. Why is transformation more efficient with Bacillus species compared with E. coli?

3. Which of these species has the greatest number of chromosomes?

(A) The outer membrane of Bacillus species con‑ tains pores that allow DNA to enter the cell

(A) The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(B) Bacillus cells have a mechanism for detecting the presence of DNA fragments

(C) The Indian muntjac deer

(C) The outer membrane of Bacillus species contains proteins that bind DNA (D) DNA is a natural foodstuff for Bacillus species 27. What is the name given to the process by which DNA is transferred between bacteria by a bacteriophage?

(A) Recombination (B) Transduction

(B) The ant Myrmecia pilosula (D) Humans 4. The human nuclear genome comprises approxi‑ mately _____ of DNA, divided into __ molecules.

(A) 3,100 Mb, 23 (B) 3,300 Mb, 23 (C) 3,100 Mb, 24 (D) 3,300 Mb, 24 5. What are diploid human cells called?

(C) Partitioning

(A) Gametes

(D) Co‑infection

(B) Somatic cells

28. What does MRSA stand for?

(A) Multiple‑resistant Staphylococcus aureus (B) Methomycin‑resistant Staphylococcus aureus (C) Mega‑resistant Staphylococcus aureus (D) Methicillin‑resistant Staphylococcus aureus 29. What proportion of E. coli genes are thought to have been acquired by horizontal transfer?

(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 5% (D) 10% 30. What proportion of Thermotoga maritima genes are thought to have been acquired by horizontal transfer?

(C) Autosomes (D) Sex cells 6. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to chromatin?

(A) Chromatin contains a high proportion of acidic amino acids (B) Histones make up the main protein component of chromatin (C) Chromatin is made up of about one‑half pro‑ tein and one‑half DNA (D) Chromatin was first discovered by light micros‑ copy of cells stained with haematoxylin dye 7. What name is given to the method in which a DNA‑protein complex is treated with an endonu‑ clease in order to locate sites where proteins are attached?

(A) 5%

(A) Nuclease attack

(B) 20%

(B) Nuclease mapping

(C) 25%

(C) Nuclease protection

(D) 35%

(D) Nuclease spectrometry

CHAPTER 14 1. How many genes are present in the human mito‑ chondrial genome?

(A) 37

8. In humans, what length of DNA is associated with a nucleosome?

(A) 50–70 bp (B) 120–130 bp (C) 135 bp (D) 146 bp

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

9. The 50–70 bp stretches of human DNA that join individual nucleosomes to one another are called?

16. The centromere of the human X chromosome spans a region of approximately what size?

(A) 10 nm fiber

(A) 3,100 kb

(B) The chromatosome

(B) 31,000 kb

(C) Linker DNA

(C) 310,000 kb

(D) Connecting DNA

(D) 3,100,000 kb

10. Which of these histones is not a member of the nucleosome core octamer?

17. Which protein replaces histone H3 in nucleosomes present in a centromere?

(A) H1

(A) Histone H1

(B) H2B

(B) Histone H3A

(C) H3

(C) CENP‑A

(D) H4

(D) Alphoid protein

11. Which of the following is not a permanent nuclear feature but is seen in some cells some of the time?

(A) Facultative heterochromatin (B) Euchromatin (C) Chromatosomal chromatin (D) Constitutive heterochromatin 12. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to the packaging of DNA in human nuclei?

(A) The 10 nm fiber only reduces the length of a DNA molecule by one‑sixth

18. What name is given to the structures that act as the attachment points for the microtubules that draw the divided chromosomes into the daughter nuclei?

(A) Centromeres (B) Chromatids (C) Alphoid DNA (D) Kinetochores 19. Which of the following describes the repeat sequence in human telomeric DNA?

(B) In living cells, the 10 nm fiber forms a coiled structure called the 30 nm fiber

(A) 5′–TTTGGG–3′

(C) It has been suggested that higher levels of packaging are achieved by stacking nucle‑ osomes into plate‑like structures

(C) 5′–TTAGGG–3′

(D) A second model envisages a protein core from which loops of the 10 nm fiber radiate 13. Which of the following terms describes a cen‑ tromere that is positioned in the middle of a chromosome?

(A) Acrocentric (B) Metacentric (C) Submetacentric (D) Telocentric 14. Which of the following terms describes a cen‑ tromere that is positioned towards one end of a chromosome?

(A) Acrocentric (B) Metacentric (C) Submetacentric Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 (D) Telocentric

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

15. Which technique used to produce chromosome banding patterns involves mild proteolysis fol‑ lowed by staining with Giemsa?

27

(B) 5′–TTTCGG–3′ (D) 5′–TTACGG–3′ 20. The proteins that bind to telomeres make up a structure called?

(A) Shelterin (B) Cap structure (C) Kinetochore (D) Chromatid 21. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to the mode of action of telomerase?

(A) Telomerase is an unusual enzyme in that it consists of both protein and RNA (B) Telomerase RNA base pairs to the sin‑ gle‑stranded DNA overhang that is present at the end of a telomere (C) Base pairing provides a template that enables the 3′ end of the DNA to be extended by a few nucleotides (D) Telomerase can only add nucleotides to the end of the C‑rich strand 22. The chromosomes line up in the middle of the nuclear region during which stage in mitosis?

(A) C banding

(A) Anaphase

(B) G banding

(B) Metaphase

(C) Q banding

(C) Prometaphase

(D) R banding

(D) Telophase

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

28

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

23. The replicated chromosomes separate during which stage in mitosis?

(C) GEN1 (D) DMC1

(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase (C) Prometaphase (D) Telophase 24. What name is given to the structure formed by a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis?

(A) Bivalent (B) Recombinant (C) Metaphase chromosome (D) Gamete 25. Which of the following is the name given to the crossover points between two chromosomes?

(A) Bivalent (B) Chiasmata (C) Recombinant (D) Heteroduplex 26. What is the name given to the process that results in the exchange of longer segments of DNA in a heteroduplex?

(A) Reciprocal strand exchange (B) Branch migration (C) Resolution (D) D loop formation 27. What is the name given to the process that results in the end of one DNA molecule being exchanged for the end of the other DNA molecule during recombination?

(A) Reciprocal strand exchange (B) Branch migration (C) Resolution (D) D loop formation 28. The eight‑nucleotide consensus sequence 5′– GCTGGTGG–3′, which plays a key role during recombination in E. coli, is called?

(A) A rec site (B) A triplex (C) A ruv site (D) A chi site 29. Which protein forms a protein‑coated DNA fila‑ ment during recombination in E. coli?

(A) RecA (B) RecB (C) RecC (D) RecD 30. What is the name of the protein that cuts the Holliday structure in human cells?

(A) RecB (B) RuvC

CHAPTER 15 1. Which of the following characteristics was not studied by Mendel?

(A) Pod location (B) Flower shape (C) Pod color (D) Pea color 2. Which of the these is the pair of contrasting forms for flower color studied by Mendel?

(A) Violet, yellow (B) Yellow, white (C) Violet, white (D) Yellow, green 3. Which term describes the situation where pea plants always display the characteristics of the parent?

(A) Self‑fertilization (B) Monohybrid (C) Noncontrasting (D) Pure‑breeding 4. What name is given to an organism with two dif‑ ferent alleles for a genetic characteristic?

(A) Homozygote (B) Hybrid (C) Heterozygote (D) Cross‑breeding 5. The observable characteristics of an organism are called the ____.

(A) Phenotype (B) Genotype (C) Dominant type (D) Heterozygote 6. The intermediate structures formed during sexual reproduction are called?

(A) Segregants (B) Spores (C) Alleles (D) Gametes 7. Which of the following ratios is the typical out‑ come of a dihybrid cross?

(A) 3:1 (B) 9:3:3:1 (C) 9:7 (D) None of the above

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

8. What phenotype is displayed by the F1 generation in a cross between pea plants with round, yellow peas and plants with wrinkled, green peas?

14. In a cross between carnations with red flowers and ones with white flowers, the F1 generation of plants all have flowers of which color?

