Test Bank Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein And Hazel Markus

Test Bank Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein And Hazel Markus

Test Bank Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein And Hazel Markus

Test Bank Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein And Hazel Markus

TEST BANK Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein and Hazel Markus

TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1. What Is Social Psychology?

Chapter 2. Do ing Social Psychology Research.

Chapter 3. The Social Self.

Chapter 4. Perceiving Persons.

Chapter 5. Stereotypes, Prejudice, and Discrimination.

Chapter 6. Attitudes.

Chapter 7. Conformity.

Chapter 8. Group Processes.

Chapter 9. At traction and Close Relationships.

Chapter 10. Helping Others.

Chapter 11. Aggression.

Chapter 12. Law. Chapter 13. Business.

Chapter 14. Health.

Test Bank Social Psychology 11th Edition by Saul Kassin, Steven Fein And Hazel Markus

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Chap_01_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) are technologies that enable social psychologists to a. record research participants’ true attitudes without their awareness. b. present visual stimuli to research participants for 100th of a second. c. see images of the brain as people think, feel, and behave. d. induce a particular mood state in people.

2. When Taka is teaching his social psychology class, he emphasizes that the field must encompass a range of research techniques and cultural perspectives if it is to flourish. Taka’s emphasis reflects a(n) a. contextualist orientation. b. empirical approach. c. “hot” approach to studying social behavior. d. pluralistic orientation.

3. Dr. White is using a recently developed technology to conduct research on how the brain responds to visual images that are culturally familiar or unfamiliar. Which of the following tools might he employ in his laboratory? a. Event-related potential (ERP) b. Electrooculography (EOG) c. X-ray images d. Phrenology mapping (PM) 4. The research of Jonathan Haidt (2012, 2017) addresses the question of whether we can understand the different concepts of morality that separate a. atheists and religious individuals. b. homosexual and heterosexual persons. c. older adults and younger adults. d. liberals and conservatives.

5. Floyd Allport’s social psychology textbook, published in 1924, is credited with a. establishing the field’s emphasis on experimentation and the scientific method. b. imbuing the field with a cross-cultural orientation. c. introducing the major theories of social psychology. d. bridging the “hot” and “cold” perspectives on behavior and cognition.

6. During the 1960s and 1970s, social psychologists who favored laboratory experiments rebuffed critics about the limitations of laboratory work by arguing that a. the theories being tested were historically and culturally abundant. b. the benefits of running these experiments outweighed the costs even if some studies were unethical. c. experimental studies were easier to conduct than nonexperimental studies. d. the theoretical principles being tested in the lab were widely applicable across eras and cultures.

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Chap_01_11e 7. Which of the following statements describes a central characteristic of social psychology? a. Social psychology uses historical events as its primary source of data. b. Social psychology assumes that thoughts and behaviors are influenced by other people. c. Social psychology focuses more on the behavior of groups than on that of individuals. d. Social psychology emphasizes the solitary nature of human behavior.

8. Which of the following statements regarding Kurt Lewin is most accurate? a. His interactionist perspective argues that human behavior is mostly a function of situational pressures. b. His push for practical research was met with great resistance in the early days of social psychology. c. He was the first to test social psychological hypotheses in a scientific manner. d. He conducted research on what kinds of leaders elicit the best work from group members.

9. Social psychology differs from history and philosophy in its a. attention to the scientific method. b. concern with human behavior. c. greater focus on cultural influences. d. more narrowly defined areas of interest.

10. Which of the following researchers observed that cyclists raced faster in the presence of others than when racing against the clock? a. Max Ringelmann b. Norman Triplett c. Floyd Allport d. John Haharwood 11. On certain occasions, social psychologists study a. how nationality influences people’s social behavior. b. people’s thoughts or feelings about common sense. c. people’s thoughts or feelings about nonsocial things. d. how intuition influences scientific findings.

12. The role of natural selection processes in the development of social behavior is a primary concern in a. behavioral genetics. b. social cognition. c. personality psychology. d. evolutionary psychology.

13. Which of the following fields is most concerned with how the brain influences social behavior? a. Evolutionary psychology b. Social cognition c. Social neuroscience d. Behavioral genetics

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Chap_01_11e 14. Chauncy is interested in how behavior is influenced by the way people think about their social world. Chauncy subscribes to the perspective in social psychology. a. “cold” b. “hot” c. interactionist d. cross-cultural 15. Which of the following statements is true of behavioral economics? a. It studied the economic behavior of people belonging to various ethnic and racial groups within the same culture. b. It revealed the failure of traditional economic models in accounting for the role of psychological factors in people’s economic behavior. c. It revealed important distinctions between collectivist cultures and individualist cultures. d. It studied how natural selection influenced the economic behavior of people.

16. Virtual reality allows social psychologists to a. more effectively deceive research participants. b. test questions that might otherwise be impractical or unethical. c. scan the brain as it processes stimuli. d. explore “hot” processes more so than “cold” processes.

17. The remarkable success of human beings can be traced to their a. physical size and strength in the animal kingdom. b. ability to focus on their own needs irrespective of what other people think. c. ability to coordinate with extended networks of other people. d. aggressive and territorial tendencies.

18. Phoebe is a graduate student in social psychology who will only agree to conduct research that will help address an ongoing social problem. Phoebe’s desire is most consistent with the philosophies of which of the following pairs of individuals? a. Gordon Allport and Floyd Allport b. Gordon Allport and Kurt Lewin c. Kurt Lewin and Leon Festinger d. Leon Festinger and Gordon Allport 19. What makes social psychology unique? a. The study of group factors contributing to the functioning of social institutions b. The study of race relations in a social context c. The emphasis on classification of people in terms of socioeconomic class d. The emphasis on the social nature of individuals

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Chap_01_11e 20. Which of the following statements would best represent the “hot” perspective in social psychology? a. A good mood can foster attitude change. b. Distraction can lead to overdependence on first impressions. c. Critical thinking is essential for problem solving. d. People can be genetically programmed to aggress against others.

21. Fernando studies the relationship between emotions and motivations in social settings. Fernando’s research epitomizes the perspective in social psychology. a. pluralistic b. interactionist c. “cold” d. “hot” 22. Mischa conducts research on what makes people perceive themselves as members of a different racial group.

She monitors the different patterns of brain activity of people to support her findings. In this research, she is using a. social neuroscience. b. cross-cultural analysis. c. behavioral economics. d. evolutionary psychology.

23. Wanting to be accurate in our judgments of ourselves is often in conflict with wanting to feel good about ourselves. This conflict illustrates the importance of integrating the perspectives in social psychology. a. “hot” and “cold” b. controlled and automatic c. social and biological d. economic and cognitive 24. Sarai studies stereotypes and prejudice; Kevin studies how people learn about themselves by comparing themselves to others. Sarai and Kevin probably feel particular gratitude to and , respectively, for helping to establish these areas in social psychology. a. Solomon Asch; Gordon Allport b. Gordon Allport, Leon Festinger c. Leon Festinger; Muzafer Sherif d. Muzafer Sherif; Solomon Asch 25. Of the following important figures in the history of social psychology, who most explicitly emphasized the importance of making important practical contributions to society? a. Gordon Allport b. Fritz Heider c. Max Ringelmann d. Muzafer Sherif

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Chap_01_11e 26. Which of the following events is regarded as having established social psychology as a distinct field of study? a. The publication of the first three textbooks in social psychology b. The publication of the first research article in social psychology c. The formation of the Society for the Psychological Study of Social Issues d. The introduction of the interactionist perspective to the field of psychology 27. Jeff is a social psychologist who favors the “cold” approach to understanding human behavior. He is conducting research on why people fail to use condoms even when they know that condoms can reduce their risk of contracting HIV. Jeff is least likely to devote his attention to people’s a. drive to avoid this inconsistency. b. ability to detect the inconsistency. c. awareness of the actual risk of unprotected sex. d. memories of behaving inconsistently with attitudes.

28. Social cognition can be best described as the study of a. how we perceive, remember, and interpret information about the self and others. b. how cultural differences are manifested in social behavior. c. the extent to which social behavior is rooted in the chemistry of the brain. d. the interaction of people and new “thinking” computers.

29. Sociologists tend to study behavior at the level. a. group; individual b. interpersonal; cultural c. specific; general d. social; cognitive 30. From the middle 1970s through the 2000s, a(n) questions became established. a. recidivistic approach b. activist approach c. pluralistic approach d. interactionist approach

level, whereas social psychologists study behavior at the

emerged as a wider range of research techniques and

31. The reference to social psychology in the 1960s and 1970s as being in the midst of “confidence and crisis” reflects an expansion in the types of issues studied by researchers, as well as increased criticism that largely came from a. sociologists. b. fellow social psychologists. c. the general public. d. the popular media.

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Chap_01_11e 32. Blaine works in a factory producing car stereos. He notices that workers produce more stereos by the end of the day when they work together in the same room than when they work in separate rooms. His observation is consistent with a classic study conducted by which of the following researchers? a. Lewin b. Asch c. Triplett d. Sherif 33. An interdisciplinary subfield that focuses on how social and cognitive psychology relate to economic decision making is called a. embodied cognition. b. behavioral economics. c. social neuroscience. d. neoclassical economics.

34. By stressing both internal differences among individuals and differences among external situations, the interactionist perspective a. emphasized the dynamic interplay of internal and external factors. b. combined the approaches of social psychology with clinical psychology. c. emphasized the dynamic interplay of psychology and common sense. d. combined the approaches of social psychology with sociology.

35. Which of the following subfields of social psychology studies the relationship between playing violent video games and subsequent aggression? a. Behavioral genetics b. Behavioral economics c. Social neuroscience d. Evolutionary psychology 36. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between online communication and contemporary social psychology research is most accurate? a. Online communication facilitates collaboration among researchers, but is also, in and of itself, a provocative topic for empirical inquiry. b. Online communication has increased the number of different variables that can be studied at one time, but at the same time, has led to an unfortunate increase in the cost of running psychological studies. c. Online communication allows researchers to combat the artificiality of laboratory experiments and increases the demographic diversity of the participant sample used in most studies. d. Online communication is still years away from having a significant impact on the nature and topics of research in social psychology.

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Chap_01_11e 37. An emphasis on experiments addressing the interaction of individuals and their social context is particularly clear in the writings of a. John Cacioppo. b. Norman Triplett. c. Muzafer Sherif. d. Kurt Lewin.

38. To examine the relationship between economic conditions and violence, Gunther compares the murder rates for counties with different median incomes. Gunther’s research best characterizes the field of a. social psychology. b. clinical psychology. c. anthropology. d. sociology.

39. Which of the following individuals did not author one of social psychology’s first textbooks? a. William McDougall b. Muzafer Sherif c. Edward Ross d. Floyd Allport 40. A social psychologist studying the effects of media violence would a. conduct experiments manipulating the amount of media violence viewed by participants. b. assess how television availability and murder rates have increased over the last 30 years. c. assess the socioeconomic background of people engaging in violence. d. focus on the types of individuals who choose to view media violence.

41. Lewin’s research was important in establishing the idea that a. different topics require different research strategies. b. social psychology could be used to understand and help solve practical problems. c. early theories in social psychology were often historically and culturally limited. d. social psychologists may unwittingly influence the behavior of research participants.

42. Annie wants to find the first source that established social psychology as a separate field with an emphasis on experimentation and the scientific method. What should she probably read? a. Allport’s (1924) text b. Ringelmann’s (1913) article c. McDougall’s (1908) text d. Triplett’s (1897–1898) article

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Chap_01_11e 43. Ringelmann and Triplett are best labeled as a. the first researchers to explore conformity. b. researchers who used anecdotal findings to establish social psychology. c. pioneers in the field of social cognition. d. the founders of social psychology.

44. Cross-cultural research looking at performance on a difficult letter-unscrambling task indicates that a. Asian-American students worked harder than the European-American students if they were first asked to think about their mothers. b. Asian-American students worked harder than the European-American students if they were first asked to think about themselves. c. Asian-American and European-American worked equally hard if they were first asked to think about their mothers. d. European-American students worked harder than the Asian-American students if they were first asked to think about their mothers.

45. Because of his research on practical issues, such as the research he conducted in the 1940s concerning promotion of more economical and nutritious eating habits, Kurt Lewin could be considered one of the founders of a. evolutionary social psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. “hot” theories of social psychology. d. applied social psychology.

46. Who among the following can use social psychology in research? a. Marlon, who wants to study the relationship between trauma and juvenile delinquency b. Jane, who researches on the effect of climate change on human migration c. Trevor, who wants to study the mental health of violent criminals in a prison d. Marion, who researches on the effect of cross-cultural factors on employees 47. Which of the following contributed to pluralism in social psychology? a. International and multicultural perspectives b. Research on common sense and intuition c. Emphasis on group factors d. Artistic and humanistic endeavors 48. Arguably, the most famous research in social psychology focused on the situational factors influencing obedience to authority and was conducted by a. Floyd Allport. b. Edward Ross. c. Leon Festinger. d. Stanley Milgram.

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Chap_01_11e 49. Which of the following criticisms has been leveled against social psychology in the 1960s and 1970s? a. The discipline failed to address topics of social relevance. b. The discipline failed to distinguish itself from other fields of psychology. c. Researchers had not yet agreed upon a conventional methodology. d. The expectations of experimenters influenced participants’ behavior.

50. According to the interactionist perspective, behavior is a result of the interaction between a. motivation and cognition. b. intuition and common sense. c. personality and environmental characteristics. d. theoretical and practical concerns.

51. The question, “When is a bystander more or less likely to help you in in an emergency?” examines which major domain of social psychology? a. Social perception b. Social cognition c. Social influence d. Social interaction 52. The phenomenon that makes people question how social psychology is different from common sense is called the phenomenon. a. “I knew it all along” b. “science is stupid” c. “self-superiority” d. “hale and hearty” 53. Muzafer Sherif’s research was crucial for the development of social psychology because it a. introduced the idea of cognitive dissonance. b. marked the beginning of the pluralistic approach that continues to characterize the field. c. firmly established the importance of an interactionist perspective. d. demonstrated the feasibility of studying complex social issues in a rigorous manner.

54. Jessica and Nick are behavioral researchers. Jessica believes that her sons have been aggressive from birth because she and her husband Nick have inborn aggressive tendencies. Nick, however, believes that their sons are aggressive because throughout history, it has been adaptive for men to be aggressive so that they can protect their territory and possessions. Nick’s beliefs reflect the influence of , whereas Jessica’s beliefs reflect . a. behavioral genetics; multicultural psychology b. multicultural psychology; cross-cultural psychology c. cross-cultural research; evolutionary psychology research d. evolutionary psychology; behavioral genetics

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Chap_01_11e 55. Which of the following classic investigations does not have its roots in violence, war, or wartime culture? a. Sherif’s experiments on social influence b. Triplett’s research on performance in groups c. Milgram’s study of destructive obedience d. Lewin’s research on conservation 56. Which of the following questions would a social psychologist be most likely to study? a. Is there a link between social environment of one’s upbringing and his/her cognitive abilities? b. What risk factors contribute to the onset of schizophrenia? c. Is there a link between playing violent video games and engaging in aggressive behavior? d. What is the relationship between race and ethnicity?

57. The “hot” perspective in social psychology emphasizes . a. positive information; negative information b. feelings; behavior c. facts; motives d. emotion and motivation; cognition

, whereas the “cold” perspective emphasizes

58. Mona would like to understand the interactionist perspective. She has enough time to skim two textbooks. She should probably read one textbook in social psychology and one in a. forensic psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. clinical psychology. d. personality psychology.

59. According to your text, one of the people who had the greatest impact on the developing field of social psychology was not a psychologist. Who was this person? a. Winston Churchill b. Charles Lindbergh c. Adolf Hitler d. Jackie Robinson 60. Which of the following statements is true of social psychology? a. A goal of social psychology is to develop general principles that describe human behavior. b. An assumption of social psychology is that only social factors influence human behavior. c. Social psychology argues that implied or imagined presence of others never influence individuals. d. Social psychology focuses exclusively on subconscious thoughts of human beings.

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Chap_01_11e 61. Much of the debate in social psychology during the period of “confidence and crisis” occurred in reaction to a. the usefulness of applied research. b. the use of laboratory experiments. c. the significance of common sense in social psychology. d. the interactionist perspective.

62. Walton and colleagues (2015) studied students in an engineering program, focusing on specific factors related to first year grade point averages (GPAs). They found that women’s GPAs were very similar to men’s when a. the students received the brief information designed to counter concerns about belonging. b. academic advisors were trained in avoiding gender stereotypes in class assignments. c. professors were recorded giving class lectures to help them identify unequal behaviors. d. residence hall advisors were instructed to “urge” females to take more difficult classes.

63. Characteristic of the field of social psychology today include all of the following except a. an interest in the way cognition and motivation interact. b. a focus on the role of culture in shaping behavior. c. an integration of biological and social perspectives. d. a concern for the lack of ethical standards in research.

64. The field of social psychology emerged as a distinct discipline around the end of the a. 17th century. b. 18th century. c. 19th century. d. 20th century.

65. Which of the following perspectives in social psychology was the result of the bold and creative work of Kurt Lewin? a. The multicultural perspective b. Evolutionary psychology c. The interactionist perspective d. Behavioral economics 66. Which of the following subfields of psychology examines the relationship between genes and behavior? a. Evolutionary psychology b. Quantitative genetics c. Social neuroscience d. Behavioral genetics 67. Which of the following statements is true of social psychology? a. It mostly relies on anecdotal evidence. b. It focuses on studying the human society as a whole. c. It can be used by lawyers to support or refute evidence. d. It cannot be used in any other fields of study.

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Chap_01_11e 68. Who of the following published groundbreaking experimental research on social influence? a. Muzafer Sherif b. Gordon Allport c. Edward Ross d. Kurt Lewin 69. Social psychologists typically a. focus their studies on socioeconomic class and race. b. use the scientific method in their research. c. avoid studying individuals in favor of groups. d. view behavior in the same ways as sociologists.

70. Social psychologists reacted to critiques of the field in the 1960s and 1970s by doing all of the following except a. adopting more rigorous and formalized ethical standards. b. paying more attention to cross-cultural differences in cognition and behavior. c. denouncing experiments as unacceptably artificial. d. developing more stringent procedures to avoid the effects of experimenter bias.

71. Sarunas is a social psychologist. He is probably most interested in reading about a study demonstrating the effects of a. similarity of attitudes on interpersonal attraction. b. immigration patterns on stock market activity. c. distraction of attention to a visual display. d. narcotic substances on neurotransmitter activity in the brain.

72. Which of the following technologies is not mentioned in your text as one that is used in social psychological research? a. ERP b. fMRI c. TMS d. EEG 73. One of the notable aspects of social psychology is that it a. is anecdotal. b. is scientific. c. relies on intuition to provide insights. d. relies on experience to provide insights.

74. A social psychologist would be least likely to conduct a study examining the effect of a. sleep on the ability to concentrate. b. temperature on highway shootings. c. political attitudes on friendship formation. d. academic performance on self-esteem.

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Chap_01_11e 75. Astrid has developed a 12-item questionnaire to help her identify individuals who tend to be skeptical of authority figures across all sorts of different situations. Astrid is most likely a psychologist. a. cognitive b. social c. clinical d. personality 76. The scientific study of how individuals think, feel, and behave when in the real, implied, or imagined presence of others is called psychology. a. clinical b. social c. developmental d. interactive 77. Although related to other fields, social psychology is distinct in its emphasis on a. using scientific method of systematic observation. b. classifying and treating psychological disorders. c. identifying individual characteristics that are relatively stable across time. d. describing the relationship between common sense and scientific findings.

78. Which of the following statements concerning social psychology and sociology is false? a. Sociologists tend to study societal level variables, whereas social psychologists focus on more specific and immediate variables. b. Social psychology studies human behavior at the level of the individual, whereas sociology studies human behavior at the group level. c. Social psychology is a science, whereas sociology concerns artistic and humanistic endeavors. d. Sociologists are more likely than social psychologists to rely on experimental studies to study human behavior.

79. Social neuroscience is best described as the study of the a. evolution of the brain. b. interplay between genes and the environment. c. social functioning of neurons. d. interaction of social and neural processes.

80. Research suggests that a portion of stereotyping and prejudice may happen quite automatically and be outside of our control. This finding illustrates the importance of understanding the integration of a. cognition, motivation, and emotion. b. culture and neuroscience. c. behavioral genetics and evolutionary psychology. d. technology and social psychology.

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Chap_01_11e 81. The “social context” referred to in social psychology a. focuses on group behaviors rather than individual ones. b. does not have to be real or present. c. does not focus on scientific method of systematic observation. d. focuses on people’s nationality, race, and socioeconomic class 82. A contemporary social psychologist who studies stereotyping is likely to focus on a. controllable, but not automatic processes. b. automatic, but not controllable processes. c. both controllable and automatic processes. d. neither controllable nor automatic processes.

83. Which of the following statements about behavioral genetics is most accurate? a. It is a subfield of sociology. b. It examines the extent to which behavioral tendencies may be inherited. c. It is synonymous with evolutionary psychology. d. It considers social experiences to have a negligible effect on behavior.

84. Which of the following statements about commonsense explanations and social psychology is the most accurate? a. Social psychology typically avoids studying phenomena for which there are widely accepted commonsense explanations. b. Commonsense explanations form the basis of nearly all modern social psychological theories. c. At least at present, commonsense explanations can more accurately predict behavior than can social psychology. d. The scientific approach of social psychology does not always yield results that support commonsense explanations.

85. Which of the following statements is not a valid criticism of laboratory experimentation in the 1960s and 1970s? a. Experiments were sometimes unethical. b. Experimenters’ expectations might influence the results. c. The theories being tested in the laboratory were often historically and culturally limited. d. Experiments did not allow researchers to draw conclusions about causal relationships.

86. Which of the following researchers is regarded as one of the original founders of social psychology? a. Norman Triplett b. Stanley Milgram c. Michael Norton d. Philip Zimbardo

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Chap_01_11e 87. Which of the following methods is a relatively new technology used in contemporary social psychological research? a. Positron emission tomography (PET) b. Arterial blood gasses (ABG) c. Electroencephalography (EEG) d. Electromyography (EMG) 88. Roger would like to read about social psychological research on conformity. He should look at the research of a. Solomon Asch. b. Kurt Lewin. c. Leon Festinger. d. Floyd Allport.

89. Which of the following questions would be of most interest to a social psychologist who studies behavioral genetics? a. To what extent are attitudes inherited? b. What brain structures are involved in describing the self? c. Does high self-esteem help people to resist disease? d. What role does testosterone play in aggression?

90. Of the following, which best illustrates an interest in multicultural psychology? a. Identifying what behaviors are caused more by culture than by genetics b. Evaluating the behavior of two different racial groups within the same culture c. Understanding the historical forces that have led to hatred between groups d. Endorsing a “hot” perspective more than a “cold” perspective of human behavior 91. Which of the following best illustrates Lewin’s interactionist perspective? a. Sally is a very creative kind of person who likes to build things. b. Jerry only works because he receives a very large income. c. Rikki is usually shy, but at work she appears to be quite outgoing. d. Maury gives money to charities because he wants other people to think he is very generous.

92. Social psychology is all the following except a. a science addressing a diverse set of topics. b. the study of how people think, feel, and behave in the presence of others. c. a compilation of anecdotal observations and case studies. d. an approach applying the scientific method.

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Chap_01_11e 93. Fatima investigates whether natural selection plays a role in how people are attracted to each other. Fatima’s research is in the area of a. evolutionary psychology. b. cross-cultural psychology. c. personality psychology. d. multicultural psychology.

94. To examine the relationship between temperature and violence, Priti manipulates the thermostat in her laboratory while participants are engaged in a military simulation game. She then looks at the effect of this manipulation on aggressive behavior during the game, comparing participants in the “warm” condition to those in the “comfortable” condition. Priti’s research best characterizes the field of a. sociology. b. social psychology. c. clinical psychology. d. anthropology.

95. Abe understands human behaviors through the lens of the theories of psychoanalysis. Abe’s view probably differs from that of Kurt Lewin in that Abe is more likely to emphasize the power of a. external rewards. b. internal motives. c. situational factors. d. interpersonal relationships.

96. Which of the following branches of psychology studies how behaviors of individuals are influenced by other people? a. Clinical psychology b. Cognitive psychology c. Personality psychology d. Social psychology 97. Which of the following branches of psychology can be applied to various other fields such as law, healthcare, business, and academics? a. Forensic psychology b. Cognitive psychology c. Social psychology d. Developmental psychology 98. The work of Muzafer Sherif was important for the development of social psychology because he a. demonstrated the interaction between personality characteristics and situational factors. b. designed an experiment to study the effects of artistic endeavors on human behaviors. c. showed that complex social behavior could be examined scientifically. d. helped to find solutions to the crisis in the field during the 1960s and 1970s.

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Chap_01_11e 99. Social psychology differs from common sense in that a. common sense tends to produce more accurate knowledge about human behavior than social psychology. b. common sense captures the full complexity of human behavior. c. social psychology is far more intuitive than common sense. d. social psychology relies on the scientific method to test its theories.

100. Which of the following historical events sparked great interest in and gave shape to the field of social psychology? a. The Great Depression b. The U.S. military involvement in Korea c. The actions of Nazis during World War II d. The American Civil Rights Movement 101. Benny wants to adopt both the “hot” and “cold” perspectives in his research on why married couples get divorced. Which of the following descriptions best exemplifies his approach? a. He wants to understand what motivates people to stay in marriages that they know from past experience will only get worse. b. He wants to study the difference between passive and active aggression in marriages. c. He wants to investigate how spur-of-the-moment marriage problems are solved relative to ongoing problems. d. He wants to determine whether simple factors, such as mismatches in attitudes, can predict breakups better than communication patterns.

102. Which of the following matters is not identified by your textbook as an influential factor in today’s social psychology? a. New technological advances b. Behavioral genetics c. Anecdotal findings d. Online communication 103. What kind of research is designed to examine racial and ethnic groups within a given culture? a. Cross-cultural research b. Idiographic research c. Multicultural research d. Nomothetic research 104. Courses in social psychology are most often required for students majoring in a. biological sciences. b. journalism. c. performing arts. d. philosophy.

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Chap_01_11e 105. Kieran is studying how people form impressions of others and remember those first impressions. He discovers that when we receive negative information about other people, it seems to be weighted more toward the impression than on positive information. Kiernan is studying a. group processes. b. evolutionary psychology. c. social cognition. d. leadership and social influence.

106. Raynei criticized the field of social psychology during the 1960s and 1970s. It is likely that Raynei despaired about the ability of social psychological researchers to do all the following except a. suggest possible solutions to everyday social concerns. b. acknowledge their role in artificially producing the results of their studies. c. consider the cultural context in which their findings were obtained. d. design ethical experimental contexts.

107. Social psychological research is a necessary endeavor because our commonsense intuitions a. put their theories to test. b. often are at opposite ends of each other. c. rely heavily on critical thinking. d. are generally accurate but are held with little confidence.

108. “Founders of social psychology” Norman Triplett and Max Ringelmann both performed research that examined a. the influence groups exert on their members. b. the impact of the presence of others on performance. c. how behaviors are shaped by perceptions. d. the impact of different leadership strategies on group performance.

109. The ability to communicate and collaborate with other social psychologists and to recruit research participants from across the world through the Internet has produced a. an increase in the number of social psychologists learning new languages. b. the internationalization of social psychology. c. controversy within the field about what type of training is appropriate. d. research on the integration of biological and social processes.

110. Christine conducts cross-cultural research and Betty conducts multicultural research. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. Christine is more interested in discovering differences between her samples than is Betty. b. Betty is more likely to use social psychological research methods. c. Christine is more likely to sample individuals from many different cultures. d. Betty is more likely to find differences between her samples than is Christine.

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Chap_01_11e 111. Anita wants to spend her career studying the factors that predict whether the members of a couple are satisfied with their marriage. If she chooses to do so as a social psychologist, it is likely that her pursuit will a. focus more on the thoughts of various couples than on their actual behavior. b. emphasize the importance of different personality types of couples. c. examine groups rather than individuals as the unit of analysis. d. include systematic observation, description, and measurement of couples.

112. Research on the social psychological underpinnings of prejudice might be said to have its roots in research by a. Kurt Lewin. b. Gordon Allport. c. Solomon Asch. d. Edward Ross.

113. Marilyn is interested in whether individuals with schizophrenia tend to interpret verbal feedback from others as negative even if it is positive. It might be said that Marilyn is doing research at the intersection of social psychology and a. evolutionary psychology. b. sociology. c. personality psychology. d. clinical psychology.

114. Pluralism in social psychology can be seen in all of the following areas except the a. procedures used to secure government funding. b. emphasis on different aspects of human behaviors. c. methods social psychologists use to study behavior. d. inclusion of various cultural perspectives.

115. Izzy finds that when people vacate a parking spot, they do so more slowly when there is someone waiting to take their spot than if there is no one waiting. He attributes this behavior to an innate predisposition toward territoriality. It might be said that Izzy’s findings represent a combination of work in social psychology and a. clinical psychology. b. behavior genetics. c. anthropology. d. evolutionary psychology.

116. Which of the following statements is true of pluralism in social psychology? a. It established variations in what aspects of human behavior are emphasized. b. It emphasizes the motivational more than the cognitive underpinnings of behavior. c. It limited the possibility of cross-cultural differences in behavior. d. It limited the kinds of topics that social psychologists can study.

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Chap_01_11e 117. American psychologist Normal Triplett is credited with which of the following accomplishments? a. Emphasizing the use of empiricism in research b. Focusing his writings on larger cultural surroundings c. Noting that people often perform worse when watched d. Publishing the first research article in social psychology 118. Hyunwoo is a human resource professional working for an electronics firm. She is studying various researches on group dynamics, and how it can provide the best working condition for an employee. She is most likely to use a. clinical psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. social psychology. d. forensic psychology.

119. Brad is a social psychologist. Marion is a sociologist. Which of the following research questions is most likely of interest to both of them? a. How do societal factors influence racial differences in academic achievement? b. How does positive and negative feedback impact conceptions of the self? c. Do different socioeconomic groups express different political attitudes? d. Can an authority figure influence people to act in ways that they normally would not?

120. Elliot is interested in how people can change their attitudes through their own behavior. The best approach for him would be to read the writings of a. Gordon Allport. b. Solomon Asch. c. Leon Festinger. d. Stanley Milgram.

121. How does social psychology differ from each of the following: (a) sociology, and (b) the approach taken by a journalist who examines the social behaviors of various individuals?

122. Max Ringelmann, Floyd Allport, and Kurt Lewin all made singularly important contributions to the development of social psychology as a field. Summarize these contributions.

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Chap_01_11e 123. The middle of the 20th century was an important period in the establishment of social psychology as a field.

Name two general themes in the topics studied by researchers of that era and give examples of each.

124. Discuss the reasons why social psychologists are evaluating the cultural specificity of their theories.

125. Describe the current trends in social psychology today.

126. How does a common sense approach to answering questions differ from the methods employed in social psychology? Give an example of a question posed in the text that illustrates these differences.

127. The field of social psychology endured significant critique in the 1960s and 1970s. What were the most important elements of this critique, and how has the field addressed them?

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Chap_01_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap_01_11e 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_11e 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. a 75. d 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_11e 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. c 99. d 100. c 101. a 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_01_11e 111. d 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. d 118. c 119. a 120. c 121. Although social psychologists and sociologists often study related issues, an important difference between social psychology and sociology is the level of analysis used in each discipline. Sociologists tend to classify people in terms of groups, such as socioeconomic class, nationality, or race, whereas social psychologists tend to focus on the individual, even in the context of groups. In addition, social psychologists use experiments to study human behavior to a greater extent than do sociologists. A critical difference between social psychology and the approach taken by a journalist who examines the social behaviors of various individuals is that social psychologists use the scientific method of systematic observation, description, and measurement, whereas the journalist would tend to use much less scientific methods and might rely more on personal observation and specific anecdotal observations. A brief description of some of the other subfields of psychology can be found in Table 1.2 of your text.

122. Max Ringelmann was a French agricultural engineer who, around the beginning of the 20th century, found that individuals who carry out simple tasks in the presence of other people tend to perform worse than they would if they carried out the task by themselves. Because this finding represents an effect of social factors on performance, it is social psychological in nature. Thus, Ringelmann is often considered one of the founders of the field. Floyd Allport wrote one of the first social psychology textbooks, and helped establish the use of the scientific method and the focus on individuals in a social context as part of the field’s doctrine. Kurt Lewin emphasized the importance of seeing behavior as an interaction between an individual’s personality and the situational factors influencing that individual, and also argued that social psychology must be applicable to important, practical issues. Social psychology today is applied to many domains, including advertising, business, education, environmental protection, health, law, politics, public policy, religion, and sports, as well as other disciplines.

123. Because of the events of World War II (and in particular, Nazi Germany), one general theme in research of that era was an investigation of social influence. For example, Asch and Sherif conducted studies with the aim of understanding the conditions under which people conform with majority behavior, and Milgram studied destructive obedience to authority figures. Another theme concerned social perception, with a particular focus on stereotyping and prejudice. For example, Gordon Allport published The Nature of Prejudice in 1954. Festinger showed how attitudes could be influenced by one’s own behavior. To the extent that prejudice is an attitude, inducing behavioral change could result in alteration of the prejudiced attitude.

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Chap_01_11e 124. Social psychologists are conducting cross-cultural and multicultural research to examine the similarities and differences across different cultures and within the same culture. This has a profound impact on the understanding of human behavior. For instance, cross-culture research has provided important distinctions between individualist and collectivist cultures. This understanding can be applied when researching people from the particular geographic locations. Even people within the same town or region may develop and live in distinct subcultures, and these differences can have profound effects on people’s lives.

125. There are at least five identifiable trends in social psychology presently. First, there is a move to integrate cognition (the “cold” side of the field) with emotion and motivation (the “hot” side of the field) to promote better understanding of how these two sides function together. Second, the role of genetics and the evolutionary perspectives has increasing importance in the field. This is no doubt fueled by the development of technologies that allow better study of the links between biological and social processes. In fact, technology and its role in our lives represents a third trend in the field. Technology has not only increased the ability of social psychologists to collaborate more widely across the globe, but has also created new content areas of study—do social processes operate similarly online as they do “live”? A fourth trend is influenced by technological advancement—the elevation of the importance of understanding culture in social processes. Being able to collaborate with others around the world has heightened social psychologists’ ability to engage in cross-cultural research. Finally, there is an increasing move in the field toward interdisciplinary areas of study such as embodied cognition or behavioral economics. These sorts of areas integrate previously disparate fields into a more coherent picture of human social experience.

126. Common sense may seem to explain many social psychological findings after the fact. The problem is distinguishing commonsense fact from commonsense myth. After all, for many commonsense notions, there is an equally sensible sounding notion that says the opposite. Is it “Birds of a feather flock together” or “Opposites attract”? Is it “Two heads are better than one” or “Too many cooks spoil the broth”? Which are correct? We have no reliable way to answer such questions through common sense or intuition alone.

Social psychology, unlike common sense, uses the scientific method to put its theories to the test.

How it does so will be discussed in greater detail in the next chapter. But before we leave this section, one word of caution: Those four “findings” listed above? They are all false. Although there may be sensible reasons to believe each of the statements to be true, research indicates otherwise.

Therein lies another problem with relying on common sense: Despite offering very compelling predictions and explanations, it is sometimes wildly inaccurate. And even when it is not completely wrong, common sense can be misleading in its simplicity. Often there is no simple answer to a question such as “Does absence make the heart grow fonder?” In reality, the answer is more complex than common sense would suggest, and social psychological research reveals how such an answer depends on a variety of factors.

127. During that time, social psychology was criticized because some thought that its findings did not take historical and cultural context into consideration, and that its use of an experimental methodology suffered from ethical problems, artificiality, and potential experimenter bias. Social psychology has responded to the latter problems by adopting a multimethod approach while at the same time tightening ethical standards for conducting experiments and taking measures to reduce experimenter bias. Moreover, many social psychologists are now considering cross-cultural and multicultural similarities and differences in human behavior. All of these changes represent a more “pluralistic” approach to research in the field.

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Chap 02_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Including culture as a subject variable in a study helps improve the a. internal b. external

validity of the study.

c. construct d. content 2. Which of the following statements about correlational research is TRUE? a. It is a powerful way to establish causal relationships between variables. b. It allows a researcher to establish cause-and-effect relationships. c. It permits researchers to determine whether one variable is predictive of another. d. It is limited to the study of variables that can be measured in the laboratory.

3. Which of the following statements about social psychology/psychologists is TRUE? a. Institutional review boards have had little effect on the types of research conducted by social psychologists. b. Most social psychologists believe they have a moral imperative to study important topics even if doing so poses high risk for the study participants. c. Social psychology research is devoid of human biases. d. Strict adherence to scientific methods reduces but do not eliminate human biases in social psychology.

4. Which of the following BEST describes the primary goal of basic research? a. To solve practical problems b. To integrate the different research methodologies within one subfield of social psychology c. To test specific hypotheses derived from a specific theory d. To make real-time applications 5. Dr. Pinsker is conducting research that he hopes will lead to a reduction in gender biases that impact women in STEM (science, technology, engineering, and math) courses. His work is purely a(n) research. a. applied b. integration of basic and applied c. basic d. descriptive 6. Which of the following is/are NOT mentioned in the text as a technology used by social psychologists in obtaining data? a. Brain imaging technology b. Measures of reaction time and heart rate c. Polygraphs (lie detector machines) d. Eye tracking

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Chap 02_11e 7. Which of the following is NOT a testable hypothesis? a. People smile more when they are lying than when they are telling the truth. b. Refusing to help someone in need is morally wrong. c. Stereotypes are more likely to impact judgments when people are tired. d. Women tend to have more opposite-sex friends than men.

8. Barb examines the impact that sitting in front of a mirror has on the academic performance of female adolescents. In her study, the number of math questions answered correctly appears to be the variable. a. control b. conceptual c. independent d. dependent 9. The main purpose of conducting correlational research is to a. determine the causal relationship between an independent and a dependent variable. b. describe the population’s average score on a particular measure. c. manipulate one variable but hold the other constant. d. determine the nature and strength of the association between two measured variables.

10. What event in 2011 has increased the level of discussion in social psychology about the role of values in the research process? a. The mistreatment of experimental participants b. The failure of IRBs to adequately oversee research c. The confession of a researcher to fabrication of data d. The report that most researchers fail to debrief their participants 11. Social psychologists use descriptive research in order to describe a. associations between two or more variables of interest. b. people and their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. c. the strength of an observed effect. d. cause-and-effect relationships between independent and dependent variables.

12. The MOST important aspect of sampling in a survey study is a. its inclusion of equal numbers of individuals from different groups in the population. b. the number of people in the sample. c. the ratio of the sample size to the population size. d. the total number of groups in the population.

13. Theories in social psychology have all of the following characteristics except that a. they are efficient and precise. b. they lead to new hypotheses. c. they predict conditions under which events will occur. d. they encompass all of the relevant information .

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Chap 02_11e 14. What does it mean to say that an experiment has two independent variables? a. The researcher has created a study with two different conditions. b. The researcher has come up with two different measures to take in order to test the hypothesis. c. The researcher is manipulating two different variables in the course of the study. d. The effects of one variable in the study have nothing to do with the effects of the other variable.

15. To assess the extent to which students are reading their textbooks, a professor notes how creased the spines of books are. What technique does this professor apply? a. An event-contingent self-report b. An observational measure c. A descriptive study d. A signal-contingent self-report 16. In principle, the purpose of random sampling is to make sure that research participants a. have the right to withdraw from a study without incurring any penalty. b. are fully informed as to the procedures and hypotheses of the study. c. do not differ from one another in systematic ways. d. constitute a representative sample from the population of interest.

17. Why do social psychologists use electronic databases? a. To determine the moral value of their research question b. To find published research on a particular topic c. To increase the external validity of their research d. To help them select a random sample of participants 18. Which of the following correlation coefficients reflects the strongest meaningful relationship? a. +0.67 b. 0.00 c. −0.86 d. +1.25 19. Research using meta-analysis procedures a. computes correlations among more than two variables. b. approaches a research question using both correlational and experimental studies. c. statistically assesses the consistency of several tests of the same hypothesis. d. is used when self-report data regarding a particular topic are not available.

20. What is the most popular method of testing ideas in social psychology? a. Meta-analysis b. Descriptive research c. Correlational research d. Experimentation

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Chap 02_11e 21. Any institution seeking federal funding for research involving human participants must have a(n) to ensure those participants’ well-being. a. human participants’ safety board b. right and well-being assurance group c. ethical insurance committee d. institutional review board 22. The disclosure made to participants after research procedures are completed, in which the researcher explains the purpose of the research, is called a. informed consent. b. a post-hoc test. c. experimenter expectancy effects. d. debriefing.

23. When interrogating a woman in a string of neighborhood thefts, Detective Morse tells her suspect the following: “I am asking you these questions and I’d advise you to answer honestly. When we are done chatting, you are going to have to answer them again when attached to a lie-detector.” In this investigation, Detective Morse uses the technique. a. bogus pipeline b. experimental realism c. deception d. quasi-experimental 24. Stanley examines the impact of group size on conformity behavior in an experiment. He makes groups of two, five, or ten people stand on a city street and stare up at a window. He then records the number of passersby who stop and stare at the window. This study is an example of a(n) a. meta-analysis. b. archival study. c. experiment with one independent variable. d. experiment with two independent variables.

25. Which of the following is NOT involved in basic research? a. Solving practical or real-world problems b. Increasing our understanding of human behavior c. Testing hypotheses d. Increasing our understanding of animal behavior 26. Which of the following statements concerning research questions in social psychology is FALSE? a. Social psychologists sometimes develop research questions based on their own personal experiences and observations. b. Research questions can be inspired by real-world events. c. Research questions are often determined after the research begins rather than before it starts. d. Social psychologists can develop research questions from song lyrics.

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Chap 02_11e 27. What is integral to starting social psychological research? a. Control group b. Subject variable c. Question d. Independent variable 28. The degree to which the experimental procedures are involving participants and lead them to behave naturally and spontaneously is called realism. a. experimental b. statistical c. external d. mundane 29. Experimenter expectancy effects may be greatly minimized by a. using different experimenters in different conditions. b. letting participants choose their own condition. c. keeping experimenters uninformed about group assignment. d. having strict attention to random assignment.

30. Zachary observes a statistically significant negative correlation between binge drinking and grades among college students. Which of the following is TRUE? a. There is a 5% probability or less that this correlation occurred by chance. b. There is a 5% probability or less that there is a practically important relationship. c. Zachary will probably try to replicate his findings by conducting an experiment. d. Zachary behaved unethically by identifying students who binge drink without intervening.

31. A researcher examined the effects of mood on aggression in an experiment. She decided to see how receiving an insult or a compliment affects aggression, and she measured aggression by having participants administer small shocks to another participant. The researcher found that participants in the insult condition were more aggressive than those in the compliment condition. One of her colleagues reads about this research and voices concern that people in the insult condition may have been more naturally aggressive than people in the compliment condition, causing the differences observed by the researcher. This concern about preexisting differences between participants in the two conditions would only be valid if participants were not a. a representative sample of the population. b. randomly assigned to the condition. c. randomly selected from the population. d. informed that they were involved in a correlational study.

32. Which of the following resources is a research database that provides specific information related to the field of psychology? a. GooglePsych b. TrackPsych c. PsychFind d. PsycINFO Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_11e 33. Which of the following statements about construct validity does NOT hold? a. It ensures that the study is high in internal validity. b. It is relevant to both the dependent and independent variables in a study. c. It can be identical for two researchers who have different operational definitions of the same conceptual variable. d. It facilitates the testing of both hypotheses and theories.

34. Random assignment, a defining feature of an experiment, means that participants a. select the particular experimental manipulations they wish to experience. b. are chosen randomly from the population of interest. c. have an equal chance of being in any of the conditions. d. are assigned to groups on the basis of their preexisting differences.

35. Buster runs an experiment in which she finds that participants placed in a good mood by a happy film clip are more likely to offer help to a fellow participant than participants who see a sad film clip. Bob suggests that perhaps this difference simply results from the fact that the participants in the happy film clip condition were more helpful people to begin with. What methodological aspect of a successful experiment can Buster point to in order to refute this criticism? a. External validity b. Random selection c. Random assignment d. Manipulation 36. Rhianna is participating in a study on social contacts and subjective well-being. After each social interaction that is longer than 5 minutes in duration, Rhianna logs into a site and responds to a series of questions about how she is feeling. The researcher is using self-report in this study. a. signal-based b. event-based c. interval-based d. bogus pipeline 37. A study that examines existing records or databases is referred to as a(n) a. anecdotal study. b. survey. c. case study. d. archival study.

38. The degree to which the experimental situation resembles places and events in the real world is called realism. a. experimental b. statistical c. external d. mundane

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Chap 02_11e 39. A new researcher examines the effects of alcohol on aggressiveness in a laboratory. He acts in a less polite manner with participants who are assigned to the alcohol condition. This differential treatment of participants across conditions will threaten a. the statistical significance of the results. b. internal validity. c. external validity. d. interrater reliability.

40. What is the definition of hypothesis? a. An investigation about how a testable prediction is carried out b. An organized set of principles used to explain observed phenomena c. The specific procedure through which a set of questions is tested d. An explicit, testable prediction about the conditions under which an event will occur 41. In comparison to field experiments, laboratory experiments a. permit researchers greater control. b. allow more naturalistic observation of behavior. c. are less susceptible to experimenter expectancy effects. d. have fewer problems caused by the limitations of self-report data.

42. Natasha finds that men speak more often in the classroom than do women, and that this is true both when they are assigned to sit in the front of the room and the back of the room. Natasha’s study has found a statistically significant effect for a. the independent variable she manipulated. b. a subject variable. c. the conceptual variable. d. the experimental but not the correlational variable.

43. An individual’s deliberate, voluntary decision to participate in research, based on the researcher’s description of what will be required during such participation, is called a. implied permission. b. informed consent. c. communicated assent. d. referential validity.

44. In encouraging social psychologists to generate useful, practical theories, Kurt Lewin a. set apart reliability issues from validity issues. b. urged the synthesis of basic and applied research. c. emphasized the importance of experimental methodologies. d. reduced the distinction between hypotheses and theories.

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Chap 02_11e 45. Your book describes a study in which participants were provided with information about either the success rate or failure rate of condoms. The findings of this study indicate that a. the simple wording of a question can have a drastic effect on self-report responses. b. men and women had very different opinions about the effectiveness of condoms. c. participants often lie when they are asked about sensitive personal issues. d. college students tend to be naively ignorant of the risks associated with unsafe sex.

46. For which of the following questions would a researcher be MOST likely to use an observational study? a. Is memory for television commercials influenced by the tune of the music included in the commercial? b. Does smoking marijuana lead to increased aggression? c. Does taking a social psychology course cause one to be happier? d. Do banks tend to offer minorities lower interest rates on home mortgages than nonminorities?

47. According to advocates of basic research, the more participates in the study. a. basic; less b. applied; less c. basic; more d. complex; more

the principle being studied, the

it matters who

48. In a well-designed experiment, all participants must a. be treated in exactly the same manner except for the specific differences the experimenter wants to create. b. not realize that they are involved in an experiment. c. be influenced by experimenter expectancy effects. d. be allowed to choose their own experimental conditions without interference or bias from the experimenter.

49. What is the primary disadvantage of correlation studies compared to experimental studies? a. They are more labor-intensive. b. They do not allow one to determine causality. c. The results are more difficult to understand. d. The choice of variables that can be studied is limited.

50. When decreases in one variable are accompanied by decreases in another variable, the variables are described as a. negatively correlated. b. positively correlated. c. causally related. d. prospectively related.

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Chap 02_11e 51. Professor Collison conducts an experiment to find whether playing video games causes aggressive behavior or aggressive behavior induces playing video games. His study signifies what kind of relationship? a. Random b. Correlation c. Statistical d. Indirect 52. Which of the following procedures is used to increase the accuracy of self-reports? a. Experimental research b. Construct validity c. The bogus pipeline technique d. Random sampling 53. Achieving is typically more of a challenge in a field study than in a laboratory study. a. high external validity b. high internal validity c. high mundane realism d. cross-cultural reliability 54. External validity is defined as the degree to which a. there can be reasonable certainty that the independent variables in an experiment caused the observed effects on the dependent variables. b. there can be reasonable confidence that the same results would be obtained for other people and in other situations. c. participants were assigned to the various conditions on the basis of representative criteria. d. the experimental situation engages participants and leads them to behave naturally and spontaneously.

55. Why do social psychologists use the scientific method when studying human behavior? a. To encourage the use of basic research rather than applied research b. To replicate their findings c. To ensure that the right people get credit for the research. d. To provide a solid theoretical foundation for social psychological research.

56. Carmella finds a correlation of +0.47 between self-esteem and academic achievement. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate interpretation of this correlation? a. High self-esteem motivates students to achieve more academically. b. Doing well academically increases students’ self-esteem. c. The higher students’ self-esteem, the greater their academic achievement. d. As self-esteem increases, academic achievement decreases.

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Chap 02_11e 57. If a finding from one culture fails to generalize to a second culture, this should be viewed as a(n) a. failure to replicate. b. opportunity to study a potentially interesting cultural difference. c. indication of the second researcher to not adequately train confederates. d. wasted effort, and shuts down future efforts to examine culture as a subject variable.

58. Participants who are subjected to all of the experimental procedures except the experimental manipulation are part of a(n) group. a. rating b. experimental c. sample d. control 59. Construct validity is BEST defined as the extent to which a. participants who are tested repeatedly on the same measure will yield the same results. b. the participants in a study were subjected to both random assignment and random selection. c. results in a study can be achieved upon repeated administration of the same measuring instrument. d. measures used in a study really measure the conceptual variables they were designed to measure.

60. A television producer is interested in whether women like soap operas more than sitcoms. The producer uses a random number table to select a sample of 100 households, and then makes phone calls to these households every afternoon for three weeks. Of those who were home when the producer called, 75% reported they liked soap operas more than sitcoms. Which of the following might raise questions about the results? a. The use of archival data b. The representativeness of the sample c. The construct validity of the measure d. The operational definition advanced by the magazine 61. A hypothesis provides a means of a. testing b. creating

a theory.

c. proving d. generalizing 62. A social dilemma experiment often involves an economic decision-making task in which participants must decide to cooperate or compete with their partner based on various payoffs. Although the format of the experiment does not resemble the real-world decisions participants may make, it is very involved, and participants often become highly competitive. Based on this description, a social dilemma experiment has a. high mundane realism and low experimental realism. b. low mundane realism and low experimental realism. c. high experimental realism and high mundane realism. d. high experimental realism and low mundane realism.

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Chap 02_11e 63. In what way do descriptive and correlational research methods differ from each other? a. Descriptive research does not look at relationships between variables. b. Descriptive research is more useful when one wants to infer causation. c. Correlational research cannot make use of archival data. d. Correlational research allows the researcher to control the participants’ actions.

64. Margarita is conducting research as part of her Master’s thesis. She enlists the participation of undergraduate students in her laboratory, has them go through a series of activities, and then tells them what the true intent of the research was before they leave. She does not, however, inform them what their participation will involve before the research begins. Margarita has failed to remember the importance of a. informed consent. b. debriefing. c. an institutional review board. d. experimental realism.

65. Which of the following is NOT relevant to self-reports? a. They are sometimes inaccurate because people intentionally present themselves in a socially desirable way. b. They may not allow for individuals to explicitly remember the thoughts or behaviors they are asked about. c. They allow researchers access to individuals’ private thoughts and feelings. d. They are not influenced by the phrasing of a question or the response options provided.

66. What is NOT a suggestion made in the text for how social psychology could protect itself against intentional or unintentional bias or dishonesty? a. Using more precise and advanced statistical methods b. Having researchers be more open to public scrutiny of their materials and data c. Emphasizing the importance of replication of results d. Having tenure and promotion less dependent upon publication of research 67. The sign of a correlation coefficient indicates the a. quality b. strength c. power d. direction

of the relationship between variables.

68. Adarah is learning about research methods in her social psychology course. She should experience all of the following benefits except that a. she will develop a better appreciation for the advantages of anecdotal stories. b. the findings she learns about in class will be easier to understand and remember. c. she will become a more sophisticated consumer of information in general. d. it will improve her reasoning about real-life events.

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Chap 02_11e 69. A social psychologist wants to study the impact of listening to classical music on people’s level of comfort in social interactions. She runs a study using a convenience sample of college undergraduates. The use of this particular sample is a threat to a. mundane realism. b. experimental realism. c. internal validity. d. external validity.

70. To examine potential gender differences in the qualities individuals seek in their romantic partners, HaeJin compares the personal ads placed by men and women. HaeJin is conducting a(n) a. experiment. b. observational study. c. archival study. d. survey study.

71. Castilla wonders whether environmental factors influence how long juries take to select a foreperson. Mock jurors are brought into a room with either a rectangular table or a round table. The jurors are asked to select a foreperson before starting deliberation. Castilla records how long it takes each jury to select a foreperson. The shape of the table is the a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. subject variable. d. control variable.

72. Random assignment is essential to establishing causality because it a. permits researchers to verify that they have a diverse and representative sample of participants. b. reduces the possibility that individual characteristics of the participants produced the observed results. c. increases the external validity of the experiment and virtually eliminates issues of reliability. d. allows researchers to determine whether or not their operational definitions reflect the variables of interest.

73. In a study concerning the cues that signal deception, Winston uses the number of times a person shifts in his or her seat as a measure of lying. Virginia points out that people may shift their position because they are nervous about being perceived as a liar, even though they are actually telling the truth. Virginia is questioning the of Winston’s measure of lying. a. internal validity b. construct validity c. interrater reliability d. mundane realism

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Chap 02_11e 74. What is the major limitation of random assignment? a. It may result in inconsistent estimates of possible correlations. b. It cannot establish causality. c. It cannot be implemented for experiments involving more complex calculations. d. It may affect external validity under certain conditions.

75. Interrater reliability is BEST employed in which of the following examples? a. The degree of correlation of students’ responses to several foods b. The relationship between the quality ratings and actual health in different nursing homes c. The degree of jury agreement in rating children’s paintings d. A comparison of toy preferences of toddlers at different intervals 76. In an experiment, the independent variable is a. held constant; varied b. correlational; descriptive c. manipulated; measured d. general; specific

while the dependent variable is

.

77. What is the significant advantage of observational research? a. Seeking evidence to support ideas of different observers b. Having control over events c. Avoiding faulty recollections and distorted interpretations of our own behavior d. Eliminating the problems of the past 78. Which of the following is NOT a challenge mentioned in the text in conducting cross-cultural social psychological research? a. Cultural differences affect people by the context in which they complete a survey. b. Translation of a survey or questionnaire from one language to the other can be literally the same, yet carry the wrong connotation. c. Multilingual people may think or act differently as a function of what language is used in a particular setting. d. In general, universities are unwilling to allow faculty to travel outside the United States to conduct research.

79. A researcher asked students to teach a rat to learn a maze. Some students were told they had been given a genetically engineered “intelligent” rat, whereas others were told that they had a “dull” rat. Although there were no actual differences among the rats, the “intelligent” rats learned the maze more quickly than the “dull” rats.

Which of the following can BEST explain the results of this experiment? a. Experimenter expectancy effects b. Mundane realism c. Experimental realism d. High construct validity

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Chap 02_11e 80. Suppose the correlation between the number of times couples go to the movies and the number of times they go out to dinner is +0.79. Among the following conclusions, which one is NOT consistent with this computation? a. The more often that couples go to the movies, the more often they go out to dinner. b. The less often that couples go to the movies, the less often they go out to dinner. c. There is a strong positive correlation between the number of times couples go to the movies and the number of times they go out to dinner. d. Because the correlation coefficient is less than 1.0, the association between these two variables is very weak and probably unreliable.

81. An accomplice of the experimenter who, in dealing with the real participants in an experiment, acts as if he or she is also a participant, is called a(n) a. confederate. b. union. c. helper. d. actor.

82. Which of the following factors other than the independent variable varies between conditions of an experiment? a. Confound b. Experimenter effect c. Subject effect d. Expectancy effect 83. Johanna is participating in a study on social contacts and subjective well-being. Each evening around 6 p.m., Johanna is supposed to record in a journal the number of social interactions she had that day that were longer in duration than 5 minutes. The researcher is using self-report in this study. a. event-contingent b. signal-contingent c. bogus pipeline d. interval-contingent 84. Hypotheses must be all of the following except a. comprehensive. b. explicit. c. testable. d. predictive.

85. Latrell, the editor of a popular sports magazine, would like to know more about the demographics of the magazine’s readers. He designs a questionnaire to assess this information and sends it to a random sample of the magazine’s readers. Latrell is conducting a(n) a. survey. b. observational study. c. archival study. d. experiment.

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Chap 02_11e 86. The research methods used by social psychologists tend to emphasize all of the following except a(n) approach. a. systematic b. objective c. variable d. quantifiable 87. The purpose of using control groups is to a. address ethical concerns about experiments. b. determine if there are any interactions among the independent variables. c. ensure a high level of experimental realism. d. provide a baseline against which to compare the effects of the independent variables.

88. Self-report measures and observational measures are similar in that both a. are subject to profound distortions from memory errors. b. require exceptionally high interrater reliability to be considered accurate. c. may be biased by participants presenting themselves in a favorable light. d. provide direct access to people’s thoughts and feelings.

89. Which of the following statements concerning correlational research is TRUE? a. In correlational research, variables are measured but not manipulated. b. In correlational research, one variable is manipulated and one is measured. c. Correlational research can be conducted using observational, but not archival, measures. d. Correlational research can be conducted using archival, but not observational, measures.

90. Robinson manipulates two variables in his experimental investigation of test-taking performance: the number of participants seated in the room and the room temperature. He finds that regardless of the temperature in the room, participants do better on the test when the room is less crowded. Which statement about this study is TRUE? a. There are two independent variables in this study. b. There is one independent variable in this study. c. There are two dependent variables in this study. d. There are two dependent and two independent variables in this study.

91. Camryn uses a survey to measure the association between students’ grade point average and weekly consumption of alcohol. She finds that higher GPAs tend to be associated with lower levels of alcohol consumption (and vice versa). This study is best described as a(n) a. experiment. b. observational study. c. concurrent study. d. correlational study.

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Chap 02_11e 92. Researchers have developed interval-contingent, signal-contingent, and event-contingent report methods to a. reduce memory distortions in self-report measures. b. amplify memory distortions in self-report measures. c. increase the role of values in the research process. d. observe participants’ behavior unobtrusively.

93. Many social psychological questions can be addressed only with surveys because a. funding sources are looking to save money and surveys are relatively inexpensive. b. researchers rarely have time to carry out complex social psychological experiments. c. the analysis of surveys permits much tighter control than could otherwise be achieved. d. they involve variables that are impossible or unethical to observe directly or manipulate.

94. Causation cannot be inferred from correlational studies because a. they are so low in external validity. b. they do not involve the manipulation of variables. c. they are always conducted outside of the research lab. d. researchers have too much control over the variables.

95. Which of the following studies was controversial enough to spark discussion of the ethics of research and ultimately resulted in the creation of IRBs to protect participant rights? a. Ashton-James and colleagues (2009) study of the influence of mood and culture on openness to novelty b. Greitemeyer and colleagues (2012) study of the influence of video games on aggression c. Milgram’s (1963) studies of obedience to an authority telling participants to deliver electrical shocks to a confederate d. Newcomb’s (1961) study of interpersonal attraction in a highly structured dormitory setting 96. Alan conducted an analysis to examine the relationship between pollution and low life expectancy in a rural setting. He estimated the correlation ratio to be 0.089 for the age group of 25 to 85 years. What type of correlation would he have observed? a. No correlation b. Positive correlation c. Negative correlation d. Weak correlation 97. “Moms prefer Brand X of peanut butter” is a commercial claim. Sarah wonders what other brands were used as the comparison group. Which of the following benefits of learning about research methods is Sarah displaying? a. Better understanding of studies b. Better memory for the results of studies c. Critical evaluation of information d. Enhanced self-esteem

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Chap 02_11e 98. Sapna is interested in the influence of nutrition on reaction time. She assigns participants to eat a salad and fruit for dinner every day for a week or to eat fast food each day. She then brings participants into the lab and asks them to push a button on a keyboard as fast as they can every time they hear a particular sound. What are the operational definitions of the variables in Sapna’s study? a. nutrition; reaction time b. nutrition; whether participants eat a salad or fast food c. whether participants eat salad or fast food; how quickly they push the button when they hear the sound d. whether participants eat salad or fast food; reaction time 99. Rabiyah administered an intelligence test to sophomores and seniors at Faber College and at Hillman College and compared performance across these four groups. Which of the following is/are the subject variable(s) in this study? a. Being a sophomore versus a senior only b. Attending Faber versus Hillman College only c. Scoring high versus low on intelligence d. Both being a sophomore versus a senior and attending Faber versus Hillman College 100. Which of the following characteristics is MOST relevant to the condition that any differences one obtains after the experimental manipulation of a study have been produced only by that manipulation? a. Control of subject variables b. Random sampling c. Construct validity d. Control over experimental procedures 101. Luke would like to know if there is a relationship between the number of psychology courses people take and their level of empathy. He surveys a randomly selected group of college students. Each student indicates the number of psychology courses he or she has taken and then completes an empathy scale. Luke’s research is best described as a(n) a. correlational study. b. experiment. c. prospective study. d. archival study.

102. An organized set of principles used to explain observed phenomena is called a(n) a. personal bias. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. educated guess.

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Chap 02_11e 103. Joel argues that the use of confederates provides for real interactions that emulate the types of reactions that occur in real life. Dale argues that the use of confederates simply makes an experiment more involving for the participant. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Joel and Dale both believe that confederates increase mundane realism. b. Joel and Dale both believe that confederates increase experimental realism. c. Joel believes that confederates increase mundane realism; Dale believes that confederates increase experimental realism. d. Joel believes that confederates increase experimental realism; Dale believes that confederates increase mundane realism.

104. One of the many advantages of correlational research is that it a. allows researchers to study variables that cannot be examined using an experiment. b. allows the researcher to test for and determine the nature of causal relationships. c. exhibits high internal validity. d. tends to be statistically significant.

105. Johanna is participating in a study on social contacts and subjective well-being. At random times during the day, she receives a text message to which she responds with information about who she was with and how happy she is feeling. The researcher is using self-report in this study. a. signal-contingent b. interval-contingent c. bogus pipeline d. event-contingent 106. Leila runs an experiment to see the impact of mood on prosocial behavior. Participants are allowed to watch a video intended to put them in either a positive or neutral mood before they are asked to make a donation to a fictitious charity. What is the dependent variable in this study? a. The participants’ mood b. Watching a happy or sad video c. The participants in the study d. Whether or not a donation is made to charity 107. The procedure used to ensure that research participants have an equal chance of being placed in the experimental or control groups in an experiment is called a. random assignment. b. random sampling. c. debriefing. d. experimental realism.

108. Which of the following characteristics does NOT belong to subject variables? a. They are neither dependent nor truly independent variables. b. They cannot be manipulated or randomly assigned. c. They may include gender and ethnicity of participants. d. They are essential for field experiments.

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Chap 02_11e 109. Britney believes that exposure to violent television increases aggressive behavior by making people’s own aggressive thoughts more accessible. Christina believes that violent television increases aggressive behavior by impairing people’s cognitive abilities, which in turn makes them worry less about the consequences of their behavior as well as more likely to have aggressive thoughts. If we knew that violent television indeed increases aggressive behavior but knew nothing else on this topic, which of the following two theories should we prefer? a. Christina’s, because it is more empirical than Britney’s b. Britney’s, because it is more efficient than Christina’s c. Christina’s, because it is more testable than Britney’s d. Britney’s, because it is more testable than Christina’s 110. Which of the following is NOT true of applied research in social psychology? a. It is often conducted by researchers who also conduct basic research. b. It contributes to solutions of social problems. c. It was pioneered by Kurt Lewin. d. It is more experimental than basic research.

111. According to standard convention, a researcher must be % sure that the difference she observed between experimental conditions was not simply the result of chance in order to conclude that the difference is statistically significant. a. 90 b. 95 c. 99 d. 99.9 112. Vera thinks that having pets increases psychological functioning and well-being. To test this, individuals in one group of randomly selected nursing home residents are each given a pet while participants in a second group are not given pets. Over two months, the overall level of psychological functioning is evaluated on a daily basis.

What is the independent variable in this study? a. Having pets increases psychological functioning b. Whether or not the resident received a pet c. The level of psychological functioning demonstrated by the residents d. This is a correlational study, so there is no independent variable 113. The reliance of many social psychology studies on college student participants poses a threat to a. internal validity. b. external validity. c. mundane realism. d. experimental realism.

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Chap 02_11e 114. Melissa’s research examines the cognitive processes involved in persuasion and how those processes can be used to persuade women to have yearly mammograms. This work represents an integration of a. basic and applied research. b. independent and dependent research. c. hypothetical and theoretical research. d. experimental and nonexperimental research.

115. If the results of an experiment could have occurred by chance only five or fewer times in 100 possible outcomes, they are considered a. statistically significant. b. to have an interaction between the dependent variables. c. theoretically meaningful. d. null because of their low level of reliability.

116. Megumi is running an experiment on the impact of noise level on subsequent aggressive behavior. In one condition, participants experience a loud, annoying noise while trying to complete a task, and then are given a chance later to give another ostensible participant a noise blast, too. In the other condition, the participants do not experience the noise while trying to complete their task. After the study has been conducted, Megumi realizes that the loud room was lit more brightly than the quiet room. This difference in the level of light is an example of a a. confound. b. control group. c. threat to external validity. d. subject variable.

117. Which of the following is an example of a negative correlation? a. The more pets you own, the better your physical health tends to be. b. The more money people make, the bigger their house tends to be. c. The more alcohol you consume, the lower your GPA tends to be. d. The more points a player scores, the more time they play in the next game.

118. Which of the following is a major difference between research in social psychology and research in other fields? a. Social psychologists are less likely to rely on empirical observation to draw conclusions. b. Many people have intuitive opinions about the questions that social psychologists study empirically. c. Social psychology researchers are less concerned with theories and more concerned with data. d. Social psychology is less of a science than many other fields.

119. A confound is a serious threat to a. external b. construct c. internal d. content

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Chap 02_11e 120. Which of the following conditions does NOT hold for conducting an experiment in social psychology? a. All participants are treated equally. b. The researcher has control over experimental procedures. c. Participants are assigned to different manipulations. d. The experiment is limited to be performed in a tightly controlled laboratory environment.

121. One reason that social psychologists attempt to replicate the results of their research is that doing so a. reduces the probability that the results are due to chance. b. increases the construct validity of the experiment. c. allows them to examine multiple relationships among variables. d. increases the likelihood that participants have been treated ethically.

122. Vito finds a correlation of −0.35 between procrastination behaviors and academic achievement. Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion for Vito to draw? a. Procrastination leads students to perform more poorly. b. Poor academic performance causes more procrastination. c. Elimination of procrastination behaviors will lead students to perform better. d. As a student procrastinates more, her academic achievement decreases.

123. The emphasis on the importance of replication of results in social psychology has a. increased b. remained constant c. decreased d. ebbed and flowed

in recent years.

124. What role do values play in the scientific process?

125. What are the benefits and the main limitation of conducting correlational research over experiments? Give an example of negatively correlated variables. Justify your example.

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Chap 02_11e 126. Imagine that some researchers are interested in college students’ self-reports about their reactions to various stressful situations. Rather than simply asking the students to recall various stressful situations and their reactions to them, the researchers want to reduce the time between the students’ self-reports about the situations and the actual situations themselves. Describe two methods that have been developed by social psychologists that could serve this purpose.

127. Describe the concepts of mundane realism and experimental realism, and relate them to the larger issue of external validity in a research study.

128. What are the two essential characteristics of an experiment? Why, and how, is each of these important for the internal validity of the experiment?

129. Elaborately explain a correlation coefficient. How will you differentiate between a positive or a negative coefficient?

130. Compare and contrast random sampling and random assignment. Also, indicate how these procedures affect a study’s internal and external validity.

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Chap 02_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. a 26. c

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Chap 02_11e 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_11e 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_11e 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. c 98. c 99. d 100. d 101. a 102. b 103. c 104. a 105. a 106. d 107. a 108. d 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_11e 111. b 112. b 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. d 121. a 122. d 123. a 124. Values can influence what questions researchers even think of to ask, as well as the way in which they proceed to study that question. Some argue that because science is a human enterprise, values will influence the research process, and we should simply acknowledge this and proceed. Others see science as more value-free. They argue that it is better to try to rely heavily on the scientific method so as to avoid allowing one’s personal biases and preconceptions to taint observations.

Values also influence the choices we make in any activity, research included. A value relevant to the research process is honesty. It is important that researchers honestly report their findings so that the scientific process can iteratively build upon them. If researchers fabricate their results, as one Dutch social psychologist did recently, then science builds upon a story rather than an empirical observation. As a result, everyone loses.

125. An important advantage of doing correlational research rather than experiments is that correlational research can study associations of naturally occurring variables that cannot be manipulated or induced due to practical constraints, such as participants’ gender, age, race, height, and so on. Correlational research can also examine phenomena that would be difficult or unethical to create for research purposes, such as certain kinds of violence, love, abuse of alcohol, and so on. Correlational research also offers more flexibility than experiments because a wide range of variables can be measured, including those obtained in the field, using archives, through national surveys, and so on.

