Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Chapter 01: Development and Structure of Cells and Tissues Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Mitochondria produce which chemical for intracellular energy? a. ADP b. ATP c. RNA d. DNA ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not ADP, production.

Correct. Mitochondria produce energy via ATP. Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not RNA, production.

Mitochondria generate energy through ATP, not DNA, production.

Recall

REF: pp. 2-3

OBJ: 1

2. Each tissue originates from mesoderm, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Bone b. Liver c. Blood d. Muscle ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Bone tissue develops from mesodermal cells.

Correct. Liver tissue is produced by endodermal cells.

Blood develops from mesodermal cells.

Muscle tissue develops from mesodermal cells.

Recall

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 3

3. Which chemical is called the second messenger? a. aDNA b. mRNA c. dGMP d. cAMP ANS: D

A B C

Feedback cAMP is the second messenger; aDNA is not. cAMP is the second messenger; mRNA is not. cAMP is the second messenger; dGMP is not.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego D

DIF:

Correct. cAMP transmits information to the intracellular organelles when activated by surface receptors on the plasma membrane.

Recall

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 3

4. Which cellular component facilitates protein synthesis? a. Ribosomes b. Lysosomes c. Mitochondria d. Plasmalemma ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Ribosomes synthesize protein.

Lysosomes facilitate the breakdown of intracellular and extracellular substances.

Mitochondria generate energy.

The plasmalemma provides a protective barrier and regulates the transport of substances to and from the cell.

Comprehension

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 1

5. Which organelle produces microtubules? a. Nucleus b. Centriole c. Golgi apparatus d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Centrioles generate microtubules; the nucleus does not.

Correct. Centrioles produce microtubules.

Centrioles generate microtubules; the Golgi apparatus does not.

Centrioles generate microtubules; the endoplasmic reticulum does not.

Recall

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 1

6. Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized as the initial resting stage? a. S phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. Prophase ANS: B

A

Feedback The S phase is characterized as the stage in which DNA synthesis is complete.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego B C D

DIF:

Correct. The G1 phase is the initial resting stage.

The G2 phase is characterized by post-DNA duplication.

Prophase is characterized by four specific structural changes.

Recall

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 1

7. Posttranslational modifications to proteins produced by the rough endoplasmic reticulum are

accomplished by . a. mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus c. messenger RNA d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The Golgi apparatus is responsible for posttranslational alterations; mitochondria are not.

Correct. The Golgi apparatus makes alterations to proteins produced by the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for posttranslational alterations; mRNA is not.

The Golgi apparatus is responsible for posttranslational alterations; the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is not.

Recall

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 1

8. The provides an ideal environment for the implantation and growth of the embryo. a. ovary b. uterine tube c. myometrium d. endometrium ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The ovary is the female reproductive organ, in which the ova or eggs are produced.

The uterine tube conducts the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

The myometrium is the smooth muscle that lines the uterus.

Correct. The endometrium provides the ovum with the nourishment necessary for implantation and growth.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 6-9

OBJ: 3

9. Intercalated disks are present in which type of muscle? a. Cardiac b. Smooth Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego c. Skeletal d. Voluntary ANS: A

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Cardiac is the only type of muscle tissue with intercalated disks.

Intercalated disks are not present in smooth muscle.

Intercalated disks are not present in skeletal muscle.

Intercalated disks facilitate the involuntary contractions of cardiac muscle.

Recall

REF: p. 15

OBJ: 4

10. Developmental abnormalities are not associated with which number of chromosomes? a. 44 b. 45 c. 46 d. 47 ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Developmental abnormalities are associated with less than the normal number of chromosomes (46).

Developmental abnormalities are associated with less than the normal number of chromosomes (46).

Correct. The normal human cell has 46 total chromosomes.

Developmental abnormalities are associated with more than the normal number of chromosomes (46).

Comprehension

REF: p. 16

OBJ: 4

11. Which best describes diapedesis? a. Programmed cell death and fragmentation b. A protective mechanism in the immunologic defense of the body c. The development of a cartilage disk in the neck of each long bone d. The migration of leukocytes between endothelial cells to the site of infection ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Apoptosis is cell death and fragmentation into membrane-bound particles.

The lymphatic system is an immunologic defense mechanism.

The epiphyseal plate is a developmental disk of cartilage.

Correct. Diapedesis is a process whereby leukocytes migrate between endothelial cells to the site of infection.

Comprehension

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 4

12. T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages are produced in the a. spleen b. cerebellum c. lymph nodes d. bone marrow Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the spleen.

Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the cerebellum.

Immune system cells (T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages) are produced in the bone marrow, not the lymph nodes.

Correct. Bone marrow is the site of formation for T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages.

Recall

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 4

13. Which represent the first change in shape of the embryo’s body from a flat sheet of cells? a. Formation of the embryonic disk. b. Formation of neural folds. c. Formation of cartilage. d. Migration of myoblasts from the myotome.

ANS: B

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback The embryonic disk forms from a small inner cell mass within the blastocyst.

This occurs prior to the formation of the three primordial layers, long before the embryo acquires a three-dimensional shape.

Correct. The neural foTldEsScT anBbAeNsK eeSnEdL urLinEgRth.eCtO hiM rd prenatal week. The lateral edges of the neural plate begin to elevate as folds arise dorsally.

Cartilage first appears in the fifth week.

Muscle cells have begun migrating from the myotome by the 10th prenatal week.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 10-11

OBJ: 3

14. Myotome produces which of the following types of tissue? a. Connective b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Epithelial ANS: B

A B

Feedback Connective tissue develops from somites as fibroblasts migrating from either side of the neural tube.

Correct. Myoblasts have begun migrating from the myotome by the 10th prenatal week. They gradually differentiate into elongated, multinucleated muscle fibers.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego C D

DIF:

Nerve is derived from both the cranial and trunk neural crest. When the anterior neural tube closes, it shows three dilations that form the primary brain vesicles.

Skin has an epidermis, a surface cell layer that develops from the surface of ectodermal cells, and a dermis, which arises from the underlying mesoderm.

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

OBJ: 3

15. Which type of bone formation occurs through a tight matrix of collagen fibers, which slowly

calcify into bone? a. Endochondral b. Intramembranous c. Epiphyseal d. Interstitial growth ANS: B

A

B

C

D

DIF:

Feedback Bone replaces cartilage during endochondral bone development. A small blood vessel enters the cartilage shaft, the cartilage calcifies and disintegrates in the center, and a marrow space is formed.

Correct. Intramembranous bone formation is the direct transformation of connective tissue into bone. It is much simpler for bone cells to organize in this manner and to form spicules of bone through coalescence with neighboring spicules until a bony plate is formed.

The epiphyseal plate is a developing cartilage disk that remains in the neck of each long bone and bone forms on either side. It will remain as long as the bone is forming.

Cartilage develops and expands by interstitial growth, which is growth within the cartilage matrix byTE eaSchTB caA rtN ilaKgS eE ceLllLeEnR la. rgC inOgMand forming matrix around each cell.

Comprehension

REF: p. 14

OBJ: 4

16. Blood cells arise from cells called a. neuroblasts. b. fibroblasts. c. osteoblasts. d. angioblasts.

ANS: D

A B C

Feedback Neuroblasts are primitive nerve cells that develop into adult neurons.

Connective tissue develops from the somites as fibroblasts migrating from either side of the neural tube.

Osteoblasts will form bone.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego D

DIF:

Correct. The cardiovascular system originates from cells termed angioblasts, which arise from angiogenic clusters from the visceral mesoderm located in the walls of the yolk sac during the third week. The outer cells organize into a series of elongating tubes and the inner cells become blood cells.

Recall

REF: p. 15

OBJ: 3

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego 17. Each of the following is a derivative of ectoderm EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Tooth enamel b. Tooth dentin c. Epidermis d. Nervous system ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Tooth enamel is derived from ectoderm.

Correct. Tooth dentin is derived from mesoderm. Muscle and connective tissue derivatives such as: bone, cartilage, blood, pulp, cementum, and the periodontal ligament are also derived from mesoderm.

The epidermis, hair, and nails are derived from ectoderm.

The nervous system, sensory epithelium of the eye, ear, and nose, and epithelium of the sinuses, oral and nasal cavities, and intraoral glands are all derived from epithelium.

Comprehension

REF: p. 9

OBJ: 3

18. Which hormone is produced by the placenta? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Prolactin c. Progesterone d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Prolactin is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Correct. The placenta produces hormones such as human chorionic gonadotropin, placental growth factor, human placental lactogen, and progesterone and estrogen.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Comprehension

REF: p. 16

OBJ: 4

TRUE/FALSE 1. The ovum contains twice as many chromosomes as its parent cell.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 4

2. The cell may contain more than one nucleolus.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 1

3. The information in mRNA is translated by ribosomes located on the surface of the rough

endoplasmic reticulum.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 2

4. Spindles present during mitosis are attached to centromeres.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 4

5. DNA replication takes place during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 4

6. Fertilization takes place in the distal part of the uterine tube.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 3

7. Endoderm and ectoderm are the first two germ layers to develop.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 6 | p. 9

leEfS orTsB kiA n NpK igS mE enLt.LER.COM 8. Melanocytes are responsibT ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 10

OBJ: 1

9. The embryonic skeleton first forms as bone.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 12

10. The umbilical system carries oxygenated blood.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

11. The foramen ovale closes during the third week of prenatal life.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

12. Before the development of the vascular system, the vitelline system provides nutrients to the

embryo.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego 13. Smooth muscle is consciously controlled.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

14. The cardiovascular system originates from chondroblasts.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

15. Tissues are most susceptible to teratogens during the proliferative period.

ANS: F

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 4

16. The foramen ovale is an opening between the right and left atria of the heart.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 15

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Chapter 02: Structure and Function of Cells, Tissues, and Organs Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Simple squamous epithelium functions as a lining in which location? a. Mouth b. Vagina c. Kidney d. Pharynx ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The mouth is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

The vagina is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

Correct. The kidney is lined with simple squamous epithelium.

The pharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

Recall

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 1

2. Which cell supports the nervous system? a. Myoblast b. Neuroglia c. Leukocyte d. Melanocyte ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Neuroglial cells, not myoblasts, support the nervous system.

Correct. Liver tissue is produced by endodermal cells.

Neuroglial cells, not leukocytes, support the nervous system.

Neuroglial cells, not melanocytes, support the nervous system.

Recall

REF: p. 19

OBJ: 1

3. Connective tissue proper is classified as a. dense, striated, or smooth b. simple, stratified, or squamous c. dense, loose, or loose with special properties d. dense, elastic, or elastic with special properties

.

ANS: C

A

Feedback Connective tissue is classified as dense, loose, or loose with special properties.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego B C D

DIF:

Connective tissue is classified as dense, loose, or loose with special properties.

Correct. Connective tissue is loose, dense, or loose with special properties.

Connective tissue is classified as dense, loose, or loose with special properties.

Recall

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 1

4. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. Cardiac, skeletal, and smooth b. Striated, voluntary, and smooth c. Cardiac, skeletal, and voluntary d. Voluntary, involuntary, and striated ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. There are three types of muscle tissue—cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.

Muscle tissue is classified as cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.

Muscle tissue is classified as cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.

Muscle tissue is classified as cardiac, skeletal, and smooth.

Recall

REF: p. 21

OBJ: 1

5. How does epithelial tissue renew itself? a. Mitosis of the basal cells b. Mitosis of the granular layer of cells c. By shedding or sloughing the surface cells d. Through nourishment of nearby blood vessels ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Epithelium regenerates through mitosis of the basal cells.

Epithelial cells regenerate through basal cell mitosis.

Epithelial cells regenerate through basal cell mitosis.

Epithelial cells regenerate through basal cell mitosis.

Recall

REF: p. 18

6. Buccal mucosa renews itself in a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 5 to 9 d. 10 to 14

OBJ: 1

days.

ANS: D

A

Feedback Buccal mucosa is replenished every 10 to 14 days, as opposed to 1 to 2 days.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego B C D

Buccal mucosa is replenished every 10 to 14 days, as opposed to 3 to 4 days.

Buccal mucosa is replenished every 10 to 14 days, as opposed to 5 to 9 days.

Correct. Buccal mucosa is replenished every 10 to 14 days.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 1

7. The junctional epithelium of gingiva is replenished every a. 1 to 3 b. 4 to 6 c. 7 to 9 d. 10 to 13

_ days.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Junctional epithelium renews every 4 to 6 days, rather than 1 to 3 days.

Correct. The junctional epithelium of the gingiva is renewed every 4 to 6 days.

Junctional epithelium renews every 4 to 6 days, rather than 7 to 9 days.

Junctional epithelium renews every 4 to 6 days, rather than 10 to 13 days.

Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 1

8. Which term represents a single layer of cells? a. Simple b. Stratified c. Cuboidal d. Columnar ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The term simTpE leSdT esBcrAibNeK sS aE siL ngLleElR ay.eC rO ofMcells.

The term stratified describes several layers of cells.

The term cuboidal describes a cube-shaped cell.

The term columnar describes a column-shaped cell.

Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 2

9. Which epithelium consists of several layers, with only the basal cell layer in contact with the

basal lamina? a. Simple b. Stratified c. Squamous d. Pseudostratified ANS: B

A B C D

Feedback Simple epithelium has only one layer of cells.

Correct. Stratified epithelium consists of several layers, but only the basal cell layer is in contact with the basal lamina.

Squamous epithelial cells are characterized as flat, scale-shaped cells.

Pseudostratified epithelial cells contact the basal lamina, but not the surface.

Test Bank for Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology 5th Edition by Daniel J. Chiego

TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Recall

REF: pp. 18-19

OBJ: 1

10. All body sensations are relayed to the a. brain; spinal cord b. afferent; efferent systems c. voluntary; involuntary muscles d. sympathetic; parasympathetic divisions

and the

.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Sensations received anywhere in the body are relayed to the brain and the spinal cord.

The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body.

The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body.

The brain and spinal cord relay all sensations transmitted within the body.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

11. Impulses conducted from the periphery of the body (e.g., muscles, glands) to the central

nervous system (CNS) are conducted through which system? a. Motor b. Somatic c. Afferent d. Autonomic ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Nerve impulses conducted from the periphery to the CNS travel via afferent, not motor, neurons.

Nerve impulses conducted from the periphery to the CNS travel via afferent, not somatic, pathways.

Correct. The afferent (or sensory) system conducts neural impulses from the periphery to the CNS. Nerve impulses conducted from the periphery to the CNS travels through afferent, not autonomic, pathways.

Recall

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

12. Impulses pass from the CNS to involuntary muscles via the a. sensory b. afferent c. somatic d. autonomic

system.

ANS: D A

Feedback Afferent (sensory) nerve processes carry impulses from the peripheral muscles to

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

B C D

DIF:

the CNS. Afferent (sensory) nerve processes carry impulses from the peripheral muscles to the CNS. Somatic pathways relay neural impulses to voluntary muscles.

Correct. Autonomic pathways relay neural impulses to involuntary muscles.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 3

13. Which body system relies on neural stimuli to function? a. Vascular b. Digestive c. Endocrine d. Respiratory ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The endocrine, not vascular, system depends on neural stimuli to function.

The endocrine, not digestive, system depends on neural stimuli to function.

Correct. The endocrine system depends heavily on neural stimuli to function.

The endocrine, not respiratory, system depends on neural stimuli to function.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

14. The absorption of nutrients occurs in which location? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the mouth.

Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the stomach.

Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine, not the small intestine.

Correct. Nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

15. Internal organs (viscera) receive most of their neural impulses from which nervous system? a. Somatic b. Sensory c. Afferent d. Autonomic ANS: D

A

Feedback Somatic pathways relay neural impulses to voluntary muscles.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B C D

DIF:

Afferent (sensory) nerve processes carry impulses from the peripheral muscles to the CNS. Afferent (sensory) nerve processes carry impulses from the peripheral muscles to the CNS. Correct. Internal organs receive most of their neural impulses from the autonomic nervous system.

Comprehension

REF: p. 28

OBJ: 3

16. Each is part of a neuron EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Axon b. Plasma c. Dendrite d. Perikaryon ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The axon conducts the nerve impulse away from the perikaryon.

Correct. Plasma, the fluid part of blood, is not a component of the neuron.

The dendrite receives nerve impulses.

The perikaryon is the cell body of the neuron.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 20-22

OBJ: 2

17. Which of the following insulates axons located outside the CNS? a. Bone b. Endomysium c. Myelin sheath d. Connective tissue ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback A myelin sheath protects and insulates axons located outside the CNS; bone does not.

A myelin sheath protects and insulates axons located outside the CNS; endomysium does not.

Correct. A myelin sheath protects and insulates axons located outside the CNS. A myelin sheath protects and insulates axons located outside the CNS; connective tissue does not.

Recall

REF: p. 19

18. Neuroglia cells are a. slightly less b. slightly more c. significantly less d. significantly more

OBJ: 2

numerous than neurons.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Neuroglia cells are significantly more, not slightly less, numerous than neurons.

Neuroglia cells are significantly, not slightly, more numerous than neurons.

Neuroglia cells are significantly more, not less, numerous than neurons.

Correct. Neuroglia cells are 5- to 50-fold more numerous than neurons.

Comprehension

REF: p. 19

OBJ: 2

19. The spinal cord consists of how many segments? a. 21 b. 22 c. 30 d. 31 ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The spinal cord consists of 31, not 21, segments.

The spinal cord consists of 31, not 22, segments.

The spinal cord consists of 31, not 30, segments.

Correct. The spinal cord consists of 31 segments.

Recall

REF: p. 19

OBJ: 3

20. Ligaments and tendons areTcE oS mT poBsA edNoKfSwEhL icL hE tisRs. ueC?OM a. Neural b. Muscle c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not neural, tissue.

Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not muscle, tissue.

Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective, not epithelial, tissue.

Correct. Ligaments and tendons are made of dense connective tissue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 20

21. Which of the following is not a type of cartilage? a. Dense b. Elastic c. Fibrous d. Hyaline ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. There are three types of cartilage—hyaline, elastic, and fibrous.

Elastic cartilage can be found in the epiglottis.

Fibrous cartilage can be found in the vertebral disks.

Hyaline cartilage can be found in the nose.

Comprehension

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 2

22. Which organ is part of the lymphatic system? a. Thyroid b. Thymus c. Pancreas d. Parathyroid ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The thyroid is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system.

Correct. The lymphoid organs include the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.

The pancreas is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system.

The parathyroid is part of the endocrine, not lymphatic, system.

Comprehension

REF: p. 31

OBJ: 2

23. Which of the following is not a major function of the urinary system? a. Controls blood volume b. Controls blood pressurT e ESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Controls testosterone levels d. Controls urine composition ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Blood volume control is a major function of the urinary system.

Blood pressure control is a major function of the urinary system.

Correct. Testosterone levels are controlled by the reproductive system, not the urinary system.

Urine composition is a major function of the urinary system.

Comprehension

REF: p. 33

OBJ: 3

24. Which function is associated with the skin? a. Excretes waste products b. Absorbs nutrients from ingested food c. Supplies a framework for muscle and ligament attachments d. Relays information from the glands to the central nervous system ANS: A

Feedback

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A B C D

DIF:

Correct. A major function of the skin is excretion of waste products (e.g., carbon dioxide, water, salts, urea).

Absorption of nutrients is a function of the digestive system.

The skeletal system supplies the framework for muscle and ligament attachments.

The nervous system relays information from the glands to the central nervous system.

Comprehension

REF: p. 28

OBJ: 3

25. Which organ system is the largest? a. Digestive b. Endocrine c. Respiratory d. Integumentary ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the digestive system.

The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the endocrine system.

The integumentary (skin) system is larger than the respiratory system.

Correct. The integumentary (skin) system is the largest organ system in the human body.

Recall

REF: p. 28

OBJ: 3

26. Each of the following is a function of the large intestine EXCEPT one. Which is the

EXCEPTION? a. Absorption of nutrition b. Dehydration of food c. Reduce food to liquid chyme d. Compress food into solid waste ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The large intestine functions in the absorption of nutrition.

Dehydration of food occurs in the large intestine.

Correct. Food is reduced to liquid chyme in the stomach.

Food is compressed into solid waste in the large intestine.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

27. Which type of tissue lines the respiratory tract to move foreign particles out of the respiratory

system? a. Dendrites b. Neuroglia c. Cilia d. Sebaceous glands

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Dendrites are a component of the neuron that receive impulses and conduct these impulses toward the cell body.

Neuroglial cells protect and support nerve cells.

Correct. Cilia move particulate substances to the pharynx and out of the respiratory system.

Sebaceous glands are located in skin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 29

OBJ: 2

28. Blood returns to the heart through a. capillaries. b. veins. c. large elastic arteries. d. smaller muscular arteries.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Capillaries are thin tubes formed by a single layer of highly permeable endothelial cells. They are exchange vessels for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Correct. Veins carry blood from the capillaries back to the heart. The pressure of the venous system is low and the walls of veins are thin.

Large elastic arteries T caErrS yTbB loA odNfKroSm thL eE heRa. rtCuO ndMer high pressure. The EL elasticity is to even out the pressure of the blood being pumped by heart.

Smaller muscular arteries carry blood from the heart.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 29-30

OBJ: 2

29. Blood is an example of which of the following four primary types of tissue? a. Neural b. Epithelial c. Connective d. Muscle ANS: C

A

B

C

Feedback Neural tissue consists of central nervous system, which comprises brain and spinal cord, and the nerves and their ganglia, which comprises peripheral nervous system.

Simple squamous epithelium lines the blood vascular and respiratory systems, kidney, most glands, and intestine. Stratified squamous epithelium covers the body and is the lining of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, vagina, anus, and part of the urinary bladder.

