Test Bank for Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

Test Bank for Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

Test Bank for Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3e Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer Test Bank, Answer at the end of each Chapter Test Bank 1-4 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Referring to the phylogenetic trees below which statement(s) is/are correct?

a. Tree A proposes that the camera eye of mollusks and vertebrates is homologous; tree B proposes that the camera eye of mollusks and vertebrates arose through convergent evolution. b. Tree B proposes that the camera eye of mollusks and vertebrates is homologous; tree A proposes that the camera eye of mollusks and vertebrates arose through convergent evolution. c. Tree B is more parsimonious. d. a and c e. b and c 2. What contribution did British naturalist Mary Anning make to paleontology? a. the comparison of elephant fossils and the skeletons of living elephants b. the discovery of fossilized marine animals and other strange animals c. the idea that rocks formed through very slow changes d. the realization that tongue stones were actually shark teeth 3. Tetrapods include a. organisms descended from ancestors with four limbs. b. birds. c. whales.

Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

Test Bank for Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

d. all of the above 4. The process of changes arising due to random chance is a. natural selection. b. sexual selection. c. genetic drift. d. heredity.

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Test Bank 1-4 5. What type of virus is the influenza virus? a. an enveloped RNA virus b. a non-enveloped RNA virus c. an enveloped DNA virus d. a non-enveloped DNA virus 6. Stromatolites are structures of mineralized layers created by a. bacteria. b. archaea. c. sponges. d. corals.

7. Which of the following supports an ancient Earth? a. the absence of short-lived isotopes in rocks b. the presence of many short-lived isotopes in rocks c. the absence of long-lived isotopes in rocks d. none of the above 8. What does the fossil record reveal about the locomotory behavior of Tyrannosaurus rex? a. It was a fast runner, like an ostrich. b. It had a sprawling gait, like a crocodile. c. It was incapable of running fast. d. Its small arms were leveraged to generate a running force.

9. Which of the following may have been a more limiting factor for early life to form? a. the toxic atmosphere b. the amount of water available c. the temperature d. a and b e. b and c 10. One important feature that links extinct organisms such as Pakicetus and Indohyus to cetaceans is a. the shape of a bone in the middle ear. b. the presence of forelimb flippers. c. the lack of hindlegs. d. peg-like teeth.

11. Which of the following would explain why viruses such as influenza evolve so rapidly? a. They have a high mutation rate. b. They have a high replication rate.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. They can undergo viral reassortment.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. None of the given choices are correct. e. All the given choices are correct.

12. Biologist Theodosius Dobzhansky wrote an essay in 1973 entitled "Nothing in in the Light of ." a. Evolution; Biology b. Biology; Phylogenetics c. Biology; Evolution d. Genetics; Biology

Makes Sense Except

13. Which of the following incorrectly matches the event with its age in the fossil record? a. evidence of nonsedentary animals 585 million years ago b. evidence of large animals – 570 million years ago c. extinction of the Ediacaran fauna – 570 million years ago d. earliest evidence of chordates – 515 million years ago 14. Which of the following is/are critical for Darwin's idea of natural selection? a. Individuals vary in their traits. b. Natural resources are limited. c. Some individual variation is heritable. d. all of the above e. none of the above 15. Mammary glands in whales and humans a. are a synapomorphy for these species and other mammals. b. are homologous traits. c. were likely present in the most recent common ancestor of humans and whales. d. All the given choices are correct. e. None of the given choices are correct.

16. The closest living relatives of tetrapod include a. coelacanths. b. lungfishes. c. telosts. d. a and b e. all of the above 17. Which of the following might be a useful organism to study to the emergence of multicellularity? a. Streptococcus mutans, a biofilm forming bacteria that causes dental plaque b. Dictyostelium discoideum, a unicellular slime mold that can form slug-like masses Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 c. Paramecium caudatum, an animal-like protist that is a complex unicellular organism

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Test Bank 1-4 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 18. Life may have existed as long ago as a. 4.8 billion years ago. b. 4.56 billion years ago. c. 4.4 billion years ago. d. 4.1 billion years ago.

19. The placement of whales within the artiodactyls is supported by a. morphology of limb bones (e.g., the astragalus) in extinct whales. b. DNA evidence. c. the fact that some artiodactyls (e.g., hippos) spend a significant amount of time in the water. d. morphology of limb bones (e.g., the astragalus) in extinct whales and DNA evidence. e. morphology of limb bones (e.g., the astragalus) in extinct whales, DNA evidence, and the fact that some artiodactyls (e.g., hippos) spend a significant amount of time in the water.

20. Which of the following incorrectly matches the species with its date in the fossil record? a. Eusthenopteron—385 million years ago b. Acanthostega—365 million years ago c. Tiktaalik—375 million years ago d. Coelacanth—605 million years ago 21. A trait that may be co-opted for a new function, such as bird feathers, is called a(n) a. adaptation. b. complex adaptation. c. exaptation. d. polytomy.

22. Which statement best describes the concept known as the Great Chain of Being? a. Biological entities can be organized into groups based on similarities. b. Species are arranged on a scale from lower to higher forms. c. Humans and other large species descended from microbes. d. Parents pass traits to their offspring.

23. The Burgess Shale is an example of a(n) a. Lagerstätte; Cambrian b. stromatolite; Cryogenian c. Lagerstätte; Ediacaran d. Ediacaran; Lagerstätte

with a wealth of data from the

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Test Bank 1-4 24. Which of the following is not a tetrapod?

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Test Bank 1-4 a. Physeter macrocephalus, a sperm whale b. boa constrictor c. Tiktaalik d. Gallus gallus domesticus, a chicken 25. On what point(s) would Charles Darwin and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck have disagreed? a. Organisms change over time. b. Adaptation occurs when individuals change to adapt to their environment. c. Species give rise to new species. d. none of the above e. all of the above 26. Oceans probably existed by a. 4.56 billion years ago. b. 4.4 billion years ago. c. 4 billion years ago. d. 3.8 billion years ago.

27. Referring to the tree below, which is an accurate statement about relationships?

a. A gorilla is more closely related to a human than it is to an orangutan. b. A gorilla is more closely related to an orangutan than a human. c. A gorilla is equally related to a human and an orangutan. d. An orangutan is related to chimpanzees and orangutans but not humans.

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Test Bank 1-4 28. The molecular clock used to date the emergence of the 2009 H1N1 strain would be inaccurate if

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Test Bank 1-4 a. mutations arose at different rates in different lineages. b. the most recent common ancestor of the viral strains existed long ago. c. the most recent common ancestor of the viral strains existed recently. d. None of the given choices are correct.

29. The discovery of the fossilized remains of animals that no longer existed was persuasive evidence for which concept? a. extinction b. homology c. paleontology d. uniformitarianism 30. The fluke of a whale and the fluke of a shark a. are homologous traits. b. arose through convergent evolution. c. are the result of natural selection. d. arose through convergent evolution and are the result of natural selection. e. are homologous traits, arose through convergent evolution, and are the result of natural selection.

31. Evolution occurs when a. individuals in a population change in response to the environment. b. the average value of trait in a population changes from one generation to the next. c. individuals in a population change in response to the environment and the average value of trait in a population changes from one generation to the next. d. None of the given choices are correct.

32. Which of the following is not an example of a homology? a. a human foot and an orangutan foot b. mammalian ear bones and synapsid jaw bones c. an albatross wing and a bat wing d. a dragonfly wing and a bat wing 33. The modern evolutionary synthesis combines knowledge from the fields of a. genetics, paleontology, and ecology. b. genetics, evolutionary medicine, and ecology. c. genomics, paleontology, and ecology. d. genetics, genomics, and heredity.

34. Which of the following is a behavior that was discovered in the fossil record? a. Turtles died while mating in a lake.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. Ichthyosaurs gave birth to live offspring.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. A fish died while feeding on a pterosaur. d. all of the above e. none of the above 35. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that a. bacteria represent some of the youngest species on Earth. b. organisms can adapt to their environment. c. life arises spontaneously. d. all of the above e. none of the above 36. Viral reassortment a. can make a strain of virus especially deadly within a host population. b. is a way for viruses to swap genes. c. is only possible for viruses that infect the same host species. d. All the given choices are correct. e. can make a strain of virus especially deadly within a host population and is a way for viruses to swap genes.

37. The following phylogeny shows that

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a. lobe-finned fish form a monophyletic clade. b. tetrapods form a monophyletic clade. c. ray-finned fish form a paraphyletic clade. d. none of the above e. all of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 38. Molecular evidence of living organisms found in the fossil record is called

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Test Bank 1-4 a. endosymbionts. b. biomarkers. c. isotopes. d. microfossils.

39. Which of the following is not a teleost? a. tuna b. salmon c. shark d. goldfish 40. Georges Cuvier discovered that a. the remains of plants and animals were sometimes preserved in stone. b. living things were made up of the same kinds of particles as those found in rocks. c. fossilized elephants differed from the skeletons of modern elephants in crucial ways. d. types of animals had lived across a wide variety of geographical ranges for a period of time.

41. Which of the following statements is central to the idea of uniformitarianism? a. Natural laws that are observable today also operated in the past. b. Catastrophic events such as floods and volcanoes have played the primary role in shaping Earth's existing features. c. Geological change happens gradually for the most part. d. a and c e. a, b, and c 42. We are currently in the epoch, which began a. Quaternary; 2.58 million b. Cenozoic; 66 million c. Holocene; 11,700 d. Phanerozoic; 541 million

years ago.

43. Hominins include a. Homo sapiens only. b. species within the genus Homo only. c. Homo sapiens and other extinct species more closely related to humans than to chimpanzees. d. humans, both extinct and extant, and the great apes.

44. Which of the following allowed scientists to determine whether early hominins were browsers (eating shrubs primarily) or grazers (eating grasses primarily)? a. Shrubs and grasses differ in the type of photosynthesis they perform.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. Shrubs and grasses have different carbon isotopic signatures.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. Fossil remains of plants surrounding hominins indicate what they most likely ate. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 45. Homologous traits a. always perform the same function in different species. b. always perform a different function in different species. c. are inherited from a common ancestor. d. a and c e. b and c 46. Hemagglutinins are a. proteins on the viral surface used to aid the release of a new virus from the host cell. b. proteins on the surface of host cells used in the immune response against viruses. c. proteins on the viral surface used to aid in the entry of a virus into a host cell. d. All the given choices are correct.

47. Fossils of red algae in India date back to a. 2.6 billion years ago. b. 2.1 billion years ago. c. 1.6 billion years ago. d. 600 million years ago.

48. Given the tree below, which of the following statements is correct?

a. A fish is more closely related to a frog than it is to a bird. b. The dog evolved before the turtle. c. A frog is the most recent ancestor of a dog. d. all of the above e. none of the above 49. Darwin believed that Earth was Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 a. a few thousand years old. b. 300 million years old.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. a few billion years old. d. 20 million years old.

50. Which of the following is true about Earth? a. Earth is a dynamic planet. b. Earth is made up of solid plates that float on a molten layer of rock. c. Gradual geological processes have shaped the Earth. d. all of the above 51. You are constructing a phylogeny of a hypothetical group of insects. Several of the species have a pattern of four veins on the forewing while another group of species has a pattern of six veins. The three outgroups in your analysis all have a pattern of six veins. From this you can conclude that a. the trait of having six veins is a synapomorphy. b. the species with six veins are more closely related to each other than they are to the any of the species with four veins. c. the trait of having four veins is a synapomorphy. d. a and b e. b and c 52. According to the tree below, which of the following is true?

a. Species B is more closely related to species G than species A. b. Species B is equally related to species G and species A. c. Species B is more closely related to species A than to species G. d. Species B is the common ancestor of species A, H, F, and G. e. a and d 53. Which of the following was not proposed by Darwin? a. sexual selection b. genetic drift Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 c. DNA as the hereditary material

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Test Bank 1-4 d. a and c e. b and c 54. Nearly all currently existing animal lineages evolved during which period? a. Ediacaran b. Precambrian c. Cambrian d. Cryogenian 55. According to the tree below, which of the following statement(s) is/are accurate?

a. Species D, F, I, and A form a monophyletic group. b. Species E, D, and F form a paraphyletic group. c. Species C is equally related to species A and E. d. all of the above e. none of the above 56. The most influential text on natural theology was published by a. Jean Baptiste Lamarck. b. Charles Lyell. c. William Paley. d. Nicolaus Steno.

57. Darwin defined evolution as a. change over time. b. descent with modification. c. change in allele frequencies in a population over time. d. differential survival and reproduction of individuals with adaptive traits.

58. How do medical technologies help elucidate the fossil record?

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Test Bank 1-4 a. CT scans reveal the ancient diseases of extinct organisms. b. MRI scans reveal how fossilized tissue may have functioned.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. CT scans reveal the detailed structure of fossilized bones. d. Medical technologies can not be used to study the fossil record.

59. Darwin and his contemporaries witnessed evidence for an older Earth in a. the rolling hills of the Weald in England. b. the slow accumulation of sediment in rivers. c. the slow accumulation of sediment in coastal waters. d. a and b e. b and c f. a, b, and c 60. Theories a. are a summative set of mechanism or principles. b. explain major aspects of the natural world. c. are supported by many different kinds of evidence. d. all of the above 61. What is the name of the naturalist whose own ideas about natural selection and evolution spurred Darwin to publicly share his work? a. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck b. Charles Lyell c. Robert Fitzroy d. Alfred Russel Wallace 62. Modern-day mammals are descended most recently from what group? a. synapsids b. reptiles c. fish d. amphibians 63. Prokaryotes include representatives from a. bacteria. b. archaea. c. eukarya. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 64. Eukaryotes differ from archaea and bacteria because a. they contain a nucleus. b. the cell membrane contains peptidoglycan.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. they contain mitochondria.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. a and c e. a, b, and c 65. A hypothesis is a a. well-confirmed, objective observation. b. overall set of principles or mechanisms. c. tentative explanation for an observation. d. vague guess not based on evidence.

66. Which of the following is true about isotopes with high decay rate probabilities? a. They decay rapidly. b. They are very radioactive. c. They cannot be used in radiometric dating. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 67. In the tree below, assume that the ancestor was an herb (not a tree) without leaves or seeds. Given this, the evolution of a tree habit in Lepidodendron, oak, and yew

a. is an example of convergent evolution between Lepidodendron and the oak-yew clade. b. is an example of convergent evolution between oak and yew. c. is a homologous trait for oak and yew. d. a and c e. b and c 68. The earliest animal fossils appear similar to modern-day a. sponges. b. archaea. c. fungi. d. jellyfish.

69. Which of the following statements is true about Earth's atmosphere? a. It formed from gases released from rocks in early Earth.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. Its composition has changed over the history of Earth.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. It originally had much more oxygen than today, making the early atmosphere toxic to most of the life that exists today. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 70. Which of the following ideas was not accepted by Jean-Baptiste Lamarck? a. Bacteria represent some of the youngest species on Earth. b. Life arises spontaneously. c. Organisms go extinct. d. none of the above 71. The oldest fossils may be a. fossilized bacterial mats called stromatolites. b. microscopic bits of carbon know as zircons. c. marine animals from the Burgess Shale. d. petrified pollen grains from ancient plants.

72. What was the crest of a hadrosaur likely used for? a. It housed a larger brain to allow it to better navigate its environment. b. to process smells and increase predatory abilities c. to generate species specific sounds d. Scientists currently do not know what the crest of the hadrosaur was used for.

73. Which of the following is not an example of an organism's phenotype? a. a plant gall produced by gall flies b. the waving behavior of fiddler crabs c. a heterozygote that has one dominant and one recessive allele d. the open circulatory system in a beetle 74. Which of the following statements about countershading is true? a. Countershading is widespread among living mammals, but there are no known instances of it in dinosaurs. b. Countershading helps obscure the shadow cast by an animal, making it harder for predators to see it. c. Only large predators use countershading to blend into their surroundings so that their prey cannot see them. d. Countershading cannot be inferred from the fossil record because skin and scale tissue is never preserved.

75. Over time, natural selection can produce new of a population.

that allow individuals to outcompete other members

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Test Bank 1-4 a. adaptations b. genomes

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Test Bank 1-4 c. genes d. homologies 76. What does Archaeopteryx share with dinosaurs that modern birds lack? a. teeth on its beak b. claws on its wings c. a long reptilian tail d. all of the above e. none of the above 77. Which of the following is/are not critical for Darwin's idea for natural selection? a. No two individuals are exactly the same. b. Variable traits can influence reproductive success. c. Features of individuals change during their lifetime. d. none of the above e. all of the above 78. Which of the following is true regarding hominin evolution? a. Evidence of Homo sapiens first appears 300,000 years ago in the fossil of a jaw. b. One of the earliest hominins, Sahelanthropus, dates back to seven million years ago. c. The earliest evidence of hominins with our human-like stature date back to two million years ago. d. a and c e. a, b, and c 79. How does the process of fossilization occur? a. Bones become rocks when exposed to high temperatures. b. Minerals seep into the spaces of bones, turning them into rocks. c. Bones are buried deep in the ground by sediment and later exposed. d. The Sun dries out bones until they are hardened and preserved.

80. An isotope's half-life is a. the amount of time that the isotope has been on Earth divided by two. b. the length of time it takes for half of a sample of atoms to decay. c. the number of protons and neutrons in an atom divided by two. d. the ratio of unstable atoms to stable atoms in half a gram of sample.

81. Scientists discover a new fossil that they expect is at least three million years old. To estimate the age of the fossil they would most likely a. search for layers of volcanic ash in rock layers above and below the location of the fossil. b. use radiocarbon dating to determine the age of the fossil itself.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. use radiocarbon dating to determine the age of the sedimentary layer in which the fossil was found.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. all of the above 82. What types of mutations are possible in viruses? a. beneficial b. neutral c. harmful d. All the given choices are correct. e. None of the given choices are correct.

83. Which of the following is not a reason that an organism would be unlikely to be discovered in fossilized form? a. Most organisms are eaten or otherwise degraded to the point where there is nothing left to fossilize. b. Soft-bodied organisms are unlikely to fossilize. c. A fossil must rise to the surface of Earth. d. A fossil must be discovered. e. all of the above 84. What did carbon-14 dating reveal about Neanderthals and modern humans? a. Neanderthals and modern humans coexisted in Europe 40,000 years ago. b. Modern humans and Neanderthals only coexisted for a few thousand years before the Neanderthals disappeared. c. Neanderthals and modern humans interbred for a few thousand years. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 85. Which of the following could be considered a biomarker? a. okanane, a derivation of the pigment in purple sulfur bacteria b. amino acids found in interstellar clouds c. carbon-13:carbon-12 ratio d. a and c e. a, b, and c 86. Which of the following is not a homology? a. the fluke of a whale and the tail fin of a tuna b. the mammary glands of a whale and of a platypus c. the ectotympanic of a human and the ectotympanic of a whale d. the lack of hind limbs in whales and dolphins 87. Which of the following may result in evolutionary change in a population? a. genetic drift Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 b. natural selection

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Test Bank 1-4 c. mutation d. All the given choices are correct. e. natural selection and mutation 88. From examining the fossil record, scientists have postulated that long-term historic changes in cetacean diversity depended on a. changes in the abundance of diatoms, one of their main food sources. b. changes in the abundance of diatoms, which serve as food for animals that were preyed upon by cetaceans. c. changes in sea temperature. d. rising pollution levels in the ocean. e. changes in the abundance of organisms that prey on cetaceans.

89. Earth formed a. 4.6 billion years ago, and the earliest traces of life appear immediately thereafter. b. 4 billion years ago, and the earliest traces of life appear immediately thereafter. c. 4.6 billion years ago, and the earliest traces of life appear approximately 500–600 million years later. d. 4 billion years ago, and the earliest traces of life appear approximately 500–600 million years later.

90. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the evolution of drug resistance in a virus? a. The drug causes mutations in the virus that make it resistant. b. Even before the drug is administered, some virions might be resistant. c. An individual virion that is exposed to the drug will adapt by becoming resistant; future applications of the drug will be ineffective against this virion. d. All the given choices are correct.

91. The rise of the cyanobacteria lineage 2.6 billion years ago corresponds to a. the earliest evidence we have of life on Earth. b. the emergence of chloroplasts. c. a rise in atmospheric oxygen. d. an increase in global temperature.

92. Given the phylogeny of extant and extinct cetaceans below, which of the following conclusions is correct?

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a. The hippopotamus belongs to the cetacean group. b. The traits present in modern cetaceans appeared quickly and de novo. c. All living cetaceans have completely lost their hind feet. d. The hippopotamus belongs to the cetacean group and all living cetaceans have completely lost their hind feet. e. None of the given choices are correct.

93. Male pipefish have a brood pouch in which they carry and protect developing embryos. The gene Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 patristacin plays a major role in the formation and function of the pouch. An evolutionary analysis revealed that patristacin is involved in liver and kidney function in all other fish (other male fish do not produce a brood

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Test Bank 1-4 pouch). This provides an example of a. co-option. b. irreducible complexity. c. group selection. d. trade-offs.

94. The two lineages of prokaryotes, Archaea and Bacteria, probably diverged a. 4.1 billion years ago. b. 3.5 billion years ago. c. 2.6 billion years ago d. 1.6 billion years ago.

95. The earliest traces of life are found in which geological eon? a. Archean b. Hadean c. Phanerozoic d. Proterozoic 96. Animals differ as a kingdom because they a. use photosynthetic pigments to obtain energy. b. release enzymes to break down the matter of organisms. c. have bodies that can consume other organisms. d. have toxins for protection.

97. The oldest currently known fossil of a land animal is a. a tetrapod. b. a bird. c. a millipede. d. bacteria.

98. Animals are most closely related to which major lineage of organisms? a. Bacteria b. Plants c. Fungi d. Algae 99. The human body is composed of approximately a. 40 trillion cells. b. 30 trillion cells. c. 1 trillion cells.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. 300 billion cells.

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Test Bank 1-4 100. Birds belong to a group of dinosaurs called the therapods, which also includes a. Tyrannosaurus. b. Stegosaurus. c. Triceratops. d. Pterodactylus.

101. Comparing the two phylogenies below, we can conclude that

a. therians are more derived than platypuses. b. platypuses are the ancestor of therians. c. therians are more primitive than platypuses. d. the two phylogenies show the same evolutionary relationship.

102. The earliest fossils of our own species date to a. approximately 500,000 years ago. b. approximately, 2 million years ago. c. approximately 6 million years ago. d. approximately 300,000 years ago.

103. Considering the logic of phylogenetic systematics, which of the following statements is/are true?

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Test Bank 1-4 a. As depicted above the tree, the term anthropoids is a valid taxonomic group. b. Monkeys is not a valid taxonomic group.

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Test Bank 1-4 c. Monkeys would be a valid taxonomic group if it also included tarsiers. d. a and b e. a and c 104. What is coal? a. the remnants of fires created by ancient humans b. highly compacted marine sediments c. the remains of ancient buried plants d. dinosaur bones that have been exposed to pressure 105. Why was Lord Kelvin's calculation of Earth's age inaccurate? a. He assumed that Earth was a rigid sphere. b. He assumed that heat is lost at a constant rate. c. He only measured heat on surface rocks. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 106. Zircons are a. tiny specks of carbon preserved for billions of years in minerals b. large particles of carbon preserved for millions of years in underground deposits c. molecular evidence of living organisms d. a and c e. b and c 107. The earliest generally accepted fossils of living organisms are a. yeasts. b. stromatolites. c. zircons. d. carbon isotopes.

108. Which of the following is true of the most recent common ancestor of two currently living species? a. It may still be alive. b. One of the two species can be more closely related to the common ancestor. c. One of the two species may morphologically resemble the common ancestor more than the other. d. all of the above 109. Which of the following incorrectly matches the event with its age in the fossil record? a. oldest vertebrate trackways – 390 million years ago b. oldest vertebrate fossils – 370 million years ago c. oldest land animal – 350 million years ago Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 d. oldest fungi fossils – 440 million years ago

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Test Bank 1-4 110. If species A and B are more closely related to each other than either is to species C, then species A and B must a. share a more recent common ancestor. b. be more similar physically overall. c. share more derived homologies (synapomorphies). d. a and c e. a, b, and c 111. Based on current fossil evidence, a. whales were likely fully aquatic before they evolved peg-like teeth or baleen. b. evolution of baleen forced whales to become fully aquatic. c. the teeth of extinct whales such as Dorudon were similar to those of extinct land mammals. d. whales were likely fully aquatic before they evolved peg-like teeth or baleen and the teeth of extinct whales such as Dorudon were similar to those of extinct land mammals. e. evolution of baleen forced whales to become fully aquatic and the teeth of extinct whales such as Dorudon were similar to those of extinct land mammals.

112. The phylogeny of tetrapods and reveals that a. wrist bones emerged after the tetrapod lineage appeared in the fossil record. b. the common ancestor of tetrapods and lobe-finned fish had stout, paddle-shaped fins. c. when digits first emerged, every species had five or less. d. none of the above 113. Lord Kelvin believed that Earth was a. a few thousand years old. b. 300 million years old. c. a few billion years old. d. 20 million years old.

114. The earliest evidence of multicellularity dates back to a. 3.5 billion years ago. b. 2.6 billion years ago. c. 2.1 billion years ago. d. 1.6 billion years ago.

115. William Smith a. created the first geological map. b. devised a system of taxonomy still in use today. c. was the first to establish the fact of extinction. d. first proposed the idea of natural selection.

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Test Bank 1-4 116. The earliest land plants resemble

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Test Bank 1-4 a. large coniferous trees. b. forbs and grasses. c. tree ferns. d. mosses and liverworts.

117. The Ediacaran fauna includes a. organisms that lived on land. b. tetrapods. c. organisms that are not clearly related to any currently existing lineages. d. chordates.

118. Given the tree below, which statement(s) is/are correct?

a. The lineage leading to modern-day lemurs is older than the lineage leading to modern-day humans. b. The monkeys form a monophyletic group. c. a and b d. none of the above 119. New mutations a. are random with respect to their effects on fitness. b. are necessary for natural selection to cause evolutionary change. c. are rare in a population. d. All the given choices are correct. e. are random with respect to their effects on fitness and are necessary for natural selection to cause evolutionary change.

120. How long ago did the common ancestor of living mammals diverge from other synapsids?

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Test Bank 1-4 a. 320 million years ago

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Test Bank 1-4 b. 200 million years ago c. 170 million years ago d. 65.5 million years ago 121. Which of the following incorrectly matches the event with its age in the fossil record? a. emergence of land plants 475 million years ago b. oldest treelike plant, Wattieza – 385 million years ago c. oldest fungi fossils – 440 million years ago d. oldest land animal – 440 million years ago 122. On what point(s) would Charles Darwin and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck have agreed? a. Adaptation occurs when individuals change to adapt to their environment. b. Life is spontaneously generated all the time. c. Species give rise to new species. d. Simple organisms have existed for a shorter period of time than complex organisms. e. none of the above 123. Drawing on your knowledge of evolution, why is treatment and/or vaccination against viruses particularly difficult? a. Their high replication rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations. b. Their high mutation rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations. c. Viral reassortment increases the pathogenicity of viruses. d. Their high replication rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations and their high mutation rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations. e. Their high replication rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations, their high mutation rate increases the probability of beneficial mutations, and viral reassortment increases the pathogenicity of viruses.

124. Which of the following is not an example of evolution? a. Beak size in a population of birds becomes larger from one generation to the next because larger beaked birds had higher reproductive success and passed the trait to their offspring. b. Over long periods of time, whales gradually lost their hindlimbs. c. When humans travel to a high altitude, their physiology changes to accommodate lower oxygen levels. d. None of the given choices are correct.

125. Given the following tree, which tree below is incorrect?

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Test Bank 1-4

a. (a) b. (b) c. (c) d. (d) 126. According to the tree below, which of the following statement(s) is/are accurate?

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a. Species D, F, and I form a monophyletic group. b. Species E, D, and F form a polyphyletic group. c. Species H is more closely related to species E than A. d. all of the above e. none of the above 127. It is possible that the middle ear fully separated from the lower jaw at least twice within the mammalian lineage. Evidence of this convergent evolution comes from a. a new fossil of a monotreme-like mammal with the bones of its middle ear still connected to its lower jaw. b. a new fossil of a therian-like mammal with the bones of its middle ear still connected to its lower jaw. c. a new fossil of a monotreme-like mammal with the bones of its middle ear fully separated from its lower jaw. d. There is no evidence; the mammalian middle ear could only have evolved once.