(A) Round, yellow

(A) Red

(B) Round, green

(B) White

(C) Wrinkled, yellow

(C) Pink

(D) Wrinkled, green

(D) No color

9. If two genes are on the same chromosome then they would be expected to display _____.

(A) Segregation

15. What ratio of green to aurea plants is obtained when a cross is performed between two aurea snapdragons?

(B) Linkage

(A) 3:1

(C) Independent assortment

(B) 1:3

(D) Heterozygosity

(C) 9:7

10. The genes for which pair of characteristics studied

by Mendel are both on chromosome 4 of peas?

(A) Plant height and pod location (B) Pod location and pod shape (C) Flower color and pea shape (D) Plant height and pod shape 11. Which of the following is correct with regards to the molecular explanation of pea shape?

(A) The gene studied by Mendel codes for starch branching enzyme 1 which con‑ verts sucrose to starch (B) The presence of starch increases water uptake as the pea develops, so the pea stays round when it reaches maturity and dehydrates (C) Peas that do not produce starch branching enzyme 1 absorb less water as they develop and so are wrinkled (D) All of the above 12. Which of the following is correct with regards to the molecular explanation of plant height?

(A) The plant height gene specifies gibberellin 3‑oxidase, which is responsible for synthesis of the plant growth hormone gibberellin (B) The dominant allele specifies fully functional gibberellin 3‑oxidase, resulting in sufficient gibberellin synthesis to direct growth of tall plants (C) The recessive allele has a point mutation that reduces gibberellin 3‑oxidase activity, so less gibberellin is synthesized and the plant has a dwarf morphology Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 Terry Brown | Fourth Edition (D) All©of the above garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

13. The presence of anthocyanin results in carnation petals of which color?

(A) Red (B) White (C) Pink (D) No color

29

(D) 2:1 16. What is the function of the aurea gene of snapdragon?

(A) It codes for a protein involved in chloro‑ phyll synthesis (B) It codes for a protein involved in chlorophyll breakdown (C) It regulates the rate of photosynthesis (D) It codes for a protein involved in assembly of chloroplasts 17. Dominant lethal alleles can propagate in a popula‑ tion if they specify a _____ phenotype.

(A) Homozygous (B) Codominant (C) Delayed onset (D) Heterozygous 18. The human MN blood group provides an example of which type of allele relationship?

(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Codominance (C) Epistasis (D) Complementary gene action 19. In the ABO system, the genotype IAIO specifies which blood group?

(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O 20. The anthocyanin pigments called cyanidin and pelargonidin specify which flower colors?

(A) Red and violet, respectively (B) Violet and red, respectively (C) Red and white, respectively (D) Both specify red 21. How many genotypes can be specified by a pair of genes both with two alleles?

(A) 7 (B) 8

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS (C) 9 (D) 12

22. What is the name given to the distribution com‑ monly called a bell‑shaped curve?

(A) Exponential (B) Guassian (C) Continuous (D) Binomial 23. In the F2 population, what was the ratio of purple to white flowers in the cross between white‑flowered sweet peas carried out by Bateson and Punnett?

(A) 3:1

29. What is the degree of penetrance of retinoblas‑ toma in the human population?

(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 80% (D) 90% 30. A disorder with incomplete penetrance that also has an age factor is referred to as ______.

(A) Delayed onset (B) Pleiotropic (C) Epistatic (D) Degenerative

(B) 1:3 (C) 9:7 (D) 2:1 24. What name is given to the relationship where a particular combination of alleles at two separate genes is needed in order to produce a phenotype?

(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Codominance (C) Epistasis (D) Complementary gene action 25. What name is given to the relationship where the alleles present at one gene mask or cancel those at a second gene?

(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Codominance

CHAPTER 16 1. What is microevolution?

(A) The division of one species into two new species (B) Changes in allele frequencies that occur in a population over time (C) Changes in a DNA sequence that affect only the intergenic regions (D) The creation of a geographical barrier between two populations 2. If an allele has a frequency of 0.95 then what per‑ centage of individuals in a population possess that allele?

(C) Epistasis

(A) 0.95%

(D) Complementary gene action

(B) 9.5%

26. Which of the following are examples of quantita‑ tive traits?

(A) Height in the human population (B) Productivity of most crops (C) Susceptibility to some diseases (D) All of the above 27. What is the name given to the situation that arises when a mutation in a single gene affects more than one trait?

(A) Incomplete penetrance (B) Complementary gene action (C) Pleiotropy (D) Epistasis 28. Which human disorder results from mutation in a gene coding for a protein involved in chloride ion secretion by epithelial cells?

(A) Retinoblastoma (B) Cystic fibrosis (C) Huntington’s diseases (D) Muscular dystrophy

(C) 95% (D) 99.05% 3. Yule’s argument that recessive alleles should gradually be lost from a population was based a consideration of which phenotype?

(A) Sickle cell anemia in humans (B) Finger length in humans (C) Flowering time in plants (D) Coloration of moth wings 4. If p and q are the frequencies of a pair of alleles, then which of the following relationships is correct, according to the Hardy‑Weinberg equilibrium?

(A) p + 2pq + q = 1 (B) p + pq + q = 1 (C) p2 + pq + q2 = 1 (D) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 5. What is a stochastic effect?

(A) A deviation from statistical perfection that occurs with real events in the real world (B) The impact that drift has on allele frequencies

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

(C) A deviation from statistical perfection that occurs because of experimental error

(D) The impact that selection has on allele frequencies 6. Which of these statements is correct with regards to two populations, one containing 20 individuals and the other containing 1,000 individuals?

(A) Genetic drift should have a more dra‑ matic effect on the allele frequencies in the smaller population (B) Genetic drift should have a more dramatic effect on the allele frequencies in the larger population

(B) The dark coloration provides a camou‑ flage when the moth alights on a tree trunk or other structure that has become blackened due to the airborne pollution (C) The dark coloration provides a camouflage when the moth alights on an exposed seam of coal or shale (D) The dark coloration provides a camouflage when the moth is flying in an environment containing airborne pollution

12. A selection coefficient of 0.05 would be given to a genotype that confers a fitness level that is ___ that of the most successful genotype.

(C) Genetic drift should have a similar effect on the allele frequencies in these two populations

(A) 0.05%

(D) Genetic drift should be undetectable in these two populations

(C) 5%

7. If at some point one member of an allele pair becomes lost from a population, then the allele that remains is said to display _____.

(B) 99.95% (D) 95% 13. Which of the following occurs when a single extreme phenotype in a population is favored over all others?

(A) Natural selection

(A) Directional selection

(B) A stochastic effect

(B) Disruptive selection

(C) Fixation

(C) Interfering selection

(D) Dominance

(D) Stabilizing selection

8. What is the name given to the part of a population that participates in reproduction?

14. Which of the following occurs when both extreme phenotypes in a population are selected against?

(A) The expressive population size

(A) Directional selection

(B) The essential population size

(B) Disruptive selection

(C) The elementary population size

(C) Interfering selection

(D) The effective population size

(D) Stabilizing selection

9. Which species has been rescued from extinction by a captive breeding program after being reduced to 18 individuals in a single wild population in Wyoming, USA? (A) Timber wolf (B) Black‑footed ferret (C) Grey wolf (D) Cheetah 10. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to fitness?

(A) Fitness is the degree of reproductive advan‑ tage possessed by an individual member of a population Genomesvaries | chapter 02 according | figure 01 (B) Fitness to the environment Terry Brown | Fourth Edition

(C) Melanism of the peppered moth is an example of fitness © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(D) All of the above 11. What is the explanation for the increased frequency of the carbonaria version of the peppered moth in the Manchester area in the late 19th century?

(A) The dark coloration makes it easier for moths to find one another and reproduce

31

15. What name is given to the situation where a het‑ erozygote is the most successful genotype?

(A) Overdominance (B) Heterozygote superiority (C) Heterosis (D) All of the above 16. Sickle cell anemia provides a degree of protection against which disease?

(A) Malaria (B) Tuberculosis (C) Smallpox (D) Influenza 17. What name is given to the fixation of alleles that do not confer an increase in fitness but which are located close to an allele that is under positive selection?

