Test Bank for Exceptional Children An Introduction to Special Education, 13th edition William L. Hew

Test Bank For Exceptional Children an Introduction to Special Education, 13th Edition William L. Heward Sheila R. Alber-Morgan Moira Konrad Chapter 1-15 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter

Chapter 1 Test Items

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Julia was diagnosed with bone cancer at the age of 6. It was necessary for doctors to amputate her right leg below the knee. According to current terminology, Julia is A) at risk B) challenged C) handicapped D) impaired 2) Carlos is a high school student who uses a wheelchair. He participates in advanced placement math and science classes and does well in other subjects. He feels awkward in physical education because he is unable to fully participate in sports such as basketball. According to current terminology, Carlos is A) at risk B) challenged C) handicapped D) impaired 3) Exceptional children A) differ from the norm in learning and/or behavior B) all need related services C) cannot benefit from general education D) outgrow their problems by the time they reach adulthood 4) Which of the following statements about handicaps is NOT true?

A) Handicaps may also be a disability if it leads to other problems.

B) Handicaps pose problems in some environments.

C) Handicaps may result from the negative attitudes of others.

D) Handicaps are evident at birth or shortly after birth.

5) All of the following statements about gender and special education are false EXCEPT A) twice as many boys receive special education services B) twice as many girls receive special education services

C) three times as many boys receive special education services D) an equal number of boys and girls receive special education services 6) What percentage of the school-age population consists of students with disabilities in special education?

A) 2.1% B) 5.5% C) 9.5% D) 30.3% 7) Which of the following is the largest disability category in special education?

A) Autism B) Emotional disturbance C) Intellectual disabilities D) Specific learning disabilities 8) Which of the following reflects the percentage of students affected with a secondary disability?

A) 25% B) 10% C) 50% D) 40% 9) Travis is a third-grade student with an intellectual disability. He has just been placed in Mrs. Kinard’s third-grade class. Students in his class are learning their multiplication facts. Travis is eager to participate in class but instead of allowing him to do the same activity as the other students, Mrs. Kinard gives him a coloring worksheet that she obtained from a colleague who teaches kindergarten. Which of the disadvantages of labeling is exemplified by her actions?

A) The label is being used to explain his behavior.

B) The label has contributed to the expenditure of greater amounts of money.

C) The label has caused her to ridicule and reject Travis.

D) The label has caused her to have lower expectations and apply different treatments.

10) Prior to the 1970s, .

A) students with disabilities were routinely included in general education classes B) students with disabilities had individualized education plans C) students with disabilities were included in extracurricular activities D) students with disabilities could not enroll in public schools in many states 11) PARC versus Commonwealth of Pennsylvania (1972) granted a free appropriate public education to .

A) all students with disabilities B) students with intellectual disabilities C) students with speech and language impairments

D) students who were previously deemed unable to benefit from instruction 12) Which principle of IDEA states that no child with a disability can be excluded from a free appropriate public education?

A) Zero reject B) Due process C) Mainstreaming D) Full inclusion 13) Hector and his family came to the United States from Cuba last year. Hector speaks only Spanish and seems unable to learn English despite extended help from an E LL teacher. He is failing all subjects in second grade except for art and physical education. He was recently evaluated for the possibility of an intellectual disability.

The school psychologist administered an intelligence test in Spanish. Scores indicate that Hector has significant cognitive delays. Based on the findings, the IEP team is recommending that Hector receive special education services as a student with an intellectual disability. Did Hector receive a nondiscriminatory evaluation as required by IDEA? A) No; only one test was administered.

B) No; the psychologist was a stranger to Hector.

C) Yes; the testing was done in Hector’s home language.

D) Yes; the IEP team recommended that Hector receive services.

14) All of the following are examples of related services EXCEPT .

A) therapeutic recreation services B) transportation to scheduled doctor visits C) speech and language services to prevent communicative problems D) orientation and mobility services for students who are blind or partially sighted.

15) Early intervention services .

A) are also for children who are gifted and talented B) are funded by ADA C) are only mandated for infants and toddlers experiencing developmental delays D) are prescribed and implemented according to an individualized family service plan (IFSP) 16) Amelia is a student with autism who does not speak. Instead, she types what she wants to say into a device that converts the text to speech. The device helps Amelia to express her desires and needs. This is an example of .

A) assistive technology B) an instructional strategy C) interdisciplinary services D) universal design for learning 17) According to current research, which of the following is NOT an outcome associated with fluency?

A) Greater endurance B) Improved social relationships

C) Better retention D) Improved application and generalization 18) Which of the following court cases sought extended school year services for students with disabilities who regressed during the usual school breaks?

A) Brown versus Board of Education (1954) B) Armstrong versus Kline (1979) C) Stuart versus Nappi (1978) D) Timothy W. versus Rochester School District (1989) 19) Which of the following court rulings declared that school districts could not be compelled to provide costly related services if a student with a disability made adequate progress in general education without those services?

A) Honig versus Doe B) Stuart versus Nappi C) Armstrong versus Kline D) Board of Education of the Hendrick Hudson Central School District versus Rowley 20) According to the IDEA amendments of 1997, a manifestation determination hearing must be conducted .

A) each time a student with a disability is suspended B) only when a student with a disability is recommended for expulsion C) when a student with a disability has been suspended in excess of 10 days D) when a student has a suspension for at least a school week (5 days) 21) Isaac is a student with a disability who belongs to a neighborhood gang. He is involved in an argument with another student in math class. Later that night, Isaac attended a school-sponsored football game. Some students reported that Isaac had a gun and was threatening to shoot the student he argued with earlier. Isaac was removed from the football game by authorities. Members of the IEP team decide to place Isaac at an alternative school for 45 days. Were Isaac’s rights violated?

A) No; the IEP made the decision to remove Isaac so multiple perspectives were considered.

B) No; schools have the right to remove students who bring weapons to school to an interim alternative placement C) Yes; a student with a disability cannot be removed for more than 10 days.

D) Yes; a manifestation determination hearing must be conducted before Isaac can be removed.

22) Programs for students who are gifted and talented .

A) are chronically underfunded B) are supported with funds from IDEA C) receive an equal share of the K–12 education budget D) are supported with funds from higher education agencies 23) In what way is IDEA and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 alike?

A) They are both civil rights laws.

B) They both provide funds for people with disabilities.

C) They both require placement in the most integrated setting possible.

D) They both require public schools and colleges to provide barrier-free environments.

24) Which of the following is NOT defined as a major life activity in the Americans with Disabilities Act? A) Caring for oneself B) Enjoying leisure time C) Communicating D) Working 25) The ultimate goal of No Child Left Behind is .

A) to identify poorly performing schools B) that all teachers will be licensed by 2014 C) to reduce funding to poorly performing schools D) that all children will be proficient in reading and math by 2014 26) The Every Student Succeeds Act focuses on challenging content standards in reading, math, and .

A) special education B) physical education C) social studies D) science 27) Which of the following is a characteristic of primary prevention?

A) It is designed to eliminate the effects of risk factors on those so exposed.

B) It is designed to reduce the number of new cases of disabilities.

C) It is designed for people who are already affected by a problem.

D) It is designed to prevent the effects of a disability from worsening.

28) Maurice has cerebral palsy and is physically unable to speak. His teacher helps him to learn to use a communication board. What type of intervention is this?

A) Compensatory B) Preventive C) Rehabilitative D) Remedial 29) Ms. Frost gives oral reading fluency tests every week to all her first graders. The lowest-performing students receive special reading tutoring until they are reading at a minimally acceptable level. What type of intervention is this?

A) Compensatory B) Intensive C) Preventive D) Remedial 30) Which is NOT a defining feature of special education?

A) Intensive

B) Guided by teacher performance C) Goal directed D) Individualized ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Compare and contrast the terms disability, handicap, and impairment.

2) List the dimensions (defining characteristics) of special education and describe/explain at least four of them.

3) Discuss the history of special education from the early 1900s to the present. Be sure to include landmark court cases in your discussion.

4) Do you think that labels help or hurt students with disabilities? Support your answer with examples.

5) Compare and contrast IDEA, Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Chapter 1 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 1 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) B

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 1 Test (Essay) 1) Compare and contrast the terms disability, handicap, and impairment.

Answers will vary but all three terms describe limitations. An impairment refers to the loss of, or reduced function of, a body part or major organ. A disability is present when an impairment restricts a person’s ability to perform certain tasks. A handicap is present when a person who is impaired or disabled experiences a problem with the environment, which may include the attitudes of others.

2) List the dimensions (defining characteristics) of special education and describe/explain at least four of them.

Answers will vary but should include four of the following as listed in Table 1.5: 









Individually planned -

learning goals and objectives selected for each student based on assessment results and input from parents and students

-

teaching methods and instructional materials selected and/or adapted for each student

-

setting(s) where instruction will occur determined relative to opportunities for student to learn and use targeted skills

Specialized -

sometimes involves unique or adapted teaching procedures seldom used in general education (e.g., constant time delay, token reinforcement, selfmonitoring)

-

incorporates a variety of instructional materials and supports—both natural and contrived—to help student acquire and use targeted learning objectives

-

related services (e.g., audiology, physical therapy, etc.) and technology provided as needed

Intensive -

explicit instruction presented with attention to detail, precision, structure, and clarity

-

high rates of active student engagement, repeated practice and systematic feedback

Goal-directed -

purposeful instruction intended to help student achieve the greatest possible personal self-sufficiency and success in present and future environments

-

student’s attainment of learning outcomes determine the value or effectiveness of instruction

Research-based methods



-

recognition that not all teaching approaches are equally effective

-

instructional programs and teaching procedures selected on basis of research support

Guided by student performance -

results of frequent and direct measures of student learning used to inform modifications in instruction

-

systematic, ongoing monitoring of student progress

3) Discuss the history of special education from the early 1900s to the present. Be sure to include landmark court cases in your discussion.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: 

In the early 1900s, students with disabilities were excluded from public schools and negative labels were used as descriptors.  Prior to the 1970s, public schools in many states could legally exclude students with disabilities.  Services were provided in segregated settings when schools began to accept a measure of responsibility for students with disabilities.  1954—Changes began with Brown versus Board of Education of Topeka.  Supreme Court ruled that education must be available to all children on equal terms.  Parents of students with disabilities wanted equal protection for their children.  1972—In PARC versus Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, the court ruled that students with intellectual disabilities were entitled to a free, appropriate public education.  1975—Congress passed P.L. 94-142 granting a free, appropriate public education to all students with disabilities.  This law has been amended many times, with the most recent reauthorization in 2004.

4) Do you think that labels help or hurt students with disabilities. Support your answer with examples.

Answers will vary but ―helps‖ may include: 

first step in dealing with a disability



may lead to acceptance of exceptional children by peers



helps professionals communicate regarding research findings



funding often based on specific category labels



advocacy groups can spur legislative action (current examples)



helps make the exceptional children’s needs more visible (e.g., Jerry’s kids)

Answers may vary but ―hurts‖ may include: 

doesn’t help teachers know how or what to teach



focus on deficits



may lead to stigmatization



may negatively affect self-esteem



may cause others to hold low expectations for the exceptional child



may acquire role of explanatory construct, dismissing need to remediate



diminishes uniqueness of each child



suggests a problem with child, reducing focus on instructional variables as a cause of problems



disproportionate number of minority children labeled



may have some permanence



costs a lot of money to label

5) Compare and contrast IDEA, Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, and the Americans with Disabilities Act. Answers will vary but should include details of the following: 

All three laws were enacted to help people with disabilities with quality-of-life issues.



IDEA is a funding statute whereas Section 504 and ADA are civil rights laws.



The provisions of IDEA apply to education and to people with disabilities birth to age 21 whereas Section 504 applies to all people with disabilities and applies in education, employment, and other settings.



The ADA extends civil rights protection of people with disabilities to private-sector employment, public services such as accommodation, transportation, and telecommunications.



IDEA has strict eligibility guidelines and people with disabilities must qualify for services in one of 13 categories of disability.



A person is considered disabled under ADA if he or she has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life function, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having an impairment.



IDEA has specific mandates such as a F APE, related services, procedural safeguards, etc.



Section 504 provides reasonable accommodations and access to facilities.

ADA accessibility provisions are limited to the areas of employment (employers with 15 or more employees), public entities, public accommodations, and commercial facilities and telecommunications.Chapter 2 Test Items

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following is NOT a step in prereferral intervention?

A) Teacher or parent reports concern with child’s progress.

B) Parents are notified.

C) Parent consent for testing and evaluation is obtained.

D) Intervention assistance teams help plan and implement interventions.

2. All of the following are typically members of the early intervening assistance team EXCEPT .

A) general education teachers B) special education teachers C) the school nurse D) the student’s parents 3. RTI is designed for all of the following purposes EXCEPT

.

A) determining if the child has a disability B) providing IEP teams with valuable baseline data for planning C) providing immediate instructional and/or behavioral assistance D) reducing the frequency of special education placement 4. Which of the following is NOT involved in RT I? A) Universal screening B) Continuous progress monitoring C) Multifactored evaluation D) Several tiers of intensive intervention before referral 5. After parental consent has been obtained, school districts must complete the evaluation process for a student suspected of having a disability within days.

A) 30 B) 45 C) 60 D) 90 6. Which of the following is NOT a reason to involve students in the development and implementation of their IEPs? A) It leads to the development of more meaningful IEPs. B) It is a requirement of ADA that students are involved in developing their IEPs.

C) It provides an opportunity for students to practice self-determination skills.

D) It is a requirement of IDEA that students be present whenever appropriate.

7. In most states when a teacher encounters a child with a behavior or learning problem and the child is not currently receiving special education services, the first step is to .

A) devise and implement an intervention B) design an individualized education program C) contact the state board of education to request funding D) evaluate the child for eligibility to receive special education services 8. Compared to students of other racial and ethnic groups, African American students are most likely to be identified as having .

A) autism B) intellectual disabilities C) specific learning disabilities D) speech or language impairments 9. Which of the following groups are generally underrepresented in special education?

A) Asian Americans B) European Americans C) Hispanic Americans D) Native Americans 10. All of the following contribute to disproportionate representation of diverse students in special education EXCEPT .

A) biased referrals B) inaccurate assessment C) ineffective instructional practices D) inconsistent parental involvement 11. In program planning, the evaluation team determines all of the following EXCEPT .

A) learning goals and objectives B) causation of the disability C) providers of special education and related services D) frequency of specialized instruction and related services

12. Which of the following best represents the concept of teaming?

A) A group of teachers share bus duty.

B) A paraeducator designs a bulletin board for a special educator.

C) A special educator provides a list of possible accommodations for a student to a general educator.

D) A special educator and a general educator design assignments and assessments for a student and meet to share results.

13. Mrs. Jonas, a speech therapist, Mr. Dodds, a physical therapist, and Mrs. Anthony, a special education teacher, work independently to provide services to Jasmine, a student with cerebral palsy. Mrs. Jonas addresses Jasmine’s articulation problems.

Mr. Dodds focuses on helping her walk with braces, and Mrs. Anthony works on her reading and math goals. Which type of team is described in this scenario?

A) Interdisciplinary B) Intradisciplinary C) Multidisciplinary D) Transdisciplinary 14. Brianna’s general education teacher and the speech therapist at her school communicate to make sure that her therapy sessions end before it is time for related arts classes. This is an example of .

A) consultation B) teaming C) reciprocity D) coordination 15. Mrs. Watkins, a fifth-grade teacher, and Mrs. Dubois, a special educator, want to begin teaching a unit on fractions. They want to keep group sizes small so they each teach the same lesson to an equal number of students. Which model of co-teaching is described in this scenario?

A) Alternative teaching B) Parallel teaching C) Station teaching D) Team teaching 16. Mr. Nelson helps a group of third graders who are gifted to make crystals while Mr. Waun engages the remaining students in a more traditional science lesson. Which model of co-teaching is described in this scenario?

A) Alternative teaching

B) One teaching–one helping C) Parallel teaching D) Team teaching 17. Successful co-teaching requires all of the following EXCEPT

.

A) flexibility B) a sense of humor C) meticulous planning D) open communication 18. A representative of the local education agency must be included on an IEP team to .

A) ensure that the meetings are orderly B) explain the results of assessments administered C) ensure inclusion in general education classes D) explain the availability of local school resources 19. All of the following are general factors that must be considered by team members developing an IEP EXCEPT .

A) the results of most recent evaluation B) the communication needs of the child C) the academic, developmental, and functional needs of the child D) the concerns of parents for enhancing the education of their child 20. Which of the following statements about an IEP is inaccurate?

A) An IEP is a measure of accountability.

B) A school district is legally obligated to provide the services described in the IEP. C) Teachers and school districts can be prosecuted if a student does not meet the goals in the IEP. D) Schools must be able to document that they made a conscientious effort to achieve the goals in the IEP. 21. Which of the following is an example of a measurable annual goal?

A) By the end of the school year, Jason will learn to enjoy reading.

B) By May 2020, Elizabeth will improve her anger when teased.

C) By the end of the school year, Mary Ellen will become independent in using study skills.

D) By the end of the school year, Erin will read a third-grade level reading selection with 95% accuracy.

22. Recent studies of actual IEPs indicate that they

.

A) are data based and creative B) are often useless to parents and students C) have improved greatly over the past 20 years D) represent the best of educational interventions 23. To be sure that students with disabilities receive the highest quality of instruction, teachers are required to use .

A) curriculum-based assessment B) evidence-based practices C) peer-initiated strategies D) small-group instruction 24. Which of the following statements about least restrictive environment is true?

A) The LRE may change over time.

B) The LRE is the setting that is the most diverse.

C) The LRE is the resource room for most students.

D) The LRE is determined by the disability category.

25. IDEA requires that an individualized education plan be developed for all students with disabilities between .

A) birth and age 21 B) age 3 and 18 C) age 3 and 21 D) age 6 and 21 26. Which school policy best illustrates the concept of least restrictive environment?

A) All students with disabilities are included in general education classrooms.

B) Students with severe disabilities spend part of the day in segregated settings.

C) Students with disabilities are educated with peers without disabilities to the maximum extent appropriate.

D) Students with disabilities cannot be removed from general education classes for more than 45 minutes each day.

27. Which of the following statements about inclusion is true?

A) Most parents of students with disabilities support inclusion.

B) Most parents of children with severe disabilities oppose inclusion.

C) Many parents of children with disabilities support inclusion and others oppose it.

D) Many parents of children with disabilities support inclusion in theory but most oppose it in practice.

28. Which of the following is a sometimes-overlooked requirement of I DEA? A) The provision of in-service training for general educators B) The provision of teaching assistants for general educators C) The provision of common planning time for general educators and resource teachers D) The provision of increased planning time to design IEPs for general and special educators 29. Which factor has the greatest impact on student achievement in inclusive classrooms?

A) The quality of instruction B) The number of students with disabilities included C) The severity of the disabilities displayed by the students D) Teacher and student attitudes toward students with disabilities 30. Which is NOT a classwide peer tutoring model derived from research in inclusive classrooms?

A) The Ohio State University model B) Peer-Assisted Learning Strategies C) Juniper Gardens Children’s Project D) The Detroit University Peer Project ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Explain the continuum of service and placement options in order from least to most restrictive.

2) What components must be included in a student’s individualized education program?

3) Explain the steps in the special education process.

4) Explain the controversy regarding full inclusion.

5) Discuss the disproportionate representation of culturally diverse groups in special education. Include the suspected contributing factors.

Chapter 2 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 2 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) D

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 2 Test (Essay) 1) Explain the continuum of service and placement options in order from least to most restrictive.