128. Only a few species of garter snakes (Thamnophis atratus, Th. couchii, and Th. sirtalis) have evolved the ability to tolerate a toxin produced by newts called tetrodotoxin (TTX). The phylogeny below shows how these three species are related. Referring specifically to Th. couchii and Th. sirtalis, tolerance to TTX is an example of a caused by .

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Test Bank 1-4 a. reversal; homology b. homology; convergent evolution c. homoplasious trait; convergent evolution d. homoplasious trait; homology e. ancestral homology; natural selection 129. Darwin realized that some traits evolve not because they help species survive but because they help species a. adapt. b. fight. c. mate. d. swim.

130. The earliest signs of life 4.1 billion years ago exist in a. fossilized bacterial mats called stromatolites. b. isotopic signatures of zircons. c. biomarkers from pigmented bacteria. d. all of the above 131. Given the tree below, the similar body shape of ichthyosaurs and dolphins is best described as

a. an example of convergent evolution. b. a homoplasious trait. c. an analogous trait. d. all of the above e. none of the above 132. What is the path of sound in the human middle ear? a. tympanic ring – eardrum – stapes – malleus – incus b. tympanic ring – malleus – eardrum – stapes – incus c. tympanic ring – eardrum – malleus – incus – stapes Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 d. stapes – incus – malleus – tympanic ring – eardrum

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Test Bank 1-4 133. Lord Kelvin argued that based on the temperature of rocks, Earth could not be as old as some geologists thought. What turned out to be wrong with his reasoning? a. He claimed that the temperature of surface rocks should be used in calculations, but these calculations were shown to be unreliable. b. He did not realize that the planet's interior was constantly changing. c. The upper layers of Earth are cooler than Kelvin realized. d. all of the above 134. Sexual selection can shape which of the follow aspects of an organism? a. visible weaponry on males b. how fast embryos grow in the uterus c. the shape of mammal limbs d. a and b e. a, b, and c 135. The first proponents of the Great Chain of Being were a. early Greek philosophers. b. Renaissance scholars. c. the seventeenth-century Catholic Church. d. eighteenth-century naturalists.

136. Which of the following is a shared ancestral trait that platypuses share with other mammals? a. teats b. mammary glands c. venom d. a and b e. none of the above 137. Which publication first explained the concept of sexual selection? a. The Origin of Species b. The Descent of Man c. The Principles of Geology d. Natural Theology 138. Eukarya emerge in the fossil record a. 2.6; 10 times b. 1.6; 100 times c. 3.5; 10 times d. 2.6; 100 times

billion years ago and were

the size of prokaryotes.

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Test Bank 1-4 139. Carlos Linnaeus a. devised a system of taxonomy that is still used today.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. accepted the idea that most of life's diversity arose through the process of evolution. c. believed that life's diversity reflected a divine plan. d. a and b e. a and c 140. Based on information provided in the tree below, which of the following statement(s) is/are accurate?

a. The frog, dog, turtle, and lizard form a monophyletic group. b. The fish is the ancestor of the rest of the species in the tree. c. Frogs are older than birds. d. all of the above e. none of the above 141. On which point would Charles Darwin and Georges Buffon have likely disagreed? a. the idea that Earth was formed according to the laws of physics b. the idea that all life shares a common ancestor c. the idea that species change over time d. none of the above 142. The evidence for sponges in the fossil record includes a. a fossil dating to 600 million years ago. b. a cholesterol-like biomarker in rocks dating to 635 million years ago. c. tracks of movement on the ocean floor dating to 585 million years ago. d. a and b e. a, b, and c f. none of the above 143. An element is determined by the number of a. neutrons; electrons b. protons; neutrons c. neutrons; protons d. protons; electrons

; elemental isotopes vary in the number of

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Test Bank 1-4 144. Which of the following correctly matches the extinct lobe-fin species with its morphological feature?

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Test Bank 1-4 a. Tiktaalik—wrist bones b. Eusthenopteron—stout bone extending from shoulder girdle c. Tiktaalik—neck d. b and c e. all of the above 145. What does the signature of carbon-13:carbon-12 in the fossil record indicate about the history of hominin behavior? a. Early hominins consumed only grasses. b. Early hominins consumed only shrub-like plants. c. There was a gradual shift in hominin diet from shrub-like plants to grasses. d. There was a gradual shift in hominin diet from grasses to shrub-like plants.

146. Given the following tree, which tree below is incorrect?

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Test Bank 1-4

a. (a) b. (b) c. (c) d. (d) 147. How do paleontologists date fossils? a. directly using carbon dating b. indirectly by studying the age of rock layers c. directly using radiometric dating d. a and b e. a, b, and c 148. Nicolaus Steno a. was one of the first to recognize that fossils were the remains of once living organisms. b. recognized the basic principles of stratigraphy. c. a and b d. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 149. In the tree below, assume that the ancestor was an herb (not a tree) without leaves or seeds. Which currently existing

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Test Bank 1-4 species has/have this same combination of traits?

a. fern b. Psilotum c. clubmoss d. a and c e. b and c 150. Homologous and homoplasic traits differ because a. homoplasic traits perform the same function in different species, whereas homologous traits perform a different function. b. homologous traits arise through convergent evolution, whereas homoplasic traits do not. c. homoplasic traits arise through convergent evolution, whereas homologous traits do not. d. a and b e. a and c 151. Natural theology describes the idea that a. the mechanical function of living things is evidence of a divine designer. b. the natural laws observable currently are responsible for events in the past. c. differences between individuals cause some to reproduce more effectively than others. d. life is arranged on a scale from lower to higher forms, with humans at the top of the scale.

152. What might early theropods have used feathers for? a. to attract mates b. to protect their nests c. to fly d. a and b e. a, b, and c 153. The phylogeny below shows relationships between birds and four different dinosaur genera. Based on the logic of phylogenetic systematics, which of the following statement(s) is/are accurate? a. Dinosaurs and birds form a monophyletic group.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. In order for dinosaurs to be a valid taxon, birds must also be called dinosaurs. c. Dinosaurs are a paraphyletic group.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. all of the above e. none of the above 154. The diversification of grasses has mostly occurred in the last 20 million years. Some scientists have argued that this can be explained by a. the decline of large herbivores. b. the extinction of dinosaurs. c. a decline in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. d. the emergence of insects.

155. Which of the following incorrectly matches the group with its emergence in the fossil record? a. extant mammal groups – 160 million years ago b. dinosaurs – 350 million years ago c. flowering plants – 136 million years ago d. insects – 400 million years ago 156. A fossilized Homo sapiens specimen is found to be 195,000 years old. How was this age most likely determined? a. by calculating the ratio of C-14 to C-12 in the fossilized remains b. by calculating the ratio of rubidium to strontium in the fossilized remains c. by calculating the ratio of potassium to argon in the rock layers above and below the fossil d. by calculating the ratio of C-14 to C-12 in the rock layers above and below the fossil 157. Trap jaw ants have modified mandibles that function like a bear trap—when a potential prey item triggers the jaw, it snaps shut with amazing speed (up to 145 mph). The groups highlighted in the phylogeny below include species that have evolved trap jaws. With reference to this tree it appears that

a. the trap jaw could be a homologous trait for Formicinae and Ponerinae.

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Test Bank 1-4 b. the trap jaw is homoplasious (analogous) for Myrmicinae and Ponerinae. c. the trap jaw is homoplasious (analogous) for Odontomachus and Myrmoteras.

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Test Bank 1-4 d. a and c e. b and c 158. Which of the following is not true about unstable isotopes? a. Unstable isotopes have a fixed probability of decaying. b. Earth's natural supply of unstable isotopes is steadily increasing. c. Unstable isotopes and stable isotopes have a different ratio of neutrons to protons. d. Geologists use unstable isotopes to estimate precise ages for geological formations.

159. In the context of epidemiology, what does it mean to describe the world as "smaller"? a. The size of Earth has been shrinking since it formed 4.56 billion years ago. b. The size of the world's population is larger than Earth can sustain. c. Humans can travel from continent to continent within hours or days. d. The continents are shifting in a way to make the land on Earth smaller.

160. Why is it hard to find rocks from Earth's early history? a. because of heavy bombardments that melted most of Earth's crust up until 3.8 billion years ago b. because of plate tectonics that destroyed rocks c. because rocks are ephemeral structures d. a and b e. a, b, and c 161. The earliest hints of terrestrial life come from a. prokaryotes. b. plants. c. algae. d. animals.

162. Give one explanation that has been proposed for why grasses expanded and diversified around 20 million years ago.

163. What factor might scientists take into account when choosing an isotope to date a new fossil?

164. How would early geologists such as William Smith explain the observation that certain species were found only in small number of rock layers while others were found in many different layers?

165. Describe the earliest pieces of evidence we have for life on Earth, including direct and indirect evidence.

166. What are four features shared by all chordates?

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Test Bank 1-4 167. How did physics and engineering influence the naturalists of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries?

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Test Bank 1-4 168. Describe one piece of evidence that indicates that early four-legged whales such as Indohyus and Pakicetus are more closely related to modern-day whales than they are to the closest living four-legged relative of modern whales, the hippopotamus.

169. Describe two examples from extant cetacean anatomy or development that reflect their ancestral past.

170. Evolution is often described as a completely random process. Is this true? Why or why not?

171. You discover a new 50-million-year-old fossil that you believe might be an ancient cetacean. The creature looks nothing like a modern cetacean—it has four legs and clearly spent considerable time on land. Describe one feature that would indicate that this creature was, in fact, an early cetacean.

172. Sirenians (manatees and dugongs) are aquatic mammals that, like whales, lack hind limbs. Is lack of hindlimbs a homologous trait for sirenians and cetaceans?

173. How did Charles Darwin draw on embryology to support the idea of common descent?

174. Please describe at least one scientific contribution made by each of the following individuals: Charles Darwin, Charles Lyell, Alfred Russel Wallace, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, Georges Cuvier, Carl Linnaeus, and Georges Buffon.

175. Explain the difference between phylogeny and taxonomy. Be sure to differentiate between monophyletic, paraphyetic and polyphyletic groups in your answer.

176. Why was the debate on Earth's age important to the early supporters of evolution?

177. Organisms are similar in many ways. Considering Darwin's idea of descent with modification, what are two possible explanations for shared similarities between species?

178. Explain how new discoveries in genetics enabled scientists to expand on Darwin's theory of evolution in the twenty-first century.

179. Before DNA evidence, scientists had a difficult time discerning where cetaceans fit into the mammalian family tree. Based on morphological features used to classify artiodactyls, why would it have been difficult to link cetaceans to artiodactyls based on morphological evidence alone? How do more recent discoveries in the fossil record link cetaceans to artiodactyls?

180. Describe the evolution of the mammalian middle ear and hypothesize on the selective pressures that may have driven its change.

181. Explain what we know about the transition of life to multicellularity.

182. Describe three reasons why any given organism would be unlikely to be discovered in fossilized form.

183. Describe the evidence of the early types of life on land.

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Test Bank 1-4 184. Explain how isotopes and other biomarker molecules carry information about the history of life, giving two specific examples.

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Test Bank 1-4 185. How can the wings of bats and birds be considered both homologous and homoplasic structures?

186. You are using maximum parsimony to determine the relationships among six species (A, B, C, D, E, and F). You examine eight different traits for the six species and an outgroup. Below you will find the data matrix.

(a) Which traits are not useful for distinguishing relationships among species A, B, C, D, E, and F? (b) Given below are two possible tree topologies for these species. Based on the principle of maximum parsimony, circle the tree that most likely represents the true relationships among these species. Please show your work (that is, map the traits with tick marks onto each tree, and beside each tick mark give the number of the trait). Please include all traits, even those you determined were not useful in part (a).

187. How does the fossil record provide evidence that the use of feathers for flight by birds is an exaptation?

188. How did the work of geologists such as James Hutton and Charles Lyell influence Darwin?

189. What is a scientific theory, and how does this differ from how we often use the term in a nonscientific context?

190. When scientists infected vaccinated and nonvaccinated mice with influenza, they found that after nine sequences of viral passage the hemagglutinin protein was altered in one of the groups. Which group was it, and what is the evolutionary explanation for the differences between the groups?

191. The influenza virus has only ten genes, which is far fewer than other nonviral organisms. Why do you think viruses are able to survive and replicate with so few genes compared to other organisms?

192. The 2009 H1N1 pandemic strain included genes from influenza that normally infects pigs, birds, and humans. How is this possible? Why are mixed strains particularly likely to cause high mortality?

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Test Bank 1-4 193. You are having coffee with a couple of friends. One says, "I saw a beautiful dinosaur in my yard this morning." The other one says, "You're crazy, you couldn't have seen a dinosaur!" Use the phylogeny below,

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Test Bank 1-4 which includes birds and four different dinosaur genera, and the logic of phylogenetic systematics to argue that maybe your first friend isn't so crazy after all.

194. Imagine you discovered a fossil from an adult organism that you suspect might be an ancient chordate.

What structure would you look for to confirm your suspicion?

195. Given what you learned about how influenza changes over time, how could you explain the emergence of drug resistance in bacterial pathogens? For example, certain strains of tuberculosis are resistant to many of the major classes of antibiotics traditionally used to fight this pathogen.

196. Describe Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's ideas about evolution.

197. Compare a genealogical tree with a phylogenetic tree. Use a drawing to help explain your answer.

198. How did James Hutton's ideas about geology differ from earlier views?

199. Explain how the discovery of fossil F in (B) constrains the timing of the phylogeny in (A). Compare the timing of the phylogeny in (B) to those in (C) and (D).

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Test Bank 1-4

200. Charles Darwin and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck both argued that organisms could adapt to their environment.

How did their ideas about how this occurred differ?

201. Match the following species or taxonomic groups with the approximate time period in which they appear in the fossil record.

Bacteria Mammals Tetrapods Flowering plants Sponges

3.5 bya 150–200 mya 370 mya 132 mya 650 mya

202. Describe evidence three pieces of evidence found in extant cetaceans that supports the idea that their ancestors had hindlimbs.

203. Describe one advantage that carbon dating provides over other types of radiometric dating.

204. Explain the evolution of tetrapods; a complete answer should include reference to extant and extinct species.

205. Describe an example fossils being used to reconstruct the behavior of extinct animals.

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Test Bank 1-4 206. Compare and contrast the Ediacaran and Cambrian fauna.

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Test Bank 1-4 207. Explain how George Lyell and Thomas Malthus influenced Darwin.

208. Describe how scientists used carbon isotopes to determine whether extinct whales likely inhabited freshwater or saltwater.

209. Explain the statement "It's a microbial world … and we just happen to live in it" in the context of both early and modern Earth.

210. Explain how carbon isotopic signatures can be used to determine the diets of extinct organisms.

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Test Bank 1-4 Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. e 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 24. c

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Test Bank 1-4 25. b 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. e 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 48. e

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Test Bank 1-4 49. c 50. d 51. c 52. b 53. e 54. c 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. f 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. c Test 73. cBank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. c 78. e 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. e 84. d 85. d 86. a 87. d 88. b 89. c 90. d 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 97. c

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Test Bank 1-4 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. d 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. d 111. d 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. a 116. d 117. c 118. d 119. e 120. c 121. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

122. c

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Test Bank 1-4 123. e 124. c 125. a 126. e 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. d 132. c 133. b 134. d 135. a 136. b 137. b 138. b 139. e 140. e 141. b 142. d 143. b 144. e 145. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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Test Bank 1-4 146. c

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Test Bank 1-4 147. d 148. c 149. e 150. c 151. a 152. d 153. d 154. c 155. b 156. c 157. e 158. b 159. c 160. d 161. a 162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

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Test Bank 1-4 172.

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

181.

182.

183.

184.

185.

186.

187.

188.

189.

190.

191.

192.

193.

194.

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Test Bank 1-4 195.

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Test Bank 1-4 196.

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ch 5 - 8 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. You are studying crickets and notice that individuals have one of two distinctive wing phenotypes (shortwinged or long-winged). From this, you can confidently conclude that a. long- and short-winged crickets have different alleles at a locus controlling wing size. b. only one genetic locus must contribute to the wing phenotype. c. the trait must be polyphenic. d. all of the above e. none of the above 2. Genetic drift a. will always lead to higher fitness of individuals in the population. b. reduces genetic variation within a population. c. can lead to divergence between populations. d. b and c e. a, b, and c 3. Bighorn sheep occupy a range that extends from Canada to Mexico; however, this range is not continuous because the sheep prefer steep rocky cliffs, which are often spatially isolated. This is an example of a. population structure. b. population genetics. c. allopatry. d. genetic distance.

4. The effectiveness of selection on an allele depends in part on a. the frequency of the allele. b. the magnitude of average excess fitness. c. the average fitness of the population. d. all of the above e. none of the above 5. Many plant species are hermaphroditic and run the risk of self-mating. Some species carry selfincompatibility alleles that can prevent this from occurring. If a pollen grain with self-incompatibility allele S1 lands on a stigma that also carries the S1 allele, the pollen will not germinate and fertilization does not occur.

Thus, this mechanism not only prevents selfing, but also has the unfortunate effect of preventing mating with any other plant that carries the same allele. However, if the pollen lands on a stigma of a plant with a different allele, fertilization occurs. Imagine a population of plants in which the allele frequency of S1 = 0.9 and the allele frequency of S2 = 0.1. All other things being equal, individuals with the allele will have higher fitness on average. This is an example of . a. S1; positive selection Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 b. S2; positive selection

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ch 5 - 8 c. S1; negative frequency-dependent selection d. S2; negative frequency-dependent selection 6. The study of allele frequencies and distributions is a. population genetics. b. community dynamics. c. biogeography. d. landscape ecology.

7. Which of the following is an example of the founder effect? a. Northern elephant seals were hunted to near extinction, but populations later rebounded. b. A plant seed established a new population after hitching a ride on a migratory bird. c. A late frost killed 95% of a local population of spring ephemeral plants. d. all of the above e. none of the above 8. You are studying snails and find that individuals have shells that coil either to the right or to the left. Which of the following is/are the most plausible explanation(s) for this variation? a. Different alleles at a single locus produce the different phenotypes. b. Individuals are genetically identical, but certain environmental conditions trigger the production of each coil type. c. This is a quantitative trait, meaning that many loci contribute to the phenotypic differences. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 9. Which of the following statements is supported by molecular phylogenetic studies of human populations? a. Most human genetic diversity is found in Africa. b. Non-Africans form a monophyletic group. c. Africans form a monophyletic group. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 10. Which of the following describes the McDonald-Kreitman test (MK test)? a. The number of coalescent events in a population is compared to a null hypothesis. b. The branch lengths of all trees are compared, and the one with the shortest branches is chosen. c. The alleles of a species are compared within a species and to a homologous gene in another species. d. Allele frequencies that are more different than expected are identified as outliers.

11. Which of the following is/are sources of genetic variation between gametes? a. the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 b. the nonidentical, paired chromosomes of parents

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ch 5 - 8 c. the random mixing of parental copies of chromosomes d. a and b e. a, b, and c 12. Below are some different scenarios for the heritability of a trait and the selection differential in a population.

Which scenario will produce the largest response to selection? a. h2 = 0.9; S = 0.6 b. h2 = 0.5; S = 0.9 c. h2 = 0.2; S = 0.1 d. h2 = 0.5; S = 0.5 13. Which of the following could not be described as a phenotype? a. a sequence of nucleotides b. a molecule produced by a gene c. a developmental process d. a morphological structure 14. Which of the following could result in a polyphenism? a. A mutation creates a deleterious version of an allele that is then passed on to an organism's offspring. b. A change in an environmental cue switches the production of one phenotype to an alternate phenotype. c. The cumulative action of multiple genes produces variation among individuals over a given range. d. A combination of alleles on a single gene produces two or more discrete phenotypes in a population.

15. Which response to different environmental conditions would you expect from a species that has a high VG×E for a trait? a. All genotypes respond similarly to environmental conditions. b. The magnitude of each genotype's response is always similar. c. Different genotypes have varying responses to different conditions. d. The same genotype will have the same response to different conditions.

16. A neutrally evolving allele in a population of a constant size is expected to have a. a linearly increasing number of coalescent events over time. b. a linearly decreasing number of coalescent events over time. c. an exponential decrease in the number of coalescent events over time. d. an exponential increase in the number of coalescent events over time.

17. In the founder effect, a. allele frequencies always deviate from the parental population.

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ch 5 - 8 b. drift only acts on the founding population when it breaks off from the parental population. c. drift may continue to act on a fledgling population.

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ch 5 - 8 d. a and b e. a and c 18. If the size of a population increases drastically, a. more coalescent events occur near the tips. b. more coalescent events occur near the base of the tree. c. the rate of coalescence accelerates. d. coalescent events are distributed evenly through time.

19. Maximum likelihood phylogenetic construction methods differ from distance methods in that a. maximum likelihood methods incorporate specific models of molecular evolution. b. distance methods use bootstrapping, while maximum likelihood does not. c. maximum likelihood generates a tree with the shortest possible branch length, while distance methods do not. d. all of the above e. none of the above 20. A genetic polymorphism is a. multiple discrete phenotypes arising from a genotype, depending on the environment. b. the simultaneous occurrence of two or more discrete phenotypes within a population. c. a measurable phenotype that varies among individuals over a given range of values. d. a change in the phenotype produced by a single genotype in different environments.

21. In the following figure, what do circles with no lines extending from them represent?

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ch 5 - 8

a. pathogenic variants of alleles b. points where two lineages converged c. the occurrence of single nucleotide polymorphisms d. alleles that were not transmitted to the next generation 22. In comparison with genetic drift, evolution by natural selection is a. random. b. adaptive. c. random and adaptive. d. nonrandom and adaptive.

23. Which of the following statements is/are supported by the figure?

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ch 5 - 8

a. In 1973 the Ester1 allele was less widespread than in 1975 or 1978. b. The Ester1 allele was fixed in coastal populations by 1975. c. In 1973 the Ester1 allele did not exist 21 km inland. d. all of the above 24. Traits that are more sensitive to environmental stimuli would have a. more phenotypic plasticity. b. a higher chance of mutation. c. more genetic polymorphisms. d. fewer loci that control them.

25. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to produce a gene tree that is discordant with a species tree? a. long branch lengths; short coalescence time for alleles b. short branch lengths; long coalescence time for alleles c. long branch lengths; long coalescence time for alleles d. short branch lengths; short coalescence time for alleles 26. Meiosis is a form of cell division that a. occurs only in eukaryotes. b. cuts the number of chromosomes in half. c. produces two identical daughter cells. d. a and b e. a and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 27. Which of the following steps is a part of QTL association studies?

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ch 5 - 8 a. crossing individuals from genetically divergent populations b. sampling a large number of individuals from within a population c. raising individuals in a large range of environmental conditions d. calculating the expected frequency of alleles in a population 28. Broad sense heritability differs from narrow sense heritability in that a. for broad sense heritability, VG includes only additive effects of alleles. b. for broad sense heritability, VG includes additive, dominance, and epistatic effects. c. broad sense heritability includes only components of variance that cause offspring to resemble their parents. d. all of the above e. none of the above 29. What does VG×E represent? a. the genetic variance associated with epistatic effects b. genotype variation caused by linkage disequilibrium c. the variance in how genotypes interact with their environment d. phenotypic variation resulting from genetically programmed responses 30. Which of the following is/are (a) pitfall(s) of trying to find the common ancestral allele of mitochondrial mutations? a. There is no complete record of all the mitochondrial DNA in every living human. b. There is no record of all the ancestors of humans going back millions of years. c. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited only from mothers. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 31. Which of the following statements about genome size is false? a. The complexity and size of genomes vary widely between taxa. b. The genome includes all coding and noncoding regions of an organism's DNA. c. There is a correlation between genome size and gene number across species. d. Protein-coding genes make up a tiny portion of the genome in many eukaryotes.

32. Which of the following scenarios best describes how you would study reaction norms? a. Rear genetically similar organisms under different environmental conditions. b. Randomly breed individuals together and measure the phenotype of their offspring. c. Allow individuals from different populations to mate and observe the offspring phenotypes. d. Raise individuals under different environmental conditions than they were born in.

33. Which of the following could be considered part of the environment that could influence gene expression?

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ch 5 - 8 a. signals from other cells

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ch 5 - 8 b. contact with neighboring cells c. products from other genes d. a and b e. a, b, and c 34. Which of the following statements is correct? a. All cells have the same genes. b. All cells express the same genes. c. All cells have the same proteins. d. all of the above 35. Which of the following equations illustrates phenotypic variation that comes from both the genotype and the environment? a. VP = VG b. VP = VE c. VP = VG + VE d. VP = VG + VE + VG×E 36. What mechanisms can create a mismatch between the history of genes and the history of species? a. introgression b. incomplete lineage sorting c. genetic hitchhiking d. a and b e. a, b, and c 37. You collect the following data on genotypes for a sunflower population: AA: 40, AB: 20, BB: 40. Based on Hardy-Weinberg predictions you expected the following numbers: AA: 25, AB: 50, BB: 25. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for the deviation? a. balancing selection b. negative frequency-dependent selection c. inbreeding d. genetic drift 38. Trans-acting regulatory elements a. are typically adjacent to genes they regulate. b. are typically far away from genes they regulate. c. include transcription factors. d. a and c e. b and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 39. Mutations in the GDF9 gene in sheep have been linked to changes in female fecundity. The following are

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ch 5 - 8 the relative fitnesses of different genotypes in the population. Which statement below is correct?

Genotype Relative fitness +/ – 1 +/ + 0.7 –/ – 0.1 a. This is an example of heterozygote advantage; genetic variation will be maintained over time. b. This is an example of negative frequency-dependent selection; genetic variation will be maintained over time. c. This is an example of heterozygote advantage; genetic variation will be lost over time. d. This is an example of negative frequency-dependent selection; genetic variation will be lost over time.

40. The total variance in a phenotypic trait in a population (VP ) is accurately expressed as a. VP = VG + VE. b. VP = VA + VD + VI. c. VP = VA + VD + VI + VE. d. a and b e. a and c 41. Some Drosophila melanogaster larvae use a "sitting" foraging strategy in which they feed more or less in the same location, while "rovers" wander around the substrate looking for more food sources. In the graph below, the dotted line corresponds to sitters and the solid line corresponds to rovers. This is an example of ; over time we expect .

a. negative frequency-dependent selection; both strategies to persist in the population b. pleiotropy; both strategies to persist in the population c. frequency-dependent selection; the rover strategy to replace the sitter strategy because it has the highest fitness d. pleiotropy; the rover strategy to replace the sitter strategy because it has the highest fitness 42. Inbreeding results in a higher frequency of in a population. Inbreeding depression occurs because . a. deleterious alleles; individuals with deleterious alleles have high mortality Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 b. heterozygosity; heterozygotes have lower fitness

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ch 5 - 8 c. homozygosity; deleterious recessive alleles are expressed more often d. heterozygosity; deleterious dominant alleles are expressed more often 43. Which of the following would cause incomplete lineage sorting? a. The alleles of interest are all present before the divergence of species. b. A hybrid offspring mates with individuals from the original species. c. A favorable allele fixes in the population very quickly. d. A substitution occurs that alters the amino acid sequence of a protein.

44. In which of the scenarios below is a population more likely to evolve? a. a population that experiences no migration b. a population that is large enough to not experience genetic drift c. a population where there are no adaptive traits d. a population that experiences a mutation in a gene necessary for survival 45. Lively and Dybdahl studied parasite infection rates in a population of asexual clonal snails. The graph below shows relative infection rates for the four most common clone genotypes and for several rare genotypes (all lumped together). Based on these data, they hypothesized that parasites adapted to infecting the most common clone genotypes in the population, and thus these genotypes had lower fitness. This is consistent with operating in the population. Further evidence would be provided if .

a. genetic drift; heterozygosity declined over time in the population b. genetic drift; rare clones were lost from the population frequency-dependent selection c. negative frequency-dependent selection; rare clones became common in the next generation but then declined in frequency in the following generation d. negative frequency-dependent selection; rare clones became more common until they completely replaced the clones that were originally common 46. New nonsynonymous mutations a. occur randomly with respect to fitness.

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ch 5 - 8 b. are greater in number in a large population than a small population. c. are most often deleterious.