The primary disadvantage of doing correlational research rather than experiments is that a correlational study cannot demonstrate causation. That is, correlations cannot demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships between variables. A well-designed experiment, in contrast, can demonstrate that changes in one variable can cause a change in another variable. Two variables are negatively correlated if as one variable increases the other decreases (and vice versa).

One pair of variables that should be negatively correlated with each other is the amount of time spent studying and the number of courses failed. As the amount of time one spends studying increases, the number of courses one fails should decrease.

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Chap 02_11e 126. The textbook describes three such methods: interval-contingent, signal-contingent, and event-contingent. Using the interval-contingent method, the researchers would have the students report their experiences at regular intervals, such as once a day. Using the signal-contingent method, the researchers would ask the students to report their experiences as soon as possible after being signaled to do so, as with a beeper. Using the event-contingent method, the researchers would ask the students to report on a designated set of events as soon as possible after such events occurred; for example, the students might be asked to report their experiences as soon as possible after being confronted with a stressful situation.

127. The external validity of an experiment may also depend in part on how realistic the study is for the participants. But what is meant by realistic is not as straightforward as one might think. Two types of realism can be distinguished: mundane versus experimental (Aronson & Carlsmith, 1968). Mundane realism refers to the extent to which the research setting resembles the real-world setting of interest.

In order to study interpersonal attraction, Theodore Newcomb (1961) set up an entire college dormitory—a striking example of mundane realism. Advocates of mundane realism contend that if research procedures are more realistic, research findings are more likely to reveal what really goes on. In contrast, experimental realism refers to the degree to which the experimental setting and procedures are real and involving to the participant, regardless of whether they resemble real life or not. According to those who favor experimental realism, if the experimental situation is compelling and real to the participants while they are participating in the study, their behavior in the lab—even if the lab is in the basement of the psychology building—will be as natural and spontaneous as their behavior in the real world. The majority of social psychologists who conduct experiments emphasize experimental realism.

128. One essential characteristic of an experiment is that the researcher has control over the experimental procedures.

The researcher manipulates the variables of interest and keeps all else uniform. That is, all participants should be treated exactly the same way—except for the manipulations that the experimenter is investigating. The other essential characteristic of an experiment is that all participants are assigned randomly to the different conditions.

Because of random assignment to condition, at the beginning of the study there should be no systematic differences between the groups of participants. Internal validity is the degree to which there can be reasonable certainty that the independent variables in an experiment caused the effects obtained on the dependent variable. By having a great deal of control over the experimental procedures, researchers can help ensure that the only differences between conditions are the manipulations themselves and not some other factors. If other factors vary along with the independent variables, then it is less clear that the independent variables are the cause of any differences found in the dependent variable, thereby reducing the internal validity of the experiment. Even if the researcher has a great deal of control and ensures that the only differences in the treatment received by the participants across conditions are the manipulations of the independent variables, it is possible that the participants in one condition are different from the participants in other conditions in important ways just by random chance. If this is the case, the differences found in the dependent variable may be a function of these other differences rather than the result of the manipulations. If the participants are randomly assigned to the conditions, however, the chances that the participants differed in ways other than those created by the manipulations become very improbable, especially with larger samples. Differences found in the dependent variable can thus be attributed to the manipulations of the independent variables rather than to preexisting differences among the participants, thereby creating internal validity.

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Chap 02_11e 129. When researchers examine the relationship between variables that vary in quantity (such as height or degree of selfesteem), they can measure the strength and direction of the relationship between the variables and calculate a statistic called a correlation coefficient. Correlation coefficients can range from -1.0 to +1.0. The absolute value of the number (the number itself, without the positive or negative sign) indicates how strongly the two variables are associated. The larger the absolute value of the number, the stronger the association between the two variables, and thus the better either of the variables is as a predictor of the other. Whether the coefficient is positive or negative indicates the direction of the relationship. A positive correlation coefficient indicates that as one variable increases, so does the other.

130. A random sample indicates that all members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected for the study. Random samples are particularly attractive because they are more representative than other samples (such as convenience samples) of the populations from which they are taken. Moreover, because representative samples allow one to generalize the findings of a study to the larger population, random sampling increases external validity.

Random assignment is a procedure that is only relevant when conducting an experiment; in this case, members of the sample (who have already been chosen, randomly or not) have an equal chance of being assigned to any of the experimental conditions. This procedure assures that, on average, members of experimental groups are equivalent in all ways before a study begins. This allows the researcher to infer that any differences between groups at the end of the study must be the result of the manipulation. In other words, it is random assignment that allows the researcher to conclude with confidence that the independent variable caused the changes in the dependent variable, which means that random assignment to condition increases internal validity.

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Chap_03_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which question is most relevant to the concept of affective forecasting? a. Who are you going to ask? b. How do you think you will feel? c. When is it going to happen? d. What are you going to do?

2. Carrie is trying to remain faithful to her boyfriend, but his roommate is highly attractive to her, and she thinks he likes her, too. Carrie has little willpower over her desire to be with her boyfriend’s roommate. Given the research regarding ironic processes, Carrie is most likely to think about the boyfriend’s roommate if she tells herself a. not to think about him and is distracted by something else. b. to think about him, but then is distracted by something else. c. not to think about him and is not distracted by something else. d. to think about him and is not distracted by something else.

3. Higgins’s (1989) self-discrepancy theory suggests that we each have an “actual self,” an “ought self,” and an “ideal self.” According to Higgins, discrepancies between the self and the actual self often lead to low self-esteem and feelings of . a. ought; frustration b. ought; shame c. ideal; superiority d. ideal; hostility 4. Supriya considers it more important for her new boss to value her skills than to like her. The self-presentational strategy she is most likely to use is a. self-verification. b. self-handicapping. c. ingratiation. d. self-promotion.

5. When a person’s facial expression affects his or her subjective experience of emotion, it is known as the facial hypothesis. a. feedback b. loop c. information d. backtrack 6. Research regarding affective forecasting indicates that people a. are remarkably good at estimating how future events will impact the happiness of others. b. tend to underestimate the impact of future events on their own happiness. c. are remarkably good at estimating how future events will impact their own happiness. d. tend to overestimate the strength and duration of their future responses to emotional events.

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Chap_03_11e 7. Karen and Kolton named their son Kevin. Sarah and Sam named their daughter Susan. Mia and Mike named their son Mark. These naming patterns illustrate the phenomenon of a. implicit egotism. b. basking in reflected glory. c. self-handicapping. d. self-verification.

8. Which of the “ABCs of the self” is most relevant to the idea of the self-concept? a. Behavior b. Affect c. Cognition d. Autobiography 9. The process of predicting how one will feel in response to future emotional events is called a. anticipation. b. affective forecasting. c. terror management. d. dialecticism.

10. A person’s spontaneous self-description can often be changed by an alteration of that person’s a. self-reference. b. social surroundings. c. social desirability. d. feelings of uncertainty.

11. Research indicates that people with high self-esteem tend to seek out partners who view them positively. Such a finding is an example of a. self-verification but not self-enhancement. b. self-enhancement but not self-verification. c. both self-verification and self-enhancement. d. neither self-verification nor self-enhancement.

12. Which of the following is a reason for the impact bias? a. People focus on all the life experiences rather than on the single event in question. b. People overestimate their resilience. c. People focus on a single event in question without considering other life experiences. d. People think that others will cope better than they will.

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Chap_03_11e 13. In the company of liberals, Mitt expresses favorable attitudes toward abortion and gay marriage; in the company of conservatives, he expresses negative attitudes toward these same issues. Mitt’s behavior exemplifies a. self-awareness. b. self-complexity. c. strategic self-presentation. d. private self-consciousness.

14. Marcia is unsure about whether Jan is her best friend. She thinks about how many times she has listened to Jan complain about her boyfriend, helped Jan study for difficult exams, and brought soup to Jan when she was sick.

Marcia realizes that she, herself, calls or visits Jan almost every night. After thinking about all this, Marcia concludes that Jan must be her best friend. This conclusion is based on a process described by theory. a. self-awareness b. social comparison c. self-discrepancy d. self-perception 15. Zajonc (1993) argued that smiling leads to an increase in positive emotions through a. stimulating electrical impulses that activate the pleasure pathways in the brain. b. increasing the release of pleasure-enhancing endorphins between neurons. c. stimulating sympathetic nervous arousal that increases one’s pulse. d. increasing the flow of air-cooled blood to the brain.

16. The tendency for people to think of those worse off than themselves when faced with difficulties of their own is called a. social comparison jealousy. b. self-handicapping. c. downward social comparison. d. public self-consciousness.

17. Cross-cultural research indicates that North Americans are more likely than Asians to a. overestimate their contributions to a team effort. b. assume blame for failures. c. strive for community belonging. d. see themselves as others tend to see them.

18. Prior to the championship basketball game, Jocelyn reminds everyone that she really isn’t as good a player as everyone thinks, that their opponent has had an undefeated season, and that it is unlikely she and her teammates will triumph. Jocelyn is engaging in a. sandbagging. b. implicit egotism. c. downward social comparison. d. cutting off reflected failure.

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Chap_03_11e 19. When Maria, a Latin American student, is asked to describe herself in one word during her college interview, she wants to truly express her Latina culture. Which characteristic is she most likely to emphasize? a. Intelligence b. Graciousness c. Drive d. Strength 20. When people engage in an activity for their own interest, it is the result of a. need-driven motivation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. self-verification motivation. d. intrinsic motivation.

21. When a person is asked to meditate, the advice is to derive self-knowledge from a. autobiographical memory. b. introspection. c. self-monitoring. d. self-verification.

22. According to research by Nisbett and Wilson (1977), introspection is not always valid because a. people are often unable to give accurate explanations for the causes of their own behavior. b. people compare themselves with similar others for self-verification. c. people have immense control over their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. d. people change their self-concept based on the changes they go through in their physical appearance.

23. According to research by Pronin and colleagues (2006), imagining an event before it occurs can lead people to a. take credit for influencing the event. b. exhibit more accurate memory for the event. c. overcome the illusion of mental causation. d. suppress unwanted thoughts about the event.

24. Research using new technologies has determined that a. different areas of the brain are activated when American participants are shown photos of themselves as opposed to photos of others, but such differentiation does not occur among Korean participants. b. brain activity does not vary depending on whether or not a stimulus is self-relevant. c. PET scans are not particularly informative for investigations of the self-concept, but fMRI is. d. different areas of the brain are activated when people are shown photos of themselves as opposed to photos of others.

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Chap_03_11e 25. Which statement is most consistent with Muraven and Baumeister’s (2000) theory of self-control? a. Self-control is a limited inner resource that can be temporarily depleted by usage. b. Exerting self-control in one situation makes it easier to exert control on a subsequent occasion. c. People have many inner sources of self-control from which they can draw. d. Self-control is simply an illusion used to maintain a positive self-image.

26. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the emotional state of people is a. influenced by deep introspection when they are uncertain about how they feel. b. always determined by themselves. c. sometimes determined by others when they are uncertain about how they feel. d. influenced by their age and gender.

27. Which of the following is not a self-serving tendency used to enhance self-esteem? a. People tend to take credit for their successes, but not their failures. b. People underestimate the probability of positive outcomes and overestimate the probability that they will experience negative outcomes. c. People overestimate the extent to which they can control personal outcomes. d. People bolster their optimism by linking their individual attributes to desirable outcomes.

28. The desire for others to perceive us in the same way that we see ourselves is called a. self-verification. b. self-enhancement. c. implicit egotism. d. self-handicapping.

29. Research on social comparison shows that a. people generally bask in reflected glory when they have accomplished siblings. b. patients like to affiliate with other patients who are coping well. c. breast cancer victims engage in more upward than downward comparison. d. children have higher self-esteem when surrounded by others who are equally competent.

30. William James’s claim that the self was complex and multifaceted has a. not been supported by b. mixed support from c. a great deal of support from d. not been tested by

modern research.

31. When people overestimate the strength and duration of their emotional reactions, it is due to a. the overjustification effect. b. implicit egotism. c. the impact bias. d. basking in reflected glory.

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Chap_03_11e 32. The reliance on distinguishing features in self-description indicates that a. people like to be rewarded for something they already like to do. b. social surroundings have little impact on the self. c. the self is relative and a social construct. d. the self is influenced by age and gender.

33. Thinking about God triggers a state of self-focus for individuals who have a. just done something morally wrong. b. just done something morally right. c. strong religious beliefs. d. a strong sense of moral absolutism.

34. The positive side of low self-monitoring is being a. principled; stubborn b. stubborn; principled c. adaptive; fickle d. fickle; adaptive

, but the negative side of that is being

.

35. Self-esteem is all of the following except a. an emotionally charged component of the self-concept. b. responsive to success and failure. c. a state of mind that can change depending on the situation. d. a single, stable disposition.

36. Consuela has high self-esteem. She is likely to do all of the following except a. persist longer at difficult tasks. b. expect to succeed. c. blame herself if she fails. d. sleep better at night.

37. According to theory, humans cope with the fear of their own death by constructing worldviews that help to preserve their self-esteem. a. self-awareness b. terror management c. self-perception d. affective forecasting 38. In sociometer theory, the sociometer is a a. specific part of our brain that detects how social others are feeling at any given time. b. tool that measures one’s level of social skill and uses that to predict social success in the workplace. c. mechanism that helps us detect acceptance versus rejection and translate that perception into highversus low self-esteem. d. measure of self-esteem that is traditionally used in most research.

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Chap_03_11e 39. Ingratiation refers to acts that are a. used to promote oneself to the world. b. motivated by the desire to question those in authority. c. motivated by the desire to get along with others. d. used to embarrass competitors.

40. Goldstein and Cialdini’s 2007 study on vicarious self-perception demonstrated that a. people pay attention to their self-perception only when in the presence of those who they perceive as similar to them. b. people lose their sense of self when observing the behavior of someone with whom they identify. c. people’s self-perceptions are not affected by others’ actions. d. people sometimes infer something about themselves by observing the behavior of those who they believe to be biologically similar to them.

41. Males tend to have a. higher; small b. lower; small c. higher; large d. lower; large

self-esteem than females, and this difference is quite

, especially among adults.

42. The term self-concept refers to a. the evaluation of one’s own abilities and attitudes through comparison to similar others. b. the general disposition to focus on either the inner feelings or outer image of the self. c. the sum total of a person’s beliefs concerning his or her own personal attributes. d. whether a person’s self-evaluation is positive or negative.

43. Rebecca fills out a survey in which she asserts complete agreement with the statement, “I enjoy being unique and different from others.” In the context of cultural orientation, she is most likely to identify with a. individualism. b. collectivism. c. multiculturalism. d. cooperativism.

44. According to the looking-glass model of self-concept development, the self-concept develops a. quickly, but is quite fragile and subject to change. b. from the way one is viewed by others. c. slowly, reaching its complete form only in old age. d. from one’s physical appearance.

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Chap_03_11e 45. Low self-esteem is not associated with a. the expectation of failure. b. the ability to effectively resist peer pressure. c. a sense of pessimism about the future. d. a tendency to “tune out” on important challenges.

46. An individual who tends to self-verify is more likely to be a. high in public self-consciousness b. more introspective c. a low self-monitor

than an individual who does not.

d. schematic with regard to many aspects of the self-concept 47. According to self-discrepancy theory, any mismatch between your actual self and your ideal self will result in a. frustration. b. shame. c. superiority. d. fear.

48. The tendency for extrinsic rewards to undermine intrinsic motivation is called a. self-discrepancy theory. b. implicit egotism. c. the durability bias. d. the overjustification effect.

49. American and Japanese citizens who are bilingual in Japanese and English are asked to describe themselves.

Which of the following groups is least likely to focus on group affiliations? a. U.S. citizens asked to respond in English b. Japanese citizens asked to respond in English c. U.S. citizens, regardless of language d. Japanese citizens, regardless of language 50. The self-concept is made up of cognitive molecules called a. self-schemas. b. flashbulb memories. c. self-awareness cues. d. autobiographical memories.

51. According to the socially connected. a. individualistic b. independent c. interdependent d. international

view of the self, the self is part of a larger network that includes others whom one is

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Chap_03_11e 52. April was born and raised in an Eastern culture. She is more likely than people raised in Western cultures to a. compare herself to others. b. view her personal goals as more important than allegiances. c. view her role in groups as an important part of her self-concept. d. experience anxiety in group settings.

53. People’s recollection of a sequence of events that directly touched their lives is called a. private self-consciousness. b. the hindsight bias. c. the distinctiveness effect. d. autobiographical memory.

54. Which person will experience the greatest negative emotional consequence to self-discrepancy? a. Sarah thinks she ought to be much thinner than she is, but doesn’t dwell on it. b. Mira is obsessed with her appearance and thinks she is heavier than she ought to be. c. Sam thinks he ought to be a better athlete than he is, but feels this discrepancy is rather small. d. Jared thinks he ought to have better grades, but school just isn’t that important to him.

55. Jason fills out an application for college with the grades he remembered getting throughout high school. While reviewing the application with a guidance counselor, the counselor points out that Jason seems to have inflated a few of his lower grades. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jason’s behavior? a. Jason is displaying the reminiscence peak characteristic of autobiographical memories. b. Jason fell prey to the tendency to revise personal histories to suit his current self-image. c. Jason relied on introspection and consequently impaired his self-knowledge of his grades. d. Jason was affected by the impact bias, which skewed his memory of his grades.

56. The need for positive self-regard is a. universal; culturally ingrained b. culturally ingrained; universal

; the drive toward self-enhancement is

.

c. universal; universal d. culturally ingrained; culturally ingrained 57. “Turn that frown upside down,” Jarvis’ mother told him when he looked sad. “If you smile you’ll start to cheer up.” Is she right? a. Not likely. Downward social referencing suggests that if Jarvis begins to smile he will start thinking about the thing she should not be happy about. b. Definitely, although it only works with very young children and not adults. c. Probably. The facial feedback hypothesis says that emotions can change based on different facial expressions. d. No. The self-perception theory says that our internal state is unrelated to our outward expressions.

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Chap_03_11e 58. Herman remembers exactly what he was doing and where he was when he first heard about the September 11th terrorist attacks. Brown and Kulik (1977) would refer to this vivid image as a. the hindsight bias. b. a memory heuristic. c. memory inflation. d. a flashbulb memory.

59. Which theory argues that people evaluate themselves by comparison with similar others when they are uncertain of their abilities or opinions? a. Self-discrepancy theory b. Facial feedback theory c. Self-perception theory d. Social comparison theory 60. According to theories regarding self-perception of emotions, what would be the likely effect of sitting at your desk slumped over in the chair with a bowed head? a. You would make other people frown in response. b. You would feel proud. c. You would buffer your self-esteem against potential future threats. d. You would feel dejected.

61. In terms of autobiographical memory, to what does the phrase “reminiscence bump” refer? a. The more negative the memory, the more likely it is to be remembered. b. Older adults tend to retrieve a larger number of memories from adolescence and early adulthood than other periods of life. c. Once people turn a certain age, they start to forget many of the events that happened to them in earlier stages of life. d. People tend to remember a wide range of “firsts” in recounting their personal experiences.

62. According to Timothy Wilson (2002), introspection a. helps people lead a successful life. b. does not make people overestimate the positives. c. helps people accurately explain their own behavior. d. does not provide a direct pipeline to self-knowledge.

63. When a person wants to be liked more than they want to be perceived as competent, which self-presentation strategy should be employed? a. Ingratiation b. Self-promotion c. Self-verification d. Self-monitoring

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Chap_03_11e 64. When Gallup (1977) placed different species of animals in front of a mirror, it was only the great apes who a. used their reflection in the mirror to groom themselves. b. attempted to attack their reflection. c. greeted their reflection with vocalizations. d. exhibited social responses to their reflection in the mirror.

65. According to research on perceptions of the self, people have a tendency to a. underestimate their intellectual and social abilities. b. rate negative traits as more self-descriptive than positive ones. c. exaggerate their control over life events. d. rate themselves less positively than others rate them.

66. According to David Dunning (2005), the problem concerning self-assessment is that people tend to a. pay too little attention to past successes in evaluating future prospects. b. overestimate their own skills, prospects for success, and opinion accuracy. c. underestimate their own skills, prospects for success, and opinion accuracy. d. dwell too much on past failures in assessing present competencies.

67. After her college’s football team wins the national championship, Liz starts yelling out “We won, we won” at the party she is attending. Her friends all join in, and soon they start changing “We’re number one! We’re number one!” The enthusiastic fans seemingly fail to realize that they did not actually accomplish anything except watching others win a game. This increase in self-esteem that occurs by associating with others who succeed is called a. downward social comparison. b. self-handicapping. c. sandbagging. d. basking in reflected glory.

68. While talking to a friend at a noisy party, Julianna stops in the middle of a sentence and turns her head.

According to the cocktail party effect, what did she probably hear? a. A funny joke b. Uninhibited behavior c. Her name d. Laughter 69. The type of self-presentational strategy that describes acts motivated to establish one’s competence is a. self-promotion. b. self-verification. c. ingratiation. d. self-handicapping.

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Chap_03_11e 70. A highly religious person who is primed to think about God will a. become less self-aware. b. become more self-aware. c. have higher self-esteem. d. have lower self-esteem.

71. What physical symptom did Gailliot and colleagues (2007) show to occur during acts of self-regulation? a. Heart palpitations b. High blood pressure c. Reduced blood glucose level d. Headaches 72. Yulia stands in front of a mirror. She notices a red spot on the forehead of the image she sees in the mirror. She then brings her hand up to her own forehead and touches the red spot, trying to brush it off. Yulia is demonstrating a. self-verification. b. the looking-glass self. c. self-recognition. d. self-monitoring.

73. Anquan is frustrated by the incompetence of his professor during class today, and it takes a great deal of effort for him to refrain from standing up during the lecture to tell her she does not know what she is talking about.

According to Muraven and Baumeister’s (2000) theory of self-control, which of the following outcomes is most likely to occur? a. When he gets back to his dorm after class, Anquan eats an entire pint of cookie dough ice cream. b. Next week, he has an even tougher time sitting quietly through lecture. c. When he goes to the gym after class, he is able to stay on the elliptical machine for 20 minutes longer than he ever has before. d. He decides to work even harder in the course and winds up earning a final grade of A+.

74. Research on positive illusions shows that they a. are adaptive in nearly every sense. b. are maladaptive in nearly every sense. c. can be adaptive in some ways, but costly in others. d. are quite rare, but adaptive when they do occur.

75. According to Markus and Kitayama (1991), people from collectivist cultures are more likely than those from individualist cultures to a. derive satisfaction from personal achievement. b. see themselves as less similar to others. c. take personal credit for their successes. d. underestimate their contributions to a team effort.

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Chap_03_11e 76. According to self-discrepancy theory, the disorder most likely to develop from a discrepancy between the actual self and the ought self is a. depression. b. an anxiety-related disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. schizophrenia.

77. Schachter (1959) found that participants expecting to receive painful electric shocks preferred the company of others who were in the same situation. These results suggest that a. social comparison processes are used to evaluate emotions. b. emotions have a strong physiological component. c. self-handicapping is more about self-presentation than self-enhancement. d. people are relatively inaccurate at affective forecasting.

78. When he attends a rush event at the local fraternity, Carmine feels that the fraternity brothers do not like him much. He does not think that he should come back to this fraternity and feels sure that he will not be asked to join. According to theory, Carmine’s self-esteem will drop after the party because he will feel that his behaviors at the event were not acceptable to others. a. external reference b. social comparison c. terror management d. sociometer 79. People enhance their self-esteem in all of the following ways except a. basking in reflected glory. b. self-serving beliefs. c. upward social comparison. d. self-handicapping.

80. Newman is having a very bad day—he overslept for his final exam, spilled coffee on himself at work, and got a speeding ticket on the way home. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, what will happen if he increases tension in the facial muscles normally active during frowning? a. It will intensify his negative emotional experience. b. Because he is already in a bad mood, it will have no impact on his emotional experience. c. It will create a competing positive emotion. d. It will reduce the intensity of his negative emotional experience.

81. One of the best ways of coping with self-awareness is by a. binge watching one’s favorite television programs. b. reducing interactions with friends and family members. c. spending a lot of time thinking about oneself. d. behaving in ways that help reduce self-discrepancies.

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Chap_03_11e 82. In the extreme, high self-discrepancy levels are associated with a. contentment. b. resentment. c. depression. d. disappointment.

83. According to many researchers, self-recognition among great apes and human infants a. is the first clear expression of the concept “me.” b. can be tested only with the help of the mirror test. c. diminishes with age. d. is the result of negative life events.

84. The impact bias in affective forecasting refers to the phenomenon in which a. people tend to overestimate the strength and duration of their emotional reactions to events. b. people are generally accurate predictors of how they will feel about future events. c. people tend to underestimate how happy they will be several months after winning the lottery. d. voters predicted that they would be much happier one month after an election if the candidate for whom they voted won.

85. Taylor and Brown (1988) suggest that people are more likely to have realistic views of themselves when they are a. depressed. b. happy. c. high in self-esteem. d. low in self-awareness.

86. English and Chen’s (2007) study of college students of European and Asian descent found that a. even within a particular context, Asian students see their identity as relatively fluid and variable. b. European students tended to see the self in more stable terms across situations. c. European students had smaller discrepancies between their ideal and actual selves. d. Asian students were uninterested in information that contradicted their self-concepts.

87. Kirk, a college student, does not consider his body weight an important part of his life. Despite seeing his friends maintaining healthy diets and sweating it out at the gym, Kirk remains unaffected by these influences. In the context of the self, Kirk is about his weight. a. dialectic b. aschematic c. egotistic d. schematic

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Chap_03_11e 88. Baumeister (1991) suggests that drug abuse, sexual masochism, spiritual ecstasy, binge eating, and suicide may all be attempts to a. increase self-awareness. b. reduce self-awareness. c. increase public self-consciousness. d. increase private self-consciousness.

89. Michael’s boss asks him to be at the office every day at 8.00 a.m. sharp without fail. If he fails to show up on time, he loses half a day’s salary. Here, Michael’s boss is trying to motivate him to come early through motivation. a. idiosyncratic b. intrinsic c. extrinsic d. egoistic 90. Schachter (1959) examined the preferences of participants who were expecting to receive a series of painful electric shocks. He found that these participants preferred to wait in a room a. by themselves. b. with participants who were not expecting shocks. c. with participants who were also expecting shocks. d. with participants who had already received shocks.

91. SOKA stands for a. Self-Observation Karma Abates. b. Self-Other Knowledge Asymmetry. c. Send Our Kids Away. d. Self-Operational Knowledge Accuracy.

92. Amy is frustrated with her teenage son’s recent behavior. “Why did you do that?” she asks him, with exasperation. According to research by Nisbett and Wilson (1977), Amy’s son will a. be unable to accurately identify why he acted as he did. b. become penitent in the face of his mother’s anger. c. be able to answer his mother’s question honestly and accurately. d. become aggressive toward his mother’s confrontation.

93. Gallup’s research revealed that when apes were raised in isolation, they were unable to recognize themselves in the mirror. This research provides support for the a. concept of the looking-glass self. b. self-perception theory. c. nonsocial origins of the self-concept. d. idea that humans are the only animals capable of self-recognition.

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Chap_03_11e 94. Marion is a sprinter on her high school track team. According to social comparison theory, Marion is most likely to look to which of the following groups to assess how fast a sprinter she is? a. Other female high school track athletes b. Other female students at her school who are not on the track team c. Male members of her track team d. U.S. Olympic track team members 95. According to Festinger, social comparison is less likely to occur a. under conditions of uncertainty. b. when a person’s self-esteem is threatened. c. when objective criteria are available. d. with similar others.

96. Hideo tends to be very hard on himself, thinking he doesn’t live up to his goals, but when drunk, he usually feels a lot better about himself. Hideo is probably experiencing a. alcohol myopia. b. intoxicated depression. c. objective self-awareness. d. drunken self-inflation.

97. Someone victimized by a crime, disease, or other tragic life event is likely to a. affiliate and compare themselves with others in the same situation. b. affiliate and compare themselves with others who are worse off. c. affiliate with others who are worse off but compare themselves to others in the same situation and have adjusted well. d. affiliate with others who are in the same situation and have adjusted well but compare themselves to others who are worse off.

98. Which statement concerning introspection is true? a. People tend to underestimate the duration of their emotional reactions. b. Contrary to popular perceptions, introspection can sometimes impair self-knowledge. c. Introspection is the best way to attain self-knowledge. d. Analyzing the reasons why we like something typically leads to accurate self-insight.

99. Carlos is nervous about giving a class presentation because he doesn’t think he can communicate very well with everyone watching him. If Carlos attempts to deal with his anxiety by self-handicapping, he will most likely a. rehearse his presentation in front of a mirror. b. rehearse his presentation in front of a group of friends. c. stay out all night partying the night before the presentation. d. compare himself to others who are eloquent speakers.

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Chap_03_11e 100. According to the SOKA model, we should know ourselves better than others on traits that are a. internal. b. evaluative. c. subjective. d. easy to observe.

101. Seven-year-old Eli loves to draw and is quite talented. When his grandfather comes over for dinner, Eli draws a beautiful picture and presents it as a gift to Grandpa. “Well isn’t that beautiful? How about if I give you a quarter for this wonderful drawing?”, Grandpa asks. Eli’s parents don’t interfere, but they frown at the idea that Eli is getting a reward for doing something that he loves to do. Which social psychology concept is at the heart of the parents’ discomfort? a. Upward social comparison b. The facial feedback hypothesis c. Downward social comparison d. The overjustification effect 102. One of the benefits of high self-monitoring is that such individuals tend to be a. flexible. b. principled. c. forthright. d. fickle.

103. Jenna is fairly high-strung. This attribute conflicts more with Jenna’s ideal self than with her ought self. Jenna is more likely to experience than she is to experience . a. disappointment; fear b. anxiety; sadness c. fear; anxiety d. sadness; disappointment 104. Compared to high self-monitors, low self-monitors are more likely to a. gather information about others. b. maintain consistency in behavior. c. know the rules of appropriate action. d. adjust their behavior to fit the situation.

105. A husband and wife are asked to estimate how much each of them contributes to the household chores. Based on the research concerning autobiographical memory, which pattern of results is most probable? a. Husband 50%, wife 50% b. Husband 50%, wife 70% c. Husband 70%, wife 50% d. Husband 70%, wife 70%

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Chap_03_11e 106. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, emotional experience a. is independent of social comparison processes. b. requires a combination of positive and negative physiological arousal. c. is independent of physiological arousal. d. is based on physiological arousal and a cognitive label for that arousal.

107. The process by which we seek to control or alter our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and urges in order to live an acceptable life is called a. self-handicapping. b. self-verification. c. self-presentation. d. self-regulation.

108. Which is an example of a temporal comparison that would enhance self-esteem? a. Joan compares herself to her roommate, who has a much lower GPA than she does. b. Xavier compares himself to his roommate, who has a much higher GPA than he does. c. Anna compares her present GPA to her freshman year GPA, which was much lower. d. Rod compares his present GPA to his freshman year GPA, which was much higher.

109. Josephine bought her six-year-old nephew, Joseph, a new set of paints for his birthday. Hoping to encourage the little artist, Josephine promised Joseph one dollar for every painting. Joseph thinks that is quite a lot of money.

According to research by Lepper and colleagues (1973) on overjustification effects, which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Joseph will come to see painting pictures as a way to make money, not as something enjoyable in itself. b. Joseph will develop a love for painting and will want to be an artist when he grows up. c. Joseph will continue to paint even if his aunt eventually stops rewarding him with money. d. The paintings for which Joseph receives money will be judged as better quality than the paintings for which he does not receive any money.

110. Which statement about ironic processes of mental self-control is false? a. They are more likely to occur when a person is cognitively busy. b. They result from a concern about failing to maintain mental self-control. c. They happen more among individuals who are low in stress. d. They may affect athletic performance.

111. Alex changes his behavior in response to self-presentation concerns and various situations, and thus, he is exhibiting a high level of a. self-monitoring. b. self-complexity. c. self-verification. d. self-esteem.

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Chap_03_11e 112. On his first day of class, Professor Saccamano thinks he is nervous because his blood pressure is up and his hands are shaking. He continues to feel this way, however, before every class meeting of the semester, and eventually realizes that his arousal is due to the five flights of stairs he must climb up to the classroom. Which theory best explains his misattribution? a. Downward comparison theory b. Self-handicapping theory c. Self-perception theory d. Two-factor theory of emotion 113. What did Demiray and Janssen (2015) find when they asked adults between 18 and 80 years of age to report the most important events from their lives and to rate those memories in a number of different ways? a. Respondents felt psychologically closer to memories that were positive rather than negative. b. Respondents did not remember the details of negative events that had occurred more than 5 or 10 years before they were asked. c. Respondents felt psychologically closer to memories that were negative rather than positive. d. Respondents did not remember the details of positive events that had occurred more than 5 or 10 years before they were asked.

114. William Swann and others (2007) found that people with specific domains of self-esteem benefit in what ways? a. They are likely to feel good about themselves. b. They are likely to do well in school. c. They are likely to outperform others in the specific situations for which they have high self-esteem. d. They are likely to enjoy trying new things that are unrelated to the situations for which they have high self-esteem.

115. D’Brickashaw is the only man and the only African American enrolled in a women’s studies seminar.

McGuire’s work on spontaneous self-descriptions suggests that compared to other contexts, in this specific situation, D’Brickashaw will be more likely to mention his in his self-description. a. race, but not gender b. gender, but not race c. race as well as gender d. distinctive name 116. Dialecticism, a concept grounded in Eastern traditions, can best be defined as a. a system of thought characterized by the acceptance of contradictions. b. the notion that if one option is right, the other must be wrong. c. the idea that one’s “true self” is stable in all situations. d. a characteristic of individualist cultures.

117. What is not a potential cost of the pursuit of self-esteem, as identified by Crocker and Park (2004)? a. An increase in stress-related health problems b. An increase in anxiety c. Unwanted social attention d. Avoidance of activities that risk failure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_11e 118. Jimmy always calls Connor to discuss the latest new music. If Jimmy disapproves of a band Connor is listening to or suggests a band for Connor to listen to, Connor always runs out to buy the album Jimmy mentioned.

Connor is probably a. high in private self-consciousness. b. high in public self-consciousness. c. low in self-monitoring. d. low in self-handicapping.

119. The cocktail party effect refers to the tendency for people to a. become more self-conscious in large groups. b. get nervous in social settings and forget the names of strangers. c. pick out a personally relevant stimulus even in a complex environment. d. become more focused on self-presentational concerns in group settings.

120. Erving Goffman (1959) argued that life was much like a theater and that people act out various roles.

Goffman’s ideas are clearly evident in the social psychological study of a. self-awareness. b. self-presentation. c. public self-consciousness. d. norm formation.

121. Research on self-monitoring generally suggests that a. it is a global trait. b. high self-monitors conform even in situations that demand autonomy. c. low self-monitoring is more socially adaptive. d. one’s scores on the self-monitoring scale decline with age.

122. Twenge and colleagues (2012) found that American culture is a. more individualistic now than it was a half a century ago. b. less individualistic now than it was a half a century ago. c. equally individualistic now as it was a half a century ago. d. more collectivist now than it was a half a century ago.

123. When asked to clean his room, Miguel does so, but only after being assured by his parents that he will receive an allowance in exchange for cleaning up. Miguel’s behavior is most likely motivated by a. social comparison. b. self-monitoring. c. egocentric biases. d. extrinsic motivation.

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Chap_03_11e 124. According to terror management theory, people react to the thought of their own death with a. a stable disposition. b. high self-esteem and positiveness. c. acceptance and coping. d. intense defensiveness and anxiety.

125. Jasper is feeling guilty and ashamed because he did not help his mother paint the house. Jasper is most likely suffering from a discrepancy between what two aspects of the self? a. The ideal self and the ought self b. The ideal self and the actual self c. The ought self and the actual self d. The actual self and the real self 126. Following a mass shooting event, most people are confronted with the reality that their safety cannot be guaranteed, and that their own death at any moment is quite possible. According to terror management theory, which individual below will feel the least anxious in response to this sort of confrontation? a. Emanuel, who just found out that he scored very well on his ACT b. Olivia, who just found out that she scored very poorly on her ACT c. Jashon, who just got dumped by his girlfriend d. Amina, whose brother just got married 127. According to self-awareness theory, which behavior is least likely to draw attention to self-discrepancies? a. Sitting in a crowded, darkened theater b. Seeing one’s reflection in a mirror c. Posing for a photograph d. Standing on stage in front of an audience 128. The “ABCs of the self” refer to affect, behavior, and cognition. Which of these three concepts is most relevant to the idea of self-esteem? a. Cognition b. Affect c. Behavior d. The three concepts are equally relevant to self-esteem.

129. Higher levels of self-awareness often a. increase the use of stereotypes when describing others. b. improve the natural flow of athletic performance. c. help alcoholics avoid relapses into drinking. d. result in a temporary reduction in self-esteem.

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Chap_03_11e 130. Which of the “ABCs of the self” is reflected in how people regulate their own actions and present themselves to others according to interpersonal demands? a. Affect b. Culture c. Behavior d. Cognition 131. When people are prompted to recall their own experiences, they typically report more events from the recent than from the distant past. Describe the two consistent exceptions to this rule.

132. Describe the six mechanisms of self-enhancement. Explain how these mechanisms bolster the self-concept.

133. Discuss the need for people to have self-esteem.

134. Explain how the concepts of upward and downward social comparison can be applied to (a) recovery from serious medical illnesses and (b) successful aging.

135. Discuss the relationship between self-presentation and self-monitoring.

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Chap_03_11e 136. Research on introspection tends to suggest we are not capable of accurately explaining the reasons behind our behavior. Self-perception theory contradicts this. Explain when introspection will and will not produce accurate self-knowledge.

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Chap_03_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. a 26. c

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Chap_03_11e 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. a 51. c 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_11e 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_11e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. d 98. b 99. c 100. a 101. d 102. a 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. d 107. d 108. c 109. a 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_11e 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. d 122. a 123. d 124. d 125. c 126. a 127. a 128. b 129. d 130. c 131. The first is that older adults tend to retrieve a large number of personal memories from their adolescence and early adult years—a “reminiscence bump” found across many cultures that may occur because these are busy and formative years in one’s life (Conway et al., 2005; Fitzgerald, 1988; Jansari & Parkin, 1996). A second exception is that people tend to remember transitional “firsts.” Reflect for a moment on your own college career. What events pop to mind—and when did they occur? Did you come up with the day you arrived on campus or the first time you met your closest friend? What about notable classes, parties, or sports events? When David Pillemer and his colleagues (1996) asked college juniors and seniors to recount the most memorable experiences of their first year, 32% of all recollections were from the transitional month of September. When college graduates were given the same task, they too cited a disproportionate number of events from the opening two months of their first year, followed by the next major transitional period, the last month of their senior year. Among students, these busy transitional periods are important regardless of whether their schools follow a semester calendar or some other academic schedule (Kurbat et al., 1998).

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Chap_03_11e 132. The textbook describes six mechanisms that lead to self-enhancement: the better-than-average effect, implicit egotism, self-serving beliefs, self-handicapping, basking in reflected glory, and downward social comparisons. In Western cultures, most people think highly of themselves most of the time. Research shows that they overrate their effectiveness and overestimate their contributions while working in projects. This is called better-than-average effect. Implicit egotism refers to an unconscious form of self-enhancement where people associate “self” words with positive traits as against negative traits. Self-serving cognitions are unjustified positive beliefs that people hold about themselves. For example, people may exaggerate their actual performance on the SAT or be much more optimistic about their chances of avoiding a divorce or getting cancer than the rates corresponding to these events justify. Self-serving cognitions provide evidence of the robust nature of the self-concept and comprise the means by which positive self-conceptions are maintained even when they are not accurate. Self-handicapping is the purposeful engagement in actions that will undermine a later performance. These actions provide the self-handicapper with a reasonable excuse for poor performance on the later task, thereby bolstering his or her self-concept from the negative implications of failure (as well as making actual success all the more impressive). Basking in reflected glory refers to the desire to affiliate with individuals or groups that are successful. For example, people are much more likely to wear team colors after the team wins a game than after it loses. By associating with the winning group, people can claim some of its success, thus bolstering their self-concepts. Finally, downward social comparisons are comparisons with others who are doing worse than you are. These comparisons can bolster the self-concept by placing the self in a context where it appears to be doing relatively well.

133. People like to see themselves in a positive light. This gives them a sense of worth and motivates them to pursue different things. Research has indicated that self-esteem can add color to the outlook people have about their lives.

People with positive self-images tend to be happy, healthy, productive, and successful. They also tend to be confident, bringing to new challenges a winning attitude that leads them to persist longer at difficult tasks, sleep better at night, maintain their independence in the face of peer pressure, and suffer from fewer ulcers. In contrast, people with negative self-images tend to be more depressed, pessimistic about the future, and prone to failure.

Lacking confidence, they bring to new tasks a losing attitude that traps them in a vicious, self-defeating cycle.

Expecting to fail and fearing the worst, they become anxious, exert less effort, and “tune out” on important challenges.

134. Clearly, it helps to know that life could be worse, which is why most cancer patients tend to compare themselves with others in the same predicament but who are adjusting less well than they are. In a study of 312 women who had early-stage breast cancer and were in peer support groups, Laura Bogart and Vicki Helgeson (2000) had the patients report every week for seven weeks on instances in which they talked to, heard about, or thought about another patient. They found that 53% of all the social comparisons made were downward, to others who were worse off; only 12% were upward, to others who were better off (the rest were “lateral” comparisons to similar or dissimilar others). In fact, the more often patients made these social comparisons, the better they felt. Downward social comparison is also associated with an ability to cope with the kinds of life regrets that sometimes haunt people as they get older. Adult development researchers have observed that aging adults often experience intense feelings of regret over decisions made, contacts lost, opportunities passed up, and the like—and these regrets can compromise the quality of their lives. Isabelle Bauer and others (2008) asked adults ranging from 18 to 83 years old to disclose their biggest regret and then indicate whether their same-age peers had regrets that were more or less severe.

Among the older adults in the sample, those who tended to see others as having more severe regrets than their own felt better than those who saw others as less regretful.

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Chap_03_11e 135. Self-presentation is the portrayal of oneself to others in an effort to put forward a positive image. Self-monitoring refers to the ability to read the situation one is in and to adjust behavior accordingly. High self-monitors seem to have a repertoire of selves from which to draw and are especially sensitive to strategic self-presentation concerns that vary from one situation to the next, whereas low self-monitors express themselves more consistently across different situations. Therefore, self-monitoring can be an important ingredient of effective self-presentation.

136. Research has produced the surprising finding that introspection often interferes with our self-knowledge, yet this negative effect does not always occur. Research by Simine Vazire on the Self-Other Knowledge Asymmetry model shows that we do know ourselves well when it comes to knowledge about relatively nonevaluative, and thus nonthreatening, characteristics that are internal and hard to observe. In contrast, introspection about the self that is evaluative in nature (and thus potentially threatening) or deals with traits that are external and easy to observe does not tend to produce accurate self-knowledge.

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Chap_04_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. How do we defend our belief in a just world while observing the victim’s suffering? a. Identify strongly with the victim. b. Disparage the victim. c. Disparage the oppressor. d. Fear our own suffering in the future.

2. While on an airplane, John completes a crossword puzzle in which interrupt, rude, and blunt are all answers.

After landing, John gets in line to speak to someone at the ticket counter, but the ticket agent does not notice him because he is too busy talking with another employee. Research on priming suggests that John will be likely to a. leave and get in line at another gate to ask his question. b. interrupt the ticket agent, whom he judges to be quite rude. c. wait patiently until the agent finishes his conversation. d. forget about asking his question and go look for something to eat.

3. Colin and Erin are waiting to meet with their caterer so that they can discuss the menu for their wedding. The caterer is 30 minutes late and still hasn’t arrived. Colin suggests that the caterer is probably stuck in the traffic.

Erin suggests that the caterer is probably disorganized and unreliable. Colin is making a(n) attribution, whereas Erin is making a(n) attribution. a. dispositional; situational b. situational; personal c. expected; unexpected d. correspondent; dispositional 4. According to which of the following principles, a personal attribution is most likely to result when consistency is high, consensus is low, and distinctiveness is low? a. Situational attribution b. Correspondent inference theory c. Covariation d. Personal attribution 5. According to cross-cultural research on perception of emotion conducted by Elfenbein and Ambady (2002), a. people are uniformly good at perceiving the emotional states of others based on nonverbal cues, regardless of whether perceivers and targets are from the same culture. b. people are fairly successful at perceiving the emotional states of individuals from other cultures, but we are better at judging emotions of individuals from our own culture. c. people are actually better at perceiving the emotional states of individuals from other cultures because they are not distracted by language use and other verbal cues. d. language comprehension plays a central role in the evaluation of emotion.

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Chap_04_11e 6. The “anger superiority effect” states that angry faces are detected more efficiently than friendly faces by people who a. look away from an angry face in a crowd than a neutral face. b. look away from an angry face in a crowd than a happy face. c. spot an angry face in a crowd than a neutral or happy face. d. identify anger in the faces of people from other cultures.

7. Which of the following research findings is most consistent with Darwin’s hypothesis that the ability to interpret emotion from facial expressions has survival value? a. People recognize angry faces better than happy faces. b. People are better able to interpret emotions from video than still pictures. c. People are able to identify six primary emotions. d. People sometimes infer emotions from situations rather than facial expressions.

8. Ellen is at the mall when she runs into one of her closest friends, Vicki. Vicki is with a friend and introduces that friend to Ellen. Research on impression formation suggests that a. Ellen will feel jealous and immediately dislike Vicki’s friend. b. Ellen’s affection for Vicki will make her tend to like Vicki’s friend. c. Ellen will be focused on shopping and not form an impression of Vicki’s friend. d. Ellen will like Vicki’s friend because she is from out of town.

9. Social perceivers are most likely to agree in their judgments of which of the following traits? a. Openness to experience b. Extroversion c. Agreeableness d. Emotional stability 10. Why are we not very successful at detecting deception? a. We pay too much attention on nonverbal cues and not enough on verbal cues. b. We fail to attend to the nonverbal cues that actually signal deception. c. We are motivated to believe that others are telling the truth. d. We need to be able to detect deception in order to gain evolutionary advantage.

11. Britney wonders if she would have been happier had she married Justin instead of Kevin. This illustrates a. counterfactual thinking. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. the availability heuristic. d. false-consensus bias.

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Chap_04_11e 12. What is priming effect? a. The tendency to infer unknown personality characteristics on the basis of known dispositions b. The tendency for recently used concepts to come to mind easily and influence the interpretation of new information c. The tendency for people to underutilize target characteristics and rely on their own traits when forming impressions of others d. The tendency to continue to believe preexisting impressions even after they are discredited 13. Which of the following statement is true based on counterfactual thinking among Olympic medalists? a. Bronze and silver medalists are equally likely to think “What if I had won the gold?” b. Silver medalists are happier with their standing than bronze medalists, because silver medalists think about how they could have done worse and received the bronze. c. Silver medalists are less happy with their standing than bronze medalists, because they think if they could have done better and won the gold. d. Bronze medalists are more envious of silver medalists than of gold medalists.

14. People most often and easily differentiate each other based on which of the following dimensions? a. Warm vs. cold b. Introvert vs. extrovert c. Kind vs. mean d. Positive vs. negative 15. Deception is most likely to be detected by attending to which channel of communication? a. Spoken words b. Body posture c. Voice pitch d. Facial expression 16. Kelley’s theory of attribution suggests that, in trying to discern personal characteristics from behavioral evidence, people a. behave in ways that have distinctiveness, consistency, and consensus. b. use cognitive heuristics improperly. c. usually attribute behavior to both personal and situational factors. d. fail to adequately consider consensus information.

17. Why is social perception more complex than the simple perception of static objects? a. People are intentionally deceptive. b. People seldom pay attention to others. c. People are accidentally deceptive. d. Several sensory mechanisms work together.

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Chap_04_11e 18. According to Gray and colleagues (2007), what are the two dimensions on which people “perceive minds”? a. Depth and breadth b. Morality and rationality c. Agency and experience d. Contextual and focal 19. A meta-analysis conducted by Elfenbein and Ambady (2002) found that the emotion that is most accurately judged across cultures on facial expressions is a. sadness. b. happiness. c. anger. d. embarrassment.

20. The “Quiz Show” study by Ross and colleagues (1977) found that in judging the general knowledge of the contestant and questioner, a. observers fell victim to the fundamental attribution error, but the questioner and contestant did not. b. participants did not fall victim to the fundamental attribution error because they knew that the quiz show roles were assigned at random. c. observers and even contestants fell victim to the fundamental attribution error. d. men were more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error than women.

21. According to the two-step model of the attribution process, people make an a. automatic first step of weighing situational and personal attributions equally, and then an effortful second step of considering the initial inference. b. automatic first step of assuming person’s behavior, and then an effortful second step of considering situational steps. c. effortful first step of weighing situational and personal attributions equally, and then an automatic second step of making a dispositional inference. d. automatic first step of making a situational attribution, and then an effortful second step of considering personal factors.

22.

is the process by which people attribute humanlike mental states to various animate and inanimate objects, including other people. a. Belief perseverance b. Social perception c. Nonverbal cues d. Mind perception

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Chap_04_11e 23. Cosmo is convinced that his accountant is addicted to drugs. To determine whether he is correct, Cosmo asks his friends if the accountant sniffs a lot, uses slang when he speaks, or frequently excuses himself to use the men’s room—three behaviors Cosmo believes are characteristic of those with drug addictions. Cosmo’s methods illustrate a. the false-consensus effect. b. a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. confirmatory hypothesis testing. d. the trait negativity bias.

24. Suppose an experiment was conducted where people were asked to watch a political debate between two candidates who have been tied. Half of the participants saw a videotape of the debate where the camera focused on candidate A. The other half of the participants saw a videotape of the debate where the camera focused on candidate B. It is likely that a. the majority of the participants declared the debate a tie. b. both groups saw candidate A as victorious. c. the group that viewed candidate A thought she was victorious, whereas the group that viewed candidate B thought he was victorious. d. the group that viewed candidate A thought candidate B was victorious, whereas the group that viewed candidate B thought candidate A was victorious.

25. What do psychologists mean by the term “thin slices?” a. The judgment was thoroughly researched. b. The judgment was based on a minimal amount of information received. c. The judgment is probably inaccurate. d. The judgment was based on a very rich behavior sample.

26. Which of the following assertions is supported by research on deception? a. People are more accurate at detecting deception if they focus on facial expressions rather than voice cues. b. Police officers and FBI agents are better at detecting deception than most other people. c. People tend to have an accurate sense of their lie-detecting abilities. d. People are more accurate at detecting deception if they focus on body movements rather than facial expressions.

27. People most often and easily differentiate each other based on which of the following dimensions? a. Competent vs. incompetent b. Introvert vs. extrovert c. Kind vs. mean d. Positive vs. negative

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Chap_04_11e 28.

is the process by which one’s expectations about a person eventually lead that person to behave in ways that confirm those expectations. a. Representativeness heuristic b. Confirmation bias c. Self-fulfilling prophecy d. Base rate fallacy

29. According to Miller (1984), the attributions of American and Asian Indian participants rely on a. no cultural differences emerged with young children, but among adults, Americans were more likely to make personal attributions, and Indians were more likely to make situational attributions. b. no cultural differences emerged with young children, but among adults, Americans were more likely to make situational attributions, and Indians were more likely to make personal attributions. c. among young children, Americans were more likely to make personal attributions, and Indians were more likely to make situational attributions; no cultural differences emerged with adult participants. d. among young children, Americans were more likely to make situational attributions, and Indians were more likely to make personal attributions; no cultural differences emerged with adult participants.

30. According to Kahneman’s (2011) work on judgment and decision making, System 1 is to . a. easy;controlled b. controlled; easy c. accurate; inaccurate d. inaccurate; accurate

as System 2 is to

31. What is the adaptive significance of being able to identify the emotion of disgust in others’ faces? a. It motivates us to draw near to the target and promotes affiliation. b. It helps us to avoid food poisoning. c. It keeps us from experiencing rejection, which is damaging to the immune system. d. It helps us to locate food sources.

32. Vernell is being interviewed for a job. The interviewer suspects that Vernell is incompetent. The interviewer doesn’t expect much from Vernell and sits far away from her during the interview. He interrupts her frequently, and seems distracted when she speaks. As a result, Vernell becomes nervous, starts to stutter, and loses her train of thought several times. The interviewer’s final impression is that Vernell is, as he suspected, incompetent.

This impression is most likely the result of a. the trait negativity bias. b. a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. primacy effects. d. the fundamental attribution error.

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Chap_04_11e 33. Rosenthal and Jacobson’s (1968) study, Pygmalion in the Classroom, found that a. teacher expectancy was uncorrelated with student performance. b. positive teacher expectations influenced student performance. c. teacher’s expectancy influenced student performance in the negative manner. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy is common outside of educational settings.

34. Which of the following features best explains how availability affects judgments? a. Difficulty to recall b. Counterfactual thinking c. Ease of recall d. Stereotyping 35. The process of forming an overall impression of people’s character depending upon available information about their traits and behaviors is called a. covariation. b. need for closure. c. implicit personality formation. d. impression formation.

36. Andrew tends to view the behavior of others in gross units, whereas Angela tends to break others’ behavior down into fine units. Angela is more likely than Andrew to a. pay more attention to the behavior. b. detect more meaningful actions. c. remember more details about the behavior. d. form a more positive impression of an actor.

37. Todd has a “baby face,” and Martin has features that are traditionally considered more mature. They are both being interviewed for the same position in a bank. What is the most probable outcome? a. Because of his more mature features, Martin will be recommended for the position. b. Todd will be recommended for the position because baby-faced individuals are perceived as more honest. c. Todd will be recommended for the position because baby-faced individuals are judged as more qualified for employment than mature-faced individuals. d. Their facial features will not impact the hiring decision, and the more qualified candidate will get the job.

38. According to correspondent inference theory, in which of the following situations would a personal attribution be most appropriate? a. Serena, a professor, helps students during her office hours. b. Sally, a naval officer, salutes when her commanding officer enters the room. c. Sam, a wealthy athlete, is ordered by the court to attend a drug rehabilitation program. d. Steve, a Casanova, joins a monastery and takes a vow of celibacy.

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Chap_04_11e 39. According to research by Balcetis and Dunning (2010), participants who were thirsty a. estimated that a bottle of water across the table was closer than participants who were quenched estimated. b. estimated that a bottle of water across the table was farther than participants who were quenched estimated. c. drank more of a bottle of water than did participants who were quenched. d. made harsher judgments of a target person than did participants who were quenched.

40. Denrell’s (2005) explanation for the persistence of negative first impressions is that when we meet someone and we do not like them, we tend to avoid them, which allows the first impression to remain consistent. This notion is called a. biased experience sampling. b. the fundamental attribution error. c. the availability heuristic. d. mind perception.

41. The tendency to think that most victims of Hurricane Sandy were irresponsible and naive for not evacuating their homes before the storm hit is most likely to result from which of the following tendencies? a. Belief in a just world b. Implicit personality theory c. False-consensus effect d. Priming 42. A baseball manager who clings to old and ineffective strategies, a lawyer who selects juries according to false stereotypes, and a political leader who does not withdraw support for a failing program are all exhibiting a. confirmation bias. b. confirmatory hypothesis testing. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. need for closure.

43. You hear Tiger Woods doing a radio commercial for Buick. Even though you know that Woods did not write the commercial himself, was paid to provide the voice-over for the commercial, and probably does not drive a Buick in real life, you still think that at some level, Woods must think highly of Buicks. This is an example of the a. actor–observer effect. b. false-consensus bias. c. availability heuristic. d. fundamental attribution error.

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Chap_04_11e 44. While watching a political debate on television, Martha, who describes herself as very conservative, is watching as the liberal candidate answers a question. When the candidate makes strong points that are backed up by logic, Martha rolls her eyes and doesn’t say a word. When the candidate makes one minor error, Martha yells, “See I told you she doesn’t know what she’s talking about. All of those liberals are idiots!” Martha is demonstrating the a. need for closure. b. availability heuristic. c. self-serving bias. d. confirmation bias.

45. What factor explains the influence of anchoring on judgments? a. Sufficient adjustment b. Plausibility c. Knowledge of anchor and target d. Biasness 46. The research of Lee Jussim (2012) suggests that teachers’ impressions of their students are a. accurate and predict student performance without influencing it. b. inaccurate and predict student performance by influencing it. c. accurate and do not influence student performance. d. inaccurate and do not influence student performance.

47. The idea that impressions are based on a perceiver’s disposition to form certain impressions and a weighted average of the target person’s characteristics is most consistent with a. correspondent inference theory. b. cognitive heuristics. c. the actor–observer effect. d. information integration theory.

48. A group of theories that describe how people explain the causes of behavior is known as a. attribution theory. b. correspondent inference theory. c. information integration theory. d. the just-world model.

49. Cross-cultural differences in the perception of nonverbal behavior are least prevalent in which of the following types of judgments? a. Evaluations of emotions and facial features b. Interpretations of head-nodding and hand signals c. Preference for personal space d. Inferences drawn regarding eye contact

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Chap_04_11e 50. According to Gilbert’s two-step model of social perception, distraction leads to the fundamental attribution error as it a. discourages personal attributions, but has little effect on situational attributions. b. inhibits perceivers from using distinctiveness information, but allows them to take consistency information into account. c. does not interfere with the automatic process of making personal attributions, but does interfere with the more difficult process of making situational adjustments. d. changes the interrelationship between the figure and the background in social perception.

51. In the Jones and Harris (1967) study, participants read essays presumably written by another student that had either been assigned or chose to write in support of a particular position. Which of the following statements is consistent with the findings of this study? a. Participants were more likely to infer the student’s attitude from the essay if they believed it was written under conditions of free choice and not assigned by the instructor. b. Participants were more likely to infer the student’s attitude from the essay if they believed it was an assigned topic rather than chosen. c. Participants were more likely to infer the student’s attitude from the essay if it agreed with their own. d. Participants did not infer the student’s attitude from the essay at all if it was an assigned topic.

52. All of the following have been shown in research on priming except that priming a. is more likely when people are aware of the exposure. b. may have effects on our social perceptions of others. c. may affect our social behavior. d. demonstrates the effects of recent events on our perceptions.

53. What is trait negativity bias? a. The tendency for people to view others’ traits more negatively than their own b. The tendency for moderately favorable traits to negatively impact the favorability of overall impressions c. The tendency for negative impressions to become more positive over time d. The tendency for negative trait information to have a greater impact on impressions 54. In 1965, Jones and Davis suggested that people prefer to make internal attributions because a. internal attributions are perceived to be better for predicting behavior. b. internal attributions are faster. c. people don’t like thinking about situational factors. d. internal attributions make the perceiver happy.

55. What are the two universal dimensions of social cognition? a. Warmth and competence b. Happy and sad c. Warm and cold d. Athletic and intelligent

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Chap_04_11e 56. What is the purpose of an emoticon? a. To convey nonlinguistic communication. b. To promote humor in e-mail exchanges. c. To make reading e-mail more interesting. d. To enhance the emotional reaction of the recipient of the e-mail.

57. According to Kahneman and Tversky’s work on decision framing, even when the options were objectively the same, people were likely to take risks when those risks were framed as a. potential losses. b. potential gains. c. small possibilities. d. big possibilities.

58. The finding that people’s initial impressions of someone affect their interpretation of subsequent information about that person is most consistent with the a. change-of-meaning. b. trait negativity bias. c. summation model of information integration. d. self-fulfilling prophecy.

59. Research has shown that the strength of first impressions is even greater for individuals who a. are high in need for closure. b. have not been primed. c. are in a bad mood. d. believe in a just world.

60. Research examining the role of culture in the attribution process has found that a. children reared in Western cultures are more likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those reared in Eastern cultures. b. children reared in Western cultures are less likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those reared in Eastern cultures. c. adults in Finland are more likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those in Korea. d. adults in Western cultures are less likely to make the fundamental attribution error than those in Eastern cultures.

61. Research on motivational biases suggests that if you are a people person, you will a. be a better leader than if you are a task-oriented person. b. be a worse leader than if you are a task-oriented person. c. value social skills more in leaders than if you are task-oriented. d. value social skills less in leaders than if you are task oriented.

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Chap_04_11e 62. Kelley’s covariation model suggests that three types of information are crucial for arriving at external or internal attributions except a. dissonance. b. consensus. c. consistency. d. distinctiveness.

63. Bella is a teacher who suspects that a student is trying to deceive her. Under which of the following conditions does Bella have the best chance of being accurate in her attempts to detect whether or not the student is lying? a. Bella reads a written transcript of the student’s story. b. Bella sees a silent video of the student’s face as the student tells the story. c. Bella reads a written transcript of the student’s story and sees a silent video of the student’s face as the student tells the story. d. Bella asks the student to recount her story in reverse chronological order.

64. According to Ekman and O’Sullivan's (1991) research, who would be able to detect a liar accurately? a. A local police investigator b. A trial judge c. A psychiatrist d. A U.S. Secret Service agent 65. While traveling around the world, Teun shows the pictures of men and women from his hometown who are smiling and frowning to various people. He asks those people to infer what emotions the individuals in the pictures are experiencing. According to the research on perceptions of primary emotions, Teun should find that a. perceptions of the emotions vary widely as a function of the people’s culture. b. perceptions of the emotions are relatively consistent across most cultures. c. little can be inferred about the emotions unless the behaviors of the individuals in the pictures are also described. d. little is inferred about the emotions unless the situational contexts of the individuals in the pictures are also described.

66. What does fallacy reflect? a. A failure to use consensus information b. A failure to use consistency information c. The actor–observer effect d. An excessive reliance on situational attributions 67. According to Samuel Sommers (2011) people seem to commit the fundamental attribution error a. only if they use the availability heuristic to make attributions. b. only if they are unaware of the actor’s feelings about the particular behavior. c. even when they attempt to explain their own behavior. d. even when they are aware of the situational constraints of the behavior.

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Chap_04_11e 68. What are the important traits that exert a powerful influence on final impressions? a. Implicit traits b. Central traits c. Priming traits d. Confirming traits 69. According to Hassin and Trope’s (2000) study of physiognomy, participants assigned traits to others based on their a. hair style. b. facial features. c. perceived age. d. perceived race.

70. Which of the following statements provides the best example of a self-fulfilling prophecy? a. When poor school children are expected to perform less well than wealthy school children b. When an athlete visualizes a superior performance and then goes out and actually wins c. When minority candidates perform more poorly in interviews because interviewers act on their expectations that these candidates are unprepared d. When people focus on the first information they have about another individual when making an impression 71. Imagine that you are grading the exams of two students, Michael and Fredo. They both get only half the questions correct. Michael gets the first half of the questions right, whereas Fredo gets the last half of the questions right. According to Asch’s work on primacy effects in impression formation, you would be likely to conclude that a. Michael is smarter than Fredo. b. Fredo is smarter than Michael. c. Michael and Fredo are equally unintelligent. d. Michael became overconfident while taking the exam.

72. All of the following could be categorized as sources of “raw data” for a study of social perception except a. a person’s physical appearance. b. knowledge of what situation a person is in. c. a person’s behavior. d. accounts given by others about a person.

73. What reduces cognitive ambiguity and heightens the importance of first impressions? a. The need for closure b. Belief perseverance c. Confirmation bias d. Counterfactual thinking

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Chap_04_11e 74. Putting a heavy emphasis on the first-hand information people receive about others is called the a. recency effect b. emphasis effect c. impression effect

.

d. primacy effect 75. Jerry makes frequent eye contact with the person to whom he is talking. This is most likely to elicit a(n) a. impression that Jerry is domineering and likes power. b. impression that Jerry is insecure and needy. c. positive or negative emotion depending on the kind of eye contact that Jerry uses. d. positive or negative emotion depending on whether Jerry is talking to a male or female.

76. When Pryor and Merluzzi (1985) questioned college students, they found that the most familiar first step in this script was that a. two or more couples meet at a common place. b. the female arrives. c. dating companions meet at a common place. d. the male arrives.

77.

is not considered to be a primary emotion. a. Sadness b. Fear c. Anger d. Anxiousness

78. Everyone you know seems to love the TV show The Bachelor. But every time you watch The Bachelor, you have the same reaction: you hate it with a passion. According to Kelley’s (1967) covariation theory of attribution, your dislike of this show would be a. high in consensus, low in distinctiveness, and high in consistency. b. low in consensus, high in distinctiveness, and high in consistency. c. high in consensus, high in distinctiveness, and low in consistency. d. low in consensus, low in distinctiveness, and low in consistency.

79. Reena meets Rachael for the first time. Rachael is perceived as smart, funny, sociable, but rude. Although Reena perceived Rachael to have many positive qualities, her rudeness outweighed them, thus Reena forms a negative impression of Rachael. This illustrates a. an implicit personality theory. b. negativity effect. c. the summation model of impression formation. d. the primacy effect.

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Chap_04_11e 80. Implicit personality theories suggest that if we know Yael is an extrovert, we would a. be less likely to form an overall positive impression of her. b. be more likely to form an overall positive impression of her. c. look for situations in which one ought to be extroverted. d. assume she also possesses other traits related to extroversion.

81.

gets activated when we sniff a disgusting odor as well as when we watch others sniffing the disgusting odor. a. Amygdala b. Insula c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus

82. Willis and Todorov (2006) showed college students photos of strangers’ faces and found that a. participants were unable to rate the personality in the photos when they only saw the faces for less than one second. b. even when they saw the photos for less than one second, participants’ ratings of the faces were highly correlated with the ratings of others who looked at the faces without time limits. c. participants who only saw the faces for less than one second rated the faces as possessing more negative traits than others who were allowed to look at the faces for as long as they wanted to. d. the longer it took participants to rate each face, the more accurate their ratings were.

83. According to Pryor and Merluzzi (1985), the script for a first date a. was more easily recalled by participants with extensive dating experience. b. varied widely by gender, but only when participants relatively experienced. c. varied widely by sexual orientation. d. was similar across cultures.

84. Which of the following statements describes one of the ways in which your text describes social perceivers as differing? a. Individuals vary in the degree to which they believe behavior is caused by fixed versus malleable characteristics. b. People differ in the extent to which they have positive or negative personality characteristics. c. There are differences in whether people are or are not motivated to make accurate perceptions of others. d. People may not consider cultural variations that impact the way others should be assessed.

85. LeBron is eating at a restaurant on a first date when his date spills spaghetti all over his lap. Which of the following conclusions would LeBron be most likely to draw if he commits the fundamental attribution error? a. His date gets nervous on first dates. b. His date is a slob. c. His date is even more attractive than he originally thought. d. His date is even less attractive than he originally thought.

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Chap_04_11e 86. According to correspondent inference theory, if people’s behavior is low in social desirability, then a social perceiver will a. attribute the behavior to the person’s personality or disposition. b. attribute the behavior to the situation. c. find the behavior illogical. d. find the behavior uninfluenced.

87.

is the phenomenon in which people’s internal state influences their visual perception. a. Wishful seeing b. Attribution bias c. Averaging models of impression formation d. Belief perseverance

88. Which of the following types of error in social cognition can be seen by the fact that people might feel bad eating mousse shaped like cat-poop? a. Magical thinking b. Counterfactual thinking c. Intuitive thinking d. The false-consensus effect 89. A network of assumptions that people make when forming impressions based on traits and behaviors is called a. implicit personality traits. b. information integration theory. c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the confirmation bias.

90. When is low, it is difficult for the perceiver to attribute behavior to either the person or the stimulus; as a result the behavior was caused by transient circumstances. a. Consensus b. Distinctiveness c. Openness d. Stability 91. Vito finished first in the school spelling bee, Fabrizio finished second, and Luigi finished third. The first-place winner gets a cash prize and the opportunity to compete at the regional spelling bee, but the others get nothing.

Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Fabrizio will engage in more counterfactual thinking than Luigi. b. Luigi will engage in more counterfactual thinking than Fabrizio. c. Fabrizio and Luigi will engage in counterfactual thinking to about the same extent, but more so than Vito. d. Fabrizio and Luigi will engage in counterfactual thinking to about the same extent, but less so than Vito.

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Chap_04_11e 92. Which of the following psychological processes best explains why it is that people sometimes react to news of a natural disaster or violent crime with something less than full sympathy on behalf of the victims? a. Counterfactual thinking b. False-consensus effect c. Availability heuristic d. Belief in a just world 93.

reveals a person’s feelings without using words, but instead using only gestures. a. Scripted behavior b. Fine-unit behavior c. Perceptually salient behavior d. Nonverbal behavior

94.

is the trait that would produce the most extreme impression of a target. a. Honesty b. Cruelty c. Maturity d. Intelligence

95. Which of the following statements best describes our current state of knowledge regarding social perception? a. People frequently make errors judging others and are rarely accurate in impression formation. b. People’s perception and biases do not always result in inaccurate impression formation. c. People frequently exhibit bias in their perceptions of others. Such bias results in inaccurate impression formation. d. People infrequently exhibit bias and, as a result, rarely make errors in impression formation.

96. How do we define a confirmation bias? a. People’s tendency to agree with others whose attitudes differs from theirs b. People’s tendency to behave according to others’ expectations c. People’s tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies existing beliefs d. People’s tendency to reinterpret earlier information to make it more consistent with subsequent information 97. The study of social perception addresses all of the following except a. how people explain and analyze the behavior of others. b. how people form coherent impressions of others. c. the strategies people use to create a positive self-image. d. the way that expectations can distort reality.

