Systems Analysis And Design In A Changing World 7th Edition By John Satzinger, Robert Jackson, Steph

Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design 1. An information system often includes the software, the database, and the related manual processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p4 2. Systems analysis is sometimes referred to as “understanding and specification.” a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p4 3. Systems design consists of activities to describe the solution to the problem. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p5 4. Systems development is always a formal activity with a beginning and an end. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p6 5. The SDLC means the Systems Design Life Cycle. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p7 6. Agile Development refers to the flexibility that programmers have in taking on various assignments. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 7. Iterative development is the same as Agile development. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 8. In iterative development the system is grown organically. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 9. The first core process is to plan the project. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 10. In iterative development, an iteration usually lasts about six weeks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p10 11. The System Vision Document is usually developed before the project actually begins. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12 12. The project plan is required to get the project approved. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12 13. A Work Breakdown Structure is the first step in building a project schedule. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p14 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design 14. During analysis activities the project team build two types of diagrams: Use Case diagram and Package diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p17-18 15. The purpose of a workflow diagram is to document the internal steps of a use case. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p19 16. The ovals in a workflow diagram represent tasks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p19-20 17. The database is designed using information from the class diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p22 18. All the classes in the Design Class Diagram are used to define the database tables. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p24 19. A package diagram is useful to document the various subsystems in a system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p24-25 20. Usually the final step in a given iteration is to deploy part of the system. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p27 21. One approach to the SDLC can be described using five core processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p7 22. An iteration normally only includes three or four of the core processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 23. Sometimes the activities within Core Process one are completed before the actual project starts. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p11 24. An information system consists of a. software, database, and manual processes b. software, hardware, and network c. software, hardware, and database d. applications, screens, and database ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p4 25. A person that functions as an architect to plan, capture the vision, and understand the needs for a new system is often called a ____________________. a. programmer analyst b. software engineer c. systems analyst d. software developer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p6 26. Those activities that enable a person to describe in the detail the system that solves the need is called __________________.

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design a. architectural design b. systems design c. systems analysis d. high-level design ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p5 27. SDLC stands for what? a. Software Design Life Cycle b. Systems Design Life Cycle c. Software Development Life Cycle d. Systems Development Life Cycle ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p7 28. An information system development process that emphasizes flexibility to embrace change is called _____________________. a. Iterative project planning b. Adaptive development projects c. Iterative development d. Agile development ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 29. When a system is partitioned into pieces, each piece is referred to as a _________________. a. application b. package c. subsystem d. program ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12-13 30. Two important goals or steps within Core Process one are ____ and _____. a. identify the problem; choose the project manager b. identify the solution objective; obtain project approval c. describe the solution; obtain project approval d. estimate the cost; identify the iterations Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12 31. Determine the major subsystems and assigning them to an iteration is done in which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12 32. Determining team members and assigning responsibilities is done in which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p12 33. Two of the primary elements that are included in a Work Breakdown Structure include: a. subsystem iteration assignments and estimated effort b. sequence of tasks and estimated effort c. list of tasks and assigned resources d. list of tasks and estimated effort ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p14 34. The primary difference between a work breakdown structure and a work sequence draft is that the work sequence draft shows ___________________. a. the additionally deployment tasks b. the estimated effort of tasks c. the day to day assignments d. the sequence of tasks ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p15 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design 35. The purpose of a use case is to _______. a. Identify a sequence of steps to process a user function b. Identify a business event that requires system action c. Identify a useful objective for the new system d. Identify a user and describe one user procedure ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p116-17 36. The purpose of a class diagram is to _______. a. document the hierarchy of class relationships b. document the methods of classes in the new system c. document all of the programming classes d. document the information requirements in the new system ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p117-18 37. The boxes on a class diagram can be thought of as a particular _______. a. set of relationships b. set of attributes c. set of objects d. set of procedures ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p18 38. The diagram that is most effective in describing the internal steps of a use case is _______. a. a package diagram b. a workflow diagram c. a use case diagram d. a class diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p19-20 39. Performing in-depth fact finding to understand details is done as part of which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design REFERENCES: p18-19 40. In a workflow diagram, the arrows that cross the center line are used to identify what? a. Relationships between objects b. Actor and use case relationships c. User key strokes d. Screens and Reports ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p20 41. Designing the database schema is included in which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p21 42. Detailed design is the thought process of how to program each _______. a. use case b. screen or report c. package d. subsystem ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p23 43. Another name for a workflow diagram is a(n) _______ diagram. a. use case b. activity c. class d. work sequence ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p19 44. To design the database schema, information from which diagram is the most important? a. network diagram b. package diagram c. design class diagram d. class diagram Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p22 45. Method signatures are included in which diagram? a. Activity diagram b. Package diagram c. class diagram d. Design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p24 46. A diagram that shows the overall structure of a system as it exists after it is deployed is called what? a. Software components diagram b. Architectural class diagram c. System and subsystem diagram d. Design class diagram ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p23 47. Programming is included in which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p25-26 48. Overall functional testing is included in which Core Process? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 ANSWER: f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p26 49. What is the purpose of an iteration recap?

