Test Bank, Comprehensive Medical Terminology for Health Professions 1st Edition by Schroeder, Ehrlic

Test Bank for Comprehensive Medical Terminology for Health Professions 1st Edition by Schroeder, Ehrlich, Schroeder, Ehrlich

Test Bank for Comprehensive Medical Terminology for Health Professions 1st Edition by Schroeder, Ehrlich, Schroeder, Ehrlich

Test Bank for Comprehensive Medical Terminology for Health Professions 1st Edition by Schroeder, Ehrlich, Schroeder, Ehrlich

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Chapter 1

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which suffix means pain or suffering? a. -ectomy b. -algia c. -itis d. -rrhaphy 2. In the medical term neuroplasty, what does the suffix -plasty mean? a. surgical repair b. bleeding c. flow or discharge d. disease 3. Which suffix means abnormal hardening? a. -sclerosis b. -rrhaphy c. -dynia d. -ostomy 4. In the medical term prenatal, what does the prefix pre- mean? a. away from, negative, absent b. out of, outside, away from c. toward, to, in the direction of d. before, in front of 5. Which prefix would you use to build a medical term that means excessive or increased? a. interb. oligoc. hyperd. macro6. Dr. Gutierrez orders an abdominocentesis for Alexi Petrov. What does abdominocentesis mean? a. the surgical repair of a muscle b. the surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid c. the surgical removal of the tonsils d. the surgical suturing of a tendon 7. What does the medical term fistula mean?

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Test Bank for Comprehensive Medical Terminology for Health Professions 1st Edition by Schroeder, Ehrlich, Schroeder, Ehrlich a. a groove or crack-like sore b. a torn or jagged wound

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Chapter 1 c. a fatty arterial deposit d. an abnormal passage 8. Mack Sanders arrives at the medical office with a fever. Mack's fever is an example of a

.

a. symptom b. sign c. prognosis d. syndrome 9. Which is the correct term that means a stomachache? a. gastralgia b. gastritis c. gastromegaly d. gastropathy 10. What is the correct spelling of a term that means the loss of a large amount of blood? a. hemorage b. hemorhage c. hemmorrhage d. hemorrhage 11. What does supracostal mean? a. above or outside the ribs b. below the sternum c. between the parts of a tissue d. within the muscle 12. Which term means pain in a joint or joints? a. gastrodynia b. poliomyelitis c. appendicitis d. arthralgia 13. The phalanges are the

.

a. longest portion of the small intestine b. bones of the fingers and toes c. part of the skull that encloses the brain d. interior or lining of an artery 14. Edema is one of the key indicators of inflammation. What does edema mean?

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Chapter 1 a. swelling b. redness c. heat d. pain 15. What does the combining form py/o mean in the term pyoderma? a. fever b. pus c. fungus d. gray 16. Which is the medical term for heartburn? a. pyrosis b. cyanosis c. mycosis d. gastritis 17. What does the suffix -sclerosis mean in the term arteriosclerosis? a. abnormal softening b. tissue death c. abnormal narrowing d. abnormal hardening 18. Joan Anderson receives a diagnosis of hepatomegaly. What does hepatomegaly mean? a. abnormal enlargement of the liver b. inflammation of the stomach c. tissue death of an artery d. inflammation of the tonsils 19. What is a syndrome? a. a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally b. a set of signs and symptoms occurring together as part of a specific disease process c. a condition that has a rapid onset, a severe course, and a relatively short duration d. a prediction about the probable course and outcome of a disease 20. Which is an example of an eponym? a. laser b. -itis c. Parkinson's disease d. D/DX Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 21. Which of these is an example of a symptom? a. rash b. runny nose c. fatigue d. fever 22. Which term means the temporary or complete disappearance of a disease's symptoms? a. remission b. prognosis c. differential diagnosis d. acronym 23. Which is the meaning of the term diagnosis? a. the process of identifying a disease b. the prediction about a disease's course c. the identification of a disease d. the attempt to rule out several possible diseases 24. Gloria Quilles arrives at the ER with severe chest pains. The on-call nurse uses which process to determine

how quickly Gloria will be seen by a doctor? a. triage b. remission c. diagnosis d. malaise 25. What is the term for an invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism? a. exudate b. infection c. malaise d. inflammation 26. What does the term palpation mean? a. a sensation of a pounding or racing heart b. a feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness c. the study of all aspects of diseases d. an examination technique that uses the examiner's hands 27. What does the suffix in the term myelopathy mean? a. abnormal condition or disease b. pertaining to c. surgical repair Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 d. picture or record 28. What is Alzheimer's disease an example of? a. an acronym b. an abbreviation c. a sign d. an eponym 29. A physician would order an angiography for a patient to produce a radiographic study of the

.

a. joints b. liver c. blood vessels d. heart 30. Which is the correct spelling for a term that means having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult

male? a. viril b. virile c. viral d. virale 31. What does suppuration mean? a. the formation of pus b. the medical screening of patients c. the use of hands for examination d. the swelling of tissue 32. What does a dermatologist treat? a. disorders of the newborn b. disorders of the stomach c. disorders of the skin d. disorders of the heart 33. What does the suffix -rrhea in the term diarrhea mean? a. flow or discharge b. abnormal softening c. inflammation d. abnormal condition 34. What color is the skin of a patient diagnosed with cyanosis? a. red Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 b. blue c. black d. white 35. What does the term fissure mean? a. a groove or crack-like sore b. a torn or jagged wound c. a fatty arterial deposit d. an abnormal passage 36. When analyzing a medical term, where do you find the term's basic meaning? a. word root b. prefix c. suffix d. combining vowel 37. What does the term melanoma mean? a. a type of skin cancer b. a blue discoloration of skin c. a mature red blood cell d. a feeling of general discomfort 38. Pat Brooks is scheduled for an arthroscopy. Which body structure does an arthroscopy examine? a. joint b. liver c. heart d. skull 39. What does the prefix ab- mean in the term abnormal? a. deficient or decreased b. bad, difficult, painful c. under, less or below d. away from, negative 40. What does eupnea mean? a. a feeling of general discomfort b. easy or normal breathing c. swelling caused by fluid accumulation d. a mature red blood cell 41. What is the correct spelling for the term that means part of the hip bone? a. ilium Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 b. ileum c. illeum d. illium 42. Which is the plural form of the term meningitis? a. meningitis b. meningites c. meningitides d. meningitices 43. Which is true about a chronic condition? a. It has a rapid onset. b. It has a short duration. c. It has a severe course. d. It is rarely cured.

44. What does pyelitis mean? a. inflammation of the renal pelvis b. inflammation of the joints c. inflammation of the tonsils d. inflammation of the stomach 45. What does viral mean? a. having higher-than-normal blood pressure b. having the qualities of an adult male c. being dependent on a substance or drug d. pertaining to a virus 46. What does the prefix in the term dysfunctional mean? a. away from, negative, absent b. out of, outside, away from c. bad, difficult, painful d. before, in front of 47. What is otolaryngology? a. the study of the ears and throat b. the study of the heart c. the study of the skin d. the study of newborns 48. In addition to meaning "an examination position," which is another meaning for the term lithotomy? a. a surgical creation of an artificial opening Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 b. a surgical removal of the appendix c. a surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the body d. a surgical incision for the removal of a stone 49. What does the prefix in the term addiction mean? a. away from, negative, absent b. out of, outside, away from c. bad, difficult, painful d. toward, in the direction of 50. What does the term gastrodynia mean? a. inflammation of the renal pelvis b. pain in the joints c. inflammation of the tonsils d. pain in the stomach 51. Hyperthermia is one of the key indicators of inflammation. What does this term mean? a. swelling b. redness c. heat d. pain 52. Which prefix means left side? a. dextrob. oligoc. megalod. sinistro53. What occurs during the perinatal period? a. fetal development b. breastfeeding c. labor d. family bonding 54. Which term means an abnormal narrowing of an artery? a. arteriostenosis b. arteriomalacia c. arterionecrosis d. arteriosclerosis 55. What is the combining form that means muscle?

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Chapter 1 a. myel/o b. hepat/o c. myc/o d. my/o 56. Which prefix means scanty or few? a. dextrob. oligoc. megalod. sinistro57. What does the word root in the term postnatal mean? a. nerve b. before c. after d. birth 58. Which is another term for differential diagnosis? a. prognosis b. signs and symptoms c. rule out d. acute condition 59. Which prefix means right side? a. dextrob. oligoc. megalod. sinistro60. Erythema is one of the key indicators of inflammation. What does this term mean? a. swelling b. redness c. heat d. pain 61. Which prefix means between or among? a. interb. intrac. subd. supra62. In the term otorhinolaryngology, which word part means ear?

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Chapter 1 a. laryng/o b. -ology c. ot/o d. rhin/o 63. Which word part means abnormal softening? a. -megaly b. -malacia c. -stenosis d. -necrosis 64. Which is the medical term for surgical repair of a muscle? a. tenorrhaphy b. neuroplasty c. myoplasty d. mucous 65. Which word part means plaque or fatty substance? a. arteri/o b. ather/o c. arthr/o d. ab66. Which is the term that means inflammation of the appendix? a. pyelitis b. tonsillectomy c. appendicitis d. gastrodynia 67. Which term refers to a white blood cell? a. melanoma b. leukocyte c. ileum d. ilium 68. Which is the term for a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally? a. chronic b. differential diagnosis c. addiction d. disease Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 69. Which term is an adjective that means pertaining to the heart? a. cranium b. cardiac c. otolaryngology d. mucus 70. Which is a prefix meaning large, abnormal size, or long? a. microb. oligoc. macrod. hyper71. Which combining form means either bone marrow or spinal cord? a. myel/o b. myc/o c. my/o d. poli/o 72. Which word part refers to the renal pelvis, which is part of the kidney? a. py/o b. pyr/o c. pyel/o d. pre73. Which suffix means the process of producing a picture or record? a. -gram b. -graphy c. -scopy d. -ology 74. Which part of the medical term usually indicates location, time, number, or status? a. combining form b. word root c. prefix d. suffix 75. Which is a word part meaning a surgical puncture to remove fluid for diagnostic purposes? a. -rrhagia b. oligoc. -dynia d. -centesis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 76. Which is a prefix meaning toward or in the direction of? a. exb. adc. ind. post77. Which prefix means good, normal, well, or easy? a. dextrob. sinistroc. eud. supra78. Which combining form means nerve? a. gastr/o b. hepat/o c. arthr/o d. neur/o 79. Which is true of the combining vowel? a. It is added to the end of a word root. b. It contains the basic meaning of the term. c. It usually provides information related to location. d. It indicates a condition, disorder, or disease.

80. What is the term for the resulting film created by angiography? a. lithotomy b. angiogram c. appendicitis d. diagnosis 81. Which is a prefix meaning small? a. microb. oligoc. macrod. hyper82. Which term describes the time and events before birth? a. prenatal b. perinatal c. postnatal d. virile Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 83. Which is true about an acute condition? a. It may have a gradual onset. b. It has a long duration. c. It has a severe course. d. It is rarely cured.

84. Which is a prefix meaning scanty or few? a. microb. oligoc. macrod. hyper85. Which part of the medical term usually indicates the procedure, condition, disorder, or disease? a. combining form b. word root c. prefix d. suffix

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A pathologic change or disease of muscle tissue is known as

.

87. The term that means pain in a joint or joints is 88. The term for a mature red blood cell is

. .

89. A word formed from the initial letter or letters of the major parts of a compound term, such as laser, is a/an

.

90. A term that means between, but not within, the parts of a tissue is

.

91. The surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid is known as

.

92. The medical term used to describe any acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection, such as

impetigo, is

.

93. The blue discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of adequate oxygen in the blood is known as

.

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Chapter 1 94. The process of producing a radiographic study of blood vessels after the injection of a contrast medium is

known as

.

95. The term that means any disease of the stomach is

.

96. The term that means the surgical removal of the appendix is

.

97. The term that describes a pounding or racing heart is

.

98. The medical term meaning suturing together the ends of a severed nerve is

.

99. The term that describes a disease named for the person who first discovered it is

.

100. Greg sustained severe wounds following an auto accident. The EMS team referred to his injuries as

.

101. The abnormal hardening of the walls of an artery or arteries is known as

.

102. A feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness that is often the first indication of an infection is known as

.

103. The bones of the fingers and toes are called 104. The term that means within the muscle is

. .

105. The act of rotating the arm so that the palm of the hand (ventrum) is forward or upward is known as

.

106. The term that means the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the body

surface is

.

107. The medical term meaning an inflammation of the stomach is 108. The term that means pertaining to birth is

. .

109. Discomfort due to the regurgitation of stomach acid upward into the esophagus is known as

.

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Chapter 1

110. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin is a/an

.

111. The medical screening of patients to determine their relative priority of need is called

.

112. The study of disorders of the newborn is known as

.

113. The study of the ears, nose, and throat is known as

.

114. A loss of a large amount of blood in a short time is referred to as

.

115. The term that means pertaining to the interior or lining of an artery is

.

116. The medical term that describes any abnormal condition or disease caused by a fungus is

.

117. Abnormal enlargement of the liver is known as

.

118. The term that means above or outside the ribs is

.

119. A word root with a combining vowel added at the end is called a/an 120. The word part hyper- is an example of a/an

. .

121. The word part that must be added at the end of the word to complete the term is called a/an

.

122. A white blood cell is a/an

.

123. The surgical repair of a nerve is 124. The time and events surrounding birth is 125. A surgical incision for the removal of a stone or stones is Powered by Cognero

. . .

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Chapter 1

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Chapter 1 Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 52. d 53. c 54. a 55. d 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. a 83. c 84. b 85. d 86. myopathy 87. arthralgia 88. erythrocyte 89. acronym 90. interstitial 91. abdominocentesis 92. pyoderma 93. cyanosis 94. angiography 95. gastrosis 96. appendectomy 97. palpitation 98. neurorrhaphy 99. eponym 100. trauma 101. arteriosclerosis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 1 102. malaise 103. phalanges 104. intramuscular 105. supination 106. colostomy 107. gastritis 108. natal 109. pyrosis 110. dermatologist 111. triage 112. neonatology 113. otorhinolaryngology 114. hemorrhage 115. endarterial 116. mycosis 117. hepatomegaly 118. supracostal 119. combining form 120. prefix 121. suffix 122. leukocyte 123. neuroplasty 124. perinatal 125. lithotomy

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Chapter 2

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the word root plas mean? a. gland b. fat c. tissue d. growth 2. Which is a word part that means the belly side of the body? a. cephal b. poster c. caud d. ventr 3. Which prefix means above? a. endob. etic. epid. exo4. A word root that means front or before is: a. dors b. ventr c. cephal d. anter 5. Which is a prefix that means cause? a. endob. etic. epid. exo6. Which body plane divides the body into equal left and right halves? a. frontal plane b. midsagittal plane c. transverse plane d. sagittal plane 7. The clavicle is located superior to the sternum; superior means: a. below b. in front of c. above Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 d. in back of 8. Where is the brain located? a. abdominal cavity b. pelvic cavity c. cranial cavity d. spinal cavity 9. Which body plane divides the body into upper and lower portions? a. frontal plane b. midsagittal plane c. transverse plane d. sagittal plane 10. Which term has the opposite meaning of lateral? a. proximal b. distal c. caudal d. medial 11. A word root that means back or toward the back is: a. poster b. ventr c. cephal d. anter 12. Where is the hypochondriac region located? a. near the right hip bone b. above the stomach c. below the ribs d. below the stomach 13. Where are the major organs of the digestive system located? a. abdominal cavity b. pelvic cavity c. cranial cavity d. spinal cavity 14. Where is the stomach in relation to the pancreas? a. inferior b. anterior c. superior Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 d. dorsal 15. Which term has the opposite meaning of proximal? a. distal b. lateral c. medial d. caudal 16. Which body region is located above the stomach? a. iliac region b. epigastric region c. hypochondriac region d. hypogastric region 17. Where is the epigastric region located? a. in the LUQ and LLQ b. in the RUQ and LUQ c. in the RLQ and LLQ d. in the center of the four quadrants 18. Which is an example of a genetic disorder? a. chronic fatigue syndrome b. varicella c. COVID-19 d. Down syndrome 19. Which term means a change in the structure of cells and in their orientation to each other? a. anaplasia b. aplasia c. dysplasia d. hypoplasia 20. Which is a prefix that means entire? a. enb. path c. pand. epi21. Payton Weber is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia; the term hyperplasia indicates: a. an increase in the size of the prostate gland b. a presence of abnormally growing prostate cells c. a change in the structure of the prostate cells Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 d. an increased number of prostate cells 22. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. cephalic b. homeostasis c. retropairitoneal d. parietal 23. Which is the correct pronunciation of nosocomial in the term nosocomial infection? a. nahs-oh-KOH-mee-al b. NO-soh-KOH-mee-al c. nah-SOH-koh-MEE-al d. nohs-OH-koh-MEE-al 24. Which term best describes the common cold? a. pandemic b. epidemic c. endemic d. idiopathic 25. Bruno tests positive for the COVID-19 strain of the coronavirus. Which type of disease is COVID-19? a. idiopathic disease b. syndrome c. nosocomial infection d. infectious disease 26. After months of experiencing headaches, light sensitivity, and tiredness, Sal receives a diagnosis of chronic

fatigue syndrome; chronic fatigue syndrome is a/an: a. idiopathic disease b. functional disorder c. organic disorder d. nosocomial infection 27. What does a histologist study? a. disease outbreaks b. tissue structures c. older adults d. high-acuity medicine 28. A mosquito infected with malaria that bites a person is an example of which type of disease transmission? a. airborne Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 b. indirect contact c. vector-borne d. direct 29. Which is true about cytoplasm? a. It is a complete set of genetic information. b. It is also known as a sex cell. c. It is not part of the cell nucleus. d. It is made up of DNA molecules.

30. Which is the correct pronunciation of atresia? a. AH-tree-jah b. ah-TREEZ-ah c. AY-treez-EE-ah d. ah-TREE-zee-ah 31. An outbreak of the Ebola virus disease affected several countries in West Africa during 2014-2016. Which

term best describes this outbreak? a. pandemic b. epidemic c. endemic d. idiopathic 32. Which best describes a syndrome? a. disease acquired in a clinical setting b. disease without a known cause c. symptoms causing detectable physical changes d. signs and symptoms occurring together 33. What does the word root idi/o mean in the term idiopathic? a. population b. gland c. peculiar to the individual d. cancerous 34. Which is true of adult stem cells as compared to other cells within the body? a. They lack a cell membrane. b. They are differentiated. c. They can renew themselves. d. They come from cord blood.

35. To which region does the term inguinal refer?

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Chapter 2 a. belly button b. groin c. stomach d. hip bones 36. Which is correct about the anatomical position? a. The body is facing forward. b. The palms are facing toward the back. c. The arms are held over the head. d. The spine and shoulders are relaxed.

37. Which describes a vertical plane that divides the body into unequal left and right portions? a. frontal plane b. midsagittal plane c. transverse plane d. sagittal plane 38. The ilium is located inferior to the sternum; inferior means: a. below b. in front of c. above d. in back of 39. Which term means the direction toward the side of the body? a. lateral b. distal c. medial d. proximal 40. Which is a division of the dorsal cavity? a. thoracic cavity b. abdominal cavity c. ventral cavity d. spinal cavity 41. Which body cavities does the diaphragm separate? a. the abdominal and pelvic cavities b. the thoracic and abdominal cavities c. the ventral and dorsal cavities d. the spinal and thoracic cavities 42. The hip bones are a landmark for which body region?

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Chapter 2 a. iliac region b. epigastric region c. hypochondriac region d. hypogastric region 43. What does the word root carcin mean in the term adenocarcinoma? a. population b. gland c. peculiar to the individual d. cancerous 44. Which term refers to the outer layer of the peritoneum? a. mesentery b. inguinal c. visceral d. parietal 45. What does the term lumbar mean? a. the part of the back between the ribs and the pelvis b. the region of the abdomen covered by the lower ribs c. the portion of the abdomen located below the stomach d. the cavity that surrounds and protects the heart and lungs 46. What is a function of the cell nucleus? a. protects the cell from the external environment b. maintains and repairs body tissue c. determines physical traits like eye color d. controls the activities of the cell 47. To obtain the medication prescribed by her doctor, Darci requires the assistance of a/an: a. hospitalist b. epidemiologist c. pharmacist d. histologist 48. Maurice's physician is suggesting regenerative medicine to help treat his leukemia; another name for

regenerative medicine is: a. cytology b. telemetry c. stem cell therapy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 d. gerontology 49. What happens when an individual inherits the same recessive gene for a condition from both parents? a. The individual will have that condition. b. The individual has a 50 percent chance for that condition. c. The individual will not pass that condition to offspring. d. The individual will not have that condition.

50. What is a primary function of adult stem cells? a. protect the cell from the external environment b. maintain and repair body tissue c. determine physical traits, like eye color d. control the activities of the cell 51. Which health care professional works under the supervision of a registered nurse to provide patient care? a. medical coder b. certified nursing assistant c. licensed vocational nurse d. medical receptionist 52. Individuals with which genetic disorder often have disproportionately long arms, legs, and fingers? a. Huntington's disease b. Muscular dystrophy c. Marfan syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome 53. What is the study of the causes of diseases? a. cytology b. pathology c. etiology d. nucleus 54. Which tissue type contains cells with the specialized ability to contract and relax? a. nerve b. connective c. epithelial d. muscle 55. What does an emergency physician specialize in? a. disease outbreaks Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 b. tissue structures c. older adults d. high-acuity medicine 56. Which is the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity? a. cell b. cell membrane c. gene d. tissue 57. Which type of tissue holds organs in place and binds tissue together? a. adipose b. endothelium c. loose connective d. muscle 58. Bone is an example of which type of connective tissue? a. loose b. adipose c. dense d. fluid 59. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. mesentery b. epedemic c. inguinal d. caudal 60. Diego is receiving care in the hospital's critical care unit following a motorcycle accident. Which medical

professional is most likely to take care of Diego in this setting? a. intensivist b. geriatrician c. general practitioner d. medical assistant 61. Following knee replacement surgery, Jeremy needs to remain in the hospital for monitoring, so he is

transferred to the: a. telemetry unit b. emergency room c. medical/surgical unit d. critical care unit Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 62. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. anaplasia b. hyperplasia c. aplasia d. displasia 63. Saul is born with a genetic disorder that affects both his respiratory and digestive systems; the name of

Saul's condition is: a. cystic fibrosis b. hemophilia c. muscular dystrophy d. Huntington's disease 64. Sonya requires monitoring for her heart dysrhythmia, so she is admitted to the: a. telemetry unit b. emergency room c. medical/surgical unit d. critical care unit 65. Which medical professional is a primary care specialist? a. emergency physician b. intensivist c. pharmacist d. general practitioner 66. Which group of genetic diseases is characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of the skeletal

muscles that control movement? a. Huntington's disease b. Muscular dystrophy c. Marfan syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome 67. Diseases such as the flu are spread through coughing or sneezing; this is which type of transmission? a. indirect contact b. food-borne c. bloodborne d. droplet 68. What is the study of disease? a. cytology b. pathology Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 c. etiology d. nucleus 69. The area of the abdomen around the belly button is known as which region? a. right lumbar b. left lumbar c. right iliac d. umbilical 70. What is the term for the inner layer of the peritoneum that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity? a. visceral peritoneum b. parietal peritoneum c. mesentery d. left iliac region 71. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. iatrogenaic illness b. idiopathic disease c. nosocomial infection d. congenital disorder 72. Which genetic disorder may cause developmental delays, learning disabilities, and social and behavior

problems? a. Huntington's disease b. Muscular dystrophy c. Marfan syndrome d. Fragile X syndrome 73. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. rubella b. pediatrician c. anomally d. endemic 74. Which suffix means to secrete? a. -plasia b. -trophy c. -crine d. -itis 75. Where are the reproductive organs housed?

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Chapter 2 a. abdominal cavity b. thoracic cavity c. pelvic cavity d. cranial cavity 76. Which plane is also known as the frontal plane? a. horizontal plane b. sagittal plane c. vertical plane d. coronal plane 77. Where is the hypogastric region located? a. in the RUQ b. in the RUQ and LUQ c. in the LLQ d. in the RLQ and LLQ 78. Which is an example of a horizontal plane? a. frontal plane b. midsagittal plane c. transverse plane d. sagittal plane 79. Soon after developing a COVID-19 infection, Luigi is placed on a ventilator and monitored continuously,

receiving ongoing care for his serious condition in which hospital unit? a. telemetry unit b. emergency room c. medical/surgical unit d. critical care unit 80. Which is true about body planes? a. They describe the body cavities. b. They correspond to anatomical position. c. They subdivide the abdomen and thorax. d. They depict the relative location of body sections.

81. Which suffix means formation? a. -plasia b. -trophy c. -crine Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 d. -itis 82. Which is the name for a genetic variation associated with characteristic facial appearance, learning

disabilities, and physical abnormalities, such as heart valve disease? a. hemophilia b. phenylketonuria c. cystic fibrosis d. Down syndrome 83. Which type of tissue lines the blood vessels? a. endothelium b. epithelium c. loose connective tissue d. dense connective tissue 84. What is the term for a mass of gland-like lymphoid tissue? a. adenitis b. adenosis c. adenoids d. adenoma 85. When Cher learns that the cause of her condition is idiopathic, she understands that her disease: a. was acquired in the hospital b. does not have a known cause c. will cause physical changes d. may be easily spread to others

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The major organs of digestion are primarily contained in the

.

87. The study of the functions of body structures is known as

.

88. A disease that is transmitted from one person to another by either direct or indirect contact is called

.

89. A somewhat independent part of the body that performs a specific function is a/an

90. The abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid is Powered by Cognero

.

.

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Chapter 2

91. The word root in physiology means

.

92. The abbreviation for a licensed professional who works under the supervision of a physician is

.

93. The word root in the term pediatrician means

.

94. The space formed by the hip bones is the

.

95. The abbreviation for a medical assistant who is certified through the American Association of Medical

Assistants is

.

96. Glands that secrete chemical substances into ducts, such as sweat glands, are called

.

97. The word root in the term telemetry means

.

98. A term that means situated nearest the midline or beginning of a body structure is

.

99. Because she is interested in studying genetic inheritance traits and the role genes play in certain conditions,

Luisa wants to become a/an

.

100. The term that refers to the front or belly side of the body or organ is

.

101. When referring to the organization of the body, tissues organize to form

.

102. An abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth is called a/an

.

103. The material within the cell membrane that is not part of the nucleus is the 104. The word root in geriatrics means

. .

105. When referring to the organization of the body, cells organize to form 106. The region of the abdomen that is located below the stomach is the Powered by Cognero

. .

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Chapter 2

107. The transmission or spread of a disease through human-to-human contact in the form of touch or the

exchange of bodily fluids is known as

.

108. The term that means uppermost, above, or toward the head is 109. The abbreviation for emergency room is

. .

110. The complete set of genetic information of an organism is called a/an

111. The abbreviation for intensive care unit is

.

.

112. The term that means lowermost, below, or toward the feet is 113. The prefix in retroperitoneal means

. .

114. The term that means located behind the peritoneum is 115. The suffix in the term hypoplasia means

. .

116. Structural units made up of organs are called

.

117. The up-and-down plane that is at a right angle to the horizon is the

.

118. The medical term that means inflammation of the peritoneum is 119. The abbreviation for emergency medical technician is

. .

120. The term for a type of disorder that produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can

be identified is 121. The word part gene means

. .

122. The structure that holds the organs in place within the abdominal cavity is the

.

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Chapter 2 123. The enlargement of an organ or tissue because of an abnormal increase in the number of cells in the tissues

is called

.

124. The term for a plane that divides the entire body into upper and lower portions is

.

125. The name for a group of specialized epithelial cells that are capable of producing secretions is

.

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Chapter 2 Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. d 70. a 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. abdominal cavity 87. physiology 88. communicable 89. organ 90. DNA 91. nature 92. PA 93. child 94. pelvic cavity 95. CMA 96. exocrine glands 97. distant 98. proximal 99. geneticist 100. ventral 101. organs Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 2 102. congenital disorder 103. cytoplasm 104. old age 105. tissues 106. hypogastric 107. direct transmission 108. superior 109. ER 110. genome 111. ICU 112. inferior 113. behind 114. retroperitoneal 115. formation 116. body systems 117. vertical plane 118. peritonitis 119. EMT 120. functional 121. producing 122. peritoneum 123. hyperplasia 124. transverse 125. gland

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Chapter 3

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the combining form ankyl/o mean? a. crooked, bent, stiff b. cartilage c. bent, hump d. curved, bent 2. What does the combining form myel/o mean? a. cartilage b. skull c. synovial membrane d. spinal cord 3. Which combining form means bone? a. chondr/o b. crani/o c. cost/o d. oste/o 4. What does the combining form chondr/o mean? a. cartilage b. skull c. synovial membrane d. spinal cord 5. What does the combining form kyph/o mean? a. crooked, bent, stiff b. cartilage c. bent, hump d. curved, bent 6. What does the word root in the term hematopoietic mean? a. blood b. synovial membrane c. pertaining to formation d. pertaining to the neck 7. Which physician specializes in treating foot disorders? a. rheumatologist Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 b. osteopath c. orthopedic surgeon d. podiatrist 8. Which term also means hip socket? a. acetabulum b. olecranon c. manubrium d. acromion 9. Where are the metatarsals located? a. feet b. legs c. hands d. arms 10. Which is a term for a disorder affecting the cartilage? a. synovitis b. bursitis c. osteopenia d. chondromalacia 11. A patient scheduled for a laminectomy will be having surgery on which body part? a. joint b. skull c. spine d. knee 12. Which type of arthritis is also known as "wear-and-tear" arthritis? a. osteoarthritis b. gout c. rheumatoid arthritis d. ankylosing spondylitis 13. Which type of arthritis may be caused by medications, alcohol consumption, or diet? a. osteoarthritis b. gout c. rheumatoid arthritis d. ankylosing spondylitis 14. Tacy Burns is diagnosed with lumbago. What does this mean for Tacy? a. Tacy has a lateral spinal curvature.

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Chapter 3 b. Tacy has joint deposits of urate crystals. c. Tacy has lower back pain. d. Tacy has a forward spinal curvature.

15. Which is the medical term for the condition known as swayback? a. scoliosis b. kyphosis c. lumbago d. lordosis 16. The word roots in osteomyelitis indicate that this term refers to an inflammation of which? a. bone and bone marrow b. joint and bursa c. cartilage and rib d. spinal cord and vertebrae 17. A patient with which condition has abnormally soft bones? a. osteomyelitis b. osteitis c. osteomalacia d. osteopenia 18. Which is the medical term for pinched nerve? a. spina bifida b. rickets c. radiculopathy d. spinal stenosis 19. Which condition is a congenital defect? a. spina bifida b. rickets c. radiculopathy d. spinal stenosis 20. A bone is crushed or splintered in which type of fracture? a. comminuted b. spiral c. open d. pathologic 21. What is dual x-ray absorptiometry used to assess?

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Chapter 3 a. internal joint structure b. bone density c. red bone marrow d. bone fractures 22. Which term means a bulging deposit around the area of the break in a healing bone? a. crepitus b. acetabulum c. callus d. prosthesis 23. A patient with severe arthritis would be most likely to have which procedure? a. arthrodesis b. bone marrow transplant c. closed reduction d. traction 24. Which type of fracture causes an open wound? a. comminuted b. spiral c. compound d. pathologic 25. Which term refers to a narrowing of the spinal cavity? a. spina bifida b. rickets c. radiculopathy d. spinal stenosis 26. Which is a term that means bone inflammation? a. osteomyelitis b. osteitis c. osteomalacia d. osteopenia 27. Which condition is an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone? a. osteomyelitis b. osteitis c. osteomalacia d. osteopenia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 28. Jade Hurley is diagnosed with kyphosis. What does this mean? a. Jade has a lateral spinal curvature. b. Jade has an outward spinal curvature. c. Jade has lower back pain. d. Jade has a forward spinal curvature.

29. Which type of arthritis primarily affects the vertebrae? a. osteoarthritis b. gout c. rheumatoid arthritis d. ankylosing spondylitis 30. A synovectomy refers to surgery on which body part? a. joint b. ligament c. spine d. knee 31. A person with which condition has below average bone density? a. synovitis b. bursitis c. osteopenia d. chondromalacia 32. Where is the malleolus located? a. ankles b. legs c. spine d. arms 33. Where are the metacarpals located? a. feet b. legs c. hands d. arms 34. What is the name for the upper part of the sternum? a. acetabulum b. olecranon c. manubrium Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 d. acromion 35. Which physician treats disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles? a. rheumatologist b. osteopath c. orthopedic surgeon d. podiatrist 36. Which type of bone is porous? a. spongy bone b. compact bone c. periosteum d. cartilage 37. Which is the shaft of a long bone? a. epiphysis b. foramen c. diaphysis d. endosteum 38. Which type of joint permits only slight movement? a. ball-and-socket joints b. hinge joints c. synovial joints d. cartilaginous joints 39. What is another term for joint? a. articulation b. callus c. acetabulum d. subluxation 40. A muscle or tendon typically attaches to which anatomic landmark? a. epiphysis b. foramen c. diaphysis d. process 41. Which describes bands of fibrous tissue that form joints? a. bursa b. cartilage c. ligaments Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 d. meniscus 42. Which bones are part of the axial skeleton? a. hyoid b. femur c. humerus d. ilium 43. What is one of the functions of the axial skeleton? a. make body movement possible b. protect major organs of reproduction c. protect major organs of respiration d. protect major organs of excretion 44. Which bone forms the back part of the skull and base of the cranium? a. occipital b. sphenoid c. ethmoid d. parietal 45. What is another term for cheekbones? a. maxillary bones b. palatine bones c. lacrimal bones d. zygomatic bones 46. The pectoral girdle is a structure formed by which of the following? a. hips b. ribs c. shoulders d. skull 47. Which set of vertebrae form the neck? a. thoracic vertebrae b. coccyx c. sacrum d. cervical vertebrae 48. Which bone bears the weight of the body when sitting? a. coccyx b. ischium c. sacrum Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 d. ilium 49. What does the term popliteal describe? a. the hip socket b. the space inside long bones c. the projection on a bone d. the space behind the knee 50. Which is another term for frozen shoulder? a. ankylosis b. costochondritis c. subluxation d. adhesive capsulitis 51. Which is a common sports injury? a. stress fracture b. pathologic fracture c. open fracture d. comminuted fracture 52. Which fracture is often related to osteoporosis? a. Colles fracture b. buckle fracture c. open fracture d. comminuted fracture 53. The ribs are attached to which set of vertebrae? a. thoracic b. lumbar c. sacrum d. cervical 54. What are the bones that form the upper part of the jaw called? a. maxillary bones b. palatine bones c. lacrimal bones d. zygomatic bones 55. Which bone forms the forehead? a. occipital b. sphenoid Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 c. frontal d. parietal 56. Which bones are part of the appendicular skeleton? a. hyoid b. femur c. ossicles d. cranium 57. Which describes a fibrous sac that cushions movement in areas subject to friction? a. bursa b. cartilage c. ligaments d. meniscus 58. Which type of joint permits the widest range of movement? a. ball-and-socket joints b. hinge joints c. fibrous joints d. cartilaginous joints 59. Which is an opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass? a. epiphysis b. foramen c. diaphysis d. endosteum 60. What type of bone is very strong? a. cancellous bone b. compact bone c. periosteum d. cartilage 61. Which bone is known as the kneecap? a. acromion b. olecranon c. patella d. sternum 62. Which bone tissue lines the medullary cavity? a. compact b. endosteum Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 c. red bone marrow d. yellow bone marrow 63. Which is the only movable bone of the skull? a. manubrium b. mandible c. cartilage d. vomer 64. Which term refers to a structure unique to newborns? a. fontanelle b. process c. foramen d. suture 65. Which term describes the surgical repair or replacement of a damaged joint? a. arthrodesis b. arthritis c. arthrosclerosis d. arthroplasty 66. Which form of arthritis is characterized by deposits of uric acid in the joints? a. gout b. juvenile idiopathic arthritis c. osteoarthritis d. rheumatoid arthritis 67. Which term means an abnormal softening of the cartilage? a. bursitis b. crepitation c. chondromalacia d. synovectomy 68. Which bone tissue is also known as cancellous bone? a. endosteum b. compact bone c. spongy bone d. red bone marrow 69. What is the term for a relatively rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone? a. osteochondroma b. multiple myeloma Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 c. primary bone cancer d. secondary bone cancer 70. Which term refers to the attempted realignment of a bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation? a. closed reduction b. immobilization c. external fixation d. traction 71. Which diagnostic technique is most commonly used to visualize a bone fracture? a. bone density testing b. bone marrow biopsy c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. x-ray imaging 72. Which term describes an inflammation of the synovial membrane? a. synovitis b. synovectomy c. hemarthrosis d. subluxation 73. What is the smooth, rubbery connective tissue that makes up the tip of the nose? a. meniscus b. foramen c. cartilage d. bursa 74. What is the term for the lower part of the sternum? a. manubrium b. xiphoid process c. gladiolus d. scapula 75. What is the replacement of a worn or failed implant? a. revision surgery b. arthroplasty c. arthroscopic surgery d. total knee replacement 76. Which term means an inflammation of a bone? a. osteotomy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 b. osteopath c. osteitis d. osteophyte 77. What type of fracture occurs when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on their hands? a. Colles b. oblique c. stress d. greenstick 78. What is the correct spelling for the term meaning a type of inflammatory arthritis characterized by deposits

of urate crystals in the joints? a. gought b. gout c. gowt d. gaut 79. Which term means stiffness of the joints, especially in older adults? a. arthritis b. ankylosis c. polymyalgia rheumatica d. arthrosclerosis 80. Which type of fracture is also known as a simple or complete fracture? a. transverse b. closed c. callus d. dislocation 81. Which condition is also known as clubfoot? a. bursitis b. talus c. talipes d. tarsal 82. Which describes a transplant using healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor? a. autologous bone marrow transplant b. allogenic bone marrow transplant c. bone marrow transplant d. pectoral girdle Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 83. What is the medical term for inflexible joints, also known as sutures? a. cartilaginous joints b. synovial joints c. pubic symphysis d. fibrous joints 84. What is the medical term for the larger bone in the lower leg, also known as the shin bone? a. tibia b. fibula c. radius d. ulna 85. What is the correct spelling of a term that means kneecap? a. patella b. pattella c. patela d. patalla

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The medical term for a bunion is

.

87. A collection of fat cells from yellow bone marrow released into and circulating in bloodstream following a

long bone fracture is called a/an

.

88. An appliance, such as a leg brace, that is specially designed to control, correct, or compensate for impaired

limb function is called a/an

.

89. The bones that make up the spinal column are the

.

90. The term that means "pertaining to the formation of blood cells" is

.

91. The term for a degenerative disorder that can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function is

.

92. Fibrous joints normally present on the skull of a newborn are called

.

93. Another name for an orthopedist is a/an 94. The term that means "originating within another" is Powered by Cognero

. .

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Chapter 3

95. The condition of blood within a joint is known as

.

96. The bulging deposit that forms around the healing area of a broken bone is a/an

.

97. The visual examination of the internal structure of a joint is known as

.

98. A specialist who diagnoses and treats disorders of the foot is called a/an

.

99. The form of rheumatoid arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae is

known as

.

100. The surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint is a/an

.

101. A hip fracture caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis is referred to as

.

102. The grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together is called

.

103. A fracture treatment in which pins or a plate are placed directly into the bone to hold the broken pieces in

place is known as

.

104. A congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal canal of the fetus fails to close

completely around the spinal cord to protect it is called

.

105. An autoimmune disorder that affects children with symptoms that include stiffness, pain, joint swelling,

skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue is called juvenile .

106. A term that means originating within an individual is

.

107. The death of bone tissue due to insufficient blood supply is known as

.

108. A type of arthritis characterized by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints is known as

.

109. The form of arthritis most commonly associated with aging is called Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 3

110. The medical term that describes the abnormal softening of cartilage is

.

111. The surgical removal of a lamina from a vertebra is called a/an

.

112. An inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone is a condition called

.

113. A deficiency disease in children characterized by defective bone growth is called 114. An artificial leg is a type of

.

.

115. An inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum is known as 116. The condition of thinner-than-average bone density is called

. .

117. An inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck,

shoulders, upper arms, hips and thighs is

.

118. The forward slipping movement of a lower lumbar vertebra on the vertebra or sacrum below it is called

.

119. The bone located just below the urinary bladder and forms the anterior portion of the pubic bone is the

.

120. A fluid-filled sac behind the knee that usually results from a condition such as rheumatoid arthritis

triggering the production of excess synovial fluid is a/an

.

121. A class of drugs used to slow the loss of bone density due to osteoporosis, reducing the risk of broken

bones is

.

122. The bone marrow transplant in which the patient receives their own bone marrow cells

is

.

123. A technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together two or more vertebrae

is

.

124. Fracture that occurs when a bone breaks under normal strain is a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3

.

125. The larger and longer bone of the forearm is called the

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.

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Chapter 3 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 52. a 53. a 54. a 55. c 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. hallux valgus 87. fat embolus 88. orthotic 89. vertebrae 90. hemopoietic 91. spondylosis 92. fontanelles 93. orthopedic surgeon 94. allogenic 95. hemarthrosis 96. callus 97. arthroscopy 98. podiatrist 99. ankylosing spondylitis 100. synovectomy 101. osteoporotic Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3 102. crepitation

crepitus 103. internal fixation 104. spina bifida 105. idiopathic arthritis 106. autologous 107. avascular necrosis 108. gout 109. osteoarthritis 110. chondromalacia 111. laminectomy 112. osteomyelitis 113. rickets 114. prosthesis 115. costochondritis 116. osteopenia 117. polymyalgia rheumatic 118. spondylolisthesis 119. pubis 120. Baker's cyst 121. bisphosphonates 122. autologous stem cell transplant 123. spinal fusion 124. pathologic fracture 125. ulna Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 3

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Chapter 4

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the combining form clon/o mean? a. violent action b. fascia c. movement d. coordination 2. Which is a suffix that means paralysis? a. -plegia b. -rrhexis c. -ion d. -algia 3. What does the prefix dys- mean? a. twice, double, two b. without c. deficient d. bad, difficult, or painful 4. Which is a suffix that means rupture? a. -plegia b. -rrhexis c. -ion d. -algia 5. What does the combining form tax/o mean? a. violent action b. fascia c. movement d. order 6. Which means the movement of a limb away from the body's midline? a. abduction b. flexion c. adduction d. extension 7. To kick a ball, Randall straightens his leg, making a movement called

.

a. abduction b. circumduction Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 c. adduction d. extension 8. What is an example of pronation? a. rotating the foot so that the sole is turned forward or upward b. moving the head as far back as possible beyond its normal range c. moving arm in a circular motion around the shoulder joint d. rotating the arm so that the palm is turned downward or backward 9. Which is the correct spelling for the term that means the surgical suturing of a muscle? a. myorhaphy b. myrhaphy c. myorrhaphy d. myelorhapy 10. Which is true about a muscle's insertion? a. It is where the muscle begins on the body. b. It is located on a less movable part of the skeleton. c. It indicates to the type of muscle action. d. It is farthest from the body's midline.

11. In which direction do oblique muscle fibers run? a. slanted b. straight c. circular d. crosswise 12. Which specialist works under the supervision of a physician to promote physical fitness? a. occupational therapist b. physiatrist c. physical therapist d. exercise physiologist 13. Which is the correct spelling of the term that means inflammation of a fascia? a. fascitis b. fashitis c. fascyitis d. fasciitis 14. Because she has been bedridden and unable to move for a long period of time, Ada Bronson is at risk for

developing which condition?

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Chapter 4 a. adhesion b. hernia c. rhabdomyolysis d. atrophy 15. Which is the correct pronunciation of myorrhaphy? a. MY-or-ah-fee b. my-OR-ah-fee c. my-or-AH-fee d. MY-or-AH-fee 16. What does the combining form ton/o mean? a. violent action b. fascia c. movement d. stretching 17. Following a motorcycle accident, Ruby experiences paralysis of her arms and legs, a condition termed

. a. paraplegia b. quadriplegia c. myoparesis d. hemiparesis 18. Which is the correct pronunciation of hemiplegia? a. hem-ee-PLEE-jee-ah b. heme-EH-plee-JEE-ah c. HEM-eh-plee-JEE-ah d. HEME-ee-PLEE-jee-ah 19. A patient with which condition would be most likely to experience muscle fatigue when chewing, talking, or

swallowing? a. Morton's neuroma b. compartment syndrome c. impingement syndrome d. myasthenia gravis 20. Suri Reubens needs to take a break from playing tennis due to epicondylitis; epicondylitis means

.

a. inflammation of the plantar fascia b. inflammation of a tendon Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 c. inflammation of the elbow d. inflammation of the Achilles tendon 21. A patient with adhesions has a procedure where the adhesions are released. What is the term for this

procedure? a. tenolysis b. tenodesis c. tendonitis d. tenotomy 22. Which is the correct spelling of the condition also known as hiccups? a. singoltus b. singultus c. singultis d. syngultus 23. What does the combining form kines/o mean? a. violent action b. fascia c. movement d. tone 24. Which condition affects the shoulder? a. Morton's neuroma b. compartment syndrome c. impingement syndrome d. myasthenia gravis 25. Which is the correct pronunciation of epicondylitis? a. EP-ih-KON-dih-lye-tis b. ep-ih-kon-dih-LYE-tis c. ep-EE-kon-dih-LYE-tis d. ep-ee-KON-dih-lye-TISS 26. Which is a band of connective tissue that envelops, separates, or binds together muscles or groups? a. tendon b. fascia c. strain d. muscle fiber 27. What does the term ataxia describe?

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Chapter 4 a. lack of normal muscle tone b. diminished muscle tone c. lack of muscle coordination d. diminished muscle strength 28. Which prefix means slow? a. bradyb. dysc. hypod. hemi29. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. temporalis b. maseter c. biceps brachii d. gluteus maximus 30. Which specialist specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function? a. occupational therapist b. physiatrist c. physical therapist d. exercise physiologist 31. What does the name anal sphincter indicate about the direction of this structure's muscle fibers? a. The muscle fibers are slanted. b. The muscle fibers run straight. c. The muscle fibers are circular. d. The muscle fibers run crosswise.

