Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Ka

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 1—Introduction

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to a study (Espenshade & Chung, 2010; Jaschik, 2006), growing numbers of four-year colleges are not relying on the SAT test partly because of a. budget constraints. b. diversity concerns. c. reliability issues. d. quality control.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

2. Psychological tests a. pertain only to overt behavior. b. always have right or wrong answers. c. do not attempt to measure traits. d. measure characteristics of human behavior.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Basic Concepts

3. The specific stimulus on a test to which a person responds overtly is called a(n) a. overt event. b. answer. c. item. d. scale.

ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

4. An individual test a. involves a single examiner for two or more subjects. b. involves only tests of human ability. c. can only be given to one person at a time. d. involves more than one examiner for a single subject.

ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

5. A group test a. can be given to multiple people by one examiner. b. can only be given to three people at a time. c. involves a group of examiners for a single subject. d. involves only tests of human ability.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Basic Concepts

6. Previous learning can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Basic Concepts

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. The potential for learning a specific skill can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

ANS: B

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REF: Basic Concepts

8. One's general potential, independent of prior learning, can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

9. Achievement, aptitude, and intelligence can be encompassed by the term a. human potential. b. human traits. c. human personality. d. human ability.

ANS: D

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REF: Basic Concepts

10. Structured personality tests a. require you to produce something spontaneously. b. require you to choose between two or more alternative responses. c. involve an ambiguous test stimulus about which the response is structured.. d. involve an ambiguous test response.

ANS: B

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REF: Basic Concepts

11. The main purpose of psychological testing is to evaluate a. covert behavior. b. individual differences. c. personality traits. d. overt behavior.

ANS: B

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REF: Basic Concepts

12. Projective personality tests a. provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety. b. require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses c. are unstructured. d. are structured.

ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

13. Tests that measure an individual's typical behavior are called a. ability tests. b. personality tests. c. intelligence tests. d. group tests.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Basic Concepts

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 14. Tests that provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety, and require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses, are called a. group tests. b. individual tests. c. structured personality tests. d. projective personality tests.

ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

15. Personality tests in which the test stimulus and/or required response are ambiguous are called a. projective personality tests. b. structured personality tests. c. unstructured personality tests. d. achievement personality tests.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Basic Concepts

16. Which of the following is true of tests? a. Tests produce explicit data that are subject to scientific study. b. Tests are successful in separating prior learning from potential for learning. c. Very few tests can actually predict behavior. d. Tests can provide insight into overt but not covert behavior.

ANS: A

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REF: Basic Concepts

17. Which of the following relates raw test scores to theoretical or empirical distributions? a. transforms c. scales b. reliability d. theories ANS: C

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REF: Basic Concepts

18. The general potential to solve problems, adapt, and profit from experience is called a. ability c. prediction b. achievement d. intelligence ANS: D

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REF: Basic Concepts

19. Which of the following is the most important function of testing? a. To determine what sort of treatment or other intervention is appropriate b. To develop accurate portraits of individuals c. To discriminate among related constructs d. To differentiate among individuals taking the test ANS: D

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REF: Basic Concepts

20. When you gather information through verbal interaction, you are using a(n) a. individual test. b. interview. c. group test. d. brainstorming.

ANS: B

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REF: Overview of the Book

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 21. If one can depend upon the results of a particular test to be consistently accurate, the test can be said to be a. valid. b. structured. c. unambiguous. d. reliable.

ANS: D

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REF: Overview of the Book

22. A test that yields dependable and consistent results is a. meaningful b. objective c. reliable d. valid ANS: C MSC: www

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.

REF: Overview of the Book

23. The validity of a psychological test refers to its a. dependability. b. meaning. c. objectivity. d. fairness.

ANS: B

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REF: Overview of the Book

24. If a particular test "X" has been shown to accurately predict success in a particular job, then the test is said to be a. valid. b. structured. c. ambiguous. d. reliable.

ANS: A

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REF: Overview of the Book

25. Test administration refers to the a. construction of the test. b. validation of the test. c. act of taking a test. d. act of giving a test.

ANS: D

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REF: Overview of the Book

26. What evolutionary constructs did Galton apply in his book “Hereditary Genius? a. genetics and epigenetics b. survival of the fittest and individual differences c. random differences and population variation d. evolution and selective breeding ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 27. The origins of testing can be traced to a. Egypt. b. England. c. China. d. Russia.

ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

28. The use of test batteries was common by the time of the a. Ling Dynasty. b. Han Dynasty. c. Tam Dynasty. d. Nam Dynasty.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

29. Two or more tests that are given together and relate seemingly diverse topics are called a. structured. b. unstructured. c. batteries. d. portfolios.

ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

30. Sir Francis Galton set out to show a. that some humans possessed characteristics that made them more fit than other humans. b. that humans did not differ significantly from each other. c. that life evolved on this planet partially because of individual differences among individual forms of life within a species or type of animal. d. that the concept of survival of the fittest was essentially incorrect.

ANS: A

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REF: Historical Perspective

31. The term "mental test" was coined by a. Charles Darwin. b. Sir Francis Galton. c. Alfred Binet. d. James M. Cattell.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

32. The work of Weber and Fechner represent which foundation of psychological testing? a. individual differences b. psychophysical measurement c. survival of the fittest d. Darwinian evolution ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

33. Which of the following scientists is credited with founding the science of psychology? a. Herbart b. Wundt c. Weber Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. Cattell ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 34. The first version of the Binet-Simon scale was published in a. 1896 b. 1905. c. 1908. d. 1911.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

35. Which test represented a major breakthrough in the measurement of cognitive ability? a. Binet-Simon Scale b. Seguin Form Board Test c. Strong Vocational Interest Bank d. Carnegie Interest Inventory ANS: A

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REF: Historical Perspective

36. It is important to obtain a standardization sample a. to prevent bias in the development and scoring of the test. b. to provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared. c. to separate the intellectually subnormal from the normal individual. d. to ensure the representativeness of a sample.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

37. The first intelligence tests were developed for the purpose of a. identifying gifted children. b. finding the most suitable candidates for the U.S. Army. c. measuring emotional instability. d. identifying intellectually subnormal individuals.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

38. In order to establish norms, a large group of people is being given a test under the same conditions in which the test will actually be used. This group is called a(n) group. a. reliability b. standardization c. random d. experimental ANS: B MSC: www

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REF: Historical Perspective

39. A standardization sample is representative if the sample a. has been subjected to rigorous experimental control. b. consists of individuals that are similar to the group to be tested. c. consists of a great many individuals. d. is administered in the same way as the actual test group will be.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 40. When a test is administered to the general population, norms should be established using a representative sample that a. has been administered the test under standard conditions. b. has been chosen in a completely random fashion. c. represents all segments of the population in proportion to their numbers. d. is comprised of a great many individuals.

ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

41. Administering a test with precisely the same instructions and format is giving it under a. normative conditions. b. standard conditions. c. facilitative conditions. d. group administration.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

42. Dr. Johnson is trying to establish norms for his new test. He determined that 50% of the people in the standardization sample should be Hispanic, 20% Caucasian, 15% Asian, and 15% African American.

He is creating a a. normalization group. b. representative sample. c. random sample. d. population statistics.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

43. The Stanford-Binet intelligence scale was developed by a. A. Binet. b. T. Simon. c. A. Binet and T. Simon. d. L. M. Terman.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

44. The concept of mental age was introduced in a. 1905. b. 1908. c. 1911. d. 1916.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

45. Eight-year-old Daniel was administered the Binet-Simon Scale that suggested he was functioning at the same level as a senior in high school. This is an example of a(n) a. outcome measure. b. mental age scale. c. restandardization. d. norm.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 46. A child's mental age a. cannot be determined independently of the child's chronological age. b. provides a measurement of a child's performance relative to other children of a particular age group. c. cannot be determined from a child's test score. d. can only be determined from large representative samples.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

47. The use of standardized tests after WWI culminated with the publication of the a. Stanford Binet test. b. Stanford Achievement Test. c. Army Beta. d. Army Alpha.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

48. The first group tests of human abilities were developed for a. screening intellectually subnormal school children. b. selecting soldiers to fight for the U.S. in World War I. c. selecting pilots for advanced training in the World War II. d. evaluating which students should be admitted to public universities.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

49. Which of the following is a group test of human ability for an adult that does NOT require the subject to be literate? a. Army Alpha b. Seguin Form Board c. Army Beta d. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

50. Robert Yerkes led the team of psychologists that developed the a. Army Alpha and Army Beta. b. Seguin Form Board. c. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale. d. Yerkes Personal Data Sheet.

ANS: A

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REF: Historical Perspective

51. Which of the following tests produced both a verbal and a performance IQ? a. Terman's Stanford-Binet b. The 1908 Binet-Simon scale c. The Army Beta d. The Wechsler-Bellevue scale ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 52. A trait is . a. dependent upon the situation b. defined as the motivating force behind behavior c. strongly impacted by changes in the environment d. an enduring disposition that distinguishes one individual from another ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

53. The first structured personality test was the a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. c. Thematic Apperception Test. d. 16 Personality Factors test.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

54. A major problem with the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet was that a. it assumed the answers were acceptable at face value. b. the normative sample was too small. c. it was difficult to administer. d. there were too few questions.

ANS: A

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REF: Historical Perspective

55. Structured personality tests became unpopular in the 1930s and 1940s because they a. were difficult to administer. b. were too subjective. c. were not standardized. d. relied on the face value of responses.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

56. Which of the following is an example of a trait? a. depression b. fear c. pessimism d. anger ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

57. The Rorschach was introduced into the United States by a. Henry Murray. b. Herman Rorschach. c. Sam Beck. d. David Levy.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

58. The Rorschach presents ambiguous stimuli to an individual who then provides his or her own personal interpretation. This is an example of what kind of test? a. structured b. projective c. intelligence Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. abilities ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 59. Who is associated with the development of the TAT? a. Murray & Morgan b. Terman & Binet c. Levy & Beck d. Morgan & Beck ANS: A

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REF: Historical Perspective

60. Which of the following are both projective tests? a. the Rorschach and the MMPI b. the Rorschach and the TAT c. the Rorschach and the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet d. the TAT and the MMPI ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

61. Which of the following tests is purported to measure human needs? a. 16PF b. TAT c. MMPI d. Rorschach ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

62. Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire? a. J. R. Guilford b. R.B. Cattell c. L.L. Thurstone d. Sam Beck ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

63. The first attempt to apply factor analytic techniques to test construction were made by a. Sam Beck. b. R.B. Cattell. c. Henry Murray. d. J.R. Guilford.

ANS: D

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REF: Historical Perspective

64. A method for finding the minimum number of dimensions to account for a large number of variables is called a. correlational analysis. b. multiple regression. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.

ANS: C

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REF: Historical Perspective

65. Factor analytic techniques were employed in the development of the a. MMPI. b. CPI. c. TAT. Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. 16PF. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 66. The Shakow report emphasized that a. most personality tests were invalid. b. I.Q. tests should not be used to place children in special classes. c. testing is a unique function of doctoral-level clinical psychologists d. all tests must have normative samples.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

67. Jeremy lost his job very unexpectedly last year, and for a short while he was not as confident as usual.

This change in his level of confidence was representative of a(n) a. trait. b. state. c. abnormal behavior. d. ability.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

68. Jeremy lost his job very unexpectedly last year, but he was as confident as usual. This change in his level of confidence was representative of a(n) a. trait. b. state. c. abnormal behavior. d. ability.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

69. Today, psychological testing a. is regarded as having little room for improvement. b. remains one of the most important yet controversial issues. c. is mostly ignored because insurance companies will not pay for it. d. is losing its credibility.

ANS: B

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REF: Historical Perspective

70. Which individual developed tests to evaluate persons with emotional impairments? a. Galton c. Kraepelin b. Seguin d. Weber ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

71. Which of the following contributed to the popularity of standardized achievement tests? a. Their objectivity and ease of administration and scoring b. Their ability to measure learning independently of intelligence c. Their relationship to objective measures of neurological functioning d. Their importance to psychological theories ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

72. Which of the following is one criticism of early personality tests? a. The tests made too few assumptions about the meaning of a test response. b. The questions were too complex to grade objectively. c. The tests did not accurately reflect modern testing theories. d. The responses may not be interpreted in the same way by the test administrator.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 73. Which of the following tests makes no assumption about the meaning of test responses, but instead, relies on empirical research? a. TAT c. 16PF b. MMPI d. CPI ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

ESSAY 1. In what settings are psychological tests most likely to be found today? What role does psychological testing play in contemporary society and how has this role changed since the inception of testing?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

2. Trace the rise and fall of testing in the last century. Make note of significant historical events that played a part in the development of testing as a major field.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

3. Describe the difference between measuring traits and state. Give examples of each from your life experience.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

4. Describe the evolution of intelligence testing. What was the original purpose of intelligence testing and how is it used now? How has the modern cultural context influenced intelligence testing?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Historical Perspective

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 2—Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When you assert that it is improbable that the mean intelligence test score of a particular group is 100, you are using . a. descriptive statistics b. scale c. reliability d. inferential statistics ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Why We Need Statistics

2. Statistical procedures that summarize and describe a series of observations are called a. inferential statistics. b. descriptive statistics. c. scales. d. ratios.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Why We Need Statistics

3. Statistical procedures that allow one to make inferences about large groups by examining a smaller sample are called a. populations. b. descriptive statistics. c. inferential statistics. d. ratios.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Why We Need Statistics

4. Which of the following evaluates data against rigid statistical rules? a. confirmatory data analysis b. tests of statistical significance c. factor analysis d. psychometrics ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Why We Need Statistics

5. Trial by judge and jury is to criminal investigation and prosecution as confirmatory data analysis is to a. theoretical assumptions b. reliability and validity c. underlying constructs d. exploratory data analysis ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Why We Need Statistics

6. Scales of measurement differ from one another in terms of a. magnitude, absolute measurement, and equal intervals. b. magnitude, relative zero, and equal intervals. c. numbers, relative zero, and equal intervals d. magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. Which of the following scales has the properties of magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals? a. ordinal b. interval c. nominal d. ratio ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

8. A scale that allows one to determine only if there is more, less, or an equal amount of the attribute in comparison to another observation is called a(n) scale. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

9. A property of a scale that implies the complete absence of the measured attribute is called a(n) a. magnitude. b. absolute zero. c. equal interval. d. ratio.

ANS: B

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REF: Scales of Measurement

10. Many feel that the difference between an IQ of 100 and 105 is not the same as the difference between an IQ 70 and 75. These people feel that IQ tests lack . a. absolute zeroes b. magnitudes c. ratios d. equal intervals ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

11. Which of the following scales would be used when the information is qualitative rather than quantitative? a. ordinal b. interval c. nominal d. ratio ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

12. When the relationship between the unit of measurement of a scale (strength) and an outcome (pounds lifted) can be described by a linear equation Y = a + bX, the scale is said to have what property? a. magnitude b. equal intervals c. absolute zero d. nominal ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. The speedometer on your car is an example of what kind of scale measurement? a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

14. A scale that allows us to rank individuals or objects, but not to say anything about the meaning of the differences between the ranks, is a(n) a. nominal scale. b. ordinal scale. c. interval scale. d. ratio scale.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

15. The Fahrenheit scale of temperature (32°F= freezing; 212°F= boiling) is best described as a. nominal. b. ordinal. c. interval. d. ratio.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

16. In which scales can you make meaningful interpretation of an arithmetic operation such as addition? a. nominal scale and ordinal scale b. ordinal scale and interval scale c. interval scale and nominal scale d. ratio scale and interval scale ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

17. Which type of scale simply ranks observations? a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

18. An equal interval is found in which of the following? a. telephone numbers b. rulers c. National Football League team standings d. ethnicity distribution ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

19. What do the rules used in measurement do? a. Transform the qualities of attributes into numbers. b. Identify and correct for potential sources of bias. c. Relate individual scores to those of the normative populations.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. Allow for the determination of reliability and validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 20. If a scale allows one to say whether a particular instance has more, less, or the same amount of an attribute as another instance, the scale is said to have a. cross validity b. measurement c. magnitude d. comparativity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

21. If the relationship between a scale’s measured units and some outcome can be described by a straight line or linear equation, the scale is said to have a. predictive validity b. magnitude c. linear significance d. equal intervals ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

22. Which type of scale does not have magnitude, does not have equal intervals, and does not have an absolute zero? a. ordinal b. nominal c. ratio d. interval ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

23. Which type of scale has magnitude and equal intervals, but does not have an absolute zero? a. ordinal b. nominal c. ratio d. interval ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

24. Which of the following is a permissible operation for nominal data? a. multiplication by transform equations b. creation of frequency distributions c. comparison of scores to determine relative quantities d. identification of construct validity ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

25. Which of the following is an accurate description of percentile ranks? a. They are the ratio of the number of cases below a score of interest to the total number of cases. b. They are a measurement of the extent to which scores are normally distributed. c. They must be computed in order to use most statistical analysis techniques. d. While they are useful in describing nominal scales, they cannot be used with interval and ratio scales.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 26. Which of the following is true of percentiles? a. They are the inverse of percentile ranks. b. They indicate what percentage of scores fall below a given score. c. They describe the relationship of test scores to the hypothesized constructs. d. They divide the total frequency for a set of observations into hundredths.

ANS: D

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REF: Scales of Measurement

27. In a frequency distribution, the scores, from lowest to highest, are typically arranged a. on the horizontal axis. b. on the vertical axis. c. in the legend. d. in the title.

ANS: A

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REF: Frequency Distribution

28. There are more people with incomes on the low end as compared to the high end. What kind of distribution does this illustrate? a. normal b. positively skewed c. negatively skewed d. bell curve ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Frequency Distribution

29. In order to rank group members in relationship to the number of other members of groups of arbitrary size, you would use the a. class interval. b. simple rank. c. percentile rank. d. mean.

ANS: C

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REF: Percentile Ranks

30. In order to calculate a percentile rank, you need to know a. how many cases are below the score of interest. b. whether the distribution is normal or skewed. c. the standard deviation of the scores. d. the nature of the underlying scale.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Percentile Ranks

31. Suppose there were 50 people in your class and you obtained the 20th highest score. Your percentile rank would be a. 20. b. 40. c. 50. d. 60.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Percentile Ranks

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. A percentile rank is a measure of a. actual performance. b. relative performance. c. absolute performance. d. peak performance.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Percentile Ranks

33. Suppose you are in the 87th percentile on a test. This means a. you are among the top 13 students in the class. b. 87% of the students got a score lower than yours. c. you got 87% of the test items correct. d. 87% of the students got a score higher than yours.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Percentiles

34. Calculate the mean for the following set of scores: 4, 8, 3, 7. a. 3.0 b. 4.5 c. 5.5 d. 6.0 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

35. In statistics, the Roman letter S refers to a. the variance of a population. b. the variance of a sample. c. the standard deviation of a population. d. the standard deviation of a sample.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

36. The standard deviation a. reflects the similarity among a set of scores. b. equals the sum of all scores minus the mean squared. c. is an approximation of the average deviation around the mean. d. always equals 0.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

37. A measure of how much scores within a distribution differ among themselves is the a. mean. b. frequency. c. variance. d. median.

ANS: C MSC: www 38. If you are given a. 2.0 b. 14.25 c. 16.0

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

= 57 and S = 4, what is the variance?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. 30.5 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. Which set of scores below contains the most variability? a. 15 b. 3 c. 1 15 4 4 15 3 2 15 4 5 15 3 1 15 4 6 ANS: C

PTS: 1

d. 25 27 25 27 25 27

REF: Describing Distributions

40. A Z score a. is the difference between a score and the mean, divided by the standard deviation. b. tells us how many standard deviations the score is below the average score. c. tells us how many standard deviations the score is below the mean. d. is the standard deviation of a population.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

41. In a distribution where X = 21 and S = 3, what is the Z-score of a raw score of 15? a. -12 b. -2 c. 2 d. 12 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

42. When deviation scores around the mean are added up, their mean will be a. indeterminate. b. < 0. c. 0. d. > 0.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

43. In a symmetrical binomial probability distribution, the greatest frequency of scores is near the a. ends of the distribution. b. center of the distribution. c. top of the distribution. d. bottom of the distribution.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

44. If a score is equal to the mean, its Z score will be a. < 0. b. exactly 0. c. > 0. d. impossible to calculate.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. A Z score of 1.0 is associated with approximately the a. 16th percentile. b. 50th percentile. c. 75th percentile. d. 84th percentile.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

46. The square root of the variance is the a. true variance. b. standard deviation. c. mean. d. variability of the population.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

47. One advantage of using Z scores is that a. you do not need to know the mean. b. they can show the effects of test bias. c. they are easier to interpret. d. you don't need to know the standard deviation.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

48. A Z score of 0 would correspond to approximately what percentile? a. 0 b. 1 c. 16 d. 50 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

49. A Z score of 3 is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 3 c. 6 d. 99 ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

50. A Z score of -1 would correspond to approximately what percentile? a. 0 b. 16 c. 50 d. 84 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

51. A score at the 98th percentile is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. 98 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 52. A score at the 50th percentile is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50 ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

53. McCall's T scores have a. a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. b. a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 2. c. a mean of 10 and a standard deviation of 2. d. a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

54. Approximately what percentage of scores falls below the mean in a standard normal distribution? a. 1% b. 16% c. 34% d. 50% ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

55. In the standard normal distribution, a. most of the scores cluster on the ends of the distribution. b. more scores fall above the mean than below the mean. c. more scores fall below the mean than above the mean. d. approximately 95% of all scores fall between plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

56. Distributions of scores can be divided into how many equal deciles? a. 5 b. 9 c. 10 d. 25 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

57. A raw score is also called a(n) a. estimated score. b. predicted score. c. sigma. d. obtained score.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

58. Interquartile range is bounded by the a. bottom 25% of the distribution. b. middle 25% of the distribution. c. middle 50% of the distribution.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. top 50% of the distribution.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 59. Three fourths of all scores in a distribution fall a. below Q2. b. above Q2. c. below Q3. d. above Q3.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

60. What system is standardized to have a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of approximately 2? a. decile b. McCall's T c. stanine d. quartile ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

61. Within the quartile system, the 2nd quartile is the a. 20th percentile. b. 50th percentile. c. 75th percentile. d. 80th percentile.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

62. If you score in the upper quartile, a. you scored in the 25th percentile or higher. b. you scored in the 75th percentile or higher. c. you scored better than 1/4 of all people. d. you scored better than 40% of all people.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

63. The mean of a standardization sample a. is zero. b. is a norm. c. never changes. d. is always a Z score.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

64. The performance by a defined group on a particular test is called a(n) a. quartile. b. median. c. norm. d. tracking score.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 65. Suppose that a doctor weighs your child and finds her to be in the 25th percentile for weight at age 2.

The doctor rechecks your child every few months to be sure that she is staying near the 25th percentile.

This is an example of a. tracking. b. leafing. c. quartiles. d. percentile monitoring.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

66. Comparing an individual's test score only with members of his/her own racial group is an example of a. tracking. b. within-group norming. c. norm monitoring. d. criterion monitoring.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

MSC: www

67. The Triple ZZZ Corporation had 87% black male employees. However, only 50% of the applicant pool was comprised of black males. This is an example of a. translocation. b. normalization. c. overselection. d. representativeness.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

68. In the Civil Rights Act of 1991, Section 106, a. within-group norming was made legal. b. employers were prohibited from using test scores in hiring decisions. c. within-group norming was made illegal. d. employers were prohibited from transforming test scores.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

69. A test that compares each person with a norm is called a. a transformed test. b. a criterion-referenced test. c. a norm-referenced test. d. a within-group norming test.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

70. Jennifer took a test in school that indicated that she was doing very well in reading but was having trouble with assignments that involved writing papers. She probably took what kind of test? a. criterion-referenced b. norm-referenced c. personality d. projective ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. Develop an example of each of the following scales: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Scales of Measurement

2. Explain why the mean of a distribution of Z scores is equal to 0.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Describing Distributions

3. Compare and contrast norm-referenced and criterion-referenced tests.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Norms

4. Compute the percentile rank for each of the following scores. Show your work.

17, 42, 36, 9, 11, 24, 23, 44, 41, 29 ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Percentile Ranks

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 3—Correlation and Regression

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A scatter diagram is a. a bivariate plot of individual data points. b. a univariate plot of individual data points. c. a form of the stem and leaf display. d. a method for calculating variance.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Scatter Diagram

2. Each point on a scatter diagram represents a. the variance of a set of scores. b. the standard deviation of a set of scores. c. where an individual scored compared to the mean. d. where an individual scored on both x and y.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Scatter Diagram

3. Graphs that show pairs of individual values are called a. validity b. regression c. scatter d. normality ANS: C

PTS: 1

plots.

REF: The Scatter Diagram

4. What do scatter diagrams do? a. Allow visualization of the relationship between two variables b. Create an objective measure of reliability c. Relate univariate observations to bivariate distributions d. Demonstrate the statistical validity of measures ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Scatter Diagram

5. If the line that comes closest to all points in a scatter diagram is perfectly straight, the correlation between the two variables is a. linear. b. curvilinear. c. positive. d. unknown.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

6. The observation that Y decreases as X increases suggests a. a positive correlation. b. no correlation. c. a negative correlation. d. a curvilinear correlation.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. In a negative correlation, a. individuals tend to maintain the same or a similar relative performance. b. scores on one variable tell us nothing about scores on a second. c. individuals who score low on one variable tend to score low on a second. d. high scores on the X variable are associated with low scores on the Y variable.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

8. The correlation equals +1 for which of the following four pairs of numbers? a. (2, 4), (4, 8), (0, 0), (-2, -4) b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9) c. (4, 3), (2, -1), (-2, -9), (0, -5) d. (4, -9), (2, -1), (-2, -2), (0, -5) ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

MSC: www

9. The correlation equals -1 for which of the following four pairs of numbers? a. (2, 4), (4, 8), (0, 0), (-2, -4) b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9) c. (4, 3), (2, -1), (-2, -9), (0, -5) d. (4, -9), (2, -1), (-2, -2), (0, -5) ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

10. Correlation coefficients describe the a. degree of linearity of relation between X and Y. b. mean of X and Y. c. direction and magnitude of relationship between X and Y. d. causality of relationships between X and Y. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

11. People who drink caffeinated beverages tend to experience increased alertness and psychomotor activity. This demonstrates a(n) a. positive correlation. b. negative correlation. c. zero correlation. d. unknown.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

12. Which of the following correlations represents the strongest relationship between two variables? a. -.85 b. .01 c. .50 d. .80 ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Given the following ordered pairs, the correlation is 87 76 32 12 12 a. positive. b. negative. c. zero. d. perfect.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

14. If the scores on X give us no information about the scores on Y, this indicates a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. no correlation. d. curvilinear correlation.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

15. Which of the following four pairs of numbers describes a nonlinear relation? a. (2, 4), (4, 8), (0, 0), (-2, -4) b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9) c. (4, 3), (2, -1), (-2, -9), (0, -5) d. (4, -9), (2, -1), (-2, -2), (0, -5) ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

16. Which of the following four pairs of numbers describes a correlation that is very close to .0? a. (2, 4), (4, 8), (0, 0), (-2, -4) b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9) c. (4, 3), (2, -1), (-2, -9), (0, -5) d. (4, -9), (2, -1), (-2, -2), (0, -5) ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

17. Which of the following is true of correlations? a. They cannot be used to determine statistical significance. b. They provide the basis for transforming observations to scales. c. They are particularly useful with nominal scales. d. They describe the direction and magnitude of relationships between two variables.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Correlation

18. The best-fitting straight line through a set of points in a scatter diagram is known as the a. regression line. b. linear line. c. correlation line. d. perfect correlation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. What is the point of least squares for the numbers 4, 6, 8, and 10? a. indeterminate b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

MSC: www

20. What is the point of least squares for the numbers 2, 7, 8, and 11? a. indeterminate b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

21. Suppose that X and Y are uncorrelated. X has a mean of 15 and Y has a mean of 19. Given a score of 14 on a particular X observation, the best prediction of Y is a. 0. b. 15. c. 19. d. indeterminate.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

22. Suppose that X is used to predict Y and that both are in Z-score form. Which of the following is always true regarding the predicted Y score? a. It is larger than the obtained X score. b. It is smaller than the X score. c. It is closer to 0 than the obtained Y score. d. It is closer to 0 than the X score.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

23. A common use of correlation is to determine evidence for a. criterion validity. b. face validity. c. a normative sample. d. a scatter plot.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

24. In the linear equation Y´ = a + bX, "a" is called a. the regression coefficient. b. the intercept. c. the actual score. d. the predicted score.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. When you know nothing about a person's academic ability, the best estimate of his or her academic ability should be based on the a. mean. b. Z score. c. criterion. d. correlation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

26. In the linear equation Y´ = a + bX, "b" is called a. the slope. b. the intercept. c. the actual score. d. the predicted score.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

27. In the formula Y´ = a + bX, Y´ is the a. regression coefficient. b. raw score of Y. c. predicted value of Y. d. intercept.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

28. The point at which the regression line crosses the Y axis is the a. slope. b. regression coefficient. c. predicted value of X. d. intercept.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

29. The intercept is the a. value obtained using the equation to predict scores. b. slope of the regression line. c. value of Y when X is zero. d. standard deviation of a test score.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

30. Suppose that we find a regression relating X to Y by the following equation: Y´ = 12 + .80X. If we observe an X score of 2, what score on Y would we expect? a. 8 b. 10.4 c. 13.6 d. 16.4 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 31. The difference between the observed and predicted score is a. the residual. b. the intercept. c. the Z score. d. correlation coefficient.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

32. What is the difference between correlation and regression? a. Regression requires standardized units, while correlation does not. b. Correlation is the same thing as regression except that the scores are in standardized units. c. In regression, scores on the Y axis regress toward the mean, while in correlation they do not. d. In correlation, scores on the Y axis regress toward the mean, while in regression they do not.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

33. The correlation coefficient can take any value from a. -1.0 to 1.0. b. 0 to 1.0. c. -1.0 to 0. d. 1.0 to 10.0.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

34. A correlation of .80 suggests that a. the scores on X and Y are not related. b. standardized scores on the Y axis are expected to be .8 times the corresponding scores on the X axis. c. scores on Y will be 80% larger than corresponding scores on X. d. the differences between X and Y are statistically non-significant.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

35. If the correlation between X and Y is 0 and we observe a score (in Z units) of 1.5 on X, what score would be predicted for Y? a. -1.5 b. -.75 c. 0 d. 1.5 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

36. If the correlation between X and Y is .60 and we observe a score of 1.0 (Z units) on X, what score would be predicted for Y? a. -1.2 b. 0 c. 0.6 d. 1.6 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 37. Correlation coefficients can be tested for significance using the a. Z distribution. b. t distribution. c. principle of least squares. d. regression distribution.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

38. Assumed that X and Y correlate .3 in a sample of 102. What is the approximate t-value used to test the significance of this relationship? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

39. Assume that X and Y correlate .6, are in Z score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. What is the predicted value of Y? a. 0 b. .4 c. .6 d. 1 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

40. Assume that X and Y correlate .4, are in Z score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. What is the predicted value of Y? a. 0 b. .4 c. .6 d. 1 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

41. If the regression between X and Y is less than perfect, a. predicted values of Y are relatively further from the mean of Y than observed values of X are to the mean of X. b. predicted values of Y are relatively closer to the mean of Y than observed values of X are to the mean of X. c. values of Y cannot be predicted from observations of X. d. observed values of X are relatively closer to the mean of X than predicted values of Y are to the mean of Y. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

42. In regression plots, a perfect forecaster of the criterion is at a(n) a. 45 degree angle. b. 90 degree angle. c. 0 degree angle. d. 100 degree angle.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 43. What does regression do? a. It ensures the statistical significance of correlations. b. It converts raw scores to t scores. c. It makes predictions about scores based on other scores. d. It creates linear relationships for transforms.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

44. Which of the following is the slope of the regression line? a. The regression coefficient b. The intercept c. The relative covariance d. The best fit ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

45. Which of the following is true of the best-fitting line? a. It establishes statistical significance. b. It increases as the correlation decreases. c. It is rarely useful for prediction. d. It minimizes residuals.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

46. Which of the following is used to test the statistical significance of correlations? a. The regression line b. The t distribution c. The coefficient of relatedness d. The slope and intercept ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

47. What type of prediction uses information gained from representative groups? a. normative b. regressive c. correlational d. transformative ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Regression

48. Which of the following is a true dichotomous variable? a. football players' numbers b. weight c. time d. gender ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 49. An appropriate correlation coefficient describing the relationship between two artificially dichotomous variables is a. biserial correlation. b. phi coefficient. c. tetrachoric correlation. d. point biserial correlation.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

50. To assess the relationship between intelligence and passing or failing this exam, you would use the a. point biserial. b. Pearson r. c. biserial correlation. d. tetrachoric correlation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

51. Which of the following is an artificially dichotomous variable? a. gender b. weight c. passing/failing a final exam d. GPA ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

52. One formula for the correlation between two dichotomous variables is a. Spearman’s rank order formula. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. the biserial correlation.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

53. One formula for the correlation between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomized variable is a. Spearman’s rank order formula. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. the biserial correlation.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

54. The type of correlation coefficient used to find the association between two sets of ranks is called a. Spearman’s rho. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. factor loading.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 55. In order to determine the relationship between sex of subject and income level, one would use the a. phi coefficient. b. point biserial correlation. c. Spearman's rho. d. Pearson r.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