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design a. To ensure the correct deliverable was produced b. To review the project processes c. To give performance reviews to the programmers d. To rework the project schedule ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p27 50. What is the single activity that usually requires the most time during a project? a. Programming b. Acceptance testing c. Meeting with users d. Design the screens and reports ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p15 51. What is usually the end result of an iteration? a. A piece of working code b. A project plan c. A set of specifications d. The final system ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 52. Which two answers identify the two middle core processes, i.e. core process 3 and 4? (choose two) a. Design the components b. Plan and monitor the project c. Build and test the system d. Understand the details of the problem ANSWER: a, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p7 53. Two of the primary benefits of iterative development include (choose two). a. early deployment of part of the system b. easier to get user involvement c. project team can adjust the work schedules d. high risk elements done first ANSWER: a, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p9 54. What are the three parts of a System Vision Document? (choose three) Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design a. Solution description b. Estimated project costs c. Project timetable or schedule d. Problem description e. System capabilities f. Business benefits ANSWER: d, e, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p13 55. A work sequence draft provides three benefits to a project. Which of the following are included in those benefits? a. Assign resources to tasks b. Provide task descriptions c. Measure progress d. Add missing tasks e. Anticipate resource needs f. Schedule user involvement ANSWER: c, e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p16 56. What are the first two models, e.g. diagrams that include the entire system, that are built during the Core Process to discover and understand the details? a. Workflow diagram b. Work sequence diagram c. Use case diagram d. Class diagram e. Package diagram f. Screen layouts ANSWER: c, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p17-19 57. Another term that is used to define a computer application is _______________.

ANSWER: app App POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p4 58. Those skills, steps, guides, and tools that support and lead up to the actual programming of the system are referred to as ___________________.

ANSWER: SA&D systems analysis and design

POINTS:

Systems Analysis and Design 2

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design REFERENCES: p5-6 59. A planned undertaking that has a beginning and an end and produces some result is called a _________________.

ANSWER: project POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p7 60. What is the term that is used to describe all the activities to build, launch, and maintain an information system?

ANSWER: SDLC Systems Development Life Cycle Systems development life cycle systems development life cycle POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p7 61. A development process where the system is grown piece by piece is called ____________.

ANSWER: iterative development POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p8 62. The primary output of Core Process One and which is used to get project approval is called ___________________.

ANSWER: System Vision Document system vision document POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p12 63. A document that identifies and lists all of the tasks to be completed within an iteration is called a ___________________.

ANSWER: work breakdown structure Work Breakdown Structure POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p14 64. A diagram that shows the method signatures in each class is called the _______.

ANSWER: design class diagram DCD POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p24 65. What is the name of the diagram that is often used to show the different layers of the system (view layer, etc.)?

ANSWER: Package Diagram package diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p25 66. What do we call the type of testing that the users perform to ensure that the system meets the business requirements?

ANSWER: User acceptance testing User Acceptance Testing Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design Acceptance testing Acceptance Testing POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p26 67. Those activities that enable a person to understand and specify what the new system should accomplish are usually referred to as _________ __________.

ANSWER: systems analysis POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p4 68. Those activities that enable a person to describe in detail how the information systems will actually be implemented are called ______ __________.