(A) Co‑selection (B) Selective sweep (C) Codominance (D) Selective linkage

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32

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

18. Which theory postulates that genetic drift is overwhelmingly the most important factor in deter‑ mining the allele frequencies within a population?

24. What does an FST value of over 0.25 indicate?

(A) The population has little substructure

(A) Selective sweep theory

(B) There are too many subpopulations for mean‑ ingful analysis

(B) Neutral theory

(C) The population has high heterozygosity

(C) Theory of natural selection

(D) Relatively well‑defined are present

(D) Fixation theory 19. Which of the following provides an example of a gradation of phenotypes caused by environmental variations?

25. What name is given to the period between the decline and recovery in the size of a population?

(A) Cline

(A) The incidence of sickle cell anemia in Africa

(B) Bottleneck

(B) Finger length in humans

(C) Selective sweep

(C) Flowering time in barley

(D) Founder effect

(D) The carbonaria and typica versions of peppered moths 20. Which name is given to a gradation of phenotypes caused by environmental variations?

26. The human population is thought to have declined to just ___ breeding individuals some 850,000 years ago.

(A) 1,280

(A) Clone

(B) 2,500

(B) Population split

(C) 10,800

(C) Gradient

(D) 108,000

(D) Cline 21. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to the effect of population subdivision on the genetic features of two subpopulations?

(A) The process of genetic drift will still operate within the subpopulations, but its effect on allele frequencies will not be the same in both (B) By chance, some alleles that become more fre‑ quent in one subpopulation will become less so in the other (C) There may be cases where one allele of a pair becomes fixed in one subpopulation, and the other allele becomes fixed in the second subpopulation (D) All of the above statements are correct 22. What is the name given to a formula for comparing the proportion of heterozygotes within different components of a population?

(A) Fixation index

(D) Structural coefficient 23. In the equation used to calculate an FST value, what does HT denote?

(A) The average heterozygosity of the suspected subpopulations substructure

(A) Cline (B) Bottleneck (C) Selective sweep (D) Founder effect 28. What is the offspring of a female horse and male donkey?

(A) Mule (B) Donkey (C) Horse (D) Hinny 29. What name is given to a speciation event that involves a geographical split?

(A) Postzygotic isolation (B) Prezygotic isolation (D) Sympatric speciation

(C) Heterozygosity index

of

27. What name is given to the situation that occurs when a few members of a population split away and initiate a new population?

(C) Allopatric speciation

(B) Selection coefficient

(B) The degree population

subpopulations

within

the

(C) The heterozygosity that is predicted from the allele frequency in the population as a whole (D) The number of subpopulations that are present

30. Which of the following is a type of prezygotic isola‑ tion that is caused by an interaction between a pair of genes?

(A) Allopatric speciation (B) Hybrid incompatibility (C) Complementary gene action (D) Heterozygote dominance

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

CHAPTER 17

1. In the dihybrid cross carried out with sweet pea by Bateson and colleagues in 1905, what ratio of phe‑ notypes was seen in the F2 generation?

7. What recombination frequency was obtained by Sturtevant for the miniature wings and yellow body genes of the fruit fly?

(A) 3.0% (B) 33.7%

(A) 3:1

(C) 29.4%

(B) 9:3:3:1

(D) 1.3%

(C) 9:7

8. The abbreviation cM is used for which unit?

(D) None of the above

(A) centiMeter

2. What is the explanation of partial linkage?

(B) centiMap unit

(A) Dominance of one gene over another

(C) centiMegabase

(B) Crossing over between genes during mitosis

(D) centiMorgan

(C) Presence of genes on different chromosomes (D) Recombination meiosis

between

genes

during

(A) 80 AB, 80 ab, 20 Ab, 20 aB

(B) Within genes (C) Near the centromere (D) Between genes 10. What name is given to a cross between a double heterozygote and a double homozygote?

(A) Back cross

(B) 160 AB, 160 ab, 40 Ab, 40 aB

(B) Linkage analysis

(C) 40 AB, 40 ab, 160 Ab, 160 aB

(C) Double cross

(D) 100 AB, 40 ab, 40 Ab, 100 aB 4. In the cross described in question 3, which are the recombinant genotypes?

(A) AB, ab (B) Ab, aB (C) Ab, AB

(D) Test cross 11. In a multipoint cross between a triple heterozygote (genotype ABC/abc) and a triple homozygote (abc/ abc), what would you expect to be the two most frequent genotypes among the progeny?

(A) ABC/abc, abc/abc

(D) Ab, ab 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to a recombination frequency?

(A) Two genes that are close together will be separated by crossovers more frequently than two genes that are more distant from one another (B) The frequency with which two genes are unlinked by crossovers is directly proportional to how far apart they are on their chromosome (C) The recombination frequency is a measure of the distance between two genes (D) The recombination frequencies for different pairs of genes enable a map to be constructed Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 Terry genetic Brown | Fourth Edition first map was constructed © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

9. At which of these positions in a chromosome are crossovers least frequent?

(A) At a recombination hotspot

3. Consider two genes, A and B. What would be the genotypes of the resulting gametes if crossovers occured between A and B during 40 of 100 meio‑ ses of a diploid nucleus in which one chromosome has alleles A and B, and the second has a and b?

6. The chromosome of the fruit fly?

33

for which

(B) aBC/abc, Abc/abc (C) AbC/abc, aBc/abc (D) ABc/abc, abC/abc 12. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to human pedigree analysis?

(A) Pedigree analysis has been used to map genes for inherited disorders (B) To establish a recombination frequency we must determine how many of the children are recombinants (C) It is important that the members of at least three generations can be genotyped (D) All of the above statements are correct 13. What measure is used in the statistical analysis of pedigree data?

(A) 1

(A) odd scores

(B) 2

(B) lod scores

(C) 3

(C) loc scores

(D) 4

(D) rec scores

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

14. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the family collections maintained by the Centre d’Etudes du Polymorphisme Humaine (CEPH)?

(A) The CEPH is located in Toulouse, France (B) The CEPH collection comprises blood samples (C) Samples come from families in which all four great‑grandparents as well as at least eight great‑grandchildren could be tested (D) The collection is available for gene map‑ ping by any researcher who agrees to submit the resulting data to the central CEPH database 15. Which of these methods can be used to map genes in bacteria?

(A) Conjugation (B) Transduction (C) Transformation (D) All of the above 16. What name is given to the functional version of a bacterial gene?

(A) Selective type (B) Wild‑type (C) Resistant type (D) Recipient type 17. Which of the following describes the relation‑ ship between a selective medium and a minimal medium?

(A) A minimal medium is a type of selective medium (B) A minimal medium is used with antibiotic‑ resistant bacteria, a selective medium is used for ones with amino acid deficiencies

20. Which of the genes studied by Wollman and Jacob was the first to be transferred to the recipient E. coli bacteria?

(A) The azide sensitivity gene (B) The genes for the ability to utilize lactose and galactose an energy sources (C) The genes for threonine and leucine synthesis (D) The ton gene 21. How long does it take for the entire E. coli chromo‑ some to be transferred from the donor to recipient cell during conjugation?

(A) 1 minute (B) 10 minutes (C) 60 minutes (D) 100 minutes 22. Transduction mapping involves transfer of a DNA segment up to about ____ in length into the recipi‑ ent bacterium.

(A) 5 kb (B) 50 kb (C) 250 kb (D) 500 kb 23. The best studied transduction system involves which bacteriophage?

(A) P22 (B) T2 (C) T4 (D) λ 24. How many overlapping sequence reads of 500 bp are needed to build up the entire sequence of the shortest human chromosome?

(C) A selective medium is a type of minimal medium

(A) 90,000

(D) A minimal medium has more nutrients than a selective medium

(C) 9,000,000

18. Conjugation mapping requires which two types of bacteria?

(B) 900,000 (D) 19,000,000 25. Which of the following is the recognition sequence for the BamHI restriction endonuclease?