56. Which of the following describes the relationship between a true dichotomous variable and a continuous variable? a. Spearman’s rho b. point biserial correlation c. Pearson product-moment d. the phi coefficient ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

57. Which of the following is used to describe the relationship between two dichotomous variables, at least one of which is a true dichotomy? a. tetrachoric correlation b. phi coefficient c. point biserial correlation d. Spearman’s rho ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

58. Which of the following describes the relationship between two artificially dichotomous variables? a. tetrachoric correlation b. factor analysis c. discriminant analysis d. multiple regression ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

59. The type of correlation coefficient used to correlate a dichotomous variable (two categories) and a continuous variable is called a. Spearman’s rho. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. multivariate analysis.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

60. The difference between the predicted value of Y and the observed value is called the a. standard deviation. b. standard error of the mean. c. residual. d. factor score.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 61. The formula Y - Y´ represents a. the true score. b. the residual. c. the standard error of estimate. d. shrinkage.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

62. X and Y correlate .5. What is the coefficient of determination of this relation? a. 0 b. .25 c. .50 d. .75 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

63. X and Y correlate .2. What is the coefficient of determination of this relation? a. 0 b. .04 c. .45 d. .75 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

64. The coefficient of determination is the a. number of degrees of freedom. b. difference between predicted and observed values of Y. c. mean. d. squared correlation coefficient.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

65. X and Y correlate .6. What is the coefficient of alienation of this relation? a. 0 b. .36 c. .60 d. .80 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

66. X and Y correlate .8. What is the coefficient of alienation of this relation? a. 0 b. .20 c. .60 d. .80 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

67. The standard deviation of the residuals is called the a. coefficient of alienation. b. shrinkage. c. coefficient of determination. d. standard error of estimate.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 68. The amount of decrease observed when a regression equation is created for one population and applied to another is called a. the true score. b. the standard deviation. c. a residual. d. shrinkage.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

69. The observation that the preference for watching TV shows depicting violence is correlated -.86 with altruism suggests a. TV violence causes altruistic behavior. b. altruistic behavior causes a preference for TV violence. c. increases in altruism are associated with decreases in preference for violent programs. d. there is no relationship between TV preference and altruism.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

70. The coefficient of alienation is the a. squared correlation coefficient. b. index of variation in Y not explained by its relationship to X. c. standard deviation of the residuals. d. square root of the standard deviation.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

71. Assume that X and Y correlate .6, are in Z-score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. What is the value of the Y residual? a. 0 b. .4 c. .6 d. 1 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

72. What is the sum of the predicted value of Y and its residual? a. the coefficient of determination b. the obtained Y c. the alienation coefficient d. the sum of squares ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

73. A regression equation was derived from a small sample in which X and Y correlated .6. The equation is Y´ = 6X + 15. Suppose this equation were applied to a second sample. It is likely that the correlation between the scores predicted from this equation and the observed scores will be a. 0. b. less than 0.6. c. approximately 0.6. d. greater than 0.6.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 74. It is difficult to observe significant correlation between the GRE score and graduate school GPA among elite graduate students because of a. range restriction. b. the elite syndrome. c. unreliability in the GRE. d. shrinkage.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

75. The relationship between TV viewing and aggressive behavior might be influenced by poor social adjustment. Social adjustment here is regarded as a(n) problem. a. restricted range b. shrinkage c. third variable d. lack of linearity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

76. A study demonstrates that the number of cigarettes smoked per day is significantly correlated with the number of respiratory infections experienced by young adults. This observation suggests that a. cigarette smoking causes respiratory infections. b. cigarette smoking does not cause respiratory infections. c. cigarette smoking causes some respiratory infections but not others. d. the data do not allow inferences about causation.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

77. A correlation was of .6 was obtained from a particular sample. The two measures are then administered to a sample from more homogeneous population. The expected correlation in this new sample will probably be a. 0. b. less than .6. c. approximately .6. d. greater than .6.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

78. If the coefficient of determination is 0.49, what is the correlation coefficient? a. 0.24 b. 0.51 c. 0.70 d. 0.89 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

79. An appropriate statistical technique that one might use to see how Scholastic Aptitude Test Scores and High School Grades jointly relate to Freshman grades is a. linear regression. b. multiple regression. c. discriminant analysis. d. factor analysis.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 80. An appropriate statistical technique that one might use to see how Scholastic Aptitude Test Scores and High School Grades explain differences among majors in Psychology, Sociology, and Political Science is a. linear regression. b. multiple regression. c. discriminant analysis. d. factor analysis.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

81. Suppose you had a series of eight measures of anxiety that you administered to a sample. You would use the statistical technique referred to as in order to test the hypothesis that they are all measuring the same thing (anxiety). a. linear regression b. multiple regression c. discriminant analysis d. factor analysis ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

82. Suppose we wanted to predict success in graduate school on the basis of undergraduate G.P.A., IQ, and professor ratings. The statistical method that would be most useful is a. bivariate correlation. b. Spearman’s rho. c. multiple regression. d. factor analysis.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

83. How is discriminant analysis different from multiple regression? a. In discriminant analysis, the criterion variable is a set of categories rather than a continuous variable. b. The criterion variable is continuous in discriminant analysis but not in multiple regression. c. Discriminant analysis is a form of factor analysis, while multiple regression is not. d. Discriminant analysis and multiple regression involve exactly the same process.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

84. Principle components are found in a. multiple regression. b. factor analysis. c. discriminant analysis. d. Spearman's rho.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

85. A factor loading is a. a residual. b. the correlation between two principle components. c. the correlation between an item and a factor. d. the square root of a factor.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 86. The primary purpose of a factor analysis is to a. determine the relationship between variables. b. reduce a larger set of variables to a smaller composite set. c. insure that proper inferences are being made. d. determine the degree of non-association between variables.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

87. In order to examine the relationship between gender, hair color, and intelligence, you would use a. the Pearson r. b. multivariate analysis. c. the phi coefficient. d. the tetrachoric correlation.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Multivariate Analysis

ESSAY 1. Identify and discuss the use of two measures of correlation other than the Pearson r.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Other Correlation Coefficients

2. Explain the correlation-causation problem and give an example.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

3. It is frequently argued that the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) should not be used to select students because the correlation between their SAT scores and their freshman grades may be low, indicating that the SAT is not a valid measure. How does the concept of range restriction apply here? What other factors might operate to reduce this correlation?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

4. Compare and contrast shrinkage and restriction of range.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Terms and Issues in the Use of Correlation

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 4—Reliability

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When talking about errors in terms of psychological testing, we are referring to the fact that: a. someone got an answer incorrect. b. there is always some inaccuracy in the measurement. c. the test was inappropriate for that particular group. d. the score is too subjective to be accurate.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

2. The basic theory of reliability was first worked out by a. Karl Pearson. b. Charles Spearman. c. Julian Stanley. d. Lee Cronbach.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

3. The work of Charles Spearman combined what two measurement concepts? a. mean and variance b. sample statistics and population parameters c. sampling error and correlation d. reliability and validity ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

4. Who developed methods for evaluating sources of error in behavioral research? a. Edward Thorndike b. Kuder and Richardson c. Charles Spearman d. Cronbach ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

5. According to classical test theory, errors of measurement are a. always overestimates of true score. b. always underestimates of true score. c. random. d. constant.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

6. If we repeatedly administered the same test to the same individual, the standard deviation of the person's score would be the a. standard error of the mean. b. variance. c. reliability of the test. d. standard error of measurement.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. Because classic test theory assumes a person's true score is the same over time, repeating the same test over and over gives a distribution of scores that reflect what? a. systematic error b. random error c. reliability d. internal consistency ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

8. Classical Test Theory assumes that a. errors are systematic. b. errors are random. c. true scores cannot be estimated. d. the length of a test has no bearing on its reliability.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

9. Classical Test Theory assumes a. the length of a test has no bearing on its reliability. b. measurement errors occur systematically. c. it is not possible to estimate true scores. d. the distribution of random errors is the same for every respondent.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

10. Theoretically, if Susie repeatedly took the 6th grade achievement test, you would be able to find her true score by finding the of the distribution of her scores. a. mean b. standard deviation c. variance d. standard error of measurement ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

11. If you have three clocks in your house, and every clock is 10 minutes fast, this is an example of a. systematic error. b. random error. c. measurement error. d. a rubber yardstick.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

12. We can get an idea of how much measurement error is present in a score through the a. true score. b. observed score. c. standard error of the mean. d. standard error of measurement.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

13. What is Cronbach known for? a. Developing measures to evaluate sources of error Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. Creating the basics of multivariate analysis c. Developed the basics of contemporary measurement theory d. Distinguished between objective and subjective measures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

14. Which of the following is an important distinction between systematic errors and random errors? a. Random errors are more likely than systematic errors to cause errors in conclusions. b. Systematic errors occur only in objective measures and random errors occur only in subjective measures. c. Random errors can be eliminated by careful wording of test items. d. Systematic errors are extremely rare among psychological tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

15. Assuming the “rubber yardstick” shrinks and expands at random, what can be said about the distribution of scores from the rubber yardstick? a. It will have a mean of zero (0). c. It will have a standard error of zero (0). b. It will be normal. d. It will be skewed.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

16. What is Spearman known for? a. Working out the basics of reliability theory b. Developing the notion of sampling error c. Creating methods for measuring error d. Developing multivariate analysis ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

17. Repeated use of the same test typically results in different scores. How does classical test theory account for this? a. poor test validity c. random error b. systematic variability d. inattention ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

18. When creating a test, one generally uses a subset of items to represent a larger construct. This is known as a. a population parameter. b. a domain sampling. c. a sampling error. d. descriptive statistics.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

19. Theoretically, reliability is a. the correlation of the observed test score with the true score. b. the square root of the ratio of true to the observed score. c. the ratio of true to the observed score squared. d. not possible to define.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

20. An observed score is composed of a. the residual and the true score. b. the criterion and the predictor.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. the measurement error and the predictor. d. the true score and the measurement error.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

21. In the domain sampling model, the error that is being considered is the error caused by a. choosing the wrong domain. b. systematic error. c. using a limited sample of items. d. random error.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

22. The problems created by using a limited number of items to represent a larger and more complicated construct are explicitly considered in the model. a. multivariate b. random sampling c. domain sampling d. standard error of measurement ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

23. Professor Pine constructed five different short history tests by randomly drawing questions from the huge pool of all possible questions about the current material. He has created a. randomly parallel tests. b. a large sample size. c. systematic errors. d. attenuation effects.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

24. Dr. Smith is trying to determine the reliability of a new personality test. Two randomly parallel tests, A and B, have a correlation of .81. What is the estimated reliability of the new personality test? a. .81 b. -.9 c. .9 d. .81/t ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

25. How does the domain sampling model conceptualize reliability? a. The absolute value of the difference between the standard error of measurement and the variance b. The ratio of variance of the observed scores on the short version of a test and the variance of the long-run true scores c. The sum of squares of the difference between the observed and true scores d. The ratio of the number of sample items to the number of domain items, multiplied by the mean of the sample distribution ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

26. Why might different random samples of domain items yield different estimates of the true score? a. sampling error b. poor reliability c. respondent error d. item bias Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Domain Sampling Model

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 27. Tests designed according to item response theory a. are no longer considered useful. b. can only be used with non-objective material c. yield more reliable results with fewer items d. provide low-tech methods for field use.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Response Theory

28. As opposed to reliability based on the classical test theory, that is useful in assessing an individual's ability. a. domain sampling b. internal consistency c. coefficient alpha d. item response theory ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

focuses on the range of item difficulty

REF: Item Response Theory

29. If a researcher is attempting to assess the reliability of a measure of depression, the method of choice would be a. internal consistency. b. time sampling. c. the test-retest method. d. more than one of these.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

30. A reliability coefficient of .60 suggests that a. 64% of the variance on the test is error. b. 40% of the variance on the test is error. c. 78% of the variance on the test is error. d. the test can be used for clinical purposes but not for research.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

31. Federal government guidelines require that a test be a. standardized for use among all U.S. sub-populations. b. factor analyzed before it can be used to make employment decisions. c. reliable before it can be used to make employment decisions. d. reliable above the .90 level.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

32. Upon repeated applications of the same test, performance on the second application may be affected by previous experience on the test. This is known as a. attenuation. b. a carryover effect. c. shrinkage. d. selected recall.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 33. The difference between David's two typing tests, one at the beginning of the semester and one at the end, reflects the fact that he typed quite a few term papers during the semester. This reflects a. attenuation.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. random error. c. practice effects. d. domain sampling.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

34. Dr. Janine developed two equivalent forms of a test and administered them both, in counter-balanced order, to a group of people on the same day in order to assess reliability. What is this called? a. test- retest b. parallel forms c. split-half d. KR 20 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

35. Sources of error associated with time sampling are measured using a. the test-retest method. b. the split half method. c. KR 20. d. the alpha method.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

36. Suppose you were trying to estimate the reliability of a whole test on the basis of the correlation between scores on the two halves of the test. In order to correct for using scores based on the halves, you might use the a. KR 20. b. alpha method. c. Spearman-Brown formula. d. split half method.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

37. The Spearman Brown formula corrects for deflated reliability due to a. half-length tests. b. small sample size. c. systematic error. d. poor test item construction.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

38. The method for estimating the internal consistency of a test that simultaneously considers all possible ways of splitting the items is the a. Spearman Brown formula. b. Kuder-Richardson formula. c. Cronbach's alpha. d. the odd-even method.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

39. A split-half correlation, KR 20, and coefficient alpha are all used to evaluate a. standard errors of measurement. b. internal consistency.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. variance. d. validity.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

40. Which of the following would tend to provide the most conservative estimate of split-half reliability? a. the Phillips method b. the Spearman-Brown formula c. coefficient alpha d. the odd-even reliability coefficient ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

41. The difference between KR 20 and coefficient alpha is a. KR 20 can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while alpha cannot. b. Alpha can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while KR 20 cannot. c. KR 20 can only be used for items scored right or wrong but Alpha can be used for items in any format. d. Alpha can only be used for items scored right or wrong but KR 20 can be used for items in any format.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

42. Difference scores are created by a. subtracting one test score from another. b. subtracting the true score from a predicted score. c. eliminating error from true scores. d. giving a test to two different individuals.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

43. The reliability of a difference score is a. equal to the reliability of the most reliable of the two measures. b. equal to the reliability of the least reliable of the two measures. c. the average reliability of the two measures. d. expected to be lower than the reliability of either of the two measures.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

44. Measures of test-retest reliability are sometimes considered inappropriate for the evaluation of health status because a. health status tests should not given at multiple points in time. b. variations in health status may be related to true changes over time rather than measurement error. c. there is no domain of health status. d. health status is too complicated to measure.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

45. What is the impact of carryover effects on test-retest reliability? a. Test-retest reliability is not influenced by carryover effects. b. Carryover effects result in an overestimation of reliability. c. Carryover effects result in an underestimation of reliability. d. Test-retest reliability increases carryover effects.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

46. Which of the following is true of the parallel forms method? a. It is the most often used method for estimating reliability.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. It provides one of the most rigorous methods for estimating reliability. c. It is largely ineffective with psychological tests. d. Sophisticated computer programs have made it unnecessary.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

47. Jennifer read a report in which the agreement between raters of children's aggressive behavior was .50, indicating a. the raters agreed at chance levels. b. agreement was poor. c. agreement was excellent. d. agreement was moderate.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Reliability in Behavioral Observation Studies

48. Which of the following is a problem in evaluating the agreement between observers in behavioral studies? a. The observers are usually not trained. b. The behaviors being studied are usually not directly observable. c. There will always be some agreement by chance. d. There is no method for evaluating the agreement between observers.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Reliability in Behavioral Observation Studies

49. The kappa statistic is used to a. assess the level of agreement among several observers. b. estimate the correlation between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomous variable. c. estimate the percentage of disagreement between observers. d. estimate the validity of behavioral observation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Reliability in Behavioral Observation Studies

50. The preferred method for assessing the level of agreement between observers is the a. kappa statistic c. coefficient alpha b. Spearman coefficient d. rank-order statistic ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Reliability in Behavioral Observation Studies

51. Which of the following is a source of measurement error? a. respondent sampling b. scorer sampling c. internal consistency d. external consistency ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method 52. Which of the following is used to estimate the number of items that should be added to a test to achieve a specified reliability? a. KR 20 b. coefficient alpha c. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. split-half technique ANS: C

PTS: 1

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method 53. Correction for attenuation is used a. to estimate the validity of a test. b. to correct for tests that are short. c. to correct for tests that are long. d. to estimate the true correlation between variables that have been measured with error.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method MSC: www 54. In order to determine the unidimensionality of a test, you can use a. factor analysis. b. split half reliability. c. parallel forms assessment. d. the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method 55. Items are probably measuring the same thing when the correlation between an item and the total score a. is high. b. is low. c. approaches 0. d. is negative.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method 56. If the same test, given at different points in time to the same test takers, yields different scores, then the method typically used to assess this source of error is a. test-retest. b. alternate forms/parallel forms. c. split-half. d. KR 20.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Connecting Sources of Error with Reliability Assessment Method 57. Approximately what value must a reliability coefficient have for most purposes in basic research? a. .90 b. .50 c. .70 d. .30 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

58. The standard error of measurement allows us to a. estimate the degree to which a test provides inaccurate readings. b. have an acceptable margin of error. c. determine the source of error. d. avoid any measurement error.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 59. Standard errors of measurement are used to a. determine whether an observed score is the "true" score. b. determine the standard deviation of the scores. c. calculate the exact true score. d. create confidence intervals around specific observed test scores.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

60. Test constructors can improve test reliability by a. increasing the number of items. b. decreasing the number of items. c. retaining items that have the most face validity. d. reducing the item to total correlation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

61. The formula used to estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of reliability is a. kappa c. Spearman b. prophecy d. Thorndike ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

62. The prophecy formula is used to a. predict expected values. b. estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of reliability. c. estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of validity. d. calculate test reliability.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

63. Tests will be most reliable if they are a. multidimensional. b. unidimensional. c. brief. d. criterion-referenced.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

64. What is the most useful indicator of reliability for the interpretation of individual scores? a. split-half variance c. item sampling b. test-retest d. standard error of measurement ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

ESSAY 1. Classical Test Theory is based on certain assumptions. Discuss these basic assumptions and the theory behind them, and then address the challenges to any of these assumptions.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: History and Theory of Reliability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 2. There are several methods to estimate reliability. Compare and contrast the different methods of reliability discussed in this chapter, stressing the importance of coefficient alpha.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

3. Discuss the challenges to the use of difference scores.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Models of Reliability

4. Describe some of the advantages and disadvantages associated with behavioral observation techniques.

Provide examples.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Reliability in Behavioral Observation Studies

5. Briefly discuss each of the APA’s standards for reliability.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Using Reliability Information

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 5—Validity

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing conceptualize validity? a. Validity is a non-statistical measure for non-quantitative tests. b. Validity should only be assessed when reliability is low. c. Validity is a unitary concept that represents all evidence. d. Only one type of validity must be high and the others can be low.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Defining Validity

2. As a result of the Griggs v. Duke Power decision, employers must provide evidence that a test used for employee selection or promotion has a. test-retest reliability. b. inter-rater reliability. c. specific meaning. d. internal consistency.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Defining Validity

3. Evidence for validity should include what information about construct, criterion, and content validation? a. any form suffices b. two forms are necessary c. two forms are necessary plus information about face validity d. all three need be presented in unified form.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Aspects of Validity

4. Why does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing reject face validity? a. By definition, all tests have face validity. b. Face validity in not technically a type of validity. c. No reliable measures of face validity have been found. d. Face validity is irrelevant.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Aspects of Validity

5. Which type of validity is most important for educational tests? a. face c. concurrent b. content d. predictive ANS: B

PTS: 1

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6. Why is evidence for criterion-related validity gathered? a. It is legally required. b. It is critical for reliability. c. Tests serve as a substitute for the real measure of interest. d. Criterion validity subsumes all other validity.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. Which of the following should be considered when evaluating evidence for validity? a. Whether the cause of the relationship between the test and the criterion has changed since the test was validated. b. Excessively high validity may indicate a need for improving reliability. c. Validity is only of concern when legal challenges are expected. d. Tests that are highly valid for at least two distinct populations are likely to be valid for all populations.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

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8. Which of the following is an important validation consideration in industrial settings? a. pay grade c. attrition b. occupational classification d. education ANS: C

PTS: 1

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9. If the results obtained in a validity study are not specific to the validation population, what quality does the validation have? a. differential validation c. population crossover b. convergence d. generalizability ANS: D

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10. Under what circumstances is construct validation essential? a. when the test has some type of novel approach b. when no criterion or universe of content is accepted as adequate to define the quality c. when insurance reimbursement is going to be sought d. when a single, large-scale validation study is to be performed ANS: B

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11. According to Campbell and Fiske, what types of evidence are required for a test to be meaningful? a. reliability and validity c. convergent and divergent b. content and construct d. quantitative and qualitative ANS: C

PTS: 1

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12. Which of the following is true of the relationship between reliability and validity? a. It is possible to create a highly reliable test that lacks validity. b. If a test lacks reliability, it is important to emphasize its validity. c. High levels of validity are often associated with low reliability. d. There is an inverse relationship between reliability and validity.

ANS: A

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13. The agreement between a test score and the construct it is presumed to measure is referred to as its a. stability. b. alpha level. c. reliability. d. validity.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 14. Validity refers to a. the stability of a score. b. the alpha level. c. the agreement between a test score and the quality it is believed to measure. d. item to total correlation.

ANS: C

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15. "Face validity" is a. the correlation between a test score and some poorly established criterion. b. the best evidence for validity. c. acceptable for research studies but not for tests used in clinical practice. d. not really a form of validity because it offers no evidence to support conclusions.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

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16. Which of the following was not one of the major categories recognized in the booklet on Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing? a. content validity b. criterion validity c. convergent validity d. construct validity ANS: C

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17. Concurrent and predictive validity are both subcategories of a. criterion validity. b. empirical validity. c. face validity. d. convergent validity.

ANS: A MSC: www

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18. Which type of validity is unique because it is not statistically-based? a. predictive b. concurrent c. content d. construct ANS: C

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19. Asking patients where their injured back hurts illustrates a. predictive b. face c. construct d. content ANS: B

PTS: 1

validity.

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 20. When Ms. Anderson applied for an administrative assistant job in a factory, she was given a test that examined her typing ability, political affiliation, and filing ability. This test clearly violates what kind of validity? a. predictive b. construct c. criterion d. content ANS: D

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21. Many psychologists no longer believe this to be a separate type of evidence for validity because of the lack of clear-cut boundaries between it and other types of evidence for validity. What is it? a. content b. criterion c. construct d. predictive ANS: A

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22. Which type of validity requires that test items provide an adequate representation of the conceptual domain they are designed to cover? a. face validity b. content validity c. predictive validity d. construct validity ANS: B

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23. If scores on a test of intelligence is influenced by eye color, this is an example of a. face validity. b. construct underrepresentation. c. aggregate validity. d. construct-irrelevant variance.

ANS: D

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24. Both convergent and discriminant evidence are essential for a. content validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. construct validity.

ANS: D

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25. If the test score forecasts some criterion, the test has a. face validity. b. content validity. c. predictive validity. d. concurrent validity.

ANS: C

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 26. Seaman Sanchez had a hearing impairment, but passed the test to become a radio operator because the test did not measure hearing acuity. What does this represent? a. criterion/predictor confusion b. construct underrepresentation c. construct-irrelevant variance d. criterion-related evidence for validity ANS: B

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27. A test that has a high correlation with some well-accepted outcome measure provides evidence for a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. construct validity. d. content validity.

ANS: B

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28. The advantage of using a test that is "face valid" is that a. the appearance of validity can help motivate test-takers because they can see that the test is relevant. b. it assures that the items are properly sampled from the domain of content. c. face validity is an important component of criterion validity. d. it boosts the construct validity coefficient.

ANS: A

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29. A student confronts a professor and says, "You assigned Chapters 7 through 10 but nearly all of the items came from Chapter 7. How can you evaluate whether we know anything about the other material we were supposed to read?" The student is challenging the test on the basis of a. face validity. b. content validity. c. criterion validity. d. construct validity.

ANS: B

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30. The evidence is logical rather than statistical for a. face validity and predictive validity. b. criterion validity and content validity. c. content validity and face validity. d. content validity and concurrent validity.

ANS: C

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31. Job samples exemplify the use of a. criterion validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. content validity.

ANS: C

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. Which of the following is a legal requirement for the validity of a test that is used to select employees for a job? a. The test must focus on job-related tasks. b. The test must include multiple choice, short-answer, and essay questions. c. The test must include items taken directly from other, related tests. d. The test must be uncorrelated with similar tests.

ANS: A

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33. The extent to which a test is valid for making statements about the criterion is represented by its a. content validity. b. validity coefficient. c. squared validity coefficient. d. construct-irrelevant variance.

ANS: B MSC: www

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34. The proportion of variation in the criterion that is knowable in advance from knowledge of the test scores can be found by a. construct-irrelevant variance. b. the validity coefficient. c. squaring the validity coefficient. d. the square root of the validity coefficient.

ANS: C

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35. A validity coefficient is a. the correlation between a test and the validity criterion. b. the squared correlation between the test and the validity criterion. c. the square root of the correlation between the test and the validity criterion. d. one minus the correlation between a test and the validity criterion.

ANS: A

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36. Hypothetically, 9% of the variation of skill among dentists is accounted for by the test that they took in order to pass the dental board examination. What is the validity coefficient of the test? a. 0.03 b. 0.3 c. 0.9 d. 3.0 ANS: B

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37. Which of the following is one of the eight recommended criteria for evaluating validity coefficients? a. Determine the statistical sophistication of the researchers who conducted the validation. b. Do not confuse the criterion with the predictor. c. Make sure the results obtained from the validity study are situation specific. d. Perform a small-scale validation study with the population of interest to you.

ANS: B

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 38. Which of the following would be a cause for concern when assessing the validity of an employment test? a. The validity study was done on a somewhat small sample. b. The test correlates highly with other tests of known validity. c. The test was only validated on an all white, male population. d. There is great variability in both predictor and criterion.

ANS: C

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39. A careful test constructor obtained the correlation between her test and a well-defined validity criterion. She then repeated the study to determine whether this same relationship held in another sample. This exercise is known as a. correction for attenuation. b. construct validation. c. cross validation. d. criterion/predictor confusion.

ANS: C

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40. Some studies have failed to demonstrate that the Graduate Record Exam (GRE) is a good predictor of grade point average in graduate school. One of the difficulties with these studies is that a. the Graduate Record Exam is rarely used as a predictor of graduate school success. b. the Graduate Record Exam was validated on a very small sample of students. c. both grade point average and GRE scores have a restricted range for graduate students. d. the Graduate Record Exam has no reliability.

ANS: C

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41. If a validity coefficient of .3 is found between a written test of baseball rules and actual skills playing baseball, what percentage of the variation in baseball skills would be accounted for? a. 3% b. 6% c. 9% d. 30% ANS: C

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42. The problem with using the GRE to determine whether students who have already been admitted to graduate school should be given their degrees is that a. the criterion validity of the GRE is not well enough established. b. the sample size is too small. c. the causes of performance at the school where this procedure is used might be different than the causes of performance at the schools where the GRE was validated. d. this policy confuses the predictor and the criterion.

ANS: D

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43. Construct validity is used when a. a test can be validated against a single criterion. b. we cannot clearly define what we want to measure. c. we want to construct a new test for a specific purpose. d. we draw samples of items from some clearly defined.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 44. Suppose you wanted to develop a measure of jealousy, but were unable to define precisely the concept.

What type of validation studies would you most likely use? a. face validation b. reliability validation c. criterion validation d. construct validation ANS: D

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45. In Rubin's study on the Love Scale, the amount of time lovers spent gazing into each other's eyes was used as evidence for the scale's a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. convergent validity. d. content validity.

ANS: C

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46. To develop a test with construct validity, what types of validity evidence are needed? a. face validity and predictive validity b. discriminant validity and predictive validity c. face validity and content validity d. discriminant validity and convergent validity ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

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47. An exclusive preschool program has strict enrollment criteria and only accepts children with very high marks on the enrollment test. Unfortunately, they have found that the enrollment test does not correlate highly with the grades the children make. The probable reason is a. predictor/criterion confusion. b. an invalid criterion. c. convergent evidence. d. range restriction.

ANS: D

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48. If a variable has a "restricted range", it is difficult to estimate a validity coefficient due to a lack of a. criterion validity. b. variability. c. adequate sample size. d. cross validation.

ANS: B

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49. A researcher seeking to develop a measure of depression cites a moderate correlation between her measure and the Beck Depression Inventory as evidence of the test's validity. What type of validity documentation does this provide? a. convergent validity b. discriminant validity c. content validity d. face validity Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 50. Discriminant and convergent evidence provide evidence for what type of validity? a. predictive b. criterion c. content d. construct ANS: D

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51. Dr. Tong is trying to define 'life satisfaction' and to create a test that will assess the level of a person's satisfaction with their life. She is planning to find out how well her test correlates with other tests believed to measure life satisfaction. This is an example of a. convergent evidence. b. divergent evidence. c. discriminant evidence. d. differential prediction.

ANS: A

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52. Several measures are already available that assess coping skills. In order to prove that a new measure of coping is needed, what type of validity evidence should be provided? a. convergent b. discriminant c. discrete d. predictive ANS: B

PTS: 1

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53. Cronbach and other authors have argued that all types of validity are really categories of a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. content validity. d. construct validity.

ANS: D

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54. At what point would we assume that the construct validity of a test has been established and no more studies should be done? a. when we have shown that it correlates with several other measures designed to tap the same construct b. when we have shown that it does not correlate with measures designed to tap different constructs c. never – construct validation is an ongoing process d. when the validity coefficients are above .8 ANS: C

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55. In construct validation, a. a single variable can serve as the criterion. b. multiple studies are not required. c. no single variable serves as the criterion. d. the criterion remains static once defined.

ANS: C

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 56. Which of the following illustrates lack of convergent validity? a. demonstrating that tests A, B, and C all measure the same things for the same purpose b. demonstrating a particular relationship between a test of job satisfaction and an employee's stated job satisfaction c. demonstrating a relationship between the results of a physical exam and a health index score d. demonstrating that a score on the SAT and ACT have no correlation ANS: D

PTS: 1

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57. Evidence that indicates a measure does not represent a construct other than the one for which it was devised is validity. a. convergent b. discriminant c. content d. predictive ANS: B

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58. The type of validity that subsumes all other types of validity is a. construct. b. discriminant. c. predictive. d. content.

ANS: A

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59. Which of the following statements is true? a. We can always demonstrate that a reliable test has meaning. b. It is logically impossible to demonstrate that a totally unreliable test is valid. c. A test cannot be reliable unless it is also valid. d. Reliability and validity are basically unrelated concepts.

ANS: B

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60. A test with low reliability a. will not have a high validity coefficient. b. may or may not have a high validity coefficient. c. is likely to be face valid. d. can be used in clinical practice but not research.

ANS: A

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61. The validity coefficient of an aggression scale is .5. Using a score on this scale as a predictor of domestic violence, how much of the variability in domestic violence can be attributed to scores on the aggression scale? a. 25% b. 50% c. none d. indeterminate ANS: B

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 62. Criterion-related validity is meaningful when a. the predictor is stable. b. the criterion is valid and reliable. c. the criterion is valid but not necessarily reliable. d. the predictor is reliable.

ANS: B

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63. When evidence obtained in one situation is not found in other similar situations, the evidence lacks a. generalizability. b. criterion. c. predictor. d. inter-situation reliability.

ANS: A

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64. A professor considers the difference of validity of his mid-term exam between male and female students. This professor is dealing with a. range restriction. b. confusion between predictor and criterion. c. differential prediction. d. face validity.

ANS: C

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ESSAY 1. According to your book, in some settings–particularly in education–tests have been criticized simply because of improper interpretation or over-reliance on a single measure. Discuss the topic and suggest ways to improve the situation ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

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2. It is important to consider several important factors when interpreting the meaning of a validity coefficient. Outline and discuss what those factors are. Give examples when appropriate.

ANS: Answer not provided.

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3. When your colleague tries to develop a scale to measure stress, what recommendations should you give the colleague in terms of validity? Give examples.

ANS: Answer not provided.

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 4. Explain how reliability is related to validity, and/or vice versa.

ANS: Answer not provided.

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5. Suppose you are consulting for a company that uses a test to predict how successful job applicants might be on the job. The test is being challenged in the courts. Discuss the types of evidence you would use to defend the test ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 6—Writing and Evaluating Test Items

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The tendency for test takers to agree on most of the items is called a(n) a. guessing threshold. b. acquiescence response set. c. item difficulty. d. the miss rate.

ANS: B

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2. This test item is an example of a a. polytomous format. b. dichotomous format. c. Likert format. d. category format.

ANS: A

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3. Distractors that are obviously incorrect a. lower the reliability of the test. b. increase the reliability of the test. c. have no impact on the reliability of the test. d. reduce the likelihood of correct guessing.

ANS: A

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4. True-false examinations use a. a dichotomous format. b. a polytomous format. c. a Likert format. d. a category format.

ANS: A

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5. In multiple choice examinations, incorrect alternatives are called a. flags. b. non-categories. c. distractors. d. miss rates.

ANS: C

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6. In order to correct for guessing a. a correction formula can be used. b. distractors should be eliminated. c. the number of items should be increased. d. distractors should be increased.