ANSWER: systems design POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p5 69. _______________ _______________ is the term used to describe an information system development methodology that emphasizes flexibility and rapid response to anticipate new requirements during development.

ANSWER: Agile development POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p8 70. List the six core processes.

ANSWER: 1. Identify the problem 2. Plan and monitor the project 3. Discover and understand the problem (analysis) 4. Design the system components 5. Build, text, and integrate system components 6. Complete system test and deploy the system POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p7 71. List the three components that are included in a System Vision Document.

ANSWER: 1. Problem description 2. System capabilities 3. Business benefits POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p13 72. List the four steps required to conduct system test or user test.

ANSWER: 1. Create the test data 2. Conduct the test 3. Document the errors and issues 4. Fix the errors.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p27 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems Analysis and Design

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements 1. Systems analysis involves the creation of logical models. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p43 p58 2. The reason an analyst uses many different models is that each relates to a different aspect of the system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p43 p59 3. Sometimes a narrative description is the best form to use for recording information. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p 59 4. A key reason that modeling is important in system development is the complexity of describing information systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p58 5. Before gathering detailed information, and analyst identifies every type of stakeholder. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p47 6. In the RMO CSMS project, customers are not considered stakeholders because it is not feasible to interview them or use them in the project activities. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p48 7. Core Process 3 involves defining in great detail what the information system needs to accomplish in order to provide Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements the organization with the desired benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p42 p43 8. Beginning analysts often underestimate how much there is to learn about the work the users perform. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p43 9. A fact finding user interview can usually be completed in one comprehensive session. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p50 p52 10. If the analysts understand the major business processes, it is not usually necessary to create a comprehensive list of all business processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p50 11. The first and most important step in preparing for an interview is to determine who should be involved. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p51 12. Asking about error conditions usually is done in later interviews after the analyst understands and documents the basic processing requirements. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p52 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements 13. A good way to remember the details of an interview is to use a tape recorder. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p53 14. Reviewing existing documentation is a good idea for analysts because it is a dependable source of accurate policies and procedures. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p56 15. When observing business processes, it is not necessary to observe all the processes at the same level of detail. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p57 16. It is a good idea to observe user processes so that the analyst will know exactly how to build the functions into the new system. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p57 17. The term “I’ll know it when I see it” applies to one valid way to get requirements definition. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p58 18. A decision point within an activity diagram may be shown with an activity symbol. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p60 19. A synchronization bar in an activity diagram allows multiple agents or actors to participate in a workflow in separate rows.

