Test Bank for Corporate Cybersecurity, 6th edition Randall J Boyle Raymond R. Panko

Test Bank for Corporate Cybersecurity, 6th edition Randall J Boyle Raymond R. Panko All Chapters Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 1 The Threat Environment 1) The process of protecting computer hardware, networks, data, and applications from attackers is called .

A) cybersecurity B) the threat environment C) a data breach D) a countermeasure Answer: A Page Ref: 16 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

2) If an attacker breaks into a corporate database and deletes critical files, this is an attack against the security goal.

A) confidentiality B) integrity C) availability D) CIA Answer: B Page Ref: 20 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Moderate

3) Which of the following is a type of countermeasure?

A) Ethical B) Invisible C) Detective D) Sustainable Answer: C Page Ref: 21 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Moderate 1 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The most common type of attack appears to be A) phishing B) compromised credentials C) cloud misconfiguration D) malicious insider

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Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

5) When a threat succeeds in causing harm to a business it is called a A) control B) countermeasure C) compromise D) corrective Answer: C Page Ref: 20 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Moderate

6) Three common core security goals are known collectively as FBI. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 19 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

7) Costs for all threats are increasing annually.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 19 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

8) Corrective countermeasures identify when a threat is attacking.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 21 2 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

9) Most countermeasure controls are preventative controls.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 21 Learning Objective: 1.1 Define the term threat environment Difficulty: Easy

10) A happens when an unauthorized person is able to view, alter, or steal secured data.

A) countermeasure B) data breach C) safeguard D) compromise Answer: B Page Ref: 22 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

11) In 2022, records were stolen.

A) about 10 million B) nearly 5 billion C) more than 20 billion D) almost 50 billion Answer: C Page Ref: 22 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate

12) IBM found that breach.

A) 17 B) 25 C) 61 D) 83

percent of organizations have had more than one data

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Answer: D Page Ref: 23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

13) Which of the following is a direct cost of a data breach?

A) Loss of reputation B) Abnormal customer turnover C) Legal fees D) Increased customer acquisition activities Answer: C Page Ref: 23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate

14) Which of the following is NOT a direct cost of a major data breach?

A) Loss of reputation B) Notification costs C) Legal fees D) Detection Answer: A Page Ref: 23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate Difficulty: Easy

15) More than 67 percent of data breaches come from hackers A) trying to make money B) engaging in industrial espionage C) getting personal revenge D) making a social statement Answer: A Page Ref: 24 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy 4 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

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16) Stolen information is commonly used for A) credit card fraud B) identity theft C) false claims D) data mismanagement

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Answer: A Page Ref: 24 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

17) Understanding how data breaches happen .

A) is the first step in protecting yourself from data breaches B) is impossible, since hackers are continually developing new tools C) will make you more susceptible to future attacks D) is a waste of time as attacks are inevitable these days Answer: A Page Ref: 25 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate

18) A targeted phishing attack aimed at a single individual is called A) spear phishing B) a a Trojan horse C) a virus D) spam

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Answer: A Page Ref: 26 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

19) The Target data breach helped impact a shift from swipe cards to A) EMV-compliant smart cards B) POS systems C) keystroke logger D) rootkits Answer: A Page Ref: 27 5 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

20) One of the long-lasting effects of the data breach to Target was A) loss of money B) loss of customer confidence C) loss of merchandise D) employee dissatisfaction

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Answer: B Page Ref: 27 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate

21) Data breaches are always the result of hackers in distant locations.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 25 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

22) Paying for notification and detection are indirect costs associated with a data breach.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Moderate

23) In 2022, the average global cost of a data breach was down 13 percent from 2020.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

24) Rogue internal employees typically have a more difficult time stealing data than do external hackers.

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Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 25 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

25) The Target data breach affected 30 percent of the population of the U.S. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Learning Objective: 1.2 Describe the impact of data breaches Difficulty: Easy

26)

are particularly dangerous because of their extraordinary knowledge and access.

A) Financial professionals B) IT employees C) CEOs D) Data entry clerks

Answer: B Page Ref: 29 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Moderate

27) Sabotage is defined as .

A) the destruction of hardware, software, or data B) breaking into computers using stolen credentials or other fraudulent means C) the misappropriation of assets D) the theft of the company’s intellectual property Answer: A Page Ref: 30 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Challenging

28) In , a perpetrator tries to obtain money or other goods by threatening to take actions that would be against the victim's interest.

A) fraud B) hacking 7 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) abuse D) extortion Answer: D Page Ref: 31 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

29)

consists of activities that violate a company's I T use and/or ethics policies.

A) Abuse B) Fraud C) Extortion D) Hacking

Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

30) Which of the following is considered a trade secret?

A) Product formulations B) Patents C) Trade names D) Trademarks Answer: A Page Ref: 30 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

31) Penalties for hacking are significantly different if you are attempting to steal a million dollars or attempting to steal nothing of value.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 30 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

32) Downloading pornography can invoke a sexual harassment lawsuit.

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Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 31 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

33) You have access to your home page on a server. By accident, you discover that if you hit a certain key, you can get into someone else's files. You spend just a few minutes looking around. This is hacking.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 30 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Moderate

34) The motivation for hacking is irrelevant.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 30 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

35) Unlike employees, contract workers do not constitute a threat to a business.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 32 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe threats from employees and ex-employees Difficulty: Easy

36) Malware generically means A) evil software B) unauthorized access C) abusive behavior D) misappropriated information

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Answer: A Page Ref: 32 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate 9 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

37)

are programs that attach themselves to legitimate programs.

A) Viruses B) Worms C) Payloads D) Direct-propagation worms

Answer: A Page Ref: 32 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Easy

38) Direct propagation worms .

A) take advantage of security weaknesses in software.

B) require action on the user’s part to be spread C) have a far less aggressive spreading mode than other malware D) cannot use the infected computer as a base to jump to other computers Answer: A Page Ref: 34 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Difficult

39) What is a payload?

A) Malicious software that blocks access to a system or data until money is paid to the attacker B) A generic name for any "evil software" C) A piece of code that does damage D) A program that gives an attacker remote control of your computer Answer: C Page Ref: 35 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Difficult

40) What does RAT stand for?

A) realistic artificial intelligence B) remote access Trojan C) ransomware after theft D) rootkit appropriation threat Answer: B 10 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 36 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate

41) A is a small program that, after installed, downloads a larger attack program.

A) rootkit B) keystroke logger C) downloader D) Trojan horse Answer: C Page Ref: 36 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate

42) Which of the following is FALSE about rootkits?

A) Rootkits are seldom caught by ordinary antivirus programs.

B) Rootkits take over the root account of a computer.

C) Rootkits use a root account's privileges to hide themselves.

D) Rootkits are typically less of a threat than Trojan horses.

Answer: D Page Ref: 38 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Difficult

43)

take advantage of flawed human judgment by convincing a victim to take actions that are counter to security policies.

A) Phishing attacks B) Hoaxes C) Social engineering attacks D) Spear phishing attacks

Answer: C Page Ref: 39 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate

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44) You receive an e-mail that seems to come from your bank. Clicking on a link in the message takes you to a website that seems to be your bank's website. However, the website is fake. This is called .

A) a hoax B) social engineering C) spear fishing D) phishing Answer: D Page Ref: 39 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate

45) You receive an e-mail that appears to come from a frequent customer. It contains specific information about your relationship with the customer. Clicking on a link in the message takes you to a website that seems to be your customer's website.

However, the website is fake. This is an example of .

A) social engineering B) spear fishing C) phishing D) a hoax Answer: B Page Ref: 39 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate

46) BEC attacks account for about a quarter of social engineering breaches.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 40 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Easy

47) Spear fishing attacks tend to appeal broadly to many people so they can dupe as many victims as possible.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 40 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Moderate 12 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Cookies are small text strings stored on your own personal computer.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Easy

49) Data mining spyware searches through your disk drives for the same types of information sought by keystroke loggers, and sends this information to the adversary.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe threats from malware writers Difficulty: Easy

50) Most traditional external attackers were primarily motivated by A) the thrill of breaking in B) making money through crime C) stealing personal identity data D) capturing thousands and thousands of credit card numbers

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Answer: A Page Ref: 40 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

51) ICMP Echo messages are often used in A) port scanning B) IP address scanning C) spoofing D) DDoS attacks

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Answer: B Page Ref: 42 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Moderate

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52) When a hacker sends a first round of probe packets to find hosts that are active, the attacker is sending probes.

A) IP address scanning B) a chain of attack C) piggybacking D) IP address spoofing Answer: A Page Ref: 42 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Moderate

53) Watching someone type their password to learn the password is called A) piggybacking B) a chain of attack C) social engineering D) shoulder surfing

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Answer: D Page Ref: 45 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

54) In a DoS attack, the botmaster is also known as a A) handler B) hacker C) hoax D) rootkit

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Answer: A Page Ref: 46 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

55) The specific attack method an attacker uses to break into a computer is called the attacker’s . .

A) spoof B) exploit 14 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) piggyback D) chain of attack Answer: B Page Ref: 43 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Moderate

56) By demonstrating their ability to break into well-defended hosts, hackers could increase their reputation among their peers.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

57) All packets can be spoofed.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 44 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

58) In response to a chain of attack, victims can often trace the attack back to the final attack computer.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 44 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

59) Following someone through a secure door without entering a pass code is called piggybacking.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 45 15 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

60) Script kiddies are typically hacker experts.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 47 Learning Objective: 1.5 Describe traditional external hackers and their attacks, including break-in processes, social engineering, and denial-of-service attacks Difficulty: Easy

61)

are the most common external attackers who attack to make money illegally.

A) Hackers B) Career criminals C) Script kiddies D) IT or security employers

Answer: B Page Ref: 48 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Easy

62) Many e-commerce companies will not ship to certain countries because of a high rate of consumer fraud. To get around this, criminal gangs engage in the United States.

A) transshippers B) APTs C) black-market websites D) IP address spoofing Answer: A Page Ref: 49 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Easy

63)

programs reward researchers for finding vulnerabilities.

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A) Transshipper B) APT C) Black-market website D) Bug bounty Answer: D Page Ref: 50 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Moderate

64) Criminals can use crime-as-a-service to that cyber criminals must perform as part of their criminal operations.

A) avoid detection of the hacking B) hide the evidence C) outsource some of the illegal activities D) automate many of the labor-intensive functions Answer: D Page Ref: 51 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Moderate

65) Credit card theft is also known as A) extortion B) click fraud C) bug bounty D) carding

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Answer: D Page Ref: 53 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Moderate

66) What does APT stand for?

A) advanced persistent threat B) artificial phishing trap C) adaptive property transshipper D) attacks per text 17 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 50 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Easy

67) Which of the following is likely the most common criminal attack on individuals?

A) Bank account theft B) Credit card number theft C) Spoofing D) Spam Answer: B Page Ref: 53 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Moderate

68) Cybercrime proceedings surpassed those from illegal drug sales in 2005.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 48 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Easy

69) Identify theft can (and does) happen to individuals, but it is not a worry or risk that corporations have.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 54 Learning Objective: 1.6 Know that criminals have become the dominant attackers today, describe the types of attacks they make, and discuss their methods of cooperation Difficulty: Easy

70) A company's website and Facebook pages may divulge information that competitors may seek out. This is known as .

A) public intelligence gathering B) spoofing 18 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) bug bounty D) carding Answer: A Page Ref: 55 Learning Objective: 1.7 Describe the types of attacks that could come from corporate competitors Difficulty: Easy

71) Russia is one of the countries cited as being the most capable cyber actors actively engaged in economic espionage.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 55 Learning Objective: 1.7 Describe the types of attacks that could come from corporate competitors Difficulty: Easy

72) Commercial espionage is limited to corporate competitors.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 55 Learning Objective: 1.7 Describe the types of attacks that could come from corporate competitors Difficulty: Easy

73) Cyberwar consists of computer-based attacks made by A) multinational corporations B) state, regional, and local governments C) national governments D) private citizens

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Answer: C Page Ref: 56 Learning Objective: 1.8 Distinguish between cyberwar and cyberterror Difficulty: Moderate

74) Cyberwar attacks can be launched without engaging in physical hostilities and still do significant damage.

Answer: TRUE 19 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 57 Learning Objective: 1.8 Distinguish between cyberwar and cyberterror Difficulty: Moderate

75) It is most common for cyberterrorists to recruit through face-to-face means.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 57 Learning Objective: 1.8 Distinguish between cyberwar and cyberterror Difficulty: Easy

Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 2 Planning and Policy 1) Which of the following is FALSE about security management?

A) Management is abstract; technology is visible.

B) Security technology is far more important than security management.

C) There are fewer general principles in security management than technology.

D) It is generally a mistake to focus too heavily on security technology compared to security management.

Answer: B Page Ref: 77 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Difficult

2) Comprehensive security pertains to .

A) closing all routes of attack to their systems to attackers B) closing all Internet-linked servers to attackers C) lessening security issues in an entire company D) decreasing the risk of all computer systems in a company Answer: A Page Ref: 77 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Moderate

3) Security management is A) a never-ending process

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B) a one-time effort C) an intermittent task D) an as-needed activity Answer: A Page Ref: 79 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Easy

4)

is the development and implementation of countermeasures, or safeguards, to ensure the continued operation and critical services.

A) Identification B) Protection C) Recovery D) Detection

Answer: B Page Ref: 80 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Moderate

5) The Cybersecurity Framework is a governance framework designed to help organizations better reduce and manage cybersecurity risks.

A) SDLC B) SNMP C) PEBKAC D) NIST Answer: D Page Ref: 80 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Moderate

6) A firewall administrator should check the log file in a company each week.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 78 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Moderate

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7) One reason why security management is difficult is that companies need to protect a large number of resources.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 79 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Easy

8) The third function in the N IST Cybersecurity Framework is detect.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 82 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Easy

9) One key to making security an enabler is to get security involved near the end of most projects.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 84 Learning Objective: 2.1 Justify the need for formal management processes Difficulty: Easy

10)

require a firm to change its security planning, protections, and response.

A) Responses B) Protections C) MSSPs D) Driving forces

Answer: D Page Ref: 88 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

11) Congress responded to the massive financial frauds of the early 2000s by passing the .

A) Sarbanes-Oxley Act B) General Data Protection Regulation C) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act 22 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

12) Which of the following is an E U privacy law?

A) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act B) The General Data Protection Regulation C) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act D) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Answer: B Page Ref: 89 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

13) Which of the following is also known as the Financial Services Modernization Act? A) GDPR B) GLBA C) HIPAA D) SB 1386 Answer: B Page Ref: 89 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

14) Which of the following was one of the first data breach notification laws in the U.S.?

A) GDPR B) GLBA C) HIPAA D) SB 1386 Answer: D Page Ref: 90 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate 23 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Who has the power to prosecute companies that fail to take reasonable precautions to protect private information?