32. In which direction do transverse muscle fibers run? a. slanted b. straight c. circular d. crosswise 33. Which is true about a muscle's origin? a. It is where the muscle begins on the body. b. It is more movable than the muscle insertion. c. It indicates the type of muscle action. d. It is the farthest point from the body's midline.

34. What is an example of circumduction?

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Chapter 4 a. rotating the foot so that the sole is turned forward or upward b. moving the head as far back as possible beyond its normal range c. moving the arm in a circular motion around the shoulder joint d. holding a leg straight at the knee while circling the foot in the air 35. Which is the correct pronunciation of cachexia? a. kah-CHEX-see-ah b. KAH-chek-SEE-ah c. KAH-kek-see-AH d. kah-KEKS-ee-ah 36. Which means decreasing the angle between two bones by bending a limb at a joint? a. abduction b. flexion c. adduction d. extension 37. In which direction do rectus muscle fibers run? a. slanted b. straight c. circular d. crosswise 38. Which is true of smooth muscles? a. Smooth muscles are striated. b. Smooth muscles are also called voluntary muscles. c. Smooth muscles are attached to bones. d. Smooth muscles are also called visceral muscles.

39. A muscle becomes shorter and thicker during which process? a. relaxation b. innervation c. contraction d. adduction 40. What does the word root in the term ataxia mean? a. coordination b. condition c. muscle d. pain Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 41. Al Hitchcock's physical therapist gave him some stretches to help his plantar fasciitis, an inflammation

affecting Al's . a. foot b. heel c. elbow d. Achilles tendon 42. The name pectoralis major indicates that this muscle is located where? a. sternum b. collar bone c. wrists d. chest 43. The triceps brachii is a muscle located in the arm. What does this muscle's name indicate? a. The muscle is located toward the side. b. The muscle is named for its action. c. The muscle fibers run in straight alignment. d. The muscle is formed in three divisions.

44. What muscle is located in the forehead? a. temporalis b. deltoid c. frontalis d. gastrocnemius 45. Which is the term for any sudden, involuntary contraction of one or more muscles? a. spasm b. singultus c. cramp d. torticollis 46. Which condition is characterized by the development of trigger points? a. trigger finger b. overuse tendinitis c. myofascial pain syndrome d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 47. Which is the correct pronunciation of pectoralis as in the term pectoralis major? a. PECK-tor-ral-lis b. peck-TOR-al-is c. peck-toh-RAY-lis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 d. peck-TOH-rale-is 48. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. rectus abdominis b. trapezius c. rectus femoris d. gastronemius 49. What is the term for a band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally following an injury or

surgery? a. contracture b. cachexia c. adhesion d. atrophy 50. What does the combining form in the term sarcopenia mean? a. coordination b. condition c. striated muscle d. flesh 51. Carpal tunnel release is a surgical procedure performed on which body part? a. foot b. wrist c. spine d. leg 52. Trigger finger is caused by an inflammation of the

.

a. compartment b. rotator cuff c. synovial sheath d. trigger points 53. Which is the term for a stiff neck due to spasmodic contractions of the neck muscles that pull the head

toward the affected side? a. tic b. singultus c. torticollis d. cramp 54. Which muscle flexes the knee and bends the foot downward?

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Chapter 4 a. temporalis b. deltoid c. frontalis d. gastrocnemius 55. What does a muscle that includes "medialis" as part of its name indicate? a. The muscle is located toward the midline. b. The muscle is named for its action. c. The muscle fibers run in straight alignment. d. The muscle is formed in three divisions.

56. Rotating the arm so that the palm is turned upward is known as

.

a. rotation b. abduction c. supination d. depression 57. Which muscle motion is used for shrugging the shoulders? a. elevation b. abduction c. innervation d. depression 58. Which is the correct spelling for the term that means a serious syndrome that can result from a direct or

indirect muscle injury? a. rhabidomyolysis b. rhabdomyolysis c. rhabdomyelysis d. rabdomyolysis 59. Which is true of skeletal muscles? a. Skeletal muscles are striped in appearance. b. Skeletal muscles are called involuntary muscles. c. Skeletal muscles are found in blood vessels. d. Skeletal muscles are also called visceral muscles.

60. What does the combining form in the term rhabdomyolysis mean? a. breakdown b. tendon c. striated muscle d. flesh Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 61. What diagnostic test stimulates nerves to assess muscle strength? a. electromyography b. range-of-motion testing c. muscle biopsy d. viscosupplementation 62. Which is the term for the protrusion of tissue such as an internal organ through a weak area of muscle? a. adhesion b. hernia c. rhabdomyolysis d. atrophy 63. Ballet dancers stand on the tips of their toes in a movement known as

.

a. plantar flexion b. pronation c. dorsiflexion d. supination 64. Which is the correct spelling for a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the neuromuscular junction? a. myesthenia gravis b. myasthenia gravis c. myesthenia gravus d. myasthania gravss 65. Which type of muscle tissue forms the muscular wall of the heart? a. smooth b. myocardial c. visceral d. skeletal 66. Sixty-six-year-old Gloria Tobin participates in a weekly exercise class in an effort to improve muscle mass

and slow the effects of which condition? a. chronic fatigue syndrome b. tendinitis c. cachexia d. sarcopenia 67. What treatment using specialized soft-tissue manipulation is often used for patients with fibromyalgia? a. tenolysis b. myofascial release Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 c. fasciotomy d. myotomy 68. Which is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone? a. tendon b. fascia c. strain d. muscle fiber 69. Which suffix means paralysis? a. -lysis b. -paresis c. -plegia d. -itis 70. Which physician specializes in treating the causes of paralysis and similar muscular disorders? a. sports medicine physician b. neurologist c. occupational therapist d. physical therapist 71. Which statement is correct? a. Myocardial muscles are also known as visceral muscles. b. Neither skeletal muscles nor myocardial muscles are involuntary. c. Smooth muscles are under voluntary control. d. Both myocardial muscles and skeletal muscles are striated.

72. Which is a function of the muscular system? a. to aid in digestion b. to remove waste c. to keep the body cool d. to deliver oxygen to cells 73. Which term is spelled correctly? a. torticolis b. hyperkenesia c. dyskinesia d. cacexia 74. Which medication acts on the central nervous system to relieve muscle stiffness, pain, and discomfort

caused by strains or other muscle injuries? a. antispasmodic Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 b. muscle relaxant c. anabolic steroid d. viscosupplementation 75. Which is an overuse injury causing pain, usually just above the knee joint? a. Achilles tendinitis b. hamstring injury c. iliotibial band syndrome d. shin splint 76. What is the medical term for hiccups? a. singultus b. myoclonus c. spasm d. cramp 77. Which is the surgical suturing of the end of a tendon to a bone? a. tenodesis b. tenolysis c. tenosynovitis d. tendinitis 78. Which term in a muscle name means "toward the side"? a. lateralis b. oblique c. rectus d. transverse 79. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. quadriplegia b. myoparesis c. dyskinesia d. epicondelitis 80. While jumping off stage, Sarina lands incorrectly, bending her right knee backwards beyond its normal limit

in a muscle movement known as

.

a. elevation b. hyperextension c. adduction d. supination Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 81. Four-month-old Jared is unable to sit, even with support, and cannot keep his head up because he has which

condition? a. dystonia b. hypotonia c. myalgia d. ataxia 82. After several athletes on her basketball team experience muscle strains, Coach Vasquez asks which health

care professional to educate her team about injury prevention? a. sports medicine physician b. neurologist c. occupational therapist d. physiatrist 83. A physical therapist might use a goniometer to assess a patient's joint mobility and muscle strength using

which test? a. electromyography b. range-of-motion testing c. knee-jerk test d. muscle biopsy 84. Several days following her new exercise regimen Suki's muscles feel tender and painful, a condition known

as

. a. myalgia b. cachexia c. atrophy d. hypotonia

85. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. tenodesis b. myotomy c. bradykenesia d. anticholinergic

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The abbreviation for activities of daily living is

.

87. Following an injury to her hand, Wanda begins therapy to resume activities of daily living such as buttoning

her shirt and brushing her teeth by working with a/an

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.

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Chapter 4 88. An inflammation of tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of a joint is

.

89. A muscle disease characterized by the simultaneous inflammation and weakening of voluntary muscles in

many parts of the body is

.

90. Total paralysis affecting only one side of the body is called

.

91. The term that means slanted or at an angle is

.

92. The term that means the lack of muscle coordination during voluntary movement is

.

93. The abbreviation for repetitive stress disorder is

.

94. A treatment that uses direct injections of hyaluronic acid into the knee to increase the joint's viscous fluid

and provide temporary relief from arthritis is

.

95. The surgical release of a tendon from adhesions is

.

96. A strain or tear on any of the muscles that straighten the hip and bend the knee characterized by sudden and

severe pain in the back of the thigh is a/an

97. PM is the abbreviation for

.

.

98. The abbreviation for iliotibial band syndrome is

.

99. The abbreviation for transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is

.

100. A surgical incision through the fascia to relieve tension or pressure is a/an

101. The abbreviation for deep tendon reflexes is 102. IC is the abbreviation for

.

. .

103. A debilitating chronic condition characterized by fatigue; diffuse or specific muscle, joint, or bone pain;

and a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4

wide range of other symptoms is

.

104. The leg muscles involved in both knee flexion and hip extension are the

.

105. MG is the abbreviation for

.

106. A specialist who develops, implements, and coordinates exercise programs to promote physical fitness is

a/an

.

107. The muscle that extends the leg at the knee and flexes the thigh at the hip joint is the

.

108. The muscle that flexes the elbow is the

.

109. Laughing or coughing engages this core abdominal muscle known as the

.

110. A painful condition caused by the tibialis anterior muscle tearing away from the tibia is a/an

.

111. The study of human factors that affect the design and operation of tools and the work environment is

known as

.

112. The abbreviation for electromyography is

.

113. The muscle that moves the lower jaw up and back to close the mouth is the

.

114. The term for a permanent tightening of the connective tissues often caused by scarring is

.

115. The muscle that raises and lowers the eyebrows is the 116. The suffix in the term tenotomy means

. .

117. The distortion or impairment of voluntary movement resulting in fragmented or jerky motions is

.

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Chapter 4 118. The abbreviation for muscular dystrophy is

.

119. The word root synov in the term tenosynovitis means 120. The abbreviation for carpal tunnel syndrome is

. .

121. Unstriated, involuntary, and visceral are all characteristics of

.

122. The point where the muscle ends by attaching to a bone or tendon is known as the

.

123. A ring-like muscle that tightly constricts the opening of a passageway is called a/an

.

124. The abbreviation for chronic fatigue syndrome is

.

125. The term for a state of balanced muscle tension that makes normal movement possible is

.

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Chapter 4 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. d 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 77. a 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. b 84. a 85. c 86. ADL 87. occupational therapist 88. overuse tendinitis 89. polymyositis 90. hemiplegia 91. oblique 92. ataxia 93. RSD 94. viscosupplementation 95. tenolysis 96. hamstring injury 97. polymyositis 98. ITBS 99. TENS 100. fasciotomy 101. DTRs Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 4 102. intermittent claudication 103. fibromyalgia 104. hamstring group 105. myasthenia gravis 106. exercise physiologist 107. rectus femoris 108. biceps brachii 109. transverse abdominis 110. shin splint 111. ergonomics 112. EMG 113. temporalis 114. contracture 115. frontalis 116. surgical incision 117. dyskinesia 118. MD 119. synovial membrane 120. CTS 121. smooth muscles 122. insertion 123. sphincter 124. CFS 125. muscle tone

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Chapter 5

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which is the combining form for artery? a. angi/o b. aort/o c. arteri/o d. ven/o 2. What does the suffix -crasia mean? a. blood condition b. pertaining to c. small ones d. mixture or blending 3. What term is the opposite of brady-? a. hyperb. leuk/o c. tachyd. megalo4. What does phleb/o mean? a. blood condition b. heart c. vein d. mixture 5. Which is the combining form for blood vessel? a. angi/o b. aort/o c. arteri/o d. ven/o 6. What is the membranous sac that contains the heart? a. epicardium b. pericardium c. myocardium d. endocardium 7. Sal Williams is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. Which body structure does atherosclerosis affect? a. heart b. veins c. brain Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 d. arteries 8. What term refers to an abnormal protrusion of a heart valve? a. endocarditis b. mitral valve prolapse c. cardiomegaly d. atherosclerosis 9. What condition is caused by a build-up of plaque within the blood vessels? a. endocarditis b. mitral valve prolapse c. brain d. atherosclerosis 10. Which term refers to all diseases affecting the heart muscle? a. cardiomyopathy b. myocardial infarction c. arrhythmia d. myocarditis 11. Which condition is a type of arrhythmia? a. heart murmur b. orthostatic hypotension c. blood dyscrasia d. bradycardia 12. What is the term for a localized weak spot in the wall of an artery? a. thrombus b. embolus c. thrombotic occlusion d. aneurysm 13. What best describes a thrombus? a. a blood clot attached to a blood vessel b. a circulating blood clot c. an excess of iron in the blood d. a weak spot within an artery 14. Dr. Morales advises Wen Fortin to wear compression socks to manage his phlebitis. What does the word

root in phlebitis mean? a. clot b. vein Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 c. artery d. blood vessel 15. What condition affects the blood supply to the head and brain? a. phlebitis b. endocarditis c. temporal arteritis d. pericarditis 16. What part of the body do varicose veins affect? a. heart b. legs c. head d. back 17. Which of these blood vessels carry blood upward to the head? a. carotid arteries b. arterioles c. venules d. superior vena cava 18. Due to complications of peripheral artery disease, Cal Chen is placed in the ICU suffering from a severe

shortage of blood supply to his limbs. What is the term for Cal's condition? a. gangrene b. hyperlipidemia c. Raynaud's disease d. hypertension 19. Which blood vessels further slow the flow of blood to allow plasma to flow into the tissues? a. capillaries b. venules c. inferior vena cava d. aorta 20. Which medication with antihypertensive properties works by dilating the veins, reducing the workload of

the heart? a. nitroglycerin b. vasodilator c. digitalis d. vasoconstrictor Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 21. What does a thallium stress test evaluate? a. electrical activity of the myocardium b. heart rates and rhythms over 24 hours c. blood pressure levels at the ankle and arm d. blood flow through the coronary arteries 22. The plaque that causes atherosclerosis consists of

.

a. blood gases b. Rh factor c. thrombocytes d. cholesterol 23. What component of the blood is involved in defending the body against many infective organisms and

foreign substances? a. leukocytes b. serum c. platelets d. plasma 24. What medication reduces the amount of fluid circulating in the blood? a. diuretic b. beta-blocker c. thrombolytic d. ACE inhibitor 25. What is the procedure to widen a narrowed or obstructed blood vessel? a. angioplasty b. restenosis c. atherectomy d. carotid endarterectomy 26. A patient with a blood clot would be most likely to take what medication? a. diuretic b. beta-blocker c. thrombolytic d. ACE inhibitor 27. What does an electrocardiogram (ECG) measure? a. electrical activity of the myocardium b. heart rates and rhythms over 24 hours c. blood pressure levels at the ankle and arm Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 d. blood flow through the coronary arteries 28. Which device is used by nonprofessionals in emergency situations when defibrillation is required? a. automated external defibrillator b. pacemaker c. implantable cardioverter-defibrillator d. cardiac ablation 29. Which provider specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of heart arrhythmias? a. electrophysiologist b. vascular surgeon c. cardiologist d. telemetry nurse 30. What term means inflammation of a vein? a. phlebitis b. endocarditis c. temporal arteritis d. pericarditis 31. What best describes an aneurysm? a. a blood clot attached to a blood vessel b. a circulating blood clot c. an excess of iron in the blood d. a weak spot within an artery 32. Nikita Smith goes to the ER for pain and swelling in her right calf, fearing it might be an embolism. Which

is the cause of an embolism? a. a decrease in circulating white blood cells b. a circulating blood clot c. an excess of iron in the blood d. a weak spot within an artery 33. When Nat Garcia stands up from sitting, he feels lightheaded and dizzy. What condition related to low blood

pressure does Nat most likely have? a. carotid artery stenosis b. orthostatic hypotension c. chronic venous insufficiency d. bradycardia 34. What occurs as a result of plaque buildup in the heart? a. cardiomyopathy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 b. myocardial infarction c. arrhythmia d. myocarditis 35. Which condition is caused by a buildup of plaque within the blood vessels? a. endocarditis b. mitral valve prolapse c. palpitation d. atherosclerosis 36. What is the external layer of the heart? a. epicardium b. pericardium c. myocardium d. endocardium 37. What term describes a pounding or racing heart? a. endocarditis b. mitral valve prolapse c. palpitation d. atherosclerosis 38. Which condition is characterized by a blowing or clicking sound? a. heart murmur b. orthostatic hypotension c. mitral valve regurgitation d. bradycardia 39. A physician would perform the ankle-brachial index to assess the severity of which condition? a. peripheral artery disease b. thalassemia c. hyperlipidemia d. Raynaud's disease 40. What are the upper chambers of the heart? a. ventricle b. coronary arteries c. interatrial septum d. atria 41. Blood flows into the left ventricle from which structure? a. right ventricle Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 b. pulmonary artery c. right atrium d. left atrium 42. What establishes the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat? a. atrioventricular node b. bundle of His c. Purkinje fibers d. sinoatrial node 43. What are the smallest blood vessels in the body? a. capillaries b. venules c. arterioles d. superficial veins 44. What is a clotting protein contained in the blood? a. serum b. prothrombin c. Rh factor d. hemoglobin 45. Which health care professional specializes in treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders of the heart? a. electrophysiologist b. cardiologist c. vascular surgeon d. telemetry nurse 46. What does the word root in ischemia mean? a. relating to blood b. localized dead tissue c. abnormal narrowing d. to hold back 47. Dana Gomez is diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation. Which is true about this condition? a. The mitral valve develops calcium deposits. b. The mitral valve protrudes into the atrium. c. The mitral valve makes a clicking sound. d. The mitral valve does not close properly.

48. What condition is the cause of many sudden cardiac deaths? a. palpitation Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 b. supraventricular tachycardia c. ventricular fibrillation d. heart block 49. Tissue death caused by lack of blood supply occurs in which condition? a. aortic stenosis b. sepsis c. gangrene d. endocarditis 50. A patient with an abnormal heartbeat would be most likely to take which medication to treat their abnormal

heartbeat? a. anticoagulant b. diuretic c. nitroglycerin d. antiarrhythmic 51. Which term means an abnormally slow resting heart rate? a. asystole b. supraventricular tachycardia c. bradycardia d. heart block 52. Which condition of the heart valves causes calcium and fat deposits to build up inside a valve? a. aortic stenosis b. mitral valve prolapse c. heart murmur d. mitral valve regurgitation 53. Which component of blood plays an important role in blood clotting? a. leukocytes b. serum c. plasma d. thrombocytes 54. Which is true about veins? a. Veins have thinner walls than arteries. b. Veins carry blood away from the heart. c. Veins deliver nutrients to tissue cells. d. Veins have bright red blood.

55. The stimulation of what results in ventricular contraction?

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Chapter 5 a. atrioventricular node b. bundle of His c. Purkinje fibers d. sinoatrial node 56. The tricuspid valve controls blood flow between which two structures? a. right atrium and right ventricle b. right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. left atrium and left ventricle d. left ventricle and aorta 57. What are the ventricles? a. the lower chambers of the heart b. the external layer of the heart and the inner layer of the pericardium c. a wall dividing the atria d. the receiving chamber for blood 58. Which of the following terms defines the abbreviation MI? a. myocardial infarction b. mitral insufficiency c. mitral imaging d. myocardial implant 59. What term refers to an abnormal enlargement of the heart? a. endocarditis b. mitral valve prolapse c. cardiomegaly d. atherosclerosis 60. What is the thickest layer of the heart? a. epicardium b. pericardium c. myocardium d. endocardium 61. Which is the correct meaning of the abbreviation CC? a. cardiac catheterization b. coronary coagulation c. cardiac cardioverter d. capillary clipping 62. Dee Miller has supraventricular tachycardia. Which specialist would Dee seek for treatment of this Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5

condition? a. cardiologist b. electrophysiologist c. vascular surgeon d. telemetry nurse 63. Which blood vessels deliver oxygen and nutrients to cell tissues? a. arterioles b. venules c. capillaries d. carotid arteries 64. What term means the condition of having an abnormally slow resting heart rate? a. atrial fibrillation b. bradycardia c. palpitation d. tachycardia 65. What carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs? a. pulmonary circulation b. pulmonary veins c. pulmonary arteries d. systemic circulation 66. Which term describes a fatty deposit on an artery wall? a. aneurysm b. plaque c. thrombus d. embolus 67. What is the term for the highest pressure against the artery walls, which occurs when the ventricles contract? a. diastolic pressure b. hypertension c. hypotension d. systolic pressure 68. Which medication strengthens the contraction of the heart muscle, slows the heart rate, and helps eliminate

fluid from body tissues? a. ACE inhibitor b. digitalis c. beta-blocker Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 d. diuretic 69. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart to all regions of the body? a. arteries b. capillaries c. veins d. venae cavae 70. What describes plasma fluid after the blood cells and clotting proteins have been removed? a. fibrinogen b. serum c. prothrombin d. plasma 71. Which of these conditions is also known as a "flat line?" a. ventricular fibrillation b. asystole c. supraventricular tachycardia d. arrhythmia 72. What is the condition of having a blood clot attached to the wall of a deep vein? a. deep vein thrombosis b. orthostatic hypotension c. phlebitis d. peripheral vascular disease 73. What term describes a portable electrocardiograph that is worn by an ambulatory patient to continuously

monitor heart rate and rhythm over a 24- or 48-hour period? a. electrocardiogram b. stress test c. Holter monitor d. thallium stress test 74. Which medication is taken in a small daily dose to reduce the ability of the blood to clot? a. thrombolytic b. digitalis c. beta-blocker d. aspirin 75. Which medication is administered to control irregularities of the heartbeat? a. anticoagulant Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 b. antiarrhythmic c. calcium channel blocker agent d. antihypertensive 76. What is the name for a chronic condition in which the heart is unable to pump out all of the blood it

receives? a. heart failure b. cardiomyopathy c. coronary artery disease d. cardiomegaly 77. Which is the name for an emergency procedure for life support consisting of artificial respiration and

manual external cardiac compression? a. cardiopulmonary resuscitation b. pacemaker c. implantable cardioverter-defibrillator d. automated external defibrillator 78. Which of these tests uses sound waves to image the structures of the blood vessels and the flow of blood

through these vessels? a. venography b. digital subtraction angiography c. diagnostic ultrasound d. duplex ultrasound 79. Which is administered within a few hours after a heart attack or stroke to dissolve the damaging blood clots? a. vasoconstrictor b. tissue plasminogen activator c. nitroglycerin d. aspirin 80. Which is a wire mesh tube placed in an artery to provide support to the arterial wall? a. restenosis b. stent c. atherectomy d. coronary artery bypass graft 81. What is the correct spelling of the term that means the loss of the normal rhythm of the heartbeat? a. arrhythmia b. arhythmia c. arrythmia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 d. arrhithymia 82. Which condition is caused by inflammation of the arteries that supply blood to the head and brain? a. hemangioma b. temporal arteritis c. vasculitis d. endocarditis 83. Which term means the abnormal protrusion of a heart valve? a. mitral valve regurgitation b. aortic stenosis c. mitral valve prolapse d. heart murmur 84. Which term means inflammation of the heart muscle? a. cardiomyopathy b. myocarditis c. pericarditis d. bacterial endocarditis 85. Which suffix means to destroy? a. -lytic b. -ectomy c. -plasty d. -ation

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A localized, balloon-like enlargement of an artery wall is called a/an

.

87. The blood vessels that carries deoxygenated blood out of the right ventricle and into the lungs are the

.

88. The blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heart are the

.

89. A medication administered to rid the body of excess sodium and water is a/an 90. The term used to describe all the diseases of the heart muscle is 91. The term for a medication that is commonly known as a clot-busting drug is Powered by Cognero

. . .

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Chapter 5

92. A foreign object, such as a blood clot, that is circulating in the blood is called a/an

.

93. The use of electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm is known as

.

94. A condition that occurs when valves in the veins function improperly, causing swelling in the legs, is

.

95. The double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart is the

.

96. The term for low blood pressure that occurs upon standing up is

.

97. A medication that blocks the enzyme that causes the blood vessels to contract is a/an

.

98. The term that means to stop or control bleeding is

.

99. The term for a very rapid heartbeat that begins within the ventricles is

.

100. The term for a surgical removal of plaque from the interior lining of an artery is

.

101. A drug with antihypertensive properties that works by dilating the veins, reducing the workload of the

heart, is

.

102. A medication that slows the rate of the heartbeat is called a/an

.

103. A fatty substance that travels through the blood and is found in all parts of the body is called

.

104. Another term for a heart attack is

.

105. A medication that slows coagulation and prevents new clots from forming is a/an 106. An inflammation of the inner lining of the heart is known as

. .

107. Damage to the heart muscle caused by a blood clot blocking a coronary artery is a/an Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5

.

108. The medical term meaning inflammation of a vein is

.

109. A technique to mechanically widen a narrowed or obstructed blood vessel is

.

110. The rapid, irregular, and useless contractions of the ventricles is called

.

111. A record of the electrical activity of the myocardium is a/an

.

112. The surgical removal of the lining of a portion of a clogged carotid artery leading to the brain is a

procedure called

.

113. The period of relaxation that follows as the chambers refill with blood is called

.

114. The hardening and narrowing of the arteries caused by a buildup of cholesterol plaque is known as

.

115. The flow of blood to all parts of the body except the lungs is called

.

116. The condition in which normal contractions of the atria are replaced by rapid, uncontrolled twitching of the

muscular heart wall is called

.

117. The cholesterol level that carries unneeded cholesterol back to the liver for processing and does not

contribute to plaque buildup is abbreviated as

.

118. Damage to the heart muscle caused by a thrombus blocking a coronary artery is

.

119. A deficiency of blood passing through an organ or body is called

.

120. A portable electrocardiograph that is worn by an ambulatory patient to continuously monitor the heart rates

and rhythms over a 24- or 48-hour period is a/an

.

121. A procedure that is similar to defibrillation for restoring normal heart rhythm but uses a lower voltage

electrical shock is

.

122. Antihypertensive, antiarrhythmic medications that cause the heart and blood vessels to relax by decreasing Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5

the movement of calcium into the cells of these structures are called

.

123. A diagnostic and treatment procedure in which a catheter is passed into a vein or artery and then guided

into the heart is known as

.

124. A form of vasculitis that can cause headaches, visual impairment, jaw pain, and other symptoms is called

.

125. A peripheral arterial occlusive disease in which intermittent attacks are triggered by cold or stress is called

.

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Chapter 5 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. b 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. b 83. c 84. b 85. a 86. aneurysm 87. pulmonary arteries 88. pulmonary veins 89. diuretic 90. cardiomyopathy 91. thrombolytic 92. embolus 93. defibrillation 94. varicose veins 95. pericardium 96. orthostatic hypotension 97. ACE inhibitor 98. hemostasis 99. ventricular tachycardia 100. atherectomy 101. nitroglycerin Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5 102. beta-blocker 103. cholesterol 104. myocardial infarction 105. anticoagulant 106. endocarditis 107. coronary thrombosis 108. phlebitis 109. angioplasty 110. ventricular fibrillation 111. electrocardiogram

ECG EKG 112. carotid endarterectomy 113. diastole 114. atherosclerosis 115. systemic circulation 116. atrial fibrillation 117. HDL 118. coronary thrombosis 119. hypoperfusion 120. Holter monitor 121. synchronized cardioversion 122. calcium channel blockers 123. cardiac catheterization 124. temporal arteritis 125. Raynaud's disease Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 5

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Chapter 6

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What term means low white blood cell count? a. leukopenia b. polycythemia c. thrombocytopenia d. septicemia 2. Following complications from a ruptured appendix, Cal Chen is placed in the ICU with a life-threatening

bacterial infection of his bloodstream. What is the term for Cal's condition? a. thalassemia b. polycythemia c. thrombocytopenia d. sepsis 3. What type of anemia is caused by a failure of blood cell production in the bone marrow? a. sickle cell anemia b. iron-deficiency anemia c. pernicious anemia d. aplastic anemia 4. What type of anemia is caused by the body's failure to absorb vitamin B12? a. sickle cell anemia b. iron-deficiency anemia c. pernicious anemia d. aplastic anemia 5. What component of the blood transports oxygen? a. leukocytes b. eosinophils c. hemoglobin d. plasma 6. What type of anemia is a genetic disorder that causes abnormal hemoglobin? a. sickle cell anemia b. iron-deficiency anemia c. pernicious anemia d. aplastic anemia 7. What term means an abnormally small number of platelets in the blood? a. leukopenia b. polycythemia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 c. thrombocytopenia d. septicemia 8. Which is a function of blood? a. to deliver waste products to the tissues b. to regulate skin temperature c. to increase pH levels in the body d. to return carbon dioxide to the heart 9. A clotting protein contained in the blood is

.

a. serum b. prothrombin c. Rh factor d. hemoglobin 10. Which component of plasma plays a role in the immune system? a. albumin b. fibrinogen c. prothrombin d. globulins 11. Which component of blood plays a major role in blood clotting? a. lymphocytes b. Rh factor c. hemoglobin d. thrombocytes 12. What condition is an inherited blood disorder that causes mild or severe anemia due to reduced hemoglobin

and fewer red blood cells than normal? a. hemolytic anemia b. leukemia c. megaloblastic anemia d. thalassemia 13. The primary function of the erythrocytes is to a. transport oxygen to the tissues b. stop fluid from leaking out of blood vessels c. destroy some parasites d. assist in blood clotting 14. The most common type of white blood cells are the Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 6 a. basophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. neutrophils 15. What describes plasma fluid that remains after the blood cells and clotting proteins have been removed? a. fibrinogen b. serum c. prothrombin d. plasma 16. An abnormal increase in the number of platelets in the circulating blood is

.

a. thrombocytopenia b. polycythemia c. hemochromatosis d. thrombocytosis 17. Which condition is also known as iron overload disease? a. hemochromatosis b. thrombocytosis c. transfusion reaction d. anemia 18. Where is erythropoietin produced in the body? a. liver b. bone marrow c. kidneys d. spleen 19. Where does the process of hematopoiesis occur in an adult? a. spleen b. thymus c. liver d. red bone marrow 20. Type O blood contains which antigens? a. A b. B c. AB d. neither A nor B Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 21. What does the combining form coagul/o in the term coagulation mean? a. blood b. controlling c. clotting d. color 22. Which suffix means protein? a. -emia b. -penia c. -globin d. -poiesis 23. What does the combining form phleb/o in the term phlebotomist mean? a. blood b. bone marrow c. plasma d. vein 24. Which common blood test measures seven different substances found in the blood? a. comprehensive metabolic panel b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 25. Which term is spelled correctly? a. hematopoesis b. pancytepenia c. hemorrhage d. thalasemia 26. Which WBC releases histamines that cause symptoms of an allergic reaction? a. phagocytes b. basophils c. monocytes d. plasma cells 27. Adults are most likely to develop which type of leukemia? a. Von Willebrand disease b. acute myeloid leukemia c. Hodgkin's lymphoma d. chronic lymphocytic leukemia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 28. Which test measures the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood? a. blood glucose test b. lipoprotein panel blood test c. blood differential test d. arterial blood gas test 29. Which term is spelled correctly? a. eosinaphils b. thrombocytopenia c. seirum d. thalasemia 30. Which suffix means "to make"? a. -emia b. -penia c. -globin d. -poiesis 31. T and B cells are classified as which type of leukocyte? a. lymphocytes b. granulocytes c. monocytes d. thrombocytes 32. Which blood test measures 14 different substances found in the blood? a. comprehensive metabolic panel b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 33. While coding a patient encounter, Rhad Patel encounters the abbreviation Hgb, which means

.

a. Hodgkin's lymphoma b. hematocrit c. hemophilia d. hemoglobin 34. If one parent has type B blood and the other parent has type O blood, which blood type will the parents'

offspring have? a. B b. O Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 c. B or O d. A, B, AB, or O 35. A patient with the genetic mutation Factor V Leiden is most likely to present with which condition? a. coagulopathy b. hemophilia c. hypercoagulable state d. Von Willebrand disease 36. Which condition is characterized by a dysfunction of the bone marrow? a. pancytopenia b. myelodysplastic syndrome c. aplastic anemia d. Hodgkin's lymphoma 37. What does the suffix -stasis in the term hemostasis mean? a. stopping b. deficiency c. bleeding d. destroy 38. A patient with which condition would most likely be treated in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber? a. polycythemia vera b. neutropenia c. decompression sickness d. thalassemia 39. Which is the term for a low white blood cell count? a. polycythemia b. leukopenia c. thrombocytosis d. pernicious anemia 40. Five-year-old Terrence receives a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. What does the term myeloid indicate

about this condition? a. It has a rapid onset. b. It is a cancer of the blood. c. It affects the bone marrow. d. It is a type of tumor.

41. The results of which blood test may indicate the presence of inflammation in the body?

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Chapter 6 a. blood glucose test b. lipoprotein panel blood test c. erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. arterial blood gas test 42. Which condition is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells? a. Von Willebrand disease b. myelodysplastic syndrome c. Factor V Leiden d. Hodgkin's lymphoma 43. What does the total protein test measure? a. vitamin K b. cholesterol and triglycerides c. troponin d. albumin and globulin 44. What component of the blood does hematocrit evaluate? a. the percentage of each type of leukocyte in the blood b. the percentage of albumin and globulin in the blood c. the percentage of the blood made up of red blood cells d. the percentage of formed elements in the blood 45. Which genetic condition is characterized by the blood's inability to clot normally? a. leukemia b. hemophilia c. hypercoagulable state d. aplastic anemia 46. Which is an example of a bone marrow disorder? a. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma b. leukopenia c. hemochromatosis d. carbon monoxide poisoning 47. What does the prefix megalo- in the term megaloblastic anemia mean? a. many b. deficiency c. large d. clot Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 48. Sam Goldberg receives a diagnosis of thrombocytosis, a condition characterized by an abnormal number of

. a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. platelets d. neutrophils 49. A patient who lacks the protein intrinsic factor has which type of anemia? a. hemolytic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. sickle cell anemia d. thalassemia 50. The physician asks the medical assistant to schedule a blood test for Jerome Wall to determine his risk for

developing cardiovascular disease. Which test detects blood levels of cholesterol and triglycerides? a. direct antiglobulin test b. lipoprotein panel blood test c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 51. Which is the correct pronunciation of hematocrit? a. hee-MAT-oh-krit b. HEE-mat-oh-krit c. hee-mat-oh-KRIT d. hee-mat-OH-krit 52. A surgeon might use which of the following to control bleeding during an operation? a. heparin b. topical hemostatic agent c. Coumadin d. antiplatelet agent 53. The abbreviation for hematocrit is a. CMP

.

b. HCT c. HL d. Hgb 54. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. erythrocyte b. leukemia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 c. pencytopenia d. phlebotomist 55. Jas Banks is receiving treatment for acute myeloid leukemia. What does the term acute indicate about Jas's

condition? a. It has a long duration. b. It is slow to develop. c. It has a rapid onset. d. It is genetic in origin.

56. Which is now the usual source of hematopoietic stem cells that are used in transplantation? a. bone marrow donations b. patient's own platelets c. plasma donations d. umbilical cord blood 57. Which is another name for a direct Coombs test? a. direct antiglobulin test b. comprehensive metabolic panel c. prothrombin time d. blood clotting test 58. A deficiency of folic acid may cause which type of anemia? a. megaloblastic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. sickle cell anemia d. thalassemia 59. What does the word root cyt in the term thrombocytosis mean? a. many b. deficiency c. cell d. clot 60. What does the combining form hemat/o in the term hematologist mean? a. blood b. bone marrow c. plasma d. vein 61. A physician who suspects a patient has diabetes would schedule which blood test? a. blood glucose test Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 b. lipoprotein panel blood test c. blood differential test d. arterial blood gas test 62. Which term is spelled correctly? a. megakaryocytes b. thrombocytopeenia c. imunoglobulins d. allogenic transfusion 63. What do sickle cell disease and hereditary spherocytosis have in common? a. Both are types of anemia. b. Both are infectious diseases. c. Both are rare conditions. d. Both have malformed red blood cells.

64. Which test is also known as Profile 8? a. comprehensive metabolic panel b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 65. Following a traumatic injury, Tomas receives an allogeneic transfusion. Which is true about this procedure? a. Tomas received a transfusion of platelets. b. Tomas received donated blood. c. Tomas received whole blood. d. Tomas received his own blood.

66. Which treatment supports wound, muscle, and joint healing? a. apheresis b. platelet-rich plasma treatment c. therapeutic plasma exchange d. hematopoietic stem cell transplant 67. Which is the correct pronunciation of thalassemia? a. THAL-ah-see-MEE-ah b. thal-ah-see-mee-AH c. thal-ah-SEE-mee-ah d. thal-AH-see-MEE-ah 68. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. antiplatelet agent Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 b. allogeneic transplant c. hematopoetic growth factors d. autologous transfusion 69. What does the suffix -pheresis in the term plasmapheresis mean? a. pertaining to b. removal c. to separate d. blood condition 70. To monitor a patient who is taking Coumadin, a physician might order which test? a. comprehensive metabolic panel b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. blood clotting test 71. Ye Rin receives a diagnosis of polycythemia. Which is a characteristic of this condition? a. abnormal number of erythrocytes b. abnormal number of leukocytes c. abnormal number of platelets d. abnormal number of neutrophils 72. Following a furnace malfunction, the Suarez family requires emergency medical treatment for hypoxia.

Which of the following caused this oxygen deficiency? a. carbon monoxide poisoning b. neutropenia c. decompression sickness d. thalassemia 73. What does the suffix -rrhage in the term hemorrhage mean? a. many b. deficiency c. bleeding d. destroy 74. Which condition is characterized by lower-than-normal quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets? a. pancytopenia b. myelodysplastic syndrome c. aplastic anemia d. Hodgkin's lymphoma Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 75. Which is true about chronic lymphocytic leukemia? a. It originates in the lymph nodes. b. It affects the bone marrow. c. It has a rapid onset. d. It is the absence of all formed elements.

76. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. heparin b. antigen c. fibren d. sepsis 77. Which blood test measures the percentage of each type of leukocyte present in the blood? a. comprehensive metabolic panel b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 78. Which suffix means deficiency? a. -emia b. -penia c. -globin d. -poiesis 79. Following an exposure to chemicals at work, Cyl develops myelodysplastic syndrome. Where does this

cancer originate? a. bone marrow b. blood c. lymph d. heart 80. Where are platelets produced? a. liver b. bone marrow c. kidneys d. spleen 81. What does the word root chromat in the term hemochromatosis mean? a. blood b. controlling c. abnormal condition Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 d. color 82. Where do T cells mature? a. spleen b. thymus c. liver d. red bone marrow 83. Sera D'Agostino, who has Type O+ blood, requires a blood transfusion following a car accident. Which

blood type should Sera receive during the transfusion? a. types A+ and B+ b. type ABc. types O+ and Od. types A, B, AB, and O 84. Which of the formed elements contribute to blood clotting? a. erythrocytes b. albumin c. eosinophils d. thrombocytes 85. Which component of plasma helps prevent fluid from leaking out of the blood vessels? a. albumin b. fibrinogen c. prothrombin d. globulins

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A condition in which there are an abnormally small number of platelets circulating in the blood is

.

87. The term that means to stop or control bleeding is

.

88. The term for a lower-than-normal number of erythrocytes in the blood that causes fatigue and shortness of

breath is

.

89. A medication that slows coagulation and prevents new clots from forming is a/an

.

90. A type of cancer characterized by a progressive increase in the number of abnormal white blood cells is Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6

.

91. A serious and potentially fatal complication that occurs when a patient's blood and donated blood do not

match is a/an

.

92. The loss of a large amount of blood in a short time is known as a/an

.

93. A potentially life-threatening infection caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream is known as

.

94. A type of cancer in which there is insufficient production of blood cells due to dysfunction of the bone

marrow is

.

95. A health care professional who specializes in diagnosing and treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders

of the blood and blood-forming tissues is a/an

.

96. Blood and bone marrow are part of the

.

97. Because erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes have a definite shape and structure together they are

referred to as

.

98. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen are major

.

99. Large cells in the bone marrow that produce platelets are

.

100. An individual who can receive all type of blood has blood type

.

101. To have her blood drawn for a basic metabolic panel, Betty requires the services of a/an

.

102. A blood coagulation test used to diagnose conditions associated with abnormalities of clotting time and to

monitor anticoagulant therapy is called 103. MM is the abbreviation for 104. A serious infectious blood disease transmitted by mosquitoes is

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. . .

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Chapter 6 105. The suffix -lytic in the term hemolytic means to

.

106. The brand name for warfarin, an anticoagulant administered to prevent blood clots from forming or

growing larger, is

.

107. Because he has a high risk of having a heart attack, Jess Williams tries to reduce his risk by taking daily,

low-dose

.

108. As a group, neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are referred to as

.

109. The abbreviation for comprehensive metabolic panel is

.

110. An inherited blood disorder that causes mild or severe anemia due to reduced hemoglobin is

.

111. The combining form all/o in the term allogeneic transfusion means

.

112. A patient with kidney failure may require a dialysis machine to filter waste products from the blood in a

treatment called

.

113. The main source of blood used for transfusions comes from

.

114. The suffix -rrhage in the term hemorrhage means

.

115. PT stands for

.

116. Immature red blood cells that have just been released from the bone marrow are called

.

117. Blood that has an increased tendency to form clots is said to be in a/an

.

118. To separate the cellular and liquid portions of the blood for tests requiring a sample of serum or plasma,

blood specimens are placed into a/an 119. The abbreviation for Hodgkin's lymphoma is Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 120. A blood transfusion that uses the patient's own blood instead of blood from a donor is a/an

.

121. Because she has hemophilia, Tia Sook needs to be careful to avoid bleeding; another term for Tia's

bleeding disorder is

.

122. The abbreviation for myelodysplastic syndrome is

.

123. Active gamma globulins made by the plasma cells and mainly found in the bone marrow are called

.

124. A urine test used to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption, which is a factor in pernicious anemia, is the

.

125. Paco is considered a universal donor because he has blood type

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.

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Chapter 6 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 26. b 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 52. b 53. b 54. c 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. b 83. c 84. d 85. a 86. thrombocytopenia 87. hemostasis 88. anemia 89. anticoagulant 90. leukemia 91. transfusion reaction 92. hemorrhage 93. sepsis 94. myelodysplastic syndrome 95. hematologist 96. hematologic system 97. formed elements 98. blood gases 99. megakaryocytes 100. AB 101. phlebotomist Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 6 102. prothrombin time

pro time 103. multiple myeloma 104. malaria 105. destroy 106. Coumadin 107. aspirin 108. granulocytes 109. CMP 110. thalassemia 111. different 112. hemodialysis 113. blood donations 114. bleeding 115. prothrombin time

pro time 116. reticulocytes 117. hypercoagulable state 118. centrifuge 119. HL 120. autologous transfusion 121. coagulopathy 122. MDS 123. immunoglobulins 124. Schilling test 125. OPowered by Cognero

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Chapter 6

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Chapter 7

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means lymphatic vessels and ducts? a. lymph/o b. lymphaden/o c. immune/o d. lymphangi/o 2. What does the combining form macro mean? a. immune, protection, safe b. eat, swallow c. poison, poisonous d. large 3. Which word part means tumor? a. -oma b. -cyte c. -edema d. -lytic 4. Which word part means bone marrow? a. splen/o b. lymph/o c. adenoid/o d. myel/o 5. Which combining form means safe? a. lymph/o b. phag/o c. immun/o d. tox/o 6. Which of the following is an example of SARS-CoV-2? a. allergen b. opportunistic infection c. varicella d. antigen 7. One function of the spleen is to destroy worn out red blood cells. What is the term for this? a. pathogenic Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 b. systemic reaction c. hemolytic d. bacteriostatic 8. What is another term for antibody? a. tolerance b. antigen c. immunoglobulin d. interferon 9. What is the term for a benign tumor due to a congenital malformation? a. lymphadenopathy b. lymphangioma c. lymphedema d. lymphadenitis 10. Which term describes tissue inflammation due to an accumulation of lymph fluid? a. lymphadenopathy b. lymphangioma c. lymphedema d. lymphadenitis 11. Which is the term for a severe response to an allergen? a. localized allergic response b. autoimmune disorder c. immunodeficiency disorder d. anaphylaxis 12. Kaposi's sarcoma is an example of what? a. opportunistic infection b. immunodeficiency disorder c. allergic reaction d. autoimmune disorder 13. Which word part means neck? a. cervic b. inguin c. axill d. lymph 14. Allergy desensitization is an example of which type of treatment? a. teletherapy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 b. adjuvant therapy c. chemoprevention d. immunotherapy 15. A patient who is receiving an organ transplant would most likely receive which medication to prevent the

body's rejection of the new organ? a. immunosuppressant b. antibiotics c. antifungal d. synthetic immunoglobulins 16. What is another term for an antimycotic medication? a. bactericide b. antibiotic c. antifungal d. cytotoxic drug 17. Which is an example of bacteria? a. yeast b. influenza c. candidiasis d. spirochetes 18. Which is the name for a small bacterium that lives on fleas, ticks, and mites and causes Rocky Mountain

spotted fever? a. rickettsia b. staphylococci c. anthrax d. streptococci 19. Which bacteria are rod-shaped? a. spirochetes b. staphylococci c. bacilli d. streptococci 20. Taylor Munandi's obstetrician advised her not to change her cat's litter box because handling animal feces

places her at risk of which condition? a. malaria b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. anthrax Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 d. toxoplasmosis 21. COVID-19 infection is caused by what? a. fungus b. bacteria c. virus d. parasite 22. What is the term for the structure that hangs from the lower portion of the cecum? a. vermiform appendix b. spleen c. thymus d. tonsils 23. Which medical term describes a fungal infection that develops between the toes? a. tinea pedis b. oral thrush c. aspergillosis d. vaginal candidiasis 24. Which condition is described as an acute viral infection that is characterized by the swelling of the parotid

glands? a. mumps b. rubella c. measles d. Zika virus 25. Which disease is caused by a bite from an infected mosquito? a. malaria b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. anthrax d. toxoplasmosis 26. Which bacteria forms irregular cluster that resemble grapes? a. spirochetes b. staphylococci c. bacilli d. streptococci 27. What is an example of an infection caused by a virus? a. giardiasis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 b. varicella c. candidiasis d. spirochetes 28. Dr. Gomez is caring for a patient who sustained a cut from a broken bottle and is concerned about a bacterial

infection. Which medication did Dr. Gomez prescribe for her patient? a. immunosuppressant b. antibiotic c. antifungal d. synthetic immunoglobulin 29. Which condition is the most advanced and fatal stage of an HIV infection? a. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome b. Kaposi's sarcoma c. Lyme disease d. shigellosis 30. Which autoimmune disorder affects the brain and spinal cord? a. multiple sclerosis b. Graves' disease c. scleroderma d. pernicious anemia 31. What is the term for a condition that causes a person's immune system to produce antibodies against its own

tissues? a. localized allergic response b. autoimmune disorder c. immunodeficiency disorder d. anaphylaxis 32. What is a general term for any disease process affecting a lymph node or nodes? a. lymphadenopathy b. lymphangioma c. lymphedema d. lymphadenitis 33. What is a type of T cell that responds to the presence of viruses or tumor cells? a. phagocytes b. lymphocytes c. immunoglobulins d. interferons Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 34. Which medication is used to treat or prevent athlete's foot? a. antifungal b. bactericide c. antiviral d. antibiotic 35. Pollen is an example of what? a. allergen b. opportunistic infection c. varicella d. antigen 36. What is the term for a microorganism that causes a disease in humans? a. pathogen b. fungus c. hemolytic d. bacteriostatic 37. What type of medication works by causing the death of pathogens like streptococci or staphylococci? a. bactericide b. antiviral drug c. hemolytic d. bacteriostatic agent 38. Which word part means causing death? a. -cide b. -static c. -tic d. -al 39. Sam Winn was bitten by a fox that was suspected of having rabies. Sam would most likely receive treatment

with what type of medication? a. immunosuppressant b. antibiotics c. antifungal d. synthetic immunoglobulins 40. What is the function of lacteals? a. to remove debris from intercellular spaces b. to deliver nutrients to the cells c. to destroy pathogens contained in lymph Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 d. to absorb fats from the bloodstream 41. What is one function of interstitial fluid? a. to remove debris from intercellular spaces b. to deliver nutrients to the cells c. to destroy pathogens contained in lymph d. to absorb fats from the bloodstream 42. Where are the cervical lymph nodes located? a. armpits b. groin c. neck d. spleen 43. Which specialized leukocyte destroys substances, such as cell debris, dust, pollen, and pathogens, by

swallowing them? a. phagocytes b. monocytes c. dendritic cells d. immunoglobulins 44. Which specialist specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases caused by microorganisms? a. immunologist b. allergist c. lymphologist d. infectious disease specialist 45. What is the term that means swollen glands? a. lymphadenopathy b. lymphangioma c. lymphadenitis d. lymphedema 46. Latisha Jones has an itchy rash on her hands that she thinks is poison ivy. Which term best describes her

condition? a. localized allergic response b. autoimmune disorder c. immunodeficiency disorder d. systemic reaction 47. A patient with seasonal allergies would most likely use what type of medication? a. immunosuppressant Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 b. antibiotic c. antifungal d. antihistamine 48. Which disease, caused by a parasite, is commonly transmitted through water contaminated with feces? a. Lyme disease b. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. giardiasis 49. Which infection is transmitted through airborne respiratory droplets? a. measles b. rabies c. West Nile virus d. Zika virus 50. Which is true of infectious mononucleosis? a. It is most common in adolescents and young adults. b. It is caused by a reactivated dormant virus. c. It is commonly known as sixth disease. d. It often causes no signs or symptoms in patients.