Explanations may vary but should reflect the information described in Figure 2.4, page 54 of the textbook.

General education classroom General education classroom with consultation General education classroom with supplementary instruction and services Resource room Separate classroom Separate school Residential school Homebound or hospital 2) What components must be included in a student’s individualized education program?

Answers must contain the following components that are described on pages 47–48 of the textbook: Present levels of performance Annual goals and short-term objectives Progress toward goals Statement of the special education and related services The extent, if any, to which the child will not participate with nondisabled peers in regular classroom, testing modifications Accommodations Projected date for beginning of services and anticipated frequency, location, and duration of services, how progress will be measured, and beginning at age 16 appropriate postsecondary goals 3) Explain the steps in the special education process.

Answers will vary but should include these steps with explanations reflecting the information in Figure 2.1, page 38 of the textbook:  Prereferral intervention—if not successful, then MFE  Identification of a disability  Plan IEP  Place in LRE

 Implement IEP in the LRE  Progress monitoring, review, and evaluate 4) Explain the controversy regarding full inclusion.

Answers will vary but should reflect the points outlined on pages 57–60 of the textbook. Points may include the ideas that (a) full inclusion advocates believe that education outside the general education classroom constitutes segregation and all negative connotations associated with it; (b) full inclusion advocates believe that the LRE implies that people with disabilities must earn the right to move to the LRE; (c) full inclusion advocates believe that the benefits of inclusion extend to students without disabilities; (d) full inclusion opponents insist that placing a child in a general education classroom without the appropriate supports and services provides no benefits and in fact may be harmful inasmuch as opportunity for education is lost; and/or (e) full inclusion opponents argue that some services are more appropriately provided not in general education but in other settings.

5) Discuss disproportionate representation of culturally diverse groups in special education. Include the suspected contributing factors.

Answers will vary but should include information about the following.

Disproportionate representation exists when a particular group receives special education at a rate significantly higher or lower than would be expected based on the proportion of the general student population that group represents. Culturally and linguistically diverse students are both overrepresented and underrepresented in special education. Native American students, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander students, and Black or African American students are overrepresented in the special education population. Asian American students are underrepresented in the special education population. Suspected factors that contribute to disproportionality include the inaccurate and biased identification process, cultural incongruity between the majority of teachers and diverse student populations, and a curriculum not effective for some culturally diverse populations.

Chapter 3 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following statements about parent involvement and special education is true?

A) Parent involvement is an essential element of special education.

B) Parent involvement is generally discouraged by special educators.

C) Parents spend an exorbitant amount of time communicating with special educators.

D) Parents generally perceive special educators as experts and are hesitant to become involved in educational decisions.

2. The first parent group to advocate for children with disabilities was the .

A) Association for Persons with Severe Handicaps

B) National Association for Retarded Citizens (now called the A RC) C) National Society for Crippled Children D) United Cerebral Palsy Association 3. Which of the following is the least powerful argument for family involvement in special education?

A) Family members can teach students new skills.

B) Family members need to feel that they are important.

C) Family members must live with the outcomes of decisions made by IEP teams.

D) Educational outcomes are more likely to be significant if family members are involved.

4. According to research, initial reactions of parents who learn that their child has a disability are generally .

A) feelings of shock, denial, and disbelief B) alternating feelings of anger, guilt, and depression C) feelings of shame, rejection of the child, and overprotectiveness D) feelings of love and appreciation for the positive aspects of family life 5. Common feelings of siblings of children with disabilities include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) feelings of being left out B) uneasiness about the reaction of friends C) concerns about the cause of the disability D) fear that they will be rejected by their sibling with disabilities 6. Effective home–school partnerships are characterized by .

A) administrative support B) pursuit of individual goals C) a climate of mutual respect and trust D) recognition of professional expertise 7. Principles for effective communication between parents and educators include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) passive listening B) staying focused C) effective questioning D) accepting parents’ statements 8. Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

A) Does Melvin like school?

B) What did Katy name her dog?

C) Will Jason walk or ride the bus to school?

D) What does Jasmine like to do on the weekend?

9. Mark is a student with autism. Mrs. Tozzi, a fifth-grade teacher, is having a conference with his parents. She begins by welcoming them. She asks Mark’s parents if he is experiencing problems with his homework and invites them to explain how autism is likely to affect his academic and social skills. Finally, she asks them if Mark is having any other challenges that she may not be aware of. Was Mrs. Tozzi engaging in effective questioning?

A) Yes; she asked open-ended questions.

B) Yes; she valued the input of his parents.

C) No; she focused mainly on problems and deficits.

D) No; she did not allow them to keep family information private.

10. The short-term care of a family member with disabilities to provide relief for parents from caretaking duties is known as .

A) day care B) respite care C) family support D) parent-to-parent support 11. Which of the following professional behaviors can be a roadblock to communication?

A) Negotiating IEP goals B) Reflecting on communication C) Explaining steps to help children D) Treating parents as if needing counseling 12. All of the following are reasons that teachers and parents must maintain partnership EXCEPT .

A) they are required to under I DEA B) there is an increased likelihood of targeting meaningful IEP goals C) parent groups require collaboration for membership D) there is access to expanded resources and services 13. The key operational element of family–professional partnerships is

.

A) ongoing two-way communication B) flexible scheduling of conferences C) appreciation of cultural differences D) recognition of parental expertise regarding their children 14. Mr. Santori has just attended an IEP meeting with Carl’s parents. He explained all of the services that Carl was receiving and discussed the progress that Carl has made in reading. He suggested that Carl may be able to focus better if he had medication for his hyperactivity. Other members of the IEP team agree, but Carl’s parents do not want to put him on medication. Mr. Santori tells them that being resistant to suggestions will not help Carl. How has Mr. Santori’s response hindered communication?

A) He is labeling Carl’s parents.

B) He is keeping professional distance.

C) He is disrespecting Carl’s parents as less intelligent.

D) He is blaming Carl’s parents for their son’s disability.

15. Mrs. Lucas is preparing for an annual review of Mia’s IEP. The team has recommended that Mia receive services in the resource room rather than a selfcontained classroom. Her current teacher has informed Mrs. Lucas that her parents expect Mia to receive lots of individual attention in class. Mrs. Lucas is expecting Mia’s parents to be angry about the decision and she has prepared herself to stand firm and defend it. Which barrier to effective communication is being displayed by Mrs. Lucas?

A) She is keeping professional distance.

B) She is treating Mia’s parents like adversaries.

C) She is treating Mia’s parents like they need counseling.

D) She is treating Mia’s parents like vulnerable clients rather than equal partners.

16. Which of the following represents an accurate distinction between arguing and dialoguing?

A) The arguer yells; the dialoguer is calm.

B) The arguer tries to persuade; the dialoguer stands firm.

C) The arguer tries to convince; the dialoguer wants to discover.

D) The arguer wants to win the argument; the dialoguer strives for harmony.

17. The steps in the RERUN approach to conflict resolution described by GonzalesMena (2006) are .

A) respect, explain, reason, unify, nurture B) respect, evaluate, reason, unify, nurture C) reflect, emulate, reason, understand, negotiate D) respect, explain, reason, understand, negotiate 18. Which of the following statements about the special education system and culturally/linguistically diverse families is true?

A) They may embrace special education as a source of help.

B) They may view educational jargon as a model of good English.

C) They may expect the same level of services that are available in their country.

D) They may view professionals as experts and be hesitant to express their opinions.

19. Which of the following statements has the least support from the literature on culturally diverse families?

A) They may view school officials as part of their extended family.

B) They may view a disability as a blessing or a punishment from God. C) They may fear that school authorities will report their undocumented status.

D) They may have negative educational experiences that are reinforced by negative contact from school.

20. Which of the following strategies would be least effective in increasing the involvement of families from culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds?

A) Conducting meetings in family-friendly settings B) Scheduling meetings during the teacher’s planning time C) Asking native-speaking staff members to contact the family initially D) Identifying key decision makers in the family and deferring to them 21. Mrs. Rodriquez thinks that Byron, a student with a physical disability, should have surgery so that he can use special equipment that will allow him to stand for several minutes each day. Byron’s mother, Mrs. Williams, will not consent to the surgery because it is very risky and will not enable him to be able to walk. Therefore, she feels it is not worth it. Mrs. Rodriquez respects the decision that Byron’s mother has made. She is demonstrating cultural .

A) competence B) divergence C) objectivity D) reciprocity 22. Mrs. Wolfe, a second-grade teacher, wants Anthony’s mother to feel comfortable during their parent–teacher conference. To build rapport with her, Mrs. Wolfe should .

A) ask her if she likes the cooler weather B) tell her that a Cub Scout troop is being started after school for second-grade boys C) tell her that Anthony may fail math if he does not receive tutoring D) ask her to sit in Anthony’s chair and look over papers in his daily work folder 23. In the year 2000, what percentage of children with disabilities lived below the federal poverty line?

A) 28% B) 38% C) 48% D) 68% 24. All of the following are features of two-way home–school reporting forms EXCEPT .

A) they may include information about behavior B) they include spaces for students to write short notes C) they include spaces for teachers to write short notes D) they include information about homework assignments 25. Teachers who implement home–school contracts .

A) deliver a reward for improvements in student behavior at home B) depend on parents to deliver rewards for progress in the classroom C) depend on students to report progress in the classroom to their parents

D) deliver a reward for improvements in academic skills practiced at home 26. Which of the following statements about telephone calls to parents is true?

A) Telephone calls should not occur after 8:00 p.m.

B) Telephone calls should be reserved for serious problems.

C) Regular telephone calls can be effective in maintaining parent involvement.

D) Regular telephone calls are a nuisance and should be limited to no more than four per year.

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 guidelines for communicating with parents and families?

A) Don’t use jargon.

B) Be realistically optimistic C) Don’t take no for an answer.

D) Don’t be afraid to say, ―I don’t know.‖ 28. Which statement about parents of children with disabilities as research partners is most accurate?

A) Parents are often too busy to participate in research.

B) Parents are seldom educated enough to participate in research.

C) Parents are often able to observe and measure performance and identify meaningful outcomes.

D) Parents are seldom objective enough to observe and measure performance and identify meaningful outcomes.

29. Which of the following is an assumption of the mirror model for parent involvement?

A) Parent education groups cause parents to feel guilty.

B) Not all parents need everything that professionals offer.

C) Professionals are eager to provide workshops to assist parents.

D) Professionals are more qualified to assist children than parents.

30. According to the mirror model for parent involvement, most parents are likely to participate in .

A) IEP planning B) PTA meetings C) parent support groups D) workshops ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Contrast dialoguing and arguing as forms of conflict resolution.

2. Explain the five principles of effective communication and give an example of each.

3. Describe the five-stage resilience model including experiences and tasks for parents as they move from learning of their child’s disability to acceptance.

4. Describe either in dialogue or narrative an exemplary parent–teacher conference. Be sure to include/identify the four steps to an effective conference.

5. Describe the many roles of a parent of a child with a disability and the impact on a parent of having so many roles.

Chapter 3 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 3 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) A

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 3 Test (Essay) 1) Contrast dialoguing and arguing as forms of conflict resolution.

Answers may vary but should reflect the following:    

Object of argument—to win; object of dialoguing—to gather information Arguer tells; dialoguer asks Arguer tries to persuade; dialoguer seeks to learn Arguer sees two opposing sides; dialoguer open to multiple viewpoints (most of us are better arguers)  Dialoguing is more successful 2) Explain the five principles of effective communication and give an example of each.

The five principles are accept parents’ statements, listen actively, question effectively, encourage, and stay focused. Explanations and examples will vary.

3) Describe the five-stage resilience model including experiences and tasks for parents as they move from learning of their child’s disability to acceptance.

Answers should reflect the information detailed in Figure 3.1, page 71 of the textbook.

4) Describe either in dialogue or narrative form an exemplary parent–teacher conference. Be sure to include/identify the four steps to an effective conference.

Answers will vary but should include the script for an actual parent–teacher conference for a child with a disability, including descriptions that reflect the following four steps described on page 85 of the textbook: build rapport, obtain information, share information, and summarize/follow up.

5) Describe the many roles of a parent of a child with a disability and the impact on a parent of having so many roles.

The following roles should be included in the answer: caregiver, provider, teacher, counselor, behavior support specialist, parents of siblings without disabilities, marriage partner, information specialist, and advocate.

Descriptions of the roles should reflect the information, for each, that is found on pages 70–74 of the textbook.

The added roles (beyond those of any parent) could add stress to the parents’ lives.

Chapter 4 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. All of the following are criteria for a diagnosis of intellectual disability EXCEPT a. deficits in adaptive behavior b. concurrent sensory disabilities

.

c. significantly subaverage intelligence d. manifestation during the developmental period 2. An intellectual disability is usually defined by an IQ that falls at or below

.

a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 100 3. The difference between the A AIDD and the IDEA definitions of intellectual disabilities is . a. the impact on adaptive behavior is considered only in the A AIDD definition b. the AAIDD definition considers functioning within the context of the environment c. the effect on intellectual functioning is mentioned only in the IDEA definition d. manifestation during the developmental period, or before age 18 years, is not a part of the AAIDD definition 4. Which of the following statements about IQ tests is NOT true? a. IQ test scores tend to be static. b. Intelligence tests can be culturally biased. c. Intelligence testing is not an exact science. d. IQ tests measure performance at one point in time.

5. IQ tests are useful for all of the following purposes EXCEPT

.

a. predicting school achievement b. measuring a hypothetical construct c. determining objectives for an I EP d. identifying overall deficits in cognitive functioning 6. Which of the following best represents a deficit in adaptive behavior? a. Three-year-old Joey is afraid of the dark. b. Two-year-old Darrell cannot tie his shoes. c. Twelve-year-old Chandler cannot cross the street without assistance. d. Fourteen-year-old Rodney calls his friend a sissy for wearing a hat in cold weather.

7. A person’s adaptive behavior is usually assessed by a. interviewing someone who knows the person well

.

b. administering a written test c. watching a person perform specific tasks d. interviewing the person 8. Early researchers suggested that students with intellectual disabilities have ability about as well as people without disabilities in . a. long-term memory retention b. metacognition c. short-term memory d. working memory 9. Tony is a typically developing student in preschool. He learned to discriminate between a circle and a triangle in three trials. His classmate, Jay, has an intellectual disability. How many trials might Jay require to perform the same task? a. 3 b. 10 c. 30 d. 50 10. Which of the following statements about attention and students with intellectual disabilities is most accurate? a. They have a great capacity for sustained attention. b. They are typically slower to attend to relevant features of a task. c. They are more likely to focus on complex tasks rather than simple ones. d. They have little difficulty coming to attention and focus immediately when a stimulus grabs their attention.

11. Which of the following exemplifies learned helplessness? a. Ayden listens to the teacher as she gives directions. b. Brenda asks for help when she does not understand how to solve a math problem. c. Colleen counts on her fingers to multiply 4 × 9 because she does not know the answer. d. Darla has studied for a spelling test, but she refuses to write any of the words the teacher dictates as she fears making an error.

12. Which of the following is NOT true of learned helplessness and outer-directedness? a. They may be caused by frequent failure. b. They are often seen as a lack of motivation. c. They often result from dependency on other people. d. They are an inherent characteristic of intellectual disabilities.

13. Which of the following is the best example of self-determination? a. Frances refuses to take a consumer math class because she hates math. b. Gina asks to ride the bus to town with her cousin so she can learn to use public transportation. c. Holly decides to leave school during lunch period to celebrate a friend’s birthday at a restaurant. d. Janelle decides to ride to school with her mother because her mother says the students on the bus are too wild 14. Social deficits displayed by students with intellectual disabilities include all of the following EXCEPT . a. inability to recall names b. poor communication skills c. inability to recognize emotional states of others d. unusual or inappropriate behavior during social interactions 15. Which of the following statements about challenging behaviors and students with intellectual disabilities is true? a. The challenging behaviors displayed are caused by mental illness. b. Students with mild intellectual disabilities rarely display challenging behaviors. c. Students with severe intellectual disabilities generally exhibit fewer challenging behaviors. d. Students with severe intellectual disabilities generally display a higher incidence of challenging behaviors.

16. During the 2018–2019 school year, what percentage of school-age children received special education services under the disability category of intellectual disabilities? a. 6.7% b. 7.8% c. 10.1% d. 12.4%

17. The difference in the prevalence rates of intellectual disabilities is largely due to differences in . a. poverty rates b. parental education c. availability of services d. criteria used for identification 18. The two most common genetic causes of intellectual disabilities are

.

1) Down syndrome and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder 2) Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome 3) fetal alcohol spectrum disorder and Tay-Sachs disease 4) Prader-Willi syndrome and P KU 19. Marvin is a second-grade student with a moderate intellectual disability. His teachers claim that his gnome costume for Halloween was perfect for him. They say that he is always happy and that he never meets a stranger. Recently his teacher had to stop him from leaving the classroom with a man who had come to fix the computer.

Marvin displays characteristics of a person with . a. PKU b. fragile X syndrome c. Prader-Willi syndrome d. Williams syndrome 20. All of the following are environmental causes of intellectual disabilities EXCEPT .

A) poverty B) child abuse C) diseases or syndromes D) chronic sensory deprivation 21. Which of the following is a maternal screening test, administered during weeks 8 to 10, that can identify pregnancies at risk for a disorder associated with intellectual disabilities? a. Amniocentesis b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein c. Chorionic villi sampling d. Tandem mass spectrometry

22. A new test for genetic abnormalities that can be done as early as 5 weeks into the pregnancy is done by . a. performing an ultrasound b. examining maternal serum c. detecting fetal DNA and RNA in the mother’s bloodstream d. removing chorionic tissue 23. Who was the first person to develop methods for educating people with intellectual disabilities?

A) Edgar Doll B) Jean Itard C) Bengt Nirje D) Lewis Terman 24. Which question is critical for teachers in determining which skills to include in a functional curriculum?

A) Will it be learned in the next grade?

B) Will learning this knowledge/skill be frustrating?

C) Will this skill make the student more acceptable to peers without disabilities?

D) Will failure to learn the knowledge or skill result in negative consequences?

25. Which of the following statements about self-determination is least accurate?

A) Self-determination cannot be taught to students in elementary or middle school.

B) Self-determination entails a complex set of skills.

C) Self-determination is a lofty goal.

D) Self-determination is both a goal and a means for achieving other goals.

26. Which of the following students would NOT need training in recruiting teacher attention?

A) A shy student who rarely asks questions B) A student who rushes through the task before the teacher finishes explaining C) A student who asks appropriate subject-oriented questions D) A student who displays a disruptive manner 27. Breaking down complex skills into smaller subskills or steps to make learning easier is known as .

A) task analysis B) applied learning

C) direct instruction D) programmed instruction 28. Which of the following students would be identified as having difficulty with generalization of learning?

A) Billy can tie his sneakers but not his dress shoes.

B) Keelee can add three-digit numbers but she can’t subtract them.

C) Jacob has learned how to read music, but he refuses to help his brother learn it.

D) Melvin has learned to write his name in cursive at school, so he wants to write it at home and at church.

29. During the practice stage of learning, feedback for students with intellectual disabilities should .

A) be given after every response B) be given after every correct response C) emphasize the correct rate of skill performance D) emphasize the accuracy and form of the student’s response during performance 30. Which of the following strategies is least likely to promote successful inclusion for students with intellectual disabilities?

A) Peer tutoring B) Common recess time C) Collaborative learning D) Direct training in social skills ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Explain why using only IQ scores as a factor in diagnosing I D is not appropriate.