A) HIPAA B) FTC C) GDPR D) GLBA Answer: B Page Ref: 90 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

16)

is the set of standards for companies that accept credit cards as a form of payment.

A) FISMA B) FTC C) PCI-DSS D) HIPAA

Answer: C Page Ref: 90 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

17) Why was FISMA enacted?

A) To set standards for companies that accept credit card payments B) To set accreditation standards for members of a particular industry C) To prosecute firms that fail to take reasonable precautions to protect customers' private information D) To bolster computer and network security within the federal government Answer: D Page Ref: 90 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Difficult

18) Given the importance of Sarbanes-Oxley compliance for companies, most firms were forced to increase their security efforts.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 88 24 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Easy

19) A problem for corporate security is that there are so many compliance laws and regulations.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 88 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Moderate

20) The GDPR requires strong protection for private data in healthcare organizations.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 89 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Easy

21) FISMA has been criticized for focusing on documentation over actual protection.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 91 Learning Objective: 2.2 Describe compliance laws and regulations Difficulty: Easy

22) Which of the following is considered a first step for a corporation in managing security?

A) To decide where the security function will sit on a firm's organization chart B) To determine what devices need to be secured and which software to use to do that C) To determine the size of the security staff and the budget that will support that staff D) To decide the objectives of the security function Answer: A Page Ref: 91 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

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23) When firms try a hybrid solution to balance the closeness of I T and IT security with the need for independence, which aspects of IT are placed within IT? A) planning B) operational C) policymaking D) auditing Answer: B Page Ref: 93 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

24) Which of the following is NOT one of the three auditing departments that are part of most corporations?

A) Financial auditing B) Internal auditing C) Outside auditing D) IT auditing Answer: C Page Ref: 94 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Easy

25)

regarding outside I T security means closely examining the I T security implications of a potential partnership before beginning the relationship.

A) A hybrid solution B) Internal auditing C) Risk analysis D) Due diligence

Answer: D Page Ref: 95 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

26) A negative consequence of placing security within IT is that security has no independence from IT. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 93 26 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

27) Few firms have a CSO report directly to the C EO. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 93 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

28) Most analysts recommend placing security inside IT. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 93 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Easy

29) The financial auditing department examines organizational units for efficiency, effectiveness, and adequate controls.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 94 Learning Objective: 2.3 Describe organizational security issues Difficulty: Moderate

30) Which of the following compares probable losses with the costs of security protections?

A) Weakest-link failure B) Reasonable risk C) Internal audits D) Risk analysis Answer: D Page Ref: 97 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

31) The exposure factor is

..

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A) the percentage of an asset's value that would be lost in a breach B) the value of the asset to be protected C) the amount of damage that would be sustained in a single breach D) how frequently breaches will occur Answer: A Page Ref: 98 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

32) In the classic risk analysis calculation, the countermeasure impact assesses the .

A) drawbacks of a countermeasure B) benefits of a countermeasure C) costs of a countermeasure D) number of incidents of all possible countermeasures Answer: B Page Ref: 98 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

33) The goal of risk analysis is A) elimination of all risk B) information assurance C) single loss expectancy D) reasonable risk

.

Answer: D Page Ref: 97 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

34) Discounted cash flow analysis is also called A) IRR B) TCI C) NPV D) ROI

.

Answer: D Page Ref: 99 28 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

35) The annualized loss expectancy of the classic risk analysis is A) the percentage of the asset’s value that would be lost in a breach B) the annualized probability of a breach occurrence C) the yearly average loss expected from a compromise for the asset D) the benefits of a particular countermeasure

.

Answer: C Page Ref: 98 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

36) The most common example of risk transference is A) insurance B) no countermeasures C) installing firewalls D) IT security measures

.

Answer: A Page Ref: 102 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

37) Implementing no countermeasures to security challenges and absorbing any damages that may occur is known as .

A) risk reduction B) risk acceptance C) risk transference D) risk avoidance Answer: B Page Ref: 102 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

38) Return on investment analysis requires the computation of either the net present value or the .

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A) risk transference B) risk avoidance C) internal rate of return D) total cost of incident Answer: C Page Ref: 99 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

39) Risk reduction is always the best approach.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 102 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

40) Countermeasures are never free.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 99 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

41) Absolute IT security protection is impossible.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 97 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Easy

42) The worst problem with classic risk analysis is that it is rarely possible to estimate the annualized rate of occurrence for threats.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 100 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

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43) ROI is typically quite easy to measure for security investments.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 101 Learning Objective: 2.4 Describe risk analysis Difficulty: Moderate

44)

includes all of a firm's technical countermeasures and how they are organized into a complete system of protection.

A) Technical security architecture B) Risk avoidance C) Corporate security policy D) Implementation guidance

Answer: A Page Ref: 103 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Moderate

45) Legacy security technologies are technologies that .

A) were implemented in the past but are now somewhat ineffective B) form the overall plan of a firm’s security infrastructure C) comprise multiple independent countermeasures placed in a series D) communicate with a firm’s security devices Answer: A Page Ref: 104 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Moderate

46) When an attacker must break through multiple countermeasures to succeed, it's known as .

A) defense in depth B) single point of vulnerability C) weakest link D) technical security architecture Answer: A Page Ref: 104 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure 31 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

47)

is being able to manage security technologies from a single security management console or at least from relatively few consoles.

A) Technical security architecture B) A single point of vulnerability C) Centralized security management D) Defense in depth

Answer: C Page Ref: 107 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Moderate

48) If a legacy technology is a serious threat to security, it must be replaced.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 104 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Easy

49) The opposite of defense in depth is single point of vulnerability.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 104 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Moderate

50) Though firewalls have long been the staple of border management, they should not continue to remain so.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 106 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Moderate

51) With a single countermeasure composed of multiple independent components, if one fails, they all fail.

Answer: TRUE 32 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 104 Learning Objective: 2.5 Describe technical security infrastructure Difficulty: Easy

52) The goal of is to emphasize a firm's commitment to strong security.

A) corporate security policies B) centralized security management C) technical security architecture D) acceptable use policies Answer: A Page Ref: 109 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

53) Which type of policies specify protections for sensitive personal information?

A) AUP B) PII C) E-mail D) IT Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

54)

are mandatory implementation guidance, meaning that employees are not free to opt out of them.

A) Standards B) Policies C) Guidelines D) Procedures

Answer: A Page Ref: 111 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

55)

are high-level descriptions of what should be done.

33 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) Baselines B) Best practices C) Processes D) Recommended practices Answer: C Page Ref: 112 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

56) In the , a specific, full act should require two or more people to complete.

A) implementation guidance B) weakest link C) segregation of duties D) request/authorization control Answer: C Page Ref: 112 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

57)

can simply be described as a person's system of values.

A) Baselines B) Ethics C) Procedures D) Best practices

Answer: B Page Ref: 113 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Easy

58) Which of the following is NOT a general guideline for handling exceptions?

A) Only some people should be allowed to request exceptions.

B) The person who requests an exception must never be the same person who authorizes the exception.

C) More people should be allowed to authorize exceptions than can request exceptions.

D) Each exception must be carefully documented in terms of specifically what was done and who did each action.

Answer: C 34 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 115 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Difficult

59) A 2022 report found that organizations with anonymous hotlines get fraud tips than organizations that don’t have them.

A) more B) fewer C) an equal number of D) twice as many Answer: A Page Ref: 117 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Easy

60) The Protect America Act of 2007 .

A) allows law enforcement to engage in surveillance activities for 1 year without a warrant if the person is a foreign agent, foreign power, or American citizen engaged in espionage B) required telecommunication companies to install telephone switches that have wire-tapping capabilities and can be directly accessed by federal law enforcement agencies C) allowed federal agencies to monitor U.S. citizens’ international communications without a warrant D) stop the collection of metadata by the N SA Answer: C Page Ref: 122 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

61) A firm requiring a background check for every new employee is an example of a policy.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 107 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Easy

35 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) Team-written policies are usually less respected by employees than policies written exclusively by IT security.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 110 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

63) Oversight is a term for a process, function, or group of tools for policy enforcement.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 115 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

64) Formally announcing, publishing, or making users aware of new policies of the company is called oversight.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 115 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Easy

65) All publicly traded companies must have their financial statements audited.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Objective: 2.6 Explain policy-driven implementation Difficulty: Moderate

66) Which of the following focuses broadly on corporate internal and financial controls?

A) COBIT B) ISO/IEC 27000 C) COSO D) ISO/IEC 27002 Answer: C Page Ref: 123 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate 36 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

67) The ISO/IEC 27000 series of standards .

A) specifically addresses I T security B) focuses on corporate internal and financial controls C) focuses more specifically on controlling the entire IT function D) include IT security within a total security framework for a firm Answer: A Page Ref: 123 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

68) Which is a category of objectives in the C OSO framework?

A) Compliance B) Evaluation C) Delivery D) Building Answer: A Page Ref: 124 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

69) Which of the following is NOT a COSO framework component?

A) Control environment B) Control activities C) Training practices D) Monitoring Answer: C Page Ref: 124 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

70) Which of the following COSO framework components encompasses the tone of the organization?

A) Control environment B) Risk assessment C) Monitoring D) Control activities Answer: A 37 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 124 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

71) Which of the following is NOT one of the major domains of the C OBIT framework?

A) Evaluate, direct, and monitor B) Build, acquire, and implement C) Deliver, service, and support D) Promote, hire, and train Answer: D Page Ref: 126 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

72) ISO/IEC 27005 focuses on .

A) risk management B) information security systems auditing C) intrusion prevention D) incident investigation Answer: A Page Ref: 128 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

73) Monitoring and risk assessment are both COSO framework components.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 124 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate

74) The IT Governance Institute was created by the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 127 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks 38 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

75) COBIT has become the dominant framework for auditing IT controls in the United States.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 127 Learning Objective: 2.7 Know governance frameworks Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 3 Cryptography 1)

is the use of mathematical operations to protect messages traveling between parties or stored on a computer.

A) Encryption B) Kerckhoffs' Law C) Brute-force key cracking D) Cryptography

Answer: D Page Ref: 146 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

2) Any original message is called A) plaintext B) ciphertext C) message digest D) the hash

.

Answer: A Page Ref: 146 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

3) Encryption is .

A) the use of mathematical operations to protect messages traveling between parties B) a cryptographic process that changes plaintext into ciphertext C) the process of turning ciphertext into plain text D) a random string of 40 to 4,000 bits 39 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 147 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

4) Using a key and a cipher, A) decryption B) encryption C) cracking D) confidentiality

turns ciphertext back into plaintext.

Answer: A Page Ref: 147 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

5) Auguste Kerckhoffs proved that as long as , the two parties will still have confidentiality.

A) both the key and the cipher code are kept secret B) the key is made available, and the cipher is kept secret C) the key is kept secret D) the cipher is kept secret Answer: C Page Ref: 147 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Difficult

6) Brute-force key cracking .

A) means guessing part of a message B) is trying all possible keys until the cryptanalyst finds the right key C) is a quick and simple process D) is practiced by people called encrypters Answer: B Page Ref: 149 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

40 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) In , one character is substituted for another, but the order of the characters is not changed.

A) transposition ciphers B) substitution ciphers C) asymmetric key encryption D) plaintext Answer: B Page Ref: 150 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Difficult

8) In transposition ciphers, .

A) the letters are moved around within a message, based on their initial positions in the message B) one character is substituted for another, but the order of the characters is not changed C) both letters and their positions are changed D) letters are replaced by symbols Answer: A Page Ref: 150 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

9) Which of the following is FALSE regarding symmetric key encryption?

A) Symmetric key encryption is very fast.

B) All but a tiny fraction of encryptions for confidentiality use symmetric key encryption.

C) Very few personal computers or handheld devices have sufficient processing power to encrypt with symmetric key encryption.

D) Symmetric key encryption places only a small processing burden on computers.

Answer: C Page Ref: 152 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

10) Encryption for confidentiality was the original purpose of cryptography.

Answer: TRUE 41 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 146 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

11) A key is a random string of 40 to 4,000 bits.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 147 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

12) Almost all computer information is encoded as a set of bytes and characters.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 149 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Moderate

13) If a key is 15 bits long, there are 152 possible keys.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 152 Learning Objective: 3.1 Explain the concept of cryptography Difficulty: Easy

14) Which encryption cipher is considered today’s gold standard?

A) DES B) RC4 C) 3DES D) AES Answer: D Page Ref: 156 Learning Objective: 3.2 Describe symmetric key encryption and the importance of key length Difficulty: Moderate

15) Which of the following is FALSE about 3DES? 42 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) It is very slow.

B) It is expensive in regard to processing cost.

C) 3DES gives strong symmetric key encryption.

D) 3DES has a key length of 56.

Answer: D Page Ref: 158 Learning Objective: 3.2 Describe symmetric key encryption and the importance of key length Difficulty: Difficult

16) Which of the following is efficient in regard to processing power and RAM requirements to be used on many different types of devices?

A) 3DES B) DES C) Triple DES D) AES Answer: D Page Ref: 158 Learning Objective: 3.2 Describe symmetric key encryption and the importance of key length Difficulty: Moderate

17) DES is a block encryption standard.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 157 Learning Objective: 3.2 Describe symmetric key encryption and the importance of key length Difficulty: Moderate

18) RC4 is safe to use.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 156 Learning Objective: 3.2 Describe symmetric key encryption and the importance of key length Difficulty: Moderate

43 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) A cryptographic system is .

A) a system where letters are moved around within a message, based on their initial positions in the message B) a packaged set of cryptographic countermeasures for protecting dialogues C) a specific set of options in SSL/TLS D) when both parties authenticate themselves Answer: B Page Ref: 159 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Difficult

20) What occurs during the final handshaking stage of a cryptographic system?

A) Message exchange B) Secure exchange of keys C) Negotiation of security parameters D) Initial authentication Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Moderate

21) Keying comes A) before B) after C) at the same time as D) instead of

initial authentication.

Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Moderate

22) When are the handshaking stages over in a cryptographic system standard?

A) After the two sides have authenticated each other and keys have been exchanged B) After an electronic signature is sent and received by each party 44 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) After the sender encrypts the combined message and electronic signature for confidentiality D) After the two sides have authenticated each other and messages have been exchanged Answer: A Page Ref: 161 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Difficult

23) TLS and IPsec are popular cryptographic system standards.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 159 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Moderate

24) The second stage of a cryptographic system standard is initial authentication.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 160 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Easy

25) Message-by-message authentication thwarts efforts by impostors to insert messages into a dialogue stream.` Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 161 Learning Objective: 3.3 Describe the initial handshaking stages used in cryptographic systems Difficulty: Moderate

26) A cipher suite includes all of the following EXCEPT .

