Test Bank for AM GOV 2015-2016, 4th Edition by John Losco Ralph Baker

aTest Bank for AM GOV 2015-2016, 4th Edition by John Losco Ralph Baker

Test Bank for AM GOV 2015-2016, 4th Edition by John Losco Ralph Baker

aTest Bank for AM GOV 2015-2016, 4th Edition by John Losco Ralph Baker

Chapter 01 Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 1) In which of the following presidential elections was turnout by young voters the largest?

A. 1980 B. 1988 C. 1992 D. 2000 E. 2008

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2. (p. 2) Compared to the 2008 presidential election, voter participation among 18-29-year-olds in the 2012 presidential election was A. fell about 19 percent.

B. fell about 6 percent.

C. was about the same.

D. rose about 4 percent.

E. rose about 8 percent.

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3. (p. 2) Millennials who are attending or about to attend college are A. less ethnically and racially diverse than previous generations attending college.

B. less cynical than their immediate predecessors in Generation X. C. less civic-minded than their immediate predecessors in Generation X. D. less politically engaged than their immediate predecessors in Generation X. E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

4. (p. 3) Which of the following is true of citizenship for much of the past half century in the United States?

A. Citizenship overall has come to be in a precarious state.

B. Citizens' involvement in the life of their communities has dwindled.

C. Voter turnout is well below that of other advanced democracies.

D. The level of trust between citizens and elected national leaders has decreased.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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5. (p. 3) The bonds of trust and reciprocity between citizens that form the glue holding modern societies together is referred to as A. social capital.

B. sense of community.

C. political culture.

D. belief systems.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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6. (p. 3) The vast number of voluntary associations that consist of citizens working together on issues of common concern is called A. government.

B. social capital.

C. direct democracy.

D. civil society.

E. liberal democracy.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

7. (p. 4) Democracy as practiced in the United States and most other Western nations is best described as A. oligarchic.

B. absolutist.

C. direct.

D. representative.

E. restricted.

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8. (p. 4) Political decision-making by the entire citizenry is called A. direct democracy.

B. representative democracy.

C. majority rule.

D. minority rights.

E. authoritarianism.

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9. (p. 4) is a system in which citizens hold public officials accountable through periodic elections and the rule of law.

A. Direct democracy B. Representative democracy C. Majority rule D. Minority rights E. Authoritarianism

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

10. (p. 4) America's democracy is characterized by A. majority rule and protections for minority rights.

B. greater than 90 percent participation by the citizenry in elections.

C. absolute power being exercised by a single person.

D. absolute equality amongst all citizens.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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11. (p. 4) Which of the following institutions BEST exemplifies direct democracy?

A. a New England town meeting in which all members of the community are allowed to introduce legislation and then vote for passage or rejection of legislation B. a national government in which all of the people have the right to express their opinion and cast their vote for the person whom they wish to elect to the presidency C. a presidential administration in which the ethnic make-up of the president's cabinet roughly coincides with the ethnic make-up of the country as a whole D. a bicameral national government in which seats in one house are divided equally among all the states, and seats in another house are divided among the states in proportion to their population E. a local government in which all political positions including judgeships are elective, and none are appointive

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12. (p. 4) Which of the following statements about democracy as currently practiced in the United States is MOST accurate?

A. The United States is one of the few countries that practices direct democracy.

B. In the United States, the rule of the majority is absolute.

C. In the United States, the majority in government cannot pass laws without the active support of the minority.

D. In the United States, the minority has veto power over the electoral and legislative choices of the majority.

E. In the United States, public policy is determined by the people's representatives, not by the people themselves.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

13. (p. 4) The information released by Edward Snowden highlighted the tensions between A. majority rule and minority rights.

B. representative democracy and political power.

C. national security and personal freedom.

D. freedom of religion and freedom of the press.

E. government authority and the right to a fair trial.

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14. (p. 4) Which of the following statements about ruling-elite theory is LEAST accurate?

A. It argues that members of the elite wield political power disproportionate to their numerical size.

B. It argues that members of the elite are often able to influence public policy to their own advantage.

C. Empirical findings have demonstrated that members of the elite are more likely to trample over civil liberties than Americans with less wealth or education.

D. It argues that members of the elite tend to be better informed about political affairs than other Americans.

E. It argues that members of the elite generally have greater access to political officials and political offices than other Americans.

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15. (p. 5) The defining characteristic of pluralism is the belief that A. various groups and coalitions constantly vie for government favor and the ability to exercise political power, but none enjoys long-term dominance.

B. when too many interests exist within a single polity, the government cannot function effectively.

C. the commitment to majority rule inevitably results in the oppression of minorities.

D. an undue commitment to minority rights places undue restraints on majority rule.

E. despite its democratic rhetoric, the United States is effectively governed by a small elite whose membership rarely changes.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

16. (p. 5) An instance in which one segment of society manages to push through a law in one legislative session, only to have another segment build enough support to overthrow the law in the next session, would best be defined as an example of A. direct democracy.

B. pluralism.

C. a ruling elite.

D. aristocracy.

E. minority rights.

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17. (p. 5) The 2011 referendum in Ohio that overturned legislative action opposing collective bargaining for public employees seems to demonstrate which of the following?

A. direct democracy B. ruling elite theory C. pluralism D. protection of minority rights E. protection of civil liberties

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18. (p. 6) According to the theory of biased pluralism, which group has disproportionate influence in the formation of public policy?

A. Citizen movements B. Labor unions C. The wealthy D. The middle class E. The poor

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

19. (p. 6) The authors of the textbook are MOST interested in promoting America.

A. direct democracy B. majority rule C. class consciousness D. pluralism E. elitism

in

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20. (p. 6) Aristotle, Thomas Jefferson, and John Stuart Mill all agreed that A. women were equal to men.

B. the citizenry must remain politically active.

C. complacent citizens were a sign of a healthy government.

D. a government, once established, could not be overturned.

E. the people should be excluded from politics as completely as possible.

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21. (p. 6) Which of the following men called for periodic citizen uprisings to reinvigorate the spirit of democracy?

A. Aristotle B. John Locke C. John Stuart Mill D. Thomas Jefferson E. Robert Putnam

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

22. (p. 6) A device permitted in 24 states that allows citizens to approve or repeal measures already acted upon by legislative bodies is called a(n) A. initiative.

B. popular referendum.

C. legislative referendum.

D. recall.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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23. (p. 6) What is the term for an electorate's right to draft legislation?

A. direct initiative B. popular referendum C. legislative referendum D. recall E. people's legislation

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24. (p. 6) What is the term for an electorate's right to vote directly for or against legislative measures?

A. initiative B. popular referendum C. legislative referendum D. recall E. social capital

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

25. (p. 6) What is the term for the requirement that certain types of measures, such as constitutional amendments, must be approved by the electorate?

A. initiative B. popular referendum C. legislative referendum D. recall E. social capital

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26. (p. 6) How many of the 50 states grant their citizens the powers of initiative and popular referendum?

A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 37 E. 50

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27. (p. 6) How many of the 50 states grant their citizens the power of legislative referendum?

A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 37 E. 50

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

28. (p. 6) How many of the 50 states grant their citizens the power of recall?

A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 37 E. 50

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29. (p. 6) What is the term for an electorate's right to force unpopular elected officials out of office before the expiration of their term?

A. initiative B. popular referendum C. legislative referendum D. recall E. social capital

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30. (p. 7) AmeriCorps is an example of which of the following?

A. a nonprofit organization dedicated to improving voting participation B. a national volunteering effort not affiliated with the federal government C. indirect government support of volunteering efforts D. direct government support of volunteering efforts E. a manifestation of the ruling elite theory of government

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

31. (p. 7) According to the study discussed in the text, in which of the following countries do college-educated adults aged 25-64 have the highest level of trust in government?

A. United States B. Italy C. China D. France E. Germany

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32. (p. 8) According to theorist John Locke, how do governments hold our allegiance?

A. by enforcing pluralism and suppressing elite dominance B. by preserving the state of nature in the face of human threats C. by enabling majority rule and protecting minority rights D. by holding a monopoly on the use of force within a government's borders E. by protecting our life, liberty, and property better than we could on our own

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33. (p. 8) According to John Locke, if a government oppresses its citizens, those citizens A. must do their best to accommodate themselves to the oppression.

B. should not rebel because the government is caring out God's will.

C. have the right to rebel and overthrow the government.

D. are no longer entitled to their natural rights.

E. should move to the wilderness and live in the state of nature.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

34. (p. 8) Which of the following statements about John Locke's political philosophy is LEAST accurate?

A. Locke believed that the primary role of government was to ensure an equal distribution of property.

B. Locke's beliefs had a profound effect on the founders of the American republic.

C. Locke argued that people willingly submitted to the authority of government in return for its protection.

D. Locke argued that citizens could overthrow a government that failed to protect, or actively threatened, their rights.

E. Locke argued that human beings were born free, not bound to the will of another person or institution.

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35. (p. 8) Approximately how large was the white population of the United States when the Constitution was ratified?

A. 4,000,000 B. 1,500,000 C. 950,000 D. 630,000 E. 234,000

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36. (p. 9) Which of the following is MOST likely to characterize current American suburbs?

A. residential segregation and diversity B. integration and diversity C. residential segregation and homogeneity D. a population comprised mostly of blue-collar workers E. multiple-family homes that lack diversity

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

37. (p. 9) Approximately how large is the American population today?

A. 1,200,000,000 B. 840,000,000 C. 320,000,000 D. 125,000,000 E. 62,000,000

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38. (p. 9) Approximately what percentage of the American public currently lives in suburbs?

A. 85 percent B. 75 percent C. 55 percent D. 35 percent E. 20 percent

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39. (p. 9) Which of the following statements about American demographics is MOST accurate?

A. A majority of states have legalized same-sex marriage.

B. Thanks largely to the civil rights movements of the 1960s and 1970s, most Americans now live in ethnically diverse neighborhoods.

C. Since the 1950s, the percentage of Americans who live in the suburbs has dramatically declined.

D. Hispanics today make up the largest ethnic minority in the United States, narrowly edging out African Americans.

E. While it was once known for its homogeneity, America's suburban population today is almost as ethnically and religiously diverse as its urban population.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

40. (p. 9) Which minority group in the United States is growing the fastest?

A. Asians B. Hispanics C. African Americans D. Middle Easterners/Arabs E. Native Americans

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41. (p. 10) The graying of the American population is likely to create tensions because A. fewer workers will have to support more retirees.

B. older Americans are generally more tolerant of gender differences than are younger Americans.

C. older Americans are generally more tolerant of racial differences than are younger Americans.

D. older Americans tend to be less politically active than younger Americans.

E. older Americans are generally more tolerant of ethnic differences than are younger Americans.

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42. (p. 10) By 2050, what percentage of the American population will be over the age of 65?

A. 80 percent B. 20 percent C. 10 percent D. 35 percent E. 25 percent

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

43. (p. 10) When the U.S. Constitution was written, social class divisions among Americans were A. less visible than they are today but every bit as real.

B. defined primarily by wealth and community but were not present in terms of political power.

C. much less visible than they are today.

D. less defined by markers such as wealth and dress.

E. much more visible than they are today.

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44. (p. 10) What have recent studies shown about social mobility in the United States?

A. Those of the middle-income class have seen the greatest rise in social mobility in the last 40 years.

B. Those employed in manufacturing-sector jobs have seen the greatest rise in social mobility.

C. Social mobility has increased for the poorest fifth of Americans, but not for middle-income Americans.

D. A person born into the poorest fifth of Americans has a better chance now of ending up in the highest fifth than forty years ago.

E. Social mobility has stagnated over the last 40 or so years.

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45. (p. 11) According to Bureau of Labor statistics presented in the text, projected growth in employment is highest for people with this level of education: A. less than high school B. high school C. associate's degree D. bachelor's degree E. master's degree

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

46. (p. 12) Which of the following skills is likely to be the LEAST profitable for a job seeker or job performer in the future American workplace?

A. industrial manufacturing skills B. well-honed creativity C. analytical skills learned in college D. financial acumen E. technological proficiency

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47. (p. 12) What is the MOST commonly cited reason that citizens between the ages of 18 and 24 fail to vote?

A. lack of interest B. registration problems C. inconvenient voting locations D. too busy; conflicting schedule E. disapproved of all the candidates

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48. (p. 13) What technique did both major political parties employ with great success in recent elections to encourage voting participation?

A. Voting by mail was made available to all voters.

B. Transportation to voting booths was made available to most voters.

C. Online voting was made available to voters.

D. Voters are invited by people in their communities to participate.

E. Cash donations were made to local civic organizations.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

49. (p. 13) The response of the American citizenry to Hurricane Sandy in 2012 provides evidence of which of the following?

A. the lack of civic engagement among the youngest generations B. the pluralistic nature of the U.S. legislative process C. the inability of the U.S. government to encourage civic engagement among private citizens D. the decline of civic engagement in the United States E. the positive impact of technology on civic engagement

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50. (p. 13) Which of the following activities best exemplifies civic engagement, as opposed to an individual activity?

A. helping a sibling with his homework B. toting used cans and newspapers to a recycling center C. staying late to help a coworker meet a deadline D. visiting one's grandfather at his nursing home E. doing extra research on a class assignment to get a better grade

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51. (p. 13) Which of the following measures would probably be LEAST conducive to increased political participation?

A. allowing citizens to vote by mail B. allowing citizens to vote online C. requiring all voters to present a photo ID D. making Election Day a federal holiday E. having citizens invited by members of their communities to vote

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

52. (p. 13) Which of the following activities would be considered a form of civic engagement, though not a political activity?

A. placing a vote in a city council election B. negotiating a higher salary from a potential employer C. wearing a pin endorsing a candidate for office D. joining a protest in front of City Hall E. organizing a food drive at a local church

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Essay Questions 53. The Internet has already made a mark on the American political process, and its impact may well continue to grow. Discuss the changes the Internet and other new communication technologies have already wrought. Have these changes been substantial or superficial? Are they for the better or for the worse? How have these technologies affected your own political engagement?

Answers will vary.

54. Discuss the differences between civic life and private life. What qualities make an action or an issue civic instead of private? Is it possible to divorce private and civic life, or is the personal always political, and vice versa?

Answers will vary.

55. Describe the various ways the demographic composition of the American public is changing. Be sure to address race, ethnicity, age, class, and sexual preference. How are these changes altering the face of the American public? Which of these changes will present the most challenges in the near or distant future?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

56. Explain the role that majorities, minorities, elites, and interest groups play in the American political system. Does the American political system adequately balance the rights of minorities with the rule of the majority? Does it afford the people sufficient voice in the government, or does it place too much power in the hands of the elite?

Answers will vary.

57. Define liberal democracy. How did this ideology develop? What are its most important tenets? How well does the American political system of today match the ideal of a liberal democracy?

Answers will vary.

58. Citizens in many states have expanded measures for participation in the law-making process. Define and distinguish between the direct initiative, indirect initiative, the popular referendum, the legislative referendum, and the recall. How do these advance democracy? In what ways could they potentially be abused?

Answers will vary.

59. Describe and analyze elite theory and pluralism. In what ways do both help explain the nature and outcome of politics in the United States?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 01 - Citizenship in Our Changing Democracy

60. What were the key ideas about government put forth in John Locke's Second Treatise on Government? How do they apply in today's America?

Answers will vary.

61. What are the main arguments of the Occupy Wall Street movement? To what extent are they supported by facts? How do Americans view the gap between the rich and the poor and what maintains it?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

Chapter 02 The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 15) Over the last 20 or so years, constitutions around the world have A. been modeled primarily on the United States Constitution.

B. provided more explicit protection of rights than does the United States Constitution.

C. mostly stopped mentioning explicit guarantees of citizens.

D. taken away any power of the judiciary to interpret the meaning of constitutions.

E. contained provisions that make them very difficult to amend.

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2. (p. 15) The Bill of Rights contains explicit expression of the right to A. education.

B. form unions.

C. move freely.

D. work.

E. express one's beliefs.

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3. (p. 17) The American nation's experience with representative government dates back to the founding of the House of Burgesses in .

A. 1619 B. 1651 C. 1689 D. 1763 E. 1775

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

4. (p. 17) The American nation's first representative government, the House of Burgesses, was established in A. Maryland.

B. Massachusetts.

C. Pennsylvania.

D. Virginia.

E. New York.

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5. (p. 18) The colony of Massachusetts was founded to A. give English Catholics a place to worship freely.

B. provide a haven for religious freedom for all dissenting sects.

C. create a society based on Puritan ideals, where competing religious ideals would not be tolerated.

D. create a society that decisively separated church from state.

E. create a society where Protestants of any sect could worship freely, though Catholicism would not be tolerated.

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6. (p. 18) Which of the following statements about the American colonial economy is LEAST accurate?

A. The colonies could legally only receive manufactured goods that originated in or passed through England.

B. The Crown viewed the colonies chiefly as suppliers of raw materials.

C. Smuggling foreign goods into the colonies was common practice, tacitly accepted by many colonial governors.

D. Throughout colonial history, the colonists funded their own defense and could not count on British forces for protection.

E. The colonial legislatures' power of the purse gave them significant leverage over colonial governors.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

7. (p. 18-19) Which of the following statements about the early stages of the American Revolution is LEAST accurate?

A. Tensions between the colonists and Parliament resulted largely from British attempts to have colonists help pay the expenses of the Seven Years' War. B. Colonists objected to Parliament's efforts to impose taxes on them.

C. One of the forms that colonial resistance took during the Revolution was a boycott on British goods.

D. When the First Continental Congress met in 1774, every state was represented by a delegation.

E. Military conflict had already broken out over a year before the colonies declared their independence.

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8. (p. 19) In which colony did the Tea Party and the battles of Lexington and Concord occur?

A. Massachusetts B. Virginia C. North Carolina D. Pennsylvania E. Georgia

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9. (p. 19) Which of the following statements about the colonies' decision to declare their independence is LEAST accurate?

A. The final draft of the Declaration of Independence excised earlier comments that condemned the institution of slavery.

B. The philosophy expressed in the Declaration of Independence relied heavily on ideas formulated by John Locke.

C. The men who drafted and voted for the Declaration of Independence generally believed that the phrase "all men are created equal" applied only to men, and not to women.

D. Thomas Paine's Common Sense, which was published the same year as the Declaration of Independence, played an important role in inspiring popular support for independence.

E. During the American Revolution, the majority of American people expressed their clear and active backing of independence.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

10. (p. 19) The Declaration of Independence A. was written by the same man who wrote Common Sense.

B. provided equal rights to both men and women.

C. explicitly supported the institution of slavery.

D. provides an extensive list of grievances against the English king.

E. helped give courage to the Minutemen who fought at Lexington.

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11. (p. 20) Which of the following factors did NOT play a significant role in building support for replacing the Articles of Confederation with a different instrument of government?

A. internal rebellion B. an oppressive national government C. unpaid debt D. economic turmoil E. the fears of influential state leaders

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12. (p. 20) The core problem with the Articles of Confederation is that this system of government A. levied onerous taxes on the American people.

B. consolidated too much power in the hands of the national government.

C. was based on the idea that each state was a sovereign entity.

D. allowed a simple majority of states to impose its will on all others.

E. created a chief executive who was not accountable to either the American people or their representatives.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

13. (p. 20) Under the Articles of Confederation A. the national government had no difficulty collecting taxes.

B. each state was able to tax the goods of other states.

C. interest rates were overall quite low.

D. it was easy for businesses to get loans.

E. intercolonial trade flourished.

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14. (p. 21) The 1787 constitutional convention in Philadelphia was originally convened for the express purpose of A. revising the Articles of Confederation.

B. writing a new constitution.

C. preventing insurrections such as Shays' Rebellion.

D. negotiating comprehensive treaties with Native Americans.

E. creating a lasting peace settlement with Britain.

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15. (p. 21) The Philadelphia Convention, which drafted the Constitution, included delegates from every state EXCEPT A. Rhode Island.

B. New Jersey.

C. Virginia.

D. Connecticut.

E. New Hampshire.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

16. (p. 21) Which of the following statements about the Constitutional Convention is MOST accurate?

A. Working-class Americans and debtors were well represented at the Convention.

B. Although most of the members of the Convention were white men, there was a small contingent of African Americans, as well as two women.

C. Most of the delegates subscribed to a republican ethos that shunned deferential displays to the rich and powerful.

D. The delegates worked in strict secrecy, deliberating—literally and figuratively—behind closed doors.

E. In terms of political views and interests, the delegates were a homogeneous group who agreed on most particulars.

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17. (p. 21) The majority of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention were A. farmers.

B. craftsmen.

C. bankers.

D. merchantmen.

E. lawyers.

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18. (p. 22) The Framers of the Constitution overcame internal squabbling by agreeing to the Great Compromise, which created a A. bicameral legislature in which seats in both houses would be proportionate to population.

B. bicameral legislature in which the members of the lower house would be elected by the people and the members of the upper house would be chosen by the members of the lower house.

C. bicameral legislature in which the right to originate money bills was reserved for the upper house.

D. bicameral legislature, based on proportionate representation in one house and state-by-state voting in the other.

E. unicameral legislature with equal representation among the states.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

19. (p. 22) Which of the following statements about regional tensions during the drafting of the Constitution is LEAST accurate?

A. The delegates eventually agreed to count three-fifths of the enslaved population for purposes of representation and taxation.

B. Although the South had by far the largest number of slaves, slavery was legal in every state at the time that the Constitution was written.

C. In order to appease the Lower South, the Constitution prevented the government from banning the international slave trade for at least twenty years.

D. Southern agriculturists managed to win a concession that the new government would have no power to tax exports.

E. Northern interests wanted to ensure that the new government would have adequate power to regulate international commerce.

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20. (p. 23) Which of the following statements MOST accurately reflects the Constitution's explicit provision about voting rights at the time that it was drafted?

A. Only white men with a certain amount of property could vote.

B. All white men were allowed to vote.

C. Men of any race who owned a certain amount of property could vote.

D. Any citizen who owned a certain amount of property, regardless of race or color, could vote.

E. State governments could establish their own requirements for voting.

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21. (p. 23) In order to be ratified, the Constitution would need the approval of A. at least five states.

B. at least seven states.

C. at least nine states.

D. at least eleven states.

E. all thirteen states.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

22. (p. 23) Which of the following is NOT one of the founding principles enshrined in the Constitution as it was originally written?

A. federalism B. checks and balances C. human equality D. separation of powers E. liberal democracy

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23. (p. 24) The principle of separation of powers, particularly with regard to an independent judiciary, is primarily associated with the writings of which political philosopher?

A. Voltaire B. Rousseau C. Thomas Hobbes D. Montesquieu E. John Stuart Mill

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24. (p. 24) As an example of its powers under checks and balances, the Supreme Court can A. declare laws unconstitutional.

B. override a congressional declaration of war.

C. appoint judges to lower federal courts.

D. select the president when no candidate has a majority in the Electoral College.

E. ratify proposed constitutional amendments.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

25. (p. 24) Congress has all of the following powers under the Constitution, EXCEPT this one: A. appoint federal judges.

B. impeach the president.

C. override presidential vetoes.

D. declare war.

E. propose constitutional amendments.

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26. (p. 24) Which of the following is NOT a power of the president?

A. Call special sessions of Congress B. Grant pardons C. Veto bills D. Appoint federal judges E. Formally propose constitutional amendments

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27. (p. 24-25) This system is intended to prevent the arbitrary use of power and to give leaders sufficient time to forge consensus on divisive issues.

A. separation of powers system B. checks and balances system C. spoils system D. civil service system E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

28. (p. 25) What is the fundamental concept behind federalism?

A. Some powers belong to state governments; others belong to the national government.

B. States retain their sovereignty and use the national government only as an arbiter.

C. The federal government is sovereign and the states have no power except what the federal government grants them.

D. There is one single system of national law, drafted by the federal government and administered by the states.

E. Although the national government may make law, the state governments decide whether or not to follow it.

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29. (p. 25) When a state law and a federal law conflict, A. the Supreme Court must decide which is paramount.

B. the federal law is paramount.

C. the state law is paramount.

D. the laws must be reconciled to a compromise law.

E. both laws are null and void.

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30. (p. 25-26) Which of the following topics is NOT covered by Article I of the Constitution?

A. the impeachment process B. congressional electoral procedures and qualifications C. powers that are denied to the states D. the role of political parties in the legislative process E. the origin of revenue bills

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

31. (p. 26) Which of the following is NOT covered by Article II of the Constitution?

A. presidential qualifications B. circumstances under which the president can send troops abroad C. electoral methods for choosing the president D. the president's ability to negotiate treaties E. the succession of the vice president

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32. (p. 26) Which clause of the Constitution affirms that the federal government, in exercising any of the powers enumerated in the Constitution, must prevail over any conflicting or inconsistent state exercise of power?

A. full faith and credit clause B. implied powers clause C. necessary and proper clause D. supremacy clause E. None of these answers is correct.

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33. (p. 26) Which article of the Constitution defines the amendment process?

A. Article I B. Article IV C. Article V D. Article VI E. Article VII

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

34. (p. 26) Which article of the Constitution includes the supremacy clause?

A. Article I B. Article IV C. Article V D. Article VI E. Article VII

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35. (p. 26) Which of the following issues is NOT covered in Article IV? A. the federal government's authority to protect citizens' civil liberties from actions of their state governments B. the responsibility of states to recognize each other's laws C. the responsibility of states to grant equal protection to citizens from other states D. the responsibility of states to extradite escaped criminals and slaves to the states from which they fled E. the guarantee that all states will have a republican form of government

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36. (p. 26-27) Which of the following was NOT among the concerns raised by Antifederalists about the new Constitution?

A. the lack of a Bill of Rights B. the long Senate terms C. the weakness of the national government D. the creation of a national currency E. the presumption of the Framers, who had been tasked solely with amending the Articles of Confederation

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

37. (p. 27) Which of the following was NOT among the loci of early support for the ratification of the Constitution?

A. commercial centers B. western territories C. land speculators D. plantation owners E. the larger states

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38. (p. 27) The Federalist was written by John Jay, Alexander Hamilton, and A. James Madison.

B. John Hancock.

C. Patrick Henry.

D. George Clinton.

E. Thomas Jefferson.

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39. (p. 27) Despite its long-lasting national influence, The Federalist was originally written with the limited purpose of garnering support for the Constitution in A. Virginia.

B. Pennsylvania.

C. Massachusetts.

D. New York.

E. Rhode Island.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

40. (p. 27-28) In order to get the Constitution ratified, the Federalists employed all of the following means EXCEPT for A. publishing a series of persuasive articles in the press.

B. hinting to a prominent opponent that there would be a position for him in the new government.

C. forcibly escorting Antifederalist delegates to a convention in order to obtain the necessary quorum.

D. threatening the secession of New York City.

E. sending mercenaries to besiege state ratifying conventions and ensure that the delegates voted for the Constitution.

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41. (p. 28) Which was the first state to ratify the Constitution?

A. Rhode Island B. Delaware C. Virginia D. New York E. Massachusetts

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42. (p. 28) Which state did not ratify the Constitution until 1790, after the new government had already taken effect?

A. Rhode Island B. Delaware C. Virginia D. New York E. Massachusetts

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

43. (p. 28-29) Which of the following statements about the Bill of Rights is LEAST accurate?

A. The Bill of Rights was not added until after the Constitution was ratified.

B. The promise of a Bill of Rights was a substantial factor in the ratification of the Constitution.

C. The first three amendments cover political liberties, while the next five cover legal rights.

D. The last two amendments in the Bill of Rights cover the relationship among the states, the people, and the national government.

E. The Bill of Rights guaranteed freedoms and liberties from intrusion by the national government and state governments alike.

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44. (p. 29) Which U.S. Supreme Court decision contended that the Bill of Rights applied only to the national government?

A. Plessy v. Ferguson B. Barrons v. Baltimore C. Roe v. Wade D. Brown v. Board of Education E. Marbury v. Madison

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45. (p. 29) Which amendment states that any rights not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution are reserved for the people?

A. First B. Third C. Fifth D. Ninth E. Tenth

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

46. (p. 29) Which amendment laid the groundwork for applying the Bill of Rights to the actions of state governments?

A. First B. Ninth C. Tenth D. Fourteenth E. Nineteenth

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47. (p. 30) Which of the following statements about the ratification of constitutional amendments is LEAST accurate?

A. Though it has never been done, Congress may convene a national convention to discuss amendments, if two-thirds of the state legislatures request it.

B. Initially, no time limit was placed on the ratification process, allowing one amendment passed by Congress in the eighteenth century to be ratified at the end of the twentieth.

C. An amendment is ratified as soon as a simple majority of states vote to approve it.

D. In order to pass Congress, an amendment must secure two-thirds of the vote in both houses.

E. States can ratify amendments either through a vote in the legislature or by calling a special ratifying convention.

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48. (p. 30) So far, all successful amendments to the Constitution have been proposed by A. national conventions.

B. the President of the United States.

C. a request from two-thirds of state legislatures.

D. a two-thirds vote in both chambers of Congress.

E. a two-thirds vote in a national referendum.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

49. (p. 31) What percentage of state legislatures must approve a constitutional amendment for that amendment to be officially accepted?

A. 50% B. 60% C. 66.7% D. 75% E. 87%

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50. (p. 31) How many amendments have been added to the Constitution?

A. 20 B. 23 C. 27 D. 31 E. 35

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51. (p. 31) How many times has Congress formally declared war?

A. 0 B. 5 C. 8 D. 13 E. 19

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

52. (p. 31-32) Which of the following instances is NOT an example of institutional adaptation?

A. the expansion of the president's role as commander-in-chief B. congressional use of budgetary powers to impose national standards C. congressional protection of civil rights through Congress's right to regulate interstate commerce D. congressional regulation of fundraising by political parties E. the president's use of the veto to reject legislation

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53. (p. 32) The power of judicial review, which the Supreme Court claimed in the case of Marbury v. Madison, allows the Court to A. review each bill proposed by Congress before it becomes a law.

B. enact new laws in order to implement its decisions.

C. judge the constitutionality of laws and other acts of government.

D. hear direct appeals from all citizens who were convicted due to a trial error.

E. prorogue—or suspend—Congress in times of national emergency.

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54. (p. 32) The Supreme Court's ruling in Roe v. Wade is an example of which of the following?

A. the use of an enumerated power in the Constitution B. a widely accepted use of judicial review C. a highly controversial example of judicial review D. a repudiation of the power of judicial review E. a legal enforcement of the supremacy clause

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

55. (p. 32) Which of the following is NOT included in Article III of the Constitution?

A. the explicit power of judicial review B. the creation of the Supreme Court C. Congress's right to create federal courts D. judicial terms of appointment E. legal definition of treason

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56. (p. 32-33) Which of the following statements about voting is LEAST accurate?

A. Initially, the national electorate consisted primarily of white, property-owning men.

B. Until the end of the Civil War, states could bar citizens from voting solely on the basis of their race.

C. Until 1920, states could bar citizens from voting solely on the basis of their sex.

D. The ending of property qualifications was not widespread until the early twentieth century.

E. Until 1971, states could block citizens from voting until they reached the age of 21.

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57. (p. 33) Which amendment banned suffrage restrictions based on sex?

A. Tenth B. Fourteenth C. Fifteenth D. Nineteenth E. Twenty-sixth

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

58. (p. 33) Which amendment banned suffrage restrictions based on race?

A. Tenth B. Fourteenth C. Fifteenth D. Nineteenth E. Twenty-sixth

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Essay Questions 59. Discuss the American tradition of representative government. What were its colonial origins? How did it contribute to a rupture with the British Empire? How did it initially hinder the development of a national government following independence? Is representative government as strong today as it was when the Constitution was formed? Why or why not?

Answers will vary.

60. What were the key principles of the Declaration of Independence? Why was the document drafted? How well did it serve its intended purpose?

Answers will vary.

61. What were the major political and economic weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?

How did the Constitution specifically address those weaknesses?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

62. Describe the systems of checks and balances and separation of powers, giving at least three examples of each. What is the difference between these two concepts?

Answers will vary.

63. In what specific ways does the Constitution incorporate checks and balances? Which of these checks have proven most lasting? Which have been most frequently evaded?

Answers will vary.

64. Explain the processes by which the American people can amend the Constitution. How many obstacles must be surmounted before an amendment is ratified? Why did the Framers make it so difficult to amend the Constitution? Does this difficulty hamper democracy or help to preserve it? Do things like the elastic clause and institutional adaptability undermine the Framers' intention to make it hard to change the Constitution?

Answers will vary.

65. Discuss the drafting and ratification of the Constitution. Which disagreements had to be overcome before the Constitution could reach its final form? What compromises were implemented to address those disagreements? Why did so many Americans oppose the Constitution when it was first presented to them? What steps did the Federalists take to allay or evade their concerns?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 02 - The Constitution: The Foundation of Citizens' Rights

66. Identify the fundamental political principles enshrined in the Constitution. Have those principles changed over time? Have some principles gained more prominence than others?

How does the Constitution put those principles into actual effect? Which aspects of the Constitution most contributed to a government that has been able to exist for over two hundred years?

Answers will vary.

67. Pick three provisions in the Bill of Rights. First describe each provision and then explain why Anti-Federalists felt the need for these provisions.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

Chapter 03 Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 38) By 2014, approximately how many states had passed laws that either decriminalized marijuana use, allowed medical marijuana use, or legalized marijuana use for adults?

A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 E. 50

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2. (p. 38) In 2014, the Department of Justice's guidelines regarding enforcement of federal laws against marijuana use called for A. strict enforcement of all federal laws in all states.

B. strict enforcement of all federal laws in states that had not yet legalized marijuana use.

C. no enforcement of federal laws in all states.

D. no enforcement of federal laws in states that had legalized marijuana use.

E. enforcement of certain provisions of federal laws, but not other provisions.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

3. (p. 38) A defining characteristic of federalism is that A. rather than being held exclusively or primarily by one body, governing authority is divided at different levels among several bodies.

B. the federal government wields ultimate authority in all matters.

C. state governments can nullify the exercise of unpopular federal laws within their own states' boundaries.

D. state governments exist primarily to enact laws established by the national government.

E. the federal government cannot pass any laws without the explicit consent of the majority of state governments.

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4. (p. 39) Prior to the Constitutional Convention, what two models of intergovernmental relations predominated throughout the world?

A. confederated and federal B. unitary and confederated C. federal and unitary D. representative and federal E. confederated and representative

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5. (p. 39) The difference between the American federal system and a confederation is that, in a confederation, state governments A. retain the ability to enact original legislation.

B. lose the ability to enact original legislation.

C. retain their full sovereignty.

D. are fully absorbed within the national government.

E. do not recognize the existence of a national government.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

6. (p. 39) One of the chief weaknesses of the confederated form of government is that it A. deprives local governments of the ability to address local concerns.

B. often cannot act with the speed that circumstances require.

C. stifles the sort of careful deliberation through which wise policies emerge.

D. cannot be applied to communities existing across large geographical areas.

E. offers no means by which small states or minority interests can protect themselves from the will of larger states or the majority.

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7. (p. 40) The powers necessary to carry out constitutionally enumerated functions of government are referred to as A. implied powers.

B. enumerated powers.

C. official powers.

D. national powers.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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8. (p. 40) Which of the following statements best captures the meaning of the term "elastic clause," when applied to the U.S. Constitution?

A. The federal government can assume authority normally delegated to the state governments whenever it sees fit.

B. During national emergencies, the powers of the federal government can be expanded beyond their constitutional bounds.

C. The federal government can only push its powers so far before the ties that bind the states together in a union break from the pressure.

D. The federal government has any and all powers not specifically delegated to the state governments or denied to the federal government.

E. The federal government can assume additional powers as needed in order to accomplish the functions established for it by the Constitution.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

9. (p. 40) The U.S. Constitution denies certain powers to the national government, and bestows them instead on the state governments. Such powers are called A. enumerated powers.

B. reserved powers.

C. concurrent powers.

D. implied powers.

E. prohibited powers.

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10. (p. 40) Under the U.S. Constitution, the federal government's ability to coin money is an example of A. a reserved power.

B. a concurrent power.

C. an enumerated power.

D. an implicit power.

E. a prohibited power.

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11. (p. 40) In the 1790s, despite a lack of specific constitutional authority to do so, Congress chartered a national bank, arguing that the institution was necessary to regulate the value of currency, a power that the Constitution did grant to Congress. The chartering of a national bank was therefore an example of A. an enumerated power.

B. a reserved power.

C. a concurrent power.

D. an implied power.

E. a prohibited power.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

12. (p. 40-41) According to the Tenth Amendment, any powers not granted to the national government by the Constitution A. can be claimed by the national government as necessary.

B. belong exclusively to the people.

C. belong exclusively to the states.

D. are denied to both the national government and the states.

E. belong to either the people or the states.

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13. (p. 41) States utilize which power to protect the health and welfare of their residents?

A. police powers B. enforcement powers C. military powers D. implied powers E. None of these answers is correct.

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14. (p. 41) Based on the U.S. Constitution, the powers to pass ex post facto laws or bills of attainder are both A. enumerated powers.

B. reserved powers.

C. concurrent powers.

D. implied powers.

E. prohibited powers.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

15. (p. 41) In the U.S. federal system, the powers to establish courts and to tax citizens are both A. police powers.

B. reserved powers.

C. concurrent powers.

D. implied powers.

E. prohibited powers.

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16. (p. 41) The supremacy clause, stipulated in Article VI of the Constitution, holds that A. in a conflict between federal and state laws, the former will override the latter.

B. in the federal system established by the Constitution, the true source of sovereignty is in the people.

C. federal laws will be supreme in the national sphere and state laws will be supreme in local affairs.

D. as a sovereign institution, the only limits that the federal government need obey are ones that it establishes for itself.

E. despite temporarily sacrificing certain powers to the federal government, the state governments remain sovereign entities.

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17. (p. 42) In his famous landmark cases, Chief Justice John Marshall generally A. supported the authority of the federal government over that of state governments.

B. enhanced the power of state governments over that of the federal government.

C. maintained that the powers of the state and federal governments were identical and inseparable.

D. held that no restraints could be placed on a government that derived its authority from the consent of the majority of its citizens.

E. contended that the Supreme Court had no authority to adjudicate in interstate or intrastate affairs.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

18. (p. 42) In the Supreme Court case McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), Chief Justice John Marshall argued that A. state governments had the power and the duty to protect their citizens from onerous federal legislation.

B. although the federal government could create a national bank, it could not shield the bank's branches from taxation by the governments of the states in which the branches were located.

C. although a national bank would have been an effective means with which the federal government could regulate the economy, it was not the only means available, and therefore did not meet the requirements of the "necessary and proper clause."

D. the federal government had the right to charter a national bank, and state governments had no right to impede its functions through taxation.

E. the will of the people, as expressed through the actions of their state governments, must always take precedence over the whims of the more distant national governing officials.

