Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2n

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 1: Occupational Therapy as an Evidence-Based Practice Profession

True/False

1. There exists a dynamic relationship between research and practice. Professional research should be used to inform practice theory and interventions; equally, practice should influence and guide the direction of future research.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1

2. A core tenet of evidence-based practice for occupational therapy is that interventions utilized should be those that are validated through the best available clinical evidence without consideration of an individual therapist’s clinical expertise.

ANS: False

3. A client’s values should influence and be considered when providing evidence-based occupational therapy services.

ANS: True

4. Evidence-based medicine (EBM) and its established prescriptive guidelines closely reflect the philosophical beliefs and nature of occupational therapy (OT). Therefore, its principles are directly replicated with evidence-based OT practice.

ANS: False

5. Explanations offered by a practice theory are always tentative, and must be refined through research.

ANS: True Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

STD: B.3.6

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

6. Participatory research involves inclusion of recipients of services (or consumers) in the data collection and dissemination process only after a specific research hypothesis has been established by an investigator.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

7. Occupational therapy has a professional obligation to maintain a systematic and shared body of knowledge. Which of the following does not serve toward the development of evidence for this requirement?

A. Multiple studies establishing the psychometric qualities of a commonly used standardized assessment B. A control trial quantifying the outcomes of a treatment strategy C. The collective clinical expertise of an outpatient occupational therapy department D. A series of studies testing and refining a practice theory utilized in practice ANS: C STD: B.8.1

8. Occupational therapists offer a unique perspective towards identifying and addressing deficits with clients’ occupational participation. The area of research that examines how occupational therapists identify problems and make treatment decisions is: A. Clinical reasoning research B. Process research C. Narrative research D. Practice theory research ANS: A

9. The purpose of needs assessment research is to identify the gap between a client’s or population’s present status and that individual’s or group’s: A. Previous status B. Disability status C. Desired status Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

D. Projected status ANS: C

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

10. Psychometric research may be used to evaluate an assessment according to multiple criteria. Which domain is not a measure of psychometric research?

A. Reliability B. Validity C. Clinical utility D. Formative utility ANS: D

11. Formative research best seeks to identify what characteristic of an intervention of study?

A. The expected outcome of the intervention B. The mechanism of change for the intervention C. The frequency or duration required for an intervention to be effective D. The clinical reasoning utilized in providing an intervention ANS: B

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 2: Classifications and Aims of Research

True/False

1. In an experimental design study, researchers might have more than one experimental condition group.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

2. In experimental research, investigators manipulate a dependent variable in order to observe and measure the effect on any independent variables of interest.

ANS: False

3. Survey studies may be quantitative, qualitative, or mixed with their methodology.

ANS: True

4. Participatory research is the most common form of applied science research conducted in occupational therapy.

ANS: False

5. Extraneous variables in a study that may have an effect on the dependent variable and thereby introduce a risk of error in a study are referred to as confounding variables.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

Multiple Choice

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

6. There are three major ways in which to define and classify research. Which of the following is not one of the primary classifications?

A. Major methodological approach B. Research design C. Philosophical rigor D. Research purposes ANS: C

7. There are multiple methodological designs that may be employed while conducting qualitative research studies. Which of the following is not a qualitative method?

A. Narrative inquiry B. Phenomenology C. Ethnography D. Controlled trial ANS: D

8. Inclusion of a placebo control group reduces the biasing effects of: A. Expectancy B. Discrimination C. Contamination D. Conformity ANS: A STD: B.8.5

9. A study investigating the subjective perspectives of individuals with intellectual and developmental disabilities living in a group home would be an example of a: A. Qualitative, phenomenological study B. Quantitative, naturalistic observation study C. Quantitative, experimental study D. Qualitative, quasi-experimental study ANS: A

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

10. The primary difference between an experimental and quasi-experimental study design is: A. An experimental design includes experimental manipulation of an independent variable, whereas a quasi-experimental design does not.

B. An experimental design includes blinding of subjects to the independent variable, whereas a quasi-experimental design does not.

C. An experimental design includes blinding of researchers to the independent variable, whereas a quasi-experimental design does not.

D. An experimental design includes subjects being randomly assigned to a condition group, whereas a quasi-experimental design does not.

ANS: D STD: B.8.5

11. In order to establish the psychometrics of a new instrument developed to measure symptoms of depression in a post-stroke population, a study is conducted that examines how well the assessment captures all behaviors, symptoms, and somatic presentations of depression. This form of psychometric testing would be examining the instrument’s: A. Construct validity B. Concurrent validity C. Predictive validity D. Consecutive validity ANS: A STD: B.4.6

12. During a research study, multiple therapists will be assessing and re-assessing the same participants. The principal investigator wants to utilize an assessment that demonstrates high inter-rater reliability. Inter-rater reliability means: A. Consistency in the test over time B. The degree of agreement in test results among multiple raters C. Measuring what the assessment was designed to test D. The degree of agreement when multiple repetitions of testing are done by the same rater ANS: B STD: B.4.6

13. Occupational science generates knowledge regarding explanations of humans performing daily functions and behaving within occupational contexts. In doing this, its research purpose serves as a: Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

A. Basic science B. Applied science C. Integrated science D. Transformative science ANS: A

14. Applied science is used frequently within occupational therapy practice. Which of the following examples does not depict an applied science purpose?

A. To provide evidence that an assessment used in practice provides dependable and useful information to guide practice B. To describe the mechanism of action that underlies a common intervention technique C. To quantify outcomes achieved by providing particular services as part of therapy D. To describe how therapists reason in the context of practice ANS: B STD: B.8.1

15. A common form of research in health care and in occupational therapy is participatory research. Which of the following is not a characteristic of participatory research?

A. It involves people not simply as data sources but as partners in the research process.

B. It emphasizes power sharing between the researchers and local stakeholders.

C. It is most commonly carried out in a controlled laboratory setting.

D. It is action-oriented, focusing on making changes and examining the impact of those changes from the perspectives of those who are most influenced by it.

ANS: C

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 3: Philosophical Foundations of Research

True/False

1. While perspectives toward the creation of knowledge have varied throughout the various philosophical foundations of science, one common shared belief was that true knowledge was paramount and infallible once supported by evidence.

ANS: False STD: B.8.1

2. The modernist perspective is that research is often tied to particular ideologies and further is used to reinforce power structures and to disenfranchise or oppress groups.

ANS: False

3. Mixed-methods research represents a blend of philosophical perspectives, including primarily those of logical positivism, critical modernism, and postmodernism.

ANS: True

4. Conservative interpretations of postmodernist thought can be observed through the perspectives of disability studies and other relativistic approaches to knowledge generation.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1

5. Contemporary methods recognize that it is not possible to undertake research without some underlying theory and first principles, even if they are not made explicit.

ANS: True

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

6. Most scientific approaches towards knowledge development in occupational therapy derive from the historical periods of classicism and postmodernism.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

7. The scientific parable of Newton devising his theory of gravity based on observations of the natural world (i.e., an apple falling on his head) is an example of what type of logic?

A. Creative B. Deductive C. Inductive D. Circular ANS: C

8. Classicism may be attributed with developing some of the original principles of the scientific method. The principal problem with classicism was that: A. Rigorous logic could not be applied to the deductive process, so principles could not be investigated.

B. The inductive stage required intuitive leaps, thus creating an inherently flawed foundation for subsequent deductive examination.

C. Deductive logic was viewed as a fallible form of developing knowledge.

D. Inductive logic stood in contrast to “obvious truths” in its explanation of the natural world.

ANS: B

9. The philosophical foundations of research may be seen by their influence on contemporary research methods. Which of the following statements is true regarding this influence?

A. Classicism is reflected in qualitative approaches.

B. Postmodernism does not have an influence on contemporary research.

C. Quantitative approaches are consistent with the tradition of logical positivism.

D. Contemporary research approaches are most concerned with determining facts about the natural world.

ANS: C STD: B.8.1

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

10. A researcher’s preference toward adhering to a particular research approach for knowledge development is defined as his or her: A. Philosophical orientation B. Methodological preference C. Manner of practice D. Researcher philosophy ANS: A

11. Which of the following statements regarding the contemporary process for conducting research is false?

A. Research is part of an inductive–deductive process in which theory is derived from and tied back to the world through experimentation.

B. Logic is necessary to connect the concepts and propositions that make up a theory with each other and to connect them with the things in the world to which they refer.

C. Empirical research methods produce evidence that is inherently value-free and benign.

D. Research does not advance theory toward truth, but instead improves the way that any theory makes sense of the world.

ANS: C STD: B.8.1

Matching

Please match the following philosophical perspectives with the associated descriptions.

A. Classicism B. Logical positivism C. Critical modernism D. Social constructivism E. Contemporarism 12. The philosophy that argued that theory imparts meaning on, rather than extracts meaning from, the natural world. It is a creation of the human mind that makes sense of the world, and may be corrected through empirical research.

13. The philosophy that argued that any theory is a possible, but not necessarily infallible, explanation; its ability to approach the truth is contingent on whether statements that are logically deduced from it hold up in the natural world.

14. The philosophy that argued that pure logic may be used to connect the natural world to scientific knowledge, and that absolute truth may be developed through this process.

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

15. The philosophy that argued that knowledge does not demonstrate facts regarding the natural world, but rather is created as a particular perspective of a particular group of people who have a particular purpose in mind.

12. ANS: C

STD: B.8.1

13. ANS: B

STD: B.8.1

14. ANS: A

STD: B.8.1

15. ANS: D

STD: B.8.1

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 4: Reading and Understanding Published and Presented Research

True/False

1. There are multiple types of research articles that may be included in a peer-reviewed journal; some of which include literature reviews, experimental reports, case reports, and opinion papers.

ANS: True

2. Consumers of evidence-based practice include not only a client, but also insurance companies, hospital administrators, policy makers, granting agencies, and OT managers who are concerned about intervention options and choices.

ANS: True

3. The method section of a research paper describes the approach of the study and is typically divided into a number of subsections that describe the ethical approvals, design, participants, procedures, measures, and data analysis approach.

ANS: True

4. In describing the procedures of a study, standardization is described through fidelity measures for any assessments, and through dependability measures for administered interventions.

ANS: False

5. The presentation of findings within the results section of an article is typically limited to the direct results of the analyses undertaken and does not include an interpretation of or reflection on any of those findings.

ANS: True

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

6. The introduction of a research article provides a concise overview of the approach and findings of a given research study, and may be the only part read when performing a literature review first-level screening.

ANS: False

7. Presented research will typically be structured in the same way as a peer-reviewed journal article, including all of the general sections as a written paper.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

8. When communicating the results of evidence to consumers, practitioners should be sure to do all of the following except: A. Use simple, concrete, nontechnical, culturally neutral language B. Be comprehensive, covering all details of the evidence thoroughly C. Check frequently for confusion or lack of comprehension D. Suggest concrete actions related to the information ANS: B STD: B.8.3

9. Which of the following statements is false regarding APA guidelines?

A. APA guidelines standardize the formatting for all sections of a research paper.

B. APA is one of multiple publication guidelines used in scientific literature.

C. APA guidelines are specific to occupational therapy literature and other professions use different guidelines.

D. APA provides guidelines on the order in which sections should be presented in a research paper.

ANS: C

10. According to APA guidelines, the title page of a research article should contain certain elements. Which of the following is not a required item?

A. Running head B. Keywords C. Authors’ names Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

D. Institutional affiliation ANS: B

11. According to APA guidelines, a research article should have an abstract. Which of the following is not correct regarding the contents of the abstract?

A. There should be a sentence or two of background information about the topic of the study.

B. The research questions or hypotheses to be examined should be stated.

C. A description of the participants and the methodological approach should be concisely stated.

D. The study’s results and conclusions should be excluded so that the reader will not be influenced without first reading the full article.

ANS: D

12. A statement of impact is a section within an article that: A. Rates the efficacy of an intervention/treatment technique B. References data that indicates the importance of a topic of study C. Specifies the level of evidence of a study D. Indicates the impact that present study findings will have on the existing body of evidence ANS: B

13. Which section of a research paper provides a reviewer with the most information regarding the level of evidence a particular study contributes to knowledge regarding a given topic area?

A. Introduction B. Method C. Results D. Discussion ANS: B STD: B.8.2

14. Which section of a research paper provides a reviewer with an abbreviated, critical appraisal of the study’s methodological approach?

A. Introduction B. Method C. Results D. Discussion ANS: D STD: B.8.5 Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

15. The primary difference between a colloquium and a panel discussion is: A. A colloquium is typically moderated by a facilitator; a panel discussion is not.

B. A panel discussion allows for a question-and-answer session with the audience; a colloquium does not.

C. The emphasis of a colloquium is a summary of research papers; a panel discussion typically does not include this.

D. The participants of a colloquium typically sit at different tables, with different topics per table; participants of a panel typically sit at one table and share a topic.

ANS: C

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Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 5: Critically Appraising and Classifying Published and Presented Research

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following choices correctly matches the research study designs with the corresponding Oxford Center for Evidence-Based Medicine (OCEBM) level of evidence?