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p60-61 20. FURPS and FURPS+ are synonymous. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p46 21. The term technology architecture refers to a. the software resources which make up the information systems b. the hardware, network, and system software c. the combination of information systems and the hardware infrastructure d. the configuration of the old technology and new technology within an organization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p39 22. Application architecture is used to refer to a. the organization and configuration of all software solutions into information systems b. the application of the information system to solve business problems c. the architectural structure of the subsystems within a software application d. the relationship between software applications and the areas of the organization that they support ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p40 23. Which of the following items is NOT a part of the application architecture? a. software b. programming languages and development tools c. user-interface technology d. virtual private networks ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p40 24. Which of the following describes what the system is required to do? a. Functional requirements b. General requirements c. User requirements d. Nonfunctional requirements Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p45 25. _______ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its business. a. Physical b. Functional c. Logical d. System ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p45 26. _______ requirements are characteristics of the system other than the business procedures it must support. a. System b. Physical c. Nonfunctional d. Implementation ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p45 27. The S in the FURPS acronym stands for _______. a. Screen and reporting requirements b. Software requirements c. System requirements d. Security requirements ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p45-46 28. The P in the FURPS acronym stands for _______. a. Physical requirements b. Performance requirements c. People requirements d. Processing requirements ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p45-46 29. _______ requirements are most often documented in graphical and textual models. a. Security b. Nonfunctional c. Technical d. Functional Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p59 30. Diagrams and schematic representations of some aspect of a system are examples of a ______ model. a. logical b. graphical c. mathematical d. textual ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p59 31. A representation of some aspect of the system being built is a _______. a. requirement b. technique c. model d. user interface ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p58 32. A series of formulas that describe technical aspects of a system is a(n) model. a. textual b. descriptive c. graphical d. mathematical ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p59 33. What does the Acronym UML stand for? a. User Modification Language b. Unified Modeling Language c. User Mode Listings d. Unix Modeling Language ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p59 34. The term _______ refers to all the people who have an interest in the successful implementation of the system. a. users b. clients c. managers d. stakeholders Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p47 35. Persons who regularly interact with the system as part of their jobs are called _______. a. user stakeholders b. client stakeholders c. operational stakeholders d. executive stakeholders ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p47 36. What type of stakeholders are those that do not use the system on day to day tasks, but use information, such as reports, from the system. a. Business stakeholders b. Client stakeholders c. External stakeholders d. Executive stakeholders ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p48 37. What do we call the person or group who provides funding for the development of the new system? a. Oversight committee b. Client c. Board of directors d. Department head ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p48 38. The group that provides direction for the configuration of the new system in the existing computing environment are called _______. a. Technical stakeholders b. Support staff c. System programmers d. Operational stakeholders ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p48 39. Clients play what role in the development of the new system? a. Develop the project plan b. Fund the project Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. Define business processes d. Lead the project team ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p48 40. Questionnaires can be useful in information gathering when users _____. a. are widely distributed geographically b. need prompting to respond to questions c. are not well-informed d. do not have time for interviews ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54 41. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called _______ questions. a. true/false b. close-ended c. open-ended d. multiple choice ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p51 42. Which of the following is normally the most time-consuming and resource-expensive operation? a. Building prototypes b. Observing business processes c. Researching vendor solutions d. Interview stakeholders ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p50 43. Questionnaires can be used to ask questions that _______. a. determine user opinions b. determine the stakeholders c. define system functions d. detail user procedures ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54 44. During a fact-finding interview, an important guideline is ____. a. to include as many users as possible b. not to waste project time by including too many analysts Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. to probe to get sufficient details d. to include the client in important decisions ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p52 45. The strength of closed-ended questions is that they ____. a. invite discussion and elaboration b. limit answers to a set of choices c. speed up the interview process d. are easier for the users to answer ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p51 46. Which of the following statements is correct about questionnaires? a. Questionnaires are well suited to help you learn about processes, workflows, or techniques. b. Stakeholders always return questionnaires that contain many open-ended questions. c. Questionnaires have a limited and specific use in information gathering. d. Questionnaires are the most frequently used method to gather user information.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54-55 47. The most important step in preparing for an interview is to _______. a. determine the correct users b. build a list of questions c. establish an objective d. determine the project team members ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p51 48. Asking many detailed, probing questions during an initial interview usually _______. a. makes the users uncomfortable b. is necessary to understand the business process c. can wait until follow-up interviews d. indicates that the analyst does not understand the business ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p52 49. ____ is an important part of each interview. a. Follow-up b. Review of the requirements models Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. An agenda d. Finalize processing decisions ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54 50. _______ is an important part of the follow-up after an interview. a. Establishing documentation guidelines b. Building models c. Making copies of everyone’s notes d. Setting the time for the next meeting ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54 51. Every successful interview requires ____. a. open-ended questions b. preparation c. an activity diagram d. finding the exception conditions ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p51 52. As part of the interview process, any unresolved issues should be _______. a. noted in the analyst’s meeting notes b. given a tentative resolution c. brought to the attention of the appropriate manager d. put on an open-items list ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p54 53. One of the dangers in researching vendor solutions is that users and analysts _______. a. may discover and desire too many unimportant “bells and whistles” b. may not understand the vendor solution c. may discover different methods to perform business processes d. may want to buy one of these solutions prematurely ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p57 54. The term “I’ll know it when I see it” refers to what method of requirements definition. a. Questionnaires b. User interviews Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. Observing business procedures d. Collecting active user comments ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p58 55. One way to show multiple, independent alternative paths within an activity diagram is with a _______. a. synchronization bar b. swimlane c. decision diamond d. activity oval ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p60 56. Workflows can be documented using _______. a. swimlanes b. use case diagrams c. class diagrams d. activity diagrams ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p560 57. Looping in an activity diagram is best represented using what? a. synchronization bars b. decision points c. activity ovals d. lines with arrowheads ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p560 58. One important reason for prioritizing requirements is to _______. a. assign work within an iteration b. speed up the project c. avoid confusing the users d. avoid scope creep ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p44 59. The “+” in FURPS+ includes which of the following types of requirements? (choose two) a. Supportability requirements b. Performance constraints Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. Reliability constraints d. Nonfunctional requirements e. Design constraints f. User interface requirements ANSWER: a, e POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 60. Which are the major business themes that guide analysts in fact finding activities? (chose 3) a. What are the business processes? b. Who performs the business processes? c. How are the business processes performed? d. What are the objectives of a business process? (What should it accomplish?) e. What is produced by the business process? f. What information is needed?

