Test Bank Intimate Relationships 9th Edition by Rowland Miller.

Intimate Relationships 9th Edition by Rowland Miller. tb

Intimate Relationships 9th Edition by Rowland Miller. tb

Intimate Relationships 9th Edition by Rowland Miller. tb

CHAPTER 1 1) One primary reason why solitary confinement may be so difficult is that it interferes with the satisfaction of our

A) B) C) D)

social needs. need for acceptance. esteem needs. physical needs.

2) Which of the following is not one of the ways in which casual relationships differ from intimate relationships?

A) B) C) D)

interdependence knowledge mutuality honesty

3) Sarah reveals to her boyfriend that she and her father are estranged. Which of the following characteristics of intimate relationships is illustrated by the preceding statement?

A) B) C) D)

mutuality care knowledge commitment

4) Jorge believes that he and his partner Suzie will be together forever. He invests a lot of time in their relationship. Which of the following characteristics of intimate relationships is illustrated in the preceding statements?

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A) B) C) D)

responsiveness trust knowledge commitment

5) As a participant in a research study, Chris is asked to describe his relationship with his partner. The researchers ask him to choose a pair of overlapping circles, representing him and his partner, that best describes the closeness in their relationship. In this scenario, which of the following components of intimate relationships is being assessed by the researchers?

A) B) C) D)

mutuality knowledge responsiveness commitment

6) We generally expect intimate relationships to be characterized by all of the following expectations except

A) B) C) D)

your partner will not unduly hurt you. your partnership will continue indefinitely. your partner will treat you fairly and honorably. your partner will stay the same.

7) Pauline and Hugh begin to address themselves as "us" rather than I and he/she. This change reflects the development of

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A) B) C) D)

8)

dependency. self-esteem. singlism. mutuality.

We are driven to establish and maintain intimacy with others to fulfill the need

A) B) C) D)

to belong. for dependency. for success. to please others.

9) In the context of the nature and importance of intimacy, when the need to belong is satisfied, the drive to form additional relationships is

A) B) C) D)

increased. reduced. developed. lost.

10) In the context of the nature and importance of intimacy, people with lives are at a risk for a wide variety of health problems.

A) B) C) D)

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in their

excessive mutuality excessive commitment insufficient intimacy insufficient responsiveness

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11) In the context of intimacy, the term " intimates need and influence each other.

A) B) C) D)

12)

Most children were born to parents married to each other.

Men and women married in their early 20s.

Most of the men and women cohabited before marriage.

Most women did not work outside the home.

Between 1960 and today, which aspect of marriage declined in the United States?

A) B) C) D)

14)

responsiveness interdependence mutuality commitment

Which of the following was not a characteristic of Americans in the 1960s?

A) B) C) D)

13)

" is used to refer to the extent to which

the importance of love within marriage the ratio of the population that gets married the average age at which people get married the divorce rate for people with less education

Which of the following situations is currently ordinary within the United States?

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A) B) C) D)

15)

Two-thirds of Americans are married by age 30.

Most preschool children have stay-at-home mothers.

Most young adults will live with a lover before marriage.

Most Americans rate their marriages as "not very happy."

On average, an American mother now has her first child

A) B) C) D)

after she gets married. before she gets married. by the age of 40. by the age of 50.

16) According to research conducted by Horowitz et al., most young adults now feel that it is desirable for a couple to live together before they get married so that

A) B) C) D)

they can avoid the chances of getting divorced. they can spend more time together. they do not have to make any commitments. they do not have health problems.

17) After encountering a single 45-year-old woman at her new job, Jonah says, "It's not normal that she's 45 and single. And I've heard it's unhealthy, too." Jonah's attitude is an example of

A) B) C) D)

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singlism. individualism. avoidance motivation. excessive mutuality.

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18)

In contrast to those who do not cohabitate, individuals who cohabitate are more likely to

A) B) C) D)

have a long-lasting marriage. encounter infidelity. stay together. have a positive attitude toward marriage.

19) Which of the following factors has influenced the nature of close relationships in the United States since 1960?

A) B) C) D)

Increasing individualism has influenced the nature of close relationships.

Socioeconomic development has influenced the nature of close relationships.

Technological developments have influenced the nature of close relationships.

All of these answers are correct.

20) When cultures shift from having an approximately equal ratio of marriageable men and women to having a high sex ratio, family roles will likely become traditional and sexual standards become permissive.

A) B) C) D)

21)

less; less less; more more; less more; more

A count of the number of men for every 100 women in a population is called

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A) B) C) D)

the sex ratio. the gender ratio. the gender schema. the male/female count.

22) Forty years from now a survey says that there are currently more men than women in a nation. What prediction will this survey make about the social climate?

A) B) C) D)

Women will be encouraged to work outside the home.

Women will be discouraged to work outside the home.

Unmarried motherhood will be an option, and more people will get married.

Women will be allowed or encouraged to have sex outside of marriage.

23) As described in the textbook, Victorian England had a Roaring Twenties a sex ratio.

A) B) C) D)

24)

sex ratio and the

low; high high; low low; low high; high

The idea of attachment styles was originally developed while working with

A) B) C) D)

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young adults. adolescents. infants. middle-aged adults.

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Attachment styles are thought to be primarily the result of

A) B) C) D)

26)

genetic predispositions. early childhood experiences. social cognitions. sex differences.

Identify a true statement about the need to belong.

A) Holding a lover's hand increases the brain's alarm in response to threatening situations.

B) Pain seems less potent when one simply looks at a photograph of a loving partner.

C) When they're lonely, older adults have stronger immune responses.

D) People who have many friends have high mortality rates.

27) What caused researchers to consider attachment styles as an important aspect of the close relationships of adults?

A) B) C) D)

Hazan and Shaver's Denver survey Bartholomew's ideas about four categories of attachment style Bowlby's interest in young children's actions toward their caregivers Brennan and colleagues' development of a short attachment style measure

28) Joanne endorses the statement, "I want to be completely emotionally intimate with others, but I often find that others are reluctant to get close to me. I sometimes worry that others do not value me as much as I value them." Which of the following attachment styles does Joanne's statement reflect?

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A) B) C) D)

avoidant dismissing secure preoccupied

29) According to Bartholomew, people with a with others isn't worth the trouble.

A) B) C) D)

30)

secure dismissing fearful preoccupied

Fearfully attached individuals are characterized as being

A) B) C) D)

31)

attachment style feel that intimacy

comfortable with closeness and low in anxiety about abandonment. comfortable with closeness and high in anxiety about abandonment. uncomfortable with closeness and low in anxiety about abandonment. uncomfortable with closeness and high in anxiety about abandonment.

The two themes that underlie the four attachment styles described by Bartholomew are

A) B) C) D)

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avoidance of intimacy and anxiety about abandonment. avoidance of intimacy and concern for the well-being of others. the need to belong and anxiety about abandonment. the need to belong and concern for the well-being of others.

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32)

What do recent studies suggest about the labels we use in describing attachment?

A) The labels are widely and correctly used.

B) It is better to describe people regarding their relative standing on dimensions of anxiety and avoidance.

C) Labels should be thought of as describing distinct categories that have nothing in common.

D) Labeling relationships is generally useless.

33)

One of the characteristics of the anxious-ambivalent attachment style is that children

A) B) C) D)

learn that other people are trustworthy sources of security. develop fretful, mixed feelings about others. withdraw from others. learn that little good comes from depending on others.

34) Sebastian is a single man. He has never been in a long-term relationship and feels uncomfortable getting close to others. He wants to be in a close relationship but has trouble trusting the women he dates. He is afraid of getting hurt if he gets too close to anyone emotionally. Which of the following attachment styles is Sebastian likely to have?

A) B) C) D)

secure attachment style dismissing attachment style preoccupied attachment style fearful attachment style

35) Differences between individuals within a given sex are usually the differences between men and women.

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in relation to

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A) B) C) D)

36)

large inaccurate small vague

In terms of the number of sex partners, a highly active man has more in common with on this trait than he does with .

A) B) C) D)

a low-scoring woman; an average woman a low-scoring man; an average woman an average woman; a low-scoring man an average man; a high-scoring woman

37) Sex differences refer to men and women.

A) B) C) D)

38)

, while gender differences refer to

between

biological differences; social and psychological distinctions social and psychological distinctions; biological differences behavioral differences; biological differences social differences; behavioral differences

As parents, women are mothers and men are fathers. This is an example of

A) B) C) D)

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a sex difference. a gender difference. singlism. individualism.

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39)

Which of the following items is an example of a gender difference?

A) B) C) D)

any difference in physical appearance between men and women the belief that men are assertive while women are compassionate the male tendency to have more intimate partners than women do the male preference for savory foods and female preference for sweet foods

40) Alonzo seems to possess both well-developed emotional skills and task-oriented talents.

Alonzo can be considered

A) B) C) D)

41)

The concept of androgyny assumes that

A) B) C) D)

42)

androgynous. masculine. feminine. undifferentiated.

masculinity and femininity are opposites. masculine and feminine qualities are separate traits. men are inevitably masculine and women are inevitably feminine. biology is the source of all gender differences.

Which of the following traits is an instrumental trait?

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A) B) C) D)

43)

warmth compassion tenderness decisiveness

Identify the expressive trait among the following traits.

A) B) C) D)

self-reliance ambition leadership compassion

44) Couples in which both partners follow the traditional gender roles (i.e., the man is masculine and the woman is feminine) tend to have

A) B) C) D)

45)

higher compassion. higher marital satisfaction. lower marital satisfaction. lower self-reliance.

According to Marshall, married couples are likely to be the happiest when

A) B) C) D)

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each partner conforms to traditional gender roles. one of the partners is androgynous. both partners score high in expressiveness and instrumentality. one of the partners exhibits singlism.

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46) According to the Big Five personality traits, people with high scores in have more pleasant relationships.

A) B) C) D)

47)

should

extraversion, agreeableness, and conscientiousness neuroticism and openness to new experiences agreeableness, neuroticism, and conscientiousness conscientiousness and openness to new experiences

Which of the following Big Five personality traits is the most influential in relationships?

A) B) C) D)

conscientiousness negative emotionality extraversion agreeableness

48) Which of the following Big Five personality traits represents the extent to which people are gregarious and assertive versus cautious and shy?

A) B) C) D)

49)

conscientiousness agreeableness neuroticism extraversion

John says, "I feel really good about myself." John can be said to possess high

A) B) C) D)

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extraversion. self-sufficiency. agreeableness. self-esteem.

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50)

Which of the following statements is true about self-esteem?

A) Self-esteem is an evolved mechanism that serves one's need to belong.

B) Events that involve interpersonal rejection damage one's self-esteem in a way that other disappointments do.

C) Private events affect one's self-esteem more than public events witnessed by others.

D) People with high self-esteem most often sabotage their relationships by underestimating their partner's love for them.

51) on a phone.

A) B) C) D)

occurs when one partner in an intimate relationship snubs another by focusing

Technoference Instrumentality Phubbing Expressivity

52) Which theory considers self-esteem to be a subjective gauge of the quality of our relationships?

A) B) C) D)

53)

attachment theory life history theory sexual strategies theory sociometer theory

The key factor for organisms in evolution is

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A) B) C) D)

reproduction. survival. relationships. physical advantages.

54) The time, energy, and resources one must provide to one's offspring to reproduce is termed

A) B) C) D)

55)

parental investment. reproduction. evolution. conscientiousness.

Paternity uncertainty refers to

A) B) C) D)

a man's uncertainty about whether a child of his partner is his. a woman's uncertainty about who the father of her child is. a child's dilemma in identifying his/her father. the uncertainty couples face in knowing whether a child was conceived.

56) Which of the following considers paternity uncertainty a key factor in close relationships?

A) B) C) D)

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attachment to offspring self-belonging evolutionary psychology agreeableness

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57)

Observation of the interaction between partners in relationships reveals

A) that relationships are more than the sum of their parts.

B) the relationships that adequately capture their essence.

C) the inherently positive nature of relationships.

D) that there are divorce-prone people who are likely to have marital problems regardless of whom they select as a partner.

58) According to the text, which of the following is NOT a risk that we take in close relationships?

A) B) C) D)

loss of autonomy and control worry about abandonment revealing secrets shared in confidence sex differences

59) According to Bowlby's research on attachment styles, children who received responsive care and protection were most likely to develop a(n) attachment style.

A) B) C) D)

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ambivalent secure avoidant anxious

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_9e 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) D 59) B

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CHAPTER 2 1) Which of the following statements does not provide a reason for understanding the methods behind relationship science?

A) Much of popular relationship advice is simply made up.

B) Personal experiences are more important for understanding relationships than statistics.

C) There are too many charlatans and imposters in the relationship advice field.

D) Sound relationship research has an important influence on behavior in the real world.

2)

Most relationship science studies

A) B) C) D)

3)

were conducted in the Age of Enlightenment. were conducted in the mid-1850s. were conducted in the early 1930s. have been conducted in the last 55 years.

Beginning in the 1960s and 1970s, relationship studies started to

A) B) C) D)

emphasize laboratory experiments. be increasingly criticized as a pseudoscience. move away from a data-driven focus. employ virtual reality tools to gather data.

4) The work of Donn Byrne and his colleagues in the 1960s on attitude similarity in liking is important in the history of relationship science because it demonstrated that

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A) B) C) D)

5)

relationships can be studied rigorously in the laboratory. relationships cannot be studied through methodical procedures alone. personal diaries are an important tool in relationship research. personal diaries are misleading in relationship research.

Which of the following is a characteristic of research in relationship science?

A) Both the pleasant and unpleasant aspects of relationships are studied by researchers.

B) Researchers have not been able to use sophisticated technology when studying relationships.

C) Researchers studying relationship science use only college students as their samples.

D) Researchers studying relationship science typically concentrate on romantic relationships.

6)

Which of the following is true of relationship science today?

A) B) C) D)

It uses diverse samples of people.

It studies relationships over long periods of time.

It examines various types of relationships.

All of these answers are correct.

7) Why is Art Aron and his colleagues' research at Stony Brook University important in the field of relationship science?

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A) The researchers are able to understand the individual influences that underlie enjoyable interactions.

B) The structures in the brain that regulate love are being mapped for the first time.

C) The project takes specific note of the influences of social and economic conditions on marital satisfaction.

D) The researchers are able to inspect the building blocks of real romantic chemistry as people pursue new mates.

8) Which of the following types of research questions seeks to determine if an event has a meaningful effect on a subsequent outcome?

A) B) C) D)

9)

causal exploratory explicit implicit

Which of the following is not cited in the textbook as a source of research questions?

A) B) C) D)

personal experience social problems previous research popular literature

10) A researcher who decides to study domestic violence because of a sudden increase in incidents of abuse is obtaining his/her research question from

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A) B) C) D)

11)

personal experience. a social problem. previous research. the theories of relationships.

The two broad types of questions relationship researchers ask are

A) those that describe events as they naturally occur and those that seek to establish causal connections.

B) those that address social problems and those that seek to build theories.

C) those that seek to describe the status quo and those whose purpose it is to effect change in a situation.

D) those involving romantic partnerships and those addressing all other types of relationships.

12) Which type of sample is selected to reflect the demographic characteristics of the population of interest?

A) B) C) D)

convenience samples representative samples random samples cumulative samples

13) Which of the following types of samples are defined as samples that are composed of anyone who is readily available and consents to participate in a research study?

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A) B) C) D)

cumulative samples random samples representative samples convenience samples

14) The demographic characteristics of her married subjects are not important for Mary's research question—she will accept anyone who is willing to participate. Which sample is most appropriate for her research on intimate relationships?

A) B) C) D)

representative sample random sample convenience sample cumulative sample

15) For a project in her statistics class, Jody goes to the mall to ask people questions about their relationships. Jody is using a(n)

A) B) C) D)

16)

convenience sample. representative sample. unethical research procedure. longitudinal procedure.

As suggested in the textbook, convenience samples are

A) never helpful in answering research questions.

B) acceptable when we are examining the fundamental aspects of the ways humans react to each other.

C) unethical as participants are often not informed that they are part of a research study.

D) more reliable than representative samples.

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17) Samantha posted an advertisement on the Internet requesting single mothers to participate in a research study on single parenting. She found that those who signed up for the study were better educated and earned a higher income than average. This demonstrates

A) B) C) D)

volunteer bias. experimenter bias. ingroup bias. negativity bias.

18) The idea that individuals willing to participate in a research study may be different from those who do not is due to

A) B) C) D)

volunteer bias. convenience bias. correlational bias. research bias.

19) As the outdoor temperature increases, the sale of ice cream also increases. Outdoor temperature and ice cream sales

A) B) C) D)

are negatively correlated. are positively correlated. are not correlated. definitely have a causal connection.

20) Jamilla is doing a research project. Her research question applies to whether the number of college prep classes one takes in high school is related to the number of dates one has during high school. What type of design is she most likely to use?

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A) B) C) D)

correlational design experimental design developmental design variable design

21) A negative correlation between scores of love and marital satisfaction in a particular study would show that

A) B) C) D)

love scores increase as satisfaction scores increase. love scores decrease as satisfaction scores decrease. love scores decrease as satisfaction scores increase. love scores increase as satisfaction scores remain unchanged.

22) You find a correlation between parenting attitudes and compatibility. This study can tell us all of the following points except which one?

A) B) C) D)

whether parenting attitudes cause a couple to be compatible whether the relationship between attitudes and compatibility is positive or negative the strength of the relationship between attitudes and compatibility whether there is a relationship between attitudes and compatibility

23) You find a positive correlation between sexual behavior and scores of affection; all of the following situations are possible except which one?

A) B) C) D)

Frequent sexual behavior leads to increased feelings of affection.

Increased feelings of affection lead to more frequent sexual behavior.

Feelings of love cause both sexual behavior and feelings of affection to increase.

The correlation is illusory; the two are unrelated.

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24)

Which designs provide the most clear and definitive tests of causal connections?

A) B) C) D)

25) that

correlational designs experimental designs variable designs cross-sectional designs

A major drawback in using experimental designs in research on intimate relationships is

A) many important aspects of relationships (factors) cannot be manipulated.

B) they do not tell us about causal connections between variables.

C) appropriate samples are never possible to obtain.

D) they are unethical because they require the manipulation of intimate aspects of relationships.

26)

Which of the following is the most common means of studying intimate relationships?

A) B) C) D)

27)

archival records experience sampling functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) self-reports

In relationship studies, self-reports can be obtained through

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A) B) C) D)

28)

verbal interviews. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). electronically activated recorders. the social media profiles of the participants.

A disadvantage of self-report data is that

A) they do not allow researchers to get an inside look at an experience from the person's point of view.

B) they are expensive and difficult to obtain.

C) people may misinterpret a researcher's instructions or questions.

D) the data must later be coded into a form that is usable.

29)

An advantage of self-report data is that

A) they help in accurately recording participants' memories of incidents from many years ago.

B) they increase the reliability of subjective data.

C) they are inexpensive and easy to obtain.

D) they reduce the chance of bias in the responses of participants.

30)

Even when answered truthfully, self-reports may still be inaccurate because

A) B) C) D)

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they often lack reliability. it is difficult to gather them effectively. most people are reluctant to participate in research studies. people don't always understand their own actions.

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31) A research participant's distortion of his or her real desires or actions in an attempt to make a good impression is known as

A) B) C) D)

social desirability bias. self-serving bias. sampling bias. volunteer bias.

32) A couple who participated in a study on personal finance reported the new monthly expenditures far less than their actual expenditures. This is an example of

A) B) C) D)

negativity bias. ingroup bias. social desirability bias. hindsight bias.

33) Researchers use a sample in order to ensure that, collectively, their participants resemble the entire population of people who are of interest.

A) B) C) D)

34)

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convenience representative snowball quota

provide straightforward information about causes and their effects.

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A) B) C) D)

Correlations Self-reports Experiments Observations

35) uses intermittent, short periods of observation to capture samples of behavior—slices of life—in real time as they actually occur.

A) B) C) D)

Sociometer Ecological momentary assessment Functional magnetic resonance imaging Immersive virtual realities

36) Which of the following terms refers to a calculation of how likely it is that the results of an experiment could have occurred by chance?

A) B) C) D)

Statistical significance Meta-analysis Replication Reactivity

37) You want to videotape the interactions between two partners. Your study is most likely to be affected by which of the following factors?

A) B) C) D)

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experimenter bias reactivity lack of validity bystander effect

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38)

Which type of study is most vulnerable to reactivity?

A) B) C) D)

39)

an archival study a self-report a case study an observational study

An example of employing a physiological measure in research is

A) B) C) D)

observing people in their natural settings. using electronically activated recorders (EARs). assessing heart rates. counting the number of smiles during an interaction.

40) For his research study, Will looks at U.S. Census data from 1920, 1940, 1960, and 1980.

He is using

A) B) C) D)

archival information. correlational data. experience sampling. laboratory data.

41) One way that researchers ensure the ethical treatment of participants in close relationships studies is to

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A) avoid having them discuss intimate processes.

B) avoid concealing participants' identities.