Correct. Blood and lymph are types of connective tissue that function to carry oxygen and nutrients to body tissues and to carry carbon dioxide to the lungs,

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

D

DIF: 30.

where it is eliminated.

The three types of muscle—striated, smooth, and cardiac—are differentiated according to the shape of the cells, matrix, and their functions in the body.

Comprehension

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 1

Which is true regarding the central nervous system (CNS)? a. The CNS is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. b. The CNS is composed of the brain, but not the spinal cord. c. The efferent system carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS. d. The somatic nervous system carries impulse from the CNS to involuntary muscles.

ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The CNS is the control center of the nervous system and comprises brain and spinal cord. The brain is located in the cranium and is connected to the peripheral tissues by cranial nerves and to the spinal cord by spinal nerves.

The CNS is composed of the brain AND the spinal cord.

The afferent system carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS. The efferent autonomic nervous system carries impulses from the CNS to involuntary muscles.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 27-28

OBJ: 2

31. Which layer of epithelium is the deepest, germinating layer? a. Spinous layer b. Basal layer c. Granular layer d. Clear layer ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The spinous layer is called stratum spinosum. It is seen as the basal cells dry out and migrates peripherally.

Correct. The basal layer is the deepest, germinating layer.

The granular layer contains cells with keratohyalin granules.

The clear layer is called stratum lucidum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 26

OBJ: 2

32. Which organ system secretes and regulates hormones in the blood? a. Exocrine b. Endocrine c. Lymphatic system d. Neural system

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

A B

C

D

DIF:

Feedback The exocrine system consists of sweat glands.

Correct. A basic function of endocrine glands is to secrete hormones into the vascular circulation. Hormones help regulate metabolism energy balance and aid in regulation of involuntary smooth and cardiac muscle fibers.

The lymphoid organs are part of the immune system. A characteristic of the immune system is the ability to recognize and react specifically to macromolecules that are foreign to the body.

The neural system transmits nerve impulses throughout the body.

Comprehension

REF: p. 31

OBJ: 3

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 2

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. Blood provides protection from bacteria.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

2. Bone is calcified connective tissue.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

3. Osteoporosis affects men at an earlier age than women.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

TCEom SpTrB ehA enNsiKoS n ELLER.COM

REF: p. 24

4. Equilibrium is controlled by tiny organs, which are located in the middle ear.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 34

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Chapter 03: Development of the Oral Facial Region Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which defines the term synchondrosis? a. The rod-shaped cartilage of the hyoid arch. b. The center of all growth and function in the mandible. c. A band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells. d. A union of two bones that have been separated by cartilage.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Reichert’s cartilage is the rod-shaped cartilage of the hyoid or second arch.

The body of the mandible is the mandibular center for growth and function.

Syndesmosis is a band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells.

Correct. Synchondrosis is an articulation in which new cartilage is formed in the center of the suture, whereas peripheral cartilage is transformed into bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 45

OBJ: 2

2. Which type of bone protects the brain? a. Short b. Dermal c. Sesamoid d. Membrane ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain; short bones do not.

Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain; dermal bones do not.

Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain; sesamoid bones do not.

Correct. Membrane (or flat) bones form a protective covering for the brain.

Recall

REF: p. 42

OBJ: 2

3. In the first 20 weeks, the prenatal mandible articulates with which bone(s)? a. Incus b. Malleus c. Stapes d. Both A and B ANS: D

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A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The prenatal mandible articulates at the contact point of the malleus and incus for the first 20 weeks of life.

The prenatal mandible articulates at the contact point of the malleus and incus for the first 20 weeks of life.

The prenatal mandible articulates at the contact point of the malleus and incus for the first 20 weeks of life.

Correct. The prenatal mandible articulates at the contact point of the malleus and incus for the first 20 weeks of life.

Comprehension

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 1

4. Which of the following arises from the first pharyngeal arch? a. Inferior hyoid b. Laryngeal cartilages c. Tissues that form the cheeks d. Muscles of facial expression ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The inferior hyoid originates from the third pharyngeal arch.

The laryngeal cartilages originate from the fourth pharyngeal arch.

Correct. The maxillary tissues that form the cheeks originate from the first pharyngeal arch.

The muscles of facial expression originate from the second pharyngeal arch.

Recall

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 1

5. Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Orbicularis oculi d. Lateral pterygoid ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The masseter is a muscle of mastication; the orbicularis oculi is not.

The temporalis is a muscle of mastication; the orbicularis oculi is not.

Correct. The muscles of mastication include the masseter, temporalis, and lateral pterygoid muscles. The orbicularis oculi closes the eyelid.

The lateral pterygoid is a muscle of mastication; the orbicularis oculi is not.

Comprehension

6. The face develops in the a. first to third b. fourth to seventh c. eighth to eleventh

REF: p. 39

prenatal weeks.

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OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. twelfth to fourteenth ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The face develops in the first to third prenatal weeks.

Correct. The face develops in the fourth to seventh prenatal weeks.

The face develops in the eighth to eleventh prenatal weeks.

The face develops in the twelfth to fourteenth prenatal weeks.

Comprehension

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 2

7. The thymus gland arises from which branchial arch? a. I b. II c. III d. IV ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The thymus gland arises from the third, not the first, branchial arch.

The thymus gland arises from the third, not the second, branchial arch.

Correct. The thymus gland arises from the third branchial arch.

The thymus gland arises from the third, not the fourth, branchial arch.

Recall

REF: TpE . 4S7TBANKS OE BL J: LE 1 R.COM

8. Which branchial arches form the hyoid bone? a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and V ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The first and second branchial arches form the hyoid bone.

Correct. The second and third branchial arches form the hyoid bone.

The third and fourth branchial arches form the hyoid bone.

The fourth and fifth branchial arches form the hyoid bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 47

9. The primitive mouth is known as the a. basion b. sella turcica c. stomodeum d. tympanic membrane

.

ANS: C

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OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The basion is part of the musculoskeletal system, located on the skull.

The sella turcica is a saddle-shaped depression in the sphenoid bone.

Correct. The stomodeum is the primitive mouth.

The tympanic membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear.

Recall

REF: p. 37

OBJ: 1

10. After the fifth prenatal week, the first and fifth branchial arches grow toward each other and

over other arches. This overgrowth obscures the external pharyngeal grooves. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The first statement is false. The second and fifth branchial arches are responsible for the overgrowth and disappearance of the external pharyngeal grooves.

The second statement is true.

The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct. The first statement is false; the second is true.

Comprehension

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 2

11. Which bones support the palatine shelf? a. Maxillary b. Temporal c. Zygomatic d. Mandibular ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The maxillary bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf.

The maxillary, not temporal, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf.

The maxillary, not zygomatic, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf.

The maxillary, not mandibular, bones grow medially to support the palatine shelf.

Recall

REF: p. 42

12. The stomodeum first appears in the a. second b. fourth c. sixth d. eighth

OBJ: 2

week of prenatal development.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum).

Correct. The stomodeum forms in the fourth week of prenatal development.

The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum).

The fourth week of prenatal development is marked by the development of the primitive mouth (stomodeum).

Comprehension

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 1

13. Meckel’s cartilage provides structure for the developing a. maxilla b. mandible c. temporal bone d. zygomatic bone

.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible.

Correct. Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible.

Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible.

Meckel’s cartilage provides a framework for the developing mandible.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 42-44

OBJ: 2

14. Blood vessels in the third pharyngeal arch form the . a. dorsal aorta b. common carotid arteries c. pulmonary blood vessels d. dorsal aorta, common carotid arteries, and pulmonary blood vessels ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The dorsal aorta arises from the fourth, not the third, pharyngeal arch.

Correct. The common carotid arteries arise from the third pharyngeal arch.

The pulmonary blood vessels arise from the sixth, not the third, pharyngeal arch.

Blood vessels in the third pharyngeal arch form only the common carotid arteries, not the dorsal aorta or pulmonary blood vessels.

Comprehension

REF: p. 38

15. The superior parathyroid develops from the

parathyroid develops from the a. fourth; third b. third; fourth

.

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OBJ: 1

pharyngeal pouch, whereas the inferior

TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. fifth; second d. second; fifth ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The superior parathyroid gland develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch; whereas the inferior parathyroid develops from the third.

The superior parathyroid gland develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch; whereas the inferior parathyroid develops from the third.

The superior parathyroid gland develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch; whereas the inferior parathyroid develops from the third.

The superior parathyroid gland develops from the fourth pharyngeal pouch; whereas the inferior parathyroid develops from the third.

Comprehension

REF: p. 47

OBJ: 1

16. The ultimobranchial body is the origin of which hormone? a. Insulin b. Calcitonin c. Dopamine d. Testosterone ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Calcitonin, not i nsu li nT, EisSpTroBdAu cNeK dS byEtLhL eE thR yr.oC idO ,w Mhich originates from the ultimobranchial body.

Correct. Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid, which originates from the ultimobranchial body.

Calcitonin, not dopamine, is produced by the thyroid, which originates from the ultimobranchial body.

Calcitonin, not testosterone, is produced by the thyroid, which originates from the ultimobranchial body.

Comprehension

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 1

17. The mandible is formed from which pharyngeal arch? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: A

A

B

Feedback Correct. The first pharyngeal arch is termed the mandibular arch because it will later form the bony mandible and maxilla and the associated muscles of mastication, nerves, and blood supply.

The second pharyngeal arch, or hyoid arch, forms the facial muscles, vessels,

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C

D

DIF:

and hyoid bone.

The third, fourth, and fifth pharyngeal arches consist of paired right and left bars that are divided before they reach the midline by the presence of the bulging heart.

The third, fourth, and fifth pharyngeal arches consist of paired right and left bars that are divided before they reach the midline by the presence of the bulging heart.

Recall

REF: p. 37

OBJ: 2

18. The cranial base is determined by drawing a line from the nasal bone (nasion) to which

structure? a. External auditory canal b. Tragus of the ear c. Petrous portion of the temporal bone d. Sella turcica ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The external auditory canal is not a landmark used to determine the cranial base.

The tragus of the ear is not a landmark used to determine the cranial base.

The petrous portion of the temporal bone is not a landmark used to determine the cranial base.

Correct. The cranial base is identified by drawing a line from the nasal bone to sella turcica. Sella turcica is a transverse depression in the midline of the sphenoid bone, contaiTniEnS gT thBeA hN ypKoS phEyLsiL s EglRan.dC(OpiMtuitar y gland). A line from sella turcica to nasion to basion is used to determine facial growth.

Recall

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

19. The heart begins beating at the end of which week? a. Second b. Fourth c. Sixth d. Eighth ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The heart has not yet started beating by the end of the second week.

The heart begins beating at the end of the fourth week.

The heart has already started beating prior to the end of the sixth week.

The heart has already started beating prior to the end of the eighth week.

Recall

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 1

20. Each of the following sutures is a facial suture EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Frontomaxillary b. Sagittal

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Zygomaticomaxillary d. Zygomaticotemporal ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The frontomaxillary suture is a facial suture between the frontal and maxillary bones.

Correct. The sagittal suture is between the parietal bones. It is not a facial suture.

The zygomaticomaxillary suture is a facial suture between the zygomatic and maxillary bones.

The zygomaticotemporal suture is a facial suture between the zygomatic and temporal bones.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 45-46

OBJ: 2

21. Which type of facial suture has a beveled or overlapping junction? a. Simple b. Serrated c. Synchondrosis d. Squamosal ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback A simple suture is an uncomplicated band of tissue between bony fronts.

A serrated suture is anTiEnS teT rdB igAitN atK inSgEtyLpL eE ofRs. utCuO reM .

A synchondrosis is not a suture of the face. It has an interposing band of cartilage and is located in the midline.

Correct. A squamosal suture has a beveled or overlapping type junction.

Recall

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 2

22. A pharyngeal fistula opens to drain on the: a. cheek. b. buccal mucosa. c. side of the neck and the pharynx. d. chest.

ANS: C

A B C

D

Feedback Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the cheek.

Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the buccal mucosa.

Correct. Pharyngeal cysts and fistulas contain pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells that produce mucous and may appear along the sides of the neck because the epithelial-lined pockets remain as a result of the overgrowth of the arches. These defects may also open in the pharynx.

Pharyngeal fistulas do not open to drain on the chest.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 1

23. Which gland regulates the body’s calcium balance? a. Thyroid b. Parathyroid c. Pancreas d. Adrenal ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback The thyroid gland produces hormones important in growth, development, and metabolism.

Correct. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium balance throughout life. The third pharyngeal pouch becomes the inferior parathyroids and thymus, and the fourth becomes the superior parathyroids.

The pancreas produces insulin to regulate glucose levels in the blood.

The adrenal glands work in conjunction with the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to manufacture adrenaline, noradrenaline, and glucocorticoids.

Comprehension

REF: p. 38

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. Sutures are fibrous joints.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

TCEom SpTrB ehA enNsiKoS n ELLER.COM

REF: pp. 44-46

2. Facial muscles develop from the second pharyngeal arch.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 36

3. The nasal capsule contains the organ of smell.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 1

4. The mandible develops from the second branchial arch.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 36

5. The muscles of facial expression arise from the hyoid arch.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 47

OBJ: 2

6. The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides taste sensation to the anterior two thirds of the

tongue.

ANS: F

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 42

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 1 7. Branchial clefts may be found along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 36

8. Meckel’s cartilage acts as a framework for the developing mandible.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 42

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Chapter 04: Development of the Face and Palate Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which significant change occurs in the fifth prenatal week? a. The heart begins to beat. b. The bilateral placodes develop into nostrils. c. The palatine shelves grow medially and contact the tongue. d. The eyes move from the side of the face to the front of the face.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The heart begins to beat in the fourth, not the fifth, prenatal week.

Correct. The bilateral placodes develop into nostrils in the fifth prenatal week.

The palatine shelves grow medially and contact the tongue in the seventh, not the fifth, prenatal week.

The eyes move from the side of the face to the front of the face in the sixth, not the fifth, prenatal week.

Comprehension

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 1

2. Which muscle grows around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week? a. Buccinator b. Mylohyoid c. Orbicularis oris d. Zygomatic major ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The orbicularis oris, not buccinators, forms around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week.

The orbicularis oris, not mylohyoid, forms around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week.

Correct. The orbicularis oris forms around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week.

The orbicularis oris, not zygomatic major, forms around the oral pit in the sixth prenatal week.

Recall

REF: p. 50

3. A combination of genetic and a. social b. behavioral c. age-related d. environmental

OBJ: 1

factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts.

ANS: D

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Social factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts.

Behavioral factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts.

Age-related factors are not associated with palatal and facial clefts; genetic and environmental factors are associated with palatal and facial clefts.

Correct. Genetic and environmental factors play a key role in the development of palatal and facial clefts.

Recall

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 4

4. Each cranial nerve innervates the tongue, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. V b. VII c. VIII d. X ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The trigeminal (V) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves VII, IX, X, and XII. The facial (VII) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII. Correct. The vestibulocochlear (VIII) nerve transmits sound and equilibrium information from the T inE neSrTeB arAtoNK thS eE brL aiL n.EIR t d.oCeO s nMo t innervate the tongue.

The vagus (X) nerve innervates the tongue in conjunction with cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and XII. Comprehension

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 3

5. Which best defines the term nasal fin? a. Oblique groove extending from the nostrils to the eyes b. Medial nasal process that composes part of the upper lip c. Zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes d. Wedge-shaped process that assists in the formation of the palate ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The oronasal optic groove is an oblique impression extending from the nostrils to the eyes.

The medial nasal process is called the philtrum.

Correct. The nasal fin is a zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes of the lip.

The primary palate is a wedge-shaped medial process, essential in the formation of the palate.

Comprehension

REF: p. 50

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OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

6. The thyroid gland descends to the front of the trachea, attached to the tongue by the

thyroglossal a. duct b. cyst c. fistula d. swelling

.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The thyroglossal duct connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea.

The thyroglossal duct, not cyst, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea.

The thyroglossal duct, not fistula, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea.

The thyroglossal duct, not swelling, connects the thyroid gland to the tongue during its migration to the front of the trachea.

Comprehension

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 2

7. Which best defines the term fusion? a. A separation of tissues b. The enzymatic action that results in self-destruction c. A merging of adjacent tissues during orofacial development d. The period of growth in wS hiT chBtAhN eK faS ceEbLeL coEmRe. sC reOcoMgnizably human TE ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Fusion is best defined as a merging, rather than separation, of adjacent tissues.

Fusion is best defined as a merging of adjacent tissues.

Correct. Fusion is best defined as the merging of adjacent tissues.

Fusion is best defined as a merging of adjacent tissues.

Comprehension

REF: p. 52

OBJ: 2

8. A swelling that opens on the surface of the neck is called a thyroglossal a. cyst b. duct c. gland d. fistula ANS: D

A B C

Feedback A thyroglossal fistula, not cyst, opens on the surface of the neck.

A thyroglossal fistula, not duct, opens on the surface of the neck.

A thyroglossal fistula, not gland, opens on the surface of the neck.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Correct. A thyroglossal fistula opens on the surface of the neck.

Comprehension

REF: p. 55

9. A cleft may occur in the a. lip b. palate c. mandible d. lip, palate, and mandible

OBJ: 3

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Clefting of the lip, palate, and mandible are all possible.

Clefting of the lip, palate, and mandible are all possible.

Clefting of the lip, palate, and mandible are all possible.

Correct. A cleft can occur in the lip, palate, or mandible.

Comprehension

REF: p. 56

10. Palatal development occurs during the a. first to third b. fourth to sixth c. seventh to ninth d. tenth to twelfth

OBJ: 4

weeks of gestation.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The palate develops during the seventh to ninth, not first to third, weeks of gestation.

The palate develops during the seventh to ninth, fourth to sixth, weeks of gestation.

Correct. The palate develops during the seventh to ninth weeks of gestation.

The palate develops during the seventh to ninth, tenth to twelfth, weeks of gestation.

Recall

REF: p. 52

OBJ: 2

11. The heart begins pumping blood during which week of gestation? a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Sixth d. Seventh ANS: A

A B

Feedback Correct. The heart begins to beat, pumping blood, in the fourth prenatal week.

The heart begins to beat in the fourth, not the fifth, prenatal week.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

The heart begins to beat in the fourth, not the sixth, prenatal week.

The heart begins to beat in the fourth, not the seventh, prenatal week.

Recall

REF: p. 49

OBJ: 1

12. The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the a. hyoid b. inferior c. superior d. mandibular

arch.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The hyoid arch is another name for the second pharyngeal arch.

The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the hyoid, not the inferior, arch.

The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the hyoid, not the superior, arch.

The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the hyoid, not the mandibular, arch.

Comprehension

REF: p. 49

OBJ: 1

13. Auricular hillocks develop near which location? a. External ear canal b. Tuberculum impar c. Medial nasal process d. Oronasal optic groove ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. In the sixth prenatal week, auricular hillocks form around the external ear canal.

In the sixth prenatal week, auricular hillocks form around the external ear canal not tuberculum impar.

In the sixth prenatal week, auricular hillocks form around the external ear canal not medial nasal process.

In the sixth prenatal week, auricular hillocks form around the external ear canal not oronasal optic groove.

Comprehension

REF: p. 50

14. In the fifth week, the frontal process becomes known as the: a. frontonasal process. b. philtrum. c. medial nasal process. d. lateral nasal process.

ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A

B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The frontal area becomes known as the frontonasal process during the fifth week. The bilateral nasal placodes, or thickened areas of epithelium, appear on the upper border of the lip. They develop into nostrils as the tissues around these placodes grow, resulting in two slits opening into the oral pit.

During the fifth week, the nasal processes are limited to the middle of the upper lip, which causes the face to appear more human. The medial nasal process is called the philtrum.

During the fifth week, a ridge of tissue surrounds each nasal pit. The tissue medial to the pits is the medial nasal process.

During the fifth week, a ridge of tissue surrounds each nasal pit. The tissue lateral to the pits is the lateral nasal process.

Recall

REF: p. 50

OBJ: 1

15. The oral and nasal cavities are separated by the a. alveolar bone. b. anterior nasal spine. c. palate. d. nasal septum.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Alveolar bone is the compact or dense bone that lines the tooth socket.

The anterior spine is located on the exterior surface of the skull at the base of the nose.

Correct. The palate is the tissue that separates the oral and nasal cavities and can be divided into a hard palate, which has a bony base, and the soft palate, which has a muscular base.

The nasal septum separates the airways in the nose.

Recall

REF: p. 52

OBJ: 2

16. The thyroid gland originates from a. foramen cecum. b. muscles of the occipital myotomes. c. the auricular hillocks. d. the palatine shelves.

ANS: A

A B C D

Feedback The thyroid gland develops as an epithelial proliferation from the foramen cecum on the surface of the tongue at the junction of the body and base.

The tongue originates from the muscles of the occipital myotomes.

The external ear arises from the auricular hillocks.

The palatine shelves form the palate, which separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity back to the nasopharynx.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 55

OBJ: 3

17. Each of the following is part of Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring EXCEPT one. Which is the

EXCEPTION? a. Lingual tonsil b. Palatine tonsil c. Pharyngeal tonsil d. Foramen cecum ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The lingual tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring.

The palatine tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring.

The pharyngeal tonsil forms part of the ring of tonsils in the pharynx known as Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring.

Correct. Foramen cecum is not part of Waldeyer’s ring of tonsillar tissue.