51. Which word part means rod-shaped? a. bacilli b. cyt/o c. -cocci d. strept/o 52. Which word part means large? a. megal/o b. cyt/o c. corona d. strept/o 53. Where are the lingual tonsils located? a. in the nasopharynx b. base of the tongue c. sides of the throat d. above the heart 54. Ray Webber is an eight-month-old who developed a high fever followed by a rash. Which viral infection

does Ray most likely have?

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Chapter 7 a. infectious mononucleosis b. herpes zoster c. roseola d. cytomegalovirus 55. Which viral infection may be transmitted through sexual intercourse? a. measles b. rabies c. West Nile virus d. Zika virus 56. Which specialized leukocytes patrol the body searching for antigens that produce infections? a. phagocytes b. monocytes c. dendritic cells d. immunoglobulins 57. Where are the inguinal lymph nodes located? a. armpits b. groin c. neck d. spleen 58. What is one function of a lymph node? a. to remove debris from intercellular spaces b. to deliver nutrients to the cells c. to destroy pathogens contained in lymph d. to absorb fats from the bloodstream 59. Which structure is located on the left and right sides of the throat in the area that is visible at the back of the

mouth? a. palatine tonsils b. adenoids c. lingual tonsils d. thymus 60. What type of medication works by slowing or stopping the growth of streptococci or staphylococci? a. bactericide b. antiviral drug c. hemolytic d. bacteriostatic agent Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 61. Which word part means armpit? a. axill b. cervic c. inguin d. lymph/o 62. Which highly contagious viral respiratory infection is commonly known as the flu? a. West Nile virus b. influenza c. measles d. mumps 63. Which blood test is most accurate at confirming the presence of HIV? a. antiangiogenesis b. ELISA c. ultrasound d. adjuvant therapy 64. Which health professional specializes in diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic

reactivity? a. immunologist b. allergist c. lymphologist d. infectious disease specialist 65. What is a noninvasive method of diagnosing lymphedema that measures the resistance to an electrical

current passed through the limb? a. lymphoscintigraphy b. bioimpedance spectroscopy c. surgical biopsy d. lymph node dissection 66. What is a medication used to treat viral infections? a. bactericide b. immunosuppressant c. antiviral drug d. corticosteroid drug 67. Which term is also known as a cellular response? a. allergic reaction b. localized allergic response c. systemic reaction Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 d. autoimmune disorder 68. Which are leukocytes that provide immunological defenses against many infectious organisms? a. dendritic cells b. phagocytes c. cytokines d. monocytes 69. Which masses of lymphoid tissue are also known as the nasopharyngeal tonsils? a. adenoids b. palatine tonsils c. lingual tonsils d. thymus 70. What describes a mass of lymphoid tissue located above the heart? a. tonsils b. thymus c. vermiform appendix d. spleen 71. What is a small, bean-shaped structure containing specialized lymphocytes that are capable of destroying

pathogens? a. lymphatic capillary b. thoracic duct c. lymphatic vessel d. lymph node 72. What lymph nodes are located along the sides of the neck? a. axillary b. cervical c. inguinal d. lymphocyte 73. Which cells are specialized lymphocytes that produce antibodies? a. B cells b. plasma cells c. T cells d. natural killer cells 74. Which term is also known as passive immunity? a. immunity b. natural immunity Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 c. acquired immunity d. allergy 75. What are very small infectious agents that live only by invading other cells? a. yeast b. fungus c. viruses d. pathogens 76. Which structure collects lymph from the left side of the head and neck, the upper left quadrant of the trunk,

the left arm, the entire lower portion of the trunk, and both legs? a. thoracic duct b. right lymphatic duct c. lymphatic capillaries d. inguinal lymph nodes 77. Which word part means cells? a. -cytes b. -cide c. -ary d. -lytic 78. Which structure of the body assists the immune system by using the acids and enzymes produced by the

stomach? a. digestive system b. respiratory system c. intact skin d. lymphatic system 79. Which immunoglobulin is the class of antibodies found only on the surface of B cells? a. IgD b. IgE c. IgA d. IgG 80. Which immunoglobulin is the class of antibodies produced in the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes? a. IgE b. IgM c. IgD d. IgA 81. Which autoimmune disorder affects the intestines, ileum, or the colon?

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Chapter 7 a. Crohn's disease b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Graves' disease d. myasthenia gravis 82. Which infection can be transmitted through infected livestock? a. Lyme disease b. West Nile virus c. anthrax d. Zika virus 83. An acid mantle is part of which of the immune system's first line of defense? a. intact skin b. respiratory system c. lymphatic system d. lacteals 84. Which term refers to an acquired unresponsiveness to a specific antigen? a. acquired immunity b. tolerance c. allergy d. chemotherapy 85. Which medication relieves or prevents the symptoms of allergy to wind-borne pollens and other types of

allergies? a. antihistamines b. bactericide c. corticosteroid drug d. antiviral drug Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. An acquired unresponsiveness to a specific antigen is called 87. The bacteria that form a chain are known as

. .

88. A medication that prevents or reduces the body's normal immune response is called a/an

.

89. The structure that filters microorganisms and other foreign material from the blood is called the

.

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Chapter 7 90. A disease-fighting protein created by the immune system in response to the presence of a specific antigen is

a/an

.

91. A severe response to an allergen, also known as anaphylaxis, is a/an

92. The abbreviation SCID stands for

.

.

93. A disease caused by a parasite that is commonly transmitted from pets to humans by contact with

contaminated feces is

.

94. A substance that produces an allergic reaction in an individual is a/an

.

95. A group of proteins that normally circulate in the blood in an inactive form is the

.

96. A medication that kills or damages cells is a/an

.

97. An agent that destroys or inhibits the growth of fungi is a/an

.

98. A term that means "to destroy worn-out red blood cells and to liberate hemoglobin" is

.

99. Specialized lymphocytes that produce antibodies are

.

100. One-celled microscopic organisms, some of which cause diseases in humans, are 101. The abbreviation for varicella is

.

.

102. The acronym for a blood test that is used to screen for the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus

(HIV) is

.

103. The treatment of disease either by stimulating or repressing the immune response is known as

.

104. The medical term for a pathogenic yeast infection that occurs on the skin or mucous membranes is

.

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Chapter 7 105. Any substance that the body regards as being foreign is called a/an

.

106. The name for a group of proteins, such as interferons and interleukins, released primarily by the T cells is

.

107. The bacteria that form irregular groups or clusters are known as

.

108. The medical term for the condition commonly known as chickenpox is

.

109. Long, slender, spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible walls and are capable of movement are called

.

110. An illness caused by a pathogen that normally does not cause disease unless the host is weakened by

another condition is known as a/an

.

111. The Epstein-Barr virus causes the condition known as

.

112. Medications that are capable of inhibiting the growth of or killing pathogenic bacterial microorganisms are

called

.

113. The viral infection herpes zoster is commonly known as

.

114. A diagnostic test to detect damage or malformations of the lymphatic vessels is

.

115. The artificially produced antibodies used to enhance the patient's immune response to certain types of

cancer are called

.

116. A disease caused by a parasite that lives in certain mosquitoes and is transferred to humans by the bite of an

infected mosquito is

.

117. A type of herpesvirus found in most body fluids that is often considered a "silent infection" because the

infected person has no signs or symptoms is called

.

118. Any of a large group of diseases characterized by a condition in which the immune system produces

antibodies to work against its own tissues is a/an

.

119. The medical specialist that specializes in diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic

reactivity, such as allergic reactions is called a/an Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 7 120. A viral infection that is also known as German or three-day measles is

.

121. A type of leukocyte that surround and kills invading cells is call a/an 122. An abnormal enlargement of the spleen is known as

. .

123. The structure that forms lymphocytes and monocytes, which are specialized leukocytes is the

.

124. These cells develop from B cells and secrete a large volume of antibodies coded to destroy specific

antigens are called

.

125. The gland that secretes a hormone that stimulates the maturation of lymphocytes into T cells is the

.

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Chapter 7 Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. a 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. a 82. c 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. tolerance 87. streptococci 88. immunosuppressant 89. spleen 90. antibody 91. systemic reaction 92. severe combined immunodeficiency 93. toxoplasmosis 94. allergen 95. complement system 96. cytotoxic drug 97. antifungal 98. hemolytic 99. B cells 100. bacteria 101. VZV Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 7 102. ELISA 103. immunotherapy 104. candidiasis 105. antigen 106. cytokines 107. staphylococci 108. varicella 109. spirochetes 110. opportunistic infection 111. infectious mononucleosis 112. antibiotics 113. shingles 114. lymphoscintigraphy 115. monoclonal antibodies 116. malaria 117. cytomegalovirus 118. autoimmune disorder 119. allergist 120. rubella 121. macrophage 122. splenomegaly 123. spleen 124. plasma cells 125. thymus

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Chapter 8

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which word root means lung? a. pneum b. bronch c. pleur d. thorac 2. What does the suffix -pnea mean? a. breathing b. sleeping c. pleura d. windpipe 3. Which is a combining form for throat? a. laryng/o b. trache/o c. bronch/o d. thorac/o 4. What does the word root spir mean? a. sound b. to sleep c. sinus d. to breathe 5. Which word part means chest? a. -pnea b. bronch c. pleur d. -thorax 6. What is the cavity between the lungs? a. mediastinum b. pleural cavity c. thorax d. parietal pleura 7. Which health professional specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the head and neck? a. pulmonologist b. thoracic surgeon Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 c. respiratory therapist d. otolaryngologist 8. Which is the correct spelling? a. pneumoconosis b. pnumoconiosis c. pneumonoconiosis d. pneumoconiosis 9. What condition may be triggered by an allergic reaction? a. chronic bronchitis b. asthma c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. emphysema 10. While walking in the woods, Alex Sanders suddenly has trouble catching his breath and feels like the

muscles in his chest are contracting as he struggles to breathe; the term that best describes this involuntary contraction is . a. bronchiectasis b. bronchorrhea c. bronchiolitis d. bronchospasm 11. Which term describes a permanent thickening of the bronchial walls? a. bronchiectasis b. bronchorrhea c. bronchiolitis d. bronchospasm 12. Hadia Ali is concerned by her infant son's loud, barking cough, which she believes may be a sign of what

condition? a. epistaxis b. bronchospasm c. laryngitis d. croup 13. Which is the correct spelling? a. hypernea b. hyperpnea c. hyperpnia d. hyperopnea Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 14. Which term describes an inflammation of the larynx? a. sinusitis b. laryngospasm c. laryngitis d. pharyngitis 15. What is hemoptysis? a. a nosebleed b. pus in a body cavity c. blood in the chest d. coughing up blood 16. What is another term for sore throat? a. sinusitis b. laryngospasm c. laryngitis d. pharyngitis 17. What is true about patients with aphonia? a. Their voices tend to crack. b. They breathe rapidly. c. They stop breathing during sleep. d. They are only able to whisper.

18. Which term means shortness of breath? a. dysphonia b. hyperpnea c. dyspnea d. aphonia 19. Which term means having low oxygen levels in the blood? a. anoxia b. hypopnea c. hypoxemia d. hypoxia 20. A person who is anxious would most likely present with what respiratory pattern? a. bradypnea b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration c. hypopnea d. hyperventilation Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 21. Which is the correct spelling? a. pneumectomy b. pneumonectomy c. pneuminectomy d. pneumenectomy 22. When Rex Gonzalez seeks treatment for problems sleeping, Dr. Wang would schedule which diagnostic

test? a. polysomnography b. laryngoscopy c. bronchoscopy d. sputum cytology 23. What is another term for cough medicine? a. bronchodilator b. nebulizer c. decongestant d. antitussive 24. What would most likely be used to treat asthma? a. bronchodilator b. expectorant c. decongestant d. antitussive 25. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. epistaxus b. pertussis c. pyothorax d. bronchorrhea 26. Which is the correct pronunciation of tachypnea? a. TACK-ip-ee-AH b. tack-EE-iph-NEE-ah c. TACK-nee-yah d. tack-ihp-NEE-ah 27. Which is true of a patient with anoxia? a. The body tissues lack oxygen. b. The blood has high CO levels. c. The blood has low oxygen levels.

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Chapter 8 d. The body tissues have low oxygen levels.

28. Which term describes shallow or slow respiration? a. anoxia b. hypopnea c. dyspnea d. hypoxia 29. While hiking in the Alps, Raj Patel felt himself taking faster, deeper breaths as he struggled to climb; the

term for this condition is a. dysphonia b. hyperpnea c. dyspnea d. aphonia

.

30. What does the word root in the term pyothorax mean? a. pus b. blood c. air d. chest 31. What is empyema? a. a nosebleed b. pus in a body cavity c. blood in the chest d. coughing up blood 32. Which is another term for nosebleed? a. epistaxis b. empyema c. hemothorax d. hemoptysis 33. One symptom of Jada Achebe's chronic bronchitis is that she frequently coughs up watery mucus; the term

for this is

.

a. bronchiectasis b. bronchorrhea c. bronchiolitis d. bronchospasm 34. Which is the correct pronunciation for hemoptysis?

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Chapter 8 a. HEM-op-tih-SIS b. HEEM-op-TIH-sis c. hee-MOP-tih-sis d. hem-OPT-ih-sis 35. Which health professional specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the respiratory system? a. pulmonologist b. thoracic surgeon c. respiratory therapist d. otolaryngologist 36. Which cavity contains lubricating fluid to aid respiration? a. mediastinum b. pleural cavity c. thorax d. parietal pleura 37. Which structure is part of the lower respiratory tract? a. pharynx b. trachea c. bronchial tree d. epiglottis 38. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. pharyngitis b. bronchiolitis c. respiratory synctial virus d. pleural effusion 39. Winn Silverstein's physician would most likely recommend which type of over-the-counter medication to

relieve the cough that is keeping him up all night? a. bronchodilator b. expectorant c. decongestant d. antitussive 40. Which structure is contained in the lower respiratory tract? a. nose b. trachea c. larynx d. lungs Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 41. What describes thin hairs that filter air to remove debris? a. nasal septum b. alveoli c. bronchi d. cilia 42. Nora Miller is seeking treatment for a sinus infection, and she tells her doctor, "Even my teeth hurt." Based

on this symptom, Nora's infection is most likely located in which of the paranasal sinuses? a. frontal sinuses b. sphenoid sinuses c. ethmoid sinuses d. maxillary sinuses 43. What is another term for voice box? a. oropharynx b. nasopharynx c. laryngopharynx d. larynx 44. What term means breathing? a. respiration b. inhalation c. expectoration d. exhalation 45. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. epistaxis b. empyemia c. pyothorax d. bronchorrhea 46. Six-year-old Mari Singh is sent to the school nurse for rhinorrhea, the medical term for

.

a. nosebleed b. runny nose c. allergy d. flu 47. Which contagious viral infection may cause bronchiole inflammation in younger children and infants? a. respiratory syncytial virus b. rhinorrhea c. acute respiratory distress syndrome Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 d. bronchiolitis 48. What term describes a localized area of infection? a. granuloma b. interstitial c. fibrosis d. hemoptysis 49. James Martini is diagnosed with walking pneumonia, otherwise known as

.

a. viral pneumonia b. pneumocystis pneumonia c. pneumococcal pneumonia d. mycoplasma pneumonia 50. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. pharyngitis b. hypercapnia c. abestosis d. pleural effusion 51. Dr. Wernicki prescribes a Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) machine for Mare Silver to treat

what condition? a. sleep apnea b. asthma c. sinusitis d. tuberculosis 52. Why would a patient require septoplasty? a. to treat chronic sinusitis b. to address an airway obstruction c. to remove fluid from the pleural cavity d. to correct a deviated septum 53. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. alveoli b. dyspnea c. pyothorax d. euponea 54. The diaphragm relaxes during which process? a. respiration Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 b. inhalation c. expectoration d. exhalation 55. What structure is visible when looking into the mouth? a. oropharynx b. nasopharynx c. laryngopharynx d. larynx 56. What describes tubes that bring air into the lungs? a. nasal septum b. alveoli c. bronchi d. cilia 57. Why would a physician prescribe an expectorant for a patient? a. to relax and expand the bronchial passages b. to make mucus thinner and easier to cough up c. to relieve nasal congestion from allergies d. to prevent further asthma attacks 58. Which condition is caused by a fungus? a. cystic fibrosis b. pneumocystis pneumonia c. cyanosis d. pneumoconiosis 59. A patient who requires an operation on their chest would be referred to which health professional? a. pulmonologist b. thoracic surgeon c. respiratory therapist d. otolaryngologist 60. Which membrane is directly attached to the lungs? a. mediastinum b. pleurisy c. visceral pleura d. parietal pleura 61. Which term describes the exchange of gases within the cells of the blood and tissues?

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Chapter 8 a. inhalation b. exhalation c. external respiration d. internal respiration 62. A patient who is temporarily not breathing has what condition? a. apnea b. eupnea c. respiratory failure d. sleep apnea 63. What means the excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural space that keeps the lung from fully expanding? a. pulmonary edema b. bronchiectasis c. pleural effusion d. atelectasis 64. What describes a lung disease that usually occurs after working in occupations such as foundry work,

ceramics, and sandblasting? a. pneumoconiosis b. silicosis c. asbestosis d. pulmonary fibrosis 65. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. pleurodynia b. pertussis c. bronchietasis d. sinusitis 66. Which type of pneumonia occurs when a foreign substance is inhaled into the lungs? a. bacterial b. aspiration c. lobar d. community-acquired 67. What is the thin, fluid-filled space also known as the pleural space? a. pleura b. visceral pleura c. parietal pleura d. pleural cavity Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 68. Which are the largest of the paranasal sinuses? a. maxillary sinuses b. frontal sinuses c. ethmoid sinuses d. sphenoid sinuses 69. Which portion of the pharynx is used only for the transport of air? a. larynx b. nasopharynx c. oropharynx d. laryngopharynx 70. Which part of the respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe? a. pharynx b. larynx c. trachea d. bronchi 71. What is the term for the sudden blockage of a pulmonary artery by foreign matter? a. pulmonary embolism b. pulmonary edema c. airway obstruction d. respiratory failure 72. What is an inexpensive handheld device used by patients with asthma to measure air flowing out of the

lungs? a. pulmonary function test b. metered-dose inhaler c. peak flow meter d. nebulizer 73. What is the term for mucus ejected through the mouth? a. phlegm b. rhinorrhea c. stoma d. sputum 74. What term is also known as choking? a. airway obstruction b. respiratory failure c. apnea Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 d. expectoration 75. What is a disease in which the airways have become inflamed due to recurrent exposure to an inhaled

irritant? a. upper respiratory infection b. pulmonary fibrosis c. pyothorax d. chronic bronchitis 76. Which type of surgery removes a small portion of cancerous lung tissue? a. lobectomy b. wedge resection c. pneumonectomy d. video-assisted thoracic surgery 77. What term means coughing up blood? a. expectoration b. hemoptysis c. pulmonary edema d. lobar pneumonia 78. What term means the permanent dilation of the bronchi caused by chronic infection and inflammation? a. atelectasis b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. bronchiectasis d. emphysema 79. What refers to the act of taking air in as the diaphragm contracts and pulls downward? a. respiration b. inhalation c. exhalation d. external respiration 80. What term is also known as acute nasopharyngitis? a. croup b. upper respiratory infection c. acute respiratory distress syndrome d. influenza 81. A patient who is unable to maintain adequate blood oxygen saturation level from breathing normal air would

receive which treatment? a. supplemental oxygen Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 b. respiration c. hyperventilation d. tracheotomy 82. What is the surgical repair of parts of the nasal septum? a. laryngotomy b. septoplasty c. tracheostomy d. tracheotomy 83. What involves breathing pure oxygen in a special chamber that allows air pressure to be raised up to three

times higher than normal to promote healing and fight infection? a. supplemental oxygen b. hyperbaric oxygen therapy c. ventilator d. internal respiration 84. Which type of pneumonia is also known as mycoplasma pneumonia? a. viral b. hospital-acquired c. walking d. pneumocystis 85. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. epistaxis b. pertussis c. pyothorax d. bronchorhea

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The abbreviation for acute respiratory distress syndrome is

.

87. A medication administered to prevent or relieve coughing is a/an 88. A term for normal or easy breathing is

.

.

89. Commonly known as whooping cough, the medical term for this bacterial infection of the upper respiratory

tract is

.

90. An accumulation of pus in a body cavity is called Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 8

91. The structure located in the cavity between the lungs that protects the heart, esophagus, trachea, and bronchi

is the

.

92. The abbreviation for a physician who is trained in diagnosing and treating disorders of the head and neck is

.

93. The abbreviation for pneumonia is

.

94. Medical equipment that dispenses doses of medication in the form of a mist is called a/an

.

95. The term that describes shallow or slow respiration is 96. The abbreviation for cystic fibrosis is

. .

97. The word root in the term anoxia means

.

98. The combining form in the word rhinorrhea means

.

99. The abbreviation for a procedure performed using an endoscope in which chronic sinusitis is treated by

enlarging the opening between the nose and the sinus is

.

100. The combining form in the term thoracentesis means

.

101. The medical term that describes an abnormally rapid rate of respiration, usually of more than 20 breaths per

minute, is

.

102. The process of bringing air into and out of the lungs from the outside environment and, in the process,

exchanging oxygen for carbon dioxide is known as

.

103. The passage of a tube through the mouth into the trachea to establish or maintain an open airway is

.

104. The abbreviations for a group of lung diseases in which the bronchial airflow is obstructed, making it

difficult to breathe out is

.

105. A surgical removal of all or part of a lung is a/an Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 8

106. The progressive loss of lung function that is commonly attributed to long-term smoking is

.

107. The abbreviation for an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that usually attacks the

lungs is

.

108. The diagnostic test that is also known as a sleep study is

.

109. An external monitor to measure the oxygen saturation level in the blood is a/an

.

110. A potentially serious disorder in which breathing repeatedly stops and starts during sleep is known as

.

111. An examination that uses a flexible, fiber-optic device passed through the nose to visualize the airways is

called a/an

.

112. The medical term that describes an inflammation of the sinuses is

.

113. Bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by a lack of adequate oxygen in the blood

is called

.

114. The abbreviation for a group of tests that measure volume and flow of air by using a spirometer is

.

115. Also known as air sacs, the very small grapelike clusters found at the end of each bronchiole are called

.

116. PCP and PJP are both abbreviations for

.

117. An abnormally slow rate of respiration, usually of less than 10 breaths per minute, is

.

118. Particles of asbestos in the lungs cause the condition known as 119. The abbreviation for hyperbaric oxygen therapy is Powered by Cognero

. .

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Chapter 8 120. The term that describes the incomplete expansion of part or all of a lung because of shallow breathing or

because the air passages are blocked is

.

121. The term that means breathing that is deeper and more rapid than is normal at rest is

.

122. The term that describes any change in vocal quality, including hoarseness, weakness, or the cracking of a

boy's voice in puberty is

.

123. A recording device that measures the amount of air inhaled or exhaled and the time required for each breath

is called a/an

.

124. The abbreviation for any pneumonia that results from contagious infection outside of a hospital or clinic is .

125. A licensed medical professional who specializes in treating patients who are having difficulty breathing,

both in hospital and outpatient settings is a/an

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.

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Chapter 8 Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 26. d 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 52. d 53. d 54. d 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. b 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. ARDS 87. antitussive 88. eupnea 89. pertussis 90. empyema 91. mediastinum 92. ENT 93. PNA 94. nebulizer 95. hypopnea 96. CF 97. oxygen 98. nose 99. FESS 100. thorax

chest Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8 101. tachypnea 102. external respiration 103. endotracheal intubation 104. COPD 105. pneumonectomy 106. emphysema 107. TB 108. polysomnography 109. pulse oximeter 110. sleep apnea 111. bronchoscopy 112. sinusitis 113. cyanosis 114. PFT 115. alveoli 116. pneumocystis pneumonia 117. bradypnea 118. asbestosis 119. HBOT 120. atelectasis 121. hyperpnea 122. dysphonia 123. spirometer 124. CAP 125. respiratory therapist Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 8

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Chapter 9

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the suffix -lithiasis mean? a. presence of stones b. vomiting c. eating d. digestion 2. Which word root means anus and rectum? a. rect/o b. colon/o c. sigmoid/o d. proct/o 3. Which word root means liver? a. rect b. hepat c. enter d. proct 4. Which word root means large intestine? a. rect/o b. colon c. sigmoid d. proct 5. What does the suffix -pepsia mean? a. presence of stones b. vomiting c. eating d. digestion 6. Tamara Garcia has several painful gray-white pits with red borders inside her mouth. What is the term for

these ulcers? a. cheilitis b. leukoplakia c. cold sores d. canker sores 7. Which term means an abnormal, white, usually benign lesion on the tongue? a. cheilitis b. leukoplakia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 c. cold sores d. canker sores 8. The term stomatitis refers to inflammation of what? a. stomach b. large intestine c. mouth d. gall bladder 9. Ollie Johnson has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. What does this mean? a. Veins at the lower end of Ollie's esophagus are swollen. b. Acid from Ollie's stomach flows into the esophagus. c. Ollie's stomach lining is inflamed because of Helicobacter pylori. d. A part of Ollie's stomach protrudes through the diaphragm.

10. Which condition, associated with severe liver disease, places a person at risk of severe bleeding? a. esophageal varices b. GERD c. hepatomegaly d. cirrhosis 11. As part of his training to become an EMT, Bert Walker is required to get vaccinated for immunity against

some forms of what condition? a. hepatitis b. ascites c. hepatomegaly d. cirrhosis 12. Which is another term for indigestion? a. dysphagia b. stricture c. gingivitis d. dyspepsia 13. Dr. Assad diagnoses Jo Warner's bout of painful stomach cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea as gastroenteritis.

What does gastroenteritis mean? a. inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the stomach and intestines b. electrolyte imbalance caused by fluid loss that exceeds fluid intake c. extreme, persistent vomiting that can cause dehydration d. slowed gastric motility causing delayed gastric emptying Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 14. Which term refers to a common cause of gas in the stomach? a. malocclusion b. cachexia c. aerophagia d. eructation 15. An overbite is an example of what? a. malocclusion b. cachexia c. aerophagia d. eructation 16. Dr. Roberts explained that the medication she prescribed for Val Hanson might cause Val's mouth to

become dry. Which term means dry mouth? a. trismus b. melena c. bruxism d. xerostomia 17. Which type of abnormal stool may indicate bleeding in the upper GI tract? a. melena b. steatorrhea c. hematochezia d. trismus 18. Which term means inflammation of the small intestine caused by a virus or bacteria? a. enteritis b. diverticulitis c. celiac disease d. irritable bowel syndrome 19. What is the term for a mushroom-like growth from the surface of a mucous membrane? a. polyp b. diverticulum c. ileus d. volvulus 20. Following abdominal surgery, Jon Miller experiences a lack of normal peristalsis in his intestines for about

24 hours. Which term describes stoppage of bowel action? a. polyp b. diverticulum c. ileus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 d. volvulus 21. Which term means acute inflammation of the bile duct? a. cholecystitis b. cheilitis c. cachexia d. cholangitis 22. Which term includes a suffix that means the surgical creation of an artificial opening? a. colostomy b. ileectomy c. colectomy d. anastomosis 23. Which form of nutritional support involves the placement of a feeding tube directly into the stomach from

the abdomen? a. nasogastric intubation b. enteral nutrition c. gastrostomy tube d. parenteral nutrition 24. What term means a surgical connection between two hollow structures? a. colostomy b. ileectomy c. colectomy d. anastomosis 25. Which term refers to a twisting of the intestine on itself, leading to an obstruction? a. polyp b. diverticulum c. ileus d. volvulus 26. Dr. Chambers prescribes a gluten-free diet for Sean McMurray as part of the management of which

condition? a. enteritis b. diverticulitis c. celiac disease d. irritable bowel syndrome 27. Which term means "any restriction of the opening of the mouth"? a. trismus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 b. melena c. bruxism d. xerostomia 28. A patient with AIDS is most likely to experience what as a result of this condition? a. malocclusion b. cachexia c. aerophagia d. eructation 29. Which term means extreme, persistent vomiting that can cause dehydration? a. gastroenteritis b. dehydration c. hyperemesis d. gastroparesis 30. Ever since his stroke, Herman Hernandez has had difficulty swallowing. What is the term for this condition? a. dysphagia b. stricture c. gingivitis d. dyspepsia 31. What term is an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity? a. hepatitis b. ascites c. hepatomegaly d. cirrhosis 32. Dr. Chu is concerned that Dan Smith is showing signs of liver damage following years of alcohol abuse.

Which condition is characterized by scarring of the liver? a. hepatitis b. ascites c. hepatomegaly d. cirrhosis 33. Which condition is the result of the upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus? a. esophageal varices b. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) c. gastritis d. hiatal hernia 34. Two-year-old Yara Simms, who is teething and drooling excessively, has developed crack-like sores in the Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9

corners of her mouth. What is the term for this condition? a. cheilitis b. leukoplakia c. cold sores d. canker sores 35. What does the word root in cheilitis mean? a. lips b. white c. inflammation d. ulcer 36. Art Hernandez has been diagnosed with gastritis. What does this mean? a. Veins at the lower end of Art's esophagus are swollen. b. Acid from Art's stomach flows into the esophagus. c. Art's stomach lining is inflamed as a result of Helicobacter pylori. d. A part of Art's stomach protrudes through the diaphragm.

37. Which term means an abnormal narrowing of a bodily passage? a. dysphagia b. stricture c. gingivitis d. dyspepsia 38. At the start of each hour, Paul Allen, an acute care nurse, encourages his patient Lucinda Smithers to take

sips of fruit juice to prevent dehydration. What does dehydration mean? a. inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the stomach and intestines b. electrolyte imbalance caused by fluid loss that exceeds fluid intake c. extreme, persistent vomiting d. slowed gastric motility causing delayed gastric emptying 39. Which term means involuntary grinding of the teeth? a. trismus b. melena c. bruxism d. xerostomia 40. Which type of abnormal stool contains excess fat? a. melena b. steatorrhea c. hematochezia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 d. trismus 41. What condition has an unknown cause and symptoms including cramping and abdominal pain accompanied

by constipation or diarrhea? a. enteritis b. diverticulitis c. celiac disease d. irritable bowel syndrome 42. What does the term labia mean? a. palate b. gums c. crown d. lips 43. Louise Aniston, who just had her braces tightened, finds it painful to chew hard food. What term means

chewing? a. eructation b. regurgitation c. mastication d. dentition 44. The taste buds are contained in which structure? a. palate b. uvula c. gingiva d. papillae 45. What enables the stomach to increase and decrease in size? a. pylorus b. jejunum c. cecum d. rugae 46. Where is bile stored? a. liver b. stomach c. gallbladder d. biliary tree 47. Which is the process by which complex foods are broken down into nutrients in a form the body can use?

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Chapter 9 a. catabolism b. anabolism c. absorption d. digestion 48. What does flatulence mean? a. rumbling intestines b. emptying the large intestine c. moving food forward d. passing gas from the body 49. Which health professional specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus? a. periodontist b. gastroenterologist c. proctologist d. prosthodontist 50. What does edentulous mean? a. without teeth b. bad breath c. lockjaw d. overbite 51. After eating spicy food, Jeremy Witherspoon often feels a burning sensation in his chest. What is a term that

means heartburn? a. dyspepsia b. pyrosis c. gastroparesis d. hyperemesis 52. What is the process of breaking down body cells and releasing energy and carbon dioxide? a. catabolism b. anabolism c. absorption d. digestion 53. What is the longest portion of the small intestine? a. ileum b. jejunum c. cecum d. duodenum Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 54. The uvula is part of which structure? a. palate b. periodontium c. gingiva d. tongue 55. Which term means the return of swallowed food into the mouth? a. eructation b. regurgitation c. mastication d. dyspepsia 56. What does dentition mean? a. the hard substance that covers the visible portion of the tooth b. the contact between the upper and lower teeth c. the act of breaking food down into smaller pieces d. the natural arrangement of teeth in the jaws 57. Which term means bright red blood in the stool? a. melena b. steatorrhea c. hematochezia d. trismus 58. Tillie Brown feels nauseous and bloated and can only eat a small amount before feeling full. Her doctor

suspects gastroparesis. What does gastroparesis mean? a. inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the stomach and intestines b. electrolyte imbalance caused by fluid loss that exceeds fluid intake c. extreme, persistent vomiting that can cause dehydration d. slowed gastric motility causing delayed gastric emptying 59. The dentist informs Rupert Lee that his gums are inflamed. Which term means an inflammation of the

gums? a. dysphagia b. halitosis c. gingivitis d. dyspepsia 60. Which means an abnormal enlargement of the liver? a. esophageal varices b. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 c. hepatomegaly d. cirrhosis 61. Which part of the colon joins the rectum? a. descending colon b. sigmoid colon c. ascending colon d. transverse colon 62. Which condition is the earliest stage of periodontal disease? a. gingivitis b. dental calculus c. dental caries d. edentulous 63. Which is also known as bad breath? a. flatulence b. malocclusion c. halitosis d. pyrosis 64. What is a chronic immune system disease caused by a build-up of white blood cells that makes swallowing

difficult? a. oral thrush b. leukoplakia c. bruxism d. eosinophilic esophagitis 65. Which structure secretes bile? a. gallbladder b. liver c. pancreas d. stomach 66. What is the middle portion of the small intestine? a. cecum b. duodenum c. ileum d. jejunum 67. Which is the ring-like muscle at the base of the stomach that controls the flow of partially digested food Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9

from the stomach to the duodenum of the small intestine? a. lower esophageal sphincter b. pyloric sphincter c. anus d. ileocecal sphincter 68. What is a small pouch or sac found in the lining or wall of a tubular organ, such as the colon? a. diverticulosis b. diverticulitis c. diverticulum d. strangulated hernia 69. Which term is a condition in which a part of the intestine is constricted inside a hernia? a. volvulus b. inguinal hernia c. strangulated hernia d. hiatal hernia 70. What is the surgical removal of part or all of the colon? a. colostomy b. colectomy c. cholecystectomy d. hemorrhoidectomy 71. Which term describes the building up of body cells or substances from nutrients? a. catabolism b. anabolism c. absorption d. digestion 72. What is the condition of involuntary clenching of the teeth during sleep? a. bruxism b. trismus c. stomatitis d. malocclusion 73. Which is a surgical connection between two tubular structures? a. colostomy b. ileectomy c. colectomy d. anastomosis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 74. Which term refers to a dental specialist who prevents or corrects malocclusion of the teeth and related facial

structures? a. dentist b. orthodontist c. periodontist d. maxillofacial surgeon 75. What is a bacterial infection caused by water or food that has been contaminated by human feces? a. inflammatory bowel disease b. irritable bowel syndrome c. ischemic colitis d. dysentery 76. Which term is also known as vomiting? a. nausea b. hematemesis c. regurgitation d. emesis 77. Which term refers to a radiographic procedure to examine the digestive system using a barium swallow? a. abdominal computed tomography b. abdominal ultrasound c. upper GI series d. stool test 78. Which condition indicates blood in the stool originates from the lower part of the esophageal tract? a. melena b. hematochezia c. steatorrhea d. hematemesis 79. What liver disorder generally has no signs or symptoms and is a comorbidity with obesity, type 2 diabetes,

and high cholesterol? a. nonalcoholic steatohepatitis b. nonalcoholic fatty liver disease c. hepatitis d. cirrhosis 80. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted mainly through contamination of food and water with infected fecal

matter? a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 c. hepatitis C d. nonalcoholic steatohepatitis 81. What is a type of surgery performed to treat severe obesity? a. ileectomy b. maxillofacial surgery c. bariatric surgery d. colectomy 82. Which type of medication is given to relieve the discomfort of pyrosis or to help peptic ulcers heal? a. proton pump inhibitors b. antacids c. laxatives d. oral rehydration therapy 83. What is a bacterial infection common to older adults in hospitals or long-term care facilities, typically

following the use of antibiotics that wipe out competing bacteria? a. Clostridium difficile b. dysentery c. E. coli d. salmonellosis 84. What occurs when a portion of either the small or large intestine is physically blocked? a. ischemic colitis b. intestinal obstruction c. inflammatory bowel disease d. strangulated hernia 85. Which is often associated with the aging process? a. gum recession b. cleft lip c. bruxism d. failure to thrive

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The lack of adequate saliva is

.

87. An abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is known as

.

88. A radiographic examination of the bile ducts with the use of a contrast medium is known as

.

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Chapter 9

89. A medication administered to prevent or stop vomiting is a/an

.

90. The examination of the esophagus, stomach, and upper duodenum through a specialized endoscope is a/an

.

91. The condition in which there is twisting of the intestine on itself that causes an obstruction is known as

.

92. The term that describes an abnormal, white lesion that develops on the tongue or the inside of the cheek is

a/an

.

93. The act of belching or raising gas orally from the stomach is 94. The surgical removal of the gallbladder is a/an

. .

95. The return of swallowed food into the mouth is known as

.

96. A chronic degenerative disease of the liver characterized by scarring is

.

97. The series of wavelike contractions of the smooth muscles in a single direction is known as

.

98. A protrusion of part of the stomach upward into the chest through an opening in the diaphragm is a/an

.

99. The surgical repair of a cleft palate or lip is known as 100. The excessive swallowing of air while eating or drinking is

. .

101. A physician who specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus is known as a/an

.

102. An autoimmune disorder characterized by a severe reaction to foods containing gluten is

.

103. Yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes caused by abnormal amounts of bilirubin in the blood is known

as Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 9

104. The establishment of an anastomosis between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum is a/an

.

105. The condition of having a body mass index value greater than 40 is known as

.

106. The endoscopic examination of the interior of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and possibly a portion of the

descending colon is a/an

.

107. The medical term for extreme, persistent vomiting is

.

108. The placement of a feeding tube through the nose and into the stomach is

.

109. Any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the

treatment of oral cancer is known as

.

110. The passage of stools with a black, tarlike appearance caused by the presence of digested blood is known as

.

111. A surgical connection between two hollow or tubular structures is a/an

.

112. A chronic condition of repeated episodes of inflammation causing ulcers and irritation in the rectum and

large intestine is

.

113. The protrusion of a small loop of bowel through a weak place in the lower abdominal wall or groin is a/an

.

114. Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the interior of the esophagus are known as

.

115. The term that describes an inflammation of the small intestine is

.

116. Fever blisters, or blister-like sores on the lips and adjacent facial tissue that are caused by the oral herpes

simplex virus type 1, are commonly known as

.

117. The upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus is called

.

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Chapter 9

118. The term that means the vomiting of blood is

.

119. The abbreviation EGD is related to the term 120. The abbreviation IBS is related to the term

. .

121. A bulging of the front wall of the rectum into the vagina, usually as the result of childbirth or pregnancy, is

called

.

122. The evacuation and emptying of the large intestine is called 123. The rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine is called

. .

124. The branch of medicine concerned with the prevention and management of obesity and associated diseases

is called

.

125. A form of glucose that is stored in the liver and muscles is called

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.

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Chapter 9 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. d 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 52. a 53. a 54. a 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. b 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. xerostomia 87. ascites 88. cholangiography 89. antiemetic 90. esophagogastroduodenoscopy 91. volvulus 92. leukoplakia 93. eructation 94. cholecystectomy 95. regurgitation 96. cirrhosis 97. peristalsis 98. hiatal hernia 99. palatoplasty 100. aerophagia 101. proctologist Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 9 102. celiac disease 103. jaundice 104. gastroduodenostomy 105. severe obesity 106. sigmoidoscopy 107. hyperemesis 108. nasogastric intubation 109. trismus 110. melena 111. anastomosis 112. ulcerative colitis 113. inguinal hernia 114. esophageal varices 115. enteritis 116. cold sores 117. gastroesophageal reflux 118. hematemesis 119. esophagogastroduodenoscopy 120. irritable bowel syndrome 121. rectocele 122. defecation 123. borborygmus 124. bariatrics 125. glycogen

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Chapter 10

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the suffix -uria mean? a. crush b. urine c. hernia d. breakdown 2. Which combining form means water? a. lith/o b. vesic/o c. pyel/o d. hydr/o 3. What does nephr/o mean? a. kidney b. bladder c. crush d. stone 4. Which combining form means urinary bladder? a. lith/o b. vesic/o c. pyel/o d. glomerul/o 5. What does the suffix -cele mean? a. crush b. urine c. hernia d. breakdown 6. Which is the correct pronunciation for nephropathy? a. neh-FROP-ah-thee b. NEFF-roe-pah-thee c. nef-ROE-path-ee d. neh-fro-PATH-ee 7. Willa French believes she has a urinary tract infection because she feels pain and burning when urinating; the

term for difficult or painful urination is

.

a. uremia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 b. azotemia c. anuria d. dysuria 8. Which potentially fatal condition characterized by a sudden onset and uremia may be caused by severe

infection, burns, or dehydration? a. chronic kidney disease b. nephropathy c. nephrotic syndrome d. acute renal failure 9. What does the combining form in nephropathy mean? a. urine b. kidney c. glomeruli d. disease 10. What does hypoproteinemia mean? a. low protein levels in the blood b. high protein levels in the blood c. low protein levels in the urine d. high protein levels in the urine 11. Nan Gonzalez, who has been standing all day at her job, notices her ankles and feet appear puffy and

swollen; the term for Nan's condition is

.

a. cystitis b. azotemia c. nephrolithiasis d. edema 12. Which term contains a suffix that means the presence of stones? a. cystitis b. cystocele c. nephrolithiasis d. pyonephrosis 13. What does hydronephrosis mean? a. inflammation of the kidney b. pus formation in the kidney c. acute pain in the kidney d. swelling of the kidney Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 14. Which is true about urine? a. It consists of 10% urea. b. It is stored in the kidneys. c. It is normally clear. d. It is 50% water.

15. Patients are commonly asymptomatic when they have which common form of kidney cancer? a. Wilms tumor b. ectopic kidney c. renal cell carcinoma d. renal colic 16. What does fistula mean in the term vesicovaginal fistula? a. relating to spaces within a tissue or organ b. an increase in cell numbers associated with tumor growth c. disease or damage to a nerve d. abnormal passage between two organs 17. Which urinary system function would be affected in a patient with a neurogenic bladder? a. filtration b. electrolyte balance c. urine formation d. urination 18. What is the term for a hernia of the bladder through the vaginal wall in a female? a. vesicovaginal fistula b. cystocele c. prostate cancer d. benign prostatic hyperplasia 19. Which term contains a suffix that means bleeding? a. urethrorrhagia b. hyperproteinuria c. urethrorrhea d. hydronephrosis 20. Which is true of a patient with diuresis? a. The patient has an increased urine output. b. The patient urinates frequently during the night. c. The patient experiences incontinence while sleeping. d. The patient experiences pain while urinating.