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19. (p. 42) In the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court decided that A. states retained full authority to regulate commerce within their own borders and among their immediate neighbors.

B. the federal government had authority to regulate only international commerce, not interstate commerce.

C. although the federal government could regulate interstate commerce, states had sole power to regulate intrastate commerce.

D. the federal government's authority to regulate international and interstate commerce bestowed on it some power to regulate intrastate commerce.

E. the federal government's limited ability to regulate interstate commerce was sharply curtailed by a narrow definition of "commerce."

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

20. (p. 43) Which of the following instances best exemplifies the doctrine of nullification?

A. The Supreme Court overturns a federal law by declaring it unconstitutional.

B. The president vetoes a congressional law because he believes that its provisions are unconstitutional.

C. The Supreme Court overturns a state law by declaring it constitutional.

D. Congressmen repeal a law passed by an earlier Congress because they believe that the law is unconstitutional.

E. A state government declares that a federal law, which it is unconstitutional, will not be enforced within the state.

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21. (p. 43) Which of the following founders was MOST responsible for developing the political theory that would become known as the doctrine of nullification?

A. James Marshall B. Thomas Jefferson C. Alexander Hamilton D. John Adams E. Andrew Jackson

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22. (p. 43) What term describes the arrangement in which powers of the state and national governments are distinct and autonomous in their own domains?

A. cooperative federalism B. dual federalism C. new federalism D. laissez-faire federalism E. social federalism

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

23. (p. 43) Which of the following styles of federalism characterized the immediate pre-Civil War era?

A. creative federalism B. dual federalism C. new federalism D. devolution E. cooperative federalism

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24. (p. 43) Which of the following statements BEST captures the meaning of "dual federalism"?

A. State governments are autonomous and supreme in matters of state affairs, and the national government is autonomous and supreme in matters of national affairs.

B. State governments must abide by the laws and regulations of the national government as well as the regulations of international bodies, such as the UN, to which the United States is bound by treaty.

C. The needs of citizens are best met by a system in which citizens can choose between similar services provided by either the national or their state government.

D. Since federalism frequently results in dual and competing loyalties, the national government must assume supreme authority in all matters in order for the American people to survive as a nation.

E. The needs of citizens are best met by a system in which state and national governments combine resources to provide certain services.

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25. (p. 43) The Dred Scott v. Sandford decision BEST characterizes A. nullification.

B. creative federalism.

C. cooperative federalism.

D. dual federalism.

E. interstate compacts.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

26. (p. 43) During the period of 1865 to 1932, the decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court tended to A. affirm the national government's authority—and duty—to ensure the civil rights of African Americans.

B. support the right of workers to bargain collectively through labor unions.

C. avoid ruling on issues related to the emerging industrial national economy, which they believed Congress and the president were more suited to address.

D. refuse to allow the federal government to intervene in the right of states to issue licenses and to regulate commerce within their borders.

E. require states to conform to regulatory business and industrial standards established by the federal government.

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27. (p. 45) In the case of Lochner v. New York (1905), the Supreme Court decided that A. laws limiting the number of hours that employees could work in hazardous situations unconstitutionally deprived those employees of the opportunity to enter freely into contracts.

B. the Fourteenth Amendment was intended to protect the rights of African Americans from disenfranchisement and discrimination, and had no bearing on workplace relations.

C. the Fourteenth Amendment's guarantee of equal protection under the law required state governments to regulate the workplace to maintain safe conditions for laborers.

D. state governments had to abide by the regulatory guidelines established by the federal government.

E. the federal government's authority over interstate commerce included the power to regulate intrastate manufacturing.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

28. (p. 45) The Progressive Era witnessed the implementation of all but which of the following measures?

A. extension of voting rights to women B. a constitutional amendment allowing the government to tax citizens' income C. the passage of the Pure Food and Drug Bill, which established the Food and Drug Administration D. a change in voting procedures to allow citizens to elect U.S. senators directly instead of through their state legislatures E. effective federal laws to ensure that African American citizens could exercise their constitutional right to vote

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29. (p. 45) Which of the following statements best characterizes the attitudes and actions of progressive presidents such as Theodore Roosevelt and Woodrow Wilson?

A. They believed that the domestic interests of the people were best represented by state governments, and the national government should confine itself largely to foreign affairs.

B. They believed that the best way to regulate the excesses of big business was to leave the free market alone to regulate itself.

C. They were dismayed by the overarching regulatory powers claimed by previous administrations, and actively worked to pare down presidential intervention in the economy.

D. In the interests of a vibrant economy, they put the resources of the national government behind the growth of large corporate interests while ignoring the social problems caused by big business.

E. They believed that the national government should play an active role in regulating domestic manufacturing, trade, and other aspects of the economy.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

30. (p. 46) How did Franklin Roosevelt respond to Supreme Court challenges to his New Deal programs?

A. He abandoned his economic interventionism and restored a purely free-market economy.

B. He threatened to pack the Court with new appointees who would vote in favor of his policies.

C. He temporarily suspended the Court's power of judicial review, restoring it only after World War II had lifted the U.S. out of the Great Depression.

D. He convinced Congress to allow him to replace the existing justices with appointees who were more sympathetic to his political goals.

E. He worked closely with the justices in order to develop more moderate programs, on which both he and they could agree.

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31. (p. 46) During which of the following presidents' administrations did the federal government's power, especially with regard to the economy, increase the MOST? A. Theodore Roosevelt B. Woodrow Wilson C. Andrew Jackson D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Ronald Reagan

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32. (p. 46) "Marble cake" federalism is also known as A. cooperative federalism.

B. dual federalism.

C. new federalism.

D. laissez-faire federalism.

E. social federalism.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

33. (p. 46) In such decisions as Brown v. Board of Education (1954), the Warren Court promulgated a view of federal-state relations that became known as A. creative federalism.

B. dual federalism.

C. new federalism.

D. devolution.

E. cooperative federalism.

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34. (p. 47) Creative federalism sought to eradicate racial and economic injustice by A. using taxation policies to coerce businesses to adopt national standards for worker rights.

B. forcing states to abide by federal standards for worker and citizen rights.

C. withholding money from states for other purposes until they removed harmful discriminatory barriers.

D. moving to a greater use of block grants so that states could implement related local programs.

E. targeting money directly at citizen groups and local governments.

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35. (p. 47) Which of the following presidents developed the policy of revenue sharing?

A. Ronald Reagan B. Franklin Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Theodore Roosevelt E. Richard Nixon

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

36. (p. 47) The term devolution refers to the A. shifting of power from the national government to the states and local governments.

B. tendency of all republics to degenerate into dictatorships.

C. inability of the people to maintain the virtue that a healthy democracy requires.

D. process by which national governments, over time, consolidate more and more powers that had previously been reserved to states.

E. squabbles between different levels of government that are inevitable in a federal system.

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37. (p. 47) Which of the following presidents was the strongest advocate of devolution?

A. Ronald Reagan B. Franklin Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Theodore Roosevelt E. Richard Nixon

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38. (p. 48) Which of the following statements MOST accurately summarizes the trend in federal-state relations from the 1980s to the present day?

A. With broad support from the people, the federal government has assumed ever greater responsibilities and powers.

B. Since the end of the 1970s, there have been no notable instances of the federal government imposing national standards upon state governments.

C. Although the federal government has relinquished much power to the states, it has repeatedly used financial incentives and other means to impose national standards.

D. Despite a brief revival of liberalism under President Clinton in the 1990s, the Republican presidents consistently opposed any attempt to impose national standards on the states.

E. While the executive branch has boldly pursued a policy of dispersing power among the states, the judicial and legislative branches have struggled more successfully to keep power in the hands of the national government.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

39. (p. 49) Grants-in-aid were first used A. in the early years of the republic.

B. during the period of dual federalism.

C. with the Morrill Act of 1862.

D. during the New Deal.

E. as part of cooperative federalism.

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40. (p. 49) Which of the following is an accurate description or characteristic of categorical grants?

A. They use mathematical calculations or demographic factors to allocate funds to states or localities.

B. They provide funds for very narrow purposes and contain clear time frames for completion.

C. They provide funds for broad categories of assistance, such as health care or law enforcement.

D. They are reserved for special purposes such as health care for the poor, highway safety, or flood assistance.

E. They impose strict policy changes on states in exchange for monetary assistance.

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41. (p. 50) A federal program that gives a state government federal funds to address a specific need but gives the state wide latitude in deciding how the funds will be spent is known as a A. categorical grant.

B. block grant.

C. program grant.

D. formula grant.

E. unfunded mandate.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

42. (p. 50) Federal grants to states and localities are highest in this category: A. agriculture.

B. health.

C. income security.

D. transportation.

E. education.

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43. (p. 51) A proponent of the autonomy of local government would object MOST strongly to A. devolution.

B. new federalism.

C. block grants.

D. formula grants.

E. unfunded mandates.

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44. (p. 51) Which type of program requires state governments to spend their own money to meet standards imposed on them by the federal government?

A. categorical grant B. block grant C. program grant D. formula grant E. unfunded mandate

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

45. (p. 52) The MOST contentious part of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act has been its A. increased regulation of the health insurance industry.

B. requirement that health insurers insure everyone, regardless of medical history.

C. requirement that everyone have health insurance and purchase it if necessary.

D. removal of a cap on lifetime benefits from health insurance.

E. creation of health-care exchanges to help people find affordable health insurance.

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46. (p. 53) In its 2013 United States v. Windsor ruling, the Supreme Court held that A. marriage could only be a union between a man and a woman.

B. all state and local laws prohibiting or inhibiting same-sex laws are unconstitutional.

C. the 1996 Defense of Marriage Act infringed the Fifth Amendment rights of same-sex couples.

D. states could not pass any laws regulating marriage, whether between same-sex or opposite sex couples.

E. the federal government was prohibited from providing benefits to same-sex spouses of federal employees.

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47. (p. 53) Same-sex marriage A. was dealt a major blow by the United States v. Windsor ruling.

B. has not yet been recognized by the federal government.

C. is now legal in all 50 states, based on a 2014 Supreme Court ruling.

D. was explicitly supported in the Defense of Marriage Act. E. has won increasing support in recent years.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

48. (p. 54-55) The Supreme Court would MOST likely refer to the Eleventh Amendment in a case involving a A. private company suing the federal government because federal standards place an onerous burden on the company.

B. private citizen suing a state government for alleged violation of federal law.

C. state government suing the federal government over an unfunded mandate.

D. private citizen suing the federal government for alleged violations of the citizen's civil liberties.

E. private citizen suing a private company that failed to meet the federal guidelines governing that company's industry.

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49. (p. 55) The full faith and credit provision of the Constitution requires A. state governments to recognize and uphold the legal judgments of other states.

B. state governments to share a single set of legal standards, established by the national government.

C. the federal government to recognize the ultimate authority of state governments in all purely local matters.

D. the national government to balance its budget at least every ten years.

E. state governments to respect and protect their citizens' religious beliefs in all cases in which those beliefs present no direct harm to the community.

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50. (p. 56) The Supreme Court has ruled that states may not discriminate against non-residents in regard to certain fundamental rights based on which provision of the Constitution?

A. interstate compacts B. privileges and immunities C. full faith and credit D. devolution E. enumerated powers

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

51. (p. 56) In the Supreme Court case of New State Ice Company v. Liebmann (1932), Justice Louis Brandeis famously defended the A. supremacy of the federal government over state governments.

B. right of citizens to seek redress from onerous state laws through federal courts.

C. need for the national and state governments to embrace a single, uniform regulatory code.

D. right of state governments to experiment with innovative public policies.

E. power of the Supreme Court to overturn state policies which are not founded on longstanding legislative tradition.

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52. (p. 57) Which of the following attributes is NOT a strong predictor that a state will experiment with innovative policies?

A. a politically influential urban population B. a population with a high average income C. long-term political dominance by a single party D. strong competition between political policies E. a well-developed government bureaucracy and technological infrastructure

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Essay Questions 53. Discuss the relationship between the federal government and the states as laid out in the original Constitution. Which powers were granted to the national government and which were reserved for the states? How did the first eleven amendments to the Constitution alter federalstate relations?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 03 - Federalism: Citizenship and the Dispersal of Power

54. Explain how federal-state relations have changed over time. Consider the different types of federalism that prevailed at different times. What factors seem to have had the most influence in bringing about changes to federalism?

Answers will vary.

55. Discuss the Supreme Court's position on federalism from the founding of the republic to the present day. What landmark cases have been most influential in shaping federal-state relations? Has the Supreme Court's position changed frequently, or has its stance been generally consistent, despite a few anomalous periods?

Answers will vary.

56. Describe the character of federal-state relations today. How much influence does the federal government wield over the states? What tools can it use to coerce state compliance with federal measures? What means do states have to resist federal initiatives?

Answers will vary.

57. Discuss the process of devolution. What made devolution a popular principle in the 1980s? How thoroughly was devolution implemented? What positions have the different branches of government generally taken toward devolution over the past thirty years? Do you expect the process of devolution to continue or to be reversed in the coming years?

Answers will vary.

58. Describe the relationships among the states. What constitutional provisions shape their interrelations? What rights can citizens of one state demand the government of another state respect? Give a few examples of how the actions of one state might affect the policies of its neighbors.

Answers will vary.

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59. Write an essay in which you compare and contrast unitary government, confederated government, and federalist government, and then explain why the writers of the Constitution chose a federalist government.

Answers will vary.

60. Define and give examples of enumerated powers, implied powers, reserved powers, concurrent powers, and prohibited powers.

Answers will vary.

61. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act has seen multiple challenges in the courts.

However, it was largely upheld by an important 5-4 Supreme Court decision in June, 2012.

What was this case specifically about? How was it decided? Why did Chief Justice John Roberts differ from the concurring opinion in the case? What does the ruling potentially portend for the future of federalism?

Answers will vary.

62. What is current federal policy regarding the growth and sale of marijuana? Why has legalization of marijuana use in some states caused a major conflict between the federal government and those states?

Answers will vary.

63. Why is same-sex marriage such an important federalism issue? What have been the most important court rulings and state actions in recent years regarding same-sex marriage? What would be needed for same-sex marriage to be legal in all states?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

Chapter 04 Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 61) Opposition to the National Security Agency's massive surveillance program, as leaked

by Edward Snowden, A. comes almost exclusively from liberals.

B. comes almost exclusively from conservatives.

C. includes substantial numbers of both liberals and conservatives.

D. has been overall quite small.

E. was high initially, but diminished rapidly once the full nature of the program became known.

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2. (p. 62) The National Security Agency A. is under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense.

B. does not collect data on Americans.

C. reports to the National Security Advisor.

D. was formed during the administration of George W. Bush.

E. was abolished after the Snowden leaks were confirmed.

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3. (p. 62) The actions of the National Security Agency's programs, as detailed in the Edward Snowden leaks, has primarily raised concerns about Americans' right to A. a fair trial.

B. freedom of association.

C. freedom of assembly.

D. freedom of speech.

E. privacy.

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4. (p. 62) The National Security Agency's campaign of monitoring electronic communications for potential terrorist activities A. targets foreigners and American citizens about equally.

B. disproportionately targets American citizens.

C. focuses on foreigners, but includes incidental collection of Americans' data.

D. has widespread approval from across the political spectrum.

E. was ended by the Supreme Court in 2013.

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5. (p. 63) Congress cannot summarily declare an American citizen guilty of a crime because of the Constitution's ban on A. bills of attainder.

B. the suspension of habeas corpus.

C. ex post facto laws.

D. judicial review.

E. unreasonable searches and seizures.

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6. (p. 63) When it was ratified, which of the following rights did the Constitution explicitly protect?

A. the right to voice one's political opinions without fear of legal retribution B. the right of citizens to assemble C. the right to demand a writ of habeas corpus D. the right to worship the religion of one's own choice E. freedom from unreasonable search and seizure

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

7. (p. 63-64) Which of the following statements about the Bill of Rights is MOST accurate?

A. America had no tradition of explicitly defined legal rights before the ratification of the first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.

B. As originally written, the Constitution offered no protections to citizens' civil liberties.

C. The authors of the Constitution always intended to add a Bill of Rights, but felt that it would be best if the people decided which rights needed to be protected.

D. The authors of the Constitution rejected the inclusion of a Bill of Rights during the deliberation and drafting process.

E. The authors of the Constitution assumed that civil liberties had to be protected from the actions of state governments, not from the national government.

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8. (p. 64) Federalist leader became known as the Bill of Rights.

A. Alexander Hamilton B. Benjamin Franklin C. James Madison D. Samuel Adams E. John Adams

was the person who drafted the amendments that

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9. (p. 65) According to the Supreme Court's ruling in the case of Barron v. Baltimore (1833), the Bill of Rights protected citizens' liberties A. equally from intrusion by either state governments or the national government, though not from infringement by private individuals.

B. only from intrusion by the national government.

C. equally from intrusion by the national government, state governments, or the actions of private individuals.

D. only from intrusion by the state governments.

E. only from intrusion by private individuals.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

10. (p. 65) Which amendment is MOST responsible for protecting citizens' liberties from intrusion by state governments?

A. First B. Fifth C. Ninth D. Tenth E. Fourteenth

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11. (p. 65) The principle of selective incorporation has been used to guarantee all of the following rights from intrusion by state governments, EXCEPT A. the right to assemble.

B. the right to counsel when charged with a crime.

C. the right to a jury trial in civil cases.

D. the right not to suffer cruel and unusual punishment.

E. the right not to have one's property seized without due compensation.

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12. (p. 67) Based on the Supreme Court's current understanding of the First Amendment, American citizens are free to A. believe any religious doctrine they choose.

B. use hallucinogenic drugs in controlled religious ceremonies.

C. practice polygamy if their religion endorses it.

D. demonstrate their faith by handling poisonous snakes.

E. require employees to work on those employees' holy days.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

13. (p. 67-68) Which of the following statements about religious freedom in the United States today is LEAST accurate?

A. In recent years, Congress has been more willing than the Supreme Court to support individuals' freedom of religious expression.

B. Congress can ban unpopular religious practices as long as it directs that ban against a specific religious group.

C. Congress can prohibit religious practices the general public finds offensive or that threaten public order.

D. Congress can prohibit religious practices that pose a threat to the safety of the general public.

E. The U.S. government has traditionally distinguished between religious beliefs, which are inviolable, and religious actions, which may be circumscribed.

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14. (p. 68) In the 2014 Sebelius v. Hobby Lobby decision, the Supreme Court A. reached a unanimous verdict.

B. ruled that corporations owned by a single family did not have to comply with the Affordable Care Act's provisions on birth control.

C. held that the Religious Freedom and Restoration Act was unconstitutional and invalidated all its provisions.

D. made significant modifications to the Lemon test by essentially adding a fourth component to it.

E. gave the Obama administration a clear victory.

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15. (p. 68) According to a 2007 poll presented in the textbook, which group is overall the MOST religious?

A. liberals B. moderates C. conservatives D. conservatives and moderates about equally E. conservatives and liberals about equally

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

16. (p. 68-69) Most of the founders of the American republic probably had accommodationist views regarding the relationship between church and state, meaning that they believed that A. a strict wall of separation must be maintained between the two institutions.

B. a single national religion should be established.

C. Christianity and the Christian Bible should serve as the basis for American laws.

D. the government should be permitted to support religion generally but not a particular religion specifically.

E. while private citizens could worship or not worship as they chose, federal officials should be required to swear oaths of religious affirmation before taking office.

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17. (p. 69) The Supreme Court uses the Lemon test primarily to decide on matters related to A. racial discrimination.

B. freedom of the press.

C. the relationship between church and state.

D. the rights of the accused.

E. abortion.

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18. (p. 69) Based on the Lemon test, which of the following laws would likely NOT be considered unconstitutional?

A. one intended to achieve a religious purpose B. one that had the primary effect of advancing religion C. one that had the primary effect of hindering religion D. one that fostered an excessive entanglement between church and state E. one that helped religious institutions provide secular social services

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

19. (p. 69) Most establishment clause controversies in recent times have dealt with the issue of religion in A. public schools.

B. the military.

C. the government.

D. private businesses.

E. public accommodations.

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20. (p. 70) According to current understandings of the establishment clause, which of the following activities would be legal and constitutional?

A. regular moments of silence, which public school students could use for prayer B. opening prayers for the health of both teams' players at the beginning of a public school football game C. recitation of daily Bible verses over the PA system at a public school D. benedictions from the clergy at a high school graduation E. providing money to a religious club out of a general student activities fund

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21. (p. 70) Which Supreme Court case decided that compulsory prayer in public schools was unconstitutional?

A. Miranda v. Arizona B. Buckley v. Valeo C. Engel v. Vitale D. Powell v. Alabama E. Gregg v. Georgia

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

22. (p. 71) What decision was made by the Supreme Court in a landmark 2002 case on the issue of school vouchers?

A. Providing government vouchers to attend private schools was ruled constitutional.

B. The use of government vouchers to attend religious schools is unconstitutional.

C. The use of any form of government school vouchers violated the separate but equal clause.

D. Providing government vouchers to attend religious schools was ruled constitutional.

E. Providing government vouchers to attend schools that do not meet state or federal accreditation standards was ruled unconstitutional.

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23. (p. 71) Based on current understandings of the First Amendment, which of the following displays would the Supreme Court consider unconstitutional?

A. an etching of the Ten Commandments beside etchings of Hammurabi's Code and the Magna Carta in a courthouse B. a statue of Jesus placed beside statues of Socrates, Confucius, and Abraham Lincoln in a public park C. a government-sponsored Easter display in a private park that showed Jesus rising from the grave, the Easter Bunny distributing gifts, and banners announcing local sales D. a painting of Jesus being crucified adorned by a banner reading "He died for your sins" hung in the lobby of a state capitol E. a monument to the Ten Commandments included in a display that also honored Martin Luther King, Jr., Gandhi, and Henry David Thoreau

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

24. (p. 72) In the Supreme Court case involving Charles Schenck, which tested the constitutionality of the Espionage Act, the Supreme Court decided that A. the right to criticize government was a fundamental civil liberty that could not be infringed upon even in times of war.

B. the Constitution's guarantee of free speech was applicable only to speech that could be conclusively proven to be true.

C. freedom of speech could be curtailed if the words produced a "clear and present danger."

D. freedom of speech could be curtailed if the speech tended to encourage pernicious actions.

E. although the government could issue injunctions to prevent the media from printing materials that threatened national security, it could not punish them after the materials had been published.

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25. (p. 72) In the period following World War I to 1969, the rise of the threat of Russia and international communism resulted in A. expanded protections for freedom of speech and other civil rights, in an attempt to emphasize the value of American liberties.

B. expanded protections for political speech, though standards for defining material as obscene remained low.

C. a pronouncement by the Supreme Court that freedom of speech was inviolate and could not be curtailed even if it was malicious and false.

D. increased limitations on the freedom of speech, making it possible to ban speech simply for having the tendency to encourage evil deeds.

E. a pronouncement by the Supreme Court that the people, through their representatives in Congress, had the sole power to judge the limits of free speech, and could expand or contract those limits as they saw fit.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

26. (p. 73) Which of the following statements about campaign speech is MOST accurate?

A. The Supreme Court has ruled that political contributions and expenditures are in no way protected by First Amendment rights.

B. Considering the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1974, the Supreme Court ruled that Congress could limit how candidates spent money, but not how they acquired it.

C. The Supreme Court has consistently rejected limits on campaign contributions as unconstitutional abridgements on individual citizens' rights of speech and petition.

D. The Supreme Court recently ruled that state laws could restrict any form of paid campaign advertising within one month of an election.

E. In recent years, the Supreme Court has loosening the limits on campaign speech based on interpretations of the First Amendment.

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27. (p. 73) In its 2014 McCutcheon v. F.E.C. ruling, the Supreme Court held that the aggregate limits a person could contribute to federal candidates, parties, and political action committees were A. unconstitutional and must be removed.

B. too high and should be revised downward by Congress.

C. too low and should be revised upward by Congress.

D. applicable to state and local elections also.

E. inadequate and needed to be revised by the Federal Election Commission.

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28. (p. 73) Which of the following forms of symbolic act could be banned based on current understandings of free speech?

A. burning a flag B. burning a copy of a revised tax code C. burning a draft card D. burning a public figure in effigy E. burning a copy of a public figure's memoirs

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

29. (p. 74) The Court applies the Miller test to determine if speech is A. slanderous.

B. obscene.

C. political.

D. inflammatory.

E. a threat to national security.

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30. (p. 74) In order for a work to be deemed obscene, an average person must reasonably conclude that the work A. lacks any redeeming quality.

B. is predominantly prurient.

C. is offensive.

D. lacks any redeeming quality, is predominantly prurient, and is offensive.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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31. (p. 77) What differentiates slander from libel?

A. Private persons are libeled, whereas public figures are slandered.

B. Slander is oral, whereas libel is written.

C. Slander is intentionally malicious, whereas libel is a report of unverified rumor.

D. Slander causes damage to a person's reputation or standing, whereas libel causes only nuisance.

E. Slander is tried through civil courts, whereas libel is tried through criminal courts.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

32. (p. 75) Which of the following is one of the two conditions that satisfy the definition of malice under the Sullivan rule?

A. failure to understand that statements were false B. failure to direct statements against a specific individual C. intent to cause emotional harm with the statements D. knowledge that the statements were false E. personal knowledge of the object of the statements

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33. (p. 75) In the case of New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court decided that A. the federal government had to meet a high standard in order to censor a publication in the name of national security.

B. speech that does not present a "clear and present danger" can still be banned if it contributes to a "bad tendency."

C. the press cannot be found guilty of slandering a public official unless it can be proven that the press published falsehoods maliciously.

D. the right of free speech did not give a citizen the right to raise a false alarm about a fire in a crowded theater.

E. in order to be deemed obscene, material must violate the standards of the general audience for whom it was intended, not just the tastes of one individual.

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34. (p. 75) Based on the precedent set by the "Pentagon Papers," A. the government can prevent the publication of sensitive materials, but it cannot punish a newspaper for such publication after the fact.

B. the federal government has an uncontested right to prior restraint.

C. the interests of national security outweigh the public's interest in critiquing government officials.

D. the federal government has little real power to prevent newspapers from publishing sensitive materials.

E. the public reputations of government officials are more strongly protected against slander than the reputations of private individuals.

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35. (p. 76) As a rule, the government can place the most restrictions over which form of media?

A. newspapers B. the Internet C. pamphlets and journals D. public speech E. radio

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36. (p. 76) Why can the government regulate broadcast television more than most other media?

A. because television stations have open access to all citizens, regardless of age B. because a scarcity of bandwidth led the government to license stations C. because television stations have a broad audience D. because the government owns all broadcast media outlets E. because television broadcasters have failed to challenge government controls

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37. (p. 76) Recent Supreme Court cases have protected freedom of the press in all of the following instances EXCEPT A. allowing newspapers to publish the names of alleged rape victims.

B. allowing newspapers to publish the names of juvenile offenders.

C. allowing newspapers to preserve the anonymity of their confidential sources if the government can demonstrate a compelling reason to request them.

D. allowing the press to attend trials.

E. allowing newspapers to ignore publication requests by political candidates.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

38. (p. 76) Which of the following special rights of the media is currently recognized by the courts?

A. the right to attend trials B. the right to publish libelous material without punitive consequences C. the right to accompany police into a private residence in the execution of a warrant D. the right to meet with county jail inmates, regardless of the jail's standard visitation rules E. the right to maintain the confidentiality of sources

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39. (p. 77) Which of the following forms of protests receives the MOST protection from the Supreme Court?

A. the right to obstruct entrances to abortion clinics B. the right to walk within touching distance of a patient at an abortion clinic in order to present the patient with unsolicited and unwanted literature C. the right to protest in front of a state capitol D. the right to protest in front of courthouses E. the right to protest outside of jails

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40. (p. 78) Which of the following statements about freedom of association is LEAST accurate?

A. Associations are not legally obligated to provide government officials with lists of their members.

B. Families are regarded as a protected form of association.

C. Private clubs cannot ban women or minorities if doing so deprives those groups of potential business contacts.

D. Private organizations cannot bar members on the basis of their sexual orientation.

E. Associations with strong ideological views enjoy more latitude in excluding potential members than do general, nonpartisan associations.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

41. (p. 79) In 2008, the U.S. Supreme Court dramatically changed the meaning of the Second Amendment with its decision in which of the following cases?

A. District of Columbia v. Heller B. Roe v. Wade C. Roth v. U.S. D. Miller v. California E. Plessy v. Ferguson

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42. (p. 79) The U.S. Supreme Court ruling on the Second Amendment in 2008 dramatically changed the meaning of the amendment, asserting that the amendment conferred A. an individual right.

B. only a collective right.

C. no rights whatsoever.

D. rights only for the military.

E. rights only for government officials.

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43. (p. 79) In Boumediene v. Bush (2008), the Supreme Court ruled that detainees have a right of habeas corpus in federal courts unless A. those detainees have refused the right to counsel.

B. those detainees are not U.S. citizens.

C. the president has filed an executive order to prevent said right.

D. Congress explicitly exercises its constitutional authority to suspend the right.

E. those detainees are accused of treason or attempted violence against the state.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

44. (p. 79) Which of the following activities is considered unconstitutional according to current Supreme Court standards?

A. mandatory drug tests of student athletes B. mandatory drug tests of students engaged in non-athletic extracurricular activities C. searching an arrestees cell phone without a warrant D. police searches in fields in spite of posted "no trespassing" signs E. aerial police searches to investigate suspected drug production

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45. (p. 80) Under what single circumstance or set of circumstances can government officials conduct searches without a warrant?

A. When arresting a suspect, officials may search the immediate area.

B. It is permissible when pursuing a dangerous suspect who is likely to destroy evidence.

C. It is permissible when police officers have reasonable suspicion that an individual has just committed or is about to commit a crime.

D. It is permissible of if the police receive permission from a suspect or a person with the authority to authorize the search.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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46. (p. 81) Of the following countries, which one has the highest incarceration rate?

A. United States B. South Africa C. China D. Mexico E. Israel

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

47. (p. 81) If the police fail to notify a suspect of his or her Miranda rights, the Court will A. require the release of the suspect.

B. require a re-arrest.

C. exonerate the accused.

D. declare a mistrial.

E. deny the admissibility of a confession.

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48. (p. 81) By informing suspects of their right against self-incrimination, the Miranda warning protects their A. First Amendment rights.

B. Third Amendment rights.

C. Fifth Amendment rights.

D. Seventh Amendment rights.

E. Ninth Amendment rights.

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49. (p. 81) Courts use the exclusionary rule to A. dismiss evidence that has been illegally obtained.

B. toss out cases in which the plaintiff has no standing.

C. determine whether the government has a legitimate interest in restraining the publication of sensitive material.

D. judge whether or not a government-sponsored religious display violates the establishment clause.

E. determine whether or not speech is obscene.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

50. (p. 82) The Powell v. Alabama case involving the Scottsboro boys was a landmark case with regard to A. prior restraint.

B. right to counsel.

C. prayer in public schools.

D. the constitutionality of wartime dissent.

E. the right of police to conduct "reasonable" searches without a warrant.

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51. (p. 82) What percentage of criminal cases nationwide ends in a plea bargain?

A. 95 percent B. 80 percent C. 65 percent D. 50 percent E. 35 percent

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52. (p. 82) Which of the following statements about criminal trials in the United States today is MOST accurate?

A. Although some criminal cases never come to trial, plea bargains are an unusual occurrence in the modern justice system.

B. Women and minorities can be excluded from jury pools, since jury duty is a burden, not a right.

C. Attorneys may not dismiss potential jurors solely on the basis of their race or gender.

D. Constitutionally, all criminal trials require a unanimous verdict to find a defendant guilty.

E. Constitutionally, all juries presiding over a criminal trial must number exactly twelve.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

53. (p. 83) In a 2013 case about the constitutionality of taking a DNA sample from arrestees, the Supreme Court A. issued a unanimous decision.

B. held that taking such DNA samples was constitutional.

C. held that taking such DNA samples was acceptable only if the person had been arrested for a violent crime.

D. held that taking such DNA samples was unconstitutional.

E. refused to issue a ruling, instead waiting for similar cases to be decided by lower courts.

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54. (p. 84) Executions in the United States were highest in which of the following years?

A. 1983 B. 1989 C. 1999 D. 2008 E. 2012

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55. (p. 84-85) Which of the following statements about public executions in the United States today is LEAST accurate?

A. DNA tests have led to the exoneration of over a dozen convicts that were sentenced to death.

B. The Supreme Court has ruled that mentally retarded convicts cannot be put to death.

C. The Supreme Court has ruled that convicts cannot be put to death for murders that they committed when they were minors.

D. The United States is the only Western democracy that uses the death penalty.

E. Only one quarter of all the states (plus the federal government) still has the death penalty.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

56. (p. 84) In a major death penalty case in April of 2008, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that A. execution by hanging is unconstitutional.

B. execution by lethal injection is constitutional.

C. execution by firing squad is unconstitutional.

D. execution by electrocution is unconstitutional.

E. execution by gas is unconstitutional.

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57. (p. 85) States that prohibit the death penalty are located primarily A. in the Plains states and the South.

B. in the Midwest and Northeast.

C. on the West Coast.

D. on the West Coast and in the Northeast.

E. in the South and Midwest.

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58. (p. 85) The Supreme Court recently ruled that the execution of child rapists is unconstitutional on all of the following grounds EXCEPT that A. the potential pain suffered by an executed convict in a botched execution amounted to cruel and unusual punishment.

B. only five states had laws that allow for the execution of child rapists.

C. no state had executed a convict for raping a child in over forty years.

D. only one state allowed for the execution of child rapists on their first conviction.

E. crimes other than treason or espionage that do not involve the taking of a life should not be punished with the taking of a life.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

59. (p. 86) Which of the following statements about abortion rights in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. The Supreme Court has accepted the constitutionality of laws that banned the use of public facilities or Medicaid funds for abortions.

B. When the Court legalized abortion in 1973, the practice was already legal in all but thirteen states.

C. Viability tests have allowed for greater restrictions on abortions that take place during the second trimester.

D. In Roe v. Wade the Supreme Court ruled that the government was entitled to place restrictions on abortions that occur in the third trimester.

E. The Supreme Court's rulings on abortion have been based largely on the implicit constitutional guarantee of privacy.

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60. (p. 87) In the case of Washington v. Glucksberg, the Supreme Court ruled that A. the Constitution does not guarantee citizens the right to die.

B. although the Constitution guarantees citizens the right to die, it does not guarantee the right to assisted suicide.

C. the Constitution guarantees citizens the right to die, and, as such, guarantees them access to assisted suicide.

D. since the sick and the elderly place a burden on society, physicians have wide discretion in euthanizing patients.

E. the Supreme Court has ruled that the patient-doctor confidentiality privilege prevents either the Court or the legislature from deciding on assisted suicides, one way or the other.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

61. (p. 87-89) Which of the following statements about the use of the court system to guarantee civil liberties and civil rights is LEAST accurate?

A. Interest groups frequently submit amicus curiae briefs, detailing their support for a given position in a trial.

B. In the case of NAACP v. Button, the Supreme Court ruled that the First Amendment protects the right of advocacy through the courts.

C. Interest groups frequently get involved in test cases, which are deliberately designed to test the constitutionality of a given law or measure.

D. Although some interest groups bring cases on their own behalf, others lend their resources to third parties with whom they sympathize.

E. Lawsuits are typically only pursued by parties who have already won their case in the court of public opinion and wish to see the law reflect the popular will.

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62. (p. 88) "Amicus curiae" means A. court defendant.

B. curious friend.

C. test case.

D. friend of the court.

E. probable cause.

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Essay Questions 63. Discuss the American heritage of civil liberties. How did Americans' liberties originate?

Which rights were explicitly protected by the Constitution in its initial form? Why did the Constitution not initially include a Bill of Rights? Why did the Bill of Rights not initially apply to the states, and how did it come to do so?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 04 - Civil Liberties: Citizens' Rights versus Security

64. Discuss the major issues involving the religious rights guaranteed by the First Amendment. How did most of the Framers of the Constitution seem to regard the separation of church and state? What is the distinction between the First Amendment's free exercise clause and establishment clause? Which clause has aroused the most controversy? How has the Supreme Court ruled on issues of religion in public schools and public spaces? Which decisions have aroused the most controversy?

Answers will vary.

65. Discuss the history of free speech and free press in the United States. How expansive is this freedom? When has the government successfully taken steps to curtail it? When have the courts intervened to prevent government interference? What types of speech can be legally barred or punished, and what types must be tolerated? In the United States today, does the press or the government hold the upper hand?

Answers will vary.

66. Discuss the controversial subjects of abortion and assisted suicide. What is the Supreme Court's current stance on each issue? How has each stance evolved in recent years? What does the Supreme Court's stance on these issues suggest about citizens' implicit right to privacy? Is this right expanding or eroding? How have the Supreme Court's rulings on these issues affected the balance between individual rights and communal needs, and individual rights and majority rule?

Answers will vary.

67. Evaluate the state of civil liberties in the United States today. What rights are guaranteed by the government and what rights are threatened by it? Has the Supreme Court moved too far in protecting the rights of individuals from the rule of the majority, or does it continue to allow the majority too much power to infringe on unpopular views and actions? Which rights, if any, can be safely curtailed without undermining the republic, and which rights, if any, must be preserved at all costs in order for the republic to survive?

Answers will vary.

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68. What is selective incorporation and what is its constitutional basis? How has it been used to expand the rights and liberties of Americans?

Answers will vary.

69. What is the Lemon test? How has the Supreme Court used the test to determine boundaries that separate church and state?

Answers will vary.

70. Are there currently any boundaries on political speech in the United States? Should there be? Defend your answer, whether it was yes or no.

Answers will vary.

71. The right to bear arms has been a controversial subject for decades. What is the current constitutional interpretation of the Second Amendment? What restrictions do you favor on gun ownership, if any? Provide supporting arguments for your answer.

Answers will vary.

72. Many Americans have been very concerned about their privacy after the Edward Snowden leaks showed the nature and extent of the National Security Agency's data collection program.

How does this issue illustrate the tension between curtailing some rights in turn for increased security? Is the tradeoff worth it in this case? Why or why not?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

Chapter 05 Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 92) The Voting Rights Act of 1965 A. provided the legal basis for voting rights for minorities, but it had no enforcement mechanisms.

B. was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2013.

C. applied only to federal elections, but not to state and local elections.

D. contain provisions for federal monitoring of voting in areas with histories of discrimination.

E. had little lasting impact on the voting participation rates of African Americans.

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2. (p. 93) The Supreme Court's 2013 decision that Section 4 of the Voting Rights Act was unconstitutional means that A. the federal government will have to act without Congress in order to ensure elections are fair and promote participation.

B. it's now up to citizens to challenge election laws that appear to discriminate against minorities.

C. state governments are now responsible for ensuring that elections are fair and promote participation.

D. the Voting Rights Act must be entirely rewritten and then passed by Congress before any of its provisions can again be in effect.