ANSWER: a, c, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p50-51 61. What are the two primary benefits of reviewing the documentation of existing inputs, outputs, and procedures. (choose 2) a. Have a repository of existing documentation b. Obtain a preliminary understanding c. Encourages the users to prepare for interviews d. Help build models of existing procedures e. Ensure complete documentation of procedures f. Serve as visual aids in interview discussions ANSWER: b, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p55-56 62. Two benefits of researching vendor solutions include _______ and ______. (Choose two) a. encouraging the users to buy a vendor solution immediately b. helping analysts discover state of the art solutions c. helping users generate new ideas for business functions d. speeding up the development project e. informing senior management about competitors f. reducing the risk of implementing a new system ANSWER: b, c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p57 63. Which two of the following are activities of Core Process 3? (choose two) a. Gather detailed information b. Plan the project iterations Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements c. Build an iteration schedule d. Define test data e. Develop user-interface dialogs f. Develop architectural structure ANSWER: a, e POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p42 64. Core Process 3 is called “Discover and understand details.” Another term that is used to describe these activities is _______ activities.

ANSWER: analysis Analysis systems analysis

Systems Analysis POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p42 65. The U in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

ANSWER: usability Usability usability requirements Usability requirements POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p45 66. The R in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

ANSWER: reliability requirements Reliability requirements reliability

Reliability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p45 67. The P in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

ANSWER: performance requirements performance Performance Performance requirements POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 68. _______ requirements describe operational characteristics related to users such as work procedures and online help.

ANSWER: Usability usability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p45 69. _______ requirements describe the dependability of a system such as service outages and incorrect processing.

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements ANSWER:

Reliability reliability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p45 70. _______ requirements describe operational characteristics related to measures of workload such as throughput and response time.

ANSWER: Performance performance POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 71. _______ requirements describe how access to the software application will be controlled and data will be protected.

ANSWER: Security security POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 72. _______ requirements describe constraints such as programming languages, tools, and communication protocols for distributed portions of the system.

ANSWER: Implementation implementation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 73. _______ requirements describe interactions between systems, e.g. the method of communication between one system and another system.

ANSWER: Interface interface

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 74. _______ requirements describe how a system is configured, monitored, maintained, and updated.

ANSWER: Supportability supportability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p46 75. Use case diagrams, class diagrams, sequence diagrams are all examples of standard modeling method?

ANSWER: UML Unified Modeling Language

Unified modeling language POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p59 76. Persons who have an interest in the successful implementation of the new system are called _______.

ANSWER: stakeholders POINTS: 2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements REFERENCES: p47 77. Persons within an organization who have a significant interest in its operation are _______ stakeholders.

ANSWER: internal POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p47 78. Persons outside an organization’s control who interact with the system or who have an interest in its operation are called _______ stakeholders.

ANSWER: external POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p47 79. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called ____________________ questions.

ANSWER: closed-ended POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p51 80. Questions that encourage discussion are called ____________________ questions.

ANSWER: open-ended POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p51 81. The most important and first step in preparing for an interview with a user is to establish the ____________________ of the interview.

ANSWER: objective POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p51 82. A _______ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction.

ANSWER: workflow POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p57 83. An _______ describes the sequential flow of user activities.