2) Explain the presumed cause of mild intellectual disability when there is no biological factor evident. Explain the term and provide an explanation for this environmental factor.

3) What are some important considerations and questions for a teacher when developing a functional curriculum for a student with intellectual disability?

4) Explain what skills are involved in self-determination training and give an example of the importance of each as it relates to living independently.

5) Provide a task analysis for either tying a shoe or making a peanut butter sandwich.

Assume the shoe is already on the foot and that all the ingredients for the sandwich

are out. Assume the student has typical motor skills and knows right from left.

Number each step.

Chapter 4 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 4 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) C 30) B

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 4 Test (Essay) 1) Explain why using only IQ scores as a factor in diagnosing I D is not appropriate.  Ignores deficits in adaptive functioning and need for supports (i.e., a student can be close to cutoff score but have severe deficits in adaptive functioning or can be Just under cutoff but have great adaptive skills)  IQ scores can change  IQ testing isn’t an exact science (i.e., can be culturally biased, variables such as motivation can affect scores)  IQ score is just one component of a multifactored, nondiscriminatory assessment 2) Explain the presumed cause of mild intellectual disability when there is no biological factor evident. Explain the term and provide an explanation for this environmental factor.

Answers may vary but should address the following: when no biological risk factor is evident, the cause is presumed to be psychosocial disadvantage, environmental influences such as poverty, minimal opportunities to develop early language, child abuse and neglect, or chronic social or sensory deprivation. Professionals sometimes use the term intellectual disability of cultural-familial origin when referring to the results of poor social environment early in the child’s life.

3) What are some important considerations and questions for a teacher when developing a functional curriculum for a student with intellectual disability? 

Will the knowledge and skills lead to independence?



Will the content meet future needs (i.e., employment, independent living, etc.)?



Consider parents’ input. Do they think the content is important to meet current and future needs?



Consider student’s input. Does the student think the content is important to meet current and future needs? Will the student need the skill when he or she is age 21?



What will happen if the student does not learn the content?

4) Explain what skills are involved in self-determination training and give an example of the importance of each as it relates to living independently.

Examples for each may vary. 

Choice/decision making



Goal setting



Problem solving



Self-evaluation



Self-management



Self-advocacy



Self-awareness

5) Provide a task analysis for either tying a shoe or making a peanut butter sandwich.

Assume the shoe is already on the foot and that all the ingredients for the sandwich are out. Assume the student has typical motor skills and knows right from left.

Number each step.

Answers may vary, as will number of steps in each task. When grading be sure no major step is left out that leads to the completed task and that steps are broken down appropriately.

Tying a shoe: 1) Grasp one lace in each hand.

2) Pull laces toward body to tighten.

3) Cross laces.

4) Bring lace in right hand toward body, over the other lace.

5) With thumb, tuck lace that is in the right hand under the other lace and away from body, pulling through from other side.

6) With one lace in each hand, simultaneously pull left lace to the left and right lace to the right to tighten laces.

7) Form a loop with lace in left hand.

8) Form a loop with lace in right hand.

9) Cross right loop over left loop.

10)Hold laces where they cross with left thumb and forefinger.

11)With fingers on right hand, pull loop that is now on the right forward, over, and under loops.

12)With right fingers, pull loop all the way through to back.

13)With loops in each hand, pull tight.

Making a sandwich: 1) Open jar of peanut butter.

2) Open bread bag.

3) Remove two pieces of bread from bag.

4) Place bread on plate.

5) Close bread bag.

6) Pick up knife in one hand.

7) Hold peanut butter jar with other hand.

8) Place knife in peanut butter jar.

9) Scoop out desired amount of peanut butter.

10)Put jar down and pick up one slice of bread and hold flat in hand.

11)Place peanut butter on bread with knife and spread around so that bread surface is covered.

12)Put down knife on plate.

13)Pick up other slice of bread.

14)Place bread on top of each other so that peanut butter is between the two slices.

Chapter 5 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) In what year was the term learning disabilities coined?

A) 1963 B) 1975 C) 1980 D) 1990 2) Which of the following students would NOT qualify as having a learning disability according to the federal definition?

A) Ashley, a student with dyslexia B) Blake, a student with cerebral palsy C) Carmen, a student with perceptual problems D) Damien, a student with developmental aphasia 3) Before IDEA 2004, the most common way to identify a severe discrepancy between expected and actual achievement is .

A) interviewing parents B) observing the student in various classes and comparing performance C) comparing student scores on I Q tests with scores on an achievement test D) comparing student scores on reading and math tests with those of peers in the same grade 4) What is a drawback to using a discrepancy approach to identifying children with learning disabilities?

A) It is a subjective approach.

B) It is a ―wait to fail‖ approach.

C) Test scores don’t represent actual performance.

D) Too few students are being identified as learning disabled.

5) One advantage of the response to intervention approach to identifying students with learning disabilities is it .

A) is simpler to use B) is less time-consuming C) is preferred by teachers and parents D) results in early identification and prevention 6) The NJCLD definition of learning disabilities is different from the IDEA definition in that _____.

A) it pertains to school-age children only B) social difficulties are recognized as a learning disability C) a specific formula for calculating a discrepancy score is provided D) central nervous system dysfunction is presumed to be the cause of learning disabilities 7) Which of the following terms is considered obsolete by the NJCLD? A) Dyslexia B) Dysgraphia C) Learned helplessness D) Perceptual impairments 8) Most students with learning disabilities have problems with

.

A) attention B) hyperactivity C) reading D) written language 9) Carter is having difficulty learning to read. Although he is in third grade, his teacher says that he does not seem to have a conscious understanding that language is made up of sounds. Carter has a deficit in .

A) attention B) phonological awareness C) reading comprehension D) word recall 10) Mrs. O’Cain asks Travis to identify the middle sound in the word hit. Which phonemic awareness skill does this task involve?

A) Isolating sounds

B) Manipulating sounds C) Orally blending sounds D) Segmenting a word into sounds 11) All of the following are research-based principles of early reading instruction EXCEPT .

A) use of the COPS strategy B) show children how to sound out words C) begin teaching phonemic awareness in kindergarten D) use of interesting stories 12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding students with learning disabilities and written language?

A) Some of their difficulties are due to confusion about spelling.

B) Their written language deficits reflect their weak language base.

C) They spend a large amount of time planning their ideas for writing.

D) They tend to write compositions with undeveloped ideas.

13) Which of the following statements about math skills and students with learning disabilities is NOT accurate?

A) Working memory problems predict deficiencies in math.

B) Students with learning disabilities are fluent in recalling number facts.

C) Students with learning disabilities have difficulty solving story problems.

D) Their math performance, at middle and high school, is three or more grades below their actual grade.

14) Which of the following is NOT identified, by the author of your textbook, as likely to improve the math performance of students with learning disabilities?

A) Discovery learning B) Fluency training C) Guided practice D) Systematic instruction 15) Current research on behavior problems and students with learning disabilities indicates that .

A) they engage in more risk-taking behaviors B) they are immature and overdependent on adults C) their negative behaviors are caused by hyperactivity

D) their negative behaviors are caused by academic deficits 16) What is the defining characteristic of students with learning disabilities?

A) Severe reading problems B) Poor memory and attention C) Difficulty understanding and using language D) Achievement deficits in spite of adequate intelligence and effective instruction 17) What percentage of school-age students with disabilities have learning disabilities?

A) 38% B) 23% C) 42% D) 62% 18) An environmental agent suspected as a cause of learning disabilities is

.

A) impoverished living conditions B) food allergies C) food gluten and dyes D) vitamin deficiency 19) Larry scored below basic level on a statewide achievement test; however, his teacher has evidence that he has made small incremental improvements in both reading fluency and comprehension this year. Which type of assessment is likely to provide this evidence?

A) Criterion-referenced assessment B) Curriculum-based measurement C) Norm-referenced assessment D) Summative assessment 20) One of the major concerns about using R TI to identify those in need of special education is that .

A) culturally diverse students are overlooked B) professionals are resistant to this approach C) it takes longer to convince parents of the value of the approach D) application of RT I across schools is inconsistent 21) Criterion-referenced tests are most useful for A) diagnosing a learning disability

.

B) determining what skills a student has learned and need to learn C) measuring small changes in achievement over time D) comparing a student’s achievement with that of peers of the same age 22) Mr. Carson is a middle school science teacher in an inclusive classroom. He wants all of his students to be successful, so he plans and sequences instruction to show the commonalities and differences between old and new knowledge. Which principle of effective instructional design does this exemplify?

A) Big ideas B) Conspicuous strategies C) Strategic integration D) Primed background knowledge 23) Which of the following is NOT true of content enhancement?

A) It may involve teaching mnemonics.

B) It includes a wide array of teaching techniques.

C) It may increase the complexity of the curriculum.

D) It requires the teacher to simultaneously teach content and how to learn the content.

24) Mrs. Cooper prepares handouts for her students with learning disabilities to help them understand her lecture. The handouts contain an outline of lecture content and include spaces for writing key facts, concepts, or relationships. This is an example of .

A) a graphic organizer B) guided notes C) prescribed notes D) strategic note taking 25) Mr. Romano teaches his students to think of the acronym HOMES to remember the names of the five great lakes. What type of mnemonic device is this?

A) A cryptic strategy B) A keyword method C) A letter strategy D) A pegword method 26) Special educators can best help students with learning disabilities succeed in general education classes by .

A) providing assistance with homework

B) providing assistance with assessments C) teaching them basic skills in the resource room D) teaching them behaviors that general educators value 27) On average, how many students does a resource teacher serve?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 28) Which of the following service options for students with learning disabilities is the most restrictive?

A) Consultation B) General education classroom C) Resource room D) Separate classroom 29) Neuroimaging research has indicated that students with dyslexia have differences in the brain structure or functioning in the .

A) cerebral cortex B) corpus callosum C) frontal lobe D) left temporal lobe 30) A special form of direct daily measurement in which instructional decisions are based on changes in the frequency of student performance is known as .

A) acceleration B) CBM C) precision teaching D) tertiary intervention ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Define guided notes and explain two advantages of guided notes for both students and teachers.

2) Define CBM and explain the advantages it has over summative evaluations.

3) Explain the resource room model of serving students with L D. Include the advantages and disadvantages of this approach.

4) List and explain Grossen’s six principles for early reading instruction.

5) List the ways in which a child with phonemic awareness can manipulate sounds.

Chapter 5 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 5 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) D 30) C

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 5 Test (Essay) 1) Define guided notes and explain two advantages of guided notes for both students and teachers.

Answers should include the following: Definition: Guided notes are teacher-prepared handouts that guide a student through a lecture with standard cues and specific space in which to write key facts, concepts, and/or relationships. Advantages may vary but for students may include any two of the following: 

Students must actively respond to and interact with the lesson’s content.



Students are better able to determine if they’re ―getting it.‖



Students produce a standard set of accurate notes from which to study.



Students are involved in listening, looking, thinking, and writing about the lesson’s content.



Students are using multisensory skills as they complete guided notes.

Advantages may vary but for teachers may include any two of the following: 

Forces teachers to prepare the lesson carefully.



Helps teachers stay on task with the lesson/lecture content and sequence.



Improved retention of lecture content.



Can be used to teach a wide range of skills and content across the curriculum.



Use of research-based strategies to assist students in building knowledge and skills

2) Define CBM and explain the advantages it has over summative evaluations.

Answers should include the following definition: curriculum-based measurement is a formative evaluation involving frequent assessment of student progress in learning the objectives that make up the curriculum in which a student is participating.

Advantages: 

Valid and reliable



Easy to administer



Cost- and time-efficient



Sensitive to small, incremental changes in student performance over time



Designed to prevent failure



Entails multiple, ongoing measures of student performance over time and visual inspection of graphed student data as the basis for instructional decision making

ACBM is a formative evaluation, meaning it provides information on student learning as instruction takes place over time. A summative evaluation is used after instruction has been completed and so cannot be used to inform instruction; instruction is done at that point. Examples of summative evaluations are end-of-unit tests, final exams, and term papers. The use of formative evaluations allows teachers to adjust instruction on an ongoing basis. Waiting until the end of a unit or school year to evaluate students does not allow teachers to adjust instruction to promote the learning of the objectives; it is too late at the end. An example of a C BM is DIBELS, a formative evaluation used with reading and prereading skills. Research shows that students who master the benchmark goals of DIBELS are more than 80% likely to become proficient readers.

3) Explain the resource room model of serving students with L D. Include the advantages and disadvantages of this approach.

Answers may vary but should include most of the following points:   

Room staffed with special education teacher; students come to room one to three periods of the day; average number of students equals 20 Primary role of teacher in resource room is to teach needed academic skills, social skills, and learning strategies Resource room teacher should also work with general education classroom teachers

Advantages: 



Students don’t lose their identity with their general education class peer group; students’ needs don’t ―get lost‖ in hubbub of general education classroom; every day students can get the intense, individualized instruction they need in resource room (hard to give individualized instruction in regular classroom) Flexible scheduling allows service for fairly large number of students

Disadvantages:  

Travel time between classrooms required for students; potential for inconsistent instructional approaches between settings Students miss out on instruction in general education classroom, which makes it hard to hold them accountable for that information

4) List and explain Grossen’s six principles for early reading instruction.

Answers should identify the following areas with explanations of each area corresponding to the information in Figure 5.9 on page 154 of the textbook.  

Begin teaching phonemic awareness directly in kindergarten.

Teach each letter–phoneme relationship explicitly.

   

Teach frequent, highly regular letter–sound relationships systematically.

Show children exactly how to sound out words.

Give children connected, decodable text to practice letter–phoneme relationships.

Use interesting stories to develop language comprehension.

5) List the ways in which a child with phonemic awareness can manipulate sounds.

Answers should include the following: Orally blend sounds to make words; Isolate sounds at the beginning, middle, and ending of words; Segment a word into sounds; Manipulate sounds within a word. These can be found on pages 132–133 of the text.

Chapter 6 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Why is it difficult to develop a clear definition of emotional disabilities?

A) Most children are well behaved.

B) Norms for appropriate behavior differ across cultures.

C) Emotional and behavior disorders usually occur in isolation.

D) There is a clear definition of what constitutes good mental health.

2) Which of the following student behaviors best fits the I DEA definition of emotional disturbance?

A) Grace has been depressed and withdrawn for 7 months.

B) Maggie responds to teasing one day by throwing a chair through a window.

C) Page usually gets excellent grades but since starting fourth grade has been getting C s and D s.

D) Courtney tells the school nurse that she has been crying every day for a week because her parents are divorced.

3) Which of the following is NOT a condition required to qualify for an emotional disturbance?

A) Chronicity B) Difficulty in school C) Severity D) Visibility 4) All of the following factors contribute to the vagueness of the definition of emotional disturbance EXCEPT .

A) differing degrees of tolerance for misbehavior

B) varying expectations among parents and educators C) inclusion of five different problems as qualifications D) using terminology such as inappropriate and satisfactory 5) Which of the following conditions is excluded from the I DEA definition of emotional disturbance?

A) Bipolar disorder B) Depression C) Schizophrenia D) Social maladjustment 6) What is one advantage of the definition of emotional disturbance proposed by the C CBD? A) It identifies age-appropriate behavior.

B) It clarifies the social dimension of the disability.

C) It ignores cultural and ethnic influences on behavior.

D) It increases the chance of early identification and intervention.

7) Which of the following is NOT an example of a student displaying possible internalizing behavior?

A) Twelve-year-old Ben fantasizes that he is a superhero. He refuses to participate in any social or academic interactions but instead daydreams all day about superheroes.

B) Seven-year-old Sophie is constantly out of her seat during all subjects, ignores the teacher, and argues aggressively.

C) Nine-year-old Tameka asks to see the nurse every day, upon arrival to school from home, complaining of a stomachache.

D) Ten-year-old Steven is terrified of fish and each day becomes immobilized and refuses to walk past the aquarium in the hall.

8) Which of the following statements is true regarding gender and emotional disabilities?

A) Boys are more likely to have externalizing disorders than girls.

B) Boys are more likely to have internalizing disorders than girls.

C) Boys and girls are equally likely to have externalizing disorders.

D) Boys and girls are equally likely to have internalizing disorders.

9) Which of the following statements is true regarding students who display antisocial behaviors at an early age?

A) They are likely to develop fears in adolescence.

B) They are likely to outgrow these behaviors by adulthood.

C) They are likely to engage in delinquent behavior in adolescence.

D) They are likely to pursue a college degree after graduation from high school.

10) What is the kingpin behavior around which other behavioral excesses revolve?

A) Fighting B) Noncompliance C) Tantrums D) Vandalism 11) All of the following are causes of emotional disabilities EXCEPT

.

A) brain dysfunction B) differences in temperament C) genetic factors D) vitamin deficiencies 12) Children with emotional and behavior problems are more likely to come from homes in which .

A) discipline is harsh B) supervision is constant C) spoiling is the norm D) space is limited 13) Mrs. Abraham teaches second grade. She is concerned about Sammy’s behavior.

He is unable to read grade-level text. He disrupts class during reading by cursing and screaming when he is asked to read. Which of the following is an evidencebased strategy most likely to improve Sammy’s behavior?

A) Punishing Sammy when he disrupts reading.

B) Having Sammy complete an easier task than other students during reading.

C) Sending Sammy to the principal when the behavior occurs.

D) Providing explicit and systematic instruction to improve his reading deficits.

14) Which of these statements about the identification of students with emotional and behavior disorders is most accurate?

A) Young children are more difficult to identify.

B) Systematic assessment methods are used by all schools for identification.

C) Children with internalizing problems are the first to be identified.

D) Adolescents are more difficult to identify because they hide their problems.

15) Which of the following statements regarding risk factors and emotional and behavior problems is true?

A) Behavior problems can often be a link to a specific risk factor.

B) Societal risk factors are more likely to produce negative outcomes than family factors.

C) Family risk factors are more likely to produce negative outcomes than school factors.

D) Behavioral problems are generally the result of the accumulation of several risk factors.

16) Screening tests for emotional and behavior disorders are

.

A) often unreliable with questionable validity B) usually rating scales or checklists C) usually completed by a school psychologist D) used to determine eligibility for special education 17) Behavior intervention plans are required for students with disabilities who

.

A) require special education B) are placed in segregated settings C) have been suspended from school D) have behavior issues that adversely affect school performance 18) Mr. Shaffer is a high school history teacher. He is very concerned about Rafael, one of his students. Rafael exhibits aggressive behavior in class, and episodes are becoming more frequent. Mr. Shaffer has decided to conduct a functional behavior assessment to determine why she is so aggressive. He meets with Rafael’s parents and two of his teachers to determine which situations provoke aggressive behavior and solicit suggestions for keeping Rafael calm. Mr. Shaffer is conducting a/an A) descriptive functional behavior assessment B) functional analysis C) indirect functional behavior assessment D) integrated functional behavior assessment 19) Curriculum for students with emotional disabilities should focus on

.

A) developing personal, academic, and social skills B) developing vocational skills and treating maladaptive behaviors C) treating maladaptive behaviors before developing academic skills D) developing academic and vocational skills before treating maladaptive behaviors 20) Which of the following teachers is likely to have the fewest students with emotional and behavior disorders in class?

A) Mr. Latta, an algebra teacher B) Mrs. Dubois, a French teacher C) Mr. Koslov, a history teacher

D) Mr. Tomko, a chemistry teacher 21) Mrs. Byrd is a middle school English teacher. She has just learned that Carla, a new student in her class, has an emotional disability. She wants to keep confrontations and classroom disruptions at a minimum. Mrs. Byrd should A) provide easy tasks to prevent frustration B) provide explicit and systematic instruction C) provide challenging tasks to prevent boredom D) avoid calling on Carla unless she raises her hand 22) Which of the following social skills programs includes curriculum materials for children and adolescents?