C) provide detailed information before beginning the study and allow for voluntary consent.

D) pay them or adequately compensate them for their participation.

42)

Relationship scientists have noted that participants in studies of intimate partner violence

A) B) C) D)

often have positive reactions. are often distressed. often feel exploited after the study concludes. often feel inadequately compensated for their participation.

43) Which of the following is the best description of what we mean when we say something is statistically significant?

A) B) C) D)

The findings are important.

It is unlikely the results were simply due to chance.

The results will be significant for society.

The findings are true.

44) One of the challenges of relationship research is dealing with three sources of influence.

These three sources are

A) B) C) D)

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the two individuals and society. the couple and their two sets of parents. the two individuals and their peer group. the two individuals and their idiosyncratic partnership.

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45)

Relationship studies involve all of the following research challenges except

A) obtaining data that is not independent—the response of one member of a couple may influence the other member's response.

B) lack of certainty—statistical significance points to probabilities, not absolute truths.

C) dealing with a combination of influences—the two individuals and the idiosyncratic partnership they share.

D) lack of usefulness—research only applies to the couples studied, and only in rare cases can it be generalized to others.

46)

What are meta-analyses?

A) B) C) D)

47)

They are studies that statistically combine the results from several prior studies.

They are equations used to compute the size of a sample.

They are statistical tests used to compare the results of two experiments or studies.

They are statistical projections that predict how certain trends will continue.

To understand relationship trends from numerous studies over time, one would use

A) B) C) D)

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convenience samples. meta-analysis. structural equation modeling. traditional research reviews.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_9e 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) B

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CHAPTER 3 1) Donna's husband often brings her flowers, leaves her little love notes, and buys her expensive jewelry. These are all examples of in her relationship with her husband.

A) B) C) D)

reciprocity indirect rewards complementarity direct rewards

2) Analisa has three brothers. Her best friend, Jordan, also has three brothers, and they bonded over this fact when they met for the first time. In this case, Analisa was most likely experiencing in her relationship with Jordan.

A) B) C) D)

3)

an indirect reward a direct reward complementarity reciprocity

In the context of attraction, the instrumentality perspective proposes that

A) most people do not expect anything when they enter a relationship.

B) people are attracted to others based on the extent to which they help them fulfill their goals.

C) relationships and their dynamics are heavily dependent on cultural forces.

D) direct rewards are more fulfilling than indirect rewards in a relationship.

4) In Festinger, Schachter, and Back's (1950) study of students living in campus housing at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), they found that those most likely to be friends were living

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A) B) C) D)

one door away from each other. one floor away from each other. one building away from each other. in no predictable location.

5) Repeated contact with someone usually increases our liking for him or her. This concept is known as .

A) B) C) D)

6)

reciprocity the mere exposure effect complementarity reactance

Which concept opposes the notion "familiarity breeds contempt"?

A) B) C) D)

the mere exposure effect the cohort effect out-group bias justification of effort

7) On average, which of the following is likely when people who have met online get together in person for the first time?

A) They find each other more appealing than they did online.

B) They are mildly disappointed, and their liking for each other goes down.

C) Men are more likely than women to find the meeting better than their online interaction.

D) Women are more likely than men to find the meeting better than their online interaction.

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8)

Which of the following is an example of an indirect benefit in a romantic relationship?

A) B) C) D)

9)

showing interest in other's likes and dislikes resemblance to oneself being witty physical attractiveness

What does research suggest about the phrase "absence makes the heart grow fonder"?

A) B) C) D)

True. Long-distance relationships are more costly but more rewarding.

False. Long-distance relationships are more costly and less rewarding.

True. Long-distance relationships are less costly but more rewarding.

False. Long-distance relationships are less costly and less rewarding.

10) Festinger, Schachter, and Back conducted a study on friendship choices in campus housing at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) in 1950. Which of the following aspects of attraction does this study demonstrate?

A) B) C) D)

11)

similarity proximity physical attractiveness reciprocity

Which statement is valid regarding cross-cultural attitudes toward beauty?

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A) People all over the world show agreement on facial characteristics they consider attractive.

B) Infants agree with adults on who is attractive.

C) People who are considered attractive are likely to be more popular than people who are not considered attractive.

D) All of these answers are true.

12)

Which of the following is true of our conceptions of beauty?

A) Young children have no conception of beauty; they respond to "beautiful" and "unattractive" faces similarly.

B) There is no consensus of beauty across ethnic groups; Asians, Hispanics, and African Americans disagree about what is beautiful.

C) In women, feminine and youthful features are commonly viewed as beautiful across cultures and ethnic groups.

D) Computer "averages" of a number of faces are more unattractive than any single face that makes up the composite.

13)

Which of the following features do men generally consider attractive in women?

A) B) C) D)

14)

Strong jaws A big nose Small eyes Prominent cheekbones

What is physically attractive in men (as judged by women)

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A) depends partly on the woman's menstrual cycle.

B) is similar to what is physically attractive in women, namely, large eyes, small nose, small chin, and full lips.

C) is more dependent on culture than what is attractive in women.

D) matters little to women in their choices because women don't care much about physical attractiveness.

15)

In men, the most physically attractive waist-to-hip ratio is

A) 0.9.

B) 0.8.

C) 0.7.

D) 0.6.

16)

Which of the following features is considered more attractive all over the world?

A) B) C) D)

17)

a large chin a large nose wide cheeks large eyes

Across cultures, a woman is considered more attractive when she has

A) B) C) D)

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long eyelashes a narrow smile thin lips inconspicuous cheekbones

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18) Which of the following is true when a culture's food supply is unreliable and people are hungry?

A) B) C) D)

Short men are considered more attractive than tall men.

Highly educated men are considered more attractive than less-educated men.

Heavy women are considered more attractive than slender women.

Tall women are considered more attractive than short women.

19) Research shows that judgments about who is pretty.

A) B) C) D)

20)

work together to shape our collective

human nature; environmental conditions human nature; biology emotional love; environmental conditions human nature; pop culture

The biggest influence on one's liking for another in speed dating is the potential partner's .

A) B) C) D)

21)

and

wealth political attitude education level outward appearance

Which of the following is true of attractive people?

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A) B) C) D)

22) from

They are less trusting of other people than less attractive people.

They tend to get more dates than less attractive people.

They tend to be more socially skilled than less attractive people.

They are less lonely than unattractive people.

Peter is very attractive. He is more likely to believe a complimentary work evaluation

A) B) C) D)

an off-site colleague who has never seen him before. a male colleague. a subordinate. an equally attractive female colleague.

23) Research suggests that physically attractive people are flattering evaluations than unattractive people.

A) B) C) D)

24)

complimentary,

more likely to believe less likely to believe more likely to give less likely to give

In established romantic relationships, people are likely to end up with partners who are

A) B) C) D)

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as attractive as they are. more attractive than they are. less attractive than they are. in no particular pattern with respect to attractiveness.

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25)

The physical attractiveness matching process in relationships

A) is less obvious in long-term, committed relationships.

B) seems to operate as a screening mechanism whereby people end up with others who will have them in return.

C) is less pronounced when one person in the couple has average looks.

D) All of these answers are correct.

26) Joe is a moderately attractive man. He is dating three women. Penelope is a very attractive woman, Susanna is moderately attractive, and Wanda is relatively unattractive. All else being equal, who is he most likely to end up with?

A) Penelope. Attractive women tend to end up with men less attractive than they are.

B) Susanna. People tend to end up with those who match them in attractiveness.

C) Wanda. Men of moderate attractiveness tend to end up with women less attractive than they are.

D) We don't know. There is no strong connection between the attractiveness of one partner and the attractiveness of the other partner.

27) relationships.

A) B) C) D)

28)

is the pattern of people of similar levels of attractiveness establishing romantic

Love Proximity Reciprocity Matching

Liking those who like us is known as

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A) B) C) D)

tit-for-tat. reciprocity. propinquity. similarity.

29) Which of the following formulas describes how individuals evaluate a potential partner's desirability?

A) B) C) D)

His/Her Level of Extraversion + His/Her Probability of Accepting the Individual His/Her Physical Attractiveness × His/Her Probability of Accepting the Individual Amount of Time Spent So Far × His/Her Probability of Accepting the Individual Number of Mutual Friends + His/Her Probability of Accepting the Individual

30) There is an attractive woman in Liam's sociology class whom he would like to ask out on a date. He is more likely to do so if

A) B) C) D)

31)

he has a secure attachment style. he perceives that she is more financially well-off than him. he thinks she'll say yes. she plays hard to get.

Cute opening lines work

A) B) C) D)

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on men and

on women.

well; poorly well; equally well poorly; well poorly; poorly

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32)

In speed dating, the most desirable people are usually

A) B) C) D)

33)

the most outgoing. the least discriminating. already taken. the choosiest and most discriminating.

Which of the following is true about playing "hard to get"?

A) Individuals who appear aloof and largely uninterested are most likely to get dates.

B) Individuals who are selectively hard to get—an easy catch for a desired partner but difficult for everyone else to catch—are most attractive to their desired partner.

C) Playing hard to get is always a bad strategy; those who are hard to get have few dates.

D) Some individuals find those who are hard to get interesting; others don't. The success of the strategy depends on the personality of the other person.

34)

Similarity in which of the following factors increases the chances of liking a person?

A) B) C) D)

Attitude similarity increases the chances of liking a person.

Demographic similarity increases the chances of liking a person.

Similarity in values increases the chances of liking a person.

All of these answers are correct.

35) Alex is a strong Republican from South Dakota with a bachelor's degree in business. He enjoys fishing and snowmobiling. He's generally a happy person, with some tendencies toward an avoidant attachment style. Which of the following women is he likely to form a relationship with?

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A) He is likely to form a relationship with Sally from North Dakota. She is a Republican who majored in economics in college. She enjoys snowmobiling and has an attachment style best described as avoidant.

B) He is likely to form a relationship with June from Alabama. She is a Republican who majored in art history. She's never been on a snowmobile in her life (and doesn't want to be). She tends to be a bit of a pessimist and would best be described as anxiously attached.

C) He is likely to form a relationship with Lucy from California. She is a Democrat. She did not complete college, hates fishing, and tends to be a bit of a grumpy person.

D) None of these women are likely to appeal to Alex.

36)

Which of the following statements about male attractiveness is true?

A) Higher levels of progesterone in women are associated with higher preference for masculine features in men.

B) Single women find rugged, manly features to be more attractive.

C) Men with "feminized" faces are less attractive to women.

D) Women find men with strong jaws and broad foreheads less attractive.

37)

Which of the following is true of how people evaluate their similarity to others?

A) Most people can tell, with a high degree of accuracy, how similar they are to a potential romantic partner within the first couple of minutes of meeting the other person.

B) Even after years of marriage, people tend to think they have less in common with each other than they really do.

C) The more two people overestimate their similarity, the less likely it is that they will form a long-term relationship.

D) People's perceptions of how much they have in common affect their attraction to each other more than their actual similarity does.

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38) In the discussion of close relationships, the concept of "fatal attraction" has been used to refer to

A) some people's chronic tendency to pick the wrong partners.

B) attraction to partners who are abusive and physically violent.

C) attraction that becomes enmeshing and gets partners too involved with each other.

D) qualities that are initially a source of attraction but become obnoxious and irritating with time.

39)

According to the stimulus-value-role theory, role compatibility

A) B) C) D)

is important from the outset of the relationship. is important even before the relationship begins. becomes important after one is attracted but before values have been discussed. becomes important after attraction and similar beliefs have been established.

40) According to the stimulus-value-role theory, which of the following are couples most likely to discover last?

A) B) C) D)

whether they find each other physically attractive whether they share the same taste in music whether they like the same type of food where they would like to settle down

41) In the stimulus-value-role theory of attraction, agreement on parenting, careers, and life tasks become important

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A) B) C) D)

42)

last in the development of relationships. first in the development of relationships. in the middle of the development of relationships. throughout the development of relationships.

Dissimilarity is often particularly attractive in a partner when it

A) B) C) D)

represents a taboo. relates to our ideal self. makes us feel attractive. makes us look better by contrast.

43) In which of the following aspects are similarities most conducive to the long-term success of a relationship?

A) B) C) D)

income age personality gender roles

44) Partners who are obviously dissimilar, such as an old rich man with a beautiful young woman

A) prove that sometimes opposites do attract.

B) are actually matching in a broad sense by trading one asset for another.

C) illustrate the fact that some people can overcome the tendency toward matching given the right incentive.

D) are actually extremely rare.

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45)

Identify a true statement about physical attractiveness.

A) Attractive women tend to spend more time interacting with men than less attractive women.

B) Others are more likely to lie to less attractive people than to attractive people.

C) The marriages of attractive people tend to be more unstable than those of less attractive people.

D) There is no correlation overall between a man's looks and the amount of time he spends interacting with women.

46)

The idea of complementarity shows that

A) B) C) D)

47)

in several cases, opposites do attract. assertive people often prefer submissive partners. partners can use their different skills to the couple's advantage. warm and humorous people often prefer partners who are aloof.

Regarding short-term mates,

A) men are less selective than women.

B) women are less selective than men.

C) both men and women are less selective than when choosing long-term mates.

D) both men and women are quite selective because even short-term affairs contribute to happiness and fulfillment.

48) When seeking long-term mates, women look for men who show mates, women look for men who show .

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. In short-term

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A) B) C) D)

49)

warmth, loyalty, and status; physical attractiveness physical attractiveness; warmth, loyalty, and status physical attractiveness; physical attractiveness popularity and vitality; loyalty and kindness

Research shows that the most attractive waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) of women is

A) 0.9.

B) 1.0.

C) 0.7.

D) 0.1.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_9e 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) C

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CHAPTER 4 1) The processes of perception, interpretation, belief, and memory with which we evaluate and understand ourselves and other people are described by the term .

A) B) C) D)

social cognition nonverbal understanding social work expectancy theory

2) Dr. Li studies the way romantic partners think about their relationships and the perceptions they have about one another. Dr. Li is doing research in the area of

A) B) C) D)

3)

classical conditioning. associative learning. social cognition. elaboration theory.

Researchers have found that first impressions

A) have almost no effect on later feelings or behavior.

B) have an effect immediately, but the influence is for a very short term (fades within hours).

C) are always wrong; we know they are wrong, so we don't tend to use them later on.

D) have an effect on feelings or behavior months after the initial impression was made.

4)

It only takes us

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to form an impression of someone's attractiveness.

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A) B) C) D)

33 milliseconds 10 seconds a minute half an hour

5) People often judge their lovers with possible light.

A) B) C) D)

6)

that portray their partners in the best

self-serving biases positive illusions growth beliefs self-fulfilling prophecies

People tend to assume that men whose faces are wide and short are more likely to be than those whose faces are narrower and taller.

A) B) C) D)

religious hardworking prejudiced short-tempered

7) is the trait of readily adjusting one's behavior to fit the varying norms of different situations.

A) B) C) D)

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Self-monitoring Self-perception Self-concept Self-verification

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8) The tendency of the first information we receive about others to carry special weight in shaping our overall impressions of them is known as

A) B) C) D)

associative meaning. hindsight bias. the primacy effect. the priming effect.

9) On an application, a potential employee comes across as a friendly person. While talking to references before you meet her, you ask questions that probe for information that this expectation is correct. This is an example of

A) B) C) D)

10)

the fundamental attribution error. the primacy effect. confirmation bias. self-monitoring.

The tendency to seek out information that will support our beliefs is known as

A) B) C) D)

overconfidence. the confirmation bias. the primacy effect. process loss.

11) Researchers have found that people were their partner early in a relationship and they became

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in assessing the HIV risk status of as the relationship developed.

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A) B) C) D)

fairly accurate; even more accurate overconfident; even more overconfident overconfident; more accurate fairly accurate; erroneous

12) Over time, in a developing relationship, accuracy with regard to the sexual history of the partner and confidence .

A) B) C) D)

13)

Research on our judgments of others suggests that we

A) B) C) D)

14)

increases; remains the same remains the same; increases remains the same; remains the same increases; increases

make fewer errors in our judgments of others than we realize. have a good estimate of the number of errors we make in judging others. make more errors in our judgments of others than we realize.

None of these answers is correct.

At which stage of a relationship are existing beliefs likely to be the most influential?

A) B) C) D)

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dating commitment marriage every stage

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15)

Who are the best predictors of the future of a relationship?

A) B) C) D)

both partners outsiders (e.g., the partners' parents and roommates) males females

16) Which of the following is true of individuals who hold positive illusions about their partners?

A) They ignore their partners' faults.

B) They judge their partners positively but not as much as other people do.

C) Their idolization of their partner eventually causes the partner to doubt himself or herself.

D) They increase their chances of being satisfied in their relationship.

17)

Positive illusions in relationships have been associated with

A) B) C) D)

isolation from those outside the relationship. relationship dissolution. relationship satisfaction. infidelity.

18) In making attributions for conflict in her marriage, Linda sees her own behaviors as caused by situational factors and the behaviors of her partner as caused by his personality.

Linda's explanations have most clearly been influenced by

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A) B) C) D)

19)

Which of the following is an example of a statement involving a self-serving bias?

A) B) C) D)

20)

the powerlessness bias. the conflict in her relationships. gender stereotypes. the actor/observer effect.

"I did well on that test because it was easy."

"I failed that test. I'm so stupid."

"The instructor graded the test unfairly; that's the only reason I did poorly."

"I was really lucky to do well on that test."

The tendency to blame your partner for any conflict is an example of

A) B) C) D)

a positive illusion. a relationship-enhancing belief. an overconfidence perspective. a self-serving bias.

21) Sue's husband forgot their anniversary. Sue views her husband's behavior as something he did because his boss assigned him a big project at work, and she does not think he'll do something like this in the future. What kind of attribution is Sue making?

A) B) C) D)

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distress-maintaining attributions relationship-enhancing attributions observer-biased attributions insecure attributions

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22)

Relationship-enhancing attributions involve which of the following factors?

A) B) C) D)

23)

accurately identifying a partner's transgressions actor/observer effects giving credit for positive actions and excusing transgressions identifying one's own contributions to the relationship

Distress-maintaining attributions include all of the following except

A) B) C) D)

viewing negative behaviors as deliberate. viewing negative behaviors as routine. viewing positive behaviors as unintended. viewing positive behaviors as habitual.

24) The term used by psychologists to describe the manner in which memories are continually revised and rewritten as new information is obtained is .

A) B) C) D)

25)

semantic memory episodic memory reconstructive memory illusory memory

When we reconstruct memories, we tend to

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A) B) C) D)

26)

forget disappointments in our relationships if we are currently happy. forget disappointments in our relationships if we are currently unhappy. always believe our relationships are getting better. have less vivid and detailed memories about our relationships.

How do contented lovers reconstruct the memories of their relationships?

A) They completely forget that they have had problems in the past.

B) They acknowledge that despite being happy, the quality of their relationship is eroding.

C) They feel that they are happier at present than they used to be.

D) Each partner feels that he or she played a greater contribution to the success of the relationship than the other.

27) are the unintentional and automatic associations in our judgments that are evident when our partners come to mind.

A) B) C) D)

Implicit attitudes Confirmation biases Ingratiations Reconstructive memories

28) is a process where a person may redirect feelings from a previous relationship to a new partner, thus influencing one's behavior and implicit attitudes toward the new partner.

A) B) C) D)

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Supplication Transference Attribution Ingratiation

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29) All of the following statements are examples of dysfunctional relationship beliefs except which one?

A) B) C) D)

30)

Men and women are different.

People who really care about each other can read each other's minds.

Everyone deserves a great relationship.

Great relationships just happen.

The belief that in a truly good relationship, partners never disagree is a

A) B) C) D)

belief.

self-serving growth destiny dysfunctional

31) After breaking up with his girlfriend, Scott remarked, "I guess she wasn't my true love. I should have known it from the beginning; it took us a while to really click and we had too many things standing in the way of our relationship." It is likely Scott is high in

A) B) C) D)

32)

self-monitoring. destiny beliefs. growth beliefs. overconfidence.

The belief that good relationships are the result of hard work is an example of a

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A) B) C) D)

realistic belief. growth belief. dysfunctional belief. defeatist belief.

33) Hearing rumors about her new roommate, Jamilla expects this roommate to be unfriendly and conceited. Because of this expectation, Jamilla is not very warm or open. Several weeks later, Jamilla finds that her roommate is unfriendly. This may be an example of

A) B) C) D)

34)

a growth belief. overconfidence. a self-fulfilling prophecy. a positive illusion.

Which of the following factors is not part of the self-fulfilling prophecy process?

A) The person with the self-fulfilling stereotype forms an expectation about the target.

B) The person with the self-fulfilling belief subtly communicates his expectations to the target.

C) The target responds in a fashion that confirms the perceiver's expectation.

D) The perceiver realizes his or her role in producing the target's behavior.

35) Which of the following statements is true of the classic University of Minnesota study on self-fulfilling prophecies in the physical attractiveness domain?

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A) Before the participants began talking, the experimenter gave each male subject fake information about the female participant's socioeconomic status.