(A) Hfr and F+

(A) 5′–GGTACC–3′

F+ and F–

(B) 5′–CCTAGG–3′

(C) Hfr and F–

(C) 5′–GGTTCC–3′

(D) F′ and F–

(D) 5′–GGATCC–3′

(B)

19. What characteristic is specified by the E. coli ton gene?

26. What is the name of the method used to extend DNA molecules so they take up a linear configuration?

(A) Sensitivity to azide

(A) Molecular lineariziation

(B) Ability to synthesize threonine

(B) Molecular combing

(C) Ability to use lactose as an energy source

(C) Molecular stretching

(D) Resistance to colicin and T1 bacteriophage

(D) Molecular ruling

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

27. Which of the flowing statements is incorrect with regards to the use of a microfluidic device in opti‑ cal mapping?

(A) $10 million

(A) A microfluidic device contains a nanochannel that is only just wide enough for a linear DNA molecule to squeeze through

(D) $10 billion

(B) The microfluidic architecture is designed in such a way that a calcium ion gradient is established within the nanochannel (C) This means that the restriction endonuclease is activated when it enters the channel along with the DNA fragment (D) The resulting gaps in the DNA molecule are recorded as the molecule flows past a detec‑ tion system 28. What is the name of the technique that makes use of the ability of any two complementary polynu‑ cleotides to form base pairs with one another?

(A) Hybridization coupling (B) Hybridization mapping (C) Hybridization probing (D) Hybridization labeling 29. What does the abbreviation FISH stand for?

(B) $100 million (C) $1 billion

3. Approximately how many sequence reads can be obtained in a single short‑read sequencing experiment?

(A) 106 (B) 107 (C) 108 (D) 109 4. What is the approximate cost of sequencing a human genome using modern short‑ and long‑read sequencing methods?

(A) Less that $1,000 (B) $10,000 (C) $100,000 (D) $1 million 5. What is the name given to methods that use an individual’s genome sequence to diagnose their risk of developing a disease?

(A) Genomics

(A) Fractionation in situ hybridization

(B) Personal medicine

(B) Fine mapping in situ hybridization

(C) SMRT sequencing

(C) Fluorescent in situ hybridization

(D) Reference sequencing

(D) Fiber in situ hybridization 30. What is a peptide nucleic acid?

6. What method is usually used to break up DNA into fragments before short‑read sequencing?

(A) A complex between protein and DNA

(A) Heat treatment

(B) A linear molecule comprising one half peptide and one half DNA

(B) Treatment with an endonuclease

(C) A DNA sequence that codes for a peptide

(D) Sonication

(D) A polynucleotide analog in which the sugar‑phosphate backbone is replaced by amide bonds

35

(C) Treatment with an exonuclease 7. What is the name given to the reaction chamber in which short‑read DNA sequencing is carried out?

(A) Flow cell (B) Sequenator

CHAPTER 18 1. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to the chain termination sequencing method?

(A) Each fragment of DNA must be purified before it can be sequenced Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 (B) About 800 bpEdition of sequence can be read in a sin‑ Terry Brown | Fourth garlandscience design by blink studio ltd gle©experiment

(C) Automated systems for chain termination sequencing have not been developed (D) The human genome was sequenced by this method 2. What was the estimated cost of the human genome sequencing project that ended in 2000?

(C) SMRT cell (D) Adaptor 8. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to reversible terminator sequencing?

(A) Each DNA fragment acts as the template for synthesis of a new polynucleotide by a DNA polymerase (B) The nucleotides are labelled with a radio‑ active group, a different one for each of the four nucleotides (C) The label is attached to the 3′‑carbon of the nucleotide (D) The label therefore acts as a blocking group, preventing the next nucleotide from being added

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

9. What is a paired‑end read?

(A) Two fragments that have been joined together before sequencing (B) A circular DNA molecule that is made as an intermediate in a DNA sequencing reaction (C) Two overlapping sequence reads (D) A fragment that has been sequenced from both ends 10. What is a zero‑mode waveguide?

(A) An optical system that is used in sin‑ gle‑molecule real‑time sequencing

15. Which of the following are looked on as structural variants that occur in eukaryotic genomes?

(A) Variations in the numbers and locations of repeat units (B) Presence or absence of certain sequences of 50–2,000 bp in length (C) The positioning of some single‑copy sequences (D) All of the above 16. What is the term used to describe a genome sequence that has some unsequenced gaps and up to one error per 1,000 nucleotides?

(B) An algorithm used to identify overlaps between sequence reads

(A) Reference genome

(C) The device that directs DNA molecules to a nanopore during nanopore sequencing

(C) Finished genome

(D) The device used to interpret the perturba‑ tions in ion flow that occur during nanopore sequencing 11. Which of the following methods provides the long‑ est read lengths?

(A) Chain termination sequencing (B) Nanopore sequencing (C) Reversible terminator sequencing (D) Single‑molecule real‑time sequencing 12. The shotgun method was first used to assemble the genome sequence of which bacterial species?

(B) Draft genome (D) Unassembled genome 17. What is a hydatidiform mole?

(A) An animal whose genome contains a large amount of repetitive DNA (B) A growth in the wall of a uterus (C) The first animal for which an entire genome sequence was obtained (D) The first animal whose genome was sequenced entirely by long‑read methods 18. How many reading frames are present in a DNA sequence?

(A) 3

(A) Escherichia coli

(B) 4

(B) Haemophilus influenzae

(C) 6

(C) Vibrio cholerae

(D) It depends how long the sequence is

(D) Mycoplasma genitalium 13. With the chain termination method, to ensure that all errors are identified, at least ___ sequence depth is required.

19. What will be the average frequency of initiation codons in a DNA molecule with a GC content of 50%?

(A) Once every 18 nucleotides

(A) 5×

(B) Once every 64 nucleotides

(B) 10×

(C) Once every 128 nucleotides

(C) 20×

(D) Once every 192 nucleotides

(D) 50× 14. What is a reference sequence?

20. What is the average length of a bacterial gene?

(A) Less than 100 codons

(A) The ‘master’ genome sequence for a particular species

(B) 300–350 codons

(B) The first genome sequence to be obtained for a particular species

(D) 900–1,050 codons

(C) An existing genome sequence that is used to direct assembly of the genome sequences of members of the same or similar species (D) A genome sequence obtained entirely by long‑read methods

(C) 450 codons 21. What is the consensus sequence for the 3′ splice site of a vertebrate intron?

(A) 5′–PyNCAG↓–3′ (B) 5′–PyPyPyPyPyPyNCAG↓–3′ (C) 5′–AG↓GUAAGU–3′ (D) 5′–AG↓GUUUGU–3′

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

22. Which is the most frequently used leucine codon in human genes?

(A) CTT

30. What name is used for a software package that enables genome annotation data to be displayed graphically?

(B) CTG

(A) Genome browser

(C) TTA

(B) Genome display

(D) CTA

(C) Annotation display

23. What name is given to a double‑stranded DNA copy of an mRNA? (A) Complementary DNA (B) Reverse DNA (C) Copy DNA (D) Hybrid DNA 24. Sequencing of RNA by a short‑read method is called ______.

(A) cDNA sequencing (B) SMRT sequencing (C) BLAST sequencing (D) RNA‑seq 25. What name is given to the method that involves comparing the sequence of a gene whose function is unknown with the sequences of all the genes that have already been sequenced?

(A) Candidate gene analysis (B) Homologous DNA analysis (C) Gene mapping (D) Homology search 26. What is the most popular software program for carrying out the analysis described in question 25?

(A) BRAST (B) BAST (C) BLAST (D) BHAST 27. What type of enzyme is used in gene editing?

(A) Reverse transcriptase (B) DNA polymerase (C) Protease (D) Programmable nuclease 28. Which DNA repair process is utilized during gene editing?

(A) Mismatch repair (B) Nonhomologous end‑joining (C) Base excision Genomes | chapter 02 repair | figure 01 (D)

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd Single‑strand break repair

29. What is the length of the guide RNA used in gene editing?

(A) 10 nucleotides (B) 12 nucleotides (C) 18 nucleotides (D) 20 nucleotides

37

(D) Sequence graph

CHAPTER 19 1. Which of the differentiation?

following

is

a

definition

of

(A) The pathway that begins with a fertilized egg cell and ends with an adult (B) The process by which an individual cell acquires a specialized function (C) A complex series of genetic, cellular and physi‑ ological events that must occur in the correct order, in the correct cells, and at the appropri‑ ate times (D) All of the above 2. Approximately how many cells are present in an adult human?