A) FAST Social Skills B) Taking Part C) The Prepare Curriculum D) The Walker Social Skills Curriculum 23) Which of the following is the most accurate regarding teachers’ use of praise with students who have emotional or behavioral disorders?

A) Teachers tend to praise students too frequently.

B) Teacher praise statements decline each year after second grade.

C) Teachers generally use less praise statements and more statements of disapproval or reprimands.

D) Special education teachers use praise statements more frequently than general education teachers.

24) Schoolwide positive behavioral interventions and supports

.

A) is used only by administrators B) is a new method for improving school safety C) use research-based interventions to teach appropriate behaviors D) is conceptualized from a punishment perspective 25) Which of the following statements about self-management is most accurate?

A) It is a tool for identification.

B) It has not been useful for students with emotional or behavioral disabilities.

C) It promotes maintenance and generalization of new behaviors.

D) It has mainly been used for students with health challenges.

26) Monica’s teacher has taught her to use a self-management strategy to control her blurting out in class. Her teacher has agreed to let her have extra time in the listening center if she has fewer than five blurt-outs during morning work. Monica

has been instructed to color the circle on her chart green if she has met the goal. On Thursday after morning work, Monica holds up a green circle and smiles at her teacher. The form of self-management described in this scenario is .

A) self-evaluation B) self-monitoring C) self-determination D) self-reinforcement 27) Which of the following is a proactive management strategy?

A) Having unregulated transition times B) Posting ambiguous rules and expectations C) Allowing students opportunities to make choices D) Seating difficult students in the back of the room 28) What is the first challenge that teachers of students with behavior disorders face when they try to use a group process to modify behaviors?

A) Finding appropriate role models B) Creating a sense of group solidarity C) Getting students to follow directions D) Teaching students to accept responsibility for their actions 29) Mrs. Gardner is using a peer support strategy to motivate her students to behave more appropriately. Students have been asked to watch their classmates and catch them being good. Mrs. Gardner praises students who have noticed and reported positive behavior. Which of the following strategies is she using?

A) Peer monitoring B) Positive peer reporting C) Peer tutoring D) Peer support and confrontation 30) Teachers who exhibit differential acceptance for students with emotional and behavior problems .

A) like some students better than others B) accept some inappropriate behaviors but not others C) justify angry and aggressive student behavior as part of the disability D) witness anger and aggression without becoming angry or aggressive ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Discuss the advantages of the definition of emotional and behavioral disorders proposed by the Council for Children with Behavioral Disorders.

2) Explain the difference between externalizing and internalizing behaviors and provide at least four examples of each type of behavior.

3) There is some controversy surrounding the intelligence of students who have emotional or behavioral disabilities. Explain the reasons for this controversy.

4) Describe the three tiers of support in schoolwide positive behavioral interventions and support and explain what happens at each tier.

5) What are the five dimensions by which behavior can be objectively measured?

Explain each.

Chapter 6 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 6 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) D

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 6 Test (Essay) 1) Discuss the advantages of the definition of emotional and behavioral disorders proposed by the Council for Children with Behavioral Disorders.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: 

The educational dimensions of the disability are defined.



It focuses directly on behavior in school settings.



It considers behavior in various contexts (age, ethnicity, culture).



The possibility of early identification and early intervention is increased.



Conservation of diagnostic resources is possible because a distinction between social and emotional maladjustment is not required.

2) Explain the difference between externalizing and internalizing behaviors and provide at least four examples of each type of behavior.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: Externalizing behaviors are antisocial behaviors that disrupt the classroom and learning, such as: 

getting out of their seats



yelling, talking out, cursing



disturbing others



hitting or fighting



complaining



ignoring the teacher



arguing excessively



stealing



lying



destroying property



not following directions



having temper tantrums

Internalizing behaviors involve too little social interactions with others. Some internalizing behaviors include: 

playing with children not own age



engaging in daydreams and fantasies



having phobias or fearful about certain things



complaining of being sick or hurt



being depressed



inability to form friendships or have fun

3) There is some controversy surrounding the intelligence of students who have emotional or behavioral disabilities. Explain the reasons for this controversy.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: 

Many students with emotional and behavioral disorders score below the means on IQ tests. There are two possible explanations for this: whether they are less intelligent than other students is difficult to say; disruptive behaviors may have interfered with past opportunities to learn many of the tasks measured by the tests; they are on task only about 60% of the time, which has a dramatic impact on learning



Tests are usually administered at a particular time and place and reflect performance at that time. Disruptive behavior may affect the results.

4) Describe the three tiers of support in schoolwide positive behavioral interventions and support and explain what happens at each tier.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: Tier 1 – Primary Prevention 

Universal supports for all students, effective for 80–85% of students



All teachers and staff participate



Behavioral expectations stated and defined



Behavioral expectations explicitly taught



Appropriate behaviors recognized and rewarded



Behavioral errors are corrected

Tier 2 – Secondary Prevention 

Interventions for students with at-risk behaviors; about 15–20% of students



Supports delivered in small-group format; for example, check in/check out: -

Brief meeting at the beginning of the day to set behavior goals

-

A point card to record behaviors

-

Brief meeting at the end of the day to discuss the day’s events

-

Rewards for earning a predetermined number of points

Tier 3 – Tertiary Prevention 

Intensive, individualized interventions for students with high-risk behaviors; about 5% of students



Includes a functional behavior assessment and behavior intervention plan



May also include services outside of school to address quality-of-life issues

5) What are the five dimensions by which behavior can be objectively measured?

Explain each.

Answers should include the following: frequency, duration, latency, magnitude, topography. Explanations of each may vary but should reflect the information found in Figure 6.3 of the textbook.

Chapter 7 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Autism was first described and named by A) Hans Asperger B) Elizabeth Farrell C) Leo Kanner D) Bengt Nirje 2) Autism is best described as a/an

.

.

A) behavior disorder B) developmental disorder C) intellectual disability D) speech disorder 3) Charley is a student with autism. Her teacher asks, ―Do you have a pet?‖ Charley replies, ―Do you have a pet?‖ This speech deficit in children with autism is known as .

A) echolalia B) memorization C) metalinguistic D) perseveration 4) All of the following are defining characteristics of autism in the I DEA definition of autism EXCEPT .

A) cognitive deficits B) communication deficits C) deficits in social interaction D) resistance to environmental change 5) Which of the following is an example of joint attention?

A) A mother holding her child’s hand B) A child looking for a favorite toy C) A child listening to a classmate and some music D) A child looking at a picture that a teacher is pointing at 6) Which of the following would be the most difficult for a child with autism?

A) Reciting the days of the week B) Naming the characters in a story C) Explaining why a snowman melted D) Understanding why a joke is funny 7) Which of the following statements about responses to sensory stimuli and people with autism is most accurate?

A) Some people with autism do not feel pain in a normal way.

B) All people with autism usually prefer loud noises.

C) Many people with autism exhibit stereotypy.

D) People with autism insist on sameness.

8) Jack is a person with autism. He has severe intellectual disabilities but he can play many classical piano compositions by ear. Jack probably has a condition known as .

A) perseveration B) Rett syndrome C) overselectivity D) savant syndrome 9) Rodney has autism. He is a bright student and is extremely interested in insects. His classmates are sometimes amazed by his knowledge. This morning, he found a ladybug in class and he has been talking about beetles for 20 minutes. His classmates are yawning and looking away from him. How is Rodney most likely to react?

A) He will have a temper tantrum.

B) He will continue to talk about beetles.

C) He will play with an object on his desk.

D) He will stop talking and look for other insects.

10) Overselectivity is characterized as .

A) resistance to changes in routine B) obsessive attention to a specific object C) focusing on a part rather than the whole D) repeating behaviors over and over again 11) Although students with Asperger syndrome are similar to students with autism, they .

A) are not inflexible in their routines B) don’t have difficulty understanding other’s feelings C) don’t have difficulty with fine or gross motor activities D) don’t have deficits in language and general intellectual functioning

12) Which of the following is an example of a behavior trap?

A) Bailey can’t stop spinning coins once he starts.

B) Mrs. Monroe always has a negative reaction to Cole’s screaming.

C) Mrs. Chisholm uses Darren’s love of presidents to develop academic and social skills.

D) Mr. Newman checks to make sure that objects in class are kept in the same place.

13) According to recent estimates, how many children have autism?

A) 1 in 54 B) 1 in 110 C) 1 in 150 D) 1 in 350 14) Current research on the possible causes of autism lists all of the following EXCEPT .

A) abnormal brain development B) genetic factors C) environmental toxins D) parenting style 15) Which of the following statements about the genetic component of autism is true?

A) Identical twins will both have autism.

B) A genetic marker for autism has been identified.

C) The gene for autism is typically carried by the mother.

D) Parents of a child with autism have a higher risk of having other children with autism.

16) At what age can autism be reliably diagnosed?

A) 18 months B) 24 months C) 3 years D) 5 years 17) Who established the value of systematic early intervention in improving outcomes for children with autism?

A) Eugen Bleuler B) Bruno Bettelheim C) Ivar Lovaas D) Lorna Wing 18) Skills that can help improve the success of children with autism in general education classes include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) display near-zero-level problem behavior

B) use secretin therapy to eliminate symptoms C) participate in group lessons D) interact appropriately with peers 19) Which of the following statements about applied behavior analysis (A BA) is most accurate?

A) ABA is too complicated for many parents.

B) Skills targeted for teaching are based on individual needs.

C) ABA consists only of discrete trial training.

D) ABA includes prescribed settings, teaching formats, and materials.

20) Which of the following statements about discrete trial training is incorrect?

A) It is a method where children learn games.

B) It can be used in several variations.

C) It is commonly used in school classrooms for teaching any subject.

D) It is used by both law and medical students.

21) All of the following strategies are based on applied behavior analysis EXCEPT A) discrete trial training B) facilitated communication C) naturalistic language strategies D) self-management strategies 22) Visual activity schedules for students with autism

.

A) are most useful only in academic settings B) are most appropriate only for preschoolers C) promote dependence and conformity D) is a form of prompting 23) Kim has difficulty waiting in line at school. She wants to be first all of the time, and she will kick other students and scream if she is not at the front of the line. Her classmates get upset when they can’t go to an activity until she is quiet. Kim’s teacher creates a visual support for her that helps her understand lining up from the perspective of others. This visual support is referred to as a .

A) social story B) multimedia mediation C) self-management strategy D) picture exchange communication system 24) Which of the following types of sentences is NOT a part of a social story?

A) Affirmative B) Comparative C) Descriptive D) Perspective

.

25) The collective wisdom of experts, in a study by Heward (2011), identified skills for successful inclusion of students with autism. These experts more frequently indicated that student success depended on the ability to .

A) read well B) display organization skills C) participate and learn in group lessons D) remember large amounts of social information 26) A strong argument for including students with autism in general education is that .

A) it is cost-effective B) parents prefer inclusion C) they are exposed to a more rigorous curriculum D) they can learn from socially competent children 27) Which statement about educational placements for students with autism is accurate?

A) Most of them are educated in separate classes.

B) Most of them are educated in general education classes.

C) An equal number are educated in general education classes and separate classes.

D) An equal number are educated in general education classes and residential facilities.

28) Which of the following interventions is supported by scientifically validated research?

A) Applied behavior analysis B) Facilitated communication C) Gluten-free diets D) Secretin therapy 29) Mr. Quimby, a teacher, provides physical support to help Howard, a student who cannot speak, type responses on a keyboard so that Howard can share his thoughts and ideas. This technique is known as communication.

A) cued B) facilitated C) functional D) reciprocal 30) Which statement about unproven treatments for autism is most accurate?

A) Unproven treatments are easy to identify.

B) Parents are more susceptible to them than teachers.

C) Schools are reluctant to adopt unproven treatments.

D) Many treatments that claim to help have no scientific evidence ESSAY QUESTIONS

1) Why are fads and unproven interventions so prevalent in the treatment of children with autism?

2) Why is early and intensive intervention especially critical for children with autism?

3) What factors might account for the sharp rise in the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder?

4) How might instruction be designed so that some of the behavior trap characteristics of autism spectrum disorder become strengths for the child as a learner? Include an explanation and an example of a behavior trap.

5) Explain how a teacher would provide an effective education for a child with A SD included in her general education classroom.

Chapter 7 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 7 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) D

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 7 Test (Essay) 1) Why are fads and unproven interventions so prevalent in the treatment of children with autism?

Answers will vary but should include the following points: The tremendous behavioral excesses and peculiarities manifested by children with ASD has made the field especially fertile ground for the proliferation of treatments promising remediation or cure. Teachers and parents of children with autism are easy targets for interventions that promise cures. They are desperate to find something to help children with ASD. Educators are equally susceptible, often gullibly so, to testimonials, advertised promises, and pseudoscientific evidence. Instead of using legitimate measures of learning to evaluate a curriculum or instructional methods, some programs consider staff and students’ reports of having fun a measure of success.

2) Why is early and intensive intervention especially critical for children with autism?

Answers will vary but should mention that successful range of achievement usually occurs in a small window of time in the early months/years of a child’s life. The earlier intervention can begin, the better the outcome for children. Lovaas conducted a study that provided a group of children with autism an early intensive behavioral intervention weekly program of one-to-one treatment that continued for 2 years or more before age 4 years. Intervention included parent training and inclusion in a preschool setting with typically developing children. In comparison to a control group, the E I B I group gained an average of 20 I Q points and made major advances in educational achievement. Nine of the children moved from first to second grade and were considered well-adjusted by their teacher. Follow-up of the children years later showed that they had maintained their gains. The study suggests the importance of early intervention as a factor that can help children with autism achieve normal functioning in general education classrooms.

3) What factors might account for the sharp rise in the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder?

The increase is probably a combination of the following factors:      



Greater awareness of the disorder Changes in federal and state policy and law that allow for better identification and reporting of the disorder Better and/or more widespread screening and assessment procedures Greater availability of services Greater acceptance of the label by parents and educators Changes in the diagnostic criteria to a spectrum of related disorders that includes children with milder forms of autism who would not have been identified previously Actual increase

4) How might instruction be designed so that some of the behavior trap characteristics of autism spectrum disorder become strengths for the child as a learner? Include an explanation and an example of a behavior trap.

Answer should contain an explanation of a behavior trap that is found on page 200 of the textbook. An example is as follows: Jordan is a third grader who does not complete classwork (typical of a child with ASD). Jordan’s teacher capitalizes on his interest in (perhaps obsession with) stickers. She uses them as the basis for getting him to do math (adding, subtracting, and grouping them), science (categorizing the animals), social studies (having him explain culturally significant or specific stickers), and language arts (he volunteered to write a hobby column in the school newsletter, so the teacher uses those columns as credit for his writing assignments).

5) Explain how a teacher would provide an effective education for a child with ASD included in her general education classroom.

Answers will vary but should include one or more of the following strategies with brief explanations/examples:           

Teach communication and social competence Maintain the natural flow of instruction Teach independence and allow opportunities for the child to practice Build a classroom community inclusive of all children Promote the generalization and maintenance of skills Implement evidence-based practices for preventing challenging behavior and replacing it with adaptive responses Teach how to participate effectively in group lessons Use choral responding and response cards for participating in group instruction Use self-management strategies for completing assigned tasks and following rules and directions.

Use collaborative learning activities such as classwide peer tutoring for interacting appropriately with classmates Teach children how to self-monitor and how to recruit teacher attention

Chapter 8 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) A person who engages in intraindividual communication talks to A) a single person B) him- or herself C) more than one person D) a large group of people 2) Which of the following is true regarding languages?

.

A) Languages are static.

B) Languages are made up of concrete symbols.

C) The codes that constitute languages are informal.

D) The symbols and rules that govern languages are arbitrary.

3) The smallest elements of language that carry meaning are called

.

A) morphemes B) phonemes C) syllables D) words 4) Which dimension of language is concerned with the meaning of words and combinations of words?

A) Morphology B) Pragmatics C) Semantics D) Syntax 5) Jake is a high school student. Afterschool conversations with friends include the use of slang words and may include telling of a ―dirty‖ joke. When Jake arrives at his grandparents’ house he uses standard English and says ―ma’am‖ and ―sir‖ when addressing them. This ability to adjust language represents skill in .

A) morphology B) phonology C) pragmatics D) semantics 6) Which of the following is NOT a process involved in the production of speech?

A) Articulation B) Intonation C) Resonation D) Respiration 7) Which of the following children shows signs of a receptive language disorder?

A) Jayla, who says, ―Him sawed the animal.‖ B) Alyssa, who says ―Tanks for the tookie‖ instead of ―Thanks for the cookie.‖ C) Chelsea, who can’t follow a sequence of commands such as ―Get your coat‖ and ―Line up.‖

D) Michaela, who says, ―G-G-Good m-m-m-morning, M-M-M-Mrs. Little‖ to the principal.

8) Which of the following statements about dialects is most accurate?

A) Dialects are more common in English than in other languages.

B) Dialects are linguistically correct within the rules that govern them.

C) Dialects should usually be considered inferior to Standard English.

D) Dialects are severe forms of communication disorders that require intensive intervention.

9) Nicole tells her older brother that Mom needs some ―leach‖ from the store before she can wash his socks. Nicole’s speech error is known as a/an .

A) addition B) distortion C) substitution D) omission 10) Which of the following statements about speech-sound errors is true?

A) Treatments to address them are relatively simple.

B) Treatments must be implemented before the age of 7.

C) They result from a defect in the operation of the speech apparatus.

D) They result from problems recognizing or processing the sounds of language.

11) Which of the following students is most likely to have problems with reading?

A) Abe, a child with a phonological disorder B) Charlene, a child with a fluency disorder C) Demetrius, a child with a voice disorder D) Francine, a child with an articulation disorder 12) A child with a communication disorder is eligible for special education services when the disorder .

A) has an adverse effect on learning B) has persisted for at least 3 years C) is evident when the child enters school D) has become worse despite the use of research-based interventions 13) Which of the following is NOT true about stuttering?

A) Stuttering is situational.

B) Stuttering affects more girls than boys.

C) Stuttering occurs more often in twins.

D) Stuttering is in some ways least understood.

14) Cherell is a ninth grader who is experiencing some difficulties at school. She has been sent to the principal’s office for slapping a classmate. She tearfully tells the principal that she is tired of being teased by other students, who claim that she sounds like a man when she talks. The term used to describe the quality of Cherell’s voice is .

A) cluttering B) denasality C) disnomia D) dysphonia 15) Which of the following students is most likely to have a language disorder?

A) Two-year-old Brad who is just learning to talk.

B) Five-year-old Jasmine who cannot speak English.

C) Six-year-old Parker who has an extensive vocabulary but cannot answer questions.

D) Seven-year-old Rodney who speaks in sentences but can’t identify rhyming words.

16) Speech and language impairments constitute a secondary disability for approximately of students who receive special education services for another primary disability.

A) 60% B) 50% C) 30% D) 20% 17) A loss of the ability to process and use language is known as

.

A) aphasia B) apraxia C) dysarthria D) dyslexia 18) Mrs. Gonzales is evaluating Maria for a possible communication disorder. She asks Maria a series of open-ended questions to evaluate her expressive speech. This type of assessment is known as a .

A) case history B) functional analysis C) language application D) language sample

19) Mrs. Crosby has been asked to evaluate Hector for a possible communication disorder. Hector’s family came from Miami, but they speak very little English. Mrs. Crosby has assessed him in both English and Spanish. What else can she do to be sure that she has adequately measured Hector’s true communicative competence?