B) The female target with whom the subjects interacted was selected to be attractive or unattractive depending on the experimental condition.

C) The male subjects thought they knew what the female target looked like but could not see her during the conversation.

D) Priming was used to create a physical attractiveness stereotype.

36)

People who often perceive snubs when none are intended are high in

A) B) C) D)

impression management. rejection sensitivity. destiny beliefs. romanticism.

37) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the beliefs and feelings people have about themselves?

A) B) C) D)

Self-esteem Self-respect Self-concept Self-pride

38) With regard to self-perceptions, people typically seek all of the following reactions from other people except which kind?

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A) B) C) D)

39) by

When someone is searching for positive, complimentary feedback, he or she is motivated

A) B) C) D)

40)

self-enhancement. self-verification. self-fulfillment. self-monitoring.

Researchers have found that a phenomenon called the marriage shift occurs when

A) B) C) D)

41)

reactions that challenge them to reflect on who they really are reactions that are complimentary reactions that are self-enhancing reactions that are consistent with their self-concept

self-verification motives become more important than self-enhancement motives. self-enhancement motives become more important than self-verification motives. self-fulfillment motives become more important than self-monitoring motives. self-monitoring motives become more important than self-fulfillment motives.

Which of the following is true of people with a negative self-concept?

A) B) C) D)

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Negative evaluations from others threaten their self-concepts.

They prefer their spouses to pretend that their faults do not exist.

They do not like praises or compliments from others.

They prefer it if their spouses support their negative self-concept.

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42) One often engages in others form about oneself.

A) B) C) D)

43)

impression manipulation impression formation impression creation impression management

The goal of

A) B) C) D)

, which is the process of influencing the impressions that

is to get others to recognize and respect us.

affiliation ingratiation intimidation self-promotion

44) Alan always ensures he tells his boss about every new client he gets for his firm and to pass along any compliments he gets from those clients. Which impression strategy is Alan using?

A) B) C) D)

ingratiation self-promotion intimidation supplication

45) George affects a dangerous persona so that people will do what he wants. This is the impression strategy of

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A) B) C) D)

46)

What form of impression management involves presenting oneself as inept or infirm?

A) B) C) D)

47)

self-promotion. supplication. intimidation. ingratiation.

ingratiation intimidation self-promotion supplication

Which of the following is true of impression management?

A) We go to more trouble to maintain favorable images with our intimate partners than with strangers.

B) Individuals high in self-monitoring tend to have more friends than individuals low in self-monitoring.

C) Individuals high in self-monitoring are less attentive to the impression they make than individuals low in self-monitoring.

D) Individuals low in self-monitoring tend to create unstable impressions.

48) Who among the following is likely to have friends who are "activity specialists" (friends who are good for specific activities) but they are not compatible in other respects?

A) B) C) D)

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an extrovert a high self-monitor a low self-monitor an introvert

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49)

Who among the following is most likely to be a low self-monitor?

A) George, who is almost always the center of attention at parties B) Tina, who finds it hard to imitate the behavior of other people C) Nancy, who enjoys interactions of higher intimacy even with people she meets for the first time D) Ben, who has had a number of short and less-committed relationships

50) is an impression management strategy used when one seeks acceptance and liking from others.

A) B) C) D)

Intimidation Self-promotion Ingratiation Supplication

51) The set of abilities that describe a person's talents in perceiving, using, understanding, and managing emotions is referred to as A) B) C) D)

emotional valence. emotional intelligence. self-monitoring. self-understanding.

52) Which of the following factors increases the likelihood of perceiving someone accurately?

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A) B) C) D)

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a high level of extraversion in the person who is being perceived a high degree of neuroticism in the person who is being perceived the gender of the person who is perceiving the perceiver having a preoccupied style of attachment

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_9e 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) D

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CHAPTER 5 1)

According to the model of interpersonal communication, communication begins with

A) B) C) D)

the sender's intentions. the decoding of a message by the receiver. the effect of a message on the receiver. the coding of a message by the sender.

2) Which of the following terms refers to all of the things people do in their interactions except for their spoken words and syntax?

A) B) C) D)

3)

nonverbal sensitivity perception checking self-disclosure nonverbal behavior

Interpersonal gap refers to differences between

A) B) C) D)

senders' intentions and senders' actions. senders' messages and reciprocation by receivers. receivers' intentions and receivers' actions. senders' intentions and the effect on receivers.

4) Sean hopes to convey to Beth his interest in dating her. She does not understand his hints and simply speaks to him as a friend. This shows that Sean and Beth are

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A) B) C) D)

experiencing an interpersonal gap. engaging in self-disclosure. high on self-monitoring. displaying belligerence.

5) Daniella and her partner got into a fight before attending a party. Despite being mad at each other, they smiled and laughed together as they walked into the party. Which function of nonverbal behavior is illustrated here?

A) B) C) D)

regulating function social control providing information impression management

6) After receiving a promotion at work, Sheri comes home with a big smile on her face. Her husband interprets her mood as one of happiness. What function of nonverbal behavior is illustrated here?

A) B) C) D)

regulating function social control providing information presentational function

7) What function of nonverbal communication is most likely served by a broad smile that signifies to another that you really liked what he or she said?

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A) B) C) D)

expressing influence providing information regulating interaction impression management

8) Which of the following statements describes the regulating interaction function of nonverbal behavior in relationships?

A) Nonverbal behavior is managed by a person or a couple to create or enhance a particular image.

B) The type of partnership two people share may be evident in their nonverbal behavior.

C) Nonverbal behavior provides cues that regulate the efficient give-and-take of smooth conversations and other interactions.

D) A person's behavior allows others to make inferences about his or her intentions, feelings, traits, and meaning.

9)

Researchers have found that smiling is something

A) B) C) D)

we learned as babies. we learned in childhood. that means different things in different countries. that is innate; we don't learn to smile—we just do it.

10) Which of the following channels of body language shows consistent patterns across cultures?

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A) B) C) D)

11)

gestures facial expressions of several emotions interpersonal distance All of these answers are correct.

For emotions like disgust, happiness, fear, and surprise, facial expressions

A) B) C) D)

are recognizable universally. vary quite a bit from culture to culture. vary depending on the age and level of maturity of the person. are unrecognizable to people beyond their own culture.

12) Knowing she should be excited about her friend's engagement, Jessica shows exaggerated excitement when she is told about it. This modification of Jessica's expression is likely due to

A) B) C) D)

display rules. the service-task function. an interpersonal gap. microexpressions.

13) Cultural norms that dictate which emotions are appropriate in particular situations are known as

A) B) C) D)

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display rules. microexpressions. interpersonal distance. emblems.

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14)

Authentic flashes of real emotion are called

A) B) C) D)

mimicry. display rules. microexpressions. belligerence.

15) Which of the following is a drawback of adhering to display rules that dictate which emotions are appropriate in particular situations?

A) There is no societal agreement on these rules.

B) Facial expressions used to display basic emotions, such as anger or disgust, differ from culture to culture.

C) Verbal messages are much more powerful than nonverbal sources of information, especially when verbal and nonverbal messages are incongruent.

D) Microexpressions often give away momentary lapses in the control of our expressions.

16)

In the context of gazing behavior, our pupils dilate when we are looking at something that

A) B) C) D)

17)

makes us feel sorry. angers us. embarrasses us. interests us.

Which of the following statements is true of the visual dominance ratio (VDR)?

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A) B) C) D)

Women have a higher VDR than men.

Children have a higher VDR than adults.

Powerful people have a higher VDR than their less powerful counterparts.

Unmarried people have a higher VDR than married couples.

18) As a powerful chief executive officer (CEO) of a large company, one would expect Joe to have a high visual dominance ratio, meaning he would

A) look more at his conversational partner while listening than while speaking.

B) look at his conversational partner for almost the same amount of time while listening and speaking.

C) look more at his conversational partner while speaking than while listening.

D) look less at his conversational partner, regardless of whether he is listening or speaking.

19) When researchers compare the percentage of time a speaker looks at a listener to the percentage of time he or she gazes at a speaker, they calculate the

A) B) C) D)

20)

interpersonal contact. interpersonal distance. microexpressions ratio. visual dominance ratio.

Which of the following is true of research findings on gestures and body movement?

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A) The meaning of gestures is consistent across cultures.

B) Men who are judged by women as good dancers in studies using 3D motion-capture technology are less agreeable than men who dance badly.

C) High-status people tend to adopt open, asymmetric postures.

D) A closed, compact posture indicates self-confidence.

21)

We interact with our friends in a region of interpersonal distance known as the

A) B) C) D)

intimate zone. personal zone. social zone. public zone.

22) Talking to his professor in her office, Jeremy sits across the desk from her, about 5 feet away. Jeremy and his professor are interacting in the of interpersonal distance.

A) B) C) D)

intimate zone personal zone social zone public zone

23) Picture a client seated in a chair about 6 or 7 feet away from an insurance claims officer who is seated behind a desk. What zone of interpersonal distance does this illustrate?

A) B) C) D)

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business personal public social

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24)

Which aspect of speech is not part of paralanguage?

A) B) C) D)

loudness pitch speed of speaking spoken words

25) Which of the following occurs when two people in a conversation are involved in nonconscious behavioral mimicry?

A) One of the members feels mocked and the conversation usually falters.

B) The conversation tends to flow and the members tend to like each other.

C) The conversation tends to be stilted and superficial.

D) One of the members usually notices and changes his or her behavior to avoid the mimicry.

26) According to research studies, the sensitivity and accuracy of which of the following predict how happy a couple will be?

A) B) C) D)

27)

verbal communication paralinguistic communication nonverbal communication None of these answers is correct.

Which of the following is true of gender differences in nonverbal sensitivity?

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A) Women are better encoders of nonverbal messages, but poor decoders, compared to men.

B) Women are better decoders of nonverbal messages, but poor encoders, compared to men.

C) Women are both better encoders and decoders of nonverbal messages compared to men.

D) Men are better encoders and decoders of nonverbal messages compared to men.

28)

Do men or women spend more time watching someone's eyes?

A) B) C) D)

29)

men women They both watch equally.

Neither; it is a matter of personality.

When you reveal personal information to a friend, you are engaging in

A) B) C) D)

mimicry. self-monitoring. self-disclosure. belligerence.

30) Which of the following theories suggests that relationship development is tied to systematic changes in communication?

A) B) C) D)

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attachment theory social penetration theory interpersonal distance theory social comparison theory

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31) According to social penetration theory, as relationships develop, the variety, of topics discussed between partners .

A) B) C) D)

, or

breadth; decreases breadth; increases depth; decreases depth; increases

32) According to the interpersonal process model of intimacy, which of the following should be a component of an interaction so that it forges greater intimacy?

A) B) C) D)

There should be a high level of instrumentality in the conversation.

Self-disclosure should be met with warmth and responsiveness.

Certain taboo topics should be avoided in the conversation.

One of the partners should display a high level of flirtatiousness.

33) Sue would like to have a discussion with her boyfriend about where their relationship is going, but she is afraid it would threaten the quality of their relationship. For Sue, talking about the relationship is

A) B) C) D)

a taboo topic. a topic of self-disclosure. an intimate zone. an area of social control.

34) Which of the following ways of determining the current or future state of romantic relationships are partners most likely to avoid?

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A) straightforwardly asking the partner B) endurance tests (seeing if one's partner demonstrates devotion in the face of difficulties) C) separation tests (seeing how enthusiastically the partner welcomes one after a separation) D) triangle tests (watching how the partner reacts to other attractive people)

35)

As couples engage in more self-disclosure, they tend to become

A) B) C) D)

36)

Which of the following is true of the differences between men's and women's speech?

A) B) C) D)

37)

happier. distrustful of each other. jealous. bored by the relationship.

Women tend to talk significantly more than men.

Women tend to speak less forcefully than men.

Women are more likely to speak about impersonal matters than men.

Women tend to speak longer than men (engage in monologues).

What kinds of words are agreeable people more likely to use?

A) B) C) D)

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"hug," "visiting," and "together" "awful," "annoying," and "worse" "drinks" and "dancing" None of these answers is correct.

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38) All of the following statements are true regarding gender differences in self-disclosure except that

A) B) C) D)

39)

women are more self-disclosing than men are. women elicit more self-disclosure than men do. women disclose more to other women than to men. men disclose more to other men than to women.

Differences between men and women in self-disclosure have to do with

A) B) C) D)

gender roles. biological sex. effort. false stereotypes—there really is no difference.

40) Sam and Katy have started dating recently. They tend to stand close to each other and hold each other's hands at parties. Which function of nonverbal behavior in relationships is being demonstrated by Sam and Katy?

A) B) C) D)

41)

impression management defining the nature of the relationship providing information regulating interaction

Research shows that physical contact with one's partner

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A) B) C) D)

reduces the production of stress hormones. increases the likelihood of catching a cold. causes one to be more cantankerous toward their partner during a disagreement. decreases one's likelihood to have a happy marriage.

42) The problem with conversations that drift off-beam is that couples involved in these conversations

A) B) C) D)

do not spend enough time on a topic to resolve the problem. spend so much time on one problem that others are never addressed. keep complaining about the same things over and over again. tend to accuse their partners of things that are not true.

43) A couple's conversation goes like this: "I hate that you always leave the car with an empty gas tank." "Well, I hate that you always park the car under the tree, so it gets bird droppings on it." The couple is engaging in

A) B) C) D)

cross-complaining. mindreading. off-beaming. belligerence.

44) When Terri gets angry with her husband for not helping with the housework, she reacts by calling him lazy and useless rather than expressing her need for help around the house. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D)

stonewalling. defensiveness. criticism. kitchen-sinking.

45) In the middle of a fight with his wife, Joe clams up, refusing to argue further or respond to her comments. Joe is engaging in

A) B) C) D)

criticism. contempt. defensiveness. stonewalling.

46) When John reacts to his partner's complaints by cross-complaining, which form of miscommunication is he manifesting?

A) B) C) D)

belligerence contempt criticism defensiveness

47) I wish you wouldn't open that window. It lets the pollen in and makes my allergies worse." This is a(n)

A) B) C) D)

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behavior description. example of cross-complaining. example of belligerence. taboo topic.

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48)

Which of these is an I-statement?

A) B) C) D)

49)

"I feel overwhelmed and anxious when you talk so much."

"I talk a lot."

"I think you are talking more than you need to get your point across."

"I'm a strong-willed person."

Which of the following statements is true of interpersonal distance?

A) B) C) D)

The zones of interpersonal distance are uniform across cultures.

Women like somewhat larger interpersonal distances than men.

In colder countries, people prefer larger distances with intimate partners.

Interpersonal distances are smaller in Asian countries than in the United States.

50) After listening to her husband talk about their dwindling finances, Sabrina says, "Am I correct in thinking you are feeling anxious that we are spending more than we can afford and would like us to look for ways of cutting expenses?" This illustrates

A) B) C) D)

dysfunctional communication. mindreading. paraphrasing. perception checking.

51) After telling his wife about his upcoming month-long business trip to another city, Peter says, "It looks like the news has irked you. Am I right?" Peter is engaging in

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A) B) C) D)

52)

stonewalling. yes-butting. perception checking. kitchen-sinking.

Couples who find themselves interacting in a pattern of negative affect reciprocity should

A) B) C) D)

seriously consider ending the relationship. talk until they come to an agreement. vent their anger so they can calm down. take a time out.

53) Martin and his wife, Leane, frequently argue over housework. Leane accuses him of doing less work around the house and increasing her workload. Which of the following responses from Martin involves validation?

A) "How can you say this? I do so much work around the house!"

B) "I hate housework and I will not do it. I am sorry."

C) "I understand why you say this. But please understand that I work longer hours than you, and I'm tired by the time I get back."

D) "I feel very annoyed when you treat this as a big issue. This is a trivial issue and not one worth fighting over."

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_9e 1) A 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) C 52) D 53) C

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CHAPTER 6 1) According to interdependence theory, punishments and undesirable experiences are known as

A) B) C) D)

damages. costs. profit losses. entanglements.

2) According to interdependence theory, people's expectations for their current relationships are incorporated in the concept of

A) B) C) D)

alternatives. comparison level (CL). outcome level. rewards.

3) In interdependence theory, the value of the outcomes that we believe we deserve in our dealings with others is our

A) B) C) D)

comparison level (CL). level of social exchange. outcome level. investment level.

4) Amelia expects her friends to always be supportive of her no matter what they have going on and to understand when she is too busy to help them. Lisa expects that her friends will often disappoint her and not be there for her when she needs someone to listen. From this description, we can derive that Amelia and Lisa's are different.

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A) B) C) D)

5)

comparison levels (CLs) outcomes investments commitments

Which of the following should be true for a person to stay satisfied in a relationship?

A) B) C) D)

Their comparison levels (CLs) should exceed the outcome of the relationship.

The outcome of the relationship should exceed their comparison levels (CLs).

Their comparison levels (CLs) should exceed their partner's comparison level (CL).

Their comparison levels (CLs) should be less than their partner's comparison level

(CL).

6) Maurice receives many rewards and has few costs in his relationship with Karla. He believes he should have many more rewards. In the context of interdependency theory, this indicates that

A) B) C) D)

Maurice experiences satisfaction in the relationship.

Maurice experiences dissatisfaction in the relationship.

Maurice is likely to be dependent on the relationship.

Maurice is likely to be independent in the relationship.

7) The comparison level for alternatives (CLalt) describes the outcomes people would receive if

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A) they lower their expectations in their current relationship and seek alternative rewards.

B) they leave the current relationship and move to the best alternative situation.

C) they learn to engage in a more positive and supportive manner in their relationship.

D) they discuss alternatives for a pressing problem more often than they currently do.

8) Andrew feels like he has many different options in dating partners besides his current partner. In the context of interdependency theory, this shows that

A) B) C) D)

his comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) is high. his comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) is low. his comparison level (CL) is nonexistent. his comparison level (CL) is low.

9) Applying interdependence theory, Peter's decision to stay in his dissatisfying relationship with Julie might best be explained by his

A) B) C) D)

10)

high comparison level (CL). high costs. low comparison level for alternatives (CL alt). low rewards.

According to interdependence theory, individuals are dependent on their partners if

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A) their comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) is lower than that of their partners.

B) the outcome of the relationship is much higher than their comparison level for alternatives (CL alt).

C) the outcome of the relationship is slightly better than their comparison level for alternatives (CL alt).

D) the outcome of the relationship is lower than their comparison level for alternatives (CL alt).

11) Rhonda is not sure if she loves her partner anymore. She gets little satisfaction from their relationship. However, she believes there are few other options for her. In the context of interdependence theory, what is Rhonda likely to do?

A) B) C) D)

stay with her current partner no matter what leave her current partner, even if no other options are available stay with her current partner until her alternatives improve stay with her current partner and try to improve the relationship

12) In considering ending her relationship with her husband, Marie considers how they might divide their household goods and how it might impact their children and their friends. In terms of interdependence theory, Marie is thinking about the

A) B) C) D)

13)

comparison levels (CLs). contributions. outcomes. investments.

Which of the following statements is true of comparison level for alternatives (CL alt)?

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A) CL altis directly proportional to comparison levels (CLs).

B) CL altis inversely proportional to comparison levels (CLs).

C) If someone has a lot of investments in a relationship, then he or she tends to have a lower CL altthan someone who does not have any investment in a relationship.

D) If someone is doing well in his or her career and has a high self-esteem, then he or she tends to have a lower CL altthan someone who is not doing well in his or her career.

14)

Our comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) is

A) a judgment determined solely by the attractiveness of other potential partners.

B) determined by two factors, the attractiveness of other partners and the attractiveness of being by ourselves.

C) a multifaceted judgment encompassing both the various costs of leaving and the enticements offered by others.

D) relatively stable based on our long history of relationships.

15) Pauline moved from Minneapolis to Pierre, South Dakota. In Minneapolis, she had a long history of successful close relationships and several attractive men used to ask her out. In Pierre, she started what she considers a rather poor relationship with Thomas, a man whom she found to be insensitive but better than the other options available in her new, small community. Now that she's been in Pierre for an extended time, she thinks she will continue dating Thomas. Let ">" mean "is greater than." From the perspective of interdependence theory, Pauline is in a situation in which her

A) comparison level (CL) > her comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) > the outcome.

B) comparison level (CL) > the outcome > her comparison level for alternatives (CL alt).

C) comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) > her comparison level (CL) > the outcome.

D) comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) > the outcome > her comparison level (CL).

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16) Jamal is in a relationship where he has a high outcome and his comparison level (CL) and comparison level for alternatives (CL alts) are lower than the outcome. It is likely that this relationship is

A) B) C) D)

happy and stable. unhappy and unstable. happy but unstable. unhappy but stable.

17) Mary is in a relationship where her comparison level (CL) is high, her outcomes are below her comparison level, and her comparison level for alternatives (CL alt) is lower than the outcome. It is likely this relationship is

A) B) C) D)

happy and stable. unhappy and unstable. happy but unstable. unhappy but stable.