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ch 5 - 8 d. all of the above 47. Which of the following are examples of mobile genetic elements? a. transposons b. plasmids c. pseudogenes d. a and b e. a, b, and c 48. Given the graph below, and assuming that corolla flare is heritable, what type of selection should occur?

a. directional b. stabilizing c. disruptive d. overdominance e. frequency-dependent 49. Which of the following is the best evidence for a genetic bottleneck in northern elephant seals? a. They were nearly hunted to extinction. b. They have low genetic variation within a mitochondrial DNA sequence that has a high mutation rate. c. Their populations rebounded. d. all of the above 50. Which event would result in an allele or alleles being in a state of perfect linkage disequilibrium? a. A new mutation arises on a chromosome. b. Two individuals from a different species mate to produce a hybrid offspring. c. Crossing over of chromosomes occurs during meiosis. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 51. How do gene frequencies behave in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

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ch 5 - 8 a. Allele frequencies stay the same from generation to generation. b. Genotype frequencies stay the same from generation to generation.

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ch 5 - 8 c. Genotype frequencies depart from expected frequencies. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 52. Most chemical reactions in a cell are performed by a. DNA. b. RNA. c. proteins. d. amino acids.

53. Knowing the structure of the HIV tree allowed scientists to pinpoint which specific adaptation that allowed HIV to infect humans? a. an increase in virulence b. an enzyme that allows the virus to break down white blood cells c. a mutation in a gene that encodes the shell of the virus d. a mutation changing the shape of the hemagglutinin stalk 54. All extant copies of a gene eventually coalesce; this occurs because a. a particular allele becomes fixed in the population. b. all extant genes coalesce at the same time in the same individuals. c. the rate of coalescence speeds up as a population increases in size. d. the original population consisted of only a single individual with the ancestral allele.

55. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 is a. an allele frequency. b. the frequency of heterozygotes. c. the frequency of dominant alleles. d. a and c e. none of the above 56. Proponents of the neutral theory of molecular evolution believe that most substitutions are fixed by . a. sexual selection b. natural selection c. genetic drift d. none of the above 57. How is a null hypothesis useful in studying how allele frequencies change? a. It serves as a baseline for change. b. It explains what happens when there is no change.

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ch 5 - 8 c. It explains what happens when there is change.

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ch 5 - 8 d. a and b e. a and c 58. Which of the following phylogenetic patterns supports the hypothesis that a disease was transmitted between partners? a. The newly infected partner's strains are nested within the strains of the initially infected partner. b. The initially infected partners strains are nested within the strains of the newly infected partner. c. The newly infected partner's strains are more closely related to strains other than those carried by the partner. d. Both partners' strains have identical phylogenetic trees.

59. When an allele increases in frequency because it is in close proximity on the chromosome to a positively selected allele, this causes a. directional selection. b. incomplete linkage sorting. c. linkage disequilibrium. d. synonymous substitution.

60. Alleles that share a genealogical lineage in a gene tree are all a. ancestral. b. homologous. c. mutations. d. orthologs.

61. Which of the following is not true about a fixed genetic locus? a. All members of a population carry the same allele for that locus. b. There is no genetic variation for that locus. c. All alternative alleles for that locus have disappeared. d. all of the above e. none of the above 62. FST estimates close to zero would suggest that a population a. is fully homogenized. b. is fully segregated. c. has high rates of hybridization. d. has low rates of introgression.

63. A mature RNA transcript differs from a primary RNA transcript in that a. exons are spliced out of the mature transcript. b. introns are spliced out of the mature transcript.

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ch 5 - 8 c. exons are added to the mature transcript.

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ch 5 - 8 d. introns are added to the mature transcript.

64. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, q is a. an allele frequency. b. the frequency of heterozygotes. c. the frequency of dominant alleles. d. a and c e. none of the above 65. In a molecular phylogeny what can serve as a synapomorphy? a. amino acids b. insertions c. homoplasy d. orthologs 66. Which of the following is supported by molecular phylogenetic studies? a. Lobe-finned fish are more closely related to humans than to other fish. b. Lobe-finned fish are more closely related to other fish than to humans. c. Lobe-finned fish are tetrapods. d. a and b e. a and c 67. A trait with h2 = 0 a. must have no genetic basis. b. means that most of the phenotypic variation in the population is explained by differences in the alleles that individuals have. c. means that there is no phenotypic variation. d. means that the phenotypic variation in the population is explained by differences in the environments experienced by individuals. e. a and d 68. If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals is 0.49, what is the frequency of the recessive allele? a. 0.51 b. 0.49 c. 0.7 d. 0.3 e. none of the above 69. A free-living bacterium unrestricted by a host would probably have Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 a. few pseudogenes and few mobile elements.

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ch 5 - 8 b. few pseudogenes and no mobile elements. c. many pseudogenes and few mobile elements. d. many pseudogenes and many mobile elements.

70. Organisms vary considerably in genome size. Which of the following explains most of this variation? a. differences in the number of protein-coding genes b. differences in the number of ribosomal RNA genes c. differences in the number of pseudogenes d. differences in the number of mobile genetic elements 71. Over the same landscape, populations may differ in degree of subdivision depending on their movement.

Which of the following is/are true? a. Species that move widely across a landscape will show increased genetic divergence with increasing geographic distance. b. Species that move widely across a landscape will have minimal genetic divergence. c. Species that do not move widely across a landscape have minimal genetic divergence. d. a and c e. b and c 72. A bowl of beads has 500 red and 500 white beads. In a random sample of two beads, you select two white beads; if you took a random sample of 100 beads, you would expect a. mostly white beads again because it is obviously easier to draw white beads. b. mostly red beads this time; it is actually easier to draw red beads. c. approximately 50 red beads and 50 white beads because it is a larger sample. d. none of the above; there is not enough information given to make a prediction.

73. When sources of genetic variation act independently, their effects are a. additive. b. dominant. c. non-additive. d. recessive.

74. The evolutionary tree of HIV-1 revels that a. the virus jumped from chimpanzees to humans four times. b. HIV is a monophyletic clade that originated from the same strain of SIV. c. the SIV strain that infects gorillas is the same strain that infects chimpanzees. d. western chimpanzees are more closely related to gorillas than eastern chimpanzees.

75. Cis-acting elements often code for a. proteins.

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ch 5 - 8 b. microRNA. c. binding sites.

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ch 5 - 8 d. transcription factor.

76. The graph below shows the change in allele frequency for a beneficial allele over time (the x axis shows generations). Based on the shape of the curve, this allele is most likely

a. homozygous. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. heterozygous. e. additive.

77. Inbreeding a. increases heterozygosity in populations. b. creates deleterious recessive alleles. c. increases homozygosity in populations. d. all of the above e. b and c 78. How does genome wide association (GWA) mapping differ from quantitative trait locus (QTL) mapping? a. GWA mapping samples individuals from within a single population. b. GWA mapping crosses individuals from genetically divergent populations. c. QTL mapping searches for markers associated with expression of a trait. d. GWA mapping can identify the specific gene in that causes a trait.

79. The gene BRCA1 normally functions as a. a gene that causes cancer. b. a tumor-suppressor gene. c. an oncogene. d. a supergene.

80. If a biologist wanted to associate each node of a phylogenetic tree with a statistical measure of support for a particular grouping, what is one method she could employ?

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ch 5 - 8 a. distance-matrix method b. maximum parsimony

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ch 5 - 8 c. maximum likelihood d. neighbor joining 81. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria that are long-term obligate symbionts? a. few pseudogenes b. no mobile elements c. a stable chromosome d. interstrain recombination 82. If p = 0.8, what is the frequency of heterozygotes in a population, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. 0.2 b. 0.64 c. 0.16 d. 0.32 e. none of the above 83. Weight, because it can vary among individuals over a range of values, is an example of a a. recessive trait. b. dominant trait. c. quantitative trait. d. polyphenic trait.

84. Why are mutations crucial for evolution? a. Mutations in germline cells that affect large parts of the genome are very common. b. Mutations are not necessarily harmful and may be beneficial. c. Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation in populations. d. Mutations can change the DNA sequence without affecting the protein it codes for.

85. Why can molecular homoplasy evolve more easily than morphological homoplasy? a. Molecular homoplasy often results when many interacting genes mutate. b. There are only four character states for molecular traits, each of the nucleotide bases. c. Molecular traits are more subject to mutations than morphological traits. d. Selection acts more strongly on molecular traits than morphological traits.

86. How did Buri's experiments illustrate populations deviating from the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. Each population started with only eight males and eight females. b. Reproducing flies were chosen at random. c. Populations of flies were kept isolated in their own vials. d. all of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 e. none of the above

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ch 5 - 8 87. The sickle-cell anemia allele, S, experiences strong negative selection because of its deleterious effect on homozygotes, yet the allele is maintained at frequencies higher than expected because having only one copy can increase survival in areas where malaria is prevalent. This is an example of a. heterozygote advantage. b. antagonistic pleiotropy. c. balancing selection. d. a and c e. a, b, and c 88. In a population of ground beetles, a genetic locus that codes for setae on the elytra has two variants: G is dominant and codes for setae on the elytra, and g is recessive and codes for glabrous elytra (no setae). If the frequency of beetles with glabrous elytra is 0.36, what is the frequency of the G allele, assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. 0.6 b. 0.4 c. 0.64 d. 0.16 e. none of the above 89. The ratio of the rate of nonsynonymous to synonymous mutations (dN/dS) is equal to one if a gene is evolving . A dN/dS ratio greater than one indicates that the gene is evolving . a. neutrally; purifying selection b. under positive selection; neutrally c. neutrally; under positive selection d. under purifying selection; neutrally e. under purifying selection; under positive selection 90. A substitution that changes one of the first two bases in a codon (e.g., AGT) is called a and will . a. synonymous mutation; not change the resulting amino acid b. nonsynonymous mutation; not change the resulting amino acid c. nonsynonymous mutation; change the resulting amino acid d. synonymous mutation; change the resulting amino acid e. frameshift mutation; change the resulting amino acid 91. The probability of an allele being lost during a genetic bottleneck depends on a. the beginning frequency of that allele in the population. b. the severity of the bottleneck. c. the size of the population before the bottlenecking event. d. a and b Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 e. a, b, and c

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ch 5 - 8 92. What were Lenski's experiments able to demonstrate? a. a frozen fossilized record of evolutionary change in E. coli bacteria b. that evolutionary change can occur on a timescale that humans can observe c. how alleles arise that contribute to positive and negative selection within a population d. all of the above e. none of the above 93. A woman who carries one G variant and one T variant of the BRCA1 gene would pass the T variant on to approximately how many of her children? a. 100% b. 67% c. 50% d. 0% 94. Inbreeding a. changes allele frequencies in a population. b. rearranges allele combinations in a population. c. is a mechanism of evolution. d. all of the above 95. Scientists studying a species of fish using quantitative trait locus analysis found that fishes with paternal alleles at a marker have larger body sizes than fishes with maternal alleles at the marker. This suggests that a. the alleles controlling body size are in a state of linkage disequilibrium. b. the genetic marker itself has a direct effect on body size. c. the loci that affect body size may be nearby the marker. d. fish body size is a highly heritable trait.

96. The residues ("tailings") of mines often contain such high concentrations of toxic metals (e.g., copper, lead) that most plants are unable to grow on them. However, some hardy species (e.g., certain grasses) are able to spread from the surrounding uncontaminated soil into such areas. These plants evolve resistance to the toxic metals, while their ability to grow on uncontaminated soil decreases. Because grasses are wind pollinated, breeding between the resistant and nonresistant populations continues, but offspring of crosses between the two populations are intermediate and have low fitness. This is an example of a. stabilizing selection. b. directional selection. c. frequency-dependent selection. d. disruptive selection. e. underdominance.

97. Which of the following scientific disciplines does not fall under the purview of landscape genetics? a. landscape ecology Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 b. spatial statistics

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ch 5 - 8 c. population genetics d. community dynamics 98. Which of the following is true of QTL association studies? a. They pinpoint the specific gene(s) responsible for phenotypic variation. b. F1 offspring are examined to look for genetic markers linked to phenotypic variation. c. They rely on recombination to create a wide range of phenotypic variation. d. all of the above e. none of the above 99. Which method would you employ to create a phylogenetic tree based on how different taxa are? a. bootstrapping b. distance-matrix method c. maximum parsimony d. maximum likelihood 100. A genetic bottleneck occurs when a. there is a temporary dip in population size. b. a population is very small. c. a few individuals begin a new isolated population. d. a and b e. all of the above 101. When FST ≈ 0, a population a. has little genetic structure. b. has extensive spatial variation. c. consists mostly of homozygotes. d. a and b e. a and c 102. When did Homo sapiens interbreed with Neanderthals and other extinct human populations? a. before evolving in Africa for hundreds of thousands of years b. after spreading across Asia, Europe, and the Americas c. after migrating out of the African continent d. none of the above 103. Which of the following is a mechanism that bacteria have for increasing their genome size? a. horizontal gene transfer b. genetic hitchhiking Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 c. introgression d. a and b

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ch 5 - 8 e. a, b, and c 104. Which correctly describe(s) a population? a. A population occupies a large geographic range. b. A population occupies a small geographic range. c. A population is a group of interacting and potentially interbreeding individuals of a species. d. a and c e. b and c f. a, b, and c 105. Gene flow among populations makes allele frequencies more populations, causing allele frequencies to . a. similar; diverge b. different; diverge c. similar; coalesce d. different; coalesce

, and genetic drift acts within

106. Scientists have hypothesized that eukaryotic genome size may be related to a. cell size. b. mobile elements. c. number of genes. d. horizontal gene transfer.

107. Although the Ester1 allele confers a selective advantage to mosquitoes exposed to DDT on the coast of France, carriers of Ester1 in inland populations are more likely to be caught by spiders and other predators. This is an example of a. positive selection. b. antagonistic pleiotropy. c. genetic drift. d. average excess of fitness. e. none of the above 108. Which of these statements about the effect of environment on gene expression is false? a. Signal molecules produced by one cell can affect gene expression in other cells. b. The environment that can affect a gene only refers to conditions immediately surrounding the cell. c. Genes in one part of an organism can be exposed to different environments than other parts. d. Some phenotypic traits are relatively unaffected by differences in environmental conditions.

109. How does inbreeding depression arise? a. Rare recessive alleles become expressed in a homozygous state.

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ch 5 - 8 b. Rare recessive alleles become fixed in a population.

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ch 5 - 8 c. Inbreeding is compounded with selection. d. a and b e. a and c f. a, b, and c 110. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem? a. The population is infinitely large. b. There is no selection in the population. c. There is no immigration, but individuals can emigrate out of a population. d. There are no mutations.

111. Polyphenic traits are an example of a. phenotypic plasticity. b. quantitative trait loci. c. simple genetic polymorphism. d. dominant traits.

112. Craig Venter and colleagues found how many instances where the corresponding nucleotides in homologous chromosomes didn’t match each other?

a. 453 b. 13,000 c. 870,000 d. 3,200,000 113. If A1 represents an allele at one locus and B1 represents an allele at another locus, which equation represents linkage disequilibrium? a. b. c. d.

114. The human genome consists of a. more than 50% protein-coding segments. b. more protein-coding genes than other organisms. c. the same amount of mobile genetic elements and pseudogenes. d. approximately the same amount of pseudogenes as protein-coding genes.

115. Alleles are a. found at genetic loci. b. always dominant or recessive.

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ch 5 - 8 c. alternative forms of a phenotype.

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ch 5 - 8 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 116. Tasmanian devils once inhabited most of present-day Australia, but only an isolated population on the island of Tasmania has survived to the present day. Which of the following processes has likely affected Tasmanian devils as a result of this history? a. a higher mutation rate b. stronger natural selection c. a genetic bottleneck d. gene flow 117. Which of the following has not been proposed as why the genomic structure of eukaryotes and prokaryotes is different? a. Cells of eukaryotes were much larger than those of bacteria. b. Populations of eukaryotes were smaller. c. Genetic drift allowed mobile elements to invade genomes. d. Eukaryotic genomes contain large amounts of non-protein coding DNA. 118. Phylogenetic studies of HIV-1 emergence that used molecular clock estimates demonstrate that: a. the disease likely emerged with the growth of major settlements in central Africa. b. the largest peak in SIV diversification rate occurred within the last 5 million years. c. the common ancestor of the HIV-1 virus existed in the 1980s. d. the virus hopped from chimpanzee to human hosts four separate times.

119. The genome of an organism does not contain which of the following elements? a. proteins b. pseudogenes c. protein-coding genes d. mobile genetic elements 120. The correct species tree for the great apes shows that humans are most closely related to a. chimpanzees. b. gorillas. c. orangutans. d. bonobos.

121. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what does 2pq refer to? a. the frequency of heterozygotes in a population b. the frequency of both alleles in a population c. the frequency of homozygotes in a population Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 d. none of the above

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ch 5 - 8 122. Which bacterial niche is likely to favor having a large genome? a. free-living bacteria b. host-restricted symbionts c. host-restricted pathogens d. all of the above 123. The pattern of phenotypic expression of a single genotype across a range of environments is a. phenotypic plasticity. b. a reaction norm. c. a quantitative trait locus. d. polyphenism.

124. The greyhound is a dog breed known for its amazing speed. This breed was produced by taking the fastest animals and breeding them together, generation after generation. Though artificial, this is an example of . a. stabilizing selection b. disruptive selection c. overdominance d. directional selection e. underdominance 125. Which of the following would likely increase the likelihood of fixing a beneficial allele in a population of finite size? a. a higher starting frequency to decrease likelihood of drift b. a larger excess fitness to increase selection for the beneficial allele c. a larger population size because selection will be greater in a larger population d. all of the above e. none of the above 126. Duplication is a type of mutation that alters DNA by copying a segment a second time. Which of the following segments of DNA can be duplicated? a. a region of a gene b. a whole gene c. an entire genome d. all of the above 127. Genetic drift a. reduces genetic variation within a population. b. increases divergence (variation) between populations. c. affects only neutral alleles.

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ch 5 - 8 d. a and b e. a, b, and c

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ch 5 - 8 128. Genetic recombination occurs during meiosis when a. genetic material is duplicated. b. chromosomes are paired. c. sister chromatids are segregated. d. haploid gametes are formed.

129. Assuming that a deleterious allele is maintained in a population by mutation-selection balance, which scenario below describes the case where you would expect the equilibrium frequency of the allele to be highest? a. The mutation rate is low; the allele is highly deleterious. b. The mutation rate is low; the allele is slightly deleterious. c. The mutation rate is high; the allele is highly deleterious. d. The mutation rate is high; the allele is slightly deleterious.

130. DNA methylation a. is a form of transcriptional regulation of gene expression. b. is a form of post-translational regulation of gene expression. c. is a form of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression. d. none of the above 131. Which type of mutation has the highest rate of occurrence in humans? a. insertions b. deletions c. duplications d. point mutations 132. Scientist studying high-elevation adaptations in Tibetans discovered that the EPAS1 allele favored at high elevations first appeared in the Denisovan genome and entered the human genome when Denisovan and ancestral Tibetans interbred. This is an example of a. genetic hitchhiking. b. introgression. c. incomplete lineage sorting. d. linkage disequilibrium.

133. The genetic component of variance for narrow sense heritability includes a. additive effects. b. dominance effects. c. G × E interactions. d. a and b e. a, b, and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 134. In a population of infinite size, which statement accurately describes the eventual fate of a new beneficial

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ch 5 - 8 allele? a. If it is dominant, it will reach fixation; if it is recessive, it will rise to high frequency but not reach fixation. b. If it is dominant it will rise to high frequency but will not reach fixation; if it is recessive, it will reach fixation. c. Since it is advantageous, it will reach fixation regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive. d. Regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive, it will rise to high frequency but not reach fixation.

135. Which of the following statements is true about mitochondrial DNA? a. Humans inherit mitochondrial DNA from both parents. b. Mitochondrial mutations occur at different rates in different ethnic groups. c. The time to coalescence for mitochondrial DNA was more than 5 million years. d. Scientists have a complete record of the mitochondrial DNA for every human alive today.

136. Which of the following type of mutation cannot be inherited by animals? a. somatic mutation b. germline mutation c. point mutation d. frameshift mutation 137. The graph below plots survival versus birth weight for human babies. What type of selection is operating?

a. stabilizing b. disruptive c. directional d. negative frequency-dependent 138. Which of the following statements best describes how genetic information stored in DNA is transformed into a product? a. Genes are translated into mRNA, which is then transcribed into proteins.

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ch 5 - 8 b. Genes are transcribed into mRNA, which is then translated into proteins. c. Genes are translated into proteins, which are then transformed into mRNA.

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ch 5 - 8 d. RNA polymerase is transcribed into mRNA, which is then translated into proteins.

139. Which of the following is/are true regarding genetic distance among populations? a. Genetic distance increases as the time populations are separated increases. b. Genetic distance increases faster in smaller populations. c. Genetic distance increases faster in larger populations. d. a and b e. a and c 140. Which of the following statements is/are correct? a. MicroRNAs bind DNA and block transcription. b. MicroRNAs bind mRNA and block translation. c. MicroRNAs bind ribosomal RNA and block translation. d. all of the above 141. Which of the following is involved in pre-transcriptional gene regulation? a. histones b. microRNA c. DNA methylation d. alternative splicing 142. A quantitative trait locus is a. a section of DNA that regulates the expression of a gene. b. a genetic mutation responsible for a certain disease. c. a change in the phenotype produced by a single genotype. d. a stretch of DNA correlated with variation in a phenotypic trait.

143. If A1 represents an allele at one locus and B1 represents an allele at another locus, what is a. the expected frequency of A1B1 individuals if the two loci are segregating independently b. the observed frequency of individuals with A1 and B1 c. all possible combinations of the A and B alleles d. the frequency of A1 and B1 in the population 144. Horizontal gene transfer a. can occur via the transfer of plasmids. b. can be beneficial to the organism. c. is more common in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes. d. a and b e. a, b, and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 145. How might population structure affect evolution?

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ch 5 - 8 a. increases the opportunity for selection to change allele frequencies b. decreases the opportunity for selection to change allele frequencies c. increases the opportunity for drift to change allele frequencies d. decreases the opportunity for drift to change allele frequencies 146. The codon TCA codes for serine. If a new mutation occurred that replaced the "A" with a "T," this mutation would be , and its fate would most likely be determined by .

a. nonsynonymous; genetic drift b. nonsynonymous; natural selection c. synonymous; genetic drift d. synonymous; natural selection 147. Which of the following statements about linkage disequilibrium is false? a. Physical linkage is required for two loci to be in a state of linkage disequilibrium. b. Linkage disequilibrium is a statistical state detected when two loci segregate independently. c. Linkage disequilibrium is a transient state that can disappear with genetic recombination. d. A new mutation first exists in a state of perfect, chromosome-wide linkage disequilibrium.

148. How does "random mating" affect population genetics studies? a. Random mating only relates to the locus of interest, so sexual selection often does not affect population genetics studies. b. Individuals never have a strong mate preference, so they frequently mate with any "random" individual.

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ch 5 - 8 c. Individuals always have a strong mate preference, so population genetics studies are almost always biased.

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ch 5 - 8 d. none of the above 149. The number of possible combinations of paternal and maternal chromosomes is a. 2. b. 23. c. 223. d. 2 × 23.

150. The selection differential for a quantitative trait is . Assuming heritability is the same in all cases, a larger selection differential . a. the amount that the mean of the trait changes in the next generation; means there was more change in the trait between generations b. the difference between the mean for the trait in the original population and the mean of those individuals that reproduced; means there will be more change in the trait in the next generation c. the difference between the mean for the trait in the original population and the mean of those individuals that reproduced; means there will be less change in the trait in the next generation d. the amount that the mean of the trait changes in the next generation; means there was less change in the trait between generations 151. Organisms benefit from having homologous pairs of chromosomes because a. if a mutation occurs, only the functional copy will be passed on to offspring. b. a deleterious allele can be masked by the presence of a functional copy. c. possessing two copies of chromosomes enables cells to more easily divide. d. genetic variation is introduced into gametes through independent assortment.

152. Estimates of FST measure a. differences between tree topologies. b. gene flow between populations. c. genetic drift in alleles. d. ratios of substitutions.

153. Which chromosome is the BRCA1 gene located on? a. 2 b. 17 c. 23 d. X 154. How do bacteria and archaea pass on genetic information to the next generation? a. copying their chromosome and then dividing b. dividing their chromosome into four daughter cells Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 c. going through the process of mitosis d. passing plasmids to other bacteria via conjugation

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ch 5 - 8 155. If chromosomes were passed down unchanged from generation to generation, then this state would best be described as a. linkage equilibrium. b. linkage disequilibrium. c. broad sense heritability. d. physical linkage.

156. Grouped together, paralogs form a a. gene family. b. gene tree. c. molecular clock. d. synapomorphy.

157. Gene trees can be used to estimate times of coalescence for a. only closely related alleles in a population. b. only distantly related alleles in a population. c. all populations where a single individual had the ancestral allele. d. all possible pairwise combinations of different alleles in a population.

158. The presence of a mRNA transcript of a gene in a cell means that a. translation of the gene has occurred. b. transcription of the gene has occurred. c. a and b d. none of the above 159. The frequency of a slightly deleterious allele maintained at an equilibrium frequency by mutation-selection balance would be higher a. if the mutation rate is high. b. if the mutation rate is low. c. if the selection coefficient is high. d. if the population size is small.

160. If VG×E > 0, a. there is genetic variation for phenotypic plasticity. b. phenotypic plasticity is at least partially heritable. c. genotypes would need to be grown in different environments to achieve a true estimate of narrow sense heritability. d. all of the above e. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 161. If the heritability of a trait in a population is low,

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ch 5 - 8 a. few individuals have the trait. b. most of the phenotypic variation for the trait in the population is due to environmental differences experienced by individuals. c. most of the phenotypic variation for the trait in the population is due to genetic differences among individuals. d. there are no genes that code for the trait. e. b and d 162. An important limit of molecular phylogenetics is that a. DNA sequences hold little evolutionary relevant information. b. they can only compare living and recently extinct species. c. only closely related species can be compared with molecular phylogenies. d. they can only compare species that went extinct more than 100,000 years ago.

163. Which of the following statements is not true about lentiviruses? a. The viruses infect mammals like cats, horses, and primates. b. They typically infect by invading certain types of white blood cells. c. Lentiviruses are a monophyletic group consisting of HIV and SIV. d. HIV is most closely related to strains of lentivirus found in monkeys and apes.

164. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the different types of alleles? a. Additive alleles yield the same effect regardless of the number of alleles present. b. Dominant alleles yield the same effect regardless of the number of alleles present. c. Recessive alleles yield the same effect regardless of the number of alleles present. d. a and c e. a, b, and c 165. The heritability of a trait describes a. the proportion of phenotypic variation in the population that is due to genetic differences between individuals. b. whether selection on a trait will result in evolutionary change. c. the proportion of an individual's phenotype that is due to its genotype. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 166. Why was Charles II of Spain, of the Hapsburg dynasty, called el hechizado, the "hexed"? a. He could never win a war. b. It was believed that his ill health was a product of sorcery. c. He was the offspring of inbreeding. d. all of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 167. In a population of butterflies that has two alleles at a locus for spots, no spots (N) and spots (S), there are

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ch 5 - 8 20 individuals with the NN genotype, 40 with the NS genotype, and 40 with the SS genotype. What is the frequency of N in the population? a. 0.4 b. 0.2 c. 0.6 d. 0.8 e. none of the above 168. What is a nucleotide? a. the structural unit of proteins b. the structural unit of DNA and RNA c. one of four nitrogen-containing molecules d. a double-stranded, helical molecule 169. The synonymous substitution rate is often assumed to represent a. the rate of evolution by natural selection. b. the rate of evolution by genetic drift. c. the strength of purifying selection. d. the rate of adaptive evolution.

170. Scientists have used FST outliers to a. develop a hypothesis regarding selection for the lactose tolerance allele, LCT*P. b. identify genes EPAS1 and EGLN1 as genes associated with high-elevation adaptations. c. explain why the BRCA1 gene has undergone positive selection. d. all of the above 171. BRCA1, Brca1, brca1, and PIGBRCA1 are examples of a. homoplasy. b. microsatellites. c. orthologs. d. paralogs.