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Chap_04_11e 98. According to Todorov and others (2008), facial expression will be perceived as most trustworthy. a. U-shaped mouth with raised eyebrows b. U-shaped mouth with eyebrows forming a V c. mouth curled down with raised eyebrows d. mouth curled down with eyebrows forming a V 99. What should be the criterion for making an external or internal attribution about a person’s behavior? a. Behavioral consensus b. Behavioral distinctiveness c. Behavioral consistency d. All of the above 100. Based on Sam Gosling’s book (2008), how do social perceivers form impressions? a. The schools that others go to b. What they have previously heard c. Physical attributes d. People’s “stuff” 101. When forming impressions of others, people a. see their own skills and abilities as less desirable to have. b. use the significant others in their lives as a frame of reference. c. differ in the particular traits they are likely to notice. d. are typically very inconsistent in what they consider.

102. The concept of the availability heuristic is illustrated when you a. choose one movie over another because you prefer the design of its poster at the cinema. b. never make a decision about where to eat because you are seldom hungry. c. vow to never drive again because of the horrible accident you witnessed in front of your office. d. refuse to buy a drink that you think is overpriced, even if you are wrong.

103. Following are the stages of the interpersonal perception process except a. analyzing. b. selecting. c. organizing. d. interpreting.

104. During her social psychology course this morning, Leticia learned about the situational obstacles that often prevent people helping others in need. As she is eating lunch with her friends after class, one of them begins coughing and Leticia offers help to her. Leticia’s behavior is most likely the result of a. counterfactual thinking. b. actor-observer effect. c. priming. d. false-consensus effect.

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Chap_04_11e 105. Perceivers judge accident victims as more responsible for their fate if a. the victim’s situation is very different from that of the perceiver. b. the accident is mild rather than severe. c. the perceiver is more concerned about harm to the self. d. the perceiver can aid the victim in some way.

106. Research using bicultural participants, such as China-born students attending college in the United States, indicates that a. attributional style is dictated by the native culture and does not vary much with cultural influences later in life. b. at some point such individuals completely abandon the attributional tendencies of their nation of origin and replace them with the tendencies of their new country of residence. c. people can simultaneously hold differing cultural worldviews, either of which can influence attributional tendencies depending on the situation. d. attributional style is dictated by the culture in which one lives, unless that person is spending time with family members from their culture of origin.

107. Darley and Gross (1983) conducted a study in which they asked participants to evaluate the intellectual ability of a nine-year-old named “Hannah.” Some participants were led to believe that she came from a high socioeconomic (SES) background; others were led to believe she came from a low SES background. Which of the following statements about this study is accurate? a. Only for perceivers who actually met the target (i.e., Hannah) in person did expectation influence perceptions. b. Perceivers’ expectations determined the way they behaved toward the target, which in turn influenced the target’s behavior. c. Perceivers’ expectations led them to fail to notice clear limitations of the target’s actual performance. d. Perceivers’ expectations affected their perceptions of the target’s performance, even when that performance was identical across conditions.

108. Sophia voted for Barack Obama in the 2008 U.S. presidential election. She believes that approximately 90% of college students also voted for Obama, when in reality that number is much lower. Sophia’s overestimation is consistent with the a. false-consensus effect. b. confirmation bias. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. representativeness heuristic.

109. In making a judgment regarding a specific instance, people often fail to think about how frequent something is in general. This explains a. base-rate fallacy. b. confirmation bias. c. false consensus effect. d. regression fallacy.

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Chap_04_11e 110. Believing that poor people are happier than others, or that obese people are more sociable, helps to satisfy a. belief perseverance. b. belief in a just world. c. the self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the false-consensus effect.

111. According to Jones and Davis’s (1965) correspondent inference theory, observers trying to infer what an actor is trying to achieve by a particular action would ask all of the following questions except which question? a. Did the behavior violate any social norms? b. What were the consequences of the behavior? c. What is the actor’s perception of the behavior? d. Did the actor freely choose to perform the behavior?

112. What has been shown to improve social perceiver’s ability to evaluate covariation? a. Happy mood b. Sad mood c. Confirmatory evidence d. Inductive reasoning 113. Kevin is walking down the hall when he sees his friend, Carry. Kevin smiles and waves to her, But Carry keeps walking without acknowledging him. Which of the following examples best explains the fundamental attribution error? a. Deciding to ignore Carry the next time Kevin sees her. b. Deciding that Carry snubbed Kevin because she is rude. c. Assuming that Carry did not see Kevin. d. Concluding that Carry was probably in a rush.

114. The importance of nonverbal behavior to social perception can be seen by the fact that e-mail messages a. are often misinterpreted, especially when the writer is trying to be funny or sarcastic. b. have a stronger emotional impact on those who read them than do voicemail messages. c. are typically substantially longer and more richly detailed than text messages. d. are the preferred means of communication among younger but not older Americans.

115.

involves the tendency to mentally undo events or to ask “What if…?” a. The base-rate fallacy b. Attribution c. Counterfactual thinking d. The fundamental attribution error

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Chap_04_11e 116. According to Balcetis and Dunning (2006), people taking part in a taste-testing experiment a. tend to perceive things as per visual stimuli. b. prefer orange juice to greenish drink. c. have perceptions that are objective analyses of the facts. d. are unlikely to make self-serving attributions.

117. What is the second step of the self-fulfilling prophecy? a. Target unwittingly adjusts behaviors to match the expectations of a perceiver. b. Perceiver’s expectations affect their behavior toward the others. c. Objective source of information renders the perceiver's expectations to be valid or invalid. d. Perceiver has expectations of a target person.

118. Research on perception of complex action, such as athletic activity, indicates that compared to people who break the event up into gross units, those who break the event up into fine units tend to a. remember more details about the event. b. lose sight of the big-picture outcome of the event. c. rely more on the expectations of others in evaluating the event. d. enjoy their observation of the event more.

119. The theory that combines the personal dispositions of the perceiver with a weighted average of the target person’s characteristics is called a. fundamental attribution error. b. information integration. c. motivational bias. d. covariation.

120. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to attribute a. one’s own behavior to personal factors rather than to the situation. b. one’s own behavior to the situation rather than to personal factors. c. another person’s behavior to personal factors rather than to the situation. d. another person’s behavior to situational factors rather than to personal factors.

121. Negative information about a target a. cannot be primed. b. weighs less heavily on the brain than positive information. c. is typically ignored by perceivers younger than 10 years old. d. causes electrical activity in different areas of the brain than positive or neutral information.

122. When do we make an attribution about a person? a. When they are heavily criticized. b. When they are strongly praised. c. When a cause is imputed for their actions. d. When they are being judged by the others.

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Chap_04_11e 123. Which of the following reflects the primary question underlying the correspondent inference theory? a. Do attributions correspond with preexisting beliefs? b. Does an individual’s belief correspond with that individual’s behavior? c. Does the actor’s behavior correspond to the actor’s stable personality? d. Does an observer infer that an actor’s behavior is consistent with that of the observer?

124. Research on the impact of ideological motives on attribution indicates that a liberal is most likely to explain poverty as due to a. laziness. b. existing power authorities. c. personal characteristics. d. self-indulgence.

125. Based on research on counterfactual thinking, in which of the following scenarios is Jamal most likely to wonder what life might have been like had he been richer? a. Financially, Jamal is in the upper-middle class. His parents were slightly wealthier. b. Financially, Jamal is in the upper-middle class. His parents were lower-middle class. c. Financially, Jamal is in the working class. His parents were also working class. d. Financially, Jamal is in the middle class. His parents were extremely rich.

126. Fritz is a social psychologist who specializes in studying the processes of social perception. Given this interest, Fritz is least likely to specialize in which of the following research questions? a. How do employers infer traits and abilities about job candidates based on observing their behavior in a job interview? b. How do police officers and customs agents make judgments concerning how truthful or deceptive particular individuals are? c. How are consumers influenced in their choices by the packaging and positioning of different products? d. How does the performance of athletes vary as a function of their coach’s expectations about their ability and potential?

127. According to Forgas and Bower (1987), good moods can lead to a. more negative perceptions of others. b. more negative perceptions of others, particularly when the mood is induced by an unexpected surprise. c. more positive perceptions of others, particularly when the mood is induced by an unexpected surprise. d. more positive perceptions of others.

128. As social perceivers, people’s impressions of others are a. formed only after knowing the person for a considerable period of time. b. uninfluenced by superficial attributes of a person. c. formed at first encounter and completely unchangeable. d. influenced by the physical appearance of a person.

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Chap_04_11e 129. The finding that moderately positive traits can dilute the impact of extremely positive traits on impressions is most consistent with the a. role of central traits in impression formation. b. influence of priming effects in impression formation. c. averaging model of impression formation. d. summation model of impression formation.

130. The term “gaze disengagement” tends to lead perceivers to a. believe that a target is overly confident. b. rate a target as more physically attractive. c. have difficulty forming an accurate impression of a target. d. form a social cue to signal exclusion or affiliation.

131. Which of the following statements about mind perception is most accurate? a. It only occurs to perception of humans. b. It occurs for perception of inanimate objects only. c. The more humanlike the target object, the more likely we are to attribute to it qualities of mind. d. The less humanlike the target object, the more likely we are to attribute to it qualities of mind.

132. Which of the following best describes the process of individuation while forming an impression? a. Actively attending to and gathering information about a person, free of bias and stereotypes b. Automatically perceiving others as mentor, boss, or teacher c. Treating an individual as a special entity within a social category d. Focusing more on a person’s negative qualities than positive 133. On what cues should social perceivers focus in order to try to detect if someone is trying to deceive others?

Conversely, on what cues do social perceivers typically focus, and why are these cues less revealing?

134. How are adults with baby-faced facial features perceived and treated differently than adults with mature facial features? What are two explanations for these effects?

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Chap_04_11e 135. What are the “primary emotions” and how are they perceived in different cultures around the planet?

136. Explain self-fulfilling prophecy. What are the ways to break the cycle of negative self-fulfilling prophecies?

137. Explain the information integration theory of impression formation, and describe at least two potential ways in which humans deviate from its proposed arithmetic.

138. Explain Gilbert and Malone’s two-step process of making attributions, and identify when in this process the fundamental attribution error occurs.

139. Describe Kelley’s covariation principle as it relates to the manner in which attributions are made. Support your answer with examples.

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Chap_04_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. d

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Chap_04_11e 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. a 52. a 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_11e 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. c 76. d 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_11e 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. c 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_11e 111. c 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. b 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. c 127. d 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. c 133. According to research, there are four channels of communication (i.e., spoken words, the face, the body, and the voice) depending upon which a person tries to deceive others. The voice is the least controllable by the deceiver, and thus is the most revealing cue. People who are trying to deceive the others usually raise their voice pitch which leads to speech hesitations. They often repeat their own words or phrases in order to convince the other person.

The next important cue is the body. Restless shifts in posture like rubbing hands and shaking legs tend to be evident that the particular person is lying. Perceivers, however, typically focus on the less revealing cues. Perceivers tend to focus on the words that people say, as well as on the face. This strategy is likely to fail because people can manipulate these channels of communication, even when they are lying.

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Chap_04_11e 134. Research has shown that adults with baby-faced features (i.e., large round eyes, high eyebrows, round cheeks, a large forehead, smooth skin, and a rounded chin) tend to be seen as relatively warm, kind, naive, weak, honest, and submissive, whereas adults with mature features (i.e., small eyes, low eyebrows, a small forehead, wrinkled skin, and an angular chin) tend to be seen as stronger, more dominant, and less naive. Furthermore, baby-faced individuals are considered more favorably by judges in cases of intentional wrongdoing and by employers interviewing candidates for a daycare teaching position. There are three explanations for these effects. First, human beings may be genetically predisposed to respond gently to infantile features in order to ensure that real babies are treated carefully.

Second, we may learn to associate infantile features with helplessness and expect this to be true of both infants and adults. Finally, there is the possibility of an actual link between baby-facedness and behavior, meaning that these differences in perception are driven by real differences in behavioral tendencies.

135. What kinds of nonverbal cues do people use in judging how someone else is feeling? In The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals, naturalist Charles Darwin (1872)—whose theory of evolution transformed our understanding of human history—proposed that the face expresses emotion in ways that are both innate and understood by people all over the world. Contemporary research supports this notion. Many studies have shown that when presented with photographs similar to those on page 114, people can reliably identify at least six “primary” emotions: happiness, sadness, anger, fear, surprise, and disgust.

In one study, participants from 10 different countries—Estonia, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong, Italy, Japan, Scotland, Sumatra, Turkey, and the United States—exhibited high levels of agreement in their recognition of these emotions (Ekman et al., 1987). From one end of the world to the other, it’s clear that a smile is a smile and a frown is a frown and that just about everyone knows what they mean, even when the expressions are “put on” by actors and are not genuinely felt. But do the results fully support the claim that basic emotions are “universally” recognized from the face, or is the link culturally specific? To answer this question, Hillary Elfenbein and Nalini Ambady (2002) meta-analyzed 97 studies involving a total of 22,148 social perceivers from 42 different countries.

As shown in Figure 4.3, they found support for both points of view. On the one hand, people all over the world are able to recognize the primary emotions from photographs of facial expressions. On the other hand, people are 9% more accurate at judging faces from their own national, ethnic, or regional groups than from members of less familiar groups-indicating that we enjoy an “in-group advantage” when it comes to knowing how those who are closest to us are feeling.

In a study that illustrates the point, Elfenbein and Ambady (2003) showed pictures of American faces to groups with varying degrees of exposure to Americans. As predicted, more life exposure was associated with greater accuracy, from a low of 60% among Chinese participants living in China up to 83% among Chinese living in the United States and 93% among non–Chinese Americans. When it comes to recognizing emotions in the face, it appears that familiarity breeds accuracy.

136. The self-fulfilling prophecy is when a person predicts an outcome and then unintentionally acts in a way that brings the end result predicted.

Here are three effective ways to break the cycle of negative self-fulfilling prophecies: · Corrective thinking helps in uncovering incoherent beliefs, replacing negative and distressing mental pictures with rational thoughts and expectations. · Corrective responses help people to conquer challenges by facing problems rather than avoiding or ignoring them. · Learning coping strategies help people shape their personality more effectively.

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Chap_04_11e 137. Information integration theory suggests that impressions of others are formed by a combination of the personal disposition and current state of the perceiver and by a weighted average of the target person’s characteristics. It is the integration of these two sets of factors that produces a unified impression. Because humans are not as consistent as machines, this “algebra” may have deviations from the simple weighted average proposed. For example, one perceiver may value intelligence and thus weight intelligence more heavily in the averaging process than another perceiver. Alternately, the same perceiver in a good versus bad mood may form a very different impression of the same target. Even the order in which a perceiver acquires information can influence how that information is weighted, with first information generally carrying more weight regardless of the evaluative content of that information. Furthermore, characteristics of the target may influence the way an impression is formed, as well. For example, an extraverted target is more likely to be perceived similarly by many than another sort of trait that is less directly observable. Negative traits tend to influence the impression formed more than positive traits.

138. According to Gilbert and Malone, we first identify a behavior and then make the initial assumption that it is caused by the actor’s disposition. We then seek more information about the situational influences on the actor’s behavior and adjust our attribution accordingly. Naturally, the latter step is the more difficult and effortful one. The fundamental attribution error (the tendency to overattribute another person’s behavior to disposition) occurs when we do not adjust adequately. This may occur because we do not have the adequate amount of cognitive resources to complete the second step properly. When people have the time and motivation to make accurate judgments, they are more likely to take account of situational constraints, and thus less likely to make the fundamental attribution error.

139. According to Kelley, people make attributions by using the covariation principle: In order for something to be the cause of a behavior, it must be present when the behavior occurs and absent when it does not. Three kinds of covariation information in particular are useful: consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency.

Thinking like a scientist, you might seek out consensus information to see how different persons behave similarly in a similar situation. In other words, what do other moviegoers think about this film? If others also rave about it, then this stranger’s behavior is high in consensus and is attributed to the stimulus. If others are critical of this film, however, then the behavior is low in consensus and is attributed to the person.

Still thinking like a scientist, you might also want distinctiveness information to see how the same person reacts to different stimuli. In other words, what does this moviegoer think of other films? If the stranger is generally critical of other films, then the target behavior is high in distinctiveness and is attributed to the stimulus. If the stranger raves about everything he or she sees, however, then the behavior is low in distinctiveness and is attributed to the person.

Finally, you might want to seek consistency information to see what happens to the behavior at another time when the person and the stimulus both remain the same. How does this moviegoer feel about this film on other occasions? If the stranger raves about the film on video as well as in the theater, regardless of surroundings, then the behavior is high in consistency. If the stranger does not always enjoy the film, the behavior is low in consistency. According to Kelley, behavior that is consistent is attributed to the stimulus when consensus and distinctiveness are also high and to the person when they are low. In contrast, behavior that is low in consistency is attributed to transient circumstances, such as the temperature of the movie theater.

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Chap_05_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to research by Jacquie Vorauer, which is true of people engaging in intergroup interactions? a. They do not show any intergroup prejudice to their outgroup members. b. They often try to establish the superiority of their own racial groups. c. They often have thoughts about the outgroup’s stereotypes toward them. d. They focus exclusively on gaining respect from outgroup members.

2. Two neighboring high schools have been feuding since the annual football game ended in a tie. The principals of the schools decide that the tension may subside if the two schools participate in joint activities, such as assemblies that would allow the students to hear a local band. The strategy is likely to be ineffective, however, because the a. two groups have equal status. b. trying to resolve intergroup conflicts always results in further conflicts. c. students at the two schools are unlikely to have personal contact. d. principals have established the wrong social norm.

3. Which of the following is not predicted by social identity theory? a. Self-esteem is derived from positive ingroup associations. b. Threats to self-esteem tend to decrease ingroup favoritism. c. Expressions of ingroup favoritism tend to increase self-esteem. d. Self-esteem is increased to the extent that the ingroup is perceived as better than the outgroup.

4. A stereotype exists in many cultures that men are better than women at math. Ramie is about to take a diagnostic achievement test in math. According to research on stereotype threat, under which condition is Ramie most likely to perform poorly on the test? a. Ramie does not believe that the test is an accurate measure of math ability. b. Ramie is asked to indicate her sex at the beginning of the test. c. Ramie does not include math as an important part of her identity. d. Ramie is unaware of the cultural stereotype concerning sex and math 5. The tendency to overestimate the extent to which members of stereotyped groups possess attributes and perform behaviors consistent with the group stereotype results from a. subtyping. b. illusory correlations. c. stereotype threat. d. ingroup favoritism.

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Chap_05_11e 6. Linley is trying to reduce racism by having children of different races work on projects together. Each student is given information critical to the project and has to collaborate with their different-race group members by sharing that information to earn a good grade on the project. The classroom norms are supportive of cross-race interaction. Which of the following conditions essential to the success of the contact hypothesis is missing? a. Equal status b. Social norms c. Cooperative activities d. Personal interaction 7. Stereotypes appear to bias perceptions a. even when we do not endorse them. b. for outgroup members, but not for ingroup members. c. only when we are aware that the stereotype was activated. d. only when the stereotype was unconsciously activated.

8. Dr. Charles does not feel that African American students are as academically qualified as other students. He does not give them as much of his attention, is less willing to make appointments to give them help, and spends less time reading and making comments on their papers. Dr. Charles is engaging in toward his African American students. a. subgrouping b. prejudice c. stereotyping d. discrimination 9. Lash is an African-American student who believes that intelligence is fixed. Persuading him that intelligence is malleable may a. decrease his tendency to experience stereotype threat. b. make him less prejudiced against outgroup members. c. reduce his performance on an academic task. d. increase the probability of him dropping out of school.

10. The belief that “they’re all the same” best epitomizes the a. minimal group effect. b. outgroup homogeneity effect. c. ingroup homogeneity effect. d. contrast effect.

11. A cooperative learning method used to reduce racial prejudice through interaction ingroup efforts is called the a. jigsaw classroom. b. self-affirmation group. c. indirect contact method. d. Robbers Cave strategy.

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Chap_05_11e 12. Payne (2001) was among the first to conduct research into the “shooter bias” He found that participants were more likely to mistake a harmless weapon for a gun if the image was preceded by a picture of a black face than it was if it was preceded by a white face. This shows the influence of on our interpretation of stimuli in our environments. a. explicit stereotypes b. self-fulfilling prophecies c. priming d. subtyping 13. According to research by Dunham, Qian, and Sacco, which of the following statements is true of explicit racial bias? a. It is very difficult to see. b. It remains stable across ages. c. It tends to reduce with age. d. It tends to increase with age.

14. One possible explanation for the failure of school desegregation to promote better racial relations is that it was a. a simplistic idea with no chance of working. b. carried out on too large a scale. c. often carried out without supportive social norms. d. a strategy that provided too much racial contact.

15. Not wanting to appear prejudiced to others is a(n) behaviors. a. externally driven b. internally driven c. relative d. modern

motivation to control prejudiced responses and

16. Michigan and Ohio State are rival universities. Students at the two schools tend to only interact when the athletic teams they play for compete against each other. Sheriff’s Robbers Cave experiment suggests that the students will a. limit their competition to the playing field and behave cooperatively off the field. b. only change their negative stereotypes once they have interacted on the playing field. c. develop friendships only with members of the same race on the other team. d. develop negative views of one another and behave in a hostile manner.

17. Being asked to think about one’s mortality tends to a. decrease ingroup bias. b. increase ingroup bias. c. have no impact on ingroup bias. d. promote intergroup harmony.

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Chap_05_11e 18. Which of the following is an example of stereotyping? a. A person believes atheists have very loose morals. b. A company chairman refuses to hire women for top management positions. c. A person believes Japanese people are hard workers. d. A person fears that minorities are trying to replace his country’s culture.

19. Which of the following statements is true of system-justifying belief? a. It eliminates ingroup and outgroup favoritism. b. It supports disadvantaged groups challenging an economic system. c. It focuses mostly on protecting the status quo. d. It focuses on creating a racially and socially equal society.

20. The concept that concerns the ambivalence between one’s sincere, fair-minded attitudes and beliefs, and their largely unconscious and unrealized prejudicial feelings and beliefs, is called racism. a. modern b. aversive c. explicit d. implicit 21. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the outgroup homogeneity effect? a. Ingroup members have little information concerning outgroup members. b. Ingroup members are unlikely to have frequent contact with outgroup members. c. Ingroup members accurately perceive the lack of diversity within the outgroup. d. Ingroup members interact with a nonrepresentative sample of outgroup members.

22. Some border-town residents dislike illegal immigrants because they fear that the immigrants will take jobs away from them. These feelings can best be explained by a. system justification theory. b. social identity theory. c. social categorization theory. d. realistic conflict theory.

23. Allport and Postman’s (1947) study using a photograph of a subway car demonstrated how racial stereotypes a. evolve over generations. b. facilitate memory accuracy and conserve cognitive energy. c. can be controlled. d. distort social perception and memory.

24. When sports fans derive more joy in seeing their rival team losing than their own team winning, it is a result of a. stereotype threat. b. ingroup homogeneity effect. c. reduced empathy for outgroups. d. stigmatization.

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Chap_05_11e 25. According to research by Cascio & Plant (2015) and Merritt et al. (2010), what do people often do to establish their moral credentials of not being racist? a. They list down the celebrities they know from the racial group in question. b. They try to denounce their own race and praise the racial group in question. c. They take part in rallies and political gatherings of the racial group in question. d. They demonstrate that they have good friends from the racial group in question.

26. Prejudice and discrimination based on a person’s gender, or institutional and cultural practices that promote the domination of one gender (typically men) over another, are most accurately termed a. sexism. b. implicit racism. c. orientation. d. ambivalent racism.

27. Palma thinks that all gay men have a superior fashion sense. She knows that her chemistry professor is gay, and notices that he is not a particularly snappy dresser. She rationalizes this by saying, “Well, he’s a gay professor —they don’t know how to dress that well.” This is an example of how a. subtyping can lead to stereotype perpetuation. b. social identity can influence stereotyping. c. intergroup contact can alter stereotype exceptions. d. social categorization can color stereotype formation.

28. Buffy is a member of a sorority. She considers the stereotypes about her sorority to be gross overgeneralizations but claims that the stereotypes about other sororities seem to have a kernel of truth. Buffy’s thinking best illustrates a. the outgroup homogeneity effect. b. realistic conflict. c. reverse discrimination. d. social-role theory.

29. When people belonging to a whole group are associated with certain traits or characteristics, it is known as a. prejudice. b. stereotyping. c. sexism. d. discrimination.

30. Research findings regarding dehumanization indicate that a. people tend to process outgroup faces in a manner similar to their processing of nonhuman objects. b. dehumanization of outgroups is typically associated with reactions of greater empathy. c. only members of the racial majority tend to be aware of cultural associations between racial minority group members and particular animal characteristics. d. it has occurred in every culture in every time era in recorded history.

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Chap_05_11e 31. The tendency to perceive members of an outgroup as less variable, or more similar to one another, than members of the ingroup, is called the a. minimal group effect. b. outgroup homogeneity effect. c. ingroup homogeneity effect. d. contrast effect.

32. Stigmatized targets are at increased risk for a. short-term mental health problems. b. long-term mental health problems. c. short-term physical health problems. d. long-term physical and mental health problems.

33. Which of the following conditions is not deemed ideal for contact to serve as a treatment for racism? a. Equal status b. Cooperative activities c. Personal interaction d. Pleasant environmental conditions 34. James is not satisfied with his $5 million annual salary because he feels that other basketball All-Stars are paid far more money. James’ dissatisfaction is most likely the result of a. realistic conflict theory. b. ingroup favoritism. c. outgroup homogeneity. d. relative deprivation.

35. A 2019 study by Eric Apaydin found that females averaged about a. $4,000 b. $11,000 c. $27,400 d. $24,000

less pay than their male counterparts.

36. If people encounter someone that contradicts their stereotypes, they toss the mismatch into a special category.

This is called a. subtyping. b. illusory correlations. c. stereotype threat. d. ingroup favoritism.

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Chap_05_11e 37. Whose judgments are least likely to be influenced by automatic stereotype activation? a. A highly sexist person exposed to the label “woman” b. A nonsexist person exposed to the label “woman” c. A highly sexist person exposed to information consistent with negative stereotypes regarding women d. A nonsexist person exposed to information consistent with negative stereotypes regarding women 38. Ambivalent sexism consists of a. two b. three c. four

elements.

d. five 39. Research on age and stereotype suppression indicates that a. younger and older individuals are equally successful at suppressing stereotypes. b. younger individuals have less success with stereotype suppression than older individuals. c. older individuals have less success with stereotype suppression than younger individuals. d. older people are more successful at stereotype suppression than younger individuals.

40. Zoe just learned that she did not get into the college of her choice. She comes upon Alec, a resident of a nearby neighborhood and one that most outsiders find distasteful. It is likely that the news Zoe just received will cause her to judge Alec more , making her feel about herself. a. positively; worse b. negatively; worse c. positively; better d. negatively; better 41. Pluck’s (2009) field experiment in Rwanda in which civilians listened to a radio soap opera demonstrates the a. intractability of many intergroup conflicts. b. cross-cultural differences in how prejudice manifests itself. c. potential influence of media on shaping norms related to intergroup relations. d. automaticity of many stereotypical beliefs.

42. Bonnie feels very negatively toward lawyers. Whenever she meets a person who is a lawyer, she immediately feels a strong dislike for them the moment she finds out what they do for a living. This is an example of a. prejudice. b. discrimination. c. social categorization. d. stereotyping.

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Chap_05_11e 43. According to social role theory, gender differences in social behavior are magnified by a. the unequal gender-based division of labor. b. influences of media on how men and women should behave. c. inherent neurobiological and evolutionary factors. d. the forces of natural selection.

44. The results of the Robbers Cave experiment can be extrapolated to suggest that prejudice and discrimination between groups are often cast aside when a. both groups compete more often. b. both groups say nice things about each other. c. there is a common goal. d. there is ingroup favoritism.

45. Although he does not intend to behave in a racist manner, Mark says to his Korean-American classmate during a study session, “You speak such good English.” This seeming compliment best illustrates the idea of a. microaggression. b. stigmatization. c. social dominance. d. explicit discrimination.

46. Shortly after 9/11/01, even though a bitterly contested election had recently occurred, many Americans put aside their political differences in reaction to the national tragedy that occurred that day, viewing “American” as their primary identity rather than Republican or Democrat. This change is consistent with what the proposes is necessary to reduce prejudice. a. common ingroup identity model b. social identity theory c. social categorization model d. realistic conflict theory 47. Which of the following does not demonstrate the influence of gender stereotypes? a. Parents see their newborn sons as stronger than their newborn daughters. b. Parents underestimate the crawling ability of their infant girls and overestimate that of their infant boys. c. When a baby boy cries in response to a toy, he is thought to be angry. When a baby girl exhibits the same response, she is thought to be afraid. d. Newborn boys tend to be taller and weigh more than newborn girls.

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Chap_05_11e 48. Mr. Belding wants to reduce prejudice toward incoming minority students at his elementary school. Before the minority students arrive, Mr. Belding puts up posters showing children of all nationalities holding hands. Next, he plans a scavenger hunt in which incoming students are mixed with current students and divided into small groups. Each student receives a secret clue critical to his or her group’s success in finding the treasure. Mr. Belding’s actions reflect his understanding of a. primacy effects. b. social identity theory. c. social-role theory. d. the contact hypothesis.

49. According to social identity theory, people display ingroup favoritism a. as a way of displacing negative feelings toward the outgroup. b. as a means of increasing self-esteem. c. because they expect to be treated unfairly by outgroup members. d. because intergroup competition demands it.

50. You think all professors are a bit nerdy and have abstract interests. You find out that your social psychology professor can sing the theme song to any television show that aired in the 1970s or 1980s and is also fluent in the Star Trek language of Klingon. You believe that your stereotype has been confirmed by this professor. This is an example of a. confirmation bias. b. implicit personality theory. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. fundamental attribution error.

51. Social categorization is advantageous because it a. leads to more accurate social perception. b. encourages us to take longer to make judgments about others. c. saves time and effort to make inferences about people. d. is generally based on realistic assumptions.

52. Fein and Spencer (1997) conducted a study in which participants evaluated a job applicant whom they believed to be either Jewish or non-Jewish. Which of the following statements about this study is false? a. Participants were more likely to discriminate against the Jewish applicant when they had previously been given negative feedback about their own abilities. b. Participants who were able to avoid discriminating against the Jewish applicant demonstrated the biggest boost to their own self-esteem. c. The study was conducted on a campus where negative stereotypes about Jewish women were pervasive. d. Their results provide supporting evidence for one of the basic predictions of social identity theory.

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Chap_05_11e 53. Which of the following statements describes an essential requirement for stereotype threat to occur? a. The individual in question must be a member of a minority group. b. The individual in question must be aware of negative stereotypes about his or her group. c. The individual in question must have below-average ability for the task in question. d. The individual in question must regularly participate in activities that draw racial disapproval from others.

54. Aronson’s jigsaw classroom work is similar to Sheriff’s Robbers Cave experiment because both illustrate how a. social roles can influence the use of stereotypes. b. superordinate goals can reduce prejudice. c. social identification with a group can increase in group favoritism. d. overcoming feelings of relative deprivation can decrease prejudice.

55. Ingroup members are believed to display the outgroup homogeneity effect because a. they always have to compete for shared resources with other groups. b. they lack familiarity with members of the outgroup. c. they lack sufficient information to judge the variability of their own group. d. they usually encounter the most typical members of the outgroup.

56. Which of the following statements concerning the relationship between competition and prejudice is false? a. Imagined competition can lead to prejudice just as much as actual competition. b. The perception that one is not doing as well as outgroup members is sufficient to produce prejudice. c. Prejudice can result from competitive threat to the ingroup as well as the individual. d. Superordinate goals help diffuse conflict between children, but not adults.

57. Arnold is not a cheerleader and doesn’t know any cheerleaders personally, but when he sees them at the football games, they are always smiling. Arnold is likely to a. think about specific cheerleaders rather than the group stereotype. b. notice the ways in which each cheerleader is unique. c. be able to distinguish cheerleaders from one another only if they are smiling. d. think that all cheerleaders are happy.

58. Bridgette thinks short people are lazy, and Barbara refuses to let short people join her book club. Bridgette is exhibiting , whereas Barbara is exhibiting . a. discrimination; prejudice b. stereotyping; discrimination c. prejudice; stereotyping d. prejudice; discrimination

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Chap_05_11e 59. In the aftermath of the Amadou Diallo shooting, several psychologists have investigated the influence that a suspect’s race might play in police decisions to shoot or not shoot. The results of these studies suggest that a. race does not influence police officers who have been trained to look past a suspect’s skin color. b. race can influence the thought processes of police officers, but very rarely their actual behavior. c. police will react differently to an African-American suspect depending on their own level of racial prejudice. d. mere awareness of racial stereotypes is enough to influence police behavior, even if the officers do not endorse these stereotypes.

60. Gender stereotypes are prescriptive. This means that gender stereotypes a. identify what men and women should be like. b. do not persist in modern societies in any form. c. are more accurate than other kinds of stereotypes. d. are less influenced by cultural standards than other stereotypes.

61. Which of the following regions has the highest percentage of men believing that women should have the same rights as men? a. Africa b. The United States c. Middle East d. Morocco 62. Janet is a Vice President of a software company. She is Caucasian. In her day-to-day activities, she interacts with people belonging to various minority races. According to research by Bergsieker (2010) and Simon et al., (2019), Janet is most likely to focus on a. the potential racism of the person she is interacting with. b. being perceived as likeable and warm. c. being perceived as competent. d. the respect shown by the other person towards her.

63. Groups with which an individual feels a sense of membership, belonging, and identity are called , and groups with which an individual does not feel a sense of membership, belonging, or identity are called . a. ingroups; outgroups b. social categories; group biases c. implicit categories; explicit categories d. self-groups; social groups 64. Which of the following can be inferred from the Robbers Cave study? a. Intergroup conflict can be easily resolved with a propaganda campaign. b. Competition between two groups can stir conflict. c. The best way to reduce intergroup conflict is simply to bring group members together. d. Young boys exhibit greater aggressive tendencies than young girls.

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Chap_05_11e 65. Consider the Implicit Association Test in which people are asked to categorize words as well as Caucasian/African-American names. If you were to design a similar measure to assess implicit associations related to age, and more specifically, implicit negative beliefs about older people, which pattern of results might your IAT produce to indicate such ageism? a. Participants report that they like younger-sounding names (e.g., Dylan, Carter) more than older-sounding names (e.g., Gladys, Sydney). b. Participants take longer to pair positive words with older-sounding names and negative words with younger-sounding names than vice versa. c. Participants primed with words related to old age (e.g., “Florida,” “Bingo,” “wheelchair”) internalize stereotypes regarding the elderly and demonstrate slower reaction times to the categorization tasks. d. Participants are quicker to recognize and categorize photos of young faces than photos of older faces.

66. The idea that, under certain conditions, direct engagement between hostile groups can reduce prejudice is most consistent with a. the theory of minimal groups. b. contrast effects. c. illusory correlation. d. the contact hypothesis.

67. Participants in an experiment learn about eight positive and four negative behaviors performed by members of group A. They also learn about four positive and two negative behaviors performed by members of group B. Which of the following patterns of results is most likely? a. Group B will be liked more because they performed the fewest number of negative behaviors. b. Group A and B will be liked equally well because the ratio of positive to negative behaviors is the same. c. Group A will be liked less because of a perceived link between the distinctive events of membership in the larger group and performing more negative behaviors. d. Group B will be liked less because of a perceived link between the distinctive events of membership in the smaller group and performing fewer negative behaviors.

68. Both Jorge and Jocelyn are applying for two residencies after medical school: orthopedic surgery (a traditionally male-dominated residency) and pediatrics (a traditionally female-dominated residency). If Jorge and Jocelyn have similar academic records, it is likely that a. Jorge will get more interviews for both types of residencies. b. Jocelyn will get more interviews for both types of residencies. c. Jorge will get more orthopedic surgery interviews and Jocelyn will get more pediatric interviews. d. Jocelyn will get more orthopedic surgery interviews and Jorge will get more pediatric interviews.

69. The Robbers Cave experiment demonstrated that a. ingroup favoritism is inevitable. b. social dominance is a natural aspect of the human race. c. prejudice is a function of social class. d. prejudice can result from intergroup competition.

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Chap_05_11e 70. Subtyping is least likely when confronted with a group member who a. is dramatically different from the group. b. causes observers to bring to mind others who confirm the stereotype. c. is perceived to have violated a stereotype for situational reasons. d. deviates from the stereotype on only a few dimensions.

71. Research on stereotype threat suggests that underperformance by African Americans in academic settings may be due to a. a fear of confirming negative stereotypes of African Americans. b. an overemphasis on super ordinate goals in instruction. c. receiving negative feedback based on racist motives. d. the desegregation that tends to occur even in so-called integrated schools.

72. Research on stereotype threat implies that females at an all-girls school may at a mixed-sex school. a. perform better b. perform worse c. perform similarly d. be less confident, but perform better

in mathematics than females

73. Realistic conflict theory proposes that a. conflict between groups is a function of interpersonal hostility. b. intergroup hostility arises from competition among groups for scarce but valued resources. c. intergroup conflict is largely a function of how realistically groups view one another. d. realistic groups do not have to worry about intergroup conflict.

74. Which of the following best exemplifies realistic conflict theory? a. The conflict over land ownership between Arabs and Israelis in the Middle East b. The conflict between Protestants and the Catholics in Ireland due to religious differences c. The conflict between Democrats and Republicans regarding U.S. political ideology d. The conflict over whether abortion should be legal or illegal 75. Forming subtypes for individuals who do not conform to a group stereotype a. makes it easier to change the content of the stereotype. b. serves to protect the stereotype from change. c. prevents the stereotype from being applied to other group members. d. helps in boosting one’s self-esteem.

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Chap_05_11e 76. Gunner thinks that Jews are particularly funny. He overestimates the association between being a stand-up comedian and being Jewish because both characteristics are very distinctive from the normal population. This demonstrates a. a contrast effect. b. the outgroup homogeneity effect. c. an illusory correlation. d. social-role theory.

77. Which of the following statements is true of collectivist cultures in the context of social identity and prejudice? a. They show no bias favoring their ingroups. b. They exclusively emphasize the positive aspects of their ingroups. c. They are more likely than individualist cultures to consider contradictions in their ingroups. d. They are more likely than individualist cultures to enhance their ingroups to boost their self-esteem.

78. Hightower is a new recruit in the police academy and is about to begin his very first day of training with a computer simulation task in which Caucasian and African-American men are portrayed holding ambiguous, weapon-like objects. Research on race and the perceptions of police officers would predict that Hightower a. would have little trouble distinguishing between Caucasian and African-American targets in such a simulation. b. would respond differently to the simulation depending on his personal endorsement of race-related stereotypes and prejudicial attitudes. c. demonstrate more and more bias in his responses the longer his training went on. d. would have a bias that was consistent with racial stereotypes.

79. A study by David Schwegman contacted property owners about renting their property. Through a random assignment, it picked male and female names and allocated arbitrary spouse names. According to this research, property owners a. gave equal preference to heterosexual and same-sex couples. b. gave more preference to lesbian couples compared to gay or heterosexual couples. c. were less likely to respond to same-sex couples compared to requests from heterosexual couples. d. gave preference to same-sex couples if they are wealthy.

80. Adriana was watching a series of commercials in which women were portrayed as having relatively low selfconfidence, less independence, and fewer career aspirations than men do. As a result, she will probably than women who watched commercials portraying women in counter-stereotypical fashion. a. perform better on a math test b. perform worse on a math test c. feel more powerful d. feel less powerful

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Chap_05_11e 81. What process does the common ingroup identity model emphasize? a. Recategorization b. Self-affirmation c. Thought suppression d. Stigmatization 82. Gerianne Alexander’s (2003) research on children’s sex-based preferences for toys indicates that, in addition to being affected by socialization, such preferences are affected by a. the availability of engaging toys. b. neurobiological and evolutionary factors. c. whether the toys are high tech. d. media exposure to stereotypes.

83. Samantha thinks that all social psychology professors are intelligent, attractive, and fabulously good dancers.

This is an example of a. prejudice. b. discrimination. c. social categorization. d. stereotyping.

84. Racism that operates unconsciously and unintentionally is called a. modern b. implicit c. benevolent d. ambivalent

racism.

85. Negative and resentful feelings directed at women’s abilities, values, and ability to challenge the power of men are referred to as sexism. a. implicit b. modern c. benevolent d. hostile 86. The Jets and the Sharks are two groups of local youths who regularly—and belligerently—compete against each other. The Robbers Cave experiment would suggest that one way of healing the rift between these groups is to a. allow the youths to date each other. b. force one group to accept the belief that they are inferior to the other. c. have them work together on a goal that requires cooperative efforts. d. have each group note the good qualities of the other group.

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Chap_05_11e 87. The tendency to interpret, seek, and create information that is consistent with pre-existing expectations is called the bias. a. implicit stereotype b. representativeness c. self-serving d. confirmation 88. Negative feelings directed at others strictly because of their membership in a certain group is called a. discrimination. b. prejudice. c. stereotyping. d. the ingroup homogeneity effect.

89. A junior high coach decides to separate his basketball players into Team A and Team B. These two teams regularly play each other and compete for rewards, such as time at the drinking fountain and use of the new basketballs. The Robbers Cave experiment would suggest that the coach’s new arrangement is likely to a. create rifts within both teams. b. lead to animosity between the teams. c. encourage the development of leadership skills. d. lead to less vigorous practices.

90. Research on stereotype threat indicates that a. only a handful of minority groups experience such threats. b. they can be attenuated by expressing positive expectations of the potential targets. c. stereotypes are just as likely to improve the math scores of women as to harm them. d. it occurs mainly due to neurobiological and evolutionary factors.

91. According to research by Crocker and colleagues (1991), black students who received positive interpersonal feedback from a white student experienced if there was suspicion that the feedback had been received due to race. a. an increase in level of motivation b. no change in self-esteem c. a reduction in self-esteem d. an increase in self-esteem 92. Prejudice and discrimination based on a person’s racial background, or institutional and cultural practices that promote the domination of one racial group over another, are most accurately termed a. racism. b. orientation c. social justification. d. ambivalent sexism.

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Chap_05_11e 93. Individuals with a strong social dominance orientation are least likely to a. prefer to live in a racially and socially equal society. b. strongly identify with their ingroup. c. want their ingroup to be of higher status than other groups. d. endorse government policies that oppress outgroups.

94. When a perceiver’s false expectations cause a person to behave in ways confirms those expectations, it results in a(n) a. subtype. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. illusory correlation. d. subliminal presentation.

95. Research using minimal groups has demonstrated that a. competition for limited resources is necessary for ingroup favoritism. b. ingroup favoritism will not occur in trivial laboratory groups. c. ingroup cohesion is necessary to produce ingroup favoritism. d. mere categorization is sufficient to produce ingroup favoritism.

96. In a study by Phelan and colleagues (2008), participants read about male and female candidates for a managerial position. Compared to comparable male candidates, female candidates who emphasized their independence and leadership ability were rated as a. lower in competence and in social skills. b. lower in competence but higher in social skills. c. higher in competence but lower in social skills. d. higher in both competence and social skills.

97. People who read about violent crimes committed by members of a minority group tend to overestimate the association between violent crimes and the minority group. This is due to a. illusory correlation. b. subliminal presentation. c. subtyping. d. self-fulfilling prophecy.

98. All of the following result from social categorization except an a. overestimation of differences between groups. b. underestimation of differences within groups. c. increased confidence that differences between groups are biologically based. d. increased tendency to notice behaviors inconsistent with group stereotypes.

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Chap_05_11e 99. You think all professors are uncoordinated, but then you see your social psychology professor make a diving catch down the left-field line at an intramural softball game against the Arts Department team. You also notice that your professor hits lead-off for the team and is able to score from second base on a ground-out. You maintain your original stereotype of professors as uncoordinated by deciding that this one individual is an exception to the rule because he is a “young professor.” This is an example of a. social identity theory. b. implicit personality theory. c. subtyping. d. a self-fulfilling prophecy.

100. A shared goal that can be achieved only through cooperation among individuals or groups is said to be a. aversive. b. superordinate. c. competitive. d. passive.

101. A method of presenting material so faintly and rapidly that people do not have any conscious awareness of having been exposed to it is called presentation. a. subliminal b. supraliminal c. superordinate d. subordinate 102. Knowing that an ingroup friend has a close relationship with a member of an outgroup can produce positive intergroup benefits. This is called the effect. a. confirmation b. extended contact c. self-fulfilling prophecy d. illusory correlation 103. Social categorization leads people to a. perceive group members more accurately. b. perceive others as individuals rather than group members. c. overestimate the differences between groups. d. overestimate the differences within groups.

104. Minimal groups are groups a. consisting of only two people. b. that occupy low-status positions in society. c. based on trivial distinctions of minor importance. d. with a long history of competition and antagonism.

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Chap_05_11e 105. According to social role theory, gender differences that arise from social roles provide a continuing basis for a. minimal groups. b. jigsaw classrooms. c. old-fashioned racism. d. gender stereotypes.

106. People can counter the potentially negative effects of stereotype activation by a. taking the perspective of a member of the stereotyped group. b. trying very hard not to think about the stereotype. c. thinking about the stereotyped group as a whole. d. thinking about recent instances in which they made fair judgments.

107. In their study of sexism in 19 different countries, Glick et al. (2000) found that countries with the greatest degree of political and economic inequality exhibited a. the highest levels of both hostile and benevolent sexism. b. the lowest levels of both hostile and benevolent sexism. c. high levels of hostile sexism but low levels of benevolent sexism. d. low levels of hostile sexism but high levels of benevolent sexism.

108. Kashima and others (2013) had Australian students transmit a story about a football player from one person to the next. Their results indicated that as the story went from person to person, a. the stereotype-inconsistent information was eventually weeded out. b. the stereotype-inconsistent information was eventually exaggerated. c. the stereotype-consistent information was often distorted. d. its content remained relatively consistent.

109. A form of prejudice that surfaces in subtle ways when it is safe, socially acceptable, and easy to rationalize is called a. modern racism. b. relative deprivation. c. illusory correlation. d. reverse discrimination.

110. According to the self-regulation of prejudiced responses model, their prejudices effectively over time. a. internally; more b. internally; less c. externally; more d. externally; evenly

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motivated individuals may learn to control

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Chap_05_11e 111. Being persistently stereotyped, perceived as deviant, and devalued in society because of membership in a particular social group or because of a particular characteristic is the definition of being a. sublimated. b. ambivalent. c. averted. d. stigmatized.

112. Charles is a Red Sox fan who does not think highly of Yankees fans. Which of the following statements that Charles made in the past week is most consistent with the concept of outgroup homogeneity? a. “Obnoxious, rude, and prone to throwing batteries… if you’ve seen one Yankees fan, you’ve seen them all.” b. “I knew one Yankees fan who wasn’t bad, but his wife was a Red Sox fan, so he doesn’t count.” c. “The thing about Yankees fans is most of them just jump on the bandwagon.” d. “My two favorite teams are the Red Sox and anyone who’s playing against the Yankees.”

113. Which of the following factors increases the probability of automatic activation of stereotypes? a. Exposure to neutral information about a group or target b. A personal motivation to avoid prejudice c. A low prevalence of the stereotype in the culture d. Subliminal exposure to prejudicial messages 114. According to Devine’s study of automatic stereotype activation, people become highly aware of many stereotypes through a. situational factors during their encounters with outgroups. b. socialization from their culture. c. their neurobiological and evolutionary roots. d. the forces of natural selection.

115. A metastereotype refers to a a. person’s thoughts about the stereotypes outgroup members might hold about their own group. b. person’s thoughts about the acceptability of a stereotype that applies to a large number of outgroups. c. stereotype that is positive in nature. d. stereotype that is widely held.

116. Which of the following statements best epitomizes the role of socialization in explaining stereotypes? a. Larry tends to sort objects into groups rather than thinking of each item as unique, and he does the same thing when perceiving other people. b. Cheryl relies on stereotypes because it saves her cognitive effort and energy. c. Jeff thinks that all Italians are loud and easily excited because he has heard his father describe them in this manner. d. Susie responds to threats to her self-esteem by stereotyping other groups to make herself feel better.

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Chap_05_11e 117. Which of the following experimental procedures would a researcher investigating stereotype threat be least likely to use? a. Having women complete a math test b. Having non-English-speaking students complete a verbal skills test in English c. Having African Americans complete an athletic task d. Having individuals with a history of mental illness complete a logical reasoning task 118. Affectionate, chivalrous feelings toward women based on the belief that women need protection are referred to as sexism. a. implicit b. aversive c. benevolent d. hostile 119. When Nazi propaganda depicted Jewish individuals as “disease-spreading rats,” it was an attempt to solidify prejudice and hatred against that group through the use of a. dehumanizing. b. stereotype threat. c. confirmatory biases. d. the ingroup homogeneity effect.

120. Which of the following parts of the brain is likely to show greater activation when you see an unfamiliar person who is described as a member of your ingroup as opposed to being a member of an outgroup? a. The orbitfrontal cortex b. The corpus callosum c. The ventral tegmentum d. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex 121. According to the stereotype content model, migrant farm workers who move to an area with a shortage of farming jobs would likely be viewed as a. high in warmth and low in competence. b. low in warmth and high in competence. c. low in warmth and low in competence. d. high in warmth and high in competence.

122. The stereotype content model groups stereotypes along the two dimensions of a. intelligence and morality. b. competence and warmth. c. directness and indirectness. d. dehumanization and impulsivity.

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Chap_05_11e 123. Which of the following goals is an example of a superordinate goal? a. A girl trying to set a new school record for running the mile who is cheered by competitors b. Two friends playing tennis against each other c. A man trying to pick up a woman at a bar d. Athletes who normally compete against each who are now on the same relay team 124. Research on the jigsaw method has found that jigsaw classrooms saw a(n) a. improvement in minority group test scores. b. decline in majority group test scores. c. decline in minority group test scores. d. improvement in minority group and maintenance of test scores for the majority group.

125. Studies show that cross-group friendships a. reduce intergroup anxiety and prejudice. b. result in automatic activation of stereotypes. c. create subtypes of stereotype mismatches. d. reduce self-esteem over time.

126. Which of the following has been demonstrated in research on the automatic nature of stereotypes? a. Exposure to stereotype content influences subsequent judgments for both high and low prejudiced individuals. b. Exposure to category labels influences subsequent judgments for both high and low prejudiced individuals. c. Automatic activation effects are less likely to occur if self-esteem is threatened. d. Stereotypes influence subsequent judgment only when people are aware that the stereotype has been activated.

127. Jane is from race X, and Jean is from race Y. Which scenario best demonstrates modern racism? a. Jane yells racial slurs and spits on Jean who is a stranger. b. Jane and Jean work together. Jane thinks Jean is not doing her share of the work. For this, Jane gives Jean a more negative evaluation than is deserved. c. Jane and Jean are on the same athletic team. The social norm of the team is for everyone to be friendly and personable to one another. Jane never talks to Jean. d. Jane is interviewing Jean as a pianist for her club. Jane is looking for a piano player who will play jazz.

Jean plays classical music. Jane doesn’t hire Jean for the job.

128. Which of the following is not an indicator of discrimination? a. Believing that baby-faced men are harmless b. Declining to allow a girl into an auto repair course in high school c. Signing a petition to keep a minority group out of the neighborhood d. Hiring a thin candidate rather than an obese one with the same credentials

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Chap_05_11e 129. According to research by Vorauer & Sasaki, people engaging in interracial interactions often try to regulate their behaviors by a. exploring any signs of racial bias shown by their interaction partners. b. citing the number of times they have helped people from other races. c. discussing racially sensitive topics with their interaction partners. d. being on the lookout for signs of distrust or dislike from their interaction partners.

130. Research by Bodenhausen (1990) on the cognitive functioning of “morning people” vs. “night people” demonstrates that the influence of stereotypes depends on the a. personal information a perceiver has about a target. b. motivation of the perceiver. c. age of the perceiver. d. cognitive resources available to the perceiver.

131. Socio cultural factors that influence stereotyping include all of the following except a. the effects of priming. b. popular images of groups in the media. c. one’s peers. d. social roles.

132. Explain how social identity theory accounts for ingroup favoritism.

133. Discuss the conditions that are deemed ideal for intergroup contact to treat racism.

134. Describe three mechanisms that help explain why stereotypes persist even when people are presented with stereotype-inconsistent information.

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Chap_05_11e 135. Describe the Robbers Cave experiment, and explain how it relates to realistic conflict theory.

136. Discuss some of the research that has been done with police officers related to the “shooter bias.” How has that research been interpreted?

137. Distinguish between benevolent sexism and hostile sexism, and give at least one example of each. How are these two concepts related to ambivalent sexism? Finally, what are some of the impacts of these forms of sexism?

138. Describe two ways in which gender stereotypes are strengthened and maintained.

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Chap_05_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap_05_11e 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_11e 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. a 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. b 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_11e 83. d 84. b 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. d 96. c 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_11e 111. d 112. a 113. d 114. b 115. a 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. b 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. b 128. a 129. d 130. d 131. a 132. Social identity theory proposes that people favor their own group over others in order to maintain a positive image of their group. The theory further argues that people seek to have a positive image of their group in order to promote positive self-esteem. When their self-esteem is challenged, people are more likely to be prejudiced toward others, a tendency that then restores positive self-regard.

133. There are four conditions that are deemed ideal for intergroup contact to treat racism. (1) Equal status: The groups should be given equal status during the contact. (2) Personal interaction: Individual members of the two groups should have one-on-one interactions. (3) Cooperative activities: Members of the groups should cooperate and take part in activities that involve superordinate goals. (4) Social norms: Social norms must promote intergroup contact.

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Chap_05_11e 134. Illusory correlation is one mechanism that can lead to the maintenance of stereotypes even in the presence of disconfirming information. It results from the tendency of people to see a relationship between infrequent events and negative events. People tend to think that groups that are in the minority are more likely to engage in infrequent acts.

Because stereotypes are often about minority groups and because negative events are usually infrequent, illusory correlation can lead to the maintenance of negative evaluations of minority groups. A second mechanism is sub typing, the process whereby people refine a stereotype to include inconsistent individual members of a group while maintaining the overall negative evaluation of the group. Throughout this process, although evaluations of an individual member may not be consistent with the stereotype, evaluations of the group remain the same. A third mechanism is the confirmation bias, which causes people to seek out and pay more attention to stereotype-consistent information than to stereotype-inconsistent information. Confirmation biases lead people to discount information that is inconsistent with the stereotype, to interpret ambiguous information in an expectation-consistent manner, and even to elicit behavior that confirms their expectations.

135. The Robbers Cave experiment, conducted at several summer camps, investigated the interactions among adolescent boys who were divided into two groups. Sheriff found that competition between the two groups led to hostility and intense dislike that even propaganda could not eliminate. Peace was restored to some extent when the two groups worked together on tasks with super ordinate goals that could be achieved only through cooperation from both groups. Simply bringing the two groups together under noncompetitive circumstances or exposing them to positive propaganda concerning the other group did not alleviate the conflict. The study suggests that group animosity can grow out of competition—the main tenet of realistic conflict theory.

136. Fortunately, several researchers have conducted these experiments with police officers as participants (Corral et al., 2007b; Perches & Plant, 2006). In some of this research, police officers have shown a similar bias to mistakenly “shoot” a black than white target, and in some they have shown little or no racial bias in the decision to shoot. Even in the studies in which the officers’ decisions were not as racially biased, however, racial bias was evident in the officers’ response times, indicating that they were quicker to decide to shoot armed black than white targets and slower to decide to not shoot unarmed black than white targets. In addition, several studies have also found that for both civilians and police officers, training designed specifically to curtail these biases can be effective, at least to some degree. Reviewing all these studies, Joshua Corral and others (2014) concluded that stereotypes certainly can alter perceptions about the presence of weapons and the decision to shoot. In addition, even though police officers are able to avoid these biases under testing conditions, when officers must make these decisions under conditions of fatigue, high stress, and distraction—the conditions officers often face when having to make real shoot-or-not decisions—their ability to overcome stereotype-based biases is compromised, thus increasing the likelihood of the mistakes seen in the tragic incidents that sparked all this research.

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Chap_05_11e 137. These contradictions are reflected in Peter Glick and Susan Fiske’s (2001, 2012) concept of ambivalent sexism.

Ambivalent sexism consists of two elements: hostile sexism, characterized by negative, resentful feelings about women’s abilities, value, and challenge to men’s power (e.g., “Women seek special favors under the guise of equality”), and benevolent sexism, characterized by affectionate, chivalrous feelings founded on the potentially patronizing belief that women need and deserve protection (e.g., “Women should be cherished and protected by men”). Benevolent sexism, on the surface, does not strike many women or men as terribly troubling, but the two forms of sexism are positively correlated. Benevolent sexism is associated in particular with negative reactions toward women who defy traditional gender roles and stereotypes.

Both types of sexism are associated with supporting gender inequality in a variety of ways, and both predict many kinds of discriminatory behaviors and negative consequences (Duran et al., 2011; Maser et al., 2010; Rudman & Fetter of, 2014). For example, Allison Skinner and others (2015) found that, depending on the context, hostile and benevolent sexism each predicted more negative judgments of the driver in an accident if the driver was said to be a woman rather than a man.

Kristen Salomon and colleagues (2015) found that being the target of either type of sexism triggered negative cardiovascular responses in the women in their study.

138. Gender stereotypes are strengthened and maintained through cultural institutions and social roles, among other mechanisms. Cultural institutions, particularly the media, portray women (as well as members of other groups) in a stereotypic fashion. These portrayals can have a cumulative effect on people’s views of women. Although social roles may have begun as a division of labor based in part on biology and in part on social factors, over time, many people act in ways that are consistent with their roles. In turn, the behaviors that result from these roles often come to justify the original division of labor.

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Chap_06_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following factors has the biggest impact on whether or not there will be a primacy or recency effect in persuasion? a. Time b. Source credibility c. Source likability d. Number of sides presented 2. On the central route to persuasion, the process is eminently a. emotional. b. instinctive. c. rational. d. cynical.

3. According to the theory of planned behavior, one reason that a person’s behavior might not be consistent with that person’s attitudes is that the behavior is a. determined by norms that are consistent with the person’s attitudes. b. one that the person feels is within his or her control. c. determined by norms that are counter to the person’s attitudes. d. manifest only when the person is self-aware.

4. Which statement regarding LaPeer’s (1934) study of attitude is false? a. Even though respondents who were asked self-report questions claimed that they would not be racially prejudiced, their behavior showed clear discrimination. b. The study examined racial attitudes at a time when prejudice was much more overt and blatant than it currently is. c. LaPeer was not a psychologist. d. Over 90 percent of the respondents claimed that they would not offer service to a Chinese patron.

5. Which of the following is an important conclusion based on research on the link between people’s attitudes and behavior? a. Our evaluations of an object do not always determine our actions because other factors must be taken into account. b. Our evaluations of an object always determine our actions even when other factors must be taken into account. c. When attitudes are strong and specific to a behavior, at least in non-Western cultures, the effects are beyond dispute. d. When attitudes are weak and peripheral to a behavior, at least in Western cultures, the effects are beyond dispute.

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Chap_06_11e 6. Steele’s research on self-affirmation and cognitive dissonance indicates that when self-affirmations fail, dissonance a. is reduced. b. returns. c. goes away permanently. d. becomes much greater than it ever was.

7. One potential problem with self-report measures is that respondents a. typically dislike them. b. react with a negative attitude change. c. might not respond truthfully. d. express views whose validity cannot be assessed.

8. Shawna wants to join a sorority. This sorority has recently decided to put incoming members through various forms of initiation. Based on the findings of Aronson and Mills (1959), which type of initiations is most likely to lead Shawna to identify strongly with the sorority and to value her membership in the group in the effort to avoid cognitive dissonance? a. A mildly pleasant initiation b. A neutral initiation c. A mildly unpleasant initiation d. A severely unpleasant initiation 9. An attitude is implicit if you a. try to hide it. b. are unaware of it. c. cannot measure it. d. disagree with it.

10. When message recipients use central route processing, which of the following will be true? a. Messages learned with difficulty will be more persuasive than easily learned messages. b. Memorable messages will be more persuasive than forgettable ones. c. Weak messages will engender more favorable responses than strong messages. d. Elaboration of message content will be objective and unbiased.

11. Research by Aronson and Carlsmith (1963) shows that severe punishment a. is less likely than mild punishment to inspire cognitive dissonance. b. leads to attitude change only when a self-affirmation is possible. c. causes dissonance-induced physiological arousal to increase. d. changes behavior only when attitudes change as well.

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Chap_06_11e 12. The basic prediction of theory is that attitude change occurs when people infer how they feel by observing themselves and the circumstances of their own behavior. a. cognitive dissonance b. the “new look” at cognitive dissonance c. self-perception d. elaboration likelihood 13. Sleeper effects can be reduced by reminding people that the source of a persuasive message was not credible.

This supports which of the following explanations of sleeper effects? a. The inoculation hypothesis b. The discounting cue hypothesis c. Psychological reactance theory d. Cognitive dissonance theory 14. After giving the matter a great deal of thought, Iris declared chemistry rather than physics as her major. Having made this decision, she went out and had a good time with her classmates, who reminded her what a great friend she was. At that point, Iris was able to look at her choice and see both its pros and cons without glamorizing it. Her behavior can best be explained by the concept of a. self-perception. b. cognitive dissonance. c. impression management. d. self-affirmation.

15. A condition in which people refrain from engaging in a desirable activity, even though only mild punishment is threatened, is called a. self-monitoring. b. negative attitude change. c. insufficient justification. d. insufficient deterrence.

16. Tristan had to choose between two potential mates, Charlie and Ryan, on the final episode of the original The Bachelorette. In the end, she chose Ryan. Several weeks later, a reporter interviewed Tristan about her feelings toward the two men. How will she most likely express her feelings at the time of the interview if she is trying to avoid postdecision dissonance? a. Tristan says that her attitudes about both men have become more negative with the benefit of hindsight. b. Tristan suggests that she was impressed by his career ambitions at first, but has come to realize that Charlie’s busy work schedule would have been an obstacle to a successful relationship. c. Tristan has come to notice a variety of “little things” about Ryan that are starting to annoy her, including his penchant for writing really bad poetry. d. Tristan reports that she believes Charlie to be one of the most attractive men she has ever met in person.

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Chap_06_11e 17. Impression management theory suggests that people change their attitudes to match their behaviors in an effort to a. be consistent. b. appear consistent. c. reduce physiological arousal. d. restore a positive self-image.

18. Gino, a salesperson, wants to use techniques that will lead his potential customers to rely on peripheral route persuasion. He should do all of the following except a. speak quickly (but not too quickly) when presenting information about his product. b. get the customer to nod in the affirmative while he is presenting his sales pitch. c. present his sales pitch to customers who are clearly in a rush. d. approach prospective buyers who obviously care deeply about his product.

19. The covert attitude measure that uses electrodes pasted onto the scalp to record the waves of electrical brain activity is called a(n) a. facial electromyography. b. bogus pipeline. c. electroencephalograph. d. implicit association test.

20. Which of the following is not one of the four steps in the dissonance process? a. Elaboration b. Physiological arousal c. Negative consequences d. Attribution 21. Louie runs a clinic that helps individuals to quit smoking, and he would like to use fear to motivate his clients.

Which of the following strategies would be most effective? a. First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking. b. First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then allow them to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking so that they are more committed. c. Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking. Then allow the clients to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking so that they are more committed. d. Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking, but no frightening images. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking.

22. One way to increase the accuracy of self-report measures of attitudes is to a. offer many, rather than fewer, response options. b. use a single attitude scale, rather than multiple scales. c. focus on attitudes regarding sensitive and personal issues. d. convince respondents that any deception can be detected.

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Chap_06_11e 23. A social psychology graduate student who works long hours for little pay becomes increasingly convinced that she loves social psychology. This student’s attitude toward her chosen field of study is most likely the result of a. psychological reactance. b. self-affirmation. c. insufficient justification. d. insufficient deterrence.

24. Tariq doesn’t want his kids to give in to peer pressure to smoke. According to the inoculation hypothesis, one way he could build up their resistance to potential peer pressure is to a. let them smoke so that their attitudes will be based on direct experience. b. present them with weak arguments for smoking so that they can generate counterarguments. c. present them with strong arguments against smoking based on scientific research findings. d. have them listen to subliminal antismoking messages.

25. The process by which a person is persuaded by cues in the persuasion context rather than thinking critically about the content of a persuasive message is called a. psychological reactance. b. planned behavior. c. the peripheral route to persuasion. d. evaluative conditioning.

26. The primary difference between the models of persuasion proposed by Hovland and McGuire and that proposed

by Greenwald is that Greenwald’s model a. does not allow for central route processing. b. emphasizes the role of elaboration in producing persuasion. c. does not include reception as one of the information-processing steps in persuasion. d. proposes that memory of message content is the most important determinant of persuasion.

27. People who are high in intelligence and/or self-esteem tend to be compared to people low in intelligence and/or self-esteem. a. only marginally more b. only marginally less c. equally d. significantly less

vulnerable to persuasion when

28. Persuasive communication is the outcome of three possible factors. They are the following except a. source. b. audience. c. message. d. context.

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Chap_06_11e 29. Jon and Kate give consecutive speeches on opposing sides in a debate on solar energy. Audience members are asked to register their view a few weeks later. The order of the speeches will affect the audience’s decision by causing a effect. a. primacy b. subliminal c. recency d. null 30. Attitudes are useful because they a. let us quickly judge whether something we encounter is good or bad. b. help build a personal preference in the way we interpret new information. c. make it more likely for us to change our minds later in light of new information. d. allow us to take more time to evaluate others and new information.

31. Research has shown that those who are physiologically highly reactive to sudden noise and other unpleasant stimuli are more likely to favor a. same-sex marriage. b. more lenient treatment of juvenile offenders. c. musical artists, TV shows, restaurants, and amusement parks. d. policies seen as protective against domestic and foreign threats.

32. While shopping at the local mall, Ithon is approached by a person who asks her to sign a petition for stricter gun control laws. If Ithon uses the central route to decide whether to sign the petition, then she will be more likely to sign if the person who approaches her is a a. physically attractive man. b. veteran member of the National Rifle Association. c. long-serving member of the law enforcement. d. campaigner whose arguments are strong and well-thought out.

33. Shaniqua plans to use a self-report measure in which people indicate their agreement or disagreement with a list of statements using a multiple-point scale. She must, therefore, use the a. Likert scale. b. self-validation hypothesis. c. dual-process model of persuasion. d. sleeper effect.

34. Which of the following is not used to overcome the limitations of traditional self-report methodology? a. The bogus pipeline b. The Likert scale c. Facial electromyography d. Covert videotaping

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Chap_06_11e 35. The process by which attitudes are changed is called a. persuasion. b. dissonance. c. conditioning. d. elaboration.

36. As per Han and Shavitt’s research, to which of the following advertisement slogans would Korean participants respond most favorably? a. “Treat yourself to a breath-freshening experience.” b. “A style of all her own.” c. “Make your way through the crowd.” d. “An exhilarating way to provide for your family.”

37. Implicit Association Tests (IATs) can detect implicit attitudes by measuring a. the participants’ mood after responding to word pairings. b. the time it takes participants to complete the whole test. c. participants’ facial muscles as they are exposed to positive or negative stimuli. d. the speed at which participants associate stimuli with a positive or negative word.

38. Harmon-Jones and others (1996) research in which participants drank Kool-Aid mixed with sugar versus vinegar showed that a. negative consequences for lying are not essential to dissonance. b. negative consequences for lying are essential to dissonance. c. attribution of arousal is essential to dissonance. d. attribution of arousal is not essential to dissonance.

39. A political candidate is often eager to win the endorsement of celebrities who are popular with hordes of people.

The candidate hopes that the association of his or her campaign with a popular figure will result in the masses feeling more favorable toward his or her candidacy due to a. evaluative conditioning. b. inoculation. c. the sleeper effect. d. behavioral intent.

40. Jerri thinks gossiping is wrong, but she chooses to engage in it anyway because she doesn’t believe any harm that could come from it. Why does Jerri not feel personal responsibility for the negative consequences that ultimately come from her gossiping? a. She is forced to gossip. b. She doesn’t foresee the negative consequences. c. She lacks the necessary physiological arousal. d. She can’t attribute the arousal she has to her own gossiping behavior.

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Chap_06_11e 41. The process by which we form an attitude toward a neutral stimulus because of its association with a positive or negative person, place, or thing is called a. evaluative conditioning. b. central persuasion. c. insufficient justification. d. psychological reactance.

42. The findings of the classic Festinger and Carlsmith (1959) experiment indicate that participants who were a. paid $20 to lie about how much fun a boring task was came to believe they actually enjoyed the task more than participants paid $1 to lie. b. in the $20 condition experienced insufficient justification for lying and, therefore, were more likely to exhibit attitude change. c. in the $1 condition experienced greater discomfort and agitation when lying about how much fun the task was than did participants in the $20 condition. d. willing to lie to a fellow student only when they were compensated generously for doing so.

43. Russell Fazio and others (2000) found that people who were focused on their positive or negative attitudes toward computerized faces, compared to those who were not, were a. slower to notice negative facial cues in real-life interactions. b. slower to notice when the faces were “morphed” and no longer the same. c. faster in matching a “morphed” face with the original face. d. faster in discriminating others’ positive attitudes from negative ones.