ANS: A

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. The expected level of chance performance, for a 200-item multiple-choice exam with four choice alternatives, is a. 25 correct. b. 50 correct. c. 75 correct. d. 100 correct.

ANS: B

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8. Suppose that you are taking a multiple choice test where there is no correction for guessing. If you aren't sure of the answer, a. only guess if you have some confidence you are correct. b. you should always guess on a speed test. c. you should always guess. d. you should never guess.

ANS: C

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9. What describes the chances that a low-ability test taker will obtain each score? a. acquiescence response set b. the miss rate c. guessing threshold d. the moments method ANS: C

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10. What format do some personality tests use because it requires an absolute judgment? a. multiple-choice b. Likert c. dichotomous d. category ANS: C

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11. Which item format can best be factor analyzed to find which ones group together? a. multiple-choice b. Likert c. dichotomous d. forced-choice ANS: B

PTS: 1

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12. Suppose you got 75 items correct on a 100-item, six alternative, multiple-choice exam. What would your score be after we corrected for guessing? a. 50 b. 57 c. 63 d. 70 ANS: D

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Under what circumstance is it NOT to your advantage to guess on a multiple-choice exam? a. when you are making a "wild guess" and a correction formula is being used b. in any test situation where you are making a "wild guess" c. when you can rule out one or more of the alternatives as being incorrect d. when the guessing threshold is low ANS: A

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14. The difference between Likert scales and category formats is that a. category formats are used only in health settings. b. category formats tends to be dichotomous while Likert scales tends to be polytomous. c. category formats tend to have a smaller number of choices. d. Likert scales tend to have a smaller number of choices.

ANS: D

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15. A test format that is typically used for attitude measurement is the a. checklist format. b. dichotomous format. c. category format. d. Likert format.

ANS: D

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16. When distractors are likely to be selected as alternative responses on multiple-choice tests, a. validity is increased. b. item reliability is increased. c. item reliability is decreased. d. guessing is reduced.

ANS: B

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17. One method for measuring chronic pain asks the respondent to group statements according to how accurately they describe his/her discomfort. This would be an example of the a. Q-sort format. b. checklist format. c. Likert format. d. category format.

ANS: A

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 18. The following is an item from an attitude scale: Physical punishment is essential in order to control children.

Strongly disagree Disagree Neither agree or disagree Agree Strongly agree This item is in the a. category format. b. Likert format. c. dichotomous format. d. polytomous format.

ANS: B

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19. One problem with the use of category rating scales is that a. many respondents are confused by dichotomous formats. b. responses are sometimes influenced by the context in which objects are rated. c. rating scales must be at least 100 points in order to be meaningfully interpreted. d. category rating scale data do not have ordinal scale property.

ANS: B

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20. Describing the chances that low-ability test takers will obtain each score is called the a. dichotomous format. b. polytomous format. c. guessing threshold. d. 50% threshold.

ANS: C

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21. When teachers are initially told that the students they will be teaching are either not very imaginative or are very imaginative, ratings using an adjective checklist will tend to reflect this original assessment. This is an example of a. the effect of context. b. visual analogue. c. low sample size. d. forced choice effect.

ANS: A

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22. Which method involves scoring that is very time consuming? a. dichotomous format. b. visual analogue scale. c. Likert scale. d. multiple-choice format.

ANS: B

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 23. Which testing method is popular for measuring self-rated health? a. q-sort technique b. visual analogue scale c. checklists d. category formats ANS: B

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24. Which of the following item writing recommendations has research support? a. All answer options should be plausible. b. Items should cover important concepts and objectives. c. All parts of an item or exercise should appear on the same page. d. There should be an equal number of true and false statements.

ANS: C

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25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of true-false tests? a. They are typically only useful with simple information. b. They encourage memorization without understanding. c. They are difficult to administer. d. They encourage rapid responding.

ANS: B

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26. Which type of item tends to lose reliability and become obsolete over time? a. factual items c. items based on abstract concepts b. skill-based items d. simple items ANS: C

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27. What is the impact of adding distractors on polytomous item reliability? a. The number of distractors is inversely related to item reliability. b. Large numbers of distractors can greatly increase reliability. c. Adding distractors may not increase reliability if the distractors are implausible. d. Reliability is optimized when there are 8 to 10 distractors.

ANS: C

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28. Which of the following increases the likelihood that students will be likely to guess when they are not sure of the correct response on a multiple choice item? a. when they expect a low grade b. when the items are easy c. when the course is a required course d. when they dislike the subject ANS: A

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 29. How do Likert format tests differ from tests made of dichotomous and polytomous items? a. Likert format tests require far fewer items to achieve reliability and validity. b. Likert format items quantify characteristics rather than classifying responses as correct or incorrect. c. Likert format tests cannot be validated whereas dichotomous and polytomous item tests can be validated. d. Likert format items require higher literacy levels than do dichotomous and polytomous items.

ANS: B

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30. Why have checklists fallen out of favor? a. They are simplistic. b. They are prone to error.

ANS: B

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c. They are difficult to write well. d. They cannot be validated.

REF: Item Writing

31. As the proportion of people who get an item on a test correct increases, the measure of item difficulty a. decreases. b. remains the same. c. increases. d. approaches chance.

ANS: C

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32. A multiple-choice test with five options has a chance performance level of a. .50. b. .25. c. .20. d. .10.

ANS: C

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33. When Lupe argued that one of the questions on the five-alternative test was unfairly difficult, the teacher simply replied by saying that the item difficulty was optimal at a. .50. b. .60. c. .625. d. .70.

ANS: B

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34. The optimal item difficulty of a six-alternative test is a. .50. b. .585. c. .60. d. .625.

ANS: B

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Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 35. If the five applicants for the chief financial officer position of ABC Company are highly qualified, the company should use a test that a. has easier items. b. discriminates 20% of the time. c. contains mostly difficult items. d. contains items ranging in difficulty from .30 to .70.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

36. The optimum level of item difficulty for a five-alternative multiple choice item is a. .50. b. .60. c. .70. d. .80.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

37. For most tests, the maximum amount of information about differences between individuals can be obtained from items in the difficulty range of a. .30 to .70. b. .40 to .80. c. between .55 and .85. d. above .90.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

38. If 50% of the individuals taking a particular test get a certain item correct, the difficulty (or easiness) level of that item would be a. .05. b. .25. c. .50. d. .10.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

39. In the extreme group method of item analysis, a. point-biserial correlations are used. b. data from some test-takers are not used in the analysis. c. only the performance of those who scored extremely well is studied. d. distractors are eliminated.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

40. The method of item analysis which looks at the correlation between performance on an item (correct or incorrect) and total test score is a. the extreme group method. b. the tetrachoric method. c. the point-biserial method. d. the item characteristic curve method.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Exhibit 6-1

41. Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item discriminates at various levels of performance? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANS: E

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

42. Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item discriminates well at low levels of performance but not at high levels? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

43. Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is unrelated to total test score performance? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

44. Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is inversely related to performance on the test? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. Refer to Exhibit 6-1. In constructing a test, we would most likely eliminate a. items a and d. b. items c, d, and e. c. items a and e. d. items a and b.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

46. When 100% of the test-takers get an item correct, the item will have a a. low difficulty index (0%). b. high discriminability index. c. discriminability index of approximately .5. d. very low discriminability index.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

47. The proportion of test takers that get a "good" item correct increases as a function of the a. item characteristic curve. b. total test score. c. validity of the test. d. item difficulty.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

48. Dr. H likes to start off his tests with a few easier items in order to boost the confidence of the test takers. This is an example of a. human factors. b. the psychometric properties of the test. c. optimum item difficulty. d. item difficulty.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

49. An employment test attempted to find out if individuals who scored high on specific items that assessed an individual's 'ability to work well in a team' related strongly to the test as a whole. The purpose of the study was to evaluate a. human factors. b. optimum item difficulty. c. item discriminability. d. categories.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

50. When test items are evaluated against total test score, we use a(n) a. internal criterion. b. external criterion. c. multivariate analysis. d. criterion referenced test.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 51. In item analysis, the internal criteria against which items are evaluated refers to the a. discrimination index. b. total test score. c. criterion. d. predictor.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

52. In order to evaluate a criterion referenced test, the test was administered to a group of students who had studied a learning unit and to another group who had not studied the learning unit. For each item on the test, the criterion for mastery would be a. the point-biserial correlation. b. below the antimode. c. above the antimode. d. the validity coefficient.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

53. Proponents of criterion-referenced tests have criticized item analysis procedures because they a. cannot be used for criterion-referenced tests. b. have statistical flaws. c. do not provide information about the type of errors that students make. d. have no relevance for educational tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

54. The approach to test construction in which the item characteristic curve for each individual item is analyzed is called a. prophecy theory. b. classical test theory. c. item response theory. d. item analysis theory.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

55. The average of a series of item characteristic curves is known as a. the average characteristic curve. b. the standard error of the item characteristic. c. a test characteristic curve. d. the variance ratio curve.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

56. One of the major advantages of tests developed using item response theory is that they a. can be easily adapted for computer administration. b. are longer. c. are easier to administer. d. can be developed with little effort.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 57. The extreme group method and the point biserial method are both used to estimate a. reliability. b. validity. c. discriminability. d. difficulty.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

58. The least frequent score in a frequency polygon is the a. negative discriminator. b. discrimination point. c. antimode. d. criterion.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

59. In experimental psychology, the proportion of the top third of the class that correctly answered the last question of the final was .93 while .89 of the bottom third of the class answered correctly. The professor should decide not to include this question in the next final because the discrimination index indicates a. negative discrimination. b. chance level performance. c. that students were incorrectly prepared. d. that the item does not discriminate well.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

60. Professor Plum created class intervals from the test scores for his class. He made a line graph using these intervals on the X-axis and the proportion of students who answered a particular question correctly on the Y-axis. The result is a. a discrimination index. b. a correlation index. c. an item characteristic curve. d. a histogram.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

61. An item characteristic curve that rises gradually and then turns down for people at the highest levels of performance a. is likely to occur when students are making a wild guess. b. can happen when 'none of the above' is one of the multiple choice options. c. turns down at a point referred to as the antimode. d. indicates an item with a high level of difficulty.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

62. In order to choose questions for a final version of a test, the examiners created a graph with difficulty on one axis and discriminability on the other. The examiners should use the questions that a. fall above the .50-point on the discriminability axis. b. fall below the .50 point on the discriminability axis. c. fall between .30 and .70 on difficulty and above .30 on discriminability. d. fall above the .50 point on discriminability and difficulty.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 63. The proportion of responses that are expected to be correct for each level of ability can be represented by a. an item characteristic curve. b. a discrimination index. c. a test characteristic curve. d. the optimum difficulty.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

64. Peaked conventional tests present items a. from a wide range of difficulty levels. b. at optimum difficulty levels. c. at levels appropriate for the test taker. d. mostly at or near average difficulty levels.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

65. Which type of test is especially helpful for evaluating progress in individualized programs of instruction? a. peaked conventional b. criterion-referenced c. rectangular-referenced d. dichotomous ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

66. Your text presents empirical evidence that indicates school children tend to repeat the same kind of errors when given problems of a particular type. This highlights the a. importance of ranking students. b. need to provide corrective feedback. c. concept of 'teaching to the test'. d. ability of IRT procedures to initiate guidance.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

67. The difference in proportion of correct responses for each item between the top third of the class and the bottom third of the class is an example of a(n) a. point biserial correlation. b. discrimination index. c. item difficulty. d. guessing threshold.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

68. Item analysis is different from the classical method of reliability because a. a smaller number of items leads to higher reliability in item analysis. b. item analysis ignores total score. c. item analysis describes results for individual items, whereas reliability describes results for the scale as a whole. d. item analysis generally considers the validity of the test.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 69. In most situations, a good test should contain items a. from a wide range of difficulty levels. b. at optimum difficulty levels. c. at levels appropriate for the test taker. d. mostly at or near average difficulty levels.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

70. Why should tests include a items from a variety of difficulty levels? a. Students are less likely to guess when there is a wide range of item difficulty. b. Good tests encourage students to do their best and a range of difficulty helps less confident students. c. Good tests discriminate at a variety of difficulty levels. d. Students like to have some easy items because they are more likely to respond correctly by chance.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

71. Which of the following methods is used in the analysis of item discriminability? a. test-retest c. characteristic curves b. extreme group d. factor analysis ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

72. Which of the following is true of the characteristic curve for a “good” test item? a. It is normally distributed. c. It has a gradual, positive slope. b. It is bimodal and positively skewed. d. It is negatively accelerated.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

73. What is the first step in developing criterion-referenced tests? a. Getting expert agreement about how to construct the test b. Clearly specifying the objectives in precise statements about what is to be learned c. Identifying the types of people who are likely to take the test and either score very well or very poorly d. Creating items with a wide range of difficulty and administering them to experts in the field ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

ESSAY 1. Develop several test items and describe methods for analyzing the appropriateness or inappropriateness of their inclusion on a test. (Hint: It may be helpful to actually "administer" these items to a group of friends.)

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 2. Criterion-referenced tests offer some advantages over tests that may be graded more subjectively and they are now quite prolific in school systems across the country. However, they have some specific problems. Discuss these advantages and disadvantages (feel free to integrate information from previous chapters). How would you improve this situation?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

3. Identify and discuss the limitations of item analysis.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Item Analysis

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 7—Test Administration

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In general, studies have indicated that the race of the examiner a. should be the same as that of the subject. b. should be different than that of the subject. c. is unrelated to test performance. d. is not as important as sex of the examiner.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

2. Studies on the effect of the race of the tester have demonstrated that a. African-American children consistently score higher when they are tested by African-American examiners. b. African-American children consistently score lower when they are tested by African-American examiners. c. White children consistently score higher when they are tested by White examiners. d. that the race of the examiner does not have a significant effect on the test scores of African-American or White children.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

3. For children up through about the 3rd grade, a friendly examiner a. significantly affects performance on a test. b. does not significantly affect performance on a test. c. increased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation. d. decreased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

4. Dominic, a Caucasian male, is in the first grade and his reading skills are being assessed for placement next year. His teacher is out sick on the day of his assessment test. You can expect his test score to be a. substantially higher than if the test were administered by the regular teacher. b. unaffected by the change in examiner. c. significantly lower as a result of an unfamiliar examiner. d. nothing more than a reflection of his reading ability.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

5. Studies have demonstrated that a. disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance. b. disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their performance. c. too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance. d. there is no relationship between the examiner's comments and test performance.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 6. The "Rosenthal effect" occurs when a. race of the tester produces a bias. b. the administrators' expectations influence the respondents' scores. c. test-takers do poorly because they are fatigued. d. the gender of the test administrator is different than that of the examinee.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

7. Rosenthal asserted that expectancy effects are likely to result from subtle uses of a. reinforcement. b. nonverbal communication. c. disapproving comments. d. gender and racial bias.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

8. Research on the effects of examiners' expectations upon test scores have shown that a. examiners' expectations influence scores only when rapport has developed. b. examiners' expectations have little effect upon test scores. c. there is inconsistency with regard to the effect of examiners' expectations. d. too few studies have been done to draw any conclusions.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

9. The school board decided to send professional test administrators into the schools in an attempt to establish stricter standardization procedures for the administration of IQ tests. If you are from a socio-economically disadvantaged area, you can expect that the test scores for your school district will a. benefit greatly from the use of outside examiners. b. be equal to the scores received by students in upper socio-economic groups. c. be more negatively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts. d. be more positively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

10. Studies on the effect of reinforcement upon intelligence test performance by African-American children (by Terrell and colleagues) suggest that a. African-American children will improve their performance if given simple verbal praise such as "Excellent performance". b. African-American children will not be affected by the administration of tangible awards. c. only "culturally relevant" verbal praise will help boost performance by African-American children. d. culturally specific feedback such as "Nice job, blood" alienates African-American youngsters and may damage test performance.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 11. Mrs. Morgan and Mrs. Malcolm are African-American and only want an African-American examiner to administer an IQ test to their children. They a. are justifiably concerned that their children's scores will be adversely affected by a Caucasian examiner. b. are operating under the widely held myth that the race of the examiner impedes performance of African-American children. c. realize that strict standards for proper test administration do not exist. d. realize that it is important to have an examiner that is new and unknown to the test-taker.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

12. Mr. and Mrs. Lozano have recently moved to Ohio from Mexico and have been notified that their son Reuben will be given an English IQ test to determine school placement. They should a. not be concerned about the language of the test because one of the secretaries has offered to translate. b. be pleased because the school is hiring a professional to translate the test especially for Reuben. c. ask the school to only use a test that has been translated and subjected to reliability and validity studies in Spanish speaking populations. d. realize that by testing their son in English, they are helping him to acculturate to his new environment much faster.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

13. Because situational variables can affect test scores, testing requires a. standardized conditions. b. at least two test administrators. c. a test administrator and an observer. d. test administrators with similar backgrounds and characteristics.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

14. Patty has just received a graduate degree in psychology and has been hired by a local organization to administer the WAIS-R. They should a. have no qualms about her qualifications for this position because she has a degree. b. have no qualms about her qualifications because her program required that she engage in at least 5 practice administrations of this test. c. be aware that errors are likely to be high unless she has completed at least 10 practice sessions. d. realize test administer training is a highly standardized process with high quality standards.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

15. Mrs. Collins and Mrs. Grey both administered the same IQ test to their regular classes by reading instructions, refraining from providing any verbal feedback, and generally following strict procedural guidelines. Even though the classes were comparable, Mrs. Grey's class had much lower test scores than Mrs. Collins. It is likely that a. the instructions were not clear. b. standard test administration does not work. c. some subtle non-verbal cue or body language affected scores. d. the race of the teachers affected test scores.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 16. The Rosenthal effect a. appears to be consistent but relatively small. b. is limited to human subjects. c. has been consistently replicated. d. shows no gender effect.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

17. Worry, emotionality, and lack of self-confidence are the three components of a. test anxiety. b. expectancy effects. c. human factors. d. reactivity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

18. As sample size increases, expectancy effects tend to a. become more important. b. decrease. c. remain stable. d. increase.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

19. The study by Terrell, et al. in which four groups of African-American children were provided four different kinds of feedback shows a. an effect of race of examiner. b. no difference between types of feedback. c. the importance of culturally relevant rewards. d. that tangible rewards outperform any verbal feedback.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

20. Why is it of concern that there is not a standardized protocol for training on how to administer the WAIS-R? a. Individuals with only undergraduate degrees are permitted to administer it, making training especially important. b. The courts have repeatedly ordered the development of standardized training for the WAIS-R, but it has not been done. c. There is no evidence that training will improve the ability of examiners to administer and score the WAIS-R. d. Research indicates that errors are common until examiners have administered 10 practice tests and declines thereafter.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

21. Deviations from standardized testing procedures a. do not affect scores unless the deviations are severe. b. should be avoided by an examiner regardless of the population in question. c. may be necessary for particular populations like the blind. d. can be avoided by never using tape recorded instructions.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 22. When asking people to provide answers to sensitive health care questions, it might be better to a. conduct face-to-face interviews. b. use self-administered questionnaires. c. conduct telephone interviews. d. use younger males to conduct the interviews.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

23. Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate that a. better scores are achieved by paper and pencil tests. b. better scores are achieved by computer assisted tests. c. the scores are about equivalent. d. poorer control with computer assisted tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

24. Studies on computer-administered interviews have shown that a. people will sometimes divulge more personal information to a machine than they will to a human interviewer. b. people are reluctant to give personal information unless an interviewer is warm and empathetic. c. the computer is too impersonal as a mechanism for obtaining personal information. d. students typically dislike computer-assisted interviews and thus do not pay attention to questions..

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

25. Test anxiety is an example of a(n) a. test variable. b. reactivity variable. c. expectancy variable. d. subject variable.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

26. Which of the following is an advantage of computer-assisted test administration? a. Use of computers greatly increases validity. b. Test takers can look ahead and skip back and forth to items they feel confident about. c. Computer generated reports are less likely to be misinterpreted. d. Items can be administered in any order.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

27. Which of the following is true of telephone questionnaires that use an electronically generated voice rather than a live person? a. Use of electronically-generated voices is superior because people do not worry about being judged, as they might when interviewed by a live person. b. Use of electronically-generated voices is not permissible because of concerns related to privacy. c. Because they are so difficult to understand, electronically generated voices should only be used with very simple questions. d. Use of electronically-generated voices results in increased variability.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 28. Test takers who speak more than two languages should be given a test in a. the test taker's first language. b. the test administrator's first language. c. the standard language used in that area. d. the language with which the test taker is most comfortable.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

29. Which of the following is true of self-report of health issues? a. People report more symptoms when a mailed questionnaire is used than when they are interviewed face to face. b. People are typically reluctant to report symptoms when completing a mailed questionnaire because it feels so impersonal. c. Mailed questionnaires should not be used due to the possibility that private health information might be accidentally made public. d. It is important for an examiner to be present to explain difficult terms to those taking the test.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

30. Why might so few studies demonstrate an effect of the examiner’s race on intelligence test performance? a. Intelligence tests are culture fair; this prevents any possible impact of examiner race. b. Special administration methods are used when the examiner and test-taker are of different races. c. While early studies did not find an effect of race, more recent studies show consistent and substantial effects of race. d. The standardized test administration methods typical of intelligence tests may minimize the effects of racial differences.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

31. The decrease in motivation among test takers due to random feedback is called a. experimenter bias. b. expectation error. c. learned helplessness. d. test anxiety.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

32. Donna, an inexperienced examiner, wants to encourage the individuals to whom she is administering a particularly difficult test of problem solving. Because she is nervous about her own skills, she decides the easiest method is to compliment each test taker exactly 10 times, regardless of whether they are giving correct or incorrect responses. What might be expected? a. Motivation to respond will decrease and problem solving will worsen. b. Performance will improve for those who like the examiner and worsen for those who dislike the examiner. c. Because the praise is given at random, it is unlikely to have an effect. d. Test takers will be distracted by the praise and will have to ask the examiner to repeat questions.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 33. Which of the following is true concerning the language of the test taker? a. Language should not be of concern, since there are computer programs that will translate. b. The use of interpreters is helpful and typically will not affect reliability or validity. c. The test should be administered in the language of the majority, even if the test taker is not fluent. d. It is important to ensure that the translated version of the test is comparable to the original version.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

34. Which of the following is, according to the APA, characteristic of a good test manual? a. A good manual should be brief and emphasize the importance of the examiner bringing their own style to the testing situation. b. A good manual should be written using technical language, since doing so will reduce misunderstandings and misinterpretation. c. A good manual should provide instructions that include the exact words to be used during testing administration. d. A good manual should focus on what can go wrong during administration rather than providing rigid instructions.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

35. Patterson and colleagues (1995) reported that in order to reduce administration errors, test administrators should a. be disciplined for mistakes. b. practice administration about 10 times. c. always have a supervisor observe them. d. reinforce test takers.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

36. The effect of praise for children is in general a. better than the effect of money or candy. b. worse than the effect of money or candy. c. damages the test's reliability and validity. d. as strong as the effect of money or candy.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

37. When Helen was being trained to record the behavior of zoo animals, her performance improved when her instructor was watching. This is an example of a. drift. b. self-presentation bias. c. reactivity. d. expectancy.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

38. Ms Aimee reported that the interrater reliability of the observers in her experiment was quite high during training. One should a. question whether or not the observers were assessed at any time after training. b. be able to rely comfortably on the reliability estimate. c. be comfortable with the reliability because of the formal training.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. not question the reported interrater reliabilities of any published experiment.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. The tendency to report the same behavior differently when observations are repeated in the same context is referred to as a. reactivity. b. expectancy. c. drift. d. contrast effect.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

40. Once observers have been trained in behavioral studies, they have a tendency to go back to their own personal rating system when they are not under supervision. This phenomenon is known as a. reactivity. b. drift. c. expectancies. d. statistical control of rating errors.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

41. Even though Art had been thoroughly trained to observe and assess behavior, he had started to show less concern for the rules and guidelines he had learned. This is an example of a. reactivity. b. drift. c. expectancy. d. contrast effect.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

42. Which is an undesirable way to solve problems associated with behavioral observations? a. Have periodic retraining. b. Have frequent meetings to discuss methods. c. Do not let supervisors look over observers' shoulders. d. Covertly observe the observers.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

43. Expectancies are a. consistently found in all kinds of situations. b. a stronger source of bias if observers are offered incentives. c. not found to bias behavioral observations with or without incentives. d. only found when the observers are unaware of what behavior to expect.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

44. Data in behavioral observation studies have sometimes been found to be biased in the direction of the observer's own beliefs. This is a result of a. reactivity. b. drift. c. expectancies. d. statistical control.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. Which approach is used to remove the effect of uncontrolled variability? a. standardized reactivity b. statistical drift c. expectancies d. partial correlation ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

46. Observers in behavioral studies are usually more accurate when they are being observed by their supervisors. This phenomenon is known as a. reactivity. b. drift. c. expectancies. d. partial correlation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

47. Camara and Schneider (1994) suggested that the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and their Code of Conduct a. support using integrity tests for selecting new employees. b. support using integrity tests only for existing employees. c. fail to support the use of integrity tests. d. are neutral with regard to the use of integrity tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

48. Evidence from studies of integrity tests indicates that they measure a. one narrow construct. b. a broad part of job performance. c. pre-employment honesty. d. post-employment honesty.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

49. The tendency to ascribe positive attributes independently of an observed behavior is called a. the halo effect. b. drift. c. reactivity. d. expectancy.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

50. If A, B, and C are all correlated, you can control for the variability in C and this will leave you with a. the result of the halo effect. b. the partial correlation between A and B. c. the correlation between A and B. d. biserial correlation of A and B. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 51. Which of the following statistical methods can be used to control rating errors? a. Pearson r b. path analysis c. ANOVA d. partial correlation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

52. Which of the following is not related to the relationship between the behavioral observer and his or her supervisor? a. reactivity b. drift c. expectancies d. observing the observer ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

53. The research on integrity tests suggests that a. most commercial tests have strong evidence for validity. b. the construct validity of most commercial tests is not well documented. c. no tests have been developed to detect honesty. d. most of these tests meet the APA's ethical principles code.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

54. Studies of the accuracy of raters have shown a. rating accuracy can easily be achieved with training. b. rater characteristics are unrelated to rater accuracy. c. efforts to improve the accuracy of raters have produced discouraging results. d. rater training can be done inexpensively and quickly.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

55. Integrity tests are used to estimate who is likely to steal from a company, however, a. the validity of the tests is questionable. b. test-retest reliability is poor. c. employers are not in favor of their use. d. they are not as reliable as lie detector tests which are often used in pre-employment screenings.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

56. "Drift" refers to a problem inherent in the training of a. personality assessors. b. test proctors. c. behavioral observers. d. computer-assisted test administrators.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 57. In general, the average person's ability to detect when someone else is lying is a. normally much better than chance. b. normally much worse than chance. c. better than a police officer. d. as good as a Secret Service agent.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

58. Which of the following is true about behavioral rater reliability? a. Estimates of reliability during training are often higher than those made later, when raters are less closely supervised. b. When the behaviors to be rated are tightly defined, rater reliability has little relevance. c. Rater reliability should increase as experience with the rating scale increases. d. Once an individual has developed an acceptable level of reliability, there is no need to assess reliability again.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

59. How has the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) impacted the use of behavioral observation? a. IDEA mandates the use of behavioral observation for students with disabilities. b. IDEA bans the use of behavioral assessment for students with disabilities. c. IDEA requires behavioral observation only for students with severe to profound disabilities. d. IDEA allows behavioral observation only when the student being observed is capable of giving consent.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

60. An overcrowded, financially strapped school system is required to use behavioral observation for students with disabilities. In order to save time and reduce costs, the teachers of students are asked to prepare a report describing the problem behaviors of each student. These reports are provided to the raters prior to the students being observed. What can be said about this procedure? a. It is an excellent idea since it will make it easier for observers to identify problem behaviors. b. It will allow the school system to eliminate training for the behavioral observers. c. It is improper and may create bias due to expectancies. d. It should not be done because it requires that teachers, who may not be trained in behavioral observation, make critical decisions.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

ESSAY 1. The state of the subject may well affect his or her test performance and may be a serious source of error. Discuss some possible subject variables that may interfere with or improve an individual's performance on a test.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 2. Identify and discuss four advantages of computer administered tests.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

3. As an administrator of tests, what factors should you consider based on this chapter (e.g., characteristics of an administrator, training administrator, administering context, subject factor, mode of administration, etc.)?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Examiner and the Subject

4. Many of the applications in the chapter are relevant in business and organizational settings. Think of a situation in which observers might be used and design a program of training. What are the pitfalls that you will have to avoid and how might you design your program to avoid them?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Behavioral Assessment Methodology

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 8—Interviewing Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The personnel manager of ABC Company asked all of the applicants she interviewed the same questions in the same systematic fashion. She was conducting a(n) interview. a. nondirective b. unstructured c. structured d. diagnostic ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Interview as a Test

2. An interview in which the person being interviewed is allowed to determine the direction of the interview is called a(n) interview. a. nondirective b. directive c. structured d. selection ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Interview as a Test

3. Which of the following differentiates between an interview and psychological tests in general? a. how they are evaluated b. whether they are administered individually or in groups c. whether there is a standardized format d. their importance for gathering information in clinical settings ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Interview as a Test

4. Which test cannot be properly used without interview data? a. TAT c. 16PF b. MMPI d. WAIS ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Interview as a Test

5. The reciprocal nature of interviewing means a. the participants of an interview do not influence each other's mood. b. the participants of an interview are interdependent upon and influence each other. c. an interview involves high activity among both participants. d. if the interviewer is tense and anxious, the interviewee will tend to calm down.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Reciprocal Nature of Interviewing

6. Studies have shown that in an interview, a. high activity in one participant is associated with reduced activity in the other. b. high activity in one participant is associated with increased activity in the other. c. the activity of one participant has nothing to do with the activity of the other. d. high activity in one participant tends to lead to hostility in the other.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Reciprocal Nature of Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. Criminal interrogations can result in misleading information if an interrogator is highly active because a. they make the suspect nervous and prone to make misleading statements. b. the suspect's activity level increases, which increases the interrogator's suspiciousness. c. hyperactive interrogators tend to miss important cues given by the suspect. d. active interrogators tend to cause the suspect to clam up and refuse to make a statement.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Reciprocal Nature of Interviewing

8. David had graduated and secured two job interviews. He was quite nervous and in one interview, the interview team bickered among themselves and was rude to each other. In the other, the interview team was calm, relaxed, and welcoming. When he later thought about the interviews, David described himself as feeling very tense and even frightened in the first interview, and calm and confident in the second one. This is consistent with the idea of a. mirroring c. active listening b. social facilitation d. probing ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Reciprocal Nature of Interviewing

9. During a job interview, Geoffrey found his behavior began to mimic the behavior of the nervous and disorganized interviewer. This is best described as an example of a. social facilitation. b. halo effect. c. interpersonal attraction. d. paraphrasing.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Reciprocal Nature of Interviewing

10. The degree to which one person is able to influence another is known as a. interpersonal attraction. b. interpersonal influence. c. social facilitation. d. halo effect.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

11. Social facilitation refers to a. the phenomenon that we tend to act like the models around us. b. a method of interviewing. c. the best method of psychotherapy. d. a method of enhancing human relationships.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

12. Good interview behavior is more a matter of a. social skills; experience b. technique; attitude c. attitude; skill d. acquired abilities; personality style ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing than

.