172. Which of the following is true regarding the relative importance of drift and selection? a. Populations are large and well mixed, so natural selection is more important. b. Populations are networks of small groups that occasionally exchange alleles, so genetic drift is more important. c. Most of the molecular variation in genomes does not influence phenotypes, so genetic drift is more important. d. none of the above; scientists continue to debate the relative importance of drift and selection Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 173. A mosquito that has the genotype Ester1Ester1 is considered

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ch 5 - 8 a. homozygous dominant; diploid b. heterozygous; haploid c. homozygous; diploid d. heterozygous; diploid 174. What is/are the mechanism(s) by which stress can influence gene expression? a. producing hormones that bind to regulatory regions of genes b. triggering changes in the coiling of DNA around histones c. causing mutations that change the DNA sequence in a gene d. a and b e. a, b, and c 175. Changes to the structure of a protein can affect the protein's ability to a. catalyze chemical reactions. b. respond to signal molecules. c. carry information from one cell to another. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 176. Studies show that despite causing a significant risk of hereditary breast cancer, the BRCA1 gene has undergone strong positive selection. One hypothesis for this is that a. BRCA1 mutations prevent viruses from using human cellular machinery to replicate. b. mutated BRCA1 genes provided some resistance to diseases like malaria. c. the BRCA1 gene is on the same chromosome as the gene that controls lactose tolerance. d. mutations in tumor-suppressor genes are usually favored by natural selection.

177. Which process would oppose natural selection of a favorable combination of alleles? a. disruptive selection b. linkage disequilibrium c. phenotypic plasticity d. recombination 178. Which of the following examples illustrates phenotypic plasticity? a. Humans are almost always born with two eyes regardless of how much food was available to the mother. b. Individuals with two copies of the HMGA2 allele grow taller than individuals with only one copy. c. Paired chromosomes exchange genetic material, leading to gametes with unique combinations of DNA. d. Children with access to adequate nutrition can grow taller than children who are malnourished.

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ch 5 - 8 179. Mutations can affect an organism's phenotype without altering the protein-coding sequence by influencing a. when a protein is made.

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ch 5 - 8 b. where a protein is made. c. the amount of protein made. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 180. Which of the following would be a useful proxy for fitness? a. probability of survival to reproductive age b. number of offspring produced by an individual during a specific season c. probability of survival of offspring d. a and b e. a, b, and c 181. An example of a phenotype is a. homozygous; Ester1Ester1

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b. heterozygous; EsterEster c. esterase production; Ester1Ester d. esterase production; Ester1

182. You are studying the source of a new virus that has recently infected humans. You suspect that the virus was transferred from other primates (they exhibit a similar infection), specifically, chimpanzees, gorillas, or orangutans. You sample blood from several infected humans and sequence some viral genes. You then build a phylogenetic tree with the human sequences and all the known strains from each primate. Draw a hypothetical phylogenetic tree that would suggest that the virus came from gorillas and that this transfer occurred twice independently. Label chimpanzee sequences (c), gorilla (g), orangutans (o), and humans (h).

183. The graph below depicts the change in frequency for an advantageous allele in two different populations, both of infinite size. The strength of selection is the same in both populations.

(a) What type of allele is this? Explain how you know. (b) Why does the frequency of the allele in one of the populations rise faster than the frequency in the other Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 population? (c) If given enough time, will the allele become fixed in each of these populations?

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ch 5 - 8 184. Transcription factors and hormones can both influence gene expression. Describe how they differ.

185. Contrast evolution by natural selection with evolution by genetic drift.

186. Below you see graphs that depict the change in frequency of a neutral allele in four populations that differ in size. Which population would you predict is the smallest?

187. This is a true story. A gastroenterologist from Lafayette, LA was accused of infecting his girlfriend with HIV by injecting her with a syringe containing HIV-infected blood from one of his patients. The victim (the girlfriend) claimed that the doctor injected her during an argument. However, the victim was also a nurse and so conceivably may have had contact with HIV-infected blood through her job. Given below is a phylogenetic tree constructed using HIV sequences from the victim (denoted with a V in the label), HIV sequences from the patient whose blood was allegedly in the syringe that the doctor injected into the victim (denoted by a P in the label), and HIV sequences representing much of the diversity of HIV strains from the Lafayette area during the time of the incident (denoted by LA in the label). Is the tree consistent with the prosecution's case that the doctor injected the victim with HIV-infected blood from his patient? Why or why not?

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ch 5 - 8

188. A researcher performs an experiment on fruit flies to monitor the change in allele frequency of an allele called A. She starts with 24 populations, each with an initial starting frequency for A of 0.5. Flies are maintained for ten generations by transferring the offspring from each generation to a new vial, where they produce the next generation. For half of the populations she randomly selects 20 flies to transfer, while for the other half she randomly selects 200 flies to transfer. After ten generations she collects the following allele frequency data: Treatment 1: 0.55, 0.6, 0.2, 0.9, 0.45, 0.35, 0.1, 0.65, 0.65. 0.55, 0.75, 0.35 Treatment 2: 0.85, 0.8, 0.75, 0.8, 0.75, 1.0, 0.8, 0.85, 0.9, 0.8, 0.85, 0.8 What is a plausible explanation for the differences between the treatments? Please make sure to explain your logic.

189. Please describe two factors that would increase the likelihood of fixing a beneficial allele in a population of finite size.

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ch 5 - 8 190. In 2002, Trask et al. published a study showing that a high frequency of HIV transmissions in Lusaka,

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ch 5 - 8 Zambia occurred between marriage partners. Specifically, they studied a cohort of married couples where, at the beginning of the study, one partner was infected and the other was not. Later, the uninfected partner became infected. If you were doing this study, how could you use phylogenetic methods to determine whether the newly infected individual was likely infected by his/her partner? Briefly describe your study design and results that would support and results that would refute (you can use drawings if you wish) the partner-partner transmission scenario.

191. Why would bacteria that live in hosts have smaller genomes than free-living bacteria?

192. Michael Lynch and his colleagues demonstrated in yeast that mutations occur rarely—in fact, a single yeast cell may not experience a single point mutation in its genome. How can we reconcile the low rate of mutation with the fact that mutation is the engine that drives evolution?

193. The graph below shows results of two simulations, both depicting the rise in frequency of a beneficial allele in a population of infinite size. The selection coefficient and the starting frequency are the same, but in one simulation the beneficial allele is dominant and in the other it is recessive. Neither allele is fixed by 500 generations.

(a) Which simulation shows results for a dominant and which shows results for a recessive allele? How can you tell? (b) Neither of the alleles reaches fixation by 500 generations. If given enough time, will both of these alleles reach fixation in the population? Why or why not?

194. Consider selection on a quantitative trait such as height. Please graph a fitness function (fitness on the y axis; height on the x axis) for each of the following types of selection: directional, stabilizing, and disruptive.

195. Please explain why the average rate of evolution differs between introns and exons, and why this is important for choosing genetic markers to be used in phylogeny construction.

196. What is the working hypothesis for the origin of lactose intolerance? What evidence supports this hypothesis?

197. Discuss the effectiveness of genetic drift and natural selection in small versus large populations. Please be sure to explain why each process is stronger or weaker depending on the population size.

198. Earth's biotic and abiotic environments are changing rapidly due, in part, to human activities. For example, Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 the introduction of non-native invasive species into new habitats and climate change highlight two ways in which humans are altering the environment experienced by other species. Some species will probably adapt to

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ch 5 - 8 these changes, while others may not. Considering the processes of mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift, comment on the likelihood of adaptation to environmental change for species that have small population sizes versus species with large population sizes. At a minimum, a fully correct answer will incorporate all three of these processes into the answer.

199. What effect does each type of selection, directional, stabilizing, and disruptive, have on the mean and variance of the trait in the next generation?

200. You are studying a population of 100 flowers that has two alleles at a locus for flower color, blue (B) and green (G). There are 15 individuals with the BB genotype, 70 individuals with the BG genotype, and 15 individuals with the GG genotype. (a) What are the allele frequencies of B and G in the starting population? Show your calculations. (b) Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Show your calculations. (c) Given the results of part b and the distribution of genotypes, offer a hypothesis that could explain the results.

Explain your reasoning.

201. How is linkage disequilibrium used as a tool for determining the genetic basis of complex phenotypic traits?

202. Explain how landscape genetics can influence the evolution of populations.

203. Describe what information can be gleaned from gene trees created from within population sampling compared to. gene trees created from sampling individuals from different populations or species.

204. Why might an endangered species, whose population numbers are already low, be even more threatened to extinction because of inbreeding?

205. Discuss the importance of somatic and germline mutations for evolution.

206. Describe how incomplete lineage sorting caused confusion about the phylogeny of great apes and how the confusion was resolved.

207. Please explain why synonymous sites typically evolve faster than nonsynonymous sites.

208. As a result of warming climate, most butterfly species in California mature 24 days sooner than they did 30 years ago. (a) Please describe a scenario that would account for this change through phenotypic plasticity. (b) Please describe a scenario that would account for this change through evolution by natural selection.

209. The graphs below show the results of simulations of the effect of selection on deleterious alleles.

Population size is infinite in both simulations, and the starting frequency and the strength of selection are the same.

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ch 5 - 8

(a) Based on the shape of the curves, why do the results of the simulations differ? Explain your answer. (b) The allele in the second simulation is not eliminated entirely from the population. Would this change if the population was finite in size? Why or why not?

210. You are studying directional selection on neck length in two giraffe populations. Below you can see data on neck length (in inches) of the whole population and breeding parents for each of the two populations.

(a) Calculate the selection differential for each population. Show your work.

You also have data on the length of necks for parents and their offspring (offspring corresponding to each midparent listed in the adjacent cell).

(b) Describe how you would use this data to calculate narrow sense heritability.

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ch 5 - 8 (c) Based on parts a and b, in which population would you expect to see the largest evolutionary change in neck length in the next generation? Explain your answer.

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ch 5 - 8 211. You are studying the relationships among a group of ten cichlid fishes that have speciated very recently (say, the last 5000 years). Would you choose to use intron or exon sequences in your phylogenetic analysis?

Explain your answer.

212. Agree or disagree with the following statement and explain your answer: If a trait such as height has high narrow sense heritability (say 0.7), this means that genetics is more important than environment in determining the height of any given individual.

213. Please critique the following statement: a single gene codes for a single protein.

214. Each graph below shows the phenotype produced by three different genotypes in different environmental conditions (each line is a genotype). For each graph write "plasticity" or "no plasticity" depending on whether the graph depicts phenotypic plasticity. Also, write "G × E" or "no G × E" depending on whether the graph depicts a genotype by environment interaction.

215. Describe one reason histone proteins are important in cells.

216. Please explain why homoplasy is particularly problematic in the construction of molecular phylogenies from DNA sequence data.

217. A distribution of coalescent events for a population can be predicted from an estimated population size and randomly generated phylogenetic trees. What are ways for a population to violate this prediction?

218. The graph below depicts the rise in resistance to warfarin in a rat population. Notice that after reaching a peak of 100% resistance, resistance in the population declined. Please provide a plausible evolutionary explanation for this.

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ch 5 - 8

219. Compare two examples of genetic drift: the genetic bottleneck and the founder effect.

220. Stalk-eyed flies are so named because their eyes are situated at the end of long stalks extending away from their head. Stalk length is a quantitative trait that is variable in populations. Describe the steps you would need to take in order to find quantitative trait loci linked to differences in eye stalk length.

221. Considering the principles of mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift, do you expect adaptive evolution to occur more rapidly in small or large populations? What about nonadaptive evolution? For each answer, please explain your reasoning.

222. Height is a quantitative trait, meaning that genes at several loci contribute to the phenotype. Does this mean that any two individuals in a population that differ in height also differ in the alleles they carry?

223. Compare and contrast how genetic variation is created in eukaryotes versus bacteria and archaea.

224. Please describe a scenario where selection occurs on a trait, but there is no evolutionary change.

225. A few years ago, the avian influenza virus (H5N1) swept from Asia, across Russia, to Europe. Nigeria was the first African country to report detection of the virus in chickens. The phylogeny below depicts the relationships between H5N1 from Nigeria and samples from other parts of Asia and Europe. Samples from Nigeria are labeled either as Lagos or northern Nigeria. Given the phylogeny below, what is the minimum number of times H5N1 was introduced to Nigeria?

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ch 5 - 8

226. You are studying the effect of directional selection on body height in three populations (a, b, and c) below.

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ch 5 - 8

(a) What is the selection differential? Show your calculation. (b) Which population has the highest narrow sense heritability for height? Explain your answer. (c) If you examined the offspring in the next generation in each population, which population would have the highest mean height? Why? 227. Given the warming climate, you are interested in how seed production of a certain plant species is affected by temperature. In particular, you are interested in whether seed production shows a plastic response to temperature and, if so, whether there is the possibility for adaptive evolution of phenotypic plasticity in response to climate change. Please describe the steps that would be needed to demonstrate that there is the capacity for adaptive evolution in the population you are studying.

228. How could the presence or absence of a transcription factor in a gene's environment affect the expression of that gene?

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ch 5 - 8 229. Please contrast the "out of Africa" model of human evolution with the "multiregional" model.

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ch 5 - 8 230. Explain the four assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem.

231. Each graph below depicts reaction norms for three different genotypes reared in different environments. In which case(s) is/are there a capacity for phenotypic plasticity to further evolve (you can assume that graphs for parents and their offspring would be the same)? Explain your answer.

232. Each of us is genetically unique. Describe two processes that ensure that your future full sibling is going to be genetically different from you, even though you have the same parents.

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ch 5 - 8 Answer Key 1. b 2. e 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. e 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 24. a

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ch 5 - 8 25. b 26. d 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. e 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. e 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 48. a

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ch 5 - 8 49. b 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. a 55. e 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. e 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. a 70. d 71. b 72. c Test 73. aBank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 74. a 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. d 83. c 84. c 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. b 89. c 90. c 91. d 92. d 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 97. d

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ch 5 - 8 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. e 102. c 103. a 104. f 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. b 109. e 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. d 115. a 116. c 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. d 127. d 128. b 129. d 130. a 131. d 132. b 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. a 137. a 138. b 139. d 140. b 141. a 142. d 143. a 144. d 145. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 146. c

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ch 5 - 8 147. a 148. a 149. c 150. b 151. b 152. b 153. b 154. a 155. b 156. a 157. d 158. b 159. a 160. d 161. b 162. b 163. c 164. b 165. d 166. b 167. a 168. b 169. b 170. b Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 5 - 8 172. d 173. c 174. d 175. e 176. a 177. d 178. d 179. e 180. e 181. c 182.

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ch 5 - 8 195.

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ch 9 - 12 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following does not support Hoekstra's hypothesis for the evolution of coat color in oldfield mice? a. Blending into the background reduced predation rate in both beach and mainland habitats. b. Predation rates of dark clay models in beach habitats were higher relative to white models. c. Predation rates of light models in mainland habitats were higher relative to dark models. d. Camouflage increased predation rate in both beach and mainland habitats.

2. Which of the following is true of ciliary opsins (c-opsins) and rhabdomeric opsins (r-opsins)? a. Only vertebrates have c-opsins. b. Only certain invertebrates have r-opsins. c. Vertebrates have c-opsins and r-opsins. d. Some invertebrates have r-opsins and c-opsins. e. c and d f. none of the above 3. The evolutionary conflict of interest between siblings competing for parental care is a. parent–offspring conflict. b. parental conflict. c. offspring–offspring conflict. d. sexual conflict.

4. Which of the following does not support the hypothesis that evolution likely occurs over very long timescales? a. The strength of natural selection from generation to generation is very weak. b. The average beak size of the medium ground finch increased after one generation. c. There are gradual changes in the fossil record. d. all of the above 5. Which of the following was necessary for the evolution of beak size on Daphne Major? a. Beak size had to be at least partially determined by the additive effects of alleles. b. Characteristics of the available seeds had to change from year to year. c. Individuals with smaller beaks had to grow larger beaks during drought years. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 6. Which of the following is true of FST, a measure of genetic distance between populations? a. FST increases faster when subpopulations are small.

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ch 9 - 12 b. FST is useful to quantify how dramatically populations have diverged in their respective allele frequencies.

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ch 9 - 12 c. When FST = 0, allele frequencies are approximately the same from place to place. d. all of the above 7. Which of the following is an incorrect match between animal and eye type? a. flatworms—light-sensitive spots b. insects—compound eye c. scallops—light-sensitive spots d. cephalopods—camera eye 8. Some species of male water striders forcibly copulate with females. In these species, males are often equipped with exaggerated grasping structures, while females have structures that obstruct the male's grip. Such a situation could arise through a. the Zahavi principle. b. sensory bias. c. intrasexual selection. d. antagonistic coevolution.

9. In a comparison of winter-white and winter-brown snowshoes, a. FST in the polymorphic zone is generally very high. b. FST for the region containing the Agouti gene is very high. c. In winter-brown hares, expression of Agouti increased in the fall. d. FST did not identify any genes responsible for coat color.

10. Cryptic female choice a. is a type of sperm competition. b. allows females to decide which sperm they use to fertilize their eggs. c. is a type of sexual selection. d. a and b e. b and c 11. How might complex adaptions evolve in bacteria? a. Viruses can move genes from one individual to another. b. Bacteria can exchange plasmid genes via sex pili. c. Bacteria can take up exogenous DNA from their environment. d. b and c e. a, b, and c 12. Which of the following was the earliest step in the evolution of the vertebrate eye lens? a. A patch of tissue folds inward into a cup beneath unpigmented skin.

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ch 9 - 12 b. The cup, the eye, becomes spherical and evolves greater acuity. c. Unpigmented skin above a cup of tissue becomes transparent and can focus an image.

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ch 9 - 12 d. Light-sensitive regions bulge outward to the sides of the head.

13. Why are there no gigantic insects alive today? a. There is no niche for gigantic insects. b. There are gigantic insects in remote regions of the tropics; we just have not discovered them. c. The concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere is too low to make gigantic body size in insects efficient. d. There is no evidence of gigantic insects in the past, so there can not be any alive today due to constraining evolution.

14. How does the development of a mouse leg differ from the development of a fly leg? a. In a mouse leg, the proximal structures develop first. b. In a mouse leg, the gene Hh controls development. c. In a fly leg, the proximal segments develop first. d. In a fly leg, the gene Shh controls development.

15. What did surgical removal of ovaries in brown anolis lizards demonstrate? a. Females without ovaries grow faster because they have free resources to invest in growth. b. Control females (with ovaries) used resources to invest in eggs. c. There is a trade-off between growth and reproduction in brown anolis females. d. a and b only e. a, b, and c 16. Which is the likely order of evolution of snake venom?

I. diversification of venom genes II. duplication of defensin gene III. single copy of defensin gene IV. gene recruitment in venom gland a. III – II – IV – I b. III – II – I – IV c. IV – II – III – I d. IV – I – III – II 17. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding opsin evolution? a. The common ancestor of jellyfish and humans had only one type of opsin. b. In deuterostomes, r-opsins evolved into the primary photoreceptors. c. The earliest bilaterians had three types of opsins. d. none of the above 18. After studying medium ground finch families from year to year, the Grants determined that beak size (length and depth) was highly heritable. This is primarily due to Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 a. the environment.

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ch 9 - 12 b. additive alleles. c. epistatic alleles. d. dominant alleles.

19. Why do sloths have eight cervical vertebrae, even though most mammals have seven? a. because they have low metabolic rates b. because they are arboreal and require extra flexibility in their neck c. because they are a more basal mammal taxon with different metabolic constraints d. all of the above e. none of the above 20. Which of the following support(s) the hypothesis that miscarriages may be favored by natural selection for embryos that are unlikely to survive? a. In humans, miscarriages can reduce nine months of investment to a month or less for embryos unlikely to survive. b. Many human embryos with abnormal chromosome numbers result in miscarriages in the first trimester. c. Most embryos with normal chromosome numbers continue to term. d. all of the above 21. Which of the following is/are part of the life history of an organism? a. age at first reproduction b. duration and schedule of reproduction c. number of offspring per reproductive episode d. all of the above 22. Evidence of glyphosate as a potent agent of selection on weed populations includes a. independent mutations of a single amino acid in the EPSPS gene in ryegrass and goosegrass species, enabling plants to survive. b. gene duplication in Palmer amaranth resulting in extra copies of the EPSPS gene so that enough enzyme is produced, enabling plants to survive. c. a and b d. none of the above 23. Some evolutionary biologists argue that changes in the regulation of genes rather than changes in the coding sequence are more likely to be involved in adaptation. Which of the following statements forms part of the basis for this argument? a. Coding sequence changes are constrained because most genes perform multiple functions. b. Regulatory mutations are more likely to occur than coding sequence mutations. c. Regulatory changes likely affect all processes that a gene is involved in.

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ch 9 - 12 d. all of the above

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ch 9 - 12 24. What condition would increase the chances of a particular trait evolving by natural selection in response to a change in the environment? a. a low mutation rate for the trait b. high heritability of the trait c. a small population size d. less variation in fitness 25. In wattled jacanas, a. there is a female-biased operational sex ratio. b. males fight over access to females. c. females recycle faster than males because they abandon eggs while males take on paternal care. d. a and b e. a and c 26. A quantitative trait locus (QTL) a. is a stretch of DNA correlated with variation in a phenotypic trait. b. is a gene locus that is solely responsible for a single phenotype. c. is a stretch of DNA that contains genes or is linked to genes that contribute to population differences in a phenotype. d. a and c e. b and c 27. Meganeura, which lived around 300 million years ago, was a. a dragonfly-like insect. b. the size of a seagull. c. the size of modern insects. d. a and b e. a and c 28. Male and female penduline tits cooperate to build nests and bring food to their young, but exhibit conflict over who provides care the longest. This is an example of a. parent–offspring conflict. b. parental conflict. c. sexual conflict. d. a and b e. b and c 29. Which of the following statements is true regarding monogamy? a. Sexual monogamy is more common than social monogamy. b. Sexual monogamy is common in 90% of mammal species.

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ch 9 - 12 c. Social monogamy is when each male mates only with a single female, and vice versa.

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ch 9 - 12 d. Social monogamy is more common than sexual monogamy.

30. If a population of gallflies occurred in an area where birds were present but parasitoid wasps were absent, which type of selection is most likely to affect gall size? a. stabilizing b. negative frequency-dependent c. directional d. disruptive 31. The Eda gene, which regulates growth of lateral armor plates in stickleback fishes, a. codes for more armored plates in the recessive allele than the wild type. b. is hard to study because the recessive condition affects surrounding tissue. c. has variants responsible for much of the variation in the number of lateral plates each stickleback grows. d. is easy to study because the recessive condition affects surrounding tissue.

32. In the dung beetle Onthophagus acuminatus, weapons are shown to be honest signals because a. they can easily be faked. b. there is a trade-off in resource allocation between the weapons and eye size. c. artificial selection for horns shows correlated increase in eye size. d. they are not honest signals.

33. The difference in beak size between offspring of finches that survived the drought on Daphne Major and the population average before the drought is a. the response to selection (R). b. the selection differential (S). c. heritability (H2). d. the mutation rate (μ).

34. An imperfection of the vertebrate eye is a. a blind spot. b. photoreceptors pointing away from the light. c. inability to perceive color. d. a and b e. a, b, and c f. none of the above 35. Which of the following correctly describes the elements of DNA? a. Some regions encode proteins. b. Some regions encode RNA. Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 c. Some regions bind repressors or transcription factors.

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ch 9 - 12 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 36. The gene recruitment for venom production a. evolved independently in each lineage of venomous snakes. b. evolved in the ancestor of snakes. c. evolved in the ancestor of snakes and their closest living relatives. d. evolved in the ancestor of snakes and mammals.

37. Goldenrod gall size varies because of a. fluids secreted by gallfly larvae that change gene expression of cells in the goldenrod plant. b. inherited differences among gallflies. c. inherited differences among goldenrod plants. d. a and b e. all of the above 38. Which of the following is an example of polygyny? a. Male and female poison dart frogs remain loyal after picking a mate. b. Male elephant seals mate with many females. c. Female wattled jacanas may mate with several males. d. Male and female bonobos do not form pair bonds during mating.

39. What does the following figure on primate longevity and fertility reveal?

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ch 9 - 12 a. Humans tend to live years after their last live birth.

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ch 9 - 12 b. Monkeys and apes do not live long after their last live birth. c. Humans go through menopause because they live years after their last live birth. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 40. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding antagonistic pleiotropy? a. The net fitness effect of an allele experiencing antagonistic pleiotropy may depend on the environment. b. Alleles experiencing antagonistic pleiotropy should always be strongly selected against. c. Antagonistic pleiotropy results when a trait is influenced by more than one gene. d. none of the above 41. Crystallins evolved through a. gene recruitment from heat-shock proteins. b. gene recruitment from GPCR proteins. c. heat-shock protein gene duplication and subsequent mutation. d. an unknown mechanism, but we know they are related to heat-shock proteins.

42. In laboratory experiments, short-lived nematodes outcompete long-lived nematodes. This provides evidence that a. natural selection does not favor long life for long life's sake. b. longevity-extending mutations lower early reproductive fitness. c. natural selection favors longer lived organisms. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 43. An extended phenotype a. is a structure constructed by an organism. b. has no noticeable effect on the organism. c. is not a part of the organism. d. a and b e. a and c 44. The evolutionary conflict of interest over the optimal strategy for parental care is a. parent–offspring conflict. b. parental conflict. c. offspring–offspring conflict. d. sexual conflict.

45. Methylation is Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 a. short-term modification of gene expression.

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ch 9 - 12 b. long-term modification of gene expression. c. the addition of methane groups to an enhancer. d. the uncoiling of DNA, making transcription easier.

46. Based on the outcome of previous experiments, if you moved guppies from predator-free streams to predator-rich streams for many generations, which of the following changes is most likely to occur? a. Male fish would mature at larger body size. b. Females would produce more offspring. c. Embryos would be larger. d. all of the above 47. Natural selection favors gallflies that produce intermediate gall sizes. This is an example of a. stabilizing selection. b. sexual selection. c. disruptive selection. d. directional selection.

48. In an experiment on mutations in asexual versus sexual yeast populations, Michael McDonald and colleagues found that a. deleterious mutations could not be uncoupled from beneficial mutations in asexual populations. b. only beneficial mutations were accumulated in asexual populations. c. asexual populations underwent frequent recombination. d. sexual populations could not uncouple beneficial and deleterious alleles.

49. Which of the following is not considered a potential benefit of sexual reproduction? a. Separate beneficial mutations can be brought together in a single individual more rapidly. b. Recombination allows populations to purge deleterious mutations. c. Sex creates variation in offspring, which speeds the evolutionary response to selection. d. Sexual organisms produce twice as many offspring as asexual organisms.

50. Which of the following is not a gene identified in the evolution of maize morphology from a teosinte ancestor? a. teosinte branched 1—represses growth of lateral meristems b. prolamin box binding factor—produces seed storage proteins in kernels c. IFG1—contributes to small body size d. sugary 1—alters properties of starch in kernels 51. Why might Darwin disagree that bat wings and fly legs represent a homology? a. because of the lack of genetic knowledge during his time b. because flies are not vertebrates Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 c. because he could only recognize homology in the anatomy that he could see with the naked eye d. all of the above

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ch 9 - 12 52. Polygyny is a good strategy for males because a. males can produce sperm cheaply, allowing them to fertilize many females. b. males have to compete for access to females. c. females control which sperm they use to fertilize their eggs. d. all of the above 53. The grandmother hypothesis a. explains prolonged post-reproductive life span in women. b. explains that helping grandchildren ultimately raises fitness. c. explains why menopause occurs at the point it does in women's lifespans. d. a and b e. b and c 54. Which of the following is true regarding the metabolism of Escherichia coli? a. E. coli can metabolize citrate in the absence of oxygen. b. E. coli can metabolize citrate in the presence of oxygen. c. E. coli can never metabolize citrate. d. Experimental manipulation has never caused adaptive change to the metabolism of E. coli.

55. The two-fold cost of sex refers to a. the fact that sexual lineages multiply faster than asexual because half of the progeny are capable of producing offspring. b. the fact that in asexual lineages, half of the offspring are males that cannot produce offspring. c. the disadvantages of being a sexual rather than an asexual organism. d. the fact that asexual reproduction halves the rate of replication.