E. all future laws regulating elections and voter eligibility cannot be challenged in the courts.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

3. (p. 93) Which of the following phrases BEST encapsulates the meaning of the term "civil rights"?

A. the guaranteed freedoms on which the government cannot intrude B. the personal liberties of individual citizens C. the assurance of equal treatment to all citizens regardless of group identity D. the protection of members of historically disadvantaged groups from discrimination E. the protection of all groups and individuals from discrimination

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4. (p. 94-95) In the Dred Scott decision of 1857, the Court decided all of the following EXCEPT that A. slaves could never become citizens.

B. long-term residency in a free state or territory did not make a slave free.

C. slaves could not bring suit in court.

D. Congress could ban slavery from a territory but not from a state.

E. the Missouri Compromise was invalidated based on Fifth Amendment rights.

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5. (p. 95) Slavery was ultimately abolished from the United States by the A. Emancipation Proclamation.

B. Compromise of 1877.

C. Twelfth Amendment.

D. Thirteenth Amendment.

E. Fourteenth Amendment.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

6. (p. 95) The Fourteenth Amendment did all of the following EXCEPT A. extend the rights of national citizenship to all Americans.

B. guarantee equal protection under the laws of any state.

C. guarantee all male citizens the right to vote.

D. ensure citizens of due process.

E. limit the ability of state governments to infringe on the rights of citizens.

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7. (p. 95) In the wake of Reconstruction, southern states used all of the following means to disenfranchise black voters EXCEPT A. grandfather clauses.

B. explicit racial prohibitions on voting.

C. poll taxes.

D. literacy tests.

E. property qualifications.

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8. (p. 97) In the case of Plessy v. Ferguson (1896), the Supreme Court ruled that A. segregated facilities were not inherently unconstitutional, as long as they were equal.

B. though Jim Crow laws clearly violated Fourteenth Amendment protections, the federal government had no authority to interfere in the internal matters of states.

C. African Americans were not citizens, and so could not claim the same rights as white Americans.

D. the Fourteenth Amendment was unconstitutional.

E. as second-class citizens, African Americans must endure second-class facilities.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

9. (p. 97) What was the primary means by which the NAACP pursued civil rights during the first half of the twentieth century?

A. through appeals to the president B. by lobbying Congress C. by mobilizing grass-roots activists D. through civil disobedience E. through the courts

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10. (p. 98) The landmark Supreme Court case of Brown v. Board of Education was significant because it A. was the first instance in which the Supreme Court decided in favor of protecting African Americans' civil rights.

B. overturned the doctrine of "separate but equal."

C. effectively ended segregation, both de jure and de facto, in America's public schools.

D. effectively brought the Civil Rights Era to a triumphant close.

E. required the immediate end of segregation in public schools.

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11. (p. 98) Which of the following is true of the Brown v. Board of Education ruling?

A. Its chief impact was felt in the northern states.

B. It primarily affected the southern states.

C. Its chief impact was to reduce the prevalence of de facto segregation.

D. It did little to limit de jure segregation.

E. The use of the phrase "with all deliberate speed" in the ruling helped to bring about swift legislative changes in the southern states.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

12. (p. 99) Rosa Parks' MOST important contribution to the Civil Rights movement was A. delivering her "I Have a Dream" speech at the culmination of a march on Washington.

B. founding and leading the Student Non-Violent Coordinating Committee.

C. convincing the NAACP to abandon its legal strategy and take a more militant approach to civil rights.

D. inspiring a bus boycott when she chose to be arrested rather than give up her seat.

E. becoming the first African American woman to serve in the Senate.

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13. (p. 99) Which African American leader is famous for his "I Have a Dream" speech?

A. Malcolm X B. Jesse Jackson C. Bobby Seale D. Stokely Carmichael E. Martin Luther King, Jr.

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14. (p. 99) The Southern Christian Leadership Conference A. focused on nonviolent protests.

B. recruited young people for "freedom rides" and sit-ins.

C. is the oldest civil rights group in the United States.

D. often countered the advice of Martin Luther King, Jr. E. had little lasting impact on the civil rights movement.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

15. (p. 100) The landmark Civil Rights Act of 1964 and Voting Rights Act of 1965 were pushed through Congress by which president?

A. John Kennedy B. Dwight Eisenhower C. Richard Nixon D. Harry Truman E. Lyndon Johnson

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16. (p. 100) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 did all of the following EXCEPT for A. protecting voters by outlawing literacy tests.

B. creating the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

C. barring discrimination by accommodations engaged in interstate commerce.

D. prohibiting discrimination in employment based on race.

E. prohibiting discrimination in employment based on sex.

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17. (p. 100) Which of the following statements about the conditions of African Americans in the United States today is LEAST accurate?

A. As indicated by the election of Barack Obama in 2008 and 2012, the number of national political offices held by African Americans is roughly commensurate to their percentage of the general population.

B. African American citizens are more likely than white citizens to be convicted of a crime.

C. African American convicts are more likely than white convicts to be sentenced to death for their crimes.

D. Despite the end of legally sanctioned segregation, many African American families live in neighborhoods with few if any white residents.

E. The average African American family's household income is roughly two-thirds that of the average white American family.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

18. (p. 101) The Defense of Marriage Act A. was passed with strong bipartisan support over the veto of President Clinton.

B. saved the government money by avoiding Social Security and other payments to same-sex spouses.

C. was opposed by both President George W. Bush and President Obama.

D. did not specifically define marriage, but was explicit that it could not include same-sex couples.

E. was struck down by a unanimous decision of the Supreme Court.

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19. (p. 101) The birth of the gay rights movement is MOST commonly traced to riots in A. New York in 1969.

B. Miami in 1958.

C. San Francisco in 1974.

D. Chicago in 1983.

E. Los Angeles in 1962.

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20. (p. 101) Which generation has the strongest support for gay marriage?

A. Silent Generation (1928-1945) B. Baby Boomers (1946-1964) C. Generation X (1965-1980) D. Millenials (1981 or later) E. All generations have about equal support for gay marriage.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

21. (p. 102) Which section of the Constitution provides the chief basis for Supreme Court rulings on equality?

A. Article V B. Fourteenth Amendment C. Bill of Rights D. Article III E. the Preamble

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22. (p. 102) Based on the principle of "invidious discrimination," in order for the Supreme Court to declare discriminatory practices unconstitutional, the Court must decide that the practices A. have no rational basis.

B. are deliberately discriminatory.

C. reinforce existing racial, ethnic, or sexual hierarchies.

D. lack the support of the community.

E. privilege one group over another.

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23. (p. 102) In deciding a case involving a law that allegedly discriminated against gay citizens, the Supreme Court would MOST likely apply the A. rational basis test.

B. due process test.

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

D. original intention test.

E. strict scrutiny test.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

24. (p. 102) If an elderly woman sued a state government over a law requiring her to retire from a certain job at a certain age, the Supreme Court would MOST likely decide the case on the basis of the A. rational basis test.

B. due process test.

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

D. original intention test.

E. strict scrutiny test.

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25. (p. 102) If lower-income citizens sued a state government over a voting registration law that required them to present a driver's license or pay for an alternative state identification card in order to vote, the Supreme Court would MOST likely decide the case on the basis of the A. rational basis test.

B. due process test.

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

D. original intention test.

E. strict scrutiny test.

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26. (p. 103) In deciding a case in which a male citizen sued a state government over a law that he believed discriminated against him based on his gender, the Supreme Court would MOST likely rely on the A. rational basis test.

B. due process test.

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

D. original intention test.

E. strict scrutiny test.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

27. (p. 103) In deciding a case in which an Asian American woman claims that a state law discriminates against her based on her ethnicity, the Supreme Court would MOST likely use the A. rational basis test.

B. due process test.

C. intermediate scrutiny test.

D. original intention test.

E. strict scrutiny test.

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28. (p. 103) Which of the following arguments would LEAST likely be advanced by a proponent of affirmative action?

A. Affirmative action policies benefit not only racial minorities, but also women, who make up over half the population.

B. Affirmative action policies have little direct adverse effect on the opportunities available to white men.

C. The goal of a diverse society is one that benefits all members of society, not just the historically disadvantaged.

D. Any policy that privileges one racial group over another is an unacceptable form of racism.

E. Traditional measures for measuring merit contain subjective biases that work against racial minorities.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

29. (p. 103) In the case of Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court ruled that A. universities could not constitutionally take race into consideration as a factor in student admissions.

B. universities could consider race as a factor in student admissions, but racial quotas were unconstitutional.

C. racial quotas were a constitutional means by which public universities could ensure a diverse student body.

D. the racial make-up of a public university must roughly reflect the racial composition of the public the university serves.

E. the strict scrutiny test was not applicable to matters involving higher education.

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30. (p. 104) Members of which ethnic group benefited MOST when Texas and California implemented race-blind admissions to their public universities in the 1990s?

A. Asian Americans B. white Americans C. African Americans D. Hispanic Americans E. Native Americans

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31. (p. 105) In 2007, the Supreme Court took which of the following decisions on race and education?

A. It emphasized the need to expand efforts to ensure racial integration in public schools.

B. It opposed race-based public school initiatives, even if the goal of those initiatives is to enhance diversity.

C. It approved efforts to expand racial diversity in universities only if the methods employed were systematic and quantifiable.

D. It rejected all measures to encourage racial diversity at universities.

E. It avoided addressing cases related to racial initiatives in either universities or public schools.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

32. (p. 105) Which minority group is MOST responsible for pioneering the civil rights tactics other groups have adopted since the 1960s?

A. Asian Americans B. gay and lesbian Americans C. African Americans D. Hispanic Americans E. Native Americans

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33. (p. 105-106) Which of the following statements about Native Americans' struggle for civil rights is LEAST accurate?

A. Historically, Native Americans have been victims of legislation that deprived them of their land and their culture.

B. Native Americans were not granted citizenship en masse until 1924.

C. Since the founding of the American republic, Native Americans have formed formal political and social movements to protest their mistreatment.

D. During the 1960s and 1970s, Indian activists engaged in militant actions such as seizing control of Alcatraz and holding hostages at Wounded Knee.

E. Native Americans continue to suffer disproportionately from ill health and poverty.

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34. (p. 106) Currently, the largest ethnic minority group in the United States is A. Asian Americans.

B. White Americans.

C. African Americans.

D. Hispanic Americans.

E. Native Americans.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

35. (p. 107) The civil rights leader César Chávez is best known for his efforts on behalf of A. auto workers.

B. disenfranchised southern African Americans.

C. disabled Americans.

D. gays and lesbians.

E. migrant farm workers.

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36. (p. 107) The largest number of Hispanic Americans are of A. Honduran B. Nicaraguan C. Cuban D. Mexican E. Puerto Rican

origin.

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37. (p. 108) In the case of Korematsu v. United States, the Supreme Court decided that A. because the internment of Japanese Americans was based solely on race, it was unconstitutional.

B. while the government had the right to send Japanese immigrants to internment camps, their native-born children, as American citizens, must be freed.

C. although Congress might have had the power to order the internment of Japanese Americans, the president could not constitutionally do so by executive order.

D. in times of war, American citizens have no civil rights the government is obligated to respect.

E. the internment of Japanese Americans was a constitutional measure.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

38. (p. 108) Which of the following statements about Asian Americans is MOST accurate?

A. They have never faced the sort of discriminatory immigration restrictions that groups from many other parts of the world had to face.

B. There were almost no Asians or Asian Americans in the United States before the 1970s.

C. Asian Americans have experienced notable academic success at colleges and universities.

D. Asian Americans are disproportionately represented in political offices and positions of business management.

E. Young Asian Americans are unusually politically active.

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39. (p. 109) Throughout the twentieth century, which group advocated MOST vocally and effectively for the rights of disabled Americans?

A. war veterans B. the NAACP C. elderly Americans D. gay and lesbian Americans E. workers in high-risk jobs

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40. (p. 110) Based on current understandings of the Americans with Disabilities Act, public schools would have to make special accommodations for all of the following students EXCEPT A. a student with poor, but functional, eyesight.

B. a student who is confined to a wheelchair.

C. a student with dyslexia.

D. a student with AIDS. E. a student with autism.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

41. (p. 110) Which of the following statements about the rights of older Americans is LEAST accurate?

A. In 1986, Congress phased out mandatory retirement for all but a few occupations, such as firefighting.

B. Because senior employees often make the most money, they are also often targeted for firing by employers looking to cut costs.

C. Some graduate schools reject older applicants out of hand, because such applicants will have fewer years to ply their trade.

D. Since 1967, federal law has protected workers over the age of 40 from unreasonable discrimination based on their age.

E. Despite, or perhaps because of, the various forms of discrimination they face, elderly Americans generally wield little political power or influence.

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42. (p. 110) In a 2008 decision, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that A. federal workers who file claims of age discrimination have the same protections from retaliation as they would in the private sector.

B. federal workers have no constitutional protections related to age discrimination.

C. state workers have no constitutional protections related to age discrimination.

D. federal workers who file claims of age discrimination have fewer protections from retaliation than they would in the private sector.

E. federal workers who file claims of age discrimination have more protections from retaliation than they would in the private sector.

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43. (p. 111) Which of the following statements about gay rights is LEAST accurate?

A. Persons who know gay men or lesbians personally are more likely to support gay rights.

B. Homosexuals are usually better educated and wealthier than other minority groups.

C. For a time, homosexuals were not allowed to work in the federal government or immigrate to the United States.

D. The modern gay rights movement began with a police raid on gay bar in 1969.

E. The American public has shown its support for gay marriage by approving referenda in state after state establishing legal recognition of such unions.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

44. (p. 111) Regarding gays and lesbians serving in the military, President Clinton supported a policy A. allowing lesbians to serve, but not gays.

B. allowing gays and lesbians to openly serve.

C. prohibiting gays and lesbians from serving at all.

D. of "don't ask, don't tell."

E. essentially the same as the one adopted by President Obama.

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45. (p. 111) In Lawrence v. Texas (2003), the Supreme Court decided that A. consenting adults have the constitutional right to engage in homosexual acts in the privacy of their homes.

B. although the military could reject a prospective enlistee based on his or her sexual orientation, it could not discharge a soldier on active duty for the same reason.

C. the Boy Scouts' ban on gay troop leaders amounted to an illegal act of discrimination.

D. the courts of one state were constitutionally bound to recognize and respect same-sex marriages conducted in another state.

E. the Defense of Marriage Act, which prohibits federal recognition of gay and lesbian couples, is an unconstitutional form of discrimination.

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46. (p. 112) Which state was the first to legalize same-sex marriage through a court ruling?

A. California B. New Hampshire C. Vermont D. New York E. Hawaii

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

47. (p. 113) Women's struggle for equality differs from other civil rights struggles primarily because women A. have faced fewer obstacles to employment.

B. have faced fewer obstacles to political participation.

C. are not a minority.

D. have no history of agitating for their rights.

E. have acquired their rights more fully and quickly than other groups, especially African American men.

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48. (p. 113) Which of the following statements about the early women's movement (1840-1875) is LEAST accurate?

A. The movement evolved largely from women's participation in abolitionism.

B. The immediate impetus for the women's movement was the refusal of male participants at an antislavery gathering to allow women to participate in the proceedings.

C. The movement was in part an offshoot of the religious revivalism of the day.

D. The movement ended in triumph with the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment, which guaranteed women the right to vote.

E. A pivotal moment in the movement was a convention held at Seneca Falls, New York, in 1848.

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49. (p. 113) Who was the leader of the National American Woman Suffrage Association, founded in 1890?

A. Abigail Adams B. Susan B. Anthony C. Lucretia Mott D. Elizabeth Cady Stanton E. Betty Friedan

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

50. (p. 114) From 1890 to 1920, the women's rights movement focused its energies primarily on A. improving women's economic opportunities.

B. changing the cultural standards that held women back.

C. enhancing women's legal standing.

D. electing women to high political office.

E. securing the right to vote.

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51. (p. 114) All of the following contributed to the modern feminist movement EXCEPT A. the publication of The Feminine Mystique.

B. the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

C. the ratification of the Equal Rights Amendment.

D. a Supreme Court case upholding a discriminatory jury selection process on the grounds that a woman's place was in the home.

E. the creation of President Kennedy's Commission on the Status of Women and its subsequent report.

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52. (p. 114) In recent years the Supreme Court has ruled that A. statutory rape laws that apply only to female victims are constitutional.

B. requiring only men to register with the Selective Service is unconstitutional.

C. laws that prevent men from collecting alimony while allowing women to do so are constitutional.

D. prosecutors may choose to exclude either women or men from juries in order to create a jury sympathetic to their case.

E. single-sex nursing schools are legal and constitutional.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

53. (p. 115) Who was the first woman to serve as Speaker of the House of Representatives?

A. Nancy Pelosi B. Sarah Palin C. Hillary Clinton D. Anita Hill E. Jeannette Rankin

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54. (p. 115) Which Congress has had the highest number of female elected representatives?

A. 107th (elected in 2000) B. 108th (elected in 2002) C. 110th (elected in 2006) D. 112th (elected in 2010) E. 113th (elected in 2012)

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55. (p. 116) Proponents of comparable worth policies argue that the gap between women's and men's average wages results from A. workers in jobs traditionally held by women being paid less than workers in jobs traditionally held by men, even if the skill sets and educational backgrounds required for the jobs are the same.

B. women traditionally working in jobs that require less skills and educational background than jobs traditionally held by men.

C. employers refusing to pay women the same wages for doing the same work as men.

D. the tendency of women to leave the workforce for extended periods to raise children.

E. the tendency of female college students to shun disciplines such as business and engineering which lead to high-paying jobs.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

56. (p. 117) Which of the following statements about current Supreme Court views on sexual harassment is LEAST accurate?

A. Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination prohibited by the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

B. Alleged victims of sexual harassment must demonstrate that their employers were aware of the harassment and did nothing to stop it.

C. In some instances, schools can be sued if school officials allow one student to harass another sexually.

D. Alleged victims of sexual harassment do not need to show severe psychological injury or demonstrate that the harassment prevented them from doing their job in order to win their case.

E. Employers can be held responsible for a supervisor's harassment of an employee, even if the harassment does no on-the-job harm.

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Essay Questions 57. Define civil rights. How do they differ from civil liberties? How are they best protected?

Is it possible for all people to enjoy civil rights equally, or do the civil rights of some groups necessarily infringe on the civil rights of others? Can persons from groups that have historically enjoyed positions of privilege be said to possess civil rights?

Answers will vary.

58. Discuss the African American civil rights movement. What was the legacy of oppression African Americans had to overcome? What were the tactics they employed to gain their civil rights? Which of those tactics proved most successful?

Answers will vary.

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59. Describe the impact of the African American civil rights movement on other oppressed groups. Which tactics developed by African Americans did members of these other groups adopt? Which tactics did they develop on their own? Which group has had the most success in bringing about legal changes to secure equal rights?

Answers will vary.

60. Describe the development of the modern women's rights movement. What are its historical precursors? What are its most pressing concerns today? What unique circumstances have women had to face in their struggle for equality?

Answers will vary.

61. Discuss the impact of the various civil rights movements. Have these movements succeeded in broadly expanding civil rights and equal opportunity? Does the struggle for civil rights need to progress further or has it already gone too far? Did the civil rights struggles bring the nation together or divide it into separate identity groups? Do measures designed to overcome historic discrimination become forms of "reverse discrimination"?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 05 - Civil Rights: Toward a More Equal Citizenry

62. Some call the struggle for equal rights for gays and lesbians the last major civil rights struggle for America. In what ways are gays and lesbians discriminated against? How has this discrimination been perpetuated? What is happening at the local, state, and national levels to combat this discrimination? What is the current extent of legal same-sex marriage in the United States?

Answers will vary.

63. Write an essay in which you critically examine the main arguments for and against affirmative action in higher education. What arguments can be made in favor of it? When does it become reverse discrimination, if ever?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

Chapter 06 Public Opinion

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 121) In the wake of the Sandy Hook Elementary School shooting, a bill in the Senate to require background checks before purchasing guns at gun shows or over the Internet A. did not have the support of the majority of the American people.

B. was strongly opposed by the National Rifle Association.

C. passed in the Senate, but was defeated in the House.

D. was opposed by all Republican senators.

E. was opposed by President Obama because it did not also ban assault weapons.

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2. (p. 122) In the year after the Sandy Hook Elementary School shooting, A. over 100 gun laws were passed around the country, most of which loosened restrictions.

B. over 100 gun laws were passed around the country, most of which tightened restrictions.

C. over 100 gun laws were passed around the country, about half of which loosened restrictions, while the other half tightened restrictions.

D. support for gun control was much stronger in the House than it was in the Senate.

E. Congress passed a law banning assault weapons and imposing universal background checks.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

3. (p. 123) Which of the following statements BEST captures the Framers' attitude towards public opinion?

A. Public opinion was the best guide to government policy.

B. Public opinion was potentially dangerous, but must not be ignored.

C. Government functioned best when its officials remained indifferent to public opinion.

D. Government functioned best when common people had a variety of means to express their political opinions directly and frequently.

E. Government functioned best when the common people combined in "factions" (or political parties) to lobby to put their public opinions into effect.

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4. (p. 124) Straw polls drew their information primarily from A. lists of experts, journalists, or subscribers to particular newspapers or consumer services.

B. politicians working at the local level in city precincts or districts.

C. individuals that considered themselves to be without strong political affiliation.

D. voters that had just left the ballot box.

E. members of specific racial or age groups.

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5. (p. 124) The key polling innovation introduced by George Gallup beginning in the 1930s and that was absent from the straw polls conducted by the Literary Digest in the 1920s was A. marketing research techniques.

B. wide sampling.

C. non-sampling census surveys.

D. geographical breadth.

E. asking questions of leading citizens.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

6. (p. 124) Over the course of the history of the American republic, political polling has grown more A. informal.

B. partisan.

C. scientific.

D. infrequent.

E. imprecise.

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7. (p. 124-125) Which of the following cases BEST exemplifies the political concept of a life cycle effect?

A. a generation that lived through a crippling depression exhibiting greater support for government intervention in the economy than their children, who lived in prosperous times B. a married couple that, after purchasing a house and giving birth to a child, begins to develop a more economically conservative viewpoint from what it had previously espoused C. an individual raised in a liberal household whose identification as a liberal increases steadily over time regardless of changes in personal circumstance D. recent college graduates whose political views are nearly identical to those of their parents E. a citizen raised as conservative whose political ideology is altered by a life-changing epiphany

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8. (p. 125) Which of the following examples BEST illustrates the political concept of a "cohort"?

A. small children mimicking the political beliefs of their parents B. voters supporting particular candidates on the basis of shared race or ethnicity C. the tendency of men, taken as a group, to hold different views from women on key issues D. young adults whose political beliefs have more in common with those of other people their own age than with those of their parents E. citizens who combine their efforts in order to pressure lawmakers into pursuing particular policies

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

9. (p. 125) Among the various agents of political socialization, which one usually has the MOST significant and lasting impact on individual citizens?

A. churches B. families C. peer groups D. the media E. schools

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10. (p. 125) When they become adults, children who were raised in politically active households A. tend to be indifferent to politics.

B. demonstrate roughly the same level of political activity as people in their age group who were raised in non-political households.

C. are usually more skeptical toward the claims of government officials than are other citizens.

D. are more likely to volunteer their time for political causes than are most other citizens.

E. are more apt to express disillusionment in the political process than are voters who have little exposure to political issues until young adulthood.

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11. (p. 125-126) Which of the following statements about the impact of education on American political beliefs is MOST accurate?

A. Although black high school dropouts tend to be highly skeptical of the government, black college graduates are more likely than their white counterparts to hold a positive view of politics.

B. By middle school, students in the United States tend to have been indoctrinated by their teachers with critical attitudes towards government and politics.

C. In general, the less formal education young Americans receive, the more likely they are to trust political leaders.

D. Race is less important than education in determining whether an individual's view of politics is positive or negative.

E. Generally speaking, the American education system is designed with the hope of enacting the nation's ideals of egalitarianism.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

12. (p. 126) Members of which of the following religious groups are MOST likely to vote for Republican candidates?

A. Jews B. Catholics C. Episcopalians D. Presbyterians E. Pentecostals

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13. (p. 126) Which of the following statements about religion and American politics is LEAST accurate?

A. Members of evangelical churches tend to vote for the Republican Party.

B. Persons who do not affiliate themselves with any church are more likely to identify themselves as Democrats than as Republicans.

C. With regard to race, churches are among the most highly integrated institutions in the country.

D. Compared to most of the rest of the Western world, the American people exhibit a strong degree of religious faith.

E. Jews and Latino Catholics generally throw their support behind the Democratic Party.

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14. (p. 126) Which of the following is LEAST likely to vote Democrat?

A. a Jew B. a black Protestant C. a mainline Protestant D. a Mormon E. an agnostic

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

15. (p. 126) Which of the following religious groups is MOST likely to vote for the Democratic Party?

A. Jews B. Episcopalians C. Presbyterians D. Seventh-Day Adventists E. Pentecostals

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16. (p. 127) Which of the following agents of political socialization generally have the least, or the least clear, influence on developing citizens' political views?

A. religious institutions and the media B. the media and voluntary organizations C. religious institutions and schools D. voluntary organizations and families E. the media and schools

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17. (p. 127) Which of the following statements about the relationship between media and political beliefs is MOST accurate?

A. The proliferation of media outlets on cable and the Internet has made voters less likely to rely primarily on news sources that reinforce their existing political beliefs.

B. Television entertainment and television news both tend to portray government and political officials in a negative light.

C. Research has shown that voters who get their news primarily from television are generally as well informed as those who regularly read newspapers.

D. Most political scientists agree that media coverage plays a decisive role in shaping and reshaping voters' political views.

E. There is little evidence to suggest that media portrayals of complicated issues such as politics and race have any impact on citizens' attitudes.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

18. (p. 128) The average African American voter would be LEAST likely to support which of the following measures?

A. lower taxes for wealthy people B. a national health care system C. government intervention to protect civil rights D. government aid to the poor E. race-based hiring quotas

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19. (p. 128) The "gender gap" in American politics was first noticed in A. the 1960 presidential election between John F. Kennedy and Richard Nixon.

B. the 1968 presidential election between Richard Nixon and Hubert Humphrey.

C. the 1980 presidential election between Ronald Reagan and Jimmy Carter.

D. the 1992 presidential election between Bill Clinton and George H. W. Bush.

E. the 2008 presidential election between Barack Obama and John McCain.

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20. (p. 129) On average, women are more likely to favor A. building more nuclear power plants B. the death penalty C. offshore drilling for oil D. more government spending on health care E. more permissive gun laws

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than men are.

Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

21. (p. 129) Generally speaking, female citizens A. have, since they were first guaranteed suffrage, shown markedly different voting patterns from their male counterparts.

B. participate more actively in political causes than men do.

C. are more likely to support the death penalty and other potential deterrents of crime.

D. back government-based social welfare programs more strongly than male citizens do.

E. tend to be most active in politics in states where there are few women in high government offices to protect their interests.

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22. (p. 129) Men are more likely than women to A. favor the death penalty for murderers.

B. support stricter gun control laws.

C. believe that the government should provide health care for the sick.

D. think the government should provide more services for citizens.

E. think the government spends too much money on the military.

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23. (p. 129) Women exhibit less interest in and engagement with politics than their male counterparts; the exception to this pattern occurs A. during elections that involve a war or foreign military engagement issue.

B. in states having a female U.S. senator or a female governor.

C. during elections that involve abortion.

D. in states of the northeast part of the country.

E. during presidential elections.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

24. (p. 129) Given the general trends of political views and geography, you would expect to find the highest percentage of conservative Republicans in which of the following states?

A. Colorado B. Oregon C. Pennsylvania D. Mississippi E. New York

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25. (p. 129) The citizens of which of the following states would be MOST likely to express strong admiration for American military leaders?

A. California B. Vermont C. Connecticut D. Michigan E. Georgia

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26. (p. 131) In studying the dimensions of public opinion, what does the term "direction" refer to?

A. the evolution of an individual's ideology over time B. the majority's change in ideological leaning over time C. an individual's preference with respect to a particular issue D. the degree to which a candidate's message can change an individual's issue opinion E. the degree to which an individual is willing to learn and accept new information on an issue about which the individual already has a strong opinion

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

27. (p. 131) In the field of political polling, the relative importance that an individual ascribes to a particular issue is known as A. direction.

B. salience.

C. intensity.

D. stability.

E. informational support.

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28. (p. 131) One would expect to find the lowest degree of stability in citizens' political views regarding which of the following issues?

A. the death penalty B. the role of religion in schools C. race-based quota systems D. foreign policy E. taxation

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29. (p. 131) At the onset of an electoral contest, a campaign usually checks the public's knowledge of its candidate by means of A. an exit poll.

B. a benchmark survey.

C. a trial heat survey.

D. a tracking poll.

E. a push poll.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

30. (p. 131) The most current information about candidates in an election is obtained from a(n) A. push poll.

B. sampling poll.

C. tracking poll.

D. benchmark survey.

E. trial heat survey.

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31. (p. 131) Which of the following tools is less a means of gauging public opinion than a negative campaigning technique?

A. deliberative polls B. straw polls C. trial heat surveys D. exit polls E. push polls

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32. (p. 131) Which of the following questions would be MOST indicative of a push poll?

A. "Do you agree with Candidate X's stance on abortion?"

B. "Are you familiar with Candidate X's voting record on support for Israel?"

C. "Do you plan to vote for Candidate X in the upcoming election?"

D. "What do you consider to be Candidate X's most attractive qualities?"

E. "Would you vote for Candidate X after learning that he'd engaged in an extramarital affair?"

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

33. (p. 132) In a national presidential preference poll, the sample is likely to include how many respondents?

A. between 1,000 and 1,200 B. between 10,000 and 12,000 C. up to 1,000 D. around 20,000 E. the average number of respondents will depend on the nature and intensity of the presidential contest

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34. (p. 132) Systematic sampling differs from simple random sampling in that it A. excludes the element of randomness from the polling process.

B. gives each American an equally likely chance of being interviewed.

C. combines random selections with predetermined sequencing.

D. interviews tens of thousands of respondents to eliminate bias.

E. incorporates probability sampling into its procedure.

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35. (p. 134) A growing number of people—especially young people—no longer have A. PDAs. B. computers.

C. landline phones.

D. cell phones.

E. MP3 players.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

36. (p. 135) Which of the following attributes correlates MOST strongly with political knowledge?

A. education B. age C. ethnicity D. wealth E. profession

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37. (p. 135) Which of the following statements about Americans' political knowledge is LEAST accurate?

A. Americans are best informed about issues in which they feel they have a high personal stake.

B. Older Americans tend to be more knowledgeable about politics than younger ones.

C. Most Americans have only limited knowledge about world affairs that do not affect their country directly.

D. Americans are more likely to be familiar with the functions of political offices than the names of the persons currently occupying those offices.

E. Over the past twenty years, Americans' political knowledge has evidenced a steep and troubling decline.

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38. (p. 136-137) Which of the following statements about trust and confidence among Americans is MOST accurate?

A. Young Americans show a stronger degree of trust in their fellow countrymen than any generation since the 1950s.

B. The current level of political cynicism in the United States is unique among industrialized nations.

C. In the 1980s and 1990s, American trust in government returned to its pre-1960s levels.

D. Declines in trust and confidence in government seem to have contributed to a decline in volunteerism.

E. While Americans have lost confidence in the Supreme Court and the presidency, their confidence in Congress has remained strong.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

39. (p. 136-137) Which of the following is true of the American decline in trust in government or trust in general?

A. The period following the 9/11 attacks brought about the greatest decline in trust in government in the past 50 years.

B. Trust in government rose slightly during the first decade of the twenty-first century, but rose sharply during the early years of the 2010s.

C. Declining trust in government cuts across all demographic groups and ages.

D. Declining trust in government is more pronounced in the younger generations than in older generations.

E. Younger generations are growing more trustful of other individuals in general.

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40. (p. 137) Overall, Americans A. have less confidence in Congress than they do in the presidency.

B. have less confidence in the Supreme Court than they do in Congress.

C. have more confidence in Congress than they do in the Supreme Court.

D. have about the same degree of confidence in all three branches of government.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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41. (p. 138-139) One would expect support for anti-pornography statutes to be strongest among A. conservatives and libertarians.

B. conservatives and populists.

C. conservatives and liberals.

D. liberals and libertarians.

E. libertarians and populists.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

42. (p. 138-139) Liberals and populists would MOST likely stand together in support of which of the following measures?

A. universal health care B. government recognition of gay unions C. stronger restrictions on gun ownership D. lower corporate taxes E. teaching "intelligent design" alongside evolution in public schools

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43. (p. 138-139) Conservative personalities are characterized by A. suspicion of out-groups (e.g. immigrants).

B. a preference for strong leadership.

C. a desire for clear moral and behavioral codes.

D. support for swift and severe punishment for violation of moral and behavioral codes.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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44. (p. 138-139) Liberal personalities are characterized by A. an inherently pessimistic view of human nature.

B. a desire for clear moral and behavioral codes.

C. an inherently optimistic view of human nature.

D. a preference for strong leadership.

E. suspicion of out-groups.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

45. (p. 138-139) Ideologically, a person who stresses economic liberty and progressive social views is considered to be a A. liberal.

B. conservative.

C. libertarian.

D. progressive.

E. populist.

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46. (p. 139) On average, the highest number of Americans are likely to identify themselves as A. liberal.

B. conservative.

C. libertarian.

D. progressive.

E. populist.

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47. (p. 139) Someone who favors more equality on economic issues, but holds traditional values, is termed a A. liberal.

B. conservative.

C. libertarian.

D. socialist.

E. populist.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

48. (p. 140) You are MOST likely to bump into a liberal on a street A. in an urban city in the West.

B. in a small town in the West.

C. in the suburb of a city in the Midwest.

D. in a small town in the South.

E. in a rural area in Mid-Atlantic states.

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49. (p. 141) Public opinion is A. often based on a high level of information.

B. sometimes prone to manipulation by political consultants who seek to frame issues in selfserving ways.

C. often based on a high level of understanding of the complexities of policy options.

D. often based on a high level of commitment to ideals of tolerance and fair play.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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50. (p. 141) Political scientists have generally come to believe what about the relationship between public opinion and public policy?

A. Public opinion favors pernicious policies, and so the best policy results when public opinion is ignored.

B. Over the last fifty years, the influence of public opinion on public policy has sharply declined.

C. Changes in public opinion usually result in corresponding changes in public policy.

D. Contrary to democratic rhetoric, the reality is that throughout U.S. history, minority interests have usually run roughshod over public opinion.

E. There is little discernible relationship between public policy and public opinion.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

51. (p. 142) A form of polling that includes discussions of a particular issue over several days and along with presentation of carefully balanced briefing materials is called A. exit polling.

B. deliberative polling.

C. tracking polling.

D. issue polling.

E. candidate polling.

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52. (p. 142) Proponents of the controversial new technique of deliberative polling contend that A. there is no "public," and so one cannot accurately gauge "public opinion."

B. citizens have the potential to be much better informed and insightful than they generally are.

C. pollsters should focus on shaping public opinion rather than simply gauging it.

D. public opinion should be the sole determinant of public policy.

E. pollsters should only concern themselves with the views of the majority in which political power in a democracy ultimately lies.

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Essay Questions 53. Identify the four most common political ideologies in the United States and describe the basic beliefs of each one. What sort of measures would subscribers to each ideology support and oppose? Are these ideologies internally consistent? When answering this question, consider also why so few Americans identify themselves as ideologues.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

54. The democratic ideal is that public opinion should shape government policy. What are the most effective means for determining public opinion on a given issue? What flaws are inherent in each method of determining public opinion?

Answers will vary.

55. In the United States, the "people" are supposed to rule. However, the "people" are divided into many different groups, based on religion, geography, gender, age, and so forth. To what degree do racial, ethnic, regional, and other identities shape and determine the political beliefs of individual Americans? In light of the many different types of Americans, is it useful to speak of a single American people?

Answers will vary.

56. Consider the various agents of political socialization that shape Americans' political views. Which of these agents has the most important and lasting influence? Considering the impact of these agents on individuals' beliefs, are citizens best viewed as independent rational actors, or as products of their circumstances? How effectively, in other words, can rational appeals affect citizens' political views?

Answers will vary.

57. Political scientists have determined that public opinion has a strong influence on public policy. In light of the extent of the average citizen's political knowledge, is this encouraging news? How much does the average citizen know about domestic policy and foreign affairs?

Which groups exhibit the highest degree of political knowledge? Should these groups have political power commensurate with their greater knowledge, or should American democratic politics retain an even playing field?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 06 - Public Opinion

58. What are the major agents of political socialization and how do they affect political views? Which one overall is most important? Why? Answers will vary.

59. What is required for a scientific poll? What are the factors that can skew a poll, even when the pollsters are trying to conduct it accurately?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

Chapter 07 Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 147) Around what date did the major barriers to voting, such as property ownership, race and gender, finally fall, allowing nearly all adult citizens to vote without fear or legal restriction?

A. 1789 B. 1828 C. 1860 D. 1965 E. 2008

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2. (p. 147) Which of the following instances BEST exemplifies the concept of BUYcotting?

A. withholding federal income taxes to protest an unpopular war B. demonstrating outside a local restaurant that hires illegal aliens paid "under the table" C. refusing to purchase items from a company that benefits from sweatshop labor D. forgoing commodities such as bananas and coffee that cannot be produced locally E. walking several blocks out of one's way, past several other eateries, to dine at a café that serves only eggs from free-range hens

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

3. (p. 148) According to the rational actor theory, A. calculating the costs of political participation is important, but calculating the benefits is not.

B. calculating the benefits of political participation is important, but calculating the costs is not.

C. a rational actor will not engage in any type of political participation.

D. a rational actor would likely decide not to vote in a presidential race.

E. a rational actor will do everything possible to counteract free riders.

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4. (p. 148) Which of the following instances BEST exemplifies the "free rider" problem?

A. unqualified candidates who are elected primarily because they share a ticket with a more prominent and popular candidate B. incumbent political officials who exploit the privileges of their office to give themselves an advantage over their rivals C. citizens who enjoy the benefits of a democratic system without actively participating in the democratic process D. prominent citizens who use their political connections to lobby for legislation that benefits them personally E. advocacy groups that pursue political goals through traditionally non-political means

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5. (p. 149) Which of the following acts is generally the LEAST effective means by which individual citizens can make their political views apparent to political officials?

A. voting B. volunteering for an electoral campaign C. contributing money to a candidate D. participating in a political protest E. writing a letter to an elected official

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

6. (p. 149) Which of the following political activities has the highest capacity for a citizen to convey political information?