18) Millie is in a relationship in which her outcomes exceed her comparison level for alternatives (CL alt), which in turn exceeds her comparison level (CL). Josephine is in a relationship in which her CL altis greater than her outcomes, which in turn are greater than her CL. Which of the following statements is true?

A) B) C) D)

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Both Millie and Josephine are likely to be in stable relationships.

Millie's relationship is most likely unstable, while Josephine's is stable.

Millie is likely to be happy in her relationship, while Josephine is not.

Both Millie and Josephine are likely to be in happy relationships.

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19) Which of the following principles holds that the partner who is less dependent on a relationship has more power in it?

A) B) C) D)

the principle of lesser interest the principle of increasing interest the principle of low investment the principle of low cost

20) Joan and Jim have more rewards than costs in their relationship. Jim has many potential alternative relationships. Joan's alternatives are limited. Which of the following statements is true according to the principle of lesser interest?

A) B) C) D)

Joan is more dependent on the relationship and therefore has more power.

Joan is more dependent on the relationship and therefore has less power.

Joan is less dependent on the relationship and therefore has more power.

Joan is less dependent on the relationship and therefore has less power.

21) In the context of interdependency theory, which of the following statements is true of how comparison levels (CLs) and comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts) are influenced by various factors?

A) Rewarding relationships tend to become less satisfying with time because of an increase in CL. B) In general, relationships bring more satisfaction today than they did 50 years ago because of a decrease in CL. C) Women's greater participation in the workforce has decreased their CL alt.

D) Greater access to the Internet has decreased people's CL alt.

22) Which of the following is most likely a reason for the rise in divorce rates since the 1960s?

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A) Comparison levels (CLs) and comparison level for alternatives (CL alts) are lower today.

B) Comparison levels (CLs) and comparison level for alternatives (CL alts) are higher today.

C) Comparison levels (CLs) are lower and comparison level for alternatives (CL alts) are higher today.

D) None of these answers is correct.

23)

In problem-solving tasks, research subjects were

A) more likely to show disapproval and frustration with their spouses than with strangers.

B) more polite and congenial toward their spouses than with strangers.

C) less likely to show disapproval and frustration with their spouses than with strangers.

D) less willing to persist at the task with their spouses than with strangers.

24) With whom are people most likely to withhold criticism, swallow disapproval, and suppress signs of frustration?

A) B) C) D)

25)

wives strangers husbands children

In close relationships

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A) positive events have greater psychological impact than negative events.

B) positive and negative events have roughly the same impact.

C) negative events have greater psychological impact than positive events.

D) positive events have greater impact in the early stages of relationships, but negative events have greater impact later on.

26) According to Gottman and Levenson's research, to stay satisfied in a close relationship, it is important to maintain a rewards-to-costs ratio of at least

A) 2:1.

B) 20:1.

C) 5:1.

D) 10:1.

27)

Your best friend criticizes you and then offers you a compliment. Research suggests that

A) the compliment would soften the blow of the criticism, but the combination will still leave you distressed.

B) you will be delighted with the compliment and ignore the criticism.

C) the compliment and the criticism will cancel each other out, leaving you in the same state you started in.

D) you will question your friend's reasons for giving the compliment but not question the reasons for the criticism.

28) In interdependence theory, the term refers to anything within an interaction that is desirable and welcome and that brings enjoyment or fulfillment to the recipient.

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A) B) C) D)

cost outcome reward dependence

29) According to Gable and her colleagues, which are the two distinct motivations that affect interdependence?

A) B) C) D)

approach and avoidance avoidance and dependence desire and independence love and hate

30) Kayla doesn't want to offend or upset anyone, so, during the few parties she attends, she tends to hang back and stay out of the way. Kayla seems to have

A) B) C) D)

a strong approach motivation. a strong avoidance motivation. a low comparison level (CL). a high investment level.

31) Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between approach goals and avoidance goals?

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A) The greater the fulfillment of approach goals, the greater the fulfillment of avoidance goals.

B) The greater the fulfillment of approach goals, the less the fulfillment of avoidance goals.

C) Approach goals and avoidance goals are independent of each other.

D) Approach goals and avoidance goals are seldom present together in a relationship.

32) Samantha and her husband, Greg, are both adventurous and often go on treks that they enjoy. They share a passion for sports and ensure they spend time every weekend playing tennis.

They spend a lot of time together over these shared interests. However, they also argue frequently and put each other down during these fights. According to the research on approach and avoidance processes in relationships by Reis and Gable, theirs is a relationship.

A) B) C) D)

flourishing precarious boring distressed

33) Mark feels dissatisfied in his relationship because he feels that his wife rarely spends time with him. He also feels insecure because she constantly complains about his low income.

According to the research on approach and avoidance processes in relationships by Reis and Gable, Mark has a(n) relationship with his wife.

A) B) C) D)

34)

boring precarious distressed avoidant

According to the model of relational turbulence, couples should expect

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A) increasing intimacy and interdependence to parallel increasing satisfaction.

B) that they will experience ups and downs in their relationship from the beginning.

C) satisfaction with a relationship to level off for a while as the couple adjusts to increased interdependence.

D) decreasing satisfaction as intimacy and interdependence increase.

35) Based on the research cited in the text, during the first few years of marriage, marital satisfaction

A) B) C) D)

36)

People end up disappointed by relationships if their expectations are

A) B) C) D)

37)

goes up. goes up until the arrival of the first child. drops. stays the same.

low. glorified. tied to their self-worth. based on real experiences.

Which factors have been found to undermine the outcomes that lead to marriage?

A) B) C) D)

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lack of effort unwelcome surprises unrealistic expectations All of these answers are correct.

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38) The authors point to all of the following as explanations for why marital satisfaction declines except

A) B) C) D)

lack of effort. interdependency being a magnifying glass. access to weaponry. overcommitment.

39) According to interdependency theory, the net profit or loss a person encounters in a particular interaction is known as the .

A) B) C) D)

reward cost satisfaction outcome

40) Larry and Moe are careful to pay each other back for anything they borrow. If Larry needs help and Moe says he can't, Moe doesn't feel guilty for refusing. According to Clark and Mills's proposition, Larry and Moe have a(n)

A) B) C) D)

41)

communal relationship. unrealistic relationship. exchange relationship. balanced relationship.

Of the following statements regarding communal relationships, which one is not true?

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A) When we do favors for others, we prefer that they do not repay us immediately.

B) When we help others, our moods and self-evaluation change only slightly if at all.

C) When we are working with others on a joint project, we don't make a clear distinction between their work and our own.

D) We keep track of others' needs even when they will be unable to return favors.

42) Relative to people engaged in an exchange relationship, those who are involved in a communal relationship

A) B) C) D)

experience a boost in mood after helping others. monitor others' contributions to joint tasks. respond favorably to immediate repayment by others. perceive others' contributions as separate.

43) In relationships, we are governed by a desire for and expectation of immediate repayment for benefits given.

A) B) C) D)

communal exchange love attachment

44) According to interdependence theory, which of the following is one of the reasons for unhappy couples to finally divorce?

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A) when the apparent costs of ending the marriage decrease B) when the apparent rewards of leaving decrease C) when alternative options become inadequate D) when the outcomes in the marriage exceed those that are available in alternative options

45)

Equity theory suggests that people are most satisfied in relationships that include .

A) B) C) D)

distributed justice retributive justice western justice proportional justice

46) Both Aletha and her partner are getting equal amounts of outcome from their relationship.

Aletha feels she is putting more into the relationship than her partner. In the context of equity theorists, Aletha is likely to feel

A) dissatisfied because if she is contributing more, she should also be getting more out of the relationship than her partner does.

B) satisfied because both she and her partner are getting equal amounts out of the relationship.

C) dissatisfied because the more one puts into a relationship, the more dissatisfied that person is with the relationship.

D) satisfied because she knows she is doing all she can for the relationship.

47) Maria is in a long-term relationship with Fred. She feels that her current outcomes in the relationship are higher than her comparison levels (CLs), which in turn are higher than her comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts). This means that Maria is in

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A) B) C) D)

48)

From an equity theory perspective, who among the following will feel distressed?

A) B) C) D)

49)

partners in equitable relationships underbenefited partners overbenefited partners both underbenefited and overbenefited partners

The two domains particularly sensitive to equity according to the textbook authors are

A) B) C) D)

50)

a happy, stable relationship. an unhappy, but stable, relationship. a happy, but unstable, relationship. an unhappy, unstable relationship.

household tasks and child care. affection and money. hours spent at work and money. household tasks and affection.

According to interdependence theory, a happy but unstable relationship occurs when

A) current outcomes are greater than comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts), which in turn are greater than comparison levels (CLs).

B) comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts) are greater than current outcomes, which in turn are greater than comparison levels (CLs).

C) comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts) are greater than comparison levels (CLs), which in turn are greater than current outcomes.

D) comparison levels (CLs) are greater than comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts), which in turn are greater than current outcomes.

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51) In the context of the types of relationships in interdependence theory, if people's comparison levels for alternatives (CL alts) are higher than their outcomes but their comparison levels (CLs) are lower, then

A) B) C) D)

52)

they are satisfied with their current partners. they believe that they cannot have even more attractive outcomes. their current relationship is stable. they are likely to stay where they are in the relationship.

According to the investment model of commitment

A) investment is the primary antecedent of commitment.

B) investment, alternatives, and satisfaction all contribute to commitment.

C) different forces lead to women's commitment in heterosexual relationships compared to men's commitment in gay relationships.

D) there are three different types of commitment: personal, constraint, and moral.

53) Which of the following correctly lists all the three elements that predict commitment in the investment model of commitment?

A) B) C) D)

satisfaction level, quality of alternatives, and investment size quality of alternatives, attachment, and equality investment size, equality, and expectations satisfaction level, expectations, and attachment

54) People who are than others.

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tend to have a higher comparison level for alternatives (CLalt)

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A) B) C) D)

55)

ambivalently attached avoidantly attached securely attached preoccupied

Individuals high in avoidance (in terms of attachment) tend to be

A) more attentive to alternative relationships and less likely to be attracted to people who use communal norms.

B) generous with potential partners but become nervous when those individuals behave communally toward them.

C) accepting of occasional neediness and likely to pursue communal norms.

D) anxious to avoid conflict and get nervous if others don't expect anything from them.

56) Anton feels he needs to continue his relationship with his wife because if they broke up, it would be very costly for him financially and damage his business. Anton is showing

A) B) C) D)

moral commitment. personal commitment. accommodative commitment. constraint commitment.

57) In the context of the consequences of commitment, which of the following is true of the "derogation of tempting alternatives"?

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A) It refers to the willingness of committed partners to control their impulse to engage in destructive communication.

B) It is a mechanism that reduces the allure of those who might otherwise entice people away from their present partners.

C) It is a coping strategy for individuals who have a highly avoidant style of attachment in their relationships.

D) It is a tactic that people use to tolerate destructive behavior from their partners without fighting back.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_9e 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

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57) B

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CHAPTER 7 1) Which of the following sets of words characterizes the three main attributes of friendship?

A) B) C) D)

2)

Which of the following is a response to low trust in a relationship?

A) B) C) D)

3)

affection, communion, and society affection, romance, and companionship affection, communion, and companionship None of these answers is correct.

a tendency toward greater self-disclosure apathy and indifference increased capitalization a tendency to be more guarded and cautious

Compared with romantic relationships, friendships involve

A) B) C) D)

a greater desire for exclusivity. more stringent standards of conduct. fewer obligations. less amount of fun.

4) Nichole shares good news about her new job with her friend Kari. Kari responds with genuine excitement and enthusiasm. This pattern of interaction is known as

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A) B) C) D)

material support. disclosure reciprocity. capitalization. dyadic withdrawal.

5) The pattern of interaction in which good friends tend to enhance our happiness when we share good news with them is known as

A) B) C) D)

6)

Which type of social support do friends provide?

A) B) C) D)

7)

respect. trust. capitalization. responsiveness.

emotional support material support advice support All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following statements is true of social support?

A) Social support has physiological effects on people.

B) With the exception of those with severe psychological disorders, people are equally skillful at offering social support to those they care about.

C) Social support is always beneficial to its recipients.

D) Overall, being supported by actual acts of support is more important than believing we will be supported.

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8)

Social support that is subtly provided without fanfare is known as

A) B) C) D)

invisible support. capitalization support. responsive support. material support.

9) Which of the following statements is true of how people with insecure attachment styles provide and receive social support?

A) Insecurely attached people overestimate the helpfulness of favors they receive from others compared with securely attached people.

B) People with an anxious style of attachment provide less help than securely attached people.

C) People with an avoidant style of attachment are more controlling when they provide help compared with securely attached people.

D) People who have insecure attachment styles judge the social support they receive to be less considerate compared with securely attached people.

10)

A common cause of failure in friendships is

A) B) C) D)

11)

having friends who are too similar to us. being unwilling to follow the rules of friendship. one friend making more money than the other. entering into a romantic relationship with a friend.

All of the following are rules of friendship except

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A) B) C) D)

12) true?

"Don't nag."

"Keep confidences."

"Keep the friendship exclusive."

"Volunteer help in time of need."

In the context of research findings on friendship, which of the following statements is

A) People who adhere to the rules of friendship have more intimate and satisfying relationships than those who don't.

B) In general, men expect more loyalty and similarity in friendships than women do.

C) People generally expect their friends to be dissimilar to them in attitude and interests.

D) People who value their friendships show less commitment in romantic relationships than those who don't.

13) Martha and George are good friends. Martha is about to move, and George knows that she will not be able to carry all of her boxes herself. Which rule of friendship should George abide by?

A) B) C) D)

"Don't nag."

"Trust and confide in your partner."

"Volunteer help in time of need."

"Don't be jealous of each other's relationships."

14) Kim just started dating Martin. Sandy, Kim's best friend, is mad because she is alone and wishes she had a boyfriend. She has decided to not talk to Kim for a while. Which rule of friendship is Sandy breaking?

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A) B) C) D)

"Don't be jealous of each other's relationships."

"Stand up for your partner in his or her absence."

"Seek to repay debts and favors and compliments."

"Volunteer help in time of need."

15) Bobbi supports her friend Charla, but she thinks that Charla is being underappreciated at her job. She thinks she is being helpful, but every time they talk, she brings it up and tells Charla to stand up for herself more. Charla is starting to get annoyed because it's all Bobbi wants to talk about. Which rule of friendship is Bobbi breaking?

A) B) C) D)

"Don't nag."

"Stand up for your partner in his or her absence."

"Don't be jealous of each other's relationships."

"Trust and confide in your partner."

16) According to Buhrmester and Furman, in which of the following phases do children develop a need for intimacy?

A) B) C) D)

toddlerhood the early elementary years adolescence preadolescence

17) According to Buhrmester and Furman, full-blown friendships characterized by extensive self-disclosure first emerge during .

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A) B) C) D)

18) for

preadolescence the early elementary years young adulthood adolescence

According to Buhrmester and Furman, during the early elementary years, the key need is and it is satisfied via relationships with .

A) B) C) D)

acceptance; peers security; primary caregivers intimacy; same-sex friends sexuality; opposite-sex partners

19) Which of the following statements is supported by research on peer popularity in elementary school?

A) Peer popularity is not predictable in elementary school, so it is not a good measure of subsequent behavior.

B) Peer popularity in elementary school predicts peer popularity toward the end of high school.

C) Rejection by peers in elementary school is a risk factor for later difficulties.

D) None of these answers is correct.

20) In the context of research by Buhrmester and Furman on changes in interpersonal needs as children age, which of the following is likely to occur in preadolescence?

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A) Children start to understand their friends' points of view but largely see their friendships as serving self-interests.

B) Children recognize that individual friendships cannot fulfill all emotional and psychological needs and hence spend more time by themselves.

C) Children develop skills such as empathy, which form the foundation of close adult relationships.

D) Children are willing to play with any other children that are available in the search for a best friend.

21)

During adolescence, time spent with family

A) B) C) D)

22)

stays the same. increases for girls and decreases for boys. decreases and time spent alone increases. decreases as time spent with peers increases.

"Safe haven" refers to

A) B) C) D)

making constant contact with an attachment figure. resisting separation from an attachment figure. using an attachment figure as a secure base from which to explore the world. seeking out an attachment figure for reassurance after a stressful event.

23) Which of the following statements best describes how attachment patterns change during the teen years?

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A) Parents remain key figures for all four attachment components, but others can also serve these needs.

B) The set of attachment components gets restructured, with sex being added as a new attachment function.

C) Children begin to shift their secure base from their parents to their peers.

D) Peers begin to gradually replace parents as sources of primary attachment.

24) According to attachment theorists, which of the following components of attachment involves using a partner as a foundation to explore novel environments?

A) B) C) D)

25)

safe haven secure base separation protest proximity seeking

According to Erik Erikson, the development of

A) B) C) D)

is the central task of adulthood.

industry versus inferiority initiative versus guilt intimacy versus isolation generativity versus stagnation

26)

In a study of friendship in freshmen class, it was found that college students were with their social networks in the fall after they arrived at college and were with their social networks by the end of the spring semester.

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A) B) C) D)

satisfied; satisfied dissatisfied; satisfied dissatisfied; dissatisfied satisfied; dissatisfied

27) In reviewing the studies about young adults' relationships, the text concludes that young adults

A) have shallower relationships after college than they did before.

B) tend to interact with fewer friends after college.

C) manage to maintain a similar frequency of interactions with same-sex friends after college graduation.

D) are dissatisfied with the high level of intimacy in interpersonal relationships.

28)

Which of the following statements is true of how friendships change after college?

A) B) C) D)

The number of same-sex friendships stabilizes.

The average intimacy level of interactions increases.

The closeness of remaining friendships decreases.

All of these answers are correct.

29) A friend of yours meets someone, and they become romantically involved. Your friend spends more time with this person and less time with you. This example illustrates the concept of

A) B) C) D)

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capitalization. socioemotional selectivity. dyadic withdrawal. self-monitoring.

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30) friends.

occur(s) when people see more and more of their lover and less of their

A) B) C) D)

31)

Romantic gazing Dyadic withdrawal Intensity bonding Barriers to friendship

The social networks of spouses tend to be

A) B) C) D)

about the same as when they were single. smaller than when they were single. larger than when they were single. comparable to the networks of their teen years.

32) According to a study conducted by Werking, which of the following statements is true of friendships in midlife?

A) The amount of time spent with friends decreases when one gains a romantic partner, but it increases after marriage.

B) People tend to see much less of friends who could be construed by a spouse to be a potential romantic rival.

C) Couples tend to have fewer marital problems when none of their personal friendships involve their spouses.

D) When romantic couples have a lot of friends in common, the total number of friends they have increases.

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33) According to Fung and Carstensen, when people age, they become oriented more toward the present than toward the future and they emphasize emotional fulfillment to a greater extent.

Which of the following theories best supports this statement?

A) B) C) D)

activity theory socioemotional selectivity theory continuity theory age stratification theory

34) Grandma Helen used to have many casual friends when she was young, but now, she enjoys keeping in contact with only her close friends and families. Which of the following perspectives best reflects this decrease in sociability in old age?

A) B) C) D)

attachment theory disengagement theory the dyadic withdrawal hypothesis socioemotional selectivity theory

35) Norma, a 68-year-old woman, has a few close friends. These friends are not a very diverse group, but they provide her with the emotional support she needs. Her grandson, in contrast, has a large group of casual friends. These patterns are consistent with

A) B) C) D)

36)

dyadic withdrawal theory. socioemotional selectivity theory. capitalization. high self-monitoring.

According to Marshall, McGuire, and Leaper, women's friendships are characterized by , while men's friendships revolve around .

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A) B) C) D)

competition; self-disclosure self-disclosure; emotional sharing emotional sharing; shared activities competition; emotional sharing

37) According to research in which men were randomly assigned pets, owning the pets was most beneficial when

A) B) C) D)

the participants were ill. the men had few friends. the pets were most affectionate. the pets needed special caretaking.

38) When Mara describes herself, she spends a lot of time talking about her roles as a friend, wife, and mother and describes a lot of nurturing and caring qualities. Mara is

A) B) C) D)

39)

highly relational. high in self-monitoring. high in androgyny. high in emotional isolation.

People with a highly relational self-construal

A) B) C) D)

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are most common in Western nations. display avoidant attachment styles in friendships. value autonomy and independence. are more common outside the United States.

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40) and others.

A) B) C) D)

people make an effort to behave in ways that are beneficial to both themselves

Independent Elderly Avoidant Relational

41) Mike frequently abuses his pet dog but seldom feels remorseful about his actions. He often exceeds the legally permitted speed limit when he is racing on his expensive bike and can be extremely insensitive to others' feelings in his arguments and criticism. According to this description, Mike is most likely to be diagnosed with

A) B) C) D)

42)

narcissism. borderline personality disorder.

Machiavellianism. psychopathy.

In the context of personality traits, the "Dark Triad" comprises

A) B) C) D)

narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy. narcissism, sadistic personality disorder, and psychopathy. bipolar disorder, psychopathy, and Machiavellianism. sadistic personality disorder, bipolar disorder, and narcissism.