A. Randomized trial (Level I), nonrandomized controlled cohort study (Level II), systematic review (Level III) B. Between-subjects design (Level I), randomized trial (Level II), meta-analysis (Level III) C. Meta-analysis (Level I), randomized trial (Level II), nonrandomized controlled cohort study (Level III) D. Systematic review (Level I), between-subjects design (Level II), randomized trial (Level III) ANS: C STD: B.8.2

2. The Cochrane levels-of-evidence model utilizes multiple criteria in its appraisal methodology. Which of the following criteria is not used by this model?

A. Relevance of the evidence B. Significance of the statistical findings C. Size of the effect D. Strength of the evidence ANS: B

3. The Cochrane levels-of-evidence model is used widely in research to evaluate: A. The statistical significance of a study’s effect size B. The rigor of a study’s research design C. The quality with which the study’s article is written D. The efficacy of an intervention or treatment approach ANS: D STD: B.8.2

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

4. A systematic review and a meta-analysis are two forms of research inquiry.

Which of the following statements regarding these two designs is true?

A. Both a systematic review and a meta-analysis provide quantitative data as findings.

B. Both a systematic review and a meta-analysis may be classified as Level I studies.

C. A systematic review compares exclusively randomized trials, whereas a metaanalysis compares exclusively cohort studies.

D. A systematic review is a subtype of a meta-analysis.

ANS: B

5. Blinding is a technique utilized often to enhance the methodology of a study.

Which of the following research designs is most likely to include blinding?

A. Case-series study B. Case-control study C. Historically controlled study D. Randomized trial ANS: D

6. The suitability of a research assessment used to quantify the effect of an intervention, as well as its appropriateness for the given population and problem of study is referred to as the: A. Wellness of fit B. Analytical precision C. Relevance of the evidence D. Quality of the data ANS: C

7. Which of the following statistical measures is not a quantification of effect size?

A. p-value B. d-statistic C. r-statistic D. Binomial effect size display (BESD) ANS: A STD: B.8.4

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

8. In order to ensure that there is no effect of bias in the collection of information from high- and low-status informants, researchers should make an effort to represent participants and their experiences accurately. This rigor is applicable to the domain of: A. Descriptive vividness B. Methodological congruence C. Theoretical connectedness D. Heuristic relevance ANS: B

9. Critical appraisal methods for qualitative and quantitative studies vary in their approach. Which of the following statements is true regarding these two appraisal approaches?

A. Methods for evaluating qualitative studies primarily utilize hierarchical criteria.

B. Evaluation for quantitative studies includes criteria examining study member checks.

C. The level of evidence is one of multiple factors considered when evaluating quantitative studies.

D. Systematic reviews are traditionally evaluated using a multidimensional perspective.

ANS: C STD: B.8.2

10. Mixed-methods study designs should be evaluated in accordance with what appraisal model?

A. A level-of-evidence model B. A multidimensional model C. Techniques from both level-of-evidence and multidimensional perspectives D. Neither a level-of-evidence nor multidimensional perspective ANS: C STD: B.8.2

Matching

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Match the following dimensions of qualitative research appraisal with their respective activities.

A. Descriptive vividness B. Methodological congruence C. Analytical preciseness D. Theoretical connectedness E. Heuristic relevance 11. The study’s findings are directly applicable to practice; therefore, a researcher uses a description that is consistent with meanings and the knowledge base relevant to the field in writing about the phenomenon of interest.

12. Documenting the study findings, a researcher establishes congruence between the study’s hypothesis and the presentation of the data, findings, interpretations, theoretical linkages, and conclusions drawn so that a clear cohesive link is established.

13. In writing the research article, a researcher ensures enough thoroughness with his or her documentation so that another researcher may replicate the study in confirmation of its findings.

14. When collecting data, a researcher ensures that he or she spends enough time at the study site. This allows the researcher to have enough familiarity with the subjects in order to adequately describe them.

15. As part of the article’s written discussion, a researcher demonstrates how the data specifically relates to concepts within an existing professional theory.

11. ANS: E 12. ANS: C 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: A 15. ANS: D

STD: B.8.2, B.8.5 STD: B.8.2, B.8.5 STD: B.8.2, B.8.5 STD: B.8.2, B.8.5 STD: B.8.2, B.8.5

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 6: Managing Barriers to Evidence-Based Practice: An International Imperative

True/False

1. Professional practice guidelines in which clinical reasoning is founded on experience that is reinforced through expert opinion and anecdotal evidence is defined as experiencebased practice.

ANS: True

2. With educational standards changing within occupational therapy programs, a consensus of professional studies report that new graduates have a clear understanding of evidence-based practice and find minimal or no challenges implementing it within their practice.

ANS: False

3. When implementing evidence-based practice, the presence of deadlines helps to initiate and stimulate activity levels, as well as provides direction and focus for participants.

ANS: True

4. According to research conducted on the topic of evidence-based practice utilization, both new and experienced practitioners identify the same primary barrier to implementation.

ANS: True

5. While experienced practitioners do identify multiple barriers to implementing evidence-based practice, there is evidence that training programs for these professionals are effective at reducing the impact of these barriers.

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

6. Prior to the mid-1990s, practice techniques for occupational therapy would best be described as: A. Evidence-based B. Therapist-based C. Context-based D. Experience-based ANS: D

7. The commitment to become an evidence-based profession involves identification and collaboration on overcoming barriers toward implementation, a priority that is recognized at which highest professional level?

A. International B. National C. State D. Local ANS: A STD: B.6.2

8. Occupational therapy (OT) has multiple barriers that inhibit it from being recognized as an evidence-based profession from an international perspective. Which of the following is not a recognized barrier for OT? A. The status of much of the evidence does not apply to contemporary practice.

B. It is a research-emergent profession.

C. Language barriers exist among an international body of research evidence.

D. There is international diversity in its stage of development and the status of the profession.

ANS: A STD: 6.2

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

9. Policies exist for occupational therapy education and certification, which have requirements at a local, state, or national level (where applicable). Which of the following statements regarding education and certification is not true?

A. There are regional differences in the approaches taken toward occupational therapy education.

B. There are no international standards for the level of education required for occupational therapy practice.

C. There are no international standards for certification required for occupational therapy practice.

D. Licensure requirements within the United States are standardized across all states.

ANS: D STD: B.6.5

10. A profession that has lacked a consistent history and infrastructure to support individuals who conduct research is defined as a/an: A. Anecdotal profession B. Research-emergent profession C. Developing profession D. Research-deficient profession ANS: B

11. Perceived barriers to implementation of evidence-based practice techniques are reported in multiple studies examining both new and experienced practitioners. Which of the following statements is true regarding the findings of these studies?

A. New practitioners identified workplace culture as a barrier, whereas experienced practitioners did not.

B. Experienced practitioners identified lack of technical resources as a barrier, whereas new practitioners did not.

C. Experienced practitioners reported difficulty critically appraising research studies and their statistics, whereas new practitioners did not.

D. Neither experienced nor new practitioners identified a lack of time as a barrier.

ANS: C

12. Critically appraised topics and critically appraised papers are two methods with which occupational therapy is promoting evidence-based practice techniques. Which of the following statements is true regarding these two articles?

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

A. A critically appraised topic is distinguished from a critically appraised paper in that the critically appraised topic is recognized as having the best available evidence.

B. Both are less rigorous versions of systematic reviews.

C. A critically appraised paper contains a quantitative analytical summary of the findings from the available literature.

D. A critically appraised topic contains only studies of experimental designs.

ANS: B

13. Of international studies that examine perceived barriers for occupational therapists to implement evidence-based practices, the most commonly identified barrier is: A. Limited resources and funding to support change to evidence-based practice B. Professional isolation C. The large volume of published research D. Lack of time ANS: D STD: B.6.2

14. There are multiple strategies that therapists may utilize to overcome barriers to evidence-based practice. Which of the following guidelines for therapists is not an evidence based recommendation?

A. Self-appraising reliance on clinical expertise B. Developing skills and knowledge C. Staying focused D. Finding time for evidence-based practiceANS: A

15. There are multiple organizational conditions that support implementation of evidence-based practice. Which of the following is not a condition that, if present, supports evidence-based practice?

A. Employee readiness for change B. Personal and organizational expectations regarding achievement of new knowledge application C. Employees self-pacing their own implementation D. Support from managers, organizations, buddies, and peers ANS: C

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 7: Professional Responsibility and Roles in Research

True/False

1. Occupational therapists have both an ethical and a professional responsibility to be aware of research and engage with it to help enhance the quality of their clinical decisions.

ANS: True STD: B.9.1

2. Professional authority and expertise is still considered sufficient for purposes of medical justification or reimbursement.

ANS: False

3. Application of knowledge gained through experience is a skill that contributes to practitioners being able to implement evidence-based practice.

ANS: True

4. Rather than working among an interdisciplinary team, being an independent investigator allows a researcher to produce a higher standard of research.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

5. Research has many applications toward professional practice decisions, and professionals have a responsibility to engage in it through various roles. Which of the following reasons would not be a reason to participate with a research role?

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

A. To help deal with interprofessional competition, budget cuts, insurance denials, and other challenges that can emanate from limited resources B. To negotiate the uncertainty that comes with practice, with transparent evidence sources C. To fulfill an ethical responsibility D. To eliminate the need to use autonomous clinical expertise and instead rely solely on evidence from research ANS: D STD: B.8.1

6. It is important for role expectations to be clearly defined when conducting a research study. Individuals, other than the primary investigator (i.e., research producer), who contribute to the design, interpretation, and writing of the study might be considered: A. Co-collaborators B. Co-contributors C. Co-authors D. Co-producers ANS: C

7. Which research role typically involves advanced training, which may be acquired through doctoral or postdoctoral degrees?

A. Research producers B. Research collaborators C. Research consumers D. Research advocates ANS: A

Matching

Please match the following roles with the respective activities associated with them.

A. Research producers B. Research collaborators C. Research consumers

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

D. Research advocates 8. Read research and use findings to guide practice.

9. Direct interdisciplinary collaborators, statistical consultants, and others with specific research expertise.

10. Serve in professional associations that fund/support research.

11. Identify original research questions and design methods for answering them.

12. Implement services that are being tested, while providing clinical advice/expertise.

8. ANS: C 9. ANS: A 10. ANS: D 11. ANS: A 12. ANS: B

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 8: The Role of Theory in Occupational Therapy

True/False

1. Technical rationality is the basis of the scholarship of practice, where practical activity is derived seamlessly from basic knowledge.

ANS: False

2. When conducting research investigating a concept derived from theory, that concept should be operationalized in the absence of the theory to promote validity of the study design.

ANS: False

3. Research should be grounded in theory, which in turn may generate outcomes that require the theory to be modified to adapt how it describes a phenomenon.

ANS: True STD: B.3.6 4. In occupational therapy, an activity that is not informed by a theory or theoretical concept is not likely to be therapeutic.

ANS: True STD: B.3.3

5. Although important for grounding occupational therapy applied science studies, theory has minimal direct applications for educational, technical, scientific, or interdisciplinary purposes.

ANS: False

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Multiple Choice

6. Occupational therapy literature describes the theory-practice gap that exists within the profession. Which of the following statements is correct in its description of the theory-practice gap?

A. A status where neither theory nor practice are informed by research B. An intentional separation of theoretical science and practice experience, which limits the risk of research bias C. A discrepancy that exists between researchers’ theories that ground the ideas of the profession and clinicians’ practice that is actually implemented D. A process wherein practice is directly informed by theoretical research ANS: C

7. Scholarship of practice is a theoretical perspective for knowledge generation in occupational therapy. Which of the following statements is not an accurate description of the scholarship of practice?

A. It requires that theoretical knowledge be derived from the practical problems encountered in therapy.

B. It involves a dynamic and flexible dialectic between empirical and theoretical knowledge.

C. It creates synergies between the needs of scholars, researchers, and practitioners.

D. It is exclusive to participatory research, where researchers and practitioners both develop theory through service delivery.

ANS: D

8. Which of the following statements is false regarding theory?

A. A theory is a network of explanations.

B. Theories are able to adapt or change in response to research.

C. A theory identifies postulates that describe phenomena, and conceptualizations that specify relationships between postulates.

D. In occupational therapy, a theory explains how an occupation is performed, an occupational problem, or a particular dynamic between client and clinician.

ANS: C

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9. There are many benefits from grounding a study in a specific theoretical model.

Which of the following would not be an outcome of a researcher using a theory for a research study?

A. The concepts, interventions, and/or inter-relationships characterized by the theory would be directly linked to various aspects of the study.

B. The risk of bias would be reduced through the application of the theory.

C. An assessment rooted in the theory would allow for interpretation of the findings in an integrative and cohesive manner.

D. The research question or hypothesis may be explicitly stated through concepts and postulates of the theory.

ANS: B

10. Researchers must exercise good judgment when choosing a theory to ground a research study. Which of the following would not be a consideration when choosing a theory?

A. Methodology B. Practice preferences C. Ideology about how clients should be served D. Knowledge base ANS: A

11. Through the process of developing a theory-grounded research study, an investigator is deciding which assessment would be the best to collect data. Which of the following choices would be the best option?

A. An interdisciplinary assessment nonspecific to any theory B. An established assessment within the theoretical model of the research study C. The most widely used/recognized assessment nonspecific to any theory D. An assessment developed exclusively for the study ANS: B STD: B.3.5 12. Which of the following would be an instance when a researcher would not ground research in a theoretical model?