Foramen cecum is located on the surface of the tongue at the junction of the body and base. The thyroid gland develops as an epithelial proliferation from the foramen cecum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 54

OBJ: 3

18. The word for programmed cell death during palatal shelf elevation and closure is a. fusion. b. merging. c. apoptosis. d. migration.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Palatine shelf closure or fusion occurs when the palatine shelves have a final growth surge until they contact in the midline.

Merging occurs when the palatine shelves meet anteriorly and posteriorly from the initial point of contact.

Correct. Apoptosis. It occurs, for example, during lip fusion (with the destruction of the nasal fin) and in palatine shelf fusion (with the destruction of the midline epithelial barrier between left and right palatine shelves).

Migration occurs when the thyroid gland descends from its origin at foramen cecum on the surface of the tongue to the front of the trachea.

Comprehension

REF: p. 52

OBJ: 2

19. In which direction do the palatine shelves grow on contact with the tongue in the seventh

prenatal week? a. Upward b. Downward

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Anteriorly d. Posteriorly ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The palatine shelves do not grow upward when they contact the tongue.

Correct. When the palatine shelves contact the tongue, they grow downward along either side of the tongue.

The palatine shelves do not grow anteriorly when they contact the tongue.

The palatine shelves do not grow posteriorly when they contact the tongue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 52

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. Development of the upper lip depends on fusion of the philtrum and maxillary processes.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 50

2. The tongue’s immovable base develops from the first branchial arch.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 54

onTfB acAiaNlKmSaE lfoLrL mE atR io.nC . OM 3. Cleft palate is the most com Tm ES ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 55

4. Palatal shelf elevation occurs slowly, over the course of several weeks.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 52

5. White males develop a cleft lip more often than white females.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 55

6. Cleft palate will not occur without cleft lip.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 56

7. Epithelial cysts occasionally arise along the path of thyroid descent.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 55

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 8. An opening of a nostril into the oral cavity is classified as an incomplete cleft lip.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 56

9. The eyes move to the front of the face in the sixth week of prenatal development.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 50

10. Bilateral nasal placodes appear in the seventh week of gestation.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 50

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 05: Development of Teeth Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which tissue does not support the dentition? a. Enamel b. Cementum c. Alveolar bone d. Periodontal ligament ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The supporting tissues of the teeth include the cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament.

Cementum is a supportive tissue.

Alveolar bone is a supportive tissue.

The periodontal ligament is a supportive tissue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 59

OBJ: 3

2. The stages of tooth development occur in which order? a. Bud, cap, bell b. Bell, bud, cap c. Cap, bell, bud d. Bud, bell, cap ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The correct sequence of the stages in tooth formation is bud, cap, bell.

The correct sequence of the stages in tooth formation is bud, cap, bell.

The correct sequence of the stages in tooth formation is bud, cap, bell.

The correct sequence of the stages in tooth formation is bud, cap, bell.

Recall

REF: pp. 60-61

OBJ: 2

3. Odontoblasts are derived from which type of cell? a. Follicular b. Neural crest c. Ectodermal d. Oral epithelial ANS: B

A B

Feedback Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not follicular cells.

Correct. Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C

Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not ectodermal cells.

Odontoblasts are derived from neural crest cells, not oral epithelial cells.

D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 60-61

OBJ: 1

4. During root development, the epithelial diaphragm . a. fuses to the stratum intermedium b. surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp c. forms the cortical plate, which covers the mandible d. deposits an enamel matrix along the dentoenamel junction ANS: B

Feedback The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development.

Correct. The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development.

The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development.

The epithelial diaphragm surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp during root development.

A B C D

DIF: 5. a. b. c. d.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 68-69

OBJ: 2

operates as a blueprint or pattern to guide root formation.

Predentin The primary cuticle Reduced enamel epithelium Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not predentin, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation.

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not the primary cuticle, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation.

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not reduced enamel epithelium, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation.

Correct. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, not predentin, determines the size, shape, and number of roots during formation.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 68-69

OBJ: 2

6. Which of the following best defines the term reduced enamel epithelium? a. Noncalcified cementum b. Material deposited by odontoblasts in response to trauma c. Fused layer of ameloblasts, enamel epithelium, and stratum intermedium d. Layer of outer root sheath cells that disperse into small clusters around the root

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Noncalcified cementum is called cementoid.

Tertiary dentin is deposited by odontoblasts in response to trauma.

Correct. The reduced enamel epithelium is a fused layer of ameloblasts, epithelium, and stratum intermedium, which covers the enamel until eruption.

Epithelial rests are formed when the outer root sheath disperses into small clusters around the root.

Comprehension

REF: p. 67

OBJ: 2

7. Which cells of the enamel organ assist ameloblasts in forming enamel? a. Stellate reticulum b. Stratum intermedium c. Inner enamel epithelial d. Outer enamel epithelial ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel.

Correct. The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel.

The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel.

The stratum intermedium cells support ameloblasts in forming enamel.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 60-61

8. Predentin calcifies to form dentin within a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72

OBJ: 1

hours.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 12) hours after deposition, predentin calcifies to form dentin.

Correct. Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 hours after deposition.

Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 48) hours after deposition.

Predentin calcifies to form dentin 24 (not 72) hours after deposition.

Comprehension

REF: p. 63

9. Which two cellular layers fuse to form the root sheath? a. Ameloblast and odontoblast cells b. Cementoid and epithelial rest cells c. Inner and outer enamel epithelial cells

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Stratum intermedium and stellate reticulum cells ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The inner and outer enamel epithelial cells fuse to form the root sheath; ameloblast and odontoblast cells do not.

The inner and outer enamel epithelial cells fuse to form the root sheath; cementoid and epithelial rest cells do not.

Correct. The inner and outer enamel epithelial cells fuse to form the root sheath.

The inner and outer enamel epithelial cells fuse to form the root sheath; stratum intermedium and stellate reticulum cells do not.

Comprehension

REF: p. 68

OBJ: 2

10. Tomes processes develop in which stage of ameloblast differentiation? a. Secretion b. Protection c. Maturation d. Organization ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Tomes processes appear at the apical end of ameloblasts in the secretory stage of differentiation.

Tomes processes a p p eTaEr S atTthBeAaN piK caSl E enLdLoEf R am obMlasts in the secretory, not .eClO protection, stage of differentiation.

Tomes processes appear at the apical end of ameloblasts in the secretory, not maturation, stage of differentiation.

Tomes processes appear at the apical end of ameloblasts in the secretory, not organization, stage of differentiation.

Comprehension

REF: p. 63

OBJ: 2

11. Which permanent tooth forms from the general lamina? a. Molar b. Incisor c. Canine d. Premolar ANS: A

A B C

Feedback Correct. Permanent molars do not succeed primary teeth; they form from the general lamina.

Permanent incisors succeed primary teeth; they form from the successional lamina.

Permanent canines succeed primary teeth; they form from the successional lamina.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Permanent premolars succeed primary teeth; they form from the successional lamina.

Comprehension

REF: p. 59

OBJ: 2

12. Which layer of the enamel organ is most closely associated with blood vessels? a. Stellate reticulum b. Stratum intermedium c. Inner enamel epithelium d. Outer enamel epithelium ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The outer enamel epithelial cells organize a network of capillaries that nourish ameloblast cells.

The outer enamel epithelial cells organize a network of capillaries that nourish ameloblast cells.

The outer enamel epithelial cells organize a network of capillaries that nourish ameloblast cells.

Correct. The outer enamel epithelial cells organize a network of capillaries that nourish ameloblast cells.

Comprehension

REF: p. 60

OBJ: 1

13. Accessory root canals connect the . a. cementum with the enaTmEeS l TBANKSELLER.COM b. pulp with the periodontal ligament c. dentin with the alveolar bone proper d. enamel with the junctional epithelium ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament as opposed to connecting cementum to enamel.

Correct. Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament.

Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament as opposed to connecting dentin to alveolar bone proper.

Accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament as opposed to connecting enamel to junctional epithelium.

Comprehension

REF: p. 73

14. Which sequence reflects the correct order of appearance? a. Predentin, ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblasts b. Ameloblasts, enamel, odontoblasts, predentin c. Ameloblasts, odontoblasts, predentin, enamel d. Odontoblasts, enamel, ameloblasts, predentin

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 3

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel.

Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel.

Correct. Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and enamel.

Ameloblasts appear first, followed by odontoblasts, predentin, and then enamel.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 60-62

OBJ: 2

15. After the enamel organ differentiates, the dental lamina begins to a. divide b. reform c. expand d. degenerate

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The dental lamina degenerates, not divide, after the enamel organ differentiates.

The dental lamina degenerates, not reform, after the enamel organ differentiates.

The dental lamina degenerates, not expand, after the enamel organ differentiates.

Correct. The dental lamina degenerates after the enamel organ differentiates.

Comprehension

ppR. 6.0C -6O2M TESTBANKSREEFL:LE

OBJ: 2

16. Which of the following best defines the primary cuticle? a. Mineralized, mature enamel. b. A cell junction complex, which attaches one ameloblast to another. c. An organic substance secreted on the surface of enamel by ameloblasts. d. An unmineralized protein secreted by ameloblasts in a young enamel matrix.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback A mature, mineralized enamel matrix is called enamelin.

A complex that attaches one ameloblast to another is a desmosome.

Correct. The primary cuticle is an organic layer secreted on the surface of the enamel by ameloblasts.

Amelogenin is an unmineralized protein in a young enamel matrix.

Comprehension

REF: p. 67

17. Enamel forms from which type of cells? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Dental papilla

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The first sign of tooth formation is the proliferation of ectodermal cells overlying specific areas of the oral ectoderm where the homeobox MSX-1 can be localized.

Mesoderm forms muscle and bone, not enamel.

Endoderm forms gastrointestinal tract epithelium and associated glands, not enamel.

Ectomesemchyme forms the dental papilla, which becomes the dental pulp when surrounded by mineralized tissue.

Recall

REF: p. 59

OBJ: 1

18. Which is a genetic disorder that makes teeth susceptible to excessive wear? a. Cleft lip b. Cleft palate c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta d. Thyroglossal duct cyst ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Cleft lip is the most common facial malformation, however, it is not associated with excessive wear of teeth.

Cleft palate is less common than cleft lip or a combination of cleft lip and palate, but it is not associatedTw EiSthTeBxA ceNssKivSeEtoLoLthEw Re.aCr.OM Correct. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of tooth development, which often makes the teeth susceptible to excessive wear.

Improper mineralization of the dentin extracellular matrix causes the dentin to be compressible and results in the enamel chipping off. The dentinoenamel junction is much less scalloped and contributes to the enamel chipping also.

Thyroglossal duct cyst is found along the route of descent of the thyroid tissue. It appears as a swelling and is commonly found in the area of the hyoid bone.

Recall

REF: p. 73

OBJ: 2

19. Which type of bone forms between the roots of multirooted teeth? a. Alveolar bone proper b. Lamina dura c. Haverisan bone d. Interradicular ANS: D

A

B

Feedback Alveolar bone proper is a thin lamina of bone that lines the tooth sockets, supports the roots of teeth, and gives attachment to principal fibers of the periodontal ligament.

Lamina dura is a thin layer of hard compact bone lining the tooth sockets. It is

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

C D

DIF:

used in dental imaging to designate a thin radiopaque line.

Haversian bone is compact bone containing tubular channels with blood vessels, nerves, and bone cells surrounded by concentrically located lacunae.

Correct. Interradicular bone forms between the roots of multirooted teeth.

Recall

REF: p. 71

OBJ: 3

20. The periodontal ligament attaches which two surfaces? a. Alveolar bone and cementum b. Alveolar bone and enamel c. Cementum and attached gingiva d. Cementum and free gingiva ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. As periodontal ligament fibers become embedded in the cementum of the root surface, the other end attaches to the forming alveolar bone.

The periodontal ligament does not form an attachment between alveolar bone and enamel.

The periodontal ligament does not form an attachment between cementum and attached gingiva.

The periodontal ligament does not form an attachment between cementum and free gingiva.

Comprehension

REF: p. 71

OBJ: 3

21. Which is the first functional stage of change that each ameloblast undergoes? a. Secretion b. Maturation c. Morphogenesis d. Organization and differentiation ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Secretion is the third stage of change.

Maturation is the fourth stage of change.

Correct. Morphogenesis is the first stage, followed by organization and differentiation, secretion, maturation, and protection.

Organization and differentiation is the second stage of change.

Recall

REF: p. 63

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. Ameloblasts secrete enamel before odontoblasts secrete predentin.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 60

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

2. Bone, dentin, cementum, and enamel grow through incremental deposition.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 63

3. Precursor odontoblast cells use cell signaling to determine the correct starting position.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 60

4. The successional lamina is vital to the development of primary teeth.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 59

5. Cementoblasts, fibroblasts, and osteoblasts originate from dental follicular cells.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 71

6. The root lengthens more rapidly than the tooth erupts.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 68

7. Compact bone is the most highly calcified tissue in the human body.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Comprehension

REF: p. 67

8. The terminal bar apparatus is a series of hemidesmosomes.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 63

9. Primary teeth begin development at birth.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 71

10. Tooth development relies on an interaction between the ectoderm and mesenchyme.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 591

11. A patient with oligodontia is congenitally missing more than six permanent teeth.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 59

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 06: Eruption and Shedding of Teeth Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines ankylosis? a. A fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket b. A process that leads to tooth eruption c. The removal of bone overlying the bony crypt d. The eruption of a tooth into a space occupied by an opposing tooth ANS: A

Feedback Correct. Ankylosis is the fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket.

Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption.

Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption.

Ankylosis is root fusion, which is associated with a lack of eruption.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 84

OBJ: 1

2. Which of the following occurs when root formation begins? a. The epithelial root sheath proliferates. b. The tooth’s crown tip enters the oral cavity. c. Fibrous tissue surrounding the follicle increases. d. Reduced enamel epitheTliE um onAtaNcK tsSaE ndLfLuE seR s. wC ithOM the oral epithelium.

STcB ANS: A

Feedback Correct. The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath is the first step in root formation.

The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation.

The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation.

The proliferation of the epithelial root sheath initiates root formation.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 76-77

OBJ: 2

3. The mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar is called

the a. b. c. d.

. leeway space furcation zone parietal plexus incisor liability

ANS: A

A

Feedback Correct. The leeway space is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

B C D

DIF:

molar and a permanent premolar.

The leeway space, not furcation zone, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar.

The leeway space, not parietal plexus, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar.

The leeway space, not incisor liability, is the mesiodistal size difference between a primary molar and a permanent premolar.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 85-86

OBJ: 2

4. Which permanent tooth develops without a primary predecessor? a. Molar b. Incisor c. Canine d. Premolar ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The permanent molar has no primary predecessor.

The primary incisor precedes the permanent incisor.

The primary canine precedes the permanent canine.

The primary molar precedes the permanent premolar.

Comprehension

REF: p. 76

5. The mixed dentition phaseToE ccSuT rsBfA roN mKaSpE prL oxLiE mR at. elC yOM a. birth to 2 b. 3 to 6 c. 8 to 12 d. 13 to 18

OBJ: 1

years of age.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The mixed dentition period occurs from 8 to 12, not birth to 2, years of age.

The mixed dentition period occurs from 8 to 12, not 3 to 6, years of age.

Correct. The mixed dentition period occurs from 8 to 12 years of age.

The mixed dentition period occurs from 8 to 12, not 13 to 18, years of age.

Comprehension

REF: p. 76

OBJ: 1

6. Which of the following defines the functional eruption phase? a. The first phase of tooth eruption, which includes eruptive movements during

crown formation b. The final stage, which includes occlusal wear of the enamel c. The process of initiation of root development into the oral cavity d. The final stage, in which the teeth require adjustments relative to the bony crypt ANS: B

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The functional eruption phase is last, not first, and includes occlusal wear of the enamel.

Correct. The functional eruption phase is last and includes occlusal wear of the enamel.

The prefunctional eruption phase is involved with the initiation of root development.

The preeruptive phase is the phase in which teeth require adjustments relative to the bony crypt.

Comprehension

REF: p. 76

OBJ: 1

7. The permanent teeth that replace the primary teeth are called a. supportive b. accessional c. overlapping d. successional

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The permanent teeth that replace the primary are successional, not supportive.

The term accessional describes the permanent molars.

The permanent teeth that replace the primary are successional, not overlapping.

Correct. The permanent teeth that replace the primary are called successional.

Recall

REF: pp. 85-86

OBJ: 2

8. The

stage of tooth development contains permanent and primary teeth in various stages of formation. a. preeruptive b. mixed dentition c. late prefunctional d. functional eruptive ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The preeruptive stage contains primary teeth, not permanent.

Correct. The mixed dentition period contains primary and permanent teeth.

There are no permanent teeth during the prefunctional stage.

The functional eruptive stage is a continuous process that ends in tooth loss.

Comprehension

REF: p. 84

OBJ: 1

9. Which structure(s) increase(s) the surface area of the osteoclast? a. Fibroblasts b. Ruffled border c. Periodontal fibers

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Epithelial diagram ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Fibroblasts do not increase the surface area of an osteoclast.

Correct. The ruffled border increases the surface area of the osteoclast.

Periodontal fibers do not increase the surface area of an osteoclast.

The epithelial diagram does not increase the surface area of an osteoclast.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 2

10. Hard tissue resorption comprises which two phases? a. Mineral and collagen phases b. Prefunctional and functional phases c. Extracellular and intracellular phases d. Fibroblast eruptive and osteoclast functional phases ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hard tissue resorption is not comprised of the mineral and collagen phases.

The prefunctional and functional phases comprise the phases of tooth eruption.

Correct. Hard tissue resorption occurs during the extracellular and intracellular phases.

There is no such thing as the fibroblast eruptive phase.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 1

11. Which of the following is the origin of osteoclasts? a. Fibroblasts b. Monocytes c. Amino acids d. Root resorption ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Osteoclasts arise from monocytes, not fibroblasts, of the circular bloodstream.

Correct. Osteoclasts arise from monocytes of the circular bloodstream.

Osteoclasts arise from monocytes, not amino acids, of the circular bloodstream.

Root resorption results from the action of osteoclasts that arise from monocytes.

Recall

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 2

12. Which of the following is clinically seen as tooth eruption? a. Light and dark bands b. Interlocking of the rods c. Blanching of the mucosa d. Crystallization of the enamel rods

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa.

Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa.

Correct. Tooth eruption is seen as blanching of the mucosa.

Tooth eruption is seen as blanching, not crystallization of the enamel rods, of the mucosa.

Recall

13. Special a. fibroblast b. osteoclast c. osteoblast d. amino acid

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 3

cells destroy collagen fibers by ingestion.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Special fibroblast cells ingest collagen fibers.

Osteoclast cells remodel the alveolar bone.

Osteoblast and osteoclast cells remodel the alveolar bone.

Amino acid results from the breakdown of these fibers.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 2

14. Tooth eruption requires formation of the eruption a. ruffled border. b. diphyodont. c. pathway. d. leeway space.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback The osteoclast’s cell membrane is in contact with the bone and becomes modified by an enfolding process termed the ruffled border.

Humans are considered diphyodonts because they possess two dentitions, primary and permanent.

Correct. The dental follicle changes and forms a pathway for the erupting teeth.

A zone of degenerating connective tissue fibers and cells immediately overlying the teeth appears first. The altered tissue area overlying the teeth becomes visible as an inverted triangular area known as the eruption pathway.

The difference in the mesial distal dimension between the primary molars and the permanent premolars is called the leeway space.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 1

15. Final maturation of the periodontal ligament (PDL) fibers occurs

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. b. c. d.

at the cap stage of tooth formation. when the teeth first erupt through the gingiva. when the teeth reach functional occlusion. when the root is half formed.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Final maturation of PDL fibers does not occur when the tooth is at the cap stage of tooth formation.

Final maturation of PDL fibers does not occur when the tooth first erupts through the gingiva.

Correct. The PDL fibers gain their mature orientation after the teeth attain functional occlusion.

Teeth begin to move occlusally when the root is about half formed.

Comprehension

REF: p. 81

OBJ: 1

16. Fusion of the tooth (reduced enamel epithelium) with the oral epithelium forms which type of

connection? a. Periodontal ligament b. Junctional epithelium c. Trabeculae d. Fundic ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Feedback The periodontal ligament connects alveolar bone with cementum on the tooth root surface.

Correct. The reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the oral ectoderm to form the junctional epithelium, which attaches to the developmental cuticle by hemidesmosomes formed by the gingival keratocytes and helps prevent oral bacteria and other substances present in the oral cavity from entering the body.

Trabeculae describe the appearance of cancellous or spongy bone.

Fundic describes the region near the tooth apex.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 2

17. Which type of teeth are not successors of primary teeth? a. Adult incisors b. Adult canines c. Adult premolars d. Adult molars ANS: D

A

Feedback Adult incisors follow primary incisors, so they are considered succedaneous teeth.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM B

Adult canines follow primary canines, so they are considered succedaneous teeth.

Adult premolars follow primary molars, so they are considered succedanous teeth.

Correct. Adult molars do not follow any primary teeth, so they are considered accessional or nonsuccedaneous teeth.

C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

OBJ: 1

18. How many teeth are in the primary dentition and how many teeth are in the permanent

dentition? a. 20 in primary; 28 in permanent b. 20 in primary; 32 in permanent c. 32 in primary; 32 in permanent d. 32 in primary; 52 in permanent ANS: B

Feedback There are 20 teeth in the primary dentition, however, there are 32 rather than 28 teeth in the permanent dentition.

Correct. There are 20 teeth in the primary dentition, and 32 teeth in the permanent dentition.

There are 20 rather than 32 teeth in the primary dentition, and 32 teeth in the permanent dentition.