ANSWER: activity diagram workflow diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p60 84. One way to show concurrent paths within an activity diagram is with a _______.

ANSWER: synchronization bar POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p60 85. In order to show all the activities of a single agent or organizational unit together, a activity diagram contains what construct?

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements ANSWER:

swimlane swimlane heading Swimlane

Swimlane heading POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p60 86. List the activities of Core Process 3: Discover and Understand Details ANSWER: 1. Gather detailed information 2. Define requirements 3. Prioritize requirements 4. Develop user-interface dialogs 5. Evaluate requirements with users POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p42 87. List the elements that are referred to by the FURPS+ acronym.

ANSWER: F = Functional requirements U = Usability requirements R = Reliability requirements P = Performance requirements S = Security requirements + = Other constraints including Design constraints, Implementation requirements, interface requirements, physical requirements, supportability requirements.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p45-46 88. List the six techniques used to gather detailed requirements information.

ANSWER: 1. Interview users 2. Distribute questionnaires 3. Review documents 4. Observer users 5. Research vendor solutions 6. Collect active user comments POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p50 89. List five steps in the activity to interview users and other stakeholders.

ANSWER: 1. Prepare detailed questions 2. Meet with users 3. Discuss answers and procedures 4. Document answers 5. Follow-up on open issues POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p50 90. List the three major question themes that guide analysts in fact finding activities.

ANSWER: 1. What are the business processes?

2. How are the business processes performed?

3. What information is required?

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Chapter 02: Investigating System Requirements POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p50

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases 1. During the interviews in the user goal technique, the analyst should not try to influence the users in discussing their work methods. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 2. Before using the user goal technique the analyst must first identify and classify all the types of system users. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 3. One benefit of the event decomposition technique is that it helps to identify use cases at the right level of detail. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p74 4. The event decomposition technique begins by identifying use cases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p75 5. The end product of the event decomposition technique is a list of use cases at the right level of analysis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p75-76 6. When describing an external event, there is no need to worry about the person or thing causing the event. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p76 7. Temporal events always occur on a fixed date or at a fixed time. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 8. A state event is a political or governmental activity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 9. Another name for a state event is an internal event. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 10. When a customer buys an item of merchandise using his store credit account, a separate event is required to pay the store. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p78 11. During analysis the analyst should be sure to identify system control events such as the user logging in or out. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p79 12. One way to determine whether an occurrence is an event or part of the interaction before or after an event is by asking if any long pauses or intervals occur. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p78 13. A state event is an event that occurs when something happens outside the system that triggers the need for processing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases REFERENCES: p77-78 14. Real-time systems require the system to react immediately to things that are going on in the environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p76 15. The focus on external events is inappropriate when working with end users because discussing events tends to confuse the issues. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p76 16. The analyst begins identifying state events by asking about the specific deadlines that the system must accommodate. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 17. One technique used to help decide which events apply to controls is to assume that technology is perfect. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p79 18. An actor is a person that plays a particular role within a business process. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p76 19. Each use case is used by only one actor. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p82-84 20. In a use case diagram, and actor must always be a person.

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p81 21. Another name for the “includes” relationship is the “uses” relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p87 22. Highly Agile methodologies favor detailed use case documentation over sketchy user stories. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p71 23. The beginning step in defining use cases is always to obtain a user story. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p71-73 24. The acceptance criteria can be used to generate test data. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p72 25. The acceptance criteria for a user story can be considered a contract between the developers and users. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p72 26. A customer wants to buy a new shirt can be considered an external event. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p78 27. The end of an event or a user case is when the system is at rest in a consistent state. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p78 28. The automation boundary is the same thing as the system boundary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p81 29. One technique to identify use cases is to ask users what they want to achieve with a particular business procedure.