A. voting B. serving on a local board C. contributing money to a political campaign D. contributing money to a political cause E. affiliating with a political organization

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7. (p. 149) Which type of political participation is MOST likely to get the attention of a politician?

A. liking a post on the politician's Facebook page B. voting for the politician C. a letter to the editor about the politician D. a letter written directly to the politician E. a large campaign contribution to the politician

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8. (p. 149-150) What are the three conditions necessary for political participation?

A. resources to participate, interest in the political process, and membership in a party B. interest in the political process, having been asked to participate, and membership in a party C. membership in a party, resources to participate, and having been asked to participate D. resources to participate, interest in the political process, and having been asked to participate E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

9. (p. 150) Which of the following political activities requires access to the most varying types of resources (i.e., time, money, skills)?

A. voting B. campaign work C. protesting D. contributing to a political cause E. affiliating with a political organization

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10. (p. 151) Which of the following qualities is the best predictor of political participation?

A. religion B. economic status C. race D. education E. gender

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11. (p. 151) Considering that places of worship can enhance civic skills, which of the following might explain why Hispanics, who generally attend Catholic congregations, are less active in civic life than are African American Protestants of similar economic means?

A. Catholic institutions attract less direct donations and thus are less able to invest in political activities.

B. Catholic institutions offer less chance for their members to occupy leadership positions.

C. Catholic doctrine is less amenable to participation in secular political initiatives than are Protestant organizations.

D. Catholic groups of worship tend to be smaller, offering members less chances to socialize and learn civic skills or a sense of duty.

E. Protestant religious institutions are typically more connected to the community and more involved in local political issues.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

12. (p. 151) Which of the following statements about race and political participation is MOST accurate?

A. There is no significant correlation between race and political participation.

B. Education has no discernible impact on narrowing the gaps among members of different racial groups.

C. White and Hispanic citizens both generally participate at higher levels than black citizens.

D. Black and white citizens both generally participate at higher levels than Hispanic citizens.

E. Hispanic and black citizens generally participate at the same level, which is notably less than white citizens.

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13. (p. 151) Which of the following is true regarding trends in political participation?

A. Women now vote at higher levels than men.

B. Men contribute significantly less money to political leaders than women.

C. Men contact political leaders less often than women.

D. Men contact political leaders less often than women, but women now vote at higher levels than men.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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14. (p. 151) In today's political climate, women are more likely than men to A. run a political campaign.

B. vote.

C. contact political leaders.

D. contribute to political causes.

E. hold political office.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

15. (p. 152) Across most types of political activity, participation rates by Hispanics A. are higher than blacks, but lower than whites.

B. are higher than both blacks and whites.

C. are higher than whites, but lower than blacks.

D. are lower than both blacks and whites.

E. are essentially the same as both blacks and whites.

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16. (p. 152) Psychological predisposition toward or interest in politics defines A. internal political efficacy.

B. external political efficacy.

C. political information.

D. political engagement.

E. political interest.

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17. (p. 152) Cross-cultural studies show that political engagement is impacted by A. the time of year an election is held.

B. the overall level of income inequality.

C. a voter's astrological sign.

D. the number of candidates in the election.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

18. (p. 152) is an attribute of political participants that is measured by one's concern for an election outcome and the positions of the candidates on the issues.

A. Internal political efficacy B. External political efficacy C. Political information D. Political engagement E. Political interest

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19. (p. 152) is an individual's confidence in his or her ability to understand and participate in politics.

A. Internal political efficacy B. External political efficacy C. Political information D. Political engagement E. Political interest

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20. (p. 152) is an individual's belief that his or her activities will influence what the government will do or who will win an election.

A. Internal political efficacy B. External political efficacy C. Political information D. Political engagement E. Political interest

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

21. (p. 152) What are the four dimensions or elements of political engagement?

A. political efficacy, political mobilization, political information, and strength of party identification B. direct mobilization, political mobilization, political interest, and political information C. political interest, political efficacy, political information, and strength of party identification D. political mobilization, political interest, political efficacy, and political information E. direct mobilization, political mobilization, political interest, and political efficacy

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22. (p. 152) The political knowledge an individual possesses concerning political issues, political figures, and the workings of the political system is known as A. internal political efficacy.

B. external political efficacy.

C. political information.

D. political engagement.

E. political interest.

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23. (p. 152) The degree of loyalty that an individual feels toward a particular political party is A. known as party politics.

B. directly inverse to the individual's education level.

C. known as external political imprinting.

D. known as strength of party identification.

E. known as political efficacy.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

24. (p. 153) What is the MOST common reason given for not getting involved in politics?

A. belief that individuals cannot make a difference B. boringness of politics C. distastefulness of politics D. not enough time E. belief that politics has no direct impact on an individual's life

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25. (p. 153) is the process whereby citizens are alerted to participatory opportunities and encouraged to become involved.

A. List server notification B. A call-to-arms C. Direct mobilization D. Voter rallying E. Political mobilization

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26. (p. 153) The process by which citizens are contacted personally to take part in political activities is known as A. getting out the vote.

B. direct mobilization.

C. energizing the base.

D. canvassing.

E. political solicitation.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

27. (p. 153) Examples of direct mobilization include all of the following EXCEPT A. displaying yard signs.

B. door-to-door canvassing.

C. direct mail solicitation.

D. circulation of petitions.

E. letter-writing campaigns.

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28. (p. 153) The traditional role of the political parties in mobilizing voters has been MOST adversely impacted by A. the rise of the mass media.

B. special interest groups.

C. social movements.

D. third parties.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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29. (p. 154) Voter turnout in America peaked during the heyday of political parties at the turn of the twentieth century. During this period, turnout was as high as percent.

A. 55 B. 77 C. 59 D. 60 E. 80

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

30. (p. 154) Many scholars believe that declining voter turnout can be attributed to the loss of A. media contact with the public.

B. confidence in the electoral college.

C. personal contact in voter mobilization.

D. both media contact with the public and personal contact in voter mobilization.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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31. (p. 154) is the process by which political leaders use networks of friends and acquaintances to activate political participation.

A. Bundling B. The "old boys" network C. Indirect mobilization D. Support group activation E. Direct mobilization

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32. (p. 155) Which of the following is MOST likely to vote?

A. Asian female B. black female C. white male D. black male E. Asian male

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

33. (p. 155) Which of the following is LEAST likely to vote?

A. Asian male B. black male C. Hispanic female D. Asian female E. black female

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34. (p. 155) A person in which of the following education categories is MOST likely to vote?

A. a person with an 8th-grade education B. a person with a high school diploma C. a person with an associate's degree D. a person with a bachelor's degree E. a person with an advanced degree

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35. (p. 155) A person in which of the following education categories is LEAST likely to vote?

A. a person with an 8th-grade education B. a person with a high school diploma C. a person with an associate's degree D. a person with a bachelor's degree E. a person with an advanced degree

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36. (p. 155) Which region of the United States typically has the highest rate of voter turnout?

A. Northeast B. West C. South D. Midwest E. All regions have about the same rate of voter turnout.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

37. (p. 155) At which of the following ages is a person MOST likely to vote?

A. 18 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35 E. 48

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38. (p. 156) Of the following, which is the second-most-common type of political engagement?

A. contacting a public official B. volunteering C. signing a petition D. voting E. boycotting

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39. (p. 157) In which of the following presidential elections was voter turnout HIGHEST? A. 1988 B. 1996 C. 2000 D. 2008 E. 2012

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40. (p. 157) It would likely be easiest for people to vote on which one of the following days?

A. a national voting holiday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Wednesday E. Thursday

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

41. (p. 157) Which of the following Western European countries has had a lower average turnout in national elections than the United States since 1945?

A. Ireland B. Iceland C. Spain D. All of these countries have had lower average turnouts than the United States.

E. None of these countries has had lower average turnouts than the United States.

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42. (p. 158) Which of the following is a key difference between Britain's Labour Party and the Democratic Party of the United States?

A. The Labour Party has no chief organized opposition, while the Democratic Party must compete directly with the Republican Party.

B. The Labour Party derives its success principally from mandatory voting, while the Democratic Party must appeal directly to voters in order to encourage active support.

C. The Labour party is identified with the working class, while the Democratic Party seeks to appeal to the vast middle of the economic and ideological spectrum.

D. The Labour Party is a minor party that must form a coalition with a larger British party, while the Democratic Party is one of the dominant parties of a two-party system.

E. Both the Democratic and Labour parties try to target working-class voters specifically, but the Labour Party takes much more extreme ideological stands.

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43. (p. 158) Frequent elections can result in A. higher voter turnout.

B. more highly trained poll workers.

C. lower use of "franking privileges" by congressional representatives.

D. lower voter turnout.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

44. (p. 158) A contributing factor in lower voter turnout in the United States may be the number of opportunities to vote, a phenomenon known as A. voter apathy.

B. over-voter syndrome.

C. ballot burnout.

D. voter fatigue.

E. poll pallor.

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45. (p. 159) A person with this characteristic is more likely to vote Democrat than Republican: A. attends church regularly.

B. lower income level.

C. white male.

D. married female.

E. high income level.

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46. (p. 159) In the United States, which of the following forms of unconventional political participation increased the MOST in the last quarter of the twentieth century?

A. occupation B. strike C. petition D. boycott E. demonstration

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

47. (p. 159) In the United States, which of the following forms of unconventional political participation increased the LEAST in the last quarter of the twentieth century?

A. occupation B. strike C. petition D. boycott E. demonstration

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48. (p. 160) In the 2012 presidential election, independent voters A. gave more support to Mitt Romney than to Barack Obama.

B. gave more support to Barack Obama than to Mitt Romney.

C. gave about equal support to Mitt Romney and Barack Obama.

D. supported third-party candidates, primarily Gary Johnson of the Libertarian Party.

E. mostly chose not to participate in the election.

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49. (p. 160) Since the early 1990s A. the Republicans have had the overall edge in party identification.

B. the Democrats have had the overall edge in party identification.

C. party identification has been essentially equal for the two parties.

D. the edge in party identification has seesawed back and forth between the two main parties on an annual basis.

E. party identification measurements have been unreliable.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

50. (p. 160) Candidates' views on the issues are MOST important in determining voting choice for this type of voter: A. strongly committed Republican.

B. moderately committed Republican.

C. independent.

D. strongly committed Democrat.

E. moderately committed Democrat.

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51. (p. 160) A voter who gauges a candidate based on her or his past performance is engaging in A. retrospective voting.

B. prospective voting.

C. fatigued voting.

D. party identification voting.

E. irrational voting.

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52. (p. 161) Which issue was MOST important to voters in 2012?

A. education B. federal deficit C. economy D. immigration E. terrorism and national security

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

53. (p. 163-164) In addition to education, another path to gain the skills needed to become politically active is A. through activities in a labor union.

B. participation in leadership roles in one's church.

C. family wealth.

D. All of these are correct: activities in a labor union, participation in church leadership roles, and family wealth.

E. None of these is correct.

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54. (p. 164) In 2008, the Obama campaign demonstrated that large amounts of money could be raised through A. public financing.

B. campaign fundraising events.

C. the use of the Internet.

D. campaign mailings.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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55. (p. 165) The Supreme Court's 2010 Citizens United and SpeechNow.org v FEC rulings A. greatly expanded the ability of money to influence elections.

B. put strict caps on individual campaign contributions.

C. put strict caps on corporate campaign contributions.

D. require public funding of all federal elections.

E. outlawed political action committees.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

56. (p. 165) The practice of making a political or social statement with one's buying power is known as A. checkbook democracy.

B. consumer activism.

C. direct mobilization.

D. indirect mobilization.

E. political engagement.

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57. (p. 166) Which group is far less likely to write letters, take part in community activities, contact political leaders, protest, or contribute time or money to a political campaign?

A. blue collar non-union workers B. college students C. military veterans D. those on government assistance E. unskilled minimum wage workers

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58. (p. 167) What did Larry Bartels find in a study of Senate roll call votes?

A. Senators are much more responsive to the opinions of affluent constituents.

B. Senators seem to be most responsive to the opinions of middle-class constituents.

C. Senators on the whole display a remarkable lack of interest in public opinion as a driver of their voting policy choices.

D. Senators' voting patterns most strongly correlate with the choices of the president in office.

E. Senators make voting choices primarily based on the opinions of the economic or ethnic class that is most populous in their state.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

59. (p. 167) Voter fraud in the United States is A. on par with the amount of voter fraud in other developed nations.

B. believed by most to be negligible.

C. rampant among the states where "machine politics" is still strong.

D. not a concern where voter ID laws have been strengthened in recent years.

E. only a problem concerning provisional ballots.

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60. (p. 168) The vastly higher voting rates for citizens of Australia, Belgium, and Greece versus the United States can be attributed in large part to what factor?

A. better education B. long traditions of democratic governance C. compulsory voting laws D. an older and thus more duty-bound citizenship E. the lack of voter registration requirements

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Essay Questions 61. Rational actor theory states that actions taken by the individual will be in his or her selfinterest, yet voting has the lowest direct benefit of all political activities. What are some of the reasons that individuals vote? Why do some individuals find voting so satisfying? Do you find it satisfying yourself?

Answers will vary.

62. There are forms of political participation other than voting. What are they? How do they differ from voting? Which activity do you believe has the greatest impact for the individual's time, effort, or money? Should there be limits on an individual's contributions to these other forms of political participation, and why?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 07 - Political Participation: Equal Opportunities and Unequal Voices

63. Voting is a hallmark of a democratic society, yet not everyone votes. Which groups are most likely to vote? Which groups are least likely? Some industrial democracies have mandatory voting laws. Is this a good idea? How might one reconcile mandatory voting and a free society? Would mandatory voting work in the United States?

Answers will vary.

64. Education is the most important factor in predicting a person's tendency toward being politically active. What other paths are there to political involvement? Are they equally available to both the working class and the affluent? How might society encourage those groups that are less politically inclined to commit to greater activity?

Answers will vary.

65. Free riders receive the benefits of a politically active and vibrant society, yet they do not contribute. Do you believe free riders are a problem? If so, in what ways? What social strategies might be employed to encourage active participation and discourage free riders?

Answers will vary.

66. What strategies have been taken to reduce voter turnout? Which segments of the population are the primary targets of these strategies? Are these strategies democratic?

Answers will vary.

67. What are the various factors that influence how a voter will vote?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

Chapter 08 Interest Groups in America

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 172) Which of the following groups has the MOST favorable view of the National Rifle Association?

A. Democrats B. Independents C. Republicans D. people with guns in the home E. people with no guns in the home

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2. (p. 173) In the wake of the December 2012 shootings at Sandy Hook Elementary School that killed 26 people, President Obama put forth relatively modest gun control proposals. The National Rifle Association A. gave the proposals strong support.

B. gave the proposals lukewarm support.

C. took no position on the proposals.

D. expressed mild opposition to the proposals.

E. fought vehemently against the proposals.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

3. (p. 173) A(n) is any formally organized association that seeks to influence public policy in a specific policy area.

A. political party B. interest group C. political movement D. fraternity E. None of these answers is correct.

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4. (p. 173) Interest groups may include A. corporations.

B. labor unions.

C. civil rights groups.

D. professional and trade associations.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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5. (p. 173-174) In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that A. the power of interest groups should be diluted by submerging their interests in a sea of competing interests.

B. a system of government must encourage the participation of interest groups in order to give each segment of society an equal voice.

C. interest groups were valuable as long as they were few and powerful.

D. interest groups threatened a free society and so should be made illegal to prevent them from forming.

E. interest groups were a threat to democracy because the majority should rule in all matters.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

6. (p. 174) The primary distinction between an interest group and a political movement is that A. an interest group concerns itself with only a small segment of society, while a political movement looks to improve everyone's condition.

B. interest groups are more focused on specific policy goals than political movements are.

C. interest groups have broader and more numerous support than political movements.

D. interest groups consist of formal organizations, whereas political movements consist solely of spontaneous gatherings.

E. interest groups focus solely on influencing politicians, whereas political movements focus solely on changing social norms.

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7. (p. 174) Public interest groups are distinguished from other interest groups by A. their large bases of support.

B. their narrow policy goals.

C. advocating positions they believe are for the good of all Americans.

D. their ideological bents.

E. the fact that they clearly speak for the majority of the American people.

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8. (p. 174) Which of the following statements about interest groups is LEAST accurate?

A. While many interest groups pursue economic gains, a large number pursue more ideological ends.

B. Some interest groups represent organizations rather than individual citizens.

C. Interest groups have declined in size and influence in conjunction with the general decline in political participation.

D. The well-to-do and well-educated are better represented in interest groups than are the poor and needy.

E. Membership in interest groups tends to compound the political power of already influential groups rather than to give voice to the disenfranchised.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

9. (p. 175) Which of the following statements about the history of interest groups in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. Although nineteenth-century women participated in campaigns for moral reform, they did not pursue a greater political role.

B. Before the Civil War, abolitionists created societies intended to pressure the government into adopting antislavery legislation.

C. The creation of a national railroad system went hand-in-hand with the emergence of lobbyists seeking government perks and favorable legislation.

D. In the late nineteenth century, many farmers reacted against economic change by joining interest groups such as the Grange.

E. The power and prominence of interest groups developed partly in response to the declining organizational strength of traditional political parties.

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10. (p. 175) The Bonus Army that marched on Washington to demand benefits from the federal government consisted primarily of veterans of A. the Civil War. B. World War I. C. World War II. D. the Korean War. E. the Vietnam War.

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11. (p. 175) The 1950s and 1960s witnessed an explosion in A. advocacy groups.

B. trade associations.

C. business groups.

D. education groups.

E. labor unions.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

12. (p. 175-176) What is the primary distinction between advocacy groups and other interest groups?

A. Advocacy groups are more focused on specific policy goals.

B. Advocacy groups are much more dependent on grass-roots mobilization.

C. Advocacy groups pursue broad policy goals but rely much less on local chapters and formal membership, if they have them at all.

D. Advocacy groups give citizens far more opportunities to participate actively, beyond simply writing a check to an interest group that they support.

E. Advocacy groups depend on broad participation to set agendas and formulate strategies.

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13. (p. 177) What is the single largest sector of the interest group community?

A. education B. labor C. business associations D. professional associations E. single-issue groups

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14. (p. 178) Which of the following types of interest groups currently spends the LEAST amount of money on lobbying expenses?

A. business groups B. trade associations C. unions D. citizens groups E. professional associations

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

15. (p. 178) Which of the following types of interest groups currently has the greatest number of direct lobbyists?

A. business groups B. trade associations C. unions D. citizens groups E. professional associations

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16. (p. 178) Which of the following types of interest groups currently spends the greatest amount of money on lobbying expenses?

A. business groups B. trade associations C. unions D. citizens groups E. professional associations

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17. (p. 179) Persons who join an interest group because it promises to offer them discounts on certain services are responding to A. monetary incentives.

B. social incentives.

C. relegated incentives.

D. fixed incentives.

E. idealist incentives.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

18. (p. 180) Persons who join an interest group out of a need for a sense of belonging are responding to A. monetary incentives.

B. social incentives.

C. relegated incentives.

D. fixed incentives.

E. idealist incentives.

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19. (p. 180) Persons who join an interest group because they have an earnest desire to change the world for the better are responding to A. monetary incentives.

B. social incentives.

C. relegated incentives.

D. fixed incentives.

E. idealist incentives.

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20. (p. 180) According to most interest-group leaders, which type of incentive draws in the MOST members?

A. monetary B. social C. relegated D. fixed E. idealist

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

21. (p. 180) What is the primary difference between strategies and tactics?

A. Strategies focus solely on politics, while tactics embrace society as well.

B. Whereas strategies can be either inside or outside, tactics can only be inside.

C. Strategies are overall goals, and tactics are the means used to accomplish those goals.

D. Strategies are available to any movement, whereas only interest groups can employ tactics.

E. Strategies are employed by flexible pragmatists, whereas tactics are used by rigid ideological groups.

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22. (p. 180) Which of the following tactics is an inside strategy?

A. mailing flyers to a targeted segment of the local population B. writing a letter to the editor of the local newspaper C. orchestrating a protest outside a government building D. meeting with a congressional staffer E. organizing a sit-in inside a government building

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23. (p. 181) Generally speaking, small interest groups have what kind of advantage over larger ones?

A. intensity and cohesiveness B. prestige C. political clout D. geographical distribution E. financial resources

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

24. (p. 182) Of the following, which type of person is MOST likely to be successful as a lobbyist?

A. A former government worker B. An average citizen C. A lawyer D. A grassroots activist E. A person with a lot of free time

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25. (p. 182) Which interest group was MOST instrumental in defeating President Truman's national health insurance proposal in the late 1940s?

A. National Rifle Association B. American Medical Association C. John Birch Society D. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People E. Americans for Democratic Action

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26. (p. 182) Which of the following statements about lobbyists is LEAST accurate?

A. Increasingly, lobbyists are paid professionals who hire out their services.

B. For lobbyists, personal connections are extremely valuable.

C. Many congressional staffers leave their positions to become lobbyists.

D. There are no rules limiting former Congress-members' ability to lobby, as long as the members have formally resigned their posts.

E. The relationship between the government and lobbying interest groups has been described as a revolving door because of the interdependence that has developed between them.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

27. (p. 182) In which of the following years was the number of people lobbying the national government the highest?

A. 1998 B. 2002 C. 2007 D. 2011 E. 2013

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28. (p. 183) Which of the following statements about the relationship between lobbyists and members of Congress is LEAST accurate?

A. Lobbyists can provide lawmakers with valuable information about the lawmakers' constituencies.

B. Lobbyists are likely to possess more technical expertise on a given issue than members of Congress.

C. Since lawmakers rely so heavily on lobbyists, lobbyists have found it easy to lie to get their way.

D. Lobbyists sometimes directly assist in drafting legislation.

E. Lobbyists can offer lawmakers electoral support in return for favorable consideration.

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29. (p. 183) A skillful lobbyist would abide by all of the following guidelines EXCEPT A. work primarily with one's allies.

B. recognize that measures are easier to defeat than to pass.

C. cultivate key committee members.

D. seek out and win over ideological opponents.

E. avoid conflicts on big issues and concentrate instead on writing the details to one's advantage.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

30. (p. 185) Which of the following statements about "iron triangles," such as the militaryindustrial complex, is LEAST accurate?

A. In recent decades their influence has increased because the power of advocacy groups has declined.

B. They typically consist of united private interests, executive agencies, and congressional committees.

C. They help federal agencies get their proposed policies passed.

D. They make it easier for private interests to win lucrative government contracts.

E. They help members of Congress retain their seats.

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31. (p. 185) Which of the following statements about issue networks is LEAST accurate?

A. They typically consist of private interests, members of Congress, and federal bureaucrats.

B. They place a significant degree of influence over legislation in the hands of nonelected persons.

C. They create permanent alliances based on the exchange of mutual benefits.

D. They are linked by shared expertise in a given area.

E. It is fairly common in Washington today for issue networks to dominate policy in a given area.

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32. (p. 185-186) Which of the following statements about congressional reactions to contacts between members of Congress and lobbyists is LEAST accurate?

A. Starting in 1946, lobbyists had to register with congressional officials.

B. In 2007, Congress passed an act effectively closing loopholes and leveling access to members of Congress.

C. A rash of scandals in the early twenty-first century contributed to congressional efforts to curb the influence of lobbyists.

D. Members of Congress can no longer accept outright gifts, meals, or trips from lobbyists.

E. Congress has imposed new rules that make it more difficult for members to insert earmarks anonymously.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

33. (p. 187) In the case of Buckley v. Valeo, interest groups argued that the rights to spend money on political contributions and expenditures A. were a protected form of free speech.

B. needed to be regulated to ensure a more level playing field.

C. would be more safely guaranteed if campaigns were funded through public monies.

D. posed a threat to the sanctity of a democracy if taken to excess.

E. were sanctioned by long political custom, even if they were not protected by the Constitution.

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34. (p. 187) Which of the following statements about PACs is LEAST accurate?

A. The primary function of PACs is to collect money for political candidates.

B. Interest-group members and lobbyists can contribute individually to a candidate and again to PACs that support the candidate.

C. PACs are not the exclusive reserve of one type of interest, but are employed by a variety of different groups.

D. PACs are not allowed to give money to other PACs. E. The amount of money that PACs can give to candidates is strictly limited.

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35. (p. 187) Of the following entities, which two are barred from making contributions to federal candidates?

A. super PACs and 527s B. traditional PACs and 501(c) entities C. candidate committees and traditional PACs D. party committees and super PACs E. super PACs and traditional PACs

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

36. (p. 187) How much money can a traditional PAC contribute to a federal candidate, per election?

A. $2,000 B. $5,000 C. $32,400 D. $100,000 E. unlimited

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37. (p. 188) The combined result of the 2010 Citizens United and Speechnow.org decisions is that super PACs A. must be treated the exact same as traditional PACs. B. are constitutional, but 527s are not.

C. can accept unlimited contributions and make unlimited expenditures in federal elections.

D. can accept unlimited contributions but can make only limited expenditures in federal elections.

E. can accept contributions no higher than $2000 per candidate per election, but can spend as much as they want on any federal race.

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38. (p. 188) This candidate for the 2012 Republican presidential nomination had the greatest reliance on megadonors: A. Rick Perry.

B. Newt Gingrich.

C. Herman Cain.

D. Mitt Romney.

E. Jon Huntsman.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

39. (p. 188) The 2010 Citizens United and Speechnow.org decisions had the GREATEST impact on A. candidates who want to spend their own money in their campaigns.

B. party committees.

C. candidate committees.

D. traditional PACs. E. super PACs.

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40. (p. 188-189) In its ability to spend vast sums of unregulated money, a super PAC has the MOST in common with a A. candidate committee.

B. party committee.

C. traditional PAC. D. 501(c).

E. 527.

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41. (p. 189) Which of the following statements about the partisan leanings of various PACs is LEAST accurate?

A. Labor PACs tend to favor the Democratic Party.

B. Energy PACs tend to favor the Republican Party.

C. Pharmaceutical PACs tend to favor the Republican Party.

D. Trial lawyer PACs tend to favor the Democratic Party.

E. Most influential PACs court support by giving exclusively to one party.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

42. (p. 189) Which of the following types of interest groups is more likely to give to the Republican Party than to Democrats?

A. energy groups B. communications and electronics groups C. lawyers and lobbyists D. labor groups E. ideology and single interest groups

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43. (p. 189) The MOST salient features distinguishing 527 groups from PACs is that the former are A. tax-exempt and largely unregulated.

B. ideological, not political.

C. formed by advocacy groups, not interest groups.

D. nonpartisan, and contribute funds equally to all candidates.

E. not allowed to engage in partisan advertising.

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44. (p. 190) Which of the following examples BEST illustrates the principle of political disadvantage theory?

A. Small interest groups cannot affect policy because they cannot gain direct access to members of Congress.

B. Unpopular industries, unable to sway public opinion, try to win concessions through the courts.

C. Although attacking lobbyists and interest groups makes for a good stump speech, lawmakers who try to function without those groups find they can get little done.

D. As the power of a few interest groups increases, it will become increasingly difficult for new interest groups to gain influence in Congress.

E. If interest groups contribute money to both parties, their influence with the winning side declines, but if they contribute to only one party, their access might be closed completely.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

45. (p. 190) Which of the following statements about interest group litigation is LEAST accurate?

A. Litigation is a means by which groups with little public support can advance their interests.

B. Oftentimes, important cases do not arise spontaneously, but are rather test cases, brought by interest groups trying to establish new precedents.

C. Litigation was an essential component of the early civil rights movement in the 1950s.

D. Litigation is relatively inexpensive, and so it is a favored tactic of small groups with few resources.

E. Sometimes, instead of filing suit themselves, interest groups will issue amicus curiae briefs in favor of another party engaged in a dispute.

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46. (p. 190) What did a survey by the Congressional Management Foundation find about individuals' contact with their House members or senators in the previous five years?

A. About half of those that contacted lawmakers had been prompted to do so by a third party.

B. The vast majority of those that contacted lawmakers had been prompted to do so by a third party, mostly PACs, and through direct contact from major parties.

C. Only about a quarter of Americans had been in contact with their House members or senators.

D. About half of those that contacted lawmakers did so through personal choice, without any prompting.

E. The vast majority of those that contacted lawmakers had been prompted to do so by a third party, mostly lobbying and advocacy groups.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

47. (p. 190-191) Which of the following statements about grassroots mobilization is LEAST accurate?

A. Interest groups have a vested interest in demonstrating that they represent a large, widespread base.

B. Interest groups sometimes engage in astroturf lobbying, using deceitful practices to rally widespread support behind policies that benefit only a small section of society.

C. Interest groups sometimes rely on mobilizing the grass tops, focusing on the most influential members of a community.

D. Many interest groups build grassroots support by providing citizens with "scorecards" outlining how candidates have voted on key issues in the past.

E. Grassroots mobilization helps an interest group create the illusion of public backing, but this can rarely be translated into true political influence over elected officials.

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48. (p. 190-191) If a public relations firm "mobilizes the grass tops," it is A. conducting a particularly shallow grassroots campaign that focuses on the most politically active citizens.

B. attempting to build up support only on the national level.

C. mining databases for high-status community leaders to contact legislators in key districts.

D. engaging in lobbying only for issues that are already widely popular on a national level.

E. attempting to influence only local races in hopes of effecting change that will "trickle up."

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49. (p. 191) Which of the following is a characteristic of astroturf lobbying?

A. lobbying for a set of unidentified interests B. intense transparency C. lobbying exclusively for corporate interests D. lobbying to executive officials instead of members of Congress E. wide grassroots cultivation

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50. (p. 192-193) Which of the following statements about interest group coalitions is LEAST accurate?

A. Coalitions expand individual interest groups' access to resources.

B. Coalitions allow individual interest groups to enhance their visibility.

C. Because interest groups are driven purely by ideology, they never form coalitions with groups whose views are not the same as their own.

D. Government officials often prefer to work with coalitions because they show the possibilities for consensus on a given policy.

E. Entering into a coalition may require interest groups to abandon or deemphasize certain parts of their agendas in order to retain the support of their coalition members.

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51. (p. 193) Americans for Democratic Action (ADA) rates members of the House and Senate based on their voting records and how they agree with the group's agenda. This rating system is known as A. "heroes and zeros."

B. "winners and losers."

C. "good and bad."

D. "up and down."

E. "angels and devils."

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

52. (p. 193) Which of the following statements about political protests in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. Although it is protected by the First Amendment, many Americans view protests as outside the political mainstream.

B. Political protests are generally used by groups who are largely shut out of the main centers of powers.

C. Protests sometimes entail risks such as injury, loss of freedom, and potentially even loss of life.

D. Since the wealthy and well-educated have other avenues of political participation, involvement in political protests consists disproportionately of poor citizens with few other options.

E. Protests usually arise in response to issues that arouse a great deal of emotion.

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53. (p. 193-195) Which of the following trends is NOT visible in interest group activity today?

A. Interest groups rely on skilled professionals to make their case before government officials.

B. Many interest groups decide their agenda on a national level, and ask members only for contributions.

C. Global issues are posing new threats that may change the nature of interest group activities.

D. Whereas interest groups were once controlled by the elite of society, the membership and goals of interest groups has expanded to consist predominantly of lower-class citizens.

E. Interest groups provide citizens with an accessible means of political participation that allows them to advance their views without great sacrifices of time.

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Essay Questions 54. Discuss the role of interest groups in American politics. What are their defining characteristics? What are the major types of interest groups? What purposes do they serve?

Whose interests do they best represent? Are they beneficial to American society, or do they allow factions to pursue their own interests at the expense of the common good?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 08 - Interest Groups in America

55. Discuss the history of voluntary associations in the United States. How widespread have interest groups been? What events and developments have led to their formation? When has their influence been strongest, and when has it waned? Are interest groups more or less prevalent today than they have been in the past?

Answers will vary.

56. Explain why people join interest groups. What incentives encourage participation? Which of these incentives are most important? Which interest groups have been able to wield these incentives to elicit the most support, in either numbers or resources? Are the interest groups with the most numbers also the ones with the most money, or is there a notable discrepancy between these figures?

Answers will vary.

57. Describe lobbying as a political tactic. What resources must lobbyists wield to be effective? How do they build and maintain access to government officials? How has Congress tried to regulate lobbyists' activities, and how successful have those measures been? Do lobbyists have too much influence over policy formation, or do they provide a necessary function the government cannot do without?

Answers will vary.

58. Discuss how interest groups build support for favored candidates. What organizations are they allowed to create in order to influence elections? What limits have Congress and the courts placed on these organizations? Are these limits effective? Should there be limitations on how much money individuals and groups can donate to a cause, or do such caps violate First Amendment rights?

Answers will vary.

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59. Why did the Citizens United and Speechnow.org decisions drastically change the nature of expenditures to affect the outcomes of federal election campaigns? First address what the decisions legalized. Then examine how the decisions led to the ascent of super PACs. Finally, discuss the impact of super PAC spending in the 2012 presidential election and what the rise of the super PAC means for democracy in the United States.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 09 Parties and Political Campaigns

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 197) In the 2012 presidential election, Barack Obama A. won convincingly in both the Electoral College vote and the popular vote.

B. won the Electoral College vote convincingly, but just barely won the popular vote.

C. won the Electoral College vote convincingly, but lost the popular vote.

D. just barely won the Electoral College vote, but convincingly won the popular vote.

E. just barely won both the Electoral College vote and the popular vote.

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2. (p. 198) In the 2012 presidential election, Barack Obama won all of the following groups, EXCEPT A. voters under 30.

B. women.

C. people without a college education.

D. people with advanced degrees.

E. Hispanics.

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3. (p. 198) After the Democratic Party lost five six presidential elections between 1968 and 1988, it decided to A. nominate only southern white males as presidential candidates.

B. move ideologically more toward the center.

C. place greater emphasis on its support for unions.

D. place greater emphasis on promoting equality.

E. attack business and try to shift the country toward a more socialistic economy.

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4. (p. 199) are organizations created for the purpose of winning elections and governing once in office.

A. Political movements B. Special interest groups C. Political action committees D. Political parties E. Lobbyist organizations

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5. (p. 199-200) Which of the following statements about political parties is LEAST accurate?

A. They exist primarily in order to get candidates elected, not to shape policy.

B. They allow voters to assign collective responsibility for government actions.

C. Unlike many political institutions, they can be held accountable in elections.

D. They help voters identify candidates who share their views.

E. Their role and function is clearly delineated in the Constitution.

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6. (p. 199-202) Which of the following statements about the difficulties faced by third parties in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. Third parties only qualify for government funding if they receive a certain percentage of the vote.

B. Third parties can receive government funding only after an election has ended.

C. Many states make it prohibitively difficult for small parties to get their candidates' names on the ballot.

D. The two major parties are able to write rules that make it hard for third parties and independents to compete.

E. The Constitution places most power for regulating political parties in the hands of Congress, where third party voices are rarely heard.

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7. (p. 200-202) Which of the following factors is LEAST responsible for the predominance of just two parties in the American political system?

A. popular satisfaction with limited electoral choices B. election rules C. electoral finances D. state laws governing elections E. popular distrust of ideological extremism

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8. (p. 201) The only two states that do not automatically award all of their electoral votes to one presidential candidate are Maine and A. Florida.

B. Nebraska.

C. Pennsylvania.

D. Ohio.

E. California.

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9. (p. 201) According to Duverger's law, A. a winner-takes-all system encourages third-party growth.

B. small parties flourish best in a single-member district system.

C. proportional representation systems lead to two-party systems.

D. single-member districts lead to stable two-party systems.

E. single-member districts lead to instability because political stakes are so high.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

10. (p. 201) Generally speaking, the American political system differs from that of most European democracies in that A. its major parties are more ideologically driven.

B. it makes it easier for minority interests to gain direct representation in government.

C. it discourages cooperation among diverse interests.

D. it leads to more stability in government after the election ends.

E. it allows for more proportionate representation of a wide variety of political views in the halls of government.

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11. (p. 202) Which billionaire defied the two-party system by waging substantial presidential runs in 1992 and 1996 as a third-party candidate?

A. Nelson Rockefeller B. H. Ross Perot C. Ralph Nader D. George Soros E. Carl Lindner

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12. (p. 202) One of the two major parties that dominated America's first party era was the Democratic-Republicans, who were led by A. Thomas Jefferson.

B. Alexander Hamilton.

C. Benjamin Franklin.

D. John Adams.

E. George Washington.

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13. (p. 202) The two men MOST responsible for turning the Democrats into the first mass political party were Martin Van Buren and A. Thomas Jefferson.

B. Alexander Hamilton.

C. James Madison.

D. Andrew Jackson.

E. Abraham Lincoln.

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14. (p. 202) Which of the following statements about the run-up to the second party era is LEAST accurate?

A. The era witnessed a significant decline in voter turnout.

B. The era witnessed the appearance of the first mass political parties in U.S. history.

C. The era witnessed structural changes such as the popular election of presidential electors.

D. The era witnessed the use of rallies, bonfires, and parades to mobilize popular support.

E. The era was brought to an end largely by the failure to contain the slavery question.

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15. (p. 203) is a strong party organization that maintains control by exchanging votes for favors.

A. A political machine B. Patronage C. The civil service D. A steering committee E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

16. (p. 203) is specifically a practice of exchanging votes for jobs.

A. The political machine B. Civil service C. Patronage D. Job sharing E. Bureaucracy

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17. (p. 203) The is a merit-based system of employment and personnel management that replaced patronage.

A. civil service B. spoils system C. political machine D. job pool E. None of these answers is correct.

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18. (p. 203) Which of the following statements about the third party era is LEAST accurate?

A. Local politics were controlled by political machines, which traded services for voter support.

B. The political violence and corruption of the era were accompanied by extraordinarily high rates of voter turnout.

C. The Democratic Party controlled Congress and the presidency during most of this period.

D. The period was marked by wild economic fluctuations that encouraged widespread popular discontent.

E. Parties used patronage—the promise of employment in return for voting the right way—to bring voters to the polls.

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19. (p. 203) Which major third party emerged in the 1890s and drew support primarily from southerners and westerners?

A. Populists B. Bull Moose C. National Republican D. States' Rights E. Federalists

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20. (p. 203) The fourth party era was marked by the dominance of the A. Federalist Party.

B. Populist Party.

C. Republican Party.

D. Democratic Party.

E. Whig Party.

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21. (p. 203) Which of the following groups was NOT a member of the New Deal Coalition?

A. southern whites B. northern industrial workers C. northeastern businessmen D. Catholics E. blacks

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

22. (p. 204) What was the "Southern strategy"?

A. an attempt by Franklin Roosevelt to add the South to his New Deal Coalition B. an effort by the Republican Party starting in the 1960s to woo the white South away from the Democratic Party C. an attempt by Democrats in the 1970s to enhance their standing in the South by appealing to black voters D. the national government's attempt to ensure black citizens' right to vote by allowing federal agents to monitor southern elections E. an effort by the Republican Party in the late nineteenth century to weaken the Democratic Party's influence in the North by associating Democrats with the secessionist South

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23. (p. 204) Which of the following groups was NOT one of the bases of support contributing to the resurgence of the Republican Party in the late 1960s?