43) Since 1985, the number of people who say they have no close confidant has and the average number of intimate partners has .

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A) B) C) D)

increased; decreased increased; increased decreased; decreased decreased; increased

44) Sheila is almost always nervous in social settings and is concerned that others are evaluating her negatively. She doesn't think others will want to talk to her because she does not feel good about herself. When she does interact with others, she is awkward and occasionally inappropriate. Sheila can be described as

A) B) C) D)

45)

high in reassurance seeking. chronically shy. low in self-monitoring. situationally shy.

Shy behavior often

A) B) C) D)

induces empathy in others. facilitates the behavior of others. leads to unfavorable evaluations. leads to more stable but less emotional relationships.

46) In the study by Leary where two strangers were asked to converse in a noisy environment, shy people when they could blame the noise for the conversation potentially not going well and when they were told the noise should not interfere with their conversation.

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A) B) C) D)

47)

Shy individuals often do well when they

A) B) C) D)

48)

did not reveal their shyness; acted shy acted shy; acted shy did not reveal their shyness; didn't show any shyness acted shy; didn't show any shyness

are in relationships. know they cannot be blamed if the interaction goes poorly. are given antidepressants. are forced to talk in detail about their own anxieties and fears.

In which of the following situations does loneliness occur?

A) when there is a difference between the actual level and the desired level of social contact B) when there is a difference between the level of social contact that the person biologically needs and what he or she achieves C) when there is a difference between the level of social contact and one's attachment style D) All of these answers are correct.

49) Alan feels he does not have an intense relationship with anyone in particular although he has a large network of friends and acquaintances. Alan is most likely experiencing

A) B) C) D)

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social loneliness. dyadic withdrawal. socioemotional selectivity. emotional loneliness.

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50)

Emotional loneliness arises because a person

A) B) C) D)

51)

lacks a network of friends. lacks a single intense relationship. feels sad and depressed about the state of the world. has fewer friends or contacts than he or she believes that he or she should.

Loneliness has

A) very little effect on our physical health.

B) noticeable effects on our physical health.

C) an effect on the way we think about our health but no real effect on our health.

D) strong effects on the health of those who are temporarily lonely but little effect on chronically lonely individuals.

52)

Research has found that loneliness causes all of the following except

A) B) C) D)

53)

chronically higher blood pressure. higher levels of the stress hormone. poor sleep habits. hypersexuality.

Which of the following is true of loneliness?

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A) B) C) D)

54)

Which of the following statements about gender and loneliness is true?

A) B) C) D)

55)

Personality has little to do with whether someone will be lonely or not.

Genetic influences have an effect on loneliness.

Single women are lonelier than single men.

Self-esteem has little to do with whether someone will be lonely or not.

Men are lonelier on average than women.

Women are lonelier on average than men.

In early adulthood, men are less lonely than women, but this trend reverses with age.

Men rely more on other men to help with their loneliness.

People who are lonely

A) make an effort to talk to others and are therefore good conversational partners.

B) often have drab or dull interactions with others as they tend to have negative attitudes toward others.

C) try too hard to establish intimacy and self-disclose too much.

D) think that all others are open to interactions and therefore keep trying even when others don't want to converse with them.

56)

Which of the following characteristics is likely to apply to lonely people?

A) B) C) D)

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negative attitude toward others and dull interactions strong desire for friendship and too much self-disclosure avoidant attachment style and frequent social contact high social anxiety with high self-esteem

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57) The self-perpetuating cycle of loneliness includes all but which of the following problems?

A) B) C) D)

58)

an inflated sense of self dull, half-hearted manner of interactions irritating and annoying behavior negative reactions by others

Loneliness and depression

A) are basically the same psychological condition.

B) are related in that it is always loneliness that gives rise to depression.

C) differ in that depression is a global state, whereas loneliness is more specific and interpersonal in nature.

D) differ in that depressed people do not seek excessive reassurance from others, but lonely people do.

59) Although when she asks her friends (and she asks them often), her friends insist that she's important to them and that they like her, Kayla still doubts if her friends like her. Kayla is exhibiting a pattern of

A) B) C) D)

excessive reassurance seeking. socioemotional selectivity. capitalization. dyadic withdrawal.

60) According to research, which of the following has been shown to prevent or reduce loneliness?

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A) attributing one's loneliness to lasting deficiencies rather than unstable, short-lived influences B) putting greater effort in developing romantic attachments rather than seeking new friendships C) not setting the sights too high while trying to reduce or prevent loneliness D) accepting that people are generally selfish, shallow, and uncaring

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_9e 1) C 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) A Version 1

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57) A 58) C 59) A 60) C

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CHAPTER 8 1) Historically, which of the following has been of least importance as a rationale for marriage?

A) B) C) D)

2)

Love as a necessary condition for marriage has

A) B) C) D)

3)

politics economics family love

been important for all of recorded history. been important in the West since the Middle Ages. become more important in the United States since the 1960s. always been important for royalty or ruling classes.

The history of love described in the textbook suggests that passionate love

A) has been around since the Middle Ages, but only recently has it been seen as a reason for marriage.

B) is a relatively new concept and phenomenon.

C) has always been important for marriage.

D) has been a marker of the potential for a strong partnership since the ancient Greeks.

4)

Which of the following best describes "platonic love"?

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A) B) C) D)

5)

Across history and cultures, love has almost universally been conceptualized as

A) B) C) D)

6)

to make favorable alliances and establish a bloodline. to epitomize love between two men. to celebrate the romance shared by a couple. to ensure the financial independence of the bride.

Which of the following is not an element of Sternberg's triangular theory of love?

A) B) C) D)

8)

a heterosexual, as opposed to a same-sex, experience. existing only in marriages. involving sexual intimacy.

None of the answers is correct.

In ancient Rome, the purpose of marriage was

A) B) C) D)

7)

It is madness and torment.

It conquers all and leads to happiness.

It involves nonsexual adoration of the beloved.

It is a noble quest marked by diligence and persistence.

passion intimacy attraction commitment

According to Sternberg, which of the following are the three building blocks of love?

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A) B) C) D)

9)

intimacy, tension, and passion passion, fantasy, and loss passion, intimacy, and commitment attraction, fantasy, and arousal

According to the triangular theory, commitment without intimacy or passion is known as

A) B) C) D)

nonlove. empty love. infatuation. liking.

10) Brian is passionately attracted to Teresa. His attraction to Teresa does not involve commitment or intimacy. According to the triangular theory of love, Brian is feeling

A) B) C) D)

11)

liking. infatuation. compassion. empathy.

If two people are in a superficial and uncommitted relationship, they are in a

A) B) C) D)

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fatuous relationship. romantic relationship. companionate relationship. nonlove relationship.

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12)

Which form of love is likely to characterize a long and happy marriage?

A) B) C) D)

13)

fatuous love romantic love companionate love infatuation

Which form of love involves high levels of commitment, intimacy, and passion?

A) B) C) D)

companionate love consummate love fatuous love romantic love

14) Shauna and Scott feel like they know everything about each other. They are passionately attracted to each other. When they are done with college, they may part ways as they search for jobs or pursue further education. Shauna and Scott are experiencing

A) B) C) D)

liking. infatuated love. empty love. romantic love.

15) Lexi and Caleb have a deep passion for one another, and after a whirlwind courtship they get married. They don't know each other very well. Lexi and Caleb are experiencing

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A) B) C) D)

fatuous love. consummate love. empty love. romantic love.

16) In Western cultures, may occur in burned-out relationships in which the warmth and passion have died, and the decision to stay together is the only thing that remains.

A) B) C) D)

empty love liking companionate love infatuation

17) According to the triangular theory of love, which of the following types of relationships has a high level of intimacy but low levels of passion and commitment?

A) B) C) D)

infatuation liking empty love nonlove

18) According to the triangular theory of love, is the type of love that has a high level of commitment but low levels of intimacy and passion.

A) B) C) D)

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empty love fatuous love consummate love nonlove

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19) According to Hatfield and Berscheid, physiological arousal and the belief that someone is the cause of this arousal is the source of

A) B) C) D)

romantic love. platonic love. passionate attraction. nonlove.

20) Just after getting off a roller coaster at an amusement park, you see a person who is very attractive. When the person asks you to join him or her for some cotton candy, you say yes and later report to your friends how strongly attracted you are to him or her. Your strong attraction may be because of the fact that

A) B) C) D)

the arousal from the roller coaster exaggerated your attraction to the other person. the arousal from the roller coaster diminished your attraction to the other person. your strong attraction is due to passionate feelings toward the other person. your strong attraction is due to the instant intimacy you felt toward the other person.

21) Brian, a student who wants to get back into shape, decides to ride a bike to campus every day. A few days after getting into his new routine, he decides to ride from his afternoon lab at UC-Santa Barbara all the way to the Santa Barbara beach. Once his adrenaline peaks because of the exercise, he notices a passerby smiling at him benignly. Brian is most likely to react with a feeling of

A) B) C) D)

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arousal. ambivalence. jealousy. exhaustion.

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22)

Arousal influences attraction if

A) B) C) D)

it is positive. it is negative. it is either positive or negative. it is neither positive nor negative.

23) When researchers increased physiological arousal of men with the viewing of disgusting material or something funny, did the source of the arousal matter for their later attraction?

A) Yes, men who saw the funny material were more attracted to a beautiful woman.

B) Yes, men who saw the disgusting material were more attracted to a beautiful woman.

C) No, no matter what they saw, their liking of the woman was the same as those who didn't see anything.

D) No, both the men who saw the disgusting material and those who saw the funny material were more attracted to the beautiful woman.

24)

According to studies of arousal, which of the following factors fuels love in men?

A) B) C) D)

adrenaline money emotional balance greed

25) Men and women experience the various types of love similarly, and although men tend to be more and less than women are, the differences are rather small.

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A) B) C) D)

passionate; discreet committed; lustful. securely attached; cautious avoidant of intimacy; anxious about abandonment

26) John tells his classmate Lily, "I love you, but I am not in love with you." Which of the following is an accurate statement about this scenario?

A) B) C) D)

27) they

Lily's love has been reciprocated well.

Lily should stop meeting John.

John is not passionately attracted toward Lily.

John is physically aroused.

In Rubin's Passionate Love Scale, the individuals who people report they love are those

A) B) C) D)

think are well-adjusted and likable. would like to be like. would do anything for and would be miserable without. are most concerned about.

28) In a study assessing whether relationship status would influence judgment, men rated an inept woman if they believed they'd be going out with her that weekend.

A) B) C) D)

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as competent as unattractive accurately as the best

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29) The idea that with new experiences and roles that our partners bring to us, we learn new things about ourselves and we change is suggested in the

A) B) C) D)

30)

triangular theory of love. disclosure reciprocity model. self-expansion model. sociocultural model.

Identify an accurate statement about companionate love.

A) B) C) D)

It is a more settled state than romantic love is.

It scores low on intimacy.

It depends on passion.

It lacks a deep sense of friendship.

31) When spouses who had been married for 15 years or more were asked about their marriages, which of the following did they most frequently mention?

A) B) C) D)

32)

altruism, which means that they would do anything for their spouses companionship, which means that they have a great friendship with their spouse economic support, which means that they would be less well-off if they were single passion, which means that they would be miserable without their partners

dopamine

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A) B) C) D)

dopamine serotonin oxytocin epinephrine

33) According to Lee, which style of loving involves developing attachments that evolve slowly but lead to real commitment?

A) B) C) D)

agape ludus pragma storge

34) Alison fell in love with Jude at their first meeting. She thought he was very attractive, and she wanted to have a relationship with him. According to Lee's love style, which style of love is Alison showing?

A) B) C) D)

eros ludus storge agape

35) Shawn has a number of girlfriends. He sees romantic relationships as relationships in which he can have fun. He has no intentions of settling down with any of his girlfriends.

According to Lee's love style, which style of love is Shawn showing?

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A) B) C) D)

eros ludus storge agape

36) According to Lee, which style of loving involves seeking lovers based on their statistical and demographic characteristics such as a person holding the right job, being a specific age, etc.?

A) B) C) D)

37)

Which of the following is a characteristic of an agapic lover?

A) B) C) D)

38)

agape eros ludus pragma

altruism and dutifulness practicality and carefulness possessiveness and excitement passion and intensity

Identify the characteristics of a pragmatic lover.

A) B) C) D)

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possessiveness and excitement practicality and carefulness passion and intensity altruism and dutifulness

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39) In the context of the styles of loving, which of the following scenarios reflects the mania style of love?

A) B) C) D)

40)

Ruth is attracted to a girl in her class for her good looks.

Sophia loves her fiancé because of his high socioeconomic status.

Theresa is in a romantic relationship with three boys from her college.

Susan's husband has no personal space because of her possessive nature.

Which of the following is true of unrequited love?

A) B) C) D)

It seems to happen more to women than to men.

People who experience it are generally delighted to be the object of love.

It happens more to those with preoccupied attachment styles.

It is experienced as unreciprocated love and lust by the object.

41) Compared to securely attached individuals, insecurely attached individuals tend to experience

A) less intimacy, passion, and commitment in their relationships.

B) about the same amount of intimacy, passion, and commitment, if they actually get into a relationship.

C) more passion but less intimacy and commitment.

D) more intimacy, passion, and commitment in their relationships.

42) When asked to provide comfort to a needy partner, those high in negatively and sometimes get angry.

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A) B) C) D)

avoidance security commitment passion

43) According to Zhang and Kline, college students in are more likely than those in the United States to be guided by their parents’ wishes regarding whom they should marry.

A) B) C) D)

France Italy Canada China

44) Which attachment style best characterizes a person who views others with suspicion, assuming everyone is untrustworthy?

A) B) C) D)

45)

avoidant attachment style dismissive attachment style fearful attachment style preoccupied attachment style

People with an anxious attachment style

A) B) C) D)

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tend to get angry when called upon to console a needy partner. are willing to offer care to their partners, but primarily to gain approval. engage in caregiving for altruistic reasons. often become fearful when asked to care for their partner.

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46)

Preoccupied individuals are characterized as being

A) B) C) D)

high in passionate vigor. high in anxiety over abandonment. distant and detached. extremely committed to their partners.

47) Regarding attachment style and sexual behavior, which style is associated with being distant and detached so that one's passion is impersonal?

A) B) C) D)

48)

Older partners interact with

A) B) C) D)

49)

secure preoccupied anxious avoidant

renewed vigor and intensity. less physical arousal but with more good cheer. anxiety over abandonment by the other. similar levels of romance and emotion to those in their youth.

With time (decades), our emotions toward our lover tend to become .

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and more

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A) B) C) D)

50)

Compared to men, women generally

A) B) C) D)

51)

Men fall in love faster than women.

Men are typically less discriminating of partners.

Men are more likely to believe in love at first sight.

All of the answers are correct.

In love marriages, romantic love tends to

A) B) C) D)

53)

engage in much more casual romantic relationships. do not discriminate while choosing partners. are more selective about whom they love. take less time falling intensely in love.

Which of the following statements relating to gender differences and love is true?

A) B) C) D)

52)

intense; negative mellow; positive intense; positive mellow; negative

.

decline over time be nonexistent remain at a plateau lifelong increase with time

The Coolidge effect refers to the tendency for

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A) B) C) D)

the presentation of a new partner to increase arousal in animals. the repeated presentation of the same partner to increase arousal in animals. passion to increase exponentially with time with the same partner. ever increasing excitement with a partner with whom one is committed.

54) Which of the following statements about the course of romantic love between partners over the life span is true?

A) Initially, feelings of romantic love rise dramatically and then increase gradually over time.

B) The gap between ideal and experienced love reduces over the lovers' lifetime.

C) Romantic love is less of an issue for older Americans because they grew up in an era when love was less important for marriage.

D) The fantasy, novelty, and arousal decline in committed relationships, which relates to the decline of romantic love.

55) Which of the following statements is not one of the suggestions for maintaining a happy, long-lasting relationship?

A) Passion should be the solid foundation for your romantic relationship.

B) Try to stay fresh; grab opportunities to enjoy novel adventures with your partner.

C) Nurture a friendship with your lover.

D) Don't be surprised or disappointed if urgent desires gradually resolve into placid affection for your beloved.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_9e 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) A

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CHAPTER 9 1) According to studies conducted by Daugherty and Copen, people who hold a "permissiveness with affection standard" believe that

A) people who are open to hookups are more fun to be with.

B) potential mates who are virgins are less desirable.

C) sex between unmarried partners is fine as long as it occurs in the context of a committed relationship.

D) gays and lesbians make for good parents, and it is important for them to have liberal marriage laws.

2)

Research shows that most Americans are still ambivalent about

A) sex between people who are not committed to each other.

B) sex between people who are engaged to be married.

C) men having sex outside of marriage more than women having sex outside of marriage.

D) men having sex with multiple partners more than women having sex with multiple partners.

3)

With regard to gender differences in attitudes toward sex, research finds that

A) men are more likely to regret their sexual actions, while women regret their sexual inactions.

B) men are more likely to prefer sexual activities within a psychologically intimate relationship.

C) men with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are judged more harshly than women with STIs. D) men have a more accepting attitude than women do toward casual nonmarital sex.

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4) The sexual double standard refers to the asymmetry in people's attitudes toward sexual behavior among

A) B) C) D)

heterosexuals and bisexuals. men and women. married and unmarried couples. younger and older couples.

5) The sexual double standard, admiration of men with multiple sexual partners as studs and dismissal of women with multiple partners as sluts,

A) is still around, but it seems to have flipped. Men with many partners are viewed more negatively and women more positively.

B) is nonexistent today in any form.

C) is still around today in the same form as many years ago.

D) is more subtle today, but a person's sex can still influence people's evaluation of his or her sexual experiences.

6) In the past few years, there has been marriage.

A) B) C) D)

7)

in Americans' attitudes toward gay

a dramatic, positive shift no change a slight positive shift a negative shift

Part of the recent shift in attitudes about gay marriage can be explained by

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A) B) C) D)

the increasing belief that homosexuality is a matter of conscious choice. recent legislation geared toward gays and lesbians. pressure from the international community. the increased visibility of gay men and lesbians in public life.

8) According to research, which of the following factors increases the likelihood of someone developing a homosexual orientation?

A) B) C) D)

9)

biological influences before birth increased exposure to pop culture featuring gays and lesbians a strict upbringing friendships with gays and lesbians

Social scientists believe that

A) same-sex relationships are fundamentally different from heterosexual partnerships.

B) same-sex partners are actually better qualified to be parents than heterosexual partners.

C) marriage is beneficial to people regardless of their sexual orientation.

D) there is not enough evidence to determine whether it is fair for same-sex partners to receive the same recognition as heterosexual partners.

10)

According to research, the average age of first sexual intercourse for Americans is .

A) B) C) D)

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11)

is evidence that American teens are being more responsible than they used to be about sex, but is evidence that they are not being careful enough.

A) The all-time low teen birth rate; the significant number of teenagers with sexually transmitted infections B) The decreasing rate of sexually transmitted infections; the decreasing rate of use of birth control C) The low number of female teens who are enthusiastic rather than ambivalent about having sex; the high number of teens having sex with those who are emotionally unimportant to them D) The all-time low incidence of sexually transmitted infections; the general decrease in feelings of closeness with a partner

12) According to research findings on sexual behavior, which of the following is true of Americans' first sexual encounter?

A) B) C) D)

13)

Most people wait until their mid-20s to have sex for the first time.

Most teens find their first sexual encounter to be a positive experience.

Women enjoy their first experience of sex more than men do.

A sizeable majority have sex for the first time with mere acquaintances.

Overall, research suggests that abstinence-only programs are

A) B) C) D)

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highly effective in reducing the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases. generally based on the most up-to-date scientific information. less likely to get teens to use contraception. helpful in reducing the rates of teen pregnancy.

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14) Alexa and her husband, Rich, have been having sex a lot more often lately because they want to have a baby. According to Meston and Buss, this is a(n) reason to have sex.

A) B) C) D)

emotional physical insecure pragmatic

15) According to Meston and Buss, which of the following is not one of the four themes underlying an individual's motivations to have sex?

A) B) C) D)

16)

emotional physical communicative pragmatic

People’s motivation to have sex is based on insecurity when they want to

A) B) C) D)

communicate love and commitment to their partner. gain physical pleasure from sex. boost their self-esteem. attain a goal.

17) Which group experiences the greatest decline in the frequency of sex after 10 years in a relationship?

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A) B) C) D)

cohabiting heterosexual couples gay men lesbian women married heterosexual couples

18) Which of the following factors makes the largest contribution to differences in the estimates of sexual partners between heterosexual men and women?

A) B) C) D)

19)

Men are more likely to have sex with prostitutes.

Men have more same-sex experiences.

Men and women define sex differently.

Studies have been done principally with men.

Which of the following terms refer to having sex with someone other than one's partner?

A) B) C) D)

extramarital sex extrapyramidal sex extradyadic sex extrapersonic sex

20) Research by Tafoya and Spitzberg has found that approximately 1 out of every husbands and 1 out of every wives have been unfaithful.