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. One study (Saccuzzo, 1975) found that the most important factor in a patient's evaluations of the quality of an interview was a. the seriousness of their concerns. b. their mood state. c. the therapist's orientation. d. their perceptions of the interviewer's feelings.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

14. In social psychology, the degree to which people share a feeling of understanding, mutual respect, and similarity is known as a. social facilitation. b. interpersonal influence. c. interpersonal attraction. d. halo effect.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

15. Deliberately inducing discomfort or anxiety in an interviewee a. should always be avoided. b. is likely to increase how much information an interviewee reveals. c. is related to the interviewer's training. d. is appropriate for certain types of interviews.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

16. The fact that Roger is more impressed by how much his therapist appeared to care, rather than the numerous diplomas and certificates on the therapist’s walls, suggests that Roger will likely evaluate the quality of the interview as a. poor. b. average. c. high. d. indeterminate.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

17. Probing statements a. will put the interviewee on the defensive. b. do not carry judgmental overtones. c. should usually be avoided in an interview. d. communicate a deep sense of empathy.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

18. Which of the following directs anger toward the interviewee? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statement ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. Which of the following communicates "I don't approve of this aspect of you?" a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

20. Which of the following demands more information than the interviewee would be willing to provide voluntarily? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

21. Which of the following attempts to comfort or support the interviewee? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

22. Which type of statement tends to bring the interview to a halt, and thus violates the principles of keeping the interaction flowing? a. open-ended questions b. closed-ended questions c. verbatim playback d. summarizing ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

23. Which of the following types of statements should be avoided in most interview situations? a. probing statements b. clarification statements c. summarizing statements d. verbatim playback ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

24. "Don't worry, everything will be alright" is an example of a. a facilitative response. b. a confrontational response. c. an effective response. d. a response to be avoided.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. "Are you feeling good today?" is an example of a(n) a. open-ended question. b. evaluative statement. c. closed-ended question. d. transitional phrase.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

26. An open-ended question a. requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously. b. usually can be answered specifically. c. have the disadvantage of limiting the topics. d. generally requires the person to recall something.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

27. A closed-ended question a. requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously. b. cannot be answered specifically. c. gives the interviewee wide latitude in choosing the topics that he or she feels is important. d. generally requires the person to recall something.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

28. A transitional phrase a. brings the interview to a halt. b. implies that the interviewee should continue talking about the same topic. c. communicates empathy. d. should be avoided in unstructured facilitative interviews.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

29. The statement, "Yes, I see" might best be described as a. probing. b. verbatim playback. c. transitional. d. clarification.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

30. A verbatim playback a. communicates empathy. b. is less like the interviewee's response than a paraphrase. c. adds to the interviewee's response. d. is a repeat of the interviewee's last response.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

31. Clarification statements a. serve to clarify the interviewee's response. b. remain very close to the meaning of the interviewee's response. c. may add to the interviewee's response. d. all of these Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. Which of the following responses would be the most likely to lead the interviewee to elaborate on his or her responses? a. false reassurance b. verbatim playback c. levels one and two responses d. none of these typically facilitates the interview process ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

33. What two types of statements go just beyond the interviewee's response? a. clarification and transition b. clarification and summarizing c. clarification and verbatim playback d. paraphrasing and restatement ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

34. A powerful response that communicates that the interviewer understands how the interviewee must be feel is a(n) a. clarification response. b. therapeutic response. c. verbatim playback. d. empathic response.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

35. Understanding responses are important because they a. help an interviewee explore themselves at deeper levels. b. help the interviewee decide what action to take. c. indicate what the interviewee should not do. d. make an interviewee feel good.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

36. Select the best response, according to your text, to the statement, "My physics teacher yelled at me in front of the whole class." a. Why did he do that? b. That's embarrassing. c. You should report him. d. Don't worry; he yells at everyone.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

37. According to Carkhuff and Berenson, a level one response a. communicates some awareness of the meaning of a statement. b. is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement. c. goes beyond the statement given. d. bears little relationship to the interviewee's response.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 38. Which level of communication indicates only a superficial level of awareness of the meaning of a statement? a. level 1 b. level 2 c. level 3 d. level 4 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

39. Which level is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement? a. level 1 b. level 2 c. level 3 d. level 5 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

40. This type of interview begins with an open-ended question with the interviewer "listening, facilitating, and clarifying." a. evaluation b. employment c. mental status d. case history ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

41. Which type of statement points out a discrepancy or inconsistency? a. level 3 b. probing c. summarizing d. confrontation ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

42. In response to the statement "My boss yelled at me today," which of the following statements is most likely to keep the interaction flowing? a. Your boss must be a real jerk. b. What did you do wrong? c. Don't worry; I'm sure it's no big deal. d. That sounds very unpleasant.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

43. Within Carkhuff and Berenson's five-point system, what is the minimum level of responding necessary to keep the interaction flowing? a. III b. I c. II d. V ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 44. A confrontation should be used with great caution because a. it may induce anxiety. b. it may elicit anger. c. people should not be made aware of discrepancies or inconsistencies. d. there are too many different degrees of confrontation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

45. Because they were interviewing for a public relations position that would involve dealing with very volatile situations on very short notice, the MEM Oil Co. deliberately induced a degree of anxiety in the interview process. They were using a technique known as the interview. a. structured b. evaluative c. stress d. probing ANS: C

PTS: 1

46. Although interviewers normally avoid child or someone with mental retardation. a. evaluative b. probing c. hostile d. judgmental ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing statements, they may be necessary when interviewing a

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

47. By replacing "why?" statements with "tell me" or "how?" statements, an interviewer can occasionally make wise use of statements. a. evaluative b. judgmental c. probing d. hostile ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

48. The school counselor knew he was wrong when he told the failing student in his office that everything would be alright, but the student was so upset that the counselor could not help himself. This is an example of a. probing. b. false reassurance. c. directive statements. d. hostile statements.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

49. In an effective interview, the interviewer maintains face-to-face contact and interactions flowing. a. exerts minimal effort b. avoids directing the conversation c. exerts a great deal of effort d. uses closed-ended questions

to keep the

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 50. Research indicates people are more apt to talk about or explore themselves at deeper levels when responses are used because they demonstrate that the interviewer knows how the interviewee feels. a. paraphrasing b. clarification c. empathic d. summarizing ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

51. Attempts to measure understanding began with the work of a. Carkhuff. b. Berenson. c. Saccuzzo. d. Rogers.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

52. Making understanding responses is sometimes referred to as a. active listening. b. empathic accuracy. c. paraphrasing. d. transitions.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

53. A discrepancy between is NOT one of the types of discrepancy that was identified by Carkhuff (1969). a. what the person is and what he/she wants to become b. what the person says about himself/herself and what he/she does c. the person's perception of himself/herself and their close associates experience of the person d. the person's perception of himself/herself and the interviewer's experience of the person ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

54. Kaplan and Saccuzzo recommend the use of direct questioning at the end of an evaluation interview under particular circumstances. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. The interviewee is a verbal adult and capable of responding. b. The data can be obtained in no other way. c. Time is limited and the interviewer needs specific information. d. The interviewee cannot or will not cooperate.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

55. "Don't worry, everything will be all right" is an example of a. a probing statement. b. a clarification statement. c. false reassurance. d. verbatim playback.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 56. The power of understanding responses is documented in the area of a. active listening. b. evaluation. c. level-one responses. d. social facilitation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

57. Why are “stress interviews” generally not appropriate in clinical settings? a. Upsetting patients/clients may result in malpractice claims. b. Anxious interviewees are less likely to disclose personal information. c. Most psychologists are unable to correctly conduct stress interviews. d. Stress interviews are only used in criminal investigations.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

58. Why is the question “Why?” to be avoided in interviews? a. It is too open-ended and is ineffective in gathering needed information. b. It demands that interviewees explain their behavior and may be perceived as judgmental. c. It encourages interviewees to launch long explanations rather than addressing real issues. d. People are generally not very good at analyzing “why” questions to explain specific behaviors.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

59. Which of the following is the most likely to be a good interview question? a. Why did you yell at him? b. How could you possibly do something so foolish? c. How did you happen to say that? d. Did you not stop to think before you said that?

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

60. Which of the following is an open-ended question? a. Are you having problems? b. Is your father strict? c. What kinds of recreation do you enjoy? d. Would you like to visit Paris?

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

61. Which type of response goes beyond what the interviewee has said? a. verbatim playback c. restatement b. paraphrasing d. clarification ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

62. Susan just stated that she hates her brother. Which of the following statements is likely to keep the conversation flowing? a. “Hating is wrong.” b. “I very much doubt that you actually hate him.” c. “I hated my brother when I was your age.” d. “You are angry with your brother.”

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 63. What is a special type of interview used primarily to diagnose psychosis, brain damage, and other major mental health problems? a. behavioral evaluation. b. psychoanalytic interview. c. mental status examination. d. client-centered session.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

64. Experienced interviewers tend to a. focus on a conversation. b. consciously attend to what is being said. c. attend to various important things automatically. d. respond faster.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

65. Maloney and Ward suggest that an interviewer listen, facilitate, and clarify during the initial phases in a(n) a. structured clinical interview. b. evaluation interview. c. case history interview. d. mental status examination.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

66. A(n) was developed in order to help overcome the low reliability in psychiatric diagnosis. a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

67. The DISC-2, CAS, EPDS, and SCID-II are all examples of a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANS: B

PTS: 1

interviews.

REF: Types of Interviews

68. A statement that points out a discrepancy or inconsistency is called a a. confrontation c. reflection b. judgment d. clarification ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

69. Structured clinical interviews have been criticized because a. they rely completely on self-report data. b. reliability is very low. c. they are very brief. d. it is difficult to define a specific group.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 70. Dr. Daniels spoke with several members of the family in order to obtain developmental information about the problems being experienced by his adolescent client. This best exemplifies a(n) interview. a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Types of Interviews

71. Thorndike (1920) called the tendency to judge specific traits on the basis of general impressions the a. halo effect. b. general standoutishness. c. testing effect. d. experimenter bias effect.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

72. For interview data, the critical questions about reliability have centered around a. halo effects. b. inter-interviewer agreement. c. validity. d. re-interview data.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

73. The tendency to judge on the basis of one outstanding characteristic is called a. general standoutishness. b. halo effect. c. negative discrimination. d. judgmental observation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

74. Some of the foreign-based corporations in Hong Kong require their employees who transfer to Hong Kong to learn something about the culture and the language, even though English is commonly spoken. These businesses are clearly concerned with errors associated with a. cross-cultural bias. b. using the local work force. c. the halo effect. d. social facilitation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

75. According to general standoutishness theory, a. more attractive applicants are treated more favorably in telephone interviews. b. less attractive applicants are more favorably treated in telephone interviews. c. more attractive applicants are treated less favorably in in-person interviews. d. less attractive applicants are treated more favorably in in-person interviews.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 76. Which of the following is true of interview reliability? a. It usually focuses on inter-interviewer agreement. b. It can be seriously degraded by the halo effect. c. It is typically quite high. d. It is equivalent to reliability for standardized tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

ESSAY 1. Discuss potential cross-ethnic, cross-cultural, and cross-class factors that may affect interview validity.

How would you handle interviews with these factors in play?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Sources of Error in the Interview

2. Given what you have read in this chapter, design a training program for law enforcement officers teaching interrogation techniques that will reduce the errors associated with interviewing.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

3. Identify, describe, and provide examples of each of the five levels of understanding posited by Truax and Carkhuff.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Principles of Effective Interviewing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 9—Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What method of studying intelligence examines the properties of a test by evaluating its correlates and underlying dimensions? a. factor analysis b. psychometric c. information-processing d. cognitive ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

2. Dr. Kang is investigating the mechanisms that underlie how humans learn and solve problems. She is using the approach to investigate human intelligence. a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

3. Which of the following needs was the impetus for the development of intelligence testing? a. classification of military recruits b. identification of high quality civil service recruits c. identification of individuals with intellectual disabilities d. creation of vocational and technical colleges ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

4. In research investigating human intelligence, focusing on how humans adapt to real-world demands is called a approach. a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

5. What is the oldest approach to investigating human intelligence? a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 6. The finding that a correlation exists between scores on all standardized intelligence tests and been a problem in defining intelligence. a. gender b. profession c. chronological age d. socioeconomic status ANS: D

PTS: 1

has

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

7. Which of the following is part of Binet's definition of intelligence? a. memory function b. the level of quantitative skills c. self-criticism d. the ability to carry on abstract thinking ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Problem of Defining Intelligence

8. Binet believed that human intelligence was expressed through a. socioeconomic status and level of education. b. positive self concept and gender. c. judgment, attention, and reasoning. d. ethnicity and socioeconomic status.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

9. Binet's two major principles of test construction were a. general mental ability and age differentiation. b. reliability and validity. c. norms and standardization. d. age differentiation and age scale.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

10. With the principle of age differentiation, a. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child independently of chronological age. b. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child if their chronological age is known. c. the deviation IQ can be ascertained. d. Binet freed himself from the burden of identifying each independent aspect of intelligence.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

11. The tasks that Binet used to differentiate between age groups could be completed by what percentage of the children in a particular age group? a. at least 50% b. between 50% and 75% c. between 66.67% and 75% d. 100% ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 12. The concept that older children have greater capabilities than younger children is referred to as a. general mental ability. b. intelligence. c. Spearman's g. d. the principle of age differentiation.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

13. What technique is more commonly used today in order to evaluate age equivalent capabilities? a. item response theory b. factor analysis c. mental age d. predictive validity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

14. With the concept of general intelligence, a. Binet's search for tasks could be unrestricted. b. Binet was forced to ascertain the relative contribution of each element to the whole. c. the value of a task could be judged in terms of its correlation with the total score. d. each element of intelligence must first be identified.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

15. Which of the following is an implication of Binet’s concept of general mental ability? a. Individual items that do not correlate well with the total score can be eliminated. b. A broad range of diverse items must be included. c. Variability in the ability to perform specific skills should be minimal. d. Those who are high in general mental ability will also be high in specific mental abilities.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Binet's Principles of Test Construction

16. To support the notion of g, Spearman developed a statistical technique called a. correlation. b. principle components. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

17. A major implication of general intelligence is that a. a person's intelligence can best be represented by a single score. b. human intelligence is broad and general. c. human intelligence is the interaction among a broad range of specific abilities. d. human intelligence refers to good judgment, reasoning, concentration, attention, etc.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

18. Spearman suggested that the variance that is shared by a set of tests/scores represents a. age differentiation. b. positive manifold. c. the g factor.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. factor analysis.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. According to Spearman, what percentage of the variance in a set of mental ability tests is represented by the g factor? a. 50% b. between 66.67% and 75% c. 75% d. 100% ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

20. According to the concept of general intelligence, a person's intelligence score actually represents a. differences in unique ability stemming from a specific task. b. the additive score on a broad variety of tasks. c. the shared variance underlying performance on a diverse set of tasks. d. abilities on a particular test as compared to others within the same age group.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

21. The concepts of fluid and crystallized intelligence are part of which theory? a. psychometric g b. general intelligence c. gf-gc d. positive manifold ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

22. Before Binet, the notion of general mental ability had been propounded by a. Wechsler. b. Thurstone. c. Galton. d. Simon.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

23. The notion of g was advanced by a. Spearman. b. Galton. c. Thurstone. d. Simon.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

24. Those abilities that allow us to learn and acquire information can be referred to as a. crystallized intelligence. b. 'g'. c. fluid intelligence. d. positive manifold.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. When sets of diverse ability tests are administered to large, unbiased samples, almost all the correlations are positive. This is a phenomenon known as . a. the positive correlation effect. b. positive manifold. c. positive factor structure. d. factor analysis.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

26. The first version of what is now referred to as the Stanford-Binet, the Binet-Simon Scale, was developed in a. 1905. b. 1916. c. 1927. d. 1908.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

27. Which of the following is true about the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale? a. It employed the mental age concept. b. It contained 30 items, presented in random order. c. The normative sample consisted of only 10 children. d. It lacked an adequate measuring unit to express results.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

28. The age scale concept was introduced in a. the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale. b. the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale. c. the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale. d. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

29. The version of the Binet-Simon scale was considered an age scale. a. 1905 b. 1908 c. 1911 d. 1916 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

30. Which of the following problems of test construction did Binet adequately address in his 1905 scale? a. identification of what should be measured b. standardizing using a large, representative sample c. elimination of cultural bias d. development of quantitative analytic methods ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 31. Which of the following is a valid criticism of early versions of the Binet Scale? a. lack of ability to differentiate among different age groups b. difficult and time-consuming administration c. heavy reliance on verbal abilities d. failure to relate to Binet’s model of intelligence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

32. The main improvement in the 1908 Binet-Simon scale was the introduction of a. the concept of mental age. b. a control group. c. a performance scale. d. the IQ concept.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

33. A persistent criticism of the 1908 Binet-Simon scale was the a. lack of a control group. b. emphasis on language and verbal abilities. c. lack of an age scale. d. use of outmoded terms.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

34. The 30 items in the Binet-Simon scale were arranged a. according to type of task. b. randomly to avoid ordering effects. c. according to underlying ability tapped. d. in an increasing order of difficulty.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

35. Which scale used the now offensive and unacceptable terms idiot, imbecile, and moron? a. the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale b. the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale c. the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale d. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

36. In an age scale, a. items are grouped according to difficulty. b. items are grouped by content. c. items are grouped according to age level. d. items are grouped according to age level and content.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

37. Binet's rationale for providing only a single score was a. the result of the principle of age differentiation. b. based on the notion of general mental ability. c. logically inconsistent with his major premise. d. inappropriate for his purpose.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 38. The 1908 Binet-Simon Scale a. abandoned the principle of age differentiation. b. used the age scale format. c. relied largely on nonverbal tests of intelligence d. introduced the concept of gf-gc.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Early Binet Scales

39. The 1916 Stanford-Binet was developed under the direction of a. T. Simon. b. F. Kuhlman. c. R. M. Yerkes. d. L. M. Terman.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

40. Terman's 1916 Stanford-Binet added the following improvement to the earlier scales: a. an increase in the size of the standardization sample. b. the age scale format. c. the mental age concept. d. the principle of age differentiation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

41. The IQ concept was introduced a. in the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale. b. in the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale. c. in the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale. d. in the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

42. The standardization sample of Terman's 1916 Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale a. consisted exclusively of native born children from California. b. consisted exclusively of native born children from the United States. c. included foreign born children of Northern European descent. d. included only a token number of black children.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

43. Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is determined by the formula a. MA = IQ/CA X 100. b. IQ = MA/CA X 100. c. IQ = CA/MA X 100. d. IQ = MA/CA. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 44. Why did the 1916 Stanford-Binet set an upper age limit? a. Intelligence testing is needed only for school-age groups, not for adults. b. The IQs of all persons above the maximum possible mental age would have been less than 100. c. It was developed during World War I when men in their teens and twenties were being drafted. d. Acceptable reliability and validity could not be established for individuals older than 16.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

45. Which of the following was a significant improvement of the 1937 Stanford-Binet? a. The upper age limit was eliminated. b. It equalized reliability across age groups. c. Items suitable for infants younger than 2 years of age were added. d. Performance items were added to reduce reliance on verbal skills.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford Binet Intelligence Scale

46. What important concept was included in the 1960 Stanford-Binet Revision? a. norms c. deviation IQ b. factor analysis d. standardized administration ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

47. Which of the following was included in the 1916 Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? a. separate scales based on race and sex b. general mental ability c. standardization using a geographically diverse population d. representative sampling ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

48. Which version of the Stanford-Binet scale was the first one to utilize a large, geographically diverse standardization sample? a. 1905 b. 1908 c. 1916 d. 1937 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

49. One problem with the standardization sample in the 1937 version of the Stanford-Binet scale was that a. there were only Californians in the sample. b. the sample was too small. c. the sample only included whites. d. rural residents were over-represented.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

50. The 1937 Stanford-Binet scale was more reliable for a. younger; older b. older; younger c. urban; rural

than for

individuals.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. rural; urban ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 51. Among the improvements of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale was the a. introduction of the IQ concept. b. introduction of the deviation IQ concept. c. inclusion of an alternate equivalent form. d. elimination of the IQ concept.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

52. If a 10-year-old child has a mental age of 12, what would her IQ be? a. 83 b. 100 c. 120 d. 140 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

53. In which version of the Binet scale was an alternate, equivalent form first introduced? a. the 1908 Stanford-Binet Scale b. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale c. the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale d. the 1960 Stanford-Binet Scale ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

54. Poorest reliabilities of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale occurred for a. older children at low IQ levels. b. older children at high IQ levels. c. young children at low IQ levels. d. young children at high IQ levels.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

55. The deviation IQ became necessary because a. standard deviations for IQ's were the same across age groups. b. IQ's at one age level did not compare to IQ's at another age level in terms of percentiles. c. the IQ was difficult to calculate. d. the IQ was a cumbersome concept.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

56. As used in the Stanford-Binet Scale, the deviation IQ is a standard score with a a. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 10. b. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15. c. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 16. d. mean of 50 and standard deviation of 8.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

57. What was the most significant psychometric problem of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale? a. differential variability of IQ scores as a function of age b. narrower age range c. more problematic scoring standards and instructions Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. poor predictive validity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 58. The first version of the Stanford-Binet to include non-whites in the standardization sample was the a. 1937 scale. b. 1960 scale. c. 1972 scale. d. 1986 scale.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

59. Which of the following is NOT a major content area of the 1986 Stanford-Binet? a. verbal reasoning b. visual-motor accuracy c. short-term memory d. abstract reasoning ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Terman's Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

60. Which type of intelligence reflects learning the overlay of experience on original potential? a. short-term intelligence b. long-term intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

61. The 1986 Binet eliminated a. the age scale format. b. the concept of age differentiation. c. the evaluation of general mental ability. d. adaptive testing.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

62. The two alternate equivalent forms of the 1937 Stanford-Binet were forms a. S & B. b. L & M. c. B & S. d. B & T. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

63. In the 2003 fifth edition of the Binet Scale, the verbal and nonverbal scales are a. equally weighted. b. unequally weighted. c. age restricted. d. of equal difficulty.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

64. In the current (2003) version of the Binet scale, testing proceeds until an examinee has a particular number of incorrect responses. This point is called the . a. criterion b. basal c. ceiling Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. floor ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 65. In the current (2003) version of the Binet scale, the level at which a minimum criterion number of correct responses is obtained is known as the . a. criterion b. basal c. ceiling d. floor ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

66. How many factors are present in the Fifth Edition of the Binet scale? a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

67. Evidence for the validity of the Fifth Edition of the Binet scale does NOT include a. predictive b. criterion c. content d. construct ANS: A

PTS: 1

validity.

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

68. Binet freed himself from the burden of specifying each component of intelligence by introducing the concept of a. crystallized intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. mental age. d. general mental ability.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

69. How did Thurstone’s conceptualization of intelligence differ from Spearman’s? a. Thurstone argued for a single, global intelligence rather than a multidimensional model. b. Thurstone believed that intelligence was almost exclusively nonverbal. c. Thurstone believed the components of intelligence were largely independent, whereas Spearman believed in a single process. d. Thurstone believed intelligence was best measured by physiologic processes.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

70. What is the purpose of routing tests? a. They measure an individual’s visuospatial skills. b. They prevent administration of items that are too easy. c. They help establish interrelations among components of intelligence. d. They improve reliability and validity.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. Discuss the three-level hierarchical model of the modern Binet and compare it to Spearman's concept of general mental ability.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

2. Compare and contrast crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence, giving examples of each.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Modern Binet Scale

3. Explain how g is related to specific intelligence.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

4. Identify the key constructs of gf-gc theories and explain their underlying theory of intelligence.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Spearman's Model of General Mental Ability

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 10—The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Among his motivations for the development of the Wechsler scales of intelligence, was David Wechsler's belief that a. one underlying mental ability was solely responsible for the concept of intelligence. b. a single intelligence score was the most appropriate measure of human intelligence. c. human intelligence was significantly influenced by nonintellectual factors. d. existing intelligence scales were adequate to measure the intelligence of all age groups.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

2. Because he used a point scale, Wechsler was able to a. determine age level performance. b. assign points on an all or none basis. c. only analyze one area of ability. d. group similar content items together.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

3. The separate subscale used to measure nonverbal intelligence in the Wechsler scale is called a(n) a. point scale. b. performance scale. c. memory scale. d. age scale.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

4. One of the most influential advocates of the role of nonintellectual factors in intelligence tests is a. Binet. b. Terman. c. Wechsler. d. Rapaport.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

5. A major criticism of the Binet scale by Wechsler was that a. the Binet Scale was not an appropriate measure of adult intelligence. b. the concept of an age scale was outdated. c. it was not reliable. d. the norms did not include non-whites.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

6. The original Wechsler scale was the first one that a. was capable of directly comparing verbal and nonverbal measures. b. used a large, representative sample. c. used a performance scale. d. could be generalized to various populations.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. The Wechsler-Bellevue a. was well standardized. b. had a normative sample consisting of a representative sample of adults. c. included a standardization sample that was larger than any before or since. d. used separate subscales to measure adult intelligence.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

8. The Wechsler tests employs a(n) a. age scale concept. b. criterion IQ concept. c. self-reference point concept. d. point scale concept.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

9. In a point scale, a. items are grouped according to age level and content. b. points are assigned to each item. c. items cannot be presented in order of increasing difficulty. d. subjects receive some points even for items that are missed.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

10. The concept of a Performance Scale a. was introduced by Wechsler in 1939. b. was introduced prior to the development of the Wechsler-Bellevue. c. was found to be more applicable to adults than to children. d. was found to be more applicable to children than to adults.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

11. Which of the following is true of the Wechsler Scales? a. Items have content validity for adults. b. They are most useful with adults. c. They are administered in groups. d. They have limited reliability in clinical settings.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

12. The main reason for including a performance scale in a measure of intelligence is to a. facilitate scoring. b. increase ease of administration. c. improve examiner-examinee rapport. d. overcome language, cultural, and educational factors.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

13. Which of the following is a component of Wechsler's definition of intelligence? a. self-esteem b. emotional intelligence c. artistic talent Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. capacity to act purposefully ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 14. Which of the following is true of the Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale? a. It is appropriate for children but not adults. b. Its normative sample was non-representative. c. It has a verbal scale, but, unlike the other Wechsler scales, not a performance scale. d. It is unfair to older adults.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: From the Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale to the WAIS-IV 15. The information subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration. b. anxiety. c. range of knowledge. d. abstract thinking.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

16. The comprehension subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking. b. analysis of part whole relationships. c. anxiety. d. common sense or judgment.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

17. The arithmetic subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration. b. alertness to details. c. planning ability. d. common sense or judgment.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

18. The similarities subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking. b. planning ability. c. common sense or judgment. d. anxiety.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

19. The digit span subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. alertness to details. b. nonverbal reasoning. c. visual-motor functioning. d. anxiety.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 20. Which WAIS-IV subtest asks questions such as, "What should you do if you see an injured person lying in the street?" a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. picture arrangement ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

21. Which of the following is not one of the WAIS-IV verbal scales? a. digit symbol-coding b. information c. similarities d. digit-span ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

22. In which WAIS-IV subtest would an emotional disturbance be likely to interfere with the subject's response? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. vocabulary ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

23. Which WAIS-IV subtest is likely to reveal the character of a person's thought processes? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. arithmetic ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

24. Which WAIS-IV subtest provides one of the most stable and least deteriorating aspects of intelligence? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. vocabulary ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

25. Which of the following subtests measures short-term and auditory memory? a. digit span b. block design c. digit symbol d. picture completion ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 26. Which of the following is a supplemental verbal subtest? a. matrix reasoning b. letter-number sequencing c. analogies d. digit-symbol-coding ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

27. Scaled scores on the WAIS-IV have a mean of a. 10; 3 b. 50; 10 c. 100; 15 d. 100; 16 ANS: A

PTS: 1

28. The Verbal IQ has a mean of a. 100; 15 b. l0; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 3 ANS: A

PTS: 1

and a standard deviation of

.

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes and a standard deviation of

.

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

29. Which WAIS-IV subtest measures such factors as the ability to learn an unfamiliar task, visual-motor dexterity, and the degree of persistence? a. digit symbol b. picture completion c. picture arrangement d. block design ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

30. In the WAIS-IV, a full-scale IQ is obtained by a. multiplying verbal and nonverbal scores. b. dividing verbal scores by age and multiplying by 100. c. adding scores of the various scales. d. adding weighted scores of various scales.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

31. In the WAIS-IV, an index is created when a. two or more subtests are related to a basic underlying skill. b. a specified number of items is missed. c. a criterion number of correct responses is obtained. d. at least one subtest is related to an underlying skill.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. The best single measure of intelligence that is also the most stable is a. information processing speed. b. quantitative ability. c. the ability to define words. d. concentration.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

33. Lowered performance compared to a previously higher level is referred to as a. an index. b. deterioration. c. a ceiling effect. d. manifold.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

34. Which subtest of the WAIS-IV is specifically related to working memory and attention? a. letter-number sequencing b. comprehension c. vocabulary d. similarity ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

35. In order to compare scores on individual subtests, a. you can compare raw scores directly because of the use of a point scale. b. raw scores are converted to standard scores. c. weighted averages for each subscale are computed and then compared. d. scores on subscales cannot be compared to one another.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

36. The WAIS-IV uses what two kinds of norms in order to facilitate the comparison of scores on individual subtests? a. gender and age b. ethnic group and gender c. profession and age-adjusted d. age-adjusted and reference group ANS: D

PTS: 1

37. The FSIQ has a mean of a. 10; 3 b. 100; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 15 ANS: D

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

and standard deviation of

PTS: 1

.

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

38. Information processing skills are measured by the a. digit-symbol coding subtest. b. matrix reasoning subtest. c. block design subtest.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. information subtest.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. Which WAIS-IV subtest purports to measure the speed of information processing? a. matrix reasoning b. symbol search c. block design d. object assembly ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

40. Which WAIS-IV subtest provides an excellent measure of nonverbal concept formation or abstract reasoning? a. matrix reasoning b. symbol search c. block design d. letter-number sequencing ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

41. Which of the following represents a Full Scale IQ two standard deviations above the mean? a. 110 b. 80 c. 120 d. 130 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

42. Picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning are the components of the a. verbal comprehension b. perceptual c. working memory d. processing speed ANS: B

PTS: 1

index.

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

43. The index that refers to the information a person is currently holding in memory and actively manipulating is called a. verbal comprehension. b. perceptual index. c. working memory. d. processing speed.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

44. The index attempts to measure how quickly your mind works. a. verbal comprehension b. perceptual index c. working memory d. processing speed ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. The index that can best be thought of as a measure of crystallized intelligence is a. verbal comprehension. b. perceptual index. c. working memory. d. processing speed.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

46. Subtests are to index scores as index scores are to a. FSIQ c. WISC b. IQ d. WAIS ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

47. IQ scores are determined on the WAIS-IV by a. summing the age-corrected scaled scores of the composite indexes. b. summing the scaled scores and dividing by the ratio MA/CA c. the formula IQ = MA/CA X 100. d. summing the raw score for each IQ and comparing this sum to age appropriate norms.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

48. Pattern analysis is best used to generate a. diagnoses. b. reliability measures. c. hypotheses. d. validity coefficients.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Interpretive Features of the Wechsler Tests

49. Evaluating relatively large differences between subtest scaled scores is called a. factor analysis. b. verbal-performance comparisons. c. pattern analysis. d. deviation analysis.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Interpretive Features of the Wechsler Tests

50. Suppose an individual who was previously known to have intelligence is tested several years later.

On the second test, while the individual is within the normal range on verbal scales, her scores on performance scales have dropped to well below normal. What might you suspect? a. brain injury or brain tumor b. severe depression c. attention deficit disorder d. limited motivation ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Interpretive Features of the Wechsler Tests

51. The validity of pattern analysis of the Wechsler Scales a. is well established in clinical settings. b. has yet to be resolved. c. prevents practitioners from using interpretative patterns. d. cannot be determined empirically.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Interpretive Features of the Wechsler Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 52. The reliability of the WAIS-IV a. is not well-established b. ranges from 0.90 to 0.98 for the indexes c. has recently decreased sharply d. is of little importance ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Psychometric Properties of the Wechsler Adult Scale 53. In general, the validity of the WAIS-IV a. rests on studies done with earlier versions of the test. b. is undocumented, but promising. c. indicates the WAIS correlates poorly with other tests of intelligence. d. is weak when factor analytic data are considered.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Psychometric Properties of the Wechsler Adult Scale 54. Which of the following is true of the WAIS-IV? a. Pattern analysis can be used to diagnose functional and organic illnesses. b. It reflects Wechsler’s belief that there are multiple, independent types of intelligence. c. It is too complex to use in clinical settings. d. Reliability of individual subtests tends to be lower that for the index scores.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Evaluation of the Wechsler Adult Scales

55. Which of the following Wechsler Scales provides a measure of intelligence for children between the ages of 6 and 16 years 11 months? a. WPPSI-III b. WISC-IV c. WAIS-IV d. Wechsler-Bellevue ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 56. The WISC-IV supplementary subtest is a. picture completion. b. mazes. c. object assembly. d. block design ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 57. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence-III a. is designed for the 2 1/2 to 6 year age group. b. is designed for the 3 to 7 year age group. c. is designed for the 3 1/2 to 6 1/2 year age group. d. is designed for the 4 to 6 1/2 year age group.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan MSC: www

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 58. Which of the following is a unique subtest of the WPPSI-III? a. animal pegs b. symbol search c. mazes d. picture arrangement ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 59. Which of the following is an important feature of the WISC-IV? a. Unlike the WAIS-IV, it has retained the performance and verbal IQs rather than the four indexes. b. It includes non-scored teaching items that reduce errors from the child’s lack of understanding. c. Most reliability and validity studies have been done with clinical populations and the WISC-IV reliability and validity have not been established for children of average and above average intelligence. d. The WISC-IV retained only three subtests from the WISC-III and added twelve new ones.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 60. An improvement in the WISC-IV is its emphasis on a. non-cognitive factors. b. four independent types of intelligence. c. working memory. d. the VIQ-PIQ dichotomy.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III MSC: www 61. An improvement in the WISC-IV over the WISC-III is the former’s use of a. the VIQ-PIQ dichotomy. b. pattern analysis. c. trained judges to examine item content. d. empirical methods to identify item bias.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 62. Reliability coefficients for the WISC-IV are poorest for a. oldest groups at lowest ability levels. b. oldest groups at highest ability levels. c. youngest groups at lowest ability levels. d. youngest groups at highest ability levels.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 63. Which of the following is true of the standardization of WISC-IV? a. It included children from the United States, Canada, and western European nations. b. Because earlier versions had such high reliability, it was not necessary to validate the WISC-IV. c. It included 5000 children selected to represent the 2010 U.S. Census. d. It included stratification for parental occupation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 64. Cross-cultural studies of the WISC suggest a. distinct patterns related to country of birth. b. limited use in non-Western nations. c. bias against non-English speakers. d. substantial cross-cultural similarities.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 65. The modifications to the WPPSI-III include a. making it compatible with other assessments used for children with special needs. b. restricting its use to children between 4 and 6 years of age. c. retention of seven subtests and addition of two new subtests. d. revisions so that only nonverbal tests are used.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 66. Validation studies for the WPPSI-III have shown that a. it is valid for clinical and nonclinical populations. b. it cannot be validated for very young children. c. its lack of reliability has impaired its validity. d. item bias has impaired its validity.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 67. The WISC-IV FSIQ score has a. a mean of 10 and a standard deviation of 3. b. a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 3. c. a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 10. d. a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III 68. What advance in the assessment of item bias was included in the WISC-IV? a. use of expert panels b. statistical methods c. ratings by children in the to-be-tested age groups d. admission that bias is inevitable.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 69. The WAIS-IV and WISC-IV a. are only modestly correlated with each other. b. use modern concepts of cognitive psychology. c. differ in their approach to FSIQ. d. are now administered in groups.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III ESSAY 1. Choose one of the WAIS-IV subtests and describe possible non-intellective factors that may influence an individual's performance.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales | Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