A) Interview his parents B) Administer a third test in Spanish C) Listen when Hector is involved in authentic conversational behavior D) Interview his teachers 20) Which of the following is an example of BICS? A) Writing a letter to a friend B) Having a conversation about recess with a friend C) Answering computer-generated questions to prepare for a quiz D) Participating in an online discussion board about the planets 21) Mrs. Robinson is a speech-language pathologist. She asks one of her students to look into a mirror and say the word working. This technique is helpful with .

A) discrimination B) fluency C) phonology D) production 22) All of the following are true regarding therapy for phonological errors EXCEPT

.

A) sounds are not taught in isolation B) the child is taught to recognize differences between minimally contrastive words C) the therapist and child give and receive directions D) it is incompatible with therapy for articulation errors 23) In the Lidcombe Program, children who stutter are

.

A) praised for fluent speech B) praised for maintaining eye contact C) taught to speak to a rhythmic beat D) taught to prolong troublesome sounds 24) The three components of augmentative and alternative communication are A) pictures, sounds, words B) aided, unaided, cooperative C) representational set, means of selection, means of transmission D) no-tech, low-tech, high-tech

.

25) Which of the following need NOT be considered when deciding what items to include in a child’s augmentative vocabulary?

A) What peers are saying B) The words the child’s parents can pronounce C) The vocabulary that the student is currently using D) The vocabulary that is needed in school and in the community 26) In which placement alternative does the speech-language professional deliver service through consultation?

A) Pull-out B) Community based C) Collaboration D) Self-contained classrooms 27) The most prevalent method of service delivery to students who receive speechlanguage services is .

A) pull-out B) classroom based C) community based D) collaborative consultation 28) Darius is 18 months of age. His mother, Mrs. Bluestone, has referred him for a speech evaluation because he says ―wike‖ for ―like‖ and has difficulty with consonant blends such as the str in ―street.‖ What common mistake has Darius’s mother made?

A) She should have tried to assist Darius herself before referring him.

B) She is confusing typical development with articulation errors.

C) She did not listen to enough speech sounds before referring him.

D) She did not observe him in a variety of settings to see if he had similar problems.

29) All of the following tests are components of a comprehensive evaluation to identify communication disorders EXCEPT .

A) aptitude B) hearing C) articulation D) language function 30) Tammy’s teacher tells her that she will be in hot water if she doesn’t stop talking.

Tammy says, ―I will be good! Please don’t burn me!‖ This confusion probably reflects a problem with .

A) morphology

B) pragmatics C) semantics D) syntax ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Discuss articulation and phonological disorders.

2) Using a fictitious case study, illustrate two strategies for increasing naturalistic teaching of language.

3) As a first-grade teacher, what process would you follow if you had concerns about one of your student’s speech development? What are some strategies you can implement should a language impairment be diagnosed?

4) Explain why the pull-out model for special education service delivery might not be the best option.

5) Suppose that a colleague approached you for advice concerning a student who stuttered. What advice would you offer your colleague?

Chapter 8 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 8 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) C

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 8 Test (Essay) 1) Discuss articulation and phonological disorders.

An articulation disorder exists when a child is unable to correctly produce a sound.

It’s severe if the child is unintelligible. A phonological disorder exists if the child can correctly make the sound but does not always do so correctly. Many children have problems with both, and speech therapy for each is compatible.

2) Using a fictitious case study, illustrate two strategies for increasing naturalistic teaching of language.

Answers will vary widely, but here is an example of two naturalistic strategies for 5-year-old Pascha, who can speak but usually instead tugs on teachers, points at what she wants, and grunts. The first strategy occurs during lunchtime, when Pascha is deliberately given small portions and given more when she verbally requests it but ignored when she grunts. The second strategy is to place Pascha’s favorite toy out of her reach during play time. It is given to her only when she verbally requests it. When she points, her teachers prompt her to ask for what she wants.

3) As a first-grade teacher, what process would you follow if you had concerns about one of your student’s speech development? What are some strategies you can implement should a language impairment be diagnosed?

Answers will vary but should include these points: •

Use a questionnaire or checklist to collect data on possible speech and language impairments and provide the data to the SLP; be sure you are not confusing typical speech development with serious articulation errors; consult with the SLP if uncertain.

•

Should a language impairment be diagnosed, some example strategies include make the environment conducive to the development of expressive and receptive language, thoroughly explain new vocabulary, embed new vocabulary across the curriculum, provide longer wait time for answers, and break multistep directions into smaller components.

•

Don’t assume a child will outgrow the problem.

•

It is important for the teacher or specialist to speak clearly, use correct inflections, and provide a variety of words and sentences.

•

Teach children with very limited spoken language how to orally read pictures as a language enhancement activity.

•

Use storyboards and song boards with pictures illustrating language.

4) Explain why the pull-out model for special education service delivery might not be the best option.

Answers will vary but may include one or more of the following points: •

Professionals don’t think adequate services can be provided in such short, isolated periods of time.

•

The more naturalistic approach would be to provide services where more communication occurs: the classroom.

•

Students may miss important academic content when removed from the general education classroom.

5) Suppose that a colleague approached you for advice concerning a student who stuttered. What advice would you offer your colleague?

Answers will vary but may include one or more of the following points described on page 239 of the textbook: •

Don’t anticipate what the student wants to say and finish for her. Listen actively, letting the student work through the stuttering moment on her own.

•

Consistently model a relaxed and unhurried speaking style. Avoid telling her to ―slow down‖ or ―relax.‖

•

Ask the student what strategies she uses to speak more fluently. It is okay to speak individually with the student about her stuttering.

•

Create silences in your interactions.

•

Model typical nonfluencies.

•

Establish conversational rules.

•

Show acceptance of what the child expresses rather than how it is said.

•

Follow the child’s conversational lead.

•

Maintain eye contact.

•

Provide specific and encouraging feedback.

Chapter 9 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) At what age are infants who can hear first able to discriminate speech sounds?

A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 9 months 2) Which of the following is an example of a student who would qualify for special education services as a student who is deaf?

A) Aimee, who had tubes in her ears in kindergarten B) Brad, who currently has an ear infection in both ears C) Chandra, who understands speech but needs an interpreter to sign in social studies class D) Demetrius, who wears hearing aids but still cannot understand speech

3) Residual hearing is defined as sounds

.

A) amplified by a hearing aid B) measured by a hearing test C) that can be heard after a hearing loss D) that can no longer be heard after a hearing loss 4) The eardrum is also known as the

.

A) auricle B) meatus C) ossicle D) tympanic membrane 5) Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines how a hearing loss affects language and communication?

A) The degree of hearing loss B) The language spoken in the community C) The attitudes of parents and siblings D) The presence or absence of other disabilities 6) Jackson’s mother complains that the music on his car radio is hurting her ears. The sound level is probably .

A) between 60 and 70 d B B) between 85 and 90 d B C) between 50 and 60 d B D) 125 dB and above 7) Which of the following does NOT describe zero dB? A) Audiometric zero B) Zero hearing threshold level (HTL) C) The smallest sound that can be perceived by a normally hearing person D) The smallest sound that can be perceived by a person who is deaf 8) The part of the ear that controls balance is the

.

A) cochlea B) eardrum C) ossicles D) semicircular canal 9) The academic achievement gap between deaf and hard-of-hearing students and their hearing peers .

A) remains constant over time B) increases as students get older C) decreases as students get older D) increases in reading but decreases in math as students get older 10) In the United States, the majority of people with hearing loss are A) between the ages of birth and 5

.

B) between the ages of 6 and 21 C) between the ages of 35 and 60 D) 65 years or older 11) Current research indicates that deaf students experience problems in education due to .

A) limitations in cognitive functioning B) inability to read C) inadequate development of a first language D) the mismatch between reading and sign language 12) Causes of conductive hearing loss include all of the following EXCEPT

.

A) damage to the cochlea B) improper movement of the ossicles C) malformations of the auditory canals D) excessive wax buildup in the auditory canals 13) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding sensorineural hearing losses?

A) They may not be helped by hearing aids.

B) They can be corrected with surgery.

C) The term includes sensory and neural hearing impairments.

D) They cannot be corrected with medication.

14) Mrs. Walker’s son, Keenan, was born at 26 weeks with a severe hearing loss. This loss is _____.

A) bilateral B) congenital C) postlingual D) unilateral 15) Sources of noise sufficient enough to induce hearing loss include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) Target shooting B) Jet aircraft C) Amplified music D) Conversation 16) Malcolm is a student in Mrs. Whetstone’s fourth-grade class. She is confused by his difficulties. Some days, he is so dizzy that he spends most of the day with the nurse.

He also reports that he hears noises or ringing sounds that nobody else hears.

Sometimes, Malcolm does not seem to hear and other days his hearing is much better. Malcolm has symptoms associated with .

A) cytomegalovirus B) Ménière’s disease C) otitis media D) toxoplasmosis

17) Hearing loss may NOT be detected in very young children because A) all infants smile and babble B) most deaf children are born to deaf parents C) screening for hearing loss in infants is not possible D) parents don’t usually seek diagnosis until the child starts school 18) Colby is 1 year old and has cleft palate. He needs an evaluation to determine if problems associated with this condition are affecting his hearing. Which of the following tests can be used?

A) Pure-tone audiometry B) Operant conditioning audiometry C) Speech reception threshold (S RT) D) Voice recognition testing (V RT) 19) How do cochlear implants benefit students with hearing loss?

A) They restore normal hearing.

B) They reduce background noise.

C) They help students understand speech.

D) They deliver amplified sound directly to the middle ear.

20) Which of the following is true about advances in hearing aids?

A) Newer hearing aids are less costly.

B) Newer hearing aids are still unsuitable for preschoolers.

C) Newer hearing aids amplify all sounds indiscriminately.

D) Newer hearing aids can be preprogrammed for optional listening.

21) Which educational approach emphasizes training in the production and understanding of speech?

A) Oral/aural B) Cued speech C) Bilingual/bicultural D) Total communication 22) Which educational approach emphasizes the use of both speech and sign language?

A) Oral/aural B) Cued speech C) Bilingual/bicultural D) Total communication 23) Which of the following is true regarding the C-Print speech-to-text service for deaf students?

A) Deaf students must learn shorthand to use the service.

B) The presenter or lecturer types notes and comments for deaf students.

C) The system provides meaning-for-meaning translation of class lectures.

D) The system provides verbatim, word-for-word translations of class lectures.

24) Activities to improve the listening skills of students with hearing loss are most appropriate for .

A) all students with hearing loss B) students who prefer oral communication C) students who prefer manual communication D) students with mild or moderate hearing loss 25) The most likely sequence of activities related to sound for children involved in auditory training is .

A) awareness, discrimination, identification, localization B) awareness, identification, discrimination, localization C) awareness, identification, localization, discrimination D) awareness, localization, discrimination, identification 26) Mr. Johansen is trying to teach Timothy, a young child with a hearing loss, to use his residual hearing to learn. He does not allow Timothy to look at the speaker’s lips. Mr. Johansen is using .

A) auditory learning B) auditory-verbal therapy C) interactive-linguistic communication D) oral-aural communication 27) Which of the following is NOT true of cued speech?

A) The hand signals must be used along with speech.

B) The hand signals constitute a manual alphabet.

C) It does not disrupt the natural rhythm of speech.

D) It helps students identify speech features such as syllables.

28) Which of the following is NOT a limitation associated with speech reading?

A) Many words look alike on the lips.

B) Many important clues are provided by watching a speaker’s lips C) Many speakers are able to talk while barely moving their lips.

D) Many students experience fatigue after speech reading for a short time.

29) Which of the following is the language of the Deaf culture in the United States and Canada?

A) American Sign Language (ASL) B) English Sign Language (E SL) C) Signing Essential English (S EE I ) D) Signing Exact English (S EE II ) 30) What percentage of students who are deaf or hard of hearing are educated in residential schools?

A) 2% B) 54% C) 16% D) 17%

ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Explain the controversy surrounding cochlear implants.

2) Name and describe the three major educational approaches for teaching deaf and hard-of-hearing children.

3) Explain the difference between prelingual and postlingual hearing loss and why age of onset is relevant to the educational needs of a child with a hearing impairment.

4) How is a child who is deaf different from a child who is hard of hearing?

5) Explain the difference between academic achievement and intelligence as it pertains to a student with a hearing loss.

Chapter 9 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 9 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) A

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 9 Test (Essay) 1) Explain the controversy surrounding cochlear implants.

Answers will vary but the following points should be present and developed:  

The view of the Deaf culture that it’s genocide—the belief is that ―people who have never heard do not experience hearing loss as a loss‖; deafness is viewed as a cultural difference and not a deficit.

If deaf people do not view it as an impairment, it’s offensive and an affront to their culture that hearing people want to ―fix‖ it. o Cochlear implants in children is particularly disturbing from the Deaf culture’s viewpoint as those children do not get to choose. o It’s difficult for hearing people to understand the controversy because they generally see hearing loss as an impairment to be corrected.

2) Name and describe the three major educational approaches for teaching deaf and hard-of-hearing children.

Answers will vary but should reflect the following information: Oral/Aural                   

views speech as essential intent for student to function in hearing world speech training incorporated in all aspects of child’s education tries to develop residual hearing attention given to amplification, speech reading, learning, cued speech, technological aids much emphasis on talking pointing, gesturing, and spelling out words may be discouraged one fourth of programs are solely oral/aural Total Communication simultaneous presentation of language by both speech and signing may include manually coded English and/or fingerspelling manually coded English characterized by speaking while signing with an effort to follow the form and structure of English some concern about the standard of signing in total communication classrooms 29% of students who are deaf and hard of hearing attend such classrooms based on a belief that speaking English and using manual communication simultaneously makes it possible for children to use either or both types Bilingual/Bicultural ASL is a language in its own right, not an imperfect variation of spoken English proponents of ASL and Deaf culture believe ASL is best route to linguistic competence; some consider ASL as the first language of the deaf approach seeks to teach competence in first language (ASL) first then move on to competence in English as a second language



Research showing a correlation between early exposure to ASL and improved English literacy provides empirical support for this approach 3) Explain the difference between prelingual and postlingual hearing loss and why age of onset is relevant to the educational needs of a child with a hearing impairment.

Prelingual loss occurs before the development of spoken language, approximately before age 2. Postlingual hearing loss occurs after spoken language develops, usually after age 2. The education of a child with prelingual loss will probably focus on language and communication acquisition; education of a child with postlingual loss will probably focus on maintaining intelligible speech and appropriate language patterns.

4) How is a child who is deaf different from a child who is hard of hearing?

A child who is deaf cannot hear and therefore understand speech, even with a hearing aid. A child who is deaf may be able to hear sounds but uses vision as the primary learning modality. A child who is hard of hearing can hear and understand speech, sometimes because of a hearing aid. This child’s speech and language skills are developed primarily through the auditory channel.

5) Explain the difference between academic achievement and intelligence as it pertains to a student with a hearing loss.

Answers may vary but should include the following points as described on page 264 of the textbook: Students who are deaf and hard of hearing have problems with all academic areas because our schooling system is language based, and students who are deaf and hard of hearing have difficulty with language. Academic performance should not be equated with intelligence. Deafness itself, however, has no impact on intelligence. Students who are deaf are no less intelligent simply because they are deaf. The lack of achievement is usually not due to lack of intelligence but to the inadequate development of a first language and the mismatch between the demands of spoken and written English and the student’s ability to understand and communicate in English.

Chapter 10 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Collin has 20/200 vision. This means that he

.

A) has perfect vision B) sees as well as or better than 20% of his classmates C) can identify only 20 letters on the Snellen Eye Chart correctly D) is legally blind 2) What is emphasized in the definition of visual impairments in IDEA? A) The degree of limitations in visual field B) The degree of limitations in visual acuity C) The relationship between vision and learning D) The cause of the impairment and the age of onset

3) Mrs. Torrez has been informed that Victoria, a new student with low vision, is being placed in her class. Which of the following is probably true about Victoria?

A) She will wear thick glasses.

B) She will need to use Braille to learn.

C) She will mainly use her vision to learn.

D) She will use her vision mainly to help her get around in the classroom.

4) One drawback for students with adventitious visual impairments is that

.

A) they retain a memory of things they saw B) they have a greater need for emotional support C) their visual memories can help with learning D) they have a large background of visual experiences on which to draw 5) The ability to clearly distinguish forms or discriminate details at a specified distance is called .

A) field of vision B) focal center C) functional vision D) visual acuity 6) Which term best describes a person with vision of 20/220 in the better eye that is improved to 20/70 with glasses?

A) Functionally blind B) Low vision C) Partially sighted D) Tunnel vision 7) Which of the following is NOT a problem experienced by a person with a limited field of vision?

A) Carl’s vision is poor at the outer ranges of the visual field.

B) Gracie has 20/40 vision, yet she is considered legally blind because of her 20degree field of vision.

C) Kinsey can see things directly in front of her but lacks peripheral vision.

D) Marshall’s 20/20 vision allows him to read the smallest print from 20 feet away.

8) Which of the following is true about cognition and children with limited vision?

A) They have difficulty connecting their experiences.

B) Their potential to learn is extremely limited.

C) They perform more poorly on tasks that require recall.

D) They cannot be taught the meaning of abstract concepts.

9) Jasmine is a kindergarten child with low vision. Which of the following is NOT a realistic expectation regarding motor skills?

A) She will be less careful with space.

B) She will lose her balance and fall easily.

C) She will be less likely to imitate actions of others.

D) She will have poorer overall motor skills than normally sighted peers.

10) One reason that the number of students with visual impairments is larger than the number reported in IDEA is .

A) some students refuse services B) some students are counted in other categories C) some students receive services outside of school D) some people become visually impaired in adulthood 11) As light passes through the eye, what does it hit first?

A) The cornea B) The lens C) The pupil D) The retina 12) The ability to fuse the single images from each eye into a single three-dimensional shape is called .

A) accommodation B) binocular vision C) ocular motility D) depth perception 13) All of the following statements about refractive errors are true EXCEPT

.

A) they include conditions such as myopia B) they include conditions such hyperopia C) they include conditions restricting circulation in the eye D) they affect approximately half of the general population 14) Which disease is marked by abnormal pressure in the eye caused by disturbances or blockages of fluids that normally circulate?

A) Cataracts B) Glaucoma C) Nystagmus D) Strabismus 15) Which condition is caused by an imbalance of the eye muscles that results in the inability to focus on an object with both eyes?

A) Cataracts B) Glaucoma C) Nystagmus D) Strabismus 16) Which of the following is NOT a cause of cortical vision impairments?

A) Anoxia B) Hydrocephalus C) Head injuries D) An immature integumentary system

17) Nigel states that he does not like social studies class because they spend most of the time reading. He claims that the text is blurry when he holds the book close to his face. He often complains of headaches. His teacher says that he is seeking attention because there are days that his vision is fine. Nigel is exhibiting symptoms of .

A) astigmatism B) farsightedness C) nearsightedness D) nystagmus 18) Chelsea is a child with strabismus. She does not require special education, but her teacher wants to be sure to help her succeed in class. She has some ideas for helping Chelsea. Which is least likely to be helpful?

A) Preferential seating B) Rest periods during close work C) Extra time on unfamiliar tasks D) High illumination with no glare 19) Which statement about Braille for students who are blind is most accurate?

A) It is introduced in middle school.

B) It makes reading and writing slower.

C) Students write words as contractions rather than letter by letter.

D) It is a visual system.