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Chapter 10 21. Which term means the surgical suturing of the bladder? a. percutaneous nephrolithotomy b. ureteroscopy c. cystorrhaphy d. extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy 22. What is the name of the cluster of capillaries contained within each nephron? a. medulla b. ureter c. glomerulus d. urethra 23. Which form of dialysis filters waste products directly from the patient's blood? a. peritoneal dialysis b. continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis c. nephrolithiasis d. hemodialysis 24. Where is a suprapubic catheter placed to reach the bladder? a. through the urethra b. through one of the kidneys c. through one of the ureters d. through the abdomen 25. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. hypoproteinemia b. diuresis c. epispadias d. urethrorhagia 26. What does incontinence mean? a. excessive urination b. inability to control urination c. lack of urine d. painful urination 27. Which is true of a patient with nocturia? a. The patient has an increased urine output. b. The patient urinates frequently during the night. c. The patient experiences incontinence while sleeping. d. The patient experiences pain while urinating.

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Chapter 10 28. What does hyperplasia mean in the term benign prostatic hyperplasia? a. relating to spaces within a tissue or organ b. an increase in cell numbers usually associated with tumor growth c. disease or damage to a nerve d. abnormal passage between two organs 29. The combing form in ureterolith indicates that this stone is located within the

.

a. bladder b. kidney c. prostate d. ureter 30. Which is a rare cancer that affects young children? a. Wilms tumor b. ectopic kidney c. renal cell carcinoma d. renal colic 31. What does pyonephrosis mean? a. inflammation of the kidney b. pus formation in the kidney c. acute pain in the kidney d. swelling of the kidney 32. Which term means inflammation of the bladder? a. cystitis b. cystocele c. nephrolithiasis d. edema 33. The results of Wanda Baker's urinalysis reveal high levels of protein in her urine; the term that best

describes her condition is a. hypoproteinemia b. nephropathy c. nephrotic syndrome d. hyperproteinuria

.

34. Jasper Banks has been on medication for several years to manage the gradual loss of renal function of his

kidneys. Which term describes his progressive loss of renal function? a. chronic kidney disease Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 b. nephropathy c. nephrotic syndrome d. acute renal failure 35. Which term means an absence of urine formation by the kidneys? a. uremia b. azotemia c. anuria d. dysuria 36. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. hypoproteinemia b. vescovaginal fistula c. epispadias d. anuria 37. Five-year-old Harper Re's parents are concerned by his frequent problems with nocturnal enuresis. Which

best describes Harper's condition? a. excessive urination b. frequent nighttime urination c. bed-wetting d. painful urination 38. Which is a major waste product of protein metabolism? a. urea b. creatinine c. urine d. uremia 39. Which is the inner region of the kidney? a. renal cortex b. medulla c. nephron d. glomerulus 40. What is considered the functional unit of the kidney? a. renal cortex b. medulla c. nephrons d. glomerulus 41. Blood leaves the cells of the kidneys and returns to the bloodstream via which structure?

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Chapter 10 a. renal vein b. glomerulus c. ureters d. renal artery 42. Where does newly formed urine first collect? a. ureters b. urinary bladder c. urethra d. renal pelvis 43. Urine passes through which opening as it leaves the body through urination? a. ureters b. ureteral orifices c. urethra d. urethral meatus 44. Which term contains a suffix that means inflammation? a. pyonephrosis b. hydronephrosis c. cystalgia d. nephritis 45. Which is the correct pronunciation of glomerulonephritis? a. GLAH-mair-you-loh-neh-fry-tis b. gloh-mer-you-loh-neh-FRY-tis c. GLOM-er-you-LOH-nay-fry-tis d. gloh-MAIR-you-loh-neff-eye-tis 46. Dr. Fring, a pediatrician, suspects seven-year-old George Lawrence has vesicoureteral reflux and orders a

cystogram. What best describes vesicoureteral reflux? a. backward flow of urine into ureters b. enlargement of the prostate gland c. hernia through the vaginal wall d. systemic bacterial urinary tract infection 47. Abdul Ali, who always feels like he is not fully emptying his bladder when he urinates, has a condition

called

.

a. urinary hesitancy b. urinary incontinence c. bashful bladder syndrome Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 d. urinary retention 48. Which best describes overflow incontinence? a. voiding unexpectedly during physical exertion b. continuous leaking from the bladder c. difficulty starting a urinary stream d. uncontrollable voiding while sleeping 49. Which test examines urine for abnormalities? a. glomerular filtration rate b. urinalysis c. cystoscopy d. intravenous pyelogram 50. What is a test to check kidney function? a. glomerular filtration rate b. urinalysis c. cystoscopy d. intravenous pyelogram 51. Sometimes while coughing Tea Reynolds voids a small amount of urine; the term for this form of

incontinence is . a. stress incontinence b. overflow incontinence c. bashful bladder syndrome d. overactive bladder 52. Which term describes a life-threatening, systemic bacterial infection that begins in the urinary tract? a. cystitis b. pyelonephritis c. prostatitis d. urosepsis 53. Which term contains a combining form that means pus? a. pyonephrosis b. hydronephrosis c. cystalgia d. nephrolithiasis 54. Which is true about the female urethra? a. It is approximately 8 inches long. b. It is part of the reproductive system.

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Chapter 10 c. It has one urinary sphincter. d. It only transports urine.

55. Where is urine stored before it is excreted from the body? a. ureters b. urinary bladder c. urethra d. renal pelvis 56. Blood enters the kidneys via which structure? a. renal vein b. glomerulus c. ureters d. renal artery 57. What term means a cluster of capillaries within each nephron? a. renal cortex b. medulla c. renal tubules d. glomerulus 58. What is the outer region of the kidney? a. renal cortex b. medulla c. nephron d. glomerulus 59. What is ureterectomy? a. surgical removal of a ureter b. removal of a nephrolith from the ureter c. repair of a defect in the bladder d. breaking up a kidney stone 60. One of the signs of Ray Lawrence's sexually transmitted disease is an abnormal urethral discharge,

otherwise known as

.

a. urethrorrhagia b. urosepsis c. ureterorrhagia d. urethrorrhea 61. What means an inflammation of both the renal pelvis and of the kidney?

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Chapter 10 a. cystitis b. pyelonephritis c. glomerulonephritis d. nephritis 62. Which term is also known as urge incontinence? a. stress incontinence b. overflow incontinence c. neurogenic bladder d. overactive bladder 63. What term describes a structure that surrounds the glomerulus? a. nephron b. renal cortex c. medulla d. renal tubule 64. Which term describes sparse or insufficient urination? a. anuria b. dysuria c. polyuria d. oliguria 65. Which is a diagnostic test used to measure the residual amount of urine remaining in the bladder after

urination? a. retrograde pyelogram b. flat-plate of the abdomen c. cystography d. bladder ultrasound 66. What is a type of medication administered to increase urine secretion? a. diuretic b. electrolyte c. dialysate d. antispasmodic 67. What type of catheter is made of a flexible tube with a balloon filled with sterile water at the end to hold it in

place in the bladder? a. indwelling catheter b. Foley catheter c. intermittent catheter Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 d. short-term catheter 68. Which term is also known as a urinary ileostomy? a. cystocele b. ileal conduit c. cystectomy d. ureterectomy 69. Urine drains from the ureters into the bladder through which structure? a. urethra b. ureters c. ureteral orifices d. urethral meatus 70. Which of the following terms refer to difficulty in starting a urinary stream? a. urinary retention b. urinary hesitancy c. prostatism d. urinary incontinence 71. Which term refers to the external opening of the urethra? a. urethral meatus b. ureter c. urinary bladder d. urea 72. What term refers to treatment for a nephrolith lodged in the ureter? a. ureterectomy b. cystorrhaphy c. ureteroscopy d. lithotomy 73. The lab results for a patient with what condition would show higher than normal blood urea nitrogen

(BUN)? a. uremia b. edema c. azotemia d. cystalgia 74. What is another term for nephropyosis, or the formation of pus in the kidney? a. nephritis b. glomerulonephritis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 c. pyonephrosis d. hydronephrosis 75. Which term refers to the insertion of a flexible plastic tube into the bladder? a. urinary tract infection b. urination c. urinalysis d. urinary catheterization 76. What returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus? a. renal artery b. renal vein c. renal pelvis d. renal tubule 77. Which condition can be caused by the kidneys not receiving enough blood to filter due to dehydration or a

sudden drop in blood volume or blood pressure? a. acute renal failure b. renal colic c. uremia d. end-stage renal disease 78. Which is an acute pain in the kidney area that is caused by blockage during the passage of a nephrolith? a. nephritis b. renal colic c. cystalgia d. cystocele 79. Which term means excessive urination? a. dysuria b. polyuria c. urinary incontinence d. urinary retention 80. Which term refers to behavioral therapy in which the patient learns to urinate on a schedule? a. Kegel exercises b. bladder retraining c. ablation d. nocturnal enuresis 81. Which type of incontinence usually occurs in older men with enlarged prostates? a. stress incontinence Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 b. overflow incontinence c. urinary incontinence d. overactive bladder 82. Which term refers to a radiographic examination of the bladder after a contrast medium is instilled via a

urethral catheter? a. retrograde pyelogram b. bladder ultrasound c. cystography d. digital rectal examination 83. What is a surgical incision made to enlarge the opening of the urethral meatus? a. meatotomy b. urethrotomy c. pyelotomy d. lithotomy 84. A patient with bladder cancer has a portion of their bladder removed in a procedure called

.

a. percutaneous nephrolithotomy b. ureteroscopy c. cystorrhaphy d. cystectomy 85. What is the removal of excess tissue from an enlarged prostate gland with the use of a resectoscope? a. prostatectomy b. transurethral prostatectomy c. ablation d. retrograde ejaculation

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A set of x-ray images of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder that uses a contrast medium is a/an

.

87. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the kidneys is a/an

.

88. Also known as cystodynia, another term for pain in the bladder is 89. The abbreviation for benign prostatic hyperplasia is Powered by Cognero

. .

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Chapter 10 90. The medical term that describes a congenital abnormality in which the urethral opening is on the

undersurface of the penis in males is

.

91. The abbreviation for end-stage renal disease is

.

92. The common abbreviation for an x-ray study used to detect bowel obstructions and nephroliths and also

known as a flat-plate of the abdomen is

.

93. TURP is the abbreviation for

.

94. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the urinary system of

females and the genitourinary system of males is a/an

.

95. The removal of a body part or the destruction of its function by surgery or other methods is called

.

96. The abbreviation for cystoscopy is

.

97. The insertion of a tube into the bladder is called

.

98. Narrowing of the urethra is described by the medical term

.

99. An abnormality in which the male urethra opening is on the upper surface of the penis is

.

100. The term that describes any degenerative or inflammatory condition of the kidney is

.

101. A condition characterized by high levels of protein in the urine and low levels of protein present in the

blood is

.

102. The abbreviation for a bacterial infection that usually begins in the bladder and can affect all parts of the

urinary system is

.

103. A surgical incision into the renal pelvis is

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.

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Chapter 10 104. A clear, amber slightly acidic liquid excreted from the urinary bladder is

.

105. The surgical removal of a nephrolith through an incision in the back is

.

106. An elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) caused by a lack of blood flow to each kidney is

.

107. The placement of a catheter through the urethra and into the bladder is called

.

108. Located at the tip of the penis, a structure that transports both semen and urine is the

.

109. Uremic poisoning, a toxic condition in which urea and other waste products normally secreted in the urine

are retained in the bloodstream, is also known as

.

110. The condition of having symptoms resulting from compression or obstruction of the urethra due to benign

prostatic hyperplasia is

.

111. A malignant tumor of the kidney that occurs in children is a/an

.

112. The surgical suturing of a wound or defect in the bladder is 113. An inflammation of the urethra is

.

.

114. A diagnostic procedure to examine the flow of urine from the bladder and through the urethra is a/an

.

115. A chronic inflammation within the walls of the bladder is

.

116. The term that means excessive urination is

.

117. The procedure to remove waste products from the blood of patients whose kidneys no longer function is

known as

.

118. The term that means bleeding from the urethra is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 10

119. The placement of a catheter to maintain an opening between the pelvis of a kidney and the exterior of the

body is a/an

.

120. The lining of the peritoneal cavity acts as the filter to remove waste from blood in

.

121. The inability to control excretory functions is

.

122. A surgical incision into the urethra for relief of a stricture is a/an

.

123. The disorder characterized by the presence of stones in the kidney is known as

.

124. An abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina is known as a/an

.

125. Another term for voiding or micturition is

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.

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Chapter 10 Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 52. d 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. c 83. a 84. d 85. b 86. intravenous pyelogram 87. nephrologist 88. cystalgia 89. BPH 90. hypospadias 91. ESRD 92. KUB 93. transurethral prostatectomy 94. urologist 95. ablation 96. cysto

CYSTO 97. urinary catheterization 98. urethrostenosis 99. epispadias 100. nephropathy

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Chapter 10 101. nephrotic syndrome 102. UTI 103. pyelotomy 104. urine 105. percutaneous nephrolithotomy 106. azotemia 107. urethral catheterization 108. male urethra 109. uremia 110. prostatism 111. Wilms tumor 112. cystorrhaphy 113. urethritis 114. voiding cystourethrography 115. interstitial cystitis 116. polyuria 117. dialysis 118. urethrorrhagia 119. nephrostomy 120. peritoneal dialysis 121. incontinence 122. urethrotomy 123. nephrolithiasis 124. vesicovaginal fistula 125. urination Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10

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Chapter 11

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means burning? a. contus/o b. esthet/o c. caus/o d. radicul/o 2. Which structure regulates body temperature? a. hypothalamus b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. medulla oblongata 3. Which structure carries impulses away from the brain and spinal cord and toward the muscles and glands? a. afferent neurons b. efferent neurons c. connecting neurons d. dendrites 4. What does the suffix -phasia mean? a. sensation or feeling b. speak or speech c. madness d. having an affinity for 5. Which combining form means root? a. caus/o b. contus/o c. esthet/o d. radicul/o 6. Which is the tough, outermost membrane of the meninges? a. myelin sheath b. arachnoid membrane c. pia mater d. dura mater 7. What is caused by a viral or bacterial infection? a. meningitis b. meningocele c. cephalalgia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 d. encephalocele 8. Dr. Fox advises Molly Knowles to avoid giving her six-year-old son who is home with the flu aspirin because

it might cause which complication? a. meningitis b. meningocele c. cephalalgia d. Reye's syndrome 9. Juan Diaz, who has Parkinson's disease, frequently makes an involuntary movement with his thumb and

fingers that resembles rolling a pill. What is the term for this movement? a. tremor b. seizure c. neuritis d. paresthesia 10. What describes a sudden surge of electrical activity in the brain? a. tremor b. seizure c. neuritis d. paresthesia 11. What is a slow, progressive decline in mental abilities that may be accompanied by personality changes? a. cognition b. amnesia c. stupor d. dementia 12. What is the most common form of dementia? a. Parkinson's disease b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Alzheimer's disease d. Lewy body dementia 13. Xavier Jones is diagnosed with Lou Gehrig's disease. What is another name for this condition? a. Parkinson's disease b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Alzheimer's disease d. Lewy body dementia 14. Which condition involves a bruising of the brain? a. cerebral contusion Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 b. concussion c. cranial hematoma d. cerebral cortex 15. Following a fall from a tree, Jasper Rogers experienced a cranial hematoma. What best describes Jasper's

condition? a. bruising of the brain b. violent shaking of the brain c. blood trapped in the brain tissues d. abnormal growth inside the brain 16. Les Simone fainted when her blood sugar level dropped. What term means fainting? a. syncope b. lethargy c. stupor d. delirium 17. While running a high fever, Brendan Greene thinks he sees purple elephants walking through his bedroom

and asks his mother why it's snowing indoors. Brendan's state would best be described as

.

a. syncope b. lethargy c. stupor d. delirium 18. What is a state of deep unconsciousness characterized by lack of spontaneous eye movements, no response

to painful stimuli, and the lack of speech? a. coma b. lethargy c. stupor d. delirium 19. Dina Wallace is brought to the ER for a suspected stroke. What term means stroke? a. aphasia b. parasomnia c. traumatic brain injury d. cerebrovascular accident 20. Reed Entende is no longer able to drive because he is at risk of suddenly falling asleep without warning.

What is the term for Reed's condition? a. aphasia b. parasomnia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 21. Which professional is a physician who specializes in administering anesthetic agents before and during

surgery? a. anesthetist b. anesthesiologist c. neurologist d. neurosurgeon 22. What does the abbreviation ICP mean? a. intracranial pressure b. inner cerebral position c. intercranial position d. independent cerebrum pressure 23. Which is the correct spelling for the term that means the loss of the ability to speak, write, and/or

comprehend the written or spoken word? a. lethargy b. amnesia c. aphasia d. delirium 24. Which is the correct spelling of the term that means congenital herniation of brain tissue through the gap in

the skull? a. encephalocele b. cephalgia c. encephalitis d. meningocele 25. What is the medical condition characterized by fine muscle tremors, rigidity, and a slow or shuffling gait? a. Alzheimer's disease b. Tourette syndrome c. Reye's syndrome d. Parkinson's disease 26. Which cranial nerve is named for muscles of the tongue? a. VII b. XII c. IX d. XI Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 27. A patient who has persistent difficulty with remaining asleep has which type of condition? a. aphasia b. parasomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 28. After working two jobs for several weeks with little sleep, Tyler Sook suddenly feels tired and listless all the

time. Which term best describes Tyler's condition? a. syncope b. lethargy c. stupor d. delirium 29. Which condition involves a violent jarring of the brain that may cause a temporary loss of awareness or

function? a. cerebral contusion b. concussion c. cranial hematoma d. cerebral cortex 30. Which condition is characterized by a slow or shuffling gait and fine muscle tremors? a. Parkinson's disease b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Alzheimer's disease d. Lewy body dementia 31. What is a general term for mental activities associated with thinking, learning, and memory? a. cognition b. amnesia c. stupor d. dementia 32. While trying to fall asleep, Dale Gorman keeps feeling a burning sensation in her legs that she cannot

explain. What is the term for this sensation? a. tremor b. seizure c. neuritis d. paresthesia 33. Jora Clarke is nervous about an upcoming camping trip because she's heard some mosquitos transmit

encephalitis. What does encephalitis mean? a. lockjaw Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 b. involuntary muscle movement c. pain in the head d. brain inflammation 34. Which is a congenital condition? a. meningitis b. meningocele c. cephalalgia d. Reye's syndrome 35. What does mater mean in the term dura mater? a. hard b. related to spiders c. delicate d. mother 36. Which layer of the meninges is closest to the brain? a. myelin sheath b. arachnoid membrane c. pia mater d. dura mater 37. What is the term for headache? a. meningitis b. meningocele c. cephalalgia d. encephalocele 38. A potentially fatal infection caused by a toxin produced by bacteria is

.

a. lockjaw b. tremor c. cephalgia d. encephalitis 39. Following a head injury, Doug Atkins is unable to remember anything leading up to his accident. What is

the term for his condition? a. cognition b. amnesia c. stupor d. dementia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 40. One outcome of Jewel Angelino's stroke is the loss of her ability to speak or understand speech. Which is the

term for this condition? a. aphasia b. parasomnia c. traumatic brain injury d. cerebrovascular accident 41. Which structure receives and interprets nerve impulses from sensory receptors in the tongue, skin, and

muscles? a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe 42. What is a network of intersecting spinal nerves? a. ganglion b. dendrites c. neurotransmitters d. plexus 43. Which part of the brain relays sensory stimuli from the spinal cord and midbrain to the cerebral cortex? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebrum d. brainstem 44. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. brainstem 45. Which nerves are aroused during the fight-or-flight response? a. parasympathetic nerves b. peripheral spinal nerves c. cranial nerves d. sympathetic nerves 46. What does pia mean in the term pia mater? a. tender or delicate b. mother c. protrusion Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 d. indifference 47. Which neurotransmitter plays an important role in learning? a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. glutamate 48. Which term means the supply of nerves to a specific body part? a. plexus b. innervation c. receptors d. stimulus 49. Gerry Wilder, who has epilepsy, takes which type of medication to prevent seizures? a. hypnotic b. sedative c. anesthetic d. anticonvulsant 50. Why would a doctor prescribe a hypnotic medication for a patient? a. to induce sleep b. to suppress tremors c. to prevent pain d. to prevent seizures 51. A patient with which condition is most likely to demonstrate involuntary tics or grunts or make compulsive

statements? a. Reye's syndrome b. hoarding disorder c. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Tourette syndrome 52. Which nerves maintain normal body functions during ordinary circumstances? a. parasympathetic nerves b. peripheral spinal nerves c. cranial nerves d. sympathetic nerves 53. An injury to which part of the brain might compromise critical survival functions like breathing and heart

rate? a. thalamus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 b. cerebellum c. cerebrum d. brainstem 54. Which part of the brain is necessary for the production of smooth and coordinated movements? a. thalamus b. cerebellum c. cerebrum d. brainstem 55. Which part of a neuron receives and conducts impulses? a. ganglion b. dendrites c. neurotransmitters d. plexus 56. A head-on motor vehicle collision would be most likely to cause what? a. aphasia b. parasomnia c. traumatic brain injury d. cerebrovascular accident 57. Following alcohol intoxication, Andre Douglas is unresponsive despite his friends' attempts to rouse him.

What is the term for his condition? a. cognition b. amnesia c. stupor d. dementia 58. An inflamed and painful nerve is defined as

.

a. a tremor b. a seizure c. neuritis d. paresthesia 59. Which is a congenital herniation of brain tissue? a. meningitis b. meningocele c. cephalalgia d. encephalocele Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 60. Which is the middle layer of the meninges? a. myelin sheath b. arachnoid membrane c. pia mater d. dura mater 61. Which nerves transmit signals to and from the central nervous system? a. peripheral spinal nerves b. sympathetic nerves c. parasympathetic nerves d. cranial nerves 62. Which term refers to a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the

nervous system? a. anesthesiologist b. neurologist c. anesthetist d. neurosurgeon 63. Which is an unresponsive state in which a person may appear to be awake but is unconscious due to severe

damage to certain areas of the brain? a. stupor b. persistent vegetative state c. coma d. unconscious 64. Which term, also called a mini-stroke, refers to a temporary interruption in the blood supply to the brain? a. cerebrovascular accident b. transient ischemic attack c. hemorrhagic stroke d. ischemic stroke 65. Which term refers to the loss of ability to speak, write, and/or comprehend the written or spoken word? a. amnesia b. insomnia c. aphasia d. anesthesia 66. Which type of seizure is also known as a petit mal seizure? a. tonic-clonic seizure b. epilepsy c. absence seizure Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 d. seizure 67. What is administered to prevent seizures? a. hypnotic b. sedative c. anticonvulsant d. barbiturates 68. Which term describes a tumor of spinal cord? a. myelosis b. meningitis c. myelitis d. multiple sclerosis 69. Which combining form means water? a. mening/o b. encephal/o c. arteri/o d. hydr/o 70. Which word part means head? a. encephal/o b. cephal c. neur d. esthet 71. Which suffix means pain? a. -algia b. -ologist c. -itis d. -cele 72. Which suffix means tumor? a. -cele b. -us c. -oma d. -ion 73. Which word part means bruise? a. concuss b. contus c. hemat Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 d. crani 74. What medication is administered to produce calm and diminished responsiveness without producing sleep? a. sedative b. hypnotic c. phenobarbital d. anesthetic 75. A type of radiation treatment for brain tumors performed without knife or incision is known as

.

a. Gamma knife surgery b. deep brain stimulation c. electroconvulsive therapy d. lobectomy 76. Which treatment is used in the treatment of dystonia, tremors, and Parkinson's disease? a. stereotactic radiosurgery b. transcranial magnetic stimulation c. radiofrequency ablation d. deep brain stimulation 77. What condition is also known as a pinched nerve? a. lumbar radiculopathy b. sciatica c. radiculitis d. neuritis 78. What is a highly contagious viral infection of the brainstem and spinal cord that sometimes leads to

paralysis? a. meningitis b. polio c. myelosis d. tetanus 79. Which is the prolonged or abnormal inability to sleep? a. sleep deprivation b. somnambulism c. insomnia d. narcolepsy 80. Which nerve pairs originate from the undersurface of the brain? a. cranial nerves Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 b. peripheral spinal nerves c. afferent neurons d. connecting neurons 81. Which of the following are connected at the lower midpoint by the corpus callosum? a. cerebral lobes b. meninges c. cerebral hemispheres d. synapses 82. Which is a protective covering made up of glial cells? a. pia mater b. dura mater c. arachnoid mater d. myelin sheath 83. Which of the following is a group of disorders that lead to dementia marked by deterioration affecting

memory and reasoning capabilities? a. Alzheimer's disease b. Huntington's disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Lou Gehrig's disease 84. Which of the following is an inflammation of the myelin sheath of peripheral nerves that may lead to

temporary paralysis? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. trigeminal neuralgia c. complex regional pain syndrome d. Bell's palsy 85. A patient with what condition will experience chronic, severe, lightning-like pain? a. neuritis b. trigeminal neuralgia c. complex regional pain syndrome d. causalgia

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The medical term for the condition commonly known as fainting is

.

87. The chemical substances that make it possible for messages to cross from the synapse of a neuron to the

target receptor are the Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 11

88. The lowered level of consciousness marked by listlessness, drowsiness, and apathy is known as

.

89. The term that describes inflammation of the sciatic nerve is

.

90. Damage that occurs when a blood vessel in the brain leaks or ruptures is a/an

.

91. A persistent, severe, burning pain that usually follows an injury to a sensory nerve is known as

.

92. A sudden, severe, lightning-like pain due to an inflammation of the fifth cranial nerve is called

.

93. When the blood flow to the brain is blocked it results in a/an

.

94. The term that means inflammation of the brain is

.

95. The bruising of brain tissue as a result of a head injury is a/an

.

96. The correct pronunciation for the term barbiturates is

.

97. A throbbing pain on one side of the head that may be preceded by an aura is a/an

.

98. A tonic-clonic seizure that occurs in infants and young children in response to a fever is a/an

.

99. A memory disturbance characterized by a total or partial inability to recall past experiences is

.

100. Regional anesthesia produced by injecting medication into the subarachnoid space is called

.

101. An ultrasound study of the carotid artery to predict or diagnose an ischemic stroke is

.

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Chapter 11 102. The correct pronunciation for the term causalgia is

.

103. The term that describes the mental activities associated with thinking, learning, and memory is

.

104. The term that describes a sleep disorder consisting of recurring episodes of falling asleep during the day is

.

105. A collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the brain is a/an

.

106. The thick, tough, outermost membrane of the meninges is known as the

.

107. EEG, the process of recording the electrical activity of the brain through the use of electrodes attached to

the scalp, is also known as

.

108. A condition of abnormal and excessive sensitivity to touch, pain, or other sensory stimuli is

.

109. Nerve pain caused by pressure on the spinal nerve roots in the neck region is

.

110. The medical term that describes an abnormal sensation, such as burning or prickling, in the extremities is

.

111. Surgical removal of a portion of the brain to treat brain cancer or seizure disorders that cannot be controlled

with medication is a

.

112. The state of being awake, alert, aware, and responding appropriately is referred to as

.

113. EMG, a test that uses electrodes taped to or inserted into the skin to measure the transfer of electrical

signals in peripheral nerves to the muscles, is also known as

.

114. Chronic nerve pain affecting one limb usually following an injury is

.

115. A chronic neurological condition characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures of varying severities is

.

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Chapter 11

116. A radiographic study of the spinal cord after the injection of a contrast medium is known as

.

117. A condition characterized by poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, and other neurologic

deficiencies is

.

118. The progressive autoimmune disorder that is characterized by inflammation that causes demyelination of

nerve fibers of the brain and spinal cord is known as

.

119. Damage to the brain that occurs when the blood flow to the brain is disrupted by a blockage of the blood

supply, also known as a stroke, is a/an

.

120. A disorder of the peripheral nerves that carry information to and from the brain and spinal cord that causes

pain and loss of sensation in the arms and legs is

.

121. Regional anesthesia produced by injecting a local anesthetic into the epidural space of the spine is known

as

.

122. A group of disorders involving the parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language and lead

to dementia marked by deterioration affecting memory and reasoning capabilities is .

123. The temporary paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve, which causes drooping only on the affected side of

the face, is

.

124. A degenerative central nervous system disorder with progressive loss of control over movement is

.

125. The abbreviation TIA means

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.

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Chapter 11 Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 52. a 53. d 54. b 55. b 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. a 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. a 81. c 82. d 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. syncope 87. neurotransmitters 88. lethargy 89. sciatica 90. hemorrhagic stroke 91. causalgia 92. trigeminal neuralgia 93. ischemic stroke 94. encephalitis 95. cerebral contusion 96. bar-BIT-you-ratz 97. migraine headache 98. febrile seizure 99. amnesia 100. spinal anesthesia 101. carotid ultrasonography Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11 102. kaw-ZAL-jee-ah 103. cognition 104. narcolepsy 105. cranial hematoma 106. dura mater 107. electroencephalography 108. hyperesthesia 109. cervical radiculopathy 110. paresthesia 111. lobectomy 112. conscious 113. electromyography 114. complex regional pain syndrome 115. epilepsy 116. myelography 117. cerebral palsy 118. multiple sclerosis 119. cerebrovascular accident 120. peripheral neuropathy 121. epidural anesthesia 122. Alzheimer's disease 123. Bell's palsy 124. Parkinson's disease 125. transient ischemic attack

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Chapter 12

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means eyelid? a. kerat/o b. scler/o c. presby/o d. blephar/o 2. Which combining form means turn? a. kerat/o b. scler/o c. presby/o d. trop/o 3. What does phak/o mean? a. lens of eye b. old age c. colored part of eye d. white of eye 4. Which combining form means hearing? a. trop/o b. scler/o c. opt/o d. ot/o 5. Which combining form means old age? a. kerat/o b. scler/o c. presby/o d. blephar/o 6. Norma Escobar's right upper eyelid droops slightly due to muscle weakness. What is the term for this

condition? a. chalazion b. hordeolum c. ectropion d. ptosis 7. Which means a cyst on the eyelid caused by an obstructed sebaceous gland? a. chalazion b. conjunctivitis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 c. ectropion d. ptosis 8. Ana Benoit's mother suspects her daughter's itchy red eyes might be pinkeye, also known as a. blepharitis

.

b. conjunctivitis c. ectropion d. dacryoadenitis 9. Lucia Bin, who is interested in helping patients with swallowing disorders, would most likely study to

become a/an

.

a. audiologist b. ophthalmologist c. speech-language pathologist d. optician 10. Following an accident at work where chemicals splashed in his eyes, the whites of Byron Root's eyes are

badly inflamed. Which condition does Byron most likely have due to the chemicals that splashed in his eyes? a. scleritis b. iritis c. keratitis d. conjunctivitis 11. Which is the correct pronunciation of chalazion? a. CHAH-layz-ee-on b. kah-LAY-zee-on c. KUH-lay-zee-on d. chul-ay-ZEE-on 12. What does the combining form anis/o in the term anisocoria mean? a. unequal b. pupil c. abnormal condition d. dry 13. Which term means dilation of the pupil? a. anisocoria b. nystagmus c. miosis d. mydriasis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 14. What is the name for a tumor that can cause swelling and inflammation of the optic nerve? a. papilledema b. nystagmus c. miosis d. mydriasis 15. Kobe Jones avoids driving at night because he has night blindness, otherwise known as a. nyctalopia

.

b. hemianopia c. presbyopia d. photophobia 16. Which is the correct pronunciation of cholesteatoma? a. KOH-lee-est-tee-oh-mah b. koh-LEE-es-toh-muh c. kol-EST-ee-oh-mah d. koh-les-tee-ah-TOH-mah 17. Which term contains a prefix that means inward? a. esotropia b. exotropia c. hemianopia d. enucleation 18. What is a general term for a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned

correctly? a. esotropia b. exotropia c. strabismus d. diplopia 19. Gretta Reilly has difficulty with her distance vision because of a defect where the light rays focus in front of

the retina. What is another term for Gretta's nearsightedness? a. hyperopia b. astigmatism c. amblyopia d. myopia 20. Which condition causes conductive hearing loss? a. otitis media b. infectious myringitis c. otalgia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 d. otosclerosis 21. Following her three-day trip to a music festival, Ali Cheeves experiences a buzzing in both her ears; the term

for this condition is

.

a. vertigo b. Ménière's disease c. tinnitus d. labyrinthitis 22. Which test uses air pressure to test for disorders of the middle ear? a. acoustic reflectometry b. audiometry c. Weber and Rinne tests d. tympanometry 23. Which best describes vertigo? a. a sense of whirling or dizziness b. a bout of hearing loss c. a ringing or buzzing in the ears d. a severe pain in the ear 24. Dr. Peeters diagnoses Charlie Phillips with inflammation of the middle ear, otherwise known as a. otitis media

.

b. infectious myringitis c. otalgia d. otosclerosis 25. Which condition contains a word root that means eardrum? a. otitis media b. infectious myringitis c. otalgia d. otosclerosis 26. What is another term for farsightedness? a. hyperopia b. astigmatism c. amblyopia d. myopia 27. What does the prefix mean in exotropia? a. turn Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 b. outward c. old age d. abnormal condition 28. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. otorrhea b. keratitis c. opthalmoscopy d. amblyopia 29. Which term means blindness in one-half of the visual field? a. nyctalopia b. hemianopia c. presbyopia d. photophobia 30. One possible sign of a serious head injury is pupils that are unequal in size. Which is the term for this

condition? a. anisocoria b. nystagmus c. miosis d. mydriasis 31. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. phacoemulsification b. cerumin c. auricle d. malleus 32. Joya Munoz, who inserted her contact lenses without cleaning them properly, now has discharge leaking

from her left eye and blurred vision. What is an inflammation of the cornea often caused by bacterial infection? a. scleritis b. iritis c. keratitis d. conjunctivitis 33. Which term means an inflammation of the lacrimal gland? a. blepharitis b. conjunctivitis c. ectropion d. dacryoadenitis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 34. Which term means eversion of the edge of an eyelid? a. chalazion b. hordeolum c. ectropion d. ptosis 35. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. tarsorhaphy b. presbycusis c. hemianopia d. emmetropia 36. Which term means inflammation of the eyelid? a. blepharitis b. conjunctivitis c. ectropion d. dacryoadenitis 37. Jessie Brewer wakes up with an earache, otherwise known as

.

a. otitis media b. infectious myringitis c. otalgia d. otosclerosis 38. Which test distinguishes between conductive and sensorineural hearing losses? a. acoustic reflectometry b. audiometry c. Weber and Rinne tests d. tympanometry 39. Which term refers to the angle where the upper and lower eyelids meet? a. canthus b. tarsus c. orbit d. lacrimal apparatus 40. Which term refers to the eye socket? a. canthus b. tarsus c. orbit d. lacrimal apparatus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 41. What is a function of the conjunctiva? a. protects the eyeball b. gives the eyelids shape c. enables eye movement d. produces tears 42. What provides the blood supply for the entire eye? a. retina b. sclera c. macula d. choroid 43. Which structure is responsible for maintaining the shape of the eye? a. retina b. sclera c. macula d. choroid 44. What is the term for the external part of the ear? a. mastoid process b. cochlea c. pinna d. stapes 45. Which structures in the ear help maintain equilibrium? a. mastoid process b. cochlea c. semicircular canals d. stapes 46. What is enucleation? a. replacement of the cornea b. removal of the lens c. incision into the eye socket d. removal of the eyeball 47. Amber Millington visits the ophthalmologist because she has been having problems seeing in the dark.

Which condition affects both night and peripheral vision? a. retinitis pigmentosa b. retinal detachment c. papilledema Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 d. keratoconus 48. Six-year-old Dmitri Pavlov is diagnosed with retinoblastoma. Which best describes Dmitri's condition? a. loss of central vision b. increased intraocular pressure c. inflamed optic nerve d. cancer of the eye 49. After being struck on the side of the head, Sal O'Sullivan experiences bleeding from the left ear. What term

describes Sal's condition? a. otopyorrhea b. otomycosis c. otorrhea d. otorrhagia 50. When taking scuba diving lessons, Nia Peale learned a number of ways to prevent pressure-related ear

problems from occurring. What is the term that refers to pressure-related ear problems? a. mastoiditis b. labyrinthitis c. vertigo d. barotrauma 51. Which inflammatory condition may result in vertigo and deafness? a. mastoiditis b. labyrinthitis c. otitis media d. barotrauma 52. Which condition requires immediate treatment to prevent blindness? a. macular degeneration b. closed-angle glaucoma c. presbyopia d. nyctalopia 53. Which condition is characterized by a distorted, cone-shaped cornea? a. retinitis pigmentosa b. retinal detachment c. papilledema d. keratoconus 54. What is phacoemulsification?

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Chapter 12 a. replacement of the cornea b. removal of the lens c. incision into the eye socket d. removal of the eyeball 55. Where are sound vibrations converted into nerve impulses? a. mastoid process b. cochlea c. pinna d. stapes 56. Which part of the eye receives nerve impulses? a. retina b. sclera c. macula d. choroid 57. What is a function of the lacrimal apparatus? a. protects the eyeball b. gives the eyelids shape c. enables eye movement d. produces tears 58. Which term refers to the framework that gives the eyelids stiffness and shape? a. canthus b. tarsus c. orbit d. lacrimal apparatus 59. Which test is used to diagnose otitis media? a. acoustic reflectometry b. audiometry c. Weber and Rinne tests d. tympanometry 60. Which term means contraction of the pupil? a. anisocoria b. nystagmus c. miosis d. mydriasis 61. Which term describes the simultaneous inward movement of the eyes toward each other?

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Chapter 12 a. accommodation b. convergence c. refraction d. emmetropia 62. Which structures are important in maintaining equal atmospheric pressure within the middle ear? a. semicircular canals b. acoustic nerves c. eustachian tubes d. auditory ossicles 63. Which term describes a condition in which central vision is lost but total blindness does not occur? a. open-angle glaucoma b. closed-angle glaucoma c. cataract d. macular degeneration 64. Color vision is best in which part of the retina? a. fovea centralis b. optic disk c. optic nerve d. uvea 65. What controls the amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye through the pupil? a. sclera b. choroid c. retina d. iris 66. Which test is also known as perimetry? a. cover test b. Snellen chart c. visual field testing d. refraction test 67. Crying is the overflowing of tears from what part of the eye anatomy? a. lacrimal glands b. lacrimal canal c. lacrimal sac d. lacrimal duct 68. Which term describes bleeding between the conjunctiva and the sclera?

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Chapter 12 a. conjunctivitis b. corneal abrasion c. photopsia d. subconjunctival hemorrhage 69. Which term is also known as a blind spot? a. scotoma b. legal blindness c. cataract d. floater 70. Which term means outside the eyeball? a. optic b. ocular c. extraocular d. intraocular 71. Which part of the eye is lined with the retina and filled with vitreous humor? a. macula b. sclera c. choroid d. posterior segment 72. What is an inflammation of the pigmented layer of the eye? a. retinal detachment b. retinitis pigmentosa c. uveitis d. photopsia 73. What is a chronic disorder in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing

attacks of vertigo, a fluctuating hearing loss, and tinnitus? a. Ménière's disease b. acoustic neuroma c. labyrinthitis d. cholesteatoma 74. Which type of testing involves one ear? a. binaural testing b. monaural testing c. Weber and Rinne tests d. audiological evaluation Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 75. What is the surgical correction of a damaged middle ear? a. otoplasty b. tympanoplasty c. mastoidectomy d. barotrauma 76. Which term means any inflammation of the ear? a. otitis b. otalgia c. otorrhagia d. mastoiditis 77. Which type of hearing loss occurs when sound waves are prevented from passing from the air to the fluid-

filled inner ear? a. noise-induced hearing loss b. conductive hearing loss c. sensorineural hearing loss d. presbycusis 78. Which health care practitioner designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for vision correction? a. audiologist b. ophthalmologist c. optician d. optometrist 79. Which term refers to a surgical incision into the eye socket? a. enucleation b. orbitotomy c. corneal transplant d. phacoemulsification 80. What treatment is used to treat closed-angle glaucoma? a. laser iridotomy b. laser photocoagulation c. scleral buckle d. corneal transplant 81. Which term is also known as earwax? a. pinna b. cerumen c. cochlea Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 d. stapes 82. What occurs as the eardrum vibrates and causes the auditory ossicles of the middle ear to vibrate? a. air conduction b. bone conduction c. sensorineural conduction d. deafness 83. What is the application of fluorescent dye to the surface of the eye via eye drops or a strip applicator? a. slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy b. mydriatic drops c. fluorescein staining d. fluorescein angiography 84. What is the temporal bone that contains hollow air space that surrounds the middle ear? a. tympanic membrane b. mastoid process c. organ of Corti d. oval window 85. What are the small hairs that comprise the eyebrows and eyelashes? a. tarsus b. canthus c. sclera d. cilia

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The use of an audiometer to measure hearing acuity is known as

.

87. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating the full spectrum of diseases and disorders of the

eyes, from vision correction to eye surgery is a/an

88. Excessive sensitivity to light is known as

.

.

89. A group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure is

.

90. The medical term that describes a pus-filled lesion on the eyelid resulting from an infection in a sebaceous

gland is

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.

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Chapter 12 91. The visual examination of the fundus of the eye with an ophthalmoscope is known as

.

92. A photographic study of the blood vessels in the back of the eye following the injection of a fluorescein dye

as a contrast medium is

.

93. The term that describes an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball is

.

94. A health care professional who specializes in measuring the accuracy of vision to determine whether

corrective lenses are needed is a/an

.

95. The abbreviation for speech-language pathologist is

.

96. An electronic device that bypasses the damaged portions of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve

is a/an

.

97. A medical professional who specializes in the measurement of hearing function and in the rehabilitation of

persons with hearing impairments is a/an

.

98. The abbreviation for age-related macular degeneration is

.

99. The word root in nyctalopia means

.

100. A surgical incision of the eardrum is

.

101. The procedure that uses a laser to reattach a retinal detachment is

.

102. The abbreviation for a common cause of vertigo that occurs when there is a shift in the location of small

crystals in the semicircular canals is

.

103. A procedure that is performed to treat open-angle glaucoma is

.

104. The surgical removal of cells to treat infection in preparation for a cochlear implant is

.

105. The procedure to measure intraocular pressure is known as Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 12

106. The combining form in the term barotrauma means

.

107. The word root in the term keratitis indicates that this condition is an inflammation of the

.

108. A surgical procedure to correct myopia by making incisions in the cornea to cause it to flatten is a/an

.

109. The abbreviation for right ear is

.

110. The maze-like system of the inner ear is known as the

.

111. The surgical removal of a portion of the tissue of the iris is known as a/an

.

112. The process by which sound waves enter the ear through the pinna and then travel down the external

auditory canal until they strike the tympanic membrane is called .

113. Strabismus characterized by the outward deviation of one eye relative to the other is

, also known as walleye.

114. A contagious inflammation associated with a middle-ear infection that causes painful blisters on the

eardrum is

.

115. The loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is a/an

.

116. A measure of sound frequency that determines how high or low a pitch is called a/an

.

117. AR is the abbreviation for

.

118. The surgical removal of part of the stapes and its replacement with a prosthetic piston is

.

119. The process whereby the eyes make adjustments, such as contraction and dilation, for seeing objects at

various distances is called Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 12 120. The ability to distinguish object details and shape at a distance is

.

121. The combining form in the term tarsorrhaphy means

.

122. The gradual loss of hearing that occurs with aging is

.

123. The surgical removal of all or a portion of the labyrinth of the inner ear is known as a/an

.

124. The word root in the term acoustic means sound or

.

125. The removal of the vitreous humor and its replacement with a clear solution is

.

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Chapter 12 Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. d 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. b 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. b 83. c 84. b 85. d 86. audiometry 87. ophthalmologist 88. photophobia 89. glaucoma 90. hordeolum 91. ophthalmoscopy 92. fluorescein angiography 93. nystagmus 94. optometrist 95. SLP 96. cochlear implant 97. audiologist 98. AMD 99. night 100. myringotomy 101. pneumatic retinopexy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12 102. BPPV 103. laser trabeculoplasty 104. mastoidectomy 105. tonometry 106. pressure 107. cornea 108. radial keratotomy 109. AD 110. labyrinth 111. iridectomy 112. air conduction 113. exotropia 114. infectious myringitis 115. cataract 116. hertz 117. acoustic reflectometry 118. stapedectomy 119. accommodation 120. visual acuity 121. eyelid 122. presbycusis 123. labyrinthectomy 124. hearing 125. vitrectomy

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Chapter 13

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means fingernail or toenail? a. cutane/o b. pil/i c. urtic/o d. onych/o 2. What does rhytid/o mean? a. wrinkle b. hair c. hives d. toenail 3. Which combining form means pus? a. hidr/o b. py/o c. urtic/o d. seb/o 4. What does lip/o mean? a. fungus b. dry c. hives d. fat 5. Which combining form means hair? a. cutane/o b. trich/o c. urtic/o d. onych/o 6. Nine-month-old Marcus Boyce has cradle cap and continually scratches his head. Which term means cradle

cap? a. comedo b. folliculitis c. alopecia d. seborrheic dermatitis 7. Benson Arturio sees his dermatologist about persistent bumps and pimples along his jawline that make

shaving difficult. Which term describes inflamed hair follicles? a. comedo Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 b. folliculitis c. alopecia d. seborrheic dermatitis 8. After running laps around the track, Ginger Walters experiences diaphoresis. What does this term mean? a. swelling of clotted blood b. widespread skin rash c. flushing of the skin d. profuse sweating 9. Which best describes hematoma? a. swelling of clotted blood b. widespread skin rash c. flushing of the skin d. profuse sweating 10. What does the word root in hirsutism mean? a. hairy b. baldness c. bruise d. white 11. Which term means a bruise? a. vitiligo b. petechiae c. chloasma d. ecchymosis 12. Which condition is characterized by skin depigmentation? a. vitiligo b. petechiae c. chloasma d. ecchymosis 13. Eighty-year-old Tony Feliz has a purple discoloration on his arm that his doctor says is a result of the blood-

thinning medication he is taking. Which term best describes Tony's condition? a. purpura b. ecchymosis c. verrucae d. eschar 14. What is a cicatrix?