44. The study by Strachan and others (2002) found that subliminal cues regarding thirst influenced how much KoolAid participants drank only when they were a. first given water to drink. b. given something to eat as well. c. high in the need for cognition. d. thirsty and water had been withheld.

45. Which of the following indicators is not used to distinguish weak attitudes from strong ones? a. How much the attitudes affect one's self-interests b. The attitude’s relationship to deeply held philosophical, political, and religious values c. The amount of perceived behavioral control d. How much the attitude impacted family, friends, and social intergroups 46. Implicit attitudes can be difficult to measure because they a. are not among the attitudes the participant is aware of. b. can be effectively assessed by physiological measures. c. can only be measured by direct techniques. d. are prone to the desire to be viewed favorably by others.

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Chap_06_11e 47. All of the following are necessary conditions for cognitive dissonance specified by Cooper and Fazio (1984) except that people must a. freely choose to engage in the attitude-discrepant behavior. b. assign responsibility for the behavior to an outside source. c. experience physiological arousal as a result of their behavior. d. attribute their arousal to the attitude-discrepant behavior.

48. If you want to convince a friend to abandon an attitude and start thinking more like you, what would be the best approach? a. Provide information that will use fear to manipulate your friend into changing his attitude. b. Use a subtle form of criticism so that you friend feels bad about himself for holding his current attitude. c. Be cautious in your approach and do not promote an idea that is too different than your friend’s current attitude. d. Present a strong argument that is diametrically opposed to what your friend currently believes.

49. Which of the following statements concerning the impact of body movements on persuasion is true? a. People who nod their heads up and down express greater agreement with a persuasive message than those who shake their heads side to side. b. Stimuli associated with stretching the arms outward are rated more positively than those associated with flexing the arms inward. c. Nodding the head side to side makes people more likely to engage in central route processing than does nodding the head up and down. d. Stretching the arms outward makes people less likely to engage in central route processing than does flexing the arms inward.

50. Marge believes rather strongly that more money should be devoted to environmental concerns. However, she is agitated because she just signed a petition for a friend advocating the logging of a local forest in order to create new jobs. She then seems to soften her stance about the environment. This is best explained by a. cognitive dissonance theory. b. self-affirmation theory. c. the inoculation hypothesis. d. self-perception theory.

51. What occurred in the research by Balcetis and Dunning (2007) in which participants were asked to walk across a college campus wearing an embarrassing costume? a. Students in the high-choice condition underestimated how far they had walked relative to those in the low-choice condition. b. Students in the low-choice condition underestimated how far they had walked relative to those in the high-choice condition. c. Students with insufficient justification for their embarrassing actions overestimated how far they had walked relative to those with sufficient justification. d. The motivation to reduce dissonance had no effect on participants’ visual representations of the natural environment.

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Chap_06_11e 52. The central route to persuasion requires a. intelligence and strong arguments. b. involvement and an expert source. c. ability and motivation. d. knowledge of the issue and a credible source.

53. According to a 2018 Gallup poll, standards. a. nurses b. medical doctors

were rated as being the most honest and having the highest ethical

c. clergy d. pharmacists 54. Ichiro, a member of a campus political group, is surveying how many students plan to vote in the 2020 presidential election. According to the theory of planned behavior, which of the following questions would be the best predictor of whether or not a particular student would actually vote in the election? a. What are your attitudes toward U.S. politics? b. What are your attitudes toward voting in U.S. presidential elections, when race has taken center stage in many political debates? c. What are your attitudes toward the politicians in general? d. What are your attitudes toward the use of the electoral college through which it is possible for the winner of the presidential election to receive fewer popular votes than the loser?

55. A major difference between cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory involves the extent to which is necessary to lead to self-persuasion and attitude change. a. normative social influence b. physiological arousal c. self-affirmation d. an implicit attitude 56. When she first joined the Army, Stephanie was not entirely sure she would like it, but was excited about the thought of traveling around the world. By the end of the grueling basic training program, she absolutely loves Army life and is totally committed to it, despite the fact that she had been stationed in New Jersey and never got to leave the country. Stephanie’s attitude toward the Army is most likely the result of a. self-monitoring. b. effort justification. c. insufficient deterrence. d. psychological reactance.

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Chap_06_11e 57. Sally is a staunch Democrat. She has been arguing with Jim, who is a staunch Republican. In the course of their discussion, Sally is able to withstand the arguments Jim offers for his position, but just barely. She realizes afterward that her own counterarguments to his were pretty weak. Subsequent to this realization, Sally’s attitude will a. become less certain. b. remain unchanged. c. become more certain. d. change to agree with Jim. 58. Stanley’s stock broker calls him and says, “I have a great stock buying opportunity for you, but I need to know right away if you want to make the purchase.” Stanley refuses to act so quickly, and says, “sorry but I really need to take time to think about this and decide if it is right for me. I’ll get back to you.” Stanley is going to use as he decides if he should follow his broker’s advice. a. heuristic b. extension c. peripheral processing d. elaboration 59. Which of the following would not be considered an attitude? a. Darnell likes to play chess. b. Daphne hates liver. c. Daisy strongly favors universal health insurance. d. Dalton drives a silver minivan.

60. Likability of a communicator is determined by a. similarity, while other factors play a marginal role. b. physical attractiveness, while other factors play a marginal role. c. both similarity and physical attractiveness. d. similarity, physical attractiveness, and proximity.

61. A positive, negative, or mixed response to a person, object, or idea is called a(n) a. aversion. b. cognition. c. emotion. d. attitude.

62. Which of the following has not been demonstrated in research on role-playing? a. People show greater attitude change after giving a persuasive speech than after listening to one. b. Self-generated arguments are better remembered than arguments provided by others. c. Expecting to have to present a persuasive communication to another person increases the impact of the communication. d. Role-playing effects are stronger among those low in need for cognition than those high in need for cognition.

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Chap_06_11e 63. Jaycee is extremely judgmental. She has strong opinions about politics, social issues, and moral concerns.

Jaycee is most likely a case of a. high need for cognition. b. high need for evaluation. c. low evaluative conditioning. d. low cognitive dissonance.

64. Elias believes that gun control is necessary. Which of the following would cause Elias to change his attitude the most? a. He hears a speech against gun control, and then gives a speech that takes a similar position. b. He anticipates giving a speech against gun control, and then gives the speech. c. He anticipates giving a speech for gun control, and then must give a speech against it. d. He gives a speech for gun control, followed by a speech against it.

65. In trying to assess attitudes about particular subjects, public opinion pollsters have become aware that attitude responses seem to be affected by all of the following factors except the a. context in which the question appears. b. wording of the question. c. order of the questions. d. length of the questionnaire.

66. The “Lipton Ice” and dextrose pill research demonstrated that subliminal messages are most effective when participants a. cared very much about the issue. b. were low in self-monitoring. c. were low in the need for evaluation. d. really needed the item being advertised.

67. Eric does not really know how to answer the essay question about cognitive dissonance on his social psychology exam. He decides to write as many facts as he knows about the topic of attitudes in his exam book, hoping that the professor will not read the exams too closely and will be impressed enough by the length of his essay to give him a good score. Eric is hoping to take advantage of a. the sleeper effect. b. the peripheral route to persuasion. c. the central route to persuasion. d. dissonance-related insufficient justification.

68. Appeals made in person, over the Internet, or through the mass media rely on the spoken word, the written word, and the image or video. To understand why certain approaches are effective whereas others are not, social psychologists seek to understand a. whether persuasion is moral or not. b. how and why persuasive communications work. c. the central route persuasion, but not peripheral. d. the peripheral route persuasion, but not central.

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Chap_06_11e 69. Vicki is a lawyer who is trying to decide which of two forensic experts she should hire to provide testimony in a case. One of them charges a significantly higher fee than the other. If Vicki wants the jurors to perceive her expert as trustworthy—and if she expects the witness’s fees to become part of the trial record when he testifies —then she should select a. the more expensive expert. b. the less expensive expert. c. either one because of their status in their field. d. the expert who has the most experience testifying in court.

70. A negative reaction to the feeling that one’s freedom is being threatened is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. psychological reactance. c. forewarning. d. inoculation.

71. Which of the following advertising slogans for a new stereo system would be most appealing to someone in a collectivist culture? a. “Play all of your favorite CDs and hear every nuance.” b. “Invite your friends over so they can dance to music of the highest clarity.” c. “Don’t you want to have the best stereo in your neighborhood?” d. “You work hard every day—why not treat yourself to something special?”

72. The most common approach to persuasion is a. through communication from others. b. through subliminal perception. c. to persuade ourselves. d. imagery-induced.

73. Which of the following source characteristics best explains why a company might recruit a supermodel to endorse its products? a. Similarity b. Credibility c. Likability d. Trustworthiness 74. Marcia has two boyfriends, Davie and Mickey, both of whom she likes very much. She has decided that dating both of them is making her life too complicated and, after careful deliberation, has decided to stop seeing Davie and continue dating Mickey. According to cognitive dissonance theory, which of the following should happen next? a. Marcia will develop an intense dislike for Mickey as she grows familiar with him. b. Davie will seem more attractive than ever, making Marcia regret her decision. c. Mickey will seem more attractive than ever, convincing Marcia that she made the right choice. d. Marcia will secretly meet Davie to test if she did the right thing by breaking up with him.

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Chap_06_11e 75. After narrowing their choices to a Toyota and a Honda, Tammy and James have decided to buy a Toyota. It is likely that after making this decision, they will a. soon begin to question whether they should have bought the Honda instead of the Toyota. b. feel less dissonance if they are told by friends that they have decorated their house nicely. c. see the features in a Honda in a highly exaggerated positive light. d. feel significantly more dissonance than they felt before making the decision.

76. In their 1993 study, Cacioppo and others presented participants with a list of category words that depicted objects they liked and disliked. The result: Brain-wave patterns that are normally triggered by inconsistency increased more when a a. disliked stimulus appeared after a string of neutral items. b. liked stimulus was shown after a string of negative items. c. disliked stimulus appeared after a string of negative items. d. liked stimulus was shown after a string of positive items.

77. The theory of planned behavior posits that behavior is a function of attitudes, subjective norms, behavioral intentions, and the a. amount of time we have considered engaging in the action. b. correspondence between the attitude and the action. c. amount of control we perceive to have over our own actions. d. costs of engaging in the action.

78. Abby compliments Sharon on her new outfit, despite thinking it is not flattering at all. According to the “new look” at dissonance theory, a. Abby must feel physiological arousal after her lie in order to feel cognitive dissonance. b. Abby will feel dissonance because she felt her only choice was to flatter Sharon when Sharon asked her, “How do I look?” c. Abby will not feel dissonance because Sharon’s outfit is not personally important to Abby. d. Abby will come to believe that Sharon’s outfit is flattering in the same way that an observer might infer Abby’s attitude from her behavior.

79. Wells and Petty (1980) videotaped students as they listened to a speech. The results of this study indicated that most students made a. vertical head movements to indicate resentment. b. horizontal head movements to indicate confusion. c. vertical head movements to indicate agreement. d. horizontal head movements to indicate boredom.

80. Research demonstrates that exposure to weak versions of a persuasive argument tends to increase later resistance to that argument. This is consistent with a. the discounting cue hypothesis. b. self-perception theory. c. cognitive dissonance theory. d. the inoculation hypothesis.

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Chap_06_11e 81. Cacioppo and Petty (1981) recorded facial muscle activity of college students as they listened to a message with which they agreed or disagreed. The results of this study indicated that listening to a(n) message increases activity in the . a. disagreeable; cheek muscles b. disagreeable; chin muscles c. agreeable; cheek muscles d. agreeable; muscles in the forehead and brow area 82. Which of the following is demonstrated by someone who is outwardly welcoming of racial minorities but harbors unconscious prejudice? a. Attitudes enable us to judge quickly and without much thought whether something we first encounter is good or bad. b. A person’s attitude represents a unique relation between that person and a specific attitude object. c. At times, people have both positive and negative reactions to the same attitude object without feeling conflict. d. The attitude formation process, much like a reflex action, is often quick, automatic, and “implicit.”

83. Michael believes that one’s family is more important than one’s career. In order for him to successfully convince his achievement-oriented friend Ronald that he should also possess such a value system, Michael should a. take the very discrepant position that careers never provide satisfaction anywhere close to what a family provides. b. more often than not use the peripheral route rather than the central route of persuasion. c. present as many arguments for his position as possible, highlighting the downside of choosing career over family. d. suggest more of a balance between family and career concerns than is currently true for Ronald.

84. Markesan had made a chastity vow along with a lot of other girls in her church youth group. Her senior year, she and her boyfriend begin having sex, and Markesan becomes pregnant. Markesan doesn’t really regret having sex with her boyfriend, but she is embarrassed that her friends will see her as a hypocrite. Markesan’s experience fits best with which theory? a. Self-perception theory b. Impression management theory c. Self-esteem theories d. Cognitive dissonance theory 85. Selma’s friends can’t stand her new girlfriend, Patty, and have been pressuring Selma to stop seeing her. Selma gets agitated and feels that her friends should mind their own business and not try to “run her life” for her.

According to the concept of , Selma would be most likely to respond by . a. psychological reactance; breaking up with Patty b. psychological reactance; feeling even more dedicated to her relationship with Patty c. attitude inoculation; eventually becoming persuaded by her friends’ attitudes about Patty d. attitude inoculation; taking out her frustrations on Patty in a gradual but definite process over time

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Chap_06_11e 86. The idea that people are more likely to be influenced by messages that match their frame of mind is known as a. self-verification. b. regulatory fit. c. the matching hypothesis. d. the affect congruency effect.

87. While watching the presidential debate on television, Matilda critically evaluated the arguments made by each candidate and was persuaded to support the candidate who in her view seemed to present well-balanced, intelligent arguments. Thus, Matilda exhibited a. psychological reactance. b. central route persuasion. c. impression management. d. attitude-discrepant behavior.

88. Which of the following strategies for resisting persuasion is exemplified by the statement, “I doubt that anyone could change my viewpoint”? a. An assertion of confidence b. Counter arguing c. Attitude bolstering d. Source derogation 89. In their research on the effects of fear arousal in politics, Mark Landau and others (2004) found that college students expressed more support for then-President George W. Bush and his policies when a. the central route to persuasion was significantly more in use compared to the peripheral route. b. the peripheral route was used intermittently with an in-depth political message repeated at intervals. c. reminded of their own mortality or subliminally exposed to images of 9/11 than when they were not. d. there were no specific instructions on how to cope with the aftermath of 9/11, thus leaving people panicstricken and feeling helpless.

90. Wilken and others (2010) conducted a study where American and Japanese participants were asked about their favorite musical artists, TV shows, and restaurants, among other preferences. They found that a. the Japanese reported liking their favorites for a shorter time than the Americans did. b. the Americans were more impacted by the preferences of their friends than were the Japanese. c. the Japanese reported more discomfort in identifying their favorites than did the Americans. d. the Americans were more likely to report that they had a wide variety of favorites at one time, while the Japanese selected only one or two favorites at a time.

91. The process by which a person thinks hard and carefully about a communication and is influenced by the strength of its arguments is called a. psychological reactance. b. evaluative conditioning. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the central route to persuasion.

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Chap_06_11e 92. Roger and Mike always seem to disagree on music. Roger likes a new song that he heard on the radio. Since the song is from a genre that Mike really enjoys, Roger tells him about it. Mike is very likely to than he would have had Roger not spoken to him about it a. like the song more b. like the song less c. dislike the song more d. dislike the song less 93. Josie listened to a speech on the radio from a noncredible speaker advocating the increased use of automobiles that are not reliant on fossil fuels. One would expect the sleeper effect to be greatest if Josie found out about the background of the speaker the speech and was asked about his views about the issue . a. before; that same day b. after; that same day c. before; a few weeks later d. after; a few weeks later 94. Stephen Kraus’s (1995) meta-analysis on the relationship between attitudes and behaviors showed that attitudes a. are only tenuously linked to behavior. b. significantly and substantially predict future behavior. c. significantly predict future behavior, but it is a relatively small effect size. d. invariably predict future behavior.

95. Marla knows that eating donuts is bad for her, and yet every morning on her way to work she stops at the local donut store and gets three donuts with a cup of coffee. She tells herself, “I HAVE to get donuts or else I’m going to look like a weirdo for only getting coffee at a donut store.” Which of the following techniques is she using to reduce her own cognitive dissonance? a. Changing an attitude b. Reducing perceived choice c. Adding consonant cognitions d. Minimizing the conflict’s importance 96. Which of the following is not an explanation for why people in a positive mood are more susceptible to persuasion? a. A positive emotional state is cognitively distracting, making evaluation of arguments difficult. b. A good mood makes you feel that all is well, and you don’t work as hard to evaluate arguments. c. Happy people want to maintain that mood, so they don’t want to ruin it with critical evaluation of information. d. A positive mood makes people more thoughtful, so they are more likely to engage in central processing.

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Chap_06_11e 97. Miss Roberto is concerned that Talia and Emily avoid playing with Michael because he is African American.

Which strategy would best enable her to assess any unconscious dislike these two students feel toward Michael? a. Ask them why they don’t want to play with him. b. Measure the girls’ brain activity when they are forced to play with Michael. c. Administer an IAT to examine the girls’ racial attitudes. d. Administer a self-report questionnaire examining the girls’ racial attitudes.

98. Sam hates Celine Dion with a passion. One day, he meets Celine at a party. She tries to win him over by giving him her new CD. In which of the following scenarios would Sam’s attitudes toward Celine be most likely to change after hearing the CD, according to dissonance theory? a. She holds a gun to his head, forcing him to listen to it. b. She offers him a free coupon for his next dry cleaning order in exchange for listening to it. c. He decides to read suggestive passages aloud from a romantic novel while listening to it. d. She tells him to suppress his negative thoughts about her while he listens to it.

99. The unpleasant psychological state often aroused when people hold two conflicting cognitions is called a. cognitive dissonance. b. attitude ambivalence. c. functional inconsistency. d. self-persuasion.

100. The means of persuasion least obvious to a person who is unfamiliar with social psychology is persuasion a. via newspaper editorials. b. on websites. c. based on the central route. d. from within.

101. High self-monitors respond more to a. image-oriented b. information-oriented c. fact-based d. subliminal

advertising.

102. Which of the following theories suggests that intentions to perform a behavior are best predicted by attitudes toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control? a. Theory of planned behavior b. Cognitive dissonance theory c. Self-perception theory d. Self-affirmation theory

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Chap_06_11e 103. Research indicates that subliminal influence a. never occurs. b. usually occurs in the short term for simple judgments and actions. c. is more likely among people high in the need for cognition. d. can persuade people to take action even when they were previously unmotivated to do so.

104. According to research by Tormala and Petty (2002), an attitude can be argument it. a. weakened; for b. strengthened; against

by a persuasive message or

c. weakened; against d. strengthened; for 105. Hoshino-Browne and colleagues’ (2005) post-decision dissonance experiment found that Japanese participants felt a. no dissonance. b. less dissonance than their Canadian counterparts. c. more dissonance than their Canadian counterparts. d. dissonance when making a decision for a friend rather than themselves.

106. Dr. Flintstone, president of Quarry College, needs to convince students that the college must double its tuition beginning in five years. He is hiring someone to promote this idea, as well as developing supportive arguments.

Would he need to adopt a different strategy if he instead wanted to implement the change in the next academic year? a. No. He should do the same thing either way. b. Yes. If the change is to happen next year, the strength of the arguments will matter more than whom he hires to promote the idea. c. Yes. If the change is to happen next year, the person he hires will matter more than the strength of the arguments. d. Yes. If the change is to happen next year, obtaining a credible promoter and generating strong arguments will both be more crucial than if the change will happen in five years.

107. Yanquan is a staunch green advocate. He has been arguing with Marcela, who is a conspicuous consumer. In the course of their discussion, Yanquan is able to withstand the arguments Marcela offers for her position, and he does so in a strong and convincing fashion. He realizes afterward that his own counterarguments to Marcela’s were pretty solid. Subsequent to this realization, Yanquan’s attitude will a. become less certain. b. remain unchanged. c. become more certain. d. change to agree with Marcela.

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Chap_06_11e 108. Which of the following situations should prompt the least cognitive dissonance? a. Though he would rather be playing football with his friends, Wyatt decides to start his 20-page philosophy paper rather than his 25-page history paper. b. Elmer likes both duck and rabbit, but he decides to order rabbit for dinner. c. Audrey doesn’t like cats much, so she decides that her new pet will be a dog. d. Tuvin would like to spend his vacation in both Italy and Greece, but can only afford to travel to one place, so he decides to go to Greece.

109. Professor Shackleford is elated because she has just learned that her paper has been accepted for publication.

When a student passes her in the hallway and tells her that he missed the latest exam in order to stay home with his depressed cat, her good mood renders her likely to a. be even more skeptical than usual about such an unlikely excuse. b. be less skeptical than usual about the excuse. c. overlook the student’s cognitive dissonance. d. fall victim to the sleeper effect.

110. When used to measure attitudes, physiological measures such as heart rate and perspiration reveal a. social desirability bias. b. the intensity of an attitude. c. whether an attitude is positive or negative. d. the level of control researchers have.

111. In a study about political attitudes and opinions during the 2004 presidential election, researchers used brain imaging to examine what happened in the brain when participants listened to positive or negative statements about the candidate of their choice. They found that most affected were those areas of the brain associated with a. emotion. b. reasoning. c. speech. d. mood.

112. Which of the following is true in William McGuire’s analysis of the phenomenon of persuasion? a. People who are less smart or low in self-esteem are less willing to accept the message as they may have trouble learning its contents. b. People who are more smart or high in self-esteem are more willing to accept the message, but they may have trouble learning its contents. c. People who are smart or high in self-esteem are better able to learn a message but are less likely to accept its call for a change in attitude. d. People who are smart or high in self-esteem are better able to learn a message and are more likely to accept its call for a change in attitude.

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Chap_06_11e 113. An attitude that is brought to mind quickly and easily is said to be a. accessible. b. strong. c. weak. d. dissonant.

114. Because communicator trustworthiness is important, people tend to be readily impressed by speakers who a. are highly paid in their profession. b. argue against their own interests. c. talk slowly and deliberately. d. are well-dressed.

115. People high in need for cognition are more likely to a. process a message along the central route. b. be persuaded by image-oriented appeals. c. agree with a message if they are in a good mood. d. be persuaded by the reputation and appearance of the source.

116. As personal involvement regarding an issue increases, the determinant of persuasion. a. quality of the arguments b. credibility of the speaker c. attractiveness of the speaker d. length of the arguments

becomes a more important

117. An implicit attitude measure would be particularly more predictive than an explicit attitude measure in assessing an attitude toward a. wearing a seat belt. b. owning a pet. c. church attendance. d. committing suicide.

118. Can subliminal messages reflexively trigger behavior without our awareness? In 1982, Timothy Moore reviewed the existing research and concluded that a. faint sexual images that advertisers routinely sneaked into visual ads were effective. b. the subliminal thirst primes had little impact on students whose thirst had just been quenched. c. participants were more likely to select and consume a subliminally advertised food product. d. “what you see is what you get”—nothing, “complete scams.”

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Chap_06_11e 119. The idea that we infer our own attitudes by coolly observing ourselves and the circumstances of our behavior is most consistent with a. planned behavior theory. b. self-perception theory. c. cognitive dissonance theory. d. elaboration-likelihood theory.

120. Which of the following concerning the use of facial electromyography (EMG) to assess attitudes is true? a. It can detect muscular changes not observable to the naked eye. b. It does not provide information related to attitudes unknown to the participant. c. It sometimes leads to the same pattern of activity being interpreted as happiness or sadness. d. It is only an accurate measure of attitudes if people know their attitudes are being assessed.

121. Research on the attitudes of twins suggests that a. genetics are not useful in predicting the attitudes different people will hold. b. the attitudes of identical twins are more similar than the attitudes of fraternal twins. c. the attitudes of twins who are reared apart from one another are more dissimilar than the attitudes of twins raised together in the same household. d. the first-born twin is likely to be more conservative than the second-born twin, even when their births are only separated by minutes.

122. In terms of positive versus negative emotions, the feeling of ambivalence can be described as a manifestation of an attitude that is a. dual. b. indifferent. c. positive. d. negative.

123. Cross-cultural research indicates that cognitive dissonance a. exists in similar situations and manifests itself the same way in collectivist and individualistic societies. b. does not exist in collectivist societies. c. can be seen across cultures but emerges in different situations in different cultures. d. is more common among women in individualistic cultures, but among men in collectivist cultures.

124. Leo has always believed strongly that fidelity in a marriage is very important. After he has an extramarital affair with Annette, he says to himself, “How could I stop myself? Annette was my soul mate. This was meant to be.” Which dissonance-reducing technique is Leo using? a. Changing his attitude b. Changing his perception of the behavior c. Minimizing the importance of the conflict d. Reducing perceived choice

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Chap_06_11e 125. Kirk is a strong Republican who voted for Mitt Romney in 2012. Based on research by Regan and Kilduff (1988), when should Kirk have felt most confident about Romney’s chances of winning the 2012 election? a. Right before voting b. In the voting booth c. Right after voting d. Months before the election 126. A sleeper effect occurs when a. persuasion occurs in response to subliminal stimuli. b. a persuasive message from a noncredible source becomes more persuasive over time. c. distraction interferes with the ability to pay attention to a persuasive message. d. people fall asleep during exposure to a persuasive message.

127. Gloria has a negative attitude toward smoking, but she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day.

According to the theory of planned behavior, one reason that her attitude and behavior are inconsistent could be that her a. attitude is based on feelings rather than beliefs. b. belief that she can control her smoking behavior is weak. c. family and friends also have negative attitudes toward smoking. d. attitude is usually accessible when she reaches for a cigarette.

128. Your friend is thinking of purchasing a self-help weight-loss CD that promises its effects through subliminal persuasive messages embedded in the music. What should you tell her research shows about the effectiveness of such programs? a. Such programs are very effective but require discipline and persistence. b. Such programs are effective only among the people who are acutely obese. c. No solid evidence exists to support such programs. d. Subliminal messages work more effectively through visual (DVD) media than audio (CD) media.

129. All self-report measures assume that a. attitude is fundamentally changing and dynamic. b. attitude change is a matter of inference, not motivation. c. people honestly express their true opinions. d. people often reveal their implicit attitudes in private.

130. Jacqueline, an attitude researcher, is interested in how people feel about alcohol. She wants to ensure that her respondents answer with greater honesty and with less positive spin. She would be well-advised to use the a. Likert scale. b. bogus pipeline. c. sleeper effect. d. self-validation hypothesis.

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Chap_06_11e 131. A trust-establishing trick in which the source appears to tell a buddy about a new product that works is an example of a. a public service message. b. overheard communication. c. the self-interest rule. d. a political campaign.

132. A classic dilemma in advertising concerning the value of celebrity spokespersons is that the more products a celebrity endorses, the a. more competent she becomes in endorsing competing products. b. less trustworthy she becomes in the eyes of consumers. c. more popular she becomes among consumers with vastly dissimilar preferences. d. less likely an audience member is to use the peripheral route to persuasion.

133. Which of the following statements concerning the use of fear appeals is not supported by research? a. Fear appeals may motivate change by increasing the incentive to think carefully about the arguments in the message. b. Fear appeals are generally less effective than messages that do not provoke fear. c. Fear appeals are most effective when they include specific information on how to avoid the threat. d. Fear arousal may reduce the ability of already fearful message recipients to carefully process a message.

134. Identify and explain the process whereby the source of a message gradually loses its impact over time.

135. Discuss and give an example of at least four different techniques that one can use to resist others’ attempts to persuade them to change their attitude.

136. Explain the difference between the central and peripheral routes to persuasion.

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Chap_06_11e 137. According to the theory of planned behavior, how do attitudes influence behavior?

138. Describe the phenomenon of insufficient justification, and explain its relationship to cognitive dissonance.

139. Discuss and give an example of five different techniques that one can use to overcome cognitive dissonance.

140. Discuss three alternatives to cognitive dissonance theory.

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Chap_06_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. b

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Chap_06_11e 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_11e 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. d 60. c 61. d 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_11e 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. a 91. d 92. b 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. b 107. c 108. c 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_11e 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. b 115. a 116. a 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. a 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. b 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. b 133. b 134. The process whereby the source of a message gradually loses its impact over time is known as the sleeper effect. It occurs when the source of a message gradually loses its impact over time. Initially, people are more readily persuaded by credible sources than by noncredible sources, but over time, they seem to lose the connection between the source and the message, becoming equally persuaded by both types of sources. The sleeper effect tends to occur only when the source of the message is introduced after the message itself and explains why a low-credibility source (e.g., the National Enquirer) can be just as persuasive as a high-credibility source (e.g., the New York Times) in the long run.

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Chap_06_11e 135. The answer to this question can be found in Table 6.3. The options include the following: attitude bolstering, counter arguing, social validation, negative affect, assertions of confidence, selective exposure, and source derogation.

Student examples of these different techniques will vary.

136. The central route to persuasion tends to be rational and information-based. People engaged in this route of processing are actively trying to understand and evaluate the arguments in a persuasive message. In contrast, the peripheral route involves persuasive cues that are peripheral to the message content. Such cues might be source credibility or likability, a highly distracting environment, or simply other contextual factors. Both routes can produce persuasion, although persuasion via the central route is often more resistant to later persuasive attempts. However, the central route is subject to some biased processing, such as overcorrection. Individuals eager to hold a “correct” attitude may sometimes work hard to show that they are persuadable by an unlikeable source, having learned that they are prone to be persuaded more by a likeable source.

137. According to these theories, our attitudes influence our behavior through a process of deliberate decision making, and their impact is limited in four respects. First, as just described, behavior is influenced less by general attitudes than by attitudes toward a specific behavior. Second, behavior is influenced not only by attitudes but also by subjective norms—our beliefs about what others think we should do. Social pressures to conform often lead us to behave in ways that are at odds with our inner convictions. Third, attitudes give rise to behavior only when we perceive the behavior to be within our control. To the extent that people lack confidence in their ability to engage in some behavior, they are unlikely to form an intention to do so. Fourth, although attitudes (along with subjective norms and perceived control) contribute to an intention to behave in a particular manner, people often do not or cannot follow through on their intentions.

138. Insufficient justification occurs when people cannot find a good enough reason to explain their behavior. Often this results in attitude change in the effort to eliminate the unpleasant arousal caused by the behavior. The relationship between insufficient justification and cognitive dissonance is made clear by the 1959 study of Festinger and Carlsmith. In this study, subjects who had been paid only $1 for their participation in an unpleasant task (and thus received insufficient justification for doing so) were more inclined to exaggerate their enjoyment of the task (thereby reducing their cognitive dissonance) than were subjects who had been paid $20. The $1 was insufficient justification to account for why the participants had lied to someone else about how fun the task was, so participants adjusted their attitudes about the task accordingly in order to alleviate the cognitive dissonance. The $20 participants had sufficient justification for their behavior, and therefore no attitude change was necessary.

139. The answer to this question can be found in Table 6.4. The five techniques are to change one’s attitude, to change one’s perception of their behavior, to add consonant cognitions, to minimize the importance of the conflict, and to reduce perceived choices. Examples will vary from student to student.

140. Whereas cognitive dissonance theory posits a state of psychological tension that people are motivated to reduce by bringing their attitudes more in line with their behaviors, (1) self-perception theory suggests that people interpret their attitudes by observing their behaviors and that physiological arousal is not necessary for self-persuasion to occur, (2) impression-management theory maintains that what matters is not the consistency between attitudes and behaviors but the appearance of such consistency, and (3) self-affirmation theory proposes that attitude change is spurred by threats to the self-concept.

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Chap_07_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Clara calls potential research participants and asks if they would be willing to give blood. Once they have agreed to donate blood, she informs them that their donation is scheduled at 7:00 in the morning on a Saturday.

Though most participants are not happy to hear this information, almost all of them do show up for the blood donation appointment. Clara has taken advantage of a. lowballing. b. the foot-in-the-door technique. c. the door-in-the-face technique. d. psychological reactance.

2. If American children raised in ways consistent with mainstream American culture and Chinese children raised in ways that were consistent with traditional Chinese culture were placed in the same classroom, which of the following statements would probably be true? a. The American children would never demonstrate conformity, and the Chinese children would always conform. b. The American children would demonstrate less conformity than the Chinese children. c. The American children would demonstrate less private conformity, but more public conformity than the Chinese children. d. The two groups of children would conform to the same extent and degree.

3. Imagine that some researchers conducted a study and interpreted the results of the study as indicative of normative influence. These researchers are most likely to reach this conclusion if participants in their study a. were truly convinced that the majority was correct in their opinions. b. behaved in a way that would be considered normal to people in Western cultures. c. did what they felt was morally right, even if it violated social norms in the process. d. conformed because they feared being rejected for appearing deviant.

4. Normative influence tends to occur primarily when people a. are uncertain regarding the correct answer and therefore look to others for guidance. b. fear the negative social consequences of rejection that can follow appearing deviant. c. are motivated to appear consistent in their feelings and behaviors. d. feel that their freedom to choose a particular course of action has been threatened.

5.

states that social influence depends on the strength, immediacy, and number of source persons relative to target persons. a. Social ostracism b. Social impact theory c. Conformity d. Compliance

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Chap_07_11e 6. The Milgram study demonstrated a. the specific personality traits that predict destructive obedience to authority. b. that people will typically harm another individual with little to no social pressure to do so. c. that obedience to authority is most destructive when the authority figure is particularly harsh and demanding. d. the potential for situational influences to lead ordinary people to commit extraordinarily destructive acts.

7. Research by Prentice and Miller (1996) found that college students are likely to have more positive attitudes toward drinking on campus and consume more alcohol if they a. attend colleges that strictly forbid drinking on campus. b. participate in workshops designed to increase their personal responsibility for drinking. c. overestimate the favorability of their peers’ attitudes toward drinking. d. believe such attitudes and behavior are inconsistent with social norms.

8. The compliance technique in which compliance to a desired request is increased by first gaining compliance to a smaller, but related, request is called a. lowballing. b. the that’s-not-all technique. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. the door-in-the-face technique.

9. Sherif’s (1936) research using the autokinetic effect demonstrated that a. people often look to others as a source of information. b. people are particularly concerned about social rejection. c. conformity is difficult to establish in the laboratory. d. only preexisting relationships have the power to influence behavior.

10. Normative influence tends to produce a. compliance; obedience b. conversion; compliance c. public conformity; private conformity

, whereas informational influence leads to

.

d. pluralistic ignorance; pluralistic knowledge 11. Natasha convinces Joel to take her to the airport by first asking him to loan her his car for a week. Her attempt to get Joel to do her a favor is most likely based on the principles of a. commitment and reciprocity. b. perceptual contrast and self-perception. c. reciprocal concessions and perceptual contrast. d. self-perception and commitment.

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Chap_07_11e 12. Jane bought her friends—Mayumi, Brenda, and Kate—drinks the last time they were out. The next time she needs to borrow money from one of them, who will feel the strongest need to reciprocate Jane’s act of generosity? a. Mayumi, who is out with Jane the next night b. Kate, who is out with Jane the next week c. Brenda, who is out with Jane the next month d. All three will feel equally pressured to reciprocate.

13. The tendency to unconsciously mimic the nonverbal behavior of others is called a. reciprocation wariness. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. the ally effect. d. the chameleon effect.

14. Which of the following is true of Milgram’s obedience study? a. When participants were required to manually force the victim’s hand onto a shock plate, obedience completely disappeared. b. The experimenter informed participants that he was accountable for any consequences of the participant’s actions. c. Participants obeyed to the same extent whether the experimenter gave directions in person or over the telephone. d. The percentage of participants who obeyed to the end was the same as the percentage of participants who conformed in the Asch study.

15. Which of the following concerning the relationship between gender and conformity is true? a. Men exhibit greater conformity than women in face-to-face interactions. b. Men exhibit greater conformity than women regardless of the situation. c. Women exhibit greater conformity than men in face-to-face interactions. d. Women exhibit greater conformity than men regardless of the situation.

16. Which of the following persons is considered a “creditor” in terms of their reciprocation ideology? a. Bertram, who likes to be generous with his friends so they will help him in the future b. Caitlin, who hates to feel beholden to someone c. Marsha, who likes to be generous with her friends because it makes her feel good d. Boyd, who is stingy with his friends because he believes in self-reliance 17. What was the proposition of the study of Latané (1981) for additional members to a group subject to the law of diminishing returns? a. Influence of confederates decreases for a large group size. b. Conformity increases with group size irrespective of the number of confederates. c. The strength of minority decreases with the number of additions to the group. d. Conformity decreases with the addition of confederates.

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Chap_07_11e 18. Lily is interested in conducting an experiment to demonstrate that there are some situations in which men are more likely to conform than women. Which of the following strategies should Lily adopt in designing her study? a. She should have participants engage in a discussion about politics. b. She should have participants engage in a discussion about fashion. c. She should tell participants that they are being observed throughout the study. d. She should tell participants that their primary goal in the study should be to appear attractive toward group members of the opposite sex.

19. According to Moscovici, majorities derive their power to influence others by virtue of their nonconformists derive their power to influence others from their . a. social connections; sheer number

, whereas

b. informational connections; social standing c. sheer number; style of behavior d. informational influence; normative influence 20. What percentage of the participants in Milgram’s study of destructive obedience demonstrated complete obedience to the experimenter? a. 10% b. 35% c. 65% d. 90% 21. What was the main idea behind the study of Meeus and Raaijmakers (1995), analogous to Milgram’s? a. Participants were asked to inflict physical pain on others. b. Participants were ordered to cause psychological harm to others. c. Participants acted as learners only and were administered buzzing sound effects. d. Participants were asked to fulfill a set of tasks and trapped in a room if they fail to do so.

22. Research examining rebellion and obedience suggests that a. disobedience to authority is much more likely in the presence of other allies who will also disobey. b. the presence of an ally has very different results for obedience than it does for conformity. c. participants in the Milgram studies would have been even more likely to obey had there been another participant seated at the shock panel with them. d. the presence of a group of people is a guaranteed safeguard against destructive obedience.

23. The idea that minority influence works in the same way as majority influence is most consistent with a. the interpersonal relations model. b. the dual-process approach. c. the single-process approach. d. research comparing private and public conformity.

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Chap_07_11e 24. In which case can social norms lead to conformity? a. They are behavioral. b. People know the norms and focus on them. c. They have a high level of complexity. d. They are flexible and easy to follow for the particular group.

25. Research on social influence in virtual groups shows that they a. are much less influential than “live” groups. b. only have impact when member identities are known. c. only have impact when member identities are hidden. d. can be quite influential even when they are remote.

26. According to the research of Neumann and Strack (2000), participants would report that they expected a more positive mood state when they listened to a speaker who a. spoke in a happy voice. b. presented about material of specific interest to the listener. c. seemed to have very high expertise on their topic. d. sounded like an older, mature male.

27. Milgram’s research on obedience is notable for having led some participants to believe that a helpless man in the next room had been rendered unconscious or even dead by a strong electric shock, marked “xxx” on a shock generator. What was the highest voltage that participants believed they could administer? a. 150 volts b. 275 volts c. 360 volts d. 450 volts 28. Chartran and Bargh (1999) had experimental accomplices mimic the mannerisms of some participants but not others. They found that a. participants whose mannerisms were mimicked liked the accomplice more than participants who were not copied. b. participants whose mannerisms were copied by an accomplice reported being more uncomfortable during the interaction than those who were not mimicked. c. imitating the mannerisms of the participants tended to reduce the nonverbal behaviors exhibited during the interaction. d. participants who were not mimicked by their interaction partners indicated a greater willingness to interact with that person again in the future.

29. The technique of getting a commitment from a potential customer and then changing the terms of the agreement is best described as a. reciprocal concession. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. lowballing.

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Chap_07_11e 30. When trying to close a car sale, Jerry often tries to sweeten the deal by telling the customer that he will throw in six free oil changes as well. This sales technique is best described as a. lowballing. b. the that’s-not-all technique. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. the door-in-the-face technique.

31. Meeus and Raaijmakers found that ____ % of the participants in their study were willing to deliver all 15 harassing remarks. a. 82 b. 87 c. 92 d. 97 32. Which of the following phenomena is defined as the ways in which people are affected by the real or imagined presence of others? a. Social influence b. Psychological reactance c. Pluralistic ignorance d. The autokinetic effect 33. Which method(s) will help a person avoid being caught in a compliance trap? a. Vigilance only b. Reciprocation wariness only c. Both vigilance and reciprocation wariness d. Vigilance for men, but reciprocation wariness for women 34. Mara needs to borrow James’s pen and is pondering how to ask him. She considers three options—asking for the pen outright without any reasoning, telling him that she needs the pen “to write something,” or telling him that she needs it “to sign a letter.” Which of the following statements is true? a. James is more likely to comply with the outright request than the “letter” plea. b. James is equally likely to comply with the “letter” plea and the outright request. c. James is less likely to comply with the “write something” plea than the outright request. d. James is equally likely to comply with the “letter” plea and the “write something” plea.

35. What was Asch’s conclusion when he tested the impact of group size on conformity by altering the number of confederates? a. Conformity increases with ten confederates than with five confederates. b. Conformity increases as an exponential function of group size. c. One group of six confederates produced more conformity than two groups of three confederates. d. Increase in conformity was negligible with three or four confederates.

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Chap_07_11e 36. Which of the following was not part of the procedure in Milgram’s research on destructive obedience? a. Participants were ordered to administer electric shocks that were apparently so intense that it caused the learner to scream in pain. b. Participants playing the role of teachers were ordered to increase the electric shocks in increments of 15 volts for every wrong answer the learner gave. c. Participants playing the role of learners were ordered to give shocks to the teacher who was trying to complete the task. d. The experimenter told participants who wanted to leave that they had no choice but to continue with the study.

37. According to social impact theory, the source’s proximity in time and space to a target determines the source’s a. strength. b. immediacy. c. number. d. popularity.

38. Though she initially attended the pro-choice rally because all her friends were going, Marion now firmly believes in a woman’s right to choose when it comes to abortion. Marion’s new beliefs illustrate a. private conformity. b. public conformity. c. reciprocation ideology. d. reciprocation wariness.

39. Many participants in the social influence study conducted by knew to be inaccurate. a. Sherif b. Asch c. Milgram d. Zimbardo

gave public responses that they privately

40. In order to convince people to buy lunch from their restaurant in the food court, employees at the Chinese restaurant gave out free samples of chicken teriyaki to everyone who walks by. The restaurant employees are hoping to take advantage of the a. door-in-the-face technique. b. that’s-not-all technique. c. norm of reciprocity. d. chameleon effect.

41.

show a high level of interdependence within their social network. a. Farmers b. Herders c. Local labors d. School principals

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Chap_07_11e 42. The key difference between Gamson and others’ (1982) obedience studies and Milgram’s studies from the 1960s was that a. people conform less in the 1980s than the 1960s. b. people conform more in the 1980s than the 1960s. c. Milgram’s participants were alone but Gammon’s were in a group. d. Milgram’s participants were in a group but Gammon’s were alone.

43. In what way does conformity differ from obedience and compliance? a. It involves less direct pressure from others. b. It occurs only in response to the behavior of a group of others. c. It requires the physical presence of at least one other person. d. It is more likely to produce destructive behaviors.

44. According to research by Emily Pronin and others (2007), which of the following statements explains why people perceive others to be more conforming than they, themselves, are? a. People are poor judges of others’ motivations. b. People tend to judge others by their overt behavior while judging themselves by focusing inward. c. People judge themselves in the same way that they judge others, but often much less accurately. d. People judge others by asking them about their inner thought processes.

45. The experience of being ostracized has been found to be a. fleeting and relatively harmless. b. more disturbing for women than for men. c. similar in brain area activation to the experience of physical pain. d. likely to lead to gun use and other forms of violence.

46. Which of the following experimental groups will feel most socially connected? a. A group of three people who rocked in rocking chairs in unison b. A group of three people who rocked in rocking chairs together, but at different paces c. A group of three people who sat in different types of chairs d. A group of ten people who are geographically dispersed 47. According to social impact theory, resistance to social pressure is most likely to occur when social impact is a. divided among many strong and distant targets. b. divided among many weak and immediate targets. c. consolidated within one distant target. d. consolidated within one immediate target.

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Chap_07_11e 48. Some researchers are planning to go around the world and put participants in a version of the Asch study in which they are asked to make judgments about the lengths of lines. Cross-cultural research suggests that the least amount of conformity should be observed in cultures a. characterized by financial independence and prosperity. b. where the majority of the people in positions of power are men. c. where the people live a simple life, as in an isolated farming community. d. with very little cultural diversity.

49. At a campaign meeting, the majority of the staff argues that they should use negative ads to attack their opponent. Despite their strong feelings on this matter, Stefan argues successfully for positive ads. According to the dual-process approach, Stefan’s influence has probably resulted in a. defiance. b. conversion. c. public conformity. d. collusion.

50. A cultural orientation in which independence, autonomy, and self-reliance take priority over group allegiances is called a. individualism. b. collectivism. c. power distance. d. uncertainty avoidance.

51. People who are especially likely to exploit the norm of reciprocity for personal gain can be identified by questionnaires that measure their a. social impact. b. vulnerability to informational influence. c. idiosyncrasy credits. d. reciprocation ideology.

52. Research on obedience suggests that participation in the Holocaust was a. encouraged by German traits of authoritarian personality. b. likely driven by situational factors that would influence anyone similarly. c. an extraordinary historical situation unlikely to be repeated. d. dissimilar in a variety of ways from the types of obedience observed in cults.

53. What is the sole concept that does not increase compliance when using the door-in-the-face technique? a. Feelings of guilt b. Psychological commitment c. Perceptual contrast d. Reciprocal concessions

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Chap_07_11e 54. Which of the following was the central focus of Muzafer Sherif’s (1936) study on conformity? a. The autokinetic effect b. Stroboscopic motion c. Motion parallax d. The Doppler effect 55. Which of the following is not considered one of the three forms of social influence discussed in this chapter? a. Conformity b. Compliance c. Obedience d. Independence 56. While driving down a street in a residential neighborhood, Aaron sees a sign in a yard that says, “Slow down!

Jimmy and I like to play in the street!” This is quite a bit different than normal signs that admonish a driver to slow down. Aaron immediately slows his car down to a safe 15 miles per hour, and stays at that speed until the end of the street. What compliance technique was used to get him to slow down? a. The pique technique b. The PIYAN technique c. The dump and chase technique d. The disrupt and reframe technique 57. American mothers in 1924 seemed to value a. conformity b. independence c. autonomy d. kindness

more than they do today.

58. Professor Hildebrand just gave the first exam back to his students. Many in the class are convinced that one of the questions he asked had more than one correct answer. In fact, 13 students from the class show up to his office hours to protest the question. Professor Hildebrand is convinced that there is only one correct answer, and so he tries to convince the larger group of students that he is right. He will be most likely to convince this group of his point of view if he a. presents his arguments forcefully and consistently. b. tries to exert normative social influence on the group of students. c. presents himself as an outgroup member rather than as part of their ingroup. d. makes salient the norms of the group.

59. Twinge interprets Burger’s (2009) replication of Milgram’s obedience studies as an indication that obedience rates have since Milgram’s original studies. a. not changed appreciably b. declined somewhat c. risen dramatically d. risen somewhat

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Chap_07_11e 60. Which of the following key factors does not contribute to individualistic culture? a. Complexity b. Affluence c. Heterogeneity d. Conformity 61. According to Hollander’s (1958) work on idiosyncrasy credits, which of the following individuals would be most effective in convincing a majority to change their opinion? a. A person who has just joined the group, because such a person has no history of antagonism with any of the majority group members b. A person who does not belong to the group at all, because such a person would be perceived as the most objective c. A person who has been in the group for quite a while, but consistently disagrees with the group d. A person who has been in the group for a long time, and usually goes along with the majority of the group 62. Which of the following has not been demonstrated by research on mimicry? a. Within a few days of birth, infants mimic the facial expressions of adults. b. Various species of nonhuman animals demonstrate rudimentary forms of mimicry. c. People often mimic the facial expressions of others, but never mimic their overt behaviors. d. People sometimes mimic facial expressions of which they are not even consciously aware.

63. Compared to conformity, compliance occurs a. only after careful deliberation. b. in response to a direct request. c. publicly, but not privately. d. as a result of less direct pressure from others.

64. Which of the following terms is referred to as the unspoken rule dictating that we should treat others as they have treated us? a. Social influence b. Norm of reciprocity c. Dual-process approach d. Equity principle 65. Prentice and Miller (1996) found that most college students overestimate how comfortable their peers are with alcohol on campus. This misperception is an example of a. pluralistic ignorance. b. psychological reactance. c. mass psychogenic illness. d. the chameleon effect.

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Chap_07_11e 66. Jamie wants an extra day to write a paper for class. Jamie first asks the professor for a one-week extension for the paper assignment. The professor refuses. Jamie then asks for a one-day extension. The professor agrees.

Jamie’s behavior best illustrates a. the door-in-the-face technique. b. the foot-in-the-door technique. c. reactance. d. the dual-process approach.

67. In the study of Meeus and Raaijmakers, the equivalent of Milgram’s electrical shocks was a. beating “prisoners” who failed to obey orders. b. delivering harassing remarks to a job candidate. c. ostracizing a person from a social group. d. helping a drunk person get a ride home.

68. Which of the following is the best example of normative influence? a. Patients adhere rigidly to doctors’ recommendations. b. People estimate how far a stable dot has moved by referring to others’ estimates. c. People wear a particular type of shoe even if uncomfortable because it is considered fashionable. d. Military personnel follow a superior’s orders that are morally questionable.

69. Women conform more and men conform less when they believe they are being observed. Eagly (1987) argues that this occurs because a. being watched makes people self-aware, which brings out their underlying personalities. b. women are easier to manipulate, whereas men tend to be more independent. c. women and men tend to be knowledgeable about different kinds of topics. d. people feel greater pressure in public to behave in ways consistent with their gender role.

70. Which of the following does not account for refusal of others’ requests? a. Vigilance b. Reciprocal wariness c. Following the norm of reciprocity d. Knowledge that the other person is trying to get you to comply 71. Chang has a habit of scratching his head in anxiety whenever he meets his clients. Four other colleagues— David, Peter, Sophie, and Jones—are with him. He would feel more comfortable with a. David, who mimics Chang’s behavior and scratches his head while speaking. b. Peter, who frowns at him while he observes him scratching his head. c. Sophie, who smiles at him every time he scratches his head. d. Jones, who has no reaction to Chang’s behavior.

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Chap_07_11e 72. Collectivist cultures have which of the following characteristics as per Triandis (1995)? a. Low complexity, low affluence, and cultural homogeneity b. Low complexity, high affluence, and cultural heterogeneity c. High complexity, low affluence, and cultural homogeneity d. High complexity, high affluence, and cultural heterogeneity 73.

did not seem related to the amount of obedience exhibited in the Milgram obedience. a. Participant’s sex b. Proximity of the learner to the teacher c. Location of the study d. Physical presence of the experimenter

74. In a study by Baron et al. (1996) in which groups of three participants were asked to act as eyewitnesses, the greatest level of conformity occurred when participants were motivated to be and the task was quite . a. accurate; easy b. accurate; difficult c. accepted by their partners; easy d. accepted by their partners; difficult 75. According to the dual-process approach, majorities exert influence by producing influence by producing . a. informational influence; normative influence b. public conformity; private conformity c. reactance; obedience d. conversion; compliance

, whereas minorities exert

76. Stan is a new student in his sixth-grade class. The other students exert normative pressure on him to conform to their opinion on some issue. According to social impact theory, Stan will be more likely to resist this influence if a. there are 20 rather than 11 students in the class. b. he perceives the other students as having high status. c. there are three other new students in the class who are receiving the same pressures. d. he comes from a culture that values a collectivist orientation.

77. The primary difference between the research of Sherif (1936) and Asch (1951) is that a. Sherif was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Asch was not. b. Asch was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Sherif was not. c. Sherif relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Asch used an unambiguous task. d. Asch relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Sherif used an unambiguous task.

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Chap_07_11e 78. Research on majority and minority influence suggests all of the following except that a. majorities are more influential than minorities on subjective questions. b. majorities exert normative influence, whereas minorities exert informational influence. c. majorities are more influential than minorities on questions of fact. d. majority influence is greater on public measures of conformity, whereas minority influence is greater on private measures of conformity.

79. Horatio is asked what main dish was served for lunch at the cafeteria yesterday. He knows that it was roast beef, but before responding, he observes six other students who say the main dish was pizza. Horatio is most likely to say the main dish was pizza if he hears the response from a. the six other students in three pairs of two. b. all the students at once. c. the six students at six different times in six different places. d. the six other students in two pairs of three.

80. The questionnaire measure used to assess an individual’s authoritarian personality is referred to as the a. A-scale. b. F-scale. c. Asch-scale. d. Milgram-scale.

81. What was the finding of Sherif’s study (1936) on conformity when participants were asked to estimate the distance moved by a point of light? a. Participants were more accurate when they were alone than when they were in groups. b. Participants were more accurate in groups than when they were alone. c. As the study progressed, the participants’ estimates began to converge with each other. d. As the study progressed, the participants’ estimates began to diverge from each other.

82. Ireland and Pennebaker (2010) found evidence for a. mood contagion. b. mimicry in use of language. c. destructive obedience. d. the dynamic nature of mimicry.

83. What was the real intent of Milgram’s experiment? a. Making learners blindly obey to the experimenter’s commands b. Explaining obedience to learners through the experiment c. Making learners forgive the experimenter at the end d. Making learners free to express resistance to experimenter’s prods

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Chap_07_11e 84. Which of the following is not an example of social influence? a. A sports fan who decides to join the other members of the stadium crowd in doing the wave b. A student who hears that some of his fellow classmates may have been exposed to a noxious gas and immediately comes to feel a bit nauseated himself c. A model who catches a glimpse of herself wearing a swimsuit in a mirror and suddenly becomes selfconscious about the way she looks d. A guest at a dinner party who does not understand a joke told by the host, but laughs anyway because everyone else is laughing 85. Which of the following statements is true of the dual-process approach to understanding minority influence? a. Majority and minority influence occur for through similar processes. b. Group majorities and minorities exert their influence in very different ways. c. Majority influence is likely to produce private conformity for ambiguous situations and public conformity for unambiguous situations. d. Minority influence occurs through different psychological processes in collectivist versus individualistic cultures.

86. When she is asked what she should do when a friend does a favor for her, Marnie says, “I usually don’t let anyone do favors for me. I don’t like the idea that I would owe them something.” Marine would describe people who do favors for her as a. reciprocators. b. creditors. c. assessors. d. debtors.

87. A half-dozen high school students are going to a concert. Chantal wants to wear a new colorful outfit that she just received as a gift, but she assumes that her five friends will all be wearing nothing but black leather. Chantal decides to do likewise, and leaves her colorful outfit in the closet. Chantal’s behavior is an example of a. reciprocation wariness. b. idiosyncrasy credits. c. resistance. d. conformity.

88. At the sales meeting, Leo clasped his hands behind his head and reclined in his chair. Within minutes, three other team members were sitting in the same posture, demonstrating the psychological tendency referred to as a. psychological reactance. b. the chameleon effect. c. lowballing. d. idiosyncrasy credits.

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Chap_07_11e 89. Jay participates in an experiment where he and three other participants are asked to judge the quality of a series of sculptures. Jay is least likely to exhibit informational influence if a. each sculpture is shown for only a few seconds. b. he is motivated to be very accurate in his judgments. c. there are no objective criteria by which to make such judgments. d. there is a clear and unambiguous response for each sculpture.

90. Those participants in Milgram’s study who went to the very end of the shock meter were a. diagnosed as abnormal by a team of psychiatrists. b. in the minority among participants in the study. c. not told that the learner had a previous heart condition. d. not found to be substantially different from those who refused to do so.

91. When Cheryl is with her supervisors, she obeys their decisions without question. But when she is with employees under her supervision, she is aggressive and demanding. Cheryl is likely to be described by social psychologists as having a. idiosyncrasy credits. b. an introverted character. c. reciprocation wariness. d. an authoritarian personality.

92. Baron and others (1996) found that participants’ levels of conformity depended on how motivated they were to do well. When offered a financial incentive, conformity went a. down when the task was difficult and up when the task was easy. b. up in both conditions. c. down in both conditions. d. up when the task was difficult and down when the task was easy.

93. You’re out with friends when a talk show host walks up and asks if you’ll answer a few trivia questions on camera. When he asks how many feet are in a mile, your first friend says 2,000 and your second friend says 3,000. You don’t know the correct answer, so you say 2,500. Your response is similar to the judgments made by participants in which study? a. Langer et al. (1978) b. Sherif (1936) c. Asch (1951) d. Milgram (1962)

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Chap_07_11e 94. Pat attends a prescreening of a new romantic comedy with a group of four people and then participates in a focus group where the group is asked several questions about the film. The group is asked, “How funny is the film?” Each member of the group responds to the question. Pat responds last, after hearing the rest of the group say that the movie was very funny. Pat is more likely to agree with them if a. Pat is female. b. Pat is from an individualistic culture. c. Pat is elderly. d. Pat’s group had seven people instead of four.

95. The residents in Burberry Hill have convened to discuss whether to build a neighborhood pool. The majority are in favor of building a pool. However, Miguel, a long-time resident, expresses his opposition. Which of the following is unlikely? a. The residents will think more carefully about the issue of building a pool because Miguel presented a dissenting opinion. b. Miguel’s status of being a long-time resident and its accompanying idiosyncrasy credits will help him influence the group. c. Miguel will not gain private conformity to his opinion, only public conformity. d. Miguel will be more influential if he repeatedly expresses his opposition as the group discusses the benefits of building a pool.

96. Participants in Asch’s line judgment study conformed approximately a. 27 b. 37 c. 47 d. 57

% of the time.

97. Identify the species of animal that does not show automatic imitation. a. Hamsters b. Fish c. Pigeons d. Camels 98. The foot-in-the-door technique takes particular advantage of the a. desire to maintain consistent self-perceptions. b. norm of reciprocity. c. effect of mindlessness. d. perceived contrast between small and large requests.

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Chap_07_11e 99. Mary has just heard five friends say that Massachusetts is the largest state in New England, when she knows it is Maine. Rob, the next friend in line, says that New Hampshire is the largest state in New England. In this situation, Mary is now less likely to conform with the first five friends than if Rob had said that a. Maine is the largest state. b. Massachusetts is the largest state. c. he isn’t familiar with New England. d. Connecticut is the largest state.

100. According to Miller and Prentice (2016), people are more likely to make a charitable contribution only when a. they express their overt behavior instead of just conforming with others. b. they privately accept it. c. they express public conformity rather than private conformity. d. they follow similar others doing the same.

101. Recent approaches to social impact theory suggest that a. the effect of immediacy does not necessitate physical proximity. b. it is more relevant to understanding conformity than to understanding obedience. c. source strength is less important than the number of sources. d. the strength of a source depends more on prestige than intelligence.

102. Lowballing uses which of the following concepts to stand as an effective conformity technique? a. Ostracism b. Commitment c. Reciprocity d. Social impact 103. As observed by Asch (1956), the optimal number of confederates, above which conformity did not significantly increase, was a. 1 or 2. b. 3 or 4. c. 5 or 6. d. 7 or 8.

104. Reuben notices one group of eight people littering in the park. Rachel sees four different pairs of people littering in the park. As per Wilder’s (1977) study, which of the following statements holds? a. Reuben is more likely to conform to the behavior of the litterbugs than is Rachel. b. Rachel is more likely to conform to the behavior of the litterbugs than is Reuben. c. Reuben and Rachel are equally likely to conform to the behavior of the litterbugs. d. Reuben is more likely to conform because of informational influence, but Rachel is more likely to conform because of normative influence.

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Chap_07_11e 105. The original Milgram obedience study a. demonstrates the personality characteristics associated with obedience to authority have changed over time. b. has been followed up by a number of additional studies that have varied specific aspects of the research situation. c. confirms that conformity results from both informational and normative social pressures. d. randomly assigned participants to one of two experimental conditions.

106. Arnold wears suits every day to his job at the bank, but when he is at home in the evening and on weekends, he spends most of his time naked because that is what he finds most comfortable. Arnold’s daytime behavior illustrates a. perceptual contrast. b. private conformity. c. conversion. d. public conformity.

107. Which of the following statements best illustrates the relationship between ostracism and conformity? a. Failure to conform can lead to ostracism. b. Being ostracized typically reduces future conformity. c. Ostracism always comes before conformity. d. When people do not conform, they typically tend to ostracize.

108. Which of the following statements is false regarding Milgram’s research? a. Many theorists use the results of his studies to try to explain the behavior of Nazi guards and others during the Holocaust. b. Some scholars suggest that his findings indicate that anyone is capable of destructive obedience if placed in the right situation. c. Raising people’s awareness of the explanations for someone else’s wrongdoing also tends to render people more forgiving of this wrongdoing. d. Subsequent researchers have extended his findings to other cultures and time periods.

109. Which of the following conditions reveals that participants in Sherif’s study exhibited private conformity rather than public conformity? a. When retested without their fellow group members, participants reverted to their original estimates. b. They would report their group’s normative estimate when asked to respond aloud, but not when asked to respond in writing. c. They continued to use their group estimates when retested alone one year later. d. The task was too easy for people to demonstrate public conformity.

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Chap_07_11e 110. Often overlooked in Asch’s conformity study is the fact that participants refused to conform time. a. 25 b. 37 c. 63

% of the

d. 75 111. No one else seems concerned about the welfare of the woman lying down in the alley. Therefore, Maureen steps over her as well, figuring that she is simply drunk or asleep and not in need of emergency assistance.

Maureen’s behavior is an example of a. informational influence. b. normative social influence. c. compliance. d. obedience.

112. Informational influence occurs under the condition that people a. believe that others are correct in their judgments, especially when they agree. b. fear the negative social consequences of appearing deviant. c. are motivated to appear consistent in their feelings and behaviors. d. respond to social norms automatically and without any thought.

113. The conformity seen in Sherif’s (1936) study was most likely the result of a. normative influence. b. private conformity. c. public conformity. d. informational influence.

114. The “minority slowness effect” refers to the finding that a. members of minority groups are often slow to change their minds during group discussion. b. it takes longer for minority group members to change the minds of majority group members than vice versa. c. people with minority opinions are slower to respond to questions about the topic than people with majority opinions. d. minority groups take longer to form, as people are less likely to join a group whose opinion is not widely accepted.

115. As group size increases, conformity will a. increase. b. decrease. c. increase as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an independent source of influence. d. decrease as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an independent source of influence.

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Chap_07_11e 116. As he was about to enter the mall, Evan was approached by someone and asked to wear a small green ribbon on his shirt to show his support for the “Save the Squirrels” campaign. Evan wasn’t quite sure that squirrels were actually endangered, but he agreed to wear the ribbon. A week later, Evan was approached again and asked to contribute $10 to help save the squirrels. Though he would have rather spent his money elsewhere, he agreed. Evan has been the victim of the technique. a. lowballing b. foot-in-the-door c. door-in-the-face d. that’s-not-all 117. Will and Grace have just started to attend church. Will pays attention to when the rest of the congregation sits and stands because he wants to be sure to stand and sit at the appropriate times. Grace stands up and sits down when the rest of the congregation does because if she doesn’t, the elderly couple across the aisle scowls at her.

Will has conformed because of , whereas Grace has conformed because of . a. normative influence; informational influence b. informational influence; normative influence c. compliance; obedience d. obedience; compliance 118. Langer et al. (1978) found that if an experimenter approaches people with a request with no justifiable reason, they often respond a. with skeptical reactance. b. by asking for a more complete explanation. c. with surprise followed by caution. d. by complying mindlessly.

119. Participants in an experiment are asked to look at pictures of different infants and rate the attractiveness of each infant on a 10-point scale. The participants are tested in groups of three and indicate their ratings aloud.

For almost all of the infants, the participants tend to give ratings similar to other group members. In which of the following situations can we infer that their ratings represent private conformity rather than public conformity? a. They exhibit much less conformity in the presence of the experimenter. b. They give the same ratings alone as they do in the group. c. Their ratings result from their desire to fit in with the rest of the group members. d. They are not especially motivated to be accurate in their judgments.

120. Which of the following statements holds regarding Milgram’s research on obedience? a. It has stirred controversy regarding its ethics. b. It revealed that far fewer people would deliver maximum shocks than was predicted by psychiatrists. c. It was conducted to better understand the war in Vietnam. d. It had psychologically disturbed individuals serve as participants.

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Chap_07_11e 121. Who of the following is most likely to obey in Milgram’s study? a. A man participating in a rundown office building with an experimenter in a lab coat b. A woman who has to physically place the learner’s hand down on a shock plate c. A woman participating at Yale University with an experimenter in a lab coat d. A man participating at Yale University with an experimenter dressed casually 122. Psychologists tend to refer to a culture that values the virtues of interdependence and social harmony as a. conformist. b. collectivist. c. communist. d. cooperative.

123. Which of the following is not one of the emotions a person is likely to feel after being ostracized? a. Numbness b. Anger c. Sadness d. Acceptance 124. Which of the following situations would not be predicted by social impact theory? a. A person is more likely to obey a nearby authority than one who is far away. b. Each person in a group of ten contributes less money to a tip for their waitperson than each person in a group of three. c. A teacher can exert more control over a large class than a small class. d. Patients are more likely to follow advice given by doctors than advice given by nurses.

125. The tendency to alter perceptions, opinions, and behavior in ways that are consistent with group norms is called a. psychological reactance. b. compliance. c. obedience. d. conformity.

126. A person high in reciprocation wariness would most likely endorse which of the following statements? a. If someone does you a favor, it is good to repay that favor. b. Asking for someone’s help gives that person power over your life. c. Never lend money to a friend. d. Generosity is always appropriate.

127. The nature of Milgram’s obedience research paradigm exploited which of the following compliance-induction strategies? a. Lowballing b. Foot-in-the-door technique c. Door-in-the-face technique d. That’s-not-all technique Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_11e 128. All of the following reduced the level of obedience in the Milgram experiment except a. lowering the prestige of the institution where the experiment was conducted. b. having the experimenter in a different location. c. informing the participants that the experimenter assumed responsibility for the learner’s welfare. d. having the learner be in the same room as the participant.

129. Hiroko is usually very agreeable and goes along with his friends’ plans. Tonight, however, he tells his friends that even though they all want to go out for Mexican food, he has a strong preference for Italian food. Even though he is the only person who initially votes for Italian, Hiroko’s friends eventually come to agree with him because he usually does go along with the group. This best epitomizes which of the following phenomena associated with minority influence? a. Consensus attribution b. Idiosyncrasy credits c. Door-in-the-face technique d. Graduated and reciprocated initiative in tension reduction (GRIT) 130. Interpersonal credits a person earns by following group norms are called a. idiosyncrasy b. discretionary c. group

credits.

d. normative 131. The fact that the presence of an ally, regardless of her competence, reduces conformity indicates that a. informational social influence typically wins out over normative social influence in the long run. b. it is exceedingly difficult to hold out against the pressure to conform without at least one supporter in the group. c. conformity does not occur for high-stakes decisions with important repercussions. d. men conform less in private than they do in public.

132. Which of the following explanations for why a consistent behavioral style increases minority influence is least plausible? a. A consistent minority draws more attention to its position. b. A consistent minority puts increased pressure on the majority to compromise. c. The position advocated by a consistent minority is more likely to be perceived as valid. d. A consistent minority is more likely to exert normative social influence on the group.

133. A person from a collectivist culture is to accept a free sample of food in a supermarket. a. more likely than a person from an individualist culture b. less likely than a person from an individualist culture c. equally likely as a person from an individualist culture d. more likely than a person from a Western, but not Eastern, culture

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Chap_07_11e 134. Specific variables concerning the victim in Milgram’s research on destructive obedience affected participants’ levels of obedience. Identify one such variable, and describe the nature of its effect.

135. Explain the that’s-not-all technique, framed with the notion of reciprocal concessions, with an example.

136. Why has the Milgram obedience experiment been subjected to doubt with regard to the ethics of appropriate research in psychology? What other replications of Milgram emerged in the twenty-first century, and compare their conformity with Milgram’s.

137. Compare and contrast normative influence and informational social influence. Which of these types of social influence played a bigger role in Sherif’s study (in which participants estimated how far a dot of light appeared to move)? Which played a bigger role in Asch’s study (in which participants made judgments involving the lengths of lines)? Explain your answers.

138. A council meeting has produced heated debate about an issue. Most of the members of the council hold one opinion, but a few hold another. During a break in the meeting, the members of the council who have the minority opinion call you for advice as to the best way to influence the majority of the council. Based on social psychological research, particularly concerning the dual-process approach, what should you advise them to do?

139. Describe the factors involved in social impact theory.

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Chap_07_11e 140. Compare and contrast the door-in-the-face technique with the lowball technique.