A) methods and options for initial authentication B) methods and options for key exchange C) methods and options for ongoing message confidentiality, authentication, and 45 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

integrity D) methods and options for electronic signatures Answer: D Page Ref: 161 Learning Objective: 3.4 Explain the negotiation stage Difficulty: Difficult

27) Newer and strong T LS 1.3 cipher suites have been introduced and are widely supported on web servers.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Objective: 3.4 Explain the negotiation stage Difficulty: Moderate

28) Once security negotiation is finished, the next handshaking stage in establishing a cryptographic system dialog is .

A) communication B) authentication C) confidentiality D) encryption Answer: B Page Ref: 162 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Moderate

29) In MS-CHAP, the server sends the supplicant’s PC a random bit string.

A) hash B) response message C) challenge message D) password

, which is simply a

Answer: C Page Ref: 164 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Moderate

46 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) When hashing is applied to a binary message, the result is original message.

A) equal to 85 times B) far shorter C) much longer D) about the same length as

than the

Answer: B Page Ref: 163 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Moderate

31) Which of the following is FALSE about hashing?

A) It is irreversible.

B) It is repeatable.

C) It is an important part of how cryptographic systems function.

D) It produces ciphertext that is about as long as the plaintext that was sent.

Answer: D Page Ref: 163 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Difficult

32) In authentication, the party trying to prove its identity is called the verifier.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 162 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Easy

33) SHA-2 is the hashing method that is recommended by NIST. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Moderate

34) MS-CHAP is an initial authentication method.

Answer: TRUE 47 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 164 Learning Objective: 3.5 Explain initial authentication, including MS-CHAP Difficulty: Easy

35) When Joshua sends a message to Larry, Joshua will use message.

A) Joshua's public key B) both public keys C) Larry's public key D) Larry's private key

to encrypt the

Answer: C Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

36) Of the two widely used public key encryption ciphers, out due to weaknesses in quantum computing.

A) RSA B) ECC C) AES D) 3DES

is being phased

Answer: B Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Difficult

37) Which of the following is FALSE about public key encryption ciphers?

A) They are extremely complex.

B) They are slow.

C) They are expensive to use.

D) They are often used to encrypt very long messages for confidentiality.

Answer: D Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

48 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Public key encryption ciphers are also called A) session key B) private key C) asymmetric key D) public key

encryption ciphers.

Answer: C Page Ref: 165 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

39) Symmetric key encryption is somewhat slow yet fairly expensive.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

40) For RSA public key encryption, a recommended minimum key length for a strong key is 2048 bytes.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

41) Typically, symmetric key encryption takes 100 to 1,000 times longer than public key encryption to encrypt a message of a given length.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 167 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate

42) Diffie-Hellman key exchange is much faster than public key encryption.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 168 Learning Objective: 3.6 Describe keying, including public key encryption Difficulty: Moderate 49 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) After two parties exchange session keys, what happens?

A) The two sides begin sending messages back and forth.

B) Encryption and decryption occurs.

C) The two sides begin the authentication phase.

D) Keying starts.

Answer: A Page Ref: 169 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

44) A man in the middle attack is a form of attack in which .

A) an attacker decrypts a message being sent and re-encrypts it with malicious intent B) an attacker intercepts an encrypted message and transmits it again later C) an attacker creates counterfeit messages and sends them between two parties D) an attacker intercepts messages being sent between two parties and forwards them on Answer: D Page Ref: 170 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

45) An electronic signature provides A) authentication; handshaking B) authentication; message integrity C) handshaking; message integrity D) keying; encryption

and

.

Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

46) Which of the following is NOT a step in verifying the digital certificate?

A) Testing the digital signature B) Checking the valid period 50 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Checking for revocation D) Testing the public key Answer: D Page Ref: 177 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

47)

is an independent and trusted source of information about public keys of true parties.

A) A message digest B) Verification C) A digital signature D) A certificate authority

Answer: D Page Ref: 173 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

48)

uses a key exchanged during the initial negotiation phase.

A) A DES B) The HMAC C) A hash D) A message digest

Answer: B Page Ref: 178 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

49) For message-by-message authentication, each message must contain an electronic signature.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 170 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work 51 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

50) Digital signatures are used much more often than HMACs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 170 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

51) Certificate authorities vouch for the public party named in the certificate.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 174 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Easy

52) If a message has changed while in transit, the message digests will match but will show a separate log of the changes.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 173 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

53) Nonrepudiation means that a sender cannot deny that he or she sent an important message.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 180 Learning Objective: 3.7 Explain how electronic signatures, including digital signatures, digital certificates, and key-hashed message authentication codes (HMAC s), work Difficulty: Moderate

54)

can deliver very long keys to communication partners.

A) Diffie-Hellman key exchange B) Public key encryption 52 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) One-time key exchange D) Quantum key distribution Answer: D Page Ref: 180 Learning Objective: 3.8 Describe quantum security Difficulty: Moderate

55)

can be used to crack keys quickly by trying dozens or even thousands of keys at once.

A) Diffie-Hellman key exchange B) Quantum key cracking C) Public key encryption D) One-time key exchange

Answer: B Page Ref: 180 Learning Objective: 3.8 Describe quantum security Difficulty: Moderate

56) If an eavesdropper attempts to intercept the keying information, this action will be immediately apparent.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 180 Learning Objective: 3.8 Describe quantum security Difficulty: Moderate

57) Currently, quantum computers can crack keys that are thousands of bits long.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 181 Learning Objective: 3.8 Describe quantum security Difficulty: Moderate

58) Which of the following is NOT a type of VPN? A) Host-to-host B) Remote access C) One-time D) Site-to-site 53 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 182 Learning Objective: 3.9 Describe public key encryption for authentication Difficulty: Moderate

59)

VPN users connect to a VPN gateway, which authenticates them and gives them access to authorized resources within the site.

A) Host-to-host B) Remote access C) One-time D) Site-to-site

Answer: B Page Ref: 182 Learning Objective: 3.9 Describe public key encryption for authentication Difficulty: Moderate

60) Cryptographic systems are nearly always used over trusted networks.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 181 Learning Objective: 3.9 Describe public key encryption for authentication Difficulty: Moderate

61) The simplest type of VPN is site-to-site.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 182 Learning Objective: 3.9 Describe public key encryption for authentication Difficulty: Easy

62) The Internet Engineering Task Force renamed .

A) SSL; DES B) DES; 3DES C) TLS; SSL D) SSL; TLS Answer: D 54 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

to the standard

Page Ref: 183 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS Difficulty: Moderate

63) A(n) is simply a webserver as far as TLS is concerned.

A) TLS key B) TLS gateway C) DES/3DES D) encryption Answer: B Page Ref: 185 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS Difficulty: Moderate

64) The biggest attraction of TLS is that .

A) its protection of application layer messages is transparent B) every computer today has a browser, and all browsers know how to act as clients for TLS C) it utilizes a small number of simple gateways D) it does not use public key authentication to authenticate itself to the client Answer: B Page Ref: 184 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS Difficulty: Moderate

65) TLS protection of application layer messages is transparent.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 184 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS Difficulty: Moderate

66) All browsers are TLS-aware.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 184 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS 55 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

67) TLS cannot create host-to-host VPNs. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 183 Learning Objective: 3.10 Explain cryptographic systems including VPNs and TLS Difficulty: Moderate

68) In IPsec, the IP refers to A) Internet Protocol; security B) Internet Practice; symmetric C) Internet Protocol; symmetric D) intranet protocol; security

, and "sec" refers to

.

Answer: A Page Ref: 187 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Moderate

69) IPsec operates at the A) application B) transport C) internet D) secure sockets

layer.

Answer: C Page Ref: 188 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Easy

70) All of the following are advantages of IPsec EXCEPT which of the following?

A) It is the gold standard in VPN technology.

B) It transparently protects all higher-layer traffic.

C) It supports centralized corporate control over all IPsec operations on all devices.

D) It is less complex and therefore less expensive to introduce than T LS. Answer: D 56 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 187 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Difficult

71) Transport mode and tunnel mode are the two modes of A) IPsec B) TLS C) SA D) VPN

.

Answer: A Page Ref: 188 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Moderate

72) IPsec gives transparent protection to transport layer and application layer messages.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Moderate

73) IPsec transport mode gives host-to-host security.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Moderate

74) IPsec tunnel mode only protects traffic between two IPsec gateways at the same site.

Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 190 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and 57 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

transport mode Difficulty: Moderate

75) No matter which version of IP a network uses, IPsec will protect it.

Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Objective: 3.11 Describe the tradeoffs between IPsec tunnel mode and transport mode Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 4 Secure Networks 1) Ensuring network availability is defined as .

A) ways of attacking networks B) preventing attackers from altering the capabilities or operation of the network C) preventing unauthorized users from gaining information about the network’s structure D) ensuring that authorized users have access to information, services, and network resources Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

2) Ensuring appropriate network means preventing attackers from altering the capabilities or operation of the network.

A) authentication B) functionality C) integrity D) confidentiality Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

3) Regarding network security, systems, data, and dialogues.

A) integrity B) authentication C) access control

is the policy-driven control of access to

58 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) confidentiality Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

4) Which of the following is NOT one of the four goals to consider when creating a secure networking environment?

A) Confidentiality B) Availability C) Functionality D) Cost Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

5)

reroutes network traffic through the attacker’s computer.

A) The castle model B) Tethering C) ARP poisoning D) Indirect attacks

Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

6) The castle model describes when .

A) network administrators restrict access to those on the outside of the business and limit access on the inside B) the good guys are on the inside and the attackers are on the outside C) network administrators restrict access to only those that should have access within the company D) computer software restricts access on the inside to the top management and limits access to lower levels in the company Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

7) A better paradigm for network security is the

model.

59 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) castle B) city C) tethering D) moat Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

8) DoS attacks are one of the least common types of network attacks against corporations.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

9) In the castle model of network defense, there was a well-guarded single point of entry.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Easy

10) The "death of the perimeter" model has no distinct perimeter and there are multiple ways of entering the network.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.1 Describe the goals of creating secure networks Difficulty: Moderate

11) DoS attacks occur A) daily B) weekly C) biweekly D) monthly

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

60 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which is one of the main types of DoS attacks?

A) Faulty coding B) Large-site referral C) Reflected D) Degrade services Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

13) Which of the following is the simplest form of a DoS attack?

A) Direct B) Intermediary C) Reflected D) Sending malformed packets Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

14) When hackers caused seven German airports to be unreachable for an hour, this was an example of .

A) stopping critical services B) degrading services over time C) faulty coding D) referrals from large sites Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

15) With a ping flood, a victim is flooded with .

A) SYN packets in an attempt to make many half-open T CP connections B) application layer web requests C) ICMP packets that appear to be normal supervisory traffic D) bots and other intermediaries Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

61 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Some firewalls address SYN floods by pre-validating the TCP handshake by creating .

A) rate limits B) blackholes C) false openings D) backscatter Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

17) A is similar to a P2P redirect.

A) SYN flood B) reflected attack C) Smurf flood D) DDoS Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

18) The most common service targeted by attackers is H TTPS. Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

19) Smurf flood is a variation of a reflected attack that takes advantage of an incorrectly configured network device (router) to flood a victim.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

20) DoS attacks can cause harm by slowly degrading services over time.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

62 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) Typically DoS attacks against critical services are difficult to identify and last for a long time.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

22) An indirect attack occurs when an attacker tries to flood a victim with a stream of packets directly from the attacker's computer.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

23) Intermediaries are typically referred to as bots.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

24) ICMP can be best described as the second part of a three-way T CP handshake sent in response to a SYN. Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Moderate

25) Rate limiting can be used to reduce a certain type of traffic to a reasonable amount.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.2 Explain how denial-of-service (DoS) attacks work Difficulty: Easy

26) Which of the following is a network attack that manipulates host A RP tables to reroute LAN traffic?

A) SYN flood B) Ping flood C) ARP poisoning D) HTTP flood Answer: C 63 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

27) An ARP DoS attack is an attack on the to a nonexistent host.

A) confidentiality B) availability C) functionality D) integrity

of a network by rerouting traffic

Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

28)

uses false ARP replies to map any I P address to any MAC address.

A) An ARP reply B) An ARP request C) ARP poisoning D) ARP spoofing

Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

29) ARP poisoning can be prevented by using A) static IP and ARP tables B) ARP requests and ARP replies C) dynamic IP and ARP tables D) ARP spoofing

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

30) ARP is used to resolve 48-bit IP addresses into 32-bit local MAC addresses.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

64 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) One problem with ARP requests and replies is that they do not require authentication or verification.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Moderate

32) Limiting access to the local network is a way to prevent ARP poisoning.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.3 Explain how ARP poisoning works Difficulty: Easy

33) An effective way for whistleblowers and journalists to anonymously send and receive data over the Internet is to use .

A) static tables B) onion routing C) Tor spoofing D) botmaster Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.4 Know how Tor networks can provide anonymity Difficulty: Moderate

34) A Tor circuit is associated with which step of using a Tor network?

A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.4 Know how Tor networks can provide anonymity Difficulty: Moderate

35) Step 3 of using a Tor network involves which of the following?

A) Installation the Tor client B) A list of Tor nodes from a Tor directory server C) Encrypted path D) Unencrypted link at exit node Answer: D 65 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 4.4 Know how Tor networks can provide anonymity Difficulty: Moderate

36) The Tor network provides almost completely anonymous access to the Internet.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.4 Know how Tor networks can provide anonymity Difficulty: Easy

37) One of the main advantages of Tor networks is that they are very fast.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.4 Know how Tor networks can provide anonymity Difficulty: Easy

38) A(n) sits in his or her car outside of the walls of a company to access a system.

A) EAP B) packet sniffer C) drive-by hacker D) botmaster Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.5 Know why access controls are important for networks Difficulty: Moderate

39) A(n) can be used to gather network information or user data.

A) RFMON B) Botmaster C) AP D) packet sniffer Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.5 Know why access controls are important for networks Difficulty: Moderate

40) Most wireless communication in L ANs is used to link wireless clients to a firm's wired Ethernet network.

Answer: TRUE 66 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 4.5 Know why access controls are important for networks Difficulty: Easy

41) Wireless LANs are not possible.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.5 Know why access controls are important for networks Difficulty: Easy

42) Traditionally, Ethernet LANs offered no access control security.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.5 Know why access controls are important for networks Difficulty: Easy

43) The standard provides access control to prevent illegitimate clients from associating with a network.

A) 802.1X B) RADIUS C) 802.11 D) IEEE 802.11 Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

44) The name of the 802.1X standard is A) IEEE 802.11 B) Port-based Access Control C) Extensible Authentication Protocol D) RADIUS

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

45) In an 802.1X standard, after authentication, the port changes to the state.

A) authorized B) unauthorized 67 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) static D) confidential Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Easy

46) Which of the following is NOT an advantage in using a central authentication server instead of each workgroup switch to do all the work?

A) Cost savings B) Immediate changes C) Integrity D) Consistency Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

47) EAP is called AP. A) credible B) consistent C) extensible D) inflexible

because it is easy to add new authentication methods to E

Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

48) RADIUS is a(n) protocol.