56. Placental mammals differ from marsupial mammals in that a. they carry a developing fetus in a uterus. b. they give birth to live young. c. they lay eggs. d. a and b 57. Which statement helps explain why male pipefishes produce very few sperm? a. Male fitness is limited mostly by the number of eggs they can fertilize. b. Male fitness is limited mostly by the number of eggs they can care for. c. Male fitness is limited mostly by the number of females available for mating. d. none of the above 58. In Lenski's experiments, the key to evolution of citrate feeding in E. coli was the accidental duplication of Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 the citT together with the rnk a. gene; promotor

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ch 9 - 12 b. gene; gene c. promotor; promotor d. promotor; gene 59. How does the genetic toolkit for development compare for mice and flies? a. Homologous microRNAs within the toolkit regulate the Hox genes. b. Mice have four sets of Hox genes compared to one set in flies. c. Corresponding Hox genes from mice and flies are interchangeable. d. a and b e. a and c f. a, b, and c 60. Genomic imprinting a. occurs when certain genes are silenced in egg or sperm. b. results in offspring that express both the maternal and paternal copies of a gene. c. occurs only in humans. d. is when certain genes are silenced via transcription factors.

61. Olfactory receptor evolution provides an example of a. gene duplication; the 855 genes for olfactory receptors belong to the same "gene family." b. gene recruitment; once duplicated, the genes for olfactory receptors likely diverged, taking on new functions. c. promiscuous proteins; the genes duplicated after new functions arose. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 62. A paralog is a(n) , while an ortholog is a(n) . a. homologous gene within a species; analogous gene separated by a speciation event b. homologous gene separated by a speciation event; homologous gene that arises from a duplication event c. homologous gene within a species; homologous gene separated by a speciation event d. analogous gene within a species; homologous gene within a species 63. The gene for snake venom crotamine is most closely related to a. other snake venom genes. b. defensin genes, which are used to fight infections. c. cobra venom factor gene. d. The evolutionary history for crotamine is not known.

64. How does the mother hypothesis explain menopause?

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ch 9 - 12 a. Women need to allocate resources toward the demanding needs of offspring and are more able to do so without more children.

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ch 9 - 12 b. Women who become pregnant at a later age face a threat to reproductive success by potential loss of current offspring. c. Women who become pregnant at a later age face the threat of death during childbirth. d. all of the above 65. A bacterial spore a. is an adaptation coded by a single gene. b. is an adaptation coded by epistatic genes. c. is a complex adaptation coded by a single gene. d. is a complex adaption coded by a regulatory network of genes.

66. Phalaropes are shore birds with brightly colored females and dull colored males. Females are larger than males and compete with each other for access to males. Considering sexual selection theory, which idea(s) below seem(s) most plausible in light of the pattern of sexual dimorphism? a. Females incubate eggs and care for the young. b. Males are choosy. c. Males incubate eggs and care for the young. d. b and c 67. Some evolutionary biologists argue that, overall, regulatory mutations are more likely to result in adaptation than changes in the protein-coding sequence of genes. Considering the logic underlying their argument, in which case below would this expectation not apply to a particular gene involved in adaptation? a. The gene is involved in multiple functions. b. The gene is involved in only one function. c. The gene is expressed in different tissues. d. The protein encoded by the gene performs an important function.

68. In the case of red-collared widowbirds, what evidence suggests that the elaborately long tail of males is an honest signal? a. Males with the longest tails end up with three times more nesting females in their territories than short-tailed birds. b. The tail comes at a cost because it increases drag during flight. c. Males with long tails cannot hold their territories. d. The tail is a fake symbol and does not imply good genes.

69. Which of the following snakes does not produce venom? a. garter snake b. Australian inland taipan c. eyelash viper d. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 70. Some evolutionary biologists have argued that menopause is adaptive based on the mother hypothesis.

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ch 9 - 12 Which statement(s) below help(s) form the logical basis of their argument? a. The risks of childbearing increase with age. b. Older mothers are unlikely to survive until offspring reach independence. c. Remaining fertile detracts from investment in current offspring. d. all of the above 71. The example of the Agouti gene in snowshoe hares shows that a. natural selection can rapidly spread an allele introduced into a species by hybridization. b. the effect of natural selection can change in response to the changing climate. c. a and b d. none of the above 72. Parental conflict continues at the molecular level via a. senescence. b. menopause. c. genomic imprinting. d. Parental conflict can only occur at an organismal level.

73. Tetrapods evolved from a. aquatic invertebrate ancestors. b. terrestrial invertebrate ancestors. c. scratch. d. a and b e. none of the above 74. Why might it be beneficial for a parent to adjust their number of offspring? a. because with the uncertainty of reproduction, a flexible response may be more adaptive b. because daughters always increase the reproductive success of a parent c. the fewer offspring, the more a parent will increase their own fitness (ability to survive) d. all of the above 75. What evidence suggests that c-opsins were present in the common ancestor of all living vertebrates? a. All vertebrates carry c-opsin. b. C-opsins have the same basic molecular shape in all vertebrates. c. C-opsins have the same basic functional pathway in all vertebrates. d. all of the above e. none of the above 76. The Engrailed (En) gene is an example of a(n) a. paralog; it is crucial for defining the posterior portion of the limb bud in mice and for defining the leg Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 disc in flies.

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ch 9 - 12 b. ortholog; it is crucial for defining the posterior portion of the limb bud in mice and for defining the leg disc in flies. c. paralog; it is a homologous gene produced by gene duplication within the fly limb development pathway. d. ortholog; it is a homologous gene produced by gene duplication within the fly limb development pathway.

77. Males of some species have proteins in their ejaculate that cause the female to be less attractive to other males for some period of time. Such a trait probably evolved initially through but could also lead to if remating is beneficial for females. a. male–male competition; sexual conflict and antagonistic coevolution b. male–male competition; female choice c. female choice; sexual conflict and antagonistic coevolution d. runaway selection; female choice 78. The opportunity for selection on a trait is greater when a. individuals have similar reproductive success. b. individual variation in fitness is large. c. the operational sex ratio is biased. d. a and c e. b and c 79. Why did Melander suggest that farmers apply pesticides "poorly" to deal with the San Jose scale insect? a. because some susceptible scales would survive, keeping susceptible genes in the scale population b. because most scale insects do not respond to pesticides c. because this would kill a smaller population of resistant scales d. because few resistant scales would survive, keeping resistant genes out of the scale population e. He did not suggest this. In order for pesticides to work, they must be applied heavily and properly.

80. Given the similar genetic network of developmental genes among bilaterians, what can we say about their common ancestor? a. It may have grown some kind of outgrowth from its body wall. b. It most likely had limbs used in movement. c. It most likely had three pairs of legs, similar to insects. d. none of the above 81. Analysis of allelic diversity in maize demonstrated that by 4400 years ago, maize had lost much of its genetic diversity. This loss of diversity can be explained by a. a genetic bottleneck. b. strong artificial selection.

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ch 9 - 12 c. genetic drift. d. a and b

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ch 9 - 12 e. a, b, and c 82. The trees below present a hypothetical situation where "T" represents the evolution of a male trait that is attractive to females, and "P" represents where the preference in females evolved. Which tree below is consistent with the sensory bias hypothesis?

a. (a) b. (b) c. (c) d. (d) 83. Which of the following is not an example of a direct food benefit that results from female choice? a. the spermatophore presented by male katydids b. sexual cannibalism displayed by female redback spiders c. female weaverbirds choosing males that have already manufactured a nest d. female crickets eating the fleshy hindwings of males 84. If you examine the phylogeny of animals, you would see that a. eyes are not present in the common ancestor of all animals. b. sponges and placozoans have no eyes. c. eyes are found only within the eumetazoans. d. all of the above e. none of the above 85. Snakes evolved about million years ago, and their closest living relatives include a. 60; iguanas and monitor lizards b. 0.1; iguanas and whiptail lizards Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 c. 150; iguanas and monitor lizards

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ch 9 - 12 d. 300; iguanas and crocodiles 86. Which of the following is true regarding senescence? a. Animals may vary in longevity, but the aging processes are similar. b. There is minimal variance in either longevity or the process of aging among animals. c. The aging process differs dramatically among animal species. d. Aging must be explained by different evolutionary forces among different species.

87. Several studies have revealed that the Eda gene fulfills the three necessary conditions for evolution by selection. Which is not one of these conditions? a. functional importance of armor for survival b. extensive among-individual difference in phenotype c. inherited genetic variation underlying phenotype differences d. genetic fixation at the Eda gene 88. Polyandry is a good strategy for females because a. mating with multiple males increases the genetic diversity of their offspring. b. mating with more distantly related males reduces the chances of inbreeding depression in their offspring. c. resisting courtship overtures may come at a higher cost than mating multiple times. d. all of the above 89. How are tetrapod limbs and fish fins developmentally similar? a. Both start out as buds bulging from body wall. b. Hox genes are used to produce both phenotypes. c. Both grow from ectodermal tissue when Hox gene expression ceases. d. a and b e. b and c 90. Muller's ratchet is the idea that accumulate in asexual populations. In such a situation, sex would be beneficial because . a. deleterious mutations; mutation-free genotypes could form through recombination b. deleterious mutations; it provides protection against parasitism c. deleterious mutations; more offspring would be produced and thus some are likely to survive d. beneficial mutations; it would rapidly bring together beneficial mutations from different individuals e. beneficial mutations; it would increase genetic diversity 91. Which of the following statements about venom evolution is accurate? a. The earliest venoms evolved after fangs and other parts of the venom delivery system. b. The earliest venoms evolved before fangs and other parts of the venom delivery system.

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ch 9 - 12 c. All reptiles produce venom even if they do not have fangs or other components of the venom delivery system.

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ch 9 - 12 d. b and c 92. Which of the following is true of the complex eye? a. It is an example of convergent evolution because of the borrowed crystallin genes that evolved independently. b. It is an example of common ancestry because the development of all complex eyes in bilaterians is controlled by the same gene, Pax-6. c. It is an example of deep homology because its growth and development in different lineages result from underlying genetic mechanisms that are inherited from a common ancestor. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 93. The arbitrary choice hypothesis requires a. that the male trait is an honest indicator of the male's overall genetic quality. b. that the male trait that the female prefers is heritable. c. that all offspring of a male with the preferred trait have higher average fitness than the offspring of males without the trait. d. all of the above 94. The field of evo-devo proposes that many major morphological changes result from changes in gene of regulatory genes. The premise for this argument is that these changes . a. expression; will change the outcome of interactions with all genes that regulatory genes interact with b. protein-coding sequence; will change the outcome of interactions with all genes that regulatory genes interact with c. expression; can be compartmentalized and need not interfere with the outcome of all interactions d. protein-coding sequence; can be compartmentalized and need not interfere with the outcome of all interactions 95. Which of the following is a critical assumption of the Trivers-Willard hypothesis? a. Offspring condition depends on the mother's physiological condition. b. Paternity in the population is skewed heavily toward males in best condition. c. Most females in the population mate. d. all of the above e. none of the above 96. Which statement is true regarding the evolution of crystallins? a. They evolved through gene recruitment. b. They evolved from promiscuous proteins. c. They evolved from gene duplication. d. a and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 e. a, b, and c

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ch 9 - 12 97. Two genes that are paralogs a. arose from gene duplication. b. are found in the same genome. c. may perform the same or different functions. d. all of the above e. none of the above 98. What caused the jump in growth of Escherichia coli after 33,000 generations, as shown in the graph below?

a. The introduction of oxygen allowed E. coli to use aerobic respiration, a more efficient metabolic pathway. b. The E. coli adapted to the nutrient-poor medium, feeding on a new source of food. c. Researchers concluded that this lineage of E. coli was contaminated by a citrate-metabolizing species. d. There was not an increase in bacterial growth in this graph; there was an increase in optical density.

99. How does bat wing development differ from other tetrapod limbs? a. The humerus forms first, followed by more distal structures. b. The digits form first, followed by more proximal structures. c. Increased expression of Bmp2 drives more cell division in developing digits. d. Bat wing development does not differ from other tetrapod limbs; there is simple a gene that codes for longer digits.

100. An example of sexual reproduction is a. the runners of a strawberry plant that grow genetically identical offspring. b. the binary fission of a species of bacteria. c. the self-fertilization of a hermaphroditic flower.

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ch 9 - 12 d. the budding of a yeast cell.

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ch 9 - 12 101. What does the following phylogeny suggest?

a. The bilaterian ancestor likely had a nervous system arranged like cnidarians. b. The bilaterian ancestor may have had a diffuse net of nerves.

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ch 9 - 12 c. The evolution of a single nerve cord occurred in the common ancestor of all animals.

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ch 9 - 12 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 102. The populations of the ray-finned teleost fish, Astyanax, that repeatedly colonized underground Mexican caves and evolved the same suite of derived traits in cave after cave is an example of a. deep homology. b. parallel evolution. c. convergent evolution. d. genetic drift.

103. Peahens prefer peacocks with more eyespots on their tail feathers. Which hypothesis do the results depicted in the graph below support?

a. sensory bias hypothesis b. arbitrary choice hypothesis c. good genes hypothesis d. good parent hypothesis 104. If extrinsic mortality is high, a. selection will act more strongly against mutations that negatively affect organisms late in life than those that do so early in life. b. selection will act equally strongly on mutations that negatively affect organisms early in life and late in life. c. organisms are likely to age more rapidly than if extrinsic mortality were low. d. a and c e. b and c 105. In 1977, before the drought on Daphne Major, the average beak depth in the finch population was 9.2 mm.

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ch 9 - 12 Finches that bred successfully during the drought had an average beak depth of 9.7 mm. The difference between these values represents

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ch 9 - 12 a. the response to selection (R). b. the selection differential (S). c. heritability (H2). d. the mutation rate (μ).

106. Which of the following accurately describes the signal cascade in a typical gene regulatory network? a. environmental signal triggers transcription factor; transcription factor binds cis-regulatory element; protein-coding gene activated b. environmental signal binds cis-regulatory element; cis-regulatory element triggers transcription factor; protein-coding gene activated c. environmental signal triggers expression of protein-coding gene; transcription factor binds cisregulatory element; cis-regulatory element activated d. none of the above 107. Which of the following is true regarding the operational sex ratio (OSR)? a. The OSR will be biased if there is equal investment in reproduction between males and females. b. A male-biased OSR occurs when there are more available females for reproduction than receptive males. c. The OSR is never female biased. d. A biased OSR creates an opportunity for selection regarding reproductive traits.

108. How do insects get oxygen? a. through diffusion in their skin b. through spiracles c. through lungs d. through gills 109. Which of the following supports sexual conflict as the selective factor shaping the reproductive organs of ducks? a. About one-third of all matings are forced. b. Females drown from male harassment. c. Males and females form pair bonds during the breeding season. d. a and b e. b and c 110. The "refuge" strategy proposed by Tabashnik to slow the evolution of Bt resistance relies on a. the fact that Bt resistance is involved in a trade-off. b. gene flow between refuge and susceptible populations. c. a and b d. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 111. Male pipefish have a brood pouch in which they carry and protect developing embryos. The gene

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ch 9 - 12 patristacin plays a major role in the formation and function of the pouch. An evolutionary analysis revealed that patristacin is involved in liver and kidney function in all other fish (other male fish do not produce a brood pouch). This is an example of a. gene recruitment. b. irreducible complexity. c. gene duplication. d. antagonistic pleiotropy.

112. Two genes that are orthologs a. are derived from a common ancestral gene. b. arose from gene duplication. c. always perform the same function. d. all of the above e. none of the above 113. Why might NOT a limited diet increase longevity? a. An unlimited diet leads to obesity. b. A limited diet may trigger a stress response that repairs damaged cells. c. A limited diet increases the reproductive capacity of an individual. d. An unlimited diet leads to diabetes.

114. In Näsvall's experiments, the purpose of the mutation to the HisA enzyme in Salmonella was to a. create a promiscuous enzyme that could only synthesize histidine. b. create a promiscuous enzyme with the ability to synthesize histidine and tryptophan. c. create a paralog of a promiscuous enzyme. d. simulate a gene duplication event.

115. Which of the following does not support the hypothesis that the evolution of parasites and hosts occurs in cycles? a. When parasites strike the most common genotypes in the population of their hosts, the hosts reproduce less or even die off. b. When parasites strike the most common genotypes in the population of their hosts, more resistant host genotypes become more common. c. When host genotypes become more common, the most common parasite is no longer well adapted to the most common host genotype. d. Parasite genotypes are unable to exploit new host genotypes, so the cycle of parasite–host relationships ends.

116. Bilateral symmetry in plants a. is a complex adaptation that evolved from developmental regulatory genes. b. may have evolved 70 separate times.

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ch 9 - 12 c. was a key innovation for flowering plants by increasing pollination efficiency.

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ch 9 - 12 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 117. Which living organism experiences menopause? a. chimpanzee b. killer whale c. Drosophila fly d. none of the above 118. Is the fly eye homologous to the mouse eye, or is it convergent? a. homologous because of developmental genes that regulate the complex eye are b. convergent because the fly eye is a compound eye and the mouse eye is a camera eye c. both, depending on the level of development examined d. neither; the two types of eyes cannot be compared 119. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding oldfield mice on Florida's Atlantic Coast and Gulf Coast? i. Light-colored mice on the Atlantic Coast lack the Gulf Coast alleles of Mc1r. ii. Light-colored mice on the Atlantic Coast share a common ancestor with Gulf Coast mice. iii. Light-colored mice evolved independently in the two locations. a. i only b. i and ii only c. i and iii only d. i, ii, and iii 120. How do Igf2 and Igf2r affect parental fitness? a. Igf2 is a growth-promoting gene, which may reduce a mother's fitness. b. Igf2 is a growth-inhibiting gene, which may increase a mother's fitness. c. Igf2r is a growth-inhibiting gene, which may increase a father's fitness. d. Igf2r is a growth-promoting gene, which may increase a mother's fitness.

121. The graph below shows the reproductive success for males of two different species as a function of the number of mates they obtain. For which species would you expect sexual selection on males to be stronger?

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ch 9 - 12

a. species 2; males of species 2 are expected to compete less strongly over access to females b. species 1; males of species 1 are expected to compete less over access to females c. species 2; males of species 2 are expected to compete more strongly over access to females d. species 1; males of species 1 are expected to compete more strongly over access to females 122. Is the following statement true or false, and why? New adaptations do not evolve from scratch. a. False; traits can always arise de novo. b. False; some traits evolve from scratch, and some are modifications of previously existing traits. c. True; new adaptations are modifications of previously existing traits. d. none of the above 123. What did the Grants conclude about how selection acts on the medium ground finches from their long-term study of the birds on Daphne Major? a. The strength of selection varies over time. b. The direction of selection varies over time. c. Beak size should continue to get larger over time. d. a and b e. a and c 124. The detoured nerve in giraffes results from a. the imperfection in complex adaptations. b. the nerves in aquatic vertebrate ancestors. c. natural selection retooling the form and function of characters present in a population. d. all of the above e. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 125. An example of sexually selected ornaments that result from female choice is

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ch 9 - 12 a. the bright yellow collars of male golden-collared manakins. b. the absurdly long forelimbs of male harlequin beetles. c. male elephant seals that are several times larger than females. d. the elaborate horns of red deer stags.

126. Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution on similar body plans? a. placental mole and marsupial mole b. bird wing and butterfly wing c. anteater and numbat d. bat forelimb structure and bird forelimb structure 127. Given the mating systems outlined below, which is most likely to produce sexual conflict? a. A male and a female partner for life. b. Females mate with one individual; males can mate with multiple individuals. c. Females and males both mate with multiple individuals. d. none of the above 128. In general, when sexual selection is strong for one sex and weak for the other, we can predict that members of the sex subject to strong sexual selection will be , and members of the sex subject to weak sexual selection will be . a. choosy; competitive b. aggressive; passive c. competitive; showy d. competitive; choosy 129. Which of the following represent(s) homologies? a. the forelimb structure of vertebrate wings, hands, and flippers b. the limb structure of bilaterians c. Hox genes in mice and flies d. a and b e. a and c 130. Almost all mammals have seven cervical vertebrae. There is a fitness disadvantage to mammals that have a different number of cervical vertebrae; for example, in humans, fetuses with an abnormal number of cervical vertebrae are often stillborn, and such children are more prone to pediatric cancers. This is an example of a. convergent evolution. b. phenotypic plasticity. c. constraining evolution. d. pleiotropy Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 131. What does the following phylogeny of animals suggest?

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ch 9 - 12

a. Dorsal-ventral patterning and a single nerve cord may have evolved in three independent lineages. b. The common ancestor of invertebrates had a single nerve cord. c. Arthropods have a unique dorsal-ventral pattern.

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ch 9 - 12 d. a and b

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ch 9 - 12 e. none of the above 132. Why are microbes ideal model organisms for evolutionary studies? a. diversity b. rapid reproduction c. slow mutation rate d. a and b e. a, b, and c 133. You are studying aging in two species of fish. You bring them into a common laboratory environment free from factors causing extrinsic mortality and find that species A lives twice as long as species B. What does life history theory suggest about the two species? a. Species B has lower extrinsic mortality in its natural habit than species A. b. Species B reproduces later in life than species A. c. The average age of individuals in wild populations of species B is higher than in species A. d. Species B has higher extrinsic mortality in its natural habitat than species A. 134. Which of the following is not a cost of sexual reproduction? a. Meiosis produces recombinant chromosomes, creating gametes with unique combinations of alleles. b. Males and females must locate each other in order to mate. c. Only half of an individual's alleles are passed on to their offspring. d. Infections can be transmitted sexually.

135. A mating system in which at least some females mate with more than one male is termed a. vivipary b. polygyny c. polygamy d. polyandry

.

136. Female sticklebacks prefer males with brighter red coloration on their belly. Given the results depicted in the graph below, what do females that choose redder males benefit from?

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ch 9 - 12 a. sensory bias b. direct benefits c. good genes d. nuptial gifts 137. Which is true regarding the homologous Hox genes for dorsal-ventral patterning in mice and flies? a. Bmp4 is homologous to Dpp, and both play a role in location of gut formation. b. Chordin is homologous to Bmp4, and both play a role in the location of nervous system formation. c. Bmp4 is homologous to Dpp, and both play a role in the location of nervous system formation. d. Sog is homologous to Chordin, and both play a role in location of gut formation.

138. Which of the following would not have been an advantage for the Grants when studying natural selection in the wild on Daphne Major? a. The environment is pristine. b. Some seed plant species went extinct after the humans arrived at the island. c. There is little plant diversity, allowing easy identification and measurement of every type of seed. d. Finch populations are small and rarely experience migration.

139. Which of the following statements accurately describes Hox genes? a. They code for traits such as legs or wings in the developing embryo. b. Their expression gives positional information to other genes. c. They are transcription factors. d. a and b e. b and c 140. The evolution of aerobic citrate metabolism in E. coli is an example of a. gene recruitment. b. gene duplication. c. promiscuous proteins. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 141. You discover a new gene expressed in the placenta. You find that this gene is responsible for diverting more nutrients to the developing fetus. Based on the conflict hypothesis for imprinting, it is most likely that a. the father's copy is turned on; the mother's copy is turned off. b. the mother's copy is turned on; the father's copy is turned off. c. both the mother's and the father's copies are turned on. d. both the mother's and the father's copies are turned off.

142. All of the following are true of mate guarding except that it is: Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 a. exclusive to a type of mating system.

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ch 9 - 12 b. males using toxic chemicals to create an inhospitable environment for females. c. lingering males that chase off other males. d. physical blockage of the female reproductive tract with giant sperm.

143. What is menopause for human women? a. their remarkably long life span b. the unnaturally early onset of puberty c. the loss of fertility later in life d. the state of being born infertile 144. Which of the following is not an example of the deleterious effects of aging? a. Cells accumulate malformed proteins. b. Rates of noninfectious disease increase. c. Immune system function decreases. d. Fertility increases.

145. According to sexual selection theory, a male signal is likely to be honest if a. it exploits a preexisting sensory bias in females. b. it is condition-dependent. c. it is costly to produce. d. a and b e. b and c 146. Asexual reproduction a. results in genetic recombination. b. results in genetically identical offspring. c. requires two parents. d. leads to the generation of novel genotypes.

147. The intermediate gall sizes produced by gallflies are a result of i. predatory birds selecting against large galls. ii. parasitoid wasps selecting against large galls. iii. parasitoid wasps selecting against small galls. iv. predatory birds selecting against small galls. a. i and ii b. i and iii c. ii and iv d. iii and iv 148. There are as many as 18 species of Darwin's finches that have adapted to different feeding opportunities on Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 the Galápagos islands. The Grants studied the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis), which feeds primarily on a. cactus flowers.

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ch 9 - 12 b. the blood of vertebrates. c. seeds. d. insects.

149. In order to study the effect of natural selection, ideally which of the following would not be acting on the allele frequencies of populations in the wild? a. gene flow from other populations b. random fluctuations due to genetic drift c. genetic mutations d. all of the above 150. Natural selection will act on goldenrod gall size when a. all goldenrod gallflies are clones. b. the size of galls produced by gallflies is heritable. c. gall size does not affect the viability of the gallfly. d. gall size does not affect the ability of the gallfly to produce offspring.

151. Gene duplication a. results in genes that are paralogs. b. leads to functional redundancy. c. can result in one of the copies gaining a new function. d. all of the above 152. Which of the following incorrectly matches the vegetable with the plant organ artificially selected for in wild cabbage (Brassica oleracea)? a. kale—leaves b. kohlrabi—stems c. cabbage—flower shoots d. brussels sprouts—buds 153. The graph below shows the effect of hunting imposed on horn length in bighorn sheep populations. What type of selection does it show?

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ch 9 - 12 a. stabilizing b. negative frequency-dependent c. directional d. disruptive 154. Natural selection favors sperm competition when a. males are clones with no genetic variation among sperm. b. genetic mutation results in a greater chance of sperm fertilizing the female's eggs. c. sperm decrease the fitness of a male. d. all of the above 155. Which of the following examples does not support the Trivers-Willard hypothesis? a. Gravid females of certain hymenoptera species can directly manipulate the sex of their offspring by fertilizing, or not, eggs before laying. b. Male sand gobies devour some offspring when density increases. c. Female Seychelles warblers adjust the balance of male and female chicks in broods. d. The bluestreak cleaner wrasse begins life as a female, but switches its sex to male when the benefits of being male outweigh those of being female.

156. In species where there is an unbiased operational sex ratio, you would most likely see a. both males and females cooperating in the care of young. b. strong sexual selection. c. more females ready to breed compared to males. d. females fulfilling the majority of parental care.

157. You are studying sex ratios in Seychelles warblers. A drought results in very low resources. Explain how this is likely to affect the population sex ratio and why it would benefit the female to adjust the sex ratio this way.

158. Would more parental conflict likely occur in species with monogamous or polygamous mating systems?

Explain your answer.

159. Provide at least three examples of complex adaptions that are far from perfect, but still provide fitness advantages.

160. Ivy and Sakaluk (2005) studied the potential benefits of polyandry in decorated crickets. Their experimental design involved the following treatments: (1) females that mated a single time, (2) females that mated three times to a single male, and (3) females that mated with three different males. They measured offspring number and offspring survival for each treatment. How does this experimental design allow the researchers to differentiate between the potential benefits of polyandry?

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ch 9 - 12 161. Hopi Hoekstra and colleagues were interested in whether lighter coat coloration arose in Gulf and Atlantic

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ch 9 - 12 Coast populations through convergent evolution. How did they test this, and what did they find?

162. In Asian elephants, only males have large tusks. Assuming that male tusks are the product of sexual selection, please draw a graph showing the expected relationship between reproductive success and number of mates for both males and females.

163. You are studying the potential for sexual conflict in two species of birds. Species 1 is monogamous, whereas species 2 is polygamous. In which species would sexual conflict likely be stronger?

164. Based on the development of snakes, which lack forelimbs, hypothesize how you could genetically engineer a chicken that lacks wings.

165. Compare the types of selection seen in medium ground finch beak size in the Galápagos Islands after the drought of 1977, in Australian snake gape width after the introduction of the cane toad, and in gall size produced by gallflies after selection by predatory birds and parasitoid wasps. For each scenario, draw a figure illustrating the type of selection acting on the population (draw the distribution of phenotypes in the population before and after selection). Indicate whether the selection is directional, stabilizing, or disruptive.

166. You learned how freshwater stickleback populations have lost their body armor through positive selection of a low-armor Eda allele, which is found at low frequency in marine populations. How could you determine whether the low-armor phenotype arose once and spread throughout freshwater populations, or whether the allele was selected for independently multiple times?