A. When developing a new theoretical model for a new population of interest B. When establishing validity psychometrics for an assessment tied to a theoretical model C. When examining concepts individually that are part of a larger theoretical model D. When conducting interdisciplinary research

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ANS: A STD: B.3.6

Test Bank Kielhofner's Research in Occupational Therapy Methods of Inquiry for Enhancing Practice 2nd Edition.

Chapter 9: Steps in the Research Process and Characteristics of Sound Research

True/False

1. There is a linear sequence of activities that investigators follow when planning and implementing a study; these tasks build on one another and do not allow for reengagement with previous steps.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

2. All quantitative studies should have a research hypothesis.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

3. In order to ensure ethical research, a panel of individuals external to the institution in which a study is taking place must conduct the ethical review in order to ensure independence.

ANS: False

4. A qualitative investigator’s interpretation of a study’s findings can be a highly creative process in which the researcher’s theoretical background and knowledge of the subjects and their life contexts comes into play.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

5. An attitude of skepticism in the scientific community is viewed as counter-productive, as it indicates a resistance toward research and knowledge production.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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6. Ethical review is a process utilized for all studies involving human or animal experiments.

It has multiple objectives. Which of the following is not one of them?

A. To protect subjects from harm B. To ensure that experimental control studies do not withhold treatment if it is hypothesized to be of benefit to the subjects C. To ensure that subjects’ efforts and any risks involved are warranted by the study’s importance D. To ensure subjects freely give informed consent to participate ANS: B

7. When selecting a research methodology, an investigator will determine many of the characteristics of the study. Which of the following is not part of the research methodology?

A. Research design B. Ethical approvals C. Sampling approach D. Data collection approach ANS: B STD: B.8.6

8. Which of the following sections would not be included in the findings of a study?

A. A statement of alternative explanations to the ones offered and specification that there were no problems in the data set (or explanation if there were) B. Analysis of the outcomes with respect to prior studies and within the existing background literature C. A statement of replicability, to promote the rigor of a study D. Specification of the degree of confidence that should be placed in the findings ANS: C

9. What is the definition of communality with regard to conducting research?

A. A recognition that research studies should be done in a naturalistic setting (within the community) to promote the validity of the findings B. A scientific movement where there is an increased focus on interdisciplinary developed research C. An obligation for practitioners to share in the responsibility for generating knowledge relevant to the field D. A context wherein research takes place within a community of scientists who critique and evaluate a study’s findings in light of the existing body of literature ANS: D

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10. Research studies are disseminated to the public for expanding knowledge; two characteristics related to this are their verifiability and replicability. Which of the following statements is false regarding these two measures?

A. Verifiability requires the provision of sufficient explanation so that others can understand exactly what was done and how the conclusions of the study were generated.

B. Replicability requires the provision of sufficient explanation so that others can repeat the study to see if the same results are obtained.

C. Both are specific only to quantitative studies.

D. Both are characteristics that should be demonstrated when creating a sound research study.

ANS: C STD: B.8.5 Matching

Match the following characteristics of sound research with their respective attributes (some items may be used more than once).

A. Rigor B. A scientific/scholarly attitude C. Logical reasoning D. Communality 11. Knowledge may be systematically linked to a phenomenon, being explained through a process of making observations of a phenomenon, then empirically examining those observations.

12. This empirical viewpoint states that scientific knowledge emerges from proof rather than opinion and is tested by observation and experience.

13. This consists of rules, procedures, and techniques that have been developed and agreed upon by the scientific community.

14. Research occurs within a context of existing evidence and allied scholars, and its findings are subject to review by this public.

15. A perspective that knowledge should be open to doubt, further analysis, and criticism.

11. ANS: C 12. ANS: B 13. ANS: A 14. ANS: D 15. ANS: B

STD: B.8.2 STD: B.8.2 STD: B.8.2 STD: B.8.2 STD: B.8.2

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Chapter 10: Conducting a Literature Review

True/False

1. For subject querying of bibliographic citation databases, concept expansion and concept contraction are often combined in tandem into an iterative process.

ANS: True STD: B.8.2

2. The search interfaces for all bibliographic citation databases use standardized syntax and formatting rules specifying operations on search terms and queries.

ANS: False STD: B.8.2

3. Most medical journals have complete open access availability of their full-text articles within a bibliographic citation database, eliminating the need for information “berry picking.”

ANS: False STD: B.8.2

4. Post-qualification is typically done during the final steps of the information search process, and is done to focus the items within a retrieval set.

ANS: True STD: B.8.2

5. Specific to the profession of occupational therapy, “OT SEARCH” is a bibliographic database that includes monographs, proceedings, reports, doctoral dissertations, master’s theses, and most international OT journals.

ANS: True STD: B.8.2

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Multiple Choice

6. There are vast and numerous reasons why investigators are required to obtain information about a given subject. The two approaches typically taken are ready-reference and subject searching. Which of the following statements is true regarding these two processes?

A. Ready-reference searching is typically a comprehensive review of a topic, whereas subject searching is done in preparation for ready-reference searches.

B. Ready-reference searching is typically a closed-ended search process, whereas subject searching is an iterative and ongoing information-seeking process.

C. Ready-reference searching is a search process limited to full-text journal articles, whereas subject searching exclusively uses journal abstracts.

D. Ready-reference searching uses successive queries within large databases, whereas subject searching uses basic searches within discreet data sets.

ANS: B STD: B.8.2

7. Browsing and querying are two methods for retrieving information to inform practice.

Which of the following statements is true regarding these processes?

A. Both browsing and querying require a structured/strategic approach for retrieving information.

B. Querying often assumes a serendipitous (or nonlinear) approach.

C. Browsing relies upon systematic keyword searching to produce a specific selection of retrieved items.

D. Querying involves seeking matches to a particular text phrase, whereas browsing uses a search engine to progress through an inductive series approach.

ANS: D STD: B.8.2

8. A Boolean logic nested statement is used to perform a set search. The search-query logic statement of “((children OR adolescents) AND autism) AND recreation” would return items related to: A. Items regarding recreation and children and/or adolescents and autism B. Items regarding recreation and/or children and adolescents and/or autism C. Items regarding recreation, autism, and either children or adolescents D. Items regarding recreation, autism, and both children and adolescents ANS: A STD: B.8.2

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9. Which of the following choices offer an example of truncation?

A. endurance OR strength B. wom#n C. occupational N5 participation D. “primary care clinic” ANS: C STD: B.8.2

10. The World Wide Web is a resource that may be used to retrieve evidence-based information. Which of the following statements regarding the Web is false?

A. The Web currently lacks standardized indexing for articles.

B. The traditional processes for evaluating the quality of information provided (as used by other databases) is not implemented with the Web. C. There is an increasing number of journals/articles available online for open access through the use of general search engines.

D. The Web is the optimal source of information (when compared with online public access catalogs [OPACs] or bibliographic citation databases) for individuals with minimal knowledge on a topic.

ANS: D STD: B.8.2

11. Which of the following statements is true in its description of gray literature?

A. Gray literature is information published exclusively in open-submission journals.

B. Gray literature is information that is not published in usual formats such as journals.

C. Gray literature is information published exclusively in online journals.

D. Gray literature is published information that has not been peer-reviewed.

ANS: B STD: B.8.2

12. Bibliographic citation databases often take advantage of search syntax within their interfaces to assist with information retrieval. Which of the following is not a general search syntax function?

A. Proximity B. Truncation C. Keyword D. Case-sensitivity ANS: C STD: B.8.2

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13. There are multiple routes to access online published information. Which of the following statements regarding the primary sources for these searches is correct?

A. Bibliographic citation databases have standardized indexing, allowing for efficiency with information retrieval.

B. Examples of online public access catalogs (OPACs) include PubMed and CINAHL. C. The World Wide Web does not provide access to gray literature like OPACs or bibliographic citation databases.

D. Bibliographic citation databases are the least commonly used resource utilized by investigators, and searches within them tend to be more closed-ended.

ANS: A STD: B.8.2

14. Which of the following is not a quantifier commonly used during post-qualification?

A. Year of publication B. Profession of journal C. Language D. Type of publication ANS: B STD: B.8.2

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Chapter 11: Generating Research Questions and Defining Specific Aims and Hypotheses

True/False

1. Specific aims and hypotheses should be derived from research questions that are

framed by a research problem.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

2. The process of formulating a research question involves going from a broad research

problem to a specific question that is addressable in a single study.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

3. Quantitative studies require a descriptive hypothesis.

ANS: False

4. Qualitative studies, such as exploratory studies, may include an exploratory hypothesis

or no hypothesis at all.

ANS: True

5. Some studies may contain more than one hypothesis.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

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6. What is a research question?

A. A direct prediction of the anticipated findings of a study B. A way in which investigators approach knowledge discovery within a study C. The first step in the process of defining a specific aim D. The specific knowledge that is being sought through a study ANS: D STD: B.8.6

7. There are several factors that may define a well-stated research problem. Which of the following would not be an ideal quality?

A. Informed by the existing scientific literature B. Innovative C. Succinctly stated D. Narrow in impact ANS: D STD: B.8.6

8. “The main objective of this research is to…” is an example of: A. Describing the research question of a study B. Describing the specific aim of a study C. Succinctly stating the theoretical framework of the study D. Describing the concepts and postulates of a study ANS: B

9. For quantitative studies, hypotheses are typically stated when: A. Defining a specific aim B. Obtaining information from public policymakers and potential grant-funding agencies C. Analysis involves inferential statistics D. Discussing the topic with practitioners or consumers ANS: C

10. Theoretical frameworks often serve as the basis for developing research questions, specific aims, and hypotheses. Which of the following would not be an outcome of explicitly stating the theoretical basis for a study?

A. It would allow for logical deduction of expected observations and study predictions.

B. It would allow for assumptions to be made within a study that have previously been validated through existing practice theory evidence.

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C. It would ground the statistical precision of a study’s methods.

D. It would produce research that is increasingly logical and transparent.

ANS: C STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 12: Selecting the Research Method

True/False

1. Research design refers to the guidelines and procedures outlined for conducting a study and thereby addressing a research question.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6 2. The selection of a research design weighs heavily on multiple forms of validity, except for internal validity, which is a factor independent of design considerations.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

3. Construct validity includes the degree to which a construct is operationalized in psychometric research.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

4. In experimental design, subjects are assigned to one of two or more condition groups based on multiple criteria as selected by the investigator (e.g., subject demographics).

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

5. A two-group posttest-only randomized experiment relies on groups being probabilistically equivalent.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

6. Blinding enhances the validity of an experiment’s design.

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ANS: True STD: B.8.5

Multiple Choice

7. Which of the following would not be included as a measure of statistical conclusion validity?

A. Proposition significance B. Statistical power C. Effect size D. Statistical significance ANS: A STD: B.8.5

8. Which of the following would be considered a threat to statistical conclusion validity?

A. Biased sample regarding treatment B. Nonreplicable events experienced by participants C. Nonreplicable study/laboratory context D. Limits to the reliability of interventions performed ANS: D STD: B.8.5

9. Which of the following would be considered a threat to internal validity?

A. Selection bias B. Statistical power C. Effect size D. Improper use of statistical tests ANS: A STD: B.8.5

10. Which of the following would not be included as a threat to construct validity?

A. Expectancy effects B. Interaction effects C. Maturation D. Testing anxiety ANS: C

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STD: B.8.5

11. Which best describes a no-treatment control group?

A. A control condition group in which a group of individuals receive a placebo B. A control condition group in which a group of individuals have independently withdrawn from or have been deliberately withdrawn from treatment for purposes of the study C. A control condition group in which a group of individuals receive what is considered to be the usual standard of care for their particular impairment D. A control condition group in which a group of individuals are put on a wait list and then receive the treatment a period of time after the treatment group has already received the treatment ANS: B STD: B.8.6

12. Which best describes a two-group pretest-posttest design?

A. Participants are assigned to either a treatment group or a no-treatment control group, with measures being taken for both groups after the intervention is administered to determine if they differ on the desired outcome.

B. Participants are assigned to a treatment group, with measures being taken for the group before and after the intervention is administered to determine if they differ on the desired outcome.

C. Participants are assigned to a treatment group, with measures being taken after the intervention is administered to determine if there is an effect on the desired outcome.

D. Participants are assigned to either a treatment group or a no-treatment control group, with measures being taken for both groups before and after the intervention is administered to determine if they differ on the desired outcome.