A) 3; 5 B) 5; 3 C) 2; 3 D) 5; 2

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21)

According to research, the prevalence of extradyadic sex is highest among

A) B) C) D)

heterosexual women. heterosexual men. gay men. lesbian women.

22) Traitlike collections of beliefs and behaviors that describe our feelings about sex are known as

A) B) C) D)

sociobiological orientation. psychosocial orientation. biopsychosocial orientation. sociosexual orientation.

23) Which type of sociosexuality refers to a willingness to engage in sex only in the context of an affectionate, committed relationship?

A) B) C) D)

24)

restricted partially restricted partially unrestricted unrestricted

Individuals with unrestricted sociosexual orientations

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A) B) C) D)

tend to be flirtatious. are more likely to be female than male. are less likely to engage in extradyadic sex. tend to be introverted.

25) In the context of research on sociosexual orientations, which of the following statements is true?

A) Unrestricted women tend to have facial features that are more feminine than those of other women.

B) Unrestricted women are less attractive than restricted women.

C) Women find unrestricted men to be more feminine than restricted men.

D) Women prefer the faces of restricted men for long-term mates.

26) Pursuing long-term mates that contribute resources to raising offspring while surreptitiously seeking desirable genes in order to have strong healthy children that survive is called

A) B) C) D)

the tend and befriend hypothesis. the sexual double standard. the good genes hypothesis. sociosexual orientation.

27) In the context of the good genes hypothesis, it has been found that when fertile, a woman is more likely to have sex with another man if

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A) B) C) D)

28)

Gender difference in sex drives

A) B) C) D)

29)

varies among cultures. leads to mismatches among some couples. is the most frequent cause of breakups in couples. is illusory.

Saying that women are often the gatekeepers of sex in relationships means that

A) B) C) D)

30)

her husband has a symmetrical body. her husband has similar genes. her husband is dominant. her husband is assertive.

women often decide whether extradyadic sex can occur for the couple. women decide when and how often sex occurs. men's desire for sex is irrelevant for couples. men have more power over the decisions couples make about sex than women.

What constitutes cybersex?

A) B) C) D)

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31) According to a study by Lewis, about what percentage of college students report using condoms when hooking up?

A) B) C) D)

25 percent 50 percent 75 percent 90 percent

32) If the probability of getting an infection for a woman in a single unprotected sexual encounter with an infected man is 0.1, what is the probability she'll be infected if she has unprotected sex with him 10 times?

A) 0.1 B) much lower than that C) much higher than that D) More information is needed to answer.

33) Coming out of her health class, Louise says to a friend, "I know other people get those kinds of sexually transmitted diseases, but that will not ever happen to me." Assuming Louise engages in the same kinds of sexual behaviors as others, she is demonstrating

A) B) C) D)

an unrestricted sociosexual orientation. a sexual double standard. pluralistic ignorance. the illusion of unique invulnerability.

34) In the context of biases that influence sexual behavior, which of the following is a consequence of harboring the illusion of unique invulnerability?

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A) B) C) D)

35)

People get more reckless in their sexual behavior than usual.

People become confident about their sexual identity.

People begin to fear sexual intimacy.

People start to compare their sex lives with those of others.

One of the effects of alcohol myopia is that it makes individuals

A) B) C) D)

focus only on the most salient environmental cues. consider their partners to be less attractive. less likely to be able to perform sexually. less likely to engage in high-risk sexual behavior.

36) According to research on the sexual behavior of Americans, which of the following is true of hookups?

A) Men assume that they have casual sex more frequently than their peers.

B) Hookups are not as popular as most people think they are.

C) Women tend to underestimate their peers' approval of hooking up.

D) Both men and women overestimate how often their peers use condoms when hooking up.

37) When people wrongly believe their feelings and beliefs are different from those of others, they are exhibiting

A) B) C) D)

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pluralistic ignorance. alcohol myopia. the illusion of invulnerability. the illusion of unanimity.

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38)

In general, if the woman is the more powerful partner in a relationship, the couple is

A) B) C) D)

39)

The most important deterrent to engaging in safe sex seems to be that people

A) B) C) D)

40)

more likely to use condoms when they have sex. less likely to use condoms when they have sex. more likely to have an illusion of invulnerability. less likely to have an illusion of invulnerability.

do not believe that condoms are effective. enjoy sex more when they don't use condoms than when they do. often drink alcohol before engaging in sex. do not think other people engage in safe sex.

In the context of consensual non-monogamy (CNM), polyamory is where partners

A) agree to avoid any romantic or emotional attachments to anyone they have sex with outside of their relationship.

B) pursue extradyadic sex as a couple.

C) have both sexual and romantic relationships with more than one person.

D) engage in extradyadic sex without informing each other.

41) As suggested by Self-Determination Theory, sex is more satisfying to both members of a couple if it fulfills the needs of

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A) B) C) D)

42)

autonomy, competence, and relatedness. autonomy, submission, and nurturance. authority, competence, and nurturance. authority, submission, and relatedness.

An individual with a sexual destiny belief is likely to believe that

A) B) C) D)

sexual satisfaction is something one works for. sexual success is malleable. determination is more important than compatibility for sexual success. finding a sexual soulmate is crucial to having great sex.

43) The high subjective quality of sexual interactions among same-sex couples has been found to be related to

A) B) C) D)

44)

compatible sex drives. communication regarding personal desire. shared interests, which then lead to sexual engagement. greater psychological involvement than heterosexual couples.

Which gender is more likely to perceive sexual interest is present when it is not?

A) B) C) D)

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women men Neither; men and women are equally likely to misperceive sexual interest.

We do not know; research has not been conclusive.

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45)

The best sex depends on all of these except

A) B) C) D)

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each person having needs met by a partner. how objectively attractive a partner is. being devoted to a relationship. enjoying being with each other, in bed and out of it.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_9e 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) B

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CHAPTER 10 1) The degree to which people consider their relationships with us to be precious to them is known as

A) B) C) D)

love conceptualization. relational equity. relational value. love schema.

2) Olivia sees her relationship with Ryan as very close and important. Ryan sees his relationship with Olivia as moderately close and not very important. It appears that Olivia and Ryan are different in terms of their

A) B) C) D)

relational intentions. relational value. conceptualization of love. love schema.

3) Sarah was planning to attend a reading group meeting on her university campus.

However, when she heard that her classmate Jessica would also be there, she decided not to go.

In the context of research on relational values, Sarah's degree of acceptance of Jessica can be described as that of

A) B) C) D)

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complete abandonment. passive inclusion. active exclusion. total boycott.

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4) Roan and Paul decided to organize a reunion of all their old classmates living in and around New York City. After inviting everyone, they decided on a date and venue. A few days later, Maria, one of the invitees, informed them that she would not be able to make it on that particular day but was free the next day. They were disappointed to hear this but decided to go ahead with the plan anyway. In the context of research on relational values, their degree of acceptance of Maria can be described as that of

A) B) C) D)

maximal inclusion. active inclusion. passive inclusion. ambivalence.

5) In the context of perceived relational value, when others seek us out and go out of their way to interact with us, this is known as

A) B) C) D)

6)

Which of the following factors affects our momentary judgments of self-worth?

A) B) C) D)

7)

valued friendship. active inclusion. maximal inclusion. opening the door.

Maximum exclusion affects our momentary judgments of self-worth.

Active exclusion affects our momentary judgments of self-worth.

Passive exclusion affects our momentary judgments of self-worth.

All of these answers are correct.

Research on social exclusion shows that

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A) once we find out that others do not want us around, it does not matter much to us how much they dislike us.

B) we are sensitive to different levels of rejection; the more people do not want us around, the more it hurts.

C) we hate being excluded entirely, but if others' dislike is not too great, we feel okay.

D) most people prefer ambivalence from others rather than complete rejection.

8)

The apparent decrease in others' regard for us that results in hurt feelings is known as

A) B) C) D)

relational devaluation. relational distress. relational tolerance. extreme rejection.

9) For the first few months after they met, Jon really seemed to like Luke and enjoy his company. Jon now seems to avoid Luke. Luke heard through friends that Jon does not like him much anymore. Luke has experienced

A) B) C) D)

10) true?

relational devaluation. abandonment. relational tolerance. ambivalence.

In the context of research on reactions to rejection, which of the following statements is

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A) Marijuana intensifies the pain one experiences due to relational devaluation.

B) Constant rejection causes more negative feelings than a pattern of decreasing acceptance from someone.

C) When people who experienced romantic rejection were studied in fMRI scanners, their brains responded as if they were experiencing real pain.

D) Unlike people with a dismissing style of attachment, people with an avoidant style of attachment experience more pain when others withdraw or show decreasing interest with time in their relationship.

11) Ostracizers often believe that ostracism is ostracism .

A) B) C) D)

12)

. The ostracized tend to find the

beneficial; damaging to the relationship useless; beneficial beneficial; beneficial in time useless; damaging to the relationship

Ostracism has been found to cause excluded people to

A) B) C) D)

act more strategically. increase complex thought. overestimate how much time has passed. be better, more rational planners.

13) According to Sommer and Rubin, which of the following statements is true of how people with low self-esteem react when they are ostracized compared with people with high selfesteem?

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A) They are more likely to forgive the partner who ostracizes them and to forget the incident.

B) They are more likely to stay with someone who ostracizes them but to carry a grudge.

C) They are more likely to stop ostracizing others after the experience.

D) They are relatively unlikely to put up with this treatment.

14)

According to Guerrero, the three feelings that best define jealousy are

A) B) C) D)

15)

shame, envy, and anger. fear, shame, and pride. envy, hurt, and pride. hurt, anger, and fear.

According to Buunk and Djikstra, reactive jealousy occurs when

A) B) C) D)

someone becomes suspicious although there is no threat to the relationship. someone is snooping around to confirm suspicions. someone becomes jealous in response to another's jealousy. someone becomes aware of an actual threat to the relationship.

16) Although she is innocent, Katelyn's current boyfriend accuses her of seeing her exboyfriend behind his back. Katelyn's current boyfriend is showing

A) B) C) D)

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reactive ambivalence. relational intolerance. suspicious jealousy. possessiveness.

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17) According to research by Rydell, which of the following statements is true of one's tendency to feel jealous?

A) Men are more prone to jealousy than women are.

B) Highly extraverted people are more prone to jealousy than introverted people are.

C) People with a dismissing style of attachment are more prone to jealousy than those with a preoccupied style of attachment.

D) People with a lower CLaltare more prone to jealousy than those with a higher CL alt.

18) Which of the following attachment styles is least likely to make someone prone to jealousy?

A) B) C) D)

19)

secure dismissing preoccupied anxious

Through no fault of their own, the partners of people who are high in the traits of , Machiavellianism, and/or psychopathy are more jealous than the rest of us.

A) B) C) D)

narcissism grandiosity conscientiousness introversion

20) According to Eastwick & Finkel, men and women than do homely rivals.

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competitors evoke more jealousy in both

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A) B) C) D)

attractive dominant aggressive independent

21) Which of the following theories views male jealousy as springing from the importance of ensuring that children are their biological offspring?

A) B) C) D)

error management theory equity theory evolutionary psychology theory interdependence theory

22) Studies conducted by Haselton and Galperin have found that sexual selection may have favored men who were too suspicious of their partners' faithfulness over those who were not suspicious enough. This is because men face potential evolutionary costs in

A) B) C) D)

23)

raising children who are not their own. choosing a partner who will not provide for their children. appearing weak in front of their peers. appearing weak in front of their spouses.

In forced choice questions, women report they would react more to the threat of infidelity and men report they would react more to the threat of infidelity.

A) B) C) D)

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sexual; emotional social; financial emotional; sexual financial; social

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24)

Individuals with preoccupied attachment styles are likely to respond to jealousy by

A) B) C) D)

avoiding the issue. expressing their concerns. trying to make their partner jealous in response. breaking up.

25) To cope with their feelings of jealousy, women sometimes try to induce jealousy in their partners. Which of the following is a primary danger in this strategy?

A) It can create induce intense possessiveness in the partner, leading to destructive conflicts.

B) It may drive the partner away.

C) The woman may become more attracted to her new interest than to her original partner.

D) Jealousy increases the feelings of superiority in the inducer.

26)

Two important strategies for overcoming unwanted jealousy are self-reliance and

A) B) C) D)

27)

bolstering your sense of self-worth. appreciating that jealousy is a sign of true love. ignoring the problem. ruminating about the relationship.

According to research on deception and lying, which of the following statements is true?

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A) B) C) D)

28)

Most lies in close relationships are easily detected by the liar's partner.

Most of the lies people tell are small, white lies of convenience.

Most lies are told to benefit others.

Most lies in close relationships are greedy, consequential lies.

People who lie to others may begin to

A) B) C) D)

distrust themselves. develop anxiety and anxiety disorders. develop sleep problems. distrust those they have lied to.

29) Those who lie to others can begin to perceive the recipients of the lies as less honest and trustworthy. This phenomenon is termed

A) B) C) D)

deception dilemma. liar's paradox. deceiver's distrust. lying conundrum.

30) Which of the following is a characteristic of deception in close relationships as opposed to less-intimate relationships?

A) B) C) D)

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Lies are undertaken to promote polite, friendly interaction.

We are not highly likely to tell lies about serious matters to close partners.

Receivers' accuracy in detecting lies is especially good.

All of these answers are correct.

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31)

Of the following, who is most likely to get away with a lie?

A) B) C) D)

32)

Which of the following most often gives away liars?

A) B) C) D)

33)

inconsistencies in the things they say nonverbal behavior personal confessions fidgeting.

With regard to research on lie detection, which of the following statements is true?

A) B) C) D)

34)

someone who has little to lose someone who is trying hard to make a good impression someone who is a frequent liar someone who is lying to attractive targets

People always avoid eye contact and look nervous when they lie.

People are more animated when they lie.

People generally fidget a lot when they lie.

There is not a single nonverbal cue that is uniquely related to deception.

People's assumptions that their intimate partners usually tell them the truth

A) B) C) D)

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are generally accurate—we lie much less in close relationships. differ based on gender. can be explained by the truth bias. have to do with attachment styles.

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35) Which of the following statements regarding detecting deception in intimate relationships is true?

A) We are better able to detect lying in people we like because we are motivated to do so.

B) Lie detection in casual relationships and intimate relationships has an equal level of accuracy.

C) As relationships become more intimate, our accuracy to detect lies decreases.

D) As relationships become more intimate, we get better at detecting our partners' lies.

36) In terms of our confidence and accuracy at telling when our intimate partners are lying, we tend to have

A) B) C) D)

37)

Betrayal may be inevitable when we have

A) B) C) D)

38)

a high level of confidence, but that has nothing to do with how accurate we are. a high level of confidence, and that gives us a good clue about our accuracy. a low level of confidence although we are usually quite accurate. a low level of confidence, and rightly so, as our accuracy is also poor.

many casual acquaintances. a particularly close relationship with our partner. been betrayed by someone else. competing loyalties among our relationships.

Betrayal is more common among

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A) B) C) D)

39)

unhappy individuals than happy individuals. women than men. older individuals than younger individuals. those who are highly educated than those who are less educated.

When betrayals occur, the

A) two parties typically see the betrayal's effects on the relationship in much the same manner.

B) perpetrators of betrayal are likely to believe that their behavior was inconsequential and innocuous.

C) victims of betrayal are quite likely to see the possible benefits of the betrayal.

D) victims of betrayal are less likely to overestimate the detrimental consequences of the betrayal.

40)

If people want their betrayal to do the least harm to their relationship, they should

A) B) C) D)

41)

admit to their wrongdoing without being asked. allow a third party to reveal the betrayal. admit to the most serious wrong they have done. deny any wrongdoing whatsoever.

People who seek vengeance for a betrayal

A) B) C) D)

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generally achieve their aim of making the betrayer repent. often have a dismissing attachment style. accelerate the healing process. tend to be high in the Dark Triad traits.

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42)

Forgiveness necessarily involves

A) B) C) D)

43)

In forgiveness, you

A) B) C) D)

44)

show that you condone the behavior of the one who offended you. forget what the other person did to hurt you. acknowledge that the partner's conduct was harmful. reserve the right to retaliate.

Which of the following types of people are most likely to forgive?

A) B) C) D)

45)

regaining positive feelings toward the betrayer. giving up the right to retaliate. getting something tangible in return immediately. the possibility of asking for favors from the betrayer in the future.

insecure people (in terms of attachment style) those high in agreeableness those high in neuroticism those high in narcissism

Are apologies helpful in forgiveness?

A) B) C) D)

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No, it is better to provide an excuse.

Yes, expressions of shame and regret are helpful.

No, they simply open old wounds.

Yes they are, even if they seem insincere.

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46)

Forgiveness is more likely

A) B) C) D)

47)

when we are dealing with extraverted partners. in casual, short-term relationships than in dedicated relationships. in relationships involving colleagues or business partners. in close, committed relationships than in whirlwind romances.

Identify a true statement about forgiveness.

A) Forgiveness has the power to transform even selfish, cheating scoundrels into faithful lovers B) Forgiveness that is offered in the absence of genuine contrition may be perceived to be a license to offend again.

C) Forgiveness is associated with higher marital satisfaction even if a spouse habitually misbehaves.

D) Forgiveness rarely gets erring partners to reform and behave better as it tends to shame them.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_9e 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) B

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CHAPTER 11 1)

In intimate relationships, people often experience opposing motivations called

A) B) C) D)

2)

annoyances. dilemmas. dialectics. demands.

Which of the following dialectics can lead to tension in close relationships?

A) B) C) D)

autonomy and connection freedom and independence commitment and passion stability and security

3) Pam wants to be close to her partner Chris, but at the same time, she wants to do her own thing. It seems Pam is experiencing the dialectic involving

A) B) C) D)

4)

stability and change. autonomy and connection. independence and nurturance. openness and closedness.

The dialectic of openness and closedness is related to

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A) B) C) D)

interdependence. predictability. social networks. self-disclosure.

5) Carole's relationship with James, her partner, is pleasant, but she is also starting to feel bored. Carole is experiencing the dialectic of

A) B) C) D)

openness and closedness. stability and change. autonomy and connection. integration and separation.

6) Mark and Anita are fighting over what to do on their first 4th of July as a couple. Mark wants to go to the lake with a group of friends to celebrate the holiday as he has always done.

Anita wants to stay at home, just the two of them, and barbeque in their backyard. Mark and Anita are involved in a dialectic tension between

A) B) C) D)

7)

commitment and passion. independence and nurturance. integration with and separation from others. openness and closedness.

According to the text, how many conflicts per week do dating couples report?

A) 2.3 B) 3.6 C) 7 D) 15

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8)

According to a study by Heaven, people are likely to have more conflicts if they are

A) B) C) D)

low in extraversion. low in openness to experience. high in conscientiousness. high in negative emotionality.

9) When people worry that their partners may leave them, people who are nervously perceive dissension and difficulty where it does not exist and then respond with greater hurt and distress than others would.

A) B) C) D)

securely attached anxious about abandonment preoccupied about issues at work in their first committed relationship

10) Researchers believe that young adults experience more conflict with their partners because they

A) B) C) D)

11)

are especially high in neuroticism. have not learnt to treat others with respect. are also experiencing major life changes. view relationships differently than their parents and grandparents do.

Couples often experience elevated conflict the day after an argument because

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A) B) C) D)

intimate partners hold grudges. they tend to sleep poorly the night after the argument. arguments elevate their serotonin levels. they are insecurely attached.

12) According to a study conducted by Papp, which of the following issues is the most frequent source of conflict for those who are parents?

A) B) C) D)

caring for and disciplining children allocating household duties issues of money management communication styles

13) With regard to Peterson, involves situations in which one person appeals to another for a desired reaction and the other person fails to respond as expected.

A) B) C) D)

a criticism a rebuff an illegitimate demand a cumulative annoyance

14) With regard to Peterson’s categories of events that instigate conflict, relatively trivial events that become irritating with repetition.

A) B) C) D)

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are

criticisms rebuffs illegitimate demands cumulative annoyances

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15) Abram expected Mira to drop off a pair of hedge clippers at his mother's house. Mira did not do so, and, for Abram, that was a source of conflict. Mira's action was experienced by Abram as a(n)

A) B) C) D)

criticism. cumulative annoyance. illegitimate demand. rebuff.

16) David has a habit of cracking his knuckles. Erica has been annoyed with this for a while.

One day, when David cracked all his knuckles twice in a row, Erica yelled at him for his "disgusting habit." With regard to the categories of events that lead to conflicts as classified by Peterson, Erica

A) B) C) D)

developed a social allergy. developed a dialectic tension. felt rebuffed and ignored. is making illegitimate demands.

17) Which of the following is true of conflicts in the relationships of gay and lesbian couples?

A) B) C) D)

They fight in vastly different ways compared with heterosexual couples.

They generally fight over the same topics as heterosexual couples.

They fight over issues unique to gay and lesbian relationships.

None of these answers is correct.