167. Define each of the following terms and explain how they influence sexual selection. (a) anisogamy (b) operational sex ratio (c) opportunity for selection 168. Imagine that you collect data from many different species that vary in their rate of extrinsic mortality.

Based on predictions from evolutionary theory, draw an expected plot with extrinsic mortality on the x axis and rate of senescence on the y axis.

169. Researchers have demonstrated that the maximum life span of Drosophila melanogaster can be increased dramatically through artificial selection. This clearly demonstrates that genetic variation for increased longevity exists in D. melanogaster populations. Why have flies likely not evolved longer life spans?

170. Compare the mother hypothesis and grandmother hypotheses as explanations of menopause and longevity of females.

171. Evidence suggests that male pipefishes may be able to adjust investment in offspring depending on the size of the female. How would the probability of remating influence the optimal investment strategy by males?

172. Describe how Peter and Rosemary Grant demonstrated the following components, each of which is necessary to demonstrate evolution by natural selection: variation in the population, heritability, and differential reproductive success linked to variation.

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ch 9 - 12 173. Describe the evolution of the snake venom crotamine in the context of gene duplication and recruitment.

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ch 9 - 12 174. In Lenski's E. coli experiment, what evidence suggests that the ability to effectively exploit citrate was a complex adaptation that involved more than a single mutation?

175. Why do scientists think that insects are constrained to be relatively small? What evidence was used to test this hypothesis?

176. The Kakapo is a critically endangered flightless parrot from New Zealand. A number of efforts have been employed in order to stave off its extinction. Early on, the parrots were given supplemental food in order to ensure that they remained healthy. This had a positive impact on survival, but unfortunately the population remained at risk, in part because sex ratios were highly male biased. Based on research on sex ratios in other species, offer a hypothesis as to why sex ratios were male biased.

177. Many years in the future, humans have altered the environment on the Galápagos Islands so much that the only plants left produce very large seeds. As a result, many small-beaked species of Darwin's finches are not able to eat the seeds, and they are in danger of going extinct. You are tasked with trying to save these species through genetic engineering of larger beak size. How would you do it?

178. Describe how natural selection could have led to a decrease in gape width of native Australian snakes since the introduction of toxic cane toads.

179. In the Eurasian penduline tit, what are the costs and benefits for males of leaving the female?

180. You learned how freshwater stickleback populations have lost their body armor through positive selection of a low-armor Eda allele, which is found at low frequency in marine populations. Draw (a) a phylogenetic tree that would support the hypothesis that the low-armor phenotype arose once and then spread throughout freshwater populations and (b) a phylogenetic tree that would support the hypothesis that the phenotype arose independently multiple times in freshwater populations.

181. Abrahamson and Weis did an experiment in which they compared the gall sizes produced on goldenrod clones by different families of gallflies. Why did the researchers use plant clones and compare gall sizes between gallfly families?

182. Explain three different mechanisms of sexual selection that occur after copulation, giving an example of each.

183. Please describe why some evolutionary biologists argue that cis-regulatory elements are particularly likely to be involved in morphological adaptation.

184. Compare the three hypotheses that explain the indirect benefit of female mate choice.

185. Describe two costs and two benefits of sexual reproduction.

186. What is parallel evolution? Please give an example.

187. Compare and contrast the formation of the gut in vertebrates and invertebrates.

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ch 9 - 12 188. Explain the difference between direct and indirect benefits of female mate choice.

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ch 9 - 12 189. You perform an experiment to test whether female birds prefer males with longer tail feathers. You find that they do, and, in fact, they prefer even longer tail feathers than you ever see on males in the population.

Assuming that this trait has had enough time to evolve to an optimum, what is the most likely explanation for why tail feathers are not even longer in the population?

190. You discover a new imprinted gene in the placenta. The father's copy of the gene is turned on, and the mother's copy is turned off. Describe a process for determining what effect this gene has on the developing fetus.

191. Each year, the indigenous Zoque people of Mexico introduce barbasco, a compound that is toxic to fish, into the Cueva del Azufre (a cave) to kill and harvest fish during a religious ceremony. These fish also live in caves in which the ceremony is not performed. Design a study to examine whether fish in the Cueva del Azufre have evolved increased resistance to barbasco.

192. Please describe Lamb et al.'s hypothesis for the evolution of the vertebrate eye.

193. Compare the selection of coat color in oldfield mice and in the snowshoe hare.

194. Tasmanian devils are experiencing a massive population crash due, in part, to the emergence of a contagious cancer called devil facial tumor disease. The disease has significantly altered the age structure of populations, with far fewer older individuals in populations affected by the disease. Prior to the disease, devils typically reproduced seasonally starting in their second year. What effect would this change likely have on reproductive schedules in devil populations?

195. What evidence suggests that male pipefishes adjust the amount of their investment in offspring depending on the size of the female?

196. Please describe at least two different ways that a patterning network can be perturbed to create an altered phenotype.

197. David Haig has proposed that genomic imprinting in the placenta is a signature of conflict between the parents over investment in offspring. Why would fathers benefit from a strategy that reduces the fitness of the mother of their offspring?

198. Describe how gene duplication can lead to the formation of a gene with a different function.

199. The ideal organism would be reproductively mature at birth, have high fecundity, reproduce continually, and live forever. Please explain why such an organism does not exist.

200. Why is the placenta a structure that is particularly suited as an arena for interfamilial conflicts to play out?

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ch 9 - 12 Answer Key 1. d 2. e 3. c 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. e 11. e 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. e 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 24. b

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ch 9 - 12 25. e 26. d 27. d 28. e 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. e 36. c 37. e 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. e 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 48. a

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ch 9 - 12 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. f 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. d 70. d 71. c 72. c Test 73. aBank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 74. a 75. d 76. b 77. a 78. e 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. c 83. c 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. d 88. d 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. e 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 97. d

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ch 9 - 12 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. d 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. d 110. c 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. e 117. b 118. c 119. d 120. a 121. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. e 130. c 131. a 132. d 133. d 134. a 135. d 136. c 137. a 138. b 139. e 140. d 141. a 142. a 143. c 144. d 145. e Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 9 - 12 146. b

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ch 9 - 12 147. b 148. c 149. d 150. b 151. d 152. c 153. c 154. b 155. b 156. a 157.

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ch 9 - 12 172.

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ch 9 - 12 195.

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ch 9 - 12 196.

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ch 13 - 16 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Myelin is to a neuron as a. insulation is to a wire. b. an electrical plug is to an appliance. c. milk is to cereal. d. eating is to survival.

2. What evidence does not support the hypothesis of independent evolution of the nervous system in ctenophores? a. Ctenophores are the basal animal group. b. Sponges are the basal animal group. c. Ctenophores do not express all the proteins that are present in other animal nervous systems. d. Ctenophores use molecules as neurotransmitters that are not present in other animal nervous systems.

3. Which is the correct pairing of increased CO2 emissions and cause of mass extinctions? a. increased CO2—decreased global temperature b. increased CO2—reduced acidification of freshwater c. increased CO2—continental weathering—ocean anoxia d. increased CO2—acid rain 4. Which of the following conditions is/are thought to be necessary for sympatric speciation to occur? a. disruptive selection b. stabilizing selection c. a and b d. neither a nor b 5. In 2018 the IUCN found that out of 93,577 species, a. 72% b. 53% c. 28% d. 11%

were threatened due to human activities.

6. How have plants and animals already responded to climate change? a. The brown argus butterfly has expanded its range 40 miles northward in the last 20 years. b. Bull sharks, once limited to tropical waters, are now frequently found off the Atlantic Coast of North Carolina. c. Some mountain species are shifting to higher elevations. d. all of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 7. Adaptive radiation may occur when

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ch 13 - 16 a. clades occupy ecological niches in the absence of competition. b. key innovations within a clade allow exploitation of new niches. c. environmental changes open new ecological niches and allow for key innovations. d. all of the above 8. How have human emissions of greenhouse gases affected Earth's global energy budget? a. They have caused a net imbalance of 6 watts/m2 causing global warming. b. They have caused a net imbalance of 0.6 watts/m2 causing global warming. c. They have caused a net imbalance of 0.06 watts/m2 causing global warming. d. They have caused a net imbalance of 6 watts/m2 causing global cooling.

9. Which of the following would provide evidence for reinforcement? a. Pre-mating isolation between two species is higher in areas where they are sympatric than in areas where they are allopatric; postzygotic isolation is strong in all crosses. b. Postzygotic isolation between two species is higher in areas where they are sympatric than in areas where they are allopatric; pre-mating isolation is the same in allopatric and sympatric populations. c. Pre-mating isolation between two species is higher in sympatry than in allopatry; there is no postzygotic isolation in any cross. d. a and c 10. Which of the following could be a proximate explanation for the behavior of singing in birds? a. Neurons produce the necessary muscle contractions to produce the song. b. Singing in birds allowed males and females to acquire mates. c. Song structure in different bird species has changed over time as revealed by phylogenetic analysis. d. none of the above 11. How does brain size vary among the different vertebrate lineages? a. Only primates evolved an expansion of the cerebral cortex. b. Tetrapods evolved a larger cerebellum after moving onto land. c. Mammals evolved an expansion of the cerebral cortex. d. Tetrapods evolved a larger optic tectum after moving onto land.

12. What is a molecular clock? a. a method used to determine time based on base pair substitutions b. a method to deduce divergence time between lineages in a phylogeny c. a method that can be calibrated with other markers of time, like fossils with known ages d. all of the above 13. Which of the following of Nikolaas Tinbergen's questions about behavior address(es) an ultimate level of Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 behavior? a. How does it work?

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ch 13 - 16 b. How does it develop? c. How did it evolve? d. a and b e. b and c 14. In which of the mass extinctions did the non-avian dinosaurs go extinct? a. Permian b. Cretaceous c. Ordovician d. Triassic e. Devonian 15. Which of the following is true regarding the evolution of neurons? a. All proteins involved in the formation of neurons evolved after the lineages leading to bilaterians and cnidarians split from the lineage leading to sponges. b. All proteins involved in the formation of neurons evolved after the lineage leading to bilaterians split from the lineage leading to Cnidarians. c. Some proteins involved in the formation of neurons are found in plants. d. none of the above 16. Bryozoan lineages in the fossil record a. changed gradually over time. b. show little to no change. c. show punctuated change. d. changed once in the Modern fauna.

17. The phylogenetic species concept may not be useful for microbial species because a. microbes are not neatly divided by species barriers. b. it is only useful if organisms reliably pass down genes to offspring. c. the genomes of microbes are mixed together by horizontal gene transfer, resulting in a mosaic-like genome. d. all of the above 18. Which of the following is true in reference to the major evolutionary faunas? a. The Cambrian fauna is now extinct. b. The Modern fauna originated in the Cambrian. c. The Paleozoic fauna never rebounded to previous levels of diversity after the Permian extinction. d. The Modern fauna has persisted for the least amount of time.

19. Which of the following contributed to the terrestrial mass extinctions during the end-Permian extinction?

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ch 13 - 16 a. global warming caused by CO2 emissions from volcanic activity

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ch 13 - 16 b. toxic metal poisoning caused by toxic metal emissions from lava flow c. increased UV-B radiation from ozone depletion by Cl, F, and NOx emissions d. acid rain caused by Cl, F, NOx, and SO2 emissions e. all of the above 20. Which of the following, if it had occurred, would have likely meant that myxoma virus in Australia would have remained more virulent than it ultimately became? a. The rabbit population crashed. b. The rabbit population remained dense even after introduction of the virus. c. Transmission opportunities were reduced. d. none of the above 21. What do sensory maps of the human somatosensory cortex show? a. The hands are likely the most sensitive region, which reflects tool use. b. The mouth is sensitive, reflecting language. c. The feet are sensitive, likely reflecting our bipedal nature. d. a and b e. all of the above 22. Trilobites went extinct a. 500 million years ago, not associated with a mass extinction. b. 443.8 million years ago, associated with the Ordovician extinction. c. 358.9 million years ago, associated with the Devonian extinction. d. 251.9 million years ago, associated with the Permian extinction. e. 201.3 million years ago, associated with the Triassic extinction.

23. Coevolutionary alteration is likely to occur when a. interactions are mutualistic. b. parasite and host populations exert negative frequency-dependent selection on one another, if the parasite has the option of switching to another host species. c. host populations are under stabilizing selection. d. a single host is available to parasites.

24. A complex geographic mosaic between red crossbill bill length and pinecone morphology has resulted in a. diversifying coevolution. b. Batesian mimicry. c. coevolutionary alternation. d. attenuated coevolution.

25. The figure below shows the number of predatory attacks per individual in water skater groups of different Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 sizes. The information in the graph demonstrates which benefit of grouping?

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ch 13 - 16

a. increased vigilance b. dilution c. group defense d. cooperative foraging e. There is no benefit.

26. What does Haikouichthys, a fossilized early vertebrate, have in common with other living vertebrates? a. a spinal canal surrounded by vertebrae, which was supported by a notochord b. dark spots at the front of the body, resembling eyes c. a skull that may have held a primitive brain d. all of the above 27. Where have marsupials never existed in the wild? a. North America b. Asia c. Australia d. Antarctica e. none of the above 28. What preliminary evidence suggests that coevolution may be a driving factor of speciation in Joshua trees? a. Within the range of the Joshua tree, it is pollinated by two different moths. b. When Tegeticula synthetica and T. antithetica diverged from a common ancestor, each specialized on only one population of Joshua tree. c. Joshua tree flower morphology has diverged as a result of moth speciation. d. b and c e. a, b, and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 29. What do hybridization studies on Drosophila melanogaster tell us about how long it takes reproductive

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ch 13 - 16 barriers to lead to new fly species? a. It takes a long time for these flies to become isolated enough to be considered a new species. b. Postzygotic isolation often evolves faster than prezygotic isolation in flies. c. It takes a short time for these flies to become isolated enough to be considered a new species. d. a and b e. b and c 30. What is carbonate rock? a. rock that forms from the bodies of microscopic organisms that settled to the seafloor b. rock that forms from the cooling and solidification of magma c. rock that forms from the transformation of other rock types d. rock that forms from the sediments carried to the ocean by rivers 31. Which of the following factors contribute(s) to species diversity observed at a particular point in time? a. extinctions b. originations c. initial diversity d. all of the above 32. When evolutionary biologists adapt population growth models to measure diversity, death rate is substituted for a. origination rate. b. emigration rate. c. extinction rate. d. turnover rate.

33. Which of the following is not true regarding the accumulation of genetic differences in allopatric populations? a. Drift and selection cause allele frequencies to change differently in isolated populations. b. Mutations at certain loci may lead to incompatibilities between populations. c. Certain mutations may change the behavioral preference of mating individuals. d. Genetic differences are irrelevant once the populations are no longer separated.

34. Which of the following is true of arthropods? a. Synapomorphies among arthropods include exoskeletons made of chitin and a jointed body plan. b. Some early Cambrian fossils share some synapomorphies with arthropods. c. Arthropods probably came to existence in the Cambrian fully formed. d. a and b e. a, b, and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 35. Which of the following is true of Müllerian versus Batesian mimicry? a. Under Müllerian mimicry, the two species converge on the same phenotype because the more similar

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ch 13 - 16 they are, the more beneficial it is for both species involved. b. Under Batesian mimicry, the model species should be under selective pressure to evolve away from its mimic phenotypically. c. Under Batesian mimicry, the more similar the model is to the mimic, the less effective the warning coloration because predators will encounter some prey that are not toxic. d. all of the above 36. Which of the following is not one of the three great "evolutionary faunas" described by Sepkoski? a. Cambrian b. Permian c. Paleozoic d. Modern 37. Which statement regarding the parasitoid wasps that infect the cryptic skipper species of Costa Rican butterflies is true? a. The wasps lay eggs in adult skipper hosts. b. The wasps are not a cryptic species as well, although they are species specific to cryptic skippers. c. The wasps are cryptic species as well, with DNA barcoding revealing a possible 313 species. d. none of the above; there are no parasitoid wasps of skipper caterpillars 38. Which of the following mass extinctions was the largest? a. Permian b. Cretaceous c. Ordovician d. Triassic e. Devonian 39. Early classifications of the polar bear were based on a. reproductive isolation from brown bears. b. evolutionary history. c. appearance and behavior. d. metapopulations that exchange alleles.

40. How does increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere threaten marine life? a. It acidifies the ocean. b. It raises oxygen levels. c. It decreases water temperature. d. all of the above e. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 41. Why is it unusual for one species of caterpillar to feed on a wide range of plants? a. Caterpillars are usually well adapted to the defensive chemicals of certain plant species.

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ch 13 - 16 b. Caterpillars are not able to travel far enough to consume multiple species of plants. c. Different plants offer different nutritional resources. d. It is not unusual; most caterpillar species feed on many different plant species.

42. How did the formation of the Isthmus of Panama influence the speciation of shrimp? a. The isthmus presented a geographic barrier to gene flow, reproductively isolating the shrimp. b. The isthmus allowed the shrimp to evolve in allopatry. c. The isthmus united two reproductively isolated populations of shrimp. d. a and b e. a and c 43. All of the following pieces of evidence suggest that animals existed prior to the Cambrian explosion EXCEPT: a. macroscopic fossils from the Ediacaran period, 570 mya b. microscopic fossils of multicellular organisms 2.1 bya c. biomarkers from sponges 635 mya d. molecular data showing the earliest matazoans appeared 700 mya 44. Which of the following is the correct order of the flow of energy? a. lion → zebra → grass → sun b. sun → grass → zebra → lion c. sun → mycorrhizae → grass → zebra d. sun → grass → mycorrhizae → intestinal bacteria 45. What type of selection permits the coexistence of several reproductive strategies in side-blotched lizards? a. directional b. stabilizing c. disruptive d. negative frequency-dependent 46. Based on the figure below, which of the following is true?

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ch 13 - 16

a. Overall, from stages A to D, the origination rate exceeded the extinction rate. b. No single species is represented throughout all stages. c. In stage C, the origination rate exceeded the extinction rate. d. The highest origination rate is seen in stage D. 47. Which species concept(s) would be most useful for a conservation biologist? a. phylogenetic species concept b. biological species concept c. general lineage species concept d. a and c e. a, b, and c 48. Why are there so many species of beetles? a. The extinction rate in beetles is higher than the origination rate. b. The origination rate in beetles is higher than the extinction rate. c. Standing diversity relative to other groups is low in beetles. d. none of the above 49. The type of genetic material that can move around the genome is called a. a mobile genetic element. b. a mutagen. c. a trans-acting element. d. a pseudogene.

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ch 13 - 16 50. New ecological niches may become available when a. a new island, or chain of islands, emerges, like the Galápagos Archipelago.

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ch 13 - 16 b. a clade goes extinct, like the non-avian dinosaurs at the end of the Cretaceous period. c. a new lake emerges, like the Great Lakes of East Africa. d. all of the above 51. Extrinsic postzygotic isolation is most likely when a. parental populations are adapted to similar environments. b. parental populations are adapted to divergent environments. c. genetic drift is strong. d. gene flow between parental populations is high.

52. Based on Anderson and Johnson's conclusions regarding the evolution of tongue length in long-tongued flies, which of the following would be expected? a. A study demonstrates that in populations with shorter tongues, other nectar sources have very long nectar tubes. b. A behavioral study demonstrates that flies in populations with shorter average tongue lengths spend more time visiting other flowers than visiting Zaluzianskya flowers. c. A study of available flowers in the population with the longest average tongue length reveals that no other nectar sources besides Zaluzianskya are available. d. a and c e. b and c 53. Which of the following describes the relationship between a zebra and its intestinal bacteria and archaea? a. commensalism b. mutualism c. predation d. parasitism 54. Why is haplodiploidy thought to predispose hymenopteran lineages to eusocial behavior? a. Daughters have a higher r than in diploid species. b. Females have higher inclusive fitness from helping mothers than from reproducing. c. Sisters are more closely related to each other than to their own offspring. d. b and c e. a, b, and c 55. Which of the following statements is/are true? a. The ecological intelligence hypothesis argues that some foods are more cognitively challenging than others. b. The social intelligence hypothesis argues that keeping track of social information is cognitively demanding. c. The ecological intelligence hypothesis and social intelligence hypothesis are not mutually exclusive.

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ch 13 - 16 d. a and b e. a, b, and c

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ch 13 - 16 56. The species concept cannot be used to define bacteria and archaea because organisms in these domains reproduce . a. biological; asexually b. general lineage; asexually c. biological; sexually d. phylogenetic; sexually 57. Which of the following is true regarding the evolution of photosynthetic organisms? a. Photosynthesis in green algae likely evolved from primary endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic bacteria. b. Photosynthetic protozoans likely evolved from secondary endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic red algae. c. A lineage of photosynthetic green algae evolved into land plants. d. all of the above e. none of the above 58. What does the phylogeny of swordtail cricket species in Hawaii reveal about speciation? a. The more derived crickets are found on the oldest islands. b. Early lineages from the older islands independently colonized the younger islands. c. Cricket species frequently move between older and younger islands to interbreed. d. Early lineages from younger islands independently colonized the older islands.

59. Which of the following is true regarding atmospheric carbon dioxide levels? a. They are currently well above the average of the past 600,000 years. b. They are currently well below the average of the past 600,000 years. c. Similar deviations from the average have occurred over the last 600,000 years. d. a and c 60. What is the coefficient of relatedness of an uncle to his niece? a. 0.5 b. 0.25 c. 0.125 d. 0.0625 61. Which of the following is not true regarding Large Igneous Provinces? a. They can span millions of cubic kilometers in volume. b. Their eruptions can last for thousands of years. c. They are rare geological events in the history of Earth, occurring only every 20-30 million years. d. They release high concentrations of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

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ch 13 - 16 62. Certain animals can communicate in ways that suggest complex social cognition. Which of the following

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ch 13 - 16 correctly pairs the animal with its mode of communication? a. bottlenose dolphin—whistles b. vervet monkey—screams that are predator specific c. chimpanzee—sounds and gestures d. all of the above e. none of the above 63. How did Tinbergen test the innate pecking behavior in herring gull chicks? a. presenting chicks with a cutout of the parent's head and various other shapes b. presenting parents with a cutout of the chick's head with assorted colors of dots on the bill c. presenting chicks with other species of birds with assorted colors of dots on their bills d. presenting chicks with a cutout of the parent's head with assorted colors of dots on the bill 64. Evidence that sexual selection may play an important role in speciation of Hawaiian swordtail crickets includes the fact that a. genetic variation in male song and female preference created a reproductive barrier. b. crickets only diverged ecologically when colonizing new islands. c. genetic variation in male song was not accompanied by variation in female preference. d. genetic variation in female preference did not influence gene flow between populations.

65. Which of the following is an example of an innate behavior? a. an association between color and distasteful prey b. a spider spinning its web in order to catch its prey c. a chick learning the song of its parents d. a digger wasp using spatial clues to remember the location of its nest 66. The figure below shows the amount of time it takes pigeons in groups of varying size to respond to a potential predator. Based on this graph, pigeons experience what benefit from grouping?

a. increased vigilance b. dilution c. group defense Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 d. cooperative foraging

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ch 13 - 16 e. There is no benefit.

67. Which of the following is not an example of animals using tools? a. Chimpanzees crack nuts with rocks. b. Crossbills pry open pinecones with their bills. c. Gorillas use a stick to test water depth. d. Crows use sticks to reach food.

68. Which of the following is true about rock strata? a. Older rocks are always buried deep below the surface. b. Some strata in a location may be missing due to erosion. c. Rock strata are likely continuous from layer to layer. d. Fossils have a similar morphology from strata to strata.

69. What is silicoclastic rock? a. rock that forms from the cooling and solidification of magma b. rock that forms from the transformation of other rock types c. rock that forms from sediments d. rock that forms from the bodies of microscopic organisms that settled to the seafloor 70. Based on the history of marsupial colonization, extinction, and vicariant events, which of the following should be true of currently existing marsupials? a. A phylogenetic tree should demonstrate that North American marsupials are the closest living relatives to Australian marsupials. b. South American marsupials should be the closest living relatives to Australian marsupials. c. South American marsupials should be the closest living relatives to North American marsupials. d. none of the above 71. Which of the following is not a behavior that likely evolved because it has a positive effect on the indirect component of inclusive fitness? a. A female wasp helps an unrelated dominant female reproduce so that she will take over the reproductive role when the dominant female dies. b. A bird remains on its natal territory, helping to rear brothers and sisters. c. A human female loses fertility in middle age, but helps rear grandchildren. d. all of the above 72. What do Maynard Smith and Williams argue about group selection? a. Group selection will be strong when there are limited resources. b. Most organisms are reproductively altruistic. c. Individual selection is stronger than group selection.

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ch 13 - 16 d. Group selection is stronger than individual selection.

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ch 13 - 16 73. Dictyostelium discoides, also known as cellular slime mold, is a a. multicellular eukaryote that lives in the soil. b. single-celled prokaryote that preys on bacteria. c. single-celled eukaryote that lives in the soil. d. multicellular prokaryote that preys on bacteria.

74. You are studying speciation in crickets. You find that males and females from different populations will mate, but few eggs get fertilized. This is an example of what type of reproductive isolating barrier? a. pre-mating b. post-mating, prezygotic c. intrinsic postzygotic d. extrinsic postzygotic 75. About what percentage of genes are essential for all strains of Escherichia coli? a. 3% b. 50% c. 97% d. 100% 76. Many butterflies in the genus Heliconius are mimetic, which means that they closely mimic the wing patterning and color of highly poisonous species even though they themselves are not poisonous. This is a benefit because many predators (such as birds) learn to avoid poisonous species by identifying their wing patterns and colors. Some closely related Heliconius species mimic different poisonous species. Although they can successfully hybridize and produce viable/fertile offspring that have high fitness in the laboratory, the hybrids are intermediate in wing patterning and color and are not good mimics. Consequently, they have low fitness in nature. This is an example of a. intrinsic postzygotic isolation. b. extrinsic postzygotic isolation. c. habitat isolation. d. prezygotic isolation.

77. What is an example of how we depend on biodiversity? a. Bees and other insects pollinate our crops. b. Wetlands purify water. c. Coral reefs support fish needed for food or income. d. all of the above 78. What have scientists learned about the evolutionary history of microbial species over the past billion years? a. α has remained slightly higher than Ω. b. Tens of thousands of lineages have gone extinct every million years. c. We can not infer what early microbes were like based on living species alone.

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ch 13 - 16 d. a and b

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ch 13 - 16 e. a, b, and c 79. Based on the figure below, what is the number of turnovers in stage B?

a. 34 b. 24 c. 16 d. 4 80. Mexican colonial web-building spiders nest in colonies that range in size from ten to thousands of individuals, with each individual occupying their own web within the colony. Colonies are frequently attacked by predatory wasps. Individuals in larger colonies suffer lower predation than those in smaller colonies. The data in the graph below are from a study performed by Uetz et al. (2002), where they measured the distance at which spiders responded to potential predators. Open bars are for spiders on the interior, and colored bars are for spiders on the periphery of the colony. What type of grouping benefit is demonstrated here?

a. dilution b. group defense c. increased vigilance Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 d. cooperative foraging

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ch 13 - 16 81. What does the following figure on aggressive behavior in foxes suggest?

a. Aggressive behavior is heritable. b. There is variation in aggressive behavior. c. Aggression affects the fitness of foxes. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 82. Which is NOT true of positive frequency-dependent selection? a. It is a type of selection in which the fitness of a genotype increases as it becomes more common. b. It is a type of selection that decreases the frequency of alleles in a population. c. It is a type of selection that increases the frequency of alleles in a population. d. It is a type of selection in which the fitness of a genotype increases as it becomes more rare.

83. You are studying a potential case of incipient sympatric speciation involving two morphs of a cichlid fish in a crater lake that feed at different depths and differ in morphology. If true, which of the following statements would make sympatric speciation more likely (or at least possible)? i. ii.

The two morphs specialize on different food types; matings between the morphs produce offspring that are intermediate and can efficiently utilize both food types.

The two morphs feed on different food types, and there is strong disruptive selection operating such that individuals that are intermediate are very strongly selected against (basically none survive).

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ch 13 - 16 iii.

Mating occurs in the area of the lake where each morph feeds. Also, females choose males based on jaw morphology, preferring males that have the same jaw morphology as the female.