ANS: D STD: B.8.6

13. In comparison to an experimental design, quasi-experimental designs have an additional threat to validity through introducing the risk of producing: A. Selection biases B. Interaction effects C. Effect size D. Expectancy effects ANS: A STD: B.8.5

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14. A correlational study that is purely descriptive or observational, in which variables that are thought to be associated with one another are analyzed statistically, best describes: A. Quasi-experimental designs B. Nonexperimental designs C. Qualitative designs D. Experimental designs ANS: B STD: B.8.6

15. Phenomenology is: A. A method of investigation in which an individual’s significant subjective experience is described through first-person narrative, without reference to theory or knowledge from other discipline perspectives B. A method of investigation that examines the societal and cultural context that shapes meaning and behavior for a cultural group C. A study that examines the effects of an intervention on a single individual over time with no control D. A theoretical understanding of a phenomenon by extracting meaning from social interactions ANS: A STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 13: Writing the Research Proposal

True/False

1. When discussing the methodological approach in a research proposal, a statement regarding the specific design that is being used and how it will address the basic research question should be included.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

2. The sampling approach for a study includes criteria by which people will be included as well as excluded.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

3. A description of fidelity is a statement by which investigators propose to be able to retain their sample over time and throughout the course of the study.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

4. A personnel plan should include a list of the key collaborators in the study, their specific roles in the study, and planned duties and contributions.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

5. A schedule of specific dates and deadlines for a study should be specifically outlined within the methods section of a research proposal.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

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Multiple Choice

6. What is not an element of a research proposal?

A. Key personnel B. Methodological approach C. Key findings D. Statement of the research aim and hypothesis ANS: C STD: B.8.6

7. The background and significance section of a proposal should accomplish several tasks.

Which of the following would not be an objective of this section of a study proposal?

A. To specify that a study will have an important impact in terms of increasing knowledge and/or altering outcomes related to the research problem B. To demonstrate knowledge of the topic area through a focused, comprehensive, and up-to-date review of the literature C. To specify how the proposed research design will address a particular research question D. To identify how existing knowledge pertains specifically to the proposed study’s particular aim ANS: C STD: B.8.6

8. The methods section of a research proposal should contain several sections of information relevant to a study. Which of the following would not be included within this section?

A. Subject retention plan B. Research design C. Ethical review D. Key personnel ANS: D STD: B.8.6

9. Which of the following descriptions best describes a recruitment approach?

A. A description of the means by which authors were able to retain their sample over time and through the course of the study B. A description of the means by which authors were able to locate, access, and enroll their sample C. A description of the sequence of actions taken to conduct the study D. A description of the fidelity measures

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ANS: B STD: B.8.6

10. Studies require formal budgets, with different categories for each aspect of the

research. Which of the following would not be a category of cost as outlined in a study budget?

A. Personnel costs B. Indirect costs C. Equipment costs D. Associated costs ANS: D STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 14: Ensuring Ethical Research

True/False

1. In both the Tuskegee Experiments and Nazi Doctors Trials, examples of ethical misconduct included the following: informed consent was not being obtained, known harm was inflicted to subjects without regard to pain and suffering, and the potential benefits did not outweigh the associated risks of the studies.

ANS: True

2. Research policies required by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) only pertain to studies where public or private insurance (or other reimbursement sources) are billed for experimental services.

ANS: False STD: B.9.11

3. The impetus for contemporary ethical standards for the protection of human research subjects is grounded in previous abuses of humans under the guise of research, such as the Nazi Doctors Trials and the Tuskegee Experiments.

ANS: True

4. The World Medical Association adopted the principles set forth in the Declaration of Helsinki regarding the ethical conduct of human research.

ANS: True STD: B.9.11

5. Ownership rights of data collected during a study belong to the principal investigator, regardless of who collected the data or funded the study.

ANS: False

6. When researchers receiving federal funding are investigated and judged to have engaged in Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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research misconduct, there is the potential for significant penalties and consequences, including imprisonment.

ANS: True STD: B.9.11

7. Once the research is initiated, the institutional review board (IRB) is responsible for a substantive re-review of the research no less often than once every 365 days.

ANS: True STD: B.9.11

8. The principal investigator is ultimately responsible for ensuring that human subject protections are followed, reporting any unanticipated problems involving risks to subjects or others, and for abiding by the institutional review board (IRB) approved protocol and consent document/process.

ANS: True STD: B.9.11

Multiple Choice

9. Following multiple instances of unethical research practices, regulations were put into place to protect subjects and ensure ethical research practices. Which of the following is not an example of a regulatory code put into place toward this effort?

A. The Nuremberg Code B. The Declaration of Helsinki C. The Treaty of Versailles D. The Principles of Belmont ANS: C STD: B.9.11

10. What is the role of the institutional review board (IRB) in protecting human subjects?

A. An IRB exists within a university, medical center, or other industry solely to outweigh the financial risks associated with research for the institution.

B. An IRB exists within a university, medical center, or other institution to review research proposals and ensure that the study is safe and ethical for all participants.

C. An IRB exists within a university, medical center, or other institution to ensure all documentation related to research is adequate and correct.

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D. An IRB exists within a university, medical center, or other industry to protect only individuals on whom research is being conducted.

ANS: B STD: B.9.11

11. Within an institutional review board (IRB), committee members must be: A. Comprised of individuals who have advanced academic qualifications, diverse life experiences, and seniority within the institution B. Comprised of individuals who are diverse, representing different research experiences, professional statuses, and demographics C. Comprised of individuals who were recommended due to having demonstrated professional integrity and possessing advanced knowledge within their fields D. Comprised of individuals who have advanced knowledge specific to the research problem and the population of sampling ANS: B

12. When submitting a research proposal application to an institutional review board (IRB), the application will typically address some major topics. Which of the following would not likely be included among these?

A. A section regarding how informed consent would be obtained B. A discussion of the philosophical argument of the nature of knowledge to be gained C. Identification and analysis of any associated risks and benefits of the study D. Any special considerations given to vulnerable populations ANS: B STD: B.9.11

13. The Office of Research Integrity defines misconduct for purposes of research. Which of the following characteristics is not part of their description?

A. Examples include fabrication, falsification, and plagiarism.

B. Research practices must represent a significant deviation from commonly accepted practices.

C. Research behaviors must be intentional, knowing, or reckless.

D. Misconduct includes honestly made errors, if these could have been foreseen or prevented.

ANS: D

14. Which of the following is not one of the Principles of Belmont?

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D. Justice ANS: B

15. Regarding the training of key personnel as required by typical institutional review board (IRB) guidelines, which of the following statements is correct?

A. It is not necessary for personnel to be trained.

B. Key personnel must undergo rigorous training in order to be effective, accurate, and unbiased.

C. Key personnel must be professionally certified if involved in a medical study.

D. Key personnel must have adequate training and knowledge about the protection of human subjects and have annual continuing education.

ANS: D STD: B.7.7, B.9.11

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Chapter 15: Securing Samples and Performance Sites

True/False

1. A unit of analysis refers to the scale of measurement utilized when analyzing the demographics of a sample.

ANS: False

2. A key distinction of quantitative designs is that when securing a sample, it is acceptable that the researcher’s sampling plans change during the study (including the number, type, and description of the subjects to be studied).

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

3. In qualitative research, researchers should use theoretically defined statistical methods of sampling as required for making inferences about the population of interest.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

4. Some examples of different types of performance sites in occupational therapy research include university laboratory facilities, inpatient units, outpatient rehabilitation centers, skilled nursing facilities, and community-based organizations.

ANS: True

5. Because sampling error represents the degree to which the sample is representative of the population, the larger the sample error, the less representative the sample is to the population and the lower the external validity.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5 Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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6. Key considerations for sampling in qualitative research are appropriateness and adequacy.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

Multiple Choice

7. The steps involved in sampling include these five critical steps: A. Define the population of interest, unit of analysis, performance site, and sampling approach, as well as implement the sampling procedures.

B. Define the population of interest, unit of analysis, performance site, and sampling approach, as well as obtain approvals for entry.

C. Define the population of interest, unit of analysis, performance site, and documentation required, as well as identify a specific time frame.

D. Define the population of interest, unit of analysis, and documentation required, ensure diverse sampling, and identify a specific time frame.

ANS: A STD: B.8.6

8. How a subject pool is selected depends on several issues. Which of the following factors would not be included among those that define the sample?

A. The specific research question B. The impact of the research proposal C. The accessibility of the population of interest D. The research approach (quantitative or qualitative) ANS: B STD: B.8.6

9. Which of the following would not be a key consideration for limiting potential threats to external validity?

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B. Statistical approach of the study C. People recruited for the study D. Timing of the study ANS: B STD: B.8.5

10. When calculating a sample size, which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the relationship among variables?

A. As the sample size increases, the statistical power increases.

B. If variation in outcome decreases, the statistical power increases.

C. If variation in outcome increases, the sample size needs to decrease.

D. If the effect size decreases, the sample size needs to increase.

ANS: C STD: B.8.6

Matching

Please match the following sampling approaches with their respective definitions.

A. Purposive sampling B. Stratified sampling C. Network sampling D. Quota sampling E. Systematic sampling

11. The recruitment of specific individuals to ensure appropriate representation in the sample 12. The deliberate selection of individuals by the researcher based on certain predetermined criteria (usually stated as inclusion and exclusion criteria) 13. A random sample, but the selection is from identified subgroups within the population 14. An equivalent to random sampling, where subjects are identified from a population list according to a numeric pattern

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15. A method in which initially identified subjects provide names of others who may meet the study criteria 11. ANS: D 12. ANS: A 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: E 15. ANS: C

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STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 16: Design Considerations in Qualitative Research

True/False

1. In qualitative research designs, the subject’s/informant’s experiences, actions, interactions, and social contexts are more important than those of the researcher.

ANS: True

2. Qualitative research is performed to enable discovery when there is insufficient prior understanding of a topic, or when preconceived concepts and predefined tools have inadequately captured the phenomena of interest.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1

3. Participatory action research involves the participants in shaping the research questions, methods, and outcomes.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6 4. Ethnography is concerned with sampling a population with strict inclusion and exclusion criteria.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

5. Which of the following does not serve as a description of the aims of qualitative research?

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A. To provide methods toward the systematic study of social phenomena B. To propose a primarily deductive means for explaining experiences through existing theoretical models C. To serve as an approach for understanding the worlds people live in and their experiences of those worlds D. To offer an approach toward answering the “why” and “how” of research questions ANS: B STD: B.8.1

6. Several features characterize all qualitative research. Which of the following is not something it seeks to discover?

A. The insider's view compared with the observer’s B. The meanings, symbols, beliefs, and values in the language of the participants C. Data used to reinforce the observer’s objectives/theories D. Features of the worlds of everyday lived experiences ANS: C STD: B.8.1

7. Which of the following does not serve as a definition of epistemology as it relates to qualitative research?

A. An empirical approach to defining true knowledge B. A tradition of thought C. A broad arena of philosophy concerned with the nature and scope of knowledge D. A manner of seeking and exploring the nature of truth ANS: A STD: B.8.1

8. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of human experience that are explored through phenomenological study?

A. The lived space (spatiality) B. The lived body (corporeal embodied experience) Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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C. Lived objectivity (rationality) D. Lived time (temporality) ANS: C

9. Which of the following perspectives best aligns with a critical theorist’s approach?

A. Theories should be tested through research, in an attempt to increase the predictive understanding of phenomena.

B. Knowledge is universal and may be absolutely captured.

C. There is one objective reality that can be captured and measured by instruments, independent of the observer.

D. Reality and knowledge are considered as relative to particular people and times.

ANS: D

Matching

Please match the following epistemological traditions with their respective definitions.

A. Participatory action research B. Ethnography C. Grounded theory D. Critical theory E. Phenomenology 10. An approach that attempts to generate a theoretical understanding of a phenomenon by extracting meaning from social interactions, without direction from existing constructs or theory about the phenomena.

11. An approach that focuses on the everyday life-world and gives great attention to the careful description of how the ordinary is experienced and expressed in the consciousness of individuals.

12. An approach that focuses on the social definitions and meanings of behavior or other phenomena through the naturally occurring language, insider’s viewpoint and values, and cultural patterns.

13. An approach combining research efforts and active intervention, which involves the participants as co-creators and co-investigators who shape the research questions, methods, and outcomes while at the same time transforming themselves and others within their immediate contexts in significant and enduring ways.

14. An approach where researchers take the stance that knowledge (and theory) is relative to particular people and times; multiple social realities exist that are distributed across various segments of society and groups.

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10. ANS: C 11. ANS: E 12. ANS: B 13. ANS: A 14. ANS: D

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STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 17: Collecting Qualitative Data

True/False

1. A risk when conducting observational studies includes the Hawthorne effect, which occurs when subjects change their behavior because they know they are being observed.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

2. Peer debriefing is very valuable in qualitative inquiry because it provides a means by which areas of disagreement and controversy are highlighted, leading to additional data collection as the need to clarify conflicting data as conflicting views becomes apparent.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

3. Transparency refers to a deliberate and systematic process of self-examination where an investigator addresses an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and reactions to people and events in light of the course of data collection.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

4. In preparing for data collection, the researcher (interviewer) should be trained on technical skills in interviewing, appropriate behaviors to gain access to a population, as well as interpersonal skills and behaviors.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

5. Content analysis is the process of reviewing raw materials, including any form of communication or text, although written forms are most common.

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ANS: True STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

6. There are many activities that a qualitative researcher employs while using participation as a method to gather information. Which of the following would not be something a researcher does through participation?