18) Fighting that involves disagreements over whose explanation is correct and whose account is wrong is known as Version 1

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A) B) C) D)

rebuttal. cumulative annoyance. attributional conflict. dialectics.

19) Wayne believes that his partner Beth intentionally kept him in the dark about her sister's visit the following week. Beth says that she thought he knew about the impending visit. Wayne and Beth are engaged in

A) B) C) D)

20)

attributional conflict. dialectic tension. a rebuff. cumulative annoyances.

According to Winterheld, an effective strategy to manage anger is to

A) B) C) D)

express it as soon as one feels angry. ignore it and pretend it does not exist. use humor to diffuse the situation. vent it on objects rather than people.

21) According to Peterson's general model of conflict, when an instigating event occurs, the first choice point is to decide whether

A) B) C) D)

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to address the issue or to avoid it. to escalate the issue or to start negotiating it. to separate or to compromise. to dominate or to favor structural improvement.

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22)

is an example of an indirect tactic involved in the escalation of a conflict.

A) B) C) D)

23)

Empathy Jealousy Validation Condescension

is an example of a direct tactic involved in the escalation of a conflict.

A) B) C) D)

An accusation that criticize a partner Condescension Dejection Attempts to change a topic prematurely

24) When partners fall into a pattern of in which they trade escalating provocations back and forth, their conflicts turn even more fractious.

A) B) C) D)

attributional conflict negative responsibility attribution negative affect reciprocity accusatory conflict

25) According to the social structure hypothesis, men are more likely than women to be withdrawers in a relationship because

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A) B) C) D)

they are more expressive than women. they generally have more power in the relationship. they are more communal than women. they generally have less autonomy in the relationship.

26) The difference between women and men in the demand/withdraw pattern may be attributed to

A) B) C) D)

27)

Which of the following is a direct tactic in negotiation?

A) B) C) D)

28)

gender differences. the fact that men are brought up to be communal and expressive. women's general power over men in relationships. women's resistance to change.

offering self-disclosure with "I-statements" making aggressively humorous jokes exhibiting support for one’s point of view through paraphrasing skirting the issue while defusing ill feeling

An example of an indirect negotiation tactic is

A) B) C) D)

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using "I-statements." providing approval. using friendly humor. accepting responsibility.

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29) In response to conflict and dissatisfaction in his relationship with Frank, Clint actively tries to improve the quality of their interactions by discussing problems with Frank and by changing his own behavior. Clint's response is an example of the response category called

A) B) C) D)

neglect. exit. loyalty. voice.

30) In Rusbult's typology of responses to dissatisfaction in close relationships, a constructive and active response is , whereas a destructive and passive response is .

A) B) C) D)

exit; voice loyalty; neglect voice; neglect neglect; exit

31) With regard to Caryl Rusbult's four different types of responses to conflict, is defined as behaving in a passive but constructive manner by optimistically waiting and hoping for conditions to improve.

A) B) C) D)

32)

voice exit loyalty neglect

The exit response to dissatisfaction in close relationships is

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A) B) C) D)

active and destructive. passive and destructive. active and constructive. passive and constructive.

33) Rusbult identified the ability to remain constructive in the face of a lover's temporary disregard as

A) B) C) D)

avoidance. accommodation. validation. destruction.

34) Andrew and Mary often have heated arguments. During these brawls, they plunge into fiery efforts to persuade and influence each other. On some days, one of them even storms out of the house in anger. After a couple of hours, though, when their tempers have cooled, they joke about the incident and decide to find a solution on amicable terms. According to Gottman's classification of couples based on approaches to conflict, Andrew and Mary can be described as

A) B) C) D)

avoiders. hostiles. validators. volatiles.

35) When the Porters fight, they dive into their problems and talk about them at length. Their fights are sprinkled with remarks such as "I see your point" and "That must have been hard for you." In the context of couple conflict types, the Porters are best classified as

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A) B) C) D)

avoiders. hostiles. validators. volatiles.

36) Joan and Mark do not fight very often. When they do have a conflict, each states his or her side. They then seem to accept that they disagree and move on. In the context of couple conflict types, Joan and Mark are best classified as

A) B) C) D)

avoiders. hostiles. validators. volatiles.

37) In the context of couple conflict types, which type of couple is unable to maintain a minimum of a 5-to-1 ratio of nice behavior to nasty conduct?

A) B) C) D)

38)

avoiders validators volatiles hostiles

In volatile couples, the ratio of positive to negative exchanges during a fight is at least

A) 1-to-1.

B) 2-to-1.

C) 5-to-1.

D) 10-to-1.

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39) When Chris and Barb fight, the fights tend to be quite caustic. The arguments often include criticism and contempt, and Barb often withdraws before they come to a conclusion. In the context of couple conflict types, Chris and Barb are best classified as

A) B) C) D)

40)

In

A) B) C) D)

avoiders. hostiles. validators. volatiles.

, conflict ends with a winner and a loser.

domination compromise separation accommodation

41) When both partners in a conflict achieve their original aspirations and goals although they may make concessions on exactly how their objectives are reached, they have achieved A) B) C) D)

a compromise. domination. an integrative agreement. separation.

42) When partners get what they want and also learn and grow in their relationship, they have achieved

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A) B) C) D)

a compromise. domination. dilution. a structural improvement.

43) When Wendy wanted to go back to school and her husband Josh opposed it because it would take time away from their family, Wendy and Josh went through a great deal of conflict.

In the end, they both changed their ideas and expectations for their life together and made a renewed commitment to their marriage. What Wendy and Josh experienced is best described as a(n)

A) B) C) D)

44)

reconciliation. structural improvement. compromise. dialectic.

John Gottman advises men who want their marriages to work to

A) B) C) D)

dodge disagreements at all costs. dominate their partners. give in to all of their partners’ wishes. try not to avoid conflict.

45) Which of the following is most likely to be related to growth and prosperity in a relationship?

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A) B) C) D)

46)

a great deal of conflict, no matter how it is handled conflict that is handled skillfully conflict that is completely avoided an absence of conflict

What is a noticeable tendency among couples with regard to conflict style?

A) Most couples change conflict styles often, fighting constructively one month and destructively the next.

B) Most couples cannot be categorized as using one conflict style.

C) Although change is possible, couples tend to maintain the same conflict style.

D) Couples maintain conflict styles that cannot change once established.

47)

One of the rules for a listener in the speaker-listener technique is to

A) B) C) D)

48)

paraphrase what you hear when the speaker asks you to. rebut the speaker's arguments with your own while the speaker has the floor. focus on your arguments against what the speaker is saying. work on a solution to the problem while listening to the speaker.

One of the rules for a speaker in the speaker-listener technique is to

A) B) C) D)

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try to solve the problem while you have the floor. be sure to make your turn long enough so that all problems are on the table. stop and let a listener paraphrase what you have just said. talk about your perceptions of your listener's motives or point of view.

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49) Which of the following is a rule for both the partners employing the speaker-listener technique?

A) B) C) D)

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Use "I-statements."

No problem solving.

Don’t try to be a mind reader.

Don’t rebut.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_9e 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) C 49) B

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CHAPTER 12 1)

As defined in the text, social power is the ability to

A) influence the thoughts, feelings, and behavior of others to suit our purposes.

B) monitor our nonverbal behavior in social situations such that we are not influenced by others.

C) identify who has the greatest influence in any social exchange or situation.

D) maintain one's calm and control in tense situations.

2) on?

From an interdependency perspective, which of the following factors does power depend

A) B) C) D)

the sole ownership of a precious item the control of access to a valuable resource a person's mild wish to own a pricey thing lack of influence in personal and social situations

3) According to the , the person in a partnership who has a smaller stake in continuing and maintaining the relationship has more power in that partnership.

A) B) C) D)

color wheel model of love principle of lesser interest triangular theory of love schemata theory

4) For your roommate, it is very important that the two of you live together the following year. You wouldn't mind living with him/her again next year, but you have considered other options. In this relationship, you have more power than your roommate. This is an example of

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A) B) C) D)

5)

the principle of lesser interest. the motivation crowding theory. intimate terrorism. behavior control.

The availability of many alternatives to a partner in a relationship

A) B) C) D)

increases that partner's social power. makes that partner more dependent on the other. enhances the passion in the relationship. decreases the other partner's commitment.

6) From an interdependency perspective, often when a woman quits work after marriage, her power in the relationship decreases as her .

A) B) C) D)

sex drive shoots up financial power stabilizes reproductive options increase alternatives dwindle

7) When one has control over a partner's outcomes, no matter what the partner does, one exercises a form of power known as

A) B) C) D)

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control over destiny. fate control. mind management. life influence.

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8) Derrick has accepted a job in another state. His wife, who is not employed, is not happy about moving but doesn't have a choice. In this example, Derrick

A) B) C) D)

counters his wife's power over him. makes the best of available life choices. exercises fate control over his wife. attempts to create equity in their marriage.

9) Brian and Benita are an immigrant couple who live in a poorly connected suburban town.

Benita is a stay-at-home mom who has no friends in town. She does not know to drive and hence has to depend on Brian to drive her downtown or explore the city. Although she would like to go out more frequently, Brian says he cannot take her out more than once a week. In this case, Brian exercises a form of power known as

A) B) C) D)

fate control. behavior control. coercive control. normative control.

10) Carla tells her partner that she will agree to cook every day only if he washes the dishes.This is an example of

A) B) C) D)

11)

fate control. behavior control. mate-guarding. accommodation.

Counterpower occurs

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A) B) C) D)

as revenge when one partner has been disempowered. when both partners have control over each other. when one partner has unmatched control over the other. as a function of time, when one partner controls scheduling.

12) Sadie craves affection and compliments from her husband Felipe. Felipe has over Sadie.

A) B) C) D)

coercive power expert power reward power informational power

13) Mrs. Garcia says she will take away 13-year-old Samantha's cellphone if Samantha keeps having phone conversations during the family's dinner hour. In this case, Mrs. Garcia holds

A) B) C) D)

14)

coercive power. expert power. informational power. referent power.

refers to a person's ability to bestow various punishments on someone else.

A) B) C) D)

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Informational power Referent power Coercive power Expert power

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15) Which kind of power do we willingly give to another person when we identify with and feel connected to that person?

A) B) C) D)

expert power informational power reward power referent power

16) Amy's husband, Kevin, did all the housework for the two weeks that Amy went abroad on a business trip. So when Kevin asked her if they could visit his parents for a week, she could not refuse although she had other plans. In this case, Kevin holds over Amy.

A) B) C) D)

legitimate power informational power reward power expert power

17) Melissa is knowledgeable about money management and does an excellent job of overseeing their joint finances in her marriage with Jake. Jake, in turn, feels obligated to consult Melissa whenever he considers a large financial transaction. In this example, it can be said that Melissa has over Jake.

A) B) C) D)

referent power reward power coercive power expert power

18) According to research done by Pratto and Walker, which of the following is true in societies that accumulate wealth?

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A) On average, men enjoy more power than women.

B) On average, men and women enjoy equal amounts of power.

C) Men used to enjoy more power than women, but this trend has begun reversing since 2004.

D) The power balance between men and women in marriage specifically depends on who owns more land.

19)

Which of the following factors supports and maintains male dominance in most cultures?

A) B) C) D)

20)

the importance of particularistic resources the desire to accumulate wealth the prevalence of social norms the desire for autonomy

Which of the following is true of power among men and women?

A) Men and women face a disparity in relative resources.

B) Men are far more likely to hold the reins of governmental, judicial, and corporate power than women.

C) Men generally make more money than women do.

D) All of these answers are correct.

21)

Love is an example of a

A) B) C) D)

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Particularistic resource Universalistic resource Patriarchal resource Matriarchal resource

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22)

When women are in positions of leadership

A) they are evaluated in a way similar to the way men are evaluated.

B) they are evaluated in a harsher manner when they straightforwardly tell others what to do.

C) they are evaluated quite leniently when they straightforwardly tell others what to do.

D) they are judged as charming and likable no matter what leadership style they take.

23)

Identify a true statement about coercive power.

A) It fosters resistance and discontent in the victim.

B) It is more effective than any other gentler form of power.

C) In the long run, it bestows more rewards than punishments on the less powerful partner.

D) It leads to immediate, irreversible damage to the relationship.

24) According to research by Fast et al., which of the following statements is true of powerful people?

A) Compared with less powerful people, they tend to think that they can control events that are uncontrollable.

B) They are very good at comprehending others' points of view.

C) They view others' moral transgressions less harshly than their own.

D) They expect that their subordinates will find them sexually unattractive and hence flirt less than less powerful people do.

25) In the context of power differentials, who is most likely to be interrupted in a conversation?

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A) B) C) D)

26)

A person who interrupts during a conversation is perceived to be

A) B) C) D)

27)

a man talking to another man a woman talking to another woman a man talking to a woman a woman talking to a man

the less powerful person. the more powerful person. of equal status to his or her partner in the conversation. judgmental.

With regard to nonverbal behavior, powerful people tend to

A) B) C) D)

use less intense facial expressions. try to make themselves look smaller. take up more space. use shorter interpersonal distances.

28) In a boss-subordinate relationship, who is typically responsible for keeping track of what the other is feeling?

A) B) C) D)

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The boss is responsible for keeping track of what the other is feeling.

The subordinate is responsible for keeping track of what the other is feeling.

They are both equally responsible.

None of these answers is correct.

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29) According to a study conducted by Falbo and Peplau, which of the following is a direct strategy to influence a partner to do something?

A) B) C) D)

explicitly asking for what one wants making ambiguous requests sulking when one's wishes are unfulfilled hinting casually at what one wants

30) According to research by Falbo and Peplau, indirect and unilateral styles of power are most likely to be used in relationships by

A) B) C) D)

lesbians. gays. heterosexual women. heterosexual men.

31) Research on strategies used to influence a partner has found that on average, heterosexual men report more extensive use of

A) B) C) D)

direct and unilateral strategies. indirect and bilateral strategies. direct and bilateral strategies. indirect and unilateral strategies.

32) According to studies on the balance of power in relationships, in which of the following instances is a heterosexual marriage most likely to be satisfying?

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A) B) C) D)

33)

when the husband holds more power in decision-making when the wife holds more power in decision-making when the spouse who earns more holds more power in decision-making when the husband and wife share decision-making equally

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about power in relationships?

A) B) C) D)

Power is inherently corrosive to relationships.

Power typically enhances important relationships.

Power can be both malevolent and benevolent in relationships.

Power has little bearing on relationships.

34) Impulsive violence that is tied to specific arguments and that erupts when a heated conflict gets out of hand is called

A) B) C) D)

intimate terrorism. intimate control. situational couple violence. violent resistance.

35) According to research by Johnson, which of the following statements is true of situational couple violence?

A) B) C) D)

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It is more likely than intimate terrorism to escalate into a serious conflict.

It is more likely than intimate terrorism to be tied to specific arguments.

It is the least common type of violence in relationships.

The majority of perpetrators of situational couple violence are women.

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36)

Which of the following statements is true of intimate terrorism?

A) It is less likely to involve serious injury to its target than situational couple violence.

B) When it is present in a relationship, it occurs more often than situational couple violence.

C) It is more likely to be two-sided than situational couple violence.

D) It is disproportionately authored by women.

37) According to evolutionary psychology, the phenomenon in which we work to regulate and control our partners' access to potential rivals is

A) B) C) D)

38)

violent resistance. fate control. mate-poaching. mate-guarding.

In terms of gender differences in partner violence, women are

A) more likely than men to choke, strangle, and beat up their partners.

B) more likely than men to engage in indirect aggression.

C) more likely than men to use violence as a tool in an ongoing pattern of domination and influence.

D) less likely than men to ruin someone's reputation by spreading gossip.

39)

In terms of gender differences in partner violence

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A) most of the injuries are suffered by women.

B) most of the injuries are suffered by men.

C) women are more likely than men to be violent among distressed couples who seek marital therapy.

D) women form the majority of intimate terrorists.

40) An individual who comes from a violent family or lives in a culture that condones intimate partner violence experiences on violence.

A) B) C) D)

41)

relational influences situational influences distal influences dispositional influences

influences make it more likely that partners will experience violent impulses; influences encourage partners to refrain from acting on those impulses.

A) B) C) D)

Inhibiting; impelling Internal; external External; internal Impelling; inhibiting

42) Cheryl experiences extreme jealousy when she sees her husband, Bob, talking to another woman, causing fights that often escalate into violence on both sides. Bob talking to another woman is a(n)

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A) B) C) D)

43)

Cohabiting couples experience more violence than married couples do. This is a on violence.

A) B) C) D)

44)

impelling influence. instigating trigger. distal influence. dispositional influence.

relational influence situational influence distal influence dispositional influence

Men who are intimate terrorists

A) are rare; women are much more likely to be intimate terrorists.

B) have very few commonalities; each tends to be quite different from the next in terms of previous experience with conflict or attitudes toward women.

C) tend to abuse their partners but no one else.

D) often give clues to their tendency toward violence early in their relationships.

45)

People who have experienced violence as a child are

A) doomed to repeat it in their own family.

B) quite likely to repeat it in their own family, but many do not.

C) unlikely to repeat it in their own family, knowing how destructive it can be.

D) equally likely to perpetrate violence in their own family as someone who did not experience violence as a child.

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46) In her research on men who were incarcerated for abusing their female partners, Julia Wood found that

A) almost all of the men were remorseful for their actions.

B) most saw themselves as abusers because of their actions.

C) all mentioned their partners' provocation as the source of their abuse.

D) most believed they were not entitled to use violence in their relationships; it had "just happened."

47) Which of the following factors has been found to influence the tendency of some women to stay in abusive relationships?

A) B) C) D)

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an avoidant attachment style their possessive nature the insistence of extended family members to bear with it the women's disbelief that they'll be better off if they leave

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_9e 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) B 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) D

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CHAPTER 13 1)

Which of the following statements is true of divorce statistics in the U.S.?

A) The number of children living in single-parent homes is five times higher than it was in 1950.

B) The average length of a marriage in the United States is just over 18 years.

C) The median age at which men encounter their first divorce is about 25.

D) Only about 33 percent of all married couples stay together for more than 10 years.

2)

Currently, the number of married adults in the United States

A) B) C) D)

3)

is about the same today as in 1960. is at an all-time high. is at an all-time low. dropped from 1960 to 1980 and has climbed steadily since then.

Which of the following countries has the highest divorce rate?

A) B) C) D)

The United States of America England Canada Japan

4) According to a study by Finkel et al., compared to their great-grandparents, young individuals today are more likely to see marriage as primarily a means to

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A) B) C) D)

achieve personal fulfillment. raise children. pay bills. lead a stable life with a practical partner.

5) Research has found that on the whole, the average perceived quality of American marriages has since 1970.

A) B) C) D)

increased stayed about the same declined increased among younger couples but decreased among older couples

6) According to research done by Fitch and Ruggles, which of the following is true of the correlation between the proportion of American women employed outside the home and divorce rates in the United States?

A) B) C) D)

The two factors are negatively correlated.

The two factors are positively correlated.

The two factors have no correlation.

The two factors are positively correlated only in low-income families.

7) Which of the following is true of the division of housework in heterosexual married couples?

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A) The more household chores the husbands do, the happier they are.

B) Housework is inherently unpleasant, and couples experience trouble no matter who does how much.

C) The only time both partners have above average happiness is when the housework is split 50–50.

D) Wives become unhappier as husbands begin to do more, as they regret their loss of control over the home.

8)

How has individualism likely influenced the divorce rate in the United States?

A) B) C) D)

We demand more of our spouses than in the past.

We are less connected to social norms that might discourage divorce than in the past.

We have less social support from friends and family than in the past.

All of these answers are correct.

9) The current generation of Americans asks more of their spouses than the previous generations ever did because

A) Americans are less connected to their communities than in past generations.

B) more and more women stay at home and rely heavily on their husbands' support than earlier.

C) of the collective nature of Western societies.

D) of the prevalent negative perceptions of divorce.

10) According to research done by Wolfers, divorce has become more socially acceptable than before because

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A) B) C) D)

we like to blame people for wrongdoings. no-fault divorces have become legal. fewer people today want to be coupled off. fewer people are having children.

11) According to a study by Jose, which of the following is true of the relationship between cohabitation and the probability of divorce?

A) People who cohabit before marriage tend to have fewer problems in their marriage compared to those who do not cohabit.

B) People who cohabit before they become engaged are more likely to divorce later compared to those who do not cohabit.

C) People who cohabit for longer periods of time have better marriages than those who cohabit for brief periods.

D) People who cohabit before they become engaged have better marriages than those who cohabit with their fiancé.

12)

Which of the following is true of children of divorced couples?

A) B) C) D)

They are less likely to get divorced themselves.

They are more likely to divorce when they become adults.

They have more favorable views of marriage.

They have higher-quality marriages.

13) According to the Framingham Heart Study, people who have a friend or relative who divorces are more likely to divorce themselves.

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A) B) C) D)

75 percent 33 percent slightly no

14) Which of the following theories says that an unhappily married couple would stay together because the difficulties in getting a divorce are high and the alternatives are few?