20) Which of the following mathematical tools is most likely to be helpful in teaching students who are blind to add and subtract?

A) Cranmers abacus B) Cuisenaire rods C) Digi-blocks D) Finger counting 21) What is the Kurweil 1000?

A) A talking clock for people who are blind.

B) A computer-based reading system that scans and reads printed text.

C) A talking calculator that is capable of performing advanced math functions.

D) An electronic device that creates embossed relief maps and scientific diagrams.

22) Which of the following statements about keyboarding for students who are blind is most accurate?

A) This skill should be taught using Braille typewriters.

B) This skill should be taught after handwriting has been mastered.

C) This skill should be taught to high school students seeking employment.

D) This skill should be taught as early as feasible in the student’s school program.

23) Teachers can help children with low vision develop visual efficiency by A) making their classrooms very attractive B) providing individual visual stimulation sessions

.

C) providing visual instruction in the context of daily activities D) conducting frequent assessments of visual acuity and visual field 24) All of the following are true about closed-circuit television EXCEPT

.

A) it can be easily moved from class to class B) it enables students with low vision to read regular-sized print materials C) students with low vision can adjust the brightness and contrast of materials D) students with low vision can use them to create negative white-on-black images 25) Mrs. Gandy wants to be sure that her classroom has appropriate lighting for her students with low vision. Which adaptation would NOT be helpful?

A) Adjustable lamps B) Desks with tilting tops C) Writing paper with a dull finish D) Worksheets printed on colored paper 26) Which of the following statements about orientation and mobility (O & M) is most accurate?

A) The terms are synonyms.

B) O & M skills must be taught at an early age.

C) More time is spent on specific mobility skills than orientation.

D) O & M instruction is not required as a related service.

27) A long cane serves as all of the following EXCEPT

.

A) a tool for independent travel B) a probe for detecting changes in travel surfaces C) a bumper for protection from obstacles such as doors D) a bumper for protection from high tree branches.

28) Guide dogs are

.

A) used by 25% of people who are blind B) most useful for independent travel in large cities C) most useful to blind people with multiple disabilities D) considered pets for their owners 29) Which of the following devices can read street signs and announce traffic signals for people with visual impairments?

A) A Connecticut Cane B) A Global Positioning System C) The Mowat Sensor D) The Sonic Guide 30) Accelerated and compressed speech enable students with visual impairments to listen at speeds of up to words per minute.

A) 275 B) 300 C) 350

D) 375 ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Name and define the educational classifications of students with visual impairments.

2) Provide four examples of tactile, technological, and/or optical aids you would expect to see available across the curriculum to a fourth-grade student who is functionally blind and describe how it provides access to the general education curriculum.

3) Explain how you could teach a student who is totally blind and without Braille skills to cook a simple dish. Include at least two benefits to the student.

4) Explain how a teacher could help a child who is blind learn about small mammals.

5) Briefly explain the social interaction of children with visual impairments compared to children who are typically sighted.

Chapter 10 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 10 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) B 30) A

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 10 Test (Essay) 1) Name and define the educational classifications of students with visual impairments.

Answer should indicate that all use tactile and auditory input in differing degrees. 

Totally blind receives no useful information through sense of sight; must use tactile and auditory senses for learning



Functionally blind learns primarily through the auditory and tactile senses; may use vision as supplement



Low vision uses vision as primary means of learning but supplements with tactile and auditory input

2) Provide four examples of tactile, technological, and/or optical aids you would expect to see available across the curriculum to a fourth-grade student who is functionally blind and describe how it provides access to the general education curriculum.

Examples and descriptions will vary but should include some of the following: Tactile Aids—Cuisenaire rods, Digi-Blocks, braille math blocks, Tack-Tiles Braille systems (each of these are math manipulatives useful in teaching number concepts), Cranmer abacus (helps in learning number concepts and making calculations), Speech to Print talking calculators (performs most of the functions of a standard calculator and is for more advanced mathematical functions), three-dimensional models, electronic probes, and embossed maps (permit use of tactile and auditory senses for firsthand manipulation and discovery), tactile experience books (helps young children acquire book concepts and literacy skills), etc.; Technological Aids— character recognition software such as the Kurzweil 1000 (converts printed or electronic text into spoken words); Optical Aids—field-widening lenses and devices, glasses, magnifier stand, monocular telescope (these aids help children perform better at tasks), closed-circuit television (enables students with low vision to read regular-sized printed material), augmented reality systems (allows the user to see an overlay or superimposed image of the environment), etc.

3) Explain how you could teach a student who is totally blind and without Braille skills to cook a simple dish. Include at least two benefits to the student.

Answers should include a task analysis of the recipe, the use of tape-recorded recipes, use of self-operated auditory prompts, teaching how to use a ―Walkmantype‖ recorder, teaching recipes that have commonalities with other recipes, including several trials on the use of the recorder and making the recipe, praise and reinforcement for successful completion of steps, post-training programming and generalization. Benefits include independence, competence, self-confidence, and the ability to impress self and others.

4) Explain how a teacher could help a child who is blind learn about small mammals.

Answers will vary but should include practical applications of learning in combination with research (e.g., reading, Internet research). For example, the teacher could obtain a class hamster or gerbil, allowing the child to care for and hold the animal as she learns information about the pet, including feeding, habitat, care, etc.

5) Briefly explain the social interaction of children with visual impairments compared to children who are typically sighted.

Answers may vary but should explain that children with visual impairments, compared with typically sighted children, play and interact less during free time, often are delayed in social skills, experience social isolation, have to work harder than their sighted peers to make and keep friends, often are not invited to participate in group activities, etc. Over time students with visual impairments and their sighted agemates have fewer and fewer shared experiences and common interests as bases for conversation, social interactions, and friendships.

Chapter 11 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Which of the following statements about orthopedic impairments is true?

A) They are usually acquired.

B) They involve the skeletal system.

C) They involve the digestive system.

D) They include disorders of metabolism.

2) All of the following are disability categories that students with ADHD may be served under EXCEPT .

A) autism B) emotional disabilities C) learning disabilities D) other health impairments 3) What percentage of the U.S. population experiences limitations in activities of daily living due to chronic health conditions?

A) 1.8% B) 7% C) 13% D) 20% 4) The most prevalent physical disability in school-age children is

.

A) cerebral palsy B) club foot C) muscular dystrophy D) spina bifida 5) Aaron has cerebral palsy. He is able to use his arms and hands quite well, but he has braces on both legs that support him when he walks. His condition would be described as .

A) double hemiplegia B) diplegia C) hemiplegia D) paraplegia 6) Which of the following statements about clean intermittent catheterization is most accurate?

A) This procedure must be performed at least once a day.

B) This procedure must be performed in an absolutely sterile environment.

C) This procedure is necessary for most children with spina bifida.

D) This procedure must be performed by trained medical personnel.

7) Which of the following statements about muscular dystrophy is true?

A) Muscle weakness is usually evident at birth.

B) Some forms result from genetic mutations.

C) Current treatments can reverse the effects of this condition.

D) Muscles in the hands and fingers are the first to be affected.

8) Mrs. Little is concerned about Derrick, a student with spina bifida in her fifth-grade class. He wears a shunt to prevent hydrocephalus. He used to be friendly and outgoing, but lately he has been withdrawn and irritable. He also seems drowsy in class and has been complaining of headaches. Derrick’s behaviors may indicate that .

A) he needs to be repositioned more frequently B) his spinal cord is becoming more damaged C) he needs to spend more time exercising outdoors D) his shunt may have become blocked or disconnected 9) According to the National Spinal Cord Injury Statistics Center, most spinal cord injuries are the result of .

A) acts of violence B) falls C) motor-vehicle accidents D) sports injuries 10) Gina is a student with epilepsy. Her teacher took her to the nurse because she was wandering around the playground shouting at students. Her eyes were open, but she did not seem to know what she was doing. Gina was not able to tell the nurse anything about the incident. Which type of seizure did her teacher probably witness?

A) An absence seizure

B) A complex partial seizure C) A grand mal seizure D) A simple partial seizure 11) Which best describes an aura?

A) Visual hallucination experienced by someone with a head injury B) Phantom sensations in the limbs of a person with a spinal cord injury C) Warning sensation experienced by someone shortly before a seizure D) Feelings of pain or tingling experienced by someone with a degenerative nerve disorder 12) Which licensed health professional is involved in the development and maintenance of the motor skills, movement, and posture of students with physical disabilities?

A) Occupational therapist B) Personal trainer C) Physical education instructor D) Physical therapist 13) Which is the common clause that appears in each IDEA definition?

A) Chronic condition B) Adversely affects educational performance C) Deficits in communication and social functioning D) Cannot be attributed to other disabling conditions 14) Grant is a high school student with diabetes. During chemistry class, he becomes irritable for no apparent reason. He appears to be drowsy and complains of being nauseated. What should the teacher do to help Grant?

A) Administer a dose of insulin B) Send Grant to the gym to exercise C) Give Grant a candy bar or a sugar cube to eat D) Contact a doctor or nurse for immediate medical help 15) Which of the following accounts for more hospitalizations than any other childhood disease and is the leading cause of school absenteeism?

A) Asthma B) Cancer C) Epilepsy D) HIV and AIDS 16) Why must children with cystic fibrosis undergo physiotherapy?

A) To strengthen their lungs B) To aid in the digestion of food C) To improve metabolism D) To dislodge mucus and drain loosened secretions 17) Which of the following is NOT described in the textbook as associated with seizures in otherwise healthy people?

A) High fevers B) Excessive exercise C) Excessive alcohol consumption D) Blows to the head 18) What is the most likely cause for the increase in type 2 diabetes in children?

A) An increase in children living in poverty B) An increase in the availability of fast food C) An increase in the number of obese children D) A decrease in the number families with medical insurance 19) Amelia is 8 years old. She has a very short attention span. Her teacher reports that she frequently stares out the window and that she loses her place when reading.

She often asks for directions to be repeated and appears startled when called on in class. Which subtype of ADHD is Amelia most likely to have?

A) ADHD combined type B) ADHD early-onset type C) ADHD hyperactive impulsive type D) ADHD primarily inattentive type 20) Which subtype of ADHD are students diagnosed with the most?

A) ADHD combined type B) ADHD early-onset type C) ADHD primarily inattentive type D) ADHD primarily hyperactive impulsive type 21) All of the following are genetic disorders associated with ADHD EXCEPT A) fragile X syndrome B) cleft palate C) Turner syndrome D) Williams syndrome

.

22) Children with ADHD who do NOT qualify for special education services under IDEA may be served under .

A) the Americans with Disabilities Act B) the No Child Left Behind Act C) the Mental Health and Hygiene Act D) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act 23) According to the American Psychiatric Association, the onset of symptoms of ADHD should occur .

A) by the age of 12 B) during the prenatal period C) after the age of 16 D) at birth 24) Research on self-monitoring and students with ADHD indicates that they

.

A) are rarely honest about their behavior B) are too distracted to monitor their own behavior C) should be taught to monitor their off-task and disruptive behaviors D) should be taught to monitor performance of health and social tasks 25) Which of the following is NOT included in the parallel curriculum for students with physical disabilities?

A) Self-advocacy B) Social skills training C) Increasing independence D) Use of assistive technology 26) All of the following are environmental accommodations EXCEPT

.

A) changing the way that a task is done B) changing what content is taught C) changing the way that instruction is delivered D) providing increased access to a task or activity 27) Which of the following would NOT be included as assistive technology for students with physical or other health impairments under I D E A? A) Grabbers B) A wheelchair C) A cochlear implant D) A flexible drinking straw

28) Which of the following statements about health care skills and students with physical disabilities is correct?

A) Most students are too lazy to manage their own health care needs.

B) Most students will not be able to manage their own health care needs.

C) Students gain confidence and skills by managing their own health care needs.

D) Teaching students to manage their own health care needs is a quick and simple process.

29) Lorenzo is a third grader who needs braces to walk. His aide, Mrs. Clary, notices a red spot on the back of his left leg and adjusts the brace to relieve pressure. How will she know if her adjustment was successful and she does not need to contact the school nurse?

A) The red spot should fade within 20 minutes.

B) The red spot should feel cool when touched.

C) She should ask Lorenzo if his leg feels better.

D) She should observe Lorenzo to see if he is limping.

30) Roslynn is a student who uses a motorized wheelchair for mobility. Other students in her kindergarten class are hesitant to interact with her. The teacher feels that it is because they have never seen a wheelchair. What can she do to help the children become more comfortable?

A) Insist that one or two students play with Roslynn B) Ask Roslynn to do a show-and-tell about her wheelchair C) Allow students to take turns sitting in and operating the wheelchair D) Make sure that Roslynn spends as little time as possible in her wheelchair ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) What were the findings of Irving Independent School District versus Tatro (1984) and Cedar Rapids Community School District versus Garret F. (1999)? In both cases, what were the implications for schools?

2) Explain the pros and cons of drug therapy for treatment of ADHD. 3) What can you do to teach a child with physical disabilities or health impairments to be independent?

4) Imagine you’re a fourth-grade teacher with a new student with a physical disability or health impairment. What might you do to encourage your class to accept the new student?

5) Describe what animals, described in the textbook, have been used as service animals and indicate the tasks they can perform for owners who are disabled.

Chapter 11 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 11 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) B

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 11 Test (Essay) 1) What were the findings of Irving Independent School District versus Tatro (1984) and Cedar Rapids Community School District versus Garret F. (1999)? In both cases, what are the implications for schools?

Answers will vary but should include the following points: Irving—district obligated to provide catheterization to a young child with spina bifida; Cedar Rapids—cost of nursing care during school must be provided by school. Implication is catheterization and nursing care are related services if a student cannot participate in education otherwise (and so must be provided by the district).

2) Explain the pros and cons of medication for treatment of ADHD. Answers will vary but should contain some of the following points that are outlined on pages 322–323 of the textbook: •

Pros: Review of controlled studies show symptom reduction in 65–75% of schoolage students in the short term; positive responses include a reduction in hyperactivity, increased attention and time on task, increased academic productivity, and improved conduct; teachers/parents can take advantage of symptom reduction to teach behavioral interventions; based on meta-analysis, some researchers suggest it is unwise and could be considered malpractice not to include drug therapy as part of a comprehensive treatment program for children with ADHD

•

Cons: Side effects are significant; parents/teachers might be content with symptom reduction and not teach appropriate behaviors; no clear evidence indicates stimulant medication leads to improved academic achievement (e.g., better grades and scores on achievement tests); there is concern that parents and educators rely too much on medical interventions

3) What can you do to teach a child with physical disabilities or health impairments to be independent?

Answers will vary but may include: •

Teaching a child how and when to ask for assistance

•

Teaching a child how to respond to questions about disability and hardware

•

Teaching a child any self-help skills that will reduce reliance on others

•

Teaching a child to set reasonable standards of performance and expect student to meet them

•

Help children cope with disabilities wherever possible and realize that children have many qualities that make them unique

4) Imagine you’re a fourth-grade teacher with a new student with a physical disability or health impairment. What might you do to encourage your class to accept the new student?

Answers will vary but may include one or more of the following:

•

Role-play activity in which students take turns trying to achieve a task with

•

an imagined disability

•

Allow the child with a disability to let others try out examples of the specific assistive technology device used by the child

•

Provide factual information to build understanding

•

Teach peers to use accurate terminology and offer the correct kind of assistance when needed

•

Allow children to ask questions

•

Model appropriate treatment of the child with the disability

5) Describe what animals, described in the textbook, have been used as service animals and indicate the tasks they can perform for owners who are disabled.

Monkeys serve as personal care attendants; turn on/off lights, prepare food, operate tape and record players, turn book pages. Dogs alert people to sounds, carry books/objects in saddlebags, pick up telephone receivers, open doors, propel a person in a wheelchair, help a person stand up, provide support/balance, contact family members or neighbors in an emergency.

Chapter 12 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Whom of the following would qualify as a student with a severe disability?

A) Karin, a student who is deaf and blind B) Liam, a student with an IQ of 35 C) Melanie, a student with severe emotional disturbance D) Nathan, a student with traumatic brain injury 2) Which of the following statements about students with profound disabilities is accurate?

A) Most of them are ambulatory.

B) They need minimal support with daily living skills.

C) They function no higher than a typically developing 2-year-old in many areas.

D) Sophisticated IQ tests are needed to plan educational programs for this population.

3) Charlie is a student with muscular dystrophy and an intellectual disability. He would be classified as a child with multiple disabilities .

A) automatically B) if both disabilities were diagnosed in infancy C) if more than two areas of functioning were affected

D) if his educational needs could not be met in a program for one of the disabilities 4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a student with dual sensory impairments?

A) displaying characteristics of emotional disturbance B) Failing to initiate interactions C) Engaging in self-stimulatory behaviors D) Appearing to be passive or noncompliant 5) What percentage of students with dual sensory impairments do NOT have other disabilities?

A) About 10% B) About 20% C) About 25% D) About 30% 6) Which of the following has NOT been identified as a cause of severe disabilities?

A) Refractive errors B) Infectious diseases C) Premature birth D) Rh incompatibility 7) Which statement about the causes of many cases of severe disabilities is true?

A) The cause of most severe disabilities is delayed speech.

B) Severe disabilities are rarely acquired later in life.

C) The cause of a severe disability in almost every case is a brain disorder.

D) Most severe disabilities are caused by a lack of adequate prenatal care.

8) Which of the following students would most likely be classified as a student with traumatic brain injury?

A) Kelsey, who has hydrocephalus B) Anna, who has a closed head injury C) Isaac, who was born with cerebral palsy D) Jerome, who has Charge syndrome 9) All of the following are reasons for the gap in the number of students with traumatic brain injury and the number of students receiving services in this category EXCEPT .

A) public awareness is low about the disability B) many students with brain injury recover

C) many students are receiving services in other categories of disability D) brain injury does not always have an adverse effect on educational performance 10) Recent statistics on traumatic brain injury indicate that

.

A) they are decreasing B) most occur in adults C) incidence is lower in rural areas D) it is the leading cause of death in children 11) Which of the following is NOT an example of a social or behavioral impairment caused by a brain injury?

A) Mood swings B) Self-centeredness C) Lack of motivation D) Difficulty maintaining attention 12) Which of the following would be the least functional activity for a 16-year-old with severe or multiple disabilities?

A) Sorting M&M’s by color B) Fastening a pair of shoes C) Operating a vending machine D) Reading words such as stop, walk, men, and women 13) Which of the following would be the most age-appropriate recreation and leisure activity for a teenage girl with severe or multiple disabilities?

A) Watching Dora on T V B) Going to a school football game C) Listening to Baby Einstein music alone in her bedroom D) Playing a game of Clap Your Hands 14) Teaching recreation and leisure skills to students with severe or multiple disabilities is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT .

A) accessing the general curriculum B) helping students interact socially C) maintaining their physical health and motor skills D) becoming more involved in community activities 15) Determining what should be taught to students with severe or multiple disabilities focuses on .

A) standardized scores

B) developmental levels C) alignment with curriculum standards D) functionality and age-appropriateness 16) Mr. Santos is trying to teach Carl, a student with a severe disability, how to get lunch from the cafeteria independently. To see the learning that is occurring, he should measure progress .

A) each time a skill is taught B) twice a week C) at least once a week D) prior to beginning instruction and after it has ended 17) Mrs. Keller wants Tony to participate in making a snack with other children in a kindergarten class. He is able to pour things, but his movements are jerky. She does not want Tony to spill the cereal and waste it. She has him point to the cereal to indicate that it needs to go in the bowl next. Which misuse of partial participation does this exemplify?