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Chapter 13 a. an abnormal scar b. a skin growth c. a fatty tumor d. a normal scar 15. Dr. Johnson diagnoses the lump on Bren Patel's shoulder as a benign fatty tumor. What is the term for this

condition? a. keloid b. keratosis c. lipoma d. cicatrix 16. Which is most likely to develop into skin cancer? a. dysplastic nevi b. granulation tissue c. carbuncle d. lipoma 17. What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of fat and fluid in the hips and legs? a. erythroderma b. ichthyosis c. lipedema d. lipoma 18. Latisha Scott applies a daily skin cream to treat her xeroderma. What does the word root indicate about

Latisha's condition? a. Latisha has hard, swollen skin. b. Latisha has hives. c. Latisha's skin is abnormally red. d. Latisha has dry skin.

19. Which disorder is characterized by flare-ups in which red papules covered with silvery scales occur on the

elbows, knees, scalp, back, or buttocks? a. psoriasis b. scleroderma c. rosacea d. lupus 20. Which term is also known as spoon nail? a. koilonychia b. onychomycosis c. onychia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 d. onychocryptosis 21. The nail on Sanders O'Reilly's big toe is turning yellow and becoming thick and brittle. Which condition

does Sanders most likely have? a. koilonychia b. onychomycosis c. onychia d. onychocryptosis 22. A diagnosis of onychocryptosis means a patient has what? a. spoon nail b. fungal nail infection c. inflamed nail bed d. ingrown toenail 23. Reg Filbert is diagnosed with an acute, rapidly spreading bacterial infection on his right foot. Which term

best describes Reg's condition? a. cellulitis b. scleroderma c. rosacea d. lupus 24. Which describes an autoimmune disorder in which the connective tissues become thickened and hardened,

causing the skin to become hard and swollen? a. psoriasis b. scleroderma c. rosacea d. lupus 25. What does the word root in ichthyosis mean? a. red b. scaly c. fat d. abnormal condition 26. Which is caused by a bacterial infection? a. dysplastic nevi b. granulation tissue c. furuncle d. lipoma 27. Which is a general term for any skin growth involving an overgrowth or thickening of the skin?

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Chapter 13 a. keloid b. keratosis c. lipoma d. cicatrix 28. Ari Seigel has developed a keloid along the incision site from his abdominal surgery. What best describes a

keloid? a. an abnormal scar b. a skin growth c. a fatty tumor d. a normal scar 29. What is another term for wart? a. purpura b. petechiae c. verrucae d. eschar 30. Which condition is characterized by small, pinpoint hemorrhages? a. purpura b. petechiae c. verrucae d. ecchymosis 31. Ollie Ortega, who is six months pregnant, notices brownish spots on her forehead, nose, and cheeks. Which

term best describes Ollie's condition? a. vitiligo b. petechiae c. chloasma d. ecchymosis 32. What does the word root in albinism mean? a. hairy b. baldness c. bruise d. white 33. Dr. Le orders a topical lotion to help control nine-year-old Twyla Wilson's exanthem. What does exanthem

mean? a. swelling of clotted blood b. widespread skin rash c. flushing of the skin Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 d. profuse sweating 34. What is a non-infected lesion that may occur in conjunction with acne vulgaris? a. comedo b. folliculitis c. alopecia d. seborrheic dermatitis 35. Dwight Jones has recently noticed that the hair on the top of his head is thinning. Which term means

baldness? a. comedo b. folliculitis c. alopecia d. seborrheic dermatitis 36. Which term refers to a crust-like tissue found in a full-thickness wound? a. purpura b. petechiae c. verrucae d. eschar 37. What structure of the integumentary system helps control the loss of body heat? a. hair b. nails c. sebaceous glands d. sweat glands 38. Where are new cells produced within the epidermis? a. dermis b. squamous epithelial tissue c. subcutaneous layer d. basal layer 39. Where are sensory nerve endings located? a. dermis b. squamous epithelial tissue c. subcutaneous layer d. basal layer 40. What is responsible for protecting the skin against ultraviolet sun rays? a. keratin b. mast cells Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 c. collagen d. melanin 41. The function of which of these is responsible for responding to injury, infection, or allergy? a. lipocytes b. mast cells c. melanocytes d. arrector pili 42. The action of which of these helps reduce heat loss through the skin? a. lipocytes b. mast cells c. melanocytes d. arrector pili 43. Which term means the normal production and excretion of sweat? a. perspiration b. diaphoresis c. hidrosis d. hypohidrosis 44. Hyperhidrosis is characterized by which of the following? a. excessive sweating b. itchy, heat-related rash c. normal sweat production d. lack of sweat production 45. What is the term for the keratin plate that protects the dorsal surface of the last bone of each finger and toe? a. lunula b. cuticle c. unguis d. nail bed 46. June Inez, age 63, visits the dermatologist to have a light tan, waxy-looking growth on her skin evaluated.

Which term best describes June's condition? a. seborrheic keratosis b. epidermoid cyst c. trichomycosis axillaris d. cradle cap 47. Which is the most common form of alopecia? a. alopecia areata Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 b. androgenic alopecia c. alopecia totalis d. alopecia universalis 48. What is another term that means age spots? a. solar lentigines b. acanthosis nigricans c. chloasma d. nevi 49. What is the term for a small blister? a. vesicle b. pustule c. abscess d. bulla 50. Which structure of the integumentary system helps regulate body temperature? a. hair b. nails c. sebaceous glands d. sweat glands 51. What is the term for a solid, raised lesion that is larger than 0.5 cm? a. macule b. crust c. wheal d. nodule 52. Which condition is characterized by dark, velvety areas of skin discoloration, usually in skin folds? a. solar lentigines b. acanthosis nigricans c. chloasma d. nevi 53. Which form of alopecia is a type of autoimmune disorder? a. alopecia areata b. androgenic alopecia c. alopecia totalis d. alopecia universalis 54. What does an epidermoid cyst contain? a. pus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 b. fatty material c. mucus d. blood 55. What is the term for the pale half-moon-shaped region at the nail root? a. lunula b. cuticle c. unguis d. nail bed 56. What places a person at risk for heat stroke? a. hyperhidrosis b. diaphoresis c. hidrosis d. anhidrosis 57. The subcutaneous layer of the skin contains an abundance of

.

a. lipocytes b. mast cells c. melanocytes d. arrector pili 58. What is responsible for waterproofing the skin? a. keratin b. mast cells c. collagen d. melanin 59. Which layer of the skin connects the skin to surface muscles? a. dermis b. squamous epithelial tissue c. subcutaneous layer d. basal layer 60. Which structure of the integumentary system helps discourage the growth of bacteria on the skin? a. hair b. nails c. sebaceous glands d. sweat glands

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Chapter 13 61. Which term describes a torn or jagged wound, or an accidental cut wound? a. abrasion b. fissure c. laceration d. puncture wound 62. Which procedure is also known as a skin graft? a. dermatoplasty b. sclerotherapy c. lipectomy d. liposuction 63. Which condition involves tissue death that is usually associated with a loss of circulation? a. pressure ulcer b. gangrene c. ulcer d. abscess 64. Which type of burn involves blisters and damage to the dermis and epidermis? a. superficial burn b. second-degree burn c. third-degree burn d. full thickness 65. Which abnormal sac contains fluid, gas, or semisolid material? a. abscess b. cyst c. pustule d. vesicle 66. Which term describes a narrow band of epidermis attached to the surface of the nail, just in front of the root? a. lunula b. cuticle c. nail root d. unguis 67. Which is the destruction or elimination of abnormal tissue cells through the application of extreme cold? a. cauterization b. chemabrasion c. cryosurgery d. curettage Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 68. Which is the condition characterized by an intensely itchy rash caused by blockage of the sweat glands? a. sleep hyperhidrosis b. hyperhidrosis c. anhidrosis d. heat rash 69. Which cells are also known as fat cells? a. mast cells b. lipocytes c. apocrine glands d. sebaceous glands 70. Which chemical causes the signs of an allergic response when it is released in response to allergens? a. heparin b. histamine c. collagen d. keratin 71. Which type of tissue forms the upper layer of the epidermis? a. squamous epithelial tissue b. basal layer c. dermis d. skin 72. Which is a class of chemical compounds derived from vitamin A that are used in skin care? a. topical steroids b. botox c. retinoids d. collagen replacement therapy 73. Which term refers to a form of abrasion involving use of a revolving wire brush or sandpaper? a. chemabrasion b. dermabrasion c. exfoliative cytology d. curettage 74. Which is a surgical technique in which tissue is destroyed using an electric spark? a. electrodesiccation b. Mohs surgery c. photodynamic therapy d. electrolysis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 75. Which term is also known as a mole? a. polyp b. skin tag c. nevus d. callus 76. Which term refers to any acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection? a. dermatosis b. pyoderma c. mycosis d. impetigo 77. Which type of tissue normally forms during the healing of a wound and eventually forms the scar? a. cicatrix b. lipoma c. granulation tissue d. keloid 78. What is a flat vascular birthmark made up of dilated blood vessels? a. pigmented birthmark b. capillary hemangioma c. vascular birthmark d. port-wine stain 79. Which term is also known as a pimple? a. pustule b. papule c. macule d. vesicle 80. Which term refers to an open lesion of skin or mucous membrane resulting in tissue loss around the edges? a. ulcer b. pressure ulcer c. erosion d. plaque 81. Which term is also known as a scab? a. exudate b. crust c. scale d. plaque Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 82. What is the loss of all the hair on the scalp? a. androgenic alopecia b. alopecia areata c. alopecia totalis d. alopecia universalis 83. Which benign skin growth typically occurs in adults over age 50? a. seborrheic keratosis b. seborrheic dermatitis c. sebaceous cyst d. age spot 84. Which term is also known as onychitis? a. onychia b. onychocryptosis c. clubbing d. koilonychia 85. What is a superficial bacterial infection of the hair shafts in areas with extensive sweat glands? a. mycosis b. trichomycosis axillaris c. pediculosis d. scabies

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The genetic deficiency or absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises of the eyes is known as

.

87. A pigmentation disorder characterized by brownish spots on the face, also known as the mask of pregnancy,

is

.

88. A large blister that is larger than 0.5 cm in diameter is a/an 89. The medical term that means excessively dry skin is 90. A cosmetic surgery commonly known as a lid-lift is a/an

. . .

91. A potentially precancerous skin growth caused by excessive exposure to the sun is

.

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Chapter 13 92. The term that describes the removal of dirt, foreign objects, damaged tissue, and cellular debris from a

wound is

.

93. The term for the condition commonly known as baldness is

.

94. An autoimmune disorder resulting in whitish areas of skin where hair growing in an affected area may also

turn white is

.

95. An allergic reaction also known as hives is

.

96. The term that means an inflammation of the skin is

.

97. Also known as a wheal, a small bump that itches and often appears as a symptom of an allergic reaction is

a/an

.

98. Atypical moles that can develop into skin cancer are

.

99. The term for a fungal infection, also known as ringworm, that can grow on the skin, hair, or nails is

.

100. A form of dermatitis that is usually associated with severe itching, redness, blistering, and oozing is

.

101. Also known as warts, small, hard skin lesions caused by the human papillomavirus are

.

102. The medical term that means profuse sweating is

.

103. Commonly known as a face-lift, the surgical removal of excess skin and fat for the elimination of wrinkles

is a/an

.

104. Also called a strawberry birthmark, a soft, raised, pink or red vascular birthmark is a/an

.

105. A skin disorder characterized by red papules covered with silvery scales is

.

106. The autoimmune disorder in which the connective tissues become thickened and hardened is known as

.

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Chapter 13 107. A swelling of clotted blood trapped in the tissues is a/an

.

108. The medical term that describes a chronic condition that produces redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood

vessels is

.

109. A condition in which there is widespread scaling of the skin, often with pruritus, erythroderma, and hair

loss is

.

110. An abnormally raised or thickened scar that expands beyond the boundaries of the incision is a/an

.

111. The group of disorders characterized by dry, thickened, scaly skin is known as

.

112. A skin infection caused by an infestation of itch mites is

.

113. The general term for a widespread rash that usually occurs in children is

.

114. A malformation of the nails in which the outer surface is scooped out like the bowl of a spoon is known as

.

115. A benign fatty tumor under the skin that causes a bump is a/an

.

116. The medical term that describes an ingrown toenail is 117. A discolored flat spot such as a freckle is a/an

. .

118. The correct pronunciation for the term that means dead, crust-like tissue found in a full-thickness wound is

.

119. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin is a/an

.

120. A physician who specializes in the surgical restoration and reconstruction of body structures is a/an

.

121. The correct spelling of the term commonly known as a fingernail or toenail is a/an

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.

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Chapter 13 122. The correct spelling of the term for a dermatitis caused by the friction of skin rubbing together in the skin

folds is

.

123. The abbreviation SLE stands for

.

124. The abbreviation for the most common and least harmful type of skin cancer is

.

125. The correct pronunciation of the medical term that means the surgical removal of excess skin and fat from

the face to eliminate wrinkles is

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.

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Chapter 13 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 52. b 53. a 54. b 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. c 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. albinism 87. chloasma 88. bulla 89. xeroderma 90. blepharoplasty 91. actinic keratosis 92. debridement 93. alopecia 94. vitiligo 95. urticaria 96. dermatitis 97. welt 98. dysplastic nevi 99. tinea 100. eczema 101. verrucae Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13 102. diaphoresis 103. rhytidectomy 104. capillary hemangioma 105. psoriasis 106. scleroderma 107. hematoma 108. rosacea 109. exfoliative dermatitis 110. keloid 111. ichthyosis 112. scabies 113. exanthem 114. koilonychia 115. lipoma 116. onychocryptosis 117. macule 118. ES-kar 119. dermatologist 120. plastic surgeon 121. unguis 122. intertrigo 123. systemic lupus erythematosus 124. BCC 125. rit-ih-DECK-toh-mee

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Chapter 14

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means extremities? a. acr/o b. adren/o c. somat/o d. crin/o 2. Which combining form means secrete? a. acr/o b. adren/o c. somat/o d. crin/o 3. What does the suffix -dipsia mean? a. condition b. pertaining to c. labor d. thirst 4. What does the combining form glyc/o mean? a. gonad b. many c. labor d. sugar 5. Which combining form means body? a. acr/o b. adren/o c. somat/o d. crin/o 6. Which gland secretes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)? a. pineal gland b. adrenal cortex c. adrenal medulla d. anterior lobe of pituitary gland 7. Which gland secretes growth hormone (GH)? a. thyroid gland b. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland c. thymus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 d. posterior lobe of the pituitary gland 8. Oxytocin does which of the following? a. regulates the growth of bone and muscle b. stimulates ovulation in females c. stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth d. stimulates production of sperm 9. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) does which of the following? a. regulates the growth of bone and muscle b. stimulates ovulation in females c. stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth d. stimulates production of sperm 10. What is another name for somatotropic hormone? a. growth hormone b. melatonin c. oxytocin d. thyroxine 11. The function of which hormone is to help control blood pressure? a. oxytocin b. calcitonin c. thymosin d. antidiuretic hormone 12. The function of which hormone affects the bones and teeth? a. oxytocin b. calcitonin c. thymosin d. antidiuretic hormone 13. Which hormone affects the rate of metabolism in the body? a. calcitonin b. glucose c. thyroxine d. aldosterone 14. The levels of which normal body substances are regulated by the adrenal glands? a. electrolytes b. insulin Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 c. thyroxine d. corticosteroids 15. Which hormone is secreted when the bloodstream contains lower than normal levels of glucose? a. insulin b. melatonin c. cortisol d. glucagon 16. Which is a type of corticosteroid? a. insulin b. melatonin c. cortisol d. glucagon 17. Which word is spelled incorrectly? a. galactorhea b. pinealoma c. prolactinoma d. myxedema 18. Which hormone plays an important role in preparing the uterus for pregnancy? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. testosterone d. leptin 19. Where is testosterone secreted? a. fat cells b. corpus luteum c. adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system d. testicles and adrenal cortex 20. Nineteen-year-old Jonas O'Leary has been diagnosed with acromegaly; which is a characteristic of this

condition? a. abnormally large body b. abnormally short stature c. abnormally protruding eyeballs d. abnormally large hands or feet 21. What does the word root in prolactinoma mean? a. tumor Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 b. milk c. pituitary d. on behalf of 22. Lately, Lola Johansen always feels cold and has been experiencing extreme fatigue and swelling around her

eyes. Which condition caused by an extreme deficiency of thyroid secretion might Lola be experiencing? a. myxedema b. Hashimoto's disease c. goiter d. exophthalmos 23. As a result of diabetes mellitus, Win Luria feels thirsty all the time, which is otherwise known as

.

a. polydipsia b. polyphagia c. hypercalcemia d. polyuria 24. Dr. Stiles cautions Jas Miller that his chronic alcohol abuse may cause which of the following conditions? a. insulinoma b. myasthenia gravis c. thyroid storm d. pancreatitis 25. Which condition places a person at risk for both kidney stones and weakened bones? a. hypoparathyroidism b. polyphagia c. hypercalcemia d. polyuria 26. Which word is spelled incorrectly? a. ketosis b. oxytocin c. lutenizing hormone d. diabetes mellitus 27. Lucia Winters has Graves' disease, a condition associated with which endocrine gland? a. thyroid gland b. pineal gland c. pancreas d. adrenal glands Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 28. Which hormone helps regulate appetite? a. leptin b. progesterone c. norepinephrine d. testosterone 29. Which hormone plays an important role in the maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. testosterone d. leptin 30. When glucose levels in the bloodstream are higher than normal, the pancreas secretes which hormone? a. insulin b. melatonin c. cortisol d. glucagon 31. Which is a class of hormones that are secreted by the adrenal cortex? a. electrolytes b. insulin c. thyroxine d. corticosteroids 32. Which hormone plays an important role in the immune system? a. oxytocin b. calcitonin c. thymosin d. antidiuretic hormone 33. What does luteinizing hormone do? a. regulates the growth of bone and muscle b. stimulates ovulation in females c. stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth d. stimulates production of sperm 34. Which gland secretes oxytocin? a. thyroid gland b. anterior lobe of pituitary gland c. thymus d. posterior lobe of pituitary gland Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 35. Where is epinephrine secreted? a. pineal gland b. adrenal cortex c. adrenal medulla d. anterior lobe of pituitary gland 36. Which hormone regulates the sodium and water levels in the body? a. calcitonin b. glucose c. thyroxine d. aldosterone 37. Which condition, characterized by an over-production of a hormone, can lead to hypercalcemia? a. hypoparathyroidism b. polyphagia c. hyperparathyroidism d. polyuria 38. Where is the pituitary gland located? a. neck b. thoracic cavity c. brain d. kidneys 39. Where is the pineal gland located? a. neck b. thoracic cavity c. brain d. kidneys 40. Which is one of the functions of the pituitary gland? a. influences the sleep-wakefulness cycle b. regulates the body's metabolism c. controls the blood glucose levels d. controls the other endocrine glands 41. Which gland regulates the body's metabolism? a. parathyroid glands b. thyroid gland c. pancreatic islets d. pituitary gland Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 42. Where is ghrelin produced? a. adrenal cortex b. fat cells c. ovaries d. gastrointestinal tract 43. Short stature may be caused by which condition? a. hypopituitarism b. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone c. acromegaly d. hypocalcemia 44. Kai Stern's pancreas does not produce enough insulin as a result of which condition? a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. prediabetes d. gestational diabetes mellitus 45. Which term means the surgical removal of the pituitary gland? a. laparoscopic adrenalectomy b. lobectomy c. hypophysectomy d. parathyroidectomy 46. Which diagnostic test measures a patient's average blood glucose level over the previous 3 to 4 months? a. hemoglobin A1c testing b. continuous glucose monitoring c. oral glucose tolerance test d. fasting blood sugar test 47. What hormone affects skin pigmentation? a. melanocyte-stimulating hormone b. lactogenic hormone c. melatonin d. aldosterone 48. Which structure of the endocrine system is most active prenatally and during childhood? a. pancreas b. adrenal glands c. thyroid gland d. thymus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 49. Which hormone does the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete? a. antidiuretic hormone b. oxytocin c. adrenocorticotropic hormone d. melatonin 50. What is the term for hormones produced in the brain? a. leptin b. neurohormones c. ghrelin d. steroids 51. Which hormone does the adrenal medulla secrete? a. antidiuretic hormone b. norepinephrine c. cortisol d. melatonin 52. What does the combining form lact/o in lactogenic mean? a. body b. milk c. swift d. sugar 53. Why would a patient be scheduled for a radioactive iodine uptake test? a. to measure blood glucose levels b. to assess growth c. to assess electrolyte balance d. to measure thyroid function 54. Which type of surgery is performed on the thyroid gland? a. laparoscopic adrenalectomy b. lobectomy c. hypophysectomy d. parathyroidectomy 55. Paris Gomez produces enough insulin, but her body does not use it effectively; what condition does Paris

have? a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. prediabetes Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 d. gestational diabetes mellitus 56. Dom Emmanuel, who is undergoing cancer treatment, has recently been experiencing bloating and water

retention due to hormone overproduction. Which condition best fits Dom's symptoms? a. hypopituitarism b. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone c. acromegaly d. hypocalcemia 57. What is one of the functions of the pineal gland? a. influences the sleep-wakefulness cycle b. regulates the body's metabolism c. controls the blood glucose levels d. controls the other endocrine glands 58. Where are the adrenal glands located? a. neck b. thoracic cavity c. brain d. kidneys 59. What life-threatening condition is the result of exaggerated hyperthyroidism? a. insulinoma b. myasthenia gravis c. thyroid storm d. pancreatitis 60. Which hormone has a direct effect on the circadian cycle? a. insulin b. melatonin c. cortisol d. glucagon 61. Which substance is administered to suppress inflammation and as an immunosuppressant? a. cortisone b. aldosterone c. insulin d. anabolic steroids 62. Which hormone is produced by the pituitary gland? a. melatonin b. triiodothyronine Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 c. adrenocorticotropic hormone d. epinephrine 63. The production of which hormone usually increases during pregnancy? a. lactogenic hormone b. melanocyte-stimulating c. thyroid-stimulating d. melatonin 64. Which gland secretes the hormone melatonin? a. thymus b. pineal gland c. pituitary gland d. adrenal glands 65. A prolactinoma is a benign tumor that occurs in what gland? a. pineal b. adrenal c. pituitary d. pancreas 66. What condition is also known as a thyrotoxic crisis? a. thyroid carcinoma b. Hashimoto's disease c. thyroid storm d. goiter 67. Which type of diabetes is an insulin resistance disorder? a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. latent autoimmune diabetes in adults d. diabetes insipidus 68. What type of medication is administered to slow the ability of the thyroid gland to produce thyroid

hormones? a. antithyroid drug b. synthetic thyroid hormones c. corticosteroids d. aldosterone 69. Which is the surgical removal of one lobe of the thyroid gland?

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Chapter 14 a. thymectomy b. pancreatectomy c. hypophysectomy d. lobectomy 70. Which blood test measures glucose levels 8 to 12 hours after eating and is used to screen for diabetes

mellitus? a. oral glucose tolerance test b. hemoglobin A1c testing c. fasting blood sugar test d. fructosamine test 71. Which condition is also known as diabetic shock? a. severe hypoglycemia b. hypoglycemia c. hyperglycemia d. diabetic coma 72. What uses radioactive iodine administered orally to measure thyroid function? a. thyroid-stimulating hormone assay b. thyroid replacement therapy c. radioactive iodine uptake test d. radioactive iodine treatment 73. What are man-made substances that are chemically related to male sex hormones and are sometimes used

illegally to build muscle mass? a. androgens b. anabolic steroids c. neurohormones d. human growth hormone 74. What condition is also known as thyromegaly? a. goiter b. thyroid carcinoma c. hyperparathyroidism d. hypergonadism 75. Which word is spelled incorrectly? a. thymosin b. glucagon c. triodothyronine Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 d. cortisol 76. What works with the hormone calcitonin to regulate calcium levels in the blood and tissues? a. parathyroid hormone b. thyroid-stimulating hormone c. thyroxine d. adrenocorticotropic hormone 77. Which is the correct pronunciation of exophthalmos? a. EX-oh-thel-mos b. ex-OH-thalm-os c. ECK-off-al-MOS d. eck-sof-THAL-mos 78. Which parts of the pancreas have endocrine functions? a. suprarenals b. pancreatic islets c. electrolytes d. hypophysis 79. What is a corticosteroid that regulates the salt and water levels in the body? a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. epinephrine d. norepinephrine 80. What does the condition hypoparathyroidism also cause? a. hyperparathyroidism b. hypergonadism c. hypocalcemia d. hypogonadism 81. Which word is spelled incorrectly? a. gonadotropin b. norepinephrene c. ghrelin d. thyroxine 82. What are gamete-producing glands? a. gonads b. endocrine glands Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 c. pancreas d. pituitary gland 83. What is the correct pronunciation of gynecomastia? a. jin-eh-KOH-mash-tah b. guy-neh-koh-MAS-tee-ah c. GINE-ec-koh-mash-tah d. gine-ECK-oh-mas-TEE-ah 84. What does an endocrinologist do? a. diagnoses hormonal malfunctions b. teaches patients about stress reduction c. treats autoimmune disorders d. diagnoses disorders of the urinary system 85. What is caused by overproduction of the antidiuretic hormone? a. prolactinoma b. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone c. diabetes insipidus d. pinealoma

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A diagnostic test that measures thyroid function is a/an

.

87. The abbreviation for a health care professional qualified to teach people with diabetes how to manage their

disease is

.

88. A slow-growing, benign tumor of the pituitary gland that can cause excess hormone secretion is a/an

.

89. The abbreviation ACTH stands for

.

90. Inflammation of one or both of the adrenal glands is known as 91. The abbreviation for diabetic ketoacidosis is

. .

92. A condition caused by insufficient production of the antidiuretic hormone or by the inability of the kidneys

to respond to the antidiuretic hormone is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 14 93. The word root trop in the term adrenocorticotropic hormone means

.

94. A minimally invasive procedure to surgically remove one or both adrenal glands is a/an

.

95. The abbreviation for epinephrine is

.

96. A condition marked by the excessive secretion of insulin is known as

.

97. Another term for growth hormone is somatotropic hormone; the combining form somat/o means

.

98. The condition of excessive mammary development in the male is known as 99. GCG is the abbreviation for

.

.

100. The mineral substances such as sodium and potassium that are normally found in the blood and other

bodily fluids are known as

.

101. An abnormality of electrolyte balance caused by excessive secretion of aldosterone is known as

.

102. A patient whose blood glucose level is higher than normal, but not high enough to be classified as type 2

diabetes, has

.

103. The term that describes an abnormal protrusion of the eyes is

.

104. The test administered to patients with diabetes to measure average glucose levels over the past three weeks

is the

.

105. A benign tumor of the pancreas that causes hypoglycemia is a/an 106. The suffix -tropin in the term gonadotropin means to 107. The substance that plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response is

. . .

108. A normal metabolic process that helps the body utilize stored fat when other sources of energy are lacking Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14

is

.

109. A condition that occurs when diabetes damages the tiny blood vessels in the retina of the eye is

.

110. The abbreviation for lactogenic hormone is

.

111. A group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion,

insulin action, or both is

.

112. A congenital form of hypothyroidism is

.

113. The combining form in the term homeostasis means

.

114. A diabetic emergency caused by very high blood glucose (hyperglycemia) or very low blood glucose

(hypoglycemia) may result in a

_

.

115. The hormone that is secreted by the thymus that stimulates the maturation of lymphocytes into T cells of

the immune system is

.

116. An abnormal growth of the entire body that is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone before

puberty is

.

117. The surgical removal of the thymus gland is a/an

.

118. The combining form in the term exophthalmos means

.

119. The hormone that increases the amount of glucose by stimulating the liver to convert glycogen into glucose

for release into the bloodstream is

.

120. A life-threatening diabetes complication caused by a buildup of acids (called ketones) in the blood is

.

121. Addison's disease is a condition that occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough of the

hormones cortisol or 122. The term for excessive urination is

. .

123. Cushing's syndrome is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14

.

124. Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disease in which the body's own antibodies attack and destroy the

cells of the 125. The suffix in the term polyphagia means

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. .

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Chapter 14 Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. c 81. b 82. a 83. b 84. a 85. b 86. thyroid scan 87. CDE 88. pituitary adenoma 89. adrenocorticotropic hormone 90. adrenalitis 91. DKA 92. diabetes insipidus 93. change 94. laparoscopic adrenalectomy 95. EPI

Epi 96. hyperinsulinism 97. body 98. gynecomastia 99. glucagon 100. electrolytes

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Chapter 14 101. aldosteronism 102. prediabetes 103. exophthalmos 104. fructosamine test 105. insulinoma 106. stimulate 107. norepinephrine 108. ketosis 109. diabetic retinopathy 110. LTH 111. diabetes mellitus 112. cretinism 113. constant 114. diabetic coma 115. thymosin 116. gigantism 117. thymectomy 118. eye 119. glucagon 120. diabetic ketoacidosis 121. aldosterone

ALD 122. polyuria 123. cortisol

hydrocortisone 124. thyroid gland Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14 125. eating

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Chapter 15

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combing form means few? a. olig/o b. hemat/o c. varic/o d. orchi/o 2. Which word part means glans penis? a. epididym b. balan c. gonad d. orchid 3. Which combining form means testicles? a. orchid/o b. mast/o c. men/o d. ov/o 4. What combining form means masculine? a. olig/o b. varic/o c. andr/o d. vas/o 5. Which suffix means specialist? a. -cele b. -ary c. -itis d. -ologist 6. Which suffix means surgical removal? a. -ostomy b. -ary c. -ectomy d. -pexy 7. Joseph Dees, who is two weeks premature, is born with a fluid-filled sac in his scrotum. What is the term for

Joseph's condition? a. Peyronie's disease b. varicocele Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 c. azoospermia d. hydrocele 8. Tyler Smith, who is being treated for prostatitis, notices blood in his semen. Which is the term for Tyler's

condition? a. oligospermia b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hematospermia 9. What condition affects the veins? a. Peyronie's disease b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hydrocele 10. Which best describes epididymitis? a. a penis that is bent or curved during erection b. a painful inflammation caused by bacterial infection c. an absence of sperm in the semen d. a fluid-filled sac in the male scrotum 11. Why would a patient have an orchiopexy? a. to restore fertility b. to remove part of an enlarged vein c. to remove a testicle d. to repair an undescended testicle 12. Dre Bryant, who previously underwent a sterilization procedure, is newly remarried and would like to father

children. What procedure would Dre most likely require? a. vasovasostomy b. varicocelectomy c. orchiectomy d. orchiopexy 13. Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by a parasite? a. trichomoniasis b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. chlamydia 14. Jim French has been experiencing decrease in testosterone, low energy, depression, and difficulty sleeping Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15

and concentrating for past few months. Which term best describes Jim's symptoms? a. cryptorchidism b. orchitis c. andropause d. varicocele 15. What condition is a result of twisting of the spermatic cord leading into the testicle? a. testicular torsion b. testicular cancer c. hydrocele d. orchitis 16. Which condition is known as impotence? a. priapism b. erectile dysfunction c. premature ejaculation d. epididymitis 17. Which structure secretes a fluid known as precum? a. vas deferens b. penis c. bulbourethral glands d. urethra 18. What is the term describing the area between the scrotum and anus? a. perineum b. testicles c. spermatic cord d. epididymis 19. Where are sperm formed? a. epididymis b. spermatic cord c. scrotum d. seminiferous tubules 20. What does the word part in spermatogenesis mean? a. sperm b. creation c. swelling d. deficient Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 21. Which procedure prevents sperm from entering the ejaculate but does not change the volume of semen

created by the body? a. vasectomy b. vasovasostomy c. varicocelectomy d. orchiectomy 22. Which term is known as crabs? a. genital herpes b. syphilis c. pubic lice d. trichomoniasis 23. Which condition that occurs from muscle strain of the abdominal muscles? a. inguinal hernia b. testicular torsion c. varicocele d. hydrocele 24. Gabe O'Riley has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and wants to store sperm prior to treatment for

testicular cancer. What procedure will be performed? a. orchiectomy b. vasovasostomy c. orchiopexy d. cryopreservation 25. Which term is the whitish fluid containing sperm that is ejaculated through the urethra at the peak of male

sexual excitement? a. testosterone b. semen c. androgens d. precum 26. What term is a male or female reproductive cell? a. testosterone b. semen c. gamete d. androgens 27. Which structure is located at the base of the urinary bladder and open into the vas deferens as it joins the

urethra?

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Chapter 15 a. ejaculatory duct b. seminal vesicles c. bulbourethral glands d. urethral meatus 28. Which structure contains a vas deferens plus the arteries, veins, nerves and lymphatic vessels required by

each testicle? a. epididymis b. spermatic cord c. seminiferous tubules d. scrotum 29. Which structure aids in maintaining the ideal temperature for sperm formation? a. scrotum b. penis c. epididymis d. vas deferens 30. Which structure secretes a thick yellow substance that forms 60% of the fluid found in semen? a. seminal vesicles b. urethra c. bulbourethral glands d. seminiferous tubules 31. Which term is a condition in which the male reaches climax too soon? a. priapism b. premature ejaculation c. phimosis d. Peyronie's disease 32. Which sexually transmitted disease can also affect the mouth, throat, rectum, and joints in both men and

women? a. trichomoniasis b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. chlamydia 33. Which sexually transmitted disease is spread through contact with a chancre? a. trichomoniasis b. gonorrhea Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 c. syphilis d. chlamydia 34. Why would a patient have a varicocelectomy? a. to restore fertility b. to remove part of an enlarged vein c. to remove a testicle d. to repair an undescended testicle 35. One outcome of Seth Anderson's chemotherapy is the absence of sperm. What is the term for Seth's

condition? a. oligospermia b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hematospermia 36. What condition may cause sexual dysfunction in males? a. Peyronie's disease b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hydrocele 37. Juan Rush, who has been trying to have a baby with his partner without success, finds out he has a low

sperm count. What is the term for Juan's condition? a. oligospermia b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hematospermia 38. Which term is known as castration? a. bilateral orchiectomy b. vasectomy c. orchiopexy d. vasovasostomy 39. Which term has the word part that means surgical fixation? a. vasectomy b. orchiectomy c. vasovasostomy d. orchiopexy 40. Which sexually transmitted disease is transmitted through exposure to infected body fluids, particularly Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15

through sexual intercourse with an infected partner? a. human immunodeficiency virus b. human papillomavirus c. syphilis d. gonorrhea 41. Where is the foreskin located? a. seminiferous tubules b. epididymis c. scrotum d. penis 42. After experiencing itching and swelling of the tip of his uncircumcised penis, Guy Thibodeau finally makes

an appointment with his doctor. Which condition does Guy most likely have? a. epididymitis b. orchitis c. phimosis d. balanitis 43. While changing his diaper, Matthew Rey's mother notices a narrowing of the opening of his foreskin. She is

unable to retract it back to expose the glans penis. Which term best describes Matthew's condition? a. epididymitis b. orchitis c. phimosis d. cryptorchidism 44. Which sexually transmitted disease originated in an era when the mucus-like discharge was mistaken for

semen? a. gonorrhea b. syphilis c. trichomoniasis d. chlamydia 45. Which condition can be detected through the RPR test? a. gonorrhea b. syphilis c. pubic lice d. genital warts 46. Which sexually transmitted disease can be found in eyelashes or facial hair? a. pubic lice b. human papillomavirus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 c. syphilis d. chlamydia 47. Which sexually transmitted disease is one of the causes of urethritis in males? a. gonorrhea b. genital herpes c. chlamydia d. pubic lice 48. Which term has a word part that means swelling? a. varicocelectomy b. hematospermia c. cryptorchidism d. orchitis 49. Which term means the act of discharging semen from the body? a. erection b. torsion c. motile d. ejaculation 50. What term means limp? a. motility b. impotence c. flaccid d. castration 51. Which procedure is used to detect prostate cancer or tumors of the rectum? a. digital rectal exam b. testicular self-examination c. cryopreservation d. scrotal ultrasound 52. Which structure is included in the external male genitalia? a. vas deferens b. penis c. urethra d. bulbourethral glands 53. Which term has the word part that means male? a. andrologist b. genitourinary Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 c. balanitis d. hydrocele 54. Which condition is usually the result of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis? a. orchitis b. phimosis c. priapism d. Peyronie's disease 55. Which term has a word part that means side? a. gonorrhea b. bilateral c. hypogonadism d. spermatogenesis 56. Which term means an inflammation of the testicles? a. epididymitis b. orchitis c. phimosis d. balanitis 57. Where do sperm become motile? a. seminiferous tubules b. epididymis c. scrotum d. penis 58. Which term has a word part that means hidden? a. cryptorchidism b. genitourinary c. varicocelectomy d. oligospermia 59. Which condition is most common in newborns, especially premature infants, and usually disappears without

treatment? a. varicocele b. phimosis c. priapism d. hydrocele 60. Which condition is marked by the decrease in the male hormone testosterone? a. andropause Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 b. epididymitis c. orchitis d. balanitis 61. Which sexually transmitted disease infects the penis, scrotum, or anus? a. human papillomavirus b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. chlamydia 62. Which term is also used to describe the accumulation of fluid in any body cavity? a. hydrocele b. varicocele c. phimosis d. cryopreservation 63. Which procedure is used to resolve testicular torsion? a. vasectomy b. orchiectomy c. circumcision d. orchipexy 64. What secretes the thick, alkaline fluid that aids the motility of sperm during ejaculation? a. Bartholin's glands b. bulbourethral glands c. glans penis d. prostate gland 65. Which of these sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus? a. chlamydia b. genital herpes c. gonorrhea d. syphilis 66. Which condition is a developmental defect in which one testicle fails to descend into the scrotum? a. testicular torsion b. orchidectomy c. cryptorchidism d. azoospermia 67. What is the surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis?

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Chapter 15 a. circumcision b. orchiopexy c. orchiectomy d. vasectomy 68. For which sexually transmitted disease can antiviral drugs ease symptoms and suppress future outbreaks? a. pthiriasis b. genital warts c. genital herpes d. chlamydia 69. Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. trichomoniasis d. chlamydia 70. Which condition can occur from muscle strain or the progressive weaking of the abdominal muscles with

age? a. vasovasostomy b. varicocele c. testicular torsion d. inguinal hernia 71. Which term refers to the surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis? a. castration b. circumcision c. priapism d. cryptorchidism 72. Which term is also known as a testosterone deficiency? a. male hypogonadism b. priapism c. balanitis d. cryptorchidism 73. Which term is also known as an undescended testicle? a. andropause b. cryptorchidism c. orchitis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 d. erectile dysfunction 74. Which term is also known as penile curvature? a. Peyronie's disease b. priapism c. phimosis d. male hypogonadism 75. Which term can also occur in the legs and feet? a. hydrocele b. inguinal hernia c. varicose veins d. epididymitis 76. Which word part means deficient? a. hypob. andr c. hydr/o d. crypto 77. Which word part means penis? a. genit/o b. andr/o c. phall/i d. hydr/o 78. Which term contains the word part that means pertaining to? a. urologist b. genitourinary c. hydrocele d. orchitis 79. Which term contains a word part means abnormal condition? a. male hypogonadism b. cryptorchidism c. orchitis d. hydrocele 80. Which sexually transmitted disease can also cause cold sores or fever blisters on or around the mouth? a. gonorrhea Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 b. human papillomavirus c. human immunodeficiency virus d. herpes simplex virus type 1 81. Which term is also known as crabs? a. trichomoniasis b. herpes labialis c. pubic lice d. syphilis 82. Which sexually transmitted disease causes testicular swelling? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. chlamydia d. trichomoniasis 83. Which structure is the external opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans penis? a. urethra meatus b. bulbourethral glands c. seminal vesicles d. prostate gland 84. What is a narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis? a. balanitis b. phimosis c. erectile dysfunction d. testitis 85. Which term refers to a sperm count of less than 15 million/mL? a. oligospermia b. hematospermia c. azoospermia d. spermatogenesis

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The testing of freshly ejaculated semen to determine the volume plus the number, shape, size, and motility

of the sperm is called

.

87. The correct spelling of the term that prevents sperm from entering the ejaculate but does not change the

volume of semen created by the body is a/an Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 15 88. The correct spelling of the term that means a sore caused by syphilis is

.

89. The correct pronunciation of the term trichomoniasis is 90. The correct pronunciation of the term that means the repair of the cryptorchidism, which is an undescended

testicle, is

.

91. A highly contagious sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful urination and an abnormal

discharge from the penis or vagina is

.

92. The abbreviation for the condition that can affect the urethra, causing painful urination and an abnormal

discharge, as well as the mouth, throat, rectum, or joints is 93. The abbreviation for the condition that causes genital warts is

. .

94. The abbreviation for the procedure used to detect prostate cancer or tumors of the rectum is

.

95. The correct spelling of the term that means the absence of sperm in the semen is

.

96. The condition marked by a decrease of the male hormone testosterone is

.

97. The specialist focused on the treatment of conditions affecting male fertility and sexuality is a/an

.

98. The specialist who specializes in the treatment of sexually transmitted diseases and infections is a/an

.

99. A highly contagious sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum is

.

100. The term that describes the absence of sperm in the semen is

.

101. A procedure performed as an attempt to restore fertility to a vasectomized male is a/an

.

102. The long, narrow continuations of each epididymis is called the

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.

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Chapter 15 103. The retractable double-layered fold of skin and mucous membrane that covers and protects the glans penis

is the

.

104. The correct pronunciation of the term for the glands located just below the prostate gland is the

.

105. The correct pronunciation of the term defined as the process of sperm formation is

.

106. The glands that develop within the abdomen of the male fetus and normally descend into the scrotum

before or soon after birth are

.

107. A knot of varicose veins located on one side of the scrotum is a/an 108. The male gametes necessary to fertilize a female gamete is

. .

109. The term used to describe the accumulation of fluid in any body cavity is

.

110. The structure in the male serves both the reproductive and urinary systems is the

.

111. The correct pronunciation for the term that means relating to both the genital and urinary organs is

.

112. Syphilis is passed from person to person through direct contact with a

.

113. A highly contagious, commonly reported STD in the United States caused by a bacterium is

.

114. When present, symptoms in men include painful urination or a clear discharge from the penis with

.

115. The abbreviation for the procedure sometimes used to treat conditions related to testosterone loss is

.

116. The endoscopic surgery to move an undescended testicle into its normal position in the scrotum is known

as a/an

.

117. Any procedure rendering an individual (male or female) incapable of reproduction is

.

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Chapter 15 118. The condition caused by the testicles not producing sperm normally or by a problem preventing the sperm

from reaching the penis is

.

119. The surgical removal of one or both testicles is a/an

.

120. A sexually transmitted disease that is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis is

.

121. Alkaline fluid secreted into the semen that aids the motility of the sperm comes from the

.

122. The male sex organ that transports the sperm out of the body is the

.

123. The correct spelling of the term that means a steroid hormone secreted by the testicles and the adrenal

cortex is

.

124. The male sex hormones that are present in both men and women are called

.

125. A form of sexual dysfunction in which the penis is bent or curved during erection is

.

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Chapter 15 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. d 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. d 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. c 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. sperm count 87. vasectomy 88. chancre 89. trick-oh-moh-NYE-ah-sis 90. or-kee-oh-PECK-see 91. gonorrhea 92. GC 93. HPV 94. DRE 95. azoospermia 96. andropause 97. andrologist 98. venereologist 99. syphilis 100. azoospermia 101. vasovasostomy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15 102. vas deferens 103. foreskin 104. bul-boh-you-REE-thral 105. sper-mah-toh-JEN-eh-sis 106. testicles 107. varicocele 108. spermatozoa

sperm 109. hydrocele 110. urethra 111. jen-ih-toh-YOUR-in-air-ee 112. chancre 113. chlamydia 114. trichomoniasis 115. ART 116. orchiopexy 117. sterilization 118. azoospermia 119. orchidectomy 120. trichomoniasis 121. prostate gland 122. penis 123. testosterone 124. androgens 125. Peyronie's disease Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 15

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Chapter 16

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means uterus? a. gynec/o b. men/o c. vagin/o d. hyster/o 2. What combining form means female? a. gynec/o b. men/o c. vagin/o d. hyster/o 3. What combining form means vagina? a. orchid/o b. mast/o c. men/o d. colp/o 4. What does the combining form salping/o mean? a. placenta b. breast c. menstruation d. fallopian tube 5. Stella Adono has been experiencing irregular menstrual cycles, hot flashes, mood swings, and disturbed sleep

for the last three years. Which term best describes Stella's experience? a. menarche b. menopause c. andropause d. perimenopause 6. Kendra Jackson is pregnant with her first child. Kendra would best be described as what? a. nullipara b. primigravida c. primipara d. multiparous 7. What condition is a result of a hormone imbalance in females? a. polycystic ovary syndrome b. pelvic inflammatory disease Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 c. pyosalpinx d. priapism 8. What occurs in uterine prolapse? a. The uterus discharges whitish mucus. b. Tissue from the uterus attaches to other structures. c. Benign tumors form in the uterine walls. d. The uterus drops into the vagina.

9. What does the word root in endometriosis mean? a. within b. uterus c. abnormal condition d. benign tumors 10. Which term means an involuntary spasm of the pelvic floor muscles? a. vulvodynia b. vaginitis c. vaginismus d. vulvitis 11. Twenty-four-year-old Cher Gatsby experiences heavy menstrual bleeding both during her normal menstrual

cycle and at other times during the month. Which term best describes Cher's condition? a. menometrorrhagia b. dysmenorrhea c. oligomenorrhea d. amenorrhea 12. Which pregnancy complication is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria? a. preeclampsia b. placenta previa c. abruptio placentae d. ectopic pregnancy 13. Nancy Lawless is scheduled for an oophorectomy. What does this term mean? a. the surgical removal of one or both ovaries b. the surgical fixation of a prolapsed vagina c. the surgical removal of one or both fallopian tubes d. the surgical suturing of a tear in the vaginal wall 14. The name of which condition contains a term that means "out of place"? a. spontaneous abortion Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 b. placenta previa c. abruptio placentae d. ectopic pregnancy 15. Stacy Bing had one abortion. She delivered one child, her son Willy, at term. Stacy would best be described

as what? a. nullipara b. primigravida c. primipara d. multiparous 16. After three months of chronic burning, itching, and painful intercourse, Wanda Hicks makes an appointment

with her gynecologist. Which term best describes Wanda's chronic condition? a. vulvodynia b. vaginitis c. vaginismus d. vulvitis 17. Joni Wells is experiencing leukorrhea and makes an appointment with her primary care physician. What

term describes leukorrhea? a. The uterus discharges whitish mucus. b. Tissue from the uterus attaches to other structures. c. Benign tumors form in the uterine walls. d. The uterus drops into the vagina.