A) Extensible Authentication B) client/server C) VPN D) Address Resolution Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

49) The RADIUS protocol provides A) authentication and integrity

.

68 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) authentication and authorization C) authenticity and functionality D) confidentiality and access control Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Difficult

50) Using a central authentication server brings consistency in authentication.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Easy

51) 802.1X calls the workgroup switch the authenticator.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

52) Most central authentication servers are governed by the RADIUS standard.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

53) The RADIUS protocol provides authentication and authorization, but not auditing of connections.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.6 Explain how to secure Ethernet networks Difficulty: Moderate

54) Which of the following is NOT accurate about wireless networks over wired networks?

A) Wireless are quicker.

B) Wireless are easier.

C) Wireless are less expensive.

D) Wireless are rare to find.

Answer: D 69 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy

55) Wireless attacks focus on the A) evil twin access point B) switch port C) access point D) MAC access control point

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

56) Unauthorized access attacks .

A) are extremely unusual B) cannot occur on networks with security protocols enabled C) may only occur when security protocols are not enabled D) occur when one connects to a network without permission Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy

57) Which of the following is FALSE about open wireless networks?

A) They are often posted for the public to know about.

B) They can be legally accessed by anyone.

C) They are typically found in public places like coffee shops.

D) They are legally accessed only by staff of the company or owned network.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

58)

give a drive-by hacker a clean shot into the network, bypassing a firm’s wireless security at legitimate access points.

A) Rogue access points 70 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) Evil twin access points C) W EP D) W PA2 Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

59) The wireless chipset on the attacker’s client must support pick up wireless packets addressed to other hosts.

A) RFMON B) MITM C) EMI D) RFI

in order to

Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

60)

allow(s) attackers to receive messages addressed to other users.

A) Evil twin access points B) Whaling C) Man in the middle attacks D) Promiscuous mode

Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

61) A(n) is a personal computer that has software to allow the computer to masquerade as an access point.

A) switch port B) access point C) MAC access control point D) evil twin access point Answer: D Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks 71 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

62)

transmit on 2.4-GHz and/or 5-GHz frequency bands.

A) Ethernet networks B) ARP requests and ARP replies C) Wireless 802.11 networks D) Wired 802.11 networks

Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

63) Network administrators can use wireless A) ethernet networks B) ARP requests and ARP replies C) spectrum analyzers D) EMIs

to identify DoS floods.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

64)

tell wireless clients that you want to transmit for a given amount of time.

A) CTS frames B) RTS frames C) Packet injections D) Deauthenticate messages

Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

65) What does the first "P" in P EAP stand for?

A) Priority B) Protected C) Packet D) Prioritized 72 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

66) A corporation using W EP .

A) has very strong security B) has better security than none at all C) has worse security than none at all D) has flawed but valid security Answer: C Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

67) In 802.11i or W PA in PSK/personal mode, passphrases must be at least .

A) 20 characters long B) 56 characters long C) 256 characters long D) 512 characters long Answer: A Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

68) To work with an access point, a station must know the access point's A) MAC address B) SSID C) W PA D) W EP Answer: B Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy

69) Ethernet LANs are the only type of networks that require security.

73 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy

70) The clearest form of unauthorized access is when an attacker “cracks” the wireless security protocols on a secured network.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

71) Promiscuous mode allows a PC to masquerade as an access point.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

72) Focusing electronic attacks on specific high-value targets is known as IV .

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate

73) Interference damages an 802.11 signal and makes packets unreadable.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy

74) PEAP is a popular extended E AP protocol.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Easy 74 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

75) PSK/personal mode was created for homes or small businesses that only have a single access point.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 4.7 Describe wireless (W LAN) security standards and potential attacks Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 5 Access Control 1) Which of the following is one of the AAA controls?

A) Accuracy B) Auditing C) Augmentation D) Analysis Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Easy

2) What is the definitions of authorizations?

A) Specific permissions that a particular authenticated user should have, given his or her authenticated identity B) Collecting information about an individual’s activities in log files C) Creating access control rules based on roles D) The process of assessing the identity of each individual claiming to have permission to use a resource Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Easy

3) Which of the following can negate the strength of two-factor authentication?

A) Trojan horses and man-in-the-middle attacks B) Trojan horses and single point of entry attacks C) Terrorist attacks and man-in-the-middle attacks D) Terrorist attacks and dumpster diving Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Moderate

75 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which of the following is FALSE in regard to the comparison of access control to RB AC and individual accounts?

A) RBAC is less prone to error B) RBAC is more expensive C) RBAC has fewer assignments to make D) RBAC makes it easier to remove a user when necessary Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Moderate

5) In the military, departments do not have the ability to alter access control rules set by higher authorities in .

A) mandatory access control B) discretionary access control C) multilevel access control D) policy-based access control Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Moderate

6) Authentication refers to the specific permissions that a particular authenticated user should have, given his or her authenticated identity.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Moderate

7) A person or process that requests access is known as the supplicant.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Easy

8) In military security, the term multilevel security is synonymous with multifactor security.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.1 Define basic access control terminology Difficulty: Moderate 76 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of the following is NOT one of the rules for working in secure areas?

A) Electronic devices that can record or copy mass amounts of information should be forbidden in secure areas.

B) When no one is in a secure area, it should be locked and verified periodically.

C) Unsupervised work in secure areas should be avoided.

D) No one should be allowed to work in secure areas for more than seven hours to align with security rules.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.2 Describe physical building and computer security Difficulty: Moderate

10) Buildings should be set back from streets and protected with rolling hill landscaping, if possible, to reduce threats from .

A) terrorism B) dumpster diving C) wireless eavesdropping D) piggybacking Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.2 Describe physical building and computer security Difficulty: Moderate

11) Another word for piggybacking, the social engineering trick where an intruder may follow an authorized user through a door that the authorized user opens with an access device, is .

A) IT shadowing B) dumpster diving C) tailgating D) shoulder surfing Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.2 Describe physical building and computer security Difficulty: Moderate

12) Computer attacks rarely take place remotely over networks.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.2 Describe physical building and computer security Difficulty: Easy

77 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Deploying unauthorized hardware or software that circumvents the I T department is called shadow IT. Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.2 Describe physical building and computer security Difficulty: Easy

14) Passwords that you use for weeks or months are known as A) reusable B) one-time C) complex D) strong

passwords.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Easy

15) The International Data Corporation estimates that accounts in larger corporations are inappropriate.

A) 20 to 40 B) approximately 25 C) approximately 35 D) 30 to 60

percent of all

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

16) Approximately how many calls to help desks involve lost passwords?

A) More than half B) Approximately a quarter to a third C) Approximately half D) 30 to 60 percent Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

17) Which of the following passwords is NOT in the top five most common for two realworld data breaches mentioned in the text?

A) 111111 78 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) 123456 C) qwerty D) iloveyou Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

18) Growing computer power has made simple passwords so easy to crack that only the longest and most complex passwords are safe.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

19) The Queensland health system spends $1 million and 25,000 hours per year resetting passwords.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

20) One of the best ways of auditing users’ passwords is to test them as if you were an attacker.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

21) Usernames and passwords are rarely a target for hackers due to the difficulty in cracking them.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.3 Explain reusable passwords Difficulty: Moderate

22) A(n) is made of plastic and is approximately the size of a credit or debit card.

A) access card B) biometric card C) token 79 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) RFID Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

23) A looks like a but it has a built-in microprocessor and memory.

A) magnetic stripe card; smart card B) smart card; magnetic stripe card C) smart card; token D) token; magnetic stripe Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Easy

24) A is a small device with a display that has a number that changes frequently.

A) magnetic stripe card B) USB token C) one-time-password token D) smart card Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

25)

provide many of the protections of smart cards without requiring the cost of installing a smart card reader on each P C. A) USB tokens B) Stripe cards C) Personal identification numbers D) RFID tags Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

26) A physical access card and a P IN are an example of A) biometric authentication 80 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

B) public key infrastructure C) public key-private key pairs D) two-factor authentication Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

27) A good choice for a P IN is the last four digits of a user’s social security number.

Answer: FA:SE Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

28) For easy remembering, many companies suggest that you record a PIN that you've selected on the physical access card you've been given.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.4 Explain how access cards and tokens work Difficulty: Moderate

29) In which step of the biometric authentication process does the reader process the enrollment scan data to extract a few key features from the mass of scanned data?

A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

30) The major promise of biometrics is to .

A) make the authentication process as fast as possible B) promote the use of one-time passwords C) make the authentication process unnecessary D) make reusable passwords obsolete Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification 81 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

31)

refers to accuracy when a supplicant is not trying to deceive the system.

A) Error rate B) Supplicant scanning C) Acceptance D) Match index

Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

32)

occurs if the system will not enroll a user.

A) TGT B) FTE C) RFID D) PKI

Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

33) In, the verifier determines whether the supplicant is a particular person.

A) verification B) acceptance C) supplicant scanning D) match index Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

34) Watch list matching .

A) makes fewer access data-template comparisons than verification B) is more prone to false acceptances than verification C) is less susceptible to false acceptances than full identification D) makes more comparisons than full identification 82 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Difficult

35) Which of the following statements accurately describes fingerprint recognition?

A) Fingerprint recognition is fairly unknown to the general population.

B) Fingerprint scanners account for just a small fraction of the total biometrics market.

C) Fingerprint recognition scanners are very expensive.

D) Fingerprint recognition technology is well developed.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Difficult

36) Which type of authentication is something you do, not something you are?

A) hand geometry B) iris recognition C) vein recognition D) voice recognition Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

37) Hand geometry recognition is used heavily for A) watch list access B) door access C) PC access D) server access

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

38) An accuracy issue with biometric authentication is the deception rate.

83 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Easy

39) The false acceptance rate increases as the number of templates increases.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

40) For watch lists of criminals, a false acceptance is worse than a false rejection from a security viewpoint.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

41) Identification is the process where the verifier determines whether the supplicant is the particular person that the supplicant claims that he or she is.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

42) Fingerprint readers do not yet have the ability to measure skin capacitance or pulse rates.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and identification Difficulty: Moderate

43) Fingerprint scanning, which is often deceived, may be acceptable for entry into a non-sensitive supplies cabinet.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.5 Describe biometric authentication, including verification and 84 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

identification Difficulty: Moderate

44) A private key/public key pair is usually created by the A) client or non-PKI servers B) PKI server C) certificate revocation list D) permissions

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.6 Explain how PKI provides cryptographic authentication Difficulty: Moderate

45) In the context of PKI, is the process of accepting public keys and providing new digital certificates to the users.

A) coordination B) provisioning C) reflection D) certification Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.6 Explain how PKI provides cryptographic authentication Difficulty: Moderate

46) The authentication problem is that unless individuals are carefully vetted before being allowed in a system, imposters can simply enroll through social engineering.

A) core B) human C) prime D) final Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.6 Explain how PKI provides cryptographic authentication Difficulty: Moderate

47) Cryptographic authentication is the most expensive form of authentication.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.6 Explain how PKI provides cryptographic authentication Difficulty: Moderate 85 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Provisioning is the riskiest aspect of public key infrastructures.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.6 Explain how PKI provides cryptographic authentication Difficulty: Moderate

49) Assigning least permissions means that the system tends to A) operate flawlessly B) gives a user too many permissions if an error is made C) fail safely D) be unable to grant additional permissions

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.7 Explain authorizations Difficulty: Moderate

50) In planning authorizations, it is important to follow A) the principle of minimum identity data B) two-factor authentication C) multifactor authentication D) the principle of least permissions

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.7 Explain authorizations Difficulty: Moderate

51) When assigning initial permissions, it is good to add more permissions than strictly necessary and then remove permissions if appropriate.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.7 Explain authorizations Difficulty: Moderate

52)

records the actions that an account owner takes with a resource.

A) Logging B) Auditing C) Log reading D) Analyzing

Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.8 Explain auditing 86 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

53) Which of the following is FALSE about log files?

A) Automatic alerts should be established.

B) Log files should be read regularly.

C) External auditing should be conducted periodically.

D) Reading log files is an easy and minimally time-consuming process.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.8 Explain auditing Difficulty: Moderate

54) Unless logs are studied, they are useless.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.8 Explain auditing Difficulty: Easy

55) Which of the following is NOT one of the devices in R ADIUS central authentication?

A) The RADIUS central authentication server B) Authenticator C) Supplicant D) Verifier Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.9 Describe how central authentication servers work Difficulty: Moderate

56) Which of the following statements about central authentication servers is NOT true?

A) They reduce costs.

B) They give consistency in authentication no matter where a user or attacker comes into the network.

C) They only allow authentication to networks when employees are at the same physical locations as the servers.

D) They allow company-wide changes to be made instantly.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.9 Describe how central authentication servers work Difficulty: Moderate 87 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) In Kerberos, the TGT is like .

A) getting a wrist bracelet when you enter a concert B) paying at the door for a sports event C) buying a limited access pass for an amusement park D) being on a no fly list at an airport Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.9 Describe how central authentication servers work Difficulty: Moderate

58) Kerberos is nothing more than a central authentication server.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.9 Describe how central authentication servers work Difficulty: Moderate

59) Which statement about directory servers is NOT true?

A) Most large companies use directory servers as their place to store data.

B) Directory servers store authentication, authorization, and auditing information required for security.

C) Directory servers are limited to security information.

D) Directory servers store employee contact information such as telephone numbers.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Difficult

60) A directory server database schema is a hierarchical collection of A) objects B) USB tokens C) one-time password token D) public keys Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Easy

61) The top-level object is .

A) OU, organizational unit B) O, the name of the organization 88 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

C) UN, uncommon name D) objects, also called nodes Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Moderate

62) LDAP .

A) is used to facilitate communication between authentication servers and directory servers.

B) is mostly used to update information in the directory server.

C) governs the internal operations on the directory server D) does not govern communication between directory servers and other devices Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Moderate

63) If Directory Server A trusts Directory Server B, and Directory Server B trusts Directory Server C, and Directory Server A trusts Directory Server C automatically, this is trust.

A) mutual B) transitive C) intransitive D) one-way Answer: B Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Moderate

64) If Directory Server A trusts Directory Server B and Directory Server B trusts Directory Server A, this is trust.

A) mutual B) transitive C) intransitive D) one-way Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Moderate

89 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) Directories provide a higher level of centralization for firms that have many central authentication servers.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Easy

66) Microsoft’s directory server product is called active directory (A D).

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Easy

67) Trust means that one directory server will accept information from another.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.10 Describe how directory servers work Difficulty: Moderate

68) The server gets the directory servers to exchange information and to synchronize services in a variety of ways.

A) directory B) central authentication C) synchronization D) metadirectory Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

69) In federated identity management, firms .

A) send assertions to one another B) query one another's identity management databases C) authenticate users D) provide verification Answer: A Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

90 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) A(n) is a statement from Firm A that Firm B should accept as true if Firm B trusts Firm A. A) certificate B) certification C) assertion D) attribute Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

71)

is not revealing more information about a person or resource than is necessary for a particular purpose.