2. Compare and contrast the WAIS-IV with the Binet scale that you learned about in the previous chapter.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales | Scales, Subtests, and Indexes

3. Discuss the approach to validity used for the WISC-IV. ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1 REF: Downward Extensions of the WAIS-III: The WISC-IV and the WPPSI-III

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 11—Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an advantage of alternative tests? a. They have stronger validation. b. They yield stable scores. c. They are interchangeable with Wechsler. d. They are suitable for use with populations with disabilities.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales 2. Alternative individual ability tests a. are often not as reliant on a verbal response as are the Binet and Wechsler scales. b. depend more on complex integration of visual/motor functioning. c. are psychometrically superior to the Binet and Wechsler scales. d. do not make use of performance tasks.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales 3. One way to overcome the limitations of a particular alternative ability tests is to a. use several such tests in conjunction. b. compare the results to one of the major scales. c. compare the results at two different administrations. d. There is no way to overcome these limitations.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales MSC: www 4. In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler Scales, alternative forms a. are more stable. b. are not as psychometrically sound. c. are more reliant on verbal responses. d. provide more validity documentation.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales 5. In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler scales, the alternative individual ability tests a. are more stable. b. are more established. c. are superior from a psychometric standpoint. d. can be used for specific populations.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 6. Alternative individual intelligence tests a. tend to be more stable than the Binet and Wechsler scales. b. are better than the two major scales when all relevant factors are considered. c. find their major advantage when used for their own unique purposes. d. are highly reliable and valid.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales 7. An IQ score based on one of the alternative tests a. is usually interchangeable with a score from one of the major scales. b. is usually more accurate than a score from one of the major scales. c. should generally not be used interchangeably with a score from one of the major scales. d. is generally more reliable than a score based on one of the major scales.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Alternative Individual Ability Tests Compared with the Binet and Wechsler Scales 8. Which of the following is true of ability tests other than the Binet and Wechsler tests? a. Nearly all yield scores that are directly comparable to the results of the Binet and/or Wechsler tests. b. Nearly all are very easy to administer and require only brief training. c. Because most focus on the needs of children with disabilities, they are nearly all non-verbal and require simple responses. d. While some focus on a wide range of abilities, most focus on a narrow range.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Alternatives Compared with One Another

9. Which ability test preceded the development of the Binet scale? a. Healy-Fernald Test b. The Knox Battery c. Seguin Form Board Test d. Gesell Developmental Schedules ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

10. A heavy emphasis was placed on speed in performance of the a. Knox test battery. b. Healy-Fernald Test. c. Seguin Form Board Test. d. BNAS. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

11. The Brazelton Scale a. has relatively good norms. b. lacks predictive validity. c. has very poor inter-rater reliability. d. is stable over time.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 12. Of the infant and preschool tests, the youngest age range is covered by a. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development II. b. The Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. c. The Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale. d. Gesell Developmental Schedules.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

13. No normative data is available for the a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. b. Gesell Developmental Schedules. c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development II. d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

14. A major drawback of the Brazelton Scale is that a. it does not contain information about social functioning. b. no norms are available. c. it is not effective for use with drug-addicted infants. d. it is not a useful research tool.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

15. Test-retest reliability coefficients for the Brazelton Scale a. are both good and stable. b. are generally good but unstable. c. are generally poor but stable. d. are both poor and unstable.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

16. The Brazelton Scale a. has relatively good norms. b. purports to measure a newborn's competence. c. has very good test-retest reliability. d. is a very narrow neonatal exam.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

17. Normative data for the Gesell Scale a. were based on a large representative sample. b. included 10 percent minorities. c. were based on a small, but representative sample for the general population. d. was not representative of the population.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

18. The Developmental Quotient (DQ) is employed in the a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. b. Gesell Developmental Schedules. c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development. d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. The developmental quotient (DQ) a. parallels the Intelligence Quotient (IQ) concept. b. parallels the Mental Age (MA) concept. c. cannot be compared to the IQ or MA concept. d. parallels the deviation IQ concept.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

20. After years of extensive use, the Gesell scale a. still has a number of problems. b. has relatively few problems. c. is no longer used in clinical settings. d. has excellent documentation in terms of reliability and validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

21. The Gesell scale a. presents strong evidence of reliability in the test manual. b. presents strong evidence of validity in the test manual. c. has an excellent normative sample. d. is based on a longitudinal study of early human development.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

22. The Bayley II produces two main scores: a. mental and verbal. b. mental and performance. c. social and motor. d. mental and motor.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

23. Which of the following tests seems to be a good predictor for populations with cognitive limitations but does not predict future intelligence within the normal ranges? a. Bayley Scales of Infant Development II b. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scales c. Gesell Developmental Schedules d. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

24. The Bayley-II is designed to be used with children from a. 3 days to 4 weeks b. 1 month to 42 months c. 2 months to 30 months d. 2 years to 6 years ANS: B

PTS: 1

of age.

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. What is the most psychometrically sound test of infant ability available to date? a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale b. Gesell Developmental Schedules c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development II d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

26. Which of the following was designed as a downward extension of the Stanford-Binet scale? a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale b. Gesell Developmental Schedules c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development II d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

27. The Bayley II Scales a. are psychometrically rigorous. b. predict future intelligence in children with high intelligence. c. do not predict well for infants with cognitive impairments. d. were designed for children between 3 and 5 years of age.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

28. The McCarthy Scales a. are psychometrically unsound. b. are outdated and have only historical significance. c. are widely used in research d. represent a novel conceptualization of intelligence.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

29. The McCarthy Scales for Children's Abilities a. produces only a single score. b. produces a score known as the general cognitive index. c. measures abilities in children between 4.5 and 10.5 years of age. d. are not psychometrically sound.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

30. The General Cognitive Index a. is derived by the formula GC = MA/CA X 100. b. is derived by the formula GC = CA/MA X 100. c. is a standard score with a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. d. is a standard score with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 16.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

31. The General Cognitive Index (GCI) is made up of a. verbal, perceptual-performance, and quantitative scales. b. verbal, memory, and motor scales. c. verbal, quantitative, and additional scales.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. verbal, quantitative, and memory scales.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. The KABC mental processing composite is made up of a. sequential and simultaneous processing. b. achievement and nonverbal scales. c. hand movements and number recall. d. face recognition and Gestalt closure.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

33. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC) a. was developed in the 1970s. b. contains only three subtests. c. is an ability test for children 3 to 18 years of age. d. was developed to assess only infants.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

34. Which of the following tests uses the General Cognitive Index (GCI)? a. Bayley Scales II b. Gesell Developmental Schedules c. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale d. McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

35. The KABC distinguishes between Kaufman's three mental processing scales in terms of a. sequential and simultaneous processing. b. split brain and simultaneous processing. c. number and word order recall. d. simultaneous and parallel processing.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

36. The KABC a. has limited validity when evaluating gifted children. b. is unbiased when used with Mexican-American children. c. has a combined intelligence and achievement scale. d. produces large differences between African-American and white children.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

37. The KABC a. tends to show larger African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet. b. tends to show smaller African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet. c. is not appropriate for evaluating African-American children. d. is not appropriate for evaluating white children.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

38. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale is a reliable instrument, but is not useful in assessing individuals a. with sensory handicaps. b. with physical handicaps. c. under the age of 3 years. d. with language handicaps.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. Which test is especially vulnerable to random errors? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Leiter International Performance Scale c. Porteus Maze Test d. KABC ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

40. Which test purports to measure receptive (hearing) vocabulary? a. KABC b. McCarthy Scales c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary d. Porteus Maze Test ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

41. When used with adults, the tends to underestimate IQ. a. Wechsler b. KABC c. Binet d. Peabody Picture Vocabulary ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

42. The Peabody is a. a useful component of a test battery. b. a viable alternative to the Binet. c. reliant on the ability to read. d. psychometrically unsound.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

43. Which test can be administered in about 20 minutes and requires no reading ability? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Porteus Maze Test d. KABC ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

44. Which test is strictly a performance scale whose intent was to provide a nonverbal alternative to the Stanford-Binet? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Leiter International Performance Scale-Revised d. KABC ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. Which scale purports to measure general intelligence by sampling from a variety of functions, such as memory and nonverbal reasoning, in a completely nonverbal fashion? a. KABC b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary c. CMMS d. Leiter International Performance Scale-Revised ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

46. Which of the following tests is based on the information processing approach? a. Leiter International Performance Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

47. Which of the following tests was developed as a non-verbal test for use with adolescent “delinquents?” a. Seguin c. BNAS b. Healy-Fernald d. GDS ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

48. Which of the following is a drawback of the Brazelton test? a. It does not predict future intelligence. c. It is not useful for diagnostic purposes. b. It is not suitable as a research tool. d. It includes only elicited responses.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

49. Which of the following is true of the Brazelton test? a. Infants must be at least 6 weeks old before it can be used. b. It has the greatest breadth of infant tests. c. It has very limited research support. d. The norming sample was representative of the U.S. population.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

50. Which of the following is true of most infant intelligence measures? a. Predictive and construct validity are not well documented. b. They differentiate well for infants who function at higher levels but do not do well with infants who are suspected of having disabilities. c. They can be used in place of invasive medical tests and complex scanning methodologies. d. Because of their psychometric weaknesses, they are no longer used.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

51. The underlying assumption of the Gesell Developmental Schedules is that a. intelligent infants are better able to interact with their caregivers. b. early developmental deficits are not predictive of continued deficits. c. properly developed and administered infant intelligence tests predict subsequent intelligence. d. human development unfolds in stages over time.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 52. Which of the following is an important feature of the Bayley-III? a. It is entirely non-verbal. b. It includes observations aimed at better informing interventions. c. It yields a two-factor model: motor skills and intelligence. d. It is strongly predictive of later intelligence.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

53. One of the theoretical bases of the Kaufman battery is a. Luria’s model of brain functioning. c. Pavlov’s approach to conditioning. b. Skinner’s model of learning. d. Binet’s structure of intelligence.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

54. Which of the following is an example of simultaneous processing? a. synthesizing information to solve problems b. arranging information in a systematic order c. splitting attention between two sources of information d. any activity that involves both verbal and nonverbal skills.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

55. What is the underlying assumption of the Benton Visual Retention Test? a. Visuospatial skills are highly predictive of intelligence. b. Brain damage can easily impair visual memory. c. Individuals with brain damage will stay on dull visual tasks longer than individuals without brain damage. d. Neurological tests should relate specific areas of the brain to function.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

56. The main purpose of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities is to measure a. infant intelligence. b. sensory handicaps. c. specific learning disabilities. d. brain damage.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

57. The concept of psychological deficit suggests that poor performance on a specific task is related to a. observable behavioral deficits. b. an underlying deficit. c. poor verbal skills. d. poor visual-spatial skills.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

58. Which of the following is a procedure with relevance for assessing brain damage? a. Leiter International Performance Scale-Revised b. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities c. Porteus Maze Test d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 59. The general reaction among reviewers to the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking has been a. unequivocal praise. b. strongly positive with some negative criticism. c. generally negative with some positive support. d. a suggestion that more work is needed.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

60. Which of the following is superior to the ITPA for evaluating learning disabilities? a. Woodcock-Johnson b. Bender c. Leiter d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

61. The Wide Range Achievement Test-3 has been criticized because a. it measures intelligence rather than achievement. b. it is difficult to administer. c. sample sizes in validity studies are too small. d. it is not applicable to children younger than 10 years of age.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

62. Memory-for-Designs (MFD) is intended to assess a. learning disorders. b. children under age of 3. c. brain injury or disease. d. academic achievement.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

63. According to the concept of psychological deficit, a. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by some underlying psychological deficit. b. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low intelligence. c. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low motivation. d. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by a situational factors.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Testing Learning Disabilities

ESSAY 1. Discuss the implications of testing infants. What are the advantages and disadvantages of such procedures?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 2. Given what you have learned about testing and its legal ramifications in regard to education, what steps would you take to ensure the best possible evaluation of a school-age member in your family, should they need to be evaluated for a learning disability? What particular test or tests would you want (or not want) to be administered to the child? Why or why not?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

3. Identify and discuss three visiographic tests, their psychometric properties, and their uses.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Specific Individual Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 12—Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An individual test a. is less expensive to administer. b. provides more objective scoring. c. provides information about the unique attributes of the examinee. d. are more reliable than group tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

2. In general, a paper and pencil test is representative of a. individual tests. b. intelligence tests. c. verbal tests. d. group tests.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

3. When utilizing the results of group tests, it is wise to a. be suspicious of high scores. b. refrain from the use of additional testing. c. include the scores as only a part of the data. d. look for wide discrepancies to verify findings.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

4. Which of the following is an advantage of individually-administered tests? a. They provide cost effective approaches to testing. b. They are typically easy to administer. c. Their scoring is more reliable. d. They allow individualized interpretation.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

5. In general, group tests a. are psychometrically sound. b. lack documentation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

c. are essay-type tests. d. lack reliability and validity.

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

6. One of the advantages of group tests is (are) a. the opportunity to observe behavior in a standard setting. b. that they provide a wealth of information about a subject above and beyond the test score. c. that they minimize the amount of professional time. d. low scores for reasons other than low ability are kept to a minimum.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

7. Scoring of group tests is a. more; less

objective and

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests reliable than scoring of many individual tests.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

8. Which of the following is an advantage of group tests? a. They provide information beyond the test score. b. They require minimal examiner skill to administer and score. c. They allow interpretation of the test scores. d. They allow observation of behavior under standard conditions.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Ability Tests

9. What should an educator or teacher do when wide discrepancies exist between a test score and other sources of data? a. Ignore the test score. b. Ignore the other sources of data. c. Use the data that seem to fit. d. Refer the subject for individual testing.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Overview of Group Tests

10. Which of the following is important to remember when using group tests? a. Group tests typically lack validity and have other poorly defined psychometric qualities. b. Discrepancies in scores between group tests and other measures should be investigated. c. Because they lack the detailed standardization of individual tests, group tests should be used cautiously. d. Contrary to stereotype, group tests require considerable expertise to administer and score.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

11. Validity of an aptitude test relies heavily on a. content b. criterion c. construct d. face

REF: Overview of Group Tests oriented evidence.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 12. A final examination in a school course is a type of a. achievement b. aptitude c. performance d. intelligence

test.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade MSC: www 13. Achievement tests a. evaluate the product of a course of training. b. evaluate the potential to learn general information. c. do not rely heavily on content validity. d. are not affected by educational background.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 14. Which of the followings is an example of a K-12 group test? a. KAT b. LSAT c. GRE d. ACT ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 15. Which of the following is characteristic of aptitude tests? a. Aptitude tests reflect the test-taker’s learning experiences. b. Validity is related to content-related evidence. c. Aptitude tests measure the effects of unknown and uncontrolled experiences. d. Aptitude tests typically have only limited ability to predict future behavior.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 16. Which test added alternate forms for children with visual limitations when it was renormed in 2000? a. Stanford Achievement Test c. Kuhlmann-Anderson Test b. Metropolitan Achievement Test d. Henmon-Nelson Test ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 17. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test? a. While most achievement tests rely increasingly on verbal items with increasing grade level, the KAT remains nonverbal throughout. b. The KAT cannot be used with students who have disabilities of any type. c. Despite its wide use, there remains serious concerns about the reliability and validity of the KAT. d. The KAT is suited only for those who speak English at grade level.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 18. Which of the following is true of the Henmon-Nelson Test? a. It has been rigorously evaluated for possible bias and suspect items have been removed. b. It provides individual scores for each of type of multiple intelligence. c. It has a low ceiling and does not discriminate well at high levels of intelligence. d. Scores correlate better with grades than with intelligence or achievement.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 19. To measure an individual's potential in music, you would use a(n) a. aptitude b. achievement c. intelligence d. personality

test.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

20. Which of the following types of tests typically predicts general ability?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

aptitude achievement intelligence group

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade MSC: www 21. A percentile band a. provides the range of percent correct for any given group of individuals. b. provides the range of percentiles that are likely to represent a subject's true score. c. is formed as an interval one standard error of measurement above and below the true score. d. represents all scores below the mean score.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 22. The KAT a. has potential for use with non-English speakers. b. is not appropriate for use with ethnic minorities. c. does not have well documented validity. d. correlates poorly with many other ability and IQ tests.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 23. The Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is an extremely sound instrument. b. has good validity but poor reliability. c. is primarily a verbal test. d. is useful only for pre-school age children.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 24. Validity for the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is well documented. b. is poorly documented. c. is not based on correlations with other IQ tests. d. relies on face validity.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 25. The availability of only a single score has been a continued source of criticism for a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test. b. the Cognitive Abilities Test. c. the Henmon-Nelson Test. d. the Cooperative School and College Ability Tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 26. Unlike most multi-level batteries, the Kuhlman-Anderson Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

is primarily non-verbal. is for individuals in pre-school through 2nd grade. has poor norms. is difficult to administer.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 27. Which test is especially useful if nonverbal items are needed? a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test b. the Cognitive Abilities Test c. the Henmon-Nelson Test d. the Millers Analogies Test ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade MSC: www 28. Which of the following group tests has advantages over the Henmon-Nelson Test in selecting minority, culturally diverse, and economically disadvantaged children? a. the Cognitive Abilities Test b. the Scholastic Assessment Test c. the Kuhlman-Anderson Test d. the Metropolitan Achievement Test ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 29. Although it has limits pertaining to the identification of giftedness and the identification of disabilities in minority groups, which of the following tests is a good choice when a quick measure is needed? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 30. Which test is likely to take two or three days to complete? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade 31. Which of the following tests provides three scores: Verbal, Quantitative, and Non-Verbal? a. Henmon-Nelson Test b. Kuhlman-Anderson Test c. Cognitive Abilities Test d. Scholastic Assessment Test Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Group Tests in the Schools: Kindergarten through 12th Grade

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. In comparison to the verbal section of the SAT, the verbal section of the SAT-I focuses much more heavily on students' abilities to a. spell correctly. b. complete antonyms. c. problem-solve interpersonal situations. d. read critically.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

33. The Stanford and Metropolitan are both a. intelligence b. aptitude c. nonverbal d. achievement ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests tests.

REF: College Entrance Tests

34. Which of the following is a concern that has been raised about the current revision of the SAT Reasoning Test? a. Because the current revision is longer than the previous one, it may disadvantage persons with attention deficit disorder. b. The analogies section accounts for half of the test score. c. The current SAT Reasoning Test place less emphasis on reading comprehension and has eliminated questions related to grammar. d. The math section focuses on arithmetic skills rather than higher mathematical skills.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests

35. The major weakness of the SAT lies in its a. poor reliability. b. poor predictive power in discriminating students who score in the middle ranges. c. lack of separate norms as a function of various demographic variables. d. relatively small normative sample.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests

36. The Cooperative School and College Ability Test a. has many advantages over the SAT. b. is poorly constructed. c. has a large and representative standardization sample. d. has a reasonably good correlation with the SAT. ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests

37. The stability of the GRE has been evaluated by a. Kuder-Richardson . b. extensive test-retest reliability coefficients. c. inter-rater reliability coefficients. d. correlating scores to a number of students who completed graduate school.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 38. One shortfall of the ACT is that a. it has low internal consistency coefficients. b. it does not predict first year college GPAs.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. the ITED must be administered along with it. d. it does not compare well to the SAT. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: College Entrance Tests

39. One reason that GRE scores and graduate GPAs have low correlations may be a. underprediction of younger examinees. b. range restriction. c. selection bias. d. improper administration.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

40. Like the GRE, the MAT a. underpredicts the scores of men and over predicts the scores of women. b. underpredicts the scores of both men and women. c. overpredicts the scores of men and under predicts the scores of women. d. overpredicts the scores of both men and women.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

41. A score of 600 on the verbal section of the GRE would indicate that the individual scored a. at the mean. b. one standard deviation below the mean. c. one standard deviation above the mean. d. two standard deviations above the mean.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

42. Although adequate psychometrically, both the Miller Analogies Test and the GRE have rather poor a. construct validity. b. internal consistency. c. test-retest reliability. d. predictive validity.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

43. The Miller Analogies Test a. is strictly verbal and timed. b. is strictly verbal but not timed. c. contains verbal and performance items and is timed. d. contains verbal and performance items but is not timed.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

44. Unlike some tests for professional degree programs, the LSAT a. predicts first year GPA in law school. b. is very unstructured. c. is based on performance rather than verbal skills. d. is not timed.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Graduate and Professional School Entrance Tests

45. The Raven Progressive Matrices Test Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. cannot be administered to language-impaired individuals. b. measures general intelligence, or Spearman's g.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. is poorly constructed psychometrically. d. is an individual test.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

46. A major advantage of the Raven Progressive Matrices Test is that it a. has better validity documentation than most group tests. b. does not correlate with traditional tests such as the Wechsler or Binet Scales. c. predicts creativity. d. minimizes the effects of language and culture.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

47. One of the simplest, quickest, easiest to administer, and least expensive ability tests is the a. Progressive Matrices Test. b. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test. c. IPAT Culture Fair Test. d. Quick Test.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

48. Which of the following group tests can be either group or individually administered? a. Cognitive Abilities Test b. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test c. Miller Analogies Test d. Henmon-Nelson Test ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

49. The IPAT Culture Fair Test was designed to a. eliminate cultural influences in an ability test. b. estimate the intelligence of language impaired children. c. estimate the intelligence of language impaired adults. d. be used with children three years of age and younger.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

50. Which of the following tests was developed for use in making employment decisions in government agencies? a. Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery b. General Aptitude Test Battery c. Differential Aptitude Test d. Wonderlic Personnel Test ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

51. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) a. is extremely weak from a psychometric standpoint. b. is of little use to the military despite the large numbers of tests given. c. is not valid for Blacks and Hispanics. d. consists of ten subtests.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

52. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

has poor psychometric characteristics. is not a valid predictor of training performance. does not have adequate norming information. now has a computerized adaptive version.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

53. Which of the following was developed by the U.S. Employment Service to measure occupational aptitude? a. IPAT Culture Fair Intelligence Test b. Wonderlic Personnel Test c. General Aptitude Test Battery d. Raven Progressive Matrices ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

54. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Test is now administered by computer, allowing adaptive testing. What is adaptive testing? a. Adaptive testing includes only those items related to the recruit’s areas of interest. b. Adaptive testing involves presenting a question of known difficulty and then presenting more or less difficult items depending on whether the item was correctly answered. c. Adaptive testing eliminates sources of bias by generating large numbers of items. d. Adaptive testing reduces the risk of cheating by randomly sampling from a large test bank.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

55. What change to the General Aptitude Test Battery occurred as a result of the Civil Rights Act of 1991? a. It can no longer be used in employment decisions. b. It can no longer use within-group norming. c. It must be directly related to job tasks. d. It must be renormed each year.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

ESSAY 1. As mentioned in your text, one purpose of nonverbal and performance tests is to remove factors related to cultural influences so that "pure" intelligence can be measured. Discuss the types of factors you would want to eliminate and the likelihood of being able to do so.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Nonverbal Group Ability Tests

2. Identify and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group and individual tests.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Comparison of Group and Individual Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 13—Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Personality is defined as an individual's patterns of behavior that a. change over time and characterize a person's reactions to the environment. b. indicate relatively enduring tendencies to act, think or feel in a certain manner. c. are relatively stable and enduring and characterize a person's reactions to the environment. d. indicate emotional states that vary from one situation to another.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

MSC: www

2. All of his life, whenever Thomas met new groups of people he felt timid and shy and tended to retreat to the edge of the crowd until he was better acquainted. Thomas' behavior is best described as a personality . a. trait b. type c. state d. definition ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

3. Mrs. Bauer is normally a very happy person, but she recently learned her son had a chronic illness and has been somewhat gloomy and pessimistic. This behavior is typical of a personality . a. trait b. type c. state d. concept ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

4. An organized and relatively consistent set of assumptions that a person has about himself/herself is called a(n) a. personality. b. personality trait. c. self-concept. d. personality type.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

5. At the broadest level, strategies for the development of personality tests can be divided into what two types? a. logical content and theory b. factor analytic and criterion group c. deductive and empirical d. external and empirical ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 6. The principal distinguishing characteristic of the logical-content strategy is that it assumes that the a. factor analytic technique will be used to group items appropriately.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. test taker is biased when giving responses to test items. c. test item describes a subject's personality and behavior.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. meaning of a test item can only be determined by empirical research.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 7. The theoretical strategy attempts to produce scales that are a. homogeneous. b. heterogeneous. c. multivariate. d. hypothetical.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 8. Which strategy relies on reason and logic as opposed to data collection and statistical analysis? a. deductive b. external c. contrasted d. empirical ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 9. Which strategy is likely to use item analysis in order to create a homogeneous scale? a. empirical b. logical-content c. intuitive d. theoretical ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 10. Which strategy makes extensive use of cross-validation? a. logical-content b. intuitive c. criterion-group d. factor analytic ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 11. The two empirical strategies of test construction are the a. rational and logical-content. b. multivariate and external. c. criterion keying and theoretical. d. criterion group and factor analytic.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 12. The two deductive strategies of test construction are the a. logical-content and rational. b. logical-content and empirical.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. logical-content and theoretical. d. empirical and rational.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 13. The criterion group strategy is also called the a. empirical strategy. b. rational approach. c. factor analytic. d. content approach.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 14. Which approach relies on reasoning and deductive logic? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 15. Which approach examines common variance? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 16. The theoretical approach to test construction is a(n) a. deductive strategy. b. empirical strategy. c. factor analytic strategy. d. external strategy.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction 17. The first personality inventory was called the a. Bell Adjustment Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. c. Bernreuter Personality Inventory. d. Mooney Problem Checklist.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

18. What test was, in effect, a paper-pencil psychiatric interview? a. MMPI b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet c. EPPS d. CPI Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

19. An example of an early multidimensional logical-content scale is the

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

Bell Adjustment Inventory.

Woodworth Personal Data Sheet.

EPPS. CPI.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

20. The Mooney Problem Checklist relies on which approach to test construction? a. logical content b. theoretical c. criterion group d. factor analytic ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

21. Logical-content approaches to personality test construction are not used extensively anymore because a. such tests did not meet the need for which they were designed. b. responses were too ambiguous. c. of its reliance on the logic of face validity. d. the approach is too time consuming.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

22. Which strategy does the Mooney Problem Checklist use? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Logical-Content Strategy

23. The CPI utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

24. The MMPI and MMPI-2 are a. true-false tests. b. multiple choice tests. c. subjective tests. d. fill-in-the-blanks tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

25. The purpose of the MMPI and MMPI-2 is to a. assist in distinguishing normal from abnormal groups. b. evaluate normal personality. c. evaluate job satisfaction. d. evaluate vocational aptitude.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan MSC: www

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 26. With the new MMPI-2 norms, T scores are considered significant if they are a. 65 or higher. b. 70 or higher. c. 75 or higher. d. 100 or higher.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

27. The FB scale of the MMPI-2 measures a. random responding. b. family problems. c. health concerns. d. cooperation throughout the test.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

28. One problem with the original MMPI was that the control group consisted of a. highly educated professionals. b. relatives and visitors of hospitalized mental patients. c. patients with severe psychopathology. d. men only.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

29. Which of the following scales is related to faking good (falsely presenting yourself in a favorable way) on the MMPI? a. L b. F c. Pd d. Si ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

30. Which of the following occurred as a result of Meehl’s studies of individuals, which consisted of the same two scales that were elevated? a. Clinical scales were shown to be appropriately and correctly named. b. New criterion groups were created based on similarities in their MMPI profiles. c. Clinical groups were identified on the basis of patterns of MMPI scores. d. Psychiatric diagnosis became even more important to the definition of criterion groups.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

31. The approach used in construction of the MMPI is referred to as a. criterion-group strategy. b. empirical strategy. c. criterion-keyed method. d. content approach.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

32. In Welsh's coding system, the symbol a. below 29.

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy indicates a T score

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. between 60 and 69. c. between 80 and 89. d. equal to or greater than 90.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

33. How many content scales does the MMPI-2 contain? a. 3 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

34. One problem that was not addressed in the MMPI-2 was a. sexist language. b. item overlap. c. outdated language. d. an adequate control group.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

35. How many validity and clinical scales were in the original MMPI, respectively? a. 3; 10 b. 5; 10 c. 5; 16 d. 10; 10 ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

36. Raw scores on the MMPI are converted to standardized scores called a. Z scores. b. V scores. c. T scores. d. K scores.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

37. The reading ability required for the MMPI-2 is at least a. 5th grade. b. 8th grade. c. 6th grade. d. 12th grade.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

38. Which MMPI scale was designed to detect individuals with psychopathology who produce “normal” MMPI patterns because of defensiveness? a. L scale b. K scale c. F scale d. 0 scale ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

39. Factor analysis suggests that most of the variance in the CPI can be accounted for by only two factors related to Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. internal control and interpersonal effectiveness scales. b. internal control and achievement potential

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. interpersonal effectiveness and interest modes d. interest modes and achievement potential ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

40. The MMPI-2 a. reduced the number of items compared to MMPI. b. has more items that are sexist than the MMPI. c. has not yet been standardized. d. includes additional validity scales.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

41. The restandardization of the MMPI has eliminated the most serious drawback of the original version, a. an inadequate control group. b. lack of validity documentation. c. poor reliability. d. inter-item correlations.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

42. The major source of validity for the MMPI and MMPI-2 a. comes from criterion-validity studies. b. comes from content-validity studies. c. comes from studies that describe the characteristics of particular profile patterns. d. comes from newly developed techniques of meta analysis.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

43. What does the California Psychological Inventory best measure? a. normal individuals b. personality disorders c. mild to moderate clinical disorders d. severe clinical disorders ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

44. The final restandardization group for the MMPI-2 a. was representative of the 1980 United States Census population. b. was recruited from the United States and Canada. c. included clinical populations and their family members who did not have psychiatric diagnoses. d. was more educated and had greater financial resources than the population as a whole.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

45. What does the VRIN scale of the MMPI-2 measure? a. variable responding c. vanity responding b. valid responding d. value-based responding ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

46. What does the TRIN scale of the MMPI-2 measure?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. acquiescence b. deliberate manipulation

c. lying d. malingering

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

47. Why did the MMPI-2 number the clinical scales rather than retain the scale names that specified clinical conditions such as paranoia and depression? a. Scales of the MMPI-2 no longer correspond directly to specific diagnoses. b. Elevations on a particular scale do not necessarily mean the individual has a particular diagnosis. c. The names of the scales made it easier for people to fake and indicate they had the condition when they did not. d. Use of numbers made it easier to perform statistical analyses such as regression.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

48. What did the MMPI-2 Restructured Clinical Scales (2003) add? a. contemporary norms b. computer scoring c. incorporation of items scored on scales rather than just true-false items d. nearly complete re-scaling ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

49. J. P. Guilford was a pioneer in the a. logical-content strategy. b. contrasted groups strategy. c. factor analytic strategy. d. theoretical strategy.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

50. Which test contains no item overlap and balanced keying among the various alternative responses? a. MMPI b. CPI c. 16PF d. MMPI-2 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

51. Which test has been extended downwards to apply to children and adolescents? a. MMPI c. 16PF b. CPI d. EPPS ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

52. Which of the following is a problem with the factor analytic approach? a. It lacks standardized statistical methods. b. It uses subjective factor names. c. It requires annual revisions. d. It can be used with clinical but not “normal” populations.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

53. Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey utilizes which strategy? a. logical-content strategy Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. factor analytic ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

54. What strategy did R. B. Cattell use in developing the l6PF? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Factor Analytic Strategy

55. The Edwards Personal Preference Schedule utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

56. Which test presents scores in relative terms rather than as absolute totals? a. CPI b. 16PF c. Personality Research Form d. EPPS ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

57. Which of the following tests has a forced-choice format? a. EPPS b. 16PF c. CPI d. MMPI ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

58. Which test is based on Murray's (1938) Theory of Needs? a. EPPS b. 16PF c. MMPI d. CPI ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

59. The PRF-III and JPI-R differ from the EPPS because they a. developed specific definitions of Murray’s needs. b. they have lower levels of validity. c. they lack “fake” scales. d. they are based on Maslow’s work rather than Murray’s.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

60. The Personality Research Form utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. factor analytic ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

61. Carl Rogers had people sort sets of cards into groups that described the real self and the ideal self. This method is called a. self-efficacy. b. rational approach. c. Q-sort technique. d. self-report.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Theoretical Strategy

62. The NEO-PI-R was developed using a. factor analysis and theory. b. deductive approaches. c. theory and external approaches. d. empirical strategies.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Combination Strategies

63. How were the questions for the NEO-PI-R developed? a. Items were taken directly from the MMPI. b. “Normal” individuals were asked to list personality traits. c. They were balanced for positive and negative wording. d. They selected traits from a dictionary.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Combination Strategies

64. The Neo-PI-R scale measures which of the following dimensions? a. extraversion, neuroticism, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and openness to experience b. self-esteem, self-control, openness to experience, positive trait, and hope c. ego, self-efficacy, resilience, and hope d. disposition, extraversion, neuroticism, psychosis, and agreeableness ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Combination Strategies

65. The Rosenberg Self-Esteem Scale was created for a. abnormal b. childhood c. adult d. criminal

populations.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 66. According to the LOT-R, an individual's tendency to view the world and the future in positive ways is called a. openness to experience. b. agreeableness. c. satisfaction with life. d. dispositional optimism.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 67. Which test conceptualizes life satisfaction as a cognitive-judgmental process? a. SWLS c. DRS b. LOT-R d. CPI ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 68. LOT-R is designed to measure a. openness to experience. b. agreeableness. c. satisfaction with life. d. dispositional optimism.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 69. Positive and Negative Affect Schedule (PANAS) measures positive affect (PA) and negative affect (NA) by a. 10 positive and 10 negative adjectives. b. a short interview. c. 10 items developed to assess individual differences in generalized optimism and pessimism. d. 100 positive and 100 negative items.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 70. Which scale reflects the idea of personality as a single construct? a. The NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R) b. Core Self-Evaluations c. Jackson Personality Inventory d. MMPI ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 71. Research on the General Self-Efficacy Scale (GSE) indicates a. that the underlying construct is culturally specific. b. a negative correlation with work satisfaction. c. a positive correlation with depression. d. that self-efficacy is a global construct.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Frequently Used Measures of Positive Personality Traits 72. According to a study by Saccuzzo, Kewley, Johnson, and colleagues (2003), a. the various measures of positive affect are completely independent. b. various measures of positive affect are best conceptualized as a single construct. c. a large number of items is required to reliably and validly measure positive affect. d. each measure of positive affect has a high level of unique variance.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Future of Positive Personality Research

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 1. The measurement of personality assumes that humans possess characteristics or traits that are stable across situations, vary from individual to individual, and can be measured. Discuss these assertions and your agreement or disagreement.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Introduction

2. Compare and contrast deductive and empirical strategy and discuss their sub-strategies.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Strategies of Structured Personality-Test Construction

3. How do positive personality tests differ from those used to assess psychological disturbances?

Describe a real world setting in which these tests might be used.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Combination Strategies

4. Describe the methods used in developing the original MMPI and subsequent revisions, identifying how the later tests addressed specific problems with the original.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Criterion-Group Strategy

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 14—Projective Personality Tests

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most controversial and misunderstood psychological tests are a. group tests. b. achievement tests. c. objective personality tests. d. projective personality tests.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Projective Hypothesis

2. Who first introduced the Rorschach to the United States? a. Marguerite Hertz b. J. Kerner c. David Levy d. Samuel Beck ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

3. The Barnum effect is found when a. statements that fits most of the case inflates validity. b. ambiguous responses are subjectively evaluated. c. participants who lack pathology are diagnosed as having pathology. d. a scale is not standardized.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

4. Which individual played a major role in the use and investigation of Rorschach? a. Murray b. Klopfer c. Rogers d. Barnum ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

5. Which of the following is true of the Rorschach? a. It was treated with suspicion from the beginning. b. It is the most widely used psychological test. c. Recent scoring revisions have eliminated the most serious objections. d. It has finally become a widely accepted method in psychology.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

6. The determinant types of the Rorschach are a. form, movement, color, and shading b. whole, common detail, and unusual detail c. excellent matching, average matching, and poor matching d. location, form quality, and content ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in a. estimating the skills of the administrator. b. specifying reliability. c. differentiating between normal and disordered conditions. d. determining whether the individual taking the test understands the instructions.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

8. Early demonstrations of the Rorschach included validation by a. reviews by content-area experts familiar with the underlying constructs. b. performance of individuals who analyzed the responses of individuals they had never met, making a diagnosis, and validating the diagnosis against other data sources. c. large-scale field work that involved thousands of individuals tested by hundreds of administrators whose skill levels varied. d. standard psychometric methods that yielded surprisingly high validity.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

9. What are the content types of the Rorschach? a. positive and negative b. human, animal, and nature ANS: B

PTS: 1

c. nature and nurture d. reality-based and fantasy-based

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

10. Exner’s 2007 revision of the Rorschach a. included new non-patient norms. b. argued that the original test was not reliable. c. identifies few individuals as having psychopathology, including those who actually have psychopathology. d. linked the Rorschach with other projective techniques.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

11. Use of the Kuder-Richardson formula a. corrects for faking. b. yields analyzable data.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

c. increases estimates of reliability. d. eliminates random variability.