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Chap_07_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. a

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Chap_07_11e 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_11e 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_11e 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. b 97. d 98. a 99. b 100. d 101. a 102. b 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. d 107. a 108. c 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_11e 111. a 112. a 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. b 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. c 122. b 123. d 124. c 125. d 126. b 127. b 128. c 129. b 130. a 131. b 132. d 133. b

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Chap_07_11e 134. One variable in question was the proximity of the victim in relation to participants. The less physically separated they were, the less willing participants were to obey the experimenter and administer the maximum shock voltage. When the victim was in the same room as the participants, 40% of the participants fully obeyed, compared to 65% in the baseline condition where the victim was in an adjacent room. When participants were required to physically grasp the victim’s hand and force it onto a metal shock plate, full obedience dropped to 30%. Physical separation from the victim allowed participants to distance themselves emotionally from the consequences of their actions, enabling them to obey the experimenter’s orders. But the closer the victim was to the participants, the more difficult it was for them to achieve this emotional distance, and, therefore, the negative consequences of their actions were impossible to ignore. Social impact theory offers a related explanation, one that accounts for the effects of proximity in terms of the immediacy of the sources of influence. Just as the experimenter is a source of influence on the participants, so, too, is the victim a source of influence, albeit in an opposite manner. That is, the experimenter influences the participants to obey, and the victim, by protesting and crying out in pain, influences the participants to defy the experimenter’s orders. The more distant the victim is from the participant, the less immediate is this source of influence, and, therefore, the less social impact it exerts.

135. The that’s-not-all technique is a two-step compliance technique in which the influencer begins with an inflated request, then decreases its apparent size by offering a discount or bonus. If the notion of reciprocal concessions is correct, then a person shouldn’t actually have to refuse the initial offer in order for the shift to a smaller request to work.

Indeed, another familiar sales strategy manages to use concession without first eliciting refusal. In this strategy, a product is offered at a particular price, but then, before the buyer has a chance to respond, the seller adds, “And that’s not all!” At that point, either the original price is reduced or a bonus is offered to sweeten the pot. The seller, of course, intends all along to make the so-called concession. To test this hypothesis, Burger set up a booth at a campus fair and sold cupcakes. Some customers who approached the table were told that the cupcakes cost 75 cents each. Others were told that they cost a dollar, but then, before they could respond, the price was reduced to 75 cents.

136. For many years, the ethics of this research has been the focus of much debate. Those who say it was not ethical point to the potential psychological harm to which Milgram’s participants were exposed. In contrast, those who believe that these experiments met appropriate ethical standards emphasize the profound contribution it has made to our understanding of human nature and an important social problem. They conclude that on balance, the danger that destructive obedience poses for all humankind justified Milgram’s unorthodox methods. Other replications of Milgram emerged in the twenty-first century are Burger’s base condition and defiant confederate. Relative to 83% of Milgram’s 150-volt obedience, only 70% of Burger’s men exhibited 150-volt obedience and even 63% of participants who saw a defiant confederate refuse to continue.

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Chap_07_11e 137. Normative social influence leads people to conform out of fear of the negative consequences of appearing deviant.

Indeed, to avoid standing out from the rest of the group and risking embarrassment, individuals will often conform to the majority even if they think the majority is wrong. Alternatively, informational social influence leads people to conform when they believe others are correct in their judgments. In this case, they conform to the majority because they assume that the relatively large number of people holding a particular opinion or behaving in a particular way suggests that these people are correct. The primary influence found in Sherif’s study was informational because the situation was rather ambiguous for the participants. They could not be sure how far the dot of light really moved, so they looked to the other participants to provide information about the correct answers. Even when participants in Sherif’s study were later asked to make the same judgments alone (where there would be little pressure against deviating from a group norm), they continued to make judgments consistent with the group norm; this suggests that the participants conformed to the group norm because of the information provided earlier. In Asch’s study, however, normative influence played the bigger role. Here, the situation was not ambiguous; the correct answers were obvious to the participants. Not needing the other people in the group to provide them with answers that they already knew, the participants were not particularly vulnerable to informational influence. Rather, Asch’s participants were concerned about deviating from the opinions expressed by a unanimous majority. Indeed, when these participants were asked to write down their answers privately, their levels of conformity dropped sharply.

138. According to the dual-process approach, minorities and majorities exert influence in different ways. You should advise the council members to take advantage of factors that enhance minority influence rather than trying to manipulate factors that enhance majority influence. One such factor is style of behavior. The research of Moscovici and others has suggested that consistency is very important for a group minority. That is, the people in the minority should be forceful, persistent, and unwavering in support of their view, while appearing to be open-minded and flexible.

Hollander recommends a different approach, however. Hollander argues that those in the minority should first conform to the majority opinions in order to establish themselves as competent insiders, and only then dissent from the majority. Thus, you should advise the council members that they initially show their support for the majority’s opinion and then suggest their own opinion, and further, that they present their arguments for this latter position in a forceful, persistent, and unwavering style. In addition, the council members should also call for an anonymous, private vote on the issue, as minorities exert stronger influence on private measures of conformity than on public measures.

139. Social impact theory maintains that social influence depends on the strength, immediacy, and number of source persons relative to target persons. Strength refers to the status, ability, or relationships of a source of influence compared to his/her target. Immediacy of a source refers to the source’s proximity in time and space to the target.

The number of sources refers to how many sources there are. The stronger the source (i.e., higher status or closer relationship), the more immediate the source (closer geographically), and the greater number of sources, the more influence the target will feel and the more likely that target is to yield to that influence. If the source’s attempts at influence are divided among targets, that will dilute the impact of the source. This theory has been criticized for failing to explain why these factors affect social influence, but has the benefit of predicting when social influence will occur.

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Chap_07_11e 140. Lowballing is a two-step compliance technique in which the influencer secures agreement with a request but then increases the size of that request by revealing hidden costs. Disturbing as it may be, lowballing is an interesting technique. Surely, once the lowball offer has been thrown, many recipients suspect that they were misled. Yet they go along. Why? The reason appears to hinge on the psychology of commitment (Keesler, 1971). Once people make a particular decision, they justify it to themselves by thinking of all its positive aspects. As they get increasingly committed to a course of action, they grow more resistant to changing their mind, even if the initial reasons for the action have been changed or withdrawn entirely. In the car dealership scenario, you might very well have decided to purchase the car because of the price. But then you would have thought about its sleek appearance, the scent of the leather interior, the iPod dock, and the brand-new satellite radio. By the time you learned that the price would be more than you’d bargained for, it would be too late—you would already have been hooked. The door-in-the-face technique is a two-step compliance technique in which an influencer prefaces the real request with one that is so large that it is rejected. Why is the door-in-the-face technique such an effective trap? One possibility involves the principle of perceptual contrast: To the person exposed to a very large initial request, the second request “seems smaller.” Two dollars’ worth of candy bars is not bad compared with ten dollars for circus tickets. Likewise, taking a group of kids to the zoo seems trivial compared with two years of volunteer work. As intuitively sensible as this explanation seems, Coalmine and others (1975) concluded that perceptual contrast is only partly responsible for the effect. When participants only heard the large request without actually having to reject it, their rate of compliance with the second request (25%) was only slightly larger than the 17% rate of compliance exhibited by those who heard only the small request. A more compelling explanation for the effect involves the notion of reciprocal concessions. A close cousin of the reciprocity norm, this refers to the pressure to respond to changes in a bargaining position. When an individual backs down from a large request to a smaller one, we view that move as a concession that we should match by our own compliance. Thus, the door-in-the-face technique does not work if the second request is made by a different person (Coalmine et al., 1975). Nor does it work if the first request is so extreme that it comes across as an insincere “first offer” (Schwarzwald et al., 1979). On an emotional level, refusing to help on one request may also trigger feelings of guilt, which we can reduce by complying with the second, smaller request (O’Keefe & Figgie, 1997; Miller, 2002).

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Chap_08_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Groupthink is more likely to occur a. when groups have systematic decision-making procedures. b. if the group lacks a strong directive leader. c. in low-stress situations. d. in highly cohesive groups.

2. Compared to North American and European cultures, Asian cultures teach their children a. freedom. b. collectivism. c. to respect each other’s privacy. d. to follow their instincts.

3. Sam, Diane, and Frasier are team members competing in a general knowledge test. Any team member can answer the moderator’s questions. The team’s task can be demonstrated as a. additive. b. conjunctive. c. disjunctive. d. collective.

4. Collaborative computing systems that facilitate a number of group decision makers in finding solutions to unstructured problems are called a. group support systems. b. social dilemmas. c. SIDE supports. d. transactive memory systems.

5. What are the three steps that determine the influence of the presence of others on performance? a. Arousal, dominant response, and task difficulty b. Relaxation, elimination of apprehension, and task difficulty c. Construal, arousal, and attribution d. Social comparison, attribution, and justification 6. John, George, Paul, and Richard are air traffic controllers. They encounter a stressful, anxious situation in which two planes might soon collide. Which of the following conditions would most encourage this group to display groupthink when pondering their next step? a. A majority decision is more acceptable than a unanimous decision. b. There are systematic procedures in place to handle such situations. c. None of them is considered to be a supervisor of any of the others. d. They are a highly cohesive group.

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Chap_08_11e 7.

is the form of social influence that does not necessarily involve an active group. a. Group polarization b. Social loafing c. Groupthink d. Social facilitation

8. Karen is in a work group that has brought high-speed Internet to low-income neighborhoods. Every single coworker she has feels the task is exciting, inspirational, and world-changing. Karen’s work group has high cohesion. a. task b. interpersonal c. expressive d. instrumental 9. Cohesion does seem to exert a causal effect on group performance. Whether this effect occurs depends upon all except which of the following? a. Group size b. Whether it is task or interpersonal cohesion c. The nature of the group task d. The extent to which group members are paid the same salary 10. Brainstorming is an example of a(n) product. a. additive b. conjunctive c. disjunctive d. unitary

task because the contribution of all members is important for a final

11. A group of students is discussing whether same-sex marriage should be legal. The students begin the discussion with opinions that are somewhat in favor of same-sex marriage being legal. If group polarization occurs, a. students will be more strongly supportive of same-sex marriage after the discussion. b. students will be more strongly opposed to same-sex marriage after the discussion. c. students’ attitudes will not change as a result of the discussion. d. a great deal of disagreement and conflict will occur during the discussion.

12. Aggarwal and O’Brien (2008) studied hundreds of college students and identified several keys to reducing social loafing. Following statements are examples of the strategies they suggest except a. breaking down complex projects into smaller components. b. keeping cohesive groups. c. selecting group members low in achievement motivation. d. using peer evaluations.

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Chap_08_11e 13. Hendricks owns a small aerospace company and wants to recognize the signs of groupthink during the group meetings. She should be concerned that groupthink may be occurring if the group exhibits a. coalition formation. b. social loafing. c. divergent thinking. d. close-mindedness.

14. Which of the following processes elucidates both deindividuation and social loafing? a. Group polarization b. Self-censorship c. Diffusion of responsibility d. Minority influence 15. Ingham and colleagues (1974) asked participants to pull on a rope and found that participants pulled almost 20% harder when they thought they were pulling alone than when they thought they were part of a group. This finding best illustrates a. social loafing. b. a social dilemma. c. groupthink. d. social facilitation.

16.

is a conflict resolution method which attempts to find “win-win” scenario for disputing parties. a. Social dilemma b. Superordinate identity c. Integrative agreement d. Prisoner’s dilemma

17. A person from an individualist culture would likely prefer to a. make concessions toward the end of the negotiation. b. make concessions toward the beginning of the negotiation. c. make concessions in the middle of the negotiation. d. never make concessions at all.

18. Jai is allowed to speak to his supervisor, but not to report anything to his supervisor’s supervisor. This describes the in Jai’s work group. a. communication network b. escalation boundary c. social dilemma d. social facilitation

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Chap_08_11e 19. During social dilemmas, groups tend to be more a. cooperative b. averse to risk

than individuals in mixed-motive situations.

c. gullible d. competitive 20.

is a system through which groups collectively encode, store, and retrieve information. a. Semantic memory b. Transactive memory c. Process loss d. Facilitative memory

21. Which of the following would most likely be described as a collective? a. Students in a small, discussion-focused seminar b. Members of a sports team c. Passengers on a plane d. A boy scout troop 22. Esteban’s work group has been assigned a new project by management. Before deciding how much effort to exert on this new assignment, Esteban considers how important the group goals are to him and whether his input will help the group reach its goals. Esteban’s thinking is most consistent with a. distraction-conflict theory. b. the collective effort model. c. the social identity model of deindividuation. d. persuasive arguments theory.

23. According to Nibbler and Harris (2003), which group is most likely to experience better performance when group members feel free to disagree with one another? a. A group of friends in China b. A group of friends in the United States c. A group of strangers in China d. A group of strangers in the United States 24. What does the term “group” mean? a. A set of individuals who interact over time and have shared fate, goals, or identity b. A set of rigid boundaries and norms c. People engaged in a common activity with or without direct interaction d. A social category

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Chap_08_11e 25.

is the tendency whereby groups make the extremist decisions than the individuals’ opinions within the group. a. Group polarization b. Group cohesion c. Group deindividuation d. Groupthink

26. Electronic brainstorming may be more effective in generating ideas than face-to-face group brainstorming because it a. enhances production blocking. b. inhibits free riding. c. promotes performance matching. d. increases personal accountability.

27. The facilitation of the dominant response from increased arousal will tend to a. make familiar tasks easier but unfamiliar tasks more challenging. b. make both easy and difficult tasks easier. c. have no effect on easy tasks, but will make difficult tasks more challenging. d. have no effect on challenging tasks, but will make easy tasks easier.

28. Daniel is a negotiator working for a company based in the United States. He is working in the Middle East to try to work out an arrangement between his company and one from that part of the world. Which cultural assumption most likely applies to Daniel, whose cultural orientation is characteristic of the United States? a. He will treat the negotiation as a business, and not a social activity. b. He will assume that some of the most important communication is indirect or nonverbal. c. His first step will be to establish a warm and trusting relationship with the negotiator(s) from the other company. d. He will avoid setting deadlines in the negotiation to avoid humiliating the other negotiator(s).

29.

is an increase in group performance such that the group outperforms the individuals who comprise the group. a. Process loss b. Process gain c. Escalation d. Polarization

30. Biased sampling in groups is the process whereby a. people tend to choose those they know well to be in a group. b. information that is known by many group members tends to enter into the discussion more than information known only by a few. c. people tend to discuss negative information more than positive information in their discussion about an important decision. d. sharing information in a group can be impeded by the gender composition of the group.

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Chap_08_11e 31. Groups of people who work interdependently with shared purpose across time, space, and organization boundaries are called a. virtual teams. b. brainstorming teams. c. negotiating teams. d. work crews.

32. Tommy needs to get his subordinates to all invest considerable time and energy into the development of a new design for the company’s fall clothing line. If he wants to reduce the likelihood of social loafing, he should a. bring together a large group of diverse individuals. b. keep the task big and inspirational rather than breaking it into parts. c. make sure that people contribute anonymously to reduce evaluation apprehension. d. allow the group members to evaluate each other’s contributions.

33. Sheila and Peter are invited to a masquerade party. At the party, people start insulting and pushing around Parker, another guest at the party. Given the research on deindividuation, which of the following statements is most likely to be false? a. If Sheila was dressed as a nun and Peter was dressed as a priest, their costumes would decrease the likelihood that they would behave aggressively toward Parker. b. If there was a loud band playing that made the floor shake, Sheila and Peter would be more likely to behave aggressively toward Parker. c. If Sheila and Peter were dressed in costumes in which they could not be recognized, Peter would likely behave more aggressively toward Parker than would Sheila. d. If Sheila and Peter believed that at the end of the party all the guests would have to reveal their true identities, they would be less likely to behave aggressively toward Parker.

34. Teddy wants everyone in her department to perform better. Jerry wants to make sure he does better than everyone else in his department. Teddy has a social value orientation, while Jerry has a social value orientation. a. cooperative; competitive b. individualist; competitive c. cooperative; individualist d. competitive; individualist 35. Research on brainstorming in groups demonstrates that a. people brainstorming together produce fewer and less effective ideas than those brainstorming individually. b. people believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are not as good as those generated by individuals. c. group brainstorming can be enhanced by production blocking. d. people feel more comfortable expressing unusual ideas in group brainstorming sessions.

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Chap_08_11e 36. Based on the social comparison explanation of group polarization, group members’ attitudes toward an issue should be most influenced by a. how different their attitudes are from those of an outgroup. b. those in the ingroup who favor a cautious approach. c. the number of people in their group with similar attitude. d. those in the ingroup who offer the most arguments relevant to the issue.

37. In her group, Melanie is always the one who breaks the tension with a funny story and provides a shoulder to cry on when things go wrong. She can be described as playing a(n) role. a. expressive b. facilitator c. instrumental d. normative role 38. Social pressure that may lead a person to perform immoral acts is best demonstrated by studies of a. psychological reactance. b. self-concept. c. informational influence. d. obedience to authority.

39. To increase the performance of the team, the coach should a. build the team’s confidence by setting goals that are not challenging and easy to attain. b. urge each team member to try to do his or her best. c. set specific, challenging, and reachable goals for the team. d. avoid giving the team any particular goals to minimize the pressure on the team.

40. Five students—Jaen, Chris, Juan, Jimmy, and Ray—move into a house together and discover they share the odd habit of drinking milk with ice every night before bed. They own several ice trays and make a pact to always refill the trays when they are emptied for the continual supply of ice. But they often do not have the time or energy to refill the trays, and after a few weeks, it becomes quite common for them to meet in the kitchen and discover that they have no ice. This would best be characterized as what type of dilemma? a. Prisoner’s dilemma b. Normative dilemma c. Tit-for-tat dilemma d. Resource dilemma 41. Better performance by an individual on difficult tasks in the presence of others can be encouraged the most when the individual’s arousal level is and evaluation pressure on the individual is . a. high; high b. low; low c. high; low d. low; high

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Chap_08_11e 42. After a soccer game in which the home team loses, a crowd of fans begins to tear up the field. This behavior shows a. deindividuation. b. groupthink. c. social loafing. d. group polarization.

43. According to the , whether deindividuation affects people for better or for worse depends on a group’s characteristics and norms as well as the group’s power to act according to those norms. a. process loss model b. social identity model of deindividuation effects c. emotional reciprocation model d. conflict-distraction model of deindividuation 44. Creating training programs and reward systems for groups can be a. a valuable investment. b. worth a try, but their effectiveness is not yet clearly established. c. a total waste of time. d. helpful for virtual teams, but not face-to-face teams.

45. In which of the following scenarios would social loafing least likely occur? a. In a boy’s club trying to earn money by holding a cooking session b. In a relay race where each participant’s performance is timed c. In a community garden where each resident is expected to contribute during free time d. In a work crew building a new house 46. Conformity occurs when a. people influence each other. b. people mimic each other. c. people change their behavior to fit that of other people in their group. d. people adhere to conventions of a society, such as wearing clothes.

47. The fact that many assaults are committed by people in disguise—and that these disguised assaults are often the most vicious ones—illustrates the concept of a. social loafing. b. entrapment. c. deindividuation. d. distraction-conflict.

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Chap_08_11e 48. What goal should your group’s leader focus on to overcome biased information sampling while taking any decision? a. Critical discussion and delay of consensus b. Seeking common ground and high group morale c. Quick agreement to settle the matter d. Finding integrative solutions 49. Research by Zajonc’s et al. (1969) in which cockroaches run in simple or complex mazes alone, in pairs, or with an audience provides support for which of the following explanations of social facilitation? a. The evaluation apprehension theory b. The distraction-conflict theory c. The persuasive arguments theory d. The mere presence theory 50. Henderson suspects that the other team members may slack off, so he works late to put in extra time on their proposal. Henderson is engaging in a. social compensation. b. social facilitation. c. social loafing. d. deindividuation.

51. Zajonc’s social facilitation a. occurs because of concerns about being evaluated by others. b. results from the mere physical presence of others. c. occurs in humans, but not in less intelligent animals. d. can be explained by considering attentional processes.

52. Neve hates to wear tuxedos. Still he wears one to his brother’s wedding to avoid the disapproval of his wife.

This is a clear example of a. informational social influence. b. identification. c. psychological reactance. d. normative social influence.

53. Deborah has just joined a sorority at her school. She is unsure what she should wear when she goes to eat at the sorority’s dining hall. Her concern reflects Deborah’s uncertainty of the a. informal role. b. formal role. c. informal norm. d. formal norm.

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Chap_08_11e 54.

is the process by which the presence of others causes people to lose their identity. a. Social facilitation b. The bystander effect c. Social loafing d. Deindividuation

55. According to the model of , when the presence of others is physiologically arousing, a person’s performance tends to on a task that is difficult. a. social loafing; decline b. social loafing; improve c. social facilitation; decline d. social facilitation; improve 56. Roles can be defined as a. the rules of conduct for group members. b. dissimilar to norms in that only roles can be formal or informal. c. similar to norms in that both must be present for group cohesiveness. d. beneficial to a group if they are clear, but can create stress if they are unclear.

57. Collective effort model says, social loafing is least likely to occur when people a. see the group outcome as personally important. b. believe the group outcome is important to other group members. c. believe that their efforts will lead to a personally important outcome. d. are part of a group with a high level of cohesiveness.

58. Which of the following is true of groups? a. Groups can be very different from the sum of their parts. b. Groups make better decisions than individuals. c. People work harder in groups than they do alone. d. Discussion moderates group opinions.

59. According to Pelto (1968), which of the following cultures has strong norms and little tolerance for behaviors that deviate from the norm? a. Loose b. Individualistic c. Restrictive d. Tight 60. One effective way for a leader to reduce the possibility of groupthink is to a. express opinions only after other group members have voiced their opinions. b. emphasize that the group decision must be a unanimous one. c. take a more directive role in the group discussion. d. appoint a few people in the group to act as “mind guards.”

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Chap_08_11e 61. All of the following demonstrate the reduction in the effectiveness of group brainstorming except a. production blocking. b. social compensation. c. evaluation apprehension. d. performance matching.

62. According to the social identity theory, what determines conformity? a. Identification with the outgroup. b. Informational influence. c. Whether a person internalizes group participations as part of their self-concept. d. Normative influence.

63.

decision making is an organized, exacting, data-driven process. a. Systematic b. Programmed c. Intuitive d. Non programmed

64. People with a a. cooperative b. conjunctive c. individualist

social value orientation are less competitive in social dilemmas.

d. aggressive 65. A role in a group that is focused on providing emotional support and maintaining group morale is considered a. instrumental. b. expressive. c. formal. d. informal.

66. Osborn’s rules for brainstorming suggests that it a. is typically an effective practice, even though people often dislike doing it. b. is typically an ineffective practice, even though people often enjoy doing it. c. works better among very large groups than among smaller groups. d. works better for disjunctive tasks than for conjunctive tasks.

67. According to Wageman (2009), the key condition for team effectiveness can be observed when a. teams should be as large as logistically possible to facilitate a wide range of ideas and input. b. team members should be independent of each other and, where possible, work in isolation. c. the team should have an ambiguous overall goal so that they work hard to figure out a direction. d. a reward system should provide for excellent team performance.

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Chap_08_11e 68. Deindividuation can be best understood when a. accountability for behavior is high. b. accountability for behavior is low. c. the group is engaged in a conjunctive task. d. the group is engaged in a disjunctive task.

69. The idea that a species’ brain size is related to the social complexity of their environment is called the a. social identity hypothesis. b. social brain hypothesis. c. collective effort model. d. sensitivity norm.

70. Ringelmann’s (1913) research demonstrates that a. people exert less effort in simple group tasks than they would if working alone. b. the presence of other people improves performance on simple group tasks. c. groups tend to make more extreme decisions than individuals. d. individual performance is impaired by the distraction of an audience.

71.

is the tendency for the presence of other people to increase performance on easy tasks and impair performance on difficult tasks. a. Social loafing b. Social facilitation c. Group polarization d. Groupthink

72. Faros and his coworkers are trying to develop a creative direct mail campaign that will increase sales of their new snowboard. Which of the following strategies is least likely to yield high-quality ideas? a. Hold a brainstorming session with a facilitator trained in group brainstorming. b. Form an interactive group employing electronic brainstorming. c. Hold a brainstorming session using Osborn’s ground rules for brainstorming. d. Create “nominal groups” and work independently.

73. Kelly always remembers the information about family affairs, finances, and so forth. Her spouse, Kirk, always remembers the information about world history, politics, and so forth. Together, they are able to remember much more than they would alone. They have developed a system. a. transactive memory b. group support c. electronic brainstorming d. social facilitation

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Chap_08_11e 74. When a task can be divided so various subgroups can work on different aspects of it, and the task has a solution in which the correct answer is immediately evident when presented to the group, the group is likely to experience a. process loss. b. synergy. c. escalation. d. group support.

75. Research concerning the relationship between group cohesiveness and performance suggests that a. the two are only related when there is a strong leader present. b. groups that perform as a whole develop stronger cohesiveness. c. highly cohesive groups perform less well than less cohesive groups. d. the relationship is stronger in groups composed of men than groups of women.

76. How do computerized group support systems help minimize the potential for groupthink? a. By providing more power to the leader of the group b. By allowing group members to raise concerns anonymously c. By focusing the attention of group members on their relationships with one another d. By increasing the cohesiveness of the group 77. The phenomenon attached to polarized group decisions is called a. risky shift. b. cohesiveness. c. conformity. d. groupthink.

78. The following statements about brainstorming are true except: a. No criticism is allowed in brainstorming. b. All participants in brainstorming should be given a chance to contribute to the process. c. Brainstorming is an open game without rules. d. Brainstorming is often used for creative problem solving.

79. According to an important part of people’s self-worth is derived from group membership. a. social identity theory b. the social brain hypothesis c. the escalation effect d. group support systems

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Chap_08_11e 80. Cecile is very aware that, being a French woman, she brings certain assumptions to the table—she tends to be more liberal both politically and socially. She is also aware that her coworker, who was raised as a Southern Baptist in Indiana, brings a different set of assumptions—the coworker tends to be more conservative than her.

Cecile often checks the accuracy of her assumptions so that her assumptions don’t negatively influence her coworker. Cecile is displaying a. high cultural metacognition. b. an escalation effect. c. a group support system. d. a personal resource dilemma.

81. Individuals from collectivist cultures are more likely to engage in social loafing a. when working collectively. b. when tasks are difficult. c. in groups with a majority of female members. d. when task orientation is high.

82. Before the meeting, each of several city council members was tentatively considering an air pollution ordinance.

After the meeting, they expressed strong support of the ordinance. This outcome is an example of a. group polarization. b. social loafing. c. a social dilemma. d. social facilitation.

83. A group that came into existence as part of the organization’s structure is called a. an informal group. b. a friendly group. c. a command group. d. a composite group of people.

84. Josephine coordinates a food pantry on her local college campus. Students are welcome to come take what they need and they are also encouraged to donate what they can. Everyone does their part and the pantry helps dozens of students every week. This is an example of a dilemma. a. public goods b. resource c. prisoner’s d. informational 85. What does guanxi mean in Chinese culture? a. Relationship b. Dominance c. Cooperation d. Serenity

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Chap_08_11e 86. Groups differ from collectives in that a. groups, but not collectives, engage in common activities. b. collectives, but not groups, engage in common activities. c. groups have more direct interaction with one another than collectives. d. collectives have more direct interaction with one another than groups.

87. At crowded parties, Amy often behaves in ways that she later regrets. These parties seem to create in Amy a state of a. deindividuation. b. cohesiveness. c. groupthink. d. entrapment.

88. In Zajonc’s model of social facilitation, “Facilitation” refers to the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer’s a. ability to focus on the task at hand. b. task performance. c. evaluation apprehension. d. dominant response.

89.

helps diverse team members feel similar and at the same time different, which would enhance the feeling of belongingness and distinctiveness simultaneously. a. Group polarization b. An integrative agreement c. A superordinate identity d. Social facilitation

90. The power of group illustrates the fact that members of an organization who blow the whistle on problematic practices are often treated harshly by the rest of the group. a. roles b. norms c. instrumentation d. development 91. The theory that being with others will produce social facilitation effects only when those others take one’s attention away from the task at hand is known as the a. mere presence theory. b. evaluation apprehension theory. c. distraction-conflict theory. d. transactive memory.

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Chap_08_11e 92. In a study, researchers asked groups of relatively prejudiced and unprejudiced high school students to respond to issues concerning racial attitudes, both before and after discussion. Following the group discussions, you would expect that a. both groups would become more prejudiced. b. both groups would become less prejudiced. c. those who were relatively unprejudiced would become less prejudiced and those who were relatively prejudiced would become more prejudiced. d. those who were relatively unprejudiced would become more prejudiced and those who were relatively prejudiced would become less prejudiced.

93. Research on diversity suggests that a. compared to more homogenous groups, diverse groups perform better. b. the benefits of diversity for group performance tend to be much greater in collectivist versus individualistic cultures. c. diversity is often associated with positive group dynamics. d. diversity often has negative effects when it comes to outcomes like market share and profits.

94. The characteristics of groups leading to groupthink include all of the following except group a. cohesiveness. b. structure. c. size. d. stress.

95.

refers to an inadequate execution of actions that will lead to optimum performance. a. Process loss b. Process gain c. The risky shift d. Deindividuation

96.

leads to a change in belief or behavior as a result of group pressure. a. Cohesiveness b. Compliance c. Conformity d. Obedience

97.

theory predicts that when we work in front of the others, person’s concern over what others will think can enhance or impair the overall performance. a. Mere presence b. Evaluation apprehension c. Distraction-conflict d. Process loss

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Chap_08_11e 98. To an extent experiments demonstrates that people in groups loaf less when a. they have a strong external control. b. the task is challenging and interesting. c. they are in a bizarre setting. d. the task is part of the routine.

99. Your psychology professor calls your name in the class and asks you to answer the questions in front of everyone. You find the questions to be easy. According to the model of social , you should perform than you would if you had worked on the questions alone. a. loafing; better b. loafing; worse c. facilitation; better d. facilitation; worse 100. How is normative influence different from informational influence? a. There are no such differences between these influences. b. The number of people in the group. c. Normative results in compliance while informational results in change in belief. d. Normative has minority influence while informative has majority influence.

101. Jean-Paul works for National Public Radio. He has been assigned to run the fund drive to keep NPR on air in various communities. Suppose that keeping NPR on air in a given community is contingent upon the percentage of people living in the community who donate money. It is likely that a. Jean-Paul will receive maximum donations from people with a collectivist orientation than from those with an individualist orientation. b. Jean-Paul will be likely to get a greater percentage of donations from people living in the city than from people living in smaller close-knit communities. c. whether the people Jean-Paul speaks with are in a good mood or a bad mood will have no influence on their willingness to donate. d. if Jean-Paul is truthful and tells people that many others have already donated, people will be less likely to donate their own money.

102. What were the primary findings of the research conducted by Lee and others (2013)? a. Only those from individualist cultures could be taught to enhance their awareness of others’ cultural values and viewpoints. b. Negotiation outcomes were much better when people received training in cross-cultural perspectivetaking. c. Only those from collectivist cultures could be taught to enhance their awareness of others’ cultural values and viewpoints. d. Negotiation outcomes were much poorer when people received training in cross-cultural perspectivetaking.

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Chap_08_11e 103. Carry would like to participate in the interschool drama competition. She has been taking dance lessons for years and is a spectacular dancer, but does not have any experience as a singer. The teacher decides to give her a part where she has to dance and sing. According to the theory of social facilitation, how will the presence of an audience affect Carry’s performance in the drama? a. Carry’s singing will improve, but her dancing will be flawed. b. Carry’s both singing and dancing will be enhanced. c. Carry’s singing and dancing will be flawed. d. Carry’s dancing will improve, but her singing will be flawed.

104. Groups tend to outperform individuals on a. additive tasks, but not conjunctive tasks. b. disjunctive tasks, but not conjunctive tasks. c. conjunctive tasks, but not additive tasks. d. additive, conjunctive, and disjunctive tasks.

105. Johnson and Downing (1979) found that participants dressed as a nurse delivered lower levels of shock anonymously than when they were identifiable. This finding exhibits that deindividuation causes people to a. feel that the normative standards of the group do not apply to them. b. engage in destructive behavior when they are anonymous. c. rely more heavily on personal standards of behavior when they are anonymous. d. act in ways that are consistent with the norms of the most salient group.

106. Vladimir, a basketball novice, makes about 60% of his free throws when practicing alone. However, when playing with his friends, he makes about 80% of his free throws. This increase is most likely the result of a. social facilitation. b. deindividuation. c. group polarization. d. social security.

107. What would be an accurate prediction for the social brain hypothesis? a. The part of the brain that is stimulated by pleasure-enhancing drugs is equally stimulated by time spent with other people. b. Human beings were not capable of complex social behavior prior to the evolutionary development of certain brain structures. c. Antagonistic neurotransmitter release is heightened when we are around other people and suppressed when we are alone. d. A species of gorillas where the members form a social community should have bigger brains than other gorillas whose members live independently of each other.

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Chap_08_11e 108. It seems that every Halloween night in Gotham is marred by violence and vandalism. In order to reduce the likelihood of such behavior, the leaders of Gotham should a. increase self-awareness by making people wear a name tag. b. increase anonymity by making sure that everyone who goes out wears a mask. c. make sure that people only venture outside in groups. d. create a highly stimulating environment by playing loud Halloween music.

109. Back in 1898 Triplett had children wind fishing reels as quickly as they could. He found that a. the children were fastest when observed by the experimenter. b. winding times were faster without an audience than with an audience. c. the children were faster when working in a pair rather than alone. d. the children were faster working alone than with a partner.

110. Tim cyber bullies his neighbors, and his behavior is often disgraceful. Which of the following group dynamics does his behavior demonstrate? a. Deindividuation b. Group polarization c. Social facilitation d. Bystander effect 111. Biased sampling is least likely to reduce group effectiveness when group members have information is known by . a. high; only one group member b. high; more than one group member c. low; only one group member d. low; more than one group member

trust, and unique

112. Consider the prisoner’s dilemma. You will face the worst case scenario if you decide to be partner decides to be . a. selfish; selfish b. selfish; cooperative c. cooperative; selfish d. cooperative; cooperative

and your

113. Latasha joined a campus group called “Young Republicans.” Which of these outcomes is most consistent with the persuasive arguments explanation for group polarization? a. In the attempt to fit in, Latasha adjusts her attitudes to be even more conservative. b. Latasha self-categorizes as a Republican, and her political beliefs become more extreme as a result. c. After receiving ideas she has not thought of before, Latasha will have more conservative beliefs. d. In an attempt to convince others that she is a “good” Republican, Latasha persuades herself to be more conservative.

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Chap_08_11e 114. Groupthink emerges when a. the need for agreement takes priority over the desire to obtain correct information. b. group members feel that they will be unable to compensate for social loafing. c. individual benefits are in conflict with the needs of the group. d. group norms overwhelm individual identities.

115. The extent to which a person remains aware of his or her own cultural assumptions, as well as the assumptions that others hold, is called cultural . a. escalation b. metacognition c. process gain d. process loss 116. According to Woolley and colleagues (2008) when it comes to expertise and planning, a. groups with experts can typically get away with not planning their strategy ahead of time, with little adverse effect on performance. b. groups that create a clear plan for how to address a problem don’t enjoy any extra benefits from having experts as members. c. expertise is much more important than planning when it comes to group performance. d. only groups with experts and well-planned actions do well on a complex task.

117. A decrease in overall job performance within a team is least likely to occur in which scenario? a. Daphne isn’t quite sure what her role in the group is. b. Fred must play both an instrumental and an expressive role in the group. c. Velma’s role in the group seems to be constantly changing. d. Shaggy seems to have a defined instrumental role in the group.

118. Harriett goes trick-or-treating on Halloween. She arrives at her neighbor’s door just as the phone is ringing. Her neighbor puts the candy on the table and says, “I need to get the phone, so help yourself to whatever kind of candy you want, but please take only one piece.” Which of the following would most encourage Harriett to take only one piece of candy? a. If Harriet’s costume prevented the neighbor from recognizing her. b. If Harriett was dressed up as a pirate. c. If the candy was placed in front of a mirror. d. If Harriett was high in need for cognition.

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Chap_08_11e 119. Viviane lives in an ethnically diverse community. She is attending a PTA meeting concerning how to provide a complete and fair history curriculum. It is likely that a. the members of the PTA will judge their own work more positively than will members of PTAs in ethnically homogenous communities. b. the PTA will come up with more creative solutions than being in ethnically homogenous communities. c. misunderstandings will be less likely among her PTA members than among PTA members from ethnically homogenous communities. d. cliques will be less likely to form in her PTA than in PTAs from ethnically homogenous communities.

120. .Conformity is highest when the response of a person is a. nonverbal; made in response to inanimate objects b. public; made without prior commitment c. insignificant; made with prior commitment d. nonverbal; made in response to inanimate objects

and

.

121. Deindividuation can be defined as a. loss of self-awareness in groups. b. decrease in individual effort on simple group tasks. c. tendency for group decisions to be more extreme than individual decisions. d. impairment in group decision making that results from a concern with unanimity.

122. In conjunctive tasks, group performance is determined by the a. sum of the performance of each individual in the group. b. ratio of individual performance to group performance. c. performance of the group member with the poorest performance. d. performance of the group member with the strongest performance.

123. Briefly explain prisoner’s dilemma.

124. Explain how discussion of a topic with like-minded others can lead people to hold their views with greater conviction, and why this happens.

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Chap_08_11e 125. Describe three key structural features of groups.

126. Discuss at least three of the conditions for team effectiveness that were identified by Ruth Wageman and her colleagues in 2009.

127. Describe key factors that reduce the effectiveness of brainstorming in groups.

128. Define groupthink, and identify factors that contribute to the phenomenon as well as strategies for preventing it.

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Chap_08_11e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chap_08_11e 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_11e 55. c 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_11e 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. b 103. d 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. a 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_11e 111. b 112. c 113. c 114. a 115. b 116. d 117. d 118. c 119. b 120. b 121. a 122. c 123. A prisoner’s dilemma is a game used by researchers to investigate how people decide to cooperate or not. Suppose that Prisoner A and Prisoner B are convicted with a crime and detained separately, and each has the opportunity to record a confession. Both prisoners do not know what the other will do. There are a few possibilities:

· If only Prisoner A confesses, the confessor is set free, but Prisoner B serves a three-year sentence. · If neither Prisoner A nor Prisoner B confesses, both serve a year of sentence. · If both Prisoner A and Prisoner B confess, both serve two years.

Should Prisoner A keep quiet or betray Prisoner B by confessing the crime? This is the classic explanation of the prisoner’s dilemma.

124. When people discuss a topic with like-minded others, they often experience an exaggeration of the initial tendencies in their thinking. For example, individuals who enter a discussion with a slight preference for a risky course of action often leave that discussion endorsing an even riskier position. This phenomenon is called group polarization, for which at least two explanations have been proposed. (1) Persuasive arguments theory suggests that people in a group discussion with like-minded others hear novel informational arguments to support their initial views that then intensify these views. (2) Social comparison theory suggests that once people get in a group, they compare themselves with others and then adjust their own attitudes to be even more typical of the group norm so that they appear to be “good” group members.

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Chap_08_11e 125. Group structure is often described with regard to three features: roles, norms, and cohesiveness. Roles refer to the sets of expected behavior for each individual group member, and they may be formal or informal. Formal roles are explicitly stated: a person is the leader, another person is the group scribe, and so forth. Informal roles are more implicit: a particular member evolves into the group “clown” or “caretaker.” Norms refer to the group standards and expectations that apply to all members—in some ways, the norms are unifying while the roles provide differentiation within that frame. Norms also may be explicitly stated (formal) or implicit (informal). Finally, cohesion refers to how will the group “stick together.” Cohesive groups are characterized by high attraction among members and are associated with stronger adherence to group norms. Consequently, the relationship between cohesion and performance often depends on the nature of the group norms.

126. Refer to Table 8.3 for the answer to this question. Possible answers include:

-Teams should be interdependent for some common purpose and have some stability of membership.

-The team’s overall purpose should be challenging, clear, and consequential.

-Teams should be as small as possible and have clear norms that specify what behaviors are valued or are unacceptable.

-A reward system should provide positive consequences for excellent team performance.

-Technical assistance and training should be available to the team.

127.1. Production blocking. Having to wait their turn to speak, people may forget valuable points, don’t generate additional ideas until they can speak, or simply lose interest.

2. Free riding. As others contribute ideas, individuals see their own contributions as less impactful and irrelevant. They therefore pay less attention and this leads to social loafing.

3. Evaluation apprehension. People may be hesitant to suggest out-of-the-box ideas for fear of looking foolish and being criticized in front of others.

4. Performance matching. Group members work hard only when they see others working with the same potential. Once the factors above have reduced the effectiveness of brainstorming in groups, performance matching can help balance inferior performance.

128. Groupthink is the tendency to prioritize agreement among group members over the motivation to get accurate information and make appropriate decisions. In Janis’s model, there are three primary antecedents to groupthink: (1) group cohesiveness, (2) group structure (e.g., unsystematic procedures, isolation, etc.), and (3) stressful situations. It should be noted, however, that recent work indicates that high cohesiveness may not by itself encourage groupthink.

Rather, high cohesiveness in conjunction with other conditions conducive to groupthink can encourage this tendency.

Janis has offered several strategies for preventing groupthink, including consulting with outsiders, having leaders encourage open debate and refrain from taking a strong position, assigning an individual in the group the role of challenging the group’s ideas, and meeting for a second time after a decision has been reached before implementing a chosen action. Recent research suggests some additional strategies, including holding members of the group personally accountable for the decision, having a member of the group assigned the role of “reminder,” having leaders encourage information seeking and independent thinking and discourage seeking agreement, and using computerized group support systems.

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Chap_09_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. According to Reis and colleagues (2011), familiarity breeds a. attraction. b. contempt. c. dislike. d. suspicion.

2. In relationships, the mutual exchange between what we give and what we receive is called a. reciprocity. b. dissimilar avoidance. c. symmetry. d. excitation transfer.

3. According to social exchange theory, an individual’s primary motive in establishing and maintaining relationships is a. maximizing profits and minimizing costs. b. achieving an equitable balance of inputs and outputs. c. maintaining reciprocal levels of self-disclosure. d. the reproductive fitness of a potential partner.

4. Bruce and Pam have just started dating. According to social exchange theory, their relationship is likely to last longer and be more satisfying if they each feel that a. the rewards gained from the relationship are shared equally between them. b. the costs of maintaining the relationship are shared equally between them. c. the rewards gained from the relationship are equal to the costs of maintaining the relationship. d. the rewards gained from the relationship are greater than the costs of maintaining the relationship.

5. Someone who argues that attraction is simply a function of wanting to have healthy offspring probably endorses a. the belief that situational variables influence attraction. b. social exchange theory. c. the matching hypothesis of attraction. d. the approach of evolutionary psychology.

6. Shari is a 42-year-old woman who has wanted to find a husband for many years. She has had several successful dating relationships, but they never seem to “go the distance.” In addition, Shari does not have a true “best friend” to rely on in times of personal distress. Shari is likely experiencing loneliness. a. companionate b. consummate c. relational d. intimate

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Chap_09_11e 7. Lee and colleagues (2008) ran a study in which they examined people’s ratings of photos on the website HOTorNOT.com. They found that participants’ own level of attractiveness a. were positive predictors of how attractive they rated the photos. b. were negative predictors of how attractive they rated the photos. c. did not predict their ratings of the photos. d. predicted their ratings of male but not female photos.

8. Research on the affairs of our economic and social world has showed that with from childhood through adulthood. a. physical strength b. physical beauty

is a force to be reckoned

c. intelligence d. kindness 9. Drake and Angela have just gotten married and now that they are back from their honeymoon they are working together to figure out the responsibilities each will have as either “husband” or “wife.” They are in Murstein’s stage. a. stimulus b. value c. role d. norm 10. Which loneliness is felt when someone wants but lacks friendships from work, school, or family connections? a. Compassionate loneliness b. Consummate loneliness c. Intimate loneliness d. Relational loneliness 11. Though they had all been together on the transcontinental flight for three hours, the passengers didn’t start to talk to one another until the plane ran into some serious turbulence. This behavior is best explained by the a. tendency for external threat to increase affiliation. b. matching hypothesis. c. proximity effect. d. evolutionary perspective on the sociostat.

12. Which of the following terms best describes as the kind of love that exists between friends? a. Agape b. Ludus c. Storge d. Mania

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Chap_09_11e 13. According to social exchange theory, an outcome from a relationship will produce satisfaction if it falls above a person’s a. self-disclosure level. b. level of similarity to the partner. c. intimacy level. d. comparison level.

14. Which of the following is most dissatisfying in a relationship? a. Being underbenefited b. Being overbenefited c. Enjoying too many restorative benefits d. Investing in a relationship and getting a comparable reward 15. Cross-cultural research suggests that passionate love a. is uncommon in cultures that value chastity in a potential mate. b. is a widespread and universal emotion. c. is more detectable in countries with higher divorce rates. d. violates religious doctrine in some cultures.

16. Which of the following statements is true of attitude similarity and attraction? a. These occur only with people who have high levels of intelligence. b. These have slower time course because people have to get to know each other first. c. These happen faster if people had similar educational backgrounds. d. These rarely happen in adult relationships.

17. Consider Buss’s (1989) study in which he examined what people from 37 different cultures around the world prefer in a romantic partner. Which of the following statements about the results of this study is accurate? a. In most countries, men rated physical attractiveness to be more important than women did, while women rated good financial prospects as more important than men did. b. Before the age of 30, men tended to report having more sexual partners than did women, but that difference disappeared among older participants. c. Women rated kindness, dependability, and sense of humor as more important than men did. d. The type of culture—individualist or collectivist—in which people lived impacted their ratings of what made a potential partner attractive.

18. Which of the following best describes existing gender differences with respect to Lee’s (1988) styles of love? a. Men and women score about the same on storge and mania styles of love. b. Women tend to score higher on ludus love, but men score higher on eros love. c. Men tend to score higher on eros love, but women score higher on agape love. d. Men tend to score higher on ludus love, but women score higher on pragma love.

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Chap_09_11e 19. Which of the following statements describes an example of the what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype? a. Athletes who have greater physical skills tend to earn higher salaries when they make it to the professional level of their sport. b. Physicians have been found to spend less time with patients who they feel are not serious about taking care of their own physical health. c. Students who take classes from professors who they report to be physically unattractive often assume that the course will be a worthy educational experience. d. In animated movies for children, the hero is usually very attractive while the villain is often very ugly.

20. Claire has good relationships with her boyfriend and with her parents. She is also able to form caring and supportive friendships. Claire probably has a(n) attachment style. a. anxious/ambivalent b. multiple c. secure d. avoidant 21. Which of the following ideas holds that relationships progress from superficial exchanges to relatively deeper ones? a. Social penetration theory b. Social exchange theory c. Mere exposure effect d. Matching hypothesis 22. Who first noted variability in people’s taste by providing evidence that different cultures enhance beauty in very different ways? a. Aristotle b. Charles Darwin c. Judith Anderson d. Plato 23. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, the basic components of love are a. intimacy, passion, and commitment. b. rewards, costs, and investments. c. romance, companionship, and reciprocity. d. ludus, eros, and storge.

24. Using MRI techniques, researchers have observed that, when they are exposed to pictures of strangers, shy people exhibit a. less activity in the amygdala than those who are bold. b. greater activity in the hippocampus than those who are bold. c. greater activity in the amygdala than those who are bold. d. less activity in the hippocampus than those who are bold.

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Chap_09_11e 25. In evidence to the subjective perspective of beauty, research by Anderson and others (1992) found that a. specific facial features tend to be associated with physical attractiveness. b. there is a high degree of cross-cultural consistency in ratings of attractiveness. c. heavy women are judged attractive in places where food is frequently in short supply. d. averaged faces are judged more attractive than individual faces.

26. Ronnie believes that people desire and form relationships with others who are similar in terms of physical attractiveness. In terms of similarity and attractiveness, he subscribes to the a. equity theory. b. matching hypothesis. c. social penetration theory. d. social exchange theory.

27. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the human need for affiliation? a. People tend to prefer as much social contact with others as possible. b. There is little variation between individuals when it comes to desired level of social contact. c. People are motivated to maintain an optimum balance of time alone and social contact. d. On average, men in individualistic cultures desire more social contact than do women.

28. According to the two-stage model of attraction proposed by Byrne et al. (1986), people a. seek partners who are similar with respect to physical attractiveness, but dissimilar with respect to attitudes. b. seek partners who are similar with respect to attitudes, but dissimilar with respect to personality. c. first approach similar others and then weed out those who are least similar. d. first avoid dissimilar others and then approach those remaining who are most similar.

29. Equity theory predicts that people are most satisfied in their relationships when the a. perceived rewards of the relationship are equal to the perceived costs of the relationship. b. perceived rewards of the relationship outweigh the perceived costs of the relationship. c. rewards and costs one partner experiences are roughly equal to those of the other partner. d. actual rewards and costs of the relationship exceed the expected rewards and costs of the relationship.

30. Among heterosexual couples questioned in 2017, what percent of them met online? a. 12% b. 39% c. 65% d. 42% 31. Which of the following aspects of passionate love is most enduring? a. Obsessions with one’s beloved b. Romantic preference for one’s partner c. Amazing sexual chemistry d. Mutual caring and commitment Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_11e 32. Research suggests that self-disclosure reciprocity is more important a. in the early stages of a relationship. b. when interacting with a man. c. among couples sharing companionate love. d. in opposite-sex interactions.

33. Bruno just finished working out at the gym. On his way to the locker room, he passes Charming, a very pretty woman. Bruno feels his heart pounding and is convinced that he must be in love with Charming. Bruno’s feelings are best explained by a. negative affect reciprocity. b. excitation transfer. c. psychological reactance. d. social penetration.

34. Which of the following has been demonstrated in research on attachment style? a. People’s attachment styles relate to the type of romantic relationships they have. b. Attachment styles are relatively fixed throughout the life course. c. The distribution of attachment styles varies depending on geographical location. d. People classified as securely attached often have lower comparison levels.

35. Which of the following researchers conducted the first large-scale survey of sexual practices in the United States? a. Alfred Kinsey b. Sandra Murray c. David Buss d. Saul Kassin 36. If people are asked to characterize romantic love, which of the following attributes will over two-thirds of the people list? a. Happiness b. Sexual desire c. Commitment d. Communication 37. In Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, a. intimacy; commitment b. passion; intimacy c. commitment; intimacy d. passion; commitment

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is the cognitive component.

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Chap_09_11e 38. Alexis promised her boyfriend Marcus that she would pick up his shirts from the drycleaners, but she neglected to do so because she was distracted by work obligations. When he gets home and sees that he has no clean shirts, he thinks, “she really just doesn’t care about my needs at all. I’m so sick of this.” Marcus is using attributions to explain why Alexis did not pick up his shirts. a. relationship-threatening b. situational c. distancing d. distress-maintaining 39. LeVay’s (1991) examination of the human brain found that a. the nucleus in the hypothalamus of homosexual and heterosexual men did not differ. b. the nucleus in the hypothalamus of men who died of AIDS differed from that of men who did not have AIDS. c. the nucleus in the hypothalamus of homosexual men was similar in many respects to that of heterosexual women. d. the nucleus in the hypothalamus of heterosexual men and women did not differ.

40. What is not a reason for why we seem to be attracted to averaged faces? a. They are prototypically face-like. b. They are symmetrical. c. They look unusual. d. They seem more familiar to us.

41. Which of the following statements is true of interdependent couples? a. They lack proper communication in relationship. b. They have shorter relationships than other couples. c. They handle breakups much easier than other couples. d. They are more invested in the relationship.

42. Dutton and Aron (1974) examined the effects of arousal on attraction by conducting a study in which a female approached and asked survey questions of men on a rickety suspension bridge. Which of the following scenarios is most analogous to the results of this study? a. After swerving to avoid an oncoming car, your heart races, and your mind is flooded with images of how much you care about your significant other. b. Ten minutes after you’ve begun a strenuous workout, the person next to you strikes up a conversation, and you immediately feel attracted to him/her. c. When a classmate that you find particularly attractive happens to sit down next to you, you feel your pulse quicken, and you stutter as you try to make conversation. d. You are still agitated after a heated phone conversation with your mother, and when you run into someone you had a crush on several years ago, you are surprised to realize you don’t find him/her that attractive in your current state of arousal.

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Chap_09_11e 43. According to Murstein, physical appearance sparkles attraction during the a. stimulus b. value

stage.

c. role d. norm 44. The belief that physically attractive individuals also possess desirable personality characteristics is called the a. matching phenomenon. b. what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype. c. aesthetic appeal of beauty. d. reinforcement-affect principle.

45. Who is more likely to value physical attractiveness in a potential male partner? a. A woman who is in poverty b. A woman who makes a moderate income c. A woman who is fantastically wealthy d. A women who is highly educated 46. Research on the marital trajectory suggests that once a couple’s children have grown up and left the home, a. married couples actually wind up spending less time together than they did before. b. marital satisfaction tends to increase. c. sexual infidelity rates increase. d. both members of the couple typically adhere even more strongly to gender roles.

47. In Powers and colleagues (2006) research, boyfriends and girlfriends who were insecurely attached had physiological stress responses when engaged in a task. a. more; conflict b. less; conflict c. more; cooperative d. less; cooperative 48. When a man spends money on expensive cars, fancy restaurant dinners, and stylish clothes, it may be an evolved sexually selected mating signal known as a. conspicuous consumption. b. excitation transfer. c. complementarity hypothesis. d. reciprocity.

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Chap_09_11e 49. According to Statista, the average number of Facebook friends for people between the age of 12 and 17 in 2016 was a. 137 b. 185 c. 760 d. 521 50. Research has revealed that a. men view the world in more “sexualized” terms than women do. b. women are more likely to fantasize about sex with multiple partners. c. women rate themselves as being more flirtatious than men rate women. d. men do not engage in casual sex without emotional commitment.

51. Pinel and colleagues (2006) refer to “I-sharing” as an important form of similarity whereby individuals share a. a subjective experience. b. a level of physical attractiveness. c. political ideologies. d. technological expertise.

52. When in conflict in close relationships, women often try to get their husbands to talk about the problem and men retreat. This communication pattern a. leads exchange relationships to become more communal. b. reflects negative affect reciprocity. c. illustrates the demand/withdraw interaction pattern. d. fosters social penetration.

53. Which of the following outcomes has not demonstrated in research on physical attractiveness? a. Attractive students were able to solicit more signatures on a petition than unattractive students. b. Unattractive defendants received larger court fines than attractive defendants. c. Teachers expect attractive children to be smarter and achieve more than unattractive children. d. Attractive employees earn approximately the same salaries as unattractive employees.

54. Popular wisdom is often contradictory, as with the following two sayings: (1) “opposites attract” and (2) “birds of a feather flock together.” Research on the relationship between similarity and liking suggests that a. statement #1 is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are dissimilar from themselves. b. statement #2 is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are similar to themselves. c. both are right for different people; heterosexual men tend to be attracted to similar others whereas gay men tend to be attracted to dissimilar others. d. both are right in different conditions; people are attracted to similar others when they are interested in long-term relationships, but they prefer dissimilar others for less serious relationships without commitment.

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Chap_09_11e 55. Which of the following statements does not support the hard-to-get effect? a. We are turned off by those who reject us because they are committed to someone else. b. We prefer individuals who are moderately selective over those who are nonselective. c. We like dates who selectively desire us more than they desire others. d. We like the idea of past romantic interests knowing that we are with another attractive person.

56. According to your textbook, the single best predictor of whether two people will get together used to be a. complementariness. b. matching levels of physical attractiveness. c. physical proximity. d. similarity.

57. Which of the following statements is true of jealousy in the context of evolutionary theory? a. Men and women are aroused by the same triggering events. b. A man is most upset by emotional infidelity. c. A man is most upset by sexual infidelity. d. A woman is most upset by sexual infidelity.

58. Curly hurls an insult right back at James when James expresses his negative feelings toward her. Such a pattern illustrates a. social penetration. b. a demand/withdraw interaction pattern. c. negative affect reciprocity. d. distress-maintaining attributions.

59. Rosenbaum (1986) argues that social psychologists overestimate the role of attitudinal similarity in attraction, and suggests that it is not that similarity creates attraction but that a. dissimilarity produces interpersonal repulsion. b. opposites attract. c. similarity in physical appearance is the only form of similarity that affects attraction. d. the evidence for the role of complementarily processes is much stronger.

60. Eileen says she loves Jesse, even though they met very recently and both of them are still dating other people.

When her best friend asks her what she means by “love,” Eileen says, “I feel like even though we just met, I could tell him anything in the world. And he’s so sexy—I get butterflies just thinking about him.” According to the triangular theory of love, Eileen’s feelings toward Jesse would best be labeled a. consummate love. b. companionate love. c. fatuous love. d. romantic love.

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Chap_09_11e 61. Terrence has a network of close social ties. In comparison to individuals lacking such a network, research suggests that he will a. be less motivated to achieve success. b. be less likely to die a premature death. c. have worse physical health. d. have lower self-esteem.

62. Denise and Brandon are just getting to know each other. Each compliments how the other one looks. Given the research on men, women, and sexuality, which of the following outcomes is most likely? a. Denise will interpret Brandon’s compliment as a sexual come-on. b. Brandon will interpret Denise’s compliment as a sexual come-on. c. Both Denise and Brandon will interpret each other’s compliments as a sexual come-on. d. Neither Denise nor Brandon will interpret each other’s compliments as a sexual come-on.

63. Researchers use the phrase erotic plasticity to suggest that a. women are more likely to change sexual preference over time than men. b. men are turned on by a wider range of stimuli than women. c. men are more likely to have multiple sexual partners than women. d. women are more accepting of “alternative” sexual preferences than men.

64. The evolutionary perspective holds that women prefer a. older men who are more likely to have financial resources. b. physically attractive men because of the social benefits that come from being associated with such men. c. men who have unusual faces. d. men who play hard to get because such men bring about psychological reactance.

65. Walster et al. (1966) randomly matched students for a dance. At the end of the evening, students indicated how satisfied they were with their dates. The strongest predictor of satisfaction was a. physical attractiveness. b. attitudinal similarity. c. proximity of dorm rooms. d. complementary personalities.

66. When they first started dating, Norma and Nathan didn’t share much about themselves with one another, but as their relationship developed, they began to talk more about personal issues and reveal more about themselves.

Their behavior is most consistent with the predictions of a. the matching hypothesis. b. equity theory. c. the triangular theory of love. d. social penetration theory.

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Chap_09_11e 67. Keith and David are most likely to have a communal relationship if they are exchange relationship if they are . a. business partners; friends b. romantic partners; strangers c. teammates; brothers

and most likely to have an

d. classmates; business competitors 68. According to research by Moreland and Beach (1992), who will you be most attracted to? a. A mysterious stranger who comes to your social psychology class one time b. A person who you have never seen before, but who physically resembles you c. A person who came to your social psychology class five times throughout the semester d. A person who came to your social psychology class 15 times throughout the semester 69. Which of the following best reflects the benefits and cost of being attractive? a. While attractiveness often brings a social advantage to attractive individuals, it can cause them to doubt the sincerity of others’ praise for their work. b. While attractiveness often brings heightened self-esteem to attractive individuals, it can lead them to doubt others’ praise of their attractiveness. c. While attractiveness often brings greater popularity to attractive individuals, it can increase mental health difficulties. d. While attractiveness often brings lifetime happiness to attractive individuals, it can put pressure on them to maintain their appearance.

70. Newcomb’s (1961) classic study on attraction in which he set up an experimental college dormitory revealed that a. students’ friendships with members of the opposite sex tended to turn into romantic relationships. b. students who had similar backgrounds tended to like each other. c. students who held dissimilar attitudes were more likely to form romantic relationships. d. friendships were more likely than romantic relationships to be based on proximity.

71. The way a person typically interacts with significant others is called a(n) a. reciprocity norm. b. attachment style. c. exchange relationship. d. self-disclosure.

72. A “trust-insurance system” in a relationship is when a. both partners lack trust toward the other on an unconscious level. b. one partner is overbenefited compared to the level of investment he/she makes in the relationship. c. both partners keep an unconscious tally of the relationship’s costs and benefits. d. one partner has a low comparison level for alternatives.

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Chap_09_11e 73. Herman and Flora have been married for 40 years. They still have a strong relationship and say they are each other’s best friends. Their relationship seems to be an example of love. a. exchange b. passionate c. communal d. companionate 74. Bonita and Helga are asked to list people they “love,” people they are “in love with,” and people they are “sexually attracted to.” It is likely that the names on a. all three lists will overlap considerably. b. the “love” and “in love” lists will overlap considerably. c. the “in love” and “sexually attracted to” lists will overlap considerably. d. all three lists will be fairly different.

75. In relationships, partners respond to each other’s needs without any concern over whether they have given or received a benefit. a. equitable b. exchange c. communal d. companionate 76. Festinger and colleagues (1950) research on friendship patterns in married college student housing found that a. students were more likely to become friends with people who lived nearby than those who lived farther away. b. married college students were not as affected by proximity effects in forming friendships as were single college students. c. mere exposure had a greater effect on platonic friendships versus romantic relationships. d. students who went away to college were unlikely to maintain hometown friendships for more than a few weeks.

77. Which of the following people sounds most like he has an anxious attachment style? a. Wayne relies heavily on others for support and acceptance. b. Keyshawn very much wants to be close to his partner, but fears that his affections won’t be returned. c. Vinnie values intimacy, finds it easy to get close to others, and trusts his partner. d. Curtis finds it difficult to trust others and often feels his partners want to be closer than he would like.

78. In their relationship, Kyle is concerned with maintaining an equal ratio of rewards and costs, whereas Bonnie is concerned with being responsive to Kyle’s needs. Kyle views their relationship as a(n) relationship, whereas Bonnie views it as a(n) relationship. a. reciprocal; exchange b. exchange; communal c. communal; passionate d. passionate; companionate

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Chap_09_11e 79. Support for the idea of the “sociostat” (social thermostat) is provided by the finding that rats a. tend to prefer to remain on their own once a period of isolation ends. b. are less likely to approach other rats after a period of prolonged contact. c. aggress against other rats when a shared resource is scarce. d. always prefer the company of other rats to being alone.

80. Lindsay is a freshman at college and has her first serious boyfriend there. Her parents can’t stand him.

According to the theory of psychological reactance, what should her parents do to discourage the relationship? a. Explain to Lindsay in calm, rational terms why this man is a poor fit for her. b. Subtly put him down in conversations to Lindsay to avoid direct confrontation. c. Never invite him to their home for a visit. d. Say very little about him one way or the other to Lindsay.

81. Jon feels like he isn’t a good enough husband to his wife, Kate. According to the trust-insurance system, he is likely to a. go out of his way to benefit her through restorative actions. b. withdraw emotionally from the relationship, thereby contributing to a downward cycle. c. become more jealous of her than he was previously. d. feel underbenefited in the relationship.

82. The evolutionary perspective on attraction suggests that people prefer mates who a. provide a boost to their social reputation and status. b. favor the conception and birth of their offspring. c. make them laugh. d. live close to them.

83. Your significant other has just been short-tempered and impatient with you. Your reaction is to think, “Well, s/he’s had a very stressful week, so I’ll just forget that it happened.” Your reaction would be best described as an example of a. affect reciprocity. b. a relationship-enhancing attribution. c. a demand/withdraw interaction pattern. d. a depressive explanatory style.

84. When people prefer those who are selective in their social choices over the ones who are readily available, it is due to the a. hard-to-get effect. b. reciprocity effect. c. what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype. d. equity theory.

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Chap_09_11e 85. Snyder and colleagues (1977) ran a study in which mixed-gender pairs had a phone conversation. Male participants were given either an attractive or unattractive photo of their conversation partner. Which of the following statements about the study findings is false? a. Men were friendlier toward the partners who they believed to be attractive. b. The outcome of the conversation was more influenced by the women’s actual level of attractiveness than by how attractive the men believed the women to be. c. Men formed more positive impressions of the personality of women who they believed to be attractive. d. Women talking with men who believed they were attractive were actually warmer and more confident during the conversation.

86. Aimee attends a large lecture section of Introductory Psychology every Tuesday and Thursday throughout her first semester at college. According to the mere exposure effect, Aimee should a. come to intensely dislike psychology. b. come to intensely like psychology. c. more positively evaluate the face of the guy who sat in front of her in class all semester than the face of a stranger. d. more positively evaluate the face of a stranger than the guy who sat in front of her in class all semester.

87. The average, general outcome that an individual expects in a relationship is called the a. intimacy b. investment c. comparison

level.

d. self-disclosure 88. Traci is used to people telling her how attractive she is. Research suggests that if she receives positive feedback on a paper she writes for class, she will be most likely to believe that the feedback is genuine and feel good about it if a. the person who graded the paper has never seen her before. b. she has considered herself to be fairly unattractive when she was much younger. c. it is given to her in person. d. her friends do not get good grades on the same assignment.

89. Mark has been dating Deirdre for some time. He never lets her go out with her friends or talk to other men. He is demanding and possessive of her. His love for Deirdre could best be categorized as a. agape. b. ludus. c. storge. d. mania.

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Chap_09_11e 90. An argument against the evolutionary approach to mate selection from Buss’s original cross-cultural study was that a. men and women actually are quite similar in the characteristics they desire in a mate. b. the study only examined Western cultures. c. the study only examined Eastern cultures. d. men’s concern over sexual infidelity actually reflects fear of an emotional loss of intimacy.

91. Individuals who suffer from social anxiety disorder are likely to a. have an unusually high need for affiliation. b. experience feelings of discomfort in circumstances of public scrutiny. c. be very concerned with the overall balance of their relationships. d. be very popular with other people and yet not realize that they are popular.

92. An evolutionary explanation for the relationship between a face’s symmetry and its perceived attractiveness is that a. asymmetrical faces are less familiar and therefore more distinctive in memory. b. facial symmetry is associated with biological health and fitness. c. biological factors have very little to do with facial symmetry. d. parents devote more resources to caring for offspring with symmetrical faces.

93. James has a quiet temperament, which leads him to prefer less activity as a child. Consequently, he often plays calmer games and has female playmates. When he reaches adolescence, he continues to relate better to girls, and boys seem mysterious, exotic, and arousing. He ultimately develops a homosexual orientation. James’ experiences fits best with explanations of sexual orientation. a. biological b. psychological c. psychobiological d. sociocultural 94. Proximity refers to a. physical nearness. b. physical similarity. c. attitudinal similarity. d. physical attractiveness.

95. In India and China, love is a. essential for marriage. b. emphasized more among females than males. c. not a sufficient basis for marriage. d. viewed in more dispositional terms than it is in America.

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Chap_09_11e 96. Rofé (1984) argued that stress increases the desire to affiliate only when a. being with others has the potential to reduce the negative impact of the situation. b. the stress is embarrassing in nature. c. people live in collectivist cultures. d. others are not experiencing similar stress.

97. Research concerning coping with divorce suggests that a. several years after divorce, people tend to be just as satisfied with their lives as are married people. b. immediately after a divorce, life satisfaction ratings tend to increase somewhat. c. men have an easier time bouncing back from divorce than do women. d. children do not suffer any negative psychological responses to the divorce of their parents.

98. A feeling of deprivation about existing social relations is called a. loneliness. b. rejection. c. jealously. d. empty love.

99. Jack and Diane have been dating and living together for two years. Jack always puts Diane’s needs before his own, is very supportive of Diane, and devotes a great deal of time and energy to the relationship. Diane, on the other hand, focuses on her own needs and problems and does not exert a great deal of effort when it comes to the relationship. According to equity theorists, a. Jack should feel underbenefited and upset about the nature of the relationship, whereas Diane will be content because her needs are being met at minimal cost to her. b. Jack and Diane should be content with the relationship because people in an equity relationship do not keep track of costs and benefits. c. Jack should feel underbenefited and upset about the nature of the relationship, and Diane should feel overbenefited and guilty. d. Jack should feel content with the relationship because he knows he’s working for his partner’s happiness, but Diane will feel overbenefited and guilty.

100. When Kulik and others (1994) gave people who were about to soak their hand in ice water a choice about who to wait with prior to the painful task, they found that the participants preferred to wait a. with someone who had already done the task. b. with someone who was about to complete the task. c. with someone who did not have to do the task. d. alone.

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Chap_09_11e 101. Two groups of college students are on a boat together travelling from Greece to Italy. For the first six hours of the trip, the students did not associate with each other. When the ship hits a severe storm and the captain orders everyone to take precautions, the students begin to talk to each other and bond. This is most consistent with the proposal of a. Waldman. b. Zimbardo. c. Rofé. d. Howard.

102. Joshua is attracted to Daniel because of his warm eyes and great smile. Daniel is attracted to Joshua because of his muscular body. Joshua and Daniel are in Murstein’s stage. a. stimulus b. value c. role d. norm 103. Although she cheats on him, Abdul stays with his girlfriend because he doesn’t think he would be able to find anyone better. Abdul has a(n) a. low comparison level for alternatives. b. high comparison level for alternatives. c. secure attachment style. d. avoidant attachment style.

104. Considering the love taxonomies of Lee, Sternberg, and Hatfield, which of the following classifications all seem to reflect a similar type of love? a. Lee’s storge, Sternberg’s intimacy, and Hatfield’s passionate love b. Lee’s eros, Sternberg’s passion, and Hatfield’s companionate love c. Lee’s ludus, Sternberg’s commitment, and Hatfield’s companionate love d. Lee’s storge, Sternberg’s intimacy, and Hatfield’s companionate love 105. Based on his research on people facing imminent threat, Schachter summed up that a. misery loves embarrassing company. b. misery loves bold company. c. misery loves miserable company. d. misery loves no company.