There are 20 rather than 32 teeth in the primary dentition, and 32 rather than 52 teeth in the permanenT t dEeS ntTitB ioA n.NTKhS eE toLtaLl E nuRm.bCeO r oMf teeth most people have in a lifetime is 52.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 86

OBJ: 1

19. Why are humans considered to be diphyodonts? a. Because they possess two dentitions. b. Because the adult molars are intended for chewing plants. c. Because the adult canines are pointed and have a single cusp. d. Because the mesio-distal dimension of the adult premolars is less than that of the

primary molars.

ANS: A

A

B C D

Feedback Correct. Humans possess primary and permanent teeth. Teeth in the primary dentition are smaller and fewer in number than the permanent dentition to conform to the smaller jaws of the young person.

The reason why humans are diphyodonts is not because the molars are intended for chewing plants.

The reason why humans are diphyodonts is not because the canines are pointed and have a single cusp.

The difference between the mesio-distal dimension of adult premolars and primary molars is called leeway space.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 84

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. The reduced enamel epithelium fuses with the oral epithelium during prefunctional eruption.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 76

2. The lack of development of the pulp proliferative zone leads to root formation failure.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 84

3. The prefunctional eruptive phase is characterized by dormancy in the tissues overlying,

surrounding, and underlying the teeth.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 78

4. Shedding is the loss of mixed dentition caused by resorption of the roots.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 84

5. Eruptive movement of posterior teeth occurs occlusally through the bony crypt of the jaws to

reach the mucosa.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 76

6. Active osteoclasts are multinucleated.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

7. Osteoblasts are the active cells in both the formation and degradation of the collagen fibers.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 81

8. The eruption process is rapid and continuous.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 78-80

9. During eruption, the epithelial attachment shifts to the cervical area.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: pp. 78-80

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 10. Enamel is about twice as thick in permanent teeth as it is in primary teeth.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 87

OBJ: 1

11. Primary and permanent teeth have a similar enamel prism structure, except at the tooth

surface.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 87

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OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 07: Enamel Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Ameloblasts produce a. cementoid b. enamel rods c. epithelial rests d. dentinal tubules

as they migrate.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementoblasts produce cementoid as they migrate.

Correct. Ameloblasts form enamel rods.

Epithelial rests originate from the root sheath.

Odontoblasts produce dentinal tubules as they migrate.

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 1

2. Which of the following best defines incremental lines? a. Ridges visible on the surface of enamel b. Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel c. Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod groups d. Lines that result from tT heErShT ytB hm urLreLnE t dRe. poCsO itM ion of enamel AiNcKreScE ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition. They are not ridges.

Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition, not tubule termination.

Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition. They are not bands.

Correct. Incremental lines result from rhythmic deposition.

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 1

3. Which of the following best defines perikymata? a. Termination of dentinal tubules in enamel. b. Alternating dark and light bands of enamel rod groups. c. Growth lines visible as ridges on the surface of enamel. d. Lines that result from the rhythmic recurrent deposition of enamel.

ANS: C

A B C

Feedback Perikymata are visible ridges on the surface of enamel.

Perikymata are visible ridges, not bands, on the surface of enamel.

Correct. Perikymata are visible ridges on the surface of enamel.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Perikymata are visible ridges on the surface of enamel.

Comprehension

4. Enamel is composed of a. 26% b. 53% c. 90% d. 96%

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 3

hydroxyapatite.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel is 96%, not 26%, hydroxyapatite.

Enamel is 96%, not 53%, hydroxyapatite.

Enamel is 96%, not 90%, hydroxyapatite.

Correct. Enamel is 96% hydroxyapatite.

Comprehension

5. Enamel is approximately a. 1 µm b. 9 µm c. 2.5 mm d. 4.5 mm

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 1

thick at the occlusal or incisal surface.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel is 2.5 mm, not 1 µm, thick at the incisal or occlusal surface.

Enamel is 2.5 mm, not 9 µm, thick at the incisal or occlusal surface.

Correct. Enamel is 2.5 mm thick at the incisal or occlusal surface.

Enamel is 2.5 mm, not 4.5 mm, thick at the incisal or occlusal surface.

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 3

6. Which type of enamel contains many tiny spaces stained with pigment? a. Gnarled b. Prenatal c. Postnatal d. Prismless ANS: C

A B C D

Feedback Postnatal, not gnarled, enamel contains minute spaces stained with pigment.

Postnatal, not prenatal, enamel contains minute spaces stained with pigment.

Correct. Postnatal enamel contains minute spaces stained with pigment.

Postnatal, not prismless, enamel contains minute spaces stained with pigment.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 3

7. Perikymata are found in which location? a. Cusp tip b. Cervical third of the root c. Middle third of the crown’s lingual aspect d. Cervical third of the crown’s facial aspect ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Perikymata are found at the cervical third of the crown’s facial aspect.

Perikymata are found at the cervical third of the crown’s facial aspect.

Perikymata are found at the cervical third of the crown’s facial aspect.

Correct. Perikymata are found at the cervical third of the crown’s facial aspect.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 94-95

OBJ: 3

8. Which part of the enamel rod is most sensitive to demineralization? a. Tail b. Core c. Head d. Sheath ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The enamel rod core, T noEtStaTilB, iAs NriK chSiEnLapLaEtiR te.aC ndOsMensitive to demineralization.

Correct. The enamel rod core is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization.

The enamel rod core, not head, is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization.

The enamel rod core, not sheath, is rich in apatite and sensitive to demineralization.

Comprehension

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 3

9. Which of the following best defines the neonatal line? a. An accentuated incremental line. b. A defect caused by the misdirection of enamel rods. c. Light and dark enamel rod groups, made visible with light. d. A series of dark growth rings noticeable in the cross section of enamel.

ANS: A

A B C D

Feedback Correct. The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line).

The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line).

The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line).

The neonatal line is an accentuated line of Retzius (incremental line).

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 2

10. Which statement is true? a. Tubular defects are associated with enamel lamellae. b. Lamellae provide increased resistance to dental caries. c. Breathing cold air is a risk factor in developing enamel lamellae. d. Enamel lamellae are microscopic cracks in the surface of enamel.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel lamellae are not tubular defects; they extend around the crown.

Lamellae increase susceptibility to dental caries.

Correct. Cold air (extreme temperatures) may cause enamel lamellae.

Enamel lamellae are not microscopic; they are visible to the naked eye.

Comprehension

11. An enamel a. rod b. tuft c. spindle d. lamellae

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 1

houses a small extension of a living odontoblast.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel spindles h o u sTe Ep aSr T t oBfAaNliK viS ngEL odLoE ntRo. blC asOt;Menamel rods do not.

Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast; enamel tufts do not.

Correct. Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast.

Enamel spindles house part of a living odontoblast; enamel lamellae do not.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 92-94

OBJ: 1

12. Which of the following does not facilitate the spread of dental caries? a. Enamel tufts b. Enamel lamellae c. Incremental lines d. Prismless enamel ANS: D

A B C D

Feedback Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries.

Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries.

Enamel tufts, lamellae, and incremental lines facilitate the spread of dental caries.

Correct. The prismless zone of enamel is characterized by its enhanced integrity.

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DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 95

OBJ: 2

13. A developmental defect at the dentinoenamel junction of enamel that is filled with organic

material is called (a/an) a. enamel rod. b. enamel tuft. c. enamel lamellae. d. enamel spindle.

ANS: B

A B

C

D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel is composed of rods that extend from their site of origin, at the dentinoenamel junction to the enamel outer surface.

Correct. Enamel tufts are located at the dentinoenamel junction and appear at right angles to it. Tufts form between groups of enamel rods, which are oriented in slightly different directions at the dentinoenamel junction.

Enamel lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye. Lamellae extend from the surface of enamel toward the dentinoenamel junction.

Enamel spindles arise at the dentinoenamel junction and extend into enamel.

These spindles are extensions of dentinal tubules that pass through the junction into enamel.

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

OBJ: 1

14. Two ameloblast cells form the enamel rod a. head. b. neck. c. body. d. tail.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback One ameloblast forms the enamel rod head.

Correct. A part of two ameloblasts form the neck of the enamel rod.

The body is not a part of an enamel rod. The three parts of an enamel rod are head, neck, and tail.

One ameloblast forms the enamel rod tail.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 89-90

15. The surface of the enamel rod is called the rod a. margin. b. periphery. c. sheath. d. core.

ANS: C

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OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The surface is not called the rod margin.

The surface is not called the rod periphery.

Correct. The surface of each enamel rod is known as the rod sheath, and the center of each enamel rod is called the rod core.

The surface of each rod is known as the rod sheath, and the center is the core.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 89-90

OBJ: 1

16. The organic component of enamel is called a. hydroxyapatite. b. enamelin. c. gnarled enamel. d. perikymata.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hydroxyapatite is a crystalline calcium phosphate that is also found in bone, dentin, and cementum.

Correct. The organic component of enamel is the protein enamelin, which is similar to the protein keratin that is found in skin.

Gnarled enamel is composed of enamel rods that are bent in an exaggerated, twisted manner. It is found at the cusp tips.

Perikymata are surface manifestations of the incremental lines usually found at the cervix of the t o o t hTcEr oSwTnB. ANKSELLER.COM Comprehension

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. Ameloblasts migrate away from the dentinoenamel junction as they produce enamel rods.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

2. Ameloblasts travel along parallel paths to produce straight enamel rods.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

3. Light and dark enamel rod groups are known as striae of Retzius.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

4. Ameloblasts deposit 4 µm of enamel rods daily.

ANS: T

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 89

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 1 5. Enamel varies in density and hardness.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

6. Lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel and are visible to the naked eye.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

7. Enamel rods extend from the dentinoenamel junction to the enamel outer surface.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: pp. 89-90

OBJ: 1

8. Each enamel rod is formed by a single ameloblast.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 89-90

9. Enamel rods extend perpendicular to the dentoenamel junction, but curve slightly toward the

cusp tip.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 1

10. Hunter-Schreger bands extend through half- to two-thirds of the enamel.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 89

11. Incremental lines result from the rhythmic, recurrent deposition of enamel.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

12. Enamel lamellae are not tubular defects, but leaf-like tracts.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 92

13. Prismless enamel is characterized by numerous and pronounced Hunter-Schreger bands.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 95-96

14. Enamel is an impermeable tissue.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 95

15. In the Hunter-Schreger phenomenon, adjacent rod groups lie at right angles to each other.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 89-91

16. Etching the surface of enamel stimulates remineralization.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 95

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 08: Dentin Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines sclerotic dentin? a. The dentinal matrix that immediately surrounds the dentinal tubule. b. The first dentin formed and deposited at the dentinoenamel junction. c. Dentin directly underlying mantle dentin, comprising the bulk of primary dentin. d. Obliterated tubules, found mainly in areas of attrition, abrasion, fracture, and

caries.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin.

Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin.

Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin.

Correct. Obliterated tubules are a defining characteristic of sclerotic dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 103

2. The granular layer of Tomes is located in the a. dentin of the root b. dentin of the crown c. periodontal ligament d. cementum of the root

OBJ: 1

.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root.

The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root, not the crown.

The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin underlying the cementum of the root, not the periodontal ligament.

The granular layer of Tomes is a thin layer of dentin, not cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 105

OBJ: 1

3. Which type of dentin forms to protect and maintain the vitality of the pulp? a. Mantle b. Sclerotic c. Peritubular d. Reactionary ANS: D

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Feedback Reactionary, not mantle, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality.

Reactionary, not sclerotic, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality.

Reactionary, not, peritubular, dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality.

Correct. Reactionary dentin is protective to the pulp and restores vitality.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 108

OBJ: 1

4. Which type of dentin separates mantle dentin from circumpulpal dentin? a. Granular b. Globular c. Transparent d. Reactionary ANS: B

Feedback A zone of globular, not granular, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin.

Correct. A zone of globular dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin.

A zone of globular, not transparent, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin.

A zone of globular, not reactionary, dentin separates mantle and circumpulpal dentin.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSREEFL:LE p.R98.COM

OBJ: 1

5. Mineralized tubules are associated with which type of dentin? a. Mantle b. Sclerotic c. Reparative d. Secondary ANS: B

Feedback Mineralized tubules are associated with sclerotic, not mantle, dentin.

Correct. Sclerotic dentin is identified by mineralized tubules.

Mineralized tubules are associated with sclerotic, not reparative, dentin.

Mineralized tubules are associated with sclerotic, not secondary, dentin.

A B C D

DIF: 6. a. b. c. d.

Comprehension

REF: p. 103

OBJ: 1

are extensions of the odontoblast process into enamel.

Dead tracts Neonatal lines Enamel spindles Lines of von Ebner

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Enamel spindles, not dead tracts, are odontoblast extensions in enamel.

Enamel spindles, not neonatal lines, are odontoblast extensions in enamel.

Correct. Enamel spindles are odontoblast extensions in enamel.

Enamel spindles, not lines of von Ebner, are odontoblast extensions in enamel.

Comprehension

REF: p. 106

OBJ: 3

7. Dentin is than enamel. a. harder b. more elastic c. a whiter shade d. less radiolucent ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Dentin is softer than enamel.

Correct. Dentin is more elastic than enamel.

Dentin is a yellowish shade.

Dentin is more radiolucent then enamel.

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

OBJ: 3

8. Which is the following is aThEyS peTrm BA inN erKalSizEedLL coEllR ar.oCf Od eMn t i n surrounding the tubules? a. Sclerotic dentin b. Peritubular dentin c. Intertubular dentin d. Interglobular dentin ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Peritubular, not sclerotic, dentin is a hypermineralized intratubular dentin.

Correct. Peritubular dentin surrounds the tubule and is hypermineralized.

Peritubular, not intertubular, dentin is a hypermineralized intratubular dentin.

Peritubular, not interglobular, dentin is a hypermineralized intratubular dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 103

OBJ: 1

9. The appositional growth of dentin is apparent in which feature? a. Incremental lines b. Lateral canaliculi c. Transparent dentin d. Interglobular spaces ANS: A

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Dentin deposited by appositional growth produces incremental lines.

Appositional growth is apparent through incremental lines, not lateral canaliculi.

Appositional growth is apparent through incremental lines, not transparent dentin.

Appositional growth is apparent through incremental lines, not interglobular spaces.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 99-100

10. The major organic component of dentin is a. water b. collagen c. enamelin d. hydroxyapatite

OBJ: 1

.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Collagen fiber, not water, is the primary organic component of dentin.

Correct. Collagen is the primary organic component of dentin.

Enamelin is the main organic component of enamel, not dentin.

Hydroxyapatite is the main inorganic component of dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

OBJ: 1

11. Which type of dentin bo rd T e rE sS thT eB puAlpN?KSELLER.COM a. Globular b. Predentin c. Reactionary d. Circumpulpal ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Predentin borders the pulp chamber; globular dentin lies between mantle and circumpulpal dentin.

Correct. Predentin borders the pulp chamber.

Predentin borders the pulp chamber; reactionary dentin lies beneath a traumatized area.

Predentin borders the pulp chamber; circumpulpal dentin lies beneath mantle and globular dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

OBJ: 1

12. Which type of dentin is formed prior to tooth function and is the major component of the

crown and root of the tooth? a. Mantle dentin b. Circumpulpal dentin c. Secondary dentin

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Tertiary dentin ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Primary mantle dentin is deposited first, in a band about 150 µm wide and is mineralized by matrix vesicles and not a mineralization front.

Correct. Primary dentin is the major component of the crown and root and consists a thin layer of mantle dentin, globular dentin (disturbed dentin), and circumpulpal dentin. Circumpulpal dentin is the bulk of dentin.

Secondary dentin forms as teeth begin to function. It is normal circumpulpal dentin, however, the primary form is the bulk of dentin.

Tertiary dentin is formed in response to injury or trauma.

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

OBJ: 1

13. Odontoblastic injury during a cavity preparation usually results in which of the following

forms of dentin? a. Primary mantle dentin b. Primary globular dentin c. Secondary dentin d. Tertiary dentin ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Mantle dentin is a t h i nT lEa S yeTr B deApN osKitSedEL wL heEnRth.eCtoOoMth is first forming.

Globular dentin is a zone of disturbed dentin. Mantle dentin is separated from the circumpulpal dentin by globular dentin.

Secondary dentin forms as teeth begin function and is normal circumpulpal dentin.

Correct. When caries or mechanical trauma affects the pulp, dentin is deposited underlying that area and is termed reactionary/response, reparative, or tertiary dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

OBJ: 1

14. Which term is preferred to describe when newly recruited (replacement) odontoblasts begin

depositing dentin? a. Reactionary dentin b. Response dentin c. Reparative dentin d. Secondary dentin ANS: C

A B

Feedback Reactionary/response dentin should be used when original odontoblasts function in deposition.

Reactionary/response dentin should be used when original odontoblasts function

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

C D

DIF:

in deposition.

Recent terminology suggests that the term reparative dentin be used when newly recruited odontoblasts begin depositing dentin.

Secondary dentin is all the dentin formed after a tooth is in function and is differentiated from tertiary dentin which is formed in response to pulpal stimulation.

Comprehension

REF: p. 101

OBJ: 1

15. The defining characteristic of globular dentin is a. interglobular spaces. b. lamellae. c. The presence of ameloblasts. d. sclerotic dentin.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Globular dentin contains hypomineralized areas between the globules, termed interglobular spaces.

Lamellae are visible cracks on the surface of enamel.

Ameloblasts form enamel and are not associated with the formation of dentin.

Sclerotic dentin is the term for dentin with tubules that are completely obliterated.

Comprehension

REF: p. 102

OBJ: 1

16. Incremental lines in dentin are also known as a. lines of von Ebner. b. the smear layer. c. the granular layer of Tomes. d. canaliculi.

ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. All dentin is deposited incrementally. This means that as a certain amount of dentin matrix is deposited daily, a hesitation in activity follows. Lines formed over several days are believed to be the ones described by von Ebner.

The smear layer is composed of the fine particles of cut dentinal debris that are produced by cavity preparation.

The granular layer of Tomes is observed when a thin, calcified section of tooth root is studied under transmitted light.

Canaliculi are lateral branches of the odontoblastic process and are seen throughout dentin, crown, and root.

Comprehension

REF: p. 104

OBJ: 1

17. Sclerotic dentin is found in each of the following areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the

EXCEPTION?

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. b. c. d.

Abrasion Fracture Living odontoblasts Caries of enamel

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Sclerotic dentin is found in areas with abrasion.

Sclerotic dentin is found in areas of fracture.

Correct. Sclerotic dentin is not formed by odontoblasts but is a sequela due to the death of odontoblasts.

Sclerotic dentin is found in areas with caries.

Comprehension

REF: p. 103

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. Peritubular dentin is not found in the dentinal tubules of interglobular dentin.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 103

2. Secondary dentin is the result of insufficient mineralization.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

3. Mantle dentin contains larger collagen fibers than circumpulpal dentin.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

4. Odontoblastic processes taper in diameter, being largest near the dentinoenamel junction and

smallest near the pulp.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 106

5. Odontoblasts have a singular process when they first differentiate.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 102-103

6. The junction between dentin and enamel is scalloped.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 106

7. Odontoblast organelles are usually located within the cytoplasmic process.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 106

8. Osteodentin is a form of reparative dentin that resembles cartilage.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 101

9. Interglobular dentin is associated with vitamin B deficiency.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 99-100

10. Secondary dentin is deposited more quickly than primary dentin.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 101

11. Dentin is responsive to the environment.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 98

12. Dead tracts develop when odontoblasts die from trauma or old age.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 106

TESTBANKSELLER.C O M

13. Dentinal tubules contain odontoblast processes, nerve t e rminals , and dentinal fluid.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 106

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 09: Dental Pulp Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not found in the central part of the pulp? a. Fibroblasts b. Cementoblasts c. Collagen fibers d. Veins and arteries ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not.

Correct. Cementoblasts are not located in the central region of the pulp.

Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not.

Fibroblasts, collagen fibers, veins, and arteries are all found in the central region of the pulp; cementoblasts are not.

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 1

2. In which theory is pain the result of odontoblastic movement into nerve endings? a. Transduction b. Hydrodynamic c. Pain transmission d. Direct innervation ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The hydrodynamic, not transduction, theory is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings.

Correct. The hydrodynamic theory proposes that the sensation of pain results when an odontoblast moves, contacting nerve endings.

The hydrodynamic, not transmission theory, is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings.

The hydrodynamic, not innervation theory, is defined by odontoblastic movement into pulpal and intratubular nerve endings.

Comprehension

REF: p. 111

3. Which of the following best defines the zone of Weil? a. Cell-free region b. High cell density c. Concentrated plexus of nerves d. Large veins, arteries, and pericytes

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free region.

The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free, not cell-rich, region.

The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free region, as opposed to a region with a concentrated plexus of nerves.

The zone of Weil is characterized as a cell-free, not vascular, region.

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 1

4. Most pulpal nerve endings are located in which area? a. Pulp horns b. Central pulp c. Apical foramen d. Dentinoenamel junction ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns.

Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns.

Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns.

Most pulpal nerve endings terminate in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns.

Comprehension

REF: p. 122

OBJ: 1

5. Which cell type is predominant in the cell-rich zone? a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoblasts c. Erythroblast d. Odontoblasts ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Fibroblasts are the preponderant cell in the cell-rich zone.

Fibroblasts, not osteoblasts, are the preponderant cell in the cell-rich zone.

Fibroblasts, not erythroblasts, are the preponderant cell in the cell-rich zone.