A. blacks B. southern whites C. conservatives D. evangelical Christians E. upper-income businessmen

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24. (p. 205) Despite fluctuations in overall levels of party support as a result of short-term events, the major parties have A. maintained rough parity among voters until very recently.

B. reflected Democratic Party dominance in most elections.

C. reflected Republican Party dominance in most elections.

D. declined in popularity among voters in recent years.

E. witnessed the rise of numerous third parties in recent years.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

25. (p. 205) Realignments are the result of A. major events that trigger a prolonged change in party control of the institutions of government.

B. long-term changes in the parties' demographic composition.

C. a shift in the ideological orientation of the party.

D. a shift in the agenda and constellation of issues that win voters' support.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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26. (p. 205) The political term "realignment" refers to A. significant changes in the composition, strength, and direction of parties.

B. the regular transfer of power from one party to another after an election.

C. redrawing the lines of political districts in order to benefit the party in power.

D. how candidates change their political strategies after they've won a primary and can wield the resources of their party.

E. the occasional emergence of a third party that briefly commands limited public attention and then vanishes without having much effect on the political system.

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27. (p. 205) The orthodoxy in political science holds that realignments are signaled by one or more A. close elections.

B. critical elections.

C. rebounding elections.

D. major shift elections.

E. periodic elections.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

28. (p. 205) Which of the following accurately describes part of the demographic change that the Democratic Party has undergone in recent years?

A. The party has done better among white Catholics.

B. The party has made inroads into middle-income and blue-collar voters.

C. The party has done better in recent years among professionals with higher incomes and education.

D. The party has made inroads into union members.

E. The party has increased in popularity among housewives.

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29. (p. 206) Which of the following is true about the characteristics of the political parties and voters in recent years?

A. Neither party has been able to dominate the national government for a sustained period of time.

B. Much of the period has been characterized by divided government.

C. Partisan identification has been closely divided.

D. National elections have been extremely competitive.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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30. (p. 205) " " is characterized by a control of the White House by one party while the opposition party controls one or both houses of Congress.

A. Divided government B. Split government C. Minority government D. Parliamentary government E. Grand coalition government

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

31. (p. 206) What is the defining feature of dealignment?

A. The major parties move toward parity.

B. One party gains long-term dominance over the other.

C. A third party emerges to attract enough attention to force one or both of the major parties to adopt elements of the third party's platform.

D. The two major parties appear to be losing their relevance to the voting population.

E. A group that had long been associated with one party suddenly throws its support to that party's opponent.

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32. (p. 206) Of the following generations, which has the highest percentage of political independents?

A. silent generation B. boomer generation C. gen X D. millennials E. All four generations have roughly the same percentages.

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33. (p. 206) In which of the following decades was pragmatism among the two major political parties MOST prominent?

A. 1930s B. 1950s C. 1980s D. 1990s E. 2000s

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

34. (p. 206) The current polarization in American politics is driven primarily by A. radical decisions by federal judges.

B. the mainstream media.

C. interference by foreign governments.

D. interest-group and party elites.

E. high-ranking government bureaucrats.

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35. (p. 208) Which of the following statements about the Republican and Democratic National Committees is LEAST accurate?

A. Both strive to maintain some level of parity between male and female delegates.

B. Both grant seats to delegates from each state in the Union.

C. Both require that the racial and ethnic composition of the delegates roughly matches the racial and ethnic composition of the nation.

D. The DNC is over twice the size of the RNC. E. Both grant seats to delegates from each American territory.

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36. (p. 208) In the pyramid-structure analogy of American political parties, the are at the base/bottom of the pyramid.

A. national committees B. precinct committees C. congressional campaign committees D. local government committees E. state committees

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

37. (p. 208) The duties of national party chairs include all of the following EXCEPT A. choosing their party's presidential candidate.

B. helping to set their party's agendas and rules.

C. handling conflicts that arise during primaries.

D. monitoring the success of their party's candidates in elections throughout the country.

E. managing the day-to-day affairs of the national headquarters.

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38. (p. 208-209) Which of the following statements about "soft money" is LEAST accurate?

A. It generally consists of large contributions.

B. It is currently the primary means by which parties raise money.

C. It generally comes from wealthy donors.

D. It is ostensibly used for voter-registration drives.

E. It is ostensibly used for running issue ads that do not specifically mention any candidate.

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39. (p. 208-209) Which of the following statements about the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 is MOST accurate?

A. It increased legal access to soft money.

B. It banned parties from raising hard money.

C. It allowed parties to collect money only for party-building activities, not for funding individual candidates' campaigns.

D. It allowed parties to collect soft money, but only on the condition that they distribute it to candidates rather than spend it directly.

E. It enhanced the parties' role in funding their candidates' national campaigns.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

40. (p. 209) Which of the following statements about the nature of national conventions is LEAST accurate?

A. The national convention is responsible for laying out the party's platform, an explanation of its ideals and agenda.

B. As a result of the need for compromise, party platforms are usually more moderate, and less ideological, than the average party supporter desires.

C. Special interests are well represented among convention delegates.

D. The convention is responsible for nominating the party's presidential nominee.

E. Party candidates sometimes find it expedient to downplay or ignore certain planks of their party's platform.

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41. (p. 210) Which of the following statements about the political parties' role in campaign funding is LEAST accurate?

A. Both parties have organizations dedicated to getting party members elected to both the House and the Senate.

B. Party members from safe seats often siphon some of their funds into the coffers of colleagues engaged in more competitive races.

C. Although parties can only give $5,000 directly to House candidates, they can give $45,500 to Senate candidates.

D. To maintain party loyalty, all of a party's candidates are guaranteed the same amount of party money to fund their campaigns.

E. Parties not only contribute directly to members' campaign funds, but also distribute money through leadership PACs associated with congressional party leaders.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

42. (p. 210-211) Which of the following statements about parties' state committees is LEAST accurate?

A. They have become more professionalized in recent years.

B. They employ many of the same sophisticated communications systems used by national parties.

C. Because their expenses have mounted, they currently rely heavily on soft money distributed to them by the national party.

D. They frequently cooperate with the national party to achieve mutual ends.

E. They focus on statewide elections, such as the governorship and membership in the state legislature, rather than on local elections.

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43. (p. 211) All of the following factors have contributed to the declining power of local party organizations EXCEPT A. party reform.

B. national parties no longer relying on local organizations to rally voters.

C. the end of patronage.

D. the expansion of government welfare services.

E. the rise of the candidate-centered campaign.

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44. (p. 211) The smallest level of political organization is the A. congressional district.

B. precinct.

C. municipality.

D. township.

E. county.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

45. (p. 212) The defining characteristic of a splinter party is A. its small size.

B. that it attracts new citizens who previously had rarely voted.

C. that it breaks away from an existing party.

D. that it forms in response to a crisis.

E. that it forms around a single idea or candidate.

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46. (p. 212-213) Which of the following statements about third parties in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. They have been rare throughout most of American history.

B. They sometimes act as spoilers, by drawing voters away from one of the candidates in a tight election.

C. They often arise to give voice to discontent among the electorate.

D. They are often absorbed by one of the larger parties if their ideologies or policy proposals prove popular.

E. They must overcome significant obstacles just to make one credible campaign, let alone maintain a lasting presence in electoral politics.

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47. (p. 213) The likely took enough votes from Al Gore in 2000 to tip the presidential election to George W. Bush.

A. Green Party B. Libertarian Party C. Reform Party D. Socialist Party E. Prohibition Party

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

48. (p. 213) Which of the following is/was not a political party in the conventional sense?

A. Green Party B. Tea Party C. Libertarian Party D. Reform Party E. Progressive Party

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49. (p. 213) This person has run as both a presidential candidate of the Libertarian Party and for the Republican presidential nomination.

A. Pat Buchanan B. George Wallace C. Ross Perot D. Ralph Nader E. Ron Paul

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50. (p. 215) Super PACs A. have had a huge impact in funding elections in recent years.

B. were declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2010.

C. can only be formed by independent citizens' groups, not corporations or unions.

D. must officially coordinate their spending with the national political parties.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

51. (p. 216) Which of the following statements about 527 groups is LEAST accurate?

A. They may spend as much as they want on political advertising.

B. They may not instruct the voter to vote for or against a particular candidate.

C. They are generally formed to advance a specific ideology or issue.

D. They can only advocate general issues or positions, and cannot attack an individual candidate.

E. They must disclose the names of individuals who contribute $10,000 or more to their advertising campaigns.

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52. (p. 216) Which of the following statements about 501(c)(4) and 501(c)(6) groups is LEAST accurate?

A. They are nonprofit advocacy groups.

B. They are often affiliated with major interests such as labor unions and corporations.

C. They are not taxed.

D. They can only advocate issues, and may not make direct contributions to political candidates.

E. To maintain their special status, they must fully disclose the extent and nature of their expenditures to the general public.

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53. (p. 216) In its 2014 McCutcheon v. Federal Election Commission ruling, the Supreme Court A. struck down all limits on campaign contributions, allowing everyone to donate as much as they want to any candidate or group they want.

B. struck down the overall limits on contributions by individuals to candidates and political committees.

C. ended the ability for nonprofit organizations to both make political contributions and receive tax-exempt status.

D. curtailed the ability of super PACs to donate anonymously to presidential candidates.

E. reinstated the main provisions of the McCain-Feingold Act.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

54. (p. 216-217) Contemporary sources of funding for campaigns and candidates (either in direct support or on behalf of candidates and campaigns) include A. section 501(c) groups.

B. section 527 groups.

C. political action committees.

D. the Internet.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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55. (p. 216) Which of the following statements about the use of the Internet to solicit political contributions is LEAST accurate?

A. In recent elections, candidates have managed to raise millions of dollars through the Internet.

B. Most people who contribute over the Internet have little understanding of how the Internet actually works.

C. Most people who contribute over the Internet are wealthy.

D. Internet contributors represent less diverse interests than large, traditional cash contributors.

E. The Internet has demonstrated the possibility of raising large sums through small donations.

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56. (p. 218) Which of the following statements about the costs of funding a political campaign is LEAST accurate?

A. In the lead-up to the primaries, most candidates receive strong financial support from the party to which they belong.

B. Candidates running for state office often have to spend large sums of money on mass media advertising.

C. Increasingly, candidates spend money on market research to help them target potential supporters.

D. Candidates have to pay for the printed materials their supporters distribute to the public.

E. Although many candidates rely heavily on unpaid volunteers, they also need the support of a paid staff.

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57. (p. 218) What is the idea behind a closed primary system?

A. Any registered voter should have a say in who will lead both of the major parties in the general election.

B. Voters should be allowed to choose freely from a list of every candidate regardless of party affiliation.

C. Voters should not be forced to make public their choice in the primary election for who will lead them in the general election.

D. Only party members should be able to determine who will lead them in the general election.

E. If no candidate receives a majority of the vote in the first election, further elections should be run in order for one candidate to gain a majority.

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58. (p. 218) Which of the following statements about primaries is LEAST accurate?

A. Some states used to hold blanket primaries, which allowed voters to cast votes across party lines, but this was ruled unconstitutional.

B. Some states hold closed primaries, which allow only registered party members to participate.

C. Some states hold open primaries, which allow voters to participate in whichever primary they wish.

D. Some states insist that candidates receive a majority of the votes, not just a plurality, and require runoff elections if no one gains a majority.

E. Once candidates have won their party's primary, they lose their independence to the party, which takes over decisions about how to utilize resources.

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59. (p. 218) The top expense for both President Obama and Mitt Romney in 2012 was A. advertising.

B. fundraising.

C. travel.

D. administration.

E. consulting.

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Chapter 09 - Parties and Political Campaigns

60. (p. 220) What is earned media?

A. media attention a candidate receives because of a recent action or announcement B. advertising a candidate pays for out of general party funds C. free airtime candidates must receive from networks that give airtime to their opponents D. the right to an exclusive interview, which a candidate provides to a network in return for friendly coverage E. attack ads launched against an opponent in response to his or her own negative campaign

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61. (p. 220) Which of the following statements about negative ads is MOST accurate or least controversial?

A. Candidates generally prefer to leave attack ads to their supporters rather than engage in them directly.

B. Negative ads convey no information to voters that is useful in making up their minds.

C. Negative ads clearly depress long-term political participation.

D. The long-term effects of negative ads on political participation are minimal.

E. Negative ads are clearly more likely to attract undecided voters than to discourage their participation.

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Essay Questions 62. Describe the general characteristics of America's two-party system. How does it differ from the system used in most European democracies? What are the drawbacks and benefits of a system dominated by two main parties? Does the two-party system provide an adequate voice to political minorities? What are the different types of third parties that occasionally emerge in the American political system? What obstacles make it difficult for such parties to compete?

Answers will vary.

63. Explain how the American political system has changed over time. What were the defining characteristics of each of the five main party eras? What forces produced the changes that brought one era in and ushered out another? What were the strengths and weaknesses of each era? Despite the changes from era to era, can one nonetheless discern a consistent American political tradition or traditions?

Answers will vary.

64. Discuss the differences between the major parties today. What are the most important constituencies of each party? Are these constituencies currently stable or in flux? Do the parties adequately represent the beliefs and concerns of their average supporters? Do the events of recent years suggest that a realignment is taking place in the American political system, or will dealignment remain the prevailing trend?

Answers will vary.

65. Describe the structure of the major parties. What are the functions of national party organizations? How do they decide on candidates and platforms? How closely do they work with state and local organizations? How has the balance of power between national and local party organizations changed in recent decades?

Answers will vary.

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66. Discuss the relationship between candidates and their parties today. How has that relationship changed in recent decades? What roles have candidates assumed for themselves?

How do they fund their campaigns? In what ways do they remain dependent on the party structure? How do they win the nomination of their party? How have super PACs and 527 groups and similar organizations affected the way in which campaigns are funded?

Answers will vary.

67. The two major political parties currently exhibit a high degree of polarization. What factors account for this? What changes could bring about a new era of increased bipartisanship?

Answers will vary.

68. Third parties have had major impacts in the United States. Discuss the different types of third parties and why they have not had lasting success since the middle of the nineteenth century.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

Chapter 10 Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 225) Actor Clint Eastwood's address at the 2012 Republican National Convention A. was carefully scripted by the Romney campaign.

B. became a major media story online and offline.

C. was the official nomination speech for Mitt Romney.

D. brought the Romney campaign a significant bounce in the polls.

E. demonstrated Eastwood's deep grasp of foreign and domestic affairs.

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2. (p. 226) Americans aged 18-29 are MOST likely to get their national and international news from A. television.

B. newspapers.

C. magazines.

D. radio.

E. the Internet.

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3. (p. 226) Americans aged 18-29 are LEAST likely to get their national and international news from A. television.

B. newspapers.

C. the Internet.

D. radio.

E. magazines.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

4. (p. 226) This has been the fastest growing news source for Americans since 2001: A. television.

B. newspapers.

C. magazines.

D. radio.

E. the Internet.

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5. (p. 226) The first American newspaper, published in Massachusetts in 1690, shut down after one issue because A. the colonial government placed a ban on all secular publications.

B. the public had no interest in reading about the news.

C. the colonial government passed a law requiring printers to obtain a license prior to publishing a newspaper.

D. the public was scandalized by the newspaper's salacious reports.

E. literacy rates in colonial New England were too low to sustain a regularly-published newspaper.

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6. (p. 226) Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes President Jefferson's handling of the press?

A. Jefferson scrupulously guarded a division between government and the media.

B. Jefferson held regular press conferences to win the media to his side.

C. Jefferson awarded government contracts to printers who supported his policies.

D. Jefferson distrusted newspapers and sought to impose government censorship over all of them.

E. Jefferson gave all journalists free access to all of the workings of his cabinet in order to keep the people informed.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

7. (p. 227) Newspapers in the 1830s witnessed all of the following transformations EXCEPT A. a decreased dependence on government contracts.

B. communication advances via the telegraph.

C. the adoption of the rotating press, which sped up the printing process.

D. the development of the penny press.

E. a decreased dependence on paid advertisements.

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8. (p. 228) Which of the following terms BEST describes yellow journalism?

A. sensational B. adversarial C. objective D. investigative E. partisan

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9. (p. 228) What inspired the more aggressive form of journalism known as muckraking in the early 1900s?

A. a fear that partisan leanings were tainting news B. the need to sell newspapers C. the failure to investigate thoroughly D. a desire to increase objectivity E. sympathy for the plight of ordinary citizens

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

10. (p. 228) The term muckraking refers to journalism that A. luridly exposes corruption in high places.

B. relies on jingoistic appeals to attract readers.

C. focuses on celebrity news and infotainment at the expense of analysis.

D. engages in partisan slanders of political figures.

E. strives for high standards of objectivity even at the expense of missing a great "scoop."

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11. (p. 228) Organizations such as the Associated Press and United Press International are associated with the rise of A. the partisan press.

B. the penny press.

C. yellow journalism.

D. muckraking.

E. objective journalism.

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12. (p. 228) The first time radio aired the results of a presidential campaign, it was to report the election of A. Abraham Lincoln.

B. William McKinley.

C. Theodore Roosevelt.

D. Warren Harding.

E. Franklin Roosevelt.

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13. (p. 229) Which event convinced television networks that there was a large audience for televised news and led to the adoption of thirty-minute news programs?

A. Stock Market Crash of 1929 B. attack on Pearl Harbor C. outbreak of the Korean War D. Nixon-Kennedy presidential debate E. outbreak of the Vietnam War

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14. (p. 229) Americans, on average, are MOST likely to get their national and international news from A. television.

B. newspapers.

C. magazines.

D. radio.

E. the Internet.

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15. (p. 229) People are MOST likely to get campaign news from A. national newspapers.

B. local newspapers.

C. the Internet.

D. local TV news.

E. cable news.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

16. (p. 229-231) Visible trends in the mass media today include all of the following EXCEPT A. declining interest in traditional media on the part of young Americans.

B. a lack of interest in using new communications technologies to engage in politics.

C. declining newspaper circulation and readership.

D. the rise of narrowcasting, or programs targeted at a small segment of the population.

E. an increase in the concentration of private ownership of media outlets.

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17. (p. 229-230) Which of the following is NOT a trend in newspaper readership today?

A. The number of daily newspapers has decreased.

B. The circulation of daily newspapers has declined.

C. The number of people reading newspapers online is increasing.

D. Most major cities only have one major newspaper.

E. The amount of coverage devoted to community reporting in newspapers has decreased.

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18. (p. 230) Which of the following statements about young Americans is LEAST accurate?

A. They develop their political ideas through online social networks.

B. They are less attentive to traditional news sources than are older generations.

C. They prefer local news programs to network news programs.

D. They are less skeptical of media sources and more likely to accept media claims than older Americans.

E. They prefer personal engagement to passively receiving news from supposedly unbiased sources.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

19. (p. 230) Young people report gathering most of their political information from A. the Internet.

B. television.

C. newspapers.

D. radio.

E. magazines.

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20. (p. 230) A 2008 study of online users revealed that those who are hungry for information are MOST likely to A. spend more time blogging their own opinions than informing themselves.

B. ignore the web pages of traditional media giants altogether.

C. seek sites that challenge their point of view.

D. look for entertainment online and for news through television and print media.

E. browse sites that match their views.

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21. (p. 231) Since 1998, which of the following networks has seen a decline in the percentage of Americans who are regular viewers?

A. Fox News only B. CNN only C. MSNBC only D. Fox News and CNN E. MSNBC and Fox News

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

22. (p. 231) Narrowcasting A. first became prominent in the early twentieth century.

B. has meant that most Americans don't receive the same news.

C. functions to promote common political experiences for Americans.

D. has become less important as the Internet has become more important.

E. has yet to have a significant impact on political coverage by the media.

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23. (p. 232) The United States is currently the only advanced industrial nation in the world in which A. the government dictates that media outlets must give candidates equal air time, if time is given to any candidate at all.

B. the government regulates private ownership of the media.

C. virtually all the major media outlets are privately owned.

D. the government directly sponsors a news media outlet.

E. a fairness doctrine is enforced on major media companies.

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24. (p. 232-233) Which of the following statements about ownership of the media is LEAST accurate?

A. In many democracies, the government owns all or many of the major news outlets.

B. In the United States, the government does not own or control any major news outlet.

C. Some critics fear that corporate domination of the media leads to news that is meant to entertain rather than to inform.

D. Even some reporters feel that the profit motive in present-day journalism leads newsmakers to jump to conclusions before the facts are in, in order to "out scoop" their competitors.

E. Control of media outlets is being increasingly concentrated into the hands of a small number of corporations.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

25. (p. 233) Based on current understandings of the First Amendment, which of the following statements regarding government regulation of the media is LEAST accurate?

A. Having declared the airwaves on which television and radio broadcast public property, the government has more control over those media than it does over others.

B. Because the livelihood of public officials depends heavily on their reputations, courts have made it easy for them to successfully sue print media for libel.

C. The government is rarely authorized to prevent the publication of material that it does not want exposed.

D. Although the government limits the number of media outlets that a single entity can own, these limitations have been lessened in recent years.

E. The courts may allow the government to bar the publication of materials if the information contained therein poses a threat to national security.

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26. (p. 233) Which of the following statements about government regulation of broadcast media is LEAST accurate?

A. The FCC can fine networks for airing material the commission regards as indecent.

B. The FCC requires that stations grant equal time to political candidates during election time.

C. For several decades, the FCC required that broadcasters air all sides of a political controversy.

D. With the proliferation of media outlets, the FCC has abolished the fairness doctrine that once shaped the way broadcasters had to present the news.

E. The FCC regulates only the content of broadcast media, not the ownership of broadcast media outlets.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

27. (p. 234) Which of the following statements about local news coverage is generally LEAST accurate?

A. Local news programs favor attractive, stylish anchors.

B. Local news programs emphasize lightweight banter over deep analysis.

C. Local news programs are increasingly less popular than national news programming.

D. Local news programs devote much airtime to covering crime stories.

E. Local news programs often focus as much, if not more, on entertaining viewers as on informing them.

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28. (p. 234) Which of the following statements about trends in news coverage is LEAST accurate?

A. Since the 1970s, many journalists have seen their function as to uncover and expose the misdeeds of prominent government figures.

B. The rise of adversarial journalism has coincided with and possibly contributed to a decline in political participation by many citizens.

C. The American public largely ignores negative reporting from the media, and viewership and readership drop during political scandals.

D. Some prominent and influential journalists are celebrities in their own right, which may affect how they cover and present the news.

E. Media coverage following the September 11, 2001 attacks suggests that the press might relax its scrutiny on presidents with high approval ratings.

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29. (p. 234) Following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, media outlets were accused of A. ignoring the government and focusing on human interest stories.

B. reporting too much on domestic news at the expense of foreign coverage.

C. providing a more entertainment-based coverage of events.

D. extreme partisan bias against a Republican president.

E. failing to scrutinize a popular president.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

30. (p. 235) A study cited in the text found that news coverage of presidential candidates by newspapers, newsmagazines, and television was A. unbiased and fair.

B. sometimes biased in a partisan way toward liberal candidates.

C. sometimes biased in a partisan way toward conservative candidates.

D. sometimes biased in a partisan way toward third-party candidates.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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31. (p. 236) In 2012, people who followed the presidential debates live were MOST likely to do so via A. radio.

B. television.

C. laptop or desktop computers.

D. cell phones.

E. tablets.

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32. (p. 236-237) Which of the following statements about how political candidates exploit the media is LEAST accurate?

A. Whereas prominent candidates once appeared on entertainment programs and other alternative media where they could expect more favorable treatment, this practice has waned since the early 1990s.

B. Candidates will often appear at rallies where the crowds have been prescreened to include only supporters.

C. Candidates often try to do something that is newsworthy in itself, in order to get earned media.

D. Candidates rely on spin doctors, who interpret recent events in a manner flattering to the candidate, and try to make that interpretation widely accepted.

E. Candidates must phrase their ideas clearly and succinctly because much of the media will present them only in the form of sound bites.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

33. (p. 237-238) Which of the following statements does NOT reflect conventional wisdom about presidential debates?

A. Candidates must studiously avoid gaffes, because the media is likely to cover them extensively and aggravate their effect.

B. Candidates' demeanor and appearance have an effect on whether or not they win the support of viewers.

C. Viewers' understanding of a debate will sometimes transform over time as a result of the media's interpretation of the debate.

D. Incumbents generally have the most to gain from debates.

E. Candidates worry about passing the "living room test," coming across as someone whom viewers would like to welcome into their homes.

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34. (p. 237) The televised Nixon-Kennedy debate of 1960 revealed that A. the American public was not interested in politics.

B. the visual appearance of candidates affects viewers' assessment of their qualifications.

C. viewers ignore how candidates look on screen and hone in on what is said about the issues.

D. a candidate's performance during a debate will have little impact on the outcome of an election.

E. challengers have little to gain by acceding to debates, which generally allow frontrunners to enhance their leads.

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35. (p. 238) In Britain, paid political advertisements are A. not allowed.

B. allowed only during the last 30 days before an election.

C. allowed up until 30 days before an election.

D. must include a response of equal time from the opposition.

E. provided for by public funds.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

36. (p. 239) People are MOST likely to be reached by a candidate through A. e-mail.

B. printed mail.

C. commercials.

D. robocalls.

E. live phone calls.

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37. (p. 239) In the 2012 general election presidential debates, Mitt Romney A. won the first debate and saw a boost in the polls.

B. won all three debates, but got no boost in the polls.

C. lost the first debate and saw a decline in the polls.

D. appeared timid and unwilling to challenge President Obama.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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38. (p. 239) Which of the following statements about political advertising is LEAST accurate?

A. Some western democracies ban paid advertising and instead give free airtime to candidates.

B. Attack ads seem to have an immediate effect on potential voters.

C. The long-term impact of negative advertising is a matter of dispute.

D. The effectiveness of advertising, positive and negative, has been clearly established and quantified.

E. One form of negative ad is the comparative message, which contrasts each candidate's position on a given issue.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

39. (p. 239) The Internet debuted as a political medium for which presidential election?

A. 1992 B. 1996 C. 2000 D. 2004 E. 1988

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40. (p. 240) Which of the following statements about bloggers is LEAST accurate?

A. Many bloggers are average citizens who have no formal education in the field of journalism.

B. Bloggers are generally not held to the same journalistic standards as is the traditional press.

C. The influence of bloggers has increased over the past decade.

D. Many traditional journalists disparage bloggers for their lack of professional qualifications.

E. Although bloggers can amplify an already-reported story, they have not yet shown the capacity to break major news stories.

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41. (p. 240) Journalists frequently use sports metaphors to describe politics, and they are particularly likely to compare elections to A. baseball.

B. horseracing.

C. football.

D. tennis.

E. boxing.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

42. (p. 240-241) Which of the following statements about game coverage of politics is LEAST accurate?

A. Game coverage might lead the media to make premature predictions about the outcome of elections.

B. Game coverage contributes to an emphasis on how campaigns are conducted rather than the issues for which candidates stand.

C. Game coverage leads to a stress on which candidate is winning and which is losing.

D. Game coverage requires an in-depth understanding of complex issues on the part of journalists who employ it.

E. Game coverage fits with a cynical view of politics, and trivializes the political process.

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43. (p. 241-242) Which of the following statements about media coverage of character issues is LEAST accurate?

A. During the first half of the twentieth century, the press devoted much of its coverage to uncovering the private peccadilloes of public officials.

B. Supreme Court decisions have made it difficult for public figures to sue newspapers for libel.

C. In the 1960s and 1970s, the press adopted an adversarial stance toward public figures.

D. As television has emerged as an important news outlet, viewers have shown more interest in candidates' personality traits than in their policy positions.

E. The increased number of female journalists has affected the boundaries of what the media consider to be newsworthy subject matter.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

44. (p. 243-244) Which of the following statements about exit polls is LEAST accurate?

A. News outlets, eager to be the first to report a presidential winner, often rely on exit polls to predict the outcome of an election.

B. The media's exploitation of exit polls is a relatively recent phenomenon.

C. In 2000, all the broadcast networks relied on the same firm to provide them with exit poll data.

D. Announcing winners based on exit polls may lead to lower voter turnout in the far western states.

E. Exit polls exhibited impressive accuracy in predicting the winners of the 2000 and 2004 presidential elections.

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45. (p. 244) As president during the Civil War, Abraham Lincoln A. successfully convinced Union journalists into supporting his views.

B. could rely on a safely partisan press to support his policies.

C. viewed the press as a distraction that was best ignored.

D. censored war-related news and imprisoned editors.

E. contended that the freedom of the press was more important than the preservation of the Union.

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46. (p. 244) Which president helped to create the modern White House press corps when he added a press room to the White House?

A. Abraham Lincoln B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Ronald Reagan

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

47. (p. 244) Who was the first president to hold regular press conferences?

A. Abraham Lincoln B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Ronald Reagan

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48. (p. 244) Which president enjoyed the longest honeymoon period with the press?

A. Abraham Lincoln B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Ronald Reagan

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49. (p. 244) During the terms of presidents Truman, Eisenhower, and Kennedy, the relationship between the press and the presidency was A. adversarial, primarily because the general public detested the sitting president's policies.

B. adversarial, primarily because the press had discovered that presidential scandals helped sell newspapers.

C. friendly, like that between fellow members of a private gentlemen's club.

D. strained, because the press tirelessly searched for evidence of presidential connections to Communists.

E. dominated by the president, who could summarily imprison a journalist who reported a negative account of the government or its measures.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

50. (p. 245) Which president was known as the Great Communicator for his ability to present his views effectively and keep his team focused on a "message of the day"?

A. Abraham Lincoln B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Woodrow Wilson D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Ronald Reagan

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51. (p. 245) Which of the following presidents had the MOST consistent skill at winning over media support?

A. Richard Nixon B. Ronald Reagan C. George H. W. Bush D. Bill Clinton E. George W. Bush

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52. (p. 245) The tools by which modern presidential administrations control their image include all of the following EXCEPT A. calling on members of the press corps who are known to throw out softball questions.

B. giving low-level members of the administration wide latitude to interact with the press and offer various, even competing, explanations of the president's policies.

C. issuing frequent press releases, which clearly enunciate the reasoning behind presidential policy.

D. floating "trial balloons" to test the public response to an issue before making a wholehearted commitment about it.

E. briefing of the president on potential questions before a conference, and limiting reporters to only one follow-up question.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

53. (p. 246) Which of the following statements about press coverage of Congress is LEAST accurate?

A. The media does not provide as much attention to individual members of Congress as it does to the White House.

B. Some members of Congress receive less national press attention than do White House pets.

C. There is no one member of Congress who can speak authoritatively for the entire body.

D. The congressional media corps consists of fewer than 30 members.

E. The media are particularly interested in committee chairs.

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54. (p. 246) Which of the following statements about the nature of press coverage of Congress is LEAST accurate?

A. The press focuses much of its attention on the party leaders in the two houses.

B. The press focuses much of its attention on heads of influential congressional committees.

C. National press coverage of Congress is often cynical and adversarial.

D. The way that the press depicts Congress may encourage citizens to view Congress with disdain.

E. Following the dictum that "if it bleeds, it leads," the local press usually emphasizes negative attributes of its viewership's representatives in Congress.

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

55. (p. 247) Which of the following statements about press coverage of the Supreme Court is MOST accurate?

A. Unless they deal with issues of national coverage, Supreme Court proceedings are usually televised.

B. At the end of a controversial case, it is customary for justices to meet with the press to explain their decisions.

C. Since the Supreme Court deals only with broad constitutional strokes rather than the technical minutiae of jurisprudence, its decisions are usually presented in a clear, plain style that most citizens can understand.

D. When the press covers the Supreme Court, it is usually to describe ideological divisions among the Court, and to identify which justices are "winning" or "losing" on a particular issue.

E. Because Supreme Court justices are rarely chosen from among well-known public figures, and the direct power of justices is so limited, the press pays little attention to judicial confirmation hearings.

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56. (p. 247) Which of the following networks is MOST likely to please conservatives?

A. MSNBC B. ABC C. PBS D. Fox E. NPR

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57. (p. 247) Which of the following networks is MOST likely to please liberals?

A. MSNBC B. ABC C. CBS D. Fox E. NBC

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Chapter 10 - Media: Tuning In or Tuning Out

58. (p. 255) From 2002 to 2013, the percentage of Americans believing that news organizations A. hurt democracy decreased.

B. hurt democracy increased.

C. had no effect on democracy increased.

D. protected democracy increased.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Essay Questions 59. Discuss the history of the media in the United States. What major technological changes have affected it? How have these changes altered the way Americans receive information?

What changes are most salient today? How have these developments already changed the public's relationship with news media, and how might they further change it?

Answers will vary.

60. Describe the relationship between government officials and the press. How has this relationship changed over time? What is the state of that relationship today? What impact does this relationship have on the citizenry? How does the press cover different branches of government differently? How do government officials try to shape press coverage to their own benefit?

Answers will vary.

61. Discuss the declining readership of newspapers. Why are decreasing numbers of Americans reading them regularly? What new media outlets are emerging to supplant newspapers? How do these new media outlets affect how citizens acquire information about current events? Is the decline of newspapers a cause for concern, or do new media outlets adequately replace them?

Answers will vary.

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62. Discuss the current state of television media. What are the most popular broadcast television news programs and how do they present the news? What is the effect of the proliferation of television news outlets? Does a desire for ratings and profits have a negative effect on news coverage? Should the government take greater steps to regulate broadcast media and ensure that it covers news events thoroughly?

Answers will vary.

63. Describe how the media covers political campaigns. Which aspects of campaigns do they cover best and which aspects of them do they slight? How do candidates attempt to exploit the media to their own advantage? What limits does the government place on candidates' access to the media? Are these limits effective, inadequate, or overly restrictive?

Answers will vary.

64. Discuss the rise of political blogs. What impact do they have on political discourse? In what ways are they similar to and different from traditional media outlets?

Answers will vary.

65. The rise of the Internet has brought both the largest change in media production and consumption since the 1990s. Describe the important aspects of the Internet as a source of political news and a shaper of political views. Also examine how it has affected traditional media sources such as television and newspapers.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

Chapter 11 Congress: Doing the People's Business

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 253) The stalemate over the 2013 government shutdown was eventually broken by A. a group of female Republican senators.

B. a group of female Democratic senators.

C. a group of female Republican and Democratic senators.

D. Speaker of the House John Boehner and President Obama.

E. a joint committee comprised of the leadership of the House and Senate.

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2. (p. 254) Which of the following BEST describes the leadership style of women in Congress?

A. competitive B. zero-sum C. combative D. cooperative E. apathetic

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

3. (p. 255) The Framers overcame internal squabbling by agreeing to the Great Compromise, which A. recognized the existence of slavery but allowed the federal government to ban the international slave trade.

B. factored three-fifths of the slave population into calculations of representation and taxation.

C. allowed the people to elect their congressmen directly, but stipulated that presidents be elected indirectly through the Electoral College.

D. created a bicameral system, based on proportionate representation in one house and stateby-state voting in the other.

E. dictated that members of both the House and the Senate would be elected directly by the people.

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4. (p. 256) Which of the following statements about Congress is LEAST accurate?

A. Congress is a bicameral institution.

B. The Senate was initially seen as the protector of minority rights against majoritarian tyranny.

C. The House was initially seen as the chief governmental representative of the majority of the people.

D. Senators' terms of office are three times longer than those of representatives.

E. When the Constitution was first put into effect, it made senator and representative the only two federal offices that would be elected directly by the people.

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5. (p. 256) Powers the Constitution explicitly grants to Congress are known as A. enumerated powers.

B. delegated powers.

C. reserved powers.

D. elastic powers.

E. executive powers.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

6. (p. 256) The elastic clause of the Constitution allows Congress to A. claim powers not explicitly granted to it by the Constitution.

B. override presidential vetoes.

C. assert its supremacy over the other branches of government.

D. overturn state laws that conflict with federal law.

E. regulate commerce with foreign nations.

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7. (p. 256) Which of the following powers does the Constitution NOT explicitly grant to Congress?

A. the power to fix weights and measures B. the power to impeach federal officials C. the power to regulate environmental standards D. the power to create and maintain a navy E. the power to govern the District of Columbia

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8. (p. 257) When the republic was founded, policy initiatives were usually introduced by the A. House of Representatives.

B. Senate.

C. president.

D. Supreme Court.

E. voting public.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

9. (p. 257) In the decades following Andrew Jackson's presidency, primacy in formulating public policy shifted to the A. House of Representatives.

B. Senate.

C. president.

D. Supreme Court.

E. voting public.

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10. (p. 257) Which of the following descriptions BEST captures popular attitudes toward the Senate in the late nineteenth century?

A. the government body most in tune with the will of the American people B. a powerless body that placidly rubberstamped presidential initiatives C. a source of progressive, even radical, policy initiatives D. a group of nonpartisan, deliberative elder statesmen E. a millionaire's club beholden to party bosses and big business

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11. (p. 257) Joseph "Uncle Joe" Cannon is an example of an exceptionally powerful turn-of-thecentury A. Speaker of the House.

B. senator.

C. president.

D. chief justice.

E. state governor.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

12. (p. 257) The American people directly elect their senators as a result of A. Article I of the Constitution.

B. Article II of the Constitution.

C. the Twelfth Amendment.

D. the Fourteenth Amendment.

E. the Seventeenth Amendment.

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13. (p. 257) Jeannette Rankin is notable as the first A. female Supreme Court justice.

B. woman elected to the House of Representatives.

C. female senator.

D. woman to run for vice president on a major party's ticket.

E. female Speaker of the House.

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14. (p. 257) The presidencies of Theodore Roosevelt and Franklin Roosevelt are notable for A. their subservience to Congress.

B. the equal partnership they forged between Congress and the executive.

C. their role in expanding executive power.

D. their unchallenged presidential authority.

E. their failure to enact any significant legislation.

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15. (p. 258) Hiram Fong, the first Asian American to serve in the Senate, came to office in A. 1897.

B. 1933.

C. 1959.

D. 1993.

E. 2005.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

16. (p. 258) Carol Moseley Braun, the first African American woman to serve in the Senate, came to office in A. 1897.

B. 1933.

C. 1959.

D. 1987.

E. 2005.

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17. (p. 258-259) Which of the following statements about Congress today is LEAST accurate?

A. Whereas committee seats were traditionally awarded based on merit, incumbents have managed to impose a strict seniority system on these appointments.

B. The number of women and ethnic minorities in Congress increased during the second half of the twentieth century.

C. For the past thirty years, the American public has been able to watch televised coverage of most House sessions.

D. Partisan divisions have become more virulent within Congress.

E. Congressional members report that it is becoming increasingly difficult for Congress to reach a consensus on important issues.