A) Missed participation B) Myopic participation C) Passive participation D) Piecemeal participation 18) Which of the following is an example of embedding core content into a functional skills activity for a student with a severe or multiple disability?

A) Teaching a high school student to use a graphing calculator B) Teaching an elementary student to use pictures and a graphic organizer to make comparisons C) Teaching an elementary student the scientific method D) Teaching a middle school student to read vocabulary words necessary to understand Huckleberry Finn 19) A term used to describe multiple disabilities, deaf-blindness, and traumatic brain injury is _____ disabilities.

A) autosomal B) comorbid C) high-impact D) low-incidence 20) Contemporary curriculum for students with severe or multiple disabilities A) focuses only on current needs B) focuses on functional skills needed in immediate and future environments

.

C) is based on general education curricula but done at a slower pace with adaptations D) is based on developmental age and emphasizes skills that are prerequisites for approaching milestones 21) Which of the following is NOT an element of positive behavioral support?

A) Teaching a student a desirable alternative behavior B) Understanding the function of the behavior for a student C) Using natural aversive consequences when the inappropriate behavior occurs D) Arranging the environment so that the inappropriate behavior is less likely to occur 22) Which of the following reasons for educating students with severe disabilities in neighborhood schools has the most empirical support?

A) Parents and families have greater access to school activities.

B) Inclusion has beneficial effects on social skills and relationships.

C) Integrated schools are more meaningful instructional environments.

D) Students without disabilities learn to accept diversity and they function better as adults.

23) Serving as a peer buddy for a student with a severe or multiple disability has all of the following benefits for students without disabilities EXCEPT .

A) it helps develop empathy B) it helps develop responsibility C) it provides a source of paid income D) it fosters friendships 24) Shelby, a student with a severe disability, is based in a general education class.

Brown and colleagues suggest this means that she _____.

A) spends 100% of her time there B) spends at least 70% of her day there C) is included in homeroom and then goes elsewhere D) is regarded as a class member rather than a visitor 25) Which of the following is true regarding small-group instruction and students with severe or multiple disabilities?

A) Partial participation is the primary goal.

B) In some instances, it is the least cost-effective instructional arrangement.

C) Skills learned are less likely to generalize to other settings.

D) It provides opportunities for incidental learning from others.

26) Which of the following best illustrates building communication skills?

A) Jason plays quietly with the blocks. He is praised for attending to the task.

B) Kyle rarely demonstrates eye contact. His teacher does not notice when he does.

C) Madison is learning to do laundry. Her teacher creates a washing machine from a large box.

D) Kibe’s lunch tray is out of reach. He indicates ―eat‖ with his communication device, so his teacher moves the tray where he can reach it.

27) When developing an I EP for a student with severe or multiple disabilities, one of the greatest responsibilities of a special educator as an IEP team member is .

A) providing appropriate assistive technology B) providing appropriate positive behavior supports C) selecting and prioritizing instructional objectives D) ensuring that the student is included with nondisabled peers 28) Which of the following is true regarding shared meaning?

A) The less skilled partner will eventually develop speech.

B) Shared communication is dependent on the form or mode used.

C) The more skilled partner should take more responsibility for communication.

D) The more skilled partner should follow the lead of the less skilled partner to initiate communication.

29) Which of the following is NOT a component of an instructional program that is recommended by authors of leading texts on teaching students with severe disabilities?

A) Problem-, inquiry-, and project-based learning B) Generalization and maintenance learning C) Response prompts and repeated practice D) Task analysis and time delay 30) Why is choice-making important for students with severe disabilities?

A) It increases compliance during instruction.

B) It improves instructional control for educators.

C) It removes some of the burden from the community.

D) It improves the quality of life for students with severe disabilities.

ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Imagine you are a special educator with a student, Maya, who has severe/multiple disabilities. Your supervisor wants to recommend that Maya be sent to a special residential school because he (the supervisor) sees no significant change in her

academic levels of performance. Draft a response letter that supports your reasons for keeping Maya in her neighborhood school.

2) Explain the importance of choice-making for students with severe disabilities.

3) Explain the important components necessary to embed core content into functional skills lessons.

4) Imagine you are a teacher and the IAT (Intervention Assistance Team) has asked you to complete a before-and-after ―verbal picture‖ of one of your students who has come to school reporting he has been in a bicycle accident. The description should make it apparent that the child has suffered a traumatic brain injury that is adversely affecting his educational performance. Be sure to include descriptions from all three domains: physical and sensory, cognitive/academic, and social, emotional, and behavioral.

5) Defend the position that all children are educable.

Chapter 12 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 12 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) D

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 12 Test (Essay) 1) Imagine you are a special educator with a student, Maya, who has severe/multiple disabilities. Your supervisor wants to recommend that Maya be sent to a special residential school because he (the supervisor) sees no significant change in her academic levels of performance. Draft a response letter that supports your reasons for keeping Maya in her neighborhood school.

Answers will vary but should be in the form of a letter and include the following points:  

Even small changes are important for students with severe disabilities Academics should not necessarily be the primary focus, functional skills should be  Both Maya and her peers benefit from her presence in the regular classroom where Maya has the opportunity to observe typically developing peers and typically developing peers learn about interacting with individuals with disabilities  Parents and families have greater access to school activities when children are attending their home school  Benefits of inclusion on social skills and relationships have extensive empirical support 2) Explain the importance of choice-making for students with severe disabilities.

Answers will vary but may include one or more of the following points:    

Lack of choice making contributes to learned helplessness Choice-making is an indicator of quality of life Choice-making is a way to make learning and activities more meaningful Teachers can use their students’ preferences to design and deliver more effective instruction 3) Explain the important components necessary to embed core content into functional skills lessons.

Answers should elaborate on the following instructional components that are detailed on page 365 of the textbook:  determine core content and instructional objectives  plan with instructional context in mind  select evidence-based teaching methods  strategically embed opportunities for nontargeted skill acquisition  collect and graph data daily  assess generalization and maintenance 4) Imagine you are a teacher and the prereferral team has asked you to complete a before-and-after ―verbal picture‖ of one of your students who has come to school reporting he has been in a bicycle accident. The description should make it apparent that the child has suffered a traumatic brain injury that is adversely affecting his educational performance. Be sure to include descriptions from all three domains: physical and sensory, cognitive/academic, and social, emotional, and behavioral.

Answers will vary. A complete answer will contain at least characteristics from each of the three domains and reflect the information in Figure 12.3 of the textbook.

5) Defend the position that all children are educable.

Answers will vary but should include a point similar to the following: Every child can learn something, even if it is to lean his head against an activator switch to request help, food, or attention. A child may not ever learn algebra or write an essay or participate in a science fair, but he or she can certainly learn something to improve quality of life. Teaching students with severe disabilities is difficult and demanding.

Sometimes they give little or no apparent response. The teacher must be very sensitive to small changes in behavior. The teacher must be consistent and persistent in designing and implementing strategies to improve learning and behavior. Teachers must work each day at the job of designing, implementing, and evaluating systematic instruction and support. It can be a mistake to expect a miracle. All children are gifts and can be educated to the optimum of their unique capacity.

Chapter 13 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Which best describes early federal attempts to define giftedness?

A) The focus was exclusively on academic aptitude.

B) Multiple forms of giftedness were included in the definition.

C) Multiple talents and creativity were included in the definition.

D) The focus was exclusively on students who scored in the top 2% on standardized intelligence tests.

2) Which best characterizes the 1993 federal definition of gifted and talented presented in the ―National Excellence‖ report?

A) Its primary criterion is intellectual ability.

B) It added psychomotor talent as a criterion for eligibility.

C) It required demonstrated high performance capability.

D) It eliminated the term creative as it did not indicate developing ability.

3) All of the following are characteristics that may be exhibited by students who are gifted EXCEPT .

A) early moral and existential concerns B) perfectionism and the need for precision C) fascination with basic words and simple ideas D) resistance to multiple or opposing points of view

4) Renzulli’s (2003) definition of giftedness is based on the interaction among which three basic clusters of human traits?

A) High intellect, creativity, and task commitment B) Creativity, academic aptitude, and athletic aptitude C) High intellect, task commitment, and academic aptitude D) Situated problem-solving ability, academic aptitude, and leadership 5) What are the primary emphases of Piirto’s concept of talent development?

A) Creativity, cultural identity, motivation B) Genetics, personality, environmental influences C) Superior productivity, home/school collaboration, intelligence D) Superior memory, observational powers, curiosity, creativity, and rapid learning 6) Which is an example of intraindividual differences?

A) Belle has higher scores in math than Tony, but Tony has higher writing and reading scores.

B) Brenna and Deanna take the same analytical abilities test and have vastly different scores.

C) Mia has grade-level scores in math, but after receiving tutoring is scoring well above grade level.

D) Jamie has grade-level scores in reading and mathematics scores typical of children 4 years older.

7) Disparate rates of social, emotional, intellectual, and physical growth and development experienced by some children who are gifted is called .

A) acceleration B) asynchrony C) developmental lag D) precocity 8) Using intelligence test scores and including students regarded as highly talented as well as those with the potential for superior performance, the prevalence for giftedness is estimated as high as .

A) 1% B) 3–5% C) 25% D) 10–15%

9) An approach toward identification of children who are gifted and talented that is recommended by equity-minded educators in gifted education is best described as .

A) a nomination system B) group analysis C) a progressive filtering approach D) standardized test administration 10) Which is NOT descriptive of Maker’s (2005) DISCOVER assessment procedure?

A) It ―levels the playing field‖ for students from culturally diverse grounds.

B) It involves increasingly more complex problem-solving tasks.

C) It includes tasks that require both convergent and divergent thinking.

D) It has been found to be inequitable when used with girls.

11) Identification and placement of children who are gifted and talented from diverse racial, ethnic, and cultural groups _____.

A) is a persistent and pervasive problem in education B) is addressed in the federal legislation for the gifted C) is addressed in local and state mandates D) was an issue resolved in the last decade, as these groups are served in proportions similar to that of other population groups 12) Which is NOT a type of qualitative assessment tool used for identification of students who are gifted and talented?

A) I Q test B) Interview C) Observation D) Portfolio 13) What is primarily to blame for the underrepresentation of students from culturally diverse groups in programs for the gifted and talented?

A) Biases inherent in the identification process B) The increasing numbers of culturally diverse students in the school population C) Reduced numbers of minority students entering fields requiring math and science skills D) Students in culturally diverse groups lacking the qualities of students who are gifted and talented 14) Which of the following is a variable, identified by the authors of the textbook, as a concern for girls who are gifted and talented?

A) Lack of female geniuses as role models B) Lack of parental and community role models C) Poor academic choices and poor self-concept D) General encouragement for careers in math and science 15) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the problems that boys who are gifted and talented encounter?

A) Many boys intentionally underachieve B) Creative behavior in boys, and careers in the arts, is encouraged.

C) Many boys act in inappropriate ways to avoid bullying.

D) Many boys feign interest in sports, letting their desires go unfulfilled.

16) For students who are twice exceptional, which of the following is NOT recommended for supporting their social and emotional needs?

A) Encourage students to succeed.

B) Teach strategies for coping with frustrations.

C) Provide support in establishing and maintaining friendships.

D) Use conventional or nontraditional measurement tools as well as nonverbal measurement.

17) Twice exceptional means .

A) being gifted academically and also talented B) being gifted and talented and having a disability C) being in the top 1% on the bell curve of I Q and achievement test scores D) being gifted and talented but unidentified because of gender 18) Appropriate curricular approaches for educating students who are gifted and talented include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) acceleration B) progressive filtering C) differentiation D) enrichment 19) Maker characterizes a person who is gifted as A) highly talented

.

B) a problem solver C) extremely creative D) an individual with an I Q score two standard deviations above the mean

20) Which is the best example of enrichment?

A) Jewel is 14 years old but is allowed to enroll in college courses.

B) With a teacher’s guidance, Dale researches, designs, and builds a robot.

C) Tosha is given extra reading and math problems because she always finishes early.

D) Since Lynn already knows the algebra content covered in the first 8 weeks in class, she is allowed to begin with content usually introduced later.

21) Which step in curriculum compacting is usually the most difficult for teachers?

A) Assessing the target content areas B) Substituting more appropriate content C) Determining the content to be eliminated D) Determining which students qualify for compacting 22) Which best exemplifies acceleration?

A) Rose, a 6-year-old, is in a third-grade class because she has mastered first- and second-grade subject content.

B) Carter is given more difficult reading material than her classmates in fourth grade.

C) Coralee, who has mastered the third-grade science curriculum, teaches it to others in her class who have not.

D) Desmond studies subject areas not offered at his school, such as comparative religion and quantum physics.

23) Mrs. Stewart provides a basic lesson on figurative language. All students are expected to identify examples of similes and metaphors. Some students are expected to generate examples of similes and metaphors and others are expected to identify and generate more complex examples of figurative language. This approach to differentiation is known as .

A) advanced placement B) curriculum compacting C) response to intervention D) tiered lessons 24) Teachers most often ask questions at which level of Bloom’s taxonomy?

A) Remember and create B) Understand and create C) Remember and apply D) Remember and understand 25) Which of the following activities would be at the highest level of Bloom’s taxonomy?

A) Designing a new chair for Baby Bear that is unbreakable.

B) Acting out what happened when the bears found Goldilocks.

C) Discussing what happened to Goldilocks at the Bears’ house.

D) Evaluating Goldilocks’s decision to enter a house without permission.

26) Danielle is not identified as a student who is gifted or talented but has opportunities to participate in some challenging activities for which she shows serious interest.

Which model is being used?

A) Ability grouping B) Active problem solving C) Problem-based learning D) Schoolwide enrichment 27) Which best characterizes the position of the National Association for Gifted and Talented Children on ability grouping for students who are gifted?

A) It is undemocratic and racist.

B) It is necessary to achieve the least restrictive environment.

C) It damages the self-esteem of struggling students.

D) It creates an elitist group of students with inflated egos.

28) Which of the following is the most recent type of special school, in some states, for students who are gifted and talented?

A) High schools for gifted girls B) Magnet schools in urban areas C) Charter schools for the gifted and talented D) High schools for the visual and performing arts 29) Mrs. Sawyer is a general education teacher with a class of 26 students. Six of those students have been identified as gifted and talented. Mr. Lucas, a teacher who is certified in teaching students who are gifted and talented, spends one fourth of his time providing differentiated instruction to these students in the general education classroom. This arrangement is known as .

A) cluster ability grouping B) cluster performance grouping C) dual differentiation D) like-ability cooperative learning groups 30) All of the following are advantages to using the DISCOVER model to identify giftedness in culturally diverse children EXCEPT .

A) the process is equally effective for boys and girls

B) equitable percentages of children from all cultures are identified C) the children identified closely resemble the cultural characteristics of the dominant culture D) the children identified make gains that are the same as or greater than those children identified using traditional tests ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) List and describe each of the different types of grouping options for students who are gifted and talented.

2) Explain differentiation. Be sure to include its guiding premise, why it’s used, what a teacher’s role is in a differentiated curriculum, and some examples within the general education classroom.

3) Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of two placement alternatives for students who are gifted and talented.

4) List the six levels of Bloom’s taxonomy and give an example of a question or activity at each level.

5) List and explain four methods of differentiation within the general education classroom.

Chapter 13 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 13 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 13 Test (Essay) 1) List and describe each of the different types of grouping options for students who are gifted and talented.

Answers will vary but should include the following points: 

Full-time ability grouping options include placement in special schools for gifted and talented students (e.g., magnet schools, special charter schools)



Another full-time option is a separate class where all curriculum and instruction is focused on students who are gifted and talented and they work at a pace commensurate with their abilities.



In cluster ability grouping, five to eight students who are gifted and talented are placed in a general education class. They receive instruction from a teacher trained in gifted education.



Part-time ability grouping options include resource room or pull-out programs, cluster performance groups where students in the same class are grouped according to their achievement, and likeability cooperative learning groups where the highest-ability students are grouped together during cooperative learning activities.



Consulting Teacher Model where a teacher with special training provides direct and indirect support to the general education classroom teacher.

2) Explain differentiation. Be sure to include its guiding premise, why it’s used, what a teacher’s role is in a differentiated curriculum, and some examples within the general education classroom.

Answers will vary but should be an elaboration of the following points: 

Differentiation means to tailor curriculum and instruction to provide appropriately different learning experiences for different students



Guiding premise: learners, who are gifted, differ in meaningful ways



Why it’s used: to engage learners through different modalities, appeal to different interests, vary rate of instruction, and provide varying degrees of complexity within a challenging and conceptually rich curriculum



Teacher’s role: get student to compete against self, not others; modify content and activities according to student interest and readiness



Examples: using Bloom’s taxonomy and tiered lessons as frameworks for modifying questions and creating instructional activities; problem-based learning, project-based learning, and leadership training are additional ways to differentiate instruction in the classroom

3) Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of two placement alternatives for students who are gifted and talented.

Answers will vary. These are the placement alternatives and a short list of advantages (A) and disadvantages (D) of each. Consider logical answers not contained here. 

special schools o A—may emphasize a certain theme such as performing arts or science o D—could be viewed as elitist



separate classrooms o A—all curriculum and instruction can focus on needs of high-ability students, students more likely to work at a pace commensurate with their ability, inclass peers may challenge them to excel further, teacher doesn’t have to move from class to class or school to school to provide services o D—may be viewed as elitist; some schools/districts may be too small to support a separate class



resource room or pull-out programs o A—has many of the advantages of self-contained classrooms o D—may create a situation where teachers and administrators do not recognize that these students do not stop being gifted when they leave the resource room



regular classroom/consultant-collaboration teacher model o A—G T teacher is not isolated and alone, knows what students are doing in home classrooms, collaborates with regular classroom teachers; all students can benefit from tiered instruction o D—many schools don’t have specialist to provide education for G T; strong belief by some that homogeneous grouping is best for G T students

4) List the six levels of Bloom’s taxonomy and give an example of a question or activity at each level.

Examples for the six levels will vary but a sample is provided. 

knowledge – remember: What is the plot of 1984?



comprehension – understand: What did Orwell want to warn about?



application – apply: Which warnings have come true in our day?



analysis – analyze: What similarities exist between our contemporary culture and the culture in 1984?



evaluation – evaluate: Read selected excerpts from Aldous Huxley’s Brave New World and discuss which you think was more pessimistic in nature and why.



synthesis – create: Develop an outline for a book that you would write that warns future cultures.

5) List and explain four methods of differentiation within the general education classroom.

Answers may vary but should include a description of any four of the following methods: Bloom’s taxonomy, tiered lessons, inquiry-based learning, problem-based learning, project-based learning, or teaching leadership skills. Bloom’s taxonomy is a method for phrasing questions and assigning products. Tiered lessons provide different extensions of the same basic lesson for groups of students of differing ability. Inquiry-based learning is an evidence-based practice for teaching science that engages students in asking research questions, planning investigations, collecting and analyzing data, deriving explanations, and communicating their findings. Problem-based learning requires students to work together in small groups to seek solutions to real-world problems. In project-based learning, students work together for an extended period of time to investigate an authentic question and produce a product or presentation designed to answer that question. Specific strategies are used to build and support leadership skills.

Chapter 14 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) Which is NOT an example of an ―established risk condition‖?

A) Down syndrome B) fetal alcohol syndrome C) fragile X syndrome D) premature birth 2) Developmental domains include areas such as

.

A) home, center, school, community B) health, welfare, well-being, education C) physical, cognitive, communication, social D) nutrition, medical, parent involvement, school intervention 3) Which statement best exemplifies current research on the importance of early intervention?