A. Collects data from journals and field notes of reflections and observations B. Becomes involved firsthand with the social world chosen for study C. Strives to experience firsthand reality without preconceptions D. Actively assimilates into the group to address the underlying research problem ANS: D STD: B.8.6

7. Which of the following would be something a researcher would do when using observation to collect qualitative data?

A. Attempt to become an active part of the group being studied B. Utilize careful watching, listening, and recording of events, behaviors, and objects C. Record the observations noted by an independent panel of experts D. Apply existing theoretical models to explain behavioral patterns ANS: B STD: B.8.6

8. Which of the following would not be something a researcher does when collecting data through an in-depth interview?

A. To probe ideas of the interviewees and obtain the most detailed information available regarding a particular event, issue, or context B. Negotiating and establishing a social identity in the setting C. Note-taking comprehensively while astutely questioning and listening D. Writing up summaries and notes about what the interviewee said as well as reflective personal observations ANS: B Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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STD: B.8.6

9. There are many different formats that may be employed when conducting an in-depth interview. Which of the following is not considered a typical method for collecting data?

A. Semistructured interview B. Unstructured interview C. Structured interview D. Focused interview ANS: D STD: B.8.6

10. There are several types of biases that can negatively impact qualitative studies. Which of the following would not be considered a bias relevant to qualitative data collection?

A. Overreliance on accessible research participants or favoring of more dramatic events and statements involving research participants and the context of study B. Biasing effects produced by the presence of the investigator in the research site C. Biases stemming from the influence of the participants and the research site on the investigator D. Biases related to having limited (or no) randomization with the selection of participants ANS: D STD: B.8.5

11. An audit trail is a systematically maintained set of documentation. Which of the following would not be included in a qualitative study’s audit trail?

A. Personal notes and reflections B. Details regarding the blinding of participants/investigators C. Explanations of procedures used in data collection and analysis D. All data generated in the study ANS: B STD: B.8.5

12. During qualitative data collection, the point of saturation occurs when: A. The researcher’s questions are all answered.

B. The researcher has validated all the research aims.

C. The researcher is gaining little or no new information.

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D. The researcher has exhausted available subjects to observe or interview.

ANS: C STD: B.8.6

13. The process whereby investigators check out their assumptions and emerging interpretations of the data with the original stakeholders who provided the information is defined as: A. Double-checking B. Triangulation C. Verification D. Member checks ANS: D STD: B.8.5

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Chapter 18: Contemporary Tools for Managing and Analyzing Qualitative Data

True/False

1. Quality assurance measures specific to inter-rater reliability involve either separate and redundant coding of data with pre- and post-reconciliation statistics or coding reconciliation.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

2. Because of the linear nature of qualitative data analysis, audit trails are typically not required.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

3. E-mail, text messaging, online discussions and forums, voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) technologies, and various types of social networking platforms have all been used in the service of qualitative research.

ANS: True

4. Qualitative research is an iterative process, wherein some data are collected, interim analysis is performed, and research instruments are modified before further data are collected and analyzed.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

Multiple Choice

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5. There are several procedures that are performed when conducting qualitative data analysis. The typical first step involves investigators: A. Producing a code directory B. Actively reading data C. Index coding and conceptual labeling D. Writing analytic memos ANS: B STD: B.8.4

6. Which quality assurance measures are specific to qualitative data analysis that go beyond those implemented for data collection?

A. Reflexivity and triangulation B. Consistent/systematic coding, and inter-rater reliability C. Stakeholder checks and audit trails D. Interviewer training and prolonged engagement ANS: B STD: B.8.5

7. Which of the following would not be identified as an advantage of computer-assisted qualitative data analysis?

A. Enhances text-based searches, codebook development, tagging, and retrieval B. Provides theory-building functionality C. Allows for automatic computerized data coding based on intuitive-logic models D. Provides team-based analysis support, multimedia capabilities, and support for mixed-method analysis ANS: C STD: B.8.4

8. Boolean connections used in tagging and retrieval may be defined as a: A. Software feature that allows the researcher to memo on segments of text based on location B. Search feature that analyzes the spatial relationship between coded segments C. Search feature that uses logical operators to connect search terms D. Relationship indicator that examines the degree of agreement between two codes

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ANS: C STD: B.8.4

9. A semantic connection used in tagging and retrieval may be defined as a: A. Relationship indicator that examines the degree of agreement between two codes B. Relationship indicator that specifies a hierarchical (or other type of) relationship between codes C. Software feature that allows for the utilization of logical connectors between codes D. Software feature that translates data from its original context into a specified language ANS: B STD: B.8.4

10. A proximity connection used in tagging and retrieval may be defined as a: A. Search feature that analyzes the spatial relationship between coded segments B. Hard-wired network that creates a regional data server C. Software feature that allows the researcher to memo on segments of text based on location D. Software feature that translates data from its original context into a specified language ANS: A STD: B.8.4

11. During the active reading process, investigators make conceptual labels within the data. A conceptual label is: A. A label used to connect seemingly unrelated items B. A “tag” for segments of text, categorically describing information the segments contained C. A label used to indicate an overall idea or common theme of a data source D. A note that allows investigators to organize their thoughts about the data ANS: B STD: B.8.4

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Chapter 19: Qualitative Approaches to Interpreting and Reporting Data

True/False

1. The qualitative approach to interpreting and analyzing data strives to preserve the experience of the participant.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

2. The inductive approach to data analysis allows for findings to emerge from the raw data without the restraints imposed by stricter methodologies or pre-established theories.

ANS: True

3. Qualitative studies do not attempt to create generalized findings to a broad population, but rather a truthful and in-depth perspective of a particular sample.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

4. Transcription in qualitative data analysis should not record laughs, hesitations, or interruptions, as these are considered irrelevant to data collection.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

5. A written report should include an introduction to the topic/group, discussion of the research purpose, and explanation of the relevance of the research.

ANS: True

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6. A written report should include a methods section, a findings section, a conclusion section, tables, charts, graphs, references to past research, and the qualifications of the researcher.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

Multiple Choice

7. A researcher using an inductive approach to data analysis: A. May choose from a variety of experimental methods when formulating conclusions B. Is not only concerned with the identification of key themes and findings, but also with epistemology, or what counts as knowledge C. Does not need to formulate a solid scientific hypothesis as the content is subjective D. Will be required to compile statistical data based on characteristics of the group studied ANS: B STD: B.8.4

8. Transcription in qualitative data analysis is: A. The process where regional dialects are converted to the specified language of publication for a study B. When a stenographer is used to record only the keywords and phrases that are relevant to the study C. The process of exactly converting audio information into a written record D. When a final outline of methodology is used to encrypt data ANS: C

9. What is the first step in the data analytic process a researcher is recommended to follow?

A. Perform a formal analysis or interpretation of one data source.

B. Compare and contrast data sources utilizing a particular code.

C. Select a particular code for further analysis.

D. Draw general conclusions about what a coding strategy or arising data pattern means.

ANS: A STD: B.8.4

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10. The most common ways to report data include: A. Poster presentations, oral presentations, and written reports B. Poster presentations, oral presentations, and continuing education courses C. Oral presentations and non-peer reviewed professional journals D. Oral presentations, written reports, and published book chapters ANS: A

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Chapter 20: Quantitative Research Designs: Defining Variables and Their Relationships With One Another

True/False

1. Descriptive quantitative research depicts naturally occurring events or characteristics of research participants to generate new insights through an inductive process.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

2. In descriptive research, the incidence is the number of new cases of a disease or disability in a population during a specified time period.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

3. In descriptive research, the prevalence is the percentage of people who have a particular health-related condition.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

4. Correlational research seeks to find usual or average values for specific variables, thus serving as a basis to evaluate and compare an individual against a similar group.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

5. A cohort design is implemented to follow a group over time utilizing repeated measures at certain intervals.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

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6. The possibility of failure to find and report a relationship among variables in a study when the relationship actually exists is a type I error.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

7. The biggest danger to scientific development is to report a relationship that does not exist. This is considered a type II error.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

Matching Please match the following definitions.

A. Randomized controlled trial B. Crossover design C. Cross-sectional design D. Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials E. Case control design 8. A design where the independent variables are administered to all randomly determined groups in a sequential order 9. A design in which groups of different types of persons, in terms of some immediate measureable dependent variable (e.g., age, presence of disability), are compared in response to exposure to an independent variable 10. An effort dedicated to improvement of randomized controlled trial (RCT) design and RCT reporting, providing a checklist of essential items that should be included in a RCT and a diagram for documenting 11. A design utilized to find out if some specific variable from the past discriminates between people who have a disease (or disability) and people who do not 12. An experiment where an important health outcome is the dependent variable, a clinical intervention is part of the independent variable, and research participants are recruited and randomly assigned over time as they become available 8. ANS: B 9. ANS: C 10. ANS: D 11. ANS: E 12. ANS: A

STD: B.8.5 STD: B.8.5 STD: B.8.5 STD: B.8.5 STD: B.8.5

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Multiple Choice

13. In descriptive research, a developmental study is conducted to: A. Describe patterns of growth or change over time within selected segments of a population B. Obtain demographic data for a larger, multi-phase trial C. Observe a population, describing the most culturally salient characteristics D. Observe how mores within a group are demonstrated at a specific point in time ANS: A STD: B.8.6

14. Which of the following is not a step of a basic experiment?

A. Administering an independent variable B. Developing an experimental hypothesis C. Obtaining a representative sample D. Assigning participants into cohorts according to defined characteristics ANS: D

15. All of the following statements are true regarding type I errors except: A. They represent the possibility of reporting a relationship among variables in a study, when there really is no relationship B. Basic experimental design reduces the chances of producing a type I error to a small and controllable amount C. They represent a failure to find and report a relationship among variables in a study, when a relationship actually exists D. Researchers can never be absolutely certain that a type I error has been made ANS: C STD: B.8.5

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Chapter 21: Developing and Evaluating Quantitative Data Collection Instruments

True/False

1. The classical test theory is a set of psychometric approaches that aim to define the true score of an assessment by isolating the error of measurement from the achieved score.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

2. One of the most important and effective ways to reduce the measurement error of an assessment is to standardize it.

ANS: True

3. Operationalizing a construct refers to assigning a concrete means of defining an abstract idea, such as a measurement.

ANS: True

4. The extent of rater bias is assessed through investigation of inter-rater reliability.

ANS: True STD: B.4.6

Matching

Please match the following scales of measurement with their respective definitions.

A. Nominal scales B. Ordinal scales C. Interval scales D. Ratio scales 5. A scale that uses numbers to classify equal distances between the units of measurement.

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6. A scale that uses numbers to classify ranked categories; they do not represent amount.

Rather, they are categorical labels that indicate ranking within a distribution of categories.

7. A scale that uses numbers to classify equal distances between units of measurements, and that also has an absolute zero point; they indicate absolute amounts of the characteristics measured.

8. A scale that uses numbers that have no meaning other than identifying the category or characteristic to which a person belongs; each category must be exclusive of the other categories.

5. ANS: C 6. ANS: B 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: A

Multiple Choice

9. A systematic error is best defined as: A. An error that is due to data miscalculation, and thus repeats systematically throughout the findings B. A consistent or predictable error, occurring when an assessment misestimates the true score by a consistent amount and in the same direction C. An error due to the irregular circumstances when administering an assessment D. An error that occurs by chance and is thus unpredictable ANS: B STD: B.4.6

10. The types of validity to consider when evaluating or developing an assessment are: A. The biasing effects of observer presence or observer characteristics, and rater bias B. Error of measurement, systemic error, and random error C. Face, content, criteria, and construct D. Convergent and divergent measures, sensitivity, and specificity ANS: C STD: B.4.6

11. With respect to social forces, an individual evaluating an assessment should consider all the following questions except: A. What purpose was the assessment designed for?

B. Will this assessment be effective at conveying my (investigator’s) voice and values?

C. What values are reflected in this measure?

D. How has this purpose affected the content and design of the assessment?

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ANS: B

12. According to classic test theory, the reliability of an assessment is empirically assessed using all of the following methods except for: A. Test-retest reliability B. Split-half reliability C. Inter-rater reliability D. Internal consistency ANS: C STD: B.4.6

13. According to the basic rules of measurement, numbers may be used to do all of the following except: A. Define a characteristic B. Differentiate one characteristic from another C. Indicate order from less to more of a characteristic D. Indicate an absolute amount of a characteristic ANS: A

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Chapter 22: Collecting Quantitative Data

True/False

1. There are a wide variety of approaches to data collection that may be utilized in occupational therapy (OT), including observations, interviews, self-reported measures, standardized tests and performance measures.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

2. Utilizing an existing validated measure for data collection (versus developing your own measure) allows increased generalizability and provides an existing conceptual foundation.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5, B.8.6

3. Researchers must ensure that participants are clear in their understanding of the limits of the researcher’s role and the availability of their care; therefore, researchers should avoid establishing rapport with participants or responding empathically during interactions.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

4. The methodological rigor of data collection depends on whether there is evidence in the literature that a quantitative instrument is valid and reliable or that a qualitative strategy is trustworthy.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

5. Professional and ethical considerations ensure safe and humane treatment of research participants.

ANS: True

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6. A disadvantage of standardized tests and performance measures is that they are not all cross-cultural in nature and may not be relevant to all sociodemographic and sociocultural groups.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

7. Medical records can be used to extract a wide range of information that might be important to a researcher when using a historical preexisting documents review approach.

Typically, this does not require any informed consent or institutional review board (IRB) approval.