106. Research on students’ teaching ratings on the website www.ratemyprofessor.com indicate that a. female professors who are rated as strong teachers tended to be seen as less physically attractive. b. both male and female professors who were rated highly on teaching were also more likely to be described as “hot.” c. the nonphysical qualities of both male and female professors had nothing to do with their likeability among students. d. for male teachers, perceptions of attraction and teaching skill were unrelated.

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Chap_09_11e 107. Gay couples tend to than straight couples. a. divide household chores more evenly, but lose contact with prior sex partners more b. retain relationships with former sex partners more, but divide household chores less evenly c. divide household chores more evenly and retain friendships with former sex partners more d. divide household chores more evenly and retain friendships with former sex partners less 108. Using MRI, Tsukiura and Capeza (2011) found biological evidence for the a. mere exposure effect. b. what-is-beautiful-is-good stereotype. c. social exchange theory. d. matching hypothesis.

109. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the idea that we are attracted to others with whom a relationship is rewarding? a. Tina likes Tony because he is playing hard to get. b. Tina likes Tony because they are about equally attractive. c. Tina likes Tony because they live in the same apartment building. d. Tina likes Tony because he smiles at her and compliments her.

110. The finding that infants spend more time looking at attractive, as compared to unattractive, faces supports the hypothesis that a. beauty is objective. b. beauty is subjective. c. familiarity increases physical attractiveness. d. physical attractiveness increases familiarity.

111. According to Hatfield, romantic love characterized by high arousal, intense attraction, and fear of rejection is called love. a. companionate b. storage c. passionate d. agape 112. Which of the following statements regarding marital satisfaction is false? a. There is typically a honeymoon period in which both partners are satisfied with the marriage. b. Heterosexual couples with one child report a faster decline in marital satisfaction than homosexual couples do. c. There is a positive association between the degree of initial decline in satisfaction and the likelihood a couple will break up. d. The decline following the honeymoon period typically stabilizes by the second year.

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Chap_09_11e 113. According to research by Ackerman and others (2011), the person most likely to say “I love you” first in a heterosexual relationship is a. the man. b. the woman. c. unpredictable; about half the time, it is the man and the other half the woman. d. the older person.

114. The idea that some faces are inherently more attractive than others is supported by research demonstrating that a. people prefer averaged composite faces to individual faces. b. standards of beauty change over time. c. people from different cultures enhance their appearance in different ways. d. people we like seem more attractive to us.

115. Which of the following statements regarding physically attractive people is false? a. Attractive people tend to have more sexual experience than unattractive people. b. Attractive people tend to be more popular than unattractive people. c. Attractive people tend to have higher self-esteem than unattractive people. d. Attractive people, who get praised for their work, often have doubts about the true quality of their work.

116. One vital factor that influences a person’s ability to cope with a divorce is the of the relationship, or the extent to which the line between one’s self and their partner becomes blurred so that “mine” and “yours” becomes the same thing. a. interdependence b. closeness c. diversity d. homogeneity 117. Participants in a study by O’Connor and Rosenblood (1996) indicated about every hour whether they were alone or with others and whether they wanted to be alone or with others. The results of this study revealed that a. most of the time, participants wanted to be with others, but were alone. b. most of the time, participants wanted to be alone, but were with others. c. regardless of whether they wanted to be alone or with others, most of the time, participants were not in their desired social state. d. regardless of whether they wanted to be alone or with others, most of the time, participants were in their desired social state.

118. Which of the following would create the strongest bond between two North American male friends? a. Sharing about one’s deepest fears b. Sharing about one’s biggest dreams c. Playing basketball together d. Talking on the phone

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Chap_09_11e 119. Zachary is unhappy in his relationship and is trying to decide whether to break up with his girlfriend. Which of the following factors might encourage him to stay? a. If his comparison level for alternatives is high b. If his comparison level is high c. If his investment is high d. If his costs for staying are high 120. Rita, a student, enjoys spending time with her friends and classmates. She can establish friendships very quickly and has a strong desire to maintain social contact with others. Rita has a. a low need to belong. b. severe social anxiety. c. a high need for affiliation. d. a broken social thermostat.

121. Homosexual behaviors a. are less common than an exclusive homosexual orientation. b. have been observed in more than 450 animal species. c. tend to be reported in the same incidence in most cultures. d. are very recent developments in human beings.

122. Baumeister and Leary (1995) suggest that humans have a fundamental drive to have at least a minimum number of lasting, positive, and significant interpersonal relationships with others. They refer to this as the a. need to belong. b. need for affiliation. c. “sociostat.” d. need to love.

123. Lucinda is a very giving woman. In her relationship with her girlfriend, she tends to sacrifice her own needs and desires, giving altruistically so that her girlfriend will be happy. What kind of love would Lee (1988) classify this as? a. Agape b. Ludus c. Storge d. Mania 124. Derek is informed that as part of his fraternity initiation he must sing the school fight song as loudly as he can while standing on the roof of the fraternity house in his underwear. He is then given the choice to await his turn alone or with the girls from the neighboring sorority. Which of the following is most likely? a. Derek will choose to wait alone in order to achieve cognitive clarity. b. Derek will choose to wait alone as waiting with the sorority members will likely increase his stress. c. Derek will choose to wait with the sorority members in order to reduce his level of stress. d. Derek will choose to wait with the sorority members because they will be able to offer him a different perspective.

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Chap_09_11e 125. Which of the following is not one of the four types of similarity most relevant to predicting interpersonal attraction? a. Similarity in subjective experience b. Similarity in attitudes c. Demographic similarity d. Similarity in eye and hair color 126. Juanita wants her date, a man she finds very sexually attractive, to perceive her as very sexually attractive.

What color dress should she wear to her sorority formal to promote this perception? a. White b. Red c. Black d. Gold 127. Roshumba is conducting a study of married couples. She interviews a number of couples about how their relationships developed. It is likely that she will find that a. all relationships developed through a fixed sequence of stages. b. there is considerable variability in how the couples’ relationships developed. c. the couples generally went through the value stage before the role stage. d. relationship rewards were unrelated to couples’ feelings of being in love.

128. Research concerning the marital trajectory demonstrates that a. the longer couples are married, the more satisfied they become. b. wives are significantly more satisfied in their marriages than are husbands. c. husbands are significantly more satisfied in their marriages than are wives. d. the greater number of anew experiences that married couples share, the greater their satisfaction.

129. Brandon likes Brianna, but Brandon doesn’t like Autumn. The relationship among these three individuals would be balanced if a. Brianna likes Autumn. b. Brianna doesn’t like Autumn. c. Autumn likes Brandon. d. Autumn likes Brianna.

130. Which of the following statements is consistent with the mere exposure effect? a. The more that dating partners talk to each other, the more they realize how different they are. b. Someone you see regularly just grows on you after a while. c. A couple falls in love at first sight. d. The old saying, “Birds of a feather flock together.”

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Chap_09_11e 131. How are mating preferences explained from an evolutionary perspective?

132. List and briefly describe the three different facets of loneliness identified by Cacioppo and others (2015).

133. Compare and contrast passionate and companionate love.

134. Discuss the difference between exchange and communal relationships.

135. What are the benefits of being beautiful? What are the drawbacks?

136. How do people tend to cope with loneliness, and why is it important to do so?

137. List and describe the three primary and three blended types of loves that were identified by sociologist John Alan Lee in 1988. What gender differences were found among these different types?

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Chap_09_11e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap_09_11e 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_11e 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. b 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_11e 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. c 102. a 103. a 104. d 105. c 106. b 107. c 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_11e 111. c 112. d 113. a 114. a 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. c 119. c 120. c 121. b 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. d 126. b 127. b 128. d 129. b 130. b 131. From an evolutionary perspective, optimal mating strategies are those that best promote the conception, birth, and subsequent reproduction of offspring. Although the goal is the same for men and women—to ensure the survival of their genes in future generations—the optimal strategies for achieving this goal are different. Because men are potentially able to produce a large number of offspring, their optimal strategy is to inseminate many different women selected for their reproductive capacity. And because women who are young and healthy are perceived as having the highest reproductive capacity, it is in the best interest of men to be concerned about the age and health of women. From an evolutionary perspective, this is why men are particularly interested in women’s physical appearance. Women, in contrast, are biologically more limited in terms of the number of offspring they can produce.

The optimal strategy for women, therefore, is to maximize the chances that the offspring they do have will survive and have offspring of their own. And these chances are improved when women select mates who can provide the resources necessary to ensure both their well-being and that of their children. According to the evolutionary perspective, this is why women value the socioeconomic status of men.

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Chap_09_11e 132. Based on their review of research, Stephanie Cacioppo and others (2015) have noted that there are three facets or dimensions of loneliness—intimate, relational, and collective (see Figure 9.2). Intimate loneliness is felt when someone wants but does not have a spouse, significant other, or best friend to rely on for emotional support, especially during personal crises. Somewhat outside our circle of personal space, relational loneliness is felt when someone wants but lacks friendships from school and work and family connections, the 15 or 50 people whom we see regularly and rely on for occasional help, child care, resources, contacts, and advice. Representing the outermost layer of our social network, collective loneliness comes from remote relationships and the social identities we derive from, say, from alumni of the schools we have attended and clubs we join on the basis of common needs or interests. The more voluntary associations we have, the lower one’s collective loneliness.

133. Both passionate love and companionate love involve feelings of deep concern for and intimacy with another individual.

However, passionate love is characterized by intense emotional experiences, typically occurs early in a relationship, and is unencumbered by costs to a relationship. Companionate love, on the other hand, entails deep commitment and trust and exists between friends as well as lovers.

134. Exchange relationships are characterized by tit-for-tat immediate repayment of benefits received. This type of relationship is commonly seen among strangers and casual acquaintances. It is also common in business relationships between two people. In communal relationships, partners respond to the needs of each other without any focus on giving or receiving benefits. This is common among close friends, romantic partners, and family members. It is possible for exchange relationships to turn communal in the long run. Once a relationship has turned communal, responding to the partner’s need is automatic. It does not rely on any benefits expected in return.

135. It has been shown that good-looking people have more friends, better social skills, and a more active sex life. Beauty can give the attractive individual an advantage. For example, research by Downs and Lyons (1991) showed that Texas judges set lower bail and imposed smaller fines on suspects rated as attractive rather than as unattractive.

However, beauty also has its pitfalls. When one is attractive, it is hard to tell whether attention received is for one’s good looks or for actual performance. A second disadvantage is that there is pressure to maintain appearance, pressures that could contribute, for example, to disordered eating such as bulimia and anorexia nervosa.

136. People cope with loneliness in a variety of ways. Some of the most common strategies are to try harder to be friendly to people, to distract oneself using television or reading, and to work harder at success in another arena in life. Other distraction-oriented strategies might take one shopping, to the gym for some exercise, or to wash the car. Simply staying busy seems to be a good way to cope with loneliness. Still others will talk to a friend, relative, or therapist about the problem, and maybe even try to improve their appearance in hopes of abating loneliness. One of the most dangerous ways to try to cope with loneliness is through substance abuse. It is important to have adaptive ways of coping with loneliness because as we age, it becomes a risk factor for a broad range of physical and mental health problems, particularly physical inactivity and depression.

137. From ancient writings, sociologist John Alan Lee (1988) identified three primary love styles: eros (erotic love), ludus (game-playing, uncommitted love), and storage (friendship love). As with primary colors, Lee theorized, these three styles can be blended together to form new secondary types of love, such as mania (demanding and possessive love), pragma (pragmatic love), and agape (other-oriented, altruistic love). On a scale designed to measure these “colors of love,” men tend to score higher than women on ludus, and women score higher on storage, mania, and pragma (Hendricks & Hendricks, 1995).

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Chap_10_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Fiona needs to get people to fill out her survey. The likelihood that people will help Fiona will increase if she approaches all types of people except those who a. live in the country rather than the city. b. seem to be in a good mood. c. just passed by a bakery. d. are in a hurry.

2. What is not an explanation for why helping models increase prosocial behavior? a. They provide an example of behaviors that others can imitate. b. They demonstrate that helping others is rewarding. c. They make the social norms that govern helping salient. d. They make perspective taking more likely to occur.

3. People are less likely to notice an emergency if they a. display empathic concern for others. b. are aware of their surroundings. c. are in a good mood. d. are under time pressure.

4. Helping in the face of costs is best described as a. enormous; altruism b. small; altruism c. enormous; courageous resistance d. small; courageous resistance

.

5. Evolutionary perspectives on helping behavior suggest that individuals a. sometimes offer assistance to others even when doing so puts their own survival at great risk. b. are more likely to offer help to attractive others who seem to be good potential mates. c. are more likely to offer help to distant versus close relatives. d. who only look out for themselves tend to be most successful from a reproductive standpoint.

6. The evolutionary principle of kin selection dictates that we are more likely to help someone who is a. a potential mate. b. likely to return the favor. c. physically attractive. d. genetically related to us.

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Chap_10_11e 7. Open-source community has members who post their work on to the community site for the benefit of others. If you use their software, you can refer to others or donate additional development code to the community. The foundation of this community is based on the concept of a. reciprocal altruism. b. kin selection. c. audience inhibition. d. the empathy–altruism hypothesis.

8. Using virtual technology, Marco Zanon and his colleagues found that people showing heightened activation in neural regions are associated with perspective taking. Moreover, these were the individuals who were most likely to risk their virtual lives to help the trapped other person. Zanon points to a(n) personality. a. altruistic b. reciprocal altruistic c. reluctant altruistic d. enduring 9. Peggy feels sorry for smokers who have lung cancer because she believes they were duped by tobacco companies to develop a deadly addiction and are therefore not responsible for their disease. When asked to donate money to support lung cancer research, Peggy gives generously. Peggy’s prosodies behavior can best be explained by a. the negative state relief model. b. attributions of responsibility. c. the arousal: cost-reward model. d. a norm of equity.

10. Some large fish allow smaller fish to swim inside of their mouths without eating the smaller ones. The smaller fish get food for themselves from the larger fish’s mouth and at the same time remove parasites from its teeth.

This is an example of a. reciprocal altruism. b. kin selection. c. audience inhibition. d. the cost-reward model.

11. What explanation does research give for the finding that volunteers with egoistic motives tend to remain active volunteers longer than those with more altruistic motives? a. Altruistic motives do not stand up against the personal costs of helping for long. b. Altruistic motives are not genuinely felt. c. Altruistic motives create more personal cost for the volunteer. d. Altruistic motives help one manage the personal costs of helping.

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Chap_10_11e 12. Research suggests that your responses are strongly influenced by the size of a group and a. make you more likely to engage in helping behavior. b. make you less likely to engage in helping behavior. c. only influence altruistic helping behavior. d. do not affect helping behavior.

13. Kelli always tries to be very helpful because she believes it increases her chances of receiving help at a future time. Kelli’s thinking most closely reflects the concept of a. reciprocal altruism. b. empathy. c. egoism. d. audience exhibition.

14. Liam forgets his mom’s birthday. The next day he helps her with cleaning and takes her out for dinner. Liam helps his mom because a. his mom has asked for help. b. they always help each other in doing dishes. c. his mother was caring for his grandmother. d. he feels guilty for forgetting her birthday.

15. Warneken and Tomasello (2006) studied the helping behavior of 18-month-old infants with an adult experimenter. They found that a. infants this young didn’t demonstrate empathy or helping of any kind. b. infants this young understood when the experimenter needed help and most of them attempted to help. c. infants this young didn’t seem to sense when the experimenter needed help. d. infants this young understood when the experimenter needed help but did not know how to offer help.

16. Emma works for a NGO. She fundraises by visiting corporations and wealthy individuals. She can increase her donations by a. making herself look more attractive. b. invoking empathy by noting she is in a bind. c. first putting potential helpers in a self-focused negative mood. d. making her requests over the telephone rather than in person.

17. Research on people’s willingness to help individuals with AIDS indicates that we tend to be more likely to offer assistance a. to people we believe are deserving of help. b. to people who are gravely ill and will die soon. c. when we are in a good mood. d. when we are in a bad mood.

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Chap_10_11e 18. The bystander effect refers to the tendency for a. the presence of others to inhibit helping. b. the presence of others to promote helping. c. bystander helping to be motivated more by egoistic concerns than altruistic ones. d. bystander helping to be motivated more by altruistic concerns than egoistic ones.

19. The bystander effect can be reduced if a. a bystander’s training is relevant to the emergency at hand. b. there are many bystanders. c. the bystanders do not know each other. d. the bystanders do not know the victim.

20. Research on attractiveness and helping indicates that a. we are more likely to help attractive people than unattractive people. b. attractive people are less likely to be helped because of jealousy. c. we are less likely to help attractive people because we assume they will reject us. d. attractive people rarely ask for help and are thus helped less.

21. During a study in Liberia, only 7% of the population reported making a charitable donation but 76% of Liberian respondents reported helping a stranger within a month. This points out that a. prosocial behavior takes different forms across cultures. b. it is one of the poorest countries in the world. c. the greater the population size, the more likely people donate. d. the relationship between time pressure and helping is inconsistent.

22. People who seem particularly nice, sociable, or happy are termed as having a. physical attractiveness. b. aesthetic attractiveness. c. sexual attractiveness. d. interpersonal attractiveness.

23. Research suggests that the bystander effect a. has become much less pronounced in our modern, technology-driven era. b. is more common among women than men. c. happens more often among friends than among strangers. d. does occur with online and virtual groups as well as in-person groups.

24. Researchers observed that people may be more likely to remain longer as active volunteers if their initial motivation was more . a. self-oriented b. ambivalent c. other-oriented d. Selfless Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_11e 25. Some research has found that bats shared food with both kin and nonkin under safe conditions. When the conditions seemed dangerous, the bats shared a much greater proportion of food with close relatives. This finding is consistent with a. kin selection. b. the bystander effect. c. pluralistic ignorance. d. the negative-state relief model.

26. Research by Gentile and others (2009) on media effects and helping behavior found that a. people assigned their partner the easiest puzzles after playing a prosocial video game. b. people assigned their partner the easiest puzzles after playing a violent video game. c. people were more likely to answer more questions on a questionnaire after playing a prosocial video game. d. people were more likely to answer fewer questions on a questionnaire after playing a violent video game.

27. People who have experienced distressing or traumatic events a. derive more satisfaction from helping strangers than from helping close others. b. show mental and physical health benefits from helping others. c. more carefully weigh the potential costs of helping. d. are paradoxically less likely to help others if they themselves were helped.

28. Feeling good often leads to doing good or increased helping behavior because a. people want to maintain their good mood. b. people in a good mood have a higher level of mental arousal. c. people in a good mood are more likely to avoid pluralistic ignorance and notice an individual in need of help. d. there is a positive correlation between good mood and an altruistic personality.

29. For doctors and nurses, too much empathy can be a. essential to effective job performance. b. a risk factor for depression. c. a result of clinical training. d. a way to retain one’s humanity.

30. Dewanto hears what sounds like gunshots coming from the school parking lot. None of his classmates appears concerned, so Dewanto assumes that they know the sound was only a car backfiring or someone playing with firecrackers. Dewanto’s beliefs illustrate a. diffusion of responsibility. b. empathic concern. c. audience inhibition. d. pluralistic ignorance.

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Chap_10_11e 31. In one of the most infamous cases of the bystander effect, neighbors watched as Kitty Genovese was repeatedly attacked and sexually assaulted (and eventually killed). None of those observers called police until 45 minutes had passed. a. 12 b. 25 c. 38 d. 51 32. Which of the following statements regarding gender and helping behavior is false? a. Men, unlike women, often feel that their self-esteem is threatened by needing to ask for help from someone else. b. Men are more likely than women to offer help in a situation involving potential physical danger. c. Men, unlike women, are more likely to offer help in situations where they can do so anonymously. d. Men are less likely than women to receive help in an emergency situation.

33. Ginny thinks she hears a husband physically abusing his wife. However, she does not call the police because she is afraid that her neighbors will ostracize her if she is wrong. Ginny’s failure to act is a case of a. negative state relief. b. audience inhibition. c. empathic concern. d. pluralistic ignorance.

34. The negative state relief model of helping behavior a. supports the existence of altruism in the real world. b. applies more to emergencies than to nonemergency situations. c. identifies yet another way in which helping can be egoistic. d. is based on the ego defense mechanism of reaction formation.

35. As compared to feelings of personal distress, empathic concern a. is more likely in emergency situations. b. does not directly impact helping behavior. c. is more cognitive in nature. d. is other-oriented rather than self-oriented.

36. One way for the social connection of a community to increase is to a. experience a natural disaster. b. become wealthier. c. increase its ratio of men to women. d. provide financial incentives to those who connect to others.

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Chap_10_11e 37. According to Giving USA (2019), the residents of individualistic states in the United States are residents of more collectivist states. a. less likely to offer assistance in an emergency b. more likely to give to charity c. more susceptible to the bystander effect

than

d. less generous 38. Darley and Latané’s (1968) “epileptic seizure” study demonstrated that a. helping is primarily egoistic. b. helping is primarily altruistic. c. helping is inversely related to group size. d. helping is positively related to group size.

39. Sharon, who lives in Cunningham, went to a restaurant with her family on a bright sunny afternoon for lunch and left a generous tip to the waiter who served them before leaving. Sharon’s generous attitude is most likely due to a. being in a good mood. b. reciprocity norms. c. pluralistic ignorance. d. negative state relief.

40. Levine and others (2005) conducted an experiment in which a “jogger,” a confederate, was wearing a t-shirt that was either the same as the participant’s favorite soccer team, the t-shirt of a rival team, or a neutral t-shirt.

The “jogger” fell in front of the participant, appearing to sustain an injury. Participants were a. less likely to help if the jogger was wearing a rival team shirt. b. more likely to help if the jogger was wearing their own favorite team’s shirt. c. both less likely to help a jogger wearing a rival shirt and more likely to help a jogger wearing their own team’s shirt. d. equally likely to help in the “favorite” and “neutral” conditions, but more likely to help in the “rival” condition.

41. Joey and Chandler are not related to each other, yet Chandler goes out of his way to leave work early so he can give Joey a ride to the airport. From an evolutionary perspective, which of the following concepts applies to Chandler’s behavior toward Joey? a. Kin selection b. Reciprocal altruism c. The cost-reward model d. Moral hypocrisy

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Chap_10_11e 42. Karen and Rob are talking to a mutual friend who suddenly breaks down and asks if one of them can stay and talk about an important problem. Who is probably more likely to help? a. Karen is more likely to help. b. Rob is more likely to help. c. Both are equally likely to help. d. Whether Karen or Rob is more likely to help depends on the gender of the friend.

43. The state in which people in a group mistakenly think that their own individual thoughts, feelings, or behaviors are different from those of others in the group is called a. stimulus overload. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. courageous resistance. d. diffusion of responsibility.

44. Online file-sharing websites depend on the idea of a. reciprocal altruism. b. kin selection. c. audience inhibition. d. the cost-reward model.

45. Which of the following is not one of the five steps to helping proposed by Latané and Darley (1970)? a. Interpret the event as an emergency. b. Invoke the norm of reciprocity. c. Take responsibility for providing help. d. Notice that something is happening.

46. The ability to understand or vicariously experience another’s perspective and to feel sympathy and compassion for that person is called . a. Synergy b. prosocial behavior c. Empathy d. Altruism 47. Men are more likely than women to help others in situations involving a. physical danger and an audience. b. anonymous circumstances. c. another man. d. emotional support.

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Chap_10_11e 48. Charlene volunteers one afternoon each week at the local soup kitchen because she is genuinely concerned about the welfare of the less fortunate citizens in her community. Charlene’s behavior would best be characterized as a. egoistic. b. altruistic. c. affective. d. evolutionary.

49. Patricia needs help in finishing her assignment, and Irina is capable of giving it. Irina is more likely to help if she a. perceives Patricia as responsible for her predicament. b. is low on agreeability. c. endorses the norm of justice more than the norm of social responsibility. d. has a shared identity with Patricia.

50. Which of the following factors will lead to greater helping in an emergency situation? a. A large group of bystanders witnesses the emergency. b. The emergency occurs in a busy environment. c. The emergency involves two victims who are clearly related. d. The situation is clearly an emergency that is difficult to ignore.

51. The proposition that people help others in order to counteract their own feelings of sadness is called the model. a. cost-reward b. negative state relief c. empathy–altruism d. diffusion-of-responsibility 52. The cognitive component of empathy that involves seeing the world through someone else’s eyes is called a. anxious introspection. b. personal distress. c. perspective taking. d. empathic affect.

53. Cosmo is walking home on a busy downtown street when he notices a woman lying on the sidewalk who appears to have lost consciousness. Which of the following obstacles to helping would best explain why he did not interpret the event as an emergency? a. Audience inhibition b. Pluralistic ignorance c. Diffusion of responsibility d. Empathetic altruism

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Chap_10_11e 54. Which of the following hormones has been implicated by neuroscientists in empathy and prosocial behaviors? a. Oxytocin b. Cortical c. Estrogen d. Testosterone 55. One reason that perceived similarity may increase helping is that it a. causes people to think about their values. b. enables people to see the power of the situation. c. breaks down dispositional inferences. d. provides a meaningful connection between the helper and the person being helped.

56. Which of the following countries did not fall in the top 16 on a measure called the “World Giving Index” between the years 2013 and 2017? a. Singapore b. Malta c. Malaysia d. Sri Lanka 57. Kevin asks Winnie to drive him to the airport. Though Winnie doesn’t really want to, she agrees because Kevin loaned her money last week. Winnie agreed to help as an act of a. altruism. b. reciprocity. c. empathy. d. cooperation.

58. Meryl spends most of her vacation time volunteering in Somalia as she feels strongly about the plight of children there. Meryl’s thoughts regarding her actions are consistent with a. reciprocal altruism. b. empathy–altruism hypothesis. c. self-interested goals. d. social influence.

59. Angelina arrived at the site where her sister Mary and her friend were involved in an accident. Angelina ran to help her sister out of the car but waited for others to help Mary’s friend. According to the study by Fitzgerald and others (2010), which of the following statements best explains Angelina’s actions? a. In high-risk scenarios, we are motivated to help anyone. b. In low-risk scenarios, we are willing to help friends and relatives. c. In all scenarios, we are unlikely to help someone not genetically related to us. d. In high-risk scenarios, we are more willing to help only our closest relatives.

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Chap_10_11e 60. Which of the following combinations of traits has been shown to be essential to helping? a. Extroversion and conscientiousness b. Empathy and advanced moral reasoning c. Empathy and introversion d. Independence and conscientiousness 61. “Good Samaritan” laws a. encourage bystanders to intervene in emergencies. b. only apply to those with professional training. c. are fairly rare in the United States. d. require people to intervene in the case of an emergency, even if doing so is dangerous for the helper.

62. Which of the following observations best illustrates the act of reciprocity that can influence helping behavior? a. If someone has the opportunity to help you but chooses not to, you are less likely to offer them assistance when they need it in the future. b. Individuals are more likely to offer assistance to others who are perceived to be “deserving” of help. c. When people are in a situation in which they feel that they have received more benefits than they really have earned, they are eager to help those who are underbenefited. d. Instead of helping others out of concern for their well-being, sometimes we offer assistance simply to avoid looking bad.

63. Actions intended to benefit others are called a. prosocial b. altruistic c. egoistic d. aggressive

behaviors.

64. Latané and Darley’s (1968) “smoke-filled room” study demonstrates the concept of a. diffusion of responsibility. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. audience inhibition. d. negative state relief.

65. Which situational change would not have made it more likely that someone would’ve acted to help Kitty Genovese during her attack? a. If some of her neighbors had been police officers b. If there had been 76 witnesses instead of 38 c. If some of her neighbors had known her before the attack occurred d. If some of the witnesses had just heard a lecture on the situational influences on helping behavior

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Chap_10_11e 66. Reluctance to help for fear of making a bad impression on observers is called a. kin selection. b. audience inhibition. c. arousal inhibition. d. pluralistic reluctance.

67. The belief that others will or should take the responsibility for providing assistance to a person in need is called a. the bystander effect. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. pluralistic ignorance. d. audience inhibition.

68. The empathy–altruism hypothesis maintains that, regardless of how easy it is to escape from a situation, people will help someone else if their motives are a. altruistic. b. simplistic. c. idiographic. d. egoistic.

69. When Jo witnesses a serious plane crash, she feels compassion, sympathy, and tenderness for the victims. Her feelings are indicative of a. anxious introspection. b. perspective taking. c. kin selection. d. empathic concern.

70. The primary distinction between altruistic and egoistic helping concerns the a. motivations of the helper. b. ratio of rewards to costs. c. number of bystanders present. d. mood of the helper.

71. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the negative state relief model? a. Shoppers who are given a free gift are more likely to donate money to a solicitor as they leave the store. b. Students who feel guilty about falling asleep in class are more likely to complete the assignments on time. c. Professional athletes are more likely to sign autographs for fans following a win than following a loss. d. People who win the lottery are more likely to give money to charity than those who have not won the lottery.

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Chap_10_11e 72. Research suggests that negative moods tend to enhance helping a. almost never. b. when responsibility for the negative mood is placed elsewhere. c. when helping values are not relevant. d. when helping is thought to repair mood.

73. Jacinta volunteers at a local clinic where patients with AIDS come to get treatment and social assistance. She spends 10 to 15 hours a week at the clinic because it helps her escape the pressures and stress in her life.

Which motivation category is behind Jacinta’s volunteerism? a. Values b. Esteem enhancement c. Understanding d. Personal development 74. A classic book, The Selfish Gene, by evolutionary biologist Richard Dawkins suggests that evolutionary perspectives emphasize not the survival of the fittest individuals but a. the fittest individual does not gain an advantage over the less-fit. b. the economic rewards of helping are greater than the costs. c. it helps to secure propagation of an individual’s genes. d. it is performed for altruistic rather than egoistic motives.

75. Having struggled with panhandlers on the subway, hassles at the office, and telephone calls at dinner, Allison retreats to her bedroom rather than noticing that her daughter needs help with a homework assignment. She is probably reacting to a. social norms. b. bystander calculus. c. stimulus overload. d. reactance.

76. Darley and Batson (1973) found that the helping behavior of seminary students was best predicted by a. how religious they were. b. the type of speech they were about to give. c. how much time they had. d. the sex of the person being helped.

77. A series of studies revealed that participants were less likely to help someone if they thought a. the person was heavy. b. the person was nice and bold. c. the person was attractive. d. the person was social and happy.

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Chap_10_11e 78. Eleanor is asked to help the people who live on the other side of the city restore their block after it was burned down in a fire. It is most probable that she will help if the people on the other side of the city. a. her personality is similar to that of b. her values are similar to those of c. she has the same social status as d. she feels a meaningful connection with 79. If a person can be blamed for his or her predicament, he or she is less likely to receive help. This scenario is related to . a. social influence b. reciprocal altruism c. attributions of responsibility d. reluctant altruism 80. Behaviors that are motivated by selfish concerns are best described as a. Altruistic b. Arrogant c. idiographic d. Egoistic

.

81. Suppose Barbara is feeling sad and she sees Mort struggling to move a piece of furniture. She would be most likely to help Mort if Barbara a. accepted personal responsibility for her bad mood. b. and Mort were young children. c. was self-focused on her own concerns. d. blamed someone else for her bad mood.

82. Steven feels that drug addicts often deserve their plight. He still donates clothes to a rehabilitation center with the thought that someday someone will also help him out. Steven’s thoughts regarding his actions are most consistent with a. empathy. b. reluctant altruism. c. altruistic personality. d. reciprocal altruism.

83. According to the empathy–altruism hypothesis, altruistic behavior is primarily the result of a. feeling another person’s pain. b. rewards and costs. c. personal distress. d. evolution and sympathy

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Chap_10_11e 84. Research suggests that if you are soliciting the help of strangers at the mall, you are most likely to be successful if you a. stand in front of a bakery. b. approach older adults as opposed to younger people. c. position yourself by the exit of a movie theater that is showing a sad film. d. appear to be angry.

85. Research by Batson on the empathy–altruism hypothesis suggests that a. all helping is altruistic. b. most helping is egoistic. c. helping is affected by many motives, including altruism. d. helping is affected by many motives, but rarely altruism.

86. William Chopik and others (2017) found that empathy predicted a. volunteering. b. financial donations. c. providing emotional support. d. religious activities.

87. Kramer was on the subway during rush hour and failed to offer assistance to a woman who fell down and lost consciousness. One explanation for why he might not have noticed the emergency would be a. audience inhibition. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. stimulus overload.

88. The bystander effect does not tend to occur when the bystanders are a. all friends. b. all strangers. c. only in one’s mind. d. on the Internet.

89. Ryo Oda and others (2014) found that a. agreeableness b. openness c. conscientiousness d. moral reasoning

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was associated with altruism toward family members.

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Chap_10_11e 90. Farrelly and others (2007) concluded that these types of people are more likely to be offered help and cooperation. a. Heavy people b. Attractive people c. Needy people d. People who ask for help 91. Newman notices that the passenger seated across from him on the subway has his eyes closed and hasn’t moved in a while. But he looks around and sees that no one else, including those passengers who were on the train when he boarded, seems too concerned about this man. He decides that this probably means there isn’t an emergency and the man is not in need of help. This line of thinking epitomizes which of the following concepts? a. Stimulus overload b. Pluralistic ignorance c. Audience inhibition d. Diffusion of responsibility 92. Asuni hears her neighbor’s burglar alarm go off in the middle of the night, but she doesn’t call the police because she assumes that one of the other neighbors will do so. Asuni’s failure to call the police is the result of a. pluralistic ignorance. b. audience inhibition. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. stimulus overload.

93. During his statistics class this morning, Stuart was completely confused. He considered asking questions during the lecture, but because nobody else asked questions, he did not want to raise his hand and make a fool of himself in front of everyone. Stuart’s failure to ask questions most likely stems from a. diffusion of responsibility. b. stimulus overload. c. pluralistic ignorance. d. audience inhibition.

94. Sandy missed class because she is sick, but Luis did attend the lecture. Sandy asks Luis if she can borrow his notes. If Luis considers Sandy’s situation from her point of view and decides to offer help without expecting some form of payback, he is most likely a. invoking the norm of reciprocal altruism. b. operating under an altruistic motive. c. operating under an egoistic motive. d. following the negative state relief model.

95. Joan Chiao (2011) estimates that between a. 8% and 10% b. 29% and 35% c. 56% and 72% d. 88% and 92% Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

of prosocial behavior can be attributed to genetic effects.

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Chap_10_11e 96. Research on the empathy–altruism model has demonstrated that individuals help . a. high; when escape from the situation is difficult, but not when escape is easy b. low; if they can easily escape from the situation, but not if escape is difficult c. high; regardless of the ease of escape from a situation

in empathic concern offer

d. low; regardless of the ease of escape from a situation 97. Benny has a heart attack while riding a crowded city bus and nobody on the bus attempts to help him. This exemplifies a. the bystander effect. b. the good mood effect. c. moral hypocrisy. d. the norm of social responsibility.

98. When Christine sees how upset Jim is about his father’s death, she, too, becomes upset. As a result, she goes out of her way to console Jim. Christine’s actions are consistent with the a. empathy–altruism hypothesis. b. mood maintenance model. c. norm of reciprocity. d. threat to self-esteem model.

99. The collectivist cultures in which individualistic values, such as endorsing personal choice and tolerance for diversity, have directly shown recent gains in rates of . a. volunteering b. donations c. charity d. social influence 100. Research by Omoto and Snyder (1995) found that volunteers who decided to help AIDS victims had service if their initial motives were . a. longer; self-oriented b. longer; other-oriented c. shorter; religious d. shorter; egoistic 101. Which of the following statements about empathy is most accurate? a. It has emotional and behavioral components but not a cognitive component. b. It is uniquely human and begins to appear after adolescence. c. It is independent of the ability to take another person’s perspective. d. It is much debated as to how it should be defined.

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Chap_10_11e 102. Support that comes from just thinking about close friends and family but that does not involve seeking or receiving their help in coping with stressful events is called a. implicit social support. b. heroic altruism. c. identity fusion. d. communal relationship.

103. The empathy–altruism model suggests that when escape from a situation is easy, people will a. offer help only when they have empathic concern. b. offer help only when they are in a good mood. c. almost always exhibit altruism. d. be likely to experience empathic concern.

104. Research on culture and helping indicates that collectivist cultures are more likely to help their likely to help their . a. ingroup; outgroup b. outgroup; ingroup c. children; parents d. parents; children

and less

105. Alain Cohn and others (2019) conducted a three-year study around the world to see how strangers would respond to being handed a “lost” wallet. What conclusion did the researchers come to, as to why the strangers returned the wallets that contained money? a. The strangers did not want to violate a norm against taking someone’s money. b. The strangers felt that nearby surveillance cameras had recorded them accepting the wallet. c. The strangers wanted a reward for turning in the wallet. d. The strangers were afraid of being accused of stealing the wallet.

106. Which of the following statements about reciprocal altruism is most accurate? a. Reciprocal altruism is a strictly human phenomenon and observed only in mature adults. b. Reciprocal altruism is a strictly human phenomenon that has been observed throughout the lifespan. c. Reciprocal altruism occurs in humans and nonhuman primates but not in nonprimate animals. d. Reciprocal altruism has been demonstrated in nonhuman primates as well as nonprimate animals.

107. An important element of helping in Spanish and Latin-American cultures is called a. Simpatia b. déja vu. c. je ne sais quoi. d. inferno.

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Chap_10_11e 108. Eisenberg and others (2002) found that the extent to which preschool children exhibited spontaneous helping behavior predicted how helpful they would be in later childhood and early adulthood. This finding is consistent with the hypothesis that a. there are stable individual differences in helping. b. situational factors can. c. the altruistic personality is genetically based. d. individuals high in empathy tend to be more helpful than those low in empathy.

109. Simon’s decision whether or not to help someone is based primarily on whether that person seems to deserve assistance. Simon is motivated by concerns about a. administrative rules. b. equity. c. social responsibility. d. justice.

110. Hye-su is thinking about how proud her parents are that she is in college, and how much they believe in her.

This makes her feel more capable about her ability to succeed in college. Hye-su is benefiting from a. implicit social support. b. explicit social support. c. internal motivation. d. external motivation.

111. Research on the effects of helping in cross-race versus same-race situations shows that a. people are more likely to help those of their own race. b. people are more likely to help those of a different race. c. there is not a consistent relationship between racial similarity and helping. d. there is a strong tendency for people to help persons of all races equally.

112. Nina is a cheerful and positive person. Recently she became sad and quiet due to the passing away of her dog.

When her friend asks Nina to help her take her cat to the veterinarian, Nina probably will a. be more likely to help. b. be less likely to help. c. focus more on the costs of helping rather than the rewards. d. be more concerned with the potential for reciprocity.

113. Giles volunteers his time to his local community center because he thinks it will look good on his college applications. Giles’s behavior would best be described as likely a. democratic. b. egoistic. c. altruistic. d. idealistic.

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Chap_10_11e 114. According to Latané and Darley’s (1970) five-step model of helping, analysis of costs and rewards occurs just prior to a. noticing the event. b. interpreting the event as an emergency. c. taking responsibility to help. d. providing help.

115. When people think they will be scorned by others for failing to help, audience inhibition a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same as it would in any situation. d. escalates.

116. Which of the following reasons does not stand out as an inspiration to exemplify helping? a. .When helping behavior makes us more superior and well known in the society b. When we are rewarded for helpful behavior c. When model behavior makes us aware of the standards of conduct in the society d. When we provide an example of helping behavior to imitate directly 117. Ambiguity of a situation would interfere with potential helping behavior just after which step of Lateen and Darley’s (1970) five-step model of helping? a. Noticing the event b. Interpreting the event as an emergency c. Taking responsibility to help d. Providing help 118. Women are more likely than men to help others in situations involving a. physical danger and an audience. b. anonymous circumstances. c. another man. d. emotional support.

119. The principle of kin selection is based on the assumption that a. although it is sometimes beneficial to help our kin, we must focus primarily on helping ourselves if we are to survive danger. b. it is the survival of genes that matters most from an evolutionary perspective. c. we will help those who are likely to reciprocate that help regardless of whether or not they are genetically related to us. d. those who have the greatest reproductive fitness share more genes with their kin.

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Chap_10_11e 120. Bob was an active alcoholic for 8 years, during which time he lost his wife and custody of his daughter. Now that he has been clean and sober for 3 years, he is a sponsor for several other people who are struggling to stop drinking. He says that helping others makes him feel better about the things that he lost while he was drinking.

Bob’s actions to help others recover from addiction are driven by the model of helping. a. negative state relief b. empathy–altruism c. equity maintaining d. Justice 121. We help our family and our friends more than strangers. We tend to be more helpful when we are empathic toward the plight of others. Diffusion of responsibility is reduced if we anticipate making the acquaintance of someone who needs help. All of these examples illustrate a. the influence of social support on behavior. b. the underlying human need for social connections. c. the predisposition for people to help others. d. the conflict between altruistic and egocentric motives.

122. Many different factors contribute to the bystander effect. Which of the following factors does not contribute directly to the bystander effect? a. Audience inhibition b. Time pressure c. Pluralistic ignorance d. Diffusion of responsibility 123. People in exchange relationships are more likely than those in communal relationships to a. exhibit pure altruism toward one another. b. get angry at violations of the reciprocity norm. c. feel good about helping one another. d. demonstrate helping behavior in an effort to alleviate negative mood.

124. Some cross-racial helping is not truly altruistic because it can be a sign of a. kin selection. b. trying to alleviate your negative mood. c. social responsibility. d. feelings of superiority over the person being helped.

125. People are probably most helpful when the weather is a. sunny. b. snowy. c. rainy. d. cloudy.

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Chap_10_11e 126. Joseph sees a frail man limping on the corner of his property. Joseph is most likely to help if the costs of a. not helping are small, and Joseph will gain nothing from helping. b. not helping are small, and Joseph will feel better about himself by helping. c. helping are large, and Joseph will feel better about himself by helping. d. helping are small, and Joseph will feel better about himself by helping.

127. In their famous Good Samaritan study, Darley and Batson (1973) found that a. students studying to become ministers were more likely to offer assistance to a stranger than college students. b. seminary students on their way to give a sermon involving the Good Samaritan parable were more likely to offer assistance to a stranger than students preparing sermons on other topics. c. the more religious seminary students were, the more likely they were to stop to offer assistance to a stranger as they walked across campus. d. the topic of the seminarians’ talks had little impact on the likelihood that they would help.

128. What would be the right and most effective approach for a person to secure help in an emergency situation? a. Make a very loud general plea for help. b. Ask a specific individual for help. c. Request help from those who are more psychologically distant from the situation. d. Appear to have the situation entirely under control.

129. Describe how the presence of bystanders affects helping.

130. Identify two characteristics of a person in need that might affect the likelihood that the person is helped.

131. Is there such a thing as an altruistic personality? Why or why not?

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Chap_10_11e 132. Discuss how identity fusion is related to the likelihood that one will provide help to others.

133. Describe how moods, both good and bad, affect helping.

134. Explain how empathy affects helping.

135. Discuss the helping connection between the helper and the help receiver.

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Chap_10_11e Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap_10_11e 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_11e 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_11e 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. d 102. a 103. a 104. a 105. a 106. d 107. a 108. a 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_11e 111. c 112. a 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. a 117. a 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. d 128. b 129. When bystanders are present, a victim is less likely to receive help. Bystanders impede helping by reducing the likelihood that potential helpers will (1) notice that the victim needs help, (2) interpret the situation as an emergency, (3) take responsibility for helping, (4) decide to offer help, and finally (5) provide help. These factors together make it less likely that a victim will be helped by someone in a crowd than by a single individual.

130. Answers to this question will vary but may include the following points: attractive people tend to be helped more than unattractive people, as do individuals who are not considered to be responsible for their predicament. We are also more likely to help those who are similar and those who share family or group ties with us.

131. There are certainly reliable individual differences that predict one’s propensity for helping. For example, agreeableness is a widely recognized personality trait that is positively related to helping behavior. Humility seems to promote helping behavior. Yet the two traits that seem most closely linked to helping behavior—empathy and moral reasoning—are not generally recognized as personality traits per se. That is, they are not part of the Big Five model, which is the most widely recognized model of personality among academic researchers in social psychology. They may be better labeled “individual difference” variables rather than “personality” traits.

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Chap_10_11e 132. How strongly connected people feel with an ingroup can influence how willing they are to help fellow group members.

William Swann and Michael Buhrmester (2015) report that people who experience identity fusion with a group—that is, a strong sense of “oneness” and shared identity with a group and its individual members—are more likely to help group members, even to the point of risking or sacrificing their lives in the process. The groups to which people feel fused may even be relatively large and abstract. Buhrmester and Swann (2015) measured how fused a sample of Americans felt with their country. The researchers couldn’t have known this, of course, but a week later there was a terrorist bombing at the 2013 Boston Marathon. Two days after the bombing the researchers contacted the participants again and asked them what actions, if any, they had taken to help the victims of the bombing. The more fused the participants were with their country, the more likely they were to have taken actions to provide support for the victims.

133. Both good and bad moods can lead to increased helping. When in good moods, positive thoughts become more accessible, leading to more consideration of helping others. In addition, people in good moods may help more in order to maintain these moods. Alternatively, people in bad moods may help more in order to remove their guilt or to rid themselves of the bad moods. This is known as the negative state relief model. It should be noted, however, that bad moods only tend to increase helping in adults and older children.

134. The empathy–altruism hypothesis proposes that people are more likely to help someone altruistically if they take his or her perspective. Doing so creates an emotional response or concern for this other person, which in turn creates a motive to help that is satisfied when his or her distress is reduced. This hypothesis suggests, then, that helping is sometimes altruistic, not egoistic. Some would argue, however, that there is no such thing as pure altruism, and that all helping behavior includes an egoistic component.

135. A sense of connection fosters helping. This connection has taken various forms: genetic relatedness, empathic concern, sense of responsibility for someone, perceived similarity, shared group membership, and so on. The relationship between helping and interpersonal connection runs like a bright red thread through much of the research on helping:

People are prone to help their kin, ingroup members, and people with whom they have a close or reciprocal relationship.

Two kinds of connections lie at the heart of the empathy–altruism hypothesis: the cognitive connection of perspective taking and the emotional connection of empathic concern.

In an emergency, bystanders who know the victim or know each other are more likely to intervene.

People who respond empathically to another’s suffering and consider the plight of others in their own moral reasoning are more likely to help than are others.

Perceived similarity increases helping.

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Chap_11_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Nisbett and Cohen (1996) found that among in the American South, there was a greater acceptance of the notion that a man has a right to kill in defense of his family and his house. a. black women b. white women c. black men d. white men 2. Which of the following theories explains the deliberate, thoughtful consideration that we give to stimuli before reacting to it? a. Arousal-affect model b. Higher-order cognitive processing c. Frustration-aggression hypothesis (original version) d. Relational association theory 3. Daniel fits the profile of a person who might engage in a sexually aggressive manner. This means that he probably exhibits in response to violent pornography and tends to have attitudes toward violence against women. a. increased arousal; negative b. increased arousal; positive c. decreased arousal; negative d. decreased arousal; positive 4. Research on the link between media violence and aggression has demonstrated that a. exposure to violent films increases aggressive behavior in the lab, but decreases aggressive behavior in the field. b. violent films increase aggressiveness, but violent music videos and song lyrics do not increase aggressiveness. c. all media violence ultimately reduces aggression by providing a cathartic outlet. d. all forms of media violence appear to increase the likelihood of aggressive behavior.

5. Compared to straight men, gay men are a. less likely to physically aggress, but equally likely to engage in indirect aggression. b. less likely to both physically and indirectly aggress. c. more likely to physically aggress, but less likely to engage in direct aggression. d. more likely to both physically and indirectly aggress.

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Chap_11_11e 6. Research investigating the relationship between alcohol and aggression has shown that a. intoxicated people are likely to base their aggressive responses on initial, salient information about a situation and fail to recognize later, subtle cues. b. small and large amounts of alcohol tend to increase aggression, whereas moderate amounts tend to decrease it. c. alcohol makes men more likely to aggress, but it makes women less likely to aggress. d. intoxicated people are more likely to be influenced by the weapons effect, whereas sober people are more likely to be affected by factors relevant to the cognitive neoassociation analysis.

7. A component not involved in aggression replacement training is a. improved moral reasoning. b. social competence training. c. aggression control. d. systematic desensitization.

8. The only way that Britney can get her husband to stop leaving his dirty socks on the kitchen table is to pinch him every time he does it. Britney’s aggressive behavior is perpetuated through the idea of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

9. Char ice, a teenaged girl, is angry with her friend, so she tells all her other friends that this girl has had sex with most of the football team. Carmen’s behavior illustrates aggression. a. indirect b. hostile c. physical d. overt 10. Which of the following would decrease the likelihood that Chris would behave in a physically aggressive manner? a. If Chris is a teenager b. If Chris is male c. If Chris is drunk d. If Chris is gay 11. What was the conclusion of studies conducted for a random sample of female college students to watch movies involving physical and relational aggression? a. They became less aggressive irrespective of the nature of movies. b. They become more physically aggressive than relationally aggressive. c. They expressed a neutral response to both movies. d. They were primed to behave more relationally aggressive than physically aggressive.

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Chap_11_11e 12. Which of the following theories states that behavior is learned through the observation of others as well as through the direct experience of rewards and punishments? a. Multisystemic b. Frustration-aggression c. Social learning d. I-cubed 13. Denson et al. (2011) found that training in training were provided. a. social learning b. self-esteem

resulted in less aggressiveness following provocation than if no

c. catharsis d. self-control 14. The term that best describes the difference between aggression and violence is a. extremity. b. intent. c. affect. d. hostility.

15. Arleta gets extremely drunk. Given the research on alcohol and aggression, which of the following is unlikely to happen? a. She will be more aggressive only if she tends to be nonaggressive when sober. b. She will be more aggressive under the influence of alcohol than she is sober. c. She will fail to be as attentive to mitigating information when she is drunk. d. She will feel less anxious and thus will feel less inhibited about behaving aggressively.

16. Which of the following statements is most consistent with evolutionary explanations of aggression? a. Children are more likely to be abused by their biological parents than by stepparents. b. Male-to-female violence is predominantly triggered by sexual jealousy. c. Male-to-male violence is triggered by a rise in testosterone. d. Different cultures demonstrate different levels of aggressiveness.

17. According to I3 theory, what “I” increases Martin's likelihood of acting in an aggressive manner when Trisha declines his offer to go on a date? a. Impellance b. Instigation c. Inhibition d. Impetuousness

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Chap_11_11e 18. When Mina first started playing the new Blood Bath Beach Party video game, the extremely violent images made her cringe. Now she has played the game so many times that she barely even notices such images. This illustrates a. desensitization. b. cultivation. c. rumination. d. habituation.

19. In observing aggressive behavior in children, Bandura et al. (1961) demonstrated that a. children will follow an adult model’s lead in terms of degree and nature of aggression demonstrated. b. antisocial behaviors are mostly associated with highly aggressive children. c. violent TV has little effect on the children’s own aggressive tendencies. d. physical punishment may curtail the aggressive tendencies of children.

20. Nonie gets a new Barbie doll for her sixth birthday, and she immediately begins to punch, kick, and throw the doll around the house. Which of the following is likely to have contributed to this behavior? a. Nonie saw Uncle Floyd yell at Auntie Mime when she threw her Barbie doll. b. Nonie saw her cousin Bruce hug and kiss his Barbie doll. c. Nonie just finished watching the new Barney beat up Barbie in a cartoon on television. d. Nonie has been socialized in a stereotypical female role.

21. Deion is least likely to imitate the aggressive behaviors of Darcy if Darcy a. is a cartoon character. b. is punished for behaving aggressively. c. is rewarded for behaving aggressively. d. experiences catharsis following the aggressive behavior.

22. Sexually coercive behavior is least likely to be exhibited by someone who a. is highly sexually aroused by violent pornography. b. indicates greater acceptance of interpersonal violence against women. c. thinks he or she has consumed alcohol. d. indicates strong rejection of rape myths.

23. The Olweus Bullying Prevention program recommends interventions at several levels to reduce the incidence of bullying in schools. Which of the following interventions would be described as a classroom-level component? a. Form a bullying-prevention coordinating committee. b. Post and enforce school-wide rules against bullying. c. Ensure that all staff intervene on the spot when they observe bullying behaviors. d. Involve community members in the discussion of how to reduce bullying.

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Chap_11_11e 24. A negative, antagonistic attitude toward another person or group is called a. emotional aggression. b. hostility. c. anger. d. instrumental aggression.

25. Which of the following statements concerning a culture of honor is true? a. It is more prevalent among women than men. b. It is more prevalent in the northern United States than in the southern United States. c. It is a product of socialization that can influence the tendency to aggress. d. It is produced by differences in testosterone and serotonin levels.

26. A murder has been committed. Given the research on homicide, which of the following is most likely? a. The victim was black and the murdered was white. b. The murder occurred in the eastern United States. c. The murderer belongs to a culture of honor. d. The murderer and victim were of the same race.

27. What are the two steps of catharsis as described by Dollard and his colleagues? a. Reduction of physiological arousal; decrease in anger and aggression b. Freeing up of intrapsychic energy; greater ability to distract oneself from a frustrating stimulus c. Increase of physiological arousal; displacement of aggression onto weaker targets d. Reduction of physiological arousal; behaving in a way opposed to unconscious impulse 28. When his wife tells him that he cannot go out bowling with the guys, Homer gets mad and yells at his son, Bart.

Homer’s behavior is an example of a. instrumental aggression. b. catharsis. c. displacement. d. vicarious aggression.

29. According to the study of traits associated with aggression, if Bettina is extremely Type A, she will tend to a. be more aggressive than most people across situations. b. rely more on verbal versus physical aggression. c. be more aggressive than other people when provoked. d. exhibit more relational than overt forms of aggression.

30. A reduction of the motive to aggress that is said to result from any imagined, observed, or actual act of aggression is called a. catharsis. b. displacement. c. rumination. d. cultivation.

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Chap_11_11e 31. Aggressing against a substitute target because aggressive acts against the source of the frustration are inhibited by fear or lack of access is called a. catharsis. b. displacement. c. rumination. d. desensitization.

32. Research suggests that men’s attitudes toward violence against women as well as their beliefs about rape myths a. are primarily influenced by nonviolent pornography rather than violent pornography. b. are stable personality traits that are not influenced by exposure to violent pornography unless the exposure is very frequent and the material is extremely violent. c. tend to be affected by the men’s own arousal-based aggressive behaviors, but are not likely to be affected by observation of the aggressive behavior depicted in a movie. d. can influence the extent of their aggressive behavior in response to violent pornographic material.

33. Gershoff’s (2002) meta-analysis of over 36,000 participants indicates a positive correlation between corporal punishment and other factors. Which of the following factors was not shown to have a positive correlation? a. Aggression as a child b. Aggression as an adult c. Adult criminal behavior d. Improved academic performance 34. Ophelia has seen so many violent movies that she has become desensitized to them. This means that she a. believes the world is a much more violent place than it is in reality. b. believes the world is a much less violent place than it is in reality. c. experiences more physiological arousal in response to new images of violence. d. experiences less physiological arousal in response to new images of violence.

35. When Pauline accidentally bumps into Christopher, causing Christopher to spill his coffee, Christopher assumes that Pauline’s behavior was deliberately intended to make him spill his coffee. He responds by yelling obscenities at Pauline. Christopher could be described as a. having a hostile attribution bias. b. suffering from catharsis. c. displaying instrumental aggression. d. displaying relational aggression.

36. When exposed to situational cues, such as the presence of a gun, many people tend to a. demonstrate decreases in aggression. b. feel socially rejected. c. experience a decrease in testosterone. d. have automatic cognitions regarding aggression.

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Chap_11_11e 37. Two people are placed in a room and provoked to behave aggressively toward one another. Which of the following is most likely to happen if there is a weapon in the room? a. There is a greater likelihood that they will behave aggressively toward one another than if there was no weapon. b. There is a greater likelihood that they will engage in higher-order cognition and subsequently behave less aggressively toward one another than if there was no weapon. c. The weapon will increase the likelihood that they will behave aggressively toward one another, but only if the two people are male. d. The weapon will have no effect on whether or not they behave aggressively toward one another.

38. Which of the following factors is not a component of the I3 theory of aggression? a. Impellance b. Instigation c. Inhibition d. Intelligence 39. The concept of catharsis has been undermined by findings suggesting that engaging in or witnessing aggression often a. reduces the likelihood of cultivation. b. produces displacement. c. causes habituation. d. increases aggression at a later time.

40. The idea that frustration always elicits the motive to aggress and all aggression is caused by frustration is known as a. the frustration-aggression hypothesis. b. the negative affect model. c. excitation transfer theory. d. catharsis.

41. Which of the following best illustrates chikan, a practice widely criticized in Japan? a. People who sell drugs on the street are disciplined through public “vigilante” punishment rather than facing legal actions. b. Teachers in school are allowed to use caning as a disciplinary method on children as young as four years of age. c. Mothers take their daughters away from the home to raise them in solitude until they reach the age of three years. d. Adult businessmen grope schoolgirls who ride public transportation.

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Chap_11_11e 42. Jim thinks it would be funny to replace Dwight’s regular after-work pitcher of beer with nonalcoholic brew without telling him. Research suggests that after drinking this pitcher, Dwight would a. be much less aggressive than he usually is after drinking alcoholic beer. b. exhibit a severe form of alcohol myopia. c. potentially be just as aggressive as usual given his expectation that he has consumed alcohol. d. be less likely than usual to engage in displacement because of the lack of alcohol-associated excitation.

43. Whitley feels intensely displeased that Lena deliberately left the tuna fish sandwich sitting out in the sun so that Whitley would get food poisoning after she ate it. Whitley’s emotional response would best be described as a. instrumental aggression. b. hostility. c. anger. d. displacement.

44. One of the most successful treatments for violent juvenile delinquents is called a. multisystemic therapy. b. aggression replacement training. c. bullying prevention. d. sensitization therapy.

45. Consider a mother who slaps her son whenever he engages in aggression. If negative reinforcement is responsible for her behavior, what likely happens after she slaps him? a. He ignores her. b. He slaps her back. c. He behaves more aggressively. d. He behaves less aggressively.

46. Evolutionary accounts of aggression emphasize the a. role of aggression in securing food and land. b. contribution of genetics and hormones to aggressive behavior. c. importance of intrapsychic conflict in aggressive behavior. d. role of aggression in securing a mate.

47. Gee and Leith (2007) analyzed aggressive behavior in the National Hockey League (NHL). They concluded that players born in North America were more likely to resort to fighting to deal with their frustration because a. hockey players generally have aggressive personalities. b. they were always punished severely when they acted aggressively. c. the sport of hockey makes people act aggressively. d. they had been exposed to models of aggression in hockey from a young age.

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Chap_11_11e 48. When Katie found out that her brother Matt had pulled the heads off all of her Barbie dolls, she threw her Easy Bake oven at him. Katie’s behavior illustrates aggression. a. instrumental b. proactive c. incompatible d. reactive 49. Brown and others (2009) found the school violence is especially associated with a. the presence of weapons in the school. b. the culture of honor in the area. c. the level of economic frustration in the geographic region. d. the temperature of the day.

50. Regarding self-esteem and aggression, which of the following statements is false? a. Narcissism is a good predictor of aggression. b. Low self-esteem is a good predictor of aggression. c. Narcissism is correlated with aggression in response to provocation. d. High self-esteem is predictive of aggression when combined with narcissism and provocation.

51. Which of the following most closely represents the weapons effect? a. The presence of weapons deters individuals from performing aggressive acts, but not from learning the positive reinforcements that are associated with violence. b. The presence of weapons can act as an aggression cue that increases the likelihood of aggressive behaviors. c. Although the presence of weapons does not make aggression more likely, it does tend to increase the severity of aggression. d. Exposure to weapons in the media desensitizes individuals to violence, thus reducing their inhibitions against aggression.

52. Of the following, the frustration-aggression hypothesis would probably be least effective as an explanation for a. instrumental aggression. b. emotional aggression. c. hate crimes due to poor economy. d. examples of road rage.

53. Proactive is the same as a. instrumental; emotional b. emotional; instrumental c. relational; impersonal d. impersonal; relational

aggression, while reactive is the same as

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aggression.

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Chap_11_11e 54. Aggressive behavior whereby harm is inflicted as a means to a desired end is known as a. proactive b. reactive

aggression.

c. emotional d. relational 55. What was evident from the research by Forbes and others (2009, 2011) about how levels of aggression differed in individualist versus collectivist cultures? a. Aggression levels were highest in the United States, a highly individualist culture. b. Aggression levels were highest in China, a highly collectivist culture. c. Aggression levels were lowest in the United States, a highly collectivist culture. d. Both the United States and China had equally high levels of aggression.

56. Finnegan notices his wife talking to another man and flies into a jealous rage. According to the evolutionary perspective, Finnegan’s behavior is designed to a. assert his social intelligence. b. increase his confidence in the paternity of his offspring. c. deflect the death instinct outward instead of inward. d. increase the level of serotonin in his brain.

57. According to research on the role of the brain and executive function in predicting aggressive tendencies, when very aggressive teenagers witnessed a situation in which someone intentionally inflicted pain on another person, they exhibited brain activity associated with a. being part of a group. b. empathy. c. experiencing rewards. d. filtering sensory input.

58. According to Berkowitz’s (1989) revision of frustration-aggression theory, exposure to all of the following likely increases aggression except a. very congested traffic. b. cigarette smoke. c. novel but pleasant odors. d. uncomfortably cold temperatures.

59. Based on the principles of social learning theory, which of the following measures is most likely to be successful in teaching a child to act nonviolently? a. Punishing the child physically for acting aggressively b. Exposing the child to older models who are punished harshly for acting aggressively c. Exposing the child to older models who act nonaggressively in response to provoking situations d. Teaching the child how to displace frustrations and anger through role-playing

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Chap_11_11e 60. According to I3 theory, what “I” decreases the chance of aggression? a. Impellance b. Instigation c. Inhibition d. Impetuousness 61. Which of the following statements is emphasized in Smith’s (2007) book, which relates human evolution to warfare? a. Pacifists have a greater chance for reproductive success. b. Pacifism is likely to become part of human nature. c. Warriors have a greater chance for reproductive success. d. Warriors are least likely to be accepted as part of the group.

62. Which research result would provide evidence that aggression is a heritable trait? a. Identical twins reared together are more similar in their levels of aggressiveness than identical twins reared apart. b. Adopted children are more similar in levels of aggressiveness to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents. c. Fraternal twins are more similar in levels of aggressiveness than non-twin siblings. d. Identical twins are more similar in levels of aggressiveness than fraternal twins.

63. Which of the following cases is the best example of displacement? a. A boy yells at his pet at home after a bad day at school. b. An adolescent expresses more hostile attitudes after working out. c. A football player commits aggressive penalties due to hot weather. d. An aggressive child who is rejected by peers perceives hostile intent in others.

64. The fact that groping schoolgirls on the train in Japan is not uncommon illustrates that a. what is unacceptable aggression in relation to children differs across cultures. b. what is unacceptable aggression in relation to children is consistent across cultures. c. collectivist cultures are hypersexualized. d. collectivist cultures are repressed sexually.

65. Drugs that the level of serotonin tend to a. boost; lower b. boost; increase c. boost; not affect d. decrease; raise

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Chap_11_11e 66. Which of the following situations best illustrates instrumental aggression? a. When Buster finds out that his favorite television show has been preempted by the presidential debates, he kicks Gob, who just happens to be standing nearby. b. After getting fired from his job at the nuclear power plant, Homer pulls out his semiautomatic machine gun and shoots at the squirrels in his backyard. c. Karen pinches Grace until Grace finally moves out of the way so that Karen can get to the liquor cabinet. d. Edith stabs her husband Archie with a fork when she finds out that he totally forgot her birthday.

67. Aggressive models teach aggressive behavior by all of the following except a. teaching observers how to perform the aggressive act. b. fostering positive attitudes toward aggression. c. allowing observers to construct aggressive scripts. d. increasing the frustration experienced by observers.

68. According to an evolutionary perspective, males are competitive with each other because a. females are predisposed to sexual jealousy. b. males select high-status females for mating. c. aggression enhances the male’s confidence in the paternity of his offspring. d. males use physical aggression to eliminate women who are unlikely to provide offspring.

69. Each of the following individuals behaved aggressively, and each was punished for his or her aggression. For which of the following persons will the indicated punishment have the best chance of successfully reducing aggression? a. Jake, who was punished immediately following his act of aggression b. Keizer, who was extremely angry when punished for emotional aggression c. Lakes, who was punished in a very angry, hostile manner by her parents d. Danielle, who was punished for some of her aggressive acts but not for others 70. Men who engaged in vigorous exercise were introduced right after their workout. a. less

attracted to an attractive female to whom they were

b. inconsistently c. more d. not 71. Research on brain and aggression indicates that poor executive functioning due to impaired prefrontal processing leads to a. increased aggression. b. behavioral change. c. concussion. d. high dehumanization.

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Chap_11_11e 72. Reifman et al. (1991) found that as temperatures rise to uncomfortable levels, major league baseball pitchers are more likely to hit batters with a pitch. This finding is consistent with a. social learning theory. b. the mindfulness approach. c. the role of negative affect in aggression. d. multisystemic therapy.

73. One form of aggression that is prevalent across virtually all cultures is a. violence against young girls. b. gun violence. c. domestic violence. d. bullying.

74. When aggression stops an undesired outcome or prevents it altogether, the aggressive behavior will increase in the future through the process of a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

75. College students in the U.S. tend to be more likely than those of other nations to disapprove of a. violence against young girls. b. gun violence. c. a husband slapping his wife. d. bullying.

76. Shawna has just gone through a break-up with her arrogant and selfish boyfriend. While hitting the punching bag in her kickboxing class, she imagines that she is punching her boyfriend’s head. Shawna believes that engaging in the relatively harmless pursuit of hitting the punching bag will drain the energy from her more violent tendencies (like her temptation to slit the tires of his car or to break his legs). Research on the idea of catharsis suggests that a. hitting the punching bag will reduce Shawna’s “hot-blooded” aggressive intent. b. the good feelings Shawna derives from hitting the punching bag will be replaced by feelings of guilt and shame, which will make her less likely to engage in aggression in the future. c. hitting the punching bag will be a more successful technique for Shawna’s attempt to reduce future aggression than would distracting herself by going out and having fun with other friends. d. hitting the punching bag will make Shawna feel more aggressive toward her ex-boyfriend.

77. The finding that male-to-male violence primarily occurs due to status challenges and male-to-female violence due to sexual jealousy conforms to the perspective of aggression. a. instinct b. evolutionary c. learning d. sociocultural Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_11e 78. Mario and Luigi are trying to decide whether to spank their child when she does something undesirable.

Research suggests that this type of punishment a. will be most effective if she perceives her parents to be warm and supportive. b. is very unlikely to lead their daughter to engage in serious aggression later in life. c. is not used by many of their friends, if they are representative of U.S. citizens. d. will cause their child to learn the rules of their family very quickly.

79. What is the nature of the relationship between self-control and aggression? a. Clear and consistent negative correlation b. Ambiguous and inconsistent correlation c. Clear and consistent positive correlation d. One that is mediated by self-esteem 80. In which state is there most likely to exist a culture of honor? a. Texas b. Illinois c. South Dakota d. Rhode Island 81. Research on violent media suggests that depictions of indirect, relational forms of aggression on TV targeted toward adolescents are a. not particularly common. b. more likely to be demonstrated by male than female characters. c. often portrayed as eliciting a clear reward. d. do not influence the immediate behavior of adolescent viewers.

82. In which region of the United States is the murder rate consistently the highest? a. The Midwest b. The Northeast c. The South d. The West Coast 83. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates aggression? a. Felix and Oscar engage in a heated debate concerning the merits of the Big Mac versus the Whopper. b. Maude trips over the scooter her son absentmindedly left in the driveway. c. In his attempt to save Samantha from dying, Darin breaks three of her ribs while performing CPR. d. Ginger kicks MaryAnn in the shins to keep her from eating the last coconut pie.

84. The fact that the American population has been aging in recent years has been offered as an explanation for the a. decrease in violent crimes. b. increase in gun-related violence. c. greater availability of violent pornography. d. current overcrowded conditions in prisons.

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Chap_11_11e 85. Marty watches his older brother act nonaggressively after being provoked. According to social learning theory, Marty is subsequently likely to a. act less aggressively and experience stronger restraints against aggression. b. refrain from acting aggressively because he believes that he will be punished for aggressing. c. experience catharsis and displace his aggression onto safer, more acceptable targets. d. find more socially acceptable outlets for his impulses, such as rough sports.

86. Group attacks against other groups are less prevalent in a. the Middle East. b. Eastern Europe. c. Africa. d. the United States.

87. According to the research by Gaffney et al. (2019), school-based bullying programs have a. decreased bullying by an average of about 20%. b. increased bullying by an average of about 20%. c. decreased bullying by an average of about 50%. d. increased bullying by an average of about 50%.

88. Many researchers maintain that there is a positive relationship between exposure to violent media and real-life aggressive behavior. The claim that exposure to violence actually increases aggression would be best supported by which of the following? a. A study in which the variable “number of hours of violent television watched per week” is used to predict the likelihood that participants will be convicted of a violent crime in the future b. A study in which participants who are randomly assigned to play violent video games later administer greater levels of electric shock to a confederate than participants who are assigned to play neutral games c. Real-world examples where young people have committed crimes intended to mimic behaviors they have seen in violent movies d. A study in which men who have been accused of sexually aggressive behavior in the past report high levels of exposure to violent media 89. The transmission of domestic violence across generations is called the a. cultivation of honor. b. rumination/frustration hypothesis. c. domestic desensitization effect. d. cycle of violence.