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ch 13 - 16 iv.

The two morphs feed at different depths, but both morphs come to a rocky area near the shore to mate.

Females prefer to mate with males of the other morph. a. i, ii, iii, iv b. i, iv c. ii, iii d. ii, iii, iv e. i

84. Hamilton argued that altruistic behavior would increase in a population if a. the benefit to the donor, which was adjusted by the chance that recipient and donor share alleles, outweighed the cost to the recipient. b. the benefit to the recipient outweighed the cost to the donor, which was adjusted by the chance that recipient and donor share alleles. c. the benefit to the recipient, which was adjusted by the chance that recipient and donor share alleles, outweighed the cost to the donor. d. none of the above; Hamilton did not support the evolution of altruistic behaviors.

85. Younger fossils are often morphologically different from older fossils in a lineage. How do paleontologists think the morphological transition happened? a. The younger fossils are a species that underwent anagenesis, gradually evolving a new morphology. b. The younger fossils are a new species that branched off the older one, rapidly evolving a new morphology. c. The younger fossils are likely a new species from a different lineage that migrated to the area. d. a and b e. none of the above 86. Interactions in the web of life may act as an evolutionary force because a. they may decrease the fitness of an organism. b. they may increase the fitness of an organism. c. they may increase or decrease the fitness of an organism. d. they have no effect on the fitness of an organism.

87. Which of the following is not an example of horizontal gene transfer? a. the transmission of genetic material from one bacterium to another via a bacteriophage virus b. the exchange of plasmid DNA via sex pili between two different bacteriophages c. the transmission of genetic material from parent to daughter bacterial cells d. the incorporation of exogenous genetic material by a bacterium from the surrounding environment 88. Which of the following is an example of behavior in plants? a. The trap of a Venus flytrap snaps shut in less than a second.

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ch 13 - 16 b. Tobacco plants produce nicotine and shunt it to their leaves when neighboring sagebrush are attacked

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ch 13 - 16 by herbivores. c. Plants release pheromones to attract natural enemies of the herbivores attacking them. d. all of the above e. Plants do not behave; seeing behavior in plants is anthropomorphic.

89. Which species concept(s) focus(es) focuses primarily on the reproductive isolation of populations? a. phylogenetic species concept b. biological species concept c. general lineage species concept d. a and b e. a and c 90. Which of the following is a barrier to gene flow that occurs before mating occurs? a. hybrid inviability b. gametic isolation c. ecological inviability d. mechanical isolation 91. Based on Craig Benkman's work on coevolutionary interactions between crossbills and pine trees, which of the following would be expected? a. A population where pines are not well-defended against crossbills likely has more squirrels than crossbills. b. A population where pines are not well-defended against crossbills likely does not face a trade-off in defense against different predators. c. A population where pines are not well-defended against crossbills likely has more crossbills than squirrels. d. none of the above 92. Wings may not necessarily be a key innovation for Insecta, but rather a key innovation for lineages within Insecta. For example, Coleoptera, the most diverse group of insects, have forewings that are modified as a hardened elytra and membranous hindwings for flight. How might wings have increased the success of Coleoptera? a. The elytra protect the hindwings from desiccation and cold temperatures. b. The elytra protect the hindwings from abrasion and tearing. c. The elytra protect the beetle from predation. d. all of the above e. none of the above 93. What is the coefficient of relatedness of two sisters of eusocial ants, a haplodiploid Hymenoptera? a. 1 Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 b. 0.75 c. 0.5

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ch 13 - 16 d. 0.25 94. In the monkeyflowers studied by Bradshaw and Schemske, reproductive isolation results from a. gametic incompatibility between pollen and ovule. b. sterility of hybrid offspring. c. color preferences of hummingbirds and bees. d. asynchrony in time in which plants reach reproductive maturity.

95. How do researchers make an initial determination about which microbes are different species using the phylogenetic species concept? a. by examining the potential for microbial species to swap genetic information b. by comparing the gene pool of different metapopulations within a lineage c. by using a gene shared across the entire tree of life to compare lineages d. by comparing observable traits such as morphology or staining characteristics 96. Which of the following statements is not accurate? a. Direct fitness results from personal reproduction. b. Altruistic behaviors decrease inclusive fitness. c. Indirect benefits accrue through helping relatives produce extra offspring. d. Kin selection refers to selection on traits that increase indirect fitness.

97. Animal groups termed "selfish herds" most often result from what benefit of group behavior? a. increased vigilance b. dilution c. group defense d. cooperative foraging e. There is no benefit.

98. Which of the following is true regarding mobile genetic elements? a. They may spread through populations even if they lower the fitness of individuals that carry them. b. They will be eliminated from populations unless they are beneficial. c. They do not affect protein coding regions so have no effect on fitness. d. none of the above 99. Is a sixth mass extinction underway? a. no, because the number of animals going extinct is the same as the background extinction rate b. no, because animals are going extinct, but we cannot calculate the rate c. yes, because animals are going extinct d. yes, because the number of animals going extinct is eclipsing the background extinction rate Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 100. Organelles that function in energy conversion, which are endosymbionts in eukaryotic cells, include a. mitochondria.

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ch 13 - 16 b. chloroplasts. c. flagella. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 101. How might the mutualism between ants and flowering plants boost the diversity of plants? a. Ants benefit from fleshy elaiosomes on seeds. b. The plant seed is protected from herbivores after being discarded in an ant nest. c. Plants grow in a small range around ant colonies, geographically isolated from other plant populations. d. b and c e. a, b, and c 102. Under the biological species concept, a. a species represents a group of interbreeding (or potentially interbreeding) populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups. b. different species do not exchange genes. c. a and b d. neither a nor b 103. What are endogenous retroviruses? a. RNA viruses that use reverse transcriptase to become part of the host cell's DNA b. DNA viruses that use reverse transcriptase to become part of the host cell's DNA c. RNA viruses that live inside a host d. viral elements descended from retroviruses that have become a permanent part of a host's genome 104. What have scientists discovered about the aster leafhopper endosymbionts, Nasuia and Sulcia? a. Nasuia and Sulcia can live outside of aster leafhoppers. b. Nasuia and Sulcia produce amino acids that are not found in the sap of the host plant, but that are needed by the leafhopper. c. Nasuia and Sulcia have lost most of the genes required for free-living bacteria to survive. d. a and b e. b and c 105. Which of the following best explains why rabbit myxoma virus in Australia became less virulent over time? a. Opportunities for pathogen transmission decreased. b. Infected rabbits lived longer. c. More virulent strains replicated less within the host. d. a and b Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 e. a and c

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ch 13 - 16 106. Researchers think that the animal nervous system evolved through the co-opting of genes with other functions, such as cell-to-cell communication. This is an example of a. novel traits. b. complex adaptations. c. promiscuous proteins. d. gene recruitment.

107. How might learning and innate behaviors be connected? a. Learning enables animals to optimize innate behaviors to a changing environment. b. Innate behaviors occur after learning has been established. c. Innate behaviors are always completely independent of learned behaviors. d. a and b 108. Which of the following is true regarding "magic traits"? a. In the early stages of speciation, species should differ only in regions of the genome containing genes for magic traits. b. In the early stages of speciation, there should be fairly uniform divergence across each species' genome. c. In the later stages of speciation, species should differ only in regions of the genome containing genes for magic traits. d. At any stage in speciation, species should differ only in regions of the genome containing genes for magic traits.

109. What is true about species with complex cognition? a. They are apes only. b. They tend to have a large brain to body size ratio. c. They tend to have a large body size to brain ratio. d. They are mammals only.

110. A pair of insect species inhabits the same community, but one lives on goldenrod plants and the other on autumn daisies and rarely leave their preferred type of plant. This is an example of isolation, which is a barrier to gene flow a. gametic; prezygotic b. gametic; postzygotic c. habitat; prezygotic d. habitat; postzygotic e. behavioral; prezygotic 111. A behavior can evolve through natural selection if a. there is variation in the behavior among individuals in the population. b. the behavior influences the fitness of an individual possessing it.

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ch 13 - 16 c. the behavior is heritable.

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ch 13 - 16 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 112. An allele can increase in frequency in a population if a. on average, individuals in the population that have the allele have higher reproductive success than individuals with other alleles. b. the allele causes behaviors that result in other individuals in the population that carry the allele having higher reproductive success. c. the allele increases longevity, but the average lifetime reproductive success is lower for individuals that have the allele than for individuals with alternative alleles. d. a and b e. a, b and c 113. An allele is experiencing positive selection when a. it decreases in frequency in a population due to selection. b. it increases in frequency in a population due to selection. c. its average excess in fitness of is greater than zero. d. a and c e. b and c 114. The stable ecotype model is useful because a. it applies ecological speciation to microbial species. b. ecological and genetic clusters of microbes correspond to each other. c. there are no other possible ways to define a microbial species. d. a and b e. b and c 115. Why is it challenging to catalog the diversity of life through time? a. It is difficult to distinguish species based on fossils alone. b. The fossil record is incomplete. c. There are too many microorganisms to count. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 116. Why did paleobiologist David Raup use marine invertebrate fossils to calculate changes in biodiversity through time? a. They made mineralized tissue that fossilized easily. b. They were soft-bodied organisms that fossilized easily. c. Many species had large populations that left an abundant fossil record. d. a and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 e. b and c

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ch 13 - 16 117. Which of the following is/are required to designate populations as separate species under the phylogenetic species concept? a. Each population forms a monophyletic group. b. Members all have the unique characteristics that define the species. c. There is strong reproductive isolation between the populations. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 118. Cichlid species in the Great Lakes of East Africa experienced adaptive radiations over the past few hundred thousand years, resulting in what type(s) of feeding morphologies? a. crushing mollusks b. scraping algae c. eating the scales off other cichlids d. all of the above 119. Which of the following may have contributed to the profusion of animal diversity during the Cambrian? a. acidification of the ocean b. oxygenation of the ocean c. extinction of dinosaurs d. a and c e. b and c 120. How does a Venus flytrap respond to stimuli? a. A signal is sent after a fly touches any of three or four small trigger hairs on the leaf pad. b. Neurons send a signal to close leaf pads. c. Intercellular electrical signals collapse the leaf pads by rapid change in turgor pressure. d. a and b e. a and c 121. The Cambrian period began a. 720 million years ago. b. 635 million years ago. c. 541 million years ago. d. 252 million years ago.

122. A river that divides a population of terrestrial salamanders could lead to a. allopatric speciation. b. sympatric speciation. c. parapatric speciation. d. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 123. Which of the following could be an ultimate explanation for the behavior of migration in birds?

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ch 13 - 16 a. Decreasing day length in the fall influences a bird's circadian rhythm, which triggers flight behavior. b. Birds use a sun compass to orient as they fly south in the fall. c. Birds fly south in the fall because food resources are more plentiful there in the winter. d. none of the above 124. Which of the following describes the relationship between a grass and mycorrhizae, an underground fungus? a. commensalism b. mutualism c. herbivory d. parasitism 125. How do mountain laurels, Kalmia latifolia, behave in response to pollinators? a. When a bumblebee crawls into their flowers, it can trigger sudden loss of turgor pressure to close the flower to aid pollination. b. When a bumblebee crawls into their flowers, it can trigger an explosive release of pollen. c. When a bumblebee approaches their flowers, it can trigger sudden loss of turgor pressure to close the flower to prevent pollination. d. all of the above e. none of the above 126. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of genes and associated behaviors? a. for—onset age of foraging in honeybees b. Gp-9—courtship communication in fruit flies c. egr-1—mothering style in rats d. egr-1—male dominance in male cichlids 127. Which of the following is an example of antagonistic coevolution driving up the number of species in a clade? a. rabbits and the myxoma virus b. butterfly larvae and milkweed plants c. Joshua tree and yucca moths d. ants and plants that produce elaiosomes 128. Which species concept(s) focus(es) on the evolutionary history of populations? a. phylogenetic species concept b. biological species concept c. general lineage species concept d. a and b e. a and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 129. Which of the following is an example in which predators benefit from group living?

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ch 13 - 16 a. Adélie penguins dive off ice sheets together. b. Fish form schools in the ocean. c. Ostrich chicks surround themselves with other chicks. d. American white pelicans paddle on the water together.

130. How can evolutionary biologists calculate α and Ω? a. by examining the fossil record b. by examining molecular phylogenies c. by examining a combination of fossils and molecular phylogenies d. a, b, and c e. It is not possible to calculate α and Ω.

131. Which of the following factors involved in the Cambrian explosion was likely not due to a changing ocean chemistry? a. increased oxygen levels b. increased nutrients from soil erosion c. evolution of genetic toolkit d. evolution of biomineralization 132. Species A has chromosome number 2n = 18, and species B has chromosome number 2n = 20. The two plants hybridize and produce viable offspring through allopolyploidy. What is the chromosome number of the viable offspring? a. 2n = 18 b. 2n = 20 c. 2n = 38 d. 4n = 38 133. What do sensory maps of the somatosensory cortex of burrowing mammals show? a. The burrowing niche is reflected in highly sensitive facial features and forelegs. b. The naked mole rats use their teeth to dig tunnels, but their noses are more sensitive than their teeth. c. The nose of a star-nosed mole is more sensitive than the rest of its entire body. d. a and c e. all of the above 134. Are mobile genetic elements always parasitic? a. Yes; they always cause harm to the host. b. Yes; when they are passed from generation to generation, they become parasitic within the population. c. No; they can evolve to help hosts fight off disease. d. No; they can evolve to be mutualistic.

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ch 13 - 16 135. A geographic barrier that only partially isolates two populations, so that gene flow is reduced but not

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ch 13 - 16 eliminated, may lead to a. allopatric speciation. b. sympatric speciation. c. parapatric speciation. d. none of the above 136. Which species concept would assign isolated giraffe populations with little gene flow to separate species based on differences in mitochondrial DNA between the populations a. the biological species concept. b. the general lineage species concept. c. the phylogenetic species concept. d. all of the above 137. In what way(s) do(es) Aplysia flexibly respond to stimuli? a. social learning b. associative learning c. spatial learning d. a and b e. b and c 138. What reproductive isolating mechanism has led to speciation of palms on Lord Howe Island? a. habitat isolation b. temporal isolation c. pollinator isolation d. gametic isolation 139. Which country is incorrectly matched to its respective biogeographic province? a. Peru—Neotropical region b. Ethiopia—African region c. United States—Nearctic region d. Russia—Palearctic region 140. Which of the following is not true? a. Sponges (Porifera) lack a true nervous system. b. Sponge larvae have hairs that act like "proto-neurons." c. Comb jellies (Ctenophora) lack a nervous system. d. Researchers do not agree on the basal group of animals; they are divided between Porifera and Ctenophora.

141. Which of the following is not a part of the human brain?

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ch 13 - 16 a. cerebellum b. prefrontal cortex

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ch 13 - 16 c. hypothalamus d. cervical vertebrae 142. Which of the following is evidence that supports Janzen's hypothesis that the neotropical skipper butterfly, Astraptes fulgerator, is six or more species as opposed to just one? a. A. fulgerator caterpillars that prefer the same plants tend to have the same color pattern. b. Adult forms of A. fulgerator have subtly different adult forms corresponding to differences in caterpillars. c. A. fulgerator feed on a wide range of plants. d. none of the above 143. Extinction of a species can occur from a. habitat loss. b. competition with other species. c. inability to withstand physical environment. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 144. Why is it important to avoid anthropomorphism? a. Objectivity in science is crucial, and anthropomorphism can lead a person to assume an animal exhibits a behavior for the same reason a human would. b. Animals are cognizant of what they are doing. c. Animals make decisions without knowing what they are doing. d. a and b e. a and c 145. Assigning the label of "mass extinction" to an extinction event requires a. a large number of extinctions. b. a reduced origination rate. c. a significant increase over the background extinction rate. d. all of the above 146. Which of the following is not an ultimate explanation for behavior? a. Birds migrate south because resources are more plentiful there during the winter months. b. A fruit fly orients toward a patch of rotting fruit when odor molecules bind to receptors on its antennae. c. A gazelle jumps in the air when a predator approaches to signal that it is healthy and not worth approaching. d. A jellyfish migrates up toward light during the day because food resources are plentiful there.

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ch 13 - 16 147. From which biogeographic province do fossils of the closest ancestors of marsupials appear to originate? a. Palearctic region

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ch 13 - 16 b. Ethiopian region c. Australian region d. Nearctic region 148. How many segments of DNA from viruses does the human genome contain? a. almost 20,000, the same number as the genes that encode proteins b. almost 100,000, four times more than the genes that encode proteins c. almost 5000, one-fourth the number of the genes that encode proteins d. none; the human genome cannot contain viral DNA 149. Based on the figure below, which statement(s) below is/are true?

a. Standing diversity is higher in stage D than in stage A. b. There are more extinctions in stage B than in stage C. c. There are no originations in stage B. d. All originations occur in stage A. e. a and d 150. How are memories created in the sea slug Aplysia? a. They are formed through the lengthening of the axon. b. They are formed through the thickening of the myelin sheath. c. They are formed through changes in the synapses that allow neurons to communicate. d. all of the above 151. In the paper wasp, although all females in a nest are physiologically capable of reproducing, a single female monopolizes almost all reproduction, while other females help rear her offspring. In some nests, female Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

benefits, such as

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ch 13 - 16 helpers are unrelated to the reproducing female. The most likely explanation for this is that these helpers gain

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ch 13 - 16 a. indirect; an increase in the reproductive output of the reproducing female b. direct; an increase in the reproductive output of the reproducing female c. direct; the possibility of taking over the reproductive role when the reproducing female dies d. indirect; the possibility of taking over the reproductive role when the reproducing female dies 152. How might the Siberian Traps have led to mass extinctions? a. CO2 emissions led to ocean acidification, which led to marine species extinctions. b. Toxic metal emissions led to toxic metal poisoning, which led to marine and terrestrial species extinctions. c. SO2 emissions led to acid rain, which led to marine species extinctions. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 153. How does Dictyostelium discoides, a cellular slime mold, demonstrate behavior? a. When resources are limited, cells swarm to form a slug-like mass. b. When resources are abundant, cells enter a dormant state. c. When resources are limited, cells sporulate to increase the likelihood of producing offspring. d. When resources are abundant, cells swarm to form a slug-like mass.

154. How might a behavior affect fitness? a. A behavior could influence how much food an animal can find. b. A behavior could affect the reproductive success an animal has. c. A behavior could influence how likely an animal is to avoid accidents. d. all of the above 155. A relationship that benefits one species while the other suffers a loss to fitness is a. predation. b. herbivory. c. deceptive pollination. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 156. What do(es) the following figures suggest about learning in Drosophila flies?

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ch 13 - 16

a. Learning may impose an evolutionary trade-off between its costs and benefits. b. Long-lived flies were slower at learning than wild-type flies. c. Fast-learning flies have shorter life spans than control flies. d. b and c e. all of the above 157. How can mobile genetic elements behave like genomic parasites? a. They can disrupt a cell's normal rhythm of growth and division. b. They can make a vital protein nonfunctional. c. They can increase the fitness of their hosts. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 158. Put the following stages of allopatric speciation in a terrestrial beetle population in the correct order. i. ii. iii. iv.

Mutation, drift, and selection act separately on the two subpopulations, and they become increasingly divergent.

A river dries up, and the population has continuous geographic range with reproductive barriers that reduce gene flow between certain individuals.

A river physically divides the population into two subpopulations.

The population has continuous geographic range with some genetic variation. a. iv, ii, i, iii b. iv, iii, i, ii c. ii, iii, i, iv d. ii, iii, iv, i

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ch 13 - 16 159. Shapiro's variation on the stable ecotype model is most analogous to which species concept?

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ch 13 - 16 a. phylogenetic species concept b. biological species concept c. general lineage species concept d. none of the above 160. Key functions of neurons are a. sensing the environment, but not responding to it. b. responding to the environment with a behavior, but not sensing it. c. sensing the environment and responding with a behavior. d. sensing the environment, responding with a behavior, and adapting to the environment.

161. Which statement does the following figure support?

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ch 13 - 16

a. Mitochondria are capable of living outside of eukaryotic hosts. b. Mitochondria evolved from Pelagibacteraceae. c. Mitochondria are more closely related to marine Pelagibacteraceae than they are to the diseasecausing Rickettsiaceae. d. all of the above

162. A new altruistic allele arises in a population such that individuals with the allele give up some personal reproduction in order to help their parents raise offspring. Instead of producing six offspring of their own, individuals with the allele produce only three offspring. The parents would also normally produce six offspring, Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 but are able to produce 12 with the help of the altruistic individual. Using Hamilton's rule, determine whether

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ch 13 - 16 this altruistic allele is likely to increase in frequency in the population. Show your work.

163. Imagine that parasite pressure is similarly high across Drosophila melanogaster's range, but different geographic areas differ in the amount of food typically available (high food versus low food). In what regions is higher resistance to parasitism likely, and why?

164. Discuss the definition of a bacterial species. You should include at least two species concepts that best characterize bacteria, explain what is important to take into account when defining bacteria, and explain the difficulties of the definition.

165. Based on Kawecki's experiments on learning in fruit flies, would you expect fast learning to more readily evolve in populations characterized by high or low extrinsic mortality (assuming that it does provide an advantage)? Explain your reasoning.

166. Please describe three pieces of evidence that suggest that mitochondria are derived from free-living bacteria.

167. Please provide a real or hypothetical example of (a) pre-mating, (b) post-mating, prezygotic, (c) intrinsic postzygotic, and (d) extrinsic postzygotic reproductive isolating barriers.

168. Please describe evidence suggesting potential causes of the Permian extinction.

169. Describe lines of evidence suggesting that an asteroid impact may have contributed to the end-Cretaceous extinction.

170. Explain the greenhouse effect and the path of solar radiation once it enters Earth's atmosphere. How might Earth's dynamic climate drive macroevolution?

171. Describe how ecological adaptation through changes in beak size leads to reproductive isolation between different species of Darwin's finches.

172. Describe how some biologists have proposed to use adaptation as a criterion for identifying bacterial species. What is a potential drawback of this approach?

173. Why might we expect vertically transmitted endosymbionts to have smaller genomes than their free-living relatives?

174. You are studying 20 lake populations of the three-spined stickleback. In each lake, there are two distinct morphs that specialize on feeding in different areas of the lake. The benthic morph feeds around the shoreline, while the limnetic morph feeds in the open water. The environments and food sources in these environments are quite different. You hypothesize that these morphs are diverging into two different species in accordance with the ecological speciation model. Please describe an experiment that would allow you to test this hypothesis. Be sure to include what results would support and refute the ecological speciation hypothesis.

175. The biological, phylogenetic, and general lineage species concepts each have their strengths and weaknesses. Compare and contrast all three and evaluate them for their relative usefulness. Based on your Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 answer, describe the recent speciation of polar bears and whether you think it is useful to call them a species separate from brown bears.

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ch 13 - 16 176. Describe two factors that may contribute to the extinction of a species.

177. Why do scientists argue that climate change may be leading to a mass extinction?

178. Is it theoretically possible for altruistic behavior to evolve if relatedness is very low (for example, r = 0.05)? Why or why not?

179. The earliest nervous system fossils are from a little over half a billion years ago, yet the earliest fossilized life is known from 3.5 billion years ago. Do you think behavior could have emerged before the origin of a nervous system? Give examples to support your answer.

180. The stability of mutualisms is sometimes described as being "on a knife edge," with the possibility of shifting to an antagonistic, rather than a mutually beneficial, interaction. Using yucca moths as an example, explain why this is the case.

181. Explain how endogenous retroviruses and mobile genetic elements have coevolved with their host genomes.

182. Why are scientists particularly concerned about the impact of rising carbon dioxide levels on marine diversity?

183. When population density is high and food availability is low, stress steroids are elevated in snowshoe hares, preventing females from reproducing. A biologist argues that this mechanism has evolved because it keeps the population from overexploiting its food resources and driving itself to eventual extinction. Do you agree with this argument? Why or why not?

184. You are studying virulence evolution in a virus that infects two different populations of elephants. One of the elephant populations is characterized by large population size and high density, while the other is smaller and much less dense. How might these differences influence the evolution of virulence in the pathogen?

185. Describe the two hypotheses related to the evolution of nervous systems in animals. Be sure to include discussion of the sister groups of animals and mention specifically how sponges and ctenophores play a role in each hypothesis. Feel free to sketch a phylogeny for either or both hypotheses if it helps.

186. Considering potential trade-offs between replication within hosts and transmission between hosts, would you expect parasites/pathogens to evolve to be more virulent if they are transmitted vertically (parent to offspring through reproduction) or horizontally (individual to individual)? Explain.

187. Describe how parasites may exert negative frequency-dependent selection on their hosts.

188. The mouthless jellyfish, Mastigias paupua, has a symbiotic relationship with the photosynthetic organisms that live inside its tissues and can absorb nutrients from the soil at the bottom of a body of water. The jellyfish migrates upward in the water column toward the surface during the day and descends at night. Provide one proximate and one ultimate explanation for this behavior.

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ch 13 - 16 189. Scott Carroll found that soapberry bug populations in Northern Australia had longer beaks than those in eastern Australia, even though both populations lived on the invasive balloon vine. What is an explanation for

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ch 13 - 16 these differences?

190. Allopatric speciation is probably the most common way that new species form. Please describe a hypothetical scenario in which an initial ancestral population could split to form a new species through allopatric speciation. A fully correct answer will incorporate the following terms: gene flow, divergence, natural selection (including sexual selection), genetic drift, reproductive isolation, and reinforcement.

191. You are studying crickets and notice that some male crickets produce long songs, while others produce shorter songs. Describe one method that would allow you to determine whether these differences have at least a partial genetic basis.

192. Why might higher tolerance for TTX be more advantageous for garter snakes in some environments than in others?

193. Critique the following statement: Some individuals in nearly all species do not breed. A reasonable explanation for this is that species maintain non-breeding individuals as insurance. Non-breeding individuals are hardier and exist to replenish the population after a period of harsh conditions.

194. Please explain why most scientists now accept the idea that the most recent common ancestor of eukaryotes likely possessed mitochondria.

195. Discuss the current distribution of marsupials in comparison to where they are thought to have originated.

A complete answer should include the terms molecular phylogeny, morphological phylogeny, and historical distribution.

196. Describe a situation where biologists using the phylogenetic species concept and those using the biological species concept would reach different conclusions on whether two populations represent different species.

197. Describe how Heather Henter was able to show that parasitism success in wasps was a heritable trait that varied in the population.

198. Assume that the following figure represents a particular clade of organisms in the geological record. Use the figure to tell the history of diversity of the clade at each stage. Be sure to include the standing diversity and whether it was increasing or decreasing during each stage. Also include the average turnover in originations and extinctions.

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ch 13 - 16

199. Explain how the vertebrate brain can reflect the evolutionary history and ecological specialization of a species.

200. Please discuss two abiotic factors that may have contributed to the profusion of animal diversity during the Cambrian.

201. What is the tempo of evolutionary change? A complete answer will explain both theories.

202. Is the fact that many plant species are capable of self-fertilization is important in understanding why polyploid speciation is more common in plants than in animals? Explain why or why not.

203. How did an increased understanding of plate tectonics help biogeographers better understand the distribution of species?

204. Discuss two factors that may trigger an adaptive radiation and provide an example of each.

205. When Sandra Anderson and her colleagues studied fruit set of Rhabdothamnus solandri on the mainland and on the island, why was it important to measure fruit set when flowers were hand pollinated?

206. What evidence did Janzen and colleagues find while studying the neotropical skipper butterfly, Astraptes fulgerator, that led them to test whether it was a cryptic species. What are the implications of their findings?

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ch 13 - 16 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. e 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. b Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 24. a

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ch 13 - 16 25. b 26. d 27. e 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 48. a

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ch 13 - 16 49. a 50. d 51. b 52. e 53. b 54. e 55. e 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. c Test 73. cBank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. d 78. e 79. c 80. c 81. d 82. d 83. c 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. b 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. b Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 97. b

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ch 13 - 16 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. d 102. d 103. d 104. e 105. e 106. d 107. a 108. a 109. b 110. c 111. e 112. d 113. e 114. d 115. d 116. d 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. e 121. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

122. a

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ch 13 - 16 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. b 128. e 129. d 130. d 131. c 132. c 133. d 134. c 135. c 136. c 137. b 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. d 142. d 143. e 144. e 145. c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 13 - 16 146. b

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ch 13 - 16 147. a 148. b 149. a 150. c 151. c 152. e 153. a 154. d 155. e 156. e 157. d 158. b 159. c 160. c 161. c 162.