A) SSO B) Reduced sign-on C) Provisioning D) Minimum identity data

Answer: D Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

72) A potential benefit of identity management is A) SAML B) MS-Chap C) SSO D) XML

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

73) In federated identity management, firms do not query one another's identity management databases.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate 91 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) A complete SSO across an entire firm is easy to achieve.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Moderate

75) For nonsensitive information, people can do their own updating.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 5.11 Define full identity management Difficulty: Easy Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 6 Firewalls 1) When a firewall examines a packet passing through it, if the packet is a provable attack packet, .

A) the firewall deletes the packet B) the firewall drops the packet C) the firewall passes the packet on to its destination D) the firewall duplicates the packet Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

2) A is made by a firewall.

A) NAT/PAT B) unified threat C) pass/deny decision D) log file Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

3)

firewalls filter traffic passing between different parts of a site's network.

A) Internal B) Egress C) Border D) Ingress 92 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

4)

creates a self-inflicted denial-of-service attack against the firm.

A) Dropping packets that are not provable attacks B) Passing packets that are provable attacks C) Dropping packets that a firewall cannot process effectively D) Passing packets that are not provable attacks

Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Difficult

5) In A) internal B) egress C) border D) ingress

filtering, the firewall filters packets when they are leaving the network.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

6) Nearly all main border firewall use A) static packet filtering B) stateful packet inspection C) network address translation D) antivirus filtering

as their primary inspection mechanism.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

7) Which of the following is NOT a type of filtering?

A) Stateful packet inspection 93 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) Static packet C) Antivirus D) Authentication Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

8)

firewalls handle traditional firewall processing, antivirus filtering, and spam filtering.

A) Unified threat management B) Ingress C) Egress D) Static packet filter

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

9) If a firewall becomes overloaded with traffic, it will drop packets it cannot process.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

10) The purpose of egress firewall filtering is to stop attack packets from entering the firm's internal network.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Moderate

11) Even if a firewall can handle the traffic when a firm purchases it, the firewall may run out of capacity later.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) 94 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

12) Traditional firewalls do antivirus filtering and other application-level malware filtering.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.1 Define firewalls in general (basic operation, architecture, and the problem of overload) Difficulty: Easy

13) Static packet filtering firewalls are limited to .

A) inspecting packets for which there are good application proxy filtering rules B) inspecting packets in isolation from their context C) only inspecting internal transmissions D) only inspecting external transmissions Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.2 Describe how static packet filtering works Difficulty: Moderate

14) Static packet filtering is sometimes used .

A) on all internal transmission in a company B) as a secondary filtering mechanism C) on all Internet-related communication D) as the primary border firewall filtering technique Answer: B Page Ref: 282 Learning Objective: 6.2 Describe how static packet filtering works Difficulty: Moderate

15) The earliest type of border firewalls used static packet filtering.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.2 Describe how static packet filtering works Difficulty: Moderate

16) Static packet filtering looks at packets one at a time, in isolation.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.2 Describe how static packet filtering works 95 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

17) Nearly all corporate border firewalls use the A) static packet B) stateful packet C) ingress D) egress

filtering method.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (S PI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

18) Which of the following can be described as analogous to a connection?

A) A phone call between two people B) A speech delivered to a big audience C) An on-stage monologue D) A choir singing in harmony Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (S PI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

19)

focuses on connections between programs on different hosts.

A) SPI B) IPS C) IDS D) ASIC

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

20) A designates a specific program designated by a port number on a specific computer's I P address.

A) socket B) connection C) state D) default Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls 96 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

21) Which of the following is one of the two simple DEFAULT SPI firewall rules for packets that attempt to open connections?

A) Permit all attempts from external hosts to open a connection with an internal host.

B) Permit all attempts to open a connection from an internal host to an external host.

C) Permit all attempts to open a connection from an external host to an internal host.

D) Permit all attempts to open a connection among internal servers.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

22) For most connections, traffic is dominated by exchanges during the A) opening state B) closing state C) ongoing communication state D) authentication state

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

23)

consist of a series of rules that are exceptions to the default behavior.

A) IPS B) SPI C) IDS D) ACLs

Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

24) Which of the following is FALSE about stateful packet inspection firewalls?

A) They are relatively fast.

B) They are relatively inexpensive.

C) They are typically safe.

D) They are fairly rare.

97 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

25) A connection is a persistent conversation between different programs on different computers.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Easy

26) The concept of states is central to SPI filtering.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

27) A socket is written as a port number, then a colon, and then an IP address.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

28) SPI firewalls can handle both I CMP and UDP. Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.3 Explain stateful packet inspection (SPI) for main border firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

29)

does not actually filter packets but effectively provides a great deal of protection.

A) NAT B) IPS C) SPI D) IDS

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.4 Describe how network address translation (N AT) works Difficulty: Moderate 98 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

30)

are able to send attack packets to I P addresses and port numbers.

A) Sockets B) Connections C) IDSSs D) Sniffers

Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.4 Describe how network address translation (NAT) works Difficulty: Moderate

31) Port numbers ranging from 1024 to 49151 are A) source ports B) registered ports C) ephemeral ports D) TCP ports

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.4 Describe how network address translation (NAT) works Difficulty: Moderate

32) The NAT firewall places only the internal socket in the translation table.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.4 Describe how network address translation (NAT) works Difficulty: Moderate

33) NAT firewalls translate both network addresses (I P addresses) and port addresses.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.4 Describe how network address translation (NAT) works Difficulty: Moderate

34) Unlike static packet filter firewalls and stateful packet inspection firewalls, firewalls explicitly filter application layer messages.

A) application proxy B) unified threat management C) egress D) static packet filter Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI 99 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

firewalls Difficulty: Easy

35) If you will proxy four different applications, how many proxy programs will you need?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

36) Application proxy firewalls .

A) are not processing-intensive B) can handle an unlimited number of client/server pairs C) cannot be used as main border firewalls D) can effectively process all applications Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

37) Stateful packet inspection firewalls .

A) always do application content filtering B) have the slow speed of relay operation C) do not have to implement relay operation as application firewalls do D) cannot examine application layer content Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

38)

can examine outgoing packets from an internal client to the external webserver to detect client misbehavior.

A) Protocol fidelity 100 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) The HTTP proxy C) Internal IP address hiding D) Packet streams Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

39) Inspection of a URL, scripts, and MIME type are part of A) protocol fidelity B) an HTTP proxy C) internal IP address hiding D) deep packet inspection

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in S PI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

40) SPI application inspection provides the same automatic protections offered by application proxy firewalls.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in SPI firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

41) Protocol fidelity is part of an ingress firewall.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.5 Explain application proxy firewalls and content filtering in SPI firewalls Difficulty: Easy

42) IDSs tend to generate .

A) far too many false negatives B) far too many false alarms C) far too few false alarms D) far too few false positives Answer: B 101 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (I DSs) and intrusion prevention systems (I PSs) Difficulty: Moderate

43)

identify suspicious packets that may or may not be parts of attacks.

A) IDSs B) Firewalls C) Static packet inspection D) Deep packet inspection

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Moderate

44) What type of filtering do IDSs do?

A) Deep packet inspection B) Application inspection C) SPI filtering D) Static packet inspection Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Moderate

45) Which of the following is FALSE about IDSs? A) IDSs log all suspicious activity but only create alarms for some suspicious activities.

B) IDSs tend to generate far too many false alarms.

C) IDSs are highly processing-intensive.

D) IDSs use stateful packet inspection.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Difficult

46) Tuning is so inexpensive and easily achieved that most organizations implement it fully.

102 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Moderate

47) The most important development leading to IPSs has been the emergence of application-specific integrated circuit (ASICs).

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Moderate

48) Bandwidth limitation for certain types of traffic is less risky than dropping packets.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.6 Distinguish between intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) Difficulty: Moderate

49) Which of the following is FALSE about antivirus servers?

A) They search for worms.

B) The only search for viruses.

C) They search for Trojan horses.

D) They search for spam.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.7 Describe antivirus filtering Difficulty: Easy

50) What type of filtering do U TM firewalls provide?

A) SPI filtering B) Ingress filtering C) Antivirus filtering D) IDS filtering Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.7 Describe antivirus filtering Difficulty: Moderate

103 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Firewalls and antivirus filtering servers work closely together.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.7 Describe antivirus filtering Difficulty: Easy

52) Most UTM products only have the processing power to be used in smaller firms or branch offices of larger firms.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.7 Describe antivirus filtering Difficulty: Moderate

53) Between a border firewall and the Internet is typically a site's A) border router B) internal firewall C) host firewall D) main border firewall

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Moderate

54) In general, DMZs have A) two B) three C) four D) an unlimited number of

kinds of hosts.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Easy

55) A(n) is a subnet that contains all of the servers and application proxy firewalls that must be accessible to the outside world.

A) DMZ B) log C) SPI D) filter Answer: A 104 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Moderate

56) A DMZ is a subnet.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Easy

57) Multihoming tends to make it easier to develop rules to control access to publicfacing hosts and internal hosts.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Moderate

58) Most firms have a single firewall.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.8 Define firewall architectures Difficulty: Easy

59)

are high-level statements to guide firewall implementation.

A) Firewall policies B) Connections C) Sockets D) Firewall policy management servers

Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Moderate

60) Each firewall policy must be translated into a(n) A) DMZ B) ACL C) HTTP D) SMTP Answer: B 105 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

rule.

Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Easy

61) The action field in a firewall policy database .

A) says what firewalls should do with this service B) describes what the firewall should do after taking its action C) tells the firewall management server what firewalls or routers should be sent to ACLs based on this policy D) has a unique number for each policy Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Easy

62) The firewalls field .

A) can be host names or groups of IP addresses B) says what firewalls should do with this service C) tells the firewall management server what firewalls or routers should be sent to ACLs based upon this policy D) describes what the firewall should do after taking its action Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Easy

63)

is typically considered the most time-consuming part of firewall administration.

A) Installing software B) Configuring hardware C) Reading firewall logs D) Creating policies

Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Moderate

64) ICMP echo probes are used in

.

106 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) IP address scanning B) ingress filtering C) egress filtering D) antivirus filtering Answer: A Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Moderate

65) It is important to conduct vulnerability testing after installation to detect firewall A CL rule errors.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Easy

66) A firewall policy database rarely includes more than six rules.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Moderate

67) Firewalls cannot be configured to log all packets.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.9 Describe firewall management (defining policies, implementing policies, reading log files) Difficulty: Moderate

68) Many attackers can avoid firewall filtering by .

A) maintaining a single point of connection between a site network and the outside world B) avoiding the border wall entirely C) preventing internal attacks D) adding internal firewalls Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate 107 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

69)

is a pattern in the traffic data within an access control list.

A) A NAT/PAT B) A UTM C) Anomy detection D) An attack signature

Answer: D Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

70) New attacks that are made before signatures are defined are called attacks.

A) perimeter B) anomaly C) zero-day D) perspective Answer: C Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

71)

look(s) for patterns that indicate that some kind of attack is underway.

A) Attack signatures B) Anomaly detection C) Intrusion detection systems D) UTMs

Answer: B Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

72) For real firms, a single point of entry between a site network and the outside world is manageable.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

73) Border firewalls have no ability at all to stop internal attacks.

Answer: TRUE 108 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

74) Signature-based detection is less accurate than anomaly detection.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate

75) Anomaly detection tends to generate so many false positives that many firms will not use it.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 6.10 Describe some difficult problems associated with firewalls Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 7 Host Hardening 1) Any device with an I P address is a(n) A) client B) host C) server D) MMC

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

2) Host hardening .

A) is a single protection B) is a number of protections that have almost everything in common C) does not include restricting physical access to the host D) is necessary to protect the host against attacks Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

109 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Which element of host hardening involves identifying security weaknesses that were not caught in the normal course of installation or operation?

A) Downloading and installing patches B) Running vulnerability tests C) Backing up the host D) Restricting physical access to the host Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

4)

allows multiple operating systems to run independently on a single physical machine.

A) Keylogging B) Host hardening C) Auditing D) Virtualization

Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

5) Which of the following is FALSE about virtualization?

A) Virtualization provides multiple benefits in host hardening.

B) Virtualization increases fault tolerance.

C) Virtualization provides for a more secure environment.

D) Virtualization typically increases labor costs.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Difficult

6) Restricting physical access to a host and encrypting data, if appropriate, are two protections for hardening a host computer.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate 110 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Security baselines are a set of specific actions to be taken to harden all hosts of a particular type Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Easy

8) When you have two operating systems, they each have their own areas of R AM, CP U processing, and hard disk space.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

9) Systems administrators typically administer the network.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.1 Define the elements of host hardening, security baselines and images, and systems administration Difficulty: Moderate

10) Microsoft's most recent server operating system is called A) Windows Server B) Windows Server NT C) MMC D) UNI X

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

11) Which of the following is FALSE about the Windows Server client version interface?

A) It comes with Internet Explorer.

B) It comes with File Explorer.

C) It has a command-line interface.

D) It has a Start menu.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems 111 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

12) Most administrative tools in Windows Server come in the same general format, known as .

A) Windows Server NT B) the Microsoft Management Console C) Microsoft Exchange D) Microsoft Windows 10 Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

13) In MMCs, applications are listed A) in the icon bar B) in the tree panes C) as snap-ins D) in the Start menu

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

14) The individual applications on the tree pane are called A) icons B) snap-ins C) sub-objects D) branches Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

15) Which of the following is NOT part of the MMC organization?

A) An icon bar B) A tree pane C) The sub-objects pane D) A command line Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems 112 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Difficulty: Moderate

16) What are KDE, MATE, and GNOME? A) UNIX desktop environments B) Windows 10 desktops C) Linux desktop environments D) UNIX applications Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

17) UNIX calls command-line interfaces A) snap-ins B) shells C) distributions D) trees

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

18) Regarding shells, the current market leader is probably A) GNOME B) Bourne Again Shell C) the Bourne shell D) kernel Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

19) All MMCs have different general organizations.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Easy

20) UNIX is for large servers and is not available for individual P Cs. Answer: FALSE 113 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Easy

21) UNIX is not a single operating system like Windows.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

22) Since there are many different distributions of Linux, hardening a Linux system is difficult.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

23) GUIs use fewer resources than C LI shells.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.2 Know important server operating systems Difficulty: Moderate

24) The most dangerous period usually comes A) right before a fix is released B) immediately after a fix is released C) while a fix is being released D) long after a fix is released

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

25) A(n) is a program that takes advantage of a(n) A) vulnerability; exploit B) exploit; vulnerability C) patch; vulnerability D) attack; vulnerability Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches 114 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Difficulty: Moderate

26) Which of the following is NOT a type of fix to a vulnerability in a system?

A) A work-around B) A patch C) A service pack D) A snap-in Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

27) Which of the following is a small program that fixes a particular vulnerability?

A) A work-around B) A service pack C) A patch D) A version upgrade Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

28) Which statement about patches is true?

A) Patches are expensive.

B) The labor involved in learning of, downloading, and installing patches is minimal.