90. Ethan has been released from jail in the United States and is applying for jobs in the South and the Northeast.

Ethan is probably more likely to land interviews in the South than in the Northeast if he was in jail for a. assaulting a person who taunted him in public about an affair with his wife. b. committing fraud on a million-dollar insurance claim. c. illegally importing cocaine across the border. d. robbing a jewelry store owned by a member of a racial minority group.

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Chap_11_11e 91. Ryan was abused as a child. He is now married to a woman who abuses him, and he is physically abusive toward his child. This pattern of behavior is consistent with a. the negative affect escape model. b. the arousal affect model. c. frustration-aggression hypothesis. d. the cycle of violence.

92. Twin studies suggest that heritability explains a. less than one quarter b. between about a quarter and a third

of the variation in aggression in children.

c. between about a third and a half d. between about a half and two-thirds 93. Being Type A and having a high level of dispositional hostility are examples of a. impellance b. instigation c. inhibition d. ignorance

factors in I3 theory.

94. Campbell proposed that women are more likely than men to use relational aggression because women a. lack direct access to wealth. b. have lower levels of testosterone. c. place more of a value on their own lives and therefore avoid risky behaviors. d. do not want to risk physically harming the father of their offspring.

95. Research suggests that we’re most likely to displace aggression a. toward others who are members of an outgroup. b. toward those who are biologically related to us. c. in the absence of provocation. d. when opportunities for catharsis are unavailable to us.

96. A socialization explanation for gender differences in aggressive tendencies a. would focus on differences between men and women in levels of hormones and neurotransmitters. b. might consider ways in which parents react differently to the aggressive actions of young boys versus girls. c. would suggest that such differences should be identical across different cultures. d. should examine the genetic similarity between relatives who show high levels of aggression.

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Chap_11_11e 97. Which of the following conclusions is least consistent with the original formulation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis? a. The need to aggress in response to frustration can be reduced if the frustrated individual behaves in an aggressive but relatively harmless way toward an object that is not related to the source of the frustration. b. The need to aggress in response to frustration is taught directly by reinforcement, important models, and the media, and can be “unlearned” if the reinforcements and models change. c. The need to aggress in response to frustration is a psychological drive that resembles the physiological drive of seeking food in response to hunger. d. The need to aggress in response to frustration can lead to nonviolent acts of aggression such as spreading rumors about someone or telling hostile jokes.

98. On his way back from work, Orin nearly collided head-on with another car. After swerving out of the way at the last minute, Orin could feel his heart racing and his hands shaking. A few minutes later, he arrived home and, just as he walked in, received a phone call from a salesperson. Orin then became verbally abusive toward the salesperson. This outcome is most consistent with the concept of a. instrumental aggression. b. excitation transfer. c. displacement. d. incompatible responses.

99. Chris is a playground bully. He finds that he can win the admiration of his peers by acting aggressively. Chris’s aggressive behavior is encouraged by a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

100. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between gender and aggression is false? a. In virtually every culture, males are more violent than females. b. Men are more likely to commit a homicide and are more likely to be the victim of a murder than women. c. Males are more likely to engage in risky, self-destructive behavior than females. d. Boys demonstrate more overt and relational forms of aggression than do girls.

101. A person who is least likely to aggress is one who has just a. watched a pornographic movie. b. watched a funny cartoon. c. worked out. d. watched the evening news.

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Chap_11_11e 102. Angelina is interested in whether the teenager she is preparing to adopt is likely to be aggressive as an adult.

Research suggests that she would be wise to consider whether he a. is a twin. b. had aggressive biological parents. c. has long fingers. d. was born in a nation with a warm climate.

103. Which of the following personality factors is most strongly associated with aggression? a. Being low in agreeableness b. Being low in conscientiousness c. Being high in neuroticism d. Being high in openness to experiences 104. Though women are at least as likely as men to aggress in an intimate relationship, men’s aggression in such relationships differs in that it typically a. emerges in the face of provocation. b. has more severe consequences. c. results from alcohol abuse. d. is sexual in nature.

105. Robbing a bank because you need money is an example of a. proactive b. emotional c. institutional d. reactive

aggression.

106. An attorney has a copy of a videotape that shows her client being beaten very violently by two men. Her client is suing these men. The jury has already seen this video several times during the trial, and the attorney is considering showing it many more times. However, an expert social psychologist should warn the attorney that replaying the videotaped beating many more times may reduce the likelihood of winning a large amount of money because the jurors might a. become desensitized to the beatings and thus grant less significance to the video in their final judgment. b. engage in higher-order cognitive processing and thus feel less sympathy for the client. c. become cultivated by the beatings and thus try to avoid thinking about them when making their final judgment. d. be vulnerable to the weapons effect and thus be less likely to award a high settlement.

107. Reduction in emotion-related physiological reactivity in response to a stimulus is called a. desensitization. b. cultivation. c. rumination. d. catharsis.

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Chap_11_11e 108. One of the research studies on testosterone and aggression indicates that a. it is surprising that women ever aggress given that they have no testosterone. b. their relationship in human males is weaker and less reliable than expected. c. very little regarding aggressive behavior is actually heritable. d. their relationship disappears when examining samples of elderly adults.

109. Which is most likely to increase a person’s aggressive response? a. Embarrassment b. Guilt c. Social rejection d. Self-esteem 110. Craig and colleagues (2000) set up hidden cameras and microphones in a Canadian schoolyard and found that bullying in midsized schools occurred at a rate of episodes per hour. a. 1 b. 4.5 c. 7.25 d. 10 111. The idea that arousal created by one stimulus can intensify an individual’s emotional response to another stimulus is called a. social learning theory. b. the negative affect escape model. c. excitation transfer. d. aggression cultivation.

112. Which of the following statements is false regarding the relationship between testosterone and aggression? a. A man of dominant status with high testosterone and low cortisol is less likely to aggress. b. Males in college fraternities with lower testosterone levels tend to be socially responsible and to smile more. c. This relationship is strong in both humans and animals. d. Men have higher levels of testosterone than women.

113. According to Berkowitz’s (1989) revision of frustration-aggression theory, aggression is a response to a. only moderate, not extreme or mild, frustrations. b. previously displaced aggression. c. negative feelings. d. catharsis.

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Chap_11_11e 114. From an evolutionary perspective of aggression, Vladas Griskevicius found that a. women do not use aggression of any type to boost their status. b. men are more likely to boost their status through indirect aggression. c. women are more likely to boost their status through direct aggression. d. men are more likely to boost their status through direct aggression.

115. In Ainsworth and Mariner’s (2014) study, male participants playing a reaction-time computer game were most likely to blast their opponent with an aversive noise in their headphones if a. the participant was primed by viewing pictures of very attractive women and his opponent was regarded as being socially dominant. b. the participant was primed by viewing pictures of very attractive women and his opponent was regarded as being of average social dominance. c. the participant was primed by viewing pictures of less attractive women and his opponent was regarded as being socially dominant. d. the participant was primed by viewing pictures of less attractive women and his opponent was regarded as being of average social dominance.

116. Pinker (2011) argues that aggression and violence a. have increased over time. b. have decreased over time. c. have remained stable over time. d. are a result of rumination over time.

117. The Amish, the Hutterites, and the Mennonites are all examples of societies that live in the violent United States without, for the most part, having become violent themselves. What is a similar type of nonviolent culture that resides in Southern Mexico? a. Paliyan b. Batek c. Zapotec d. Glwi 118. Which of the following statements about gender differences in aggression is true? a. Men use more relational aggression than verbal aggression. b. Women use relational aggression more than men. c. When there is a clear provocation, men use much more overt aggression than women. d. Women use more verbal aggression than indirect aggression.

119. Which of the following statements is more related to social learning theory? a. North American hockey players are more likely called for aggressive penalties than European players. b. Females tend to place a higher value on protecting their offspring than males. c. Hunters are less likely to be aggressive than nonhunters after exposure to guns. d. Chronically aggressive children tend to perceive hostile intent in others.

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Chap_11_11e 120. Rudolph is viewing some nonviolent pornography. In which of the following conditions is Rudolph most likely to show greater subsequent levels of aggression? a. When Rudolph is angry b. When the pornography portrays nude women c. When Rudolph is sexually aroused d. When the pornography is softcore 121. Jay has just been exposed to highly arousing violent pornography, whereas Dave has just been exposed to equally arousing but nonviolent pornography. The research on pornography and aggression suggests that, compared to Dave, Jay should subsequently be a. less aggressive toward both women and men. b. more aggressive toward both women and men. c. less aggressive toward women but no different in his level of aggression toward men. d. more aggressive toward women but no different in his level of aggression toward men.

122. The relatively greater violence rates in the southern United States have been attributed to a. greater variability of temperature in the South than in the North. b. the manner in which residents of the South respond to status threats. c. the ratio of males to females living in the South. d. the age demographics of the South.

123. Alcohol a. myopia b. hostility c. aggression d. blindness

is a phenomenon in which intoxication narrows people’s focus of attention.

124. U.S. citizens tend to be more likely than those of other nations to engage in a. politically motivated violence directed toward groups. b. mob violence at sporting events. c. violence against young girls. d. gun-related violence against individuals.

125. A long history of research in social psychology has consistently found that a powerful way to reduce violence within a society would be to a. emphasize a strict division of labor by gender. b. promote cooperation. c. harshly punish all acts of aggression. d. separate subcultures within the society.

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Chap_11_11e 126. The tendency to perceive hostile intent in the actions of others is called a. aggression cultivation. b. emotional aggression. c. excitation transfer. d. the hostile attribution bias.

127. The defining characteristic of aggression is that the aggressor a. intends to harm another living being. b. actually causes physical or psychological harm. c. is angry or otherwise emotionally aroused during the aggressive act. d. derives enjoyment from the aggressive act.

128. Give two examples of research that illustrates the important role of thought in aggressive behavior. Explain both examples.

129. Discuss the different aspects of the I3 model of aggression, emphasizing how self-control is relevant to each level.

130. Under what conditions should punishment be most and least effective in reducing aggression? From the perspective of social learning theory, explain why punishment might increase rather than decrease aggression.

131. Using the tenets of the Olweus Bullying Prevention Program, discuss steps you would take to reduce bullying in your local high school. Make sure to include steps from each component of Olweus’s program.

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Chap_11_11e 132. Explain briefly any two research studies that propose that exposure to violent media will increase the chance of future aggression.

133. List out some steps involved in reducing aggression and violence.

134. To what extent does culture affect the type and amount of violence one observes in a society?

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Chap_11_11e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. d

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Chap_11_11e 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_11e 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_11e 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_11e 111. c 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. b 117. c 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. d 122. b 123. a 124. d 125. b 126. d 127. a 128. The research of Leonard Berkowitz and colleagues clarifies the process by which thoughts and feelings interact. One example is research on the weapons effect, which indicates that their mere presence of weapons can increase people’s thoughts about aggression and, therefore, their aggressive tendencies. A study on the effects of alcohol also illustrates the role of thought in aggression (Steele & Josephs, 1990). According to this study, intoxicated people who are made angry may fail to take into account mitigating information that would have otherwise led them to not aggress. In short, alcohol reduces one’s ability to engage in thoughtful, higher-order processing, rendering the person more likely to respond aggressively despite cues present in the situation that would ordinarily signal the inappropriateness of aggressive behavior.

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Chap_11_11e 129. Eli Finke (2014) and colleagues (Denson, De Wall, & Finke 2012; Finke, De Wall et al., 2012) recently introduced the I3 theory (pronounced “I-cubed theory”). This theory emphasizes the role of self-control in aggression, which we just discussed in the previous section. The three I’s in this theory stand for: (1) Instigation—social factors that often trigger aggressive impulses, such as provocation or social rejection. (2) Impellance—personality and situational factors that promote the urge to aggress when encountering instigating factors, such as angry rumination or trait aggressiveness. (3) Inhibition—the various factors of self-control we described in the previous section. This theory pits the forces of instigation and impellance on the one hand against the power of inhibition on the other to determine the likelihood of aggression. For example, strong provocation coupled with angry rumination can overpower a person’s self-control abilities that have been compromised by alcohol, resulting in an elevated likelihood of aggression.

130. Punishment is most likely to be effective in decreasing aggression when it immediately follows the aggressive behavior, when it is strong enough to be perceived by the aggressor as a real deterrent, when it is applied consistently, and when it is perceived by the aggressor as fair and legitimate. In the absence of these conditions, punishment is less likely to be effective and may even be counterproductive. Punishment is also less likely to be effective if the aggressor is engaged in instrumental aggression and thus cannot see any way of obtaining a desired goal other than through aggression, or if the aggressor is engaged in an act of emotional aggression and continues to be very angry. Finally, the person being punished may perceive the punishment itself (particularly if it is delivered in a hostile manner) as a model of aggression, leading the person to imitate the behavior and thus act aggressively. This latter point is consistent with social learning theory, which maintains that behavior is learned through imitation of others as well as through direct experience of rewards and punishments. For example, a parent who uses aggression to punish a child may act as a model for the child, unintentionally teaching the child that aggression is an accepted way of dealing with problems or conflicts.

131. Answers will vary. Some of the components of the very successful bullying prevention program developed by psychologist Dan Olweus are listed here.

School-Level Components 5. Form a bullying prevention coordinating committee.

6. Train committee members and staff.

7. Adopt school-wide rules against bullying.

8. Develop appropriate positive and negative consequences for students’ behavior.

9. Hold a school-wide kick-off event to launch the program.

10. Involve parents.

Classroom-Level Components · Post and enforce school-wide rules against bullying. · Hold regular classroom meetings to discuss bullying and related topics.

Individual-Level Components · Ensure that all staff intervene on the spot when bullying is observed. · Meet with students involved in bullying, and meet with their parents. · Develop individual intervention plans for involved students.

Community-Level Components · Involve community members on the bullying prevention coordinating committee. · Adults (in and out of school) should use consistent nonphysical, no hostile negative consequences when rules are broken and should function as positive role models

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Chap_11_11e 132. Sarah Coyne and John Archer (2004) found examples of indirect or relational aggression in 92% of programs on British television shows that were popular with adolescents, a rate much higher than physical aggression. Compared to physical aggressors, the indirect aggressors in these shows tended to be more rewarded for their aggression, and they were more likely to be female and attractive. The results of an experiment Coyne and her colleagues (2004) conducted suggested that television exposure to indirect aggression had immediate effects on adolescents’ own behavior, such as decreasing helping behavior, evaluating others more negatively, and advocating indirect aggression in response to an ambiguous situation. Coyne and others (2008, 2012) studied female college students, randomly assigning them to watch Kill Bill (physical aggression), Mean Girls (relational aggression), or What Lies Beneath (no aggression). After watching clips from these films, participants who watched the physical or relational aggression films clips were more aggressive (blasted an opponent with a loud noise) than those in the no aggression film condition. That such similar results were obtained with across gender, culture, and age groups speaks to the generalizability of the relationship between exposure to violent media and the increased propensity for aggression.

133. Although there may be other reasons to endorse or reject the ideas given next, social psychological research on aggression suggests that each has the potential to reduce aggression.

· Reward nonaggressive behavior. · Provide attractive models of peaceful behavior. · Reduce all forms of aggression in our society, including physical punishment of children, fighting in sports, violence in the media, and war. · Reduce frustration by improving the quality of life in housing, health care, employment, and child care. · Provide fans and air-conditioned shelters when it’s hot. · Reduce access to and display of weapons. · Apologize when you’ve angered someone and regard apologies as a sign of strength—not weakness. Encourage others to do likewise. · Stop and think when you feel your temper rising. Control it instead of letting it control you. · Discourage excessive drinking of alcohol and support efforts to provide treatment for alcohol abuse. · Develop good communication skills in families and relationships, thereby helping to avoid misperceptions, jealousy, and distrust. · Pay attention and respond to warning signs of trouble in adolescents, including social isolation, talk of violence, and consumption of violence-filled literature and other media. · Increase education to promote development of skills involving empathy, self-control, and how to solve interpersonal problems with reason rather than emotion.

134. Culture exerts a number of different effects on aggression. Aggression against individuals tends to be higher in the United States, and aggression against groups tends to be higher in the Middle East, Africa, and Eastern Europe.

Moreover, overt sexual aggression is less acceptable in the United States than in many other countries. Aggression tends to be higher in cultures where one’s status and family afford a feeling of “honor,” as is true in the southern United States. In general, it appears that aggression is lower in cultures that emphasize cooperation and strongly oppose competition.

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Chap_12_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Police interrogations are often conducted in small, bare, soundproof rooms so that a. distractions will be minimized and the suspect will be better able to focus on the interrogation. b. suspects feel socially isolated and uncomfortable. c. police operating costs will be kept to a minimum. d. other police officers will not become biased against particular suspects.

2. Shaquille has been selected to be the foreperson of his jury. It is likely that Shaquille will a. exert more influence over the jury’s decision than other members of the jury. b. spend more time than other jurors discussing procedural items. c. be especially liked because he had never served on a jury before. d. spend more time than other jurors expressing his opinion.

3. During a trial, the prosecution refers to an illegally obtained tape recording of a phone call that makes the defendant appear guilty. Research suggests that after hearing this information, jurors are most likely to a. disregard the information if the defense attorney objects, even if the judge rules that the information is admissible. b. vote guilty, unless the judge rules that the information is inadmissible. c. vote guilty, even if the judge rules that the information is inadmissible. d. vote guilty if the judge rules the information is admissible, but vote not guilty if the judge rules that the information is inadmissible.

4. In which of the following juries will jurors spend the most time discussing the case? a. A 12-person jury that must reach a unanimous decision b. A 12-person jury that must reach a majority decision c. A 6-person jury that must reach a unanimous decision d. A 6-person jury that must reach a majority decision 5. Miguel will be using scientific jury selection in an upcoming trial. The first step of this process will be to a. ask prospective jurors personal questions during the voir dire. b. assess demographic characteristics and trial-relevant attitudes of the community in which the trial will take place. c. submit a motion to the judge to allow an independent consulting firm to interview prospective jurors. d. meet with the judge and opposing counsel to discuss the range of questions that will be permitted during the voir dire.

6. What was the major consideration of the U.S. Supreme Court during the case of Lockhart v. McCree? a. Whether the death qualification violates a defendant’s right to a fair trial b. Whether scientific jury selection should be legal or not c. Whether a jury should have 6 or 12 members d. Whether a jury must have a unanimous verdict or not

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Chap_12_11e 7. Norbert is selected as the foreperson of the jury. Assuming that a typical selection process occurred, he was probably chosen a. very quickly and casually. b. after a long, heated, often irrational debate. c. after very careful, rational consideration of the candidates. d. by the judge at some point during the course of the trial.

8. Which of the following is not currently considered as a potential alternative to traditional polygraph tests? a. Hypnosis b. fMRI assessment of blood oxygen in the brain c. Thermal imaging to detect rises in skin temperature d. Pupil dilation 9. According to inadmissible evidence contrary to the judge’s instructions, juries often pay attention to such information a. even when it is unreliable. b. when it is reliable but inadmissible because of a legal “technicality.” c. when it is emotional in content. d. when it is objected to by the defense and not by the prosecution.

10. Internalization is the process in which a. innocent suspects come to believe that they have committed the crimes for which they are being interrogated. b. suspects confess to crimes that they did not commit in order to escape aversive interrogations. c. accused suspects are offered lighter sentences in exchange for important information. d. juries are able to disregard confession testimony that was extracted through coercion.

11. Loftus and Palmer (1974) manipulated the wording of questions posed to participants who witness a filmed traffic accident. Their findings suggest that a. the wording affected the participants’ memory for the accident. b. the wording did not affect the participants’ memory for the accident. c. witnesses often store multiple, contradictory memories for a single event. d. most eyewitness errors have to do with problems that arise during encoding.

12. Relative to deliberations in which the jury must reach a unanimous verdict, deliberations in which the jury can use a non-unanimous decision rule tend to a. encourage open conflict among jurors. b. breed closed-mindedness among jurors. c. increase the influence of jurors in the minority. d. increase jurors’ confidence.

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Chap_12_11e 13. Carnahan and McFarland (2007) conducted a study to determine whether a particular type of person is likely to sign up for a study like the Stanford University prison study. They found that advertisements for a study on “prison life” attracted potential participants higher than average in and lower than average in . a. authoritarianism; aggression b. self-monitoring; altruism c. need for cognition; need for closure d. narcissism; empathy 14. Research concerning race and capital punishment indicates that a. for judgments of such serious repercussion, judges and juries are rarely if ever influenced by race. b. the more “stereotypically African American” a black defendant appears, the more likely he is to be sentenced to death. c. defendants are most likely to be sentenced to death when they murder a same-race victim. d. black women were more likely than black men to receive a capital sentence.

15.

are the only members of the courtroom workgroup who are considered most powerful due to their discretion. a. Judges b. Prosecutors c. Bailiffs d. Defense attorneys

16. One reason for controversy surrounding sentencing decisions in this country is that Americans often a. disagree about the adversarial model. b. believe that juries are inept. c. resist the inquisitorial model of justice. d. disagree about the goals of imprisonment.

17. How many jurors does a petit jury have? a. 26 b. 12 c. 16 d. 22 18. When Valentine and Mesout (2009) fitted visitors to the London Dungeon with a wireless heart monitor, they found that a. higher anxiety levels were associated with more accurate eyewitness identification. b. higher anxiety levels were associated with less accurate eyewitness identification. c. heart rate corresponded to arousal level. d. heart rate corresponded to the number of perpetrators encountered.

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Chap_12_11e 19. The factor affecting the reliability of eyewitness testimony is called a. weapon-focus effect. b. distraction effect. c. inattention phenomenon. d. CSI effect.

20.

is the legal principle that refers to the court’s policy to stand by prior cases. a. Writ of demurrer b. Stare decisis c. Voir dire d. Mandamus

21. The effect where people of one race are unable to recognize faces and facial expressions of people of another race is called a. ingroup homogeneity effect. b. outgroup homogeneity effect. c. own-race identification bias. d. cross-race identification bias.

22. Death qualification can be defined as a. pretrial hearings that are conducted to determine whether a defendant should receive the death penalty. b. a procedure used during voir dire to ensure that jurors are prepared for potentially graphic testimony concerning violence, usually involving murder. c. a jury selection procedure that permits judges to exclude from capital cases all prospective jurors who say they would refuse to vote for the death penalty under any circumstance. d. jurors’ decision to recommend the death penalty even if the prosecution has not asked for it.

23. According to Sommers and Ellsworth (2001), when a crime involves race, Caucasian jurors a. discriminated against an African American defendant. b. avoided discrimination against an African American defendant. c. were particularly motivated to be elected foreperson of the jury. d. processed trial evidence less carefully than when the crime was race-neutral.

24. Which of the following conclusions is not consistent with research on confessions? a. Confessions are discounted more by jurors who see a videotape that focuses on the interrogator instead of the defendant. b. When false evidence is presented by an interrogator, suspects are not only more likely to confess to a crime they did not commit but also to believe this confession. c. Jurors often fully discount a defendant’s confession if they learn that the confession was obtained while the defendant was being physically threatened by police. d. Police detectives use an average of five to six tactics when trying to obtain a confession.

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Chap_12_11e 25. Cathy witnesses a carjacking. A few days later, she is called to the police station to identify the culprit from a lineup. Cathy is most likely to be accurate if a. the police tell her that the culprit is in the lineup. b. one of the men in the lineup resembles the description that Cathy had given the police, while the other men in the lineup look very different from that description. c. she is first presented with some mug shots and then views a lineup containing one of the men whose mug shot she has seen. d. she observes the suspect one at a time rather than together in a single lineup.

26. Relative to large juries, smaller juries may spend less time deliberating mostly because they are a. less conducive to the emergence of minority allies. b. more likely to have a male foreperson. c. less inclined to reach a unanimous verdict. d. not used in trials involving complex decisions.

27. As deliberation begins, nine jurors think that the defendant is guilty. At first, the three jurors who think otherwise are resistant to changing their minds, but after hearing what the others have to say, they are genuinely persuaded and decide to vote guilty. The factor most likely to have led these three jurors to change their verdict is a. the leniency bias. b. the influence of peremptory challenges. c. normative influence. d. informational influence.

28. According to Wells and Bradfield (1998), feedback can influence an eyewitness’s confidence and memory when a. he or she makes an accurate identification. b. the feedback validates the identification. c. when the suspect is of a different race. d. the feedback disconfirms the identification.

29. The Stanford University prison simulation teaches us that a. sentencing disparity is much more pervasive than was previously believed. b. the conditions at privately run prisons are far superior to those at state-run prisons. c. demographic profiles play a very important role in determining the degree to which the prisoners will use their prison time in a constructive manner. d. even normal people can be dehumanized by institutional roles and practices.

30. In which way does expert testimony increases the competence of jurors? a. Facilitating judges’ use of scientific jury selection b. Leading jurors to be more critical of eyewitness testimony c. Eliciting sentencing disparity d. Modeling confidence with which the confidence of nonexpert witnesses can be assessed

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Chap_12_11e 31. One reason judges’ instructions tend to have little impact on jurors is that a. the instructions typically come before the evidence is presented, increasing the likelihood that the jurors will forget them. b. the jurors often find the instructions difficult to comprehend, leading to misunderstandings and confusion. c. the jurors frequently consider the instructions to be irrelevant to the trial, leading them to experience reactance. d. jurors usually try to avoid jury nullification.

32. Which of the following eyewitness testimonies is likely to be the most dependable? a. Joe’s testimony about a motorbike accident. He has been interviewed four times by the defense attorney before the trials. b. Suzanne’s report immediately after observing a rape incident. She was interviewed by the police, who believed they already has a criminal in custody. c. Tim’s testimony about a clothing store. He was interviewed six times by the prosecuting attorney before the trials. d. Liza’s report immediately after a robbery. She was asked by the police to narrate the entire event in her own words.

33. Who will be the opponent of the death penalty? a. Michael, who scores low on a self-report measure of authoritarian beliefs b. Buster, who holds fundamentalist religious beliefs c. Lindsey, who believes that the world is a fair place in which you get what you deserve d. Gob, who believes in the deterrent potential of capital punishment 34. What would not be the underlying factor for punishment? a. Retribution b. Incapacitation c. Nullification d. Deterrence 35. Prospective jurors willing to vote for the death penalty do not show a. a greater concern with crime. b. more cynicism toward defense attorneys. c. a greater suspiciousness of police officers. d. a greater tendency to convict.

36. Studies have found that defendants with baby-faced attributes (with round, large eyes, narrow chin, and small chin) are more likely a. to be found convicted in crimes involving negligence. b. to be found convicted in crimes involving intentional criminal acts. c. to be received stingy sentences if found guilty. d. to be opted for the insanity defense.

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Chap_12_11e 37. The most common cause of mistaken convictions to be seen in DNA exoneration cases is a. a coerced confession. b. false alibis. c. racially biased juries. d. inaccurate eyewitnesses.

38. If the CSI effect is real, then it would make juries a. more likely to convict. b. less likely to convict. c. deliberate for a longer period of time. d. deliberate for a shorter period of time.

39. Which of the following is not an event characteristic? a. Gender of the witness. b. The presence of a weapon c. The time between the incident and recall d. Lighting 40. A major problem with using the polygraph as a lie detector is that a. some research suggests that it can make mistakes. b. arousal cannot be measured with the polygraph. c. it measures only the vocal channel, ignoring all other channels. d. control questions do not evoke arousal in innocent people.

41. Attorney Kevin will be defending Mark, who is accused of raping a 20-year-old female. Who of the following jurors is probably the least sympathetic to his or her client’s case? a. Marry, a 38-year-old mother of two who tends to be disciplinarian b. Keith, a 41-year-old plumber who once served a sentence for kidnapping c. Ash, a 22-year-old university scholar who is a liberal d. Shelly, a 34-year-old newspaper reporter who opposes the death penalty 42. A dispute resolution system in which the prosecution and defense present opposing sides of the story is called a(n) model. a. adversarial b. inquisitorial c. comparative d. cultural 43.

does not permit the death penalty. a. Japan b. India c. Thailand d. Australia

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Chap_12_11e 44. Breonna has been arrested for prostitution. She hires a lawyer who puts together a defense against the case created by the prosecuting attorney. Each side then presents its case in court. This scenario is an example of the a. deliberation process. b. adversarial model. c. reconciliation phase. d. inquisitorial model.

45. Which of the following statements is not a viable explanation for the finding that jurors often fail to comply with a judge’s instruction to disregard inadmissible evidence? a. Jurors do not like being told what they can and cannot pay attention to. b. The judge’s instruction often draws greater attention to the evidence in question. c. Jurors are primarily motivated to reach the “right” decision. d. Judicial instructions do not make it clear which information should be disregarded.

46. The members of a jury are at the point in their deliberations where they are scrutinizing the evidence, constructing stories to account for the evidence, and discussing the judge’s instructions. This jury is at what stage of deliberation? a. Open conflict b. Orientation c. Reconciliation d. Nullification 47. Kara sees a news story on television about an upcoming criminal defendant who was previously charged with similar crimes. If Kara is selected to serve as a juror for this defendant’s trial, it is likely that a. the information concerning the defendant’s prior criminal activity will have no impact on her verdict as long as she agrees to be objective and impartial. b. the information concerning the defendant’s prior criminal record may bias her impression of the defendant, but instructions from the judge can counteract such a bias. c. Kara will interpret the facts of the case in a way that is consistent with the information about the defendant’s prior criminal record. d. the pretrial publicity will make the defendant seem more familiar to Kara and so she will be less likely to convict.

48. Tyson sits on a jury. Tyson is more likely to believe the defendant is guilty if a. Tyson has an authoritarian personality. b. the defendant is of the same race as Tyson and the evidence is weak. c. Tyson has principled objections to the death penalty. d. Tyson is a young adult.

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Chap_12_11e 49. Litigants at trial may remove prospective jurors from their jury through the use of peremptory challenges.

Traditionally, no explanation has to be given for the use of a peremptory, but within the past few decades, the U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that preemptory dismissal may not be based on a juror’s a. education level. b. race. c. physical appearance. d. Sex 50. What is sentencing disparity? a. A tendency for different judges to apply different sentences for the same offense. b. When judges believe that the purpose of sentencing is deterrence. c. A tendency for judges to ignore differences in recidivism rates for different crimes. d. A difference between the sentence given by a judge and the amount of time a convicted offender actually serves.

51. Jonnie is a defense attorney representing a client charged with drug offenses. He conducts a survey in the community and discovers that residents with conservative politics are particularly unsympathetic to defendants in drug cases. He therefore decides to use his peremptory challenges during jury selection to remove from the panel prospective jurors with a history of voting for conservative political candidates. Jonnie is making use of a. scientific jury selection. b. an implicit personality theory. c. trial attorney intuition. d. jury consultants.

52. Which of the following techniques can be used to study eyewitness testimony? a. Single case and field studies b. Archival studies c. Slide presentations d. All of the above 53. In which way does your text suggest that social psychologists could help the courts make better use of eyewitness testimony? a. By educating judges and juries so they can do a better job evaluating eyewitnesses b. By influencing legislation regulating the use of eyewitnesses in specific types of trials c. By contributing to high-profile trials, assisting with jury selection d. By appearing in public fora, such as television programs, to teach the public about the errors in eyewitness testimony

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Chap_12_11e 54. Eighteen-year-old André has been accused of statutory rape because he had sex with his 17-year-old girlfriend.

When the case goes to trial, the prosecution presents evidence confirming that André broke the law; yet the jurors vote not guilty because they feel the law is outdated. The jury’s action is a clear example of a. the positive coercion bias. b. internalization. c. sentencing disparity. d. jury nullification.

55. Amin is a lawyer who has been appointed to investigate both sides of a dispute and present the evidence he finds in court. His presentation of the evidence will provide the basis for the court’s decision on the matter.

Amin is operating in a(n) system of justice. a. adversarial b. inquisitorial c. occupational d. distributive 56. Armand is participating in a jury trial. He and the other members of the jury are closely considering the evidence, trying to figure out how the evidence all pieces together, and considering their responsibilities as laid out by the judge. They are in the stage of deliberation. a. orientation b. open conflict c. reconciliation d. nullification 57. What is the major criterion on which a jury’s verdict can be predicted? a. Nonverbal behaviors of the jurors during the trial b. Thoughts of the individual jurors just before deliberation begins c. Initial vote of the foreperson d. Proportion of men to women on the jury 58. Which of the following is not the criterion for jury selection? a. Compiling a list of potential jurors from sources such as voter registration lists b. Using random selection to obtain a representative sample of community members who will be summoned for jury duty c. Ensuring every single 12-person jury is representative of the community from which it is drawn d. Subjecting those individuals who appear for jury duty to a pretrial interview to exclude those who might be biased 59. Guilty suspects can fool a polygraph test if they a. simply deny any and all involvement in the crime for which they are being questioned. b. meditate prior to the administration of the test. c. lie in response to any crime-relevant questions, but tell the truth in response to the control questions. d. artificially increase physiological arousal while responding to control questions.

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Chap_12_11e 60. Ming was involved in a civil dispute that came to trial. Though unhappy with the judge’s decision, he felt that he truly had the chance to express his views and present his case completely. Ming apparently was most satisfied with a. the sentencing disparity. b. the voir dire process. c. his process control. d. the deliberation stage.

61. If there is a majority opinion in a jury’s initial vote, then a. the deliberations will be marked by informational rather than normative influence. b. the leniency bias is less likely to play a role in the final verdict the jury will eventually deliver. c. the ultimate verdict will usually be consistent with the vote taken during the orientation stage. d. jury nullification becomes less likely to affect the outcome of the deliberations.

62. Henry is a Caucasian male and the foreman of a criminal jury. The defendant in the trial is also a Caucasian male, and the evidence against him is quite strong. Research suggests that Henry is likely to be a. harsher in his judgments than he would have been if the defendant were not Caucasian. b. more lenient in his judgments than he would have been if the defendant were not Caucasian. c. more forceful than the other jurors in making his arguments about the case. d. less concerned with procedural aspects of the deliberations than other jurors.

63. A newly developing country hopes to maximize its citizens’ satisfaction with its new legal system. The new leaders of this country must be sure to a. afford high levels of process control. b. put the decisions in the hands of neutral experts who collect information on both sides of the issue. c. endorse an inquisitorial orientation. d. limit decision control to those who are charged.

64. The defense attorney asks Twila, a prospective juror, if she knows the prosecuting attorney. This illustrates which of the following processes? a. Voir dire b. Normative influence c. Informational influence d. Jury nullification 65. According to Barlett (1932), which of the following techniques can be used to investigate the influence of schemas? a. Mock trail b. Cognitive interviews c. Cued recall d. Free recall

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Chap_12_11e 66. When Gene is at a convenience store, he witnesses a robbery and hides behind a large display to avoid being victimized. Later he tells the police that he thinks that an African American woman was the culprit, and he points to the woman talking to a police officer on the other side of the parking lot. He doesn’t realize that she actually owns the store and was working stocking a shelf near where the robbery occurred. Gene’s memory that the woman was there but failure to recognize the circumstances under which he saw her is called the bias. a. familiarity-induced b. ultimate attribution c. Nullification d. Availability 67. Tony, Silvio, Paulie, and Christopher were all in the convenience store when it was robbed. Who will be the most reliable eyewitness? a. Tony, who was the only one to notice that the thief was brandishing a gun b. Silvio, who was extremely frightened by the whole incident c. Paulie, who was drunk at the time of the crime d. Christopher, who is the same race as the thief 68. What is the key criticism of scientific jury selection? a. Focuses jury selection on the question of whether or not a juror can be b. Does not make use of empirical data c. Can only be afforded by the wealthiest of defendants and plaintiffs d. Used in civil trials, but not in criminal cases 69. After Natalie testifies in court that she witnessed the defendant committing an armed robbery, a memory expert is called to testify on Natalie’s ability to encode the information which was probably impaired. Which of the following factors did the expert most likely have in mind when he questioned Natalie’s ability to acquire the information accurately? a. Weapon-focus effect b. Reconstructive memory c. Misleading questions d. Leniency bias 70. Harwin is hooked up to a mechanical instrument that records his heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, and sweat gland activity. Harwin is being subjected to a. a polygraph test. b. an internalized interrogation. c. the voir dire process. d. a sequential line up.

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Chap_12_11e 71. During voir dire, one of the jurors recognized the defendant as a family acquaintance. In this case, the prosecutor would probably a. use a peremptory challenge. b. challenge for cause. c. empanel the juror. d. sequester the juror.

72. After a 36-hour interrogation, Liz just wanted to make it end so she confessed to the kidnapping even though she had not committed the crime. Liz’s confession would be labeled as a. internalization. b. compliance. c. reactive. d. misinformed.

73. Stark and others (2010) showed participants slides of a man stealing a woman’s wallet and slipping it in his jacket. Then an auditory recording recounted the event, stating that the wallet had been slipped into his pants.

The results showed that a. false memories tended to occur in the visual cortex. b. false memories tended to occur in the auditory cortex. c. false memories rarely occurred. d. memories could be accurately retrieved if participants visualized the crime.

74. After hearing evidence in a murder trial, 10 jurors believe the evidence is insufficient to convict the 27-year-old African American defendant. Based on the group polarization hypothesis, after the jurors deliberate a. they will be convinced the defendant is guilty. b. they will make two groups with a majority favoring conviction and other favoring acquittal. c. they will be convinced the evidence is insufficient to convict. d. they will form two groups with some convinced he is innocent and others convinced he is guilty.

75. Franklin, an African American male, is on trial for attempted murder. The study conducted by Sommers (2006) regarding jury racial composition suggests which of the following jurors would be most likely to vote to convict Franklin? a. Jerry, a Caucasian male on an all-Caucasian jury b. Robin, a Caucasian male on a racially diverse jury c. Eddie, an African American male on an all-African-American jury d. Dave, an African American male on a racially diverse jury 76. Research on lineup administration by Greathouse and Kovera (2009) suggests that the police officer who conducts a lineup a. can affect the actual identification that a witness makes. b. can impact how confident an eyewitness is. c. will not unduly bias an eyewitness as he or she makes a conscious effort not to. d. is unlikely to be called as a witness in any subsequent legal action.

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Chap_12_11e 77. Pretrial publicity tends to produce a bias against defendants because a. people assume that defendants are guilty until proven innocent. b. information in news reports usually comes from police or district attorneys. c. most people charged with crimes really are guilty. d. the publicity makes the defendant seem more familiar, resulting in a familiarity-induced bias.

78. Research on the leniency bias and jury deliberations suggests that which of the following juries will have the easiest time reaching a unanimous decision? a. A jury in which 10 jurors vote “not guilty” and two jurors vote “guilty” to start with b. A jury in which 10 jurors vote “guilty” and two jurors vote “not guilty” to start with c. A jury that is evenly split at six-six to start with d. A jury that has paid close attention to the judge’s final instructions 79. Leonard Berkowitz and Anthony LePage (1967) explored the impact of which of the following? a. Weapons effect b. Stereotypes c. Interference d. The cross-race identification bias 80. Jurors’ power to disregard the law and the judge’s instructions when they conflict with their personal conceptions of justice is called a. the inquisitorial model of justice. b. jury nullification. c. sentencing disparity. d. the process of peremptory challenges.

81. According to a “reasonable doubt” study, it is easier to a. create a reasonable doubt in the minds of your fellow jurors than it is to convince them that there is no reasonable doubt. b. convince fellow jurors to change their votes from not guilty to guilty than it is to convince them to change from guilty to not guilty. c. persuade a fellow juror using normative social influence than it is to do so using informational social influence. d. change the minds of fellow jurors when deliberating on a civil trial versus a criminal trial.

82. Which of the following can be used to authenticate evidence? a. Juries b. Expert opinion c. Expert testimony d. Polygraph

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Chap_12_11e 83. In a murder case involving a six-person jury, five of the jurors think the defendant is guilty and one thinks the defendant is not guilty. In another murder case involving a 12-person jury, ten think the defendant is guilty and two think the defendant is not guilty. Based on Asch’s research on conformity, and all other things being equal, what predictions can be made about the likelihood that the jurors in the minority in these two trials will resist the pressures exerted by those in the majority to change their verdicts? a. The minority in the smaller jury should be less likely to maintain his or her independence because the minority in the smaller jury has no allies in dissent. b. The minority in the larger jury should be less likely to maintain their independence because the majority in the larger jury is comprised of more people. c. Because the proportion of majority to minority jurors is equivalent in these two juries, the minorities should be equally likely to maintain their independence. d. If the evidence in both cases is ambiguous, the minority in the smaller jury should be less likely to maintain his or her independence; but if the evidence in both cases is unambiguous, there should be no difference between the juries.

84. Marita is studying how the legal system in the United States handles repeat offenders differently than the legal system in Canada. This is an example of a study in law. a. tort b. business c. comparative d. forensic 85. Prida has witnessed a violent crime involving a knife. Research suggests that he will be less likely to identify the culprit than in a situation where no knife was present because Prida will a. be less aroused. b. focus more on the victim. c. spend more time looking at the knife. d. be too afraid to remember anything accurately.

86. Kirby is a juror in a rape trial in which both the prosecution and defense are relying on eyewitnesses. It is likely that Kirby will a. be able to determine which eyewitnesses are accurate. b. use eyewitness confidence as a cue to eyewitness accuracy. c. underestimate the accuracy of all of the eyewitnesses. d. understand the factors that determine if an eyewitness is biased.

87. Which of the following steps should be taken before empaneling a petit jury? a. Voir dire b. Witness testimony c. Opening arguments d. All of the above

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Chap_12_11e 88. Which of the following statements about jury forepersons is false? a. They tend to be the individuals who speak first in the jury room. b. They usually spend more time discussing procedural matters than indicating their opinion about the trial. c. They are usually chosen after a careful, deliberate discussion among jury members. d. They tend to moderate jury discussions more than dominate them.

89. Claire, a district attorney, believes that elderly women are likely to be sympathetic to criminal defendants. She, therefore, summarily dismisses elderly prospective jurors during voir dire. This exemplifies the a. use of peremptory challenges. b. advantages of scientific jury selection. c. process of jury nullification. d. power of informational influence.

90. What is “leniency bias”? a. Tendency of jurors to go easier on ingroup defendants b. Impact of judicial instructions on jurors c. The tendency for jury deliberation to tilt toward acquittal d. The finding that judges are harsher on defendants than are juries 91. What factor helps lawyers to dismiss prospective jurors? a. Jury nullification b. Sentencing disparity c. Peremptory challenges d. Normative influence 92.

is the process through which potential jurors are being questioned by the judge and lawyers to determine their eligibility for jury service. a. Decision control b. Jury nullification c. Scientific jury selection d. Voir dire

93. Martha is accused of insider trading. During a polygraph test, she is asked if she ever littered as a child. This question is an example of a a. control question. b. crime-relevant question. c. peremptory challenge. d. reconstructive memory.

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Chap_12_11e 94. According to research, small juries are better than large juries because they a. produce non-unanimous decisions. b. resist normative pressures within the group. c. deliberate for a shorter period of time. d. are representative of the larger population.

95. Judge Kellogg has just read a case file in which a defendant who had committed statutory rape was sentenced to 25 years in prison. He is considering sentencing in a statutory rape case in which the prosecutor is asking for 10 years for the defendant. Instead of going with the 10 years recommended by the prosecutor, he chooses to impose a sentence of 22 years. Judge Kellogg’s decision illustrates the effect. a. anchoring b. severity c. adversarial d. inquisitorial 96. Kwame, a noted psychologist, has been called as an expert witness in a trial. Kwame is least likely to provide which of the following testimonies? a. Alcoholic intoxication can impair ability to recall events. b. Police instructions can influence an eyewitness’s confidence. c. Eyewitness confidence is not a good predictor of accuracy. d. Hypnosis increases the accuracy of eyewitness memory.

97. According to research on minority influence, it can be speculated that jurors in the minority a. will not have a crucial effect on the majority. b. may be persuasive if they have consistency and self-confidence. c. may be persuasive if they demonstrate their case unconfidently. d. may be convincible if they are females.

98. An eyewitness identified Ashtok from a lineup as the man who robbed the bookstore. As an employee of the store, Ashtok was present during the crime but was not the person who committed the crime. What would be the outcome of eyewitness’s false identification? a. The leniency bias b. The misinformation effect c. A familiarity-induced bias d. The fundamental attribution error 99.

is the tendency to use one stimulus as a reference point in judging a second stimulus.. a. Anchoring b. Halo c. Lock d. Disparity

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Chap_12_11e 100. The members of a jury have been deliberating for several weeks. As they begin to converge on a verdict, disagreement is smoothed over and satisfaction with the verdict is affirmed. This stage of deliberation is called the period of a. retrieval. b. orientation. c. reconciliation. d. nullification.

101. In comparison to the inquisitorial system of justice, the adversarial system a. is higher in decision control. b. provides less satisfaction for participants. c. is higher in process control. d. is far more common.

102. Why are psychologists not in favor of smaller jury sizes? a. Tension and interpersonal conflict will be more in small groups as compared to large ones. b. Smaller juries are less representative of the communities from which they are drawn. c. Smaller juries spend less time discussing the case. d. It is harder for a dissenting juror to hold out for her position when she does not have a single ally.

103. Waleska is a social psychologist who studies legal systems. Which of the following objectives would she be least likely to pursue in her research? a. Improving the ability of police officers to determine when a criminal suspect is lying. b. Determining under what circumstances jurors are best able to understand and follow a judge’s instructions. c. Assessing how judges apply sentencing guidelines to complex cases. d. Identifying the types of psychological disorders most likely to lead people to engage in criminal behavior.

104. Which of the following statements best describes the conclusions reached by Kassin and Kiechel (1996) concerning false confessions? a. People are highly unlikely to confess to crimes they did not commit. b. Internalized false confessions are most likely to occur when a suspect is intimidated with bright lights and physical threats. c. Compliant false confessions are most likely to occur when a friendly interrogator offers sympathy and advice to a suspect. d. Internalized false confessions are most likely to occur when false evidence of guilt is presented.

105. Which of the following examinations is required for the successful detection of lies? a. Body language of the suspect b. Language used by the suspect c. The total context d. Physiological signs of the suspect

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Chap_12_11e 106. Which of the following has not been shown to bias a child’s memory report? a. Repeating the question b. Introducing misinformation c. Leading questions d. Questioning in a group setting 107. Romeo suggests if you know the majority opinion in a jury prior to deliberation, you know what the jury decision will be. What provides the strongest exception to his conclusion? a. Jury nullification b. Leniency bias c. Voir dire d. Death qualification 108. When innocent suspects are subjected to a polygraph test, they a. are more aroused by crime-relevant questions than control questions. b. are more aroused by control questions than crime-relevant questions. c. exhibit overall lower levels of arousal than guilty suspects. d. exhibit overall higher levels of arousal than guilty suspects.

109. Which of the following is the most controversial statement that has been debated among researchers who study reconstructive memory? a. Some believe that post-event details actually alter a witness’s real memory, whereas others believe it affects only the reporting of the memory. b. Some believe that post-event information can bias an eyewitness’s reporting of an event, whereas others believe that only information that is learned during acquisition can bias an eyewitness’s reporting. c. Some believe that scientific jury selection is an effective way to reduce the chances that jurors will be biased by reconstructive memory, whereas others believe that this strategy is unethical. d. Some believe that the use of peremptory challenges leads to false memories, whereas others believe it helps ensure accurate memories.

110. According to Rhodes and Anastasi (2012), children, young adults, and the elderly all had difficulty recognizing others who were part of a different than their own. a. neighborhood b. age group c. ethnicity d. religion 111. Attorney Keating is defending Laura, a 23-year-old university scholar, who is facing trial for failing to pay income tax. What should he do to increase Laura’s chances of being acquitted? a. He should choose Denise and Shawn who are also university scholars to serve as jurors. b. He should have Laura appear in court well-dressed. c. He should select jurors who are against the death penalty. d. He should do all of the above.

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Chap_12_11e 112. Research suggests that eyewitnesses who correctly remember minute details surrounding a crime a. also have a better memory of a culprit’s face. b. are less susceptible to misleading questions. c. have a poorer memory for the culprit's face. d. are more susceptible to misleading questions.

113. Manisha witnesses a crime and is brought to the police station for an interview about what she saw. She is given a face construction booklet and asked to pick the hairstyle, eyes, nose, mouth, ears, etc., that look like the culprit’s. Research suggests that this process is likely to lead Manisha to a. perform more accurately if she is shown a lineup including the culprit several days later. b. perform less accurately if she is shown a lineup including the culprit several days later. c. become more confident in her ability to identify the culprit. d. become less confident in her ability to identify the culprit.

114. What would be the outcome of altered eyewitnesses’ reports of crime details? a. The reliance on peremptory challenges b. The reconstructive nature of memory c. Normative influence pressures d. The positive coercion bias 115. Saul is a prospective juror in a mass murder case who, when asked by an attorney, says that he opposes the death penalty. The presiding judge then excludes him from the jury. This is an example of a. leniency bias. b. death qualification. c. scientific jury selection. d. jury nullification.

116. Jurors in criminal trials often fail to fully discount coerced confessions. In what sense can the fundamental attribution error explain this tendency? a. People often overlook the situational factors that lead others to commit criminal acts. b. We tend to think that no situational influences could be strong enough to lead someone to confess to something they did not do. c. Jurors usually think that false confessions result from certain personality characteristics, such as passivity or lack of education. d. Few people think that they themselves would ever admit to a crime they did not commit.

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Chap_12_11e 117. A police officer testifies that the defendant in a murder trial confessed to the crime. Under cross-examination, the officer reveals details of the interrogation that suggest it is likely that the defendant was coerced into confessing. How are jurors likely to react to the confession evidence? a. Jurors will discount the confession because it was coerced. b. Jurors will accept the confession because as a general rule jurors don’t believe that people would confess to a crime that they did not commit. c. Jurors will believe that they have discounted the confession, but will vote to convict anyway. d. If the judge instructs jurors to disregard the confession evidence, then they will discount it, but otherwise, they will not.

118. According to your text, in terms of punishment, the most notable cultural difference concerns the a. length of a sentence. b. death penalty. c. age of emancipation. d. harshness of the prison environment.

119. Individuals who do not demonstrate objection on the death penalty are a. likely to have been involved in some sort of crime themselves. b. likely to hold religious convictions. c. likely to favor the prosecution. d. likely to be elderly.

120. What happens when experts provide jurors with information on the conditions under which eyewitness records are reliable? a. Jurors indicate reactance and may accept inaccurate testimony. b. Jurors are not influenced by the details provided by the experts. c. Jurors believe the credibility of the testimony. d. Jurors may find testimony less convincing.

121. Emily has just witnessed a violent crime. In this agitated state, Emily is most likely to focus on the a. weapon. b. culprit. c. setting. d. victim.

122. An 11-member jury has heard all the evidence in a child abuse case and is starting to deliberate. At the outset six favor acquittal of the defendant and five favor conviction. The jury will likely a. bring in a guilty verdict. b. vote for acquittal. c. be unable to achieve a verdict and be a hung jury. d. vote for conviction if the defendant is female and acquittal if the defendant is male.

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Chap_12_11e 123. A juror is more likely to be chosen as foreperson if the juror is a. seated in the middle of the table as opposed to at the head. b. of lower rather than higher occupational status. c. quiet during the initial stages of jury deliberation. d. the first to speak in the jury room.

124.

is the phenomenon of witnesses’ interpretations of events wavering according to their past experiences and expectations. a. Attributional bias b. Sampling bias c. Retrograde amnesia d. Anterograde amnesia

125. The study of differences and similarities between the legal systems across the globe is called a. comparative law. b. cross-cultural psychology. c. international criminal justice. d. cultural defense.

126. A Japanese-American woman discovered her husband was having an affair and tried to drown both herself and her children. In her defense, she claims she was trying to save her children from the shame her husband had brought on the family, something she sees as a Japanese custom. She and her lawyer are using a(n) defense. a. cultural b. comparative c. inquisitorial d. offensive 127.

% of police officers reported that they routinely encounter witnesses who are drunk or under the influence of drugs when committing a crime or being interviewed by the police. a. 24 b. 41 c. 59 d. 75

128.

is the stage of deliberation during which jurors set an agenda, talk in open terms, raise questions, and explore the facts. a. Orientation b. Open conflict c. Reconciliation d. Nullification

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Chap_12_11e 129. Kalven and Zeisel (1966) found that a. 45 b. 60

% of judges agreed with the verdicts juries rendered in all cases.

c. 78 d. 92 130. Montresse has been found guilty of espionage in his home country. This nation prohibits the death penalty, but in cases such as this, the death penalty may be permitted. In which country does Montresse live? a. Denmark b. Columbia c. Israel d. Kenya 131. In a murder trial, Bob was selected to serve on a death-qualified jury. Given his attitude toward the death penalty, he is probably than the average U.S. citizen. a. more likely to vote for acquittal b. more likely to recommend the death penalty c. more tolerant of procedures that protect the accused d. less religious 132. Explain the differences between the adversarial and inquisitorial models of justice. Describe how those differences relate to satisfaction with the process.

133. How do you explain “Leniency Bias?”

134. Summarize the means by which the polygraph works as a lie detector. What two major problems call its accuracy into question?

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Chap_12_11e 135. Summarize the theory of reconstructive memory as it relates to eyewitness testimony. What does the research suggest about the use of such testimony from children?

136. What is jury nullification? Under what circumstances might this be more likely to occur in a trial?

137. Describe death qualification in the context of jury selection. Explain the controversy surrounding the practice.

138. Describe two tactics other than physical violence, or the threat of physical violence, that police use to extract confessions from suspects. Also explain the conditions under which people are most likely to internalize a false confession.

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Chap_12_11e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap_12_11e 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_11e 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_11e 83. a 84. c 85. c 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. d 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. c 101. c 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. b 109. a 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_11e 111. d 112. c 113. b 114. b 115. b 116. b 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. c 121. a 122. c 123. d 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. d 128. a 129. c 130. c 131. b 132. The adversarial model of justice involves the disputed parties debating over an issue to seek justice. Both sides are permitted to present their evidence to the court, to give more than one viewpoint. On the other hand, the inquisitorial model of justice involves the court appointing a neutral investigator to collect evidence from both sides of a dispute and then that investigator presents his or her findings to the court. According to a study, both sides of a dispute are more satisfied when they are part of an adversarial trial in comparison to an inquisitorial one. Further research suggests that the adversarial process allows one to “give voice” to their understanding of an issue, that is the key feature resulting in higher satisfaction levels.

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Chap_12_11e 133. One of the major explanations for the leniency bias is the existence of a prodefendant norm among jurors. Research on polarization indicates that one group effect of group deliberation is to increase commitment to shared norms.

Another related explanation is based on the common law’s disinclination toward false conviction.

Such values are shown in numerous elements of the law, including the presumption of innocence, the prosecution’s evidence to seek justice, and most importantly the reasonable-doubt standard of proof.

134. A polygraph is an instrument that records physiological arousal from multiple channels. The assumption underlying its use is that when a suspect lies, he or she becomes anxious in ways that can be measured—specifically, through changes in breathing, blood pressure, and perspiration. First, the suspect’s baseline level of arousal is established.

Then, the examiner asks a series of yes-no questions and compares the suspect’s reactions to emotionally arousing crime-relevant questions with his or her reactions to control questions that are arousing but not relevant to the crime.

In theory, suspects whose denials about the crime are truthful should be more aroused by the control questions, whereas suspects whose denials are false should be more aroused by the crime-relevant questions. One problem with the use of the polygraph as a lie detector is that truthful people often fail the test. A second problem is that the test can be faked. To avoid being aroused by crime-relevant questions, some guilty individuals are able to use countermeasures such as distraction or an artificial inflation of their arousal responses to control questions (by, e.g., clenching their toes so that the arousal observed in their responses to crime-relevant questions does not seem high in comparison).

135. Reconstructive memory is a concept underlying the theory that eyewitness testimony can be altered by exposure to postevent information. According to this theory, first proposed by Elizabeth Loftus, even false information about an event we have earlier observed can influence and be incorporated into our memory of that event. For example, Loftus and Palmer (1974) demonstrated that when participants who viewed a film of a traffic accident were later asked questions about the accident, the wording of these questions significantly influenced their recollections. By implication, the accuracy of eyewitnesses’ testimony can be reduced by postevent information to which the eyewitnesses were exposed—a particular concern when the eyewitnesses are children. Indeed, children have a difficult time distinguishing between their real memories and the postevent suggestions to which they are later exposed. Laboratory experiments indicate that preschool-age children are more likely than older children or adults to incorporate such postevent suggestions into their memories.

136. Sometimes juries disagree with the law, thus raising the controversial issue of jury nullification. Because juries deliberate in private, they can choose to disregard, or “nullify,” the judge’s instructions. The pages of history are filled with poignant examples. Consider the case of someone tried for euthanasia, or “mercy killing.” By law, it is murder.

But to the defendant, it might be a noble act on behalf of a loved one. Faced with this kind of conflict— an explosive moral issue on which public opinion is sharply divided—juries often evaluate the issue in human terms, use personal notions of commonsense justice, and vote despite the law for acquittal (Finkel, 1995; Niedermeier et al., 1999).

This nullification tendency is particularly likely to occur when jurors who disagree with the law are told of their right to nullify it (Meissner et al., 2003). In these instances, research suggests the possibility that a nullification instruction may unleash a form of “chaos,” liberating jurors to follow their emotions in an emotionally charged case (Horowitz et al., 2006).

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Chap_12_11e 137. Death qualification is a jury selection procedure used in capital cases that excludes prospective jurors who say they would refuse to vote for the death penalty under any circumstance. Although excluding such jurors from only the sentencing decisions in capital cases would not be controversial (because these jurors admit that they are not willing to endorse one of the sentencing options), death qualification is very controversial because it also excludes these jurors from serving on the juries that determine verdicts in the first place. The procedure is controversial because research suggests that people who support the death penalty are not only more prosecution-minded on a host of issues but also more likely to vote guilty in a trial compared to those who oppose the death penalty. The implication, then, is that using the practice of death qualification biases juries against defendants, such that they are more likely to be found guilty by a death-qualified jury than by one consisting of a mix of proponents and opponents of capital punishment.

138. There are many strategies that police use to extract confessions. One approach is to minimize the offense by making excuses on behalf of the suspect. By doing so, the police can sometimes lull suspects into a false sense of security, such that they expect leniency and thus become more likely to confess. Another approach is to inform the suspects that the police have incriminating evidence against them. Through this tactic, the police try to make suspects believe that it is futile to deny the charges or launch a defense in court, so they again are more likely to confess. Sometimes, however, suspects confess to crimes they did not commit. In such cases, these suspects may have internalized their confessions; that is, they come to believe that they are indeed guilty of the crime. Research suggests that people can be induced to falsely confess, and to internalize the confession, when they are presented with false evidence that incriminates them or when they lack a strong memory for the events in question.

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Chap_13_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Genie is considering using various evaluation techniques to help her hire a new employee. In trying to choose between general assessments of attributes versus job-specific tests, she should be aware that a. general assessments are more effective predictors of future work success. b. job-specific tests lack the predictive validity of other instruments. c. potential applicants see job-specific tests as most fair. d. each assessment has significant weaknesses.

2. Ulrich bought an investment property that he intended to rent to tourists on the beach. After six months, he had had only one rental for far less than the cost he had hoped to charge. His wife encouraged him to sell the home, but he insisted that it will be profitable if they don’t give up and keep trying to rent it. Ulrich’s unwillingness to sell the home and cut his losses is an example of the effect. a. Escalation b. persistence c. endowment d. sunk cost 3. According to Amabile and Kramer (2011), a. pay b. recognition for good work c. making meaningful progress at work d. having social support at work

is one of the most important factors to motivation at work.

4. Rika has applied for a job at an investment firm. Before interviewing her, the hiring manager does an Internet search of Rika’s name, and then looks for any information she can find about Rika on Facebook. After seeing a picture of Rika holding an alcoholic beverage in a bathing suit on a beach, the hiring manager decides that Rika is not right for the position and declines to offer her an interview. Rika has lost this job opportunity because of a practice called . a. cybervetting b. web sniffing c. due process d. personal referencing 5. Compared to structured interviews, specific questions and specified answers are the major features of a. directive interviews. b. appraisal interviews. c. unstructured interviews. d. exit interviews.

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Chap_13_11e 6. Lamont has a 42-inch high definition television that he purchased for $1200 six months ago. He’s decided to replace it with a larger 60-inch television, and tries to sell the smaller one for $1100. He finds that nobody will buy it, and tells prospective buyers, “it is almost brand new and I’m selling it for less than it cost when I bought it!” Lamont fails to recognize that the same televisions can now be purchased for $800, and he is inflating the value of his television just because he owns it. This is called the a. endowment effect. b. disposition effect. c. escalation effect. d. sunk cost principle.

7. According to Marlowe and others (1996), 62% of hiring managers studied selected a candidate who was a. physically attractive. b. a college graduate. c. male. d. white.

8. The is the tendency for people to sell stocks that have risen too early and hold stocks that have declined for too long. a. endowment effect. b. disposition effect. c. escalation effect. d. sunk cost principle.

9. What sort of business was at the center of what became known as the “Hawthorne effect?” a. A construction company that built private and public housing b. A hospital where patients were waiting a long time to get medical care c. A plant that manufactured telephones and central office equipment d. A factory that was among the earliest to employ the assembly line 10. Less than 30 minutes into the 4-hour film, Sanford could tell he was going to hate the movie. He considered getting up and walking out but felt compelled to sit through the whole movie because he had already spent his money on the ticket. This illustrates a. the sunk cost principle. b. the normative model. c. the due process model. d. equity theory.

11.

does not influence the supervisor appraisals of an employee. a. Ability b. Friendliness c. On-the-job knowledge d. Dependability

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Chap_13_11e 12. The advantage of structured over traditional interviews when screening applicants is that an employer a. can avoid conducting biased interviews. b. can use integrity tests and/or polygraph tests as part of the interview procedure. c. can get a better understanding of each applicant. d. has more flexibility to pursue interesting lines of questioning in the interview.

13. Cleon has always enjoyed making ceramic figurines for his colleagues. In return for a particular piece, a colleague gives him $100. Cleon’s intrinsic motivation for making ceramic figurines is particularly likely to be undermined if he a. perceives the payment as having informational value. b. did not expect to receive any money. c. perceives that money controls his behavior. d. believes in contingency models.

14. What is a “probing question”? a. A question that asks indirectly about a person’s personal lives b. A question that inquires directly about a personal issue c. A question that motivates the interviewee to say more about a topic d. A question that takes the conversation to another topic 15. Lancelot would like to increase employee motivation with potential rewards. His employee Carry does not care about the reward and remains self-motivated. According to expectancy theory, what should be the valence of a person who is indifferent to the outcome? a. 1 b. −1 c. 2 d. 0 16. While implementing an affirmative action policy, an employer should avoid the following: a. setting and communicating clear and explicit qualifications criteria. b. emphasizing the target applicant’s unique contributions to the organization. c. clearly informing employees that the use of a quota is, in certain cases, justifiable. d. providing the target applicant and coworkers with specific feedback about the target’s qualifications.

17. During an interview, Maury is asked about work at a preceding job he held. At that job, he actually had quite a bit of trouble getting along with the boss and had fairly low-level responsibilities. But in his response to the interviewer’s question, Maury does not mention the trouble getting along with his supervisor and talks about how significant his responsibilities were to the organization’s success. Which faking strategy (or strategies) is Maury using? a. Ingratiation and exaggeration b. Exaggeration only c. Image protection only d. Exaggeration and image protection

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Chap_13_11e 18. “Great leadership emerges in part out of time, place, and circumstances.” Such a statement is best reflected in of leadership/approach. a. the classic trait b. the contingency model c. “top-down” views d. the transactional model 19. Which type of goal will be most effective in motivating a salesperson? a. Do your best to raise your sales. b. Try to raise your sales a little at a time. c. Try to raise your sales using established, effective means. d. Try to raise your sales by 50%.

20. Which of the following findings has been demonstrated in research on integrity tests? a. Such tests are predictive of job performance and behaviors such as theft or disciplinary problems. b. Both overt and covert integrity tests can be easily faked by motivated or knowledgeable test-takers. c. While covert tests can be easily faked, overt tests are too obvious to fake. d. Such tests are no more predictive of job performance than the flip of a coin.

21. Thor would like to get his son to read more without compromising the child’s intrinsic motivation to read. Which of the following strategies could best achieve this? a. Give the child a strict deadline by which time he must have read a set number of books. b. Set up a competition with other kids in the neighborhood to see who can read the most books. c. Create a schedule of how many hours the child should be reading each day and then closely supervise him to make sure he sticks to the schedule. d. Give the child a new book for every book that he reads and make it clear that he is doing a good job of reading the books.

22.

is the principle of the due process model that gives employees the right to be evaluated by a supervisor familiar with their work while receiving timely feedback about their evaluation and the opportunity to present their own case. a. Adequate notice b. Procedural fairness c. Fair hearing d. Situational control

23. Which of the following questions would an industrial/organizational psychologist be least likely to study? a. Do employer expectations influence job performance? b. What personality characteristics are associated with effective leaders? c. Are people satisfied with their current romantic partner? d. How do financial incentives affect worker motivation?

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Chap_13_11e 24. In 2012, American women were paid 82 cents for every dollar men were paid. Which of the following explanations for this gender-based wage disparity is not one proposed by your text? a. Consistent with the history of gender discrimination in this country, women have simply come to expect lower salaries than men do. b. Even when they perform well, women’s self-ratings tend to be less positive than men’s. c. In making social comparisons, women tend to compare themselves with other women, not with men. d. Women tend to exhibit an interdependent or collectivist self-view, whereas men are more likely to value independence or individualism in the workplace.

25. Anson asks an industrial/organizational psychologist for advice concerning whether he should ask his employees to complete self-evaluations. Which of the following is the psychologist least likely to indicate? a. Self-evaluations tend to be more positive than supervisor evaluations. b. Self-evaluations tend to be less predictive of job performance than supervisor evaluations. c. Individuals who have more power in the company will give themselves more positive evaluations than those who have less power. d. Female employees will give more positive evaluations of themselves than will male employees.

26. Which of the following is a leadership style where a leader controls all activities without any meaningful participation by the subordinates? a. Transformational b. Normative c. Transactional d. Autocratic 27. Although the structured interview helps to reduce the bias often present in a conventional interview, it does not do so completely because a. most interviewers do not stick to the structured protocol. b. of the power of first impressions in a preinterview. c. most job applicants do not like the structure. d. people take a very long time to size up a job applicant.

28.

theory of motivation starts with a belief that employees are rational. a. Expectancy theory b. Reinforcement theory c. Goal setting theory d. Herzberg’s two-factor theory

29. Sanchez and Chavez (2010) presented participants with a Latino candidate’s resume for a selective minority internship. The candidate’s background was strong, and half the time, the candidate was presented as bilingual (English/Spanish) and half the time not (English speaking only). They found that the language manipulation a. made no difference in how participants rated the candidate. b. affected how Caucasians, but not Latinos, rated the candidate. c. affected how Latinos, but not Caucasians, rated the candidate. d. influenced both Caucasians’ and Latinos’ ratings of the candidate.

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Chap_13_11e 30.

is the practice by which information seekers gather online information to evaluate, or vet, target’s details. a. Web interviewing b. Cybervetting c. Integrity testing d. 360 examination

31.

characteristic is not one of the forms of faking documented by Levashina and Campion (2007). a. Ingratiation b. Outright lying c. Image protection d. Charisma

32. The economic rule of thumb that only future costs and benefits, not past commitments, should be considered in making a decision is the a. sunk cost principle. b. escalation effect. c. endowment effect. d. contingency model.

33. A structured interview is similar to a standardized test in that both a. require applicants to first pass rigorous prescreening procedures before they can be administered. b. involve collecting the same information in the same way from all applicants. c. maximize an employer’s impact on potential applicants. d. are potentially compromised by subjective judgments of the interviewer.

34. According to Cedric Herring (2009), those companies that than companies that did not. a. used 360 assessments b. cybervetted job applicants c. employed transactional leadership styles

had higher profits and earned greater revenue

d. had greater racial and gender diversity 35. Which of the following is not an impediment to women trying to reach the top in executive positions? a. Women are conflicted about juggling a career and family. b. Women gravitate toward helping professions more than competitive, hierarchical positions. c. Lingering stereotypes portray women as followers, not leaders. d. Women have been less effective when placed in top positions.

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Chap_13_11e 36. Leonard is viewed as outgoing by his many friends, and he is often the center of attention because of his talkativeness. Based on research on personality traits relevant to desired work outcomes, Leonard is probably high on and would probably be most successful as a(n) . a. agreeableness; accountant b. conscientiousness; librarian c. extraversion; salesperson d. emotional stability; medical records clerk 37.

is the study of human behavior in the workplace. a. Clinical psychology b. Experimental psychology c. Economic/applied psychology d. Industrial/organizational psychology

38. Why do preferential selection policies have negative effects? a. People perceive focus on group membership in the decision process as unjust. b. The beneficiaries of the policies do not attribute their success on the job to their own skill and performance. c. Preferential selection leads beneficiaries of it to feel stigmatized at work. d. Preferential selection increases diversity in the workforce.

39. Which of the following findings has been demonstrated in research on traditional employment interviews? a. Interviews tend to be very high in predictive validity. b. Applicants who exhibit the least amount of self-promotion are likely to be hired. c. Interviews eliminate biases toward physically attractive applicants. d. An employer’s expectations can distort the interview process.