ANS: False

8. If subject burden is unduly high in a study, it will likely lead to low participation rates and high dropout rates.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

9. Which of the following would not be an aim of data collection when employing a qualitative observation approach?

A. Remain as objective as possible in gathering/recording the data.

B. Ensure the observer has integrated into the group.

C. Prevent artificiality or other changes in subjects’ behavior due to the presence of the observer.

D. Take precautionary measures to ensure the reliability and validity involved in recording the data.

ANS: B STD: B.8.6

10. Which of the following is not one of the steps typically taken by researchers to plan and implement data collection?

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C. Selecting and preparing personnel for data collection D. Choosing a population of interest ANS: D STD: B.8.6

11. The selection of instruments and procedures for data collection should include all of the following considerations except for: A. The relevance and sufficiency of the information able to be gathered to answer the study question B. The availability of norms or criteria for interpreting the information gathered C. The type of data the instrument or strategy will yield D. The ease with which data may be collected, allowing for obtaining the most data in the least amount of time ANS: D STD: B.8.6

12. When selecting personnel for data collection, which of the following would not likely be a primary consideration?

A. Choosing data collectors who share similarities in personality and temperament with the primary investigator to promote consistent communications B. Choosing data collectors who have good clinical judgment, as well as interpersonal and observational skills C. Choosing data collectors who have adequate training and experience as required for study procedures D. Choosing data collectors who share similarities in language, age, racial or ethnic background, and disability status with participants ANS: A STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 23: Entering, Storing, and Managing Data

True/False

1. Data are the pieces of information that are collected from research participants to address a study’s questions.

ANS: True

2. If a study includes quantitative data, the data management plan should have specific policies regarding data checking and data cleaning.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

3. Data collection forms should always include the participant’s name as well as the participant identifier on each page.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

4. There are two basic rules of data backups: do them regularly and do them frequently.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

5. After translating participant responses to numerical values and entering the data, missing or out-of-range values may indicate a data entry error. Potential errors can be checked against raw data and corrected if necessary.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

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6. Data management in a research study: A. Includes mandates that are driven by professional regulatory boards B. Are procedural policies enacted within a research study, arrived at through study personnel consensus C. Are the logistical, reflective, and behind the scenes processes and infrastructure that allow a researcher to produce high-quality information D. Are rules governing practice that are regulated by a grant awarding agency or internal institutional policy ANS: C

7. The basic goal of data management is to: A. Keep all data rigorously secured B. Support the production of findings that are trustworthy and useful to others C. Process the data so all study objectives are met D. File all information in a carefully retrievable format ANS: B

8. Which of the following is not an example of the strengths that a data management plan lends to a research study?

A. Offers guidance about how to carry out and document all research-related procedures B. Supports communication about the research study across members of a project team C. Facilitates communication with external parties D. Ensures a consensus on the theoretical frame of reference guiding the research question ANS: D

9. All of the following should be included within a strong data management system except for: A. A clearly defined set of policies and procedures B. Project information and participant data C. Existing literature on the topic D. Processes and infrastructure related to staff ANS: C

10. Consistent communication in the context of a data management system should include all of the following except for: A. Casual remarks made by participants Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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B. Documentation of individual work and decisions C. Verbal and written communication among members of the team D. Communications including e-mails, texts, and shared Web-based documents ANS: A STD: B.8.6

11. Which of the following is not a role of the data management plan and project timeline in a study?

A. To set goals for data collection and for monitoring its progress B. To provide guidance for monitoring the productivity and work quality of team members C. To facilitate the process of identifying the skills and knowledge that will be required of the research team D. To ensure the standards for the anticipated journal of publication are met ANS: D STD: B.8.6

12. Which of the following would not be included among the job descriptions of people involved in a study?

A. Qualifications and/or specific skills required of workers with a specific list of job duties B. Name and title of direct supervisor C. Identification of the specific cultural and social background of the work D. Job title ANS: C

13. Which of the following would not be a reason for employing team meetings within a research study?

A. To serve as a means for facilitating data management B. To provide a platform to discuss progress, share achievements, and make joint decisions C. To promote a culture of consistent communication, where everyone on the research team should be included D. To promote a culture of inclusion and free thought, free from agenda or taking of minutes ANS: D STD: B.8.6

14. Which of the following would not likely be included within a quantitative codebook?

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C. How to complete the coding, including unusual responses D. How derived variables were developed ANS: B STD: B.8.6

15. Which of the following would not likely be included within a qualitative codebook?

A. Derived and calculated values B. A definition of each code C. A description of when and how to use various codes D. The list of codes ANS: A STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 24: Deciding on an Approach to Data Analysis

True/False

1. Statistics in occupational therapy are the means by which data are collected, organized, and analyzed as well as presented to serve objectives in a research study.

ANS: True

2. An r-value of .15 would indicate a very strong relationship between variables.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4 3. A data set’s mean, median, and mode are all measures of its variability.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

4. The point of hypothesis testing is to be able to reject the alternative hypothesis, in

which the alternative hypothesis states that an observed difference or outcome is due to chance.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

5. A Pearson correlation test is the most commonly used measure of association in

statistics; it involves using an r-value to represent the strength of association between two variables.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

6. In a standard normal distribution, the deviations from zero occur symmetrically in units of standard deviation at both the positive and negative ends of the possible range of choices.

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ANS: True STD: B.8.4

7. Most researchers prefer to use nonparametric tests because they allow researchers to be

more confident about their conclusions, as well as allow them a wider range of available choices of tests.

ANS: False STD: B.8.4

8. Inferential statistics are used to test hypotheses (i.e., make inferences) about an

entire population based on findings from a single sample thought to adequately represent thatpopulation.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4

Matching

Please match the following scales of measurements to their definition.

A. Nominal B. Ordinal C. Interval D. Ratio 9. Uses numbers to classify ranked categories not representing an amount; is a categorical label indicating rank within a distribution of categories 10. Uses numbers to classify equal distances between units of measurements, having an absolutely zero point 11. Uses numbers in which the differences between values can be quantified in absolute

but not relative terms and for which any zero is merely arbitrary

12. A scale with two or more categories that represent named classifications; are not ordered in relationship to one another 9. ANS: B 10. ANS: D 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: A

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STD: B.8.4 STD: B.8.4 STD: B.8.4 STD: B.8.4

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Multiple Choice

13. Which of the following study characteristics would require the use of nonparametric statistics?

A. A continuous measure for the dependent variable B. A normal sample distribution C. Heterogeneity of variance D. A large sample size ANS: C STD: B.8.4

14. Which of the following is not an accurate description of the p-value in inferential statistics?

A. The measure of the likelihood that an observed difference (or improvement) occurs by chance B. A measure used as a cutoff for statistical significance C. A measure of sampling error D. A measure of the strength of an association ANS: D STD: B.8.4

15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of descriptive statistics?

A. Frequency (f) representing the number of counts of a data point within a category B. Are used to describe or summarize characteristics within a collection of data C. May be used to demonstrate an effect size of an intervention D. Are often used to describe the demographics of a sample used for a research study ANS: C STD: B.8.4

16. Which of the following is not a type or application of inferential statistics?

A. Descriptive statistics B. Hypotheses testing C. Parametric statistics D. Nonparametric statistics ANS: A STD: B.8.4 Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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Chapter 25: Meta-Analysis

True/False

1. Meta-analysis is a comprehensive study that summarizes the findings of several individual studies to answer scientific and clinical questions.

ANS: True

2. A limitation of meta-analysis is the controversial role of inferential statistical procedures in the data analysis stage.

ANS: True STD: B.8.4, B.8.5

Matching

Please match the following steps involved in conducting a meta-analysis to their description.

A. Problem formulation B. Data collection C. Data evaluation and coding D. Analysis and interpretation E. Reporting results

3. Includes activities directed towards the dissemination of findings 4. Criteria regarding which studies to include are made and data is refined 5. A clearly stated research question that determines which studies will be included in the meta-analysis is proposed 6. A comprehensive, sensitive, and extensive bibliographic search strategy is developed to compile possible reports 7. Data is compiled for quantitative synthesis and summary of effect sizes by using appropriate methods and effect models (random or fixed) 3. ANS: E 4. ANS: C 5. ANS: A Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6

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6. ANS: B 7. ANS: D

STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

8. Which of the following is not a widely used measure of effect size in meta-analysis studies conducted in occupational therapy research?

A. The odds ratio B. The standardized mean difference (d-index) C. The construct moment difference D. The correlation coefficient (r-index) ANS: C STD: B.8.4

9. Which of the following would not be an advantage to using meta-analysis to integrate studies?

A. Increased statistical power B. Insight into the nature of relationships among variables C. The ability to incorporate future research D. The ability to objectively explore contradiction in a group of studies ANS: C

10. Which of the following would not be a benefit of meta-analysis for the profession of occupational therapy?

A. It involves a systematic approach that does not involve assumptions; therefore, clear outcomes are produced B. It addresses the needs of the research-emergent OT profession C. It allows for a validated evidence basis, thus producing best practices for diverse clients D. It communicates efficacy among allied health-care professionals and third-party reimbursement agencies ANS: A STD: B.8.3

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Chapter 26: Single-Subject Research

True/False

1. A multiple-baseline research design across behaviors investigates an individual treatment variable applied sequentially to separate behaviors in a single participant.

ANS: True

2. A multiple-baseline research design across settings is a design where individual behaviors are studied in multiple participants within a specified setting of interest.

ANS: False

3. A multiple-baseline research design across participants investigates one behavior treated sequentially across matched participants.

ANS: True

4. In single-subject designs, dependent variables do not have to be operationally defined due to individuals serving as their own controls.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6 5. Data collection methods must be both replicable and reliable in order to maintain validity.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

6. With social validity in mind, it is possible for an intervention to result in desirable changes in the dependent variable, but still be identified by research participants as being unacceptable.

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ANS: True

Matching

Please match the following single-subject designs to their definition.

A. A-B design B. A-B-A withdrawal design C. Multiple baseline design D. Alternative-treatment design

7. A design used to compare the effects of intervention and no intervention or to compare the effects of two or more distinct interventions 8. A design that includes a baseline phase and a treatment phase 9. A design that uses repeated measures of at least three baseline conditions that typically are implemented concurrently, with each successive baseline being longer than the previous one 10. A design that consists of a minimum of three phases: baseline, intervention, and repeated baseline 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: A 9. ANS: C 10. ANS: B

STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6 STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

11. All of the following describe single-subject research except: A. It involves in-depth analysis of a single research subject or a small group of subjects considered collectively.

B. Each participant serves as his or her own control.

C. It is a design most commonly employed for experimental trials.

D. There is systematic application, withdrawal, and sometimes variations of the intervention (independent variable).

ANS: C

12. Which of the following would not be a correct consideration in data analysis when using graphs for single-subject studies?

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A. Each variable for each participant or system is graphed with the dependent variable on the y-axis and time on the x-axis.

B. When graphing data for one variable for more than one participant, the scale for each graph should be the same to facilitate comparisons across graphs.

C. Vertical lines indicate phase changes, and lines connecting data points reflect consecutive intervals.

D. Equal-interval graphs should be avoided due to their complexity and difficulty being understood.

ANS: D STD: B.8.6

13. Which of the following would not be a common data collection means?

A. Physiological measures B. Biological measures C. Self-report measures D. Frequency measures ANS: B STD: B.8.6

14. Which of the following would not be a method of replication that would help to ensure that findings are generalizable?

A. Replicate the study with other individuals (subjects) B. Replicate the study in other settings C. Replicate the study using other therapists/interventionists D. Replicate the study using alternative means (interventions) ANS: D STD: B.8.5

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Chapter 27: Survey Research

True/False

1. Survey research is a method of inquiry characterized by collecting data using structured questions to elicit self-reported information from a sample of people.

ANS: True

2. In addition to the degree of nonparticipation, nonresponse bias depends on the extent to which nonrespondents differ systematically from respondents in terms of their characteristics on key variables under study.

ANS: True STD: B.8.5

3. While response bias should be specifically reported, nonresponse bias is an implicit value that cannot be measured; therefore, it does not need to be included among the final study report.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

4. Historically, the most common method of collecting survey data was through mailed questionnaires.

ANS: True

5. Piloting and revising the questionnaire or interview schedule is a step that must be included when building a new measure.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

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6. The procedures used in implementing a survey study do not have a large impact on the rigor of the investigation.

ANS: False STD: B.8.5

7. While computerized technologies are a typical means for analyzing survey data, currently there are no software options for computerized survey distribution.