C) The number of patches released each year is low.

D) The total cost of patch management can be enormous.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

29) W SUS refers to .

A) Windows Server Update Services B) Windows Security Update Services C) Windows Server Upgrade for Security D) Windows Server Upgrade Services Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches 115 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

30) Often the best fix is to upgrade the software to the newest version.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

31) When installing patches, added security often comes at the cost of reduced functionality.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Easy

32) A work-around is the least satisfactory fix.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

33) LINUX commonly uses the R PM method to download patches.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

34) Most firms do not bother to prioritize patches because the cost of installing all patches is quite low.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Moderate

35) Installing patches does not carry any risk in terms of computer security.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.3 Describe vulnerabilities and patches Difficulty: Easy 116 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Assigning security measures to a group is better than assigning security measures to individuals within a group because applying security measures to a group .

A) tends to reduce errors B) eliminates the security risk C) sets the same permissions for all groups D) tends to be more expensive but more efficient Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

37) The Local Users and Groups snap-in is available on the A) Local Permissions B) Computer Management C) Permissions D) Security

MMC.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

38) Each operating system has a super user account; in Windows it is in UNIX it is .

A) administrator; the root account B) the root account; administrator C) administrator; hacking root D) hacking root; administrator

and

Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

39) In Windows Server, the command allows you to switch between administrator and a normal account, while in UNIX, the command is used.

A) su; RunAs B) RunAs; su C) rpm; RunAs D) su; rpm Answer: B 117 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

40) Which of the following commands in Windows Server allows new user accounts to be created?

A) Properties B) RunAs C) rpm D) Action Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Easy

41) The act of taking over a super user account on any computer is called hacking root.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

42) Assigning security measures to groups increases labor costs compared to assigning security measures to individual accounts.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.4 Explain how to manage users and groups Difficulty: Moderate

43)

specify what a user or group can do and not do to files, directories, and subdirectories.

A) Assignments B) Patches C) Permissions D) Actions

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Easy

44) In Windows, parent directory.

means that a directory receives permissions from the 118 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) inheritance B) assignments C) assigning D) standard permissions Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Easy

45) UNIX has groups.

A) two B) three C) six D) nine

different permissions that can be assigned to users and

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Moderate

46) Windows has different standard permissions and specialized permissions to assign.

A) 6; 13 B) 3; 6 C) 3; 13 D) 13; 6 Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Moderate

47) Which of the following is NOT a UNIX permission?

A) Read B) Execute C) Write D) Run Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Moderate

119 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

different

48) Permissions rwx indicate that a user has read, write, and execute permissions.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Moderate

49) An individual or group’s effective permissions are the permissions that are inherited from the parent, plus permissions that are specifically allowed, minus permissions that are specifically denied.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Easy

50) In UNIX, there is no way to assign different permissions to multiple accounts or groups.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.5 Explain how to manage permissions Difficulty: Moderate

51) Which of the following is NOT one of the basic guidelines to govern password creation?

A) Be at least 18 characters long B) Have at least one change of case C) Have at least one digit D) Have at least one non-alphanumeric character Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

52)

are created when a password is passed from a user to a hashing function.

A) Plaintext characters B) Dictionary attacks C) Password hashes D) Hybrid dictionary attacks

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords 120 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

53)

is a password-cracking method wherein the attacker compares passwords to lists of common words.

A) Brute-force guessing B) A hybrid dictionary attack C) A dictionary attack D) A combinatorial attack

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

54) Microsoft Windows 10 uses A) DES B) NTLM C) Blowfish D) SHA

to create its password hashes.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

55) Linux system uses all EXCEPT A) DES B) NTLM C) Blowfish D) SHA

to create its password hashes.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

56) The A) SAM B) NTLM C) SHA D) DES

registry of Windows stores passwords.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords 121 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

57) Which of the following is NOT a cracking method?

A) Rainbow tables B) Hybrid dictionary attacks C) Dictionary attacks D) W SUS Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Easy

58) Passwords that use several types of keyboard characters are called A) digests B) complex C) shadow files D) hybrids Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

59) A keystroke capture program .

A) steals passwords as a user types them B) steals passwords from a database C) stores all hacked passwords in a plaintext file D) steals passwords from a super user account Answer: A Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

60) The separates password hashes from other user information and restricts access so that only super users can access the file.

A) digest B) rainbow table C) shadow file D) computer dictionary Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords 122 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Difficulty: Moderate

61) The password-cracking process is highly manual and time consuming.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Easy

62) The hashing function returns a fixed-size password hash, also known as a digest.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

63) Predefined modifications to common words contained in a dictionary file are called rainbow rules.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

64) Attackers are already aware of the common modifications users make to their passwords.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

65) Rainbow tables contain lists of pre-computed password hashes that are indexed to expedite the password cracking process.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.6 Explain how to create strong passwords Difficulty: Moderate

66) Which of the following is NOT a common problem with antivirus protections?

A) A virus program contract may expire.

B) A user may turn off the antivirus program.

C) A user may turn off automatic downloads.

D) A user may not be able to access the Windows Security Center.

123 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

67) An organization may hire an outside security firm to perform a level simulated cyberattack.

A) security baseline B) penetration test C) defender firewall D) spyware incursion

or high-

Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Easy

68) Audit policies would provide a(n) A) rainbow table B) log C) audit trail D) audit database

for system events.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

69)

allows pen testers to choose among specific exploits, configure a payload, apply the exploit, and then gain access to the system.

A) Kali Linux B) Red-team C) Metasploit D) Encryption

Answer: C Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

70) In a , an internal group tries to defend its systems against the more skilled external group’s attacks.

A) brute force attack B) red-team vs. blue-team exercise 124 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) security baseline D) shoulder-surfing attack Answer: B Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

71) Windows 10 includes a built-in firewall named Windows Defender Firewall.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

72) Antivirus protections may be intentionally turned off a user.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

73) It is often considered that the value of data of a lost or stolen notebook is often greater than the hardware.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

74) A GPO can lock down a client's desktop so that it cannot be changed.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

75) If a client PC fails the initial NAC inspection, the most common response is to forbid access to the network until the user fixes the problem.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 7.7 Describe how to test for vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 8 Application Security 125 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

1) Many applications run with root, also known as the attacker total control of the host.

A) super user privileges B) system privileges C) Session Initiation Protocol D) Simple Network Management Protocol

, so taking them over gives

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

2) When hardening applications running on a host, .

A) the process is less work than operating system hardening B) only some applications need to be hardened C) each application can be about as difficult to harden as an operating system D) it is less important than operation system hardening Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Difficult

3) Temporary areas in RAM are known as A) stacks B) stack entries C) returns D) buffers

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

4) Regarding the mechanics of vulnerabilities, exploits, patches, and workarounds for operating systems and applications, which statement is true?

A) They are fundamentally and profoundly different.

B) They differ in the small number of operating systems versus the many applications firms typically use.

C) In most firms, the lion’s share of all vulnerabilities and fixes relate to operating systems.

D) For operating systems, most firms have to deal with vulnerabilities from dozens of vendors.

Answer: B 126 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Difficult

5) A danger of website programming is accidentally allowing A) IIS B) IPP C) XSS D) SQL

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

6)

is when one user's input can appear on the page of another user.

A) Login screen bypass B) Cross-site scripting C) An SQL query D) SQL injection

Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

7)

is an attack that involves sending modified S QL statements to a web application that will, in turn, modify a database.

A) Login screen bypass B) Cross-site scripting C) An SQL query D) SQL injection

Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

8)

is a computer language used to access and manage databases.

A) C B) IIS C) Ajax D) SQL

Answer: D 127 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

9)

uses multiple technologies to create dynamic client-side applications.

A) Aja x B) C C) IPP D) SQL

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

10) Breaking in by taking over applications is the dominant hacking vector today.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Easy

11) Hackers no longer attack operating systems.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Easy

12) To harden applications, firms should minimize the number of applications a host runs.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Easy

13) The stack overflow is a very rare type of buffer overflow.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Easy

14) The mechanics of vulnerabilities, exploits, and patches are substantially different 128 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

for operating systems and applications.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

15) Maximizing the permissions of applications is an important step in deterring attacks.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Easy

16) In a login screen bypass, an unauthenticated user can access information that should only be accessed by authenticated users.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.1 List the main steps in securing applications Difficulty: Moderate

17) In Microsoft Windows, the native webserver program is A) Ajax B) ISS C) C D) IPP

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

18) Apache and nginx are the two most widely used webserver programs on .

A) Windows 10 B) Unix C) Linux D) Linux and Unix Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate 129 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) An attack in which a user reaches a directory outside of the W WW root directory and its subdirectories is called .

A) a directory traversal attack B) mobile code C) an SQL injection attack D) cross-site scripting Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

20) Which statement about custom programs is true?

A) It is rare for companies to use custom programs.

B) Most firms who use custom programs do a thorough job overseeing their development.

C) Because hackers do not know firms’ customer software, they are unable to hack it.

D) Hackers can write their own custom programs to execute on the victim server to aid in attack.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Difficult

21) Typing URLs with A) ..

B) \ C) :\\ D) ::

in them can give access to sensitive directories.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

22) An excessive number of send invalid data to the server.

A) 512 B) 500 C) 303 D) 404

errors may indicate that an attacker is trying to

Answer: B 130 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

23) Numerous errors might indicate that an attacker is searching blindly for files on your website.

A) 512 B) 500 C) 303 D) 404 Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

24) Server-side programs should be created on A) development servers B) testing servers C) production servers D) authentication servers

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

25) Firms with rigorous deployment policies use A) three B) five C) eight D) thirteen

types of servers.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure WWW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

26) Which statement about production servers is true?

A) Only systems administrators should have permissions beyond reading and execution.

B) Testers should be able to make changes on production servers.

C) Developers need extensive permissions on production servers.

D) Server-side programs should be created on production servers.

131 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

27) Webserver programs often have components that come from different companies.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

28) Website defacement is never more than a nuisance.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Easy

29) Websites do not typically have the ability to log responses that contain various error messages.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

30) An excessive number of 404 errors might indicate that an attacker is searching blindly for files on your website.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.2 Know how to secure W WW services and e-commerce services Difficulty: Moderate

31) A vulnerability in can turn a user’s client P C into an unwilling file server, making all of its files easily accessible to the attacker.

A) Ajaxes B) Java applets C) Cookies D) Stack entries Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Easy 132 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Mobile code .

A) degrades the browser user’s surfing experience B) greatly improves the client’s security C) consists of commands written into a webpage D) tracks users on a website Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

33) Scripting languages .

A) are harder to use than Java B) are more secure than Java C) like JavaScript are scripted versions of Java D) are easier to use than full programming languages Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

34) Turning off cookies to prevent tracking .

A) is impossible B) cannot be done by the user C) makes the use of many websites impossible D) has no downsides Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

35) Which of the following is FALSE about cookies?

A) Some websites use cookies.

B) Antispyware programs cannot identify dangerous cookies.

C) They allow a website to track what pages you have visited.

D) Cookies can remember your login name and password to websites.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Difficult

36) In the Internet Options dialog box, the

tab lets you select security

133 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

settings for general Internet websites.

A) Privacy B) Advanced C) Content D) Security Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Easy

37) Under which of the following tabs in the Internet Options dialog box are cookies controlled?

A) Privacy B) Advanced C) Content D) Security Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Easy

38) It is sometimes possible for the script to activate even if the user does not click the malicious links in a webpage or email body.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

39) Antispyware programs can identify dangerous cookies.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

40) To take advantage of user typing errors, attackers register site names that are similar to those of legitimate domain names.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate 134 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

41) A number of scripts permanently change your browser settings and even your computer registry.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.3 Describe vulnerabilities in web browsers Difficulty: Moderate

42) Email filtering can be done at all of the following EXCEPT A) corporate email servers B) email managed service providers C) the user's PC D) an authentication server

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate

43) Today, spam accounts for day.

A) 45 to 85 B) 5 to 25 C) 10 to 20 D) 30 to 45

percent of all Internet mail traffic on any given

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate

44) The prevention of sensitive information from being sent out of a company is called .

A) extrusion prevention B) unified threat management C) spam filtering D) antivirus filtering Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate emailemail

45) SSL/TLS provides security

.

135 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) between an email client and its mail server B) between an authentication email and an email client C) only with suspicious email D) at the level of the P C Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate

46) Which of the following provides end-to-end email security?

A) PKI B) Vo IP C) ISS D) S/MIME Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate email

47) Which of the following uses circles of trust?

A) PKI B) S/MIME C) PGP D) ISS Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate

48) emailAll firms filter both incoming and outgoing email messages.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate email

49) emailImage spam frustrates most content filtering.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email 136 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate email

50) Email is not a good candidate for cryptographic protection.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.4 Explain the process of securing email Difficulty: Moderate

51) Which of the following make up for two of U DP's biggest weaknesses?

A) IP headers B) UDP headers C) RTP headers D) Circles of trust Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

52) Each packet carrying digital voice data has all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) RTP header B) emailcodec header C) UDP header D) IP header Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

53) When someone speaks, a codec in the VoIP phone A) converts the voice into a stream of digital bytes B) transmits the voice to a soft phone C) carries the digital voice data D) places voice octets in order Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

137 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

54) UDP stands for .

A) Unique Digital Protocol B) User Datagram Protocol C) User Digital Protocol D) Unique Datagram Protocol Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

55) In telephony, transport is .

A) managing the network B) locating the called party and causing their telephone to ring C) the carriage of voice between the two parties D) the act of terminating the call cleanly Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

56) SIP proxy servers are used primarily in A) RTP packets B) signaling transmissions C) transport transmissions D) PSTN

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

57) Eavesdropping .

A) is very difficult to do with traditional telephony B) is more difficult on V oIP networks C) involves breaking into a V oIP system to place free-long-distance calls D) is being made more difficult with technology Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

58) Jitter refers to

.

138 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) reduced bandwidth B) variable delay between packets C) increased bandwidth D) latency Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

59) SPIT is .

A) toll fraud B) spam over IP telephony C) eavesdropping with alligator clips connected to a handset D) variable delays between packets Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (V o I P) Difficulty: Moderate

60) In VoIP, firewalls are a problem because they tend to A) reduce throughput B) increase jitter C) make traffic unreadable D) increase latency

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

61) Signaling is the carriage of voice between two parties.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoI P) Difficulty: Moderate

62) Caller impersonation is possible with I P telephones and soft phones.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over IP (Vo IP) Difficulty: Moderate 139 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) Like the public switched telephone network, V oIP technology is a closed system.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

64) NAT IP address and port number translation decreases latency.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

65) DoS attacks against VoI P can be successful even if they increase latency only slightly.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

66) SPIT is where the attacker uses the corporate VoIP network to place free calls.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

67) One goal of VoIP is to provide convergence—using a single IP network for both voice and data.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

68) When a person speaks, hardware or software called a codec in the V oIP phone converts the person’s voice into a stream of digital bytes.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain how to secure voice over I P (VoIP) Difficulty: Moderate

69) In IM,

servers allow two users to locate each other.