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

12. Adding information from the Rorschach to information from other sources does not improve diagnostic accuracy and may even decrease it. This indicates the lack of a. incremental validity. c. standardized scoring. b. reliability. d. relevance.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

13. The first phase of Rorschach administration is called a. free association. b. process monitoring. c. inquiry. d. initial interpretation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 14. The two phases of Rorschach administration are called a. phase I and phase II. b. free response and determinant. c. free association and inquiry. d. associational and inquiry.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

15. The relative proportion of W, D, and Dd location choices varies as a function of a. maturation. b. degree of psychological disturbance. c. degree of psychological well-being. d. defensiveness.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

16. The Dd response refers to a. an unusual detail. b. a divided response. c. a double response. d. animal content.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

17. Which of the following is not a scoring category of the Rorschach? a. location b. content c. inquiry d. form quality ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

18. The DW response on the Rorschach is a(n) a. animal movement. b. human movement. c. confabulatory response. d. unusual detail.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

19. Form quality is a scoring dimension that refers to a. where the perception was seen. b. what determined the response. c. the extent to which the response matched the stimulus qualities of the inkblot. d. what the perception was.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

20. The characteristic of an inkblot that leads a subject to see a particular form is called a. the determinant. b. a pure form response. c. an inquiry.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. confabulation.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 21. Early proponents of the Rorschach gave impressive demonstrations that seemed to support the reliability of the test. These demonstrations a. are unquestionable evidence of the effectiveness of the Rorschach. b. have been labeled as the result of the Barnum effect. c. depended on the evaluator giving one specific analysis. d. were undoubtedly given before the analyst knew anything about the patient.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

22. According to the text, Rorschach "virtuosos" a. performed significantly better in controlled studies than in clinical settings. b. were actually no better than chance in their clinical assessments. c. performed no better than chance when tested in controlled studies. d. never actually had their expertise statistically analyzed.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

23. If an individual taking the Rorschach said, "It looked like one; here are the feet, head, tail, and wings," the determinant would be a. content. b. location. c. form. d. popular.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

24. Scoring of content on the Rorschach a. is impossible. b. is extremely difficult. c. cannot be done reliably. d. is a relatively simple matter.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

25. The Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach was developed by a. Levy. b. Beck. c. Hertz. d. Exner.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

26. In order to remedy problems identified in the Rorschach, Exner developed a. the concept of determinants. b. highly structured administration protocols. c. the Comprehensive System for scoring. d. revised stimuli.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 27. Exner's attempts to provide adequate norms for the Rorschach have largely failed because a. he miscalculated to actual number of people in the norming group. b. his sample came from relatives of psychiatric patients. c. his sample did not use both males and females. d. only educated people from upper income levels were used.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

28. Most researchers today feel that the Comprehensive System for scoring a. is an effective improvement to the Rorschach. b. has failed to remedy the problems associated with the Rorschach. c. still has a ways to go but at least provides adequate norms. d. makes improvements that allow the test to be used in forensic settings.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

29. The Rorschach tends to emotionally disturbed individuals. a. accurately identify b. underestimate the number of c. overestimate adults but not children as d. identify over half of normal subjects as ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

30. Sines found that for assessment, the addition of the Rorschach resulted in a. less accurate findings. b. more accurate findings. c. findings that did not change. d. increases in incremental validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

31. The psychometric properties of the Rorschach have been difficult to evaluate because a. the Rorschach is difficult to administer. b. there is no universally accepted method of administration. c. responses can only be subjectively evaluated. d. the Rorschach has no clinical utility.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

32. Which of the following is a criticism of the Rorschach? a. lack of universally accepted scoring procedures b. unstable results over time c. no empirical base d. more than one of these ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Rorschach Inkblot Test

33. Supportive evidence in favor of the Holtzman Inkblot Test a. is highly objective. b. is based on quantitative features. c. appears to depend on examiner skill. d. depends on formal interpretive standards.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: An Alternative Inkblot Test: The Holtzman

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 34. The Holtzman Test a. is an alternative to the Rorschach. b. is an alternative to the TAT. c. has proven to be more useful than the Rorschach in clinical settings. d. has proven to be more useful than the alternatives to the traditional procedures.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: An Alternative Inkblot Test: The Holtzman

35. The main difficulty with the Holtzman Inkblot Test is a. cumbersome administration. b. questionable validity. c. lack of an alternative form. d. lack of normative data.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: An Alternative Inkblot Test: The Holtzman

36. Gamble (1972) reviewed the literature on the Holtzman and concluded that the a. Holtzman is clearly superior to the Rorschach. b. Holtzman is clearly inferior to the Rorschach. c. Holtzman and Rorschach are about equally sound. d. data are insufficient and it should not be considered any more useful than the Rorschach.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: An Alternative Inkblot Test: The Holtzman

37. The has been suggested as a possible alternative to split-half reliability for the Thematic Apperception Test. a. coefficient alpha b. test-retest c. difference score d. Kuder-Richardson ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

38. The work of which theorist underlies the Thematic Apperception Test? a. Beck c. Freud b. Murray d. Jung ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

39. Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT is a. more structured and more ambiguous. b. more structured and less ambiguous. c. less structured and more ambiguous. d. less structured and less ambiguous.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

40. Compared to the Rorschach, standardization of administration and scoring of the TAT a. is clearly better. b. is about the same. c. is clearly worse. d. is inconsistent.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 41. Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT has a. more b. about as many c. fewer d. far fewer ANS: A

PTS: 1

interpretive and scoring systems.

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

42. TAT interpretation relies most heavily upon a. elaborate, complex scoring systems. b. quantitative methods. c. qualitative methods. d. computer scoring.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

43. Almost all TAT methods of interpretation take into account a. hero, needs, and thought content. b. overt behavior, press, and themes. c. press, needs, and outcomes. d. fantasies, press, and themes.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

44. Lindzey's 10 assumptions apply primarily to a. the TAT. b. the Rorschach. c. the Holtzman. d. the MMPI. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

45. In TAT interpretation, the environmental forces that interfere with or facilitate the satisfaction of various needs are called a. press. b. external stimuli. c. themes. d. determiners.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

46. An analysis of existing results concerning the reliability of the TAT indicates that when specific variables such as the need for achievement are studied, a. respectably high reliability figures are found. b. low reliability figures are found. c. modestly positive reliability figures are found. d. inconclusive results are found.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 47. Supporters of the TAT a. have noted the test's high split-half reliability coefficients. b. have argued that internal consistency cannot be determined. c. do not consider split-half methods appropriate for the TAT. d. do not think that reliability is important for the TAT. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

48. Validity studies of the TAT suggest that a. validity of the TAT depends on high test-retest reliability. b. validity of the TAT depends on high split-half reliability. c. there is content-related validity. d. validity of the TAT does not depend on split-half reliability.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Thematic Apperception Test

49. Which test provides more rigorous scoring procedures while preserving many of the advantages associated with thematic apperception? a. Word Association Test b. Southern Mississippi-TAT c. Draw-a-Man Test d. Incomplete Sentences Task ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Alternative Apperception Tests

50. The CAT was designed a. to be used with Latino(a) children. b. for use with the elderly. c. for use with children 3-10 years old. d. to be used with urban populations.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Alternative Apperception Tests

51. Which test was developed specifically for use with Latino and Latina children? a. TAT c. CAT b. TEMAS d. SM TAT ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Alternative Apperception Tests

52. Word association tests were first used on a clinical basis by a. Jung. b. Murray. c. Rorschach. d. Lindzey.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

53. Word association tests can be traced back to a. Kerner. b. Galton. c. Cattell. d. Guilford.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 54. One problem with word association techniques is that a. scoring systems are generally subjective. b. no norms exist. c. interpretation is objective. d. they do not adequately predict clinical syndromes.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

55. On the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank, a. short, humorous sentences generally receive the highest scores. b. humor tends to lower scores. c. long, complex sentences generally receive higher scores. d. short, humorous sentences generally receive lower scores.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

56. Initial reviews of the Incomplete Sentences task by Lanyon and Lanyon have a. indicated poor reliability. b. shown very little to recommend the test. c. been positive and encouraging. d. indicate low validity.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

57. Despite findings that indicate it is perhaps the most psychometrically sound projective test, the rarely used in clinical settings. a. Draw-A Person Test b. Children's Apperception Test c. Washington University Sentence Completion Test d. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

58. Among projective tests that overinterpret data without sufficient empirical foundation, the worst offenders are a. thematic apperception tests. b. inkblots. c. projective drawing tests. d. word completion tasks.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

59. One of the most valid figure drawing tests is the a. Draw-a-Person Test. b. House-Tree-Person Test. c. Kinetic Family Drawing Test. d. Goodenough Draw-a-Man Test.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

is

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. Discuss the concept of the projective hypothesis and explore examples of projection in situations other than formal psychological testing.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Projective Hypothesis

2. The issue of projective test usage creates strong debate among professionals. Take a position, pro or con, and defend that position using the information in the text.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Projective Hypothesis

3. Identify and discuss the use of three nonpictorial projective tests. Compare their methods, uses, reliability, and validity to those of the Rorschach.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Nonpictorial Projective Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 15—Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the cognitive-behavioral assessment procedures a. are more direct than traditional psychological tests. b. can be collectively categorized as observational assessment. c. are based on learning principles. d. employ sophisticated hardware such as electronic beepers.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

2. Which type of therapy is based on principles of learning? a. cognitive b. client-centered c. behavior modification d. personality ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

3. Tests based on behavior modification and used as an alternative to traditional tests are known as a. projective assessments. b. cognitive-behavioral assessments. c. personality tests. d. psychoanalytic assessments.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

4. Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on a. the behavior b. repressed memory c. previous trauma d. personality ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures as the main problem in a disorder.

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

5. Dr. Moore was convinced he would not be able to help his client control his compulsive overeating, unless he discovered the reason behind the behavior. Therefore, the tests he used were intended to examine these underlying causes. Dr. Moore was following the a. biopsychosocial model. b. psychoanalytic approach. c. cognitive approach. d. medical model.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

6. Joey's parents went to a therapist to help them overcome Joey's fear of going to school. Before she helped them create a reward system for each time their son went to school without crying, the therapist first determined the severity and frequency of the behavior. The therapist was a. establishing a baseline. b. developing a diagnosis.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. establishing rapport. d. assessing the cause of behavior.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

7. A behavioral assessment that involves evaluating the current frequency of a behavior, designing a treatment intervention using reinforcement, and then evaluating the effect of the treatment relative to a baseline, is based on a. classical conditioning. b. psychosocial effects. c. operant conditioning. d. backward conditioning.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

8. The major distinction between cognitive-behavioral and traditional self-report procedures is that a. cognitive-behavioral assessment deals mostly with issues of intelligence. b. traditional self report procedures ask questions about autobiographical memory. c. the former is used with children and the later is used with adults. d. cognitive-behavioral assessment has concentrated on the phenomenon of fear.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

9. Which of the following models assumes that overt manifestations of psychopathology are only symptoms of an underlying problem? a. Kanfer and Saslow's model b. the operant conditioning model c. the medical model d. the social ecology model ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

10. When traditional and cognitive-behavioral procedures are compared, a. traditional procedures are clearly superior. b. traditional procedures are more related to treatment. c. both are based on the same underlying philosophy. d. cognitive-behavioral procedures are more related to treatment.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

11. Cognitive-behavioral and traditional procedures differ in that a. cognitive-behavioral procedures are more direct and remain closer to observable behaviors. b. traditional procedures have fewer inferential assumptions. c. traditional procedures measure the overt manifestations of psychological disorders. d. cognitive-behavioral procedures tend to be based on the medical model.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

12. The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and duration of a behavior is known as a. behavioral assessment. b. establishing a baseline. c. a critical response. d. operant conditioning.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

13. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

develop reinforcers. identify critical behaviors. determine a baseline. determine the cause of the problem behavior.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

14. Which procedure is designed to minimize the effect that the presence of an observer has on the behavior that is being observed? a. operant b. self-report c. extinction d. psychophysical ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

15. Ken is having trouble at work because his boss takes advantage of him and gives him twice as much work as anyone else. Ken has trouble saying 'no' to his boss but then gets very angry because of all the work he has to do. Ken's therapist is likely to use the in order to assess Ken's behavior in this particular situation. a. Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule b. Miller Analogies Test c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

16. Cognitive-behavioral self-reports are best used in conjunction with other sources of information because a. they only address a small number of behaviors. b. they are very difficult to administer. c. little psychometric data is available for any of them. d. very few such tests even exist.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

17. Pat is constantly cleaning and re-cleaning the house and cannot seem to stop doing so. Pat's behavior is beginning to interfere in other areas of life and cause others, as well as Pat, great concern and distress.

Pat's behavior would be described as a(n) a. phobia. b. behavioral deficit. c. behavioral excess. d. dysthymic disorder.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

18. Organized cognitive frameworks that help organize experiences, interpret new experiences, and make predictions about what is likely to happen in the future are called a. schemas. b. self-concepts. c. biases. d. prototypes.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

19. Which of the following problems are inappropriate for operant techniques?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

eating problems studying problems losing weight general dissatisfaction with life

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

20. Cognitive-behavioral self-report techniques a. are superior to traditional self-report techniques. b. attempt to deal with the problems in obtaining observational data. c. are generally well supported in terms of reliability and validity. d. are best categorized as a technique of psychophysiological assessment.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

21. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a a. traditional psychological test. b. self-report measure. c. projective behavioral test. d. psychophysiological procedure.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

22. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) attempts to identify a. those individuals most likely to be fearful in a variety of situations. b. internal characteristics that lead to fear responses. c. situations that elicit fear and avoidance. d. the circumstances under which typically fearful people are less likely to be afraid.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

23. The school counselor has administered the to Danielle to assess her belief that unless she gets an A in all of her courses, she will be viewed as stupid and incompetent. a. WAIS b. FSS c. IBT d. DAS ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

24. Brenda's therapist is helping her to identify how she might be keeping herself from succeeding in various tasks by assessing the kinds of self-statements she makes. This is one of the most important functions of a(n) a. cognitive functional analysis. b. personality test. c. projective test. d. factor analysis.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

25. Procedures and tools that are intended to increase a subject's awareness of a particular behavior by providing feedback are known as Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. projective tests. b. personal profiles. c. structured tests.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. self monitoring devices.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

26. In an interview, the tendency for a person to respond in a way that makes them look good in the eyes of the interviewer is known as a. self efficacy. b. social desirability. c. attribution bias. d. self concept.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

27. Research indicates that the effects of social desirability are as compared to face-to-face interviews. a. increased b. decreased c. about the same d. increased for sensitive subject areas ANS: B

PTS: 1

in computer-administered interviews

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

28. Self-report techniques of cognitive-behavioral assessment a. tend to focus on situations that lead to particular response patterns. b. implicitly assume construct validity. c. include such procedures as the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. d. focus primarily on underlying personality traits.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

29. Who proposed the use of a self-report battery? a. Kanfer and Saslow b. McFall and Lillesand c. Cautela and Upper d. Mahoney and Ward ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

30. The functional (behavior-analytic) approach to assessment is a product of a. the Self-Report Battery. b. Meichenbaum. c. Kanfer and Saslow. d. the Fear Survey Schedule.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

31. Research has indicated that self-statements a. influence behavior. b. are unrelated to overt behavior. c. cannot be assessed. d. are caused by environmental contingencies.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

32. Which of the following researchers is associated with cognitive functional analysis?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

Ax Azrin Kanfer Meichenbaum

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

33. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a. a self-report technique. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. a psychophysiological assessment. d. a psychophysical procedure.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

34. Generally, all of the problems of early structured personality tests apply to a. self-report techniques. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. psychophysiological assessment. d. psychophysical procedures.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

35. What technique emphasizes behavioral deficits and excesses? a. self-report techniques b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach c. psychophysiological assessment d. psychophysical procedures ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

36. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to a. develop reinforcers. b. identify critical behaviors. c. determine a baseline. d. determine the cause of the problem behavior.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

37. When cognitive-behavioral assessment methods are compared to traditional assessments, cognitive-behavioral assessments a. make fewer inferential assumptions. b. are plagued with problems related to definition. c. have fallen into disfavor. d. are generally of lower reliability and validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

38. Elise, a bright four year-old, is very reluctant to try new foods. In fact, she has become unwilling to eat anything other than chicken nuggets, macaroni and cheese, and french fries. What is most likely the critical behavior? a. fear of getting fat c. being a difficult child b. refusing new foods d. maternal control Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. Paulo has been very disrespectful to his older sister and it is causing family conflict. The target behavior has been identified as insulting comments, and it is categorized as a behavioral excess. What is the next step? a. Asking Paulo why he is so rude b. Determining a baseline for rude comments c. Experimenting with what it will take for Paulo to stop being rude d. Identifying the stimulus antecedents ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

40. Why are self-report methods often preferred to observer methods? a. The mere presence of an observer can influence the occurrence of the target behaviors. b. Self-report measures allow the individual to feel more in control of the situation. c. The mere act of self-report typically induces the desired changes. d. Insurance companies will not pay for observer ratings.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

41. In cognitive-behavioral approaches, the primary determinant of the behavior is viewed as a. the individual’s attitudes c. the reinforcement history b. the situation d. lack of learning and knowledge ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

42. Which test has been adapted for use with adults who have intellectual disabilities? a. ABSS c. MSAT b. TAT d. FSS ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

43. Which of the following is true of cognitive-behavioral self-report procedures? a. They are not yet well-established clinical tools. b. They are strongly preferred by most clinicians. c. They require substantial skill to administer, score, and interpret. d. They typically lack face validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

44. What is the goal of the Dysfunctional Attitude Scale? a. To identify schemas that predispose individuals to pathological behaviors b. To assess the extent to which bad attitudes cause unacceptable behavior c. To determine whether bias and prejudice contribute to interpersonal problems d. To measure the impact of low expectations on school and other achievement ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

45. In comparison to the Irrational Beliefs Test (IBT), the Irrational Beliefs Inventory (IBI) a. is much longer and more complex. b. focuses on cognitions rather than negative affect. c. lacks consistent psychometric properties across cultures. d. is less useful in clinical settings.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 46. In psychology, psychophysiologic hardware a. is of limited use.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. may increase the scientific quality of psychological tests. c. often causes more harm than good. d. cannot be integrated into psychological testing procedures.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

47. The premise underlying a Cognitive Functional Analysis is that a. overt behavior rather than underlying causes should be the primary focus of the assessment. b. what a person says to himself or herself plays a critical role in behavior. c. assessment of the internal dialogue has no place in the cognitive-behavioral assessment process. d. self-report procedures are they only useful technique in cognitive-behavioral assessment.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

48. Indicators such as heart rate, blood pressure, and GSR are used in a. psychophysiological procedures. b. cognitive functional analysis. c. cognitive-behavioral assessment. d. signal detection procedures.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Psychophysiological Procedures

49. Which of the following researchers in psychophysiological assessment demonstrated that the fear response was related to specific physiological changes? a. Klinger b. Powell c. Azrin d. Ax ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Psychophysiological Procedures

50. Which of the following individuals can be given credit for his or her involvement in psychophysical and signal detection procedures? a. Saccuzzo b. Kaplan c. Kelly d. Meichenbaum ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Psychophysiological Procedures

51. One problem in psychophysiological assessment is that a. no relationship has been found between physiological processes and cognitive processes. b. there may be artifacts. c. they are too time intensive. d. they are not cost-effective.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Psychophysiological Procedures

52. What approach may use an electronic device to measure heart rate and blood pressure? a. self-report techniques Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach c. psychophysiological assessment d. psychophysical procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Psychophysiological Procedures

53. A signal detection procedure may be used in a. self-report techniques. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. psychophysiological assessment. d. psychophysical procedures.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

54. Which of the following has been an impediment to the widespread use of computers in cognitive-behavioral assessment? a. questionable reliability b. lack of acceptance by practitioners c. difficulty with computerized test administration d. unreliable scoring of behavioral data ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

55. Iconic storage refers to a. the memories of negative self-statements. b. a brief perceptual memory system. c. the development of schemas. d. the rate of GSR. ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

56. In general, the results of computerized testing are a. lower b. lower for adults, but not for children c. less accurate d. about the same ANS: D

PTS: 1

when compared to paper and pencil testing.

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

57. Researchers are able to compensate for differences in the testing environment of subjects who respond via the Internet by a. publishing clearly stated instructions on the web site. b. eliminating outliers. c. the sheer increase of the sample size generated on the web. d. by limiting access to their web page to pre-qualified participants.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

58. For his patients who have a fear of flying, Dr. Davidson uses a computer to mimic the effects of airplane travel. This is known as a. virtual reality. b. operant conditioning. c. functional assessment. d. psychoanalytic assessment.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 59. Jessica and her twin brother took a college entrance exam via computer. When talking afterwards, they found they had responded to different questions. The computer provided each question based on how well they had done on the previous question. This is known as a. individualized testing. b. computer adaptive testing. c. selective assessment. d. projective testing.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

60. A problem encountered in computer adaptive testing is that a. expense usually increases. b. they generally require more time to administer. c. test takers cannot go back and change their answers. d. it takes a long time to find out your score.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

61. One potential drawback to the computerization of traditional tests is that a. there is a significant reduction in reliability. b. interpretations based on computer programs must be viewed with caution. c. computerized test administration is cumbersome. d. there is a significant decrease in validity.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

62. To score psychological tests such as educational, personality, and/or psychopathology measurement, a. a trained individual should be involved in the scoring process. b. computers are taking a major role. c. computers started replacing almost all the psychopathological tests. d. computer-based scoring is not recommended.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

63. Internet administration of psychological tests is generally a. adequate. b. not recommended. c. better than other methods. d. worse than paper and pencil tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

ESSAY 1. Choose a behavior that you would like to increase or decrease. Plan an intervention using the steps outlined in the text (Table 15-3). What reinforcers did you choose? How effective was the intervention?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

2. Identify, discuss, and evaluate psychophysiologic procedures used in psychological settings.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Cognitive-Behavioral Assessment Procedures

3. What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of computer-administered testing? When would you tend to avoid their use and how should these drawbacks be handled?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Computers and Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 16—Testing in Counseling Psychology

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first interest inventory was the a. Strong Vocational Interest Blank. b. Carnegie Interest Inventory. c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. d. Kuder Preference Survey.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

2. The 1966 version of SVIB used standard scores with a mean of a. 0; 1 b. 50; 10 c. 100; 15 d. 100; 10 ANS: B

PTS: 1

and a standard deviation of

REF: Measuring Interests

3. The criterion-group approach to test construction a. matches a test-taker's responses to those of a defined group. b. defines a criterion or cut-off score associated with high interest levels. c. allows the test-taker to identify his or her criterion for success. d. is seldom used for vocational tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

4. Studies by Strong on occupational interests demonstrated that a. occupational interests are very unstable and may change from year to year. b. occupational interests are stable during high school years but become unstable during adulthood. c. occupational interests remain relatively stable after students have left school. d. occupational interests are stable during high school and college years, become unstable during the 30s, and become stable once again later in life.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

5. Studies that examined the stability of interest patterns indicated that a. they were not stable over time. b. adolescents had a very stable pattern of interests. c. interest patterns were established by about age 17. d. most people became instable in midlife.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

6. The SCII improved on the SVIB by a. reducing the number of occupational scales. b. reducing gender bias in the scales. c. limiting the age range of the criterion group. d. using more gender specific norms.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. According to Holland's six personality factors, an individual that enjoys self-expression and being dramatic would fall on the factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. artistic d. social ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

8. David is very active politically and generally likes to be the leader of any group he joins. According to Holland's six personality factors, David is likely to fall on the factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. enterprising ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

9. Sonya builds computers for a living and enjoys camping and hiking on the weekends. Holland's theory would identify Sonya as a. realistic. b. artistic. c. social. d. investigative.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

10. Suppose you scored very high on the Dentist Scale of the SCII. This would suggest that a. you are interested in dentistry. b. your interests are similar to those of people who say they are happy working as dentists. c. you have a high aptitude for dentistry. d. the chances are good that you will be a successful dentist.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

11. A major criticism of the Strong Vocational Interest Blank was a. low validity. b. low reliability. c. sex bias. d. that it was not properly designed for real life applications.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

12. Which of the following statements is true? a. Scores on the Kuder remain stable over the course of time, but scores on the SCII tend not to. b. Scores on the SCII remain stable over time while scores on the Kuder tend not to. c. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII do not remains table over time. d. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII remain stable over the course of time.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey. b. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory. c. Career Assessment Inventory. d. Carnegie Interest Inventory.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

14. One notable difference between the CISS and the KOIS is that a. CISS uses triads of alternative activities. b. CISS has a separate college majors scale. c. KOIS has separate norms for males and females. d. KOIS is not psychometrically sound.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

15. The report that is generated for the KOIS presents a. dependability of the results b. rank-ordered interest patterns c. ranks of different occupations d. matches with different college majors ANS: A

PTS: 1

in the first section.

REF: Measuring Interests

16. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicate a. poor reliability. b. poor validity. c. good reliability and predictive validity measures. d. less predictive validity in college graduates.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

17. The expectation that a person has about their ability to perform the tasks associated with a particular occupation is known as a. social desirability. b. egocentrism. c. self-efficacy. d. attribution bias.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

18. Influencing, Helping, and Creating are three of the seven orientation scales that are part of the a. Campbell Interest and Skill Inventory. b. Jackson Vocational Interest Survey. c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. d. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. One difference between the KOIS and the SCII in item format is that a. KOIS items are not associated with occupational interests. b. each SCII item presents the test-taker with a triad (set of 3) of alternative activities. c. the KOIS presents the test-taker with triads of (set of 3) alternative activities. d. only the SCII provides direction with regard to selection of a college major.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

20. Which of the following tests may help college students choose a major? a. Strong Vocational Interest Blank b. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

21. Which of the following interest inventories is primarily designed for non-college bound individuals? a. the KOIS b. the SCII c. the CAI d. the SII ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

22. Which of the following tests has become the "working person's" SCII? a. KOIS b. CAI c. SDS d. JVIS ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

23. The is useful when planning a midlife career change. a. MVII b. SCII c. KOIS d. JVIS ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

24. Individuals who take the Career Assessment Inventory must be able to read at the a. 6th b. 8th c. 10th d. 12th ANS: A

PTS: 1

grade level.

REF: Measuring Interests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. Marjorie wants to get some information about possible career choices she might like. She would prefer to use some assessment that she can complete on her own rather than arranging an appointment with a career counselor. Marjorie might be interested in the a. MVII. b. JVIS. c. SDS. d. CAI. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

26. The U.S. News and World Report now offers the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey b. Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory c. Campbell Interest and Skill Survey d. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory ANS: C

PTS: 1

over the Internet for a small fee.

REF: Measuring Interests

27. Which test includes a scale that assesses the degree of skill in a number of specific occupations in addition to the scales that assess interest in academic and occupational topics? a. KOIS b. CISS c. SVIB d. JVIS ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

28. The Strong Vocational Interest Blank is based on the observation that a. people from different occupations have different interests. b. individuals’ interests guide their career choices. c. people who are not interested in a career often require guidance. d. vocational interests are more important than career choices, ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

29. Which of the following is true of the 1966 SVIB? a. It included 54 occupations for men but only 32 for women. b. It had very serious problems with reliability. c. It was developed using the theoretical approach. d. The interest patterns are not stable over time.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

30. Which of the following is a valid criticism of the SVIB? a. It has problems with gender bias. c. It yields unstable scores. b. It lacks reliability. d. It has poor predictive validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

31. Which theorist had an influence on the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory? a. Holland c. Maslow b. Murray d. Skinner ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 32. Barbara is motivated by power and political strength. Which of Holland’s personality factors does this reflect? a. enterprising c. interpersonal b. ego strength d. dominance ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

33. What do the SCII occupational scores provide? a. The likelihood that the test-taker will be successful in the different occupations b. The similarity between an individual’s interests and the interests of those who are happy in their occupation c. An indication of whether the individual will be able to find a job in their chosen occupation d. What types of interests an individual needs to develop in order to be a success ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

34. Which of the following is a criticism of the 1977 version of the SCII? a. It is too similar to the SVIB. b. It lacks predictive validity. c. The individuals in the criterion groups were older than the individuals who typically take the test. d. It is based on the assumption that an individual’s interest in their late teens or early twenties will be stable.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

35. The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey involves a. the selection of the most and least preferred activities from a triad. b. only trade and technical occupations. c. a combination of interests, abilities and education. d. combined rather than separate norms for males and females.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

36. Which of the following is true of Holland’s Self-Directed Search? a. It helps individuals develop a personal career theory. b. It identifies individuals’ strengths and weaknesses. c. It yields impressive correlations between test results and stated career aspirations. d. It is very difficult to score correctly and this has harmed its validity.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

37. Which of the following is a criticism of Osipow’s approach? a. It focuses on the individual characteristics at the expense of the work environment. b. It places greater emphasis on career interests over time than on stable career interests. c. It assumes personality traits are stable when they are not. d. It lacks the statistical power necessary for use in research.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 38. Which of the following approaches to assessment is used in Osipow's approach to occupational assessment? a. matching traits to occupations b. assessing career maturity c. assessing career preferences d. using interview data exclusively ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement

MSC: www

39. A special commission appointed by The Association for Evaluation in Guidance found that a. the psychometric properties of most interest inventories was poor. b. instruction manuals for the interest inventories needed to be improved. c. interest inventories guided men and women into gender-typed careers. d. unisex interest inventories were neither valid nor reliable.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 40. Scales like the SCII and the KOIS are based on a. measures that assess an individual's aptitude for a particular occupation. b. an assessment of crystallized intelligence. c. similar interests between test takers and persons in a particular occupation. d. measures that predict how successful a person is likely to be in an occupation.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 41. Who postulated that interests were an expression of personality that could be divided into one or more of six categories? a. D. P. Campbell b. E. K. Strong, Jr. c. R. L. Thorndike d. J. L. Holland ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 42. The approach of involves the administration of an extensive test battery that includes the Purdue pegboard in order to learn as much about an individual's traits as possible. a. Holland b. Osipow c. Roe d. Super ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 43. What is one of the problems with tests that measure personality traits? a. They are usually too short. b. Scores for personality traits may not be good predictors of how individuals behave in particular situations. c. Two measures of the same trait usually do not correlate well with one another. d. They are seldom psychometrically sound.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 44. Research on attribution theory suggests that people tend to describe others in terms of explain their own behavior in terms of . a. situations; traits b. traits; personalities c. traits; situations d. specific context; situations

, but

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 45. According to attribution theory, people determine what has caused some event in their environment using three criteria: a. persons, entities, or times. b. distinctiveness, consensus, or consistency. c. who, what, or when. d. internal, external, or global.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 46. Jones and Nisbett (1977) suggested that we make situational attributions about our own behavior because a. it is more difficult to accept our own faults. b. we know more about ourselves than about others. c. we are more subjective about our own faults. d. we forget unpleasant aspects of our past behavior.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement 47. Tina, who is generally easy going, became short tempered after a run-in with a rude, irate customer.