Fibroblasts, not odontoblasts, are the preponderant cell in the cell-rich zone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 111

6. Odontoblasts produce which type of collagen? a. I b. II c. III d. IV

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Type I collagen is produced by odontoblasts.

Type I (not II) collagen is produced by odontoblasts.

Type I (not III) collagen is produced by odontoblasts.

Type I (not IV) collagen is produced by odontoblasts.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 117-119

OBJ: 1

7. Accessory canals can result from blood vessels that have obstructed a. pulp b. dentin c. enamel d. foramen

formation.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hindered dentin formation produces accessory canals.

Correct. Hindered dentin formation produces accessory canals.

Hindered dentin formation produces accessory canals.

Hindered dentin formation produces accessory canals.

Comprehension

8. Pulpal cells a. increase b. decrease c. disappear d. stay the same

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 2

T wE ithST agBeAoN r tKraSuE mLa.LER.COM

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback In general, pulpal cells decrease, not increase, with age or trauma.

Correct. Pulpal cells decrease with age or trauma.

In general, pulpal cells decrease, rather than disappear, with age or trauma.

In general, pulpal cells decrease with age or trauma.

Comprehension

REF: p. 125

9. Which of the following best defines the term radicular pulp? a. Dental pulp located in the roots of teeth. b. Pulp with a soft, gelatinous consistency. c. The opening of root pulp into the periodontium. d. Dental pulp that occupies the crown of the tooth.

ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 3

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Radicular pulp is located in the roots of teeth.

Radicular pulp is defined by its location in the roots of teeth.

Radicular pulp is defined by its location in the roots of teeth.

Radicular pulp is defined by its location in the roots of teeth.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 111-112

10. Inflammation of the pulp may spread to the a. dentin b. enamel c. predentin d. periodontium

OBJ: 1

_.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not dentin.

Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not enamel.

Inflammation can spread from the pulp to the periodontium, not predentin.

Correct. Pulpal inflammation can spread to the periodontium.

Comprehension

REF: p. 114

11. Pulpal capillaries are lined with a. epithelial cells b. endothelial cells c. myelinated axons d. nonmyelinated axons

OBJ: 3

.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Capillaries are lined with endothelial, not epithelial, cells Correct. Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells.

Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells, not myelinated axons.

Capillaries are lined with endothelial cells, not nonmyelinated axons.

Comprehension

REF: p. 117

12. The apical foramen is slightly larger in a. anterior b. posterior c. maxillary d. mandibular

OBJ: 2

teeth.

ANS: C

A

Feedback The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not anterior, teeth.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B C D

DIF:

The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not posterior, teeth.

Correct. Maxillary teeth have a slightly larger apical foramen.

The apical foramen is slightly larger in maxillary, not mandibular, teeth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 1

13. The largest blood vessels found in the dental pulp are a. arterioles. b. terminal arterioles. c. precapillaries. d. capillaries.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The diameter of the arterioles in the dental pulp varies from 50 to 100 µm, which equals the size of arterioles in other areas of the body.

Terminal arterioles in the dental pulp have diameters of 10 to 15 µm.

Precapillaries measuring 8 to 12 µm are present in the peripheral pulp.

Capillaries measuring 8 to 10 µm are present in the peripheral pulp.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 120-121

OBJ: 2

14. The appearance of an odontoblast in the area of the pulp horns of the pulp is a. short. b. cuboidal. c. palisaded. d. stratified.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Root pulp odontoblasts are short and cuboidal in the middle area of the pulp.

Root pulp odontoblasts are short and cuboidal in the middle area of the pulp.

Correct. Odontoblasts in the area of the pulp horns appear palisaded (pseudostratified) in contrast to their appearance in the remainder of the coronal area.

Odontoblasts in the area of the pulp horns appear to be stratified, however, they are pseudostratified, meaning all cells touch predentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

15. The largest part of the odontoblast is the a. nucleus. b. Golgi apparatus. c. process. d. mitochondria.

ANS: C

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback An active odontoblast has a large nucleus in the basal part, however, the nucleus is found within the odontoblast.

An active odontoblast has a Golgi apparatus in its apical part.

The process of the odontoblast is the largest part of the cell, extending from the pulp to the dentinoenamel junction. The process could be several millimeters long in the crown of the tooth, but it is shorter in the root.

Abundant mitochondria are scattered throughout the cell body of the odontoblast, but they are contained within the odontoblast.

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

OBJ: 1

16. The largest blood vessels associated with odontoblasts are under control by neurons of the a. preganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system. b. postganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system. c. preganglionic sympathetic autonomic nervous system. d. postganglionic sympathetic autonomic nervous system.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The largest blood vessels are not under control by the preganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system.

The largest blood vessels are not under control by the postganglionic parasympathetic autonomic nervous system.

The largest blood vessels are under postganglionic rather than preganglionic TBcoAnNtrKolS. ELLER.COM sympathetic nervous sTyE stS em Correct. They are under postganglionic sympathetic control. Several theories exist concerning pain conduction through dentin. The hydrodynamic theory is the most popular.

Comprehension

REF: p. 111

OBJ: 2

17. Most denticles are a. true denticles that are embedded within dentin. b. true denticles that are free in the pulp. c. false denticles that are embedded within dentin. d. false denticles that are free in the pulp.

ANS: D

A B C D

Feedback Most denticles are not true pulp stones, and they are not most commonly embedded within dentin.

Most denticles are not true pulp stones, however, they are most commonly free in the pulp.

Most denticles are false pulp stones, however, they are not most commonly embedded in dentin.

Correct. Most denticles are false pulp stones that are free in the pulp. False denticles are concentric layers of calcified tissue. True denticles have dentinal

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

tubules like dentin.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 126

OBJ: 3

18. The formation of sclerotic dentin is an example of which function of the pulp? a. Inductive b. Formative c. Protective d. Nutritive ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Pulp is inductive because in early development the pulp interacts with the oral epithelium and initiates tooth formation.

Pulp organs are formative because odontoblasts of the pulp form dentin that surrounds and protects the pulp.

Correct. Pulp is protective in its response to stimuli, such as heat, cold, pressure, and operative cutting procedures. The formation of sclerotic dentin originates in the pulp and protects the pulp from invasion of bacteria and bacterial products.

Pulp is nutritive, because it carries oxygen and nutrition to the developing and functioning tooth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 124

OBJ: 2

19. How many pulps are present in the permanent dentition? a. 20 b. 32 c. 52 d. 92 ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback There are 20 pulps in the primary dentition.

Correct. There are 32 pulps in the permanent dentition.

There are 52 pulps total in the primary and permanent dentition.

There are not 92 pulps in the permanent dentition.

Recall

REF: p. 111

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. Odontoblasts are the second most prevalent type of cell found in the pulp.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 111

OBJ: 1

2. The pulp becomes smaller with age.

ANS: T

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 111

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 3 3. Pulp stones are ectopic calcifications produced by microtrauma.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 126

4. Odontoblasts continually form dentin throughout life.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 111

5. Coronal pulp is much smaller than root pulp.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 111

6. Tight junctional complexes are communication openings between odontoblasts that transmit

electrical impulses and small molecules.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 113-117

7. Pulpal fibrosis is associated more with aging than injury.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 124

8. Desmosomes maintain the positional relationship between cells.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 113-117

9. Teeth only perceive the sensation of pain.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 123-124

10. Dental pulp is not responsive to temperature change.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 123-124

11. The odontogenic zone is composed of a cell-free zone, a cell-rich zone, odontoblasts, and the

parietal plexus of nerves.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 113

12. Pulp stones only occur in erupted teeth.

ANS: F

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 126

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 3 13. Radicular pulp is singular in all permanent teeth.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 112-113

14. Compared with radicular pulp, coronal pulp is smaller and contains fewer elements.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 111

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 10: Cementum Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which condition occurs most often? a. Cementum meets the enamel. b. Cementum forms on the enamel. c. Enamel forms over the cementum. d. A gap occurs between the cementum and enamel.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementum meets the enamel in only 30% of cases.

Correct. Cementum is formed on the cervical enamel in 60% of cases.

Enamel never forms over cementum.

A small gap occurs between the cementum and enamel in only 10% of cases.

Comprehension

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 1

2. Which percentage of collagen is found in organic cementum? a. 20% to 25% b. 30% to 35% c. 40% to 45% d. 50% to 55% ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback There is 50% to 55% collagen in organic cementum.

There is 50% to 55% collagen in organic cementum.

There is 50% to 55% collagen in organic cementum.

Correct. There is 50% to 55% collagen in organic cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 137

OBJ: 2

3. Which of the following best defines a cementicle? a. An ovoid calcification in the periodontal ligament (PDL) b. A spindle-shaped cell found in the connective tissue c. A flattened and elongated cell found in the coronal portions of the pulp d. An irregularly shaped calcified mass appearing in the canal of the pulp ANS: A

A B

Feedback Correct. A cementicle is a round or ovoid calcification in the PDL. Cementicles are round calcified nodules located in the PDL, not the connective tissue.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

Cementicles are round calcified nodules located in the PDL, not the pulp.

Cementicles are round calcified nodules located in the PDL, not the pulp canal.

Comprehension

REF: p. 136

4. Cementocytes found deep in the cementum have

OBJ: 3

organelles than those found near

the surface of the cementum. a. more b. fewer c. larger d. smaller ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementocytes found deeper in the cementum have fewer, not more, organelles.

Correct. Cementocytes found deep within cementum have fewer organelles.

Cementocytes found deeper in the cementum have fewer, not larger, organelles.

Cementocytes found deeper in the cementum have fewer, not smaller, organelles.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

OBJ: 2

5. Incremental lines in cementum indicate . a. trauma b. rhythmic deposition c. developmental anomal T i eE s STBANKSELLER.COM d. the presence of odontocytes ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Incremental lines in cementum indicate rhythmic deposition, not trauma.

Correct. Cementum is deposited in increments, resulting in visible lines.

Incremental lines in cementum are not indicators of developmental anomalies.

Incremental lines in cementum are not indicators of odontocytes.

Comprehension

REF: p. 132

OBJ: 1

6. Cementum resorption is rare, even in older patients. In fact, cementum is more resistant to

resorption than bone. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: D

A

Feedback The first statement is false; cementum resorption is a defining characteristic of

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

B C D

DIF:

aging cementum.

The second statement is true; cementum is more resistant to resorption than bone.

The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct. Cementum resorption is a defining characteristic of aging cementum.

Cementum is more resistant to resorption than bone.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 134-136

7. Intermediate cementum lies between the a. enamel b. periodontal tissue c. granular layer of Tomes d. cellular-acellular cementum

OBJ: 3

and the secondary cementum.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Intermediate cementum lies between the granular layer of Tomes and secondary cementum.

Intermediate cementum lies between the granular layer of Tomes and secondary cementum.

Correct. The granular layer of Tomes lies adjacent to the intermediate cementum.

Intermediate cementum lies between the granular layer of Tomes and secondary cementum.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 132-133

8. The intermediate layer of cementum is a. 10 cm b. 10 mm c. 10 µm d. 10 nm

OBJ: 2

thick.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The intermediate layer of cementum is 10 µm, not 10 cm, thick.

The intermediate layer of cementum is 10 µm, not 10 mm, thick.

Correct. The intermediate layer of cementum is 10 µm thick.

The intermediate layer of cementum is 10 µm, not 10 nm, thick.

Recall

REF: pp. 132-133

OBJ: 2

9. At which of the following the cementum is thickest? a. Apex of the root b. Cementoenamel junction c. Cervical region of the root d. Furcation of multirooted teeth

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Cementum is always most substantial at the root apex.

Cementum is always more substantial at the root apex than at the cementoenamel junction.

Cementum is always more substantial at the root apex than at the cervical region of the root.

Cementum is always more substantial at the root apex than at the furcation.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 134-136

OBJ: 1

10. Some have long processes that lie in canaliculi. a. lacunae b. cementicles c. cementocytes d. collagen fibers ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementocytes, not lacunae, have long processes that lie in the canaliculi.

Cementocytes, not cementicles, have long processes that lie in the canaliculi.

Correct. Cementocyte cells have long processes that lie in the canaliculi.

Cementocytes, not collagen fibers, have long processes that lie in the canaliculi.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 134-136

OBJ: 2

11. Why is cementum insensitive to pain? a. Cementum is more permeable than dentin. b. Dentin forms more quickly than cementum. c. Cells deep within the cementum are less active. d. Cementum has no nerve or blood vessel innervation.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementum is insensitive because it contains no nerve innervation.

Cementum is insensitive because it contains no nerve innervation.

Cementum is insensitive because it contains no nerve innervation.

Correct. Cementum is insensitive because it contains no nerve innervation.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 132-133

OBJ: 2

12. Which of the following is formed by cementoblasts and maintained by cementocytes? a. Extrinsic fiber bundles b. Intrinsic fibers of cementum c. Calcified ligament fiber bundles d. Principal fibers of the periodontal ligament.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Intrinsic fibers are formed by cementoblasts and maintained by cementocytes.

Correct. Intrinsic fibers are formed by cementoblasts and maintained by cementocytes.

Intrinsic fibers are formed by cementoblasts and maintained by cementocytes.

Intrinsic fibers are formed by cementoblasts and maintained by cementocytes.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

OBJ: 2

13. Why does aging cementum appear to have a rough surface? a. Extrinsic wear and occlusal force. b. Calcification of ligament fiber bundles. c. Obstruction of the pattern of incremental lines. d. Cementoblasts cannot repair cementum after resorption.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Calcified ligament fiber bundles are responsible for the rough surface of aging cementum.

Correct. Aged cementum appears rougher as the ligament fiber bundles calcify.

Calcified ligament fiber bundles are responsible for the rough surface of aging cementum.

Calcified ligament fiber bundles are responsible for the rough surface of aging cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 136

OBJ: 3

14. Which of the following best defines the term ankylosis? a. Alveolar bone fuses with cementum. b. The cementum fuses with underlying dentin. c. Alveolar bone fuses with the PDL ligament. d. The cementum of two adjacent teeth fuses together.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Ankylosis occurs when alveolar bone fuses with cementum.

Ankylosis occurs when alveolar bone fuses with cementum.

Ankylosis occurs when alveolar bone fuses with cementum.

Ankylosis occurs when alveolar bone fuses with cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 138

OBJ: 2

15. Which is the preferred term for the first layer of cementum that is deposited by the inner layer

of the epithelial cells of the root sheath? a. Cementoid layer b. Intermediate cementum

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Celluluar cementum d. Acellular cementum ANS: B

A B

C

D

DIF:

Feedback The term cementoid layer is confusing because the initial layer of cementum is called cementoid, like osteoid in bone.

Correct. Most authors have used the term intermediate cementum. It is deposited by the inner layer of the epithelial cells of the root sheath. Deposition occurs immediately before the epithelial root cells disintegrate as a sheet and migrate away from the root into the periodontal tissue.

Cementum is deposited directly on the surface of the intermediate cementum at a thickness of about 30 to 60 µm at the cervical region of the crown. The cementum appears to be more cellular as the thickness increases to maintain its viability.

Cementum is deposited directly on the surface of the intermediate cementum at a thickness of about 30 to 60 µm at the cervical region of the crown. The thin layer near the cervical region requires no cells to maintain vitality because fluids bathe its surface.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

OBJ: 1

16. A continuing increase of cementum due to aging may obstruct the a. apical canal. b. periodontal ligament space. c. occlusion. d. pulp horns.

ANS: A

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. A continuing increase of cementum in the apical zone may obstruct the apical canal.

Usually the alveolar bone compensates for an increase in the amount of cementum and the periodontal ligament space is maintained.

It will not obstruct the occlusion. As the tooth ages, occlusal height is reduced.

Since the tooth needs to be in functional occlusion, this reduction is compensated for by changes in the periodontal ligament first, then the alveolar bone proper, and finally the cementum.

It will not obstruct the pulp horns. Cementum surrounds the tooth and the pulp horns are within the tooth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 136

OBJ: 3

17. The area where cemental resorption stops and deposition begins is called a a. cementicle. b. reversal line. c. cementoblast. d. cementocyte.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback A cementicle is a calcified ovoid or round nodule found in the periodontal ligament.

Correct. A reversal line is seen where resorption stops and deposition begins.

Defects arise due to trauma of various kinds. Repair cementum may be deposited by cementoblasts in the defect.

Cementoblasts originate from the dental follicle and produce cementum.

Cementocytes are cementoblasts that have become incorporated into cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 138

OBJ: 3

18. Following resorption, cemental repair is a function of a. odontoblasts. b. ameloblasts. c. cementoblasts. d. cementocytes.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Odontoblasts form dentin, not cementum.

Ameloblasts form enamel, not cementum.

Correct. Cemental repair is a protective function of cementoblasts after resorption of root d e nTt i E nS orTcBem A eNnKtuSmE. LLER.COM Cementocytes are a component of cellular cementum. They are cementoblasts that have become incorporated into the cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 138

OBJ: 3

19. Which of the following is found in both bone and cementum? a. Blood vessels b. Nerves c. Cells in lacunae d. Haversian or Volkmann canals ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementum does not contain blood vessels.

Cementum does not contain nerves.

Correct. Cementum resembles bone because it is a hard tissue with cells contained in lacunae that exhibit canaliculi.

Cementum does not contain Haversian or Volkmann canals.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

20. In what percentage of cases does cementum meet enamel?

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. b. c. d.

0% 10% 30% 60%

ANS: C

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementum meets enamel more often than in 0% of the cases.

In 10% of the cases a small gap exists between cementum and enamel. These patients are thought to have more cervical tooth sensitivity than other people due to the gap.

Correct. In 30% of the cases cementum stops at the cervical line just meeting the enamel.

In 60% of the cases cementum is formed on the cervical enamel for a short distance.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

OBJ: 1

21. What does OMG stand for in terms of cementum formation? a. Overlap, meet, and gap b. Overwhelming marginal gingivitis c. Obstructive meeting group d. Odontoblast meeting gingiva ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Feedback Correct. Overlap (60%), meet (30%), and gap (10%).

OMG does not mean overwhelming marginal gingivitis.

OMG does not mean obstructive meeting group.

OMG does not mean odontoblast meeting gingiva.

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. Young children frequently develop free cementicles.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 137

2. Cementum is highly vascularized.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 132-133

3. Intermediate cementum overlies dentin.

ANS: T

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 134

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 2 4. Inner root sheath cells form the cellular-acellular cementum.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 132

5. Intermediate cementum is softer than dentin.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

6. Intermediate cementum forms completely, before the deposition of secondary cementum

begins.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

7. The initial layer of cementum contains an enamelin-like protein.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

8. Cementum forms more rapidly than dentin.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

9. The majority of cementocytes reside within the apical cementum.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

10. Cementum is devoid of elastic fibers.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 134

11. Cementum is lustrous pale yellow in color.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 136

12. Cementum resorption is a characteristic of aging cementum.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 136

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 11: Periodontium: Periodontal Ligament Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which arises from the dental follicular tissue? a. Dentin b. Enamel c. Cementicles d. Periodontium ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Dentin does not arise from the dental follicular tissue; the periodontium does.

Enamel does not arise from the dental follicular tissue; the periodontium does.

Cementicles do not arise from the dental follicular tissue; the periodontium does.

Correct. The periodontium develops from dental follicular tissue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

2. The periodontal ligament is composed of fibers, cells, and a. synovial fluid b. visceral fascia c. crevicular fluid d. intercellular substance

OBJ:

1 .

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Intercellular substance is a component of the periodontal ligament; synovial fluid is not.

Intercellular substance is a component of the periodontal ligament; visceral fascia is not.

Intercellular substance is a component of the periodontal ligament; crevicular fluid is not.

Correct. The periodontal ligament is composed of fibers, cells and intercellular substance.

Recall

REF: p. 140

OBJ:

1

3. The periodontal ligament (periodontium) has a width of a. 0.015 to 0.038 b. 0.15 to 0.38 c. 0.045 to 0.080 d. 0.45 to 0.80 ANS: B

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

mm.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Feedback The periodontium has a thickness of 0.15 to 0.38 mm, not 0.015 to 0.038 mm.

Correct. The periodontium has a thickness of 0.15 to 0.38 mm.

The periodontium has a thickness of 0.15 to 0.38 mm, not 0.045 to 0.080 mm.

The periodontium has a thickness of 0.15 to 0.38 mm, not 0.45 to 0.80 mm.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

4.

REF: p. 140

OBJ:

1

is (are) highly cellular, vascular, and neural. a. b. c. d.

Oxytalan fibers Interstitial spaces Periodontal ligaments Fibrous connective tissue

ANS: B Feedback Interstitial spaces are cell-rich and house blood vessels and nerve trunks.

Correct. Interstitial spaces are highly cellular, vascular, and neural.

Interstitial spaces are cell-rich and house blood vessels and nerve trunks.

Interstitial spaces are cell-rich and house blood vessels and nerve trunks.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

OBJ:

1

5. The primary function of the periodontal ligament is to do which of the following? a. Support the teeth. b. Provide nutrition. c. Transmit neural input. d. Protect the cementum.

ANS: A Feedback Correct. The periodontal ligament’s primary function is to support the teeth.

The periodontal ligament’s nutritive functions are secondary to supporting the teeth.

The periodontal neural functions are secondary to supporting the teeth.

The periodontal ligament’s primary function is to support the teeth.

A B C D

DIF: 6. a. b. c. d.

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

create and destroy collagen fibers, as needed.

Fibroblasts Osteoclasts Macrophages Cementoblasts

ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ:

2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF: 7.

Feedback Correct. Fibroblasts create and break down collagen fibers.

Fibroblasts, not osteoclasts, create and break down collagen fibers.

Fibroblasts, not macrophages, create and break down collagen fibers.