140 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) relay B) presence C) index D) Web Answer: B Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

70) In IM, all messages pass through a(n) A) relay B) presence C) index D) Web

server.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

71) To satisfy legal retention and other compliance regulations, companies should use a(n) server in IM. A) relay B) presence C) index D) authentication Answer: A Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

72) Which of the following is NOT a supervisory protocol?

A) S N M P B) A R P C) OP F D) R T P Answer: D Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

73)

introduced community strings for security, in which a shared secret was 141 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

used to authenticate messages.

A) SNMP V3 B) SNMP V1 C) SNMP V2 D) SNMP V4 Answer: C Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

74) Corporate IM systems should use a presence server rather than a relay server.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate

75) DNS, DHCP, and L DAP are examples of supervisory protocols in T CP/IP. Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 8.6 Describe how to secure other user applications Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 9 Data Protection 1) Data .

A) is raw facts B) is meaning extracted from raw data C) is synonymous with information D) cannot be stored Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.1 Explain why it's important to secure data Difficulty: Moderate

2) The full cost of the Target data breach is estimated at A) $560 million B) $890 million C) $2 billion D) $7 billion Answer: D Learning Objective: 9.1 Explain why it's important to secure data 142 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Difficulty: Moderate

3) Data is the principal element of any information system.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.1 Explain why it's important to secure data Difficulty: Easy

4) Using a secure cryptographic system can prevent attacks while data is being transmitted.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.1 Explain why it's important to secure data Difficulty: Moderate

5) Attacks on data can happen when it's being stored but not when it's being processed.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.1 Explain why it's important to secure data Easy

6) File/directory data backup copies A) programs B) registry settings C) data D) information

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

7) The amount of information on a hard drive that is backed up is referred to as .

A) image backup B) backup C) backup scope D) file/directory backup Answer: C 143 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

8) In , the entire contents of the hard drive are copied to backup media.

A) A file/directory data backup B) An image backup C) Shadowing D) An incremental backup Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

9) Approximately how often do most companies do a full backup?

A) Once an hour B) Once a day C) Once a week D) Once a month Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

10)

backups only back up data that has changed since the most recent full backup.

A) Incremental B) Delta C) Differential D) File/directory backups

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

11)

mix full and incremental backups.

A) It is dangerous to B) Almost all companies C) While desirable, it is not possible to D) It is too time-consuming to 144 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

12)

means that only one or two computers must have backup hardware.

A) Local backup B) Centralized backup C) Mesh backup D) Continuous data protection

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

13) Two computer systems each back up the other in real time in A) mesh backup B) centralized backup C) continuous data protection D) local backup

.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

14) If a company has two servers, backs up the other site.

A) mesh backup B) centralized backup C) continuous data protection D) local backup

is an option for backup in which each site

Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

15) File/directory backup is slower and takes up more storage space than image backup.

Answer: FALSE 145 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

16) An emerging option for client P Cs is mesh backup, in which the client P Cs in an organization back up each other.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

17) Most companies conduct full backups on a daily basis.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

18) Incremental backups are usually discarded after the next full backup.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

19) With local backup processes, backup policies are easily enforced.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

20) CDP is inexpensive to use.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

21) Internet backup services are convenient but very slow.

Answer: TRUE 146 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 9.2 Describe backup scope and methods Difficulty: Moderate

22) Archiving .

A) means storing backed-up data for extended periods B) involves increasing the reliability of backups C) is setting up a second hard drive for backup D) only records changes since the last backup Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

23) There is some research that suggests that DVD or Blu-ray storage of longer than may be problematic.

A) three months B) one year C) 15 months D) two years Answer: D Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

24) If you have a store media that can hold vast amounts of data, is very slow, and has a low cost, you likely have .

A) Blu-ray B) DVDs C) magnetic tape D) RAID Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

25) Blu-ray disks can hold

GB of data.

147 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) 8 B) 12 to 56 C) 50 to 128 D) 85 to 120 Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

26) The life of information on optical disks is A) two years B) ten years C) indefinite D) unknown

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

27) RAID 0, writing data across multiple disks, is known as A) mirroring B) striping C) CDP D) mesh backup

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

28) With RAID 1, A) mirroring B) striping C) CDP D) redundancy

is achieved.

Answer: D Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different RAID (redundant array of independent disks) levels 148 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

29) With RAID 5, reliability is provided by A) parity bits B) RPO C) CDP D) redundancy Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

30) If your last backup was two weeks before a disaster, your acceptable data loss is .

A) one day worth of data B) one week worth of data C) two weeks worth of data D) one month worth of data Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different RAID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

31) A good way to get both reliability and fast data transfer speeds it to use a(n) configuration.

A) RAID 5 B) RPO C) RAID 1 D) RAID 0 Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different RAID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

32) Magnetic tape has been the traditional backup medium.

Answer: TRUE 149 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Easy

33) Clients normally use optical disks (D VD or Blu-ray).

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

34) A RAID 5 configuration can recover from a single-drive failure, but not a multidrive failure.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

35) A RAID 5 configuration can recover from both a single-drive failure and a multidrive failure.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

36) Recovery time objective is the time required to recover from a disaster and restore normal operations.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

37) Parity bits can be stored on the same disk with their corresponding parts.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent 150 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

38) Mirroring increases the recovery point objective.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.3 Describe the different R AID (redundant array of independent disks) levels Difficulty: Moderate

39) An essential part of backup media policies is to ensure that backup media .

A) is moved off-site B) stays on-site C) stays on the same local hard drive of the computer that it backed up D) is stored on-site in a safe Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Moderate

40) Company policies should mandate that all backup media should A) always be stored on-site B) be encrypted C) be backed up two additional times D) be backed up one additional time

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Moderate

41) Retention decisions .

A) can be made simply on the basis of how much storge space a company has B) are affected by business and legal requirements C) should ensure backup data is kept forever D) do not need to emphasize clarity Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies 151 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

42) In 2021, the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission fined J P Morgan a total of $125 million for .

A) allowing its employees to use WhatsApp to evade monitoring of internal communications B) failing to encrypt confidential internal communication C) storing information electronically instead of archiving it on magnetic tapes D) holding initial discovery meetings without legal counsel Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Moderate

43) A provides strong access control, including authentication of suitable strength, authorizations, and auditing.

A) vault server B) RAID 1 C) registry setting D) CDP Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Moderate

44) Backup policies should mandate frequent restoration tests.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Easy

45) In the long term, backup media should be stored in a locked safe on the company premises.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Moderate

46) All industries, in fact, are legally required to retain certain forms of communication, 152 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

whether these are on e-mail or on paper.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Easy

47) The vault server provides strong access control, including authentication of suitable strength, authorizations, and auditing (A AA), which is limited to what a person can do with a file.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.4 Explain the need for data storage policies Difficulty: Easy

48)

is an integrated collection of data.

A) Information B) A database C) A vault server D) RAID 5

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Easy

49) Relations in a database are commonly called A) entities B) tables C) objects D) attributes

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

50) Employees, branches, purchases, and orders are examples of A) entities B) tables C) tuples 153 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

D) rows Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

51) Each table will have a identify each row.

A) SQL trigger B) DML C) key D) tuple

comprising one or more attributes that uniquely

Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

52) When a database is used for trend analysis and other functions, it may be desirable to of queries.

A) increase the granularity B) decrease the granularity C) increase the level of detail D) decrease the number Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

53)

can be used to produce automatic responses if data have been altered.

A) DDL triggers B) DML triggers C) SQL code D) Mirroring

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption 154 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

54)

can be used to produce automatic responses if the structure of the database has been altered.

A) DDL triggers B) DML triggers C) SQL code D) Mirroring

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

55) A simple yet effective way of discouraging attackers from accessing a database is to change the default .

A) DDL triggers B) listening port C) DML triggers D) SQL code Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

56) Companies address the risk of losing a security key by using a(n) A) encryption key reset B) DDL trigger C) key escrow D) listening port Answer: C Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

57) Most databases are relational databases.

Answer: TRUE 155 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

58) It is important that data stored in a database not be cryptographically protected.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

59) It is not possible to sanitize incoming data to remove unacceptable characters that could be used to manipulate the S QL statement.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

60) Only successful logins must be recorded.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

61) Encryption is never fully transparent to the P C user.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption Difficulty: Moderate

62) Encryption is desirable, but it makes sharing more difficult.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.5 Explain database protections including access controls, auditing, and encryption 156 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

63)

is a set of policies, procedures, and systems designed to prevent sensitive data from being related to unauthorized persons.

A) DLP B) PII C) DRM D) SQL

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

64)

obscures data such that it cannot identify a specific person but remains practically useful.

A) Profiling B) Data masking C) Information triangulation D) Linking attribution

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

65)

uses statistical methods, algorithms, and mathematics to find patterns in a data set that uniquely identify an individual.

A) Data masking B) Profiling C) Triangulation D) Mirroring

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

66)

attempts to prevent restricted data files from leaving the firm without permission.

157 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) Extrusion prevention B) Data extrusion management C) Digital rights management D) Traffic analysis Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

67)

can filter all incoming and outgoing content including e-mail and instant messaging.

A) DLP systems B) Linking attributes C) DBMS systems D) DRM

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

68) Data destruction is considered A) inevitable B) optional C) frequent D) routine

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

69) The most common form of deletion in Windows-based systems is A) nominal deletion B) basic file deletion C) wiping D) clearing

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete 158 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

data Difficulty: Moderate

70)

happens when, on a Windows system, you empty the Recycle Bin. A) Nominal deletion B) Basic file deletion C) Wiping D) Clearing

Answer: B Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

71) DRM restricts what people can do with data.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

72) Typically, DRM is fairly easy to enforce.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

73) USB drives are particularly dangerous because Windows by default implements autorun on these drives.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

74) Basic file deletion happens on Windows when you select a file and then press the delete key.

159 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate

75) The most common form of deletion in Windows-based systems is nominal deletion.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 9.6 Describe how to prevent data loss and how to securely delete data Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Chapter 10 Incident and Disaster Response 1) According to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, about attacks are successful.

A) 1 percent B) 5 to 10 percent C) 12 percent D) 22 percent

of concentrated

Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

2) Too many A) minor incidents B) disasters C) false alarms D) major incidents

may dull the readiness to investigate each potential incident.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

3) Minor incidents .

A) seem to be incidents but turn out to be innocent activities B) have an impact too large for the on-duty IT staff to handle C) are true breaches that on-duty staff can handle and that do not have larger implications for the firm D) are beyond the abilities of even computer security incident response teams 160 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

4) Major incidents .

A) seem to be incidents but turn out to be innocent activities B) have an impact too large for the on-duty IT staff to handle C) are true breaches that on-duty staff can handle and that do not have larger implications for the firm D) are beyond the abilities of even computer security incident response teams Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

5) Which of the following are LEAST likely to be active members of a computer security incident response team?

A) IT security professionals B) The legal department C) Public relations D) The accounting department Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

6) Disasters often threaten , which is the maintenance of the day-to-day revenue-generating operations of the firm..

A) business continuity B) CSIRT C) public relations D) business management Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

7) A walkthrough is also called a A) table-top exercise B) live test

.

161 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) CSIRT D) false positive Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

8) Which of the following about live tests is FALSE? A) Live tests have a team actually take the actions instead of describing what they would do.

B) Live tests reveal subtle flaws that walkthroughs cannot.

C) Live tests are typically inexpensive.

D) Live tests are superior for training people.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

9) With good planning and protection, a company can eliminate security incidents.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Easy

10) Major security incidents are typically too large for on-duty IT staff to handle.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Moderate

11) Live tests reveal subtle flaws that walkthroughs cannot.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response Difficulty: Easy

12) The actions taken after an incident usually are more critical than the actions taken before an incident occurs.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.1 Explain the basics of disaster response 162 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Easy

13) Which choice correctly orders the three priorities at the beginning of an incident?

A) detection; escalate; analysis B) analysis; escalate; detection C) detection; analysis; escalate D) analysis; detection; escalate Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

14) A tool might be used to gather real-time information about potential security events, perform threat analysis, and then alert the firm to an attack.

A) security event management B) security information management C) packet analyzer D) CSIRT Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

15) A security information management tool .

A) gathers real-time information about potential security events B) analyzes trends and finds suspicious event patterns C) captures and analyzes network traffic D) prevents the server from serving its legitimate users Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

16) Allowing an attacker to continue working in a system after the attack has been discovered .

A) may allow the company to collect evidence for prosecution B) poses little risk once the attacker has been discovered C) spreads the risk among various entities of the company D) requires immediate termination within one week Answer: A 163 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

17) What step comes after escalation?

A) analysis B) detection C) containment D) recovery Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

18) Although stops intrusions, it also prevents the server from serving its legitimate users.

A) disconnection B) blackholing C) continuing to collect data D) analysis Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

19) The recovery stage .

A) begins right after the attack is detected B) should make the system better than before the attack C) may involve allowing the hackers to continue working on the server D) must not allow staff to repair the server while the computer is operating Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

20) Apologies after an incident .

A) are always required B) must follow a boilerplate template C) should blame the hacker D) should explain what happened Answer: D 164 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

21)

typically investigate(s) most violations of local and state computer laws.

A) The FBI B) The local police C) A federal forensics team D) A state forensics team

Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

22)

punishments may result in jail time.

A) Forensics B) Civil law C) Criminal law D) Local law

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

23) In criminal cases, A) defendants B) prosecutors C) plaintiffs D) lawyers

initiate the case against the defendant.

Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

24) A is the area of responsibility within which a government body can make and enforce laws but beyond which they cannot.

A) jurisdiction B) district court C) court of appeals D) geographic boundary Answer: A 165 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

25) Which of the following is NOT one of the three court system levels?

A) U.S. district courts B) U.S. circuit courts of appeal C) U.S. Supreme Court D) U.S. county courts Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

26) Past judicial precedents constitute A) case law B) criminal law C) federal law D) statutes

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

27)

is/are the final arbiter of law in the United States.

A) U.S. district courts B) U.S. circuit courts of appeal C) The U.S. Supreme Court D) International law

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

28) In the United States, the main federal law regarding hacking is U.S. A) 18 U.S.C. § 1030 B) 18 U.S.C. § 2511 C) 18 U.S.C. § 18 D) 18 U.S.C. § 1020

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents 166 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

29) Which of the following is NOT prohibited by U.S. federal law 18 U.S.C. § 1030?

A) Denial-of-service attacks B) Hacking C) Malware D) Spam Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

30) Analysis involves gathering information to begin planning for containment and recovery.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

31) Once an attack has begun, a company should never allow the attacker to continue.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

32) Total software reinstallation effectively addresses data loss.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

33) In practice, SEM and SIM tools are combined into a single suite of security information and event management (S IEM) tools that offer the benefits of both.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

34) It is considerably easier to punish an employee who is attacking internally or from 167 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

home than an outside attacker.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

35) In most civil cases, a prosecutor initiates a case against a defendant.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

36) Case law allows the courts to clarify the application of specific laws and clarify which laws take precedent when they conflict.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Moderate

37) Cyberlaw is any law dealing with information technology.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

38) International laws about cybercrime are fairly uniform throughout the globe.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.2 Describe the intrusion response process for major incidents Difficulty: Easy

39) An IDS is like .