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ch 13 - 16 172.

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ch 13 - 16 195.

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ch 13 - 16 196.

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ch 17 - 18 Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Mutations that increase the risk of breast cancer in women are also associated with higher rates of childbirth.

This is an example of a. antagonistic pleiotropy. b. antigenic shift. c. balancing selection. d. thrifty genotypes.

2. How are scientists investigating the evolution of language? a. by studying behavior in nonhuman relatives b. by studying the genetics of language c. by studying the evolution of the brain d. all of the above 3. Which statement best describes antagonistic pleiotropy? a. Certain diseases have low frequencies in young people, but the frequencies increase as people age. b. There are many genes that work together to control aging and thus many opportunities for mutations. c. Some diseases have low frequencies in geographic populations with high frequencies of certain mutations. d. Mutations contributing to aging can increase in frequency if those same mutations promote fitness earlier in life.

4. How recent is Homo naledi thought to have lived? a. 300,000 years ago b. 236,000 years ago c. 200,00 years ago d. 47,000 years ago 5. According to the current fossil record, Acheulean technology a. was restricted to the genus Homo. b. was found in the genera Homo and Australopithecus. c. was more ancient than Oldowan tools. d. was shared by all hominins.

6. In the following figure, what does the length of the branches show?

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ch 17 - 18

a. time b. haplotype frequency c. morphological change d. genetic difference 7. Two copies of the HbS allele cause sickle-cell anemia, but a single HbS allele helps protect individuals from malaria. This is an example of a. antigenic shift. b. heterozygote advantage. c. reassortment. d. natural selection.

8. The phenomenon that can produce high frequencies of deleterious alleles in small, isolated populations is a. antigenic shift. b. the founder effect. c. natural selection. d. resistance.

9. Selection within pathogen hosts typically favors

; selection across hosts favors

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ch 17 - 18 a. more virulent strains; less virulent strains b. less virulent strains; more virulent strains

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ch 17 - 18 c. less virulent strains; less virulent strains d. more virulent strains; more virulent strains 10. What evidence suggests that early hominins used tools to gather meat? a. blood stains on tools b. cut marks on the fossil bones of large mammals c. There is no evidence than non-Homo hominins used tools to gather meat. d. a and b 11. Our earliest evidence suggests that Homo sapiens evolved in Africa; how long did our own species stay in Africa before spreading outside the continent? a. almost 500,000 years b. almost 300,000 years c. almost 200,000 years d. almost 100,000 years 12. Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with motivation? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. epinephrine d. nitric oxide 13. In the future, an increase in emerging pathogens from animal sources is a. an inevitable consequences of evolution. b. likely to decrease as scientists find ways to combat viruses. c. likely to increase as humans intrude farther into wild regions. d. not a likely threat because scientists have eliminated viruses like SARS. 14. Abstract modifications to objects outside of functional use, such as on shells found with Homo erectus in Indonesia, may date back to a. 1 million years ago. b. 500,000 years ago. c. 2 million years ago. d. 900,000 years ago.

15. Pathogens evolve rapidly because a. they can detoxify drugs. b. they reproduce rapidly. c. their random mutation rates are high. d. b and c Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 e. a, b, and c

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ch 17 - 18 16. Which of the following statements best describes the hypothesis for how the human SARS virus came into being? a. Two different species of bats bit a Chinese farmer. b. Different viral strains repeatedly jumped from infected bats to humans. c. The virus tracked the evolution of humans over thousands of years. d. Two strains of the virus in one bat mixed their genes through recombination.

17. Which hypothesis about the selective forces influencing brain size has the strongest supporting evidence? a. Brain size increased as humans became more social and cultured. b. Brain size increased as making tools and using them to process food increased. c. Brain size has mostly experienced stasis as opposing selective forces result in stabilizing selection. d. a and b 18. What fraction of the world's population got sick with the flu in 1918? a. 1/100 b. 1/10 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 19. Neanderthals and Denisovans split approximately a. 530,000 years ago. b. 430,000 years ago. c. 400,00 years ago. d. 200,00 years ago.

20. Fossil LD 350-1 consists only of the left side of the lower jaw. What can we infer from such sparse clues? a. LD 350-1 was Homo erectus because of the smaller sized jaw. b. LD 350-1 was from the genus Homo because of the smaller sized teeth. c. LD 350-1 is from 2.8 mya and the oldest fossil from the Homo clade. d. a and c e. b and c 21. Individuals who inherit silent or defective alleles of tumor-suppressor genes a. will inevitably develop cancer during their lifetime. b. require fewer spontaneous somatic mutations to start tumor growth. c. are less susceptible to environmental mutagens. d. all of the above 22. The shift in diet to animal meat with increased tool use likely caused what anatomical change in Homo erectus?

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ch 17 - 18 a. increasingly flared rib cage b. smaller digestive system

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ch 17 - 18 c. increased brain size d. a and b e. b and c 23. With which species were Levallois tools first found? a. Homo heidelbergensis b. Homo sapiens c. Homo erectus d. Neanderthals 24. What have studies on the evolution of the hominin brain revealed? a. Expansion of the arcuate fasciculus may have created links in the brain that make language possible. b. Enlargement of the putamen and cerebellum may have increased the precision of the larynx. c. Full-blown language may be unique to modern humans. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 25. To create a drug that would stop infections of Pseudomonas aeruginosa in people with cystic fibrosis without encouraging the evolution of drug-resistant strains, researchers are trying to target the bacteria's ability to a. move from host to host. b. bind to iron in the host. c. form colonies in the lungs of the host. d. bind to surface proteins on the host cells.

26. Evolving very rapidly (hypermutation) would favor bacteria living in a. less challenging environments. b. unchanging environments. c. novel, extreme environments. d. any environment.

27. The virulence of a pathogen is not fixed, meaning that a. pathogens can't evolve to become more virulent. b. pathogens can evolve to become more or less virulent. c. all species of pathogens do not have the same virulence. d. virulence can vary among species but not within a species.

28. People who have been vaccinated for the flu but still contract it are less likely to a. suffer severe symptoms. b. end up in the intensive care unit.

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ch 17 - 18 c. get the flu next flu season.

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ch 17 - 18 d. a and b e. a, b, and c 29. What do Laetoli fossilized footprints of early hominins reveal? a. Their feet landed heel-first. b. They walked with stiff legs. c. They were more bipedal than chimpanzees. d. a and c e. b and c f. a, b, and c 30. What does the flu virus use the protein hemagglutinin for? a. to weaken the membrane of the host cell b. to aid in copying the flu genome c. to latch onto acids on the host cell d. to recruit the host cell's genetic machinery 31. Where are the oldest hominin fossils found? a. Africa b. Asia c. Europe d. the Americas 32. Which of the following processes help(s) to explain the high incidence of certain rare genetic diseases in the Amish? a. bottlenecks b. inbreeding c. natural selection d. a and b e. a, b, and c 33. How many pieces of RNA does a flu virus have? a. 1 b. 8 c. 13 d. 23 34. Sequencing genomes of the Lassa virus to test hypotheses about its spread is an example of the application of a. evolutionary medicine.

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ch 17 - 18 b. medical biology.

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ch 17 - 18 c. genetics. d. phylogenies.

35. If Homo floresiensis evolved from H. habilis, what implication does this have for human evolution? a. Homo expanded out of Africa once. b. Homo expanded out of Africa twice. c. Homo habilis originated in Asia. d. Homo erectus originated in Asia.

36. Humans often form long-term bonds, having sex exclusively with their partners. What type of mating system is this? a. sexual monogamy b. polyandry c. social monogamy d. promiscuity 37. You are studying how tools have evolved through cultural evolution. You find several instances where groups with very different technologies meet and there is a transfer of technology from one group to the other.

This is analogous to what process in biological evolution? a. genetic drift b. natural selection c. Mendelian inheritance d. horizontal gene transfer 38. Which of the following is/are true regarding DNA in fossils? a. It is impossible to extract DNA from fossils. b. Scientists have hominin DNA from one million years ago. c. Although DNA degrades over time, scientists have been able to extract DNA from some australopithecine remains. d. b and c e. none of the above 39. Which of the following viruses is incorrectly paired with its animal source? a. HIV—apes b. influenza—birds c. Lassa—rats d. SARS—mice 40. At present, what is the most common cause of death in developed countries? a. infectious diseases Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 b. noncommunicable diseases c. childhood diseases

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ch 17 - 18 d. zoonotic diseases 41.

are typically , but with increased expression of the vasopressin gene, begin to act like voles. a. Prairie voles; monogamous; polygynous b. Meadow voles; polyandrous; monogamous c. Prairie voles; polygynous; monogamous d. Meadow voles; polygynous; monogamous

42. The idea that within-host selection favors higher virulence assumes that a. more rapidly replicating strains cause more damage to their hosts. b. more rapidly replicating strains cause less damage to their hosts. c. hosts evolve defenses against pathogens. d. a and c e. b and c 43. Hominins include a. all of the great apes. b. humans and all extinct species branching from the human lineage after the split from the last common ancestor with chimpanzees. c. humans and chimpanzees. d. species belonging to the genus Homo.

44. What fraction of human proteins have evolved new amino acids under selection pressure from viruses? a. 1/10 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 45. What feature do humans and other primates share that caused Linnaeus and other early taxonomists to group them together? a. opposable toes b. forward-facing eyes c. a tail d. hair 46. What is true of fear in humans? a. Humans may have certain innate fears. b. Humans are capable of learning fear. c. Fear has an adaptive advantage to help humans freeze, flee, or retaliate.

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ch 17 - 18 d. b and c e. a, b, and c

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ch 17 - 18 47. Why might natural selection have favored hands with fingers capable of precise movements in Homo erectus? a. Fine motor control would facilitate tool use. b. Precise movements would facilitate movement among tree branches. c. Increased tool use would allow hominins to access more food. d. a and c e. a, b, and c 48. After studying the phylogeny of the Lassa virus, scientists discovered that viruses from different regions were not closely related to each other. This supports the hypothesis that a. the virus was spreading from person to person. b. the virus jumped from rats to people recently. c. the virus was jumping repeatedly from rats to people. d. there were no genetic patterns to the transmission of the virus.

49. Harmless bacteria from the environment can become pathogenic once they are inside a host because a. bacteria can survive in many types of environments. b. the host does not have antibodies to fight the bacteria. c. the bacteria can evolve adaptations to survive in the host. d. the host environment has nutrients the bacteria need to be pathogenic.

50. The argument that susceptibility to diabetes and obesity rose as people adapted to different climates provides an alternative to which idea? a. antagonistic pleiotropy b. hygiene hypothesis c. Old Friends hypothesis d. thrifty genotype hypothesis 51. Which organisms are known to use tools? a. only hominins b. only Homo c. organisms other than hominins, including chimpanzees d. organisms other than hominins, including chimpanzees and corvids 52. Which of the following patterns suggests that cytomegalovirus has tracked the evolution of its primate hosts for millions of years? a. The cytomegalovirus phylogeny mirrors the phylogeny of primates. b. The cytomegalovirus phylogeny mirrors the phylogeny of other viruses. c. The cytomegalovirus phylogeny has fewer branches than the phylogeny of primates.

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ch 17 - 18 d. The cytomegalovirus phylogeny is very different from the phylogeny of nonhuman primates.

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ch 17 - 18 53. Which of the following lineages of hominins likely interbred? a. Neanderthals and ancestral Eurasian humans b. Denisovans and ancestral Southeast Asian humans c. Ancestral Europeans and ancestral Asians d. a and b e. a, b, and c f. none of the above 54. Which of the following helps to explain why antibiotic resistance can evolve especially quickly? a. Bacteria reproduce quickly. b. Bacteria can acquire genes from other bacteria. c. Antibiotics provide strong selection pressure. d. all of the above 55. Increases in the average life span since the mid-20th century are driven by a. declining childhood mortality. b. increasing of the maximum life span. c. increasing survival of people over 45. d. all of the above 56. Which of the following results would provide support for the thrifty genotype hypothesis? a. Alleles involved in the development of diabetes show signatures of positive selection in the past. b. Mice with diabetes reproduce less under conditions of persistent food stress. c. Genome sequencing of 60,000-year-old human fossils reveals that alleles linked with diabetes were at a lower frequency in the past. d. all of the above e. none of the above 57. Which of the following is not a trait that the Australopithecines share with chimpanzees? a. brain volume of 400 cc b. weight between 25 and 50 kg c. double curved spine d. curved fingers and toes 58. The relationship between the presence of malaria and high frequencies of the disease-causing HbS allele in Africa is an example of which type of selection? a. balancing b. directional c. disruptive d. sexual Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 59. What were Ron Fouchier and colleagues trying to find out with their serial passage experiment in ferrets?

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ch 17 - 18 a. how the global spread of bird flu could be prevented b. the number of people that could die in a future bird flu outbreak c. how bird flu evolved the capacity to establish itself in the human airway d. the mutations that would give bird flu the capacity to spread from person to person 60. Human populations native to the Americas have much lower genetic diversity than human populations in Africa. This fact is best explained by a. natural selection. b. genetic drift resulting from the founder effect. c. a reduced mutation rate. d. larger population size.

61. Some controversial evidence of hominin tools in China suggests that hominins may have left Africa as early as a. 60,000 years ago. b. 1 million years ago. c. 2.1 million years ago. d. 500,000 years ago.

62. Which of the following diseases does not generally follow Mendelian rules of inheritance? a. breast cancer b. cystic fibrosis c. Huntington's d. sickle-cell anemia 63. How did Neanderthal anatomy differ from Homo sapiens? a. wider shoulders and hips b. stockier build c. some had larger brains d. a and b e. a, b, and c 64. Mutations occur across the genome at random, but tumors form when a mutation occurs in genes that control a. the production of antibodies. b. the rate of cell division. c. the regulation of hormones. d. the storage of energy.

65. The flu virus can evade the human immune system with mutations that Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 a. reduce the virulence of the flu. b. provide more efficient replication.

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ch 17 - 18 c. change the tip of the hemagglutinin stalk. d. all of the above 66. What traits of hominin teeth were associated with the shift from eating primarily fruits and leaves to eating seeds and nuts? a. smaller incisors and canines b. larger molars c. thicker enamel d. all of the above 67. The coccyx bone of humans and the true tail of most primates are examples of a. a Homologous character. b. a vestigial character. c. convergent evolution. d. all of the above 68. Viruses and bacteria can acquire additional genetic variation through a. horizontal gene transfer. b. recombination. c. sexual reproduction. d. single nucleotide polymorphisms.

69. What types of dental force are needed to eat seeds and nuts? a. crushing and grinding b. shearing and cutting c. gripping and tearing d. all of the above 70. What Homo erectus characteristic is more like that of Australopithecines than like modern humans? a. similar height b. narrow hips c. brow ridges d. long, slender legs 71. How might corrective lenses have affected human evolution? a. Modern humans with faulty vision have decreased survivorship. b. Modern humans with faulty vision have decreased reproductive success. c. Modern humans with faulty vision can increase fitness by wearing corrective lenses. d. none of the above Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 72. When a disease spreads across the globe this is known as a(n) a. epidemic.

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ch 17 - 18 b. mutant swarm. c. outbreak. d. pandemic.

73. The figure below shows two regions (p17 and V3) of the HIV genome in the same patient. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the graph?

a. V3 has gone through more evolutionary change than p17. b. p17 is less tolerant of mutations than V3. c. Mutations in the V3 region are likely to have neutral or positive effects. d. all of the above 74. What evidence exists for sophisticated hunting in Homo heidelbergensis? a. butchered bones of wild horses b. rhinoceroses and other large mammals found at the bottom of cliffs c. tool exchange among cultures d. a and b e. a, b, and c 75. The frequency of Huntington's disease can increase in a population because Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 a. the disease only affects certain ethnic groups. b. the disease has a dominant pattern of inheritance.

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ch 17 - 18 c. symptoms generally emerge after reproductive age. d. the mutation that causes it protects individuals against other diseases.

76. For the most part, early human populations a. remained isolated. b. expanded into new regions. c. made frequent contact with other human populations. d. remained genetically similar to other human populations.

77. Which of the following statements is accurate? a. Apes and hominins are more closely related to New World monkeys than to Old World monkeys. b. Apes and hominins are equally related to New and Old World monkeys. c. Apes and hominins are more closely related to Old World monkeys than to New World monkeys. d. Apes descended from Old World monkeys.

78. How do the brains of Homo naledi and H. floresiensis complicate explanations of hominin brain evolution? a. They are larger than other hominin brains, which makes them outliers the general trend. b. They have an unusually large forebrain. c. They are significantly smaller than other hominins of their time. d. They do not complicate hominin brain evolution; they fall in line.

79. What feature did Ardipithecus ramidus possess that were similar to extant humans? a. opposable toes b. flexible feet c. short fingers d. all of the above 80. What does language allow for in humans that is difficult for other populations? a. making complex plans together b. gaining a deep understanding of the inner lives of other humans c. teaching each other new concepts and technologies d. all of the above 81. Bottleneck and founder effects are situations that make what condition more likely to affect allele frequencies in a population? a. nonrandom mating b. natural selection c. genetic drift d. mutation Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 82. How could upright walking have helped early hominins stay cool? a. increased convective heat loss

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ch 17 - 18 b. cutaneous evaporative cooling c. minimized skin exposure to the sun d. b and c e. a, b, and c 83. Which of the following is not a type of Oldowan technology? a. hammer stone b. flake scraper c. hand axe d. bifacial chopper 84. Based on the pattern of colonization of different areas of the world, which region is expected to have the lowest genetic diversity? a. Middle East b. Africa c. Europe d. the Americas 85. Which of the following viruses has/have jumped to humans from another species? a. HIV b. SARS c. influenza d. all of the above 86. Which is most likely true regarding the presence of the lactase (LCT) allele in European populations? a. The LCT allele, which evolved in the European population, increased in frequency after the advent of agriculture. b. The LCT allele was brought to European populations by Russian steppe nomads. c. Early European farmers did not carry the LCT allele. d. a and c e. b and c 87. What is a hominin? a. an order of primates b. a family of greater apes c. a family of human-like apes d. a clade of humans and human-like apes 88. Which of the following is not a feature that suggests bipedalism? a. foramen magnum of the skull oriented vertically Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 b. femur with a ball at its top

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ch 17 - 18 c. spine with a double curve d. long curved toes and fingers 89. The e4 allele is common in the world population (14.5% of people are carriers) despite being a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease. Which idea best explains this? a. antagonistic pleiotropy b. hygiene hypothesis c. "Old Friends" hypothesis d. thrifty genotype hypothesis 90. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates antagonistic pleiotropy? a. Individuals with the S allele for hemoglobin have increased immunity to malaria. b. Certain alleles can make individuals more susceptible to drugs that destroy blood clots. c. Genes that affect cardiovascular disease also affect reproductive traits early in life. d. Some genetic disorders like color blindness are more common in isolated island populations.

91. Which statement below is accurate regarding hominins that first left Africa at least 1.8 million years ago? a. They colonized much of the globe including the Americas. b. They were the ancestors of modern-day humans. c. They all belong to the genus Australopithecus. d. none of the above 92. Most antibiotics in the United States are a. used to treat human infections. b. included in household cleaning products. c. used to treat sick livestock. d. given to healthy farm animals.

93. How can paleoanthropologists determine whether a specimen is a new species of hominin or whether it is an individual of an already known hominin species? a. Study the extent of variation within the known species. b. Evaluate Homoplasic traits among known taxa. c. Evaluate analogous traits among known taxa. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 94. Storing more fat has been shown to be adaptive a. a low abundance of pathogens. b. an unpredictable food supply. c. colder temperatures.

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ch 17 - 18 d. lots of predators.

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ch 17 - 18 95. How might brain shape reveal clues about hominin history? a. The globe-shaped brain of modern humans may result from enlargement of parts that are involved in speech. b. The elongated brains of Neanderthals may reveal that their language capacity was less developed than that of modern humans. c. Only brain size can give scientists clues about cognitive ability. d. a and b e. none of the above 96. The weakened viruses contained in live-virus vaccines can a. trigger an immune response. b. evolve into a new strain of virus. c. be ineffective at providing immunity. d. cause the same symptoms as the normal virus.

97. Which of the following is a way that researchers are trying to predict the next pandemic? a. carrying out viral evolution experiments in the lab b. cataloging the diversity of existing pathogens c. using computers to model the emergence of new strains d. increased monitoring of people who have frequent contact with animals e. all of the above 98. What species of Homo was recently discovered in a South African cave? a. H. habilis b. H. erectus c. H. floresiensis d. H. naledi 99. The end of the Miocene brought what to Africa? a. drop in temperature b. reduced rainfall c. increased food supply d. a and b e. a and c 100. The line in the following graph shows that over time

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ch 17 - 18

a. mice become less susceptible to disease. b. mice become more susceptible to disease. c. bacteria evolve from low to high virulence. d. bacteria evolve from high to low virulence.

101. Understanding how selection affects virulence has led public health officials to use which of the following actions to reduce the transmission of pathogens? a. providing clean drinking water b. encouraging hand washing c. vaccinating a large portion of the population d. all of the above 102. In a serial passage experiment, the evolution of bacterial virulence is no longer constrained by a. antibodies. b. replication. c. selection. d. transmission.

103. How are our brains adapted for language? a. There is an innate ability to learn language. b. Brains are able to hear speech separate from non-speech sounds. c. The cerebral cortex takes up 90% of our brain, allowing for sophisticated thinking like language. d. all of the above 104. What is the age of the oldest hominin tools found so far?

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ch 17 - 18 a. 1.7 million years ago b. 3.3 million years ago

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ch 17 - 18 c. 0.3 million years ago d. 0.2 million years ago 105. A group of antibiotic-resistant genes is known as a a. bundle. b. cassette. c. conjugate. d. lineage.

106. What was unusual about the discovery of Homo naledi? a. It may have evolved around the same time as H. sapiens. b. It had primitive hominin traits. c. It had a brain the size of H. sapiens. d. a and b e. a and c 107. Which of the following is not a way that the human eye is maladaptive? a. It has a blind spot. b. It has camera-like vision. c. The retina can easily detach. d. The lens proteins cannot be repaired.

108. How can we slow the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria? a. Discover new, stronger antibiotics. b. Reduce the use of antibiotics. c. Increase doses of existing antibiotics. d. There is nothing we can do.

109. Primates form a clade; great apes, deeply nested within the primate order, form a clade. a. monophyletic; polyphyletic b. monophyletic; monophyletic c. polyphyletic; paraphyletic d. polyphyletic; monophyletic 110. Which group did the genus Homo evolve from? a. Sahelanthropus b. Orrorin c. Australopithecines d. Ardipithecus Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 111. The process of creating conditions in which viruses evolve reduced virulence is

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ch 17 - 18 a. attenuation. b. resistance development. c. serial passage. d. vaccination.

112. The thrifty genotype hypothesis proposes a. that alleles causing diseases such as diabetes were advantageous at some point in our evolutionary history. b. that modern diets are often rich in nutrients that were more scarce over our evolutionary history. c. that conditions experienced by a developing fetus can affect physiology throughout life. d. a and b e. a, b, and c 113. Octopus eyes differ from human eyes in that a. octopuses have camera-vision eyes. b. octopus eyes do not have blind spots. c. the retinal blood vessels penetrate the eyeball. d. b and c e. a, b, and c 114. What is the name of the phenomenon that explains why a new flu vaccine must be created every year? a. antigenic drift b. antigenic shift c. resistance d. virulence 115. What traits of Homo erectus are inferred adaptations for running? a. long legs b. enlarged gluteus maximus c. a strong arch in the foot d. b and c e. a, b, and c 116. When does figurative art, such as cave paintings and sculpture, begin to appear in the fossil record? a. approximately 75,000 years ago b. approximately 60,000 years ago c. approximately 40,000 years ago d. approximately 35,000 years ago

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ch 17 - 18 117. Considering the evolution of antibiotic resistance, why is it important that patients finish their full cycle of

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ch 17 - 18 antibiotic treatment?

118. What lines of evidence refute Leakey's hypothesis that the evolution of the genus Homo was linked to the origin of tool use?

119. How could the movement of soldiers and unsanitary conditions during World War I have led to the evolution of a more virulent flu strain in 1918?

120. You are interested in the historical pattern of colonization of a hypothetical primate species that evolved in South Asia and then spread to other parts of Asia, then to Europe, the Middle East, and finally to Africa. You hypothesize that a small number of individuals initially left SouthAsia, but you are unsure whether (1) this population rapidly and continuously expanded, spreading to the other regions of the world, or whether (2) colonization of each new region involved small groups of individuals breaking off and migrating to new locations. How could you use data on population genetic diversity to test these hypotheses?

121. Describe the classification of humans, including a description of the order, family, genus, species, and the hominin clade.

122. There are many hypotheses about why obesity and diabetes are increasing in modern societies, many of them based on evolutionary mismatch. Describe three of these hypotheses.

123. A drug called AZT was the first to be used against HIV. Although it initially worked, resistance developed quickly, and eventually the drug was no longer effective. Drug therapies used today, which often combine several different drugs that target different phases of the HIV life cycle into a cocktail, are much more effective over the long term than a single drug used in isolation. Please provide an evolutionary explanation for why newer therapies work better.

124. Why is sickle-cell anemia more common in Africa than the United States?

125. Once cancer cells develop within the body, selection favors their proliferation even though this ultimately may lead to the death of the individual and the cancer cells. What explains this short-sighted evolution?

126. We take a number of measures to decrease the spread of viruses from one person to another (for example, vaccines). Over time, what effect might these efforts have on the evolution of virulence in pathogens?

127. Explain, from an evolutionary perspective, why diseases such as smallpox and measles had such a devastating impact on populations indigenous to the New World.

128. Adaptive evolution typically proceeds through the modification of existing traits. How does the evolution of language-processing centers in the human brain support this idea?

129. Compare Oldowan and Acheulean technology and describe how each may have contributed to the evolution of humans.

130. Describe how knowing the ancestry and genetic makeup of an individual could help doctors diagnose and treat them.

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ch 17 - 18 131. Compare the hunting capability of Homo heidelbergensis, Homo sapiens, and Neanderthals.

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ch 17 - 18 132. Researchers studying human genomes have found that two African Bushmen living within walking distance of one another have more genetic diversity than a European and an Asian who live thousands of miles apart. Explain this observation.

133. You are studying a virus that infects mammals. You are specifically interested in whether the virus frequently jumps from one mammal species to another or whether different strains remain specific to certain hosts over evolutionary time. How could you use phylogenetic methods to test this?

134. Does the fact that humans are more capable than most organisms of altering their environment relax selection pressure on some traits? Please explain using an example.

135. Despite its complexity, the human eye still has its flaws. Why is the human eye a fitting example for how we can better understand the evolution of the human immune system?

136. When designing a live-virus vaccine (for example, the polio vaccine), how do scientists ensure that the virus will not cause human recipients to become ill with the virus?

137. Discuss the origins of the genus Homo. What evidence do researchers have to support these origins?

138. Imagine that in the future we discover a set of genes that is largely responsible for causing aging in humans. Also, imagine that we can alter these genes in some way so that we live longer. Considering antagonistic pleiotropy, why might this be a concern?

139. Please describe two hypotheses that scientists have offered to explain the origin of Homo floresiensis.

140. How does the fact that horizontal gene transfer among bacteria is relatively common influence the rate at which antibiotic resistance evolves?

141. What lines of evidence have scientists been able to use to study brain evolution over the past four million years?

142. Describe two hypotheses that scientists are exploring about the selective pressures that may have given rise to bipedality in the human lineage.

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ch 17 - 18 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. e 21. b 22. e 23. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 24. e

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ch 17 - 18 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. e 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. e 47. d Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 48. c

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ch 17 - 18 49. c 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. e 54. d 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. e 64. b 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. d Test 73. dBank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 74. d 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. e 83. c 84. d 85. d 86. e 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. d 96. a Test Bank For Evolution Making Sense of Life, 3rd Edition Douglas Emlen, Carl Zimmer

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ch 17 - 18 97. e

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ch 17 - 18 98. d 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. d 103. d 104. b 105. b 106. d 107. b 108. b 109. b 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. a 115. e 116. c 117.

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ch 17 - 18 123.

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