18. Which term refers to inflammation of the female reproductive organs? a. polycystic ovary syndrome b. pelvic inflammatory disease c. pyosalpinx d. cystocele 19. Dina Torrence has had several miscarriages but never delivered an infant to term. Which term would best

describe Dina? a. nullipara b. primigravida c. primipara d. multiparous 20. An 11-year-old girl would be most likely to experience what? a. menarche b. menopause Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 c. andropause d. perimenopause 21. Maria Vasquez, age 58, has not had a menstrual period in over one year. Which term best describes Maria's

experience? a. menarche b. menopause c. andropause d. perimenopause 22. Which condition means an accumulation of pus in a fallopian tube? a. polycystic ovary syndrome b. pelvic inflammatory disease c. pyosalpinx d. priapism 23. After recently using a new brand of bath soap, Brenda Wheeler has developed vulvitis, which is best

described as

.

a. chronic burning or itching of the vulva b. inflammation of the vagina lining c. involuntary spasms of the pelvic muscles d. inflammation of the vulva 24. What term refers to the external female genitalia? a. vulva b. mons pubis c. clitoris d. hymen 25. What is the dark-pigmented area on the breast? a. areola b. nipple c. follicle d. hymen 26. What part of the uterus rises during pregnancy? a. corpus b. perimetrium c. cervix d. fundus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 27. When is a zygote formed? a. during coitus b. during conception c. during implantation d. during gestation 28. What is colostrum? a. first feces of newborn b. greasy protective substance c. postpartum vaginal discharge d. specialized breast milk 29. What substance can cause breathing problems in a newborn if the neonate aspirates it during labor? a. meconium b. vernix c. lochia d. colostrum 30. What is another term for a uterine fibroid? a. dermoid cyst b. ovarian cyst c. myoma d. fibroadenoma 31. What is present at birth and may contain a variety of tissues, including teeth or hair? a. dermoid cyst b. ovarian cyst c. myoma d. fibroadenoma 32. What is vernix? a. first feces of newborn b. greasy protective substance c. postpartum vaginal discharge d. specialized breast milk 33. Which term refers to a developing baby from the ninth week of pregnancy to the time of birth? a. zygote b. embryo c. fetus d. neonate Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 34. Where are the fimbriae located? a. ovaries b. mammary glands c. uterus d. fallopian tubes 35. What term refers to an organ of sensitive, erectile tissue? a. vulva b. mons pubis c. clitoris d. hymen 36. Thirty-four-year-old Miller Sook has her period twice in one month. What term best describes Miller's

condition? a. polymenorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. oligomenorrhea d. amenorrhea 37. Deborah Smith's vaginal yeast infection has resulted in vaginal inflammation. Which term describes this

condition? a. vulvodynia b. vaginitis c. vaginismus d. vulvitis 38. Sonia Juricki has given birth to four children. Sonia would best be described as which? a. nullipara b. primigravida c. primipara d. multiparous 39. Which term describes the removal of a cone-shaped specimen of tissue from the cervix? a. colposcopy b. sarcocolpopexy c. conization d. condom 40. What receives a mature ovum when it leaves the ovary? a. fallopian tube b. fimbriae c. infundibulum Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 d. uterus 41. What is an inflammation of a fallopian tube? a. mastitis b. endometriosis c. pyosalpinx d. salpingitis 42. What is the tough, membranous outer layer of the uterus? a. endometrium b. perimetrium c. myometrium d. corpus 43. What condition occurs when the ovaries stop functioning before age 40 due to disease, a hormonal disorder,

or surgical removal? a. climacteric b. menarche c. premature menopause d. perimenopause 44. What is the term for a woman who has given birth two or more times? a. multiparous b. primigravida c. nullipara d. primipara 45. Which term is also known as menses? a. menarche b. menstruation c. menopause d. menometrorrhagia 46. From implantation through the eighth week of pregnancy, the developing child is known as which? a. zygote b. embryo c. fetus d. neonate 47. What is the term for the first movement of the fetus that can be felt by the mother? a. Braxton Hicks contractions b. labor and delivery Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 c. quickening d. conception 48. What is the postpartum vaginal discharge that typically continues for four to six weeks after childbirth? a. vernix b. meconium c. colostrum d. lochia 49. Which term refers to a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the

female reproductive system? a. neonatologist b. gynecologist c. infertility specialist d. obstetrician 50. What is a cosmetic operation on the breasts performed to increase breast size? a. mammoplasty b. breast reduction c. breast augmentation d. mastopexy 51. Which term is also known as a complete hysterectomy? a. hysterectomy b. total hysterectomy c. radical hysterectomy d. salpingo-oophorectomy 52. What general term refers to a measure taken to lessen the likelihood of pregnancy? a. contraceptive b. diaphragm c. condom d. intrauterine device 53. What is a temporary organ that forms within the uterus to allow the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and

waste products between the mother and fetus? a. chorion b. afterbirth c. umbilical cord d. placenta 54. What term means an inflammation of the lining of the vagina?

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Chapter 16 a. vaginal candidiasis b. vulvodynia c. vaginitis d. vulvitis 55. What pregnancy results from the fertilization of a single egg cell by a single sperm that divides to form two

embryos? a. identical twins b. fraternal twins c. multiples d. multiparous 56. Which term is characterized by pain during sexual intercourse? a. pyosalpinx b. pelvic inflammatory disease c. puerperium d. dyspareunia 57. Which term refers to the final stage of pregnancy? a. antepartum b. labor and delivery c. postpartum d. cephalic presentation 58. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does a mature egg leave the ovary and travel toward the fallopian

tube? a. menstrual phase b. follicular phase c. ovulation phase d. luteal phase 59. What occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy? a. The mother feels quickening. b. The mother experiences contractions. c. The embryo becomes a fetus. d. The fetus is able to kick and stretch.

60. What does the word root loch mean? a. none b. pregnant c. childbirth Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 d. female 61. Which prefix means first? a. nullib. peric. anted. primi62. Which noninvasive test measures the overall health of the fetus? a. fetal scalp pH testing b. group B strep test c. biophysical profile test d. chorionic villus sampling 63. Which is a probable sign of pregnancy? a. fetal movement b. frequent urination c. amenorrhea d. positive pregnancy test 64. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. nullipara b. colporhaphy c. cervicitis d. eclampsia 65. What does the combining form in the term cystocele mean? a. bladder b. vagina c. fallopian tube d. cervix 66. Which is the correct pronunciation of dyspareunia? a. DIS-pare-nee-ah b. dis-PAH-roe-nee-ah c. dis-pah-ROO-nee-ah d. disp-AYR-oon-ee-ah 67. Which term means the interruption or termination of pregnancy before the fetus is viable? a. oligomenorrhea b. abortion Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 c. metrorrhagia d. ectopic pregnancy 68. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. infundibulum b. myometrium c. oogenesis d. climasteric 69. What occurs during hyperemesis gravidarum? a. vaginal bleeding b. darkening skin c. spontaneous abortion d. excessive vomiting 70. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. lochia b. hypomenorrhea c. hysterosalpingraphy d. vaginismus 71. Which test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes during pregnancy? a. fetal scalp pH testing b. group B strep test c. glucose tolerance test d. chorionic villus sampling 72. The outcome of which test detects if a fetus is at increased risk for a chromosome abnormality such as Down

syndrome? a. contraction stress test b. group B strep test c. glucose tolerance test d. first trimester screening 73. Which term refers to a healthcare professional who assists in labor and delivery? a. neonatologist b. gynecologist c. infertility specialist d. certified midwife Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 74. Which is the correct pronunciation of candidiasis in the term vaginal candidiasis? a. KAN-did-eye-ah-sis b. kan-DID-ee-ah-sis c. kan-dih-DYE-ah-sis d. kan-DEE-eye-ah-sis 75. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. cauterization b. aireola c. lactiferous ducts d. adnexa 76. What does the suffix -pareunia mean? a. flow b. coitus c. hernia d. inflammation 77. Which term means an unusually small amount of menstrual flow during a shortened regular menstrual

period? a. oligomenorrhea b. hypomenorrhea c. metrorrhagia d. menorrhagia 78. Which is the correct pronunciation of galactorrhea? a. gah-lack-toh-REE-ah b. GUH-lack-tor-ee-ah c. GAL-ack-tore-ee-ah d. gale-ACK-tor-ee-ah 79. What does the suffix -rrhea mean? a. discharge b. coitus c. hernia d. inflammation 80. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. lochia b. menarche c. fibroadinoma Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 d. eclampsia 81. Which invasive test assesses for abnormalities in the developing fetus? a. fetal scalp pH testing b. group B strep test c. glucose tolerance test d. chorionic villus sampling 82. Which combining form means egg? a. o/o b. nat/o c. oophor/o d. vulv/o 83. What does the suffix -gravida mean? a. none b. pregnant c. creation d. female 84. What occurs during the second trimester of pregnancy? a. The fetus puts pressure on the mother's organs. b. The mother experiences Braxton Hicks contractions. c. The cervix gradually softens, shortens, and becomes thinner. d. The fetus pushes against the mother's bladder and diaphragm.

85. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the endometrial lining of the uterus slough off and leave the

body? a. menstrual phase b. follicular phase c. ovulation phase d. luteal phase

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. Part of the external female genitalia, the rounded, fleshy prominence located over the pubic symphysis is the

.

87. HSG is the abbreviation for 88. The abbreviation IUD stands for a/an Powered by Cognero

. .

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Chapter 16

89. The abnormal absence of menstrual periods for 90 days or more is known as

.

90. The abbreviation for premenstrual dysphoric disorder is

.

91. The medical term that describes a newborn during the first four weeks after birth is a/an

.

92. The abbreviation for hysteroscopy is

.

93. The more serious form of preeclampsia is known as

.

94. The separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus is known as

.

95. A specialized radiographic examination of the uterus and fallopian tubes is a/an

.

96. The term for a woman during her first pregnancy who has never given birth to a viable child is

.

97. The abnormal implantation of the placenta in the lower portion of the uterus is

.

98. Fluid-filled sacs in or on an ovary are

.

99. A surgical puncture with a needle to obtain a specimen of amniotic fluid is known as

.

100. A physician who specializes in providing medical care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and

immediately thereafter is a/an

.

101. The abbreviation for a group B strep test a/an

.

102. The term that describes the production of breast milk in women who are not breastfeeding is

.

103. The transition phase between regular menstrual periods and no periods at all is known as Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16

.

104. The process of forming and secreting milk from the breasts as nourishment for the infant is

.

105. The medical term that means pain in the breast is

.

106. The presence of precancerous changes in the cells lining the cervix that may be detected on a Pap smear is

.

107. The medical term that describes the surgical procedure to affix sagging breasts in a more elevated position

is

.

108. An excess growth of glandular and connective tissue in the breast is a/an

.

109. The medical term that describes abdominal pain caused by uterine cramps during a menstrual period is

.

110. A dangerous condition in which a fertilized egg is implanted and begins to develop outside of the uterus is

.

111. A physician who works with women whose pregnancy is considered high risk is a/an

.

112. The term that describes light or infrequent menstruation in a woman with previously normal periods is

.

113. The condition in which the uterus sags into the vagina is

.

114. The surgical removal of one or both ovaries is a/an

.

115. If fertilization does not occur, hormone levels change to cause the breakdown of the uterine endometrium

and the beginning of a new menstrual cycle during the 116. The term for the act of giving birth is

. .

117. The abbreviation for nursery offering specialized care for premature or critically ill infants is Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16

.

118. A physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the newborn is a/an

.

119. The abbreviation for amniocentesis is

.

120. Also called incompetent cervix, a condition of weakened tissue in the cervix that may cause the cervix to

open too soon, leading to late miscarriage or a premature birth is .

121. The word root in the term hyperpigmentation means

.

122. A condition in which there is less amniotic fluid than normal, usually caused when the amniotic sac

ruptures, is

. th

123. The medical term for a fetus born before the 37 week of gestation is a/an

.

124. An instrument used to enlarge the opening of the vagina during the examination of the cervix and vagina is

a/an

.

125. A test performed to detect an unusually high level of the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) hormone in

either a blood or urine specimen is a/an

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.

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Chapter 16 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 26. d 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 52. a 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. d 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. b 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 77. b 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. a 83. b 84. a 85. a 86. mons pubis 87. hysterosalpingography 88. intrauterine device 89. amenorrhea 90. PMDD 91. neonate 92. HYS 93. eclampsia 94. abruptio placentae 95. hysterosalpingography 96. primigravida 97. placenta previa 98. ovarian cysts 99. amniocentesis 100. obstetrician 101. GBS test Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 16 102. galactorrhea 103. perimenopause 104. lactation 105. mastalgia 106. cervical dysplasia 107. mastopexy 108. fibroadenoma 109. dysmenorrhea 110. ectopic pregnancy 111. perinatologist 112. oligomenorrhea 113. uterine prolapse 114. oophorectomy 115. luteal phase 116. parturition 117. NICU 118. neonatologist 119. AMN 120. cervical insufficiency 121. color 122. oligohydramnios 123. premature infant 124. speculum 125. pregnancy test

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Chapter 17

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the suffix -tropic mean? a. condition of b. seizure c. obsessive preoccupation d. having an affinity for 2. What means abnormal fear? a. phobia b. -mania c. psych/o d. anxi/o 3. Reed Entende is no longer able to drive because he is at risk of suddenly falling asleep without warning.

What is the term for Reed's condition? a. sleep deprivation b. parasomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 4. While visiting Paris for the first time, Lena Sanchez panics when her friends suggest going to the top of the

Eiffel Tower. Which term means fear of heights? a. claustrophobia b. agoraphobia c. panic disorder d. acrophobia 5. A patient who is diagnosed with dyslexia has difficulty with what? a. interacting in social situations b. eating a balanced diet c. controlling impulses d. processing symbols correctly 6. What is true about a patient who is diagnosed with a factitious disorder? a. The patient acts sick but does not have an actual illness. b. The patient has lost contact with reality and cannot function socially. c. The patient shows a complete lack of empathy for others. d. The patient experiences extreme mood swings.

7. Which describes a false personal belief that is maintained, despite evidence it is incorrect?

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Chapter 17 a. delusion b. hallucination c. euphoria d. compulsion 8. Which disorder is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight? a. social anxiety disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. bipolar disorder d. dyslexia 9. Josh Norr prefers to take the stairs instead of the elevator because he feels anxious while inside enclosed

spaces. What term describes Josh's condition? a. claustrophobia b. agoraphobia c. panic disorder d. acrophobia 10. A patient who has persistent difficulty with remaining asleep has which type of condition? a. insomnia b. parasomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 11. Patients with which condition may have difficulty leaving their homes? a. claustrophobia b. agoraphobia c. panic disorder d. acrophobia 12. Which part of the brain helps regulate sexual and behavioral function? a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus 13. Which part of the brain is responsible for long-term memory and learning? a. thalamus b. amygdala c. hippocampus Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 d. hypothalamus 14. Which is a specialist who specializes in treating chemical dependencies, emotional problems, and mental

illness? a. social worker b. psychologist c. licensed mental health counselor d. psychiatrist 15. Which disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personalities? a. dissociative identity disorder b. persistent depressive disorder c. kleptomania d. schizophrenia 16. A patient with seasonal affective disorder is most likely to experience what? a. depression b. mania c. binge eating d. compulsions 17. Gerry Wilder takes which type of medication for his bipolar disorder? a. antidepressant b. antipsychotic c. anxiolytic d. mood stabilizer 18. A patient with which condition is most likely to demonstrate uncontrollable physical and/or verbal "tics"

such as yelling offensive words? a. paraphilic disorder b. hoarding disorder c. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Tourette syndrome 19. Which part of the brain produces sensations by relaying impulses to and from the cerebrum and the sense

organs of the body? a. thalamus b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus 20. Which term means the mind, spirit, or soul?

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Chapter 17 a. affect b. emotion c. psyche d. personality 21. Which term means the outward appearance of a person's mood or emotional state? a. affect b. defense mechanisms c. emotion d. regression 22. Which term means a person's unique characteristics that affect how they think and behave? a. sublimation b. emotion c. projection d. personality 23. Which chemical affects alertness and arousal? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. glutamate d. norepinephrine 24. Which chemical inhibits some nerve cell impulses in the brain to provide an increased sense of calm? a. gamma-aminobutyric acid b. endorphins c. dopamine d. glutamate 25. Which chemical is sometimes linked to mood disorders? a. endorphins b. serotonin c. norepinephrine d. glutamate 26. Which term is an anxiety disorder where a child who is capable of speech is unable to speak or communicate

in certain settings? a. body dysmorphic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. selective mutism d. autism spectrum disorder Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 27. Which term is also called social phobia? a. social anxiety disorder b. claustrophobia c. agoraphobia d. acrophobia 28. Which term refers to a specialist who evaluates and treats emotional problems and mental illness? a. social worker b. psychiatrist c. psychologist d. licensed mental health counselor 29. Which condition was previously known as multiple personality disorder? a. bipolar disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. conversion disorder d. factitious disorder by proxy 30. What is administered to temporarily relieve anxiety and to reduce tension? a. antipsychotic drug b. mood-stabilizing drug c. psychotropic drug d. anxiolytic drug 31. Which term is characterized by the intentional creation of false or grossly exaggerated physical or

psychological symptoms in order to gain incentives such as avoiding work? a. bulimia nervosa b. conversion disorder c. malingering d. somatic symptom disorder 32. What is the accidental or intentional use of an illegal drug or prescription medicine in an amount higher than

what is safe or normal? a. drug overdose b. drug abuse c. substance abuse d. alcoholism 33. What is a chronic pattern of inner experience and behavior that causes serious problems with relationships

and work? a. psychotic disorder Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 b. anxiety disorder c. impulse control disorder d. personality disorder 34. Which type of therapy focuses on changing thoughts that are affecting a person's emotions and actions? a. behavioral therapy b. cognitive behavioral therapy c. hypnotherapy d. psychoanalysis 35. Which medication works by increasing activity in certain areas of the brain to increase concentration and

wakefulness? a. stimulant b. antipsychotic drug c. antidepressant d. antipsychotic drug 36. Which type of disorder is found in children of normal intelligence who have difficulties learning specific

skills? a. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. dyslexia c. learning disabilities d. intellectual disability 37. Which treatment uses brief, powerful, repetitive electronic magnetic pulses to alter electrical pathways in the

brain? a. transcranial magnetic stimulation b. electroconvulsive therapy c. hypnotherapy d. exposure therapy 38. Which disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive worrying? a. panic disorder b. generalized anxiety disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. agoraphobia 39. Which is the prolonged or abnormal inability to sleep? a. sleep deprivation b. somnambulism c. insomnia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 d. narcolepsy 40. Which treatment is based on the idea that mental disorders have underlying causes stemming from

childhood? a. psychoanalysis b. psychotherapy c. behavioral therapy d. biofeedback 41. Which treatment is an evidence-based therapy for PTSD? a. biofeedback b. electroconvulsive therapy c. cognitive behavioral therapy d. EMDR 42. Which drug is used to treat treatment-resistant depression? a. MAOIs b. SSRI c. SNRIs d. EDMR 43. Which tool is an extensive personality test? a. GAD-7 b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale c. Minnesoat Multiphasic Personality Interview d. PHQ-9 44. Which condition is also known as sleepwalking? a. insomnia b. parasomnia c. narcolepsy d. somnambulism 45. Which disorder is referred to as Munchausen syndrome? a. factitious disorder b. conversion disorder c. functional neurologic disorders d. illness anxiety disorder 46. Which term means artificial? a. illicit Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 b. purge c. factitious d. cessation 47. Which disorder was previously known as dysthymia? a. persistent depressive disorder b. seasonal affective disorder c. bipolar disorder d. dissociative identify disorder 48. Which of the following is a common symptom of depression? a. hyperarousal b. feeling tense or jumpy c. lack of concentration d. heart palpitations 49. Which condition is motivated by incentives such as avoiding work? a. hallucination b. malingering c. paranoia d. delusion 50. Which condition is a chronic pattern of inner experience and behavior that causes serious problems with

relationships and work? a. conversion disorder b. psychotic disorder c. somatic symptom disorder d. personality disorder 51. Samantha Fox was found to be injuring herself by using a rubber band to cut off circulation. What condition

describes her behavior? a. Munchausen syndrome b. schizophrenia c. catatonic behavior d. schizoaffective disorder 52. Which term contains a word part that means split? a. acrophobia b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. trichotillomania Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 d. schizophrenia 53. Which term means the outward appearance of a person's mood or emotional state? a. affect b. displacement c. emotion d. repression 54. Which term is also known as a developmental reading disorder? a. intellectual disability b. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. dyslexia d. Asperger's syndrome 55. Which term uses an IQ test for testing relative intelligence? a. intellectual disability b. dyslexia c. conduct disorder d. Tourette syndrome 56. Which condition is characterized by cycles of severe mood changes? a. persistent depressive disorder b. oppositional defiant disorder c. bipolar disorder d. impulse control disorders 57. Which term was formerly referred to as multiple personality disorder? a. oppositional defiant disorder b. impulse control disorders c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder d. dissociative identity disorder 58. Which term with a word part that means seizure? a. parasomnia b. narcolepsy c. insomnia d. paraphilic disorder 59. Which test was developed as a way to assess a person's personality and emotional functioning by analyzing

their interpretation of inkblot images? a. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 b. PHQ-9 c. Rorschach test d. GAD-7 60. Which drug is also known as a tranquilizer? a. mood stabilizer b. stimulant c. antipsychotic drug d. anxiolytic drug 61. Which level of care may be voluntary or involuntary depending on the condition of the patient? a. outpatient b. inpatient c. residential d. day treatment 62. Which treatment focuses on changing thoughts and behaviors that are affecting a person's emotions and

functioning? a. cognitive behavioral therapy b. biofeedback c. exposure therapy d. hypnotherapy 63. To which drug category does benzodiazepines belong? a. antidepressant drug b. antipsychotic drug c. anxiolytic drug d. stimulant 64. Which drug is used as an emergency treatment for opioid overdose? a. benzodiazepines b. methadone c. stimulant d. Narcan 65. Which chemical plays an important role in learning? a. endorphins b. glutamate c. dopamine d. norepinephrine 66. Which chemical is a hormone released by the adrenal glands?

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Chapter 17 a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. endorphins d. dopamine 67. Which part of the limbic system plays an important part in evaluating events for importance? a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus 68. Which term is sometimes referred to as flat? a. psyche b. affect c. emotion d. projection 69. Which term is defined as the lack of interest in formerly pleasurable activities? a. impulse b. apathy c. anhedonia d. emaciated 70. Which specialist evaluates and treats emotional problems and mental illness? a. social worker b. psychiatrist c. licensed professional counselor d. psychologist 71. Which is a common symptom of anxiety? a. severe insomnia b. emotional numbing c. feelings of apprehension or dread d. lack of concentration 72. Which term can become antisocial personality disorder if untreated? a. bipolar disorder b. impulse control disorders c. dissociative identify disorder d. oppositional defiant disorder Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 73. Which disorder can lead to an increase in impulsive behaviors due to low levels of serotonin? a. impulse control disorders b. bipolar disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. social anxiety disorder 74. Which disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with perceived flaws in a person's own appearance? a. bulimia nervosa b. adjustment disorder c. body dysmorphic disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 75. Which term is defined as intense anxiety caused by persistent suspicion and mistrust of someone or

something? a. paranoia b. psychosis c. delusion d. hallucination 76. Chronic marijuana use is associated with which term? a. malingering b. schizophrenia c. delirium tremens d. factitious disorder 77. Which term is defined as a condition where a person's sex at birth does not match the gender with which

they currently identify? a. personality disorder b. malingering c. gender dysphoria d. body dysmorphic disorder 78. Which term describes children who have significant developmental delays, including speech and language? a. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. autism c. dyslexia d. intellectual disability 79. Which term is characterized by extreme pickiness that can interfere with adequate nutrition? a. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder b. anorexia nervosa Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 c. bulimia nervosa d. binge eating disorder 80. Which condition can cause the patient to become emaciated and malnourished? a. impulse control disorders b. bulimia nervosa c. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder d. anorexia nervosa 81. Which condition is classified in the cluster characterized by anxious, fearful behavior? a. paranoid personality disorder b. schizoid personality disorder c. avoidant personality disorder d. narcissistic personality disorder 82. Which condition is classified in the cluster characterized by dramatic, emotional behavior? a. borderline personality disorder b. dependent personality disorder c. schizotypal personality disorder d. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder 83. Which term is classified as disorders because of either personal distress or psychological or physical distress

that they can cause to others? a. factitious disorder b. gender dysphoria c. parasomnia d. paraphilic disorders 84. Which substance produces temporary changes affecting the mind, emotions, and behavior? a. methadone b. psychotropic drug c. naloxone d. norepinephrine 85. Which term describes chemical substances that make it possible for messages to cross from the synapse of a

neuron to the target receptor? a. genes b. thalamus c. amygdala d. neurotransmitters Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 86. Which term is defined as the pushing away of negative experiences or thoughts into the unconscious? a. repression b. sublimation c. denial d. regression

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

87. Excessive skin picking due to stress is

.

88. A disorder characterized by repeated deliberate fire setting in order to release pent-up emotion is

.

89. A disorder characterized by repeatedly stealing objects neither for personal use nor for their monetary value

is

.

90. A bout of depression associated with the decrease in hours of daylight during winter months is

.

91. The correct pronunciation for the term that means an eating disorder characterized by frequent episodes of

binge eating following by compensatory behaviors to purge the food is

.

92. The correct pronunciation for the term that is a false personal belief that is maintained despite obvious proof

or evidence to the contrary is

.

93. The correct spelling for the term known as sleepwalking is

.

94. The correct spelling for the test developed as a way to assess a person's personality and emotional

functioning by analyzing their interpretation of inkblot images is

.

95. The drug commonly used as a first-line treatment against depression is

.

96. The term that means having a strong dependence on a substance is

.

97. A condition that results in significant developmental delays, difficulty developing normal social

relationships, and frequently having poor communication skills is

.

98. A persistent, irrational fear of a specific thing or situation, strong enough to cause significant distress is a/an

.

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Chapter 17 99. The disorder involving sudden and severe mental changes or seizures due to alcohol withdrawal is known as

.

100. The term that describes a sleep disorder consisting of recurring episodes of falling asleep during the day is

.

101. The psychotic disorder characterized by withdrawal from reality, illogical patterns of thinking, delusions,

and hallucinations, as well as other disturbances, is known as

.

102. A condition in which individuals act as if they have a physical or mental illness when they are not really

sick is a/an

.

103. Mental conditions characterized by fear that is out of proportion to the real danger in the situation are called

.

104. Physical or emotional shock or injury is called

.

105. The term for restlessness or a continuing excess of movement is

.

106. The correct pronunciation for the term defined as a learning disability characterized by substandard reading

due to an inability of the brain to process symbols correctly is

.

107. The abbreviation for the condition characterized by distress and excessive focus on physical complaints

that are out of proportion to any physician findings or disease is

.

108. The abbreviation for the treatment known as electroshock therapy is

.

109. The abbreviation for the term previously known as dysthymia is

.

110. The correct spelling for the term that means a disconnect between a person's thoughts and their identity or

behaviors is

.

111. The correct spelling for the term that means the inability to enjoy oneself is

.

112. The correct pronunciation for the term known as an antianxiety drug is a/an 113. The drug used to treat treatment-resistant depression is

. .

114. The drug administered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood that are associated with Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17

neurological and psychiatric illnesses is a/an

.

115. The therapy used for treating anxiety disorders including phobias is

.

116. Therapy focused on changing thoughts and behaviors that are affecting a person's emotions and functioning

is

.

117. Therapy which works to replace a thought or emotion associated with something feared with an alternative

positive thought or emotion is called

.

118. The abbreviation for the term that means a condition with different levels of symptom severity in which a

young child has difficulty developing normal social relationships and communication skills is .

119. The first appearance of the signs and symptoms of an illness is usually before the age of 13 is called

.

120. The condition in which a person is constantly distrustful of other is

.

121. The term defined as the ability to recognize and understand another person's mental and emotional state is

.

122. A combination of schizophrenia symptoms with bipolar or depressive disorder symptoms is

.

123. The brand-name drug that blocks the effects of opioids, which can reverse or reduce the respiratory

depression associated with opioid overdose is

.

124. An extensive personality test used to assess for several mental health disorders is

.

125. Insomnia and heart palpitations are caused by the overuse of a/an

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.

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Chapter 17 Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. d 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. c 82. a 83. d 84. b 85. d 86. a 87. excoriation disorder 88. pyromania 89. kleptomania 90. seasonal affective disorder 91. buh-LEE-mee-ah ner-VOH-sah 92. dih-LOO-zhun 93. somnambulism 94. Rorschach test 95. SSRI

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor 96. addiction 97. autism 98. phobia 99. delirium tremens 100. narcolepsy 101. schizophrenia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 102. factitious disorder 103. anxiety disorders 104. trauma 105. hyperactivity 106. dis-LECK-see-ah 107. SSD 108. ECT 109. PDD 110. dissociation 111. anhedonia 112. ang-zee-oh-LIT-ick 113. MAOIs

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors 114. antipsychotic drug 115. exposure therapy 116. cognitive behavioral therapy 117. systematic desensitization 118. ASD 119. childhood onset 120. paranoid personality disorder 121. empathy 122. schizoaffective disorder 123. Narcan 124. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

MMPI Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 17 125. stimulant

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Chapter 18

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the first main period of human development called? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. neonate d. adolescence 2. What is an Apgar score used to evaluate? a. newborn hearing b. newborn growth c. newborn heart function d. newborn physical status 3. When does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend that a child begin having yearly well-child

visits? a. 12 months old b. 15 months old c. 2 years old d. 3 years old 4. When does tooth eruption normally begin? a. around age 3 months b. around age 6 months c. around age 9 months d. around age 12 months 5. Which primary tooth typically erupts first? a. upper lateral incisor b. first upper molar c. lower central incisor d. lower canine 6. Which is optimal nutrition for the first 12 months of life? a. formula b. solid foods c. breast milk d. calcium 7. Which characterizes Tanner Stage 2 for both males and females? a. downy pubic hair b. no pubic hair Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 c. terminal hair overlying pubic region d. scant terminal hair 8. Because Sam contracted chicken pox at age 3, she has a. natural

immunity against this disease.

b. vaccine c. active d. passive 9. Which vaccine protects against diptheria? a. Varicella vaccine b. RV vaccine c. DTaP vaccine d. IPV vaccine 10. What does the PCV12 vaccine protect against? a. pertussis b. pneumococcus c. meningococcal disease d. influenza 11. Which medical professional specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the newborn? a. pediatric nurse practitioner b. neonatologist c. pediatric endocrinologist d. pediatrician 12. Which prefix means new? a. conb. dysc. neod. en13. Which combining form means formation? a. fet/o b. ped/o c. umbilic/o d. genit/o 14. What does the combining form men/o mean?

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Chapter 18 a. beginning b. menstruation c. born d. lice 15. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a lung condition that most affects premature babies; what does the suffix in

the term dysplasia mean? a. bad b. field of medicine c. inflammation d. formation 16. A newborn who is born without enough surfactant most likely has which condition? a. colic b. oral thrush c. jaundice d. respiratory distress syndrome 17. An infant with a scaly and itchy scalp most likely has which condition? a. croup b. strabismus c. cradle cap d. atresia 18. The itchy rash caused by contact with poison ivy is an example of which? a. systemic reaction b. allergen c. localized allergic response d. anaphylaxis 19. Anorexia nervosa is considered a/an a. neurodevelopmental disorder

.

b. fungal infection c. communicable disease d. eating disorder 20. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. anencephaly b. erythema infectiousum c. spina bifida Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 d. otitis media 21. Which vaccine protects against human papillomavirus? a. HPV vaccine b. Hib vaccine c. MMR vaccine d. HepA vaccine 22. Down syndrome and trisomy 18 are examples of a. congenital anomalies

.

b. neural tube defects c. chromosomal congenital disorders d. neurodevelopmental disorders 23. Which is another term for positional plagiocephaly? a. torticollis b. hip dysplasia c. strabismus d. flat head syndrome 24. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. meconeum b. croup c. circumcision d. puberty 25. Which prefix means bad? a. conb. dysc. neod. en26. Stridor and a barking cough are characteristic of which condition? a. croup b. strabismus c. cradle cap d. atresia 27. An infant with greater-than-normal amounts of bilirubin has which condition? a. colic b. oral thrush Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 c. jaundice d. respiratory distress syndrome 28. Which is the term for the age of an infant since birth? a. gestational age b. chronologic age c. corrected age d. adjusted age 29. What does the combining form nat/o mean? a. beginning b. menstruation c. born d. lice 30. What period of human development ends with puberty? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. childhood d. adolescence 31. What does the MenACWY vaccine protect against? a. pertussis b. pneumococcus c. meningococcal disease d. influenza 32. Autism spectrum disorder is considered a/an a. neurodevelopmental disorder

.

b. fungal infection c. communicable disease d. eating disorder 33. Which primary care doctor focuses on the care and treatment of teens and young adults? a. child psychiatrist b. neonatologist c. pediatric endocrinologist d. adolescent medicine physician 34. Which term is spelled incorrectly?

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Chapter 18 a. anencephaly b. roseola c. spina bifida d. impatigo 35. Which term refers to the protrusion of a part or structure through the tissues that normally contain it? a. hernia b. torticollis c. anencephaly d. atresia 36. The presence of an extra toe is an example of a/an

.

a. congenital anomaly b. neural tube defect c. chromosomal congenital disorder d. neurodevelopmental disorder 37. What does the word root in the term scoliosis mean? a. bronchioles b. stomach c. curved d. causing death 38. Which is the correct pronunciation of acne vulgaris? a. ack-NEE VUL-air-ris b. ACK-nee VULG-ah-rus c. ack-NEE vol-GAR-iss d. ACK-nee vul-GAY-ris 39. Which contagious condition is caused by bacteria? a. impetigo b. scabies c. hand, foot, and mouth disease d. pediculosis 40. What period of human development spans ages 1-3? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. neonate d. adolescence Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 41. Which vaccine protects against rotavirus? a. Varicella vaccine b. RV vaccine c. DTaP vaccine d. IPV vaccine 42. Eleven-year-old Max is sick with gastroenteritis; what does the combining form in this term mean? a. conjunctiva b. navel c. bronchioles d. stomach 43. The number of weeks since the first day of the birth mother's last menstrual period would be considered an

infant's

.

a. gestational age b. chronologic age c. corrected age d. adjusted age 44. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. bronchiolitis b. roseola c. gasteroenteritis d. bulimia nervosa 45. Which is the correct pronunciation of nocturnal enuresis? a. NOCK-turn-all EN-your-ees-iss b. noct-ERN-al en-OR-ee-siss c. NOCT-ern-all EEN-your-eez-is d. nock-TER-nal en-you-REE-sis 46. Which condition is also known as coxsackievirus? a. tinea b. scabies c. hand, foot, and mouth disease d. pediculosis 47. Which condition, characterized by a high fever and peeling skin, may cause lasting heart disease if

untreated? a. Kawasaki disease b. rickets Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 c. nocturnal enuresis d. urinary tract infection 48. Which medical professional has specialized advanced training in working with children and adolescents? a. pediatric nurse practitioner b. neonatologist c. pediatric endocrinologist d. pediatric dentist 49. Which is true about type 1 diabetes? a. It is an insulin resistance disorder. b. It requires daily insulin injections. c. Its onset coincides with times of transition. d. It causes the body to secrete more insulin.

50. Which combining form means navel? a. fet/o b. ped/o c. umbilic/o d. genit/o 51. Which vaccine protects against chicken pox? a. Varicella vaccine b. RV vaccine c. DTaP vaccine d. IPV vaccine 52. Which condition is caused by a yeast infection? a. colic b. oral thrush c. jaundice d. respiratory distress syndrome 53. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. adolescense b. colostrum c. gonads d. menarche 54. An abnormal sideways curvature of the spine is characteristic of which condition?

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Chapter 18 a. Kawasaki disease b. rickets c. juvenile idiopathic arthritis d. scoliosis 55. A child who is extremely picky about the food they will eat, leading to nutritional deficiencies and growth

issues, most likely has

.

a. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder b. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. epilepsy d. gastroenteritis 56. What does the word root enter mean? a. conjunctiva b. intestine c. bronchioles d. stomach 57. A newborn whose brain and skull have not fully developed has which condition? a. hernia b. torticollis c. anencephaly d. atresia 58. Which condition is caused by a lack of vitamin D? a. Kawasaki disease b. rickets c. nocturnal enuresis d. urinary tract infection 59. What does the suffix in the term enuresis mean? a. urination b. abnormal condition c. curved d. causing death 60. What period of human development lasts about one year? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. childhood Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 d. adolescence 61. Which vaccine protects against Haemophilus influenzae type b? a. HPV vaccine b. Hib vaccine c. MMR vaccine d. HepA vaccine 62. Which combining form means child? a. fet/o b. ped/o c. umbilic/o d. genit/o 63. Which condition is also known as ringworm? a. tinea b. scabies c. hand, foot, and mouth disease d. erythema infectiosum 64. Which condition affects the eyes? a. croup b. strabismus c. cradle cap d. atresia 65. Five-year-old Jorge may need surgery to repair an inguinal hernia; what does the word root in inguinal

mean? a. groin b. navel c. inflammation d. formation 66. Which vaccine protects against tetanus infection? a. pertussis b. pneumococcus c. meningococcal disease d. influenza 67. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. calcium Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 b. colostrum c. menstration d. puberty 68. Which is true about type 2 diabetes? a. It is an insulin deficiency disorder. b. It is a chronic lifelong illness. c. It is connected to childhood obesity. d. It requires daily insulin injections.

69. Stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue are symptoms of which

condition? a. Kawasaki disease b. rickets c. juvenile idiopathic arthritis d. scoliosis 70. What does the combining form pedicul/o mean? a. beginning b. menstruation c. born d. lice 71. Which vaccine protects against rubella? a. HPV vaccine b. Hib vaccine c. MMR vaccine d. HepA vaccine 72. Which condition is characterized by periods of inconsolable crying? a. colic b. oral thrush c. jaundice d. respiratory distress syndrome 73. Impulsive behavior that is inappropriate for the child's developmental age is a characteristic of which

condition? a. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder b. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. epilepsy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 d. anorexia nervosa 74. Although potty-trained, four-year-old Tyrell often wets the bed at night; what is the term for urinary

incontinence during sleep? a. Kawasaki disease b. rickets c. nocturnal enuresis d. urinary tract infection 75. An infestation of itch mites is the cause of which condition? a. impetigo b. scabies c. hand, foot, and mouth disease d. pediculosis 76. Which term refers to a congenital absence or narrowing of a normal body opening or passage? a. hernia b. torticollis c. anencephaly d. atresia 77. Which combining form means unborn child? a. fet/o b. ped/o c. umbilic/o d. genit/o 78. Which prefix means together? a. conb. dysc. neod. en79. Which medical professional specializes in diagnosing, treating, and preventing disorders and diseases of

infants and children? a. pediatric nurse practitioner b. neonatologist c. pediatric endocrinologist d. pediatrician 80. Which vaccine protects against polio?

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Chapter 18 a. Varicella vaccine b. RV vaccine c. DTaP vaccine d. IPV vaccine 81. Which source of nutrition should be introduced around ages 4 to 6 months? a. formula b. solid foods c. breast milk d. calcium 82. When does a child typically shed their first upper molar? a. age 13-19 months b. age 7-8 years c. age 10-16 months d. age 9-11 years 83. What do the growth curves on an age-based growth chart represent? a. head circumference b. motor skills c. percentiles d. physical maturity 84. Which assessment is done prior to discharging a newborn from the hospital? a. newborn screening b. body mass index c. Tanner staging d. weaning 85. What period of human development spans ages 14-21? a. infancy b. toddlerhood c. neonate d. adolescence

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The abbreviation for an area of a hospital offering specialized care for critically ill children is

.

87. The abbreviation for the vaccine that protects against diptheria, pertussis, and tetanus in children under age 6

is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 18 88. The abbreviation for low birth weight is

.

89. The process of discontinuing breastfeeding is called

.

90. The abbreviation for the vaccine that protects against pneumococcus is

.

91. Before reaching physical maturity and their peak height, adolescents will experience a 2-to-5-year

.

92. The beginning of female menstruation that occurs during puberty is called

.

93. The optional surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis is called 94. A word part that means flushed is

.

.

95. HPV is the abbreviation for

.

96. During the physical examination of a child, the physical measurements taken at the exam are plotted on a/an

.

97. Also called passive immunity, the resistance passed from mother to child at birth is called

.

98. The abbreviation for developmental dysplasia of the hip is

.

99. The suggested timeline for delivering vaccinations to children at certain ages is referred to as a/an

.

100. An instrument that provides the most accurate reading of an infant's temperature is a/an

.

101. The name for a chronic inflammatory disease of the bronchial tubes, often triggered by an allergic reaction

is

.

102. Sometimes called an incubator, an apparatus for maintaining an environment of controlled temperature,

humidity, and oxygen concentration for a premature or ill newborn is a/an 103. The abbreviation for neonatal intensive care unit is

. .

104. The name for a type of study that determines skeletal maturity by comparing an x-ray of a child's knee

(under the age of 3) or hand and wrist (over the age of 3) with standards for their birth age is .

105. The body's immune system response to a harmless allergen such as pollen, food, or animal dander as if it

were a dangerous invader is called a/an

.

106. Disorders that occur as a result of trauma during labor or delivery are called

.

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Chapter 18 107. The abbreviation for respiratory syncytial virus is

.

108. The greenish material that collects in the intestines of a fetus and forms the first feces of a newborn is

called

.

109. The term small for gestational age refers to a newborn's

.

110. The protrusion of intestine in the area of the belly button, specifically the umbilical ring is called a/an

.

111. The abbreviation for failure to thrive is

.

112. The name for the technique used when only a small amount of blood is needed as a specimen for a blood

test is a/an

.

113. Another name for a localized allergic response is a/an

.

114. The abbreviation for sudden infant death syndrome is

.

115. Glands that secrete the hormones responsible for the development and maintenance of the secondary sex

characteristics that develop during puberty are called

.

116. Also known as birth defects, abnormal conditions that exist at the time of birth and can be genetic; be

inherited; have an environmental cause; or be multifactorial, that is, caused by a combination of factors are called .

117. A tonic-clonic seizure that occurs in infants and young children in response to a fever is called a/an

.

118. The abbreviation for an infection that usually begins in the bladder but can affect all parts of the urinary

system is

.

119. Also known as a systemic reaction, a severe response to an allergen that may cause death within a few

minutes without prompt medical aid is called

.

120. The term for a disease caused in whole or in part by an abnormality in the genetic makeup of an

individual's DNA is a/an

.

121. The process of physical changes by which a child's body transitions into an adult body that is capable of

reproducing is called

.

122. Also known as movement milestones, skills such as head and neck control, grip ability, and smiling are

called

.

123. A neural tube defect that occurs during early pregnancy-sometimes before a woman knows she is pregnant-

and may be due to a lack of the nutrient folic acid in the mother's diet is .

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Chapter 18 124. The abbreviation for the vaccine that protects against tetanus, diptheria, and pertussis in children over age 6

is

.

125. The abbreviation for the vaccine that protects against measles, mumps, and rubella is

.

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Chapter 18 Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 77. a 78. a 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. d 83. c 84. a 85. d 86. PICU 87. DTaP

DTAP 88. LBW 89. weaning 90. PCV13 91. growth spurt 92. menarche 93. circumcision 94. erythem 95. human papillomavirus 96. growth chart 97. natural immunity 98. DDH 99. immunization schedule 100. rectal thermometer

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Chapter 18 101. asthma 102. isolette 103. NICU 104. bone age 105. allergic reaction 106. birth injuries 107. RSV 108. meconium 109. birth weight 110. umbilical hernia 111. FTT 112. capillary puncture 113. cellular response 114. SIDS 115. gonads 116. congenital disorders 117. febrile seizure 118. UTI 119. anaphylaxis 120. genetic disorder 121. puberty 122. motor skills 123. spina bifida 124. Tdap

TDAP Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 18 125. MMR

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Chapter 19

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which word part means old age? a. ger b. arthr c. polyd. sarc/o 2. Which word part means bone? a. polyb. oste/o c. spondyl d. my 3. Which word part means stomach? a. nas/o b. gastr c. son/o d. cirrh 4. Which word part means deficiency? a. presby/o b. -phasia c. postd. -penia 5. Which term has a word part that means joint? a. osteoarthritis b. spondylosis c. polymyalgia rheumatica d. sarcopenia 6. Which term means the gradual progression of unavoidable physiological changes that occur as a part of

growing older? a. elderly b. comorbidity c. senescence d. old-old 7. Which body system shows decreased muscle strength that makes coughing up mucus more difficult as part of

the normal aging process?

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Chapter 19 a. muscular b. respiratory c. heart d. neurological 8. Which term is also known as spinal osteoarthritis? a. spondylosis b. wear-and-tear arthritis c. arthrosclerosis d. spinal stenosis 9. Which term means the loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that comes with aging? a. spondylosis b. arthrosclerosis c. sarcopenia d. mobility 10. Which term is also known as hunchback? a. kyphosis b. spinal stenosis c. osteopenia d. osteoporosis 11. Which condition is most common in women over 50 years old due to the decrease in estrogen after

menopause? a. polymyalgia rheumatica b. osteopenia c. osteoarthritis d. osteoporosis 12. Which condition is caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis? a. kyphosis b. compression fracture c. osteoporotic hip fracture d. sarcopenia 13. Which condition is caused by pressure on the nerve roots that results in pain, burning and tingling along the

course of the affected nerve through the thigh and leg? a. sciatica b. sarcopenia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 c. restless legs syndrome d. osteoarthritis 14. Which term means a large, irregular area of purplish discoloration due to bleeding under the skin? a. shearing b. hematoma c. contusion d. ecchymosis 15. Which term occurs from shearing pressure, where a flap of epidermis is pulled away from the underlying

tissue? a. contusion b. skin tear c. ecchymosis d. hematoma 16. Which term is caused by an accumulation of blood within the skin? a. hematoma b. contusion c. skin tear d. ecchymosis 17. Which procedure is used to diagnose osteopenia or osteoporosis in older adults? a. bone mineral density testing b. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry c. manual disimpaction d. extubation 18. Which term is also known as hardening of the arteries? a. atherosclerosis b. arthrosclerosis c. ateriosclerosis d. peripheral artery disease 19. Which term is pain in the leg muscles that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest? a. chronic venous insufficiency b. carotid artery stenosis c. atherosclerosis d. intermittent claudication 20. Which term is defined as abnormally swollen veins that usually occur in the superficial veins of the legs?