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18. (p. 259) In recent years in Congress, A. Democrats have moved more toward the political center.

B. Republicans have moved more toward the political center.

C. Polarization of the two parties has increased.

D. Partisanship has decreased.

E. All of these are correct.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

19. (p. 259) In which of the following years was the division between liberal and conservative in Congress the smallest?

A. 1900 B. 1943 C. 1992 D. 2002 E. 2009

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20. (p. 259) Approximately how many constituents does the average congressperson represent?

A. 35,000 B. 95,500 C. 350,100 D. 710,700 E. 1,250,000

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21. (p. 260) In 2008, a not-unusual year, what percentage of incumbent House members won their reelection bids?

A. 94 B. 70 C. 55 D. 40 E. 25

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

22. (p. 260) Which of the following midterm elections saw the LOWEST percentage of incumbents win reelection?

A. 1994 B. 1998 C. 2002 D. 2006 E. 2010

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23. (p. 260) Which of the following is NOT generally one of the advantages incumbents wield over challengers?

A. Incumbents can send mail to their constituents at the government's expense.

B. Incumbents are more likely to be able to hide their political leanings to attract a broader base.

C. Donors tend to contribute more money to incumbents, who seem like a safer bet than challengers.

D. Incumbents are able to keep themselves in the public eye by making periodic public announcements or initiating new policies.

E. Incumbents are able to pull strings of government to win the favor of individual constituents.

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24. (p. 260) The franking privilege allows members of Congress to A. voice their opinion on the floor without fear of legal reprisal.

B. appoint the officials who will count the votes in their own district.

C. reshape district lines to enhance the power of their party.

D. send correspondence through the public mails free of charge.

E. "table" controversial petitions, thus avoiding divisive issues.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

25. (p. 260-261) Which of the following statements about midterm elections is MOST accurate?

A. They take place every two years.

B. They usually result in losses for the sitting president's party.

C. They usually see higher turnouts than non-midterm elections.

D. They are generally less partisan affairs than non-midterm elections.

E. They receive higher levels of media coverage than non-midterm elections.

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26. (p. 262) In which of the following midterm elections did the president's party lose the MOST seats?

A. 1990 B. 1998 C. 2002 D. 2006 E. 2010

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27. (p. 262) Which of the following statements about congressional redistricting is MOST accurate?

A. There are currently 435 seats in the House of Representatives, but that number increases by one every time another million persons are added to the American population.

B. Since each state is guaranteed a fixed amount of seats, redistricting only affects the shape of districts within a given state, and never changes the number of representatives each state has.

C. Since membership in the House is capped at 435, redistricting may result in one state losing seats and another gaining seats.

D. Congressional redistricting must take place exactly every four years.

E. The Supreme Court has ruled that gerrymandering for political gain represents an unconstitutional infringement on citizens' rights.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

28. (p. 262) The term gerrymander refers to A. the redrawing of district lines to favor one party over another.

B. a Senate tactic for ending debate on a controversial issue and forcing a vote.

C. a congressional tactic for killing a bill before members can vote on it.

D. the congressional tactic of exchanging votes.

E. the practice of granting the majority party a majority on every congressional committee.

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29. (p. 263) Which of the following statements about majority-minority districts is LEAST accurate?

A. They represent attempts to enhance political participation and representation of minorities.

B. They redraw district lines so as to enhance the political power of racial groups.

C. Their efficacy has been questioned, as they lead to other districts being more fully dominated by whites.

D. The Supreme Court has declared redistricting solely on the basis of race to be an unconstitutional practice.

E. Evidence suggests that majority-minority districts contribute to significant declines in white political participation without any visible increase in minority participation.

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30. (p. 263) Congresspersons who focus primarily on enacting the wishes of their constituents are said to act as A. delegates.

B. trustees.

C. politicos.

D. placeholders.

E. caucuses.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

31. (p. 263) Congresspersons who focus primarily on using their best judgment to meet the needs of their constituents are said to act as A. delegates.

B. trustees.

C. politicos.

D. placeholders.

E. caucuses.

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32. (p. 264) Congresspersons who try to balance their constituents' needs with their own best judgment are said to act as A. delegates.

B. trustees.

C. politicos.

D. placeholders.

E. caucuses.

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33. (p. 264) John Boehner first served as Speaker of the House in A. 1995.

B. 1999.

C. 2007.

D. 2011.

E. 2013.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

34. (p. 264) The 113th Congress, elected in 2012, A. had fewer Blacks than the 112th Congress.

B. had fewer Asians than the 112th Congress.

C. had more white males in the Senate than the 112th Congress.

D. had fewer Democrats than the 112th Congress.

E. contained the first openly gay senator.

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35. (p. 265) Not including their many benefits, how much does the average congressperson make each year for his or her congressional service?

A. $50,000 B. $86,000 C. $111,000 D. $174,000 E. $235,000

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36. (p. 265-266) Which of the following statements about congresspersons' relationships with their constituencies is LEAST accurate?

A. Contact between members of Congress and their constituents is generally mediated through the congressperson's staff.

B. Members of Congress maintain offices in both DC and their home district.

C. Members of Congress often engage in credit claiming—returning to their home districts to announce a new grant or piece of legislation that will benefit their constituency.

D. Congresspersons' staffers frequently pull strings to facilitate a constituent's access to federal services.

E. Most Americans hold unfavorable views of their congressperson.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

37. (p. 266) Which of the following statements about the relationship between lobbyists and members of Congress is MOST accurate?

A. Members of Congress are not allowed to receive any gifts or donations from registered lobbyists.

B. Lobbyists can provide a valuable democratic function by keeping members of Congress informed about important issues.

C. Despite popular views of congressional corruption, it has been several decades since a member of Congress has been formally charged with inappropriately receiving gifts from lobbyists.

D. After leaving Congress, a former congressperson can immediately accept a position as a congressional lobbyist.

E. A former congressional staffer can become a congressional lobbyist immediately after leaving the staff job.

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38. (p. 267-268) Which of the following statements about the committee staffers who assist members of Congress is LEAST accurate?

A. Committee staffers tend to be older and more experienced than a congressperson's personal staffers.

B. Appointments to a committee staff are split equally between the majority and minority parties in Congress.

C. The average size of a Senate committee staff is about 50; that of a House committee staff, about 65.

D. Committee staffers provide valuable expertise that helps members of Congress make better-informed decisions.

E. Though they are not elected officials, committee staffers nonetheless sometimes take an active hand in drafting federal legislation.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

39. (p. 268) Informal groups of lawmakers who gather together based on party or interest to discuss matters of common concern are known as A. delegates.

B. trustees.

C. politicos.

D. placeholders.

E. caucuses.

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40. (p. 269) Upon their arrival in Congress after the 2010 elections, Tea Party Republicans A. set themselves up as a third party independent of the Republican Party.

B. quickly fell in with established practices of Congress.

C. placed strong pressure on the Republican leadership to follow Tea Party principles.

D. refused to align with either the Republican Party or the Democratic Party.

E. found that they actually had more in common with Democrats than with Republicans.

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41. (p. 270-272) All of the following are basic types of congressional committees EXCEPT A. standing committees.

B. conference committees.

C. steering committees.

D. select committees.

E. joint committees.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

42. (p. 270) Most of the actual drafting and review of legislation in Congress takes place A. behind closed doors.

B. during visits to lawmakers' home states.

C. in caucuses.

D. in committees.

E. when Congress is in recess.

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43. (p. 270) Which of the following committees is exceptional in always having an equal number of Republican and Democrat members?

A. Ways and Means B. Standards of Official Conduct C. House Administration D. Appropriations E. Budget

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44. (p. 270) Funding for specific projects that are added by members of Congress to appropriation bills, usually without oversight or public debate, is known as A. earmarks.

B. riders.

C. budget requests.

D. presidential funding priorities.

E. log projects.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

45. (p. 271) Committees that are convened for a limited period of time to consider matters outside the jurisdiction of existing committees are known as A. standing committees.

B. conference committees.

C. steering committees.

D. select committees.

E. joint committees.

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46. (p. 271) Committees that are convened to reconcile differences between Senate and House versions of the same bill before sending the bill to the president are known as A. standing committees.

B. conference committees.

C. steering committees.

D. select committees.

E. joint committees.

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47. (p. 272) Over the last couple of decades in Congress, A. Democrats have become more liberal as Republicans have become more moderate.

B. Democrats have become more liberal as Republicans have become more conservative.

C. Democrats have become more moderate as Republicans have become more conservative.

D. Democrats have become more moderate as Republicans have become more moderate.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

48. (p. 273) Congressional leaders are increasingly chosen for their A. partisan outlook.

B. ability to frame issues along party lines.

C. skill in controlling the legislative agenda.

D. ability to raise funds for fellow party members.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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49. (p. 273) The MOST powerful figure in the House of Representatives is the A. Speaker of the House.

B. majority leader.

C. majority whip.

D. president pro tempore.

E. minority whip.

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50. (p. 273-274) Which of the following is NOT one of the powers traditionally wielded by the Speaker of the House?

A. appointing majority members to committees B. referring bills to committees C. scheduling legislation for floor consideration D. casting the first vote on all legislation E. controlling the flow of debate on the floor

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

51. (p. 274) At the beginning of the 113th Congress in 2013, the MOST powerful person in the House was A. Kevin McCarthy.

B. Steny Hoyer.

C. Nancy Pelosi.

D. John Boehner.

E. Eric Cantor.

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52. (p. 274) The chief duty of whips is to A. toss out frivolous legislation before it reaches the floor.

B. forge consensus across the aisle.

C. ensure that party members are present to vote and that they vote the right way.

D. provide members of Congress with detailed assessments of proposed policies and help them draft new legislation.

E. control the flow of debate on the House floor.

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53. (p. 274) The term logrolling refers to the congressional practice of A. redrawing districts to benefit the party in power.

B. granting a majority of seats on each committee to the party with the majority of members.

C. exchanging votes among congressional members for mutual benefit.

D. expediting an end to debate on a controversial bill and forcing an early vote.

E. killing a bill before members have had the opportunity to vote on it.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

54. (p. 275) Who is generally the MOST influential person in the Senate?

A. president of the Senate (that is, the U.S. vice president) B. president pro tempore C. majority leader D. minority leader E. chairman of the Committee on Rules

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55. (p. 275) Which of the following persons had a well-deserved reputation as a powerful Senate majority leader?

A. Harry Reid B. Joseph Cannon C. Newt Gingrich D. Lyndon Johnson E. Sam Rayburn

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56. (p. 275) One of the most important powers of committee chairpersons is the ability to A. decide which bills will be put up for a vote by the entire chamber.

B. pass a bill into law with a simple committee vote.

C. schedule legislation for floor consideration.

D. cast the first vote on all legislation.

E. control the flow of debate on the floor.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

57. (p. 276) A request to force a House committee to release a piece of legislation to the floor for a vote is known as A. a discharge petition.

B. a filibuster.

C. cloture.

D. a hold.

E. a gerrymander.

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58. (p. 276) The Senate tactic of holding the floor for hours on end until an unwanted piece of legislation is dropped or amended is known as A. a discharge petition.

B. a filibuster.

C. cloture.

D. a hold.

E. a gerrymander.

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59. (p. 277) The Senate procedure of calling for an end to debate and forcing a vote on the floor is known as A. a discharge petition.

B. a filibuster.

C. cloture.

D. a hold.

E. a gerrymander.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

60. (p. 277) In 2013, Senate majority leader Harry Reid pushed through a change in the cloture rule to stop filibusters for executive and many judicial nominees by requiring this number of votes to end debate and move to a vote: A. 40 B. 51 C. 60 D. 67 E. 75

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61. (p. 278) Which procedure allows a senator to prevent a vote on an issue until the Senate leadership consults individually with the senator?

A. a discharge petition B. a filibuster C. cloture D. a hold E. a gerrymander

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62. (p. 278) Only the House of Representatives, not the Senate, may initiate A. revenue bills.

B. bills related to foreign affairs.

C. military bills.

D. declarations of war.

E. civil rights legislation.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

63. (p. 279) When presented with a bill, the president can respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT A. signing the bill as it is into law.

B. leaving the bill unsigned, in which case it will become a law after ten days.

C. exercising a pocket veto, whereby the president leaves the bill unsigned for ten days, in which case the bill dies if Congress goes out of session before those ten days expire.

D. exercising a line-item veto, whereby the president agrees to certain provisions of the bill, but crosses out others.

E. vetoing the bill directly, in which case the bill is sent back to Congress for reconsideration.

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64. (p. 280) In which of the following conflicts did Congress officially declare war?

A. War of 1812 with Great Britain B. First Barbary War C. Korean War D. Vietnam War E. First Gulf War

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65. (p. 280) What was the MOST recent conflict in which Congress officially declared war?

A. World War I B. World War II C. Korean War D. Vietnam War E. 2003 Iraq War

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

66. (p. 280) How many times has Congress officially declared war?

A. 0 B. 5 C. 11 D. 16 E. 37

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67. (p. 280) Which of the following statements about the War Powers Resolution is MOST accurate?

A. Its constitutionality has been upheld by the Supreme Court.

B. It prevents the president from ever using military force without first securing a congressional declaration of war.

C. It has effectively curtailed the ability of presidents to employ military force without declarations of war.

D. In the 35 years since it was passed not a single president has recognized its constitutionality.

E. It has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.

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68. (p. 281) Which of the following statements about impeachment is LEAST accurate?

A. The House has the sole power to impeach federal officials.

B. The Senate has the sole power to try impeached officials.

C. In cases of presidential impeachment, the Chief Justice of the U.S. Supreme Court presides over the trial.

D. Federal officials can be impeached for bribery, treason, and high crimes and misdemeanors.

E. The only two presidents ever to be impeached were both charged with bribery (and both acquitted).

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

69. (p. 281) Which of the following is required to remove a president from office via the impeachment process?

A. a two-thirds vote in the House B. a two-thirds vote in the Senate C. approval by a majority of the Supreme Court D. approval by three-fourths of state legislatures E. All of these answers are correct.

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70. (p. 282) In general, the effectiveness of congressional oversight of the executive branch A. is strong, as the Supreme Court has affirmed the legislature's authority to exercise such powers as the legislative veto.

B. often depends on the cooperation of the president being overseen.

C. is strong because it is a power enumerated by the Constitution.

D. is weak, because Congress has no power over the budget of executive agencies.

E. is weak, because Congress has no recognized authority to change executive agency regulations.

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71. (p. 282-283) Which of the following statements about the federal budget is LEAST accurate?

A. While about 25 percent of the federal budget is allocated to nondiscretionary expenditures, most of it can be used to fund any program that Congress desires.

B. The initial proposed federal budget is drawn up by the White House, not by Congress.

C. Congressional budget committees consult with representatives of executive agencies to determine spending limits for government programs.

D. The process of reconciliation allows Congress to change funding targets for various programs to stay within budgetary guidelines.

E. Congress frequently must resort to continuing resolutions, which allow agencies to continue to operate based on the previous year's budget, until the new budget can be finalized.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

72. (p. 283) In order to secure ratification of a treaty, the president must gain the approval of A. two-thirds of the Senate.

B. two-thirds of the House.

C. two-thirds of both chambers of Congress.

D. a simple majority of senators.

E. a simple majority of members of both chambers.

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73. (p. 283) In order to secure approval of a Cabinet secretary, the president must gain the approval of A. two-thirds of the Senate.

B. two-thirds of the House.

C. two-thirds of both chambers of Congress.

D. a simple majority of senators.

E. a simple majority of members of both chambers.

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74. (p. 284) This president suffered a major defeat when the Senate refused to ratify the Versailles Treaty: A. William McKinley.

B. Woodrow Wilson.

C. Theodore Roosevelt.

D. Herbert Hoover.

E. Franklin Roosevelt.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

75. (p. 284) What tactic have presidents employed more recently to ensure Senate ratification of negotiated treaties?

A. threatening to veto popular Senate legislation.

B. involving senators directly in the negotiating process.

C. conferring with senators during the negotiating process.

D. offering executive department appointments to senators.

E. threatening to block funding for Senate legislation.

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Essay Questions 76. Describe how Congress received its structure and functions. What alternatives were argued for in Philadelphia before the delegates agreed on the current bicameral structure?

Why were those alternatives rejected? What powers does the Constitution explicitly grant to Congress? What powers has Congress claimed for itself? How has the influence and standing of Congress changed over time?

Answers will vary.

77. Explain the process by which citizens choose their representatives. What resources must one have to win a congressional election? Why are incumbents so hard to unseat? Do the long tenures enjoyed by many congressmen undermine democracy or benefit their constituency?

Answers will vary.

78. Discuss the role committees play in Congress. What are the various types of committees?

How are committee seats awarded? What powers do committees possess? Is the committee system a positive good or a necessary evil?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 11 - Congress: Doing the People's Business

79. Explain the process by which legislation is drafted and becomes law. What role do different groups, formal and informal, inside Congress and out, play in the process? Why is the procedure so complicated? What are the drawbacks and advantages of this procedure?

Should the legislative process be streamlined?

Answers will vary.

80. Discuss the methods by which Congress might be made more receptive to the American public, and the American public more invested in Congress. What significant problems must be addressed in order for Americans to regain trust in and engagement with Congress? What solutions are best suited to solving these problems? Are these solutions feasible? Is there any likelihood that the people's relationship with Congress will change meaningfully in the immediate future?

Answers will vary.

81. Why is the Speaker of the House such a powerful person? What powers does the Speaker have? Why is there no analogous position in the Senate?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

Chapter 12 The Presidency: Power and Paradox

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 287) In his 2014 State of the Union address, President Obama A. struck a conciliatory tone regarding relations with Congress.

B. announced that he was no longer committed to decreasing carbon emissions in the United States.

C. said that Obamacare had not come anywhere close to achieving its early objectives.

D. stated that, if Congress would not act on important matters, he would act unilaterally.

E. called for Democrats to moderate their positions so that they are more in line with those of the Republican Party.

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2. (p. 289) Which part of the Constitution lays out the powers and duties of the president?

A. Article I B. Article II C. Article III D. Article IV E. Article V

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3. (p. 289) In order to serve as President of the United States today, a person must meet the following criteria EXCEPT A. be at least 35 years old.

B. be a natural born citizen.

C. receive the majority of the popular vote.

D. have resided in the United States for fourteen years.

E. not have previously served two full terms as president.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

4. (p. 289) The Twelfth Amendment affected the presidency by A. barring presidents from serving more than two full terms.

B. having electors cast separate votes for president and vice president instead of two votes for president.

C. allowing the people to elect the president directly.

D. granting the president the right to veto congressional laws that he or she deemed to be unwise or unconstitutional.

E. granting the president the power to make appointments with the Senate's approval when the Senate was in recess.

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5. (p. 289) The Constitution explicitly grants the presidency all of the following powers EXCEPT A. the ability to appoint ambassadors.

B. the right to veto legislation.

C. the right to create new laws.

D. the power to negotiate foreign treaties.

E. the right to command the military during times of war.

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6. (p. 290) In the early 1800s (before 1831), the selection of presidential candidates was decided primarily by A. party leaders in Congress.

B. national conventions.

C. state legislatures.

D. the Supreme Court.

E. leading figures in private business.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

7. (p. 290) In the 1830s, which president enhanced his authority by portraying himself as a tribune of the people, and enlisting the people's support behind his policies?

A. George Washington B. Thomas Jefferson C. James Monroe D. Andrew Jackson E. Abraham Lincoln

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8. (p. 290) President Lincoln demonstrated the wide latitude a president has in responding to a crisis with wartime actions such as A. suspension of habeas corpus.

B. the confiscation of private property without due process.

C. the trial of civilians in military courts.

D. defying the orders of federal courts.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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9. (p. 290) After World War II, America became a prominent world power, and presidents were expected to A. protect our interests abroad.

B. prevent nuclear catastrophe.

C. promote world trade.

D. do all of these: protect our interests abroad, prevent nuclear catastrophe, and promote world trade.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

10. (p. 291) The 2008 presidential campaign is noteworthy for A. witnessing the nomination of the first African American candidate for president from a major party.

B. including the most sustained campaign for president by a woman.

C. including the first major party candidate to forego public funding during the general election since such funding first became available.

D. all of these: the nomination of the first major party African American presidential candidate; the most sustained campaign for president by a woman; and the first major party general election candidate to forego public funding since such funding first became available.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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11. (p. 291) Public financing of presidential campaigns A. was used by President Obama in 2012.

B. was used by Mitt Romney in 2012.

C. has been in place for nearly a hundred years.

D. is essentially obsolete.

E. is required by law.

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12. (p. 291) What was the main difference in fund-raising in the 2012 presidential election compared to past presidential elections?

A. the importance of traditional PACs B. the importance of super PACs C. the inability of the Republicans to get contributions over the Internet D. the willingness of ordinary citizens to contribute to the two campaigns E. the ability of 527s to raise money for the campaigns

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

13. (p. 291) Third-party presidential candidates can receive retroactive public financing for their campaigns A. if they are on the ballot in at least 20 states.

B. if they are on the ballot in at least 30 states.

C. if they receive at least 1 percent of the vote.

D. if they receive at least 5 percent of the vote.

E. if they have kept detailed records of their expenditures.

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14. (p. 291) What was the first presidential election in which super PACs played a large role?

A. 1992 B. 2000 C. 2004 D. 2008 E. 2012

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15. (p. 292) The major difference in fundraising in the 2012 presidential election came from A. contributions of less than $200 from individuals.

B. the national party organizations.

C. the state party organizations.

D. ordinary PACs. E. super PACs.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

16. (p. 292) During the presidential nominating process, the votes of participating citizens decide the A. presidential nominees.

B. pledged delegates.

C. superdelegates.

D. unpledged delegates.

E. members of the party caucus who will select the presidential nominee.

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17. (p. 293) At the 2008 Democratic National Convention, emerged as a powerful and heavily lobbied force in the nominating process, because of the closeness of the race between Barack Obama and Hilary Clinton.

A. unpledged delegates B. union leaders C. women's group leaders D. superdelegates E. special interest group leaders

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18. (p. 293) In the Democratic Party, leaders and elected officials attending the party convention who may pledge support to a candidate prior to the convention are called A. unpledged delegates.

B. superdelegates.

C. outstanding delegates.

D. influential delegates.

E. pre-eminent delegates.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

19. (p. 293) Not all primaries and caucuses are created equal. Certain small states play a disproportionate role in shaping public opinion about the candidates, often because their primary or caucus occurs early. An example of a small state with disproportionate influence is A. Delaware.

B. New Hampshire.

C. Montana.

D. Alaska.

E. North Dakota.

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20. (p. 293) This state typically holds the first presidential caucus: A. Iowa.

B. Kansas.

C. Nebraska.

D. Oklahoma.

E. Minnesota.

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21. (p. 293) This person was NOT a candidate for the Republican presidential nomination in 2012: A. Sarah Palin.

B. Newt Gingrich.

C. Rick Perry.

D. Rick Santorum.

E. Michele Bachmann.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

22. (p. 294-295) Which of the following statements about presidential nominating conventions is LEAST accurate?

A. Lobbyists and other special interests use the events as opportunities to "wine and dine" important political actors.

B. Both parties carefully choreographed their conventions in order to cultivate an image of unity.

C. Discussions about potentially disruptive issues, such as controversial platform planks, usually take place behind closed doors, not on the convention floor.

D. Convention delegates are almost always political insiders and major figures in local and national government instead of average citizens.

E. Major parties can receive public funding to offset the costs of their conventions.

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23. (p. 295) The Republican Party's 2012 vice presidential nominee excited the Republican base because he was A. a supporter of gay marriage.

B. from the rural American West.

C. a decorated war veteran.

D. a strong fiscal conservative.

E. elderly and would appeal to older Americans.

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24. (p. 295) How many electoral votes must a candidate win in order to secure the presidency?

A. 598 B. 270 C. 164 D. 332 E. one more than any other candidate

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

25. (p. 296) Which of the following statements about presidential elections is MOST accurate?

A. The District of Columbia is not awarded any electors; hence its citizens have only a symbolic vote in presidential elections.

B. The Constitution requires electors to cast their votes in accordance with the will of the people who elected them.

C. Every state in the Union grants all of its electoral votes to the candidate who wins the plurality.

D. If one candidate wins the majority of the electoral vote, and another wins the majority of the popular vote, the election is thrown to the House of Representatives.

E. A candidate might win the popular vote but still lose the election.

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26. (p. 296) With regard to presidential elections, Nebraska and Maine are unusual because they A. allow their state legislatures, not their people, to select the states' electors.

B. are the only states that follow the "unit rule."

C. each send only one elector to the Electoral College.

D. divide their states' electoral votes according to the popular vote within the states.

E. award their electoral votes to the candidate who wins the majority of the popular vote throughout the nation, rather than just within their own states.

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27. (p. 296) Thomas Jefferson and John Quincy Adams are the only two presidents to have A. been formally selected by the House of Representatives instead of the Electoral College.

B. lost the popular vote but won the presidency.

C. won the presidency despite not belonging to a major party.

D. tied with their running mate in the Electoral College's presidential vote.

E. won the presidency without launching a national campaign.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

28. (p. 296) The Framers seem to have expected that most presidents would be selected by the A. people.

B. Senate.

C. House of Representatives.

D. Electoral College.

E. Supreme Court.

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29. (p. 296) Who was the MOST recent presidential candidate to win the popular vote yet lose the Electoral College?

A. Republican Thomas Dewey in 1948 B. Republican Richard Nixon in 1960 C. Democrat Jimmy Carter in 1980 D. Democrat Al Gore in 2000 E. Republican John McCain in 2008

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30. (p. 296) In which year did the Supreme Court play the MOST significant role in deciding the victor in a contested election?

A. 1800 B. 1824 C. 1876 D. 1888 E. 2000

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

31. (p. 297) This was an important battleground state in the 2012 presidential election: A. Texas.

B. New York.

C. California.

D. Ohio.

E. Nebraska.

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32. (p. 297) President Obama won reelection in 2012 in large part because he had strong support among A. religious conservatives.

B. Tea Party members.

C. young people, women, and minorities.

D. the elderly and Southerners.

E. white males.

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33. (p. 298) In both 2008 and 2012, President Obama had the LEAST support from which of the following groups?

A. Asian Americans B. Protestants C. women D. people with postgraduate education E. people with income under $30,000

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

34. (p. 299) In both 2008 and 2012, President Obama had the LEAST support in the A. Midwest.

B. Northeast.

C. South.

D. West.

E. President Obama had about equal support in all of these regions.

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35. (p. 299) The powers the Constitution explicitly grants to the president are known as A. express powers.

B. delegated powers.

C. discretionary powers.

D. emergency powers.

E. executive privileges.

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36. (p. 299) The legal powers Congress cedes to the presidency in the ordinary course of events are known as A. express powers.

B. delegated powers.

C. discretionary powers.

D. emergency powers.

E. executive privileges.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

37. (p. 299) The president's ability to veto legislation is an example of A. an express power.

B. a delegated power.

C. a discretionary power.

D. an emergency power.

E. an executive privilege.

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38. (p. 299) When the presidency claims extensive authority, especially during times of war or national emergency, it is claiming A. express powers.

B. delegated powers.

C. discretionary powers.

D. emergency powers.

E. executive privileges.

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39. (p. 299) When President Bush responded to the September 11, 2001 attacks by unilaterally authorizing CIA agents to assassinate terrorist targets, he was exercising A. an express power.

B. a delegated power.

C. a discretionary power.

D. an emergency power.

E. an executive privilege.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

40. (p. 300) Which of the following statements about executive powers of appointment is LEAST accurate?

A. The president is free to choose top administrative posts, known as the cabinet, without having to seek approval by the Senate.

B. Although presidents must secure Senate approval for ambassadors and judges, they are free to select their cabinet members without Senate oversight.

C. The president can temporarily circumvent senatorial oversight by appointing officials while the Senate is in recess.

D. The Senate has rejected few nominees in the modern era, although such rejections have increased in recent years.

E. The Constitution grants department heads and other government officers the power to make lower-level agency appointments.

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41. (p. 301) One of the more controversial (and currently sharply curtailed) powers of the president is the power of impoundment, whereby A. the president can not only veto a bill, but also prevent it from being reconsidered by Congress.

B. the president can seize the property of private citizens without due process in times of emergency.

C. the president can withhold funds from Congress.

D. the president can summarily dismiss congressional members suspected of wrongdoing.

E. the president can cancel national elections in the event of insurrection or invasion.

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42. (p. 301) What is the primary reason that American presidents do not exercise the power of a line-item veto?

A. Congress passed a law stripping them of the power to do so.

B. No president has expressed a desire to wield such a power.

C. There is no precedent of such power anywhere in the American system of government.

D. The Supreme Court has ruled that such a power would require an amendment to the Constitution.

E. The majority of the American people oppose such a power.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

43. (p. 301) The Constitution does not limit or require that the president share which of the following powers with any other branch?

A. pardon power B. judicial appointment C. cabinet appointment D. war power E. law enforcement power

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44. (p. 301-302) Which of the following statements about executive orders is LEAST accurate?

A. Executive orders are exceptional devices used only in times of national emergency.

B. Executive orders have been used to change federal policies on hiring minorities.

C. Executive orders have been used to allow government agents to use interrogation techniques that are widely regarded as torture.

D. Executive orders are used to establish executive branch agencies.

E. Executive orders are used to modify bureaucratic rules and policies in executive agencies.

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45. (p. 301) An executive order is A. a presidential decree that has the force of law but has not been approved by Congress.

B. a presidential decree exclusively used to implement policies mandated by Supreme Court decisions.

C. a proposal for new legislation, which the president places before Congress in hopes of securing its approval.

D. an emergency power Congress grants to the president for brief times during national crises.

E. a presidential decree that stays in effect for only a fixed and limited period of time unless subsequently approved by Congress.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

46. (p. 302) How many times in American history has Congress formally declared war?

A. 23 B. 17 C. 9 D. 5 E. 2

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47. (p. 303) President Bush's decision, with the acquiescence of Congress, to treat captives taken in Afghanistan as unlawful enemy combatants but to deny them the protections guaranteed by the Geneva Convention is an example of A. an express power.

B. a delegated power.

C. a discretionary power.

D. an emergency power.

E. an executive privilege.

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48. (p. 303) A series of U.S. Supreme Court decisions (Rasul v. Bush, Hamdi v. Rumsfeld, and Boumediene v. Bush) affirmed A. post-9/11 detainees have certain constitutional rights and protections.

B. the prohibition of off-shore drilling and exploration.

C. protection of Alaska's public lands from future oil exploration and development.

D. limits to congressional war authority.

E. significant limits to judicial jurisdiction in civil rights cases.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

49. (p. 305) Presidential doctrines formally outline the president's A. foreign policy goals.

B. ideological philosophy.

C. monetary policy.

D. plan for economic growth.

E. relationship with Congress and the American people.

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50. (p. 305) The Monroe Doctrine, issued by President Monroe in 1823, asserted the intention of the U.S. to A. support free people who are resisting subjugation anywhere in the world.

B. resist any attempt by a European power to interfere in the affairs of any Western hemisphere country not already a colony.

C. act as the Western hemisphere's policeman if needed to protect neighbor nations.

D. resist any attempt by the Chinese to dominate Asian countries.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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51. (p. 305-306) The foreign policy tools available to the president include all of the following EXCEPT A. declarations of war.

B. executive agreements.

C. presidential doctrines.

D. summit meetings.

E. diplomatic recognition.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

52. (p. 306) President Bush's attempt to negotiate a binding status of forces agreement with the Iraqi government, without the approval of the U.S. Senate, is an example of A. an emergency power.

B. an executive agreement.

C. a presidential doctrine.

D. an extraordinary rendition.

E. an executive privilege.

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53. (p. 306) Which of the following presidential functions is LEAST associated with the president's role as chief of state?

A. awarding medals to war heroes B. providing annual State of the Union addresses C. greeting foreign dignitaries D. proposing legislation to Congress E. greeting sports champions

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54. (p. 307) Which president described the presidency as a "bully pulpit" from which to advocate for change?

A. Andrew Jackson B. Abraham Lincoln C. Theodore Roosevelt D. Woodrow Wilson E. Franklin Roosevelt

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

55. (p. 307-308) In winning votes for their agenda, presidents can employ a number of tactics, including which of the following?

A. They can offer to direct funds to member districts for discretionary projects.

B. They can help members from their own party raise campaign funds and make personal appearances for them.

C. They can recommend members or their campaign contributors for political appointments.

D. They can appeal to the public and ask them to pressure Congress.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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56. (p. 308) Which of the following statements about the president's legislative power is LEAST accurate?

A. Presidents have an easier time pushing through legislation when they are popular and when their own party controls Congress.

B. Presidents who win a second term of office generally find it easier to push through legislation the second time around because they have already forged the necessary political alliances.

C. The White House maintains an Office of Legislative Affairs in order to help draft legislation and pressure lawmakers into enacting it.

D. Although presidents have few formal means with which to compel lawmakers to enact their agendas, they can exert pressure informally by promising funds for a lawmaker's district or by helping with reelection campaigns.

E. Modern presidents have begun to issue large numbers of signing statements, in which they explain their interpretation of an act they've signed, and sometimes even list elements of the act that they won't enforce.

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57. (p. 308-309) A president's legislative success is relatively high in all of the following situations EXCEPT A. when Congress is in the hands of the president's own party.

B. in the president's period of highest public approval.

C. when it is the president's first term.

D. in times of national emergency when the president commands deference.

E. when Congress is in the hands of the opposition party.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

58. (p. 309) Compared to early presidents, presidents from Ronald Reagan onward have been more likely to A. have their vetoes overturned by Congress.

B. reserve the veto for bills they regard as unconstitutional.

C. play only an indirect role in shaping legislation.

D. issue signing statements qualifying their support for a law.

E. view themselves as representatives of the section of the country with which they identify, not as representatives of the entire nation.

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59. (p. 310) President Obama's job approval rating was highest in A. 2009.

B. 2010.

C. 2011.

D. 2012.

E. His job approval rating held steady over all four years of his first term.

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60. (p. 310) Generally speaking it is MOST difficult to accurately gauge a sitting president's performance as A. economic leader.

B. party leader.

C. opinion leader.

D. lawmaker.

E. commander in chief.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

61. (p. 310-311) Which of the following statements about presidential roles is LEAST accurate?

A. Even though they are likely to bear the brunt of the blame for hard times, presidents actually wield little direct control over the economy.

B. Presidents are allowed to fast-track trade agreements, which Congress then can either ratify or reject, but not amend.

C. When presidents first take office, they usually face a great deal of scrutiny, and must wait until their policies begin to show beneficial effects before they can enjoy their "honeymoon period."

D. Presidents frequently demonstrate gratitude for party loyalty by naming party donors as foreign ambassadors.

E. Presidents frequently campaign and raise funds for party members running for Congress.

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62. (p. 312-313) Which of the following statements about the presidential cabinet is MOST accurate?

A. The cabinet, which originally consisted of 15 departments, now consists of 25.

B. The president is constitutionally required to hold regular meetings with his or her entire cabinet.

C. The president may accord cabinet status to the heads of sub-cabinet agencies, such as the vice president or the director of the CIA. D. The power of cabinet members has increased in recent decades, as presidents depend on them more and more to keep the ever-growing federal bureaucracy functioning.

E. Once persons have been appointed cabinet positions, it is exceedingly rare for them to leave office until the president leaves office, even if the president wins a second term.

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63. (p. 312) This cabinet-level department was created during the presidency of George W. Bush: A. Department of Homeland Security B. Department of Labor C. Department of Veterans Affairs D. Department of Transportation E. Department of Education

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

64. (p. 313-314) Which of the following statements about the Executive Office of the President is LEAST accurate?

A. All of the EOP's high-ranking members must be confirmed by the Senate.

B. The EOP includes groups as diverse as the Speechwriting Office and the National Security Council.

C. The EOP includes the president's chief of staff.

D. The largest policy group in the EOP is the National Security Council, which, despite its size, has seen a decline in influence in the past few years.

E. One element of the EOP, the Office of Management and Budget, originated under the Treasury Department but was moved to the White House where it has become a tool for advancing presidential agendas.

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65. (p. 314) Typically, the MOST powerful person in the White House after the president is the A. vice president.

B. secretary of defense.

C. chief of staff.

D. press secretary.

E. first lady.

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66. (p. 314) The National Security Council A. was created by George Washington in the wake of French threats in the 1790s.

B. is headed by a national security advisor who does not require Senate confirmation.

C. is an agency within the Department of Defense.

D. includes the president, but not the vice president.

E. has fallen out of use over the last two decades.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

67. (p. 316) President George W. Bush molded his presidential style after the A. hub-style arrangement innovated by John Kennedy.

B. hierarchical style preferred by Richard Nixon.

C. corporate model taught at business schools.

D. inquisitive and introspective approach associated with Abraham Lincoln.

E. rigidly structured style favored by the military.

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68. (p. 316) President Obama's presidential style is A. based on the corporate CEO model.

B. rational, rigorous, and unemotional.

C. characterized by a lack of interest in policy details.

D. based on hierarchy found in the military.

E. essentially the same as that of George W. Bush.

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69. (p. 316) A presidential ranking poll reported in the text had this president ranked number 1 by scholars: A. Thomas Jefferson.

B. Bill Clinton.

C. Ronald Reagan.

D. Franklin Roosevelt.

E. George Washington.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

70. (p. 316) A presidential greatness poll reported in the text had this president ranked number 1 by the American public: A. Ronald Reagan.

B. George Washington.

C. Harry Truman.

D. Bill Clinton.

E. Abraham Lincoln.

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71. (p. 317) Proponents of a unitary executive A. fear the development of an imperial presidency.

B. believe that Congress and the president must cooperate closely.

C. worry that the presidency has acquired too many responsibilities.

D. argue that the presidency requires concentration of power and flexibility of action without legislative mandate.

E. contend that Congress must react quickly to punish any president who defies its decrees.

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72. (p. 317) The principle of executive privilege is primarily used to A. overturn legislation of which the president disapproves.

B. distribute money among executive agencies as the president sees fit.

C. safeguard the confidentiality of presidential communications.

D. pressure Congress into expediting legislation proposed by the president.

E. enhance the transparency and accessibility of the Oval Office.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

73. (p. 317) The state secrets privilege A. is not considered a presidential right by President Obama, leading to an unprecedented release of executive branch documents.

B. cannot be used to dismiss claims by those who say they have been harmed by government action.

C. has not been invoked by President Obama, despite its potential use to deflect lawsuits against the government.

D. is usually respected by the courts without examining the evidence in question.

E. can be used to keep information from the public, but not from other branches of government.

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74. (p. 317) The MOST severe limit on presidential power is A. congressional power to overturn presidential vetoes.

B. Senate approval power over presidential appointments.

C. impeachment and removal from office.

D. the growing power of the vice president.

E. the two-term limit.

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75. (p. 317) The only two presidents ever to be impeached are Bill Clinton and A. James Madison.