Fibroblasts, not cementoblasts create and break down collagen fibers.

Comprehension

REF: p. 145

OBJ:

3

Which of the following best defines epithelial rests? a. Diminished functional activity caused by aging. b. A decrease in the production of epithelial cells. c. A marking created by deposition of cementum. d. A mass of cells in the remnants of the root sheath.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback An epithelial rest is not defined by diminished activity.

An epithelial rest is not defined by a decreased production of cells.

An epithelial rest is not defined by the deposition of cementum.

Correct. An epithelial rest is a mass of cells located in the remnants of the root sheath.

Comprehension

REF: p. 147

OBJ:

3

8. The periodontal ligamenT t pEeS rfT orB mAs NwKhS icE hL seLcoEnRd. arCyOfuMnction? a. Insulating and protecting the pulp b. Forming cementum, bone, and enamel c. Providing a sensory supply to the cementum d. Supplying nutrients to the cementum and alveolar bone ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Blood vessels of the periodontal ligament supply nutrients to the cementum and alveolar bone.

Blood vessels of the periodontal ligament supply nutrients to the cementum and alveolar bone.

The periodontal ligament provides the cementum and alveolar bone with nutrients.

Correct. Blood vessels of the periodontal ligament supply nutrients to the cementum and alveolar bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 147

9. Which gingival fiber group extends between adjacent teeth? a. Circular b. Transseptal c. Free gingival

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ:

3

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

d. Attached gingival ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Transseptal, not circular, fibers extend from one tooth to the other.

Correct. Transseptal fibers extend between adjacent teeth.

Transseptal, not free gingival, fibers extend from one tooth to the other.

Transseptal, not attached gingival, fibers extend from one tooth to the other.

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

OBJ:

3

10. Which pressure receptors are found in the periodontal ligament? a. Ruffini b. Pacinian c. Meissner d. All of the above ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Encapsulated pressure receptors (modified Pacinian) sense the density of food.

Correct. Pacinian receptors sense the density of food during mastication.

Encapsulated pressure receptors (modified Pacinian) sense the density of food.

Encapsulated pressure receptors (modified Pacinian) sense the density of food; Ruffini and Meissner receptors are not found in the periodontal ligament.

Comprehension

REF: p. 145

OBJ:

2

11. Which of the following is found on the surface of cementum? a. Fibroblasts b. Cementicles c. Cementocytes d. Cementoblasts ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cementoblasts, not fibroblasts, appear along the surface of the cementum.

Cementoblasts, not cementicles, appear along the surface of the cementum.

Cementoblasts, not cementocytes, appear along the surface of the cementum.

Correct. Cementoblasts appear along the surface of the cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 145

12. Tooth movement will elicit the a. necrosis b. ingestion c. resorption

of cementum.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ:

3

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

d. absorption ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cemental resorption occurs in response to tooth movement.

Cemental resorption occurs in response to tooth movement.

Correct. Tooth movement can invoke cemental resorption.

Cemental resorption occurs in response to tooth movement.

Recall

REF: p. 145

OBJ:

4

13. Which change is associated with the aging of cementum and alveolar bone? a. Scalloping b. Cellular hyperactivity c. Increased cell reproduction d. Fiber attachments cover the entire surface ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Scalloping occurs as cementum and alveolar bone age.

Cellular activity decreases with age.

Cell numbers decrease with age.

Ligament fibers attach to the peaks of the scalloped tissue with age.

Recall

RETFE: ST p.B1A 48NKSELLOEBRJ:.C4OM

14. The jaw jerk reflex is a test for which structure? a. Pterygoid muscle b. Trigeminal nerve c. Periodontal ligament d. Temporomandibular joint ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The jaw jerk reflex test analyzes the integrity of the trigeminal nerve, not the pterygoid muscle.

Correct. The vitality of the trigeminal nerve is determined with the jaw jerk reflex test.

The jaw jerk reflex test analyzes the integrity of the trigeminal nerve, not the periodontal ligament.

The jaw jerk reflex test analyzes the integrity of the trigeminal nerve, not the temporomandibular joint.

Recall

REF: p. 145

OBJ:

3

15. Interstitial spaces of the periodontal ligament contain

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

a. b. c. d.

cementum. blood vessels and nerve trunks. alveolar bone. nothing. They are empty spaces left between structures.

ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Interstitial spaces are adjacent to the periodontal ligament fibers that attach the cementum to the alveolar bone, but they do not contain cementum.

Interstitial spaces contain the blood vessels and nerve trunks, which communicate freely with vessels and nerves at the apex of the roots and the alveolar bone. The function of the interstitial space relates to the constant stretching and contraction of the fiber bundles during mastication.

Interstitial spaces are adjacent to the periodontal ligament fibers that attach the cementum to the alveolar bone, but they do not contain cementum.

Interstitial areas contain a network of blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that maintain the vitality of the periodontal ligament and a network of finer fibers that interlace in the spaces, as well as support the dense collagen fiber bundles.

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

OBJ:

3

16. Which are the most numerous cells of the periodontal ligament? a. Cementoblasts b. Osteoblasts c. Fibroblasts d. Macrophages ANS: C

A B

C

D

DIF:

Feedback Cementoblasts appear along the surface of the cementum. They are not the most numerous cells found in the periodontal ligament.

Osteoblasts are located along the surface of the alveolar bone. They are not the most numerous cells of the periodontal ligament and differentiate locally from mesenchymal cells as the need for osteoblasts arises.

Correct. Fibroblasts are the most numerous type of cell seen in the periodontal ligament because of the high collagen density of this tissue. The abundance of fibroblasts allows rapid replacement of fibers.

Macrophages found in the periodontal ligament are important defense cells, however, they are not the most numerous cells of the periodontal ligament.

Comprehension

REF: p. 145

OBJ:

1

17. Osteoclasts arise from which type of cells within the blood vascular system? a. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) b. Erythrocytes c. Monocytes d. Mast cells

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Osteoclasts are not derived from PMNs. Osteoclasts arise from one of the types of white blood cells. Erythrocytes are red blood cells.

Correct. Osteoclasts originate from monocytes within the blood vascular system and become multinucleated cells seen in lacunae of resorption sites in hard tissue and are recruited to an area of appositional growth or undergoing remodeling by local osteoblasts, which control the osteoclast activity by the mechanism of physiological coupling.

Osteoclasts do not arise from mast cells. Mast cells release histamine as part of the inflammatory response.

Comprehension

REF: p. 146

OBJ:

3

18. Which of the following types of dentoalveolar periodontal ligament fibers extends from the surface of the tooth to the adjacent fundic alveolar bone? a. Horizontal fiber group b. Oblique fiber group c. Apical fiber group d. Alveolar crest fiber group ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback TESTBANKSELLER.COM The horizontal fiber group extends in a horizontal direction from the midroot cementum to the adjacent alveolar bone proper.

The oblique fiber group extends in an oblique direction from the area just above the apical zone of the root upward to the alveolar bone.

The apical fiber group extends perpendicular from the surface of the root apices to the adjacent fundic alveolar bone, which surrounds the apex of the tooth root.

The alveolar crest fiber group originates at the cervical area and extends to the alveolar crest, as well as into the gingival connective tissue.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 142-143

OBJ:

2

19. Each of the following objects in the periodontal ligament are phagocytosed by macrophages EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Dead cells b. Bacteria c. Monocytes d. Foreign bodies ANS: C

A

Feedback Dead cells are phagocytosed by macrophages in the periodontal ligament.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B C D

Bacteria are phagocytosed by macrophages in the periodontal ligament.

Monocytes in the bloodstream become macrophages in tissue.

Foreign bodies are phagocytosed by macrophages in the periodontal ligament.

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 146

OBJ:

3

TRUE/FALSE 1. The periodontal ligament connects with the gingival tissues.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

2. The width (thickness) of the periodontal ligament increases with age.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

3. The periodontal ligament is thinnest in the midroot zone.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 140

4. Osteoclasts facilitate bone resorption in periodontal disease.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

ApNrK DIT FE : ST CB om ehSenEsL ioLnER.COM

REF: p. 146

5. Macrophages are normally present in the periodontal ligament.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 146

6. Cementum is constantly being created as new fibers appear along the root surface.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 146

7. Cemental spikes occur with excessive deposition around depleted fiber bundles.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 148

8. Receptors and nerves located in the periodontal ligament transmit information regarding pressure and mandibular position.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 147

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

9. The most important function of the periodontal ligament is to sense movement.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 147

10. Epithelial rests always occur along the root surface.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 147

11. Cementoblasts repair resorbed cementum.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 146

12. The overall general health of an individual affects the health of the periodontium.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 148

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 12: Periodontium: Alveolar Process and Cementum Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is identified radiographically as the lamina dura? a. Pulp b. Cementum c. Sharpey fibers d. Alveolar bone proper ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Alveolar bone proper, not pulp, is the lamina dura in radiographs.

Alveolar bone proper, not cementum, is the lamina dura in radiographs.

Alveolar bone proper is the lamina dura in radiographs; Sharpey fibers are not.

Correct. Alveolar bone proper is defined radiographically as the lamina dura.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

2. Maintenance of the alveolar bone and cementum is reliant on which of the following? a. Resorption b. Tooth function c. Routine professional dental care d. Periods of masticatory T inEaS ctT ivB ityANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Tooth function, not resorption, is a prerequisite for the maintenance of the alveolar bone and cementum.

Correct. Tooth function is a prerequisite for the maintenance of the alveolar bone and cementum.

Professional dental care is not a prerequisite for the maintenance of the alveolar bone and cementum.

Periods of masticatory inactivity are not a prerequisite for the maintenance of the alveolar bone and cementum.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 2

3. Which bone is regularly penetrated by collagen fiber bundles? a. Bundle b. Cortical c. Haversian d. Cancellous ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Collagen fiber bundles regularly penetrate bundle bone.

Collagen fiber bundles regularly penetrate bundle, not cortical, bone.

Collagen fiber bundles regularly penetrate bundle, not haversian, bone.

Collagen fiber bundles regularly penetrate bundle, not cancellous, bone.

Comprehension

4. The alveolar crest is located a. 10 b. 3 to 4 c. 1.2 to 1.5 d. 2.5 to 3.2

REF: p. 151

OBJ: 1

mm below the dentinoenamel junction.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The alveolar crest is located 1.2 to 1.5 mm, not 10 mm, below the junction.

The alveolar crest is located 1.2 to 1.5 mm, not 3 to 4 mm, below the junction.

Correct. The alveolar crest is located 1.2 to 1.5 mm below the junction.

The alveolar crest is located 1.2 to 1.5 mm, not 2.5 to 3.2 mm, below the junction.

Comprehension

5. The alveolar crest is a. flat b. peaked c. rounded d. scalloped

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

in the molar region.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The alveolar crest is flat in the posterior region of the dentition.

The alveolar crest is flat, not peaked, in the molar area.

The alveolar crest is flat, not rounded, in the molar area.

The alveolar crest is flat, not scalloped, in the molar area.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

6. Fenestration is best defined as which of the following? a. Coronal border of the alveolar process. b. Bone loss in the coronal area of the root. c. Bone loss where the apical root penetrates cortical bone. d. Bundle of collagen fibers embedded in the alveolar bone proper.

ANS: C

Feedback

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A B C D

DIF:

Bone loss in the coronal area of the root is dehiscence, not fenestration.

Fenestration occurs when the apical root penetrates bone.

Correct. Fenestration occurs when the apical root penetrates cortical bone.

Fenestration occurs when the apical root penetrates bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 3

7. Which best defines dehiscence? a. Bone loss in the coronal area of the root b. Colorless, ischemic periodontal ligament c. Compact bony lining of the tooth socket d. Inclination of permanent teeth to drift mesially ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Bone loss in the coronal area of the root is termed dehiscence.

The compact bony lining of the tooth socket is the alveolar bone proper.

Hyalinized ligaments are ischemic and colorless.

Mesial drift is the inclination of permanent teeth to drift mesially.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 2

8. Collagen fibers embedded in the alveolar bone proper are called a. alveolar b. gingival c. Sharpey d. transseptal ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Sharpey fibers perforate the alveolar bone proper.

Sharpey fibers perforate the alveolar bone proper.

Correct. Sharpey fibers are embedded in the alveolar bone proper.

Sharpey fibers perforate the alveolar bone proper.

Comprehension

REF: p. 151

OBJ: 2

9. Which movement is associated with tooth loss or hypereruption? a. Body b. Tipping c. Rotation d. Mesial drift ANS: D

A B

Feedback Mesial drift occurs when teeth hypererupt or are lost.

Mesial drift occurs when teeth hypererupt or are lost.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

fibers.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

Mesial drift occurs when teeth hypererupt or are lost.

Correct. Mesial drift compensates for missing or hypererupted teeth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 154

10. Cemental fiber bundles are usually a. larger; less numerous b. larger; more numerous c. smaller; less numerous d. smaller; more numerous

and

OBJ: 3

than those of the alveolar bone.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Cemental fiber bundles are smaller and more numerous than alveolar bone fiber bundles.

Cemental fiber bundles are smaller and more numerous than alveolar bone fiber bundles.

Cemental fiber bundles are smaller and more numerous than alveolar bone fiber bundles.

Correct. Fiber bundles of the cementum are usually smaller and more numerous.

Recall

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 2

11. Cementum is more susceptible to resorption than bone. Researchers believe that nutritive

vascular and neural supplies in cementum are responsible for this increased susceptibility. a. Both statements are truT e.ESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Both statements are false.

Correct. Both statements are false.

Cementum is more resistant to resorption than bone Researchers believe a direct correlation exists between the absence of nervous and vascular innervations in cementum and its resistance to resorption.

Comprehension

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 2

12. Hyalinization of the periodontal ligament is caused by which of the following? a. Mesial drift b. Traumatic compression c. Eruption of permanent teeth d. Gradual orthodontic movement ANS: B

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Mesial drift is not associated with the hyalinization of the periodontal ligament.

Correct. Hyalinization of the ligament is a result of traumatic compression.

Eruption is not associated with the hyalinization of the periodontal ligament.

Hyalinization of the ligament is a result of traumatic compression, not gradual orthodontic movement.

Comprehension

REF: p. 155

OBJ: 3

13. Teeth are slightly more mobile in the a. morning. b. early afternoon. c. late afternoon. d. evening.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Teeth are slightly more mobile in the morning than later in the day.

The early afternoon is not when teeth are most mobile.

The late afternoon is not when teeth are most mobile.

Evening is not when teeth are most mobile.

Comprehension

REF: p. 156

OBJ: 3

14. Adult periodontitis causes loss of periodontal ligament (PDL) fibers as well as loss of a. cementum. b. alveolar bone. c. enamel. d. dentin.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Adult periodontitis is characterized by loss of attachment to cementum, not by loss of cementum itself.

Correct. Adult periodontitis can cause these conditions with possible tooth loss that could result in an edentulous jaw.

Adult periodontitis does not cause the loss of enamel.

Adult periodontitis does not cause the loss of dentin.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 4

15. Which type of nutrient canals extend through the long axis of bone? a. Haversian b. Volkmann c. Trabecular d. Cancellous ANS: A

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Haversian canals extend through the long axis of bone.

Volkmann canals enter Haversian canals at right angles.

Trabecular bone is spongy or cancellous bone. Haversian canals are found in dense, cortical, or compact bone.

Cancellous bone is spongy or trabecular bone. Haversian canals are found in dense, cortical, or compact bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 1

16. The type of nutrient canals that penetrate Haversian canals at right angles to form a nutrient

network are called a. hyalinized. b. reversal lines. c. Volkmann. d. Haversian.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hyalinized refers to the appearance of the periodontal ligament when the vascularity is compromised, and the ligament appears colorless.

Reversal lines are observed following repair of cementum.

Correct. Volkmann canals enter Haversian canals at right angles.

Haversian canals extend through the long axis of bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 153

OBJ: 1

17. The alveolar process is composed of alveolar bone proper and the a. teeth. b. gingiva. c. supporting bone. d. vermilion border.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback The teeth are not part of the alveolar process.

The gingiva is not part of the alveolar process.

Correct. The alveolar process is the part of the maxilla and mandible that supports the roots of teeth and is composed of alveolar bone proper and supporting bone.

The vermilion border is not part of the alveolar process.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

18. The area of bone loss where an apical root penetrates the cortical bone is called a a. fenestration. b. dehiscence.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. marginal defect. d. lateral fossa.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. A fenestration is a window in the bone where an apical root penetrates the cortical bone.

A dehiscence is an area of bone loss in the coronal area of the root.

This area of bone loss is not called a marginal defect.

A lateral fossa is the thinning of bone over a maxillary lateral incisor.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

19. Loss of density of lamina dura is associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which

one is the EXCEPTION? a. Infection b. Inflammation c. Resorption of the bony socket d. Bruxing ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Loss of density of lamina dura is associated with infection.

Loss of density of lamina dura is associated with inflammation.

Loss of density of lamTinEaSdTuB raAisNaKsS soEciLatLeE dR w. ithCO reM sorption of the bony socket.

Loss of the density of lamina dura is not associated with bruxing.

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

OBJ: 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. Once formed, fibers attached to the cementum cannot change.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

2. When teeth are moved, all parts of the suspensory apparatus must move simultaneously.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

3. The alveolar process supports the roots of the teeth.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

4. When a tooth is lost, the adjacent supporting tissues are also lost.

ANS: T

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 154

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 1 5. Blood vessels and nerves penetrate the lamina dura.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

6. The lamina dura is less dense than the adjacent cancellous bone.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 150

7. Bone marrow is the smallest organ in the body.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 153

8. The size difference between a primary tooth and its permanent successor is the leeway space.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 153-154

9. Mesial drift is a significant occurrence during the deciduous dentition period.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 153

10. Aged alveolar bone lacunaT eE arSeT fiB lleAdNw thEcL em ytO esM. KiS LeEnRto.cC ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 157

11. Tension and compression during tooth movement result in bone loss.

ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 155

12. Profound change occurs in the dense compact bone of an aging edentulous mandible.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 157

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 13: Temporomandibular Joint Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best describes the synovial membrane? a. Thin layer of synovial cells b. Sterile, highly viscous fluid c. Dense, collagenous fibrous pad d. Fibrous capsule that encloses the temporomandibular joint ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. A thin layer of synovial cells compose the synovial membrane.

Synovial fluid is a sterile, highly viscous fluid.

The articular disk is a dense, collagenous, and fibrous pad.

The synovial membrane is a thin layer of synovial cells, not a fibrous capsule.

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

OBJ: 1

2. The lateral pterygoid muscle does which of the following? a. Retracts the mandible b. Protracts and elevates the mandible c. Elevates the mandible and clenches the teeth d. Protrudes the mandibleTaEnS dT puBllAs N thKeSarEtiL cuLlaErRd. isC k OfoMrward ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The temporalis muscle retracts the mandible.

The medial pterygoid protracts and elevates the mandible.

The masseter muscle elevates the jaw and clenches the teeth.

Correct. The lateral pterygoid muscle protrudes the mandible and pulls the articular disk forward.

Comprehension

REF: p. 164

OBJ: 2

3. Which of the following is not a function of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? a. Speech b. Deglutition c. Respiration d. Mastication ANS: C

A B

Feedback Speech is a function of the TMJ. Deglutition is a function of the TMJ.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

Correct. Respiration is not a function of the TMJ. Mastication is a function of the TMJ. Comprehension

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 2

4. A mature mandibular condyle exhibits which characteristic? a. The condylar head is a round shape. b. Bone covers the head of the condyle. c. A thick layer of cartilage covers the head of the condyle. d. Spikes of porous cartilage project into the underlying bone marrow.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Condylar heads are round at birth, but ovoid-shaped at full maturity.

Correct. In the mature mandibular condyle, cartilage is replaced by bone.

In the mature mandibular condyle, cartilage is replaced by bone.

In the mature mandibular condyle, cartilage is replaced by bone.

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

OBJ: 1

5. The articular fossa undergoes which developmental change? a. Deepens and expands b. Becomes brittle and narrow c. Loses flexibility and perforates d. Becomes increasingly scalloped in shape ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The articular fossa deepens during development to accommodate the growing condylar head.

The articular fossa deepens during development, as opposed to becoming brittle and narrow.

The articular fossa deepens during development, as opposed to losing flexibility.

The articular fossa deepens, rather than scallops, during development.

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

OBJ: 1

6. Where is the temporomandibular fossa located? a. Medial to the zygomaticofrontal suture b. Within the periphery of the zygomatic arch c. At the posterior medial aspect of the zygomatic arch d. Along the anterior upper border of the zygomatic arch ANS: C

A

Feedback The temporomandibular fossa is located at the posterior medial aspect of the zygomatic arch.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B C D

DIF:

The temporomandibular fossa is located at the posterior medial aspect of the zygomatic arch.

Correct. The temporomandibular fossa is located at the posterior medial aspect of the arch.

The temporomandibular fossa is located at the posterior medial aspect of the zygomatic arch.

Recall

REF: p. 160

OBJ: 1

7. The heads of mandibular condyles form secondary ossification centers. Secondary ossification

centers produce epiphyseal lines (cartilage-bone junctions). a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The first statement is false.

The second statement is true.

The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct. Secondary ossification centers are not formed in the heads of mandibular condyles; epiphyseal lines are cartilage bone junctions produced by secondary ossification centers.