(A) 3 × 103 (B) 3 × 108 (C) 3 × 1013 (D) 3 × 1023 3. Approximately how many human protein‑coding genes are active in all cells?

(A) Less than 3,000 (B) 6,000 (C) 20,000 (D) 120,000 4. Which term describes a heritable change to the genome that does not involve mutation?

(A) Adaptation (B) Differentiation (C) Homeotic (D) Epigenesis 5. Which of the following are synthesized by B lymphocytes?

(A) Antigens (B) Immunoglobulins (C) T‑cell receptors (D) Xist RNA 6. Humans are able to make approximately how many different immunoglobulin and T‑cell recep‑ tor proteins?

(A) 20,000 (B) 106

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(C) By removing methyl groups from histone H3

(D) 108

(D) By methylating lysines on histone H3

7. How many polypeptides makes up a single immu‑ noglobulin protein?

15. Approximately how long is a Polycomb response element?

(A) 2

(A) 10 bp

(B) 4

(B) 100 bp

(C) 6

(C) 1 kb

(D) 8

(D) 10 kb

8. The genes for the heavy chain segments of human immunoglobulins are located on which chromosome?

(A) Chromosome 4

16. What is nucleosome remodelling?

(A) Replacement of histone H1 with a different linker histone

(B) Chromosome 14

(B) The repositioning of nucleosomes on a stretch of DNA

(C) Chromosome 22

(C) An increase in the size of a nucleosome

(D) The X chromosome

(D) Replacement of regular nucleosomes with the special ones found at centromeres

9. What is the order of segments in the heavy chain of an immunoglobulin protein?

(A) V‑D‑J‑C

17. What name is given to an enzyme that adds methyl groups to DNA?

(B) D‑V‑J‑C

(A) Methyl‑CpG‑binding protein

(C) V‑J‑D‑C

(B) DNA methyltransferase

(D) V‑J‑C‑D

(C) DNA demethylase

10. Which of these genes provides an example of a genetic feedback loop in vertebrates?

(A) Xist

(D) DNA methylase 18. In vertebrates up to 10% of the total number of ___ in a genome are methylated.

(B) antennapedia

(A) Adenines

(C) Dnmt1

(B) Cytosines

(D) myoD

(C) Guanines

11. Which amino acids in a histone protein can become acetylated?

(A) Glycines (B) Lysines (C) Serines (D) Tyrosines 12. What is the name of the enzyme that adds acetyl groups to histones?

(A) Histone activase (B) Histone acetylase (C) Histone acetyltransferase (D) Histone deacetylase 13. Which small protein can be attached to lysines in the C terminal regions of histones?

(D) Thymines 19. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to genomic imprinting?

(A) There is a 2.2 Mb segment of human chromo‑ some 15 within which there are at least ten imprinted genes (B) An example of an imprinted gene is Igf2, which codes for a growth factor (C) On the chromosome inherited from the father, Igf2 is methylated (D) A second imprinted gene, H19, is located some 90 kb away from Igf2 20. Which are the vulva Caenorhabditis elegans?

(B) P6.p, P7.p and P8.p

(B) HP1 protein

(C) P7.p, P8.p and P9.p

(C) Peptide A

(D) P8.p, P9.p and P10.p

14. How does Polycomb protein induce formation of heterochromatin?

(A) By methylating DNA (B) By removing methyl groups from DNA

cells

of

(A) P5.p, P6.p and P7.p

(A) Ubiquitin

(D) Deformed

progenitor

21. What is the name of the signalling compound involved in vulval development in C. elegans?

(A) LET‑23 (B) LET‑37

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(C) LIN‑3

(C) 8

(D) LIN‑6

(D) 13

22. What is the name of the cell surface receptor involved in vulval development in C. elegans?

30. What name is given to the process that underlies development of Arabidopsis thaliana flowers?

(A) LET‑23

(A) MADS system

(B) LET‑37

(B) Four whorl model

(C) LIN‑3

(C) ABC model

(D) LIN‑6

(D) APETALA model

23. What is the name given to the early Drosophila embryo, comprising a mass of cytoplasm and mul‑ tiple nuclei?

(A) Blastoderm (B) Cytoskeleton (C) Nurse cell (D) Syncytium 24. Which of these proteins contribute to setting the anterior‑posterior axis of the Drosophila embryo?

(A) Dorsal (B) Bicoid (C) Antennapedia (D) All of the above 25. Which of these is the earliest set of genes activated during development of the Drosophila embryo?

(A) Segment polarity genes (B) Gap genes (C) Homeotic selector genes (D) Pair rule genes 26. Which of these is the latest set of genes activated during development of the Drosophila embryo?

(A) Segment polarity genes (B) Gap genes (C) Homeotic selector genes (D) Pair rule genes 27. What type of structure is specified by a homeobox?

(A) An RNA‑binding domain (B) A polycomb response element (C) A DNA‑binding domain (D) An imprint control element 28. How many homeotic gene clusters are present in vertebrate genomes?

(A) 2 | chapter 02 | figure 01 (B) 4 Genomes Terry Brown | Fourth Edition

(C) 8

© garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(D) 13 29. How many homeotic gene clusters are present in the Atlantic salmon genome?

(A) 2 (B) 4

CHAPTER 20 1. What is the size of the human nuclear genome?

(A) 2,100 Mb (B) 2,500 Mb (C) 2,900 Mb (D) 3,100 Mb 2. What is the chromosome?

length

of

the

longest

human

(A) 209 Mb (B) 249 Mb (C) 310 Mb (D) 340 Mb 3. Approximately what proportion of the human genome comprises intergenic DNA? (A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 40% (D) 60% 4. Which of these species has the greatest number of protein‑coding genes?

(A) Homo sapiens (B) Drosophila melanogaster (C) Arabidopsis thaliana (D) Caenorhabditis elegans 5. Why were initial estimates of the number of pro‑ tein‑coding genes in the human genome much greater than the actual number?

(A) The number of proteins in human cells was ini‑ tially over‑estimated (B) Because the prevalence of alternative splicing had not been appreciated (C) Because of errors in early sequencing projects (D) Because human cells were thought to be more complex than is actually the case 6. What is the length of the shortest protein‑coding gene in the human genome?

(A) 65 bp (B) 189 bp (C) 231 bp (D) 1,191 bp

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7. What name is given to a segment of a chromo‑ some in which the gene density is very low?

(A) Gene desert (B) Empty DNA (C) Gene depletion (D) Gene pool 8. How many copies of the growth hormone gene are clustered on human chromosome 17?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 8 9. Which of these human chromosomes does not contain a cluster of rRNA transcription units?

(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 20 10. What proportion of the human genome is made up of exons?

(A) 1.5% (B) 4.0% (C) 12.5% (D) Over 25% 11. Which of these organisms has the greatest number of genes per Mb of DNA? (A) Humans (B) Fruit fly (C) Maize (D) Yeast 12. What term has been used in the past to describe the repetitive DNA content of a genome, but is not falling out favor?

(A) Junk DNA (B) Garbage DNA (C) Rubbish DNA (D) Interspersed DNA 13. What is the predominant type of LTR transposon in the human genome?

(A) copia elements (B) gypsy elements (C) Long interspersed nuclear elements (D) Decayed endogenous retroviruses 14. Which elements have the highest copy number for any type of interspersed repetitive DNA in the human genome?

(C) LTR transposons (D) rRNA transcription units 15. How long is a full‑length LINE‑1 element?

(A) 100–400 bp (B) 2,500 bp (C) 5,300 bp (D) 6,100 bp 16. What is the name of the commonest SINE in pri‑ mate genomes?

(A) ERV (B) Alu (C) 7SL RNA (D) SINE‑1 17. Why is tandemly repeated DNA also called satellite DNA? (A) Because it forms satellite bands when genomic DNA is centrifuged in a density gradient (B) Because it is located near the ends of chromosomes (C) Because it is not looked on as the main part of the genome (D) Because it forms satellite bands when DNA is fractionated in an agarose gel 18. What repeat unit is present in the commonest type of human microsatellite DNA? (A) 5′–TA–3′ (B) 5′–TC–3′ (C) 5′–CA–3′ (D) 5′–CG–3′ 19. Which of the following are alternative names for microsatellites?