B. James Buchanan.

C. Andrew Johnson.

D. Warren Harding.

E. Richard Nixon.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

76. (p. 318) Which of the following statements about the vice presidency is LEAST accurate?

A. In recent years, the power of the office has grown; Dick Cheney was probably the most powerful vice president in American history.

B. Aside from presiding over the Senate, the vice president has few significant constitutional duties.

C. The vice president has historically been the president's most important advisor.

D. Presidents can temporarily transfer their authority to their vice presidents if the president will be incapacitated—for instance, by an invasive medical procedure.

E. A vice president who secures the support of the majority of the cabinet can declare a president incapacitated and assume the office of president.

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Essay Questions 77. Define the president's constitutional powers. Which powers does the Constitution explicitly bestow upon the president? Which implied powers has the presidency claimed over time? Are all of the powers currently wielded by the president constitutional ones, or has the executive office expanded its powers beyond constitutional limits?

Answers will vary.

78. Describe how the role of the president has changed throughout American history. Which presidents have been exceptionally powerful ones? Which domestic and international factors contributed to their positions of strength?

Answers will vary.

79. Explain the process by which the American people select their presidents. What are the strengths and flaws of this process? Is the process appropriately democratic? Does it adequately ensure that the will of the American people will dominate? What changes might be adopted to improve the presidential electoral process?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

80. Define the various duties of the American president. What are the president's most important roles? Which of these roles is most carefully supervised or limited by other branches of government or by the American people? Which roles are most susceptible to abuse?

Answers will vary.

81. Describe the various executive agencies that assist the president. Which of these agencies wield the most power? Which of these agencies are losing influence they once wielded? How do these agencies influence the legislative process and further the president's agenda?

Answers will vary.

82. President Obama won a convincing Electoral College and popular vote victory in the 2012 presidential election. Why did the election go his way? What mistakes did Mitt Romney make? How did the president's campaign organize its supporters? Why was Ohio so important?

Answers will vary.

83. Which regions of the country showed the strongest support for President Obama in 2012?

Does this reflect polarization in the country or not? Defend your answer.

Answers will vary.

84. What are the key characteristics of President Obama's management style? How do they serve him well? In what ways do they cause him problems?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 12 - The Presidency: Power and Paradox

85. Should the American people rally around a unitary executive or should they fear an imperial presidency? Support your position.

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

Chapter 13 Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 322) Current student loan debt is A. about $200 billion.

B. about $400 billion.

C. less than $500 billion.

D. less than $700 billion.

E. likely at $1 trillion or more.

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2. (p. 322) Under which type of student loan plan does the federal government loan money or guarantee loans to students that are disbursed by colleges?

A. direct plan only B. FFEL plan only C. private loans plan only D. direct plan and FFEL plan only E. FFEL plan and private loans plan only

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3. (p. 323) Under the Student Loan Fairness Act of 2013, A. interest rates on student loans would never rise above 4.0 percent.

B. undergraduates and graduate students would pay the same rates on student loans.

C. interest rates on student loans could easily climb over time.

D. students who complete their degrees will have all loan interest amounts waived.

E. FFEL loans were reinstated with the backing of the federal government.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

4. (p. 324-327) Which of the following statements about the federal bureaucracy is LEAST accurate?

A. When the republic was founded, a large plantation would have required more workers than the federal government's bureaucracy.

B. Recognizing the importance a bureaucracy would acquire, the authors of the Constitution carefully delineated the powers and responsibilities the federal bureaucracy would possess.

C. The size of the federal bureaucracy tends to grow during times of national crisis.

D. The federal bureaucracy tends to increase in size in response to the public's increasing demands for services.

E. In the normal course of history, factors compelling the expansion of the federal bureaucracy tend to outnumber factors compelling its diminishment.

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5. (p. 324) Which president implemented policies that led to a dramatic reduction in the number of federal employees?

A. Franklin Roosevelt B. Richard Nixon C. Ronald Reagan D. Bill Clinton E. George W. Bush

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6. (p. 324) The bureaucracy of the federal government saw its GREATEST expansion A. during the Civil War. B. during the Progressive Era. C. during the Great Depression.

D. during the Reagan Revolution.

E. under President Bill Clinton.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

7. (p. 325) Which period in American history is MOST associated with the idea that positions in the federal bureaucracy should be reserved for prominent gentlemen?

A. the late eighteenth century B. the mid-nineteenth century C. the late nineteenth century D. the mid-twentieth century E. the late twentieth century

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8. (p. 325) Which president is MOST associated with a defense of patronage and the ability of the common citizen to perform any government function?

A. George Washington B. Andrew Jackson C. James Garfield D. Franklin Roosevelt E. Bill Clinton

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9. (p. 325) Which period in American history is MOST associated with the idea that positions in the federal government should be awarded to party faithful as the "spoils" of victory?

A. the late eighteenth century B. the early nineteenth century C. the late nineteenth century D. the mid-twentieth century E. the late twentieth century

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

10. (p. 325) Which president was assassinated by a frustrated job seeker?

A. William Henry Harrison B. Abraham Lincoln C. James Garfield D. William McKinley E. John Kennedy

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11. (p. 325) Which period in American history is MOST associated with a movement to replace patronage with a merit-based civil service system?

A. the late eighteenth century B. the mid-nineteenth century C. the late nineteenth century D. the mid-twentieth century E. the late twentieth century

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12. (p. 326) Whereas the merit system begun by the Pendleton Act initially only affected 10 percent of federal executive branch employees, it now covers percent.

A. 60 B. 70 C. 80 D. 90 E. 100

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

13. (p. 326) Which period in American history saw the federal civil service adopt its current emphasis on professionalism?

A. the late eighteenth century B. the mid-nineteenth century C. the late nineteenth century D. the mid-twentieth century E. the late twentieth century

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14. (p. 326) Which period in American history is MOST associated with a movement to run the civil service like a business and treat citizens as consumers?

A. the late eighteenth century B. the mid-nineteenth century C. the late nineteenth century D. the mid-twentieth century E. the late twentieth century

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15. (p. 327) The typical bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following traits EXCEPT A. a hierarchical structure.

B. a clear chain of command.

C. formal rules and procedures.

D. individual flexibility.

E. division of labor.

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16. (p. 327) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which private bureaucracies differ from public ones?

A. Whereas public bureaucracies serve the entire American people, private bureaucracies primarily serve their stockholders.

B. Private bureaucracies have fewer bosses to whom they must report.

C. Unlike private bureaucracies, public bureaucracies do not rely on job specialization.

D. Profit-making is not the primary goal of public bureaucracies.

E. The goods produced by public bureaucracies are generally less tangible and easier to take for granted than those produced by private bureaucracies.

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17. (p. 327-328) Which of the following is NOT an example of a bureaucratic pathology?

A. a government agency's drive to expand and increase its responsibilities B. failure to adapt swiftly when conditions warrant such changes C. focusing on the task at hand to such an extent that other legitimate citizen concerns are neglected D. an agency's focus on the interests of the public at large instead of focus on a group it is charged with overseeing or serving E. a government agency's display of favoritism for the interests of the groups it is supposed to oversee

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18. (p. 328) The federal government agency specifically responsible for checking baggage at the nation's airports is the A. Transportation Security Administration.

B. Department of Homeland Security.

C. Department of Transportation.

D. Federal Aviation Administration.

E. Department of Defense.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

19. (p. 328) Who was the FIRST president to appoint a woman to his cabinet?

A. Woodrow Wilson B. Franklin Roosevelt C. Lyndon Johnson D. Ronald Reagan E. Bill Clinton

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20. (p. 328) Who was the first president to appoint an African American man to his cabinet?

A. Woodrow Wilson B. Franklin Roosevelt C. Lyndon Johnson D. Ronald Reagan E. Bill Clinton

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21. (p. 328) Which of the following statements about political appointees is LEAST accurate?

A. Although women and minorities are regularly appointed to head less visible departments, prestigious positions such as Secretary of State or secretary of labor remain the exclusive preserve of white men.

B. The president has the power to nominate nearly 3,000 political appointees, most of whom must receive the Senate's approval.

C. Political appointees generally fill positions in which they shape policy rather than positions in which they put the policy into actual effect.

D. Political appointees are chosen not only on the basis of their managerial skills or expert knowledge, but also for their ideological beliefs and proven loyalty to the president's party.

E. Political appointees usually only hold a position for an average of about two years before moving on to other things.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

22. (p. 328) Excluding postal workers and contractors, roughly how many civil servants does the federal bureaucracy currently employ?

A. 85,000 B. 200,000 C. 850,000 D. 2,000,000 E. 8,500,000

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23. (p. 328) Military contractors such as Blackwater U.S.A., which the federal government hires to perform necessary tasks through contracts, are examples of A. proxy administration.

B. line organization.

C. government corporations.

D. independent regulatory agencies.

E. government-sponsored enterprises.

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24. (p. 328-331) Which of the following statements about the career civil service is MOST accurate?

A. Most civil servants are young people from blue-collar backgrounds who work a few years in the government before moving on to the private sector.

B. In order to ensure that the federal government operates as effectively as possible, federal regulations make it easy to fire incompetent civil servants.

C. As government employees, few civil servants have the power to form unions and bargain collectively.

D. Civil servants may neither run for elected office (partisan or nonpartisan) nor contribute to an electoral campaign.

E. Civil servants are paid according to where they rank on a numerical General Schedule rating system.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

25. (p. 329) Kathleen Sebelius A. was an unpopular governor in Kansas.

B. resigned over the failed Obamacare launch.

C. succeeded in politics despite lacking a college education.

D. held no political office prior to becoming governor of Kansas.

E. was a strong supporter of Hillary Clinton in 2008.

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26. (p. 331-332) Which of the following statements about the federal bureaucracy's rule making powers is LEAST accurate?

A. Bureaucratic agencies are often tasked with drafting specific rules to meet general guidelines established by Congress.

B. Bureaucratic agencies must post a notice in the Federal Register before they can make rules.

C. The bureaucratic agents who are tasked with drafting many of the rules that put congressional policy into action are not elected by the American people.

D. The public is allowed to submit written proposals to an agency that is drafting new rules.

E. As the federal bureaucracy has expanded over the past fifty years, it has grown more distant from the American people and less willing to give them a voice in rule making.

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27. (p. 332) A proposed new rule by a government agency must be A. announced on the floor of both houses of Congress.

B. personally approved by the president and appear with the president's signature.

C. published in the Federal Register.

D. approved by the Congressional Budget Office.

E. appear in the 20 newspapers with the largest daily circulation.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

28. (p. 333) The two oldest cabinet departments are the departments of State and A. the Treasury.

B. the Interior.

C. Agriculture.

D. Commerce.

E. Transportation.

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29. (p. 333) The MOST recent cabinet department is the Department of A. Housing and Urban Development.

B. Veteran Affairs.

C. Homeland Security.

D. Transportation.

E. Energy.

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30. (p. 333) Because they report directly to the president, the cabinet departments are classified as A. proxy administrations.

B. line organizations.

C. government corporations.

D. independent regulatory agencies.

E. government-sponsored enterprises.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

31. (p. 334) The SEC, FCC, and EPA are all examples of A. proxy administrations.

B. line organizations.

C. government corporations.

D. independent regulatory agencies.

E. government-sponsored enterprises.

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32. (p. 335) The Postal Service, which was created by Congress and which reinvests its profits into itself rather than distributing them among shareholders, is an example of A. a proxy administration.

B. a line organization.

C. a government corporation.

D. an independent regulatory agency.

E. a government-sponsored enterprise.

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33. (p. 335) What is the largest government corporation?

A. Post Office B. TVA C. Amtrak D. EX-IM Bank E. FDIC

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

34. (p. 335) All of the following are examples of independent executive agencies EXCEPT A. the CIA. B. the National Science Foundation.

C. U.S. Postal Service.

D. NASA. E. the Social Security Administration.

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35. (p. 335) Which of the following is NOT an example of an independent regulatory agency?

A. National Labor Relations Board B. Federal Reserve System Board of Governors C. Social Security Administration D. Environmental Protection Agency E. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

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36. (p. 336) All of the following are examples of government corporations EXCEPT A. the FBI. B. the TVA. C. Amtrak.

D. the EX-IM Bank.

E. the FDIC.

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37. (p. 336) Government-sponsored enterprises are primarily responsible to A. the Office of Management and Budget.

B. shareholders.

C. Congress.

D. the Executive Office of the President.

E. the electorate.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

38. (p. 336-337) Which of the following statements about external support for federal bureaucracies is LEAST accurate?

A. Federal agencies try to cultivate cordial relations with the president.

B. As elements of the executive branch, federal agencies have no need to maintain a good relationship with Congress.

C. Federal agencies must be wary of the media, because their tendency to report negative stories might harm the agencies' standing.

D. Federal agencies find it important to maintain good relations with the constituency they are supposed to oversee or regulate.

E. Federal agencies have found that they can wield more power if they maintain a favorable public image.

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39. (p. 337-340) Which of the following statements about the power wielded by federal bureaucracies is LEAST accurate?

A. Lawmakers are often dependent on the technical expertise of federal bureaucrats.

B. Because of their arcane knowledge, bureaucrats are often given wide latitude in fleshing out the details of laws.

C. The long tenure enjoyed by most civil servants increases political officials' dependence on them.

D. Bureaucratic leaders cultivate the personal commitment of their employees in order to make their departments more effective.

E. The most effective check on the power of civil servants is presidential appointees, who serve as their bosses and who can easily fire them if they do not follow the president's ideological dictates.

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40. (p. 338-339) The 2013 federal government shutdown A. had little impact on most government bureaucracies.

B. was blamed by the public primarily on Republicans.

C. led to a significant increase in private-sector employment.

D. lasted less than a week.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

41. (p. 340) The Supreme Court has ruled that the power of Congress to legislate implies the power to A. merge one or more agencies together.

B. apply or remove merit appointment status to an agency's employees.

C. remove agency leaders.

D. disband agencies.

E. conduct investigations of agencies.

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42. (p. 340) Which federal agency was accused of creating a "culture of coziness" between senior agency officials and those they were charged with regulating?

A. TSA B. FCC C. FAA D. BIA E. NSF

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43. (p. 340) Congressional checks on federal bureaucracies include all of the following powers EXCEPT for the ability to A. add sunset provisions to laws.

B. appoint and fire agency heads.

C. veto certain bureaucratic interpretations of a given law.

D. cut an agency's budget.

E. conduct investigations into an agency's performance.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

44. (p. 341) What did the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 create?

A. the Senior Executive Service B. the Office of Management and Budget C. the Executive Office of the President D. the Department of the Interior E. the merit system of civil service hiring

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45. (p. 341) Which of the following statements about the Senior Executive Service is LEAST accurate?

A. It was established to give federal agencies greater freedom from the presidency.

B. It is staffed by persons who specialize in managing public services.

C. Instead of working their entire careers at one agency, senior executives may be transferred to another agency where their skills are needed more.

D. Members of the SES currently fill most of the top managerial positions in the federal bureaucracy.

E. There are over 6,000 members of the SES in the government today.

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46. (p. 341) The Executive Office of the President allows the president to A. submit bureaucratic reorganization plans to Congress.

B. establish new federal agencies at the president's discretion.

C. dissolve federal agencies at the president's discretion.

D. fire civil servants without cause in order to make room for political appointees.

E. bypass a given agency in order to facilitate policy implementation.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

47. (p. 341-342) Which of the following statements about presidents and the federal bureaucracy is LEAST accurate?

A. The president has the power to appoint thousands of federal bureaucrats.

B. The president has the sole power to fire political appointees.

C. The president has the sole power to fire heads of independent regulatory commissions.

D. The president cannot fire the vast majority of bureaucrats, who hold protected civil service jobs.

E. Presidents who appoint officials primarily based on loyalty sometimes find that such appointments cause more harm than good.

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48. (p. 342) The president's Office of Management and Budget has the power to do all of the following EXCEPT A. assign budget limits on federal agencies.

B. remove unpopular heads of independent regulatory agencies.

C. review requests for budgetary changes.

D. block an agency's legislative proposal from reaching Congress.

E. block an agency from issuing a major rule.

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49. (p. 342) Which of the following is true of the courts' control over the federal bureaucracy?

A. The courts tend to oppose the actions of the bureaucrats when a lawsuit is filed.

B. Their control is more direct than that held by the legislature.

C. Their control is more direct than the control held by the executive.

D. They can intervene only if an aggrieved party files a lawsuit against an administrative agency.

E. They can intervene if the president asks them to review the practices of a particular agency.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

50. (p. 342) Which of the following statements about whistle-blowing is MOST accurate?

A. It is a common practice and one of the most consistent checks on executive abuse.

B. While whistle-blowing is a theoretical possibility, there are no instances of it in American history.

C. Congress has offered financial rewards to whistle-blowers in some instances.

D. Most civil servants view whistle-blowing as an excellent career move that will help them jump several GS grades.

E. In order to maintain smoothly-functioning bureaucracies, Congress has made most instances of whistle-blowing illegal.

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Essay Questions 51. Describe America's federal bureaucracy and how it has developed throughout its history.

What major changes has it undergone? What internal and external factors produced these changes? How does the character of the federal bureaucracy at a given time reflect the character of the American public and its political ideas of the same time?

Answers will vary.

52. Is there a defense to be made for arrangements like the spoils system, which might seem self-evidently ill-advised to modern eyes?

Answers will vary.

53. German sociologist Max Weber developed the five principles of a competent and efficient bureaucracy. What are these five principles and how do they contribute to a competent and efficient bureaucracy?

Answers will vary.

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54. Describe the general characteristics of a bureaucracy. What are the strengths and weaknesses of a bureaucratic structure? What are the pathologies to which bureaucracies are prone? Is there a feasible way to avoid these pathologies, or are they intrinsic to the nature of bureaucracies?

Answers will vary.

55. How do public bureaucracies differ from private ones? Would the government function better, as many have suggested, if it was run more life a private bureaucracy?

Answers will vary.

56. Discuss bureaucracies and accountability. How democratic is the federal bureaucracy?

Why are federal bureaucrats so hard to remove from office? What measures have been adopted in recent years to make bureaucracies more receptive to the will of the people?

Answers will vary.

57. Discuss the people who work within federal bureaucracies. What distinguishes civil servants from political appointees? What are the respective duties of these two types of federal workers? Who has the most influence and power, civil servants or political appointees?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 13 - Bureaucracy: Citizens as Owners and Consumers

58. Describe the different types of executive agencies and explain their powers and limitations.

Answers will vary.

59. How do Congress, the president, and the public curb the powers of federal agencies? How do those agencies try to avoid or overcome those limitations?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

Chapter 14 The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 345) In its 2012 decision of the Independent Business et al. v. Sebelius, Secretary of Health and Human Services case, the Supreme Court upheld Obamacare on the basis that the law A. involved taxation by the government.

B. involved regulation of interstate commerce.

C. conformed with the freedom to assemble and receive health care.

D. fell under the purview of Congress's right to pass legislation.

E. was constitutional based on the Fourteenth Amendment's equal protection clause.

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2. (p. 345) How many justices voted in favor of the government in the 2012 case of Independent Business et al. v. Sebelius, Secretary of Health and Human Services that upheld the constitutionality of President Obama's signature health care law, the Patient Protection and Affordability Act? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 9

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

3. (p. 346) Which Supreme Court justice was a surprise supporter of Obamacare in the 2012 Independent Business et al. v. Sebelius, Secretary of Health and Human Services decision?

A. Antonin Scalia B. Anthony Kennedy C. Ruth Bader Ginsberg D. Sonia Sotomayor E. John Roberts

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4. (p. 346) Most cases that begin in a state court system are resolved in A. the U.S. Supreme Court.

B. that (the state) system.

C. U.S. district courts.

D. U.S. appellate courts.

E. specialty courts.

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5. (p. 346) The only way a case can move from a state court system to the national system is through A. an appeal from the state's highest court to the U.S. Supreme Court.

B. a request from that state's U.S. senator.

C. an appeal from the state's lowest court to the U.S. district court.

D. an appeal from any state court to the U.S. appellate court.

E. a request from that state's governor.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

6. (p. 346) A case that begins in the national court system will be resolved A. only in the national court system.

B. in any national or state court.

C. in any state supreme court.

D. only in U.S. district courts.

E. only in U.S. appellate courts.

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7. (p. 346-347) Which of the following statements about the U.S. court system is LEAST accurate?

A. The United States possesses a "dual court system," placing citizens under the jurisdiction of both state and national courts.

B. American citizens who are found guilty in a federal court may appeal the decision in their state court system.

C. American citizens who are found guilty by a state court may ultimately appeal their case to the Supreme Court.

D. Cases involving citizens from separate states may be begun in either a state court system or in the federal court system.

E. If a diversity suit is begun in a federal court, the case cannot be transferred to a state court.

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8. (p. 347) A case can NOT proceed directly to the Supreme Court from which of the following types of courts?

A. U.S. Federal Court of Appeals B. Court of International Trade C. Court of Claims D. local trials court E. a state's highest court of appeals

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

9. (p. 347) A U.S. district court would be LEAST likely to preside over a case involving A. shoplifting.

B. antitrust violations.

C. civil rights cases.

D. labor relations.

E. truth-in-lending violations.

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10. (p. 347) Which of the following statements about the U.S. district court system is LEAST accurate?

A. There is no state that does not have its own district court.

B. Every district court serves in only one state.

C. District courts require trials by jury.

D. District courts provide an entryway into the federal court system.

E. District courts are much more likely to follow existing legal precedents than to establish new ones.

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11. (p. 347) Which of the following statements about the federal appeals court system is LEAST accurate?

A. The losing side in a federal district court trial must file special requests to receive permission to appeal their case.

B. There are currently 13 U.S. courts of appeals.

C. The original decision in a case will be overturned if two out of three judges on the appellate court disagree with it.

D. While there are two courts of appeals located in the District of Columbia, every other court of appeals serves no fewer than three states.

E. Particularly important appeals might be decided by all of the judges in a given circuit sitting together en banc.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

12. (p. 348) Which of the following statements about the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court is LEAST accurate?

A. The FISC is generally reluctant to grant warrants permitting the federal government to conduct surveillance of suspected foreign agents within the boundaries of the United States.

B. The FISC meets in secret to determine whether the U.S. government can legally spy on suspected foreign agents within the United States.

C. The FISC hears evidence presented on behalf of the U.S. government, but not on behalf of suspected foreign agents.

D. The Bush administration argued that it did not need a warrant from the FISC to conduct surveillance on suspected terrorists within the United States.

E. When the FISC refuses to grant the U.S. government a warrant, the government can appeal the case with the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court of Review.

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13. (p. 349) In which case did the Supreme Court establish the principle of judicial review?

A. Dartmouth College v. Woodard B. Gibbons v. Ogden C. McCullough v. Maryland D. Marbury v. Madison E. Barron v. Baltimore

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14. (p. 349) The primary basis of American common law is A. the legislative acts of Congress.

B. the accepted customs of a given community.

C. precedent established within the court system.

D. acts of Parliament that remained in effect after the United States established its independence.

E. the collective legislative acts of all the state governments.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

15. (p. 349) The principle of judicial review allows the Supreme Court to A. hear appeals of cases originally decided in lower courts.

B. assess the constitutionality of congressional acts.

C. bypass Congress and create national laws directly.

D. decide legal cases involving disputes between state governments.

E. decide legal cases involving disputes between a state and a foreign government.

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16. (p. 349) The two basic types of law under the American judicial system are criminal law and A. business law.

B. tax law.

C. corporate law.

D. common law.

E. civil law.

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17. (p. 350) Which of the following cases best represents a class action suit?

A. A customer sues a manufacturer on behalf of every consumer who bought a certain defective good.

B. A white man sues a public university because he believes that he was denied admission based on his race.

C. The federal government files charges against every member of an alleged criminal organization.

D. A private business sues the federal government on the grounds that its regulatory standards place an undue financial burden on the company.

E. A citizen sues the state in which she lives on the grounds that its public facilities do not adequately accommodate her individual physical needs.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

18. (p. 350) In which of the following instances would the Supreme Court have original jurisdiction?

A. if a U.S. senator from Alaska were charged with a federal crime B. if the mayor of Birmingham, Alabama, were charged with a federal crime C. if the government of Indiana were to sue the government of Kentucky over the pollution of the Ohio River D. if the president of the United States were charged with high crimes and misdemeanors E. if a citizen of Indiana were to sue a company based in Kentucky over the pollution of the Ohio River

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19. (p. 350) The Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in all of the following cases EXCEPT A. cases involving violations of federal laws.

B. cases involving an ambassador of another country suing a state.

C. cases involving a citizen of one state suing a citizen of another state.

D. cases in which the federal government sues a state.

E. cases in which the federal government sues a company or group of citizens.

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20. (p. 350) In order for a suit to meet the standards of justiciability, the plaintiff must have A. overwhelming evidence.

B. no direct interest or involvement in the proceedings.

C. a political agenda.

D. legal standing.

E. already successfully presented the case in a lower court.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

21. (p. 351) Which of the following occurs FIRST in a legal case?

A. decision by a judge B. appeal to a state supreme court C. appeal to a court of appeals D. decision by a jury E. determination of facts

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22. (p. 352) Which of the following is among the small number of nations whose citizens are nearly as litigious as those of the United States?

A. Germany B. Spain C. Japan D. Italy E. England

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23. (p. 353) Which of the following statements about the early history of the Supreme Court is MOST accurate?

A. The Supreme Court was one of the few effective national institutions to originate under the Articles of Confederation.

B. From its first year, the Supreme Court was inundated with landmark cases.

C. John Marshall was the first chief justice of the Supreme Court.

D. The Supreme Court was created largely because the American people demanded a national court to preserve their liberties.

E. Appointments to the Supreme Court initially carried such little prestige that many appointees declined to accept their seats.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

24. (p. 353) Which of the following was a watershed event that greatly enhanced the power and prestige of the Supreme Court?

A. the appointment of John Jay as the first Chief Justice B. the 1803 Marbury v. Madison decision C. the 1857 Dred Scott decision D. the Court's response to President Franklin Roosevelt's court-packing plan E. the appointment of Roger Taney as Chief Justice

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25. (p. 353) Generally speaking, how did the decisions of the Taney Court differ from those of the Marshall Court?

A. Unlike Taney, Marshall was much more concerned with protecting the civil liberties of racial minorities.

B. Unlike Marshall, Taney tended to advocate a states' rights position.

C. Unlike Taney, Marshall tended to take the side of the southern slave interests.

D. Unlike Marshall, Taney tended to take the side of northern industrial interests.

E. Unlike Marshall, Taney avoided making any controversial or landmark decisions.

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26. (p. 354) Which of the following statements about Franklin Roosevelt's "court-packing" proposal is MOST accurate?

A. It succeeded in increasing judicial support for Roosevelt's New Deal programs.

B. It was accepted by the majority of Congress as a reasonable means of countering the entrenched conservatism of the Supreme Court.

C. It would have forced every Supreme Court justice over the age of 70 to retire or face impeachment proceedings.

D. It inspired a judicial backlash which effectively brought the New Deal Era to an end.

E. It was unconstitutional, because the Constitution stipulates that the Supreme Court should consist of exactly nine justices.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

27. (p. 354) Petitions for writs of certiorari are an important part of the process by which A. the Supreme Court decides which cases to hear.

B. the Supreme Court decides which justice will author the majority's decision.

C. the president decides whom to appoint when a vacancy appears in the Court.

D. the Senate decides whether or not to approve a presidential appointee to the Supreme Court.

E. the Supreme Court decides whether the argument of a disputant in a given case has a strong factual basis.

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28. (p. 354) Which of the following statements BEST captures the current condition of the Supreme Court?

A. Supreme Court justices are a close-knit group who meet regularly to discuss the latest court cases and the fine details of the law.

B. Supreme Court justices' demanding course load leaves them little time to review the latest law reviews, and they have been frequently criticized for their failure to keep abreast of legal developments.

C. The Supreme Court is in perpetual session and hears cases throughout the entire year.

D. Supreme Court justices rarely interact on a personal level and depend upon their clerks to assist them with many of their functions.

E. Each Supreme Court justice is expected to review appellants' cases personally and to write their legal opinions without assistance.

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29. (p. 354) How many of the nine justices must vote to grant certiorari in order for a case to be heard by the Supreme Court?

A. one B. four C. five D. six E. nine

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

30. (p. 355) Which federal office is known as the "tenth justice" because of the Supreme Court's high receptivity to its petitions?

A. attorney general B. President of the United States C. solicitor general D. Speaker of the House E. Secretary of Justice

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31. (p. 355) In which of the following instances is the Supreme Court MOST likely to agree to hear a case?

A. if the case involves an issue over which the Court is internally divided B. if the case involves an issue that has received little attention from the lower courts C. if the case consists primarily of a dispute over facts D. if the case involves an issue that has been decided differently by separate lower courts E. if the case does not involve a weighty issue of jurisprudence

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32. (p. 355) When presenting a case before the Supreme Court, lawyers are permitted A. as much time as necessary, within reason, to present their cases effectively.

B. one day to present their initial argument, and a subsequent half day to respond to the argument of the opposing side.

C. one day to present their initial argument, and a subsequent full day to respond to the argument of the opposing side.

D. exactly thirty minutes to present their entire argument.

E. only one day to present their entire argument.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

33. (p. 357) An opinion written by one justice on behalf of at least five members of the Court is known as A. a majority opinion.

B. a plurality opinion.

C. a dissenting opinion.

D. a concurring opinion.

E. a per curiam opinion.

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34. (p. 357) The only type of Supreme Court decision that can establish a precedent is a A. majority opinion.

B. plurality opinion.

C. dissenting opinion.

D. concurring opinion.

E. per curiam opinion.

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35. (p. 357) An opinion written on behalf of the largest bloc of justices, if that bloc numbers fewer than five members, is known as a A. majority opinion.

B. plurality opinion.

C. dissenting opinion.

D. concurring opinion.

E. per curiam opinion.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

36. (p. 357) An opinion written by a justice who agrees with the decision of the majority, but not with its reasoning, is known as a A. majority opinion.

B. plurality opinion.

C. dissenting opinion.

D. concurring opinion.

E. per curiam opinion.

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37. (p. 357) An opinion written by a justice who disagrees with the decision of the majority is known as a A. majority opinion.

B. plurality opinion.

C. dissenting opinion.

D. concurring opinion.

E. per curiam opinion.

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38. (p. 358) Unsigned opinions that outline the reasoning behind a nearly unanimous Supreme Court decision are known as A. majority opinions.

B. plurality opinions.

C. dissenting opinions.

D. concurring opinions.

E. per curiam opinions.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

39. (p. 358) Andrew Jackson's famous (if perhaps apocryphal) comment that, "John Marshall has made his decision; now let him enforce it," illustrates the fact that A. only the president can decide whether or not Supreme Court decisions will be enacted.

B. the Supreme Court lacks any institutional means to implement its decisions.

C. the decisions of the Supreme Court have little relevance outside the cloistered world of the legal profession.

D. elected officials can safely ignore the decisions of the Supreme Court, because few offices experience as much turnover as that of the Supreme Court justice.

E. the Supreme Court did not always have the institutional power to enforce its decisions that it enjoys today.

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40. (p. 359) Which of the following is NOT one of the means by which Congress has traditionally expressed its disapproval with a Supreme Court decision?

A. voting to remove offending justices from the Court B. drafting amendments to ensure the constitutionality of desired policies C. threatening to modify the Court's appellate jurisdiction D. refusing to fund programs required to put Court decisions into effect E. rewriting overturned laws so that the Supreme Court must either readdress them or leave them be

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

41. (p. 359-360) Which of the following statements about the dynamics of the Supreme Court is LEAST accurate?

A. The known ideological preferences of certain justices make it easy to predict their opinions.

B. Since they do not need to face popular elections, justices rarely consult public opinion when reaching their decisions.

C. Although some justices subscribe to the principle of judicial activism, others prefer the principle of judicial restraint.

D. In the course of deliberations, one might reasonably expect individual justices to change not only their decision but their reasoning several times.

E. Justices sometimes alter their opinion or their decision in order to stay in good standing with their fellow justices.

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42. (p. 360) A Supreme Court justice who believes that the Court should make public policy and vigorously review the policies of Congress and the president follows the philosophy of A. judicial interpretation.

B. judicial restraint.

C. judicial conservatism.

D. judicial cooperation.

E. judicial activism.

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43. (p. 360) Edward White, Harlan Stone, and William Rehnquist are exceptional for being the only Supreme Court justices A. to die in office.

B. to be removed from office through impeachment.

C. to be appointed chief justice while serving as an associate justice.

D. to be appointed to the court despite being marked as "not qualified" by the ABA. E. who were close friends of the president who nominated them.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

44. (p. 360-362) Which of the following entities has the LEAST direct role in deciding who will fill a vacancy on the Supreme Court?

A. the president B. the FBI C. the ABA D. the Senate E. the American public

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45. (p. 361) Which of the following was NOT a member of the conservative bloc of the Supreme Court in 2014?

A. Sonia Sotomayor B. Antonia Scalia C. Samuel Alito D. John Roberts E. Clarence Thomas

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46. (p. 361) Which of the following was NOT a member of the liberal bloc of the Supreme Court in 2012?

A. Elena Kagan B. Stephen Breyer C. Sonia Sotomayor D. Clarence Thomas E. Ruth Bader Ginsberg

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

47. (p. 362) Because of the insight it gives into their doctrinal views, presidents tend to prefer Supreme Court nominees who have A. served on an appellate court.

B. served on a district court.

C. taught at prominent law schools.

D. spent their careers engaged in private practice.

E. published extensively in legal journals.

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48. (p. 363) To his chagrin, President Eisenhower discovered that Earl Warren, Eisenhower's nominee as chief justice, did not meet the A. professional qualifications expected by the Senate.

B. representational qualifications demanded by the American people.

C. longevity he expected when he appointed him.

D. doctrinal qualifications expected by the president himself.

E. interpersonal qualifications needed to work with other members of the Court.

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49. (p. 363) Since the late nineteenth century (with a brief interruption in the mid-twentieth century), at least one Supreme Court seat has been held by a(n) A. person affiliated with the opposite party from the president who nominated him or her.

B. Catholic.

C. African American.

D. woman.

E. political appointee with no legal training.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

50. (p. 363) Who was the first Jewish justice on the Supreme Court?

A. Arthur Goldberg B. Abe Fortas C. Louis Brandeis D. Ruth Bader Ginsburg E. Stephen Breyer

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51. (p. 364) Which president appointed Thurgood Marshall, the first African American Supreme Court justice, to the Court?

A. Franklin Roosevelt B. Woodrow Wilson C. Lyndon Johnson D. Jimmy Carter E. Ronald Reagan

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52. (p. 364) Which president appointed Sandra Day O'Connor, the first female Supreme Court justice, to the court?

A. Franklin Roosevelt B. Woodrow Wilson C. Lyndon Johnson D. Jimmy Carter E. Ronald Reagan

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

53. (p. 364) Before the appointment of Justice Sonia Sotomayor in 2009, there had been, in the history of the Supreme Court, female justice(s) and black justice(s).

A. one; one B. two; one C. two; two D. two; three E. one; four

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54. (p. 365) How has the appointment and approval of lower federal courts changed in the past three decades?

A. Since most important decisions are made by the Supreme Court, few government officials express much interest in who sits in the lower courts.

B. Senators have increased their ability to select the lower court judges who will operate in their states.

C. The tradition of "senatorial courtesy" has disappeared completely.

D. The confirmation of lower court judges has become more hotly contested.

E. The Senate and the presidency have come to agree that partisan factors should not intrude on judicial concerns, and that nominees should be judged solely based on their professional qualifications.

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55. (p. 366-367) Which of the following is NOT one of the trends evident in the judiciary over the past sixty years?

A. The court system has grown increasingly accessible to private citizens.

B. The Supreme Court has expanded its role in shaping public policy.

C. The Supreme Court has demonstrated a willingness to investigate a broader range of judicial questions.

D. Interest groups have increasingly relied on lawsuits rather than elections to achieve their goals.

E. The court system has grown less accessible to business groups and other private interests.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

Essay Questions 56. Describe the manner in which the Supreme Court decides which cases to hear and reaches a decision about the merits of the case. Are the Court's current procedures in these regards adequate to meet the needs of the American people? Should the Court be expected to take on more cases or to allow disputants more time to present their cases? Should they rely less on law clerks?

Answers will vary.

57. Discuss the changing role and ideology of the Supreme Court. During what periods of time has it seemed to be most active? When has it retreated into the shadows? How has it helped to shape American history? Is the Court more likely to react to or to set historical trends?

Answers will vary.

58. Describe the manner by which justices are appointed to and retain their seats on the Supreme Court. Is this procedure too undemocratic, or does it provide a necessary curb to democratic excesses? Should justices be openly selected on the basis of their ideological stances, or should the president and the Senate strive to find well-informed but impartial candidates?

Answers will vary.

59. What functions does the Supreme Court serve today? How have its functions changed since the founding of the republic? Should the Supreme Court wield more or less power than it currently does?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 14 - The Courts: Judicial Power in a Democratic Setting

60. What is the relationship between the citizenry and the judicial system? How much access does the average citizen have to the courts? What factors have helped to expand this access in recent years?

Answers will vary.

61. What factors affect a president's decision to nominate someone to the Supreme Court?

Once the decision is made, what is the Senate's role and how does it fulfill it?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

Chapter 15 Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 370) Which of the following statements about student loans is true?

A. College tuition costs have increased dramatically in the last decade.

B. Grants and scholarships have kept up with recent rises in college tuition.

C. Student loans can be erased by declaring bankruptcy.

D. Private universities usually charge lower tuition than public universities.

E. The overall level of student loan debt has decreased over the last decade.

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2. (p. 370) By 2014, the amount of private debt from student loans was about A. $70 billion.

B. $130 billion.

C. $380 billion.

D. $520 billion.

E. $1 trillion.

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3. (p. 371) Which of the following definitions MOST completely expresses the meaning of the term "public policy"?

A. government actions that have a direct and tangible effect on a wide variety of citizens B. anything the government chooses to do or not to do C. government policies directed toward specific economic or social goals D. any government policy that draws the support of the majority of the American people E. government actions designed to benefit all of the American people, not just particular interest groups

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

4. (p. 372) Many lawmakers remained reluctant until recently to involve government in devising solutions to climate change. This indicates a failure of A. problem recognition.

B. agenda setting.

C. policy formation.

D. policy adoption.

E. policy evaluation.

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5. (p. 372) Following the BP spill, the president, Congress, and various government agencies had difficulty deciding on the correct actions to deal with the problem. This indicated a problem with A. problem recognition.

B. agenda setting.

C. policy formation.

D. policy adoption.

E. policy evaluation.

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6. (p. 372) What is the first step in the policymaking process?