Comprehension

TESTBANKSREEFL:LE p .R15.9COM

OBJ: 1

8. Which of the following is a function of the temporomandibular joint capsule? a. Provides joint lubrication b. Supports articulatory movements c. Encloses the lateral, medial, and posterior boundaries d. Keeps the disk immobile when the head of the condyle moves ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The capsule supports the articulatory movements of the TMJ. Correct. The capsule supports the articulatory movements of the TMJ. The capsule supports the articulatory movements of the TMJ. The capsule supports the articulatory movements of the TMJ. Comprehension

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 2

9. Which ligament extends down the medial side of the ramus to insert on the lingula? a. Stylohyoid b. Stylomandibular c. Sphenomandibular d. Temporomandibular

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The stylohyoid ligament inserts on the lesser horn of the hyoid bone.

The stylomandibular ligament inserts on the posterior border of the ramus.

Correct. The sphenomandibular ligament inserts on the lingula.

The temporomandibular ligament inserts on the lateral surface and posterior border of the neck of the mandible.

Comprehension

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 2

10. Which ligament attaches to the lateral part of the disk? a. Stylohyoid b. Stylomandibular c. Sphenomandibular d. Temporomandibular ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The temporomandibular, not stylohyoid, ligament attaches to the lateral part of the disk.

The temporomandibular, not stylomandibular, ligament attaches to the lateral part of the disk.

The temporomandibular, not sphenomandibular, ligament attaches to the lateral part of the disk.

Correct. The temporoT mE anSdTibBuA laN r,KoS r lE atLerLaE l, R lig.aCmOeM nt attaches to the lateral part of the disk.

Comprehension

REF: p. 164

OBJ: 2

11. Which of the following ligaments do not support the temporomandibular joint? a. Stylohyoid b. Stylomandibular c. Sphenomandibular d. Temporomandibular ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The stylomandibular, sphenomandibular, and temporomandibular ligaments support the TMJ. The stylomandibular, sphenomandibular, and temporomandibular ligaments support the TMJ. The stylomandibular, sphenomandibular, and temporomandibular ligaments support the TMJ. The stylomandibular, sphenomandibular, and temporomandibular ligaments support the TMJ. Comprehension

REF: p. 163

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

12. Which of the following is a function of the lateral ligament of the temporomandibular joint? a. Operates in retraction of the disk. b. Strengthens the capsule and allows freedom of condylar movement. c. Provides strong insulation between the condylar heads and articular surfaces. d. Supports the joint and limits excursions of the condyles to a normal range.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The lateral ligament supports the joint and limits the condylar excursions.

The lateral ligament supports the joint and limits the condylar excursions.

The lateral ligament supports the joint and limits the condylar excursions.

Correct. The lateral, or temporomandibular, ligament supports the joint and limits the condylar excursions.

Comprehension

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 2

13. Which feature of the TMJ helps it withstand functional stress? a. Presence of cartilage on the condyle and fossa. b. Encapsulated nerve terminals in the synovial folds. c. Functional relationship with the muscles of mastication. d. Network of blood vessels in the posterior region of the joint.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Correct. The presence of cartilage on the condyle and fossa permits the TMJ to withstand stressful mandibular function.

Cartilage, not nervous, tissue assists the TMJ in withstanding functional stress.

Cartilage, not muscular, tissue assists the TMJ in withstanding functional stress.

Cartilage, not vascular, tissue assists the TMJ in withstanding functional stress.

Comprehension

REF: p. 166

OBJ: 2

14. When the mouth opens, each condylar head slides along the articular a. pad b. fossa c. plane d. eminence

.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The condylar heads slide along the articular plane when the jaw opens.

The condylar heads slide along the articular plane when the jaw opens.

Correct. The condylar heads slide along the articular plane when the jaw opens.

The condylar heads slide along the articular plane when the jaw opens.

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

15. A mature mandibular condyle is which shape? a. Ovoid b. Circular c. Crescent d. Triangular ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Condyles develop into an ovoid shape as they reach maturity.

Condyles are an ovoid, rather than circular, shape as they reach maturity.

Condyles are an ovoid, rather than crescent, shape as they reach maturity.

Condyles are an ovoid, rather than triangular, shape as they reach maturity.

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

OBJ: 1

16. The synovial membrane is associated with numerous capillaries and a. fluids b. bones c. ligaments d. lymphatics

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Numerous fluids are not associated with the synovial membrane.

Numerous bones are not associated with the synovial membrane.

Numerous ligaments are not associated with the synovial membrane.

Correct. The synovial membrane is associated with numerous capillaries and lymph vessels.

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

17. Articular remodeling is a response to a. aging b. inactivity c. genetic dysfunction d. environmental stress

OBJ: 1

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Articular remodeling is a response to environmental stress, not aging.

Articular remodeling is a response to environmental stress, not inactivity.

Articular remodeling is a response to environmental stress, not dysfunction.

Correct. Articular remodeling is a response to environmental stress.

Comprehension

REF: p. 166

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 18. At birth, the heads of the mandibular condyles are round and covered with a thick layer of a. bone. b. cartilage. c. fibrous connective tissue. d. elastic connective tissue.

ANS: B

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback The heads of the mandibular condyles are not covered with bone.

Correct. The cartilage front is uneven with spikes of cartilage projecting into the underlying marrow space.

The heads of the mandibular condyles are not covered with fibrous connective tissue at birth. By maturity at 25 years of age the head of the mandibular condyles consist of a smooth surface covered with a layer of fibrous connective tissue.

The heads of the mandibular condyles are not covered with elastic connective tissue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

OBJ: 2

19. The upper compartment of the temporomandibular cavity is bound superiorly by the articular

fossa and inferiorly by the a. head of the mandibular condyle. b. articular disk. c. articular eminence. d. temporal bone.

ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback The lower compartment of the temporomandibular cavity is bound inferiorly by the head of the mandibular condyle.

Correct. The TMJ cavity is divided into upper and lower compartments by the articular disk. In the upper compartment is a gliding action between the condylar head and the articular eminence. In the lower compartment is a hinge action between the undersurface of the disk and the rotating surface of the head of the condyle.

The articular eminence is a ridge of bone at the anterior of the articular fossa.

The undersurface of the squamous portion of the temporal bone forms the articular fossa.

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

OBJ: 1

20. The spine of bone arising from the rim of the mandibular foramen is called the a. mental foramen. b. genial tubercles. c. submandibular fossa. d. lingula.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: D

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback The mental foramen is on the anterior exterior surface of the mandible. It provides for passage of the terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve from the interior of the mandible to the surface.

The genial tubercles are at the midline of the internal surface of the mandible and function as the attachment for the genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles.

The submandibular fossa is a depression in bone on the internal surface of the mandible in the area of the molar teeth.

Correct. The sphenomandibular ligament arises superiorly from the spine of the sphenoid bone and extends downward on the medial side of the ramus to insert on the lingula. This is where the inferior alveolar nerve enters the mandible to supply the mandibular teeth. It is a critical landmark for the inferior alveolar nerve block injection.

Comprehension

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 1

21. The two movements of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) are a. gliding and hinge. b. superior and inferior. c. medial and lateral. d. anterior and posterior.

ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback TESTBANKSELLER.COM The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) allows the mandibular condyles to move in both gliding and hinge actions. In the upper compartment is a gliding action between the condylar head and the articular eminence and in the lower compartment is a hinge action between the undersurface of the disk and the rotating surface of the head of the condyle.

The two movements of the TMJ are not described as superior and inferior.

The two movements of the TMJ are not described as medial and lateral.

The two movements of the TMJ are not described as anterior and posterior.

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

OBJ: 2

22. Which of the following types of nerve endings found in the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is

a pressure receptor? a. Pacinian nerve endings b. Ruffini nerve endings c. Meissner nerve endings d. Free nerve endings ANS: A

A B

Feedback Pacinian nerve endings are pressure receptors.

Ruffini nerve endings are temperature receptors.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

Meissner nerve endings are touch receptors.

Free nerve endings are pain receptors.

Comprehension

REF: p. 165

OBJ: 2

23. Each of the following is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve that

supplies the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Auriculotemporal nerve b. Deep temporal nerve c. Masseteric nerve d. Inferior alveolar nerve ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The auriculotemporal nerve is one of the nerves that supply the TMJ. The deep temporal nerve is one of the nerves that supply the TMJ. The masseteric nerve is one of the nerves that supply the TMJ. Correct. The inferior alveolar nerve does not supply the TMJ. It supplies the mandibular teeth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 164

OBJ: 1

24. Which of the four muscles of mastication protracts the mandible? a. Medial pterygoid muscle b. Lateral pterygoid muscle c. Masseter muscle d. Temporalis muscle ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Medial pterygoid exerts vertical forces in closing the jaw.

Correct. Lateral pterygoid protracts the mandible and stabilizes the joint. It is the smallest muscle of mastication.

Masseter exerts vertical forces in closing the jaw.

Temporalis exerts vertical forces in closing the jaw.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 164-165

OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. More blood vessels innervate the lateral and medial surfaces of the articular disk than the

anterior and posterior areas.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 164

2. At birth, condylar heads are round and covered with a thick layer of cartilage.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

3. Chondroblasts of the mandibular condyles are organized in long rows.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

4. The action of the lower half of the TMJ is a gliding motion.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

5. The articular disk is thin but highly vascular.

ANS: F OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 162

6. No epiphyseal line is found in the TMJ condyle.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 159

7. Cartilage-bone remodeling is not possible.

ANS: F OBJ: 2 8.

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 166

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Every individual has eight muscles of mastication.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 164

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

Chapter 14: Oral Mucosa Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines hemidesmosomes? a. Discoid cells anchored by tonofibrils b. Sebaceous glands located at the angles of the mouth c. Minute disks that attach basal cells to the basal lamina d. Cuboidal cells providing a basal layer for lining mucosa ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Hemidesmosomes are minute disks, not discoid cells.

Hemidesmosomes are minute disks, not sebaceous glands.

Correct. Hemidesmosomes are minute disks.

Hemidesmosomes are minute disks, not cuboidal cells.

Comprehension

REF: p. 172

OBJ: 1

2. Lining mucosa covers which structure? a. Hard palate b. Alveolar ridges c. Floor of the mouth d. Surface of the tongue ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Masticatory mucosa covers the hard palate.

Masticatory mucosa covers the alveolar ridges.

Correct. Lining mucosa covers the floor of the mouth.

Specialized mucosa covers the surface of the tongue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 169

3. Masticatory mucosa is found on the a. lips b. soft palate c. alveolar ridges d. surface of the tongue

.

ANS: C

A B C

Feedback Lining mucosa covers the lips.

Lining mucosa covers the soft palate.

Correct. Masticatory mucosa covers the alveolar ridges.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Specialized mucosa covers the surface of the tongue.

Comprehension

REF: p. 169

OBJ: 1

4. The lamina propria consists of which two layers? a. Granular and surface b. Papillary and reticular c. Basal and intermediate stratum d. Hemidesmosomes and stratum granulosum ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Papillary and reticular layers make up the lamina propria.

Correct. Papillary and reticular layers make up the lamina propria.

Papillary and reticular layers make up the lamina propria.

Papillary and reticular layers make up the lamina propria.

Comprehension

REF: p. 170

OBJ: 1

5. Organize the layers of masticatory mucosa from the most superficial layer to the most

internal. a. Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, basal lamina b. Stratum spinosum, basal lamina, stratum corneum, stratum granulosum c. Basal lamina, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum d. Stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, basal lamina, stratum spinosum ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The layers of masticatory mucosa are organized from the most superficial layer to the most internal layer as follows: basal lamina, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum.

The sequence is incorrect.

The sequence is incorrect.

The sequence is incorrect.

Comprehension

REF: p. 173

OBJ: 1

6. Oval or polygonal cells differentiate which layer of mucosa? a. Basal lamina b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum spinosum d. Stratum granulosum ANS: C

A B

Feedback Stratum spinosum, not basal lamina, cells are oval or polygonal.

Stratum spinosum, not corneum, cells are oval or polygonal.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C D

DIF:

Correct. Stratum spinosum cells are oval or polygonal.

Stratum spinosum, not granulosum, cells are oval or polygonal.

Comprehension

REF: p. 172

7. Oral nerve endings are most highly concentrated a. on the roof b. on the floor c. in the anterior regions d. in the posterior regions

OBJ: 2

of the oral cavity.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Nerve endings are most highly concentrated in the anterior oral mucosa.

Nerve endings are most highly concentrated in the anterior oral mucosa.

Correct. Nerve endings are highly concentrated in the anterior oral mucosa.

Nerve endings are most highly concentrated in the anterior oral mucosa.

Comprehension

REF: p. 180

OBJ: 1

8. Which of the following best describes the shape of the col between the anterior teeth? a. Flat b. Concave c. Sharp peak d. Slightly convex ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The col is flattened or concave between the posterior teeth.

The col is flattened or concave between the posterior teeth.

Correct. The col is sharply peaked between the anterior teeth.

The col is more inclined in a sharp peak between the anterior teeth.

Comprehension

REF: p. 176

OBJ: 2

9. Which of the following is characterized by thin, nonkeratinized epithelium? a. Free gingiva b. Median raphe c. Interdental col d. Filiform papillae ANS: C

A B C D

Feedback Free gingival tissue is keratinized.

The median raphe is covered with keratinized epithelium.

Correct. The col is characterized by thin, nonkeratinized epithelium.

Filiform papillae are keratinized extensions of epithelial cells.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 176

OBJ: 2

10. Which papillae do not house taste buds? a. Foliate b. Filiform c. Fungiform d. Circumvallate ANS: B

Feedback Taste buds are contained within the foliate papillae of the tongue.

Correct. Filiform papillae do not house taste buds.

Taste buds are found on the superior surface of fungiform papillae.

Taste buds line the walls of circumvallate papillae.

A B C D

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 178

OBJ: 2

11. Which papillae lie in a V-shaped sulcus between the base and body of the tongue? a. Foliate b. Filiform c. Fungiform d. Circumvallate ANS: D

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Feedback Foliate papillae are located along the lateral surface of the tongue.

Filiform papillae cover the dorsum of the tongue.

Fungiform papillae are numerous near the tip of the tongue.

Correct. Circumvallate papillae lie between the base and body of the tongue.

A B C D

DIF: 12. a. b. c. d.

Comprehension

REF: p. 178

OBJ: 2

inject melanosomes into the basal cells of the gingival epithelium.

Melanocytes Lymphocytes Merkel cells Langerhans cells

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Melanocytes produce and inject melanin cells.

Melanocytes produce and inject melanin; lymphocytes do not.

Melanocytes produce and inject melanin; Merkel cells do not.

Melanocytes produce and inject melanin; Langerhans cells do not.

Comprehension

REF: p. 182

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 13. Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells are associated with a. health b. halitosis c. necrosis d. inflammation

.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells are present in inflammation, not health.

Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells are present in inflammation, not halitosis.

Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells are associated with gingival inflammation, not necrosis.

Correct. Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells are present in inflammation.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 182-183

14. The oral epithelium of an older individual is a. thin b. moist c. resilient d. texturized

OBJ: 2

.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Correct. The oral epithelium becomes thinner and more fragile with age.

The oral epithelium appears less moist with age.

The oral epithelium heals more slowly with age.

The oral epithelium appears smoother with age.

Comprehension

15. Cellular activity a. decreases; increases b. increases; decreases c. plateaus; increases d. decreases; plateaus

REF: p. 183

and fibrosis

OBJ: 3

with age.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. In aging, cellular activity decreases and fibrosis increases.

In aging, cellular activity decreases and fibrosis increases.

In aging, cellular activity decreases and fibrosis increases.

In aging, cellular activity decreases and fibrosis increases.

Comprehension

REF: p. 183

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 3

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 16. Melanocytes inject the pigment melanin into neighboring a. leukocytes b. lymphocytes c. keratinocytes d. nonkeratinocytes

.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Melanocytes inject melanin into neighboring keratinocytes, not leukocytes.

Melanocytes inject melanin into neighboring keratinocytes, not lymphocytes.

Correct. Melanocytes inject melanin into neighboring keratinocytes.

Melanocytes inject melanin into neighboring keratinocytes.

Comprehension

REF: p. 182

17. Nonkeratinocytes constitute about a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 50%

OBJ: 3

of the mucosal cell population.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Nonkeratinocytes constitute about 10% of mucosal cell population, not 5%.

Correct. NonkeratinocTyEteSs T coBnA stN itK utS eE abLoL utE1R0. %CoOf M mucosal cell population.

Nonkeratinocytes constitute about 10% of mucosal cell population, not 20%.

Nonkeratinocytes constitute about 10% of mucosal cell population, not 50%.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 181-182

OBJ: 2

18. Ectopic sebaceous glands on the mucosa at the angle of the mouth are called a. rugae. b. Fordyce spots. c. Merkel cells. d. Macula adherens ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Rugae are on each side of the median palatal raphe.

Correct. Fordyce spots are present in the majority of patients.

Merkel cells are touch receptors in the basal layer of gingival epithelium.

Macula adherens are desmosomes in oral mucosa.

Comprehension

REF: p. 170

19. Epithelial nonkeratinocytes are also known as a. junctional epithelium.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 1

TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. clear cells. c. fungiform papillae. d. von Ebner glands.

ANS: B

A B

C D

DIF:

Feedback Junctional epithelium provides for the attachment of the gingiva to the tooth in the cervical area.

Correct. All three types of nonkeratinocytes also have long dendritic processes are sometimes referred to as dendritic cells. The three types of cells are Langerhans cells, Merkel cells, and melanocytes.

Fungiform papillae are a form of specialized mucosa that contains taste buds.

Von Ebner glands are seen surrounding circumvallate papillae.

Comprehension

REF: p. 181

OBJ: 2

20. Lymphocytes, leukocytes, and mast cells may be located anywhere in the gingiva, but most

often underlie in the a. free marginal gingiva. b. hard palate. c. junctional epithelium. d. interdental papilla and col.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

These cells do not most often underlie the free marginal gingiva.

These cells do not most often underlie the hard palate.

Correct. They most often underlie the junctional epithelium. Their appearance is different from keratinocytes because they have no desmosomes, tonofilaments, or organelles.

These cells do not most often underlie the interdental papilla and col.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 182-183

OBJ: 2

21. Merkel cells function as receptors for a. pain. b. temperature. c. touch and pressure. d. deep pressure.

ANS: C

A B C

Feedback Free nerve endings are receptors for pain.

Ruffini endings are receptors for temperature.

Correct. Merkel cells function as receptors for touch and pressure. Merkel cells are located in the basal layer of the gingival epithelium. Unlike keratinocytes, these cells are associated with the terminal axon.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Pacinian corpuscles function as receptors for deep pressure.

Comprehension

REF: p. 182

OBJ: 2

22. Which type of papilla do not contain taste buds? a. Filiform b. Fungiform c. Circumvallate d. Foliate ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Filiform papillae have a terrycloth appearance and do not contain taste buds. These papillae facilitate mastication and movement of food on the surface of the tongue.

Fungiform papillae do contain taste buds. They are found on the superior surface.

Circumvallate papillae do contain taste buds. They are found lining the walls of the papillae.

Foliate papillae do contain taste buds. They are located within vertical grooves or furrows.

Comprehension

REF: p. 178

OBJ: 2

23. Which type of taste sensation is recognized by taste buds throughout the oral cavity and

activation by glutamate? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Bitter d. Umami ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Sweet and salt are perceived at the tip of the tongue.

Sour is perceived on the sides of the tongue.

Bitter is perceived at the back of the tongue in the region of the circumvallate papillae.

Umami is activated by glutamate (glutamic acid—an amino acid).

Comprehension

REF: p. 179

OBJ: 2

24. Which of the following changes in mucosa are recognized as a result of the aging process? a. Smoother b. More moist c. Increased cellular activity d. Decreased fibrosis ANS: A

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. A flattening of surface ridges and surface cells causes the oral mucosa to appear smoother.

It is common for elderly patients to suffer from xerostomia, which is dry mouth.

Aging is associated with decreased cellular activity.

Aging is associated with increased fibrosis.

Comprehension

REF: p. 183

OBJ: 3

TRUE/FALSE 1. The three types of nonkeratinized cells are Langerhans, Merkel, and Fordyce.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 181

2. Eleidin, a transparent protein, is found in the vermillion border of the lips.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 171

3. All epithelial cells function with desmosomes.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 172

TiBnaApNrK 4. Hemidesmosomes attach thTeElS am o pSriEaLtoLtE heRs.trCatOuM m basal.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 176

5. Langerhans cells are restricted to the stratum spinosum.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 181

6. Rugae of the hard palate are ridges of tissue that function during mastication.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 177

7. Von Ebner glands are serous salivary glands with ducts that empty into the trough

surrounding the foliate papillae.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 177-178

8. Taste buds are derived from the surrounding epithelium and are not associated with nerve

endings of the tongue.

ANS: F

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 180

TESTBANKSELLER.COM OBJ: 2 9. During inflammation, lymphocytes and leukocytes can migrate into the gingival epithelium.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 183

10. As oral mucosa ages, it appears less moist.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 183

11. Fungiform is one of the four types of papillae found on the tongue.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 178

12. Umami is one of the five taste modalities of the oral cavity.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 179-180

13. Cellular activity in oral mucosa decreases as a result of aging.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 183

14. Ectopic sebaceous glands aTt E thSeTanBgAleNoKfSthEeLmLoE utRh.aC reOcM alled fordyce spots.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 170

15. Nonkeratinocytes are also known as clear cells.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 181

16. Lymphocytes and leukocytes appear most often beneath the junctional epithelium.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 182-183

17. Merkel cells function as smell and pressure receptors.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 182

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Chapter 15: Salivary Glands and Tonsils Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Seromucous glands, which underlie the palatine tonsils, perform which function? a. Flush and cleanse the tonsillar crypts b. Support the nodules of lymphatic tissue c. Secrete antibodies that destroy antigens d. Produce lymphocytes to protect the body from foreign microorganisms ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Seromucous glands flush the deep palatine crypts.