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Chapter 19 a. varicose veins b. venous ulcers c. venous stasis d. stasis dermatitis 21. Which term has a characteristic "bunny ears" appearance on an EKG? a. third-degree block b. first-degree block c. bundle branch block d. heart block 22. Which term is a partial block in electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles that stops the

ventricles from contracting some of the time after the atria contract? a. second-degree block b. bundle branch block c. third-degree block d. first-degree block 23. Which term is also called insufficiency? a. arrhythmia b. heart valve disease c. atrial fibrillation d. heart valve regurgitation 24. Which condition is characterized by the ventricles not contracting after any of the atrial contractions? a. third-degree block b. atrioventricular block c. second-degree block d. first-degree block 25. In which condition is the heart unable to pump out all of the blood that it receives? a. pulmonary edema b. heart valve stenosis c. heart valve regurgitation d. congestive heart failure 26. Which term has a word part that means enlargement? a. lymphadema b. cardiomegaly c. cardiac ablation d. arrhythmia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 27. Which term is shortness of breath that occurs with physical activity? a. peripheral edema b. pulmonary edema c. dyspnea on exertion d. atrial fibrillation 28. Which is used to treat third-degree block and other arrhythmias causing bradycardia? a. pacemaker b. cardiac ablation c. synchronized cardioversion d. valvuloplasty 29. Which term can occur as a result of multiple medical problems, including chronic venous insufficiency,

congestive heart failure, kidney failure, and cirrhosis? a. cardiomegaly b. secondary lymphedema c. lymphedema d. peripheral edema 30. Which term is a risk factor for pneumonia? a. respiratory failure b. senile emphysema c. basilar atelectasis d. dyspnea 31. Which term is a serious inflammation of the lungs in which the alveoli and air passages fill with pus and

other fluids? a. pneumonia b. dyspnea c. basilar atelectasis d. senile emphysema 32. Which term is also known as shortness of breath? a. weaning b. pneumonia c. respiratory acidosis d. dyspnea 33. Which condition is treated by placing the patient on a CPAP machine to support their breathing? a. respiratory failure b. basilar atelectasis c. pneumonia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 d. senile emphysema 34. Which term is done for patient who have regained the ability to breathe spontaneously? a. work of breathing b. weaning c. extubation d. edentulous 35. Which term is also known as dry mouth? a. xerostomia b. anorexia c. dehydration d. malnutrition 36. Which term has a word part that means appetite? a. dehydration b. anorexia c. xerostomia d. malnutrition 37. Which condition includes passing of melena? a. constipation b. lower GI bleed c. anorexia d. upper GI bleed 38. Which term is used to empty the lower intestine through bowel activity with the placement of a solution into

the rectum and colon? a. enema b. laxative c. manual disimpaction d. bowel rest 39. Which treatment is given to prevent or relieve constipation? a. bowel rest b. enema c. laxative d. nasogastric intubation 40. Which term means an abnormal accumulation of serous fluids in the peritoneal cavity, which causes

shortness of breath? a. cirrhosis Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 b. jaundice c. hepatic encephalopathy d. ascites 41. Which term is also known as advanced chronic liver failure? a. ascites b. hepatic encephalopathy c. advanced cirrhosis d. jaundice 42. Which term is caused by a stroke or other restriction of the flow of blood to the brain? a. vascular dementia b. Alzheimer's disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Lewy body dementia 43. Which test is performed to detect plaque buildup in the artery to predict or diagnose an ischemic stroke? a. valvuloplasty b. carotid endarterectomy c. alteplase d. carotid ultrasonography 44. Which term is an acute condition of confusion, disorientation, disordered thinking and memory, agitation,

and hallucinations? a. dementia b. delirium c. Parkinson's disease d. Lewy body dementia 45. Which term is a collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the brain? a. cranial hematoma b. hemorrhagic stroke c. cerebrovascular accident d. ischemic stroke 46. Which term is the lack of muscle coordination during voluntary movement? a. hemiparesis b. aphasia c. ataxia d. hemiplegia 47. Which term means difficulty in swallowing?

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Chapter 19 a. dysphagia b. aphasia c. aspiration d. ataxia 48. What is another name for a bedsore? a. atrophy b. pressure ulcer c. contracture d. bedbound 49. Where would a person with an mRS score of 4 be likely placed? a. nursing home b. skilled nursing facility c. home d. assisted living facility 50. Which term means the inability to control the voiding of urine? a. urinary retention b. urinary incontinence c. renal failure d. urosepsis 51. Which term occurs when the muscles of the bladder contract involuntarily even though the bladder is not

full enough to indicate the need to urinate? a. overactive bladder b. stress incontinence c. overflow incontinence d. urinary retention 52. What is the result when too many nephrons have been destroyed? a. urosepsis b. chronic kidney disease c. renal failure d. urinary incontinence 53. Which term means difficulty in starting a urinary stream? a. urinary hesitancy b. erectile dysfunction c. prostatism d. benign prostatic hyperplasia Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 54. Which term is also known as pelvic floor hernia? a. vaginal atrophy b. uterine prolapse c. lichen sclerosus d. postmenopausal labial fusion 55. Which condition can cause the labia minora to be absorbed into the labia majora? a. lichen sclerosus b. vaginal atrophy c. uterine prolapse d. postmenopausal labial fusion 56. Which term means excessively dry skin? a. ptosis b. xerophthalmia c. xeroderma d. presbyopia 57. Which term occurs as a result of collagen fibers weakening with age, allowing the lower lid to sag with

gravity? a. blepharoptosis b. involutional ectropion c. xerophthalmia d. presbyopia 58. Which condition is characterized by increased intraocular pressure that causes damage to the retinal nerve

fibers and the optic nerve? a. presbyopia b. macular degeneration c. cataract d. glaucoma 59. Which term is defined as a gradual loss of sensorineural hearing that occurs as the body ages? a. presbycusis b. presbyopia c. vertigo d. impacted cerumen 60. Which term is ideal for an older adult who wants a home-like environment and may spend part of their day

independently? a. skilled nursing facility b. assisted living facility Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 c. board and care d. nursing home 61. Which facility offers specialty medical care, such as skilled nursing care, speech-language pathology, and

physical and occupational therapy? a. assisted living facility b. skilled nursing facility c. nursing home d. memory care 62. Which facility has staff specially trained in management of dementia patients? a. memory care b. board and care c. nursing home d. hospice care 63. Which term is also referred to as durable power of attorney for health care? a. full code b. living will c. do not resuscitate order d. health care proxy 64. Which term is a document that allows a person to state their wishes for end-of-life medical care, in case they

become unable to communicate their decisions? a. death with dignity b. health care proxy c. no code d. living will 65. Which term is characterized by periods of unresponsiveness, mottled skin, terminal agitation and labored,

noisy breathing through a wide-open mouth? a. palliative care b. pre-active dying c. active dying d. death with dignity 66. Which term is also known as terminal respiratory secretions? a. death rattle b. air hunger c. terminal agitation d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 67. Which term means the absence of spontaneous respiration? a. agonal respirations b. apnea c. asystole d. air hunger 68. Which term is an event in which the heart abruptly stops beating or develops an arrhythmia that prevents it

from pumping blood effectively? a. asystole b. cardiac arrest c. respiratory arrest d. terminal agitation 69. Which term is also known as guppy breathing? a. agonal respirations b. asystole c. apnea d. air hunger 70. Which term is also known a flat line? a. terminal agitation b. cardiac arrest c. respiratory arrest d. asystole 71. Which term is caused by a severe shortage of blood supply due to illness, injury, and/or infection? a. diabetic retinopathy b. diabetic neuropathy c. gangrene d. sepsis 72. Which term is defined as a potentially life-threatening infection that results from bacteria or infectious

organisms entering the bloodstream? a. sepsis b. gangrene c. glaucoma d. lichen sclerosus 73. Which term means a soft, flexible rubber ring that fits into the vagina to help hold the uterus in place? a. foley catheter b. alteplase c. pessary Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 d. vitreous floaters 74. Which term sometimes resemble skin cancer growths? a. xeroderma b. age spots c. xerophthalmia d. involutional ectropion 75. Which term is the measurement of intraocular pressure? a. dialysis b. laser trabeculoplasty c. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry d. tonometry 76. From which condition can the buildup of waste in the blood be a contributing factor in heart attacks and

strokes? a. chronic kidney disease b. renal failure c. urosepsis d. overflow incontinence 77. Which term occurs when normally elastic connective tissues are replaced with nonelastic fibrous tissues? a. hemiparesis b. atrophy c. contracture d. ataxia 78. Which term means the loss of the ability to speak, write, and/or comprehend the written or spoken word? a. aphasia b. ataxia c. dysphagia d. cognition 79. Which term includes symptoms of vomiting dark green bile and inability to pass gas or stool? a. anorexia b. diverticulosis c. constipation d. small bowel obstruction 80. Which condition is caused by greater-than-normal amounts of bilirubin in the blood? a. jaundice Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 b. ascites c. cirrhosis d. hepatic encephalopathy 81. Which term is defined as the drooping of the upper eyelid? a. vitreous floaters b. xerophthalmia c. ptosis d. presbyopia 82. Which term is an accumulation of earwax that forms a solid mass by adhering to the walls of the external

auditory canal? a. vertigo b. impacted cerumen c. presbycusis d. cataract 83. Which term is used to describe elevated levels of cholesterol and other fatty substances in the blood? a. hypercapnia b. hypertension c. hyperlipidemia d. hypoxemia 84. Which term is caused by decreased intake of fluid or persistent diarrhea? a. ascites b. anorexia c. malnutrition d. dehydration 85. Which term is used to empty the lower intestine through bowel activity? a. laxative b. enema c. manual disimpaction d. weaning

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. An acute viral infection characterized by painful skin eruptions that follow the underlying route of an

inflamed nerve is

.

87. The battery-powered device that can be attached externally or implanted temporarily or permanently under Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19

the skin with connections leading into the heart to regulate the heartbeat is a

.

88. The gradual, natural decline of the immune system as a result of aging is

.

89. The branch of medicine relating to the health of older adults is 90. The study of the aging process is

. .

91. Another name for normal aging is

.

92. A physician who specializes in the care of older people is a

.

93. A registered nurse who specializes in end-of-life care is a 94. A person who is over 65 years of age is referred to as an

. .

95. The correct spelling of the term for medical care given to a patient with a medical condition that cannot be

cured, such as cancer is

.

96. The correct spelling of the term for an irregular pattern of breathing characterized by alternating rapid or

shallow respiration followed by slower respiration or apnea is

.

97. The correct pronunciation of the term for the complete lack of electrical activity in the heart is

.

98. The correct pronunciation of the term for a dead human body is

.

99. The correct spelling of the term for a refrigerated area in the hospital where cadavers are kept temporarily is

.

100. The abbreviation for a partial block in electrical conduction between the atrium and ventricle on one side of

the heart at the bundle of His is

.

101. The abbreviation for shortness of breath that occurs with physical activity is 102. The abbreviation for the more complex activities needed to live independently is

. .

103. The abbreviation for a medical facility for patients who are not sick enough to require continued Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19

hospitalization but still need specialized medical assistance for their recovery is

.

104. A caregiver who can help with errands, tasks around the house, daily activities, preparing food, and

organizing medications is a

.

105. The adjustment of a medication dose to compensate for decreased liver function is

.

106. The adjustment of a medication dose to compensate for decreased kidney function is

.

107. An emergency procedure for life support consisting of artificial respiration and manual external chest

compression is

.

108. An official who performs autopsies to determine the cause of death is a

.

109. A surgical examination of a cadaver usually conducted to determine the cause of death is a/an

.

110. The term that means after death is

.

111. The term also known as physician assisted death is

.

112. The document sometimes put in place near the end of life, or when a patient has a terminal illness with no

possibility of cure, is called a/an

.

113. A form of delirium that occurs at end-of-life is

.

114. The condition characterized by weight loss, anorexia, dehydration, malnutrition, and a decrease in physical

activity is

.

115. The removal of an endotracheal tube and the removal of a patient from a ventilator is

.

116. Someone who is unable to independently get out of bed due to weakness, paralysis, or injury is referred to

as

.

117. A stroke patient's ability to swallow safely is done using a Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 19 118. An assessment tool to measure level of disability after a CVA is the

.

119. An 11-item tool for measuring the severity of neurological deficit after a stroke is the

.

120. A leaking blood vessel in the brain leads to a/an

.

121. A chronic, degenerative central nervous disorder characterized by fine muscle tremors, rigidity, and a slow

or shuffling gait is

.

122. A decline from normal function characterized by short-term memory loss, which may be an early predictor

of dementia, is

.

123. An implanted mechanical pump that helps the heart circulate blood is a/an

.

124. A person who is at a higher risk of falling and should be more closely monitored when they are moving

around is a/an

.

125. A removable set of artificial teeth that replace either some or all of a person's teeth is

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.

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Chapter 19 Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 52. c 53. a 54. b 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. d 85. b 86. herpes zoster 87. pacemaker 88. immunosenescence 89. geriatrics 90. gerontology 91. senescence 92. geriatrician 93. hospice nurse 94. older adult 95. palliative care 96. Cheyne Stokes respiration 97. ay-SIS-toh-lee 98. kuh-DAH-vair 99. morgue 100. BBB 101. DOE Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 19 102. IADLs 103. SNF 104. home health aide 105. hepatic dosing 106. renal dosing 107. cardiopulmonary resuscitation 108. medical examiner 109. autopsy 110. postmortem 111. death with dignity 112. do not resuscitate order 113. terminal agitation 114. failure to thrive 115. extubation 116. bedbound 117. swallow evaluation 118. modified Rankin scale 119. National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale 120. hemorrhagic stroke 121. Parkinson's disease 122. mild cognitive impairment 123. ventricular assist device 124. fall risk patient 125. dentures

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Chapter 20

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which is the term for a tumor that is not life-threatening? a. neoplasm b. malignant c. benign d. proto-oncogene 2. What does the word root in oncology mean? a. new b. tumor c. muscle d. the study of 3. The regular process in which cells divide, mature, and die is called

.

a. differentiation b. anaplasia c. normal cell growth d. angiogenesis 4. Which healthcare professional specializes in the laboratory analysis of diseased tissue samples to confirm or

establish a diagnosis? a. oncologist b. pathologist c. radiation therapist d. chemotherapy nurse 5. Chemical runoff from fertilizers, pesticides, and detergents are an example of which environmental risk factor

for developing cancer? a. water pollution b. chemical exposure c. ionizing radiation d. air pollution 6. Which lifestyle risk factor increases a person's risk of developing lung cancer? a. consuming alcohol b. tanning c. eating a poor diet d. smoking tobacco 7. Which type of cancer occurs in epithelial tissue?

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Chapter 20 a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. carcinoma d. lymphoma 8. Which type of cancer is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells? a. oat cell cancer b. Hodgkin's lymphoma c. acute lymphocytic leukemia d. colorectal cancer 9. Which type of breast cancer has high levels of HER2 and receptors for estrogen and progesterone? a. triple-negative breast cancer b. inflammatory breast cancer c. triple-positive breast cancer d. HER2-positive breast cancer 10. Which combining form means gland? a. aden/o b. melan/o c. path/o d. sarc/o 11. Which combining form means pertaining to life? a. ne/o b. onc/o c. my/o d. bi/o 12. Cancer cells are found in one location in TNM a. Stage 0

.

b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 13. Which form of cancer treatment removes individual layers of cancerous tissue one at a time? a. ablation b. chemotherapy c. tomotherapy d. Mohs surgery Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 14. Which suffix means hidden? a. -occult b. -genesis c. -plasm d. -oma 15. Two-year-old Bernice Williams is diagnosed with a hepatoblastoma, a type of cancer that originated in the

. a. blood b. lymph nodes c. red bone marrow d. liver 16. A Grade 1 cancer means that the cancer is a. moderately differentiated

.

b. poorly differentiated c. well differentiated d. undifferentiated 17. Which cancer treatment uses drugs or other substances to identify and attack specific cancer cells without

harming normal cells? a. hormone therapy b. targeted therapy c. photodynamic therapy d. immunotherapy 18. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. abdominocentesis b. pneumectomy c. esophagogastroduodenoscopy d. exfoliative cytology 19. Which form of cancer treatment removes a body part or destroys its function? a. ablation b. chemotherapy c. tomotherapy d. monoclonal antibodies 20. What does the combining form in angiogenesis mean? a. cancerous b. gland Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 c. oxidation d. vessel 21. The pathologist notes that the patient's tumor is moderately differentiated, meaning the tumor is which

grade? a. Grade 2 b. Grade 3 c. Grade 1 d. Grade 4 22. Which healthcare professional specializes in the administration of intravenous (IV) chemotherapeutic agents

and monitoring patients during treatment? a. oncologist b. pathologist c. radiation therapist d. chemotherapy nurse 23. Which type of cancer occurs in blood-making plasma cells found in the red bone marrow? a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. multiple myeloma d. blastoma 24. Which combining form means disease? a. aden/o b. melan/o c. path/o d. sarc/o 25. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. oncogene b. angiogenesis c. myosarcoma d. metastisize 26. Which is the correct pronunciation of acral lentiginous melanoma? a. ACK-rahl len-TIH-jih-nuhs mel-ah-NOH-mah b. ack-RAL lent-IDJ-nuhs mel-ah-NOH-mah c. ACK-rawl LEN-tij-uh-nuss MEL-ah-noh-mah d. ACK-rahl len-tij-NUHS mel-ah-NOH-mah Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 27. Which combining form means tumor? a. ne/o b. onc/o c. my/o d. bi/o 28. Which type of cancer is characterized by a sudden increase in abnormal, immature lymphocytes? a. oat cell cancer b. Hodgkin's lymphoma c. acute lymphocytic leukemia d. colorectal cancer 29. Which is a technique used to treat damaged and precancerous skin? a. hormone therapy b. targeted therapy c. photodynamic therapy d. immunotherapy 30. What is a proto-oncogene? a. a mutated gene b. a cancer-causing substance c. a mushroom-like growth d. a normal gene 31. What does the word root in leukemia mean? a. white b. gland c. oxidation d. vessel 32. An abdominocentesis would most likely be performed on a patient with which condition? a. malignant ascites b. esophageal cancer c. cervical cancer d. malignant pleural effusion 33. What does the word root in Hemoccult® test mean? a. blood b. abdomen c. breast Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 d. thorax 34. Which form of cancer treatment uses a combination of techniques to precisely target the tumor being

treated? a. brachytherapy b. chemotherapy c. tomotherapy d. teletherapy 35. Why would a Pap smear be performed on a patient? a. to check for breast irregularities b. to check for bone breakdown c. to check for prostate enlargement d. to check for cervical changes 36. Cancer has increased in size and/or reached nearby lymph nodes in TNM

.

a. Stage 4 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 37. A Grade 4 cancer means that the cancer is

.

a. moderately differentiated b. poorly differentiated c. well-differentiated d. undifferentiated 38. Which suffix means formation? a. -occult b. -genesis c. -plasm d. -oma 39. Medical imaging procedures such as CT scans and PET scans are which type of environmental risk factor

for developing cancer? a. water pollution b. chemical exposure c. ionizing radiation d. air pollution Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 40. Which refers to an abnormal growth of body tissue that creates a mass? a. neoplasm b. malignant c. benign d. proto-oncogene 41. What does the suffix in neoplasm mean? a. strange b. tumor c. muscle d. formation 42. Which healthcare professional specializes in the delivery of radiation treatment for cancer patients? a. oncologist b. pathologist c. radiation therapist d. chemotherapy nurse 43. Which type of cancer occurs in connective tissues? a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. carcinoma d. lymphoma 44. A patient with thyroid cancer would be most likely to receive which cancer treatment? a. hormone therapy b. radioactive iodine treatment c. photodynamic therapy d. immunotherapy 45. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. apoptosis b. human papillomavirus infection c. chronic myeloid leukemia d. mylodysplastic syndrome 46. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy would most likely be used in the diagnosis of which condition? a. malignant ascites b. esophageal cancer c. cervical cancer Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 d. malignant pleural effusion 47. Which diagnostic procedure uses a rotating x-ray beam to form multiple cross-section images of the soft

tissues of the body? a. mammography b. computed tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. molecular breast imaging 48. Following her annual mammogram, Wanda is diagnosed with an early stage of breast cancer that has not yet

broken through the wall of milk ducts known as

.

a. ductal carcinoma in situ b. inflammatory breast cancer c. adenomatous polyp d. infiltrating ductal carcinoma 49. A patient with particularly dense breast tissue would be likely to have which nuclear medicine test? a. palpation of the breast b. computed tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. molecular breast imaging 50. Which term best describes the behavior of a malignant tumor? a. differentiation b. anaplasia c. normal cell growth d. apoptosis 51. Which lifestyle risk factor increases a person's risk of developing liver cancer? a. consuming alcohol b. tanning c. eating a poor diet d. smoking tobacco 52. Seventy-six-year-old Paco Gonzalez is diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease, a type of cancer that originated in

the

. a. blood b. lymph nodes c. red bone marrow d. liver

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Chapter 20 53. Which combining form means flesh? a. aden/o b. melan/o c. path/o d. sarc/o 54. Which cancer treatment interferes with a tumor's ability to create new blood vessels? a. angiogenesis inhibitors b. radioactive iodine treatment c. monoclonal antibodies d. immunotherapy 55. Which is true about remission? a. It means the cancer has not been cured. b. It is the end of cancer signs and symptoms. c. It ensures the cancer will not return. d. It means the patient is cancer-free.

56. Which form of cancer treatment is administered at a distance from the patient's body? a. brachytherapy b. chemotherapy c. tomotherapy d. teletherapy 57. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. carcinoma in situ b. sarcomata c. adenotous polyp d. squamous cell carcinoma 58. Which is the correct pronunciation of positron emission tomography? a. POZ-ih-tron ee-MISH-un TUH-mah-gruh-fee b. poz-IH-tron EE-mish-un tum-AW-grah-fee c. pawz-ih-TRON ee-mih-SHUN TOM-aw-graf-ee d. PAW-zih-tron ee-MIH-shun tuh-MAW-gruh-fee 59. Which combining form means muscle? a. ne/o b. onc/o c. my/o Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 d. bi/o 60. What does the suffix in oncology mean? a. new b. tumor c. formation d. the study of 61. Breathing secondhand smoke from tobacco is an example of which type of environmental risk factor for

developing cancer? a. water pollution b. chemical exposure c. ionizing radiation d. air pollution 62. Which type of cancer occurs in lymphoid tissues? a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. carcinoma d. lymphoma 63. Which suffix means neoplasm? a. -occult b. -genesis c. -plasm d. -oma 64. Cancer has spread to other organs, such as the brain, lungs, liver, or bones in TNM a. Stage 4

.

b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 65. Which cancer treatment locates and attacks specific proteins on cancer cells? a. angiogenesis inhibitors b. radioactive iodine treatment c. monoclonal antibodies d. brachytherapy 66. A thoracentesis would be performed in the treatment of which condition? a. malignant ascites Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 b. esophageal cancer c. cervical cancer d. malignant pleural effusion 67. Why would a digital rectal examination be performed on a patient? a. to check for breast irregularities b. to check for bone breakdown c. to check for prostate enlargement d. to check for cervical changes 68. Which type of cancer develops from immature, undifferentiated cells? a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. multiple myeloma d. blastoma 69. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. pneumonectomy b. transurethral prostatectomy c. acral lentigonous melanoma d. polypectomy 70. A Wilms tumor is an example of which type of cancer? a. leukemia b. sarcoma c. multiple myeloma d. blastoma 71. Which suffix means reproduction? a. -occult b. -genesis c. -plasm d. -oma 72. A Grade 3 cancer means that the cancer is

.

a. moderately differentiated b. poorly differentiated c. well differentiated d. undifferentiated Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 73. Which cancer treatment places radioactive materials in contact with tissues in need of treatment? a. angiogenesis inhibitors b. radioactive iodine treatment c. monoclonal antibodies d. brachytherapy 74. Which combining form means strange? a. ne/o b. onc/o c. my/o d. bi/o 75. Cancer that has started growing into nearby tissues but has not reached the lymph nodes in TNM is

considered

.

a. Stage 4 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 76. Which combining form means black? a. aden/o b. melan/o c. path/o d. sarc/o 77. Cancer cells block the lymphatic vessels in the skin of the breast in which type of breast cancer? a. ductal carcinoma in situ b. inflammatory breast cancer c. Bowen disease d. infiltrating ductal carcinoma 78. Which type of cancer first manifests itself in polyps? a. oat cell cancer b. Hodgkin's lymphoma c. acute lymphocytic leukemia d. colorectal cancer 79. Which type of cancer occurs in the blood? a. leukemia b. sarcoma Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 c. carcinoma d. lymphoma 80. A person who works with benzene in the manufacture of rubber is at which type of environmental risk factor

for developing cancer? a. water pollution b. chemical exposure c. ionizing radiation d. air pollution 81. Which healthcare professional studies the prevention, causes, and treatment of cancer? a. oncologist b. pathologist c. radiation therapist d. chemotherapy nurse 82. What does the combining form in adenocarcinoma mean? a. white b. gland c. oxidation d. vessel 83. The process through which a tumor creates its own blood supply is called

.

a. differentiation b. anaplasia c. normal cell growth d. angiogenesis 84. What does the prefix in neoplasm mean? a. strange b. tumor c. muscle d. formation 85. Which is the term for a tumor that is potentially life-threatening? a. neoplasm b. malignant c. benign d. proto-oncogene

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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Chapter 20 86. The abbreviation for chronic myeloid leukemia is 87. The abbreviation for cancer is

. .

88. An outpatient clinic for patients who need IV medications or transfusions on a planned, ongoing basis rather

than in an emergency or temporary inpatient setting is called a/an .

89. Substances found in many fruits and vegetables which may help decrease the risk of cancer are called

.

90. The abbreviation for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is

.

91. The combining form in colonoscopy means

.

92. The process by which cancer is spread to a new site, and can also describe the tumor itself, is called

.

93. Byproducts of combustion engines, such as automobiles, wood smoke, and industrial waste, that increases

the risk of lung cancer are forms of

.

94. A substance that blocks out the harmful ultraviolet B (UVB) rays and may also give protection against

ultraviolet (UVA) rays is

.

95. The most common cancer of the endocrine system and the most rapidly increasing cancer in the United

States is

.

96. A hard-tissue sarcoma that usually involves the upper shaft of the long bones, pelvis, or knee is a/an

.

97. A type of cancer in which there is insufficient production of one or more types of blood cells due to

dysfunction of the bone marrow is

.

98. One of the most common cancers among men, second only to skin cancer, is

.

99. A type of skin cancer that occurs in the melanocytes and is the cause of most skin cancer deaths is

.

100. The abbreviation for acute myeloid leukemia is

.

101. Cancer in its initial location is known as a/an

.

102. A slow-growing squamous cell cancer caused by HPV is

.

103. The term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 20 104. Also called No Evidence of Disease (NED), the absence of cancer in response to treatment is referred to as

.

105. One of the most commonly used cancer staging systems for detailed discussion of cancer progression that

is usually used for pathology reports is called

.

106. The term for a tumor that is not life-threatening is

.

107. The uncontrolled growth of abnormal, poorly differentiated cells commonly seen in most malignant tumors

is called

.

108. In cancer grading, a high grade tumor that is undifferentiated would be considered

.

109. MM is the abbreviation for

.

110. The abnormal development or growth of cells, or the presence of abnormal cells within a type of tissue is

.

111. The abbreviation for basal cell carcinoma is

.

112. The removal of a small piece of living tissue for examination to confirm or establish a diagnosis is called

a/an

.

113. The term that means harmful, capable of spreading, and potentially life-threatening is

.

114. The surgical removal of a lobe of an organ, usually the lung, brain, liver, or thyroid gland is called a/an

.

115. The process through which normal cells become cancer cells is called

.

116. The reduction of cancer in response to treatment, most often by at least 50%, is called

.

117. The use of natural or synthetic substances such as drugs or vitamins to reduce the risk of developing cancer

or to reduce the chance that cancer will recur is called

.

118. The abbreviation for ductal carcinoma in situ is

.

119. The surgical removal of the entire breast and nipple is a/an

.

120. The surgical removal of a polyp from the lining of the colon or rectum is a/an

.

121. Positron emission tomography is also referred to as

.

122. Also known as skin scraping, a technique in which cells are scraped from the tissue and examined under a

microscope is called Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 20 123. Also known as an adenoma, the most common type of precancerous neoplastic polyp is a/an

.

124. A substance known to cause cancer is called a/an 125. The abbreviation for Hodgkin's lymphoma is

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. .

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Chapter 20 Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 52. b 53. d 54. a 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. c 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. CML 87. CA 88. infusion center 89. antioxidants 90. NHL 91. colon 92. metastasis 93. air pollution 94. sunscreen 95. thyroid carcinoma 96. osteosarcoma 97. myelodysplastic syndrome 98. prostate cancer 99. malignant melanoma 100. AML 101. primary cancer Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 20 102. cervical cancer 103. hyperplasia 104. complete remission 105. TNM staging 106. benign 107. anaplasia 108. Grade 4 109. malignant melanoma 110. dysplasia 111. BCC 112. biopsy 113. malignant 114. lobectomy 115. carcinogenesis 116. partial remission 117. chemoprevention 118. DCIS 119. mastectomy 120. polypectomy 121. PET scans 122. exfoliative cytology 123. adenomatous polyp 124. carcinogen 125. HL

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Chapter 21

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which combining form means blood? a. albumin/o b. son/o c. fluor/o d. hemat/o 2. What does son/o mean? a. protein b. sound c. glowing d. visual examination 3. What does glycos/o mean? a. protein b. abdominal wall c. glowing d. sugar 4. What does lapar/o mean? a. protein b. abdominal wall c. glowing d. sugar 5. Which combining form means glowing? a. albumin/o b. son/o c. fluor/o d. lapar/o 6. While working at his job clearing snow, Jas Thurman starts shivering and loses feeling in his feet. What

condition is Jas at risk of developing? a. hyperthermia b. hematuria c. calciuria d. hypothermia 7. Kidney stones or a kidney infection may cause what? a. hyperthermia b. hematuria Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 c. calciuria d. hypothermia 8. What would cause urine to have a turbid appearance? a. creatinuria b. hematuria c. calciuria d. pyuria 9. While listening to a patient's lungs using a stethoscope, Dr. Gomez hears a crackle-like sound. What is the

term for this? a. rales b. stridor c. rhonchi d. bruit 10. What does stridor sound like? a. crackling b. high-pitched and musical c. rattling d. lubb-dupp 11. What does an examiner use to perform auscultation? a. sphygmomanometer b. otoscope c. speculum d. stethoscope 12. What does an examiner use to perform percussion? a. fingers b. otoscope c. hands d. stethoscope 13. While performing a physical examination on Denny French, Dr. Giles uses what instrument to examine

Denny's eyes? a. speculum b. otoscope c. ophthalmoscope d. stethoscope 14. A medical assistant assists a patient into a prone position in preparation for an exam. How is the patient Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21

positioned? a. lying face up with feet supported by stirrups b. lying on left side with right knee drawn up c. lying face down on the abdomen d. lying on back with knees bent 15. Which position would be used for a vaginal exam? a. horizontal recumbent position b. Sims' position c. prone position d. lithotomy position 16. What is another term for phlebotomy? a. arterial stick b. capillary puncture c. complete blood cell count d. venipuncture 17. The results of Ari Rosenblum's urinalysis indicate an abnormally high level of protein. Which term describes

this condition? a. bacteriuria b. albuminuria c. glycosuria d. proteinuria 18. What might cause ketonuria? a. bacterial infection b. impaired kidney function c. muscle breakdown d. starvation 19. Why would a patient have an arthrocentesis? a. to treat a heart condition b. to remove fluid from the abdomen c. to remove fluid from the pericardium d. to diagnose the cause of joint pain 20. Which would be described as radiopaque? a. teeth b. skin c. muscles Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 d. sinuses 21. Which imaging technique visualizes body parts in motion? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. fluoroscopy c. ultrasonography d. computed tomography 22. Louise Rogers, who is receiving hospice care for late-stage colon cancer, receives treatments to ease the

severity of her symptoms without curing her cancer. Which is the term for this treatment? a. hypnosis b. allopathic medicine c. holistic d. palliative 23. Which imaging technique produces multiple cross-sectional views of the body? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. fluoroscopy c. ultrasonography d. computed tomography 24. Why would a patient have a pericardiocentesis? a. to assess the condition of a fetus b. to remove fluid from the abdomen c. to remove fluid from the heart d. to diagnose the cause of joint pain 25. A patient who is not controlling their diabetes mellitus is at risk for which? a. bacteriuria b. albuminuria c. glycosuria d. ketonuria 26. A urinalysis of a patient with a urinary tract infection would most likely show what? a. bacteriuria b. albuminuria c. glycosuria d. ketonuria 27. To prepare a patient for a rectal exam, a medical assistant would most likely help the patient into which

position? a. horizontal recumbent position Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 b. Sims' position c. prone position d. recumbent 28. When would an examiner use percussion on a patient? a. to determine the density of a body part b. to examine the patient's ears c. to feel the location of a body part d. to listen for sounds within the patient's body 29. While performing a physical examination on Denny French, Dr. Giles uses what instrument to examine

Denny's ear canal? a. speculum b. otoscope c. ophthalmoscope d. stethoscope 30. What does an examiner use to perform an internal vaginal exam? a. sphygmomanometer b. otoscope c. speculum d. stethoscope 31. A partially blocked artery would cause what? a. rales b. stridor c. rhonchi d. bruit 32. While listening to a patient's lungs using a stethoscope, Dr. Wall hears coarse rattling sounds that are almost

like snoring. Which is the term for this? a. rales b. stridor c. rhonchi d. bruit 33. An excess of what in the urine indicates increased muscle breakdown? a. creatinuria b. hematuria c. calciuria d. pyuria Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 34. The results of Lilly Schwartz's urinalysis reveal abnormally high levels of calcium. What is the term for this

condition? a. creatinuria b. hematuria c. calciuria d. pyuria 35. Working outdoors in the hot sun without taking a break or drinking water places a person at risk of

developing what? a. hyperthermia b. hematuria c. calciuria d. hypothermia 36. What does an examiner use to perform palpation? a. eyes b. otoscope c. hands d. stethoscope 37. What is a term for a series of blood tests performed as a group? a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate b. capillary puncture c. complete blood cell count d. venipuncture 38. What is another term for Western medical practices? a. integrative medicine b. allopathic medicine c. Ayurvedic medicine d. naturopathic medicine 39. Which type of medical practice is based on the traditional Hindu system of medicine? a. integrative medicine b. allopathic medicine c. Ayurvedic medicine d. naturopathic medicine 40. What describes the rhythmic pressure against the walls of an artery caused by the beating of the heart? a. heart rate b. respiration c. blood pressure Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 d. pulse 41. What describes the number of complete breaths per minute? a. heart rate b. respiration c. blood pressure d. pulse 42. Which test is performed to obtain an indication of kidney function? a. blood urea nitrogen test b. red blood cell count c. crossmatch tests d. C-reactive protein test 43. Which test is performed to check for liver disease? a. blood urea nitrogen test b. red blood cell count c. serum bilirubin test d. C-reactive protein test 44. What does prothrombin time assess? a. blood clotting b. TSH levels in blood c. total blood cholesterol d. inflammation 45. Which term means radiographic film is placed within the patient's mouth? a. extraoral radiography b. dosimetry c. interventional radiology d. intraoral radiography 46. Which specialist is trained to draw blood from patients for various laboratory tests and other procedures? a. phlebotomist b. acupuncturist c. sonographer d. radiologist 47. Which scan is a nuclear scanning test that identifies new areas of bone growth or breakdown? a. nuclear scan b. bone scan c. thyroid scan Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 d. positron emission tomography 48. What does a stool gram stain test for in a sample? a. presence of pus in the urine b. blood in the stool sample c. how much fat is contained in the sample d. which bacteria are present 49. Which term means excessive acid in the body fluids? a. albumin b. alkalosis c. acidosis d. agglutination 50. What is the normal respiratory rate range for adults? a. 12-20 respirations per minute b. 100-160 respirations per minute c. 40-60 respirations per minute d. 15 respirations per minute 51. Which term describes the study of body movements and physical activity? a. kinesiology b. homeopathy c. naturopathy d. osteopathic manipulative therapy 52. Which term means temperature readings taken in the armpit? a. rectal b. oral c. temporal artery d. axillary 53. Which pulse point assesses the pulse at the wrist? a. dorsalis pedis pulse point b. carotid pulse point c. radial pulse point d. femoral pulse point 54. Which pulse point assesses at the inner thigh? a. femoral pulse point b. dorsalis pedis pulse point c. carotid pulse point Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 d. radial pulse point 55. What does a lipid panel assess? a. blood clotting b. TSH levels in blood c. total blood cholesterol d. inflammation 56. Which test is performed to identify high levels of inflammation within the body? a. blood urea nitrogen test b. red blood cell count c. crossmatch tests d. C-reactive protein test 57. What describes the force of the blood against the walls of the arteries? a. heart rate b. respiration c. blood pressure d. pulse 58. What incorporates acupuncture, diet, herbal therapy, and meditation as part of its medical practice? a. traditional Chinese medicine b. allopathic medicine c. Ayurvedic medicine d. naturopathic medicine 59. Which type of medical practice combines traditional and alternative medicine? a. integrative medicine b. allopathic medicine c. Ayurvedic medicine d. naturopathic medicine 60. A medical assistant assists a patient into a dorsal recumbent position in preparation for an exam. How is the

patient positioned? a. lying face up with feet supported by stirrups b. lying on left side with right knee drawn up c. lying face down on the abdomen d. lying on back with knees bent 61. Which term means the evaluation or appraisal of a condition? a. assessment b. palpation Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 c. vital signs d. auscultation 62. What is a normal resting heart rate in adults? a. 60-80 bpm b. 40-60 bpm c. 120-150 bpm d. 60-100 bpm 63. Which position is used for examination and treatment of the anterior surface of the body? a. horizontal recumbent b. dorsal recumbent c. knee-chest position d. Sims' position 64. Which test is used to determine the cause of a urinary tract infection? a. stool analysis b. urine culture and sensitivity test c. routine urinalysis d. drug-screening urine test 65. Which test is performed to obtain an indication of kidney function? a. lipid panel b. basic metabolic panel c. C-reactive protein test d. blood urea nitrogen 66. Elevation of which of the following indicates the presence of inflammation in the body? a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate b. platelet count c. complete blood cell count d. blood urea nitrogen test 67. Which test is used to locate problems within blood vessels throughout the body? a. sonogram b. magnetic resonance angiography c. computed tomography d. panoramic radiograph 68. Which treatment is a patient-guided treatment that teaches individuals to control muscle tension, pain, body

temperature, brain waves, and other bodily functions through relaxation?

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Chapter 21 a. mindfulness meditation b. hypnosis c. naturopathy d. biofeedback 69. Which term is also known as cardiopuncture? a. abdominocentesis b. centesis c. cardiocentesis d. pericardiocentesis 70. Which is a test used to diagnose conditions associated with abnormalities of clotting time and to monitor

anticoagulant therapy? a. C-reactive protein test b. prothrombin time c. serum bilirubin test d. crossmatch tests 71. Which term refers to a group of eight specific tests that provide important information about the current

status of the patient's kidneys, electrolyte balance, blood sugar, and calcium levels? a. basic metabolic panel b. lipid panel c. thyroid-stimulating hormone assay d. arterial blood gas analysis 72. What is a determination of the number of erythrocytes in the blood? a. white blood cell count b. white blood cell differential count c. red blood cell count d. total hemoglobin test 73. Which term is considered to be the fifth vital sign in certain settings, such as a hospital? a. pulse b. respiration c. blood pressure d. pain 74. Which technique is used when only a small amount of blood is needed as a specimen for a blood test? a. arterial stick b. capillary puncture c. phlebotomy Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 d. centesis 75. Which term describes the path that the x-ray beam follows through the patient's body from the entrance to

the exit? a. radiographic projection b. radiographic positioning c. extraoral radiography d. intraoral radiography 76. Which technique is used to help locate problems within blood vessels throughout the body? a. Doppler echocardiogram b. computed tomography c. magnetic resonance angiography d. magnetic resonance imaging 77. What technique is also known as a scintigram? a. bone scan b. thyroid scan c. radiograph d. nuclear scan 78. Which term contains a word part that means within? a. intravenous contrast medium b. cardiocentesis c. hematuria d. radiology 79. What is considered the fifth vital sign? a. pulse b. respiration c. blood pressure d. pain 80. What is a general term for practices and systems of health care that are used to supplement conventional, or

Western, treatments? a. allopathic b. alternative c. complementary d. integrative 81. Which practice involves the use of substances created from plant or mineral products diluted a thousand-fold

in water or alcohol?

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Chapter 21 a. Ayurvedic medicine b. homeopathy c. naturopathy d. traditional Chinese medicine 82. Which term refers to a type of treatment in which a patient follows verbal prompts to envision a specific,

peaceful location in detail? a. guided imagery b. hypnosis c. biofeedback d. mindfulness meditation 83. What is a form of massage that uses soft-tissue manipulation focusing on applying pressure to trigger points

to treat injuries and alleviate pain? a. myofascial release b. acupressure c. osteopathic manipulative therapy d. neuromuscular therapy 84. Which term refers to an abnormal heart sound that is most commonly a sign of defective heart valves? a. systolic b. heart murmur c. diastolic d. abdominal sounds 85. Which is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with x-rays and other

forms of radiant energy? a. radiologist b. acupuncturist c. phlebotomist d. sonographer Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. The term that describes listening through a stethoscope for sounds within the body is

.

87. An ultrasonic imaging technique performed from inside the esophagus to evaluate heart structures is

.

88. The diagnostic procedure that uses the sound produced by tapping the body surface with the finger is known Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21

as

.

89. The presence of an abnormal amount of protein in the urine is known as

.

90. Also known as crackles, abnormal crackle-like respiratory sounds heard when breathing in are

.

91. The medical term that describes a surgical puncture of the joint space to remove synovial fluid is

.

92. The presence of pus in the urine is known as

.

93. A technique that uses a thin, fan-shaped x-ray beam that rotates around the patient to produce multiple cross-

sectional views of the body is

.

94. An ultrasonic procedure to evaluate the structures and motion of the heart is

.

95. The term that describes a traditional Chinese medical practice using very thin needles inserted into specific

points of the body is

.

96. The visualization of body parts in motion by projecting x-ray images on a luminous fluorescent screen is

.

97. The term that describes the percentage, by volume, of a blood sample occupied by red cells is

.

98. The removal of a small piece of living tissue for examination or to establish a diagnosis is a/an

.

99. The term that describes the visual examination of the interior of the abdomen with a lighted instrument is

.

100. The image created by ultrasonography is a/an

.

101. The use of radiopharmaceuticals for diagnostic purposes is called

.

102. The correct spelling for the term that means extremely high body temperature, usually caused by prolonged

exposure to environmental heat is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 21 103. The correct spelling for the term that measures blood pressure is 104. The presence of bacteria in the urine is known as

. .

105. An abnormal, high-pitched, musical breathing sound caused by a blockage in the throat or larynx is

.

106. The correct pronunciation for the term that is the last heart beat heard is

.

107. The examination of the physical and chemical properties of urine to determine the presence of abnormal

elements is

.

108. A small, flexible tube with a light and lens on the end that is used for examination is a/an

.

109. The correct pronunciation for the term that means listening for sounds within the body and is usually

performed through a stethoscope is

.

110. An abnormal sound heard during auscultation of an artery is a/an 111. The puncture of a vein for the purpose of drawing blood is

. .

112. The abbreviation for the term that means the number of complete breaths per minute is

.

113. An imaging technique that records the echoes of pulses of sound waves above the range of human hearing

is

.

114. The abbreviation for the term that means the force of the blood against the walls of the arteries is

.

115. The correct spelling for the term that means an abnormal sound or murmur heard during auscultation of an

artery is

.

116. An instrument used to enlarge the opening of any canal or cavity to facilitate inspection of its interior is

a/an

.

117. The medical term that means the flow of blood through an organ is Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 21

118. The presence of the protein albumin in the urine is known as

.

119. Imaging used to guide a procedure such as a biopsy is

.

120. The medical term that refers to coarse rattling breath sounds, somewhat like snoring, is

.

121. The correct pronunciation for the term that means an abnormal, high-pitched, musical breathing sound

caused by a blockage in the throat or in the larynx is

.

122. The medical term that describes the drawing of fluid from the pericardial sac is 123. The presence of calcium in the urine is known as

.

.

124. The medical term that describes an increased concentration of creatinine in the urine is

.

125. The position in which the patient is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up and the left

arm placed along the back is the

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.

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Chapter 21 Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. c 50. a 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 52. d 53. c 54. a 55. c 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 77. d 78. a 79. d 80. c 81. b 82. a 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. auscultation 87. transesophageal echocardiography 88. percussion 89. proteinuria 90. rales 91. arthrocentesis 92. pyuria 93. computed tomography 94. echocardiography 95. acupuncture 96. fluoroscopy 97. hematocrit 98. biopsy 99. laparoscopy 100. sonogram 101. nuclear imaging Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 21 102. hyperthermia 103. sphygmomanometer 104. bacteriuria 105. stridor 106. dye-ah-STOL-ick 107. urinalysis 108. endoscope 109. aws-kul-TAY-shun 110. bruit 111. phlebotomy 112. RR 113. ultrasonography 114. BP 115. bruit 116. speculum 117. perfusion 118. albuminuria 119. interventional radiology 120. rhonchi 121. STRYE-dor 122. pericardiocentesis 123. calciuria 124. creatinuria 125. Sims' position

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Chapter 22

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the study of the effects of drugs on the human body? a. pharmacodynamics b. toxicology c. pharmacology d. pharmacokinetics 2. Any substance that has a psychological or physiological effect on the human body is called a a. medication

.

b. prescription c. drug d. controlled substance 3. Which is the United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary associated with? a. illicit drugs b. quality standards c. drug information d. dietary supplements 4. According to the Controlled Substances Act, all drugs in which of the following schedules are considered

illicit drugs? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV 5. Which is an example of durable medical equipment? a. generic drugs b. vitamins c. herbal supplements d. CPAP devices 6. Which is an example of a chemical name for a drug? a. aspirin b. Adderall® c. peyote d. 7-chloro-1,3-dihydro-1-methyl-5-phenyl-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one 7. What does the abbreviation ad lib mean?