ANS: False STD: B.8.6

Multiple Choice

8. Which of the following is not a key dimension of survey research?

A. Identifying an appropriate pre- and post-measure B. Identifying a population of interest and appropriately sampling that population C. Identifying research aims and generating survey questions to systematically gather the necessary information D. Developing statistical estimates that can be generalized to a population under study ANS: A

9. Which of the following is not a cause of response bias?

A. The respondent being unable to recall information accurately B. The respondent choosing not to respond C. The respondent interpreting the meaning of a question differently than the meaning intended by the researcher D. Response choices that do not accurately express respondents’ experience or opinions ANS: B STD: B.8.5

10. Which of the following is not an advantage of telephone interviews?

A. It involves a potentially short data collection period.

B. Interviewer bias is not a factor.

C. It ensures the integrity of the questionnaire.

D. It is easier to sample a large geographical area.

ANS: B Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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STD: B*.8.6

11. Which of the following is not an advantage of mailed questionnaires?

A. They can be completed at the respondent’s convenience.

B. Respondent anonymity may be better preserved.

C. Response rates tend to be higher.

D. They have relatively low associated costs.

ANS: C STD: B.8.6

12. The four steps involved in building a survey questionnaire include all of the following except: A. Formulating questions B. Defining and clarifying the survey variable C. Defining a research question and proposed hypothesis D. Formatting the questionnaire or interview schedule ANS: C

13. Which of the following is not a key factor that influences study rigor?

A. The strategies used for sampling B. The response rates C. The methods for conducting the survey D. The process used to define a population ANS: D STD: B.8.5

14. Which of the following is not a method for increasing survey response rates?

A. Utilizing systematic random selection when sampling B. Choosing a population where access may be relatively ensured C. Utilizing methods to gain cooperation from respondents D. Sending an advance letter clearly stating the purpose of the study and the content of the interview ANS: A STD: B.8.6

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15. Which of the following is not a method for enhancing quality control during the coding process?

A. Trained coders should independently check each other’s work.

B. Coders should write notes about codes they are not sure of, so they can be checked by the supervisor.

C. Each coder should develop an independent coding system.

D. The data can be entered twice in two different files, and then the files can be correlated to identify potential errors in data entry.

ANS: C STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 28: Needs Assessment Research

True/False

1. A needs assessment may be defined as a systematic and ongoing process of providing usable and useful information about the needs of the target to those who can and will utilize it to make judgments about policy and programs.

ANS: True STD: B.7.5

2. While there are many ways of defining need, it is generally accepted that need should not be defined as the discrepancy between what an individual’s present situation/status is and what is desired.

ANS: False

3. The process, measures, outcomes, and actions of a given needs assessment are fundamentally linked to either the principles and values of the marketplace or to a commitment to the social good.

ANS: True

Matching Please match the following dimensions of needs assessments to their respective attribute descriptions.

A. The sophistication of the project design B. The level of involvement of the stakeholders C. The scope of the issue being condensed D. The project’s political orientation 4. This may be wide ranging or narrowly focused on a specific problem occurring within a setting.

5. This is the intention behind a needs assessment, which may contribute to it maintaining or challenging the status quo.

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6. This should be systematic, empirically based, outcome oriented, and focused on solving real-world problems through the application of a variety of research methodologies and methods.

7. This is reflected by the individuals receiving service, providers of service, or organization as a whole, who may be integrated on a fully participatory level, or not at all.

4. ANS: C 5. ANS: D 6. ANS: A 7. ANS: B

STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5

Please match the following types of need to their respective descriptions.

A. Normative B. Felt C. Expressed D. Comparative 8. Want, with or without actions to obtain that which is wanted 9. Demand for a service, either through current use or waiting list 10. An approach for conceptualizing needs by contrast to a baseline 11. Defined by professionals and experts rather than by members of the community 8. ANS: B 9. ANS: C 10. ANS: D 11. ANS: A

STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5 STD: B.7.5

Please match the following models for needs assessment to their respective descriptions.

A. Logic model B. Three-phase model C. Concerns report model D. Participatory and community building 12. Facilitates the planning of a needs assessment; operates as a checklist of stages and activities 13. A tool that draws on focus groups as survey research, and provides analytic strategies that originate in discrepancy modeling 14. Utilizes graphical or figure form to portray relationships between resources, activities, outputs, and outcomes for planning 15. Requires active involvement of the stakeholders; focuses on the community and fostering development of a collective 12. ANS: B 13. ANS: C Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

STD: B.7.5, B.7.6 STD: B.7.5, B.7.6

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14. ANS: A 15. ANS: D

STD: B.7.5, B.7.6 STD: B.7.5, B.7.6

Multiple Choice

16. Using a marketplace philosophy for needs assessment, all of the following are correct for describing how needs may be addressed except for which?

A. Individual preferences and autonomy are not recognized as determining need.

B. Services are viewed as an economic good and are distributed based on people’s ability to pay (either independently or through various types of insurance).

C. Need is equated with demand and defined in terms of solutions.

D. Needs can best be met through a free market.

ANS: A

17. Client’s needs in occupational therapy may include all of the following except for which?

A. Basic physiological drives B. Goals that are sought after (ends) C. Strategies to achieve goals (solutions) D. Goals that are prescribed ANS: D

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Chapter 29: Program Evaluation Research

True/False

1. Program evaluation is the use of tools, methods, and skills to determine whether a human service or program is meeting the needs of participants, if the program is offered as planned, and if it is having the desired impact on the lives of participants.

ANS: True STD: B.7.5

2. Program evaluation is a continuous process that is integrated throughout the implementation of a program of service, providing an approach for implementing evidencebased practice.

ANS: True STD: B.7.5, B.8.3

3. Formative evaluation is a compilation of processes used when formulating the initial hypothesis or rationale for a program.

ANS: False

4. Summative evaluation is an evaluation of the effectiveness of a program’s ultimate outcomes.

ANS: True

5. The primary tenets of both evidence-based practice and of a scholarship of practice are that the most effective programs are designed using the best available evidence.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1

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6. The relationship between research and the development, implementation, and evaluation of programs of service should be continuous, rational, and linear.

ANS: False

7. A program logic model is a visual representation of the link between program goals, resources and activities, outputs, outcomes, and impact.

ANS: True

8. Regardless of how familiar or complex an intervention is, the process of developing and evaluating a program of service can be made easier if it is guided by sound principles that connect theory and research to practice.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1, B.8.3

Multiple Choice

9. Which of the following best describes the sequence of steps employed during program development?

A. Needs assessment, program planning, program implementation, and program evaluation B. Literature review, needs assessment, program implementation, and program evaluation C. Needs assessment, literature review, program planning, and program implementation D. Literature review, program planning, program implementation, and program evaluation ANS: A STD: B.7.5, B.7.6

10. Which of the following is not an outcome of integrating research methods into program development?

A. It provides formative data which may shape what services are provided B. It provides evidence about the effectiveness of services C. It provides evidence about the effectiveness of underlying theory being tested D. It provides for assessment of needed competencies ANS: D

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11. Which of the following does not correctly characterize the process of needs assessment as utilized for purposes of program development?

A. Needs assessment is a systematic set of procedures undertaken to make decisions about program improvements.

B. Needs assessment requires qualitative methods to identify and address a population’s perceived needs.

C. Needs assessment helps to determine what a group of persons, a community, or a population requires in order to achieve some basic standard or to improve their current situation.

D. Needs assessments can range from simple to complex depending on the characteristics of those who will receive services and the scope of planned services.

ANS: B STD: B.7.5

12. Which of the following is not one of the steps involved in the program planning process of program development?

A. Determining the type of service to be provided B. Enumerating resources needed to provide the services C. Initiating the delivery of the program or services D. Identifying how the services/program will be delivered ANS: C STD: B.7.5

13. When utilizing summative evaluation for program evaluation, which of the following is correct regarding how outcomes should be classified?

A. Outcomes may be classified in terms of short-term outcomes, intermediate outcomes, and/or long-term outcomes.

B. Outcomes may only be classified in terms of long-term outcomes.

C. Outcomes may only be classified in terms of intermediate outcomes.

D. Outcomes may only be classified in terms of short-term outcomes.

ANS: A

14. When choosing program evaluation designs, which of the following is a limitation of prepost measure design?

A. It is difficult to generalize to other similar populations (threats to external validity).

B. It does not show change over time.

C. It is not appropriate for simple, inexpensive, and/or standard interventions.

D. It is a complex method for evaluation.

ANS: A STD: B.8.5 Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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15. When choosing program evaluation designs, which of the following is a limitation of experimental design?

A. Does not show change over time.

B. Random assignment to groups is often not feasible in applied settings.

C. Does not offer controls for threats to internal and external validity.

D. Does not allow for cause-effect relationships to be identified.

ANS: B STD: B.8.5

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Chapter 30: Participatory Research Approaches

True/False

1. Participatory research seeks to empower participants to take a leadership role in the research process.

ANS: True

2. A stakeholder includes an individual who has something to gain or lose from the project, inquiry, or intervention being conducted.

ANS: True

3. The research–practice gap demonstrates the need for participatory research in occupational therapy.

ANS: True

4. To be involved with participatory action, stakeholders must bring specific expertise to the research process.

ANS: False

5. Researchers should encourage stakeholders to discuss their agendas in participatory research.

ANS: True

6. Participatory research should involve a dialogical process among constituents that leads to critical awareness.

ANS: True

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Multiple Choice 7. Which of the following is not a description of the tenets of participatory research?

A. Research should be conducted in a manner in which research subjects are not aware of the manipulated variable of study.

B. Respect and acknowledgement of the unique expertise and insights should be demonstrated to all those involved.

C. Individuals should be willing to step outside their usual roles and responsibilities.

D. There should be identification and remediation of sources of power imbalance, such as money and access to technology.

ANS: A STD: B.8.1 8. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of participatory research?

A. The setting in which research is conducted is where the knowledge to be generated is expected to have relevance.

B. Investigators should have as minimal a presence as possible, so as to not alter the typical behaviors of the participants involved.

C. Experimentation should allow the inquiry to generate new or modify existing services.

D. Stakeholders should be brought into a mutual dialogue with investigators to address issues of relevance to those involved.

ANS: B STD: B.8.1

9. Which of the following strategies would not be a manner for facilitating dialogue between practitioners, consumers, and researchers?

A. Listening sessions B. Public forums C. Placebo control groups D. Focus groups ANS: C

10. The process of participatory research may be recognized in six phases. Which of the following is not an example of one of the six phases?

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ANS: C STD: B.8.6

11. Which of the following is an example of an important question to ask during the “choosing the research design” phase?

A. How can the knowledge be disseminated to others?

B. How does the literature shed light on the problem?

C. What kinds of information do we want to generate about the problem and how the solutions work?

D. Will the data collection and analysis provide information that is both credible in the scientific community and relevant to making future decisions in the research setting?

ANS: D STD: B.8.6

12. Which of the following is an example of an important question to ask during the “developing service strategies” phase?

A. Are the service strategies working as anticipated?

B. Are the strategies appropriate given the situation and perspectives of the stakeholders involved?

C. How can we use the results to improve services, programs, and practice in general?

D. What are contextual and environmental factors affecting the problem?

ANS: B STD: B.8.6

13. Which of the following is an example of an important question to ask in the “reflection and utilization” phase?

A. How can the knowledge be disseminated to others?

B. Have efforts to implement the innovations in service been successful?

C. Will the analysis provide information that is both credible in the scientific community and relevant to making future decisions in the research setting?

D. How do different stakeholders view the problem?

ANS: A STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 31: Writing a Literature Review

True/False

1. A literature review should make apparent to the reader how the research represents a logical next step in building knowledge and/or how the research fills a critical gap in an area of knowledge.

ANS: True STD: B.8.6

2. An unsystematic review is a type of general literature review.

ANS: True

3. Scoping reviews are a type of general literature review.

ANS: False

4. The process for conducting a systematic review includes examining all articles against the preidentified criteria for relevance, inclusion, and exclusion.

ANS: True

5. Writers should allocate less optimal or smaller blocks of time for the more mundane or concrete aspects of writing.

ANS: True

6. The first step in mind-mapping is to identify the most important parts of the mind-map by assigning priorities to the information contained in it.

ANS: False

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Multiple Choice

7. Systematic reviews have all of the following characteristics except for which?

A. They are focused on evaluating the quality of all other research studies of a strictly defined scientific topic or question.

B. They are exhaustive and thorough in research effort.

C. They are focused on eliminating bias in the review by using an objective and transparent methodological approach to information synthesis.

D. They are presentations of new and advanced knowledge of the topic area.

ANS: D STD: B.8.2

8. Authors may choose to assign each study a rating of methodological quality according to certain criteria. All of the following are popular criteria used within occupational therapy literature except for: A. The Cochrane Collaboration criteria B. The Brown mind-mapping criteria C. The Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses criteria D. The Evidence for Policy and Practice Information and Coordinating Centre criteria ANS: B STD: B.8.2

9. Scoping reviews have all of the following characteristics except for which?

A. They collect as much evidence as possible in a broad clinical or policy-related area.

B. They do not address very specific questions or assess the quality of the studies that are included in the review.

C. They inform a range of study designs.

D. They act as a precursor to planned research or as an introduction to an executed study.

ANS: D STD: B.8.2

10. Which of the following is not a central aim of a general literature review?

A. To establish the impact and relevance of the research question.

B. To build a rationale for the proposed study to be conducted or reported.

C. To assess the quality of all other research studies of a defined scientific question.

D. To build a rationale for future research.

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ANS: C STD: B.8.6

11. Key strategies for anyone who wishes to become an effective research writer include all of the following except for which?