Seromucous glands do not provide support for lymphatic nodules.

Seromucous glands do not secrete antibodies.

Seromucous glands do not produce lymphocytes.

Comprehension

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 1

2. Which tonsil is located in the floor of the mouth? a. Lingual b. Palatine c. Pharyngeal d. Both A and B ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The lingual tonsils are located in the floor of the mouth.

The lingual, not palatine, tonsils are located in the floor of the mouth.

The lingual, not pharyngeal, tonsils are located in the floor of the mouth.

The lingual tonsils are located in the floor of the mouth; the palatine are not.

Recall

3. Children have a. large b. small c. overdeveloped d. underdeveloped

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 4

palatine tonsils.

ANS: A

A B C

Feedback Correct. Palatine tonsils are large in children.

Palatine tonsils are large, not small, in children.

Palatine tonsils are large, not overdeveloped, in children.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

Palatine tonsils are large, not underdeveloped, in children.

Comprehension

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 4

4. Sympathetic stimulation of a salivary gland produces which type of secretion? a. Watery b. Organic c. Gelatinous d. Protein-poor ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Sympathetic nerves produce a protein-rich, organic secretion.

Correct. Sympathetic nerves produce a protein-rich, organic secretion.

Sympathetic nerves produce a protein-rich, organic secretion.

Sympathetic nerves produce a protein-rich, organic secretion.

Comprehension

REF: p. 191

5. All salivary glands can be classified as a. buccal, labial, or mixed b. serous, mucous, or mixed c. parotid, submandibular, or sublingual d. palatine, glossopalatine, or sublingual

OBJ: 1

.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback All salivary glands are serous, mucous, or mixed.

Correct. All salivary glands are classified as serous, mucous, or mixed.

All salivary glands are serous, mucous, or mixed.

All salivary glands are serous, mucous, or mixed.

Recall

REF: pp. 187-188

OBJ: 1

6. Which salivary gland is the largest? a. Parotid b. Palatine c. Sublingual d. Submandibular ANS: A

A B C D

Feedback Correct. The parotid glands are the largest salivary glands.

The parotid glands are the largest salivary glands.

The parotid glands are the largest salivary glands.

The parotid glands are the largest salivary glands.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 187

7. Serous secretions are a. 50%; 50% b. 25%; 75% c. low in; high in d. high in; low in

OBJ: 1

protein and

carbohydrate.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Serous cells secrete mostly proteins, with small amounts of carbohydrate.

Serous cells secrete mostly proteins, with small amounts of carbohydrate.

Serous cells secrete mostly proteins, with small amounts of carbohydrate.

Correct. Serous secretions are high in protein and low in carbohydrate.

Comprehension

8. Mucous cells discharge _ a. mucin b. amylase c. merocrine d. zymogen granules

REF: p. 185

OBJ: 2

.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. Mucous cellsTdEisScT haBrgAeNmKuSciEnL . LER.COM Mucous cells discharge mucin, not amylase.

Mucous cells discharge mucin, not merocrine.

Mucous cells discharge mucin, not zymogen granules.

Comprehension

REF: p. 185

OBJ: 2

9. Which salivary component facilitates the breakdown of carbohydrates? a. Mucin b. Protein c. Zymogen granules d. Immunoglobulin A ANS: C

A B C D

Feedback Zymogen granules, not mucin, are the precursors of amylase, an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates.

Zymogen granules, not protein, are the precursors of amylase, an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates.

Correct. Zymogen granules facilitate the breakdown of carbohydrates.

Zymogen granules, not immunoglobulin A, are the precursors of amylase, an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 185

10. The major salivary glands contribute a. 50% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90%

OBJ: 1

of saliva.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback All combined, the major salivary glands contribute 90% (not 50%) of saliva.

All combined, the major salivary glands contribute 90% (not 60%) of saliva.

All combined, the major salivary glands contribute 90% (not 75%) of saliva.

Correct. All combined, the major salivary glands contribute 90% of saliva.

Recall

REF: p. 187

OBJ: 1

11. Which of the following is a tubal tonsil? a. An ectopic tonsil located near a eustachian tube b. A tonsil containing epithelial folds that double over into tubes c. An infected tonsil that must be drained through the use of tubes d. Tonsillar tissue that grows around other nearby glands in a tubular shape ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Feedback Correct. A tubal tonsil is located around the opening of the eustachian tubes.

An ectopic tonsil located near the eustachian tubes is called a tubal tonsil.

An ectopic tonsil located near the eustachian tubes is called a tubal tonsil.

An ectopic tonsil located near the eustachian tubes is called a tubal tonsil.

Comprehension

REF: p. 194

OBJ: 5

12. Which structural characteristic makes the palatine tonsil susceptible to infection? a. Large size b. Deep crypts c. Septa capsule d. Germinal centers ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The size of the palatine tonsils is not associated with susceptibility to infection.

Correct. Palatine tonsils are easily infected because of deep branching crypts.

The presence of a capsule is not associated with susceptibility to infection.

Germinal centers are not associated with susceptibility to infection.

Comprehension

REF: p. 191

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 5

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 13. Lingual tonsils have a. deep b. narrow c. branching d. wide-mouthed

crypts.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Lingual tonsils are composed of wide-mouthed, not deep, crypts.

Lingual tonsils are composed of wide-mouthed, not narrow, crypts.

Lingual tonsils are composed of wide-mouthed, not branching, crypts.

Correct. Lingual tonsils are composed of wide-mouthed crypts.

Recall

REF: p. 193

OBJ: 5

14. The germinal centers in tonsils serve which function? a. Cleaning crypts b. Secretion of antibodies c. Production of lymphocytes d. Draining surface of epithelium ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Germinal centers are active sites of lymphocyte formation.

Germinal centers are T acEtiS veTsBitA esNoKf S lyEmLpL hoEcR yt.eCfoOrM mation.

Correct. Germinal centers are active sites of lymphocyte formation.

Germinal centers are active sites of lymphocyte formation.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 191-192

OBJ: 5

15. Which of the following is the functional unit of the salivary gland? a. Lobe b. Alveolus c. Intercalated duct d. Zymogen granule ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The alveolus is the functional unit of the salivary gland.

Correct. The alveolus, or acinus, is the functional unit of the salivary gland.

The alveolus is the functional unit of the salivary gland.

The alveolus is the functional unit of the salivary gland.

Recall

REF: p. 185

OBJ: 1

16. The function of amylase is to aid in the digestion of a. proteins.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. fats. c. carbohydrates. d. lipids.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Amylase does not aid in the digestion of proteins.

Amylase does not aid in the digestion of fats.

Correct. Serous cells secrete mostly proteins and small amounts of carbohydrates. Their secretion also contains zymogen granules, precursors of the enzyme amylase, which functions in the breakdown of carbohydrates.

Amylase does not aid in the digestion of lipids.

Comprehension

REF: p. 185

OBJ: 2

17. Which tonsil is also known as the adenoid? a. Palatine b. Lingual c. Pharyngeal d. None of the above ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback Palatine tonsils are adjacent to the posterior molar teeth.

Lingual tonsils are locTaE teS dT onBA thN eK suSrfEace LLoEf Rt h.e Cp oOsMt eri o r third of the tongue.

Correct. The pharyngeal tonsil, or adenoid, is located in the posterior wall of the superior portion of the nasopharynx. The pharyngeal tonsil is unlike the other tonsils in that it is an aggregation of lymphocytes that does not have crypts but has occasional folds that appear as clefts in the mucosa.

The pharyngeal tonsil is the adenoid.

Comprehension

REF: p. 194

OBJ: 5

18. A cluster of pyramidal salivary gland cells is called (a/an) a. intercalated duct. b. interlobular duct. c. intralobular duct. d. acinus.

ANS: D

A B C D

Feedback Both intercalated and striated ducts are part of the intralobular duct system, located inside the lobules of the major salivary glands.

The interlobular ducts are located in the connective tissue septa between the lobules and the lobes of the gland.

The intralobular ducts are located inside the lobules of the major salivary glands.

Each acinus is a cluster of pyramidal cells, either mucous or serous or a

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

combination of the two, that secretes into a terminal collecting duct.

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 185

OBJ: 1

19. Leukocytes from the gingival crevice and lymphocytes from the tonsils, which are found in

saliva, are known as a. serous demilunes. b. salivary corpuscles. c. zymogen granules. d. germinal centers.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Serous demilunes are a combination of serous and mucous cells found in the acini.

Correct. Lymphocytes from the tonsils are called salivary corpuscles.

Zymogen granules are secreted by serous cells.

Germinal centers are the active sites of lymphocyte formation in tonsils.

Comprehension

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 1

20. The salivary gland duct system consists of portions termed secretory and a. excretory. b. inhibitory. c. mucous. d. serous.

ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The excretory portion lies in the connective tissue septa between the lobules and lobes of the glands.

There is no portion of the salivary gland duct system called inhibitory.

The salivary acini may be classified as mucous, but the duct system is not.

The salivary acini may be classified as serous, but the duct system is not.

Comprehension

REF: p. 190

OBJ: 3

21. The lingual tonsils are located on the a. posterior wall of the superior portion of the nasopharynx. b. faucial pillars adjacent to the posterior molars. c. surface of the posterior third of the tongue. d. soft palate.

ANS: C

A

Feedback The pharyngeal tonsil is located on the posterior wall of the superior portion of the nasopharynx.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B C D

DIF:

The palatine tonsils are located on the faucial pillars adjacent to the posterior molars.

The tonsillar mass is bilateral because it is divided in the midline, reflecting the bilateral origin of the tongue.

Tonsillar tissue is not found on the soft palate.

Comprehension

REF: p. 193

OBJ: 4

22. Each of the following is a major salivary gland EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Parotid b. Submandibular c. Sublingual d. Von Ebner ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The parotid is a major salivary gland. It contributes 25% of the total saliva.

The submandibular is a major salivary gland. It contributes 60% of saliva.

The sublingual gland is a major salivary gland. It contributes 10% of saliva.

Correct. Serous glands of Von Ebner wash out the trough of the circumvallate papillae.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 186-187

OBJ: 1

23. What is the name of the duct that leads from the parotid salivary gland? a. Stensen b. Wharton c. Von Ebner d. Waldeyer’s ring ANS: A

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The Stensen duct drains the parotid gland.

The Wharton duct drains the submandibular gland.

Von Ebner’s ducts flush out the trough around circumvallate papillae.

Waldeyer’s ring is composed of tonsillar tissue that surrounds the oropharynx.

Recall

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 3

TRUE/FALSE 1. Pharyngeal tonsils are covered in stratified squamous epithelium or respiratory epithelium.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 194

2. The palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal tonsils compose the Waldeyer ring.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: T OBJ: 5

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 192

3. The intercalated ducts of the salivary glands contain mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,

and secretory granules.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 190

4. Myoepithelial cells located on the pharyngeal tonsils help move secretions toward the oral

cavity.

ANS: F OBJ: 5

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 191

5. Amylase is the major salivary protein.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 1

6. Tonsils contain cells that secrete saliva.

ANS: F OBJ: 5

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: pp. 192-193

7. Tonsils produce lymphocytes, which protect against microbial pathogens.

ANS: T OBJ: 5

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 194

8. Lymphocytes may transform into plasma cells.

ANS: T OBJ: 5

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 194

9. Myoepithelial cells have a muscular origin and an epithelial function.

ANS: F

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 191

OBJ: 4

10. Serous acinar cells secrete into the lumen of the acinus and then drain directly into

intercalated ducts.

ANS: T OBJ: 1

DIF:

Comprehension

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

REF: p. 190

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Chapter 16: Biofilms Chiego: Essentials of Oral Histology and Embryology, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is the best definition for plaque? a. A type of gingival inflammation. b. A stone-like concretion formed on the teeth. c. A bacterial biofilm on the surface of the teeth. d. An acellular thin film deposited on the surface of teeth from salivary proteins.

ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Plaque is a bacterial biofilm, not a type of inflammation.

Plaque is a bacterial biofilm, not a stone-like concretion.

Correct. Plaque is a bacterial biofilm that forms on the surface of the teeth.

Plaque is a bacterial biofilm, not an acellular film.

Comprehension

REF: p. 196

2. The primary component of calculus is a. serum b. bacteria c. calcium d. hydroxyapatite

OBJ: 2

_.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The primary component of calculus is hydroxyapatite, not serum.

The primary component of calculus is hydroxyapatite, not bacteria.

The primary component of calculus is hydroxyapatite, not calcium.

Correct. The primary component of calculus is hydroxyapatite.

Recall

3. The a. removal b. disclosure c. deposition d. mineralization

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

of plaque is essential for the prevention of disease.

ANS: A

A B C

Feedback Correct. The removal of plaque is an important part of disease prevention.

The removal of plaque is an important part of disease prevention.

The removal of plaque is an important part of disease prevention.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM D

DIF:

The removal of plaque is an important part of disease prevention.

Comprehension

4. High levels of a. T cells b. leukocytes c. lymphocytes d. macrophages

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

in the saliva indicate the presence of gingival inflammation.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Gingivitis is present when a substantial increase in leukocytes is noted in the saliva.

Correct. A substantial increase of leukocytes in the saliva occurs when gingivitis is present.

Gingivitis is present when a substantial increase in leukocytes is noted in the saliva.

Gingivitis is present when a substantial increase in leukocytes is noted in the saliva.

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 4

5. Which of the following is a function of a disclosing solution? a. Diagnosing pulpits b. Locating calculus depoTsiE tsSTBANKSELLER.COM c. Determining whether plaque is still present d. Showing cracks or fissures in the enamel surface ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback A disclosing solution is used to determine the presence of plaque, not pulpits.

A disclosing solution is used to determine the presence of plaque, not calculus.

Correct. A disclosing solution is used to determine the presence of plaque.

A disclosing solution is used to determine the presence of plaque, not fissures.

Comprehension

REF: pp. 199-200

OBJ: 2

6. Which organisms attach to the pellicle to form a thick layer of plaque? a. Rods b. Filamentous organisms c. Desquamated epithelial cells d. All of the above ANS: D

A

Feedback Filamentous organisms and desquamated epithelial cells also attach to the

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

B C D

DIF:

pellicle.

Rods and desquamated epithelial cells also attach to the pellicle.

Filamentous organisms and rods also attach to the pellicle.

Correct. Rods, filamentous organisms, and desquamated epithelial cells all attach to the pellicle to form a thick layer of plaque.

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 2

7. It takes almost 10 days for the pellicle to develop into a thick plaque. The composition of the

plaque varies, depending on the location of the plaque and the extent of gingival disease. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The first statement is false; the pellicle grows into a thick plaque within a few days.

The second statement is true.

The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct. The first statement is false; the second is true.

Comprehension

8. Subgingival calculus is a. softer b. harder c. thicker d. lighter

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 2

TESTBtA haNnKsuSpEraLgL inEgR iv. alCcO alM culus.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Subgingival calculus is harder, not softer, than supragingival calculus.

Correct. Subgingival calculus is harder than supragingival calculus.

Subgingival calculus is harder, not thicker, than supragingival calculus.

Subgingival calculus is harder, not lighter, than supragingival calculus.

Recall

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

9. The dark color of supragingival calculus is attributed to which of the following? a. Calcium b. Hydroxyapatite c. Organic skeletons d. Serum and blood pigments ANS: D

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Serumal calculus is a darker color because it contains serum and blood pigments.

Serumal calculus is a darker color because it contains serum and blood pigments.

Serumal calculus is a darker color because it contains serum and blood pigments.

Correct. Serumal calculus is a darker color because it contains serum and blood pigments.

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

10. Which type of organism appears supragingivally? a. Neutral b. Anaerobic c. Gram-positive d. Gram-negative ANS: C

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Gram-positive aerobic, not neutral, organisms appear in the supragingival area.

Gram-positive aerobic, not anaerobic, organisms appear in the supragingival area.

Correct. Gram-positive organisms appear in the supragingival area.

Gram-positive, not negative, organisms appear in the supragingival area.

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 4

11. Which type of organism apTpE eaSrsTsBuA bgNinKgSivEaL llyL?ER.COM a. Neutral b. Aerobic c. Gram-positive d. Gram-negative ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Gram-negative anaerobic organisms are found subgingivally.

Gram-negative anaerobic organisms are found subgingivally.

Gram-negative anaerobic organisms are found subgingivally.

Correct. Gram-negative anaerobic organisms are found subgingivally.

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

12. Calculus most often appears near which of the following? a. A missing tooth b. A tight labial frenum c. The incisal edge of a tooth d. The opening of a salivary duct ANS: D

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

OBJ: 2

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Calculus accumulation is not associated with missing teeth.

Calculus accumulation is not associated with the labial frenum.

Calculus accumulation is not associated with the incisal edge of a tooth.

Correct. Calculus frequently accumulates near the opening of a salivary duct.

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

13. Which of the following forms the primary cuticle? a. Fibroblasts b. Ameloblasts c. Odontoblasts d. Cementocytes ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Ameloblasts, not fibroblasts, form the primary cuticle.

Correct. Ameloblasts form the primary cuticle.

Ameloblasts, not odontoblasts, form the primary cuticle.

Ameloblasts, not cementocytes, form the primary cuticle.

Recall

REF: p. 196

14. The breakdown of a. organic debris b. enamel crystals c. salivary corpuscles d. filamentous organisms

OBJ: 3

results in a brown spot on the tooth.

ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The breakdown of enamel crystals, not organic debris, is seen as a brown spot.

Correct. The breakdown of enamel crystals is seen as a brown spot.

The breakdown of enamel crystals, not corpuscles, is seen as a brown spot.

The breakdown of enamel crystals, not filamentous organisms, is seen as a brown spot.

Recall

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 4

15. Acids that can demineralize the surface of enamel are produced by a. calculus. b. bacteria. c. pellicle. d. salivary corpuscles.

ANS: B

Feedback

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A B C D

DIF:

Calculus forms by mineralization of plaque bacteria into a hydroxyapatite deposit.

Correct. The bacteria in plaque may produce acid that can cause etching and disintegration of the tooth surface.

Pellicle is a thin protein coat or membrane on the surface of a tooth.

Salivary corpuscles are leukocytes in saliva.

Comprehension

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 3

16. Which of the following allows plaque to form on the surface of a tooth? a. Pellicle b. Serumal calculus c. Hydroxyapatite d. Primary cuticle ANS: A

A

B C D

DIF:

Feedback Correct. The acquired enamel pellicle is a deposit of salivary proteins and glycoproteins. The pellicle is free of bacteria when formed, but bacteria quickly attach to its surface.

Serumal calculus is subgingival calculus. It is darker than supragingival calculus because it contains serum and blood pigments.

Hydroxyapatite mineralizes plaque into calculus.

The primary cuticle is deposited on the surface of enamel by ameloblasts as their last function, shortly before the tooth crown erupts into the oral cavity.

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 2

17. Dental plaque is characterized as (a/an) a. accretion. b. cuticle. c. biofilm. d. cuticular protein.

ANS: C

A B C

D

DIF:

Feedback An accretion is a deposit associated with dental calculus rather than dental plaque biofilm.

The primary cuticle deposited on enamel by ameloblasts.

Correct. Biofilms are highly complex and heterogenous communities of microbial organisms that colonize living and nonliving surfaces in specific and predictable ways.

Cuticular protein initiates attachment of the junctional epithelium to enamel.

Comprehension

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 2

18. Which surface of a molar is an ideal site for the colonization of oral organisms? a. Mesial surface

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Distal surface c. Buccal surface d. Occlusal surface ANS: D

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback The mesial surface is a smooth surface, which is not ideal for colonization.

The distal surface is a smooth surface, which is not ideal for colonization.

The buccal surface is a smooth surface, which is not ideal for colonization.

Correct. The occlusal surface has pits and fissures that are ideal for colonization by oral organisms.

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 4

19. Which disclosing solution will not permanently discolor composite restorations? a. 0.2% basic fuchsin b. Erythrosine red No. 3 c. Methylene blue d. Toluidine blue ANS: B

A B C D

DIF:

Feedback Fuchsin will stain composite restorations.

Erythrosine red No. 3 dye will not stain composite restorations.

Methylene blue is notTuE seSdTaB sA aN diK scSloEsL inL gE soRlu.tiCoO n Mf o r dental plaque biofilm.

Toluidine blue is not used as an intraoral disclosing solution.

Recall

REF: p. 198

OBJ: 3

TRUE/FALSE 1. Plaque is more mineralized than calculus.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 196

2. Serumal calculus is usually a darker color.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

3. Bacterial ghosts are calcified bacteria.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

4. Glycoproteins are found in the saliva.

ANS: T OBJ: 3

DIF:

Comprehension

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REF: p. 196

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5. Cuticular protein is the most important function of the primary cuticle.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 196

OBJ: 1

6. Plaque protects the enamel surface but can also serve as an attachment site for bacteria.

ANS: F OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

7. Within days, a pellicle can grow into a thick plaque, containing motile spirochetes.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

8. Calculus varies in both composition and hardness.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

9. In tonsillitis, there is a dramatic increase in salivary leukocytes.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

10. Gingival inflammation has an effect on the cervical enamel.

ANS: F OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 201

11. Calculus may form on dental prostheses.

ANS: T

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 201

OBJ: 3

12. Salivary mucin contributes to the formation of plaque biofilm.

ANS: T OBJ: 2

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 198

13. The composition of the dental plaque depends, in part, on the extent of gingival disease.

ANS: T OBJ: 4

DIF:

Comprehension

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REF: p. 199