According to attribution theory, her behavior would be considered a. consistent. b. global. c. stable. d. distinctive.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. Describe the criterion keying method that was used to develop the Strong Vocational Interest Blank.

What procedures were changed in the development of later versions of this instrument; i.e., the SCII and the CISS? ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

2. Compare and contrast the KOIS and CAI. ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Interests

3. Describe at least two key issues in the development of interest assessments and outline the attempts, if any, that have been made to deal with them.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1 REF: Measuring Interests | Measuring Personal Characteristics for Job Placement

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 17—Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The scientific discipline that examines psychological impairments of the central nervous system, and the therapeutic or educational techniques designed to bring about improvement, is known as . a. behavioral psychology b. cognitive psychology c. clinical neuropsychology d. health psychology ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

2. Dr. Jackson, a psychologist, works in a rehabilitation facility that handles patients with injury or disease of the brain and/or spinal cord. His job is to identify and describe the dysfunction that is present, to use statistical procedures to quantify that dysfunction, and to design an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. It is likely that Dr. Jackson is a specialist in a. experimental psychology. b. behavioral medicine. c. cognitive behavioral psychology. d. clinical neuropsychology.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

3. Clinical neuropsychology and movements. a. psychophysical assessment b. cognition c. neurology d. psychiatry ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment both focus on sensations and perceptions and on motor

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

4. Clinical neuropsychology is multidisciplinary and overlaps with the fields of a. psychiatry, neurology, and psychometric testing. b. operant conditioning, nuclear medicine, and neurology. c. counseling, neurology and psychometric testing. d. psychiatry, nephrology, and psychometric testing.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

5. The roots of neuropsychology can be traced to the 19th century work of a. Luria and Reitan. b. Broca and Wernicke. c. Tuber and Geschwind. d. Halstead and Reitan.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

6. Most of the work in neuropsychology is directed toward the assessment of a. sensations/perceptions. b. brain dysfunction.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. mood. d. motor movements.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

7. After suffering from a stroke, Louise has problems dressing and seems to have trouble telling her right from her left. She also has trouble reading because she cannot seem to recognize written words. It is quite likely that the damage from the stroke a. affected the right hemisphere of her brain. b. affected the left hemisphere of her brain. c. is not responsible for the deficits she is experiencing. d. effected both sides of her brain.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

8. An individual with difficulty writing, impaired visual perception, and paralysis of a limb that they deny is paralyzed, might be suspected of having damage to which brain hemisphere? a. left hemisphere b. right hemisphere c. there is no way to infer that information d. both hemispheres of the brain must be involved ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

9. Wernicke's aphasia involves damage to the a. hippocampus. b. corpus collosum. c. superior temporal gyrus. d. amygdala.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

10. Brain damage that effects information-processing skills involved in the retrieval of information is likely to be located in the a. diencephalic system. b. frontal lobes. c. medial temporal lobes. d. ventromedial hippocampus.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

11. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a. difficulty hearing. b. impaired verbal comprehension. c. impaired reading ability. d. impaired psychomotor abilities.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

12. The factor proposed by Mirsky related to a child's ability to scan information and respond in a meaningful way is called a. shift. b. focus execute. c. encode. d. scanning.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Your textbook presents the case of a patient who exhibited deterioration in performance on the Draw-a-Clock task, which was administered three times from 1996 to 1999. The pattern of the patient's performance indicated that a. he was probably schizophrenic. b. he was most likely illiterate. c. parietal lobe functioning had deteriorated. d. dopamine production had deteriorated.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

14. The Trail Making Tests evaluates several cognitive skills, including a. mood, attention, and sequencing. b. attention, intelligence, and thought processing. c. attention, sequencing, and thought processing. d. intelligence, sequencing, and thought processing.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

15. Mirsky and colleagues have identified four different factors of mental processing and related them to specific anatomical regions in the brain. These four factors are a. focus execute, sustain, encode, and shift. b. focus execute, sustain, process, and shift. c. encode, process, sustain, and output. d. sustain, encode, shift, and output.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

16. Dyslexia a. is a motor disorder. b. is a disease that affects the muscular system. c. is characterized by difficulty decoding single words. d. is associated with mental retardation.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

17. Dyslexia is an example of a a. subcortical dementia. b. speech disorder. c. short-term memory deficit. d. learning disability.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

18. Neuropsychological evaluations and analysis have been used in order to identify malingering in patients who had previously had brain damage. a. factor b. descriptive c. discriminate function d. differential item ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

19. The concussion resolution index Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. does not correlate well with other neuropsychological tests. b. performs poorly in comparison to the grooved pegboard test.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. is a paper and pencil test. d. can assess neuropsychological problems when other reports are normal.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

20. One of the major disadvantages of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is that the battery a. was not systematic. b. is useless in localizing injury in a particular hemisphere of the brain. c. can only be administered to adults. d. requires 8 to 12 hours to administer.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

21. Along with the Halstead-Reitan Battery, patients often receive the a. MMPI. b. CPI. c. Rorschach. d. TAT. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

22. Approximately how long does it take to administer the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery? a. less than 1 hour b. 4 to 5 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 12 to 24 hours ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

23. The Halstead-Reitan Battery can assist in assessing a. tumors from heart disease. b. left versus right hemisphere brain lesions. c. subcortical versus cortical brain lesions. d. peripheral versus central nervous system lesions.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

24. Which researcher introduced the concept of pluripotentiality? a. Luria b. Halstead c. Reitan d. Lezak ANS: A OBJ: www

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

25. The concept of pluripotentiality suggests that a. all areas of the brain are equally capable in performing any function. b. any one center in the brain can be involved in several different functional systems. c. one center of the brain is involved in one and only one functional system. d. the potential of brain capacity is unlimited.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

26. Luria's original work used

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

highly objective measures. standardized procedures. multiple validity measures. psychometrically unsound procedures.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

27. A standardized version of Luria's procedure was developed by a. Benton. b. Golden. c. Mirsky. d. Geschwind.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

28. Approximately how long does it take to administer the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery? a. 1 hour b. 4 to 5 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 24 hours ANS: D

PTS: 1

29. The Luria-Nebraska test provides a total of a. 3 b. 10 c. 11 d. 14 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment scores reported as standardized performance levels.

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

30. Pluripotentiality refers to a. simultaneous talents. b. an individual's ability to perform two activities at the same time. c. the concept that any one center in the brain can be involved in several functional systems. d. the possibility of multiple intelligences.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

31. Receptive and expressive language abilities seem to be localized a. more in the left than the right side of the brain. b. more in the right than the left side of the brain. c. equally in the right and the left sides of the brain. d. in the frontal lobe of the brain.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

32. Which neuropsychological test can be administered by a computer? a. Luria-Nebraska b. California Verbal Learning Test c. Halstead-Reitan d. Trail Making Test ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

33. The Halstead-Reitan is an example of a

.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

fixed quantitative battery more flexible assessment than the CVLT qualitative approach battery that does not used standardized procedures

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

34. The California Verbal Learning Test (CVLT) a. is one of the subscales of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery. b. is an example of a fixed quantitative assessment approach. c. identifies different strategies, processes, and errors associated with specific deficits. d. is exclusively a paper and pencil instrument.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

35. The findings of a study, using the CVLT, which compared patients with Huntington's disease, Alzheimer's disease, and other neuropsychological impairments suggest that a. measures have the same validity for different patient groups. b. the association between variables is different for different patient populations. c. the CVLT may be an appropriate measure for Alzheimer's patients but not Huntington's. d. the CVLT cannot discriminate between impaired groups and a control group of patients.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

36. The California Verbal Learning Test is a new approach to clinical neuropsychology that builds on research in a. psychological testing, cognitive psychology, and neuroscience. b. physiological testing, experimental psychology, and neuroscience. c. physiological testing, experimental psychology, and computer science. d. psychological testing, cognitive psychology, and computer science.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

37. Which test attempts to determine how errors are made in learning tasks? a. Luria-Nebraska b. Halstead-Reitan c. California Verbal Learning Test d. Category Test ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

38. The three components of psychological stress are: a. fright, flight, and fight. b. frustration, fear, and pressure. c. frustration, conflict, and pressure. d. demands, opportunities, and constraints.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

39. As a component of psychological stress, frustration is defined as a. the reaction that occurs when the attainment of some desired goal is blocked. b. the type of stress that occurs when we must make a choice.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. occurring when we are forced to speed up activity. d. the type of stress that occurs when we have too much time on our hands.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

40. An emotional state marked by worry, apprehension, and tension is known as a. frustration. b. fear. c. stress. d. anxiety.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

41. Stress is a response to situations that involve a. demands, constraints, or deadlines. b. fear, frustration, or demands. c. frustration, constraints, or opportunities. d. demands, constraints, or opportunities.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

42. State anxiety is a(n) a. personality characteristic. b. emotional reaction that varies from one situation to another. c. reaction that can be measured using trait personality measures. d. stable and consistent fear reaction not specific to any one stimulus situation.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

43. The state-trait anxiety theory was developed by a. Spearman. b. Sarason. c. Spielberger. d. Mandler.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

44. Research on the STAI, which measures two components of anxiety, would seem to indicate a. that the psychometric properties of the test are poor. b. each component is measuring a different aspect of anxiety. c. the two components are measuring the same thing. d. that the factor structure of the test does not hold up in Japanese culture.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

45. The Test Anxiety Questionnaire distinguishes between the a. learned task; learned anxiety b. stress; anxiety c. learned task; learned hopelessness d. learned helplessness; learned anxiety ANS: A

PTS: 1

drive and the

drive.

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

46. The short version of the Test Anxiety Inventory has a. been found to be psychometrically unsound. b. a total of 10 items.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. retains many of the reliability properties of the full version. d. has not yet been tested to evaluate its validity.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

47. The original test anxiety measure was a. the TAQ. b. the TAI. c. the STAI. d. the STABBS. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

48. Early studies using the Test Anxiety Scale demonstrated that test-anxious students a. tended to be very self-confident. b. are anxious in nearly all social situations. c. tend to focus attention on themselves in test-taking situations rather than on the test. d. are anxious because they are so tightly focused on the test.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

49. The focus of the TAS is on a. the particular situation. b. the measurement of social support. c. the person rather than the situation. d. the same as in the TAQ. ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

50. After receiving neutral feedback, individuals who score low on the TAS tend to a. be pessimistic about their future performance. b. be optimistic about their future performance. c. have low frustration thresholds. d. be overly self-focused.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

51. The Ways of Coping Scale (Folkman, 2010; Lazarus & Folkman, 1984) is a includes subscales. a. 10; three b. 68; seven c. 24; nine d. 79; six ANS: B

PTS: 1

-item test and

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

52. One advantage of EMA is that a. information is collected in the subject's natural environment. b. it does not require a computer. c. information can only be collected once. d. there is no variability over time.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

53. Which type of memory is assumed to be unlimited in quantity and duration? a. LTM Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. STM c. WM d. Verbatim

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

54. According to the study on detoxified alcoholics, a. 18-month detoxified alcoholics do not show any recovery of learning and memory. b. 18-month detoxified alcoholics showed some recovery of memory and learning. c. 18-month detoxified alcoholics showed full recovery of memory and learning. d. 18-month detoxified alcoholics showed better memory and learning than abstinent group.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

55. Why is ANAM one of the most important developments in clinical neuropsychology? a. ANAM takes eight hours to administer. b. ANAM is the first neurological test to measure psychological disorder. c. ANAM is an automated neuropsychological test. d. ANAM only requires a single task.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

56. Which imaging study allows estimates to be made of blood flow to regions of the brain? a. CAT c. PET b. fMRI d. EEG ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

57. Given the advances in neuroimaging, why are neuropsychological tests still used? a. Neuropsychological tests can detect problems that are missed with imaging. b. Neuropsychological tests are needed for confirmatory analyses. c. Neuropsychological tests take less time to administer and are less stressful. d. Neuropsychological tests are an expected part of neurological workups.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

58. According to your textbook, which of the following is regarded as a major accomplishment of neuropsychologists? a. The development of procedures to identify relationships between the brain and behavior b. The synthesis of medications that help slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease c. The development of imaging methods that eliminate the need for lengthy neuropsychological testing d. The identification of specific brain structures that are associated with complex cognitive functions ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

59. Which of the following is associated with right-sided brain injury? a. word-memory problems b. finger agnosia c. problems dressing d. difficulty writing ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

60. Which of the following is associated with left-sided brain injury? a. visual-spatial defects Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. problems recognizing written words c. problems with spatial calculations

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. inability to recognize a physical deficit ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

61. Which test evaluates attention and executive functioning in children? a. Trail Making Test b. Child Development Inventory c. Halstead-Reitan d. Luria-Nebraska ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

62. Which component of the Halstead-Reitan assesses current learning skills, mental efficiency, and abstract concept formation? a. category b. trail making c. rhythm d. tactual ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

63. The California Verbal Learning Test a. determines how errors are made. b. tests memory function. c. measures intelligence. d. identifies the location of brain injury.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

64. The Ecological Momentary Assessment a. avoids biases associated with asking people to remember their moods or symptoms. b. requires a highly trained observer to rate behavior. c. provides information about the situational determinants of behavior. d. shows great promise as an alternative to lengthy neuropsychological assessments.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

65. The two major approaches to quality-of-life assessment are a. tangible and intangible. b. psychometric and decision theory. c. internal and external. d. life and death.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

66. The best known example of a psychometric approach to quality-of-life assessment is the a. TAS. b. WHO. c. SIP. d. MMPI. ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 67. An important characteristic that specifically identifies the decision theory approach to quality of life assessment is that it

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. b. c. d.

provides separate measures for different dimensions of quality of life. asks respondents to choose from alternatives to determine what their quality of life is. is based upon subjective ratings by physicians. attempts to weight different dimensions of health.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

68. The eight-dimension measure that was developed for the Medical Outcomes Study and the RAND Corporation is the a. SF-36. b. QWB. c. Nottingham Health Profile. d. Karnofsky Performance Status.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

69. Despite its limitations, which of the following is the most commonly used behavioral measure in contemporary medicine? a. Nottingham Health Profile b. Sickness Impact Profile c. Index of Activities of Daily Living d. SF-36 ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

70. In cost/utility analysis, the benefits of treatment are expressed in a. mortality rates. b. well-years. c. morbidity rates. d. life satisfaction scores.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

71. Decision theory approaches to quality of life measurement have the advantage of providing a. a complex profile of health status. b. a basis to compare patients with very different conditions. c. a method for predicting future illness. d. unweighted dimensions of health.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

72. The psychometric approach to quality of life measurement a. weights different dimensions of quality of life to derive a single score. b. is applicable to social aspects of life but not health issues. c. are plagued by problems with validity. d. provides separate measures for each of the dimensions of quality of life.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

ESSAY 1. Discuss how neuroscience is related to other forms of psychological assessment.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: Answer not provided.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

2. Identify and discuss the types of imaging studies that are used in neuropsychology.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Neuropsychological Assessment

3. Discuss issues related to quality of life. Operationalize this concept, (i.e., how do definitions of quality of life differ from individual to individual and how might these variations affect measurement of health status?).

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

4. Discuss the relationship(s) between life stress, social support, and coping. What impact do these factors have on physical illness? What about psychological distress?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Quality-of-Life Assessment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Chapter 18—Testing in Industrial and Business Settings MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In practice, employment interviews involve a search for a. goodness of fit. b. skill sets. c. negative information. d. employment history.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees 2. The difference between I/O psychology and human resource management is that a. human resource emphasizes quantitative methods. b. human resource emphasizes testing methods. c. I/O psychology emphasizes quantitative methods. d. I/O psychology emphasizes qualitative methods.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees 3.

psychology is the study and practice of job analysis, job recruitment, employee selection, and the evaluation of employee, while psychology is the study and practice of leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation. a. Cognitive; social b. Personnel; organizational c. Human resource; leadership d. Selection psychology; motivational ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees

4. In structured interviews, candidates who work hard at impression management a. have no advantage. c. are seen as manipulative. b. receive higher ratings. d. pay less attention to the questions.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees 5. When there has been one unfavorable impression in an interview, of the interviewees are rejected; when there have been only positive impressions, are rejected. a. 50%; 50% c. 75%; 10% b. 75%; 25% d. 90%; 25% ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees 6. When women apply for an entry-level management position, wear perfume, and convey friendliness through nonverbal behaviors, a. male interviewers are typically distracted and pay less attention to responses. b. they are negatively viewed, perhaps because they seem manipulative.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. they are viewed as appropriate management candidates. d. the salary that is offered will be higher.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology - The Selection of Employees 7. Researchers who have reviewed the literature on employment interviews almost unanimously recommend a. the use of an unstructured interview. b. the use of a structured interview. c. that the employer should depend upon their first impression. d. that prospective employees cannot go too far in trying to make a good impression.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

8. What kind of score is used when a decision is dichotomous? a. scaled c. qualitative b. cutting d. normalized ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

9. When a false negative rate is high, test makers may a. re-norm the test. c. lower the cutoff. b. add items to the test. d. increase reliability.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

10. When the cost of false positives is high, test makers may a. abandon the test for one that is better. c. identify sources of variance. b. raise the cutting score. d. change the method of administration.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

11. Which of the following is a problem with tests that purport to measure and predict antisocial behavior by measuring childhood aggression? a. They have high false positive rates. b. They lack validity. c. They have poor reliability. d. They have high false negative rates.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

12. Which of the following is needed for Taylor-Russell tables? a. determination of the reliability c. identification of false positives b. definition of false negatives d. a definition of success ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

13. Which of the following is true of decision and utility theory? a. It makes managers more likely to use data. b. It is widely used in employee selection. c. It requires information that is difficult to estimate. d. It has been rejected for use in medical research.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

14. Which type of employment interview has the lowest validity?

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. structured b. psychologically-based

c. situational d. value-added

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

15. In order for a test to be considered useful, it must provide more information than would be known by a. the cutting score. b. the validity coefficient. c. making a decision without a test. d. the hit rate alone.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

16. A cutting score is a. associated with the number of people allowed to take the test. b. the minimum point for test reliability. c. a decision point. d. the base rate for a test with a dichotomous format.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

17. The percent of cases in which a test accurately predicts success or failure is known as the a. rate of accuracy (RA). b. positive percentile. c. hit rate. d. base rate.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

18. A base rate is a. the number of "hits". b. the proportion of people with a defined condition in the general population. c. the chances of succeeding given a person is selected by a highly valid test. d. the chances of failing given that a person is selected by a highly valid test.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

19. If an applicant is selected on the basis of test performance, but fails on the job, the situation is described as a a. hit. b. false negative. c. false positive. d. high cutting score.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

20. On the basis of a psychological test, an individual is identified as schizophrenic. An interview reveals schizophrenic thinking and a history of psychiatric hospitalization. This case best illustrates a a. false negative. b. miss. c. false negative. d. hit.

ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 21. In decision analysis, the detection rate is the same thing as a. the sensitivity.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. the specificity. c. the accuracy rate. d. the false positive rate.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

22. If a test were available that could identify those persons most likely to suffer heart attacks, it would be more costly and dangerous to have a a. hit. b. low cutting score. c. false positive. d. false error.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

23. Students selected on the basis of a test for a graduate training program frequently leave prior to completion because of poor grades. This is an example of a a. false negative. b. high cutting score. c. high base rate. d. false positive.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

24. Studies of the base rates in the use of mammography have clearly indicated that a. women of all ages benefit from annual mammography. b. women aged 20-30 should have annual screenings. c. it is unclear if mammography is beneficial in the 40-50 age groups. d. early detection of breast cancer in young women increases survival chances.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

25. One of the reasons that mammography is controversial for younger women is that a. younger women never get breast cancer. b. breast self-examinations work better than mammography. c. breast cancer is rare in younger women and the test has many false positives. d. breast cancer is common in young women and the test has many false negatives.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

26. The percentage of applicants who are hired or admitted to a program is known as the a. base rate. b. reliability coefficient. c. selection ratio. d. validity coefficient.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

27. Suppose that 100 people applied for a job and that 50 will be selected. The base rate for success on the job is .60 and the applicants would be selected on the basis of a test with a validity of .80. What would the probability of success be given rejection? a. 44/50 b. 44/60 Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. 6/60 d. 16/50

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

28. Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a. the reliability of a test. b. the validity of a test. c. the utility of a test. d. test-retest reliability.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

29. Utility theory has not been widely used for making personnel decisions because a. it is not as reliable as the Taylor-Russell table. b. the equations are difficult to apply. c. hit rates are low. d. variables must be dichotomous.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

30. Utility theory approaches may be more applicable to actual situations than the Taylor-Russell methods because a. the definition of success can be in terms of a continuous variable. b. utility theory does not consider dollar values. c. they are easier to apply. d. the information needed for the calculations is easily obtained.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

31. The information a test provides beyond what is known using some simpler procedure is called a. construct validity. b. hit rates. c. incremental validity. d. the base rate.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

32. Incremental validity a. is less valuable than face validity. b. defines the base rate in utility theory. c. is an estimate of the hit rate. d. tells you what you can gain by using a particular test.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

33. Even if a test is reliable and valid, it should not be used unless it has a. incremental validity. b. utility. c. a high cutting score. d. content validity.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

34. Recent research shows that people are able to self-predict how they will behave in particular situations Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan a. very accurately. b. very inaccurately. c. unreliably.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. less accurately than trained observer.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

35. Jason had worked very hard to accurately and quickly perform every task assigned to him. Still, his supervisor gave him a low rating. Research indicates that supervisors a. are the most accurate judge of an employee's performance. b. are not influenced by petty concerns such as their own job security. c. are known to be inaccurate raters. d. give lower performance ratings if they are conflicted about their own role.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

36. The predictive validity of most selections tests a. is very low. b. is only modest. c. is between .7 and .8. d. is never less than .9.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

37. Which test attempts to measure temperament? a. WPT b. MBTI c. MEAP d. CPI ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs 38. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is based on the theory of psychology types proposed by a. Isabel Myers. b. Carl Jung. c. Henry Murray. d. Carl Rogers.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs 39. According to Jung's theory, knowing something because we can see it would be considered a. intuition. b. sensing. c. feeling. d. vision.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs 40. In Jung's theory, inferring what underlies sensory inputs is a. sensing. b. signal detection. c. intuition. d. thinking abstractly.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 41. The purpose of the Myers-Briggs test is to determine a. whether people are clinically depressed. b. if a potential employee will be successful in a particular job. c. where people fall on the introversion-extroversion dimension. d. the IQ of older employees compared to younger employees.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs MSC: www 42. The Wonderlic Personnel Test is based on the a. Porteus Maze Test. b. Otis Self-Administering Tests of Mental Ability. c. General Aptitude Test. d. Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs 43. The WPT is a(n) a. computer adaptive test. b. very long test to administer. c. stable test with extensive norms. d. test with extensive validity documentation.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Personnel Psychology from the Employee's Perspective: Fitting People to Jobs 44. The field of psychology that studies people in their natural environment and attempts to analyze the effects of the physical environment on social behavior is known as a. behaviorism. b. cognition. c. environmental psychology. d. ecological psychology.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

45. Ecological psychology a. focuses on a person's behavior. b. focuses on events that occur in a behavioral setting. c. has a subfield known a social psychology. d. is not actually a valid field of psychology.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

46. An important area in social ecology is the study of a. behavioral settings. b. intra-psychic factors. c. problem-solving strategies. d. interpersonal relationships.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 47. A work situation is described as follows: hot, high pressure for production, little reinforcement for production, and low pay. This description employs which approach to assessment? a. personality b. environmental classification c. persons-situation interaction d. job stress ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

48. A classification system that includes six characteristics of environments was developed by a. Roe. b. Barker. c. Stokols. d. Moos.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

49. Many studies have demonstrated that the characteristics of other people in a person's environment a. serve as an example of what not to do. b. fail to have any impact on behavior. c. affect one's own behavior. d. only have an effect on the weak-minded.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

50. Moos' research has led to the conclusion that a. work productivity is not affected by the environment. b. supportive work environments reduce stress. c. bank customers do not care if the teller is friendly or not. d. stress is related to outside influences and not to work environments.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

51. The is a complex approach to assessment that combines a general environment scale and separate subscales of various aspects of the setting. a. MBTI b. MEAP c. DAT d. WPT ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

52. According to Moos's classification system, consideration of the architectural design would be a characteristic of the a. behavioral setting. b. ecological dimensions. c. functional properties. d. organizational structure.

ANS: B 53. A(n)

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring Characteristics of the Work Setting

is used by job analysts to describe the activities and working conditions associated with a

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan job title. a. incident report b. checklist

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. base rate d. interview ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Job Analysis MSC: www

54. Checklists have been found to a. be more predictive than Moos's environmental scales. b. accurately predict if a person will like a work environment. c. provide an incomplete and unintegrated view of the job. d. give accurate information because forms are always complete.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Job Analysis

55. Which of the following methods of job analysis involves the observation of behaviors that differentiate successful from unsuccessful employees? a. checklists b. observation c. questionnaires d. critical incidents ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Job Analysis

56. Special precautions are necessary when using to find out about job situations because the information gained is easily biased by employees who have strong negative or positive feelings toward the company. a. observation b. interviews c. questionnaires d. critical incidents ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Job Analysis

57. A problem with obtaining information about employment settings from questionnaires is that a. returned questionnaires may not be a representative sample of the employees. b. employees tend not to report critical incidents. c. questionnaire studies are too expensive. d. questionnaires cannot be structured to allow employees to express their opinions.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Job Analysis

58. Analysis of success for employees in the Phillips Rubber Band Company has shown that the successful employees always arrive at work on time, volunteer to help other employees, and always attend the company picnic. The form of job analysis used to arrive at this conclusion was most likely a. checklists. b. attribution theory. c. the critical incident technique. d. the template-matching technique.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

59. The template-matching technique attempts to match a specific template of behavior to a. job performance. b. test scores.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan c. personality. d. interest inventories.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

60. Which factors are associated with the greatest percentage of variation in behavior? a. situations b. persons c. person-situation interactions d. "other" factors and error ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

61. In the template-matching technique, a. personality test scores are matched to environmental classification scores. b. individuals predict how they will behave in well described situations. c. clusters of traits are obtained through factor analysis to form "templates". d. employers develop templates of the "ideal" employee.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

62. Ryan was fired last week, but he looked still confident as usual. As opposed to Ryan, Jason looked less confident due to the lay off. This illustrates a a. person-situation interaction. b. trait. c. state. d. personality.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

63. Person-situation interaction is analogous to a(n) a. aptitude test b. achievement test c. aptitude-treatment interaction d. STM-LTM interaction ANS: C

PTS: 1

in educational psychology.

REF: Measuring the Person-Situation Interaction

ESSAY 1. Select a variable of interest that can be evaluated with some sort of test (i.e., medical, psychological, educational, etc.) and discuss the issues involved in determining an acceptable hit and miss rate. What would the base rate and cutting score be? What are the costs associated with false negatives and false positives?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

2. Compare and contrast utility theory and decision theory. How have they been used in I/O settings?

What are the particular barriers to application of these theories?

ANS: Answer not provided.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 3. Discuss the use of value-added assessments for teachers. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Base Rates and Hit Rates

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 19—Test Bias

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Much of the controversy regarding testing has centered on the finding that on average, the IQ scores of African Americans are a. 15 points above the scores of white Americans. b. 20 points below the scores of white Americans. c. one standard deviation below the scores of white Americans. d. two standard deviations below the scores of white Americans.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial?

2. The highest scores on the SAT Reasoning Test math section are obtained by a. white Americans. b. Asian Americans. c. African Americans. d. American Indians.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial?

3. The finding that intelligence scores have changed significantly over time for some groups lends support to the argument that a. intelligence is not completely determined by genetics. b. culture does not affect intelligence. c. nature is the most important determinant of IQ. d. socioeconomic status does not affect intelligence.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial?

4. A test has adverse impact if it a. decreases an individual's self-esteem. b. systematically rejects higher proportions of minority than non-minority individuals. c. prevents non-minority applicants from being hired. d. is used by an untrained administrator.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial?

5. The real dispute about racial differences in intelligence test results is a. whether the results actually exist. b. why better tests have not been developed. c. why the differences exist. d. whether the differences can ever be eliminated.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial?

6. Which of the following makes it difficult to interpret racial differences in test performance? a. Researchers fear they will be accused of being biased. b. Increasing numbers of individuals will not report their race when asked. c. Many individuals are of mixed race and do not know it. d. Racial differences have been eliminated by better test construction.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Why Is Test Bias Controversial

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission was created by a. the 1970 EEOC guidelines. b. a 1978 amendment to Title VII. c. the Office of Federal Contract Compliance. d. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act. ANS: D MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Test Fairness and the Law

8. If an employer declined applicants from specific minorities based on a psychological test result, that illustrates a. racism. b. adverse impact. c. false positives. d. false negatives.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Test Fairness and the Law

9. The 1978 Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures provides a. ambiguous guidelines regarding racial discrimination in hiring practices. b. guidelines for the use of psychological tests in education and industry. c. rules employers must follow to inform current employees of a newly available position. d. employers with the option to use any available testing procedure.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Test Fairness and the Law

10. Under current guidelines, what must an employer do if a selection procedure has adverse impact? a. Pay hefty fines. b. Eliminate the use of the test. c. Demonstrate the procedure’s validity in making the inferences the employer wants to make. d. Identify potential reasons for the adverse impact and provide remediation to those groups that are adversely impacted.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Test Fairness and the Law

11. Flaugher (1978) contends that arguments about test bias were based on misunderstandings because test developers a. are sensitive to the opportunities people have to learn information on a test. b. are very concerned about the individual items on a test. c. focus on overall test performance and how it correlates with an external criteria. d. do not focus as much on test performance.

ANS: C 12. a. b. c. d.

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

attempts to identify items that are specifically biased against specific groups.

Differential item functioning analysis Multivariate analysis Ethnicity sensitive analysis Measurement equivalence

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Which of the following is true of job performance measures in relation to race? a. The differences between African Americans and whites are greater for objective than subjective measures. b. The differences between African Americans and whites are greater for subjective than objective measures. c. Because of improved training, the differences in job performance have been almost completely eliminated. d. Racial differences are consistent whether objective or subjective measures of job performance have been used.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

14. Which of the following is true of biased test items? a. Items believed to be biased rarely are biased. b. Apparently biased test items actually decrease test score differences. c. Elimination of biased items does not eliminate test score differences. d. It is impossible to eliminate bias because every item is, in some way, biased.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

15. Examination of tests such as the WAIS and WISC-R have found that white males are more often depicted in test items than other groups. What has research shown about such differences? a. No one has established that these differences affect test performance. b. They have a greater impact on females than on males. c. They have a substantial impact on younger children but little impact on adults. d. They account for a large percentage of test score differences.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

16. In one study on content bias in elementary reading tests, groups of experts were able to inspect the test and eliminate items that were potentially biased toward the majority group. How did this affect the differences between scores obtained by groups of majority and minority students? a. Differences were eliminated. b. Differences became greater. c. It had little or no effect. d. Minority students scored better than majority students.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

17. A clear case of test bias is when regression lines describing the relationship between test and criterion for two different groups a. are parallel, but have different intercepts. b. have the same slope and the same intercept. c. have different slopes. d. are based on two different means for the test.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Exhibit 19-1

18. Refer to Exhibit 19-1. In the above figure, a test score of 6 is associated with a criterion score of approximately for Group A and for Group B. a. 5; 9 b. 5; 5 c. 6; 6 d. 8; 6 ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

19. Refer to Exhibit 19-1. The regression line for the combination of groups A and B in the above figure yields a predicted score of approximately for a test score of 6. a. 4.0 b. 5.5 c. 7.0 d. 8.5 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

20. Refer to Exhibit 19-1. The combined regression line in the figure predicts Group B. a. accurately; accurately b. accurately; under c. under; over d. over; under ANS: D

PTS: 1

predicts Group A and

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 21. The type of analysis that starts by finding equivalent subgroups of various test takers and then comparing their performance on specific test questions is known as a. criterion testing. b. differential item functioning analysis. c. validity testing. d. reliability.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

22. The most clear-cut case of test bias is shown when the regression lines for two groups have slopes and intercepts. a. the same; different b. parallel; different c. the same; the same d. different; different ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

23. Meagan grew up in a small rural town where she was a top student in her school. She was active in the Agricultural Club, but had not had an opportunity to travel, or attend plays, operas, and formal dinners.