A. Mind-mapping and abstracting B. Discovering and developing one’s own writing style and habits C. Eliminating bias by using an objective and transparent methodological approach D. Drafting, sequencing, and rewriting ANS: C

12. Which of the following is not part of knowing one’s own writing patterns?

A. Rereading drafts at least once as a whole with an eye toward editing B. Paying attention to when one gets the most writing done C. Knowing at what time one has difficulty writing D. Utilizing one’s spare time as writing times, rather than scheduling time for writing ANS: D

13. Readers do not know what a writer knows, and thus a paper needs to be written and edited with the reader’s perspective in mind. This includes all of the following aspects of the reader except for which?

A. Their knowledge base B. Their interests C. Their political viewpoints D. Their expectations ANS: C

14. Critical appraisal of literature typically assists with all of the following except for which?

A. Refining a visual representation of the ideas to be contained in a paper B. Identifying the boundaries of the literature C. Evaluating the strengths of existing research approaches to studying the topic D. Illuminating the gaps in the current knowledge base and the way in which it has developed ANS: A STD: B.8.2

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Chapter 32: Disseminating Research: Presenting, Writing, and Publishing

True/False

1. Research dissemination shares knowledge with stakeholders so it can be used toward practical ends.

ANS: True

2. A critical part of research dissemination is to discuss the practice implications of the findings.

ANS: True STD: B.8.8

3. Dissemination allows others to judge how much confidence should be placed in findings, given the limits and flaws involved in the particular research process.

ANS: True

4. Researchers should be willing to share research findings in ways that are accessible to consumers only if the consumers participated in the research.

ANS: False

5. Participants do not need to be informed about researching findings.

ANS: False

6. Individuals who review papers submitted to journals are referred to as referees.

ANS: True

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7. Peer reviewers generally provide detailed feedback to the researcher.

ANS: True

8. Books are always peer reviewed.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

9. The dissemination of research findings for occupational therapy allows for all of the following except for?

A. Permitting criticism and replication B. Making information available to persons who make policies that impact the availability and delivery of occupational therapy services C. Making new information available to members of the profession to build and support evidence-based practice D. Allowing research producers to remain up-to-date on their research-producing skills ANS: D STD: B.8.8

10. Peer review for journal publication involves all of the following except for?

A. Review of full-length research papers written and submitted to the journal by the researcher B. Review by designated members of the journal’s editorial board or team of referees C. Assurance that submissions adhere to the journal’s requirements D. Review by an expert committee responsible for selection of the program content ANS: D

11. The most common ways of disseminating research to professional and scientific peers include all of the following except for?

A. Presentations and posters at conferences B. Peer-reviewed journal publications C. Consumer magazines D. Non-peer-reviewed journal publications ANS: C Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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STD: B.8.8

12. With regards to peer-reviewed journal publication wait times, a researcher should expect a realistic timeline of events. Which of the following is not a correct statement of estimated wait times?

A. Approximately 1 to 3 months from the time of submission to publication B. Approximately 2 to 3 months for initial feedback C. Approximately 6 to 12 months from the time of submission to publication D. Approximately 3 to 6 months after submission of a revised manuscript to receive additional feedback ANS: A 13. Non-peer-reviewed venues for dissemination include all of the following except for?

A. Newsletters B. Journals subject to review by a committee of experts C. Professional presentations D. Continuing education programs ANS: B STD: B.8.8

14. Choosing an approach for disseminating to participants depends on all of the following except for?

A. The nature of the research process B. The kind of information generated C. The prestige of the researcher D. The audience being addressed ANS: C

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Chapter 33: Writing a Grant Proposal

True/False

1. A grant is a specified amount of money given to an investigator via the investigator’s host institution for the purpose of education, training, and/or evaluation projects that often have a research component.

ANS: True

2. In developing a grant proposal, it is important to include planning analysis and letters of support.

ANS: True STD: B.8.9

3. A grant proposal is more likely to be accepted by a funding agency if it includes data that will impact many disciplines rather than only one or two.

ANS: True STD: B.8.9

4. Center grants allow investigators to build on existing knowledge about the efficacy of a given approach to service or programming.

ANS: False STD: B.8.9

5. Demonstration grants involve identifying multiple partners and collaborators, allowing participation with an activity on a related theme.

ANS: False STD: B.8.9

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6. When submitting for a grant, it is optional to include the investigator’s sponsoring university, clinic, or home institution.

ANS: False STD: B.8.9

7. Sponsoring institutions often have internal rules and regulations that govern the grant submission process.

ANS: True STD: B.8.9

Matching

Please match the following grants with their respective definitions.

A. Research grant B. Demonstration grant C. Training educational or professional development grant D. Center grant

8. A grant allowing an individual who is actively employed in a professional capacity to begin a career in research or to further develop research-related skills and contributions 9. A large grant involving several related projects that incorporate research, development, implementation, training, and dissemination activities 10. A grant allowing investigators to address scientific questions that will contribute to knowledge in a given topic area 11. A grant allowing investigators to develop, expand, and evaluate a specific set of healthcare services, a model program, or a particular methodological approach 8. ANS: C 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: A 11. ANS: B

STD: B.8.9 STD: B.8.9 STD: B.8.9 STD: B.8.9

Multiple Choice

12. Grant funds may be used by the investigator for all the following except: Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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A. Percentage of team members’ salaries B. Supplies and equipment C. Incentives to participants D. Travel expense not related to proposal study ANS: D

13. The grant proposal should include a list of co-investigators. Which of the following would not be included among this information?

A. The strengths and credentials of the team members B. The intellectual and physical resources required to complete the study and who might be available to meet those needs C. A list of the institution’s board of directors D. A list of other future personnel that might be needed to complete the study ANS: C STD: B.8.9

14. Being knowledgeable about the following can aid in determining whether a funding idea will be considered of high impact except for?

A. Politics B. Current events C. Legislative initiatives D. Conferences or symposia ANS: D STD: B.8.9

15. Which of the following is not a best practice in terms of matching your idea to the goals and priorities of the funding agency?

A. Periodically scan the Web and other resources for program announcements and/or funding agencies that reflect one’s area of interest.

B. Refine and define proposal ideas to match chosen potential agencies based on the information gathered.

C. Create a theoretical model for the study in line with the funding agency.

D. Consult relevant Web-based and other resources to develop a preliminary working list of possible funding agencies to approach.

ANS: C STD: B.8.9

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Chapter 34: Using Mixed-Methods Designs to Study Therapy and Its Outcomes

True/False

1. Naturalistic research traditions include experimental, post-positivist, and qualitative studies.

ANS: False

2. Triangulation is the practice of gathering data from a number of different sources for the purposes of detaching the method of measurement from the phenomenon being measured.

ANS: True

3. Mixed-methods design is a research design that integrates elements of both qualitative and quantitative methods so that the strengths of each are emphasized.

ANS: True

4. Mixed-methods design is a subset of multiple-methods designs.

ANS: True

5. Theoretical drive is the main reasoning process required for the purpose of a project (i.e., inductive or deductive).

ANS: True

6. A mixed-methods study may have more than one theoretical drive.

ANS: False

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7. “QUAL + quan” denotes a study that is primarily qualitative with a secondary sequential quantitative component.

ANS: False

8. In concurrent triangulation design, either the quantitative or the qualitative model must be designated as the core model.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

9. Morse offered four principles for a mixed-methods design. These include all of the following except for?

A. Recognize the theoretical drive of the project B. Adhere to the methodological assumptions of the core method C. Adhere to pragmatism D. Recognize the role of the imported models to the project ANS: C STD: B.8.6

10. Mixed-methods designs include which of the following?

A. Concurrent nested design B. Sequential triangulation design C. Sequential nested design D. Concurrent explanatory design ANS: A

11. What is not true about sequential transformative design?

A. This is a design where there are two separate and subsequent phases of data collection and analysis.

B. The design utilizes a clearly identified theoretical perspective to direct the research question toward change in policy, action, or ideology.

C. Either the quantitative model or the qualitative model can be used as the core model.

D. The theoretical drive is exclusively deductive.

ANS: D STD: B.8.6 Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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12. Which of the following is true about concurrent triangulation designs?

A. This is a design where both qualitative and quantitative data are gathered, and results are validated by virtue of having been confirmed through multiple data collection techniques.

B. This is a design where only qualitative data is gathered, and results are validated by virtue of having been confirmed through quantitative data collection techniques.

C. This is a design where only quantitative data is gathered, and results are validated by virtue of having been confirmed through qualitative data collection techniques.

D. This is a design where both qualitative and quantitative data are gathered, and results are validated by virtue of having been confirmed through quantitative data collection techniques.

ANS: A STD: B.8.6

13. Which of the following is true about sequential exploratory design?

A. An investigator first collects in-depth and nuanced information about a phenomenon using a qualitative tradition. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes quantitative data. The two approaches are analyzed separately.

B. An investigator first collects in-depth and nuanced information about a phenomenon using a quantitative tradition. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes qualitative data. The two approaches are analyzed separately.

C. An investigator first collects in-depth and nuanced information about a phenomenon using a qualitative tradition. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes quantitative data. The two approaches are analyzed simultaneously.

D. An investigator first collects in-depth and nuanced information about a phenomenon using a quantitative tradition. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes qualitative data. The two approaches are analyzed simultaneously.

ANS: A STD: B.8.6

14. Which of the following is true about sequential explanatory design?

A. An investigator first collects and analyzes core qualitative data used to explain or predict phenomena. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes quantitative data. The two approaches are analyzed separately.

B. An investigator first collects and analyzes core quantitative data used to explain or predict phenomena. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes qualitative data. The two approaches are analyzed separately.

C. An investigator first collects and analyzes core qualitative data used to explain or predict phenomena. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes quantitative data. The two approaches are analyzed simultaneously.

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D. An investigator first collects and analyzes core quantitative data used to explain or predict phenomena. Secondly, the investigator collects and analyzes qualitative data. The two approaches are analyzed simultaneously.

ANS: B STD: B.8.6

15. Which of the following is true about concurrent transformative design?

A. A core qualitative or quantitative method must be identified.

B. Methods must be nested.

C. Methods must be triangulated.

D. Methods may be either nested or triangulated.

ANS: D STD: B.8.6

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Chapter 35: Creating Outcomes Research for Evidence-Based Practice

True/False

1. An idea that is incompatible with the values and norms of a social system will not be adopted as rapidly as an innovation that is compatible.

ANS: True STD: B.8.1

2. Innovations that are perceived as more complicated will be adopted more slowly.

ANS: True STD: B.8.3

3. The easier it is for individuals to see the results of an innovation, the less likely they are to adopt.

ANS: False STD: B.8.3

4. The diffusion of innovations framework can be used to examine characteristics that, if present, would likely make research evidence be received more favorably by its potential users.

ANS: True STD: B.8.3

5. Individuals who interact with direct and indirect consumers on a regular basis (usually through close proximity in work, school, or social situations) are considered members of the extended community.

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ANS: False

6. Ecological validity is the degree to which results obtained in controlled experimental conditions are related to those obtained in naturalistic environments.

ANS: True

7. Verisimilitude is an important consideration with respect to the design of assessment instruments.

ANS: True

8. A social validation model involves the use of social significance to design and conduct outcomes research; thus, its aim is to increase its usability for practice.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

9. Which of the following would not be an example of a difficulty identified when attempting to use information from research articles in practice?

A. Failure to make clear the implications for practice in the research presentation B. Trialability of innovations C. Practitioners’ lack of skills in interpreting research evidence D. Difficulty understanding statistical analyses as presented ANS: B STD: B.8.1

10. Which of the following is not one of the main elements of the diffusion of innovations theory?

A. The innovation B. The communication channels Copyright © 2017 by F. A. Davis Company

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C. The community D. The social systems ANS: C

11. All of the following are characteristics of an innovation that could either facilitate or hinder the adoption of an innovation except for?

A. Validity B. Compatibility C. Observability D. Social validity ANS: D STD: B.8.1

12. Which of the following is not a research characteristic of the diffusion of innovations framework?

A. The design and conduct of research must be consistent with the needs of practitioners and/or OT consumers to increase compatibility.

B. The design and conduct of research must be consistent with the existing values of practitioners and/or OT consumers to increase compatibility.

C. The design and conduct of research must be consistent with the past experiences of practitioners and/or OT consumers to increase compatibility.

D. The design and conduct of research must be consistent with the social systems of practitioners and/or OT consumers to increase compatibility.

ANS: D

13. Which of the following is a true statement regarding outcomes research?

A. The research outcomes must demonstrate changes/improvement with a magnitude that is obvious to anyone, including the practitioners, to increase complexity.

B. The research outcomes must demonstrate changes/improvement with a magnitude that is obvious to anyone, including the practitioners, to increase observability.

C. Research must be presented in ways that make it easy to understand to reduce observability.

D. Research must be presented in ways that make it easy to use to increase observability.

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ANS: B STD: B.8.1

14. Which of the following is not an essential characteristic for occupational therapy (OT) investigators to consider in order to make outcomes research maximally relevant for evidence-based practice (EBP)?

A. Social validity B. Ecological validity C. Social significance D. Clinical significance ANS: C STD: B.8.1

15. When conducting research studies to increase compatibility, which of the following is not a method for involving both consumers and practitioners in establishing social validity?

A. The process of determining research questions B. The process of determining research treatment goals C. Intervention procedures D. Intervention performance ANS: D

16. Which of the following is a general aspect of ecological validity?

A. Veridicality B. Verifiability C. Verity D. Veritably ANS: A

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