A. policy formation B. agenda setting C. problem recognition D. policy adoption E. policy evaluation

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

7. (p. 373) What is the last step in the policymaking process?

A. policy formation B. agenda setting C. policy implementation D. policy adoption E. policy evaluation

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8. (p. 373) Policy evaluation is primarily carried out by A. bureaucracies.

B. the president.

C. congressional committees.

D. interest groups.

E. the public.

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9. (p. 373) Which of the following is an example of a policy whose benefits and costs are both widely distributed?

A. Social Security B. funding for public schools C. air pollution controls D. agriculture subsidies E. tax policy

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

10. (p. 373) Which of the following is an example of a policy whose benefits are widely distributed but whose costs are concentrated?

A. Social Security B. funding for public schools C. air pollution controls D. agriculture subsidies E. tax policy

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11. (p. 373) Which of the following is an example of a policy whose costs are widely distributed but whose benefits are concentrated?

A. Social Security B. investment bank regulations and investigations C. air pollution controls D. public colleges E. tax policy

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12. (p. 373) Which of the following is an example of a policy whose benefits and costs are both concentrated?

A. Social Security B. funding for public schools C. air pollution controls D. agriculture subsidies E. tax policy

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

13. (p. 374) The first national parks in the United States were created by A. George Washington.

B. Abraham Lincoln.

C. Theodore Roosevelt.

D. Franklin Roosevelt.

E. John Kennedy.

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14. (p. 375) A milestone in the modern environmentalist movement was the publication of the book Silent Spring, by A. John Muir.

B. John Audubon.

C. Rachel Carson.

D. Ralph Nader.

E. James Watt.

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15. (p. 375) Which of the following statements about the environment and environmental protection is MOST accurate?

A. Pollution on Ohio's Cuyahoga River was so bad that the river caught on fire in 1969.

B. Before the 1970s, the federal government had pursued no measures to protect the environment.

C. Environmental protections established in the 1970s have failed to prevent rising levels of pollution.

D. Although environmental protections established in the 1970s have prevented pollution levels from rising, they have failed to reduce pollution levels significantly.

E. Since an initial flurry of legislation in the 1970s, Congress has passed no new environmental legislation.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

16. (p. 375) Which of the following statements about the Environmental Protection Agency is LEAST accurate?

A. The agency has the authority to determine how much pollution a given industry can legally produce.

B. The agency has the authority to identify the source of pollution.

C. The agency has the authority to develop and enforce regulations to protect the country's natural resources.

D. The agency has failed to produce substantial reductions in pollution levels.

E. The agency's regulations have made it more expensive for many industries to function inside the United States.

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17. (p. 375) EPA regulations exemplify public policies that A. widely disperse both costs and benefits.

B. concentrate both costs and benefits.

C. concentrate benefits while widely dispersing costs.

D. concentrate costs while widely dispersing benefits.

E. achieve widely dispersed benefits without levying any substantial cost.

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18. (p. 375-378) Which of the following statements about environmental legislation in the U.S. today is LEAST accurate?

A. Despite recognition of threats to the environment, the U.S. government is reluctant to commit itself to international standards.

B. The U.S. government tries to balance the often conflicting needs of a healthy environment and a healthy industrial economy.

C. The U.S. government was one of the first signers and often the strongest supporter of the Kyoto Protocol and other international environmental initiatives.

D. Although the heyday of environmental regulation occurred in the 1970s, the U.S. government continues to enact new legislation to improve fuel efficiency.

E. Environmental initiatives are increasingly emerging out of state and local governments, rather than being the exclusive preserve of the national government.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

19. (p. 375) The is a market-based system of pollution control whereby individual businesses can buy and sell emission credits even while the total level of industry pollution is capped at some level.

A. cap and trade system B. priority shift system C. pollution credits transfer system D. trade up system E. None of these answers is correct.

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20. (p. 376) In 2013, President Obama set a standard of sold in the United States in 2025.

A. 18.5 B. 22.5 C. 35.5 D. 41.5 E. 50.4

miles per gallon for all new cars

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21. (p. 376) In a 2014 case about the ability of the EPA to regulate greenhouse gas emissions, the Supreme Court ruled that A. the EPA can regulate all emitters of greenhouse gases.

B. the EPA can regulate only major emitters of greenhouse gases.

C. the EPA cannot regulate any greenhouse gas pollution without further congressional authorization.

D. the EPA cannot regulate any greenhouse gas pollution without a constitutional amendment allowing such action.

E. greenhouse gases have no role in climate change and thus cannot be considered a form of pollution.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

22. (p. 377) Which nation produces the highest absolute levels of carbon dioxide emissions?

A. Brazil B. China C. Japan D. United States E. Mexico

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23. (p. 377) Which nation will probably produce the highest absolute levels of carbon dioxide emissions fifteen years from now?

A. Brazil B. China C. Japan D. United States E. Mexico

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24. (p. 377) Which of the following statements about international instances of carbon dioxide emissions is MOST accurate?

A. Although the United States emits the second-highest level of carbon dioxide globally, it is not among the top 10 highest polluters in per capita rate of carbon dioxide emissions.

B. The United States produces three times as much carbon dioxide as the entire continent of Africa.

C. The per capita rate of carbon dioxide emissions in the United States is the highest in the world.

D. The total carbon dioxide emissions of the United States is projected to double by 2035.

E. With the help of EPA restrictions, the total carbon dioxide emissions of the United States are expected to drop by 30 percent by 2035.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

25. (p. 379) Which of the following statements about poverty in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. The poverty rate today is less than half of what it was in the 1950s.

B. The group with the highest absolute numbers of people living in poverty is white adults between the ages of 18 and 64.

C. The current poverty threshold for a family of four is slightly under $22,000.

D. There are far more adults over the age of 64 living in poverty than adults below the age of 64.

E. The highest rates of poverty occur among racial and ethnic minorities.

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26. (p. 380) Social safety net expenditures currently constitute approximately what percentage of the federal budget?

A. 90 percent B. 81 percent C. 67 percent D. 52 percent E. 24 percent

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27. (p. 380) Which of the following statements about welfare in the United States is LEAST accurate?

A. Despite the name, not everyone who qualifies for an entitlement program is entitled to receive benefits; the determination is made by the availability of funding during the time period in which benefits are applied for.

B. Federal welfare was largely nonexistent before the Great Depression, and poverty was addressed primarily by local governments and private charities.

C. The 1960s witnessed an increase in welfare programs with the establishment of Medicare and Medicaid, among other initiatives.

D. In the 1990s the principal program for aiding poor families, AFDC, was reformed to impose work requirements and time limits on recipients.

E. Currently, states distribute welfare to needy citizens from funds the states receive from federal block grants.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

28. (p. 380) Welfare payments to needy families exemplify public policies that A. widely disperse both costs and benefits.

B. concentrate both costs and benefits.

C. concentrate benefits while widely dispersing costs.

D. concentrate costs while widely dispersing benefits.

E. achieve widely dispersed benefits without levying any substantial cost.

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29. (p. 381) President George W. Bush's faith-based initiative A. allowed faith-based groups to distribute aid to the poor, but did not allow them to make use of federal funding to do so.

B. maintained a strict separation of church and state by preventing discriminatory practices by the faith-based partner groups.

C. was praised on the campaign trail by Barack Obama, who then ended the program and prevented the establishment of any similar programs with an executive order.

D. was ended with the presidency of Barack Obama, who outright banned discriminatory practices by faith-based partners.

E. was criticized on the campaign trail by Barack Obama, who then established a similar program once he became president.

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30. (p. 381) In the 2000s, the great majority of those without health insurance were in A. rich families.

B. upper-middle class families.

C. families of government employees.

D. working families.

E. families on welfare and Medicaid.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

31. (p. 382) The Patient Protection and Affordable Health Care Act A. requires only those actually employed to have health insurance.

B. provides financial assistance to those who cannot afford premiums.

C. does not involve state governments in its implementation.

D. was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2012.

E. was supported by most Republicans in Congress.

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32. (p. 382) The 2013 rollout of the Patient Protection and Affordable Health Care Act A. was delayed by the Supreme Court.

B. took place in only a few select states.

C. had serious problems.

D. was a moderate success.

E. was a major success.

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33. (p. 382) Which of the following was NOT a contributing factor in creating the Great Depression of the 1930s?

A. bank failures B. industrial underproduction C. over-speculation in the stock market D. international trade restrictions E. low wages

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

34. (p. 382) The 2007 recession was triggered primarily by A. a steep drop in the stock market that caused the savings of many ordinary Americans to evaporate.

B. bad loans made by the government and private banks to large but inefficient companies.

C. an unwillingness of American consumers to borrow money.

D. poor government regulation of a banking industry that made mortgage loans to people who couldn't repay them.

E. problems with major European economies that lessened the ability of American companies to export goods to Europe.

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35. (p. 382) Auto companies were hit particularly hard in the most recent recession when compared to foreign competitors, because of the additional burden of A. a greatly deteriorated industrial infrastructure.

B. lack of access to foreign markets.

C. the inability to get a piece of government stimulus money.

D. a lack of government subsidies.

E. paying for health care and pensions.

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36. (p. 383) The largest source of federal revenue is A. excise taxes.

B. individual income taxes.

C. payroll taxes.

D. corporate income taxes.

E. customs duties.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

37. (p. 383) The second-largest source of federal revenue is A. excise taxes.

B. individual income taxes.

C. payroll taxes.

D. corporate income taxes.

E. customs duties.

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38. (p. 383) Economic periods known as recessions are generally marked by A. high rates of unemployment and reduced demand for goods.

B. high rates of unemployment and high demand for goods.

C. high rates of unemployment and high prices on goods.

D. low rates of unemployment and high prices on goods.

E. low rates of unemployment and reduced demand for goods.

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39. (p. 383) Inflation is caused when A. supply cannot keep pace with demand.

B. supply and demand achieve near balance.

C. taxes are raised too high.

D. high rates of unemployment prevent consumers from buying goods.

E. the government artificially curbs demand for goods and services.

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40. (p. 383) Ronald Reagan's policy of supply-side economics focused on A. putting Keynesian principles into actual practice.

B. raising taxes to combat excessive inflation.

C. decreasing industrial regulation so that companies could sell goods more cheaply.

D. providing government subsidies to private businesses that met certain regulatory standards.

E. increasing government spending in order to stimulate the economy.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

41. (p. 384) A significant problem with the implementation of supply-side economic policies under both Reagan and George W. Bush is that A. government spending was allowed to increase despite declines in government revenues.

B. promised tax cuts were never delivered, leading to a decline in consumer confidence.

C. decreased government spending lowered the demand for goods, offsetting the effect of tax rebates.

D. the American people are not generally supportive of lowering taxes.

E. the federal deficit was allowed to drop too low, resulting in an inflationary economy.

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42. (p. 384) The Troubled Asset Relief Program was designed to A. purchase large amounts of foreclosed homes on behalf of owners that could not pay adjustable-rate mortgages.

B. purchase large insurance companies deemed "too big to fail."

C. stabilize interest rates.

D. put money into the hands of homeowners in threat of foreclosure.

E. infuse money to help stabilize the banking system.

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43. (p. 385) Which of the following statements about American budgetary deficits is MOST accurate?

A. Foreign investors are legally prohibited from purchasing U.S. securities.

B. Over the past thirty years, the deficit has risen sharply when Democrats controlled the White House and dropped precipitously when Republicans controlled it.

C. The government currently spends over half of its revenue paying interest on its debt.

D. The current deficit is substantially lower than it was in 2009.

E. Treasury bonds are increasingly difficult to sell, as they provide low returns, and the government has defaulted on them repeatedly in the past forty years.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

44. (p. 385) Under which of the following presidents did the federal government actually have a government surplus?

A. Ronald Reagan, a Republican B. George H. W. Bush, a Republican C. Bill Clinton, a Democrat D. George W. Bush, a Republican E. Barack Obama, a Democrat

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45. (p. 387) One means by which the Fed affects the American economy is by A. drafting the budget for the federal government.

B. requiring banks to hold a specific sum of money in reserve.

C. printing new money when supply runs low.

D. imposing new taxes on American citizens.

E. investing the national reserves in blue chip stocks.

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46. (p. 387-388) Which of the following statements about America's federal monetary policy is LEAST accurate?

A. The officials most responsible for determining America's monetary policy are neither elected by the people nor directly accountable to them.

B. Every bank chartered by the federal government or by a state must belong to the Federal Reserve System.

C. Banks that join the Federal Reserve receive access to a number of benefits, including the right to borrow money at attractive rates.

D. The Federal Reserve controls the supply of money in the American economy, increasing it to combat recession, shrinking it in response to inflationary trends.

E. The Federal Reserve System has a complex structure that includes a seven-member Board of Governors and twelve regional banks.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

47. (p. 388) When the Fed sells a bond, it A. removes money from circulation equivalent to the value of the bond.

B. deposits the money it receives from the sale in one of its member banks.

C. invests the proceeds in the stock market to aid economic development.

D. increases the amount of money available to make loans and buy goods.

E. uses the profits to decrease the federal debt.

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48. (p. 388) Which means does the Fed MOST frequently employ to regulate the money supply?

A. changing the reserve requirement ratio B. changing the discount rate C. engaging in open market operations D. changing the fed funds rate E. printing new money

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49. (p. 388) Which of the following statements about the Federal Reserve is MOST accurate?

A. It rarely has any contact with Congress or any other representative body.

B. It was created during the Great Depression as part of Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal program.

C. It was created shortly after the ratification of the Constitution.

D. It is one of the few branches of government fully controlled by the people.

E. It is better equipped to respond to inflation than to reverse a recession.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

50. (p. 388) FMOC-implemented changes in the federal funds rate generally affect which of the following?

A. the amount of reserve cash a bank must keep on hand B. consumer loans for things like automobiles and credit card purchases C. the ease with which manufacturers can borrow money for investment in their own businesses D. corporate loans for investment in the bond market E. the rate at which the federal government can repay its debts

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51. (p. 389) During the recent financial crisis, Fed chairman Bernanke implemented quantitative easing, a procedure by which the Fed A. floods the markets with additional reserves it creates.

B. lowers interest rates.

C. lowers the reserve requirement ratio.

D. raises the discount rate.

E. buys government securities.

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52. (p. 389-390) Which of the following statements about global economic policy is LEAST accurate?

A. With the ratification of NAFTA, the United States became part of the world's largest free trade zone.

B. Many economists argue that once-popular protectionist policies are harmful to both the international and domestic economies.

C. Protestors have argued that globalization, especially as directed by international organizations such as WTO, undermine regional sovereignty and representative democracy.

D. The United States currently runs a large trade deficit, buying more goods from foreign countries than it sells abroad.

E. Among the chief proponents of free trade policies is organized labor, which believes that opening more markets to American goods will create more jobs for low-skilled American workers.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

53. (p. 390) The International Monetary Fund A. is responsible for keeping international credit markets operating.

B. is responsible for adjudicating international trade disputes.

C. is responsible for negotiating international trade agreements.

D. makes loans to help promote economic growth in developing nations.

E. monitors compliance with existing international trade agreements.

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Essay Questions 54. Describe the measures the federal government has adopted to protect the environment.

How do these measures distribute costs and benefits? Do they place onerous burdens on American businesses or do they allow those businesses too much latitude? Can local governments adequately address environmental problems, or do these problems require international solutions?

Answers will vary.

55. What steps have been taken at the national and international level to address the threat of climate change? What are the political difficulties faced by policymakers in this struggle?

Answers will vary.

56. Discuss the state of antipoverty programs in the United States today. What is the history of these programs and how have they changed in recent years? Have these changes been effective? What areas of social need have not been adequately addressed? What are the financial costs of maintaining the current social safety net? What would be the social cost of removing it or reducing it?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 15 - Public Policy: Responding to Citizens

57. Describe the general process of public policy formation. How does public policy evolve from the recognition of a problem to the implementation of an effective solution? Can a system of public policy formation be perfected? How can the government adequately assess all potential problems and manage its resources to deal with as many as possible? Must the government necessarily overlook or underfund certain problems? To put it another way, do Americans expect too much from the national government?

Answers will vary.

58. Discuss the role of the Federal Reserve in the American economy. What are the Fed's specific functions? What are the tools at its disposal? How did the Fed originate and how is it staffed? Should an institution that is not controlled by the people, and which is not fully an instrument of government, be allowed to wield as much influence as the Fed does?

Answers will vary.

59. Discuss the challenges presented by an increasingly global economy. Should the United States commit itself to free trade, or should it provide protections for the domestic industries on which its citizens depend? How much say should international organizations such as WTO have in determining America's economic policies? Do the trends of economic globalization and possible environmental catastrophe make it inevitable that the United States will have to forfeit some degree of its sovereignty in the near future?

Answers will vary.

60. Use the 2010 Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico to illustrate the different steps of the policymaking process. First describe the spill itself, and then describe the specific steps taken by President Obama and Congress to deal with the disaster.

Answers will vary.

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61. Wealth and income inequality is an important issue in America. How do the rich, the middle class, and the poor compare in terms of wealth and income? How has this changed in recent decades? Has one group done comparatively better than the others? Finally, how does this wealth and income inequality measure up to key American values?

Answers will vary.

62. What caused the recession that began in 2008? How did the Federal Reserve, the president, and Congress attempt to deal with the most serious economic downturn since the Great Depression? How successful were these attempts? What changes were made to prevent a similar recession in the future?

Answers will vary.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

Chapter 16 Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

Multiple Choice Questions 1. (p. 394) Alexis de Tocqueville, writing in the early nineteenth century about America, noted that America's prosperity rests on its A. geographic isolation only.

B. defensible borders only.

C. absence of passion for war only.

D. geographic isolation, defensible borders, and absence of passion for war.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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2. (p. 394) The chief distinction between defense policy specifically and foreign policy generally is that the former centers on A. all measures for protecting America's vital interests.

B. measures intended to protect American life and property within the country's own borders.

C. strategic decisions about the scale and use of military force in national security.

D. maintaining peace through foreign economic aid programs.

E. the need for active diplomacy to prevent armed conflict.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

3. (p. 394) The central tenet of the Monroe Doctrine was that the United States would A. make no attempt to increase its own territorial holdings, and would prevent any other country from trying to seize new land.

B. regard new European imperial activities in the Americas as a threat to American security.

C. work closely with European powers to extend the blessings of republican government throughout the Americas.

D. intervene in the affairs of any American nation whose internal disorder threatened regional stability.

E. intervene on behalf of people who were struggling to prevent their liberties from being taken away by internal factions or outside threats.

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4. (p. 395) Around the turn of the twentieth century, John Hay proposed the Open Door Policy to guarantee American access to trade with A. China.

B. India.

C. Africa.

D. Cuba.

E. Japan.

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5. (p. 395) The Roosevelt Corollary was used to justify American intervention in A. China.

B. India.

C. Africa.

D. Cuba.

E. Japan.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

6. (p. 395) The central tenet of the Roosevelt Corollary was that the United States would A. make no attempt to increase its own territorial holdings, and would prevent any other country from trying to seize new land.

B. welcome European military intervention in the internal affairs of American countries that had proven themselves incapable of self-government.

C. work closely with European powers to extend the blessings of republican government throughout the Americas.

D. intervene in the affairs of American nations if they proved unable to maintain order and national sovereignty on their own.

E. intervene on behalf of people who were struggling to prevent their liberties from being taken away by internal factions or outside threats.

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7. (p. 395) The Roosevelt Corollary was used primarily to justify American military interventions in A. the Mediterranean.

B. Southeast Asia.

C. the South Pacific.

D. the Caribbean.

E. Eastern Europe.

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8. (p. 395) The first federal peacetime draft in U.S. history was established A. immediately after the end of World War I. B. immediately after the end of World War II. C. shortly after the ratification of the Constitution.

D. at the end of the nineteenth century.

E. shortly before the United States entered World War II.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

9. (p. 395) Which of the following statements about American involvement in World War I is MOST accurate?

A. The United States never ratified the Treaty of Versailles that Wilson had helped to negotiate to end World War I. B. Recognizing the need for an international peacekeeping organization, the United States became a charter member of the League of Nations at the end of World War I. C. Despite the heavy demands of fighting the war, the United States refused to implement a draft, choosing instead to rely on an all-volunteer army.

D. American involvement in World War I was part of a long tradition of American intervention in European wars.

E. American involvement in World War I ushered in a new era in which American citizens had little stake in and took little interest in foreign affairs.

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10. (p. 395) The central tenet of the Truman Doctrine was that the United States would A. make no attempt to increase its own territorial holdings, and would prevent any other country from trying to seize new land.

B. welcome European military intervention in the internal affairs of American countries that had proven themselves incapable of self-government.

C. work closely with European powers to extend the blessings of republican government throughout the Americas.

D. intervene in the affairs of American nations whose internal disorder threatened regional stability.

E. intervene on behalf of people who were struggling to prevent their liberties from being taken away by internal factions or outside threats.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

11. (p. 395) Throughout much of the Cold War, the United States expressed a commitment to preventing Communists from seizing control of free countries, a policy that was known as A. containment.

B. rollback.

C. blowback.

D. isolationism.

E. détente.

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12. (p. 395) During which conflict did the United States abandon the draft in favor of an allvolunteer military force?

A. World War I B. World War II C. Korean War D. Vietnam War E. First Gulf War

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13. (p. 395-396) Two key strategic doctrines that guided U.S. military power during the Cold War period were A. isolationism and praetorianism.

B. brinkmanship and neo-nationalism.

C. containment and mutually assured destruction (MAD).

D. neoconservatism and containment.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

14. (p. 396) Which of the following initiatives would be MOST appropriate to a policy of détente?

A. forming new alliances to isolate one's chief rival B. vilifying one's chief rival with alarmist rhetoric C. reaching an agreement with one's chief rival to decrease each side's military arsenal D. using all means short of outright war to decrease the influence and standing of one's chief rival E. hurting one's chief rival by waging proxy wars against its weaker allies or satellites

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15. (p. 396) Which of the following conflicts has had the GREATEST military cost?

A. World War I B. World War II C. Korea D. Vietnam E. Post 9/11: Iraq, Afghanistan, Other

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16. (p. 396) Which of the following conflicts has had the second-greatest military cost?

A. World War I B. World War II C. Korea D. Vietnam E. Post 9/11: Iraq, Afghanistan, Other

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

17. (p. 397) The Soviet empire collapsed in the early 1990s partly as a result of A. the Soviets' failure to keep pace with America.

B. a massive loss of Soviet credibility internationally.

C. both the Soviets' failure to keep pace with America and a massive loss of their credibility internationally.

D. the refusal of Soviet leadership to attempt a thawing of relations with the United States.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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18. (p. 397) Since the end of the Cold War, A. the United States and Russia have attempted to weaken each other through a series of "proxy wars."

B. Russia has ceased to hold significant power on the world stage.

C. the international community has meekly acquiesced to American international supremacy.

D. NATO has expanded to include a number of nations that formerly belonged to the Soviet bloc.

E. the United States has encouraged the restoration of the Russian military and the expansion of Russian territory in order to restore a bipolar world system.

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19. (p. 397) According to the Bush Doctrine, which of the following would be considered the MOST effective means for ending the threat posed by international terrorism?

A. Establish democratic governments in every country.

B. Convert all the world's peoples to Christianity.

C. Create a multipolar world in which no single nation wields overwhelming military force.

D. Negotiate with hostile regimes in order to strike a favorable balance of power.

E. Insist that no country should resort to the use of military force except in response to the armed aggression of another country.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

20. (p. 397) The official military policy adopted by the George W. Bush administration that permits the use of force to prevent hostile acts by our enemies even if we are uncertain about the time and place of the enemy attack is called A. deterrence.

B. preemption.

C. plausible deniability.

D. containment.

E. counter-balance.

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21. (p. 397) President Bush, in introducing his new national security policy, indicated that the peace and security of free nations rests on which of the following?

A. working together to build strong and effective international institutions B. restraining aggression and evil by force C. a commitment to the global expansion of democracy D. all of these: working together to build strong and effective international institutions; restraining aggression and evil by force; and a commitment to the global expansion of democracy E. None of these answers is correct.

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22. (p. 398) President Obama's foreign policy has been marked by all of the following, EXCEPT A. an increased emphasis on global cooperation to deal with crises and problems.

B. a focus on stopping the spread of weapons of mass destruction.

C. an inability to end extensive American combat in Iraq.

D. stressing the threat posed by global warming.

E. promoting universal human rights.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

23. (p. 398) In 2011 President Obama stated that America's foreign and military policy was "pivoting" to place a much greater emphasis on this country/region: A. Asia-Pacific.

B. Russia.

C. Central and South America.

D. Africa.

E. Europe.

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24. (p. 399) The constellation of military, economic, and ideological concerns about security constitutes what policymakers refer to as a country's A. legacy.

B. dilemma.

C. promise.

D. national interests.

E. foreign policy.

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25. (p. 399) Foreign policy is generally guided by the assumption that nation-states act in a world that is somewhat A. anarchic.

B. controlled.

C. peaceful.

D. idealistic.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

26. (p. 399) Which school of foreign policy is concerned with protecting national interests through military force, but demonstrates little explicit interest in using force or diplomacy to spread American values abroad?

A. realism B. neoconservatism C. liberalism D. idealism E. cooperationism

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27. (p. 399) emphasizes the need for a strong military to act as a deterrent.

A. Internationalism B. Liberalism C. Realism D. Interdependence E. None of these answers is correct.

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28. (p. 399) Presidents Wilson and Carter are primarily associated with which school of foreign policy?

A. realism B. neoconservatism C. liberalism D. idealism E. cooperationism

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

29. (p. 399) The establishment of the United Nations and the Marshall Plan are both MOST fully aligned with the principles of which school of foreign policy?

A. realism B. neoconservatism C. liberalism D. idealism E. cooperationism

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30. (p. 399) Which school of foreign policy is MOST closely associated with the goal of spreading American values through peaceful means?

A. realism B. neoconservatism C. liberalism D. idealism E. cooperationism

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31. (p. 399) George W. Bush's foreign policy aligns BEST with this school of foreign policy: A. realism.

B. neoconservatism.

C. liberalism.

D. idealism.

E. cooperationism.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

32. (p. 400) The goal of invading Iraq to overthrow Saddam Hussein's regime and establish a democratic government in its place fits MOST squarely with the foreign policy principles of A. realists.

B. neoconservatives.

C. liberals.

D. idealists.

E. isolationists.

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33. (p. 400) Which theoretical perspective has the Obama administration used to define its national security and foreign policies?

A. realism B. neoconservatism C. foreign policy idealism D. foreign policy liberalism E. The Obama administration does not seem tied to any one theoretical perspective.

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34. (p. 400) Which of the following statements about the handling of foreign policy in American history is LEAST accurate?

A. The Constitution places sole responsibility for foreign policy in the hands of the president.

B. The executive branch has the most, but not the sole, influence in shaping foreign policy.

C. Overseeing the operations of agencies dealing with foreign and defense policies has been a feature of executive branch power since President Washington.

D. The power of the executive branch over foreign policy has generally increased since the founding of the republic.

E. Public opinion and the pressure of special interest groups can place significant constraints on the executive branch's foreign policy options.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

35. (p. 400) The National Security Council was created A. by the Washington administration.

B. during the Civil War. C. in the months before the U.S. entered World War I. D. shortly after the end of World War II. E. after the intelligence failures that resulted in the attacks of September 11, 2001.

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36. (p. 400) Which of the following persons does NOT traditionally hold a seat on the National Security Council?

A. Speaker of the House B. Secretary of the Treasury C. chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff D. Director of National Intelligence E. the vice president

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37. (p. 401) The State Department is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A. acting as the chief diplomatic arm of the U.S. government.

B. leading and coordinating U.S. representation abroad.

C. conveying U.S. foreign policy to foreign governments and international organizations.

D. managing U.S. military forces on foreign soil.

E. negotiating agreements and treaties with other nations.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

38. (p. 402) term.

A. John Kerry B. Condoleezza Rice C. Susan Rice D. Chuck Hagel E. Leon Panetta

served as Secretary of State during President Obama's second

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39. (p. 402) Which of the following branches does NOT have a representative within the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A. Air Force B. Coast Guard C. Army D. Marines E. Navy

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40. (p. 402) What prompted the most recent full-scale reappraisal of U.S. intelligence gathering?

A. the failure of U.S. intelligence gathering in Somalia B. the failure of U.S. intelligence to locate Osama bin Laden during the invasion of Afghanistan C. the failure of U.S. intelligence gathering in China D. the failure of U.S. intelligence gathering in Iraq E. the failure of U.S. intelligence to predict the fall of the Soviet Union

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

41. (p. 402) In the wake of intelligence failures regarding the existence of weapons of mass destruction in Iraq, Congress created the position of as part of the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004.

A. Director of National Intelligence B. Intelligence Czar C. Secretary of Defense D. NSC Director E. Director of Counter-Terrorism Operations

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42. (p. 402) The U.S. intelligence community consists of approximately how many different intelligence agencies?

A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 8 E. 16

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43. (p. 403) The DEA and the FBI are both arms of which government agency?

A. Justice Department B. State Department C. Defense Department D. Treasury Department E. Congress

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

44. (p. 403-404) Which of the following statements about the U.S. intelligence community is LEAST accurate?

A. The failure of different sections of the community to communicate effectively with each other is at least partly to blame for the attacks of September 11, 2001.

B. Following the attacks of September 11, 2001, the president authorized the NSA to eavesdrop on the communications of American citizens.

C. The primary activity of CIA agents is engaging in covert operations designed to undermine hostile regimes.

D. A secret court appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court was established in 1978 to authorize certain acts of covert surveillance within American borders.

E. There are more than a dozen separate agencies directly involved in collecting and analyzing intelligence for the U.S. government.

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45. (p. 404) Vice President Joe Biden did all of the following in regards to foreign policy and national security, EXCEPT A. attend White House foreign policy discussions.

B. serve as a member of the National Security Council.

C. help garner support in Congress for President Obama's foreign policy goals.

D. run working groups that review intelligence and make recommendations to President Obama.

E. travel around the world giving speeches that supported President Obama's foreign policy objectives.

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46. (p. 404-406) Congress is not powerless in opposing presidential powers related to defense and security. Congress can A. cut off funding for war.

B. reject presidential requests for authority to commence hostile activities.

C. expand or reject presidential requests for foreign aid.

D. reject treaties with other nations.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

47. (p. 404-406) Congress has all of the following powers EXCEPT A. authority to declare war.

B. authority to conduct war.

C. authority to cut off funding for military operations.

D. authority to investigate the rules regulating military conduct.

E. authority to reject treaties with other nations.

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48. (p. 405) The Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists law A. was passed by Congress during the Clinton administration.

B. was intended solely to deal with the perpetrators of the 9/11 attacks.

C. was repealed by Congress in 2008.

D. is still in force and has underpinned actions of the Obama administration.

E. requires Congressional authorization before any drone strike against a terrorist target.

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49. (p. 406) Approximately A. 3 B. 6 C. 17 D. 28 E. 36

percent of the 2014 federal budget is devoted to national defense.

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50. (p. 407) Tools of foreign policy include A. military power.

B. the presidential will to act.

C. powers granted under the Fourteenth Amendment.

D. the supremacy clause of the U.S. Constitution.

E. All of these answers are correct.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

51. (p. 408) The United States currently has approximately A. 300,000 B. 850,000 C. 1.3 million D. 3 million E. 5 million

active military personnel.

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52. (p. 408) The country that has the highest military spending (by a large margin) is A. France.

B. China.

C. Russia.

D. the United States.

E. the United Kingdom.

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53. (p. 408) Diplomacy is primarily the responsibility of A. the State Department.

B. the Defense Department.

C. Congress.

D. the vice president.

E. the armed forces.

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54. (p. 409) The country with the second-highest military budget is A. Russia.

B. France.

C. China.

D. Great Britain.

E. India.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

55. (p. 409-410) Which of the following statements about U.S. foreign aid is LEAST accurate?

A. To promote peace and stability, the U.S. government insists that the money that it sends abroad not be used for military purposes.

B. In many instances, the U.S. government sends money to foreign countries with the understanding that those countries will use the money to buy weaponry from American companies.

C. The U.S. government sometimes provides money to foreign governments with the expectation that those governments will advance U.S. interests by fighting terrorism or drugtrafficking.

D. Based on the percentage of national income, no major donor nation provides less foreign aid than does the United States.

E. Some of the financial aid the U.S. government provides to foreign countries is intended to be used to develop the domestic economies of those nations.

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56. (p. 410) Foreign aid constitutes A. about 1 percent B. 3 percent C. 5 percent D. nearly 10 percent E. about 15 percent

of the national budget of the U.S.

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57. (p. 410-411) Which of the following statements about the U.S. relationship with international organizations is LEAST accurate?

A. The U.S. is one of five countries with a permanent seat on the UN Security Council.

B. During the 1990s, the U.S. successfully courted UN support for several major foreign policy initiatives, including the First Gulf War. C. The U.S. has consistently refused to engage in military actions without the expressed consent of the UN's Security Council.

D. By tradition, the U.S. gets to select the president of the World Bank.

E. The U.S. works closely with international organizations such as WHO to address actual and potential health threats throughout the world.

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

58. (p. 411) Which of the following countries is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

A. France B. China C. Russia D. Germany E. the United Kingdom

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59. (p. 411) The world today, in terms of power and domination, is best described as a(n) A. bipolar world.

B. tripolar world.

C. non-polar world.

D. unipolar world.

E. multipolar world.

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60. (p. 412-413) Which of the following statements about the U.S. and the threat of terrorism is LEAST accurate?

A. During the 1990s, the United States generally responded to terrorist acts with criminal proceedings rather than military engagements.

B. Among the groups that attacked U.S. soldiers in Iraq were foreign jihadists from places like Syria and Saudi Arabia.

C. The United States failed to gain broad international support for either its invasion of Afghanistan or its invasion of Iraq.

D. In the decade leading up to September 11, 2001, Islamic terrorists launched a number of attacks on American targets in the U.S. and abroad.

E. Although the U.S. and its allies succeeded in toppling the Taliban regime, they failed to establish lasting internal peace within Afghanistan.

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61. (p. 412) Which of the following factors is NOT frequently cited as a source of the terrorist threat the United States faces today?

A. the emergence of radical Islamic fundamentalism B. Islamic opposition to the creation and expansion of Israel C. feelings of powerlessness in Islamic countries D. limited economic opportunities in Islamic countries E. the Middle East's lack of valuable natural resources

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62. (p. 413) At the time of his killing by U.S. troops, Osama bin Laden was living in a mansion near a military school in this country: A. Saudi Arabia.

B. Syria.

C. Iran.

D. Afghanistan.

E. Pakistan.

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63. (p. 413) Of the following Islamic countries, which one possesses nuclear weapons?

A. Saudi Arabia B. Pakistan C. Egypt D. Iraq E. Libya

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Chapter 16 - Foreign and Defense Policy: Protecting American Interests in the World

64. (p. 413) Which of the following statements about nuclear weaponry is MOST accurate?

A. No nation has ever dismantled its entire nuclear arsenal.

B. The United States maintains the largest nuclear arsenal in the world.

C. Since the ratification of the 1968 Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, there have been no new additions to the group of nations that constitute the "nuclear club."

D. Pakistan is attempting to acquire nuclear weapons technology to improve its security standing against India, which is already armed with nuclear weapons.

E. The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty between the United States and Russia was ratified by the Senate in December 2010.

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65. (p. 413) Current members of the "nuclear club" include all of the following EXCEPT A. France.

B. Iran.

C. China.

D. Pakistan.

E. India.

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66. (p. 414) In 2014, the United States was MOST concerned that these two countries could develop nuclear capabilities: A. Germany and Italy.

B. Brazil and Argentina.

C. Iran and North Korea.

D. Israel and Syria.

E. Ukraine and Iraq.

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67. (p. 414) Although the roots of tensions in the Middle East are numerous, complex, and not easily resolved, would be MOST likely to go a long way toward diffusing tension in the region.

A. blocking further Jewish immigration B. a solution to the continuing dispute over the establishment of a permanent Palestinian state C. regime change in Iran D. a sharp reduction in Middle Eastern oil exports E. None of these answers is correct.

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68. (p. 415) The Arab Spring began in A. 2005 in the Gaza Strip.

B. 2007 in Saudi Arabia.

C. 2010 in Tunisia.

D. 2011 in Libya.

E. 2013 in Egypt.

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69. (p. 415) In 2011, the United States and NATO were involved militarily in this Arab Spring country: A. Egypt.

B. Tunisia.

C. Algeria.

D. Yemen.

E. Libya.

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70. (p. 416) In 2014, a major Ebola outbreak began in A. Africa.

B. South America.

C. North America.

D. Asia.

E. Europe.

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71. (p. 416) By 2020, the world's second largest economy will belong to A. Japan.

B. Britain.

C. China.

D. the United States.

E. India.

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72. (p. 416) According to the text, China A. will play an increasingly important role in world affairs.

B. is now the second-largest military spender behind the U.S. C. is now the second-largest foreign holder of U.S. securities.

D. is now the second-largest military spender behind the U.S. and the second-largest foreign holder of U.S. securities, and will play an increasingly important role in world affairs.

E. None of these answers is correct.

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73. (p. 417) Which of the following is NOT a nongovernmental organization?

A. United Nations B. Greenpeace C. International Red Cross D. Save the Children E. Doctors without Borders

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Essay Questions 74. Discuss the threats that confront American interests and international stability more generally. Which ones are the most threatening? Which ones, if any, can the United States safely ignore? What would be the best means with which to confront these threats?

Answers will vary.

75. One of the most important powers of the presidency is its influence over foreign policy.

Discuss the major presidential initiatives that have had a major or lasting impact on American history. Which presidential initiatives have proven most successful? Why have those policies been more effective than the failed initiatives of other presidents?

Answers will vary.

76. Describe the means by which the U.S. government and the American people can influence foreign affairs. What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of each of these means?

Which of these means has been used most successfully in the past?

Answers will vary.

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77. Describe the major schools of thought that have shaped American foreign policy for the past 100 years. Explain the preferred goals and tactics of each one. Which should be used to address the threats faced by the United States today?

Answers will vary.

78. Explain how the U.S. government shapes its foreign policy. Describe the roles given to both civilian organizations and the military. Which branch of the government wields the most influence over foreign policy?

Answers will vary.

79. What role does public opinion play in shaping foreign policy? Should the American people have more or less of a say in the handling of foreign affairs?

Answers will vary.

80. What were the major orientations toward foreign and defense policy of President George W. Bush? And what about those of President Obama? In what ways has President Obama acted in ways similar to his predecessor? In what ways has he acted differently?

Answers will vary.

81. Pick one of the key foreign policy issues confronting the United States today. What are the important facts relevant to the issue? What has American policy been in recent years regarding the issue? Do you agree or disagree with this policy, and why?

Answers will vary.

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