(A) Short tandem repeats (B) Simple sequence repeats (C) Simple sequence length polymorphisms (D) All of the above 20. Which animal is our closest relative in the animal kingdom?

(A) Gorillas (B) Orangutans (C) Gibbons (D) Chimpanzees 21. Approximately when did Homo sapiens first appear in Africa?

(A) 1.2 million years ago (B) 2.5 million years ago

(A) SINEs

(C) 4.4 million years ago

(B) LINEs

(D) 10.2 million years ago

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22. What proportion of the genes in the human genome code for proteins whose amino acid sequences are identical to the sequences of their counterparts in chimpanzees?

(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) 30% 23. Which human chromosome is two separate chro‑ mosomes in chimpanzees?

41

29. What is the name of the photosynthetic structures in glaucophyte algae?

(A) Cyanelles (B) Chloroplasts (C) Chromopheres (D) Chromoplasts

30. What name is given to DNA that has been trans‑ ferred from the mitochondrial to chloroplast genome?

(A) Transfer DNA

(A) Chromosome 2

(B) Promiscuous DNA

(B) Chromosome 5

(C) Co‑organellar DNA

(C) Chromosome 22

(D) Junk DNA

(D) X chromosome 24. Which gene, which regulates expression of other genes involved in nerve cell growth, appears to be under positive selection in humans?

(A) KRTAP6–2 (B) FOXP2 (C) SRGAP2 (D) RBFOX1 25. What is the size of the human mitochondrial genome?

(A) 16,569 bp (B) 20,356 bp (C) 33,345 bp (D) 240,000 bp 26. Which of the following features does not contribute to the compactness of the human mitochondrial genome?

(A) The rRNA genes are among the smallest known (B) Several genes lack initiation codons (C) Several genes have truncated termination codons (D) There are only 22 tRNA genes 27. Which of these species has the smallest mitochon‑ drial genome?

(A) Homo sapiens (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (C) Arabidopsis thaliana (D) Plasmodium falciparum 28. What name is given to the theory that describes Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 the origin of mitochondria?

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(A) Symbiosis theory

(B) Engulfment theory (C) Endosymbiont theory (D) Eukaryotic theory

CHAPTER 21 1. How many inherited human monogenic disorders are known?

(A) About 250 (B) 1,000–1,200 (C) About 2,500 (D) Over 6,000 2. Which of the following is the commonest mutation in the CFTR gene?

(A) G542X (B) ΔG252 (C) ΔF508 (D) G551D 3. Which of the following is a class II CFTR muta‑ tion, resulting in synthesis of a protein that fails to attach to the cell membrane?

(A) G542X (B) ΔG252 (C) ΔF508 (D) G551D 4. Duplication of PMP22 gives rise to which inherited disorder?

(A) Phenylketonuria (B) Charcot‑Marie‑Tooth disease (C) Hemophilia A (D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy 5. Which of the following would not lead to a gain of function?

(A) Overexpression of a gene (B) Gene duplication (C) Reduced rate of protein synthesis (D) Alteration to a cell surface receptor

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6. Which repeat sequence is present in the HTT gene?

(A) 5′–CAG–3′ (B) 5′–GAG–3′ (C) 5′–CTG–3′ (D) 5′–CAT–3′ 7. Which of the following trinucleotide repeat expan‑ sion disorders does not involve expansion of polyglutamine codons?

(A) Friedreich’s ataxia

13. Which of the following disorders can be caused by either a deletion or a point mutation in the CD339 gene?

(A) Tay‑Sachs disease (B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (C) Phenylketonuria (D) Alagille syndrome 14. Trisomy of which chromosome results in Down syndrome?

(B) Fragile X syndrome

(A) Chromosome 1

(C) Myotonic dystrophy

(B) Chromosome 17

(D) Spinomuscular bulbar atrophy

(C) Chromosome 18

8. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to fragile sites?

(A) Trinucleotide expansions leading to a fragile site occur in the 3′ untranslated region of a gene (B) In Fragile X syndrome the affected gene is FMR1 (C) Chromosome breakage is the underlying cause of a fragile site disocrder (D) All of the above 9. Marfan syndrome is an example of which type of inherited disorder?

(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive (C) X‑linked (D) Y‑linked 10. Hemophilia A is an example of which type of inher‑ ited disorder?

(D) X chromosome 15. Which sex chromosome composition is present in Klinefelter’s syndrome?

(A) XXY (B) XYY (C) XXYY (D) XXXY 16. Microsatellite and RFLP alleles are typed by which combination of techniques?

(A) PCR followed by in situ hybridization (B) PCR followed electrophoresis

17. The BRCA1 gene is located on which human chromosome?

(A) Chromosome 1 (B) Chromosome 17 (C) Chromosome 18

(C) X‑linked

(D) X chromosome

(A) Autosomal dominant

gel

(D) Density gradient centrifugation followed by capillary gel electrophoresis

(B) Autosomal recessive

11. Which of the following types of disorder would not be expressed in a male heterozygote?

capillary

(C) DNA labeling followed by PCR

(A) Autosomal dominant

(D) Y‑linked

by

18. Which of the following methods can be used to identify the gene for an inherited disorder from a set of candidate genes?

(B) Autosomal recessive

(A) Examination of expression patterns in different tissues

(C) X‑linked

(B) Searches for homologs in other species

(D) Y‑linked

(C) Sequencing of DNA from susceptible families to identify genes containing possible causative mutations

12. Which of the following disorders is caused by haploinsufficiency?

(A) Tay‑Sachs disease (B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (C) Phenylketonuria (D) Alagille syndrome

(D) All of the above 19. What is the BRCA1 gene?

biochemical

(A) Cell surface receptor (B) DNA repair (C) Amino acid biosynthesis (D) DNA replication

function

of

the

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20. Which types of DNA marker are typed by oligonu‑ cleotide hybridization analysis?

28. Which of the following types of virus have been used in somatic cell therapy?

(A) Microsatellites

(A) Adenoviruses

(B) RFLPs

(B) Coronaviruses

(C) SNPs

(C) Reoviruses

(D) Minisatellites

(D) Poxviruses

21. What name is given to a thin wafer of silicon to which many oligonucleotides are attached, used in typing of SNPs? (A) Flow cell

29. What is the name of the method that attempts to treat a cancer by introducing a gene that promotes destruction of cancer cells by drugs administered in a conventional fashion?

(B) DNA wafer

(A) Antisense RNA therapy

(C) Silicon chip

(B) Drug activation therapy

(D) DNA chip

(C) Suicide gene therapy

22. Which protein is specified by the cellular version of the v‑sis oncogene?

(A) Human growth hormone (B) RAS cell surface receptor protein (C) Platelet‑derived growth factor B (D) ABL tyrosine kinase 23. Which type of cancer results from amplification of the ERBB2 gene?

(A) Liver cancer

43

(D) AAV transfer 30. What is a chimeric antigen receptor T cell?

(A) A lymphocyte that convers a drug precursor into a toxic form (B) A lymphocyte that has been engineered so that it synthesizes T cell receptors (C) A lymphocyte used to introduce new DNA dur‑ ing somatic gene therapy (D) A lymphocyte containing antisense RNA

(B) Skin cancer (C) Prostate cancer (D) Breast cancer 24. The Philadelphia chromosome results from a translocation between which two chromosomes?

(A) Chromosomes 9 and 22 (B) Chromosomes 12 and 21 (C) Chromosomes 18 and 19 (D) X and Y chromosomes 25. The ‘two‑hit’ model was devised to explain the development of which type of cancer?

(A) Liver cancer (B) Retinoblastoma (C) Breast cancer (D) Colon cancer 26. Which of the following is a small bulge in the epi‑ thelial tissue in the wall of the colon, occurring at an early stage of colon cancer?

(A) Carcinoma

CHAPTER 22 1. What is the name given to DNA extracted from fos‑ sil or archaeological remains?