A) ―The earlier the intervention, the better.‖ B) ―Only children of parents who are deaf need intensive early intervention to grow and develop.‖ C) ―Early intervention is unnecessary. Most children outgrow problems.‖ D) ―Early intervention is effective as long as services start in the first grade.‖ 4) Which is true of early intervention for infants and toddlers?

A) It must be focused on the child alone as the client.

B) Early intervention services are not provided in all states.

C) Services are mandatory under I DEA for children with disabilities younger than 3 years.

D) Only children who currently exhibit delays may receive services.

5) As most commonly used in the early childhood and special education literature, the term early intervention refers to services provided to children .

A) birth to age 5 years B) birth to age 2 years C) birth to age 9 years D) age 3 to 5 years 6) Of all the people needed to make early intervention work, who is the most important?

A) Early intervention specialist B) Parents/family C) Service coordinator D) Speech therapist 7) Which of the following is one of the longest running and most carefully controlled and respected study on early intervention?

A) The Skeels and Dye Project B) The Infant Health and Development Program C) The Milwaukee Project D) The Abecedarian Project 8) The Infant Health and Development Program focused on infants

.

A) at risk for language delays B) at risk of inadequate nutrition C) who were premature or of low birth weight D) who had conditions that caused developmental delays 9) All of the following exemplify transition as the term is used in early childhood special education EXCEPT .

A) Alvin goes to lunch after center time B) Bianca moves from home-based services to center-based services C) Clyde received services at a preschool for children with disabilities, but he is now included in a regular preschool D) Davita received special education services in a Head Start program and at age 5 she receives services in kindergarten 10) The Apgar score is basically used as a/an .

A) measure of physical development B) evaluation for developmental delays C) screening test to identify high-risk infants

D) screening test for metabolic disorders 11) What did the landmark Skeels and Dye (1939) study conclude?

A) Intelligence is not fixed.

B) Parental involvement in intervention is crucial.

C) Early intervention is not helpful for children with disabilities.

D) Certain inherited traits place children at risk for developing later disabilities.

12) Which describes the term developmentally appropriate practice?

A) A curriculum-based assessment technique for deciding on intervention strategies.

B) A procedural safeguard in I DEA that applies to assessment and identification in early childhood special education.

C) A philosophy and practice guidelines for basing teaching on what is typically expected of and experienced by children of different ages and stages.

D) A philosophy and guidelines promoting the concepts of inclusion and natural learning environments (e.g., home) in early childhood.

13) Which of the following is a disadvantage of center-based programs?

A) Inclusion of typical peers B) Transportation expenses incurred C) Availability of a team of professionals D) Provision of intensive instruction 14) The Milwaukee Project targeted children at risk for developmental delays because of .

A) prematurity or low birth weight B) their mothers’ level of intelligence C) prenatal exposure to drugs or alcohol D) their mothers’ history of child abuse or neglect 15) An IFSP must be reviewed with the family of a child receiving early intervention services .

A) once a month B) every 3 months C) every 6 months D) once a year 16) Which best characterizes the primary difference between an IFSP and an IEP? A) An IFSP is less restrictive.

B) An IFSP is more family centered.

C) An IFSP focuses on short-term goals.

D) An IFSP requires increased accountability.

17) Which is NOT a suggested way to create a supportive physical environment for young children with disabilities?

A) Provide an open area for large-group activities.

B) Locate quiet areas together away from the flow of traffic.

C) Arrange equipment so students can move between areas easily.

D) Designate an adult to locate and retrieve materials to maintain order.

18) Which term best applies to looking and planning for ways to include brief, systematic instructional interactions, focusing on IEP objectives, in the context of typical classroom activities?

A) Direct teaching B) Discovery learning C) Embedded learning D) Optimal learning 19) Preschool activity schedules should include all but which of the following?

A) Outdoor and indoor activities B) Small- and large-group instruction C) A majority of child-initiated activities D) Opportunities to develop and practice new skills 20) Mrs. Clyburn is teaching Otis to ask and answer questions during conversations.

She knows that this skill will increase his ability to interact with people in his daily environment. Which quality indicator is the focus of this objective?

A) Functionality B) Generality C) Measurability D) Instructional context 21) Four-year-old Darrell is participating in comprehensive assessments in adaptive, cognitive, language, motor, and social development to determine whether or not he needs early intervention services or special education. What is the most likely purpose of these assessments?

A) Determining eligibility for service B) Progress monitoring C) Individualized planning D) Screening 22) Which of the following is an example of an embedded learning activity?

A) Four-year-old Darius eats lunch with peers who are not disabled.

B) Three-year-old Shelby listens to the A BC song and sings it during circle time.

C) Five-year-old Madison learns to tie her shoes and then teaches a classmate the skill.

D) Melvin works on throwing and catching in occupational therapy so his teacher includes a bean bag game in centers.

23) Tamara is 3 days old and weighs almost 2 pounds. Her parents just learned that she has Down syndrome. What is the most likely setting for her early intervention services?

A) Center based B) Combined home–center based C) Home based D) Hospital based 24) Home-based early intervention services may be least effective for

.

A) teenage mothers B) mothers with college degrees C) mothers who live in rural areas D) mothers with more than two children 25) Which of the following is NOT a core principle of developmentally appropriate practice?

A) Learning must involve all of the senses.

B) Knowledge must inform decision making.

C) Goals must be challenging and attainable.

D) Teaching must be intentional to be effective.

26) Which best describes the treatment and control groups of the Abecedarian Project?

A) Children receiving early intervention services in school-based settings versus those receiving them at home B) Parents receiving consultation from a parent trainer versus those provided readings on child development C) Children receiving medical, nutritional, and social services versus those who received the same plus early intervention D) Teachers with special early childhood endorsements versus those without special certification from their state boards of education 27) Which of the following is NOT an element, listed by the authors of the textbook, that makes puppets delightful to most young children?

A) Their vivid colors B) Their interesting textures C) Their larger-than-life expressions D) Their technological component 28) Which of the following has been referred to as the most important legislation enacted for young children with developmental delays?

A) P.L. 94-142 B) No Child Left Behind C) P.L. 99-457 D) Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

29) How are IDEA regulations for services to young children similar to those for schoolage children?

A) The regulations specify who must receive services.

B) Outside agencies may have contracted to provide services to both groups.

C) Children in both groups must be labeled with a specific disability to receive services.

D) The regulations specify that IEPs for children in both groups must include suggestions for parents.

30) Current best practices guidelines for early childhood services calls for which approach to the delivery of related services?

A) Multidisciplinary B) Transdisciplinary C) Interdisciplinary D) Intradisciplinary

ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Define and give two examples for each of the following risk conditions: environmental, established, and biological. Which do you feel has the most damaging impact on a child’s development? Explain your response.

2. Describe eight elements of an individualized family services plan and contrast it with an IEP. 3. Describe and give an example of the five major developmental areas or domains.

4. List and explain five of the program outcomes or goals for early childhood special education.

5. List and explain the four early intervention service options. For each option, provide an advantage and a disadvantage.

Chapter 14 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 14 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) B

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 14 Test (Essay) 1) Define and give two examples for each of the following risk conditions: environmental, established, and biological. Which do you feel have the most damaging impact on a child’s development? Explain your response.

Definitions should reflect the information found on page 416 of the textbook for developmental delays, established risk conditions, biological risk conditions, and environmental risk conditions. Examples will vary but should include two of the examples found for each risk condition. Answers should indicate which risk condition the examinee believes has the most damaging impact and should include an explanation as to the reason for the choice.

2) Describe eight elements of an individualized family services plan and contrast it with an IEP. Answers will vary depending on what elements students choose to describe. Answer should contrast an IFSP with an IEP according to the information on pages 416–417 of the textbook. IFSP contains statements of: 

present levels of performance in different domains



family resources and concerns



expected major outcomes



specific early intervention services



natural environments in which services will occur



project dates for initiation and duration of services



identification of a service coordinator



steps for transition support to preschool or other service



IEP contains statements of:



present levels of performance



what special education and related services will be provided



the extent to which a child will not participate with nondisabled peers



the individual accommodations necessary



projected date for initiation and duration of services



Starting no later than age 16, transition statements and plan

3) Describe and give an example of the five major developmental areas or domains.

Examples from each domain will vary but the five domains are: 

motor development



cognitive development



communication and language development



social and emotional development



adaptive development

4) List and explain five of the early childhood special education program outcomes or goals.

Answer should include any five of the following outcomes or goal statements, described on pages 423–423 of the textbook, as well as an explanation: support families in achieving their own goals; promote maximum child independence and mastery; promote development in all important domains; build and support social competence; facilitate the generalization of learned skills; prepare and assist children for typical life experiences with their families, in school, and in their communities; help children and their families make smooth transitions; prevent or minimize the development of future problems or disabilities.

5) List and explain the four early intervention service options. For each option, provide an advantage and a disadvantage.

Answer should identify hospital-based programs, home-based programs, centerbased programs, and combined home-center programs. Answers should include one advantage and one disadvantage for each option. Explanations and some of the advantages and disadvantages, described on pages 432–434 of the textbook, include the following: hospital-based programs include a variety of professionals who help parents and their families with emotional and financial concerns and an infant education specialist who promotes interaction between parents and infants. A disadvantage is there is less direct parent involvement until the child is released from the hospital. Home-based programs are built around family involvement and support. An advantage is the home is the child’s natural environment. Because home-based programs place so much responsibility on parents, they are not effective with all families. Center-based programs provide early intervention in a special educational setting outside the home. An advantage is the intensive instruction and related services that can be provided. Disadvantages include the expense of transportation, the cost and maintenance of the center, and the possibility of less direct parent involvement than in home-based programs.

Combined home-center programs combine center-based activities and home visits.

This option offers many of the advantages and negates some of the disadvantages of both options.

Chapter 15 Test Items MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1) What percentage of youth with disabilities who are of working age are employed within 4 years of leaving high school?

A) 13% B) 57% C) 27%

D) 47% 2) According to the National Longitudinal Transition Study 2 (N LTS2), which adults with disabilities were least likely to participate in social activities outside of work?

A) Adults with attention-deficit disorder B) Adults with emotional and behavioral disabilities C) Adults with hearing impairments D) Adults with intellectual disabilities 3) According to Halpern, what should the primary focus of transition services be?

A) Graduation B) Adult employment C) Access to adult services D) Living successfully in the community 4) Which of the following is an example of an informal transition assessment?

A) An adaptive behavior inventory B) A curriculum-based assessment C) An independent living assessment D) An academic skills assessment 5) Individualized transition plans (ITPs) specify postsecondary goals in the areas of .

A) accessibility, community involvement, and family B) functional behavior, academic performance, and socialization C) employment, postsecondary education or training, and independent living skills D) adaptive behavior, child rearing, and interpersonal skills 6) A summary of performance (S OP) is required for

.

A) all high school students in special education B) all students over the age of 16 in special education C) all students who exit special education by dropping out of school D) all students who exit special education by graduating or exceeding age requirements 7) Which of the following statements regarding interagency collaboration and transition is true?

A) Interagency collaboration is critical to the success of transition.

B) Interagency collaboration during transition is mandated under the No Child Left Behind Act.

C) Interagency collaboration during transition has been difficult in most states.

D) Interagency collaboration is required before transition goals and activities can be implemented.

8) Which of the following represents the most appropriate way to develop career awareness and vocational skills for students during the early elementary years?

A) Feeding the class pet B) Developing a school-based business C) Learning to count money and give change D) Shadowing a cafeteria worker to learn about the job 9) Maria is a high school student with a disability. She is very interested in hair and makeup and has expressed a desire to work in a beauty salon after she graduates.

Which of the following would be the least appropriate transition service for her?

A) Passing a beautician licensing exam B) Attending art classes to learn to mix colors C) Work-based experience with a local beautician D) Attending classes in beauty culture at a vocational school 10) Which of the following meets the definition of competitive employment?

A) Ariel fills stockings in a sheltered workshop. She earns $.50 for each one she fills.

B) Brad stocks shelves at a local grocery store without assistance. He earns $3 an hour.

C) Sarah wipes and clears tables at a local restaurant without supervision. She earns minimum wage.

D) Tanya provides day care during a library program and no longer needs supervision but works to gain experience rather than money.

11) Mr. Tozzi teaches job skills to high school students with disabilities. However, his students are able to go to work in a community restaurant only one day a week. Mr. Tozzi does not want his students to forget what they learned. How can he maximize the effectiveness of their on-the-job training?

A) He can discuss their work experiences in class.

B) He can simulate work experiences in the classroom.

C) He can take the students on a field trip to Pizza Hut. D) He can invite a restaurant manager to speak to the students.

12) All of the following are models of supported employment EXCEPT A) clustered placement B) mobile work crews C) small business enterprises

.

D) sheltered work environments 13) Which of the following statements about enclaves is true?

A) Enclaves are organized as not-for-profit corporations.

B) Enclave workers do not need job supports.

C) Enclave workers receive wages based on their level of productivity.

D) Enclave workers work in a sheltered employment environment.

14) Which of the following is NOT a drawback to providing a job coach for people with disabilities?

A) They can disrupt the natural work setting.

B) They gradually reduce the level of direct onsite training and support.

C) The supported employee may behave differently with the job coach.

D) The supported employee may interact mainly with the job coach rather than other employees.

15) Which of the following best describes a natural cue in a work environment?

A) Gina wears a uniform to her job at McDonald’s.

B) Jason looks at a poster to make sure he set a table correctly.

C) Madeline hears a beeping sound and removes sandwich buns from the oven.

D) Nicholas cleans the bird cages after the store manager requests that he do so.

16) The most common type of vocational activity for people with severe disabilities is employment.

A) competitive B) home C) sheltered D) supported 17) Which of the following statements about sheltered employment is true?

A) Many people in sheltered workshops eventually obtain jobs in the community.

B) People from sheltered workshops who obtain community employment retain their jobs over time.

C) Most special educators consider placement in sheltered workshops as an appropriate transition outcome for students with disabilities.

D) The theoretical purpose of sheltered workshops is to provide employment training for people with disabilities.

18) Work activity centers provide all of the following EXCEPT A) training in recreation

.

B) training in independent living skills C) training in social skills and self-help skills D) training in task persistence and concentration 19) In 2005, what percentage of students who received special services in high school enrolled in college?

A) 19% B) 26% C) 37% D) 46% 20) An approach that helps people with disabilities live in the community as independently as possible is known as .

A) assisted living B) embedded living C) supported living D) transitional living 21) Shelly and Sabrina are adults with disabilities. They live together in an apartment and are able to take care of themselves. They also perform routine household tasks.

Once or twice a week Mrs. Nelson stops by to check on them and help as needed.

Once, a neighbor was disturbing them by playing loud music, and Mrs. Nelson helped them contact the landlord. This type of living arrangement is known as a/an .

A) apartment cluster B) co-residence apartment C) group home D) maximum-independence apartment 22) Group homes are the most common living arrangement for

.

A) adults with intellectual disabilities B) adults with severe physical disabilities C) adults with emotional and behavioral disabilities D) adolescents with emotional and behavioral disabilities 23) Seth works for a large landscaping service along with coworkers who also have disabilities. They have support on the job from a supported employment specialist.

This is known as .

A) competitive employment B) customized employment

C) a mobile work crew D) a small business enterprise 24) All of the following are strategies that help students with disabilities succeed in postsecondary environments EXCEPT .

A) providing an IEP for college B) training students to use learning strategies to solve new content C) providing exposure to increasingly rigorous content at the secondary level D) training students to use assistive technology to access and manipulate content 25) Which of the following most accurately reflects beliefs about residential treatment facilities for people with disabilities?

A) Residential treatment facilities for people with disabilities should be outlawed.

B) Residential treatment facilities are the best service option for people with disabilities.

C) Residential treatment facilities do not provide a normal lifestyle for people with disabilities.

D) Residential treatment facilities do not provide the kind of 24-hour support needed by people with disabilities.

26) According to the NLTS2, what percentage of age-eligible young adults with disabilities have registered to vote?

A) 25% B) 67% C) 54% D) 76% 27) Which of the following words has a meaning most like ableism?

A) Idealism B) Individualism C) Racism D) Realism 28) Self-advocacy in adults with intellectual disabilities

.

A) is impossible B) is hindered by a lack of motivation C) has been enhanced by Internet resources and tools D) has increased sharply in the last decade 29) Which statement best represents the quality of life for people with disabilities?

A) For most people, it is better now than it was in the past.

B) For most people, it is worse now than it was in the past.

C) Most of the problems are due to physical barriers such as inaccessible buildings.

D) People with disabilities have more rights and privileges than those without disabilities.

30) Benefits of active recreation for adults with disabilities include all of the following EXCEPT .

A) increasing satisfaction with life B) increasing ability to maintain a job C) improvements in academic ability D) improvements in overall health and vitality ESSAY QUESTIONS 1) Describe and give examples of three characteristics of good secondary programs for individuals with disabilities.

2) If you were part of a student’s IEP/ITP team and could ask only three questions before planning transition services, what would those questions be? Explain the rationale for each of your question selections.

3) Why are transition services necessary?

4) Describe an example of competitive employment.

5) Define and give an example of self-advocacy.

Chapter 15 Test Answer Key ANSWER KEY: Chapter 15 Test (Multiple Choice) 1) B 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) C

ANSWER KEY: Chapter 15 Test (Essay) 1) Describe and give examples of three characteristics of good secondary programs for individuals with disabilities.

Answers will vary but should include mention that a good secondary program manifests an understanding that the student’s life continues after high school and so school professionals should focus on transition for both academic and vocational options, emphasize transition to independent living, and include leisure skill instruction in their programs. A functional secondary school curriculum includes real work experiences in integrated job sites, systematic coordination between schools and adult service providers, and parental involvement and support.

2) If you were part of a student’s IEP/ITP team and could ask only three questions before planning transition services, what would those questions be? Explain the rationale for each of your question selections.

Answers will vary but might include any of the questions listed below or found on page 504 of the textbook. An explanation as to why each question was selected should also be included. 

What does the student want to do?



What are the student’s interests?



What do the parents want for his or her postschool outcomes?

3) Why are transition services necessary?

Answers will vary but might include: 

Successful postschool outcomes don’t just happen.



A student who otherwise would not successfully contribute to and participate in his or her community might be quite successful with varying degrees of help and support.



An individual does not stop needing help just because he or she is not attending school anymore.



Students with disabilities experience skill deficits, limited opportunities created by low expectations or discrimination, and the absence of needed supports. These are obstacles to successful transition to adulthood faced by many youth with disabilities and are reasons why transition services are needed.

4) Describe an example of competitive employment.

Answers will vary widely but here is one example: The local grocery store years ago eliminated bagging as a service to customers because of the rising cost of doing business in such an industry. Now, many stores employ individuals with varying degrees of disability to bag groceries, gather carts, and assist customers with loading their groceries. It’s competitive because employees earn a living wage at the federal minimum-wage level (though not as much as their more specifically trained cashier colleagues) and provide a needed service in the community. Another evidence of its competitive nature is that you sometimes see employees without

disabilities filling in as baggers, indicating that it is a job that is not specifically created for an individual with disabilities.

5) Define and give an example of self-advocacy.

Answers will vary but may include the following: Persons with disabilities engage in self-advocacy when they assert their legal and human rights or challenge the view that people with disabilities are incapable of speaking for themselves. Examples of self-advocacy may vary but may include individuals with physical disabilities who lobbied for independent living, deaf students at Gallaudet University who refused to accept the appointment of a hearing president who did not know A SL, and 67% of students in the NLT S2 study had registered to vote compared to 58% of young people in the general population. 