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Chapter 22 a. before meals b. twice a day c. as desired d. by mouth 8. Which combining form means skin? a. enter/o b. derm/o c. lingu/o d. muscul/o 9. Which classifies drugs by therapeutic category, pharmacologic class, and subgroup? a. Anatomical Therapeutic Chemical Classification system b. United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary c. United States Pharmacopeia d. Controlled Substances Act 10. What does the abbreviation prn mean? a. four times a day b. every hour c. nothing by mouth d. as needed 11. What does the prefix intra- mean? a. within b. outside c. under d. across 12. Which is a round or oval object containing medication in solid form designed to be swallowed or dissolved

under the tongue? a. capsule b. suppository c. placebo d. tablet 13. In which route of medication administration are medications taken in through the nose or mouth and

absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs? a. oral administration b. sublingual administration c. rectal administration Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 d. inhalation administration 14. Cortisone ointment is a medication administered via which route of administration? a. transdermal medication b. intramuscular injection c. topical application d. vaginal administration 15. The abbreviation amt means a. to be labeled accordingly

.

b. at bedtime c. amount d. prescription 16. Which combining form means tongue? a. enter/o b. derm/o c. lingu/o d. muscul/o 17. Simone, who is hospitalized with a serious illness, requires IV therapy for more than a week, so she is given

a/an

. a. PICC line b. bolus c. intravenous injection d. topical application

18. Which combining form means poison? a. pyret/o b. thec/o c. ven/o d. toxic/o 19. What does the abbreviation ac mean? a. before meals b. twice a day c. as desired d. by mouth 20. What is the study of how drugs move through the human body from the time of administration to the time of

elimination from the body?

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Chapter 22 a. pharmacodynamics b. toxicology c. pharmacology d. pharmacokinetics 21. A written order from a licensed medical professional, such as a physician, that specifies a medication or

product to be dispensed to a patient is called a/an a. medication b. prescription c. formulary d. controlled substance

.

22. The amount of medication necessary to achieve the desired outcome is a/an a. loading dose

.

b. maintenance dose c. therapeutic dose d. overdose 23. Which best describes a side effect? a. an unexpected reaction to a drug b. a harmful dose of a drug c. a factor that makes using a drug dangerous d. a secondary response to a drug 24. Through which route is medication placed underneath the tongue to dissolve slowly? a. oral administration b. sublingual administration c. rectal administration d. inhalation administration 25. What does the abbreviation NPO mean? a. four times a day b. every hour c. nothing by mouth d. as needed 26. What is it called when two drugs are taken at the same time to enhance the effectiveness of both? a. adherence b. contraindication c. synergism Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 d. drug interaction 27. Which is true about a brand-name drug? a. Its name is always spelled with a capital letter. b. It is intended to ease pain but not cure disease. c. It is an inactive substance. d. It is often named for its chemical structure.

28. What does the suffix in anesthesia mean? a. life b. feeling c. fever d. without 29. The drugs in which class are capable of killing bacteria? a. anticoagulants b. antibiotics c. antifungal d. antihistamines 30. What does the abbreviation po mean? a. before meals b. twice a day c. as desired d. by mouth 31. What does the prefix par- mean? a. within b. outside c. under d. across 32. Che Ting, who has just started a new prescription, notices a ringing in her ears. Which term best describes

Che's reaction to her prescription? a. adverse drug reaction b. contraindication c. synergism d. drug interaction 33. The drugs in which class are capable of killing fungi? a. anticoagulants Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 b. antibiotics c. antifungal d. antihistamines 34. What is the result of medical treatment that yields the exact opposite of normally expected results? a. drug interaction b. idiosyncratic reaction c. paradoxical reaction d. contraindication 35. The abbreviation sig means a. to be labeled accordingly

.

b. at bedtime c. amount d. prescription 36. To achieve therapeutic levels, a patient who is just being started on a new medication may be given a/an

. a. loading dose b. maintenance dose c. therapeutic dose d. overdose 37. Which type of drug is sold under the name given to the drug by the manufacturer? a. brand-name b. prescription c. generic d. over-the-counter 38. Why would a patient take a proton pump inhibitor? a. to relieve shortness of breath b. to treat a viral infection c. to reduce nasal congestion d. to prevent ulcers 39. Which form of medication is covered in a dissolvable gelatin or starch casing that is designed to be

swallowed? a. capsule b. suppository c. placebo Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 d. tablet 40. What is the study of the nature, uses, and effects of drugs for medical purposes? a. pharmacodynamics b. toxicology c. pharmacology d. pharmacokinetics 41. An illicit drug whose manufacture, possession, and use are highly regulated by the government is called a/an

. a. medication b. prescription c. formulary d. controlled substance 42. Which is an example of a generic drug name? a. ibuprofen b. Tylenol® c. Darvocet® d. 3-4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine 43. Which combining form means fever? a. pyret/o b. thec/o c. ven/o d. toxic/o 44. Which best describes an idiosyncratic reaction? a. an unexpected reaction to a drug b. a harmful dose of a drug c. a factor that makes using a drug dangerous d. a secondary response to a drug 45. The drugs in which class decrease the body's response to an allergen? a. anticoagulants b. antibiotics c. antifungal d. antihistamines 46. Why would a patient take a bronchodilator?

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Chapter 22 a. to relieve shortness of breath b. to treat a viral infection c. to reduce nasal congestion d. to prevent ulcers 47. The abbreviation hs means a. to be labeled accordingly

.

b. at bedtime c. amount d. prescription 48. Why would a patient take a prostaglandin analog? a. to treat acne b. to treat a viral infection c. to prevent seizures d. to treat glaucoma 49. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. diuretics b. antitussive c. bronchodilator d. paliative 50. What does the abbreviation qh mean? a. four times a day b. every hour c. nothing by mouth d. as needed 51. Which combining form means muscle? a. enter/o b. derm/o c. lingu/o d. muscul/o 52. Medications taken through which route are absorbed through the walls of the stomach or small intestine? a. oral administration b. sublingual administration c. rectal administration d. inhalation administration Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 53. Why would a patient take a decongestant? a. to relieve shortness of breath b. to treat a viral infection c. to reduce nasal congestion d. to prevent ulcers 54. To maintain therapeutic levels, a patient who is taking a medication on an ongoing basis may receive a/an

. a. loading dose b. maintenance dose c. therapeutic dose d. overdose 55. What does the prefix sub- mean? a. within b. outside c. under d. across 56. Which is the correct pronunciation for acetylcholinesterase in the term acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? a. AY-see-tul-kol-in-ez-ter-ayz b. ah-see-tihl-koh-lin-ESS-ter-ayz c. ass-EE-tihl-koh-LUN-es-ter-ace d. ah-SEE-tull-KOL-in-ass-ter-ayz 57. Which term is spelled incorrectly? a. psychotropic drugs b. benzodiazepines c. angogenesis inhibitor d. tricyclic antidepressants 58. Which is an inactive substance, such as a sugar pill, that is administered only for its suggestive effects? a. capsule b. suppository c. placebo d. tablet 59. Which is a class of medications used to treat mood instability and bipolar disorders? a. antidepressants b. MAOIs c. anti-anxiety medications Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 d. mood stabilizers 60. Which best describes drug toxicity? a. an unexpected reaction to a drug b. a harmful dose of a drug c. a factor that makes using a drug dangerous d. a secondary response to a drug 61. Why would a patient take an anticonvulsant? a. to treat acne b. to treat a viral infection c. to prevent seizures d. to treat glaucoma 62. What does the abbreviation qid mean? a. four times a day b. every hour c. nothing by mouth d. as needed 63. Which combining form means vein? a. pyret/o b. thec/o c. ven/o d. toxic/o 64. Which is the correct pronunciation for anticholinergic? a. an-tye-koh-lih-NER-jik b. ANT-ee-koh-lin-ER-jik c. an-TEE-kole-in-ERJ-ik d. an-TYE-koh-LIN-erj-ik 65. Why would a patient take a topical retinoid? a. to treat acne b. to treat a viral infection c. to prevent seizures d. to treat glaucoma 66. The abbreviation Rx means a. to be labeled accordingly

.

b. at bedtime Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 c. amount d. prescription 67. Which form of medication is placed in the rectum, vagina, or urethra? a. capsule b. suppository c. placebo d. tablet 68. The deliberate or accidental ingestion of more medication than has been prescribed or is safe is a/an

. a. loading dose b. maintenance dose c. therapeutic dose d. overdose 69. Which class of drugs prevents hormone-positive breast cancer growth? a. aromatase inhibitors b. angiogenesis inhibitors c. benzodiazepines d. thiazolidinediones 70. A patient with Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to take which class of medication to treat their

symptoms? a. dopaminergic drugs b. alpha blockers c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitors 71. Which form of birth control is placed under the skin of the upper arm? a. contraceptive implant b. intrauterine device c. SNRIs d. birth control pills 72. A patient with Parkinson's disease would be most likely to take which class of medication to treat their

symptoms? a. dopaminergic drugs b. alpha blockers c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitors Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 73. Which best describes a contraindication? a. an unexpected reaction to a drug b. a harmful dose of a drug c. a factor that makes using a drug dangerous d. a secondary response to a drug 74. A single, concentrated dose of a drug usually injected into a blood vessel over a short period of time is a/an

. a. PICC line b. bolus c. intravenous injection d. enema 75. Medications taken through which route melts at body temperature and is absorbed through the surrounding

tissue? a. oral administration b. sublingual administration c. rectal administration d. inhalation administration 76. Which is a five-level drug classification system developed by the World Health Organization? a. Anatomical Therapeutic Chemical Classification system b. United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary c. United States Pharmacopeia d. Controlled Substances Act 77. What does the prefix trans- mean? a. within b. outside c. under d. through 78. Which combining form means sheath? a. pyret/o b. thec/o c. ven/o d. toxic/o 79. Which combining form means digestive tract? a. enter/o Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 b. derm/o c. lingu/o d. muscul/o 80. What does the abbreviation bid mean? a. before meals b. twice a day c. as desired d. by mouth 81. Which drug is named for its chemical structure? a. generic drug b. over-the-counter drug c. herbal supplement d. brand-name drug 82. Which is an example of an illicit drug? a. Robitussin AC® b. acetaminophen with codeine c. heroin d. Ambien® 83. Which is the Drug Enforcement Administration associated with? a. controlled substances b. quality standards c. drug information d. dietary supplements 84. A drug with proven benefit that is used for medical treatment is called a/an a. medication

.

b. prescription c. formulary d. controlled substance 85. What is the study of the nature, effects, and treatments of poisons and harmful substances? a. pharmacodynamics b. toxicology c. pharmacology d. pharmacokinetics Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

86. A medical professional with a Doctor of Pharmacy (PharmD) degree who formulates and dispenses

prescribed medications at a pharmacy is a/an

.

87. The abbreviation for adverse drug reaction is

.

88. The abbreviation for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is

.

89. The name for a class of drugs that stop or slow the growth of cancer cells is

.

90. MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) are a class of drugs mainly used to treat treatment-resistant

.

91. The abbreviations G and g stand for

.

92. The term that means taken into the body or administered in a manner other than through the digestive tract is

.

93. A state of light to moderate sedation where the patient is calm, relaxed, and less responsive to stimuli is

called

.

94. The absence of normal sensation, especially sensitivity to pain, that is induced by the administration of an

anesthetic agent is

.

95. An injection made into the middle layers of the skin is a/an

.

96. A class of medications administered to prevent or reduce fever is a/an

.

97. The name of a class of drugs that slow the loss of bone density in osteoporosis is

.

98. Available by prescription only to relieve severe pain, the controlled substances morphine, hydrocodone,

oxycodone, and codeine are all types of

.

99. The abbreviation for proton pump inhibitor is

.

100. A licensed professional who helps run a pharmacy under the supervision of a pharmacist is a/an

.

101. The abbreviation for angiotensin-II receptor blockers is 102. A drug that relieves pain without affecting consciousness is known as a/an

. .

103. A class of drugs that work to lower blood pressure in various ways and often to treat other heart conditions

is/are Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 22 104. A class of drugs that have antihypertensive properties and work by blocking the action of the enzyme that

causes blood vessels to contract is

.

105. A medication with antihypertensive properties that works by dilating veins, reducing the workload of the

heart, and is used to treat hypertensive emergencies, angina, and myocardial infarction is .

106. An antitussive is one of a class of medications that helps decrease the frequency of

.

107. One of several classes of medications that prevent or treat constipation by increasing bowel movements is

a/an

.

108. Liquid medications administered onto the cornea are

.

109. A course of treatment involving taking certain medications on a regular basis as instructed by a physician

or other health care professional is called a/an

.

110. A medication used in the treatment of type 1 and type 2 diabetes is

.

111. An injection made directly into muscle tissue is a/an

.

112. A common example of a thyroid replacement drug used to treat hypothyroidism is

.

113. A class of medications administered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood are

.

114. An NSAID that works as an antipyretic and interferes with the normal production of platelets is

.

115. The abbreviation NTG stands for

.

116. A drug class containing medications that relax all muscles and are used to make intubation easier is a/an

.

117. A blanket term for controlled substances that relax the body by suppressing neurotransmitters in the central

nervous system is

.

118. In intrathecal administration, medication is injected directly into the

.

119. A measured quantity of a medication ordered to be given at one time is a/an

.

120. A drug that immediately reverses the effect of another drug, such as a sedative or opioid, is called a/an

.

121. The abbreviation IV means Powered by Cognero

.

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Chapter 22 122. An injection made directly into a vein is a/an

.

123. The patient's consistency and accuracy in following the regimen prescribed by a physician or other health

care professional is called

.

124. The abbreviation IUD means

.

125. A physician who specializes in the care of patients who have been exposed to toxic levels of drugs or other

substances, either by overdose or accidental exposure, is a/an .

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Chapter 22 Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 52. a 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. d 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. c 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. pharmacist 87. ADR 88. NSAIDs 89. chemotherapy 90. depression 91. gram 92. parenteral administration 93. conscious sedation 94. anesthesia 95. intradermal injection 96. antipyretic 97. bisphosphonates 98. opioids 99. PPI 100. pharmacy technician 101. ARBs Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22 102. analgesic 103. antihypertensives 104. ACE inhibitors 105. nitroglycerin 106. coughs 107. laxative 108. eye drops 109. medication regimen 110. insulin 111. intramuscular injection 112. levothyroxine 113. antipsychotic drugs 114. aspirin 115. nitroglycerin 116. paralytic 117. sedative 118. cerebrospinal fluid 119. dose 120. reversal agent 121. intravenous injection 122. intravenous injection 123. adherence

compliance 124. intrauterine device 125. medical toxicologist Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 22

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Application-Level Test

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Lab results for Lucia Diaz, a hospitalized patient with a severe viral infection, indicate she has leukocytosis.

Based on the word parts in this term, leukocytosis means what? a. an excessive loss of a large amount of blood b. a higher-than-normal blood pressure reading c. a viral infection of the gray nerve tissue in the spinal cord d. an abnormal condition of the white blood cells 2. Aaron Se has chronic facial paralysis and is scheduled for a procedure that will repair the temporalis muscle

in his face. Which term means surgical repair of a muscle? a. myopathy b. myoplasty c. myelopathy d. mycosis 3. Which term contains a suffix that means tissue death? a. gastrosis b. hepatomegaly c. hemorrhage d. arterionecrosis 4. Dr. Patel advises Sam Wong to lose weight, exercise more, and eat a healthy diet to manage his metabolic

syndrome. What does the name of this disorder reveal about Sam's condition? a. Sam acquired the condition in the hospital. b. Sam's condition existed at the time of birth. c. Sam's condition has no known cause. d. Sam has a number of signs and symptoms.

5. Which term describes the location of the shoulder in relation to the elbow? a. proximal b. caudal c. distal d. medial 6. While performing an ultrasound on a patient who is pregnant, Dr. Gomez suspects the developing fetus may

have kidney dysplasia; this means that the fetus's kidney shows a. abnormal development b. structural changes c. underdevelopment d. enlargement Powered by Cognero

.

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Application-Level Test 7. What term contains a word root that means bone? a. synovectomy b. arthrodesis c. chondromalacia d. osteotomy 8. Dr. Simski diagnoses Sareena Lewe's pain as bursitis. Which type of joint does bursitis affect? a. cartilaginous b. fibrous c. ligament d. synovial 9. Following a cycling accident, Alan Chu sustains an injury to his lower back above the pelvis. Which

vertebrae located in this region might be affected by Alan's accident? a. cervical vertebrae b. sacrum c. lumbar vertebrae d. thoracic vertebrae 10. Following a skiing accident, Edwin was taken to the emergency room and was found to have a fracture of

his lower leg where the bone is splintered or crushed. What type of fracture does Edwin have? a. spiral fracture b. oblique fracture c. greenstick fracture d. comminuted fracture 11. Tanja Stein, who has late-stage colon cancer, is receiving in-home hospice care to keep her comfortable.

Weakened by muscle wasting, Tanja can no longer get out of bed, has no appetite, and sleeps for long periods during the day. The term for Tanja's condition of overall physical wasting is: a. atrophy b. fibromyalgia c. cachexia d. myoclonus 12. While on a training run earlier in the week, Jamal Williams felt a pain in the ball of his left foot. The pain

continues to bother him each time he runs, so he decides to make an appointment with his physical therapist.

Which condition is causing Jamal's pain? a. heel spur b. ganglion cyst c. epicondylitis d. Morton's neuroma Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 13. Which muscle is named for its location in the wrist? a. vastus lateralis b. flexor carpi c. triceps brachii d. pectoralis major 14. Which action is an example of pronation and supination? a. pedaling a bicycle b. turning a key in a lock c. performing a squat d. throwing a tennis ball 15. Following surgery, Dr. Lopez prescribed heparin for Jan Gauthier to prevent blood clots from forming while

Jan remained on bedrest for an extended time period. Heparin is an example of which type of medication? a. anticoagulant b. antiarrhythmic c. ACE inhibitor d. diuretic 16. About a year following balloon angioplasty to open a blocked coronary artery, Carlos Torres once again

begins experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and fatigue. Which term best describes what Carlos is likely experiencing? a. hypotension b. peripheral artery disease c. restenosis d. tachycardia 17. Which condition places a patient at risk of death related to developing high blood pressure that is

accompanied by damage to the organs, brain, and optic nerves, or failure of the heart and kidneys? a. essential hypertension b. malignant hypertension c. pulmonary hypertension d. secondary hypertension 18. Following a long airplane ride, Sally started experiencing pain in her calf muscles and went to see her doctor

to determine the issue. What medical term could describe her condition? a. chronic venous insufficiency b. varicose veins c. phlebitis d. venous thromboembolism 19. The neonatologist suspects that two-day-old Yolanda Fleming may have a hemolytic disease. Which blood Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test

test does the doctor order to confirm this suspicion? a. direct antiglobulin test b. complete blood count c. blood differential test d. basic metabolic panel 20. Aleah Johnson experiences extreme menorrhagia during her monthly menstrual periods as a result of which

condition? a. leukemia b. hemophilia c. pernicious anemia d. Von Willebrand disease 21. Tyrell Boyd has been taking warfarin for several days to treat deep vein thrombosis. Which test does Tyrell's

physician order to monitor the effectiveness of this treatment? a. fibrinogen activity test b. prothrombin time c. blood enzyme test d. total protein test 22. Dr. Sanchez regularly monitors Lucy Martin for splenomegaly because Lucy has which condition? a. multiple myeloma b. sepsis c. hypercoagulable state d. hereditary spherocytosis 23. Bett Munoz, who is home sick with strep throat, is experiencing an area of painful swelling on the right side

of his neck. Which term best describes this condition? a. lymphoma b. lymphangioma c. lymphadenitis d. lymphedema 24. Dr. Sun prescribes tetracycline to stop the growth of the bacteria causing Hadley Lee's urinary tract

infection. Which term describes a medication that slows or stops the growth of bacteria? a. antimycolic b. immunosuppressant c. bacteriostatic d. bactericide 25. Julie McCoy is hospitalized with a bite from a tick that had contact with a deer infected with the spirochete

Borrelia burgdorferi. What term best describes the condition?

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Application-Level Test a. anthrax b. Lyme disease c. shigellosis d. staphylococcus aureus 26. Four-year old Johnny Little was seen for a fever and rash consisting of hundreds of itchy, fluid-filled blisters

that burst and form crusts. Which term describes this condition? a. varicella b. measles c. rubella d. mumps 27. Lonnie Brooks, who has worked as a stone cutter for the last 15 years, goes to see his physician about a

persistent cough, shortness of breath, and a general feeling of tiredness. Lonnie most likely has which condition? a. cystic fibrosis b. pneumocystis pneumonia c. tuberculosis d. silicosis 28. After what she thought was a bad chest cold became progressively worse, Zaire Phillips goes to the ER

where she is diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia. This term indicates Zaire has which type of pneumonia? a. aspiration pneumonia b. viral pneumonia c. bronchopneumonia d. bacterial pneumonia 29. Which term contains a word root that is associated with the nasal cavity? a. septoplasty b. laryngotomy c. tracheostomy d. pneumonectomy 30. Sharp chest pain is characteristic of which condition? a. bronchiectasis b. pleurodynia c. granuloma d. laryngitis 31. Which term contains a word root that means breath? a. halitosis b. xerostomia Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test c. cheilitis d. gingivitis 32. Xander Battista, who has been managing symptoms of GERD for several months with medication, has

developed an esophageal stricture. The stricture is most likely to cause which problem for Xander? a. irritation of the esophageal lining b. a burning sensation in his chest c. difficulty with chewing d. problems with swallowing 33. What does the name acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis indicate about this condition? a. A patient will develop this condition gradually over time. b. The death of tissue is a consequence of this condition. c. This condition primarily affects the stomach. d. Treating this condition requires bariatric surgery.

34. Which term contains a word part that means gums? a. gingivitis b. dysphagia c. stomatitis d. cheilitis 35. Which term contains a word root that means pus? a. pyonephrosis b. polyuria c. pyelotomy d. pyelonephritis 36. Incontinence would be best compared with what? a. anuria b. enuresis c. dysuria d. oliguria 37. The hospital is running tests on Julian Stiles for what is believed to be a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which

form of UTI would pose an immediate threat to Julian's life? a. urosepsis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. urethritis 38. Why would a physician perform extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy on a patient?

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Application-Level Test a. to surgically remove a nephrolith b. to remove a nephrolith from the ureter c. to repair a defect in the bladder d. to break up a kidney stone 39. Sami Barnes stubs her big toe on a root while walking barefoot. Which type of neuron transmits this

information to Sami's spinal cord and brain? a. afferent neurons b. connecting neurons c. efferent neurons d. motor neurons 40. Which term contains a word root that means brain? a. cerebral b. neurologist c. cephalgia d. myelitis 41. Henry Ross, a construction worker, has been unable to work due to pain and muscle spasms in the lower

back. His doctor orders some tests, suspecting Henry has lumbar radiculopathy. What does this term mean? a. nerve pain originating in the lower back b. nerve pain originating in the sciatic nerve c. nerve pain originating in the fifth cranial nerve d. nerve pain originating in the neck 42. During a routine physical exam, Dr. James shines a light in Cheryl Murray's eyes to examine the anterior eye

chambers. Which term best describes Cheryl's pupils when exposed to the light? a. mydriasis b. myopia c. myringotomy d. miosis 43. Paolo Hector has been taking antibiotics for a chronic middle ear infection. Upon waking up, he feels

nauseous and dizzy and nearly loses his balance when he tries to stand. Which condition might be responsible for Paulo's vertigo? a. labyrinthitis b. otosclerosis c. acute otitis media d. infectious myringitis 44. When Carly Shen wakes up, the inner corner of her right eye is red and swollen, and her entire eye is watery.

Her doctor diagnoses her condition as an inflamed lacrimal sac. Which term describes Carly's condition?

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Application-Level Test a. dacryocystitis b. blepharitis c. conjunctivitis d. uveitis 45. Following a visit to the ophthalmologist, Denise is diagnosed with amblyopia. What does the word root in

this term indicate about Denise's condition? a. inability to focus b. double vision c. dimness of vision d. sensitivity to light 46. Within the last week, Jared Klaus's underarms have been excessively sweaty, enough to leave stains on his t-

shirts. He also notices small yellow nodules on the shafts of his underarm hair. Which term best describes Jared's condition? a. folliculitis b. androgenic alopecia c. onychomycosis d. trichomycosis axillaris 47. Kara Guide was seen by a dermatologist for red papules covered with silvery scales on her elbows and back.

What condition was Kara diagnosed with? a. psoriasis b. rosacea c. urticaria d. xeroderma 48. Henrietta Lasko was seen by her dermatologist due to sagging skin of the upper and lower eyelids. The

dermatologist plans to remove the sagging skin using which procedure? a. blepharoplasty b. Botox c. electrolysis d. lipectomy 49. Dmitri Stash has been managing his hypoparathyroidism for several years with vitamin and mineral

supplements along with synthetic parathyroid hormone. Which treatment would be most beneficial to manage Dmitri's condition? a. taking calcium supplements b. using anabolic steroids c. following a ketogenic diet d. using prednisone as needed Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 50. Tobias Landon has recently noticed a swelling in the front of his neck which is more obvious when he's

shaving. Which condition might Tobias have? a. thyroid storm b. galactorrhea c. goiter d. exophthalmos 51. Which term contains a word root that means change? a. lactogenic hormone b. oxytocin c. gonadotropin d. adrenocorticotropic hormone 52. Which treatment would be most beneficial for a female patient in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis? a. cortisone b. anabolic steroids c. estrogen d. antithyroid drug 53. After trying to have a baby with his partner for over a year, Louie Roth has a sperm analysis that reveals

oligospermia; his physician believes the cause of Louie's infertility is a physical condition that may be corrected with which surgery? a. vasovasostomy b. varicocelectomy c. orchiectomy d. vasectomy 54. Following a visit to the doctor for burning and painful urination, Nathan Davis has been diagnosed with

urethritis. Which STD is causing this infection? a. chlamydia b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. trichomoniasis 55. Fifty-five-year-old Bill Davis was seen by his physician for symptoms of low energy, decrease in

testosterone and difficulty sleeping. What condition was Mr. Davis diagnosed with? a. andropause b. orchitis c. epididymitis d. hydrocele Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 56. Which term contains the word root that means testicle? a. vasectomy b. orchiopexy c. vasovasostomy d. oligospermia 57. Following her regular gynecological exam, Natasha Davis learns she has an STD, despite being

asymptomatic. Natasha's bacterial infection places her at risk of developing which condition? a. polycystic ovary syndrome b. vaginismus c. preeclampsia d. salpingitis 58. Thirty-three-year-old Mary Alice Ragsdell, who has three children, is seeking a permanent form of

contraception. Which option would be the best choice for Mary Alice? a. conization b. dilation and curettage c. intrauterine device d. tubal ligation 59. Kia Wilson is scheduled for a colporrhaphy. What do the word parts in this term mean? a. ovary; surgical removal b. fallopian tube; surgical fixation c. vagina; surgical suturing d. breast; surgical repair 60. Jerri and her partner are trying to conceive. Approximately which days of Jerri's menstrual cycle is Jerri

likely to be fertile? a. Day 1-5 b. Days 6-12 c. Days 13-14 d. Days 15-28 61. Ten-year-old John Thomas has been having trouble with reading and learning, and his mother has asked that

he be tested. After testing was completed, John Thomas has been diagnosed with what learning disability? a. autism spectrum disorder b. dyslexia c. oppositional defiant disorder d. Tourette syndrome 62. After Andrew Jones, a Marine, returned home from Iraq, he suffered from anticipation of impending danger

and dread and extended emotional response to events he experienced during his time in Iraq. What term Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test

describes his condition? a. adjustment disorder b. panic disorder c. generalized anxiety disorder d. posttraumatic stress disorder 63. Amy was admitted to the hospital with a prolonged refusal to eat adequate amounts of food, a fear of gaining

weight, and exercising all the time. What term best describes Amy's condition? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. avoidant restrictive food intake disorder d. impulse control disorders 64. Seven-year-old Tabitha has conjunctivitis and needs to stay home from school. The word root in this term

indicates that Tabitha's condition affects which body part? a. eye b. navel c. skin d. stomach 65. What is the corrected age of an 8-week-old baby who was born 5 weeks premature? a. 5 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 13 weeks 66. Six-year-old Stella Dior returns home from school with a headache and a bright red facial rash that looks

like she's been slapped. Which condition does Stella most likely have? a. acne vulgaris b. Kawasaki disease c. erythema infectiosum d. impetigo 67. Mr. Adler is not able to go home after being hospitalized with a stroke and needs physical and occupational

therapy for a few weeks. What facility offers the services Mr. Adler needs? a. board and care b. nursing home c. skilled nursing facility d. assisted living facility 68. Cynthia Flowers, a 62-year-old female, was seen for symptoms for unintentional loss of urine when she

sneezed and coughed. What term best describes this condition?

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Application-Level Test a. stress incontinence b. overactive bladder c. urinary retention d. urinary tract infection 69. Within the last week in the hospital, Don Cooper's breathing has been irregular with alternating rapid and

shallow respiration followed by apnea. What term best describes this condition? a. air hunger b. death rattle c. dyspnea d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration 70. Over the last few months, 55-year-old Dustin Wheeler has been feeling more tired than usual and losing

weight despite no changes in his activity level or diet. Which form of leukemia matches Dustin's symptoms? a. chronic myeloid leukemia b. acute lymphocytic leukemia c. chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. acute myeloid leukemia 71. Jemima Wilson is diagnosed with ductal carcinoma in situ. In which TNM stage is Jemima's cancer? a. Stage 0 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 3 72. Daryl, who has non-small cell lung cancer, is discussing treatment options with his oncologist. Which

potential treatment option would remove the least amount of cancerous tissue from Daryl's lung? a. pneumonectomy b. core needle biopsy c. Wedge resection d. lobectomy 73. Jojo Brown, who has been managing symptoms of fibromyalgia for over a year, learns about a hands-on

therapy that might help ease her pain. Which hands-on therapy is used to treat pain related to fibromyalgia? a. homeopathy b. biofeedback c. Qi Gong d. myofascial release 74. Dr. Stefanick, an internist, sees Chris David, a 58-year-old who complains of wheezing and shortness of

breath with a family history of COPD and heart failure. What test would Dr. Stefanick order to evaluate diminished movement or paralysis of the diaphragm?

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Application-Level Test a. fluoroscopy b. ultrasonography c. echocardiography d. magnetic resonance angiography 75. Dr. Alton ordered a blood test to measure the amount of nitrogenous waste to obtain an indication of kidney

function. What blood test did Dr. Alton order? a. blood urea nitrogen test b. basic metabolic panel c. serum bilirubin test d. prothrombin time 76. Jared Hermes wakes up with a fever and a headache. Which medication would be most appropriate for

treating Jared's symptoms? a. lidocaine b. capsaicin c. ibuprofen d. nitroglycerin statin 77. After arriving at the ER by ambulance, Sera Dyson is diagnosed with acute bacterial meningitis. To begin

treating Sera, the ER doctor orders a single, concentrated dose of antibiotics. How will this medication be administered? a. via a PICC line b. by subcutaneous injection c. through transdermal administration d. as a bolus 78. Max Green's physician places him on a diuretic to treat Max's a. high cholesterol

.

b. GERD c. hypertension d. hypothyroidism

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Application-Level Test Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. c Powered by Cognero

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Application-Level Test 77. d 78. c

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Final Test

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which term describes an abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the

body? a. fistula b. infection c. inflammation d. laceration 2. Which term contains a word part that means surgical repair? a. neuroplasty b. tonsillectomy c. arthroscopy d. tenorrhaphy 3. What does the medical term remission mean? a. the temporary, partial, or complete disappearance of the symptoms of a disease without having

achieved a cure b. objective evidence of disease, such as a fever c. a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process d. a word formed from the initial letter of the major parts of a compound term 4. In the medical term perinatal, what does the prefix mean? a. surrounding b. before c. pertaining to d. birth 5. Which term means specialized membranes that line the body cavities? a. mucous b. mucus c. myoplasty d. malaise 6. Which is the study of the causes of diseases or abnormal conditions? a. anatomy b. etiology c. pathology d. physiology 7. Which is an unfavorable response to a prescribed medical treatment?

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Final Test a. iatrogenic illness b. idiopathic disease c. functional disorder d. nosocomial infection 8. Which is the abnormal development or growth of cells? a. anaplasia b. aplasia c. dysplasia d. hyperplasia 9. Which professional specializes in the laboratory analysis of diseased tissue to confirm or establish a

diagnosis? a. histologist b. geneticist c. cytologist d. pathologist 10. Which suffix means development? a. -plasia b. -trophy c. -crine d. -itis 11. Which type of fracture occurs as the result of a severe twisting motion, such as in a sports injury? a. open fracture b. compression fracture c. spiral fracture d. comminuted fracture 12. Which is a benign bony projection covered with cartilage? a. osteochondroma b. myosarcoma c. lymphoma d. carcinoma in situ 13. Which abnormal condition of the lumbar spine is also known as swayback? a. lordosis b. kyphosis c. scoliosis d. spondylosis Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 14. Which is thinner-than-average bone density? a. hallux valgus b. spina bifida c. osteopenia d. subluxation 15. What is the name of the medical specialist who specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders

originating from misalignment of the spine? a. rheumatologist b. chiropractor c. orthopedic surgeon d. podiatrist 16. Which condition is abnormally increased muscle function or activity? a. bradykinesia b. dyskinesia c. hyperkinesia d. hypotonia 17. Which is an injury to a joint such as the ankle, knee, or wrist? a. polymyositis b. shin splint c. sprain d. myoclonus 18. Which term contains a suffix that means to set free? a. tenolysis b. tenotomy c. tenosynovitis d. tenodesis 19. A muscle is stimulated by a nerve impulse during which process? a. relaxation b. innervation c. contraction d. adduction 20. Which is the name for a muscle that is in straight alignment with the body's vertical axis? a. transverse b. rectus Powered by Cognero

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Final Test c. sphincter d. oblique 21. Which is a localized balloon-like enlargement of an artery? a. aneurysm b. atherosclerosis c. thrombus d. arrhythmia 22. Which is the blockage of a blood vessel by a foreign object circulating in the blood? a. embolism b. embolus c. coronary thrombosis d. thrombus 23. Which condition is commonly known as a heart attack? a. ventricular tachycardia b. myocardial infarction c. coronary artery disease d. cardiac arrest 24. Low blood pressure that occurs on standing up is known as which? a. bradycardia b. Raynaud's disease c. orthostatic hypotension d. chronic venous insufficiency 25. Which is the medical term for an abnormally rapid heartbeat? a. atrial fibrillation b. bradycardia c. ventricular fibrillation d. tachycardia 26. Which form of anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are larger than normal? a. aplastic anemia b. hemolytic anemia c. megaloblastic anemia d. pernicious anemia 27. Which term contains a word part that means pertaining to formation?

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Final Test a. myelodysplastic syndrome b. lymphoma c. myeloid d. leukemia 28. A person with which blood type can receive all types of blood? a. type A b. type B c. type AB d. type O 29. Which are considered a formed element? a. thrombocytes b. globulins c. plasma d. antigens 30. Why might a physician order a direct antiglobulin test for a patient? a. to assess vitamin K blood levels b. to measure blood cholesterol levels c. to investigate a possible hemolytic transfusion reaction d. to assess albumin and globulin blood levels 31. Which is a small bacterium that lives in lice, fleas, ticks, and mites? a. rickettsia b. spirochete c. staphylococcus d. streptococcus 32. Which condition is commonly known as chickenpox? a. toxoplasmosis b. herpes zoster c. varicella d. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome 33. Which autoimmune disorder affects the nerve and muscle synapses? a. myasthenia gravis b. multiple sclerosis c. pernicious anemia d. rheumatoid arthritis Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 34. Which bacteria are rod-shaped, spore-forming? a. bacilli b. spirochetes c. staphylococci d. streptococci 35. Which structure is a sac-like mass of lymphoid tissue located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, just

inferior to the diaphragm and posterior to the stomach? a. spleen b. tonsils c. lymph nodes d. lymphatic capillaries 36. Which term means abnormally increased carbon dioxide in the blood? a. hypoxia b. hypopnea c. hyperpnea d. hypercapnia 37. Which means the loss of consciousness that occurs when the body cannot get the oxygen it needs to

function? a. bronchospasm b. asphyxia c. cyanosis d. dyspnea 38. Which is the medical term for any voice impairment, including hoarseness, weakness, or loss of voice? a. dysphonia b. dysphagia c. laryngitis d. laryngospasm 39. Which term contains a combining form that means pus? a. pleurodynia b. granuloma c. pneumothorax d. pyothorax 40. Which structure is part of the lower respiratory tract? a. trachea b. epiglottis c. bronchial tree Powered by Cognero

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Final Test d. larynx 41. Which is the rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine? a. flatulence b. borborygmus c. eructation d. ascites 42. Which is the surgical creation of an opening between the colon and body surface? a. colostomy b. gastroduodenostomy c. gastrostomy d. colonoscopy 43. Which medical specialty specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum, and anus? a. proctologist b. gastroenterologist c. periodontist d. maxillofacial surgeon 44. Which structure removes excess glucose, which is commonly known as blood sugar, from the bloodstream

and stores it as glycogen? a. liver b. biliary tree c. pancreas d. gallbladder 45. Which structure is the narrow passage that connects the stomach with the small intestine? a. pylorus b. pyloric sphincter c. pharynx d. pancreas 46. Which are the microscopic functional units of each kidney? a. meatus b. calculi c. nephrons d. ureters 47. Which is the procedure that frees a kidney from adhesions? a. glomerulonephritis b. nephrolithiasis Powered by Cognero

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Final Test c. nephropyosis d. nephrolysis 48. Which describes the absence of urine formation by the kidneys? a. azotemia b. anuria c. oliguria d. polyuria 49. Which term contains a suffix that means surgical suturing? a. cystectomy b. lithotomy c. cystorrhaphy d. urethroplasty 50. Which best describes normal urine? a. alkaline b. cloudy c. odorless d. amber 51. Which condition is an inflammation of the tissues surrounding the brain and spinal cord? a. encephalitis b. myelitis c. meningitis d. poliomyelitis 52. Which is a prickling or burning sensation without an apparent cause? a. aphasia b. lethargy c. delirium d. paresthesia 53. Which condition is described as a lowered level of consciousness marked by listlessness, drowsiness, and

apathy? a. lethargy b. stupor c. coma d. syncope 54. Which part of the brain coordinates muscular activity and balance for smooth and steady movements? a. cerebrum Powered by Cognero

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Final Test b. cerebral cortex c. cerebellum d. brainstem 55. Which structures are root-like processes that receive impulses and conduct them to the cell body? a. dendrites b. axons c. synapses d. reflexes 56. Which term describes a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of

the cornea? a. esotropia b. astigmatism c. nystagmus d. strabismus 57. Which is a hearing condition associated with aging? a. mydriasis b. presbycusis c. presbyopia d. vertigo 58. Which term contains a word root that means pupil? a. xerophthalmia b. dacryocystitis c. anisocoria d. uveitis 59. Which is the abbreviation for right eye? a. AU b. OD c. AS d. OS 60. Sharp central vision occurs in which part of the eye? a. macula b. fovea centralis c. cornea d. rods Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 61. Which is the partial or complete loss of hair that occurs most commonly on the scalp? a. alopecia b. albinism c. hirsutism d. vitiligo 62. Which term means an infestation with lice? a. pediculosis b. verrucae c. scabies d. tinea 63. Which term describes a small bump that itches? a. papule b. nodule c. wheal d. macule 64. Which term has a word part meaning flushed? a. erythema b. dermatitis c. ichthyosis d. urticaria 65. Which structure helps the body synthesize vitamin D from the sun's ultraviolet light? a. skin b. hair c. nails d. sweat glands 66. Which hormone is secreted by the cells of the pancreatic islets to increase the amount of glucose in the

blood? a. insulin b. calcitonin c. glucagon d. estrogen 67. Which is one of the two primary thyroid hormones that influence the rate of metabolism? a. thymosin Powered by Cognero

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Final Test b. oxytocin c. thyroxine d. luteinizing hormone 68. Which condition is caused by insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone? a. diabetes insipidus b. gestational diabetes mellitus c. prediabetes d. diabetes mellitus 69. Which describes the excessive urination that is symptomatic of hyperglycemia? a. hypercalcemia b. polyuria c. polydipsia d. polyphagia 70. What does the word root in the term hypophysectomy mean? a. thymus b. pancreas c. pituitary gland d. change 71. Which common sexually transmitted disease is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis? a. syphilis b. gonorrhea c. chlamydia d. trichomoniasis 72. Which is the absence of sperm in the semen? a. oligospermia b. varicocele c. azoospermia d. hematospermia 73. Which procedure is done to store sperm prior to treatment for testicular cancer? a. cryopreservation b. orchiopexy c. vasovasostomy d. orchiectomy 74. Which term is known as undescended testicle?

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Final Test a. cryptorchidism b. testicular torsion c. varicocele d. epididymitis 75. Which is known as the prepuce? a. foreskin b. urethral meatus c. glans penis d. vas deferens 76. Which condition is characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria? a. uterine prolapse b. abruptio placentae c. placenta previa d. preeclampsia 77. Which is the direct visual examination of the inside of the uterus and cervix? a. colposcopy b. hysteroscopy c. hysterosalpingography d. endometrial biopsy 78. Which is the transition phase between regular menstrual periods and no periods at all? a. menarche b. andropause c. perimenopause d. menopause 79. Which is the specialized form of milk produced by the mammary glands immediately after birth? a. colostrum b. meconium c. vernix d. lochia 80. Which term contains a combining form that means scanty? a. amenorrhea b. metrorrhagia c. oligomenorrhea d. fibroadenoma Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 81. Which is a false personal belief that is maintained despite obvious proof or evidence to the contrary? a. delirium b. delusion c. dementia d. hallucination 82. Which condition is characterized by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors to purge the food? a. somatic symptom disorder b. anorexia nervosa c. paraphilic disorders d. bulimia nervosa 83. Which condition is described as an excessive fear of heights? a. acrophobia b. agoraphobia c. claustrophobia d. panic disorder 84. Which condition has symptoms of emotional numbing and hyperarousal? a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. obsessive-compulsive disorder c. body dysmorphic disorder d. hoarding disorder 85. Which condition is a sensory perception experienced in the absence of any actual external stimulus? a. hallucination b. delusion c. psychosis d. catatonic behavior 86. What does the word root in the term neonatologist mean? a. new b. born c. child d. fetus 87. Which medical professional works with children who have mental health and behavioral issues? a. child psychologist b. neonatologist c. pediatric endocrinologist d. pediatrician Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 88. A patient would receive the MenB vaccine as protection from which disease? a. chickenpox b. rotavirus c. meningococcal disease d. polio 89. Which is an example of child abuse? a. sudden infant death syndrome b. birth injury c. attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. shaken baby syndrome 90. The development of a child's secondary sex characteristics is assessed using which tool? a. growth chart b. body mass index c. Tanner staging d. Apgar score 91. Which term is defined as the loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that comes with aging? a. sarcopenia b. arthrosclerosis c. spinal stenosis d. osteoarthritis 92. Which term has a word part that means pouring out of juice? a. ecchymosis b. contusion c. hematoma d. osteoporosis 93. Which term means pain in the leg muscles that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest? a. intermittent claudication b. peripheral artery disease c. chronic venous insufficiency d. stasis dermatitis 94. Which term is also known as atrioventricular block? a. heart block b. bundle branch block Powered by Cognero

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Final Test c. first-degree heart block d. third-degree heart block 95. Which term is defined as medical care given to a patient with a medical condition that cannot be cured, such

as cancer? a. palliative care b. memory care c. hospice care d. board and care 96. Which combining form means breast? a. aden/o b. melan/o c. path/o d. mamm/o 97. Which is true about hyperplasia? a. Cells form abnormal shapes. b. Cells create their own blood supply. c. Cells increase in number. d. Cells are precancerous.

98. Which is true about myelodysplastic syndrome? a. It develops in connective tissues. b. It occurs in epithelial tissue. c. It is most common in children. d. It may lead to leukemia.

99. Which form of cancer may occur on the skin under the nails? a. acral lentiginous melanoma b. Bowen disease c. adenomatous polyp d. malignant melanoma 100. Which treatment technique is used to treat damaged and precancerous skin? a. tomotherapy b. photodynamic therapy c. brachytherapy d. chemoprevention 101. Which is a surgical puncture of the joint space to remove synovial fluid?

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Final Test a. abdominocentesis b. amniocentesis c. arthrocentesis d. arthroscopy 102. Which imaging system combines tomography with radionuclide tracers? a. fluoroscopy b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. ultrasonography 103. Which term is also known as crackles? a. rales b. rhonchi c. stridor d. bruit 104. What instrument is used to listen to sounds within the body? a. stethoscope b. speculum c. otoscope d. ophthalmoscope 105. Which test uses sound waves to measure blood flow within the veins and arteries? a. Doppler ultrasound b. echocardiography c. nuclear imaging d. scintigram 106. Which means an injection made into the middle layers of the skin? a. intradermal injection b. intramuscular injection c. intravenous injection d. subcutaneous injection 107. Which medication is an inactive substance that relieves pain without affecting consciousness? a. antipyretic b. contraindication c. analgesic d. placebo Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 108. Which abbreviation means drops or drip? a. qid b. gtt c. tid d. prn 109. Jerome, who has been taking an antidepressant for several months, now requires a higher dose to achieve

the desired effect because his body has developed a/an

to the medication.

a. paradoxical reaction b. drug tolerance c. idiosyncratic reaction d. adverse drug reaction 110. What does the word root in the term parenteral mean? a. outside b. skin c. digestive tract d. tongue

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Final Test Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 77. b 78. c 79. a 80. c 81. b 82. d 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. a 95. a 96. d 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. b 101. c 102. c Powered by Cognero

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Final Test 103. a 104. a 105. a 106. a 107. c 108. b 109. b 110. c

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