(A) Archaeological DNA (B) Fossil DNA (C) Forensic DNA (D) Ancient DNA 2. What name is given to a position in a DNA mol‑ ecule where the nucleotide sequence is not the same in every member of the population?

(A) Polymorphism (B) Point change (C) Minisatellite (D) Structural variation 3. Which of the following are expected to have identi‑ cal genome sequences?

(A) Monozygotic twins

(B) Metanoma Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01

(B) Mother and daughter

(D) Polyp

(D) All of the above

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition (C) Adenoma © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

27. What is the name of a membrane‑bound vesicle used to transfer DNA into a somatic cell?

(A) Liposome (B) Fat body (C) Vacuole (D) Bleb

(C) Siblings 4. What kind of variable sequence is typed in genetic fingerprinting?

(A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (B) Single nucleotide polymorphisms

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(C) Hypervariable dispersed repetitive sequences (D) Short tandem repeats 5. The CODIS set comprises how many STRs? (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24 6. Using the CODIS set, what is the chance that two unrelated individuals have the same DNA profile?

(A) 1 in 108 (B) 1 in 1010 (C) 1 in 1013 (D) 1 in 1018 7. What is the name of the method that types several STRs in a single experiment?

(A) Multiple PCR (B) Multisite PCR (C) Multiprimer PCR (D) Multiplex PCR 8. What are the pseudoautosomal regions?

(A) Segments of the X and Y chromosomes where the sequences are very similar

12. What is the name given to the situation where the authentic PCR product from an STR is accompa‑ nied by products differing in length by one or more repeat units?

(A) Stutter (B) Mistyping (C) Allele ambiguity (D) Allelic dropout 13. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to familial DNA testing?

(A) Familial DNA testing involves using a com‑ puter to compare a test DNA profile with all the profiles in a database (B) The computer assigns a degree of similarity to each database profile depending on the num‑ ber of alleles shared with the test profile and the frequency of those alleles in the population as a whole (C) A profile assigned a high degree of similarity might be from a relative of the person who left the sample at the crime scene, but this cannot be assumed (D) All of the above 14. Which of the following provides the greatest degree of accuracy when a female lineage is being traced?

(B) The unique regions of the Y chromosome

(A) X chromosomal DNA

(C) A segment of an X or Y chromosome that has become attached to an autosome

(B) Autosomal DNA

(D) The regions either side of a centromere

(D) Y chromosomal DNA

9. Which gene has length variations on the X and Y chromosomes and is used for DNA‑based sex typing?

(A) SRY (B) Amelogenin (C) TPOX (D) VWA 10. Which of the following are possible sources of DNA for DNA profiling?

(A) Bloodstains (B) Hair roots (C) Shed skin cells (D) All of the above 11. What is the name given to the situation where one or more STR alleles fail to amplify during PCR? (A) Stutter (B) Mistyping (C) Allele ambiguity (D) Allelic dropout

(C) Mitochondrial DNA 15. What is the hypervariable region?

(A) A highly variable region of the mitochon‑ drial genome (B) A highly variable region of the X chromosome (C) A highly variable region of an autosome (D) A highly variable region of the Y chromosome 16. The first successful of extraction of ancient DNA was from which animal?

(A) Zebra (B) Tasmanian devil (C) Quagga (D) Horse 17. Approximately how many features of the human skeleton vary among different people?

(A) 42 (B) 75 (C) 130 (D) 400

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18. Approximately how many copies of the mitochon‑ drial genome are there per human cell?

(A) 2,000 (B) 4,000 (C) 8,000 (D) 10,000

19. Approximately how many human mitochondrial haplotypes are there?

(A) 75 (B) 125 (C) 225 (D) 275 20. A 4,600‑year‑old cemetery at which European site provided an example of the use of ancient DNA typing in kinship analysis?

(A) Eulau (B) Pompeii (C) Stonehenge (D) South Uist 21. The isotopes of which element are used to deduce the area where a person was living when their teeth form?

(A) Carbon (B) Strontium (C) Calcium (D) Sulphur 22. Which human bone has very high density and is a good source of ancient DNA? (A) Rib (B) Humerus (C) Lower jaw (D) Petrous 23. Identity‑by-descent can be used to identify rela‑ tives as distant as ____.

25. What is a miscoding lesion?

(A) A sequence change that alters one codon into a another (B) A position in a DNA molecule where deg‑ radation results in the sequence being misread (C) A break in a polynucleotide (D) An error in DNA sequencing caused by the presence of a SNP in a DNA molecule

26. What name is given to the extinct type of human first identified from analysis of ancient DNA from a finger bone?

(A) Altai (B) Denisovan (C) Neanderthal (D) Homo erectus 27. Homo sapiens and Neanderthals are thought to have both been present in Europe for how many years?

(A) 3,000 (B) 15,000 (C) 30,000 (D) 50,000 28. Approximately what percentage of the DNA of pre‑ sent day humans outside of Africa derives from admixture with Neanderthals?

(A) 1.0% (B) 2.0% (C) 5.0% (D) 10.0% 29. An allele of which gene, that allows the human body to tolerate low oxygen conditions, is thought to have been acquired by Tibetans by past admix‑ ture with an extinct type of human?

(A) TPOX

(A) 5th cousins

(B) VWA

(B) 7th cousins

(C) Amelogenin

(C) 8th cousins

(D) EPAS1

(D) 10th cousins 24. Neanderthals lived in Europe until when?

30. Which of these species has been studied by ancient DNA sequencing?

(A) 200,000 years ago

(A) Steppe mammoth

(B) 75,000 years ago

(B) Aurochs

(C) 30,000 ago Genomes | years chapter 02 | figure 01

(C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(D)

(D) All of the above

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd 3000 BC

45

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CHAPTER 23 1. What term is used to describe a protein that is pro‑ duced from a cloned gene?

(A) Cloned protein (B) Fermented protein (C) Recombinant protein (D) Gene addition protein 2. What is the upper length limit for cloning DNA in E. coli?

(A) 300 bp

(C) Glucose (D) 5‑Bromo‑4‑chloro‑3‑indolyl‑β‑D‑galactopyran oside 8. In which human tissue is insulin synthesized?

(A) Pituitary (B) Thyroid (C) Pancreas (D) Liver 9. Insulin is made up of two polypeptides, the A chain which is ___ amino acids in length and the B chain of ___ amino acids.

(B) 3 kb

(A) 21, 30

(C) 30 kb

(B) 25, 37

(D) 300 kb

(C) 30, 21

3. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to cloning vectors?

(A) A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that is able to replicate inside an E. coli cell (B) Often the vector is a modified version of a nat‑ urally occurring plasmid (C) In its replicative state the plasmid is a linear molecule, but at the start of the cloning experiment it is needed in a cir‑ cular form (D) It is therefore cut with a restriction endonucle‑ ase, taking care to choose an enzyme that has just a single recognition sequence in the vector 4. Which enzyme is used to join DNA molecules together during a cloning experiment?

(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) Helicase (D) DNA gyrase 5. What term is used to describe E. coli cells that are able to take up DNA molecules from their environment?

(A) Permeable (B) Leaky (C) Cultured (D) Competent 6. Cloning vectors used for protein production in E. coli are called ____ vectors.

(A) Protein (B) Shuttle (C) Expression (D) Translation 7. Which of these compounds is an artificial inducer of the lactose promoter?

(A) Lactose (B) Isopropylthiogalactoside

(D) 37, 25 10. Which amino acid is attacked by cyanogen bromide?

(A) Isoleucine (B) Tyrosine (C) Cysteine (D) Methionine 11. Which of the following causes problems when pro‑ teins are being made in E. coli?

(A) The presence of introns in the cloned gene (B) The presence of sequences that act as tran‑ scription termination signals in E. coli (C) Codon bias (D) All of the above 12. Which of these techniques is used to make alter‑ ations at specific positions in the sequence of a cloned gene?

(A) Site‑directed mutagenesis (B) cDNA synthesis (C) Gene editing (D) All of the above 13. What is the name given to the structures formed by animal proteins that have not been correctly folded in E. coli?