A) B) C) D)

Seligman's positive psychology model Ekman's model of facial understanding and facial mismatches whitehead's social expectation model of divorce Levinger's barrier model

15) According to George Levinger, religious and moral beliefs against divorce is an example of a(n) that influences the breakup of relationships.

A) B) C) D)

contribution alternative barrier interdependence

16) Which of the following perceived barriers to divorce actually distinguishes couples who divorce from those who do not?

A) B) C) D)

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religious norms the fear of financial ruin the threat of losing one's children the worry that children will suffer

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17) Shauna and Brent got married in June. They both have little education, Shauna's parents had a bad marriage, and Brent's social skills are not very good. According to Karney and Bradbury's vulnerability-stress-adaptation model, Shauna and Brent's marriage

A) B) C) D)

is doomed no matter what happens. may make it if they do not encounter too many difficulties in life. should be fine as long as they don't have many alternatives to their relationship. has a high likelihood of succeeding no matter what happens.

18) In Karney and Bradbury's vulnerability-stress-adaptation model, a long period of unemployment that a couple experiences is termed as a(n)

A) B) C) D)

stressor. enduring vulnerability. adaptive process. barrier.

19) Craig has a bad day at the office. He comes home and yells at his wife, causing discord in their marriage. This is an example of

A) B) C) D)

an enduring vulnerability. a barrier. stress spillover. marital brittleness.

20) Which model suggests that problematic behavior that destroys a couple begins after marriage?

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A) B) C) D)

the enduring dynamics model the emergent distress model the disillusionment model the reactive stress model

21) In the context of the Processes of Adaptation in Intimate Relationships (or PAIR) project, which of the following models suggests that marriages that are headed for divorce are weaker than others from the very beginning?

A) B) C) D)

the disillusionment model the emergent distress model the enduring dynamics model the vulnerability-stress-adaptation model

22) At their wedding, the Smiths were one of the happiest couples their wedding guests had ever seen. The couple was sure they had a romance that would endure forever and expected a life together that would be wonderful. During their first year, they discovered that marriage was hard work, and they both began to doubt their relationship. By the end of their fifth year together, they were seriously considering divorce. Their experience goes along with the

A) B) C) D)

enduring dynamics model. emergent distress model. disillusionment model. reactive stress model.

23) The Eastons had a rocky courtship. They broke up twice before getting engaged and married. There were a few differences that they couldn't reconcile, but they hoped marriage would provide them with some stability. Several months into the marriage, they found themselves fighting about the same things again and on the road to divorce. Their experience goes along with the

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A) B) C) D)

enduring dynamics model. emergent distress model. disillusionment model. reactive stress model.

24) In the context of the Processes of Adaptation in Intimate Relationships (PAIR) project, which of the following models will most likely recommend that premarital interventions will reduce the risk of divorce?

A) B) C) D)

the disillusionment model the emergent distress model the enduring dynamics model the vulnerability-stress-adaptation model

25) In their long-term study of married couples in the Processes of Adaptation in Intimate Relationships (PAIR) project, Huston and his colleagues found that the best predictor of which couples would divorce was the

A) B) C) D)

disillusionment model. emergent distress model. enduring dynamics model. vulnerability-stress-adaptation model.

26) The Processes of Adaptation in Intimate Relationships (PAIR) project revealed that the speed of a divorce is influenced by all of the following factors except which one?

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A) B) C) D)

27) how

degree of changes in a romance speed of disillusionment in a romance problems that couples bring to the marriage the wedding experience and the blending of extended families

Researchers of the Early Years of Marriage (EYM) Project are primarily interested in affect marital outcomes.

A) B) C) D)

genetics social conditions attachment styles enduring vulnerabilities

28) Which of the following is a reason Black couples are more prone to divorce than white couples?

A) B) C) D)

They do not cohabit before marriage.

They refrained from having children out of wedlock.

They are quite likely to come from broken homes.

They stress on education and career before marriage.

29) As part of the Marital Instability Over the Life Course project, when divorced couples were asked what caused their divorce, women were much more likely than men to cite

A) B) C) D)

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infidelity. unknown reasons. communication difficulties. challenges in the cultural context.

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30) As part of the Marital Instability Over the Life Course project, when divorced couples were asked what caused their divorce, men were much more likely than women to cite

A) B) C) D)

infidelity. communication difficulties. substance use. abuse.

31) With regard to the findings of the Marital Instability Over the Life Course Project, which of the following factors are highly-educated divorced couples most likely to acknowledge as having played a part in their decision to divorce?

A) B) C) D)

32)

socioeconomic status age of marriage social networks incompatibility

Throughout the world, divorce rates are higher when the sex ratio is

A) B) C) D)

high. low. even. uncomputed.

33) Due to their greater exposure to other risk factors such as low income, premarital birth, parental divorce, cohabitation, and despite their greater respect for marriage, are more likely to divorce than white Americans are.

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A) B) C) D)

34)

Hispanics couples of Samoan descent Asians Black Americans

Leslie Baxter's study of college student breakups found that

A) young couples used social media websites to announce relationship statuses.

B) in most cases, people ended their relationships by announcing their exit from the relationship.

C) in most cases, people tried to end the relationship without ever directly saying so.

D) they preferred to break up by using text messages.

35) Announcing one's dissatisfaction with a relationship but opening things up for discussion and negotiation is an example of a(n) strategy.

A) B) C) D)

36)

direct, other-oriented indirect, other-oriented direct, self-oriented indirect, self-oriented

The most common situation leading to a breakup is

A) B) C) D)

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a sudden onset of discontent. a shared desire between both partners to end the relationship. gradual dissatisfaction. the presence of repair attempts.

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37) The breakup pattern most commonly found by Baxter in her study of college students was one labeled

A) B) C) D)

direct dissolution. persevering indirectness. sudden collapse. emotional confrontation.

38) According to research by Steve Duck, the stage that occurs first in the dissolution of most relationships is called the

A) B) C) D)

dyadic phase. personal phase. social phase. grave-dressing phase.

39) Mark knows his relationship with his partner will soon end. He is now talking with friends and family, telling them his side of the story and garnering support. Mark is in the of the dissolution of his relationship.

A) B) C) D)

40)

resurrection phase personal phase dyadic phase social phase

When romantic partners break up, then reconcile and get back together, it is known as

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A) B) C) D)

41)

churning. reformation. resilience. adjustment.

The most common pattern of interaction in the months after a breakup is

A) partners becoming more committed to each other than when they decided to quit their romance.

B) there is no change in partners' connection with each other.

C) partners starting out as friends, with their commitment to each other gradually fading away entirely.

D) bitter quarrels rehashing each other's faults.

42) A(n) , or a story that explains one's experience, is often shaped by a person's perceptions rather than the "truth" of the event.

A) B) C) D)

43)

monologue explication narrative reenactment

In predicting how they would feel after a breakup, young adults

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A) correctly predicted their distress would fade with time but underestimated the initial pain they would feel when the breakup occurred.

B) correctly predicted their distress would fade with time but overestimated the initial pain they would feel when the breakup occurred.

C) were incorrect in predicting that their distress would fade with time but correctly estimated the initial pain they would feel when the breakup occurred.

D) were incorrect in both predicting that their distress would fade with time and in the amount of pain they would feel when the breakup occurred.

44)

People who divorce are generally

A) unhappy for years before the divorce and start feeling better after the divorce.

B) unhappy for years before the divorce and feel even worse after the divorce.

C) unhappy for years before the divorce and continue to feel just as unhappy after the divorce.

D) unhappy just before the divorce and start to feel unhappier after the divorce.

45)

Which of the following statements is true of remarriage among the divorced?

A) Female divorcees who choose to remain single enjoy better health in their later years.

B) Male divorcees are mostly averse to remarriage due to negative experiences in the first marriage.

C) Male divorcees are more interested in remarriage than female divorcees.

D) Female divorcees seek to remarry quickly due to societal pressure.

46)

After a divorce, social networks usually

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A) B) C) D)

increase greatly. increase somewhat. stay the same size. decrease in size.

47) Men's per capita income tends to income tends to .

A) B) C) D)

after divorce, while women's per capita

decrease; increase increase; decrease stay the same; decrease decrease; stay the same

48) In a sample of divorced parents in the Midwestern U.S., had amicable relationships and had distressed relationships with ex-spouses.

A) B) C) D)

70 percent; 30 percent 50 percent; 50 percent 20 percent; 80 percent 40 percent; 60 percent

49) With regard to the research study by Ahrons on the relationship between ex-spouses, in which category of post-marital relationship are former spouses not good friends but are civil and pleasant to each other?

A) B) C) D)

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Angry Associates Concerned Compatriots Perfect Pals Cooperative Colleagues

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50) Which of the following factors accounts for the finding that children do worse following a divorce if one parent moves some distance away?

A) B) C) D)

51)

parental stress parental loss parental conflict economic hardship

According to the parental conflict model

A) children are better off going through a divorce if their homes are full of conflict.

B) children are always better off staying in a home with two parents, no matter the level of conflict.

C) parental divorce is always harmful to the children in the long run.

D) some level of parental conflict is helpful to children as a model for effective communication.

52)

Children of divorce are less affected by divorce when

A) their non-custodial parent does not interfere and visits rarely.

B) their custodial parent speaks well of the other parent, whether or not the children ever see that other parent.

C) they continue to have meaningful contact with both parents.

D) their non-custodial parent visits occasionally but not too much (no more than once a week).

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_9e 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) C

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CHAPTER 14 1) Relationship maintenance mechanisms have been studied by researchers from two different scholarly camps. These two camps are based on and respectively.

A) B) C) D)

the investment model; communication research the attachment model; conflict research commitment; intimacy motivations; barriers

2) When Carla's friends ask her what she plans to do over the weekend, she includes her husband in her response. She usually says, "We will visit his farm this Sunday," or "We plan to just stay at home and watch some movies." In relationship studies, this change in self-definition is referred to as

A) B) C) D)

3)

positive illusion. perceived superiority. cognitive interdependence. the Michelangelo phenomenon.

The shift from thinking of oneself as an "I" to a "we" in relationships is known as

A) B) C) D)

cognitive dissonance. cognitive-behavioral maintenance. cognitive interdependence. cognitive decline.

4) Although he knows his wife can sometimes be rude and has some annoying habits, Keith thinks these are unintentional and don't happen that often. It seems Keith

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A) B) C) D)

has a positive illusion about his wife. has a belief in perceived superiority. is inattentive to alternatives. is experiencing the Michelangelo phenomenon.

5) The cognitive maintenance mechanism in which a partner's faults are judged to be relatively trivial and the relationship's deficiencies are considered to be relatively unimportant is known as

A) B) C) D)

6) with

positive illusion. perceived superiority. cognitive interdependence. the Michelangelo phenomenon.

Perceived superiority, or thinking that your relationship is better than others, is associated

A) B) C) D)

contempt for others. more relationship conflict. stability of the relationship. wishful thinking.

7) Betty is in a stable marriage. Lately, her colleagues have noticed that her boss appears to be romantically interested in her. When they mentioned it to her, she told them that she hasn't noticed his advances. In the context of relationship maintenance mechanisms, Betty is displaying

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A) B) C) D)

8)

positive illusions. inattention to alternatives. perceived superiority. accommodation.

partners tend to stay alert for better relationship options.

A) B) C) D)

Uncommitted Committed Long-married Young

9) Samantha and Sam often talk about how their relationship is better than most of their friends' relationships. They consider their 28-year-old marriage to be special and express surprise over other marriages that end in divorce. This is an example of how Samantha and Sam

A) B) C) D)

are derogating alternatives to maintain their relationship. have a perceived superiority with regard to their relationship. have a willingness to sacrifice to maintain their relationship. are engaging in the Michelangelo phenomenon.

10) In the context of relationship maintenance mechanisms, which of the following is a cognitive maintenance mechanism?

A) B) C) D)

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forgiveness accommodation perceived superiority self-control

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11)

Which of the following is not a cognitive maintenance mechanism?

A) B) C) D)

12)

Derogation of tempting alternatives allows people to feel that other potential partners are

A) B) C) D)

13)

positive illusions cognitive interdependence derogation of tempting alternatives accommodation

unavailable. less attractive than one's current partner. likely to reject one's advances. from similar backgrounds.

Research on derogation of tempting alternatives has shown that

A) all alternatives are derogated.

B) only alternatives that are potential threats to the relationship are derogated.

C) derogation only occurs if the threat of the partner finding out exists.

D) derogation occurs for tempting personal or professional alternatives but not relationship alternatives.

14)

Seeing a movie that interests your partner but not you is a(n)

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A) B) C) D)

15)

unproductive strategy. behavioral maintenance mechanism. cognitive maintenance mechanism. form of derogation of alternatives.

The maintenance mechanism of prayer

A) B) C) D)

is most effective when we pray for our own needs. is less effective than other mechanisms. leads to relationship satisfaction when one prays for the partner's well-being. has been debunked by leading scientists.

16) Our enhanced well-being and enhanced relationships due to partners who encourage us to be all that we can be is named the

A) B) C) D)

positivity phenomenon. enhancement phenomenon.

Michelangelo phenomenon.

Monet phenomenon.

17) Ben enjoys singing and has recorded a few albums. His wife, Julia, encourages him to sing more often and promotes his albums on social media. In the context of relationship maintenance mechanisms, this is termed as

A) B) C) D)

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the Michelangelo phenomenon. a positive illusion. perceived superiority. cognitive interdependence.

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18) When Crystal's husband comes home from work and snaps at her over some trivial issue, she understands that he's probably had a stressful day and resists the urge to snap back. In this scenario, Crystal practices

A) B) C) D)

19)

the Michelangelo phenomenon. prayer. accommodation. willingness to sacrifice.

Accommodation requires

A) B) C) D)

20)

martyrdom. a counselor's guidance. making one's partner a better person. self-control.

is the leading reason why marriages end.

A) B) C) D)

Infidelity Abuse Drug addiction Stress

21) In the context of relationship maintenance mechanisms, which of the following is a behavioral maintenance mechanism?

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A) B) C) D)

22)

perceived superiority rituals derogation of tempting alternatives positive illusions

Forgiving an intimate partner

A) B) C) D)

is a sign of weakness in a relationship. will only draw out an inevitable breakup. is less stressful than holding a grudge. is not recommended by most counselors.

23) To show that he is committed to their relationship, Cameron often engages his girlfriend in discussions about their plans for the future. He is engaging in the maintenance mechanism of

A) B) C) D)

understanding. joint activities. sharing tasks. assurances.

24) Which of the following relational maintenance strategies proposed by Canary and Stafford is the best predictor of a happy marriage?

A) B) C) D)

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25)

In the textbook, the prescription for contentment is to

A) ask for help when you need it, accept with appreciation, and return the favor.

B) accommodate your partner, maintain your calm in all situations, and expect your partner to accommodate for you.

C) appreciate your partner, express your gratitude, and repeat.

D) argue rarely, celebrate often, and keep having fun.

26)

The effect of maintenance mechanisms

A) B) C) D)

27)

declines slowly, so the effect of one activity can last a long time. declines quickly, so, if they are stopped, satisfaction begins to decline. is permanent, and activities need not be repeated. is effective per instance only.

With regard to self-help relationship books and websites, consumers should

A) avail all the information that they can from these sources.

B) steer clear from these sources as they cannot be trusted.

C) be wary and check the credentials of the author or the site before acting on the advice provided.

D) only trust books because websites are not well-monitored.

28)

The long-term effects of premarital preparation programs such as PREP are

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A) uncertain.

B) overwhelmingly positive; most marriages begun this way stay together for many years.

C) negligible.

D) actually negative; marriages that begin this way are more likely to end in divorce.

29)

Relationship skills courses such as PREP are

A) B) C) D)

30)

One of the relationship maintenance mechanisms endorsed by PREP for couples is to

A) B) C) D)

31)

not effective. effective for high-risk couples. effective over the long term. yet to be studied for efficacy.

focus on their immediate future. stick to tried and tested sexual behaviors. not control their spontaneous impulses during communication. make a point of playing together.

Couples who participate in the PREP program are encouraged to

A) B) C) D)

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develop highly romantic and positive expectations of their future. express their expectations of sex clearly and openly. avoid seeming too eager to develop their relationship. live apart and do things on their own for a few weeks.

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32) Carl and Janet have an agreement that if she will vacuum the house on Saturday, he will dust on Sunday. This is termed a(n)

A) B) C) D)

relationship agreement. marital pact. quid pro quo contract. exchange treaty.

33) Which of the following therapies involves the parallel use of quid pro quo contracts and good faith contracts for improved relationships?

A) B) C) D)

behavioral couple therapy. cognitive-behavioral couple therapy. integrative behavioral couple therapy. emotionally focused couple therapy.

34) Which type of therapy is likely to focus on instilling reasonable expectations and relationship beliefs?

A) B) C) D)

behavioral couple therapy cognitive-behavioral couple therapy integrative behavioral couple therapy emotionally focused couple therapy

35) Which type of therapy is likely to focus on accepting incompatibilities that partners cannot change?

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A) B) C) D)

behavioral couple therapy cognitive-behavioral couple therapy integrative behavioral couple therapy insight-oriented couple therapy

36) Wes and Sandra often bicker about the unequal distribution of housework and the lack of fun in their relationship. Their marital therapist focusses on improving their communication skills during conflict and suggests that they share household chores. The therapist also works on getting them to accept that their individual ideas of fun differ fundamentally and helps them develop adaptive emotions to manage this difference. Their marital therapy is most likely

A) B) C) D)

37)

behavioral couple therapy. insight-oriented couple therapy. integrative behavioral couple therapy. emotionally focused therapy.

Unified detachment is a tactic in which partners are encouraged to view their problems

A) B) C) D)

in an unemotional way. with emotional engagement. as nonexistent. with empathy and sympathy.

38) Andrew and Betty obtain help from a marital therapist to repair their relationship. After de-escalating their problematic interactional cycles, the therapist asks them to accept their own disowned needs for security, to accept their partner's evolving construction of the situation, and to create sentimental engagement with each other. Lastly, the therapist tries to consolidate new patterns of attachment behavior. Which approach does this description best represent?

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A) B) C) D)

behavioral couple therapy cognitive-behavioral couple therapy integrative behavioral couple therapy emotionally focused couple therapy

39) Which type of therapy is likely to primarily focus on the sentiments partners experience as they seek to fulfill their attachment needs?

A) B) C) D)

behavioral couple therapy cognitive-behavioral couple therapy integrative behavioral couple therapy emotionally focused couple therapy

40) Insight-oriented couple therapy puts a greater emphasis on couple therapy.

A) B) C) D)

than other types of

openness partners' individual vulnerabilities bringing out the best in one another sharing tasks

41) Which type of therapy is likely to encourage participants to re-imagine their relationship histories in an effort to identify problematic patterns?

A) B) C) D)

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behavioral couple therapy cognitive-behavioral couple therapy integrative behavioral couple therapy insight-oriented couple therapy

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42) What should be the criterion for a couple selecting a marital therapy to improve their relationship?

A) B) C) D)

the one that sounds the most scientifically complex the one practiced by the most busiest and most popular therapist in the market the one with the most number of sessions spread out over 6 months the one that both partners find the most appealing

43) Most people who seriously participate in any marital therapy are likely to be better off afterward, and (as a rough average) about of them will no longer be dissatisfied with their marriages.

A) B) C) D)

44)

Most couples who participate in couple therapies are

A) B) C) D)

45)

one-fourth one-third half two-thirds

worse off afterward. better off afterward. in about the same condition after therapy as they were before. better off for a few weeks but then fall back into old patterns.

In marital therapy, the therapist

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A) is not as important as the therapeutic approach.

B) is just as important as the approach used.

C) should be chosen by one partner.

D) need not be researched by the couple as long as he or she is listed on a creditable website.

46)

What is common to all of the marital therapies reviewed?

A) B) C) D)

47)

People are most likely to experience favorable outcomes from marital therapy when

A) B) C) D)

48)

All the therapies provide explanations for the difficulties couples face.

All the therapies focus on emotional expression.

All the therapies focus on the acceptance of incompatibility.

All the therapies employ a psychodynamic orientation.

there are children involved. it is their last resort before divorce. they have positive expectations. they use a psychoanalytic approach.

Which therapy will work best for you?

A) Insight-oriented couple therapy works best for most people, so it's likely to work best for you.

B) The therapy that appeals to you the most will work best for you.

C) Cognitive-behavioral couple therapy works best for most people, so it's likely to work best for you.

D) The therapy that your spouse suggests is the one that will work best for you.

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49)

Couples therapy is

A) largely underutilized, couples do not seek it as much or as soon as they should.

B) largely overutilized, couples seek it too soon and too much.

C) somewhat overutilized, although some couples do not, many couples use therapy too much.

D) appropriately utilized, couples seek it when they need it and before problems get severe.

50)

Most people divorce

A) B) C) D)

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without consulting a marital therapist. within a year of marriage. without much thought. out of boredom.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_9e 1) A 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) A

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