She did not score well on an intelligence test that asked questions about these types of events. Her low score reflects a. her low intelligence. b. a violation of content validity. c. low fluid intelligence. d. high reliability of the test.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

24. Attributing low test scores to "ignorance" suggests a. test performance might be improved by enriching the social environment. b. those who do not score well on tests are ignorant and cannot be helped. c. that differences between groups on IQ tests result from genetic factors. d. placement based on low test scores is justified.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 25. In a California trial, a judge remarked that ignorance and stupidity are two competing explanations for poor test performance. According to the stupidity explanation, poor test performance a. is caused by unstimulating environments. b. represents a deficiency that cannot easily be changed. c. is caused by culturally biased test items. d. is caused by a lack of education.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 26. The Chitling test a. has only been shown to have face validity. b. is a convincing demonstration of bias in other standardized tests. c. was designed by a racist group to demonstrate minority inferiority in test performance. d. is commonly used in research studies.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 27. The main type of validity evidence that exists for the Chitling Test is a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity c. face validity. d. content validity.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

MSC: www

28. Inner-city children who take the WISC-R may obtain lower scores because a. they have less fluid intelligence. b. the city pollution has had a negative developmental impact. c. they are not given credit for responses that are appropriate to their environment. d. the scoring procedures of the WISC-R are loose and ambiguous.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 29. The BITCH is predominantly a test of a. intelligence. b. reasoning abilities. c. word association. d. personality states.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

MSC: www

30. Williams created the BITCH to test a. the ability to survive in the African American community. b. IQ of African American children. c. the ability of African Americans to survive in white communities. d. the ability of whites to survive in white communities.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 31. Scores on the BITCH have been shown to be a. higher for white groups than for African American groups. b. higher for African American groups than for white groups. c. equal for African American and white groups. d. comparable to scores on the Stanford-Binet.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 32. A limitation of the BITCH is a. poor content validity. b. too few items. c. undocumented criterion validity. d. lack of normative data.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 33. Which viewpoint was not considered in the development of the SOMPA? a. the medical model b. the social systems model c. the genetic model d. the pluralistic model ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 34. Which component of the SOMPA assumes that different subcultures are associated with different life experiences? a. social-system b. pluralistic c. personal d. systemic ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 35. The SOMPA system a. considers each child relative to all other children. b. considers each child relative to others from the same social and cultural group. c. assumes that all individual children should have the same score on a test. d. views each child as independent of all other children.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 36. The SOMPA system includes a physical examination because a. physical skills are related to intelligence. b. medical problems can interfere with performance on mental measures and school assignments. c. the SOMPA is primarily a physical health evaluation. d. its underlying theory is that intelligence is completely biological.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 37. Which SOMPA component uses the norms within a particular subgroup for defining deviance? a. pluralistic b. social c. organizational d. communal ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 38. WISC-R scores are converted into estimated learning potentials (ELPs) on the a. BITCH. b. SOMPA. c. Chitling. d. IPAT Culture Fair Test.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 39. The SOMPA system uses portions of the a. BITCH. b. Chitling test. c. Stanford-Binet. d. WISC-R. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 40. The assessment technique that best challenges traditional beliefs about testing is the a. BITCH. b. Chitling Test. c. Dove Counterbalance General Intelligence Test. d. SOMPA. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 41. The BITCH may help to assess a. the extent to which an African-American is in touch with his/her community. b. how well someone will survive on the street. c. how well an African-American child will do in school. d. how well an African-American adult will do in a given occupation.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 42. Which of the following is true of the Chitling Test? a. Criterion validity has been well-documented. b. The test lacks predictive validity for both minority and nonminority groups. c. There are no longer race-based differences in scores. d. The test is not representative of urban African American culture in the 1960s.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members 43. An estimated learning potential is a. a score on the WISC-R intelligence test. b. an intelligence test score normed against individuals with the same social and cultural background as the test-taker. c. an estimation of a child's potential to learn based on a combination of teacher and parent predictions. d. the estimated ability of a child to learn based on the average performance of siblings.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

MSC: www

44. Some people might advocate that separate regression lines be used to select people from different groups and that persons should be selected only on the basis of the probability they will succeed on the job. The moral position this represents is a. unqualified individualism. b. qualified individualism. c. relativism.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. quotas.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 45. Ms. Collins used tests to select the most qualified people she could find to hire. She did not attend to the race or gender of the applicants. Ms. Collins' technique is known as a. employment bias. b. qualified individualism. c. unqualified individualism. d. test bias.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

46. According to , selection procedures are biased if the percentage of applicants admitted to a school is significantly different from the percentage in the population. a. unqualified individualism b. qualified individualism c. the use of quotas d. the EEOC ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

47. Which of these ethical positions most explicitly recognizes race and gender differences? a. qualified individualism b. unqualified individualism c. straight regression model d. quotas ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

48. Dr. X believes that the state-supported law school should accept its first year class with ethnic representation equal to the proportions of the different ethnic groups in the general population. Dr. X believes in a. unqualified individualism. b. quotas. c. qualified individualism. d. reverse discrimination.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

49. Which of the following approaches leads to the highest expected performance on the criterion? a. regression b. constant ratio c. Cole/Darlington d. quota ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

50. One problem with the standardized Medical College Admissions Test is that a. it has not been validated against performance in medical school. b. it has not been evaluated against performance on medical board examinations. c. it has not been successfully evaluated against performance in actual medical practice. d. it is extremely gender biased.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 51. Which model of test fairness selects more potentially successful people from the lower group? a. Cole-Darlington b. constant ratio c. quota d. regression ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

52. Differential process theory asserts that a. various strategies may lead to a solution. b. different ethnic groups solve problems differently. c. individuals who solve problems in novel ways are likely to score lower on standardized tests. d. a person's abilities are dependent upon the strategies they use.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

53. Although the quota system may adequately represent minority groups, it a. may underrepresent majority groups. b. has to use the same selection procedures for all groups. c. may result in greater failure rates among some groups. d. may not represent the minorities of that particular community.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

54. A way in which the differences between groups might stimulate new interpretations is a. to view the differences as genetic variations. b. to view them as social handicaps. c. to examine patterns of problem-solving within a subculture. d. allowing the differences to be used by employers when hiring.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

55. Studies that have examined the correlation between measures of medical school success and success as a physician in practice have shown a. the correlation to be very high. b. only a moderate correlation. c. almost no correlation. d. that successful students make successful doctors.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

56. Sander's position that students who were accepted in law schools by affirmative action tend to perform worse than other students a. is supported by other researchers. b. is widely accepted by law schools. c. was not well received by legal scholars. d. has mixed by supports and rejections.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

57. According to Heckman, which of the following is responsible for many major social problems? a. poor literacy skills c. inherent differences Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan b. prejudice ANS: A

d. lack of health care PTS: 1

REF: Changing the Social Environment

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 58. The textbook takes the position that observed differences between minority and non-minority groups might be attributed to a. biased tests. b. biased test administrators and academicians. c. unequal access to adequate education and stimulating experiences. d. inherent differences between the groups.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Changing the Social Environment

59. Members of certain minority groups are more likely to have positive tuberculosis test results than are majority group members. How have public health workers interpreted this observation? a. Members of those minority groups are more likely to live in an environment in which the spread of tuberculosis is more likely to occur. b. Members of those minority groups have genetic predispositions to tuberculosis. c. Members of those minority groups have less access to medical care, so simple colds are more likely to become tuberculosis. d. Members of minority groups are more likely to be tested for tuberculosis.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Changing the Social Environment

60. Which of the following was a result of the decision by the University of California to reject the SAT-I? a. Fewer qualified students were admitted. b. High schools changed their curricula to include more math and essay writing experiences. c. The College Board suspended their accreditation. d. It became difficult to recruit exceptional students because of questions about the University’s academic quality.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Changing the Social Environment

ESSAY 1. Standardized tests have been accused of being biased in favor of white, middle-class populations.

Using research outlined in the text, take a position, pro or con, and defend it.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: The Traditional Defense of Testing

2. What are the underlying assumptions of the SOMPA? What are its components and how are they applied?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Other Approaches to Testing Minority Group Members

3. Which model of test fairness do you prefer and why?

ANS: Answer not provided.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan PTS: 1

REF: Suggestions for Solutions

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 20—Testing and the Law

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The amendment that guarantees all citizens due process and equal protection under the law is the Amendment. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 5th d. 14th ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

2. Rules that are written by a legislative body at any governmental level are known as a. bills. b. statutes. c. propositions. d. opinions.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

3. Before a statute becomes a law, it is known as a(n) a. regulation. b. judicial opinion. c. bill. d. order.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

4. In accordance with the U.S. Constitution, individual states a. cannot pass a law that is inconsistent with the Constitution. b. are provided regulations for their individual cities. c. must define county governments according to constitutional guidelines. d. have complete control over how they regulate interstate commerce.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

5. ABC Company has received 150 job applicants for a job opening: 100 white applicants, 25 Mexican Americans, and 25 African Americans. They hired 60 of the white applicants. How many of the other two groups do they have to hire in order to abide by the four-fifths rule? a. 12 from each group b. a total of 24 in any combination c. 15 from each group d. a total of 30 in any combination ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 6. The EEOC requires organizations with more than employees to complete an annual form that specifies the number of women and members of four minority groups who are employed in nine job categories within that organization. a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 500 ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

7. Decisions forbidding the placement of black children in EMR classes on the basis of standardized test scores are typically made by a. trained psychologists. b. professional educators. c. interested citizens. d. the judicial system.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

8. Before proposed statutes become law, they are called a. constitutions. b. policies. c. bills. d. rights.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

9. The 14th Amendment guarantees all citizens a. due process and equal protection under the law. b. freedom of speech. c. freedom of religion. d. the right to privacy.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

10. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) a. evolved from the Civil Rights Act of 1964. b. evolved from the Equal Employment Act of 1964. c. only has influence in non-governmental agencies. d. was created during the Reagan Administration.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

11. One of the effects of the 1991 Civil Rights Act was that the burden of proof regarding psychological tests was placed on the a. employer. b. employee. c. test developer. d. ETS. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 12. The New York Truth in Testing Law was the result of an investigation of the a. ETS. b. NYPRIG. c. EEOC. d. APA. ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

13. Section 9 of the 1991 Civil Rights Act a. forbids sexual harassment in the workplace. b. provided the four-fifths rule. c. specifically prohibits discriminatory use of test scores. d. explicitly prohibits the use of quotas.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

14. The Easy Buy corporation uses a test of interpersonal skills to select employees. Experience indicates that 70% of women who score above a cutting score will be hired. Under the four-fifths rule, what percentage of men must be selected? a. 14% b. 30% c. 56% d. 70% ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

15. Which of the following is a key component of No Child Left Behind? a. Teachers are required to provide copies of classroom tests for validation studies. b. Tests of student progress are used to assess student progress and hold schools accountable. c. If a school system mounts a legal challenge to NCLB, funding will be automatically withheld. d. School systems across the nation must all use the same measures of student achievement.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

16. The organization most responsible for getting the Educational Testing Service to revise some of their policies was the a. EEQC. b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG. ANS: D

PTS: 1

17. In 1996, California passed characteristics illegal. a. Initiative 200 b. Proposition 209 c. PL 94-142 d. Proposition 1200 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests , a measure that made the preferential treatment based on demographic

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 18. One of the most interesting issues with the four-fifths rule is that a. most employers find it uninterpretable. b. efforts to recruit minority group members reduce the percentage hired from that group. c. typically less than four-fifths of the applicants for a given job are minorities. d. numerous legal loopholes in the rule result in more discrimination than took place before its adoption.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

19. According to the EEOC guidelines for criterion validity in statistical relationship, a. no more than one in thirty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. b. no more than one in twenty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. c. no more than three in twenty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. d. no more than one in ten relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

20. In general, NCLB a. improved the educational level in many states. b. improved the educational level in some states. c. did not have strong evidence that educational level was improved. d. did not affect educational system.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

21. In 1980, the EEOC added specific guidelines on a. physical disabilities. b. sexual harassment. c. educational requirements. d. racial discrimination.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

22. How many complaints from prospective employees does the EEOC receive in a typical year? a. 20,000 b. 70,000 c. 150,000 d. 250,000 ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

23. Which of the following is required by the EEOC for the validation of tests? a. Criterion measures that represent important or critical work behavior(s) b. Norming the test based on EEOC-developed tests c. Establishing that there is a statistically reliable relationship between the to-be-validated test and more established tests d. Identifying and eliminating all biased test items ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 24. What standards does the EEOC apply when investigating the fairness of tests? a. American Psychological Association b. American Psychometry Association c. National Testing Corporation d. National Education Association ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

25. Which provision of the New York Truth in Testing Law is most controversial? a. Requiring that test makers disclose all validity studies b. Disclosing the method by which scores are calculated, even when proprietary methods are used in the computation. c. Disclosing the meaning of test scores. d. Providing a copy of the test questions, correct answers, and student’s answers when asked by the student to do so ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

26. Why are interstate commerce laws applicable to testing? a. Tests developed and published in one state may be marketed and used in other states. b. Tests used in employment decisions affect individual finances. c. Students may attend colleges located in states other than their home states, so college entrance exams are controlled by interstate commerce laws. d. Testing is a business and thus antitrust laws apply.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

27. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures a. have been substantially weakened and no longer ban discrimination. b. prohibit discrimination on the basis of gender, race, color, national origin, and religion. c. require that employers ask about gender, race, color, national origin, and religion so the employers can demonstrate they do not discriminate. d. establish a standardized assessment that is to be used in all hiring decisions.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

28. The United States government has the power to control the use of public dollars. How does this affect testing? a. The government can withhold funding if tests or practices are objectionable. b. Tests measuring educational achievement are given to school districts at no cost by the federal government. c. The government often imposes heavy fines when school systems and others misuse tests. d. Because test development is so expensive, tests are typically only developed when requested by the federal government.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

29. If prospective employees feel they have been treated unfairly, they can file complaints with the a. EEOC. b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG. Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 30. The Truth in Testing Law requires testing companies to a. disclose only the most recent validity studies. b. provide a copy of the students’ answers but none of the questions. c. disclose to students how scores are calculated and what they mean. d. provide index scores to schools without the student's knowledge.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

31. Which of the following resulted from the Truth in Testing Law? a. decreased costs to ETS b. increased validity c. better comparison between years d. increased costs to consumers ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

32. The New York Truth in Testing Law a. applies only to the ETS. b. was written for the ETS but applies to many companies. c. was the result of an investigation into the NYPIRG. d. is a federal regulation.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

33. Which of the following cases resulted in the decision that employment tests must be reliable and valid? a. Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn b. Griggs v. Duke Power Company c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Connecticut v. Teal ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 34. Judge Skelly Wright ruled against classification based on group ability tests in the case of a. Diana v. State Board of Education. b. Hobson v. Hansen. c. Brown v. Board of Education. d. Plessy v. Ferguson.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 35. The class-action suit, settled out of court, that resulted in non-English speaking students being tested in their primary language was a. Hobson v. Hansen. b. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education. c. Diana v. State Board of Education. d. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing MSC: www

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 36. The first major case to examine the validity of psychological tests was a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board Of Education.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 37. As a result of the court ruling in Larry P. v. Wilson Riles, a. schools were forced to provide special classes for non-white children. b. IQ testing was no longer used to place African American children in EMR classes. c. standardized tests could no longer be used with bilingual children. d. all handicapped children were guaranteed services.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 38. Children labeled EMR a. may gain confidence and self-esteem. b. may behave as though they have cognitive impairments as a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. are probably not incorrectly classified by biased tests d. are not adversely affected by the label, according to research.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing MSC: www 39. Which of the following cases resulted in a reversal of the ban on IQ testing for African American children? a. Parents in Action on Special Education v. Hannon b. Crawford et al. v. Honig et al. c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Debra P. v. Turlington ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 40. The type of test that came under scrutiny in the Debra P. v. Turlington case was a a. standard intelligence test. b. multicultural pluralistic test. c. personnel test. d. minimum competency test.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 41. Bakke sued the University of California at Davis, Medical School in the early 1970s after he was denied admission a. because he was a minority. b. even though his test scores were higher than minority students who had been admitted. c. because his MCAT scores were insufficient. d. even though he was part of a special affirmative action program Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 42. The Bakke case was significant because a. test items had to be selected based on the proportions of correct answers given by white and non-white test takers. b. federal grants could no longer be awarded under special preference programs. c. it signified a change in attitude about affirmative action programs. d. it demonstrated the positive impact of affirmative action programs.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 43. In , the courts found against a law school applicant and in favor of the university policy of using racial or ethnic group as one of several factors in the admissions policy. a. Hobson v. Hansen b. Diana v. State Board of Education c. Grutter v. Bollinger d. Gratz v. Bollinger ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 44. In the case, the critical result was that focus shifted from test bias to the ultimate benefit to students and curriculum-based assessments rather than IQ testing. a. Debra P. v. Turlington b. Diana v. State Board of Education c. Marchall v. Georgia d. Crawford et al. v. Honig et al.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 45. The finding in allowed for the consideration but not the quantification of race in admission procedures. a. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles b. Gratz v. Bollinger c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Grutter v. Bollinger ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 46. The finding in the Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education case was overturned based on a. Brown v. Board of Education. b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Hobson V. Hansen. d. Diana v. State Board of Education.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 47. The Hobson v. Hansen case a. contested the use of psychological tests for placement. b. resisted the previous court order to desegregate. c. forced schools to desegregate. d. challenged the use of tests for Asian American children.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 48. The most significant racist court case began when attorneys for two white children argued that African American children did not have the ability to be in the same classrooms as whites. What was this case? a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 49. In which of the following cases did the court rule that schools could remain "separate but equal"? a. Brown v. Board of Education. b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Diana v. State Board of Education.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing MSC: www 50. Specific restrictions have been placed on the use of tests for the selection of employees through a series of Supreme Court decisions. The effect of these decisions a. denies that tests are valuable tools in the personnel field. b. denies that the use of tests can continue in the personnel field. c. has been to force employers to define the relationship between test scores and job performance and to define the measure of job performance. d. groups and not specific individuals are protected from biased testing procedures.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 51. Courtroom decisions over the use of psychological tests a. typically side with the psychological statistician. b. are frequently inconsistent. c. are seldom inconsistent. d. do not have much effect on changing actual laws.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 52. In the case of Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn, the settlement suggested that a. items for insurance licensing tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. b. items for police academy admissions tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. c. items for firemen selection tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. d. ETS would make an admission of guilt.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 53. The case of Parents in Action on Special Education v. Hannon reached a conclusion opposite to that of a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Hobson v. Hansen. c. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles. d. Stell v. Savannah.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 54. Supreme Court decisions suggest that employment tests involving height, weight, and physical strength a. must be evaluated using different validity procedures than are psychological tests. b. must be evaluated using the same validity procedures as psychological tests. c. are not subject to evaluation for psychometric properties. d. cannot be used under any circumstances.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 55. The Crawford v. Honig case a. reaffirmed the Larry P. case. b. lifted the ban on Intelligence Testing for African American children. c. strengthened the ban on intelligence testing for African American Children. d. extended the ban on testing for African American children to Hispanic children.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 56. In 1992 the University of California Boalt Hall School of Law was investigated because the school a. was accused of discrimination against Caucasians and Asians. b. failed to admit enough African American students. c. failed to admit enough Hispanic students. d. had never set-up an Affirmative Action Policy.

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 57. Perhaps the most influential ruling in the history of American public school education was the decision that schools must provide nonsegregated facilities for African American and white students. This was based on a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board Of Education.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 58. The most significant finding in Brown v. Board of Education was that a. segregation could exist as long as the quality of the schools was equal. b. African American children did not have the ability to be in white schools. c. integration was not in the best interest of the children. d. segregation denied equal protection under the law.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 59. Although the Supreme Court refused to hear the case, Wards Cove Packing Company v. Antonio was significant because a. it strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. it overturned the Larry P. case. c. it overturned the Crawford case. d. it shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 60. The major focus of the Americans with Disabilities Act is a. the prevention of selection bias among disabled individuals. b. the removal of physical barriers that may impede the education and employment of disabled individuals. c. the elimination of psychological tests in employment decisions for people with disabilities. d. the education of the public regarding people with disabilities.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing MSC: www 61. Meredith v. Jefferson County Board of Education was significant because it a. strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. overturned the Larry P. case. c. reversed the tide of racial cases related to education. d. shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing 62. After the state of California responded to a teacher shortage by hiring individuals who had not completed teacher training, a study by the Center for the Future of Teaching and Learning found that a. completion of teacher training has no relationship to student performance. b. the percentage of teachers who had not completed teacher education was higher in predominantly minority schools. c. teachers responded to NCLB by “teaching to the test.” d. lack of teacher training resulted in the development of new and exciting educational methods.

ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. Identify and discuss the implications of four United States federal laws that have implications for the use of tests.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Laws Governing the Use of Tests

2. What role, if any, should the courts play in the regulation of psychological tests and why?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

3. In the last 30 years, what are the specific cases that have dealt with affirmative action and what impact have these proceedings had on affirmative action programs?

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Major Lawsuits That Have Affected Psychological Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan Chapter 21—Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Two major professional issues in testing are a. ethical and moral issues. b. theoretical concerns and the adequacy of tests. c. social and legal issues. d. actuarial vs. clinical prediction and ethical issues.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

2. When we say a test has reliability, a. we are implying that test results are attributable to a systematic source of variance. b. the test is presumed to measure some unknown entity. c. the test also has validity. d. there is no limit on the test's validity.

ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

3. Most existing tests are presumed to measure a. interactions between the individual and the environment. b. a stable entity. c. overall human functioning. d. adaptability to change.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

4. A theory consistent with the data concerning the reliability of tests would propose that a. ability and personality are ever-changing. b. ability and personality are not measurable. c. humans possess an ability to adapt to changing circumstances. d. personality is static and enduring.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

5. According to your text, the real issue in testing is a. how reliable tests are. b. whether tests have predictive validity. c. what tests actually measure. d. how tests are used.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

6. Studies have indicated that the temporal stability of tests is a. in need of improvement, even for the best tests. b. at acceptable levels, at least for the better tests. c. at acceptable levels for most, if not all, tests. d. has not had an effect on reliability.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 7. The model by Cacioppo, Berntson, and Anderson (1991) indicates a. no relationship between the psychological and physiological domain. b. the social environment has very little effect on behavior. c. a distinct effect on behavior by the social environment. d. behavior and context are independent.

ANS: C MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

8. Behavioral dispositions are a. dysfunctional behaviors. b. stable and lasting traits. c. transient personality states. d. innate.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

9. The authors of your textbook have suggested that one reason for the relatively poor long-term reliability of personality tests is because a. the tests are not really measuring personality. b. personality is too broad of a construct to adequately measure. c. personality tests are too vague and subjective. d. although people exhibit a core of stability, they continually change.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

10. Sawyer (1966) and Sines (1970) examined studies in which test results were interpreted by a set of rules and compared them to studies in which trained professionals interpreted the test results. They found that a. the professionals were more accurate than the set of rules. b. the set of rules was more accurate than the trained professionals. c. there was no difference between the set of rules and the professionals. d. the professionals were more accurate, but only when they knew the rules.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

11. Studies on actuarial vs. clinical prediction by Meehl, Sawyer, and Sines have indicated that a set of rules is a. more accurate than inexperienced professional practitioners. b. about as accurate as trained. c. more accurate than trained professional practitioners only when they don't know the rules. d. more accurate than the interpretations of trained professional practitioners even when they know the rules.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

12. Which of the following issues is classified by your text as a theoretical concern? a. Whether the systematic sources of variance measured by the test arise from the person or the setting b. Whether the test meets the ethical and legal standards for testing c. Whether the results of the test will be used to unfairly label the test taker d. Whether the test has adequate reliability, validity, and norms Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 13. Which of the following is true about how tests are used? a. In the end, it may be determined by law and the threat of litigation. b. There is substantial evidence of the intentional misuse of tests. c. The use of tests has declined sharply in the past 20 years. d. It is very difficult to use tests appropriately.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

14. Under what circumstances have clinicians been found to provide better prediction than actuarial data? a. None; clinicians are, at best, as good as actuarial data. b. When clinicians consider additional sources of data such as test batteries, interviews or test histories c. When clinicians have more than five years of experience d. When tests involve complex scoring algorithms ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

15. A 2011 survey of independent practitioners about their use of technology found that a. considerable cost savings result from the use of technology. b. they were unsure about what uses of computer technology were ethical and which were unethical. c. recent changes in billing regulations forced them to implement technologies they did not understand. d. the use of computer technology is widespread and has greatly increased productivity.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

16. Under what circumstances is informed consent not required for testing? a. When the individual cannot consent to testing b. When testing is ordered by the courts c. When testing uses a well-established procedure d. When the individual does not want to be tested but the clinician views testing as critical ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

17. Which of the following is of particular concern when computers are used to score and interpret the results of complex psychological tests? a. invasion of privacy b. violation of consent c. improper use of standardization d. dehumanization ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

18. Which of the following is true of test security? a. Test security takes precedence over individuals’ rights to know, because society has a vested interest in testing. b. Test security cannot be predicted at the expense of an individual’s right to know the basis of adverse decisions. c. The Internet has destroyed the last vestiges of test security. d. Test security is important for achievement and intelligence tests, but not for other types of tests.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 19. Which of the following is a responsibility of potential test takers? a. Knowing and demanding their rights b. Understanding the validity of tests c. Selecting which tests to take d. Relinquishing their privacy rights ANS: A MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

20. Which of the following did Dahlstrom note about invasion of privacy? a. Individuals must cooperate in order to be tested, and can refuse to be tested if they do not like the situation. b. Although contemporary tests present a substantial risk of invasion of privacy, there is little evidence that this occurs. c. Individuals give up their right to privacy when they give informed consent. d. There is a risk of invasion of privacy with computerized tests, but not with tests administered by a clinician.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

21. While many individual and group tests have generally adequate reliability, just about any test could benefit from a. better validity documentation. b. a larger standardization sample. c. more representative norms. d. simplified scoring techniques.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

22. According to the ethical code of the APA (2002), test results a. can never be shared with anyone except the examinee. b. should never be shared with the examinee. c. can be subpoenaed and, therefore, are not always confidential. d. should only be shared with the individual and his/her family.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

23. According to the APA guidelines, Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, a. a clinician is responsible for the appropriateness of an analysis even if a computer supplied the interpretation. b. software companies that supply computerized diagnosis are responsible for the content of the interpretation. c. clinicians and software companies are equally responsible for the diagnosis provided by a computer program. d. clinicians are not responsible for the content of a computerized diagnosis.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

24. Test takers a. have the right to know who will have access to their test data. b. do not have to be informed if a test has a selection bias. c. need not be informed about test interpretations and scores if it will pose a threat to the security of the test.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. have no privacy risks when transmitting data over the Internet.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 25. The use of labels that rely on the medical model a. encourages people to seek medical treatment. b. may keep people from taking responsibility for their life. c. gives people the impression that medication will cure any condition. d. implies that the individual is to blame for becoming ill.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

26. When testing is necessary in order to determine pathology, a. projective tests such as the Rorschach should be used. b. it is better to over assess than under assess the pathology. c. tests that overpathologize, like the Rorschach, should be avoided. d. labels will only help to define the problem.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

27. According to Dahlstrom, a person's privacy is invaded when a. someone else gains access to their personal information. b. test scores or test results are shared with the legal system. c. personal information that has been accessed is used inappropriately. d. insurance companies use the information to pay claims.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

28. An investigation of tests by the Senate Subcommittee on Constitutional Rights and the House Subcommittee on Invasion of Privacy found that a. evidence of deliberate misuse of tests. b. evidence of widespread but not deliberate misuse of tests. c. no evidence of widespread or deliberate use of tests. d. evidence of both widespread and deliberate misuse of tests.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

29. Jackson and Messick have argued that it has not been possible to formulate a coherent set of ethical principles that govern all legitimate uses of testing. This is because of a. invasion of privacy. b. human rights. c. divided loyalties. d. moral issues.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

30. In order to resolve the conflict of divided loyalties, a psychologist must a. inform all concerned parties where his/her loyalty lies. b. protect the rights of the client only. c. provide all information obtained to all parties. d. protect the rights of the institution only.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 31. The APA provides an exception to confidentiality guidelines when a. the client's spouse needs to access the information. b. withholding information causes danger to the person or society. c. the psychologist needs the information for research. d. the information would make a difference to a potential employer.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

32. At the present time, psychologists a. must tell clients in advance how tests will be used and describe the limits of confidentiality. b. are not ethically bound to tell clients where their loyalty lies. c. must provide full disclosure to the institution that ordered the testing. d. are bound to maintain test security even if it violates the person's right to know.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

33. The 2002 version of the APA Code of Ethics directs psychologists who administer tests to a. utilize tests that are written in English. b. interpret results in a standardized, objective fashion. c. use instruments with established validity and reliability for use with members of the population being tested. d. use instruments that have validity and reliability in studies using representative samples of the general population.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

34. Access to psychological testing is limited by a. the age of the individual seeking the service. b. financial considerations. c. time constraints on the test administrator. d. the lack of available tests.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

35. Current standards for test use state that the test developer(s) must provide sufficient information to permit appropriate use of the test. Which of the following does not have to be included in this information? a. guidelines for administration and scoring b. information regarding item construction c. validity data d. reliability data ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

36. The question, "Is the test any good as a measure of the characteristics it purports to measure?," is a. a psychometric question. b. based on ethical and social values. c. a moral issue. d. a legal issue.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 37. The question, "Should this test be used for this purpose?," a. is a technical question. b. is based on ethical and social issues. c. depends on research data. d. is a legal issue.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

38. Dehumanization is presented in the text as a a. professional issue. b. social issue. c. technical issue. d. legal issue.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

39. The question of who will have access to psychological testing services is presented in the text as a(n) a. legal issue. b. economic issue. c. social issue. d. issue of human rights.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

40. One recent trend in testing has been that a. fewer and fewer new tests are being published each year. b. hundreds of new tests are being published each year. c. the public has had less and less influence on the testing field. d. objectivity is being greatly reduced in test scoring to increase flexibility.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

41. Some of the impetus in the development of new tests comes from a. disagreements between professionals about the best way to measure characteristics. b. so few tests making a profit that test makers need multiple tests to survive. c. agreements between professionals about the best way to measure characteristics. d. the fact that so much grant money is available for people to develop new tests.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

42. According to your textbook, the majority of new tests are based on a. theories that are fundamentally different from those in traditional tests. b. the same principles and underlying theories as the more established tests. c. the scientific approach of psychological testing. d. behavioral psychology.

ANS: B MSC: www

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

43. One trend in test development is a. to design tests that are more theoretical. b. that the cost of tests is going down. c. to integrate aspects of applied psychology.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan d. designing tests that have good face validity.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan 44. Emphasis has been placed on in the push for higher standards in testing. a. reducing the use of computers b. greater objectivity in test interpretation c. less objectivity in test interpretation d. greater subjectivity in test interpretations ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

45. An important contribution of the Joint Committee on Testing Practices is a. identifying specific tests that should be used in specific situations. b. delineating the qualifications of test users. c. establishing requirements for testing reimbursement. d. requesting a moratorium on test development so standards could be developed.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

46. In terms of increasing test standards, computers have a. aided progress by enabling advanced statistical analysis of test information. b. failed to help because they cause an increase in analytical errors. c. had little or no impact on the way data is analyzed. d. caused more problems than they have solved.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

47. The result of greater public awareness about testing is a. complete public support for testing. b. a reduction of the safeguards in relationship to human rights. c. that the public is ambivalent about psychological testing. d. a reduced demand for testing services.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Current Trends

48. The future of the Rorschach and TAT a. is uncertain. b. is increased respectability. c. will not be bright. d. will be bright.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: Future Trends

49. In psychological testing, computers will a. play a somewhat uncertain role. b. be as useful as at present. c. hold one of the most important roles. d. not be as important.

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: Future Trends

50. According to the text, one safe prediction for testing is that a. controversy will diminish. b. increasingly narrow and specific tests will be used. c. future prospects for testing are grim. d. future prospects for testing are promising.

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: Future Trends

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan ESSAY 1. A basic assumption of most tests is that the traits being measured are stable. Some researchers have challenged this assumption. Discuss the issues regarding this challenge and outline how they have been dealt with.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

2. Discuss both the positive and negative aspects of labeling.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

3. Identify and discuss the implications of three human rights issues that arise in testing.

ANS: Answer not provided.

PTS: 1

REF: Issues Shaping the Field of Testing

Test Bank for Psychological Testing Principles, Applications, and Issues 8th Edition by Robert M. Kaplan