(A) Blebs (B) Inclusion bodies (C) Crystal particles (D) Microvesicles 14. Which promoter is used to make proteins from cloned genes in Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

(A) Simian virus 40 promoter (B) GAL promoter (C) LAC promoter (D) APH promoter

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15. Active factor VIII has been obtained from genes cloned in which of these organisms?

(A) Pig (B) E. coli (C) S. cerevisiae (D) Hamster cells 16. What is the name of the hepatitis B protein that has been synthesized in S. cerevisiae and hamster cells and used as a vaccine against the disease?

(A) Hepatitis B surface antigen (B) Hepatitis B spike protein (C) Hepatitis B surface protein (D) Hepatitis B spike antigen

17. The synthesis of which amino acids is inhibited by glyphosate?

(A) Glycine, alanine, and leucine (B) Serine, leucine and isoleucine (C) Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine (D) Cysteine, methionine and tyrosine 18. The EPSP synthase gene used to engineer herbi‑ cide resistance in soybean was taken from which species of bacterium?

(C) Super rice

(D) Yellow rice

23. The synthesis of which regulatory compound, involved in the later stages of fruit ripening, has been reduced by gene subtraction engineering of tomato?

(A) Lycopene (B) Chalcone (C) Auxin (D) Ethylene 24. What name is given to the type of gene editing that results in a sequence alteration that is directed by a short template DNA molecule that is introduced into the cell?

(A) Off‑target editing (B) Homology‑directed repair (C) Error‑prone editing (D) Bystander editing 25. Adenine deaminase converts adenine nucleotides into ____.

(A) Inosines (B) Thymines

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis

(C) Guanines

(B) Pseudomonas syringae

(D) Cytosines

(C) Bacillus licheniformis (D) Agrobacterium strain CP4 19. What is the name given to the method that involves firing small gold microprojectiles that are coated with a plasmid into cells?

47

26. What is a bystander mutation?

(A) Random mutations arising during gene editing that have no effect on the cell (B) Random mutations arising during gene editing that result in unwanted phenotypes

(A) Shotgun transformation

(C) Nonspecific edits made by a base editor

(B) Biorifling

(D) Edits made outside of the region of the target DNA specified by the guide RNA

(C) Biolistics (D) Microprojection 20. The δ‑endotoxins are naturally synthesized by which species of bacterium?

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis (B) Pseudomonas syringae (C) Bacillus licheniformis (D) Agrobacterium strain CP4 21. Which species was the first to be engineered to produce δ‑endotoxins?

(A) Maize

Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01

Terry Brown | Fourth Edition (B) Soybean © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

(C) Wheat (D) Barley 22. What is the name given to the GM variety of rice that has been engineered to produce high levels of β‑carotene?

(A) Vitamin A rice (B) Golden rice

27. Which of the following crops have been used in production of recombinant vaccines?

(A) Maize (B) Tobacco (C) Rice (D) All of the above 28. Vaccine yields of what percentage of the solu‑ ble protein content of the part of the plant which is eaten would be needed to stimulate complete immunity against the target disease?

(A) 4%–5% (B) 5%–8% (C) 8%–10% (D) 10%–15% 29. Which of the following strategies has been used to increase the amount of recombinant vaccine syn‑ thesized by a plant?

(A) Modifying the protein to improve secretion by plant cells

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G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

(B) Designing the cloning system so the pro‑ tein is synthesized in the chloroplasts (C) Editing the vaccine protein to increase its stability

6. In 2019, GM crops accounted for 177 million acres of cultivation in the United States, representing approximately ___ of the total area of the United States devoted to crops.

(D) Designing the cloning system so the protein is synthesized in the mitochondria

(A) 4%

30. Which of the following was the first recombinant protein obtained by pharming and approved for medical use?

(C) 25%

(A) Measles capsid protein

(B) 15% (D) 40% 7. Virtually no GM crops are cultivated in which of these geographical regions?

(B) β‑Carotene

(A) Argentina

(C) Insulin

(B) Brazil

(D) Antithrombin III

(C) European Union (D) Canada

CHAPTER 24 1. What was the first GM crop to be approved for sale to the public?

(A) Herbicide‑resistance soybean

8. What is the name given to a process that enables a company that develops and markets GM crops to protect its financial investment by ensuring that farmers must buy new seed every year?

(A) Genetic use restriction technology (B) Cas9 technology

(B) Ripening‑delayed tomatoes

(C) Seed inactivation technology

(C) Insect‑resistant maize (D) Rice that has been engineered to produce high levels of β‑carotene 2. Which of the following is commonly used as a selectable marker when genes are being cloned in plant cells?

(D) Genetic prohibition technology 9. The terminator technology makes use of the gene for which protein?

(A) Cas9 endonuclease (B) Cre enzyme

(A) Streptomycin resistance

(C) Aminoglycoside 3‑phosphotranferase

(B) Ampicillin resistance

(D) Ribosome inactivating protein

(C) Chloramphenicol resistance

10. Which of the following are classified as personal DNA data?

(D) Kanamycin resistance 3. The Cre enzyme bacteriophage?

is

synthesized

by

which

(A) P1 (B) T2 (C) SPO (D) λ 4. What are the lengths of the recognition sequences for the Cre enzyme?

(A) 34 bp (B) 42 bp (C) 54 bp (D) 63 bp 5. Transfer of herbicide resistance has been observed between GM rape and which weed species in experimental systems?

(A) Chard (B) Charlock (C) Choisya (D) Chickweed

(A) DNA profiles (B) Complete genome sequences (C) Catalogs of single nucleotide polymorphisms present in genes that might be associated with health or disease susceptibility (D) All of the above 11. Which country attempted to introduce legislation that DNA profiles would be obtained from all cit‑ izens, residents and visitors following a terrorist attack in 2015?

(A) United Kingdom (B) France (C) Kuwait (D) Canada 12. Which country has set up a biobank that has col‑ lected whole genome sequences for 500,000 individuals, along with their personal health details?

(A) United Kingdom (B) France

A T G C T A C G G C T A A T T A C G G C T A A T T A G C A T C G T A A T G C

G2 MCQs WITH ANSWERS

(C) Kuwait

(A) 5 years

(D) Canada

(B) 6 years

13. What is the name given to the type of testing that is operated by companies who charge a fee to pro‑ vide information based on an individual’s DNA data?

(A) Direct‑to‑consumer DNA testing (B) Personal DNA testing

(C) 10 years (D) 12 years 18. Where was the conference held that established a set of guidelines for ensuring that cloned genes could not be transferred from E. coli to other bacteria?

(C) Lifestyle DNA testing

(A) New York

(D) Direct‑to‑company DNA testing

(B) London

14. What is the name given to the structure, compris‑ ing 100 or so cells, that attaches to the wall of the uterus during a normal pregnancy?

(A) Oocyte (B) Blastocyst (C) Morula (D) Blastomere 15. In 2018 an unauthorized reproductive germline editing project was carried out to engineer which of the following into twin girls?

(A) Malaria resistance (B) Smallpox resistance (C) HIV resistance (D) Tuberculosis resistance 16. What is the normal life expectancy for a Finn Dorset, the breed that includes ‘Dolly the Sheep’?

(A) 5 years (B) 6 years (C) 10 years (D) 12 years 17. How old was ‘Dolly the Sheep’ when she had to be put down because she was suffering from terminal lung disease?

Genomes | chapter 02 | figure 01 Terry Brown | Fourth Edition © garlandscience design by blink studio ltd

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(C) Asilomar (D) Brussels 19. What percentage of the total annual budget of the Human Genome Project has been set aside every year for studying the ethical, legal and social issues?

(A) 1%–2% (B) 2%–3% (C) 3%–5% (D) 5%–10% 20. Which of the following was not one of the ethi‑ cal, legal and social goals of the Human Genome Project as set out in 1988?

(A) Examine issues raised by the integration of genetic technologies and information into health care and public health activities (B) Examine possible implications of gene editing in modification of the genome (C) Examine issues raised by the integration of knowledge about genomics and gene‑environ‑ ment interactions into nonclinical settings (D) Explore ways in which new genetic knowledge may interact with a variety of philosophical, theological, and ethical perspectives