A) a police officer called to a crime B) a security camera in a building C) an alarm system D) a booby trap set for an intruder Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate 168 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) False alarms in an I DS are known as A) false positives B) false negatives C) minor incidents D) major incidents

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

41) The most sophisticated automated analysis done by I DS is A) the use of attack signatures B) packet logging C) anomaly detection D) hair-trigger alarms Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

42) Which of the following is NOT one of the four major functions of an I DS? A) Logging B) Automated analysis C) Administrator actions D) Prevention Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

43) A IDS collects data from many devices at a central management console.

A) decentralized B) distributed C) centralized D) fragmented Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection 169 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

44) The collects event data and stores that data in a log file on the monitoring devices.

A) software agent B) software manager C) batch transfer D) real-time transfer Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

45) The is responsible for integrating the information from the multiple agents that run on multiple monitoring devices.

A) software agent B) manager program C) batch transfer D) real-time transfer Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

46) In the context of transferring log files with manager immediately.

A) manager-agent communication B) batch transfer C) a software agent D) real-time transfer

, each events data go to the

Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

47)

are essentially corporate-owned sniffers.

170 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) switch NI DSs B) Honeypots C) stand-alone NIDSs D) router NIDSs Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

48) The main attraction of is that they provide highly specific information about what happened on a particular host computer.

A) HIDSs B) stand-alone NIDSs C) router NIDSs D) switch NI DSs Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

49) The process of creating integrated log files is called A) aggregation B) synchronization C) correlation D) analysis

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

50) Event correlation .

A) reports all attack events and as few false alarms as possible B) turns off unnecessary rules and reduces the severity level of the alarms generated by other rules C) is the analysis of multievent patterns D) involves synchronizing all devices to a single internal N TP server Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection 171 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

51)

is the turning off of unnecessary roles and reducing the severity level in alarms generated by other rules.

A) Sensitivity B) Synchronization C) Tuning D) Precision

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

52) In practice, are used primarily by researchers studying attacker behavior by recording everything a visitor does or tries to do.

A) integrated logs B) stand-alone NIDS C) router NIDS D) honeypots Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

53) An IDS provides query and reporting tools to help administrators analyze the data interactively during and after an incident.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

54) All firms have blind spots where N IDSs cannot see packets.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate 172 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) The Network Time Protocol allows a type of synchronization.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

56) Companies do not need to update their I DS attack signatures as it is done automatically.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

57) IDSs rarely have false negatives.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Easy

58) Traffic in a honeypot usually indicates an attack.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.3 Describe the functions and types of intrusion detection systems (IDSs) Difficulty: Moderate

59)

specify how companies will maintain or restore core business operations after disasters.

A) IT disaster recovery plans B) Business continuity plans C) Business process analysis D) IT contingency plans

Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

60) Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic principles that should underlie 173 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

all thinking about business continuity?

A) Reduce capacity in decision making B) Avoid rigidity C) Be creative D) People first Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

61) Which of the following is considered the first step in creating a business continuity plan?

A) Specifying resource needs B) Identifying business processes C) Prioritizing business processes D) Specifying actions and sequences Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

62) Which of the following is considered the second step in creating a business continuity plan?

A) Specifying resource needs B) Identifying business processes C) Prioritizing business processes D) Specifying actions and sequences Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

63) In a crisis, rigid adherence to plans and processes for recovery is critical.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

64) It is important to do as much planning ahead of time and to have people rehearse what they will do, making as many actions as automatic as possible.

Answer: TRUE 174 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Easy

65) The first job of planning and event management is to provide for the safety of people.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Easy

66) In crises, communication within a company is usually enhanced.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.4 Describe business continuity planning Difficulty: Moderate

67)

looks specifically at the technical aspects of how a company can get I T back into operation.

A) A business continuity plan B) Business management C) An IT disaster recovery D) A live test

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Easy

68) Which of the following is NOT considered a backup facility?

A) A hot site B) A cold site C) Cloud-based hosting D) A CSIRT Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

69) Cold sites

.

175 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) do not have power B) are less expensive than hot sites C) have hardware and software installed D) can take over the full operation of the damaged site as soon as people move in Answer: B Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Difficult

70) Which is an advantage of a hot site?

A) They are very inexpensive.

B) It is easy to ensure the software at the site is configured in the same way as the original site.

C) They can be back in operation rapidly.

D) They continuously back up data and are spread across the globe.

Answer: C Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

71) Which of the following is NOT a factor of cloud-based hosting?

A) Lower costs B) Better disaster recovery C) Increased reliability D) Lessened scalability Answer: D Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

72) Disaster recovery looks specifically at the technical aspects of how a company can get IT back into operation using backup facilities.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

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73) Cold sites offer electrical power and H VAC but are not connected to the outside world.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

74) Hot sites are attractive for a company but they are expensive to keep open.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate

75) Most companies using cloud-based hosting have their data backed up once per week.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: 10.5 Know the IT disaster recovery process and how to respond to security incidents Difficulty: Moderate Corporate Computer Security, 6e (Boyle/Panko) Module A: Networking Concepts 1)

is either a layer in the T CP/IP architecture or a collection of networks that is not the global Internet.

A) A host B) The internet C) The U.S. Internet D) An access router

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.1 Introduction Difficulty: Easy

2) An octet is .

A) a bit B) 8 bits C) 8 bytes D) one-eighth of a byte Answer: B 177 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: A.1 Introduction Difficulty: Easy

3) A(n) A) host B) server C) byte D) LAN

is any device attached to the global Internet.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.1 Introduction Difficulty: Easy

4) A server, a client PC, or a PDA can be referred to as a host.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.1 Introduction Difficulty: Moderate

5) What is the typical size of an access router?

A) About the size of a hardback book B) About the size of a pack of cards C) Approximately the size of a laptop computer D) Approximately the size of three or four hardback books Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

6) In a simple home P C network with two computers, a modem, and a router, the router is the of the network.

A) heart B) brain C) lungs D) feet Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Easy

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7) The circuitry that a P C uses to communicate over the network is called the computer’s .

A) NIC B) NAT C) SPI D) DHCP Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

8) Which of the following is FALSE about access routers?

A) They all have an S PI firewall.

B) They provide network address translation.

C) They connect a network to another network.

D) They have a DHCP server.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Difficult

9) Which of the following is a type of twisted pair wiring?

A) STP B) NAT C) IP D) DHCP Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

10) A LAN .

A) must operate in a personal residence B) cannot operate in an office building C) operates on a customer’s premises D) connects different sites Answer: C Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

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11)

connect computers to a network, and other switches.

A) Workgroup switches; core switches B) Workgroup switches; public switches C) Public switches; core switches D) Core switches; workgroup switches

connect switches to

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

12)

is easy to wiretap, allowing attackers to read all packets flowing through the cord.

A) STP B) DSL C) UTP D) NIC

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

13) The organization that funded the creation of the Internet is A) DARPA B) ISO C) ITU-T D) IETF

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

14) The Internet .

A) is a super network that connects thousands of individual networks together B) only includes noncommercial networks C) does not allow commercial networks D) as we know it began in the early 1970s Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate 180 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Messages that travel within a single network are called that travel from one to another across the Internet are called A) packets; frames B) frames; switches C) switches; packets D) frames; packets

and messages .

Answer: D Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

16) Internet service providers connect at centers that are usually called A) NAPs B) PSDNs C) switches D) LANs Answer: A Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

17) AUTP cord contains 16 copper wires, organized in eight pairs.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

18) STP wiring has supplanted U TP wiring and now dominates the market.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

19) Security professionals generally believe that carrier technology offers good security.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

181 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

20) Packets are carried inside frames.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.2 A Sampling of Networks Difficulty: Moderate

21) Security that results from the inherent operation of a standard is called A) incidental security B) defective implementation C) transmission security D) IPsec security

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

22)

is the main protocol for delivering packets over the Internet.

A) ISP B) IPsec C) IP D) NAP

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

23) Which statement about IPsec is true?

A) It was created to address the fact that IP originally had no security.

B) It is widely used.

C) It works effortlessly.

D) It was created to supplement IP’s existing security.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

24) The T CP standard is difficult to attack because an attacker cannot send a false TC P message unless he or she can guess the sequence number of the next message.

Answer: TRUE 182 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

25) All computer standards were initially created with security.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

26) When security is added to a standard, it is always added for all versions of the standard.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.3 Network Protocols and Vulnerabilities Difficulty: Moderate

27) The single-network layer is .

Which of the following is NOT a core layer?

A) the highest core layer B) is the middle core layer C) is the lowest core layer D) is not a core layer Answer: C Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

28) Which of the following is the highest core layer?

A) Applications B) Internet C) Single-network D) Transport Answer: A Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

29) Standards at the A) internet core layer B) single-network layer

govern how packets are delivered across an internet.

183 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) transport layer D) applications layer Answer: A Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

30) Single-network core standards are for message delivery through A) a LAN or W AN B) twisted pair wires C) PSDNs D) public switches

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

31) Standards are divided into three core layers.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Easy

32) One of the main standards at the internet core layer is the Internet Protocol.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.4 Core Layers in Layered Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

33) Which of the following creates Internet standards?

A) ISO B) DARPA C) TCP D) IETF Answer: D Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

34) The name of the Internet standards architecture is 184 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

A) OSI B) TCP/IP C) IPsec D) ISO Answer: B Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

35) Which layers of TCP/IP correspond to the internet core layer?

A) application and internet layers B) internet and transport layers C) transport and subnet access layers D) application and subnet access layers Answer: B Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

36) How many layers does the O SI architecture have?

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 11 Answer: C Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

37)

is a standards architecture.

A) ISO B) OSI C) ITU-T D) IETF

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

38) What are the two O SI standards agencies?

A) ITU-T and IETF 185 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) IETF and ISO C) DARPA and OSI D) ISO and ITU-T Answer: D Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

39) The layer in the hybrid T CP/IP-OSI architecture comes from O SI. A) transport B) physical C) applications D) subnet Answer: B Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

40) IETF documents are publicly available at no charge.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

41) The OSI standards architecture is dominant.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.5 Standards Architectures Difficulty: Moderate

42) The path that a frame takes through a single network is called a A) physical link B) data link C) packet D) switch Answer: B Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

186 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

.

43)

cords act like radio antennas when they carry signals.

A) Fiber B) Wireless C) UTP D) Switch

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

44) A popular transmission medium for longer distances is A) TCP/IP B) twisted pair C) UTP D) optical fiber

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

45) Switches spend almost all of their time A) exchanging switch supervisory frames B) forwarding frames C) creating loops among the switches D) impersonating other switches

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

46) The LAN standard is designed to limit switch-to-switch communication to authenticated switches.

A) 802.1AE B) 802.1X C) TCP/IP D) IPsec Answer: A Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

187 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) Radio signals must be strongly encrypted to prevent eavesdropping, and the parties must be strongly authenticated to prevent impostors from sending false radio messages.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

48) Spread-spectrum transmission in wireless L ANs provides security.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.6 Single-Network Standards Difficulty: Moderate

49) The IETF divided the internetworking core layer into two layers A) the internet and transport layers B) the subnet access and transport layers C) the single-network core and transport layers D) the application and internet layers

.

Answer: D Learning Objective: A.7 Internetworking Standards Difficulty: Moderate

50) The Transmission Control Protocol (T CP) was created as a high-capability protocol that would fix any transmission errors, ensure that packets arrived in order, slow transmission when the network became overloaded, and do several other things.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.7 Internetworking Standards Difficulty: Moderate

51) An IP header normally is shown by drawing several rows, with row.

A) 32 bytes B) 64 bits C) 32 bits D) 8 bytes Answer: C Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol 188 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

in each

Difficulty: Moderate

52) The in an IP header are defined by their bit position in the packet.

A) fields B) bytes C) packets D) switches Answer: A Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

53) A value A) of 0 B) less than 10 C) larger than 5 D) of 22

in the header length field indicates that the packet is suspicious.

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

54) If an IP packet is too long for a single network along the way, the router sending the packet into that network will .

A) delete the entire packet B) return the packet C) fragment the packet D) shorten the packet appropriately Answer: C Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

55) A packet is a long stream of 1s and 0s.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

56) IP fragmentation is common.

189 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

57) A subnet can only have one host.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.8 The Internet Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

58) TCP messages are called A) segments B) packers C) datagrams D) frames

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

59) Connection-oriented protocols are like A) e-mail messages B) telephone conversations C) monologues D) singalongs

.

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

60) What does a reliable protocol do?

A) Detects every second error in a system B) Detects and corrects errors C) Only corrects errors, another node detects the errors D) Detects user errors and corrects many of them Answer: B Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate 190 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

61) The T CP A) flow B) window C) segment D) maximum

field is designed to control the other party's transmission rate.

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

62)

is a well-known port number for web-server programs.

A) TCP Port 80 B) TCP Port 25 C) TCP Port 21 D) TCP Port 1023

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

63) Connectionless protocols are like e-mail.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

64) To do TCP session hijacking, the attacker has to be able to predict the sequence number of the TCP segment currently being sent.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.9 The Transmission Control Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

65)

places a relatively small traffic load on a network.

A) TCP B) IP C) UDP D) NAT

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.10 The User Datagram Protocol 191 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Difficulty: Moderate

66) TCP/IP's internet layer supervisory protocol is A) ICMP B) DHCP C) DNS D) IP

.

Answer: A Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

67) UDP is a good protocol for applications that need reliability.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.10 The User Datagram Protocol Difficulty: Moderate

68) The best-known ICMP message types are ICMP A) DNS and ping reply B) echo and echo reply C) packet and packet segment D) HTTP and HTML

messages.

Answer: B Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

69) An organization with a servers.

A) fourth-level B) third-level C) second-level D) top-level

domain name must maintain one or more DNS

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

70) RIP, OSPF, and BGP are

.

192 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) static IP addresses B) dynamic host configuration protocols C) supervisory protocols D) dynamic routing protocols Answer: D Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

71) Many ICMP messages are error messages.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

72) Server hosts are given dynamic I P addresses.

Answer: FALSE Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

73) In DNS cache poisoning, an attacker replaces the I P address of a host name with another IP address.

Answer: TRUE Learning Objective: A.11 TCP/IP Supervisory Standards Difficulty: Moderate

74)

is a popular transfer standard for e-mail.

A) HTTP B) HTML C) SMTP D) DHCP

Answer: C Learning Objective: A.12 Application Standards Difficulty: Moderate

75) Most applications share the same application layer standards.

Answer: FALSE 193 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.

Learning Objective: A.12 Application Standards Difficulty: Moderate

194 Copyright © 2025 Pearson Education, Inc.