Cosmetology Practice Test (Free Sample — 2025
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Practice Questions
1. Which step most directly ensures an EPA-registered disinfectant achieves its full label efficacy on tools?
A) Precleaning to remove visible debris and bioburden before immersion
B) Using hot water instead of room temperature during immersion
C) Doubling the labeled contact time to be extra safe
D) Leaving implements submerged overnight in a closed container
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Disinfectants cannot act through soil; thorough precleaning removes bioburden so the chemical can contact all surfaces for the full label time.

2. Lifting natural level 4 hair to level 7 exposes which dominant underlying pigment that must be neutralized for a balanced result?
A) Red
B) Red-orange
C) Orange
D) Yellow-orange
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: At level 7 the exposed underlying pigment is predominantly orange; blue-based toners or formulas are used to neutralize it
3. Hair previously relaxed with sodium hydroxide now requests a permanent wave to create soft curls. What is the correct course of action?
A) Proceed using a mild ammonium thioglycolate perm lotion
B) Proceed only with true acid perm under low heat
C) Apply a thio-free texture service designed for relaxed hair
D) Do not perm; hydroxide-relaxed hair cannot be safely re-formed with thio waving
✅ Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Hydroxide relaxers convert disulfide bonds to lanthionine irreversibly; thio waving cannot safely re-form curl on hydroxide-relaxed hair.
4. Which service is strictly contraindicated for a client who has used isotretinoin (Accutane) within the past 6 months?
A) Brow waxing
B) Clarifying shampoo
C) Dry haircut
D) Oil manicure
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Isotretinoin thins and sensitizes skin; waxing can cause epidermal lifting and injury and is therefore contraindicated
5. A greenish discoloration developing under an enhancement is most commonly due to:
A) Dermatophyte mold infestation in the nail plate
B) Pseudomonas bacteria proliferating in trapped moisture
C) Allergic contact dermatitis to ethyl methacrylate
D) Iron oxidation from metal implements
✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Green nails are typically from Pseudomonas in a moist pocket between product and plate; it is bacterial, not mold.
6. During high-frequency (Tesla) indirect application, where the client holds the electrode and the practitioner massages, the primary effect is:
A) Germicidal cauterization of lesions via direct sparking
B) Alkaline desincrustation to soften sebum
C) Sedative warmth with increased circulation and mild stimulation
D) Iontophoretic penetration of acidic serums
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Indirect application provides soothing warmth and boosts circulation with mild stimulation useful for dry, devitalized skin.

7 Which cranial nerve primarily controls the muscles of facial expression relevant to facial massage considerations?
A) Trigeminal (V)
B) Facial (VII)
C) Accessory (XI)
D) Vagus (X)
✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The facial nerve (VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression; pressure and direction should respect underlying anatomy.
8 Which elevation most predictably creates increased (long) layers in a haircut?
A) 0°
B) 45°
C) 90°
D) 180°
✅ Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Elevating to 180° produces maximum removal of weight toward the interior and increases length toward the perimeter
9. In product chemistry, a formulation’s buffering capacity best describes its ability to:
A) Resist changes in pH when acids or bases are introduced
B) Increase viscosity to prevent runoff during application
C) Emulsify oils for stable oil-in-water mixtures
D) Raise the percentage of active solids for stronger performance
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Buffers help maintain a relatively constant pH despite small additions of acids or bases, improving product stability and safety.


✅ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The post-auricular area is a standard, discreet site that allows observation for delayed hypersensitivity reactions
14. Which nail structure is living tissue that should not be cut during a manicure?
A) Cuticle
B) Hyponychium
C) Eponychium
D) Perionychium
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The eponychium is living skin at the base of the nail plate; only the dead, nonliving cuticle should be carefully removed.
15 Which epidermal layer is present only on thick skin such as the palms and soles?
A) Stratum spinosum
B) Stratum basale
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum lucidum
✅ Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The translucent stratum lucidum appears in thick, hairless skin and is absent in thin skin.
16 Which modality uses very low-level electrical currents to help tone facial muscles and aid healing?
A) Galvanic (iontophoresis/desincrustation)
B) High-frequency (Tesla)
C) Microcurrent
D) Faradic muscle stimulation
✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Microcurrent delivers microamp currents that mimic the body’s bioelectricity, supporting toning and tissue repair




✅ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Anagen is the active growth phase when new hair is produced.
29. Effleurage in facial massage is best described as:
A) Light, continuous stroking movement
B) Kneading movement to lift and squeeze
C) Percussive tapping with fingertips
D) Deep friction across the tissue
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Effleurage uses light, gliding strokes to relax and warm tissues
30. Which part of the nail extends beyond the fingertip?
A) Free edge
B) Lunula
C) Matrix
D) Nail bed
✅ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The free edge is the portion of the nail plate that extends past the fingertip.
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