40. Which of the following are the perspectives of motivation identifying the needs that energize behavior? a. Expectancy theories b. Content theories of motivation c. Process theories of motivation d. Equity theory and OB mod theory 41. The contingency model of leadership suggests that for a task in which there is low situational control, a. a relations-oriented leader often offers too little guidance. b. a task-oriented leader is unlikely to be successful. c. a transactional leader will usually fail to set clear goals. d. a transformational leader will often rub subordinates the wrong way.

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Chap_13_11e 42. Nicola has good relations with her subordinates, exerts considerable power over them, and is faced with clearly structured tasks within the organization. According to the contingency model, Nicola is most likely to be an effective leader if she a. concentrates on making sure that her subordinates’ feelings remain positive. b. appears to individualize her attention. c. explicitly endorses due process considerations. d. is very task-oriented.

43. What is the major advantage of unstructured interviews? a. Interviewer can ask prepared questions. b. It can be legally defensible. c. Interviewers can pursue points of interest. d. The same questions can be asked to all applicants.

44. A major concern when it comes to the effort to assess a future employee’s character is that applicants tend to present themselves in overly positive ways. One form of assessment that avoids this problem is a. face-to-face interviews. b. overt integrity tests. c. covert integrity tests. d. nonstructured interviews.

45. According to expectancy theory, worker motivation depends on all of these factors except a. valued rewards. b. high intrinsic motivation. c. performance recognition. d. a belief that effort will improve performance.

46. Assessment centers’ multidimensional approach to making hiring decisions is a. good at predicting who will make a good employee. b. very inexpensive compared to traditional methods. c. assumed to be less effective than traditional interviews. d. more prone to applicant attempts to manipulate the interview process.

47. The discovery of the Hawthorne effect laid the foundation for industrial/organizational psychology because it illustrated the role of a. social influences in the workplace. b. job interviewing techniques in the creation of a homogenous workforce. c. equity motivation in worker loyalty. d. personality variables in economic decision making.

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Chap_13_11e 48. Dr. Henry studies practical issues concerning personnel selection, performance appraisals, and group leadership.

He is probably a(n) psychologist a. clinical b. experimental c. economic/applied d. industrial/organizational 49. Grant, a chief executive officer for more than two decades, has observed the rise of many people to positions of leadership in his company. In retrospect, he realizes that most of these people have exhibited a particular set of traits, including intelligence, ambition, a need for power, and an ability to adapt to changing circumstances.

Grant’s observations are consistent with the a. great person theory. b. interactions approach. c. transactional approach. d. contingency model.

50. Summer, the owner of a music box company, subscribes to equity theory. It is likely that she will be especially concerned that a. she maximizes employees’ participation in the making of company decisions. b. people who put maximum efforts into the company earn the highest salaries. c. she provides for a variety of different kinds of rewards. d. salaries are based on objective measures of performance.

51. Concerning the issue of affirmative action, surveys tend to show that Americans are a. strongly in favor of it, regardless of their race or sex. b. strongly opposed to it, regardless of their race or sex. c. divided on the issue, with African Americans more supportive of it than Caucasians. d. divided on the issue, with men more supportive of it than women.

52. Two changes in the world that have led organizational psychologists to consider cultural issues in the workplace are a. the U.S. Civil Rights movement and affirmative action. b. affirmative action and a worldwide trend toward globalization. c. an increase in the number of workplace discrimination lawsuits and a worldwide trend toward globalization. d. the U.S. Civil Rights movement and an increase in the number of workplace discrimination lawsuits.

53. Which of the following demonstrates behavior of the second highest bidder in Teger’s (1980) dollar auction? a. Effective use of the sunk cost principle. b. People do not handle money as carefully as professionals do. c. Escalation of a counterproductive endeavor. d. People take greater risks when gains are high.

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Chap_13_11e 54. One difficulty that homeowners often run into when they attempt to sell is that they tend to value their own property much higher than do other people, including real estate agents and potential buyers. This tendency is consistent with the a. sunk cost principle. b. endowment effect. c. escalation effect. d. concept of entrapment.

55. Researchers suggest that investors are more influenced by news and stock market tips during periods of rising and falling prices than during periods of relative stability. This is consistent with social psychological research concerning a. social exchange theory and equity theory. b. conformity and social comparison processes. c. cognitive dissonance and self-perception theories. d. contrast effects and excitation transfer.

56. Barney, an admissions officer, is interviewing a college applicant about whom he has very high positive expectations. Barney is outgoing and cheerful during the interview, spends considerable time recruiting the applicant, and asks the applicant questions that solicit positive information. As a result, Barney is pleased with the applicant’s performance and admits her to the school. This interview process demonstrates an example of a. the Hawthorne effect. b. a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. a contrast effect. d. entrapment.

57. Gretel wants to be as accurate and fair as she can when evaluating her subordinates. Which of the following would help her be both accurate and fair in her evaluations? a. Gretel has her employees evaluate themselves and then observes them on repeated occasions, rating their performance on a numerical scale. b. Gretel receives training on the biases of social perception and gives her subordinates clear performance standards. c. Gretel remains detached from her employees and is the sole evaluator. d. Gretel has several raters assess her subordinates and then gives the employees feedback without using due process in her appraisal.

58. Lindy is a college professor who is attempting to improve the performance of her students by making learningfriendly course material. She rearranges the room, purchases lamps, and develops a new set of readings. Her students do, in fact, improve. If this improvement stemmed from a Hawthorne effect, then it can be best attributed to a. the students’ perception that they were receiving special treatment. b. the students’ feeling that Lindy’s class is better than other classes. c. Lindy’s positive attitude toward education. d. the impact of physical setting on academic performance.

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Chap_13_11e 59. Neve will be using a structured interview to hire her new assistant. One of the applicants has requested a phone interview because she lives far from the job site. Based on the existing research, Neve a. should be concerned because structured interviews are only effective when administered in person. b. has no reason to worry because she can focus more intently on the applicant’s responses during a phone interview. c. should feel reassured because structured phone interviews have been shown to be predictive of future productivity. d. will have to use a written integrity test rather than a structured interview in this situation.

60. The is the tendency for people to inflate the value of objects, good, or services they already own. a. endowment effect. b. escalation effect. c. sunk cost effect. d. expectancy phenomenon.

61.

is/are not an aspect of the due process model of performance appraisal. a. Adequate notice b. Fair hearing c. Integrity tests d. Evidence of job performance

62. Paige is elected the leader of a group requiring a moderate degree of situational control. According to the contingency model, she is most likely to be an effective leader if she a. is relations-oriented. b. is single-minded in her focus on job performance. c. makes most decisions herself and does not ask for guidance. d. is task-oriented.

63. The term was coined by Robert K. Merton in 1948. a. self-fulfilling prophecy b. illusory correlation c. regression toward the average d. the hindsight bias 64. Bernard is an African American professional. Research suggests fairly clearly that he will be more likely than a Caucasian professional to a. respond positively to a task-oriented leader. b. receive more negative employee evaluations. c. establish a mentoring relationship with a supervisor. d. feel excluded socially from informal work groups.

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Chap_13_11e 65. James has just purchased a stock for $50 a share, and in the first two days it rises to $60 a share. James decides that this 20% gain in 48 hours is a nice little windfall, and sells the stocks at that price. The fact that it next goes up to $80 a share in the following month leaves James wondering why he sold. This tendency to sell a stock too quickly after its value has increased is called the effect. a. endowment b. disposition c. Escalation d. sunk cost 66. While violating the sunk cost principle, people often a. attribute random fluctuations in the stock market to predictable causes, thereby increasing the likelihood that self-fulfilling prophecies will occur. b. feel entrapped by their prior commitments to some failing course of action but continue to pursue it to justify their prior decisions. c. wait too long before making their investment decisions, thereby passing up the opportunity to buy stocks when they are least expensive. d. base their decisions purely on economic rules and ignore the psychological implications of their actions.

67. Heilman et al. (1998) had pairs of men and women work on two-person tasks in which the woman was always assigned a leadership role. The women in the study were a. more confident in their leadership ability when they felt they had, at least in part, earned the position on merit than when they were assigned to it based on their gender. b. less satisfied with their performance on the task when they felt they had been appointed leader based on merit than when they were assigned to it based on gender. c. more negative in their appraisals of their performance than their male partners when gender was in any way part of the decisional process for assigning leaders. d. likely to perceive the leadership selection process as unfair to the extent that their gender contributed in any way to their leadership position.

68. To increase the accuracy of performance appraisals, it is recommended that managers a. maintain at least a two-week delay between performance and evaluations. b. use a single rater rather than multiple raters so as to avoid discrepancies. c. educate evaluators about the biases of social perception. d. train evaluators to focus their ratings on the middle of rating scales.

69. Michael, the regional manager of his company, believes that Jim is a personable and productive individual. When asked to rate Jim’s leadership skills, Michael does not have much to go on and therefore assumes he is also a good leader. This is an example of a(n) a. contrast effect. b. halo effect. c. escalation effect. d. Hawthorne effect.

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Chap_13_11e 70. Tyler supervises more than 35 employees. Halo effects are pronounced in his performance appraisals of a. employees he knows very well. b. employees he does not know well. c. male employees. d. female employees.

71. According to Chao and Moon (2005), the idea that every worker has a multidimensional identity in constituting an organizational refers to a. melting pot. b. cultural mosaic. c. quilt of demography. d. diversity profile.

72. Research on how people react to pay cuts/raises, layoffs, promotions, and affirmative action policies shows that a. how the decision was made is more important than what decision was made. b. what decision was made is more important than how the decision was made. c. both how the decision was made and what the decision was are important. d. neither how the decision was made nor what the decision was are important.

73. Based on her written application materials, Phyllis is perceived as the best candidate for a position with Conglomerate Company. It is likely that her interviewer will a. elicit negative information from Phyllis in order to make sure that his positive expectations are not wrong. b. hold Phyllis to a higher standard than usual in order to offset any personal bias. c. spend more time assessing Phyllis’s fitness as a worker than really getting to know her. d. provide Phyllis with more information about the company and the job than other candidates would receive.

74.

appraisal is the practice of obtaining multiple evaluations of an individual worker from supervisors, peers, and subordinates. a. Circular b. 360-degree c. Multidirectional d. Recombinant

75. Research by Vohs and colleagues (2006) demonstrates the effects of leading participants to think about money.

What is not one of those effects? a. People tend to prefer to work alone as opposed to in groups. b. People tend to fail to ask for help with a problem they are having trouble solving. c. People tend to interfere in other people’s lives. d. People tend to offer less help to others who are clearly in need of assistance.

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Chap_13_11e 76. Several behavioral models of leadership identify two basic kinds of leader behaviors. These are: a. employee-centered and manager-centered. b. employee-centered and task-oriented. c. person-oriented and task-oriented. d. supportive and directive 77. Nacoste (1996) argues that affirmative action affects everyone involved in the hiring and promotion process and that procedural reverberations within the system are likely to occur when a. all interested parties have a chance to express their views. b. group membership is considered more important than individual contributions. c. policy is determined out in the open rather than behind closed doors. d. minorities are hired based on their merits.

78. Identify the factor (s) that influences human relations. a. The Hawthorne studies b. The study of scientific management c. The threat of unionization d. All of the above 79. Dwight is a salesman for a paper company. His performance is assessed by determining how many boxes of paper he sells each month, which means that he is being appraised in terms of a(n) criterion. a. psychographic and abstract b. preferential absolute c. objective and quantifiable performance d. subjective performance 80. Aloysius, a cashier in a department store, has been asked by store management to evaluate his shift supervisor.

Aloysius is being asked to provide a. situational judgments. b. upward feedback. c. preferential absolute information. d. due process.

81. Employee selection processes comprise the following tests except a. intelligence. b. personality. c. integrity. d. mental health.

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Chap_13_11e 82. The original intent of the managers at the Hawthorne plant was to see if they could make their factory workers more productive by changing light levels in the factory. To do this, they increased the lighting for one group of workers in a special test room and kept the lights the same in the control room. They found that a. workers in the special test room came to outperform workers in the control room. b. workers in the control room actually outperformed workers in the test room. c. neither group of workers showed an increase in productivity. d. both groups of workers showed an increase in productivity.

83. Vito, the owner of a new company, believes that all appraisals in his company should be based on evidence of job performance rather than other considerations. In order for Vito to operate according to the due process model of appraisal, he must also a. make his performance standards clear and encourage workers to evaluate themselves. b. give employees useful and timely feedback, and make sure they are rated several times by one supervisor. c. make his performance standards clear, and give employees timely feedback and an opportunity to present their own case. d. encourage workers to evaluate themselves, and make sure they are rated several times by one supervisor.

84. According to Berdahl and Anderson (2005), all-female work groups tend to have a. centralized leadership structures. b. decentralized leadership structures. c. more conflict than all-male groups. d. less conflict than all-male groups.

85. According to Bobocel and others (1998), opposition to affirmative action is associated with a. conscious prejudice. b. unconscious prejudice. c. strong belief in the principle of merit. d. strong belief in the principle of equality.

86. Performance standards based on the perceptions of employees reported by their supervisors, coworkers, or the employees themselves are considered a. concrete appraisals. b. integrity tests. c. quantitative criteria. d. subjective measures.

87. In a typical 360-degree assessment, a. supervisors b. human resource managers

rate the performance of the employee.

c. all who are directly in contact with the employee d. project managers

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Chap_13_11e 88. Chantal is interviewing for a job, and the interviewer cracks a joke. Chantal does not find it particularly funny, but she laughs anyway. Which of the following faking strategies is Chantal using? a. Exaggeration b. Ingratiation c. Outright lying d. Image protection 89. According to Judge and colleagues (2010), job satisfaction is a. strongly and positively correlated b. strongly and negatively correlated

with pay.

c. weakly and positively correlated d. uncorrelated 90. Halo effects can be caused by a. reliance on implicit personality theories. b. the tendency to perceive women as having a nurturing role. c. biases in the graphology process. d. the use of structured interviews in personnel selection.

91. The major focus and purpose of early contingency theories was to predict a. effective leadership. b. ethical leadership. c. sustainable leadership. d. strategic leadership.

92. Kevin is required to check errors in the work done by his team and to correct all the significant deviations to ensure quality delivery. Kevin is conducting a(n) process. a. controlling b. leading c. Planning d. organizing 93. A(n) test is personality based. a. overt integrity b. covert integrity c. standardized d. intelligence 94. Self-evaluations are likely to be a. more positive and more predictive of job performance. b. more positive but less predictive of job performance. c. more negative and more predictive of job performance. d. more negative and less predictive of job performance.

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Chap_13_11e 95. When Purdie-Vaughns and others (2008) presented African-American corporate professionals with a brochure for a fictitious management consulting firm, they found that a. if the brochure depicted a low level of minority representation, they were uncomfortable with the idea that the firm was colorblind. b. if the brochure depicted a low level of minority representation, they were comfortable with the idea that the firm was colorblind. c. if the brochure depicted a high level of minority representation, they were uncomfortable with the idea that the firm was colorblind. d. the professionals were uncomfortable with the colorblind firm regardless of what was depicted in the brochure.

96. Which of the following statements is true when it comes to sex and leadership? a. Men are typically more effective leaders than women. b. Women are typically more effective leaders than men. c. Male leaders are more relations-oriented than female leaders, and females are more task-oriented than males. d. Male leaders are more controlling in their approach than are female leaders, and females are more democratic than males.

97. Aretha is trying to determine the extent to which she should include her subordinates in a decision she is making regarding a company problem that has arisen. According to the normative model of leadership, which of the following factors should she consider? a. The clarity of the problem b. The magnitude of the problem c. The immediacy of the problem d. The level of employee morale 98. Carmelo is an extremely talented basketball player. Several professional teams offer him lots of money to play for them. Though he doesn’t particularly enjoy playing basketball, he continues to play because of the money. In this situation, Carmelo is a. relations-oriented. b. task-oriented. c. intrinsically motivated. d. extrinsically motivated.

99. Which of the following explains the key quality of leaders that focus on the individuality of their subordinates? a. Laissez-faire b. Job centered c. Consideration oriented d. Employee oriented

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Chap_13_11e 100. In research examining different types of interviews, some students were interviewed in person while others were given a telephone or video interview. Which of the following outcomes was found? a. Students who were given a telephone interview were more likely to rate the process favorably. b. Students who were given an in-person interview were more likely to accept a job offer. c. Those students who had an interview via videoconference rated the process as being the fairest. d. There were no significant differences between in-person, video, and telephone interviews.

101. Marilyn is the director of human resources for a small financial services company. The CEO of the company, Phil, asks her to interview three candidates for an open position in the billing department. Phil is particularly excited about candidate A, and tells Marilyn this. Research suggests that when interviewing candidate A, Marilyn will a. be somewhat more outgoing and cheerful than when she interviews the other candidates. b. scrutinize every response more carefully in the effort to disconfirm Phil’s expectations. c. engage in self-promotion. d. hold off on making any judgments about the candidate until she completes the other two interviews as well.

102. By participating in a(n) a. assessment center b. contingency model c. structured interview

job applicants are evaluated by multiple methods and multiple evaluators.

d. polygraph 103. In considering whether or not she is satisfied with the compensation she receives from her job, Imelda is likely to consider all of these factors except a. benefits such as healthcare and stock options. b. how raises are determined. c. salary differences within the company. d. the procedural interdependence of the company.

104. Vince buys tickets to a concert for his girlfriend, Jennifer. Two weeks before the show, the couple split up.

Vince decides to go to the concert anyway even though he doesn’t really like the band. “I paid the money, so I might as well go,” he says. Vince’s decision demonstrates the principle. a. base rate b. endowment c. Escalation d. sunk cost 105. Which of the following is the best example of “soft” form of affirmative action? a. Giving preference to job applicants of color, but not considering gender in evaluating applications. b. Taking into consideration the socioeconomic status of college applicants, but not their racial background. c. Providing outreach programs intended to recruit applicants from underrepresented groups. d. Establishing a firm quota stating that 50% of all new employees at a firm must be female.

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Chap_13_11e 106. When Kinnaird applies for a job at a new firm, they give him a paper-and-pencil questionnaire that asked questions about whether or not he has been involved in any of several transgressions, such as illegal drug use and shoplifting. Kinnaird is taking a(n) test. a. situational judgment b. Polygraph c. Integrity d. personality 107. Marvin is a line worker for the clothing manufacturer. Even though he does not have an official title, Marvin is more than willing to give his complete dedication to helping the organization in attaining its goal of producing a quality product. This willingness to pursue an organizational goal is an indication of a. goal setting. b. self-motivation. c. positive reinforcement. d. goal commitment.

108. Madeline, Joe, and Ian have all applied for the same promotion. Madeline is chosen but may be particularly likely to devalue the promotion if she believes that a. it was based on equity considerations. b. the decision was made on the basis of an assessment center. c. her intrinsic motivation, not her ability, determined the decision. d. she got it because of her sex and not her qualifications.

109. What type of behaviour is a leader exhibiting when he trusts his subordinates and treats them with respect? a. Supportive behavior b. Employee-centered behavior c. Directive behavior d. Task-oriented behavior 110. According to Murphy and others’ (2003) survey of over 700 professionals indicated that most a. relied extensively on standardized tests of intelligence in personnel selection. b. had never heard of the use of standardized tests of intelligence in personnel selection. c. agreed that intelligence is not fully captured by standardized tests. d. believed that integrity tests were more important intelligence tests.

111. Research on physical attractiveness and job hiring suggests that attractiveness influences a. perceptions of female applicants, but not perceptions of male applicants. b. perceptions of both female and male applicants. c. evaluations made by male interviewers, but not female interviewers. d. evaluations made by both male and female interviewers.

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Chap_13_11e 112. The major benefit of face-to-face interviews is that they a. increase the probability of stereotyped judgments. b. exacerbate gender preferences in hiring decisions. c. reduce, but do not eliminate, racial preferences in hiring decisions. d. produce hiring decisions that are perceived to be more open-minded 113. Greenberg (1988) found that workers assigned to higher-status offices improve their job performance, whereas those assigned to lower-status offices slow their performance. This finding supports the predictions of a. the transformational model. b. equity theory. c. the contingency model. d. intrinsic motivation.

114. What most likely leads to mismatches between a leader’s personal style and the demands of the situation? a. High situational control b. Low rates of employee absenteeism c. Increased leader competence d. Increased job stress and stress-related illnesses 115. Research that examines workers’ personality characteristics has concluded that a. people who score high in conscientiousness tend to be too timid to be productive workers. b. low self-monitors are more likely to become organizational leaders. c. extraverts are more likely than introverts to succeed as managers and salespersons. d. self-esteem has little ability to predict job productivity or satisfaction.

116. Mandy has applied for a job at a big telecommunications company. As part of the process, she goes to the human resources department and participates in several exercises. In one exercise, she is taken to an office, seated at a desk, and asked to process the in-basket on the desk as if it were her first day on the job. Multiple evaluators rate Mandy’s performance on processing the in-basket work. Next, she does another task and is again rated by many evaluators. Mandy is participating in a(n) a. assessment center. b. structured interview. c. personality test. d. intelligence test.

117. According to Locke and Latham, what feature(s) must a goal have to be effective? a. It must be general. b. It must be simple. c. It must be specific and difficult. d. It must be specific and simple.

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Chap_13_11e 118. Bobby, Peter, Greg, and Mike are all effective leaders. Although their leadership styles vary, they are particularly likely to have in common a. an emphasis on smoothing over potentially tense relationships. b. the ability to negotiate deals efficiently and to their own advantage. c. an engaging way of speaking. d. the ability to use social influence effectively.

119.

is not a type of qualitative interview because an interviewer prepared a particular set of questions in advance. a. Oral history interview b. Structured interview c. Focus group interview d. Unstructured interview

120. Jordan, a successful CEO, is asked in an interview to explain her success. She replies, “To lead, you must inspire.” Given her response, she can best be described as a leader. a. transactional b. relations-oriented c. transformational d. task-oriented 121. What makes path-goal theory different from other contingencies theories? a. Addition of performance b. Addition of achievement c. Addition of satisfaction d. Addition of motivation 122. Who conducted the Hawthorne experiments? a. Max Weber b. Elton Mayo c. Henri Fayol d. Charles Handy 123. Josiah is trying to get hired by the New Directions Company. All of the following will help his cause except a. being physically attractive. b. securing a face-to-face interview. c. engaging in self-effacement when being asked about his qualifications. d. an interviewer who has high expectations of him.

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Chap_13_11e 124. Terrell is concerned because he feels that he is working harder and performing better than most of the other wide receivers in the NFL, yet he is not being paid more than many of them. His concerns are consistent with a. contrast effects. b. equity theory. c. halo effects. d. 360-degree appraisals.

125. The is the tendency for people to persist in failing investments to avert loss, which causes losses to mount. a. endowment effect b. escalation effect c. sunk cost principle d. expectancy theory 126. Isaac, a well-respected man with charisma, wants to preserve some uninhabited islands from development. He carries out a “Save the Islands” campaign by focusing on people’s love for nature, addressing their concern about what they believe is becoming an overdeveloped world. He also presents a strategy for preserving the islands forever. Such leadership best reflects a. the classic trait approach to leadership. b. a normative model of leadership. c. transformational leadership. d. task-oriented leadership.

127. As managers, Homer is viewed as easygoing and agreeable, while Marge is seen as very conscientious. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. Homer will be more lenient than Marge in evaluating employees. b. Homer will be harsher than Marge in evaluating employees. c. Marge will be more likely than Homer to use objective measures of appraisal. d. Marge will be more likely than Homer to use subjective measures of appraisal.

128. According to Plaut and colleagues (2009), the more multicultural the dominant white employees were in their diversity beliefs a. the more minority employees were employed. b. the more minority employees reported being engaged in their work. c. the less minority employees were paid. d. the lower the overall earnings of the company.

129. According to Lyess and Thompson’s (2000) survey of corporate executives as compared to their male counterparts, female executives are more likely to have a. greater access to role models and mentors. b. a more task-oriented leadership style. c. sought competitive, hierarchical positions. d. been passed over for jobs requiring relocation.

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Chap_13_11e 130. Ken wants his managers to be better evaluators of his employees. Toward this end, he can do all of the following except a. rely on one evaluator who is shown to be objective for all employees. b. train his managers to sharpen their memory skills. c. teach managers to focus attention on job-relevant behaviors. d. minimize the time between employee performance and performance evaluation.

131. According to research by Zhou and colleagues (2009), social rejection leads people to a. give up pleasures such as chocolate and sunshine. b. value money less. c. value money more. d. strive harder for social acceptance.

132. Describe two factors that can reduce the validity of the traditional interview.

133. Explain the basic premise of equity theory as it applies to the workplace. What are two steps that a person experiencing distress within this model might take to reduce their discomfort? Give an example of how this might play out in a real workplace situation.

134. Compare and contrast the leadership qualities of men and women..

135. How do rewards affect intrinsic motivation?

136. Briefly explain the equity theory.

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Chap_13_11e 137. When a person applies for a job and is granted an interview, they are naturally motivated to present themselves as favorably as possible. How might this lead to intentional or even unintentional “faking”? What forms might this faking take?

138. Name two factors that affect both supervisor ratings of employees and employee self-ratings.

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Chap_13_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. d

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Chap_13_11e 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_11e 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. b 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_11e 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. c 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. b 95. a 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. d 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. d 104. d 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. d 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_11e 111. d 112. c 113. b 114. d 115. c 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. b 120. c 121. d 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. b 129. d 130. a 131. c 132. Social psychological factors strongly influence the interview process, often drawing the interviewer’s attention away from features relevant to evaluating a candidate’s potential. One such factor is the physical attractiveness of the applicant. Attractive applicants are consistently rated higher than unattractive, or even simply plain, applicants with the same qualifications. Applicant confidence is a second feature that may not necessarily be relevant to a candidate’s ability to perform a given job, but biases the interviewer’s ratings. Applicants who appear confident, even with weaker qualifications, are likely to be rated more positively by an interviewer than highly qualified applicants who are not as confident.

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Chap_13_11e 133. According to equity theory, presented in Chapter 9, people want rewards to be equitable. In other words, the ratio between inputs and outcomes should be the same for the self as it is for others. Relative to coworkers, then, the more effort you exert, and the more you contribute, the more money you should earn. If you feel overpaid or underpaid, however, you will experience distress and try to relieve it by (1) restoring actual equity, say, by working less or getting a raise, or (2) convincing yourself that equity already exists (Cropanzano, 1993).

134. Research has identified that both men and women are task oriented and have similar aspirations, abilities, values, and job-related skills. The only difference is that men tend to be more authoritative and thus are considered more effective leaders in positions that require a directive style. On the other hand, women tend to be more democratic and thus are considered more effective as leaders in positions that require cooperation and openness. In short, female leaders interact more with subordinates, giving them equal opportunity to participate in decision-making processes and to share information. According to research, female leaders are devalued relative to their male counterpart when they adopt a “masculine” style of leadership or work in “masculine” positions. But overall, both men and women have equal potential to become a great leader in most situations.

135. People are intrinsically motivated to pursue a particular activity when they do so purely out of interest, challenge, or sheer enjoyment. The receipt of rewards for engaging in that activity can thus undermine their intrinsic motivation.

Indeed, people who start getting paid for a task that they already enjoy and used to do for free sometimes lose interest in the task and continue it only because of the money they are earning. Rewards are particularly likely to undermine intrinsic motivation when they are perceived as controlling such behavior. For example, if people who enjoy sculpting begin to get paid for this activity, they will likely lose intrinsic motivation to the extent that they perceive the money to be the primary reason for continuing to sculpt. If, instead, the money is perceived as having informational value in that it offers positive feedback about the quality of the art, and the artists believe that the money is not an important reason for sculpting, then their intrinsic motivation should not be undermined and may even be increased.

136. Equity theory is based on the idea that people are motivated by fairness. It states that if people identify an inequity between themselves and a peer, they will regulate the work they do to make the situation fair for themselves. For example, if an employee comes to know that a peer performing exactly the same job as them is getting more money, then they may choose to work less, thus creating fairness for them.

137. “Faking” in an employment interview—which occurs whenever a job applicant consciously presents himself or herself in distorted ways in order to create a favorable impression—may well compromise the predictive validity of the process. For that reason, researchers have recently sought to develop a questionnaire that measures faking. In a series of studies, Julia Levashina and Michael Campion (2007) asked hundreds of college seniors who were active on the job market to anonymously rate the degree to which they engaged in various faking behaviors during their most recent interviews. Some of the behaviors involved outright lying (“I claimed that I have skills I do not have”); others involved forms of exaggeration (“I exaggerated my responsibilities on previous jobs”), ingratiation (“I laughed at the interviewer’s jokes even when they were not funny”), and image protection (“When asked directly, I did not mention some problems that I had in past jobs”). It will be interesting in future research to see whether applicants’ responses on this questionnaire can be used to predict their success or failure—not only during the interview process but also later on the job.

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Chap_13_11e 138. Restriction of range problems and power are two factors common to both types of rating. A restriction of range results when supervisor ratings are clustered around one part of the scale, leading to very weak distinctions between employees. Similarly, self-ratings show a restriction of range in that most ratings cluster in the positive end of the scale. Power can also affect both rating types. Supervisors with power, compared to those without power, tend to give lower performance ratings to subordinate others, whereas individuals with high levels of power rate themselves exceptionally favorably.

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Chap_14_11e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Analyzing national surveys that were conducted from 1983 to 2009, Sheldon Cohen and Denise Janicki-Deverts (2012) found that more stress is consistently reported by a. men than women. b. those who are retired rather than employed. c. minority respondents than whites. d. people in general who are older and more educated.

2. Gurjit is easily angered when threatened and he hates it when his coworkers are not prepared. In addition, he is always in a rush and feels that he has to be the best employee in the company. Gurjit’s personality can be said to most consistently exhibit a. optimism. b. hardiness. c. self-focused depression. d. Type A personality.

3. Cognitive and behavioral efforts to reduce the distress produced by a stressful situation are called a. problem-focused b. emotion-focused c. proactive d. reactive

coping.

4. Yvonne is going through a bad phase and wants to feel better. She decides to direct her attention to what is happening here and now, without judgment or evaluation. Her goal will be best served by a. mindfulness meditation. b. focused attention meditation. c. emotion-focused coping. d. problem-focused coping.

5. Monty studies hard for math, but never seems to “get it.” Week after week, he fails his math tests. By the end of the year, Monty does not even try to study for math. Monty is demonstrating a. problem-focused coping. b. hardiness. c. learned helplessness. d. self-efficacy.

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Chap_14_11e 6. Which of the following statements concerning the link between stress and illness is true? a. Stress can increase vulnerability to short-term illnesses, like colds, but does not affect the course of more serious long-term diseases such as cancer. b. Stress can influence whether or not a person contracts a particular illness, but not the duration or outcome of that illness. c. Stress increases susceptibility to coronary heart disease and cancer, but not colds and other minor infections. d. Stress can influence both short-term and long-term illnesses, including colds, coronary heart disease, and cancer.

7. Frazier’s (2003) research on blame, control, and coping among victims of rape indicates that a. assigning blame to the rapist or self leads to less stress. b. self-blame is only adaptive when it leads to feelings of future safety. c. blaming the assailant is the faster way to recover from the trauma. d. the most useful sense of control is over the past.

8. When Ayanna passes a class, she thinks her success is due to her hard work. When she fails a class, she thinks her failure is due to a lack of hard work. These perceptions reflect a sense of and make it likely that Ayanna will get sick. a. learned helplessness; more b. burnout; more c. commitment; less d. control; less 9. The leading cause of death in the United States for both men and women is a. cancer. b. heart disease. c. diabetes. d. suicide.

10. Research by Sbarra and colleagues (2011) showed that relative to their married counterparts, people who were divorced at the start of the prospective studies were later 23% more likely to die early from all causes of death during follow-up assessments. This risk was most elevated for a. men and those younger than 65 years of age. b. women and those younger than 65 years of age. c. men and those older than 65 years of age. d. women and those older than 65 years of age.

11. Sean believes that he has a high sense of control over his own health, so when his kidney transplant unexpectedly fails, he is likely to a. look at the bright side of life. b. feel particularly depressed. c. seek out the company of pessimistic patients. d. exhibit a particularly strong immune response.

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Chap_14_11e 12. The annual number of work hours in Japan has dropped to below average among developed countries as a result of the country’s efforts to fight a. learned helplessness. b. ikigai. c. karoshi. d. PTSD. 13. Research in Israel on resilience in the face of terrorism and violence indicates that resilient than . a. members of ethnic majority groups; members of the ethnic minority b. women; men

tend to be more

c. less educated people; more educated people d. poor people; richer people 14. Which of the following has not been revealed by research on the relationship between optimism and health? a. Optimists are more likely than pessimists to make a quicker and fuller recovery from coronary artery bypass surgery. b. A positive correlation exists between hopelessness and mortality. c. Optimism can have negative consequences when it leads people to believe that they have control over uncontrollable events. d. Optimists are more likely than pessimists to take an emotion-focused approach to dealing with stress.

15. Adaptation-level theory suggests that a. our present satisfaction depends on the level of success to which we are accustomed. b. the more money we have, the less we need to feel happy. c. we make upward comparisons more than we make downward comparisons. d. high-impact events have long-lasting effects on happiness levels.

16. Who is likely to report the highest level of subjective well-being? a. Tine, who has lost touch with his family since starting graduate school b. Mariano, a middle-aged librarian whose recommendations are sought by many c. Paul, who has had a terrible cold for over two weeks and is resting alone at home d. Derek, who is very rich and successful in his career but not physically attractive 17. According to Peter Salovey (1992), awareness of the self increases as a result of moods that are a. neutral. b. positive and not those that are negative. c. either positive or negative. d. negative and not those that are positive.

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Chap_14_11e 18. Which of the following statements concerning personality and coronary heart disease is true? a. Individuals with a Type B personality are more likely to have coronary heart disease than those with Type A personalities. b. Observations of a person’s behavior are a better indicator of Type A personality than self-reports. c. People who have lots of anger and suppress it are less likely to develop high blood pressure than those with anger who express it. d. The most toxic personality ingredient associated with coronary heart disease is competitiveness.

19. The incidence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a. less severe among those prone to catastrophic thinking. b. more among men than women. c. common among military personnel, not the general citizenry. d. higher three to six months after a soldier’s return than immediately afterward.

20. When females are isolated, unsupported, and in social distress, they a. become more nurturing and affiliative than men. b. exhibit heightened fight-or-flight response. c. show greater symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder. d. display greater Type A behavior patterns.

21. Proactive coping a. is an upfront effort to modify the onset of a stressful event. b. runs counter to the presence of self-efficacy. c. only works for less traumatic events. d. establishes a lifestyle change after a stressful event.

22. Fredrickson (2009) has suggested two steps in explaining why positive emotions are so effective in coping.

Those two steps are that positive emotions a. broaden our outlook and then build our personal resources. b. lower our heart rate and then increase our sense of well-being. c. narrow our outlook and then build our personal resources. d. broaden our outlook and then shrink our personal resources.

23. Sophia is anxious about her first day of school. Her mother assures her that everything is fine, walks her to the classroom door, and waits until she seems comfortable in her new surroundings. Sophia’s mother has provided a. social support. b. role modeling. c. self-focused attention. d. behavioral skills.

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Chap_14_11e 24. Ralph has had a stressful month. His girlfriend dumped him, he failed three exams, and someone stole his car.

According to Abramson et al.’s (1989) notion of hopelessness, Ralph’s reactions to these events depend on his a. outlook. b. perspective. c. attributions. d. self-esteem.

25. Research on thought suppression shows that a. suppressing the display of negative emotion is physiologically beneficial. b. suppressing the display of emotion is physiologically taxing. c. keeping an important secret does not result in perceiving the world differently. d. secret-keeping is critical in building greater emotional strength.

26. Caleb has a Type A personality. The aspect of his behavior that is likely to place him at greatest risk for coronary heart disease is his a. hostility. b. competitive orientation. c. impatience. d. workaholism.

27. Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between stress and illness? a. Stress increases the number of lymphocytes in the bloodstream, which diminishes the body’s ability to fight off disease. b. Stress increases levels of adrenaline and other hormones that suppress immune cell activity and increase susceptibility to illness. c. Stress increases the negative attributions that people make, and negative attributions can become selffulfilling prophecies. d. Under high levels of stress, people tend to sleep too much, which weakens the immune system and makes illness more likely.

28. The biological explanation for the correlation between optimism and physical health focuses on a. risky behaviors and adrenaline. b. alcohol consumption. c. the immune system. d. genetic heritability.

29. Positive emotions such as joy help people cope with adversity by a. increasing blood pressure. b. allowing for proactive coping. c. distracting them from the stressor. d. narrowing their focus of attention.

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Chap_14_11e 30. Prolonged response to job stress resulting in emotional exhaustion, cynicism, disengagement, and lack of personal accomplishment is known as a. general adaptation syndrome. b. PTSD. c. burnout. d. learned helplessness.

31. Regina learns that hostility is a factor in the development of high blood pressure, so she now tries to suppress her anger. Consequently, her blood pressure will most probably a. decrease. b. increase. c. stabilize. d. change erratically.

32. The process by which we make judgments about the demands of potentially stressful events as well as our ability to meet those demands is called a. proactive coping. b. problem-focused coping. c. appraisal. d. stress-and-coping process.

33. Cognitive and behavioral efforts to alter a stressful situation are called a. problem-focused b. emotion-focused c. proactive d. restraint

coping.

34. According to the research by Susan Nolen-Hoeksema and Jannay Morrow (1991) with a group of Stanford University students, the distressing effects of a natural disaster are most likely to emerge among individuals who a. were least distressed before the event. b. are high in self-efficacy. c. experienced the most danger during the event. d. rely on emotion-focused coping.

35. What seems to matter the least when it comes to determining whether a therapy will be successful or not? a. The intensity of social support provided b. The school of thought on which the therapy is based c. Whether patients have a choice in how the therapy proceeds d. Whether it communicates a positive expectation

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Chap_14_11e 36. What is the best analogy for the experience of catharsis? a. Taking the lid off of a boiling pot of water b. Blowing up a balloon until it pops c. Using anesthesia before dental surgery d. A bullet coming out of a gun 37. Stress may weaken the immune system in part by a. allowing production of lymphocytes in the bloodstream. b. shrinking adrenal glands, enlarging lymph nodes. c. increasing unhealthy behaviors. d. alternating periods of physical exertion and rest.

38. Compared to European Americans, Asians are less likely to seek out social support when the source of stress is a. social, academic, financial, or health related. b. financial, but not when it is social. c. academic, but not when it is financial. d. health related, but not when it is academic.

39. While walking home alone late at night, Winona suddenly hears footsteps behind her. Her heart starts to pound, her breathing quickens, and adrenaline begins to course through her body. Within the framework of the general adaptation syndrome, Winona is in the stage. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. recovery d. resistance 40. A common element across all psychotherapies is that they are all aimed at a. promoting problem-focused coping. b. emphasizing what makes life worth living. c. using objective tools to measure subjective well-being. d. communicating positive expectations.

41. One limitation to the positive relationship between a sense of control and resiliency is that a. setting control expectations too high can be harmful when outcomes are negative. b. a personal sense of control often predicts oversensitivity to the needs and feelings of others. c. it is much stronger in collectivist cultures than in individualistic cultures. d. it tends to disappear when a person opts for emotion-focused coping rather than problem-focused coping.

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Chap_14_11e 42. According to Sarkar and colleagues (2009), heart disease patients were more likely to survive hospitalization when they a. had high ratings of self-efficacy. b. exhibited low dispositional optimism. c. experienced subjective well-being. d. made stable, global attributions.

43. Based on research concerning the link between stress and illness, which of the following individuals is most likely to actually contract a cold if exposed to a cold virus? a. Craig, who has a Type B personality b. Charlotte, who is happily married, but just had an argument with her husband c. Sam, who has been unemployed for two months d. Miranda, who got a speeding ticket on her way home from work 44. Social support is associated with all of the following except a. prolonging a cancer victim’s life. b. lowering a person’s blood pressure. c. suppressing the immune system’s response to stress. d. reducing suicidal thoughts among individuals infected with HIV. 45. A pattern of behavior characterized by extremes of competitive striving for achievement, a sense of time urgency, hostility, and aggression is called a. Type A personality. b. Type B personality. c. depressed explanatory style. d. dispositional pessimism.

46. Selye’s (1936) general adaptation syndrome includes all of the following stages except a. alarm. b. exhaustion. c. recovery. d. resistance.

47. Research on the relationship between money and happiness suggests that generally a. comparisons to those who are better off tend to increase feelings of subjective well-being. b. within a country, the wealthier citizens report significantly greater levels of happiness. c. as the wealth within a culture increases, the subjective well-being of its citizens increases. d. citizens of wealthier nations report greater levels of happiness.

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Chap_14_11e 48. What is the term that Freud used to refer to a discharging of tension that can act to reduce the discomfort that is caused by stress? a. Insight b. Catharsis c. Burnout d. Depersonalization 49. Regarding confession, research reveals that it is helpful to open up so long as the source you confess to is a. analytical. b. validating. c. honest. d. social.

50. The principal cognitive benefit of opening up and sharing stressful experiences with others is known as a. venting. b. insight. c. self-focus. d. discharge.

51. Marla studies the link between psychological stress and physical health. Marla is most likely a(n) a. forensic psychologist. b. health psychologist. c. industrial/organizational psychologist. d. social worker.

52. Pressman and Cohen (2012) analyzed writings of highly influential, deceased psychologists and found that the use of emotion words in writing was associated with longevity. a. positive high-arousal b. positive low-arousal c. negative high-arousal d. negative low-arousal 53. Katarina is on a plane that has been hijacked. Assuming she will be in this situation for an extended period of time, which of the following coping strategies to alleviate her stress would probably be least effective? a. Distracting herself b. Helping other passengers c. Deep breathing exercises d. Chanting a scriptural verse

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Chap_14_11e 54. Research suggests that procrastination is problematic. Nonetheless, a more controlling orientation epitomized by tackling tasks head-on can be problematic too in that it can a. prevent problem-focused coping. b. lead to Type B pattern of behavior. c. disrupt the focusing of attention. d. be physiologically taxing.

55. When uncontrollable life events are especially traumatic, it tends to be healthier to a. make specific attributions, rather than global attributions. b. raise our perceptions of control and sense of optimism to a higher level. c. engage in problem-focused coping than in emotion-focused coping. d. open up to trusted others than to keep things to oneself.

56. Hardy people have the following characteristics except a. commitment. b. concentration. c. control. d. challenge.

57. In interviews with hospital patients, Holmes and Rahe (1967) found that illness was often preceded by a major life event. Their finding is consistent with the hypothesis that a. stress is caused by change. b. childhood trauma can exacerbate stress. c. positive life events eliminate stress. d. exposure to infection, rather than stress, produces physical illness.

58. The major difference between proactive coping and other forms of coping (such as problem-based and emotionbased) is that proactive coping a. occurs before a stressful event takes place. b. is principally a cognitive strategy. c. has no reported physiological effects. d. is effective for events low in controllability.

59. Which of the following explanations has not been offered for the modest relationship between income and happiness? a. People engage in both upward and downward social comparisons. b. Experiences from over four years back correlated strongly with subjective well-being. c. Satisfaction is based on the level of success to which one is accustomed. d. Everyone has a different baseline level of happiness.

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Chap_14_11e 60. Research on religion and coping reveals that religion a. fills people with an increasing sense of false optimism. b. causes improvements in coping skills by influencing healthier life choices. c. is associated with better coping, but the causal relation is not established. d. attracts people who make healthy choices and are naturally optimistic.

61. Neal knows that the Thanksgiving dinner with his in-laws, who do not particularly like him, will be stressful. He and Nicki, his wife, decide that there are certain topics they will just bluntly change should they be raised by the in-laws. They also decide that Nicki will, should her parents persist, state that family gatherings should be pleasant and pursuing certain issues will create such unpleasantness that she and Neal will leave. Neal and Nicki are best described as engaging in coping. a. problem-focused b. emotion-focused c. proactive d. restraint 62. Though occasional victories can elevate one’s happiness level, and setbacks can decrease it, research finds that people have a set level of happiness to which the person gravitates. a. static b. appraisal c. equilibrium d. baseline 63. Which type of purchase is most likely to increase the happiness of a person from the middle class? a. Jewelry b. An iPhone c. Concert tickets d. A new outfit 64. All of the following are examples of microstressors except a. traffic. b. noisy neighbors. c. natural disasters. d. waiting in a long line.

65. Studying railroad commuters who traveled regularly from their homes in suburban New Jersey to work in Manhattan, Evans and Wener (2006) found that the longer their commute was, a. the sloppier they were at a simple proofreading task. b. the less stress they reported feeling from their subjective point of view. c. the lower was their level of cortisol over the long term. d. the fewer were their tangible resources to meet daily challenges.

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Chap_14_11e 66. After an extraordinarily stressful six months at work, Mahmoud expected some let up in the pressure. However, with the launch of a new project he found himself deluged with more work and, as a consequence, felt his stress mount. He is most likely to enter the stage. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. resolution 67. Which of the following statements about the coping strategies of distraction and suppression is false? a. The harder you try not to think about something, the less likely you are to succeed. b. People who harbored important secrets perceived tasks to require more effort. c. In the face of stressful stimuli, people practicing distraction will exhibit a greater cardiovascular response than people practicing suppression. d. People who try suppression take longer to recover from physical pain than do people who try focused self-distraction.

68. Lucille lives in a nursing home where she is able to choose her daily activities. Peggy lives in a nursing home where the staff schedules all her activities. Research suggests that compared to Peggy, Lucille will be a. happier, but less active. b. more active, but not happier. c. happier and more active. d. just as happy and active.

69. Penelope tends to be hostile and angry much of the time. She recently had an argument with her best friend, Daisy, who is much more easygoing. Would it be advisable for Daisy to bring up the debated subject again, perhaps after a significant period of time has elapsed? a. Yes, because Penelope, having a strong fight-or-flight response, will have gained perspective in the meantime. b. No, because Penelope, having a hostile nature, will exhibit intense cardiovascular reactions even long after the argument by just being reminded of it. c. Yes, because Penelope, being high in hostility, is likely to not remember events in ways that will trigger the same level of anger. d. No, because Penelope is not exposed to uncontrollable events and will become, in many ways, like a depressed individual.

70. Bernie is about to be attacked by the class bully and thus is under stress. According to the general adaptation syndrome, Bernie can expect a. his digestive functions to accelerate. b. his stress to impede his ability to defend himself. c. higher levels of adrenaline in his bloodstream. d. local immunological defenses to be activated immediately.

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Chap_14_11e 71. Self-awareness theory suggests that self-focus a. brings our personal shortcomings into sharp focus. b. diminishes the undesirable consequences of emotion-focused coping. c. is triggered much more by negative moods than by positive moods. d. is a central part of problem-focused coping.

72. Although Heloise would like to quit smoking, she is convinced that she is addicted and will never be able to stop.

With respect to smoking, Heloise a. will benefit from emotion-focused coping. b. is low in self-efficacy. c. thinks like Pollyanna, the heroine created by writer Eleanor Porter. d. prefers to engage in problem-focused coping.

73. Psychological stress has been implicated as a factor in a wide variety of illnesses. This can be explained by the fact that stress a. can be experienced as either positive or negative. b. compromises the body’s immune system. c. cannot be treated and thus escalates. d. promotes an illusion of invulnerability to disease.

74. Married couples who are financially strained are more likely to experience a. high levels of satisfaction, but low levels of commitment. b. high levels of commitment, but low levels of satisfaction. c. illusions of invulnerability in their relationship. d. more distress and conflict in their relationship.

75. Characterological self-blame reduces future control because it is a(n) a. unstable, internal b. stable, internal c. unstable, external d. stable, external

attribution.

76. Getting married, surviving a tornado, and dealing with a long, congested commute to work are all a. major life events. b. catastrophes. c. daily hassles. d. stressors.

77. If Maurice has a depressive explanatory style, then he is likely to attribute his failures to factors that are a. stable, global, and internal. b. stable, global, and external. c. unstable, situational, and internal. d. unstable, situational, and external.

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Chap_14_11e 78. Heppner and others (2006) found that individuals from a collectivist culture rate mechanism. a. acceptance, reframing, and striving b. family support c. avoidance and detachment

as the most helpful coping

d. private emotional outlets 79. Javier has just gotten a job with a new company as Assistant Chief Information Officer (CIO). He is terribly excited about this opportunity and he cannot wait to get started. After two weeks, his wife notices that he isn’t as excited and has already started talking about how he wants to be the CIO. Javier’s adjustment of his standard for what makes him happy is called adaptation. a. situational b. hedonic c. characterological d. dispositional 80. Yoshiko won $500,000 in a lottery. Research suggests that after the initial excitement wears off, her overall level of happiness will a. increase, as will the pleasure she derives from routine activities. b. increase, though she will derive less pleasure from routine activities. c. decrease, as will the pleasure she derives from routine activities. d. decrease, though she will derive greater pleasure from routine activities.

81. To seek explicit social support is to a. disclose one’s distress to others and seek their advice, aid, and comfort. b. think about others who support you or be with them without asking for help. c. seek out people whose support is “discretionary” rather than “obligatory.” d. seek out people whose support is “obligatory,” rather than “discretionary.”

82. In addressing the AIDS crisis, Fisher and colleagues (2002) theorized that HIV prevention in schools required all of the following except a. information on transmission and prevention. b. motivation to engage in prevention behavior. c. behavioral skills aimed at prevention. d. moral training on the importance of prevention.

83. Imagine that an earthquake occurs in Missouri soon after a hurricane strikes Florida and a flood strikes South Dakota. Jorge, a psychiatrist with a specialty in dealing with suicidal individuals, is ready to be dispatched to one of these locations to offer assistance. Based on the suicide rates that follow major disasters, Jorge will be needed a. equally in all three locations. b. more in Missouri and Florida than in South Dakota. c. more in Florida and South Dakota than in Missouri. d. more in Missouri and South Dakota than in Florida.

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Chap_14_11e 84. Which of the following has been demonstrated in research concerning the impact of stress on the immune system? a. Individuals deprived of sleep for long periods of time exhibit a weakened immune system. b. Recently divorced or widowed individuals show increased functioning of their immune systems. c. Both positive and negative events weaken the immune system. d. Stress weakens the immune systems of rats, but not humans.

85. Which of the following statements best illustrates the adaptation-level theory of happiness? a. People who get a significant promotion at work within one year only are just as happy as they were before the promotion. b. Individuals who win $1 million in the lottery tend to express greater happiness than individuals who win half that money. c. Tourists who leave cold climates for vacations in the sun report greater happiness during their trip than they do before they depart. d. College transfer students usually show a decrease in life satisfaction in their first semester at their new school.

86. High levels of hostility have been found to predict a. extreme forms of health-conscious behaviors. b. greater use of emotion-focused coping. c. more intense cardiovascular responses to events. d. lowered blood pressure in intense social situations.

87. Research on subjective well-being demonstrates that a. the majority of Americans describe themselves as unhappy. b. it is not predictive of a longer life expectancy. c. city people are happier when they live near greenery. d. people are more happy on Tuesdays than on Fridays.

88. The study of the connections among the brain, behavior, psychological states, the immune system, health, and illness is called a. immunology. b. psychocardiology. c. psychoneuroimmunology. d. social psychology.

89. According to Seligman (1975), depression results primarily from a. hedonic adaptation. b. learned helplessness. c. Type B personality. d. general adaptation syndrome.

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Chap_14_11e 90. Aknin et al. (2013) found that spending money on a. other people b. educational opportunities

was found to bring people the most happiness.

c. occasional indulgences d. travel 91. As a symptom of experiencing burnout at work, women are more likely to show likely to show . a. depersonalization; learned helplessness b. learned helplessness; emotional exhaustion

, while men are more

c. depersonalization; emotional exhaustion d. emotional exhaustion; depersonalization 92. Hamrick et al. (2002) examined the relationship between stress and social contact when it comes to developing infectious illnesses. They found that for people under low stress, , whereas for people under high stress, . a. social contact did not matter; high levels of social contact led to increases in illness b. social contact did not matter; high levels of social contact led to decreases in illness c. high levels of social contact led to increases in illness; social contact did not matter d. high levels of social contact led to decreases in illness; social contact did not matter 93. Sapolsky (2004) argues that for humans, from an evolutionary perspective, psychological stress is a(n) a. recent invention. b. adaptive benefit. c. long-term selection advantage. d. immunological response.

94. The habitual tendency to attribute negative events to causes that are stable, global, and internal is characteristic of a. hardiness. b. optimism. c. Type A behavior style. d. a depressive explanatory style.

95. In the Pennebaker (1997) experiments on the effects of disclosing secret feelings and thoughts, it was found that the participants’ a. diastolic blood pressure levels dipped during the disclosures but then later rose above their preexperiment levels. b. diastolic blood pressure levels rose during the disclosures and tended to stay at the elevated levels for a long period after the experiment. c. systolic blood pressure levels rose during the disclosures but then later dipped below their preexperiment levels. d. systolic blood pressure levels dipped during the disclosures and tended to stay at the lowered levels for a long period after the experiment.

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Chap_14_11e 96. The rebound effect in thought suppression disappears when people a. try to think positively. b. receive social support. c. engage in focused distraction. d. are high in self-efficacy.

97. Upon discovering that she has lung cancer, Mary blames the illness on her low intelligence and her general lack of willpower, both of which she thinks prevented her from quitting smoking. The blame she assigns herself is , and it is likely to her sense of future control. a. situational; increase b. behavioral; increase c. characterological; decrease d. cathartic; decrease 98. Within Carver et al.’s (1989) multidimensional framework, individuals who cope with stressful events by trying to find the good in the situation are relying on a. mental disengagement. b. restraint coping. c. active coping. d. positive reinterpretation.

99. Compared to life in the year 1900, Americans today are more likely to die from a. infectious diseases, such as pneumonia. b. potentially preventable diseases, such as heart attacks and strokes. c. natural disasters, such as hurricanes and floods. d. accidents (excluding motor vehicle accidents).

100. A 2001 study of 1,306 adult men from the Boston area found that ten years later optimism was correlated with . a. positively; emotion-focused coping. b. positively; problem-focused coping. c. negatively; coronary heart disease. d. negatively; self-serving appraisal styles.

101. Following a terrible car accident, Ruby is anxious, socially withdrawn, has difficulty sleeping, and experiences flashbacks of the crash. Ruby is most likely suffering from a. the illusion of invulnerability. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. a depressive explanatory style. d. Type A behavior.

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Chap_14_11e 102. Sarah is stressed about her upcoming exam, so she goes to the gym to work out and feels less stressed afterward. Shine is also stressed about her exam, but she decides to budget extra time to study and hires a tutor, which makes her feel less stressed. Both Sarah and Shine are engaged in a. coping. b. appraisal. c. learning helplessness. d. adaptation.

103. Which of the following statements is supported by research in health and well-being? a. Divorce is associated with decreased alcohol consumption and insomnia. b. People can experience positive and negative emotions simultaneously. c. Major life events contribute more to illness than does the accumulation of daily hassles. d. Negative events produce more antibodies than do positive events.

104. Upfront efforts to ward off or modify the onset of a stressful event are referred to a. problem-focused b. emotion-focused c. proactive d. active

coping.

105. Many social psychologists refer to the concept of happiness using the phrase a. “self-efficacy.” b. “subjective well-being.” c. “learned optimism.” d. “health mindset.”

106. Stress is widely viewed as a. an unpleasant state of arousal. b. synonymous with anxiety. c. a permanent mental state. d. inescapable on a daily basis.

107. The APA conducted a nationwide survey in 2017 that asked men and women to indicate the sources of stress in their lives. Which stressor was cited by 51 percent of the respondents? a. Work-related issues b. Health concerns c. Violence and crime d. Current political climate

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Chap_14_11e 108. Animal and human studies show that when females are isolated, unsupported, and in social distress, they exhibit elevated levels of the hormone . a. cortisol, which, in turn, increases their tendency to seek out social contact. b. oxytocin, which, in turn, increases their tendency to seek out social contact. c. cortisol, which, in turn, increases their preparation for “fight or flight.” d. oxytocin, which, in turn, increases their preparation for “fight or flight.”

109. What did Norman Cousins (1989) describe as the “biology of hope”? a. Positive expectations can be self-fulfilling. b. Positive expectations lead to optimism. c. Negative expectations are inevitable. d. When there’s hope, there’s life.

110. A person’s belief that he or she is capable of the specific behavior required to produce a desired outcome in a given situation is called a. self-efficacy. b. control. c. hardiness. d. internal explanatory style.

111. In an experiment that tested the effects of negative emotions on the immune system, experimenters gave each participant a blister using a vacuum pump. Which of the following participants took the longest to heal? a. Participants who had financial problems b. Participants who had recently undergone a major life stressor c. Participants who ate an unhealthy diet d. Participants who had anger-control problems 112. Janoff-Bulman’s (1979) research indicates that self-blame may be adaptive in the long term when it is directed at one’s as opposed to one’s . a. behavior; character b. past behavior; present behavior c. emotion; behavior d. attitude; circumstances 113. Walter and Helen are both recently divorced and trying to cope with the stress of their failed relationships.

Compared to Walter, Helen is more likely to cope by a. ruminating about her negative feelings. b. using physical activity as a distraction. c. engaging in antisocial behavior. d. using alcohol or drugs to escape her feelings.

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Chap_14_11e 114. Anything that causes an unpleasant state of arousal that arises when we perceive that the demands of a situation threaten our ability to cope effectively is known as a(n) a. stressor. b. alarm reaction. c. explanatory style. d. resistance.

115. After September 11, 2001, Fredrickson and colleagues (2003) contacted students who had previously taken part in a study on stress and coping. She found that the most resilient of the students were the ones who, among other things, developed a a. general interest in unfolding world events. b. scorn for the attackers of September 11. c. determination to prevent such attacks from happening. d. sense of anger at the state of international affairs.

116. Arlene believes that she has lots of community support in her life because she has a large family and lots of friends. Arlene’s views are consistent with the . a. social comparison theory b. social contact model of social support c. adaptation-level theory d. self-focusing model of depression 117. Erin has been in a bad mood all day, and her wife Leslie is tired of dealing with it. Leslie suggests that Erin go engage in a specific task in the hopes that it will end the bad mood. Which of the following coping strategies comes close to Leslie’s suggestion? a. Mental disengagement b. Behavioral disengagement c. Positive reinterpretation d. Restraint coping 118. According to Lazarus and Folkman (1984), when faced with an event that may prove threatening, how we will experience the stress and what coping strategies we will use is determined by our subjective appraisal of the situation. The researchers were referring to the . a. generalized tendency to expect positive outcomes b. expectation that our behaviors can produce satisfying outcomes c. thoughts, feelings, and behaviors we will employ to try to reduce the stress d. cognitive and behavioral efforts to reduce stress by overcoming the source of the problem 119. Which of the following is not a method used to observe operations in the immune system? a. Determine the lymphocyte count in a blood draw. b. Extract blood, add cancerous tumor cells, and measure effectiveness of natural killer cells. c. Inject a foreign agent in the skin and measure the amount of swelling. d. Swab the inside of a cheek and measure the level of cortisol.

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Chap_14_11e 120. Efforts to reduce stress are known as a. appraisal. b. coping. c. explanatory style. d. adaptation.

121. According to research, people in the United States are than they were 50 years ago. At the same time, those who report that they are “very happy” between 1957 and 1998. a. richer; increased b. poorer; decreased c. richer; decreased d. poorer; increased 122. Gruber and others (2011) found that excessive happiness a. improves physiological health. b. leads people to be less attentive to threats. c. reduces the likelihood of engaging in risky behavior. d. enhances emotional well-being.

123. Sue Ellen typically explains negative events using temporary, specific, external attributions. According to Seligman (1991), Sue Ellen could best be described as exhibiting a. control. b. hardiness. c. commitment. d. optimism.

124. Michael, an academically gifted teenager, is devastated that he does not have any sporting skills. He dwells on the belief that he has failed terribly and overanalyzes his lack of athletic abilities; he then falls into a deep depression. This outcome is most consistent with a. the learned helplessness model. b. catharsis. c. adaptation level theory. d. the self-focusing model.

125. Sanchez is very driven, competitive, and seems to lack patience when things are not going his way. His is a behavior pattern that is a. depressive explanatory. b. compulsive. c. coronary-prone. d. sociopathic.

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Chap_14_11e 126. Kelley spends a lot of time focusing on herself. Her psychological health could be threatened if this self-focus leads to a. attempts at getting attention. b. rumination about problems. c. attributions to situations. d. redirecting her attention away from herself.

127. Health psychology a. is one of the oldest subfields in all of psychology, including psychoanalytic and behavioral psychology. b. recognizes the clear distinction between biological and psychological factors. c. is the application of psychology to the promotion of physical health and prevention and treatment of illness. d. focuses primarily on mental health and psychological well-being.

128. In their study of procrastination, Tice and Baumeister (1997) found that, compared to non-procrastinators, procrastinators tended to report a. lower levels of stress throughout the semester. b. higher levels of stress throughout the semester. c. lower levels of stress early in the semester and higher levels late in the semester. d. higher levels of stress early in the semester and lower levels late in the semester.

129. What is not a reason for why socioeconomic status is negatively associated with the experience of daily hassles? a. Low-income neighborhoods are more crowded than high-income neighborhoods. b. People from low SES backgrounds have fewer medical resources. c. Low-income families are more likely to have a poor diet. d. Children in low-income families have few opportunities for physical exercise.

130. According to Martin Seligman, what causes depression? How does Abramson et al.’s research support his findings?

131. What is the social readjustment rating scale? What hypothesis did Holmes and Rahe propose in 1967?

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Chap_14_11e 132. Discuss the relationship between involvement in religion and the positive effects of social support.

133. Explain how self-focus may exacerbate the negative effects of stress, and how this may be avoided.

134. Explain the three key predictors of happiness.

135. Identify three factors that seem to underlie therapeutic approaches to stress, regardless of any specific theoretical orientation.

136. Distinguish between negative and positive life changes in terms of the amount of stress they produce.

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Chap_14_11e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap_14_11e 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_11e 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_11e 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. c 101. b 102. a 103. b 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_11e 111. d 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. b 121. c 122. b 123. d 124. d 125. c 126. b 127. c 128. c 129. d 130. Martin Seligman (1975) argued that depression results from a feeling of learned helplessness, the acquired expectation that one cannot control important outcomes. His finding suggested that prolonged exposure to uncontrollable events might cause apathy, inactivity, a loss of motivation, and pessimism. Seligman was quick to note that people who are exposed to uncontrollable events become, in many ways, like depressed individuals: discouraged, pessimistic about the future, and lacking in initiative. Thus, he saw depression as a form of learned helplessness.

Lynn Abramson and her colleagues (1989) later proposed that depression is a state of hopelessness brought on by the negative self-attributions people make for failure. In fact, some people have a depressive explanatory style—a tendency to attribute bad events to factors that are internal rather than external (“It’s my fault”), stable rather than unstable (“It will not change”), and global rather than specific (“It spreads to all parts of my life”). Research supports this proposition.

Whether people are trying to explain social rejection, a sports defeat, low grades, or their inability to solve an experimenter’s puzzle, those who are depressed are more likely than others to blame factors that are within the self, unlikely to change, and broad enough to impair other aspects of life.

The result: hopelessness and despair.

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Chap_14_11e 131. To measure life stress, Holmes and Rahe devised the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS). It is a checklist of 43 major life events each assigned a numerical value based on the amount of readjustment it requires. Among the events sampled (and the numerical values they were assigned) were the death of a spouse (100), divorce (73), imprisonment (63), marriage (50), job loss (47), pregnancy (40), school transfer (20), and even vacations (13). Some of these changes were negative (getting hurt, divorced, or fired), but others were positive (getting married or promoted or having a baby).

Some people are lucky enough to avoid major catastrophes. But nobody can completely avoid stress. Indeed, change itself may cause stress by forcing us to adapt to new circumstances. This hypothesis was first proposed by Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe (1967), who interviewed hospital patients and found that their illnesses had often been preceded by major changes in some aspect of their lives.

132. It is clear that religion provides a deeply important source of social and emotional support for many people. There are more than 6 billion people on Earth who belong to hundreds of religions, the most populated, in order, being Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, and Buddhism (Judaism and others have many fewer adherents). Only about 15% to 20% of the world’s population is unaffiliated with a religious group. In the United States, two-thirds of all adults describe religion as a very important part of their lives. Is there a link between religiosity and health? This is an interesting but controversial question. On the one hand, population surveys suggest that people who regularly attend religious services live longer than those who do not (McCullough et al., 2000). When you think about it, this correlation makes some intuitive sense. Religious faith may fill people with hope and optimism rather than with despair, offer the physiological benefits of relaxation in prayer, provide a community lifeline of social support to prevent isolation, and promote a safe and healthy way of life by discouraging such toxic habits as drinking and smoking. After analyzing 30 years of health data from 2,600 California adults, for example, William Strawbridge and others (2001) found that men and women who regularly attend religious services drink less, smoke less, and exercise more. On the other hand, some researchers caution that the correlations between religiosity and longevity are modest and can be interpreted in other ways. It’s possible, for example, that nonsmokers, teetotalers, and others who regularly abstain from unhealthful behaviors are more likely to adopt religion as part of their lives than smokers, drinkers, and risk-takers, and that their survival comes from who they are, not from their attendance at religious services (Sloan et al., 1999).

133. The self-focus model of depression suggests that people often become depressed because they ruminate about how their behavior fails to measure up to their standards. In a self-perpetuating feedback loop, this depressive mood and negative self-evaluation is heightened by the self-focus that a stressful event brings. This leads to an increase in depressive mood and negative self-evaluation, which then leads to the further heightening of self-focus, and so on.

Thankfully, there are healthier alternatives to address stress. To redirect attention away from the self, it helps to become absorbed in an activity such as aerobic exercise, gardening, listening to music, or reading a book. This is where the practice of meditation comes in. Historically rooted in Hinduism, then in Buddhism, meditation describes a range of practices that have in common focusing one’s attention to promote relaxation and a heightened sense of well-being. In Focused Attention (FA) Meditation, you try to focus on a chosen nonself object for a sustained period of time.

In Mindfulness Meditation, the goal is to direct your attention to what is happening here and now, without judgment or evaluation. While mindfulness and other contemplative practices have historically played an important role in Eastern cultures, and while it is currently popular in the Western world, more scientific research is still needed to precisely define what it is, the transient effects it has on physiological activity, and what implications it has for immune function and health over time.

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Chap_14_11e 134. Happiness is influenced primarily by three factors: social relationships, employment status, and physical/mental health.

Social relationships refer to close friends, marriage partners, and simply having an active social life, all of which probably help serve to reduce the self-focus that can impede coping with stress. Employment status does not refer to income, but simply to being employed. People who are out of work are not as happy as those who do work, and salary seems to make little difference. Finally, health seems to have a large impact on well-being. Being healthy, in both the physical and mental senses, has a positive influence on one’s personal happiness.

135. First, all healers—regardless of whether they are medical doctors, psychologists, or others—provide social support, a close human relationship characterized by warmth, expressions of concern, a shoulder to cry on, and someone to talk to. Earlier, we discussed the benefits to health and longevity of having social contacts. In psychological therapy, studies have shown that the better the “working alliance” is between a therapist and client, the more favorable the outcome is likely to be (Luborsky & Luborsky, 2006).

Second, all therapies offer a ray of hope to people who are sick, demoralized, unhappy, or in pain. In all aspects of life, people are motivated by upbeat, positive expectations. Although some of us are more optimistic than others, optimism is a specific expectation that can be increased or decreased in certain situations (Armor & Taylor, 1998).

Indeed, a common aspect of all treatments is that they communicate and instill positive expectations. It has been suggested that high expectations can spark change even when they are not justified (Prioleau et al., 1983). This suggestion is consistent with the well-known placebo effect in medicine, whereby patients improve after being given an inactive drug or treatment. Believing can help make it so, which is how faith healers, shamans, and witch doctors all over the world have managed to perform “miracle cures” with elaborate rituals.

A third important ingredient is choice. Allowing patients to make meaningful choices, such as deciding on a type of treatment, increases the effectiveness of treatments for alcoholism (Miller, 1985) and obesity (Mendon & Bream, 1983). Choosing to undergo an effortful or costly treatment is particularly beneficial in this regard. The person who voluntarily pays in time, money, or discomfort needs to self-justify that investment—a predicament sure to arouse cognitive dissonance.

136. The simple notion that change is inherently stressful has an intuitive ring about it. But is change per se, whether positive or negative, necessarily harmful? There are two problems with this idea. First, although there is a statistical link between negative events and illness, research does not similarly support the claim that positive “stressors,” such as taking a vacation, graduating, winning a lottery, starting a new career, or getting married, are similarly harmful.

Happiness is not the absence of distress, nor is distress the absence of happiness. A person can simultaneously experience both emotions, and the health consequences are different.

The second complicating factor is that the impact of any change depends on who the person is and how the change is interpreted. Moving to a new country, for example, is less stressful to immigrants who can speak the new language than to those who cannot; victims of physical assault who wonder “what if?” take longer to recover emotionally than those who do not pose this question. And workers who have stressful jobs cope better when they disengage during nonwork times than when they do not. To sum up: Change in a person’s life may provide a crude estimate of stress and future health, but the predictive equation is often complicated by other factors.

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