This technique is called the ______ technique. a. business procedure b. event decomposition c. workflow d. user goal ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 30. The even decomposition technique begins by identifying all of the _______. a. operational users b. system users c. business events d. internal events ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p74 31. Something that occurs at a specific time and place and should be remember by the system is called a(n) _______. a. use case b. elementary business process c. user goal d. event ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p74 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases 32. The user goal technique normally begins by identifying, listing, and classifying _______ . a. the system users b. the business events c. the business processes d. the system stakeholders ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 33. The source of using the concept of events to define functional requirements was first emphasized with _______ systems. a. business b. operating c. real-time d. batch ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p75-76 34. The type of event that occurs outside of the system is called a(n) _______. a. outside event b. external event c. business event d. temporal event ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p76 35. An event that occurs by reaching a point in time is called a _______ event. a. internal b. external c. timed d. temporal ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 36. An occurrence at a specific time and place, which can be described and is worth remember, is called a(n) _______. a. business process b. event c. requirement d. business transaction ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p74 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases 37. A(n) _______ event occurs when something happens inside the system that triggers the need for processing. a. logical b. state c. external d. temporal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 38. Which of the following is an example of a state event? a. A customer places an order b. It is time to send a late notice c. Management checks order status d. Inventory reorder point is reached ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 39. Which of the following is an example of a temporal event? a. Month end billing is started b. User logs into the system c. Customer updates address d. Inventory reorder occurs ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 40. State events are also sometimes called _______ events. a. external b. trigger c. system d. internal ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77 41. The way to determine whether an occurrence is an event or part of the interaction before or after the event is to ask the following question: _______? a. Is the user finished with the task? b. Is the system at rest? c. Is all the data input? d. Is all the printing completed?

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases REFERENCES: p78 42. “Customer decides to buy a shirt” is an example of what? a. An external event b. Activity prior to an event c. A temporal event d. Activity after an event.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p78 43. Checks or safety procedures are put in place to protect the integrity of the system is referred to as _______. a. perfect technology assumption b. risk control assumption c. system controls d. technology protection ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p79 44. The _______ indicates that events should be included during analysis only if the system would be required to respond under ideal conditions. a. perfect technology assumption b. ideal technology assumptions c. perfect processing control d. ideal processing control ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p79 45. In using the event decomposition technique, which of the following is NOT a type of event that is considered? a. Event initiated by an external agent b. Event initiated by a point in time c. Event initiated by a system change d. Event initiated by a user login ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p79 46. The system’s reaction to an event is called a(n) _______ . a. system process b. use case c. activity d. system requirement ANSWER: b Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 p80 47. A one sentence description of a use case is called a(n) _______. a. brief use case description b. short use case description c. intermediate use case description d. use case description ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p81 48. The boundary between the automated portion of the system and the users of the system is called the _______. a. software boundary b. application boundary c. system boundary d. automation boundary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p81 p84 49. In UML notation, the guillemets character is used to show what kind of notation? a. classes b. subordinates c. relationships d. stereotypes ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p87 50. The UML notation for the “includes” relationship is a(n) _______. a. a solid arrow b. a dashed arrow c. a straight line d. a dashed line ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p85 p86 51. In UML notation the includes relationship connects two use cases. The use case that is “included” use case is the one which _______ . a. is connected to the tail of an arrow b. is connected to the head of an arrow Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases c. cannot be determined d. is not connected to an actor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p85-86 52. The technique used to identify use cases based on external, temporal, and state events is the _______. a. user goals technique b. list of nouns technique c. event decomposition technique d. CRUD technique ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p77-78 53. The level of analysis to use when identifying user goals is the _______. a. external event level b. elementary business process level c. temporal event level d. elementary activity level ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73 54. “As a student, I want to register for a class in order to fulfill education requirements” is an example of a(n) _________________. a. use case b. user story c. external event d. elementary business process ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p71 55. Acceptance criteria are usually associated with __________. a. system controls b. use cases c. user stories d. elementary business events ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p72 56. User stories are different than use cases in what way? a. Different users identify them Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases b. Differ in identified functions required c. Different focus d. Differ in the amount of detail captured ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p71 57. Two primary techniques to identify use cases are _______ and _______. (Choose two) a. user goal technique b. CRUD technique c. system response technique d. event decomposition technique e. business function technique f. user procedure technique ANSWER: a, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p73-74 58. An activity that the system performs in response to a user request is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: use case POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p73 59. A(n) _______ is a task that is performed by one person in response to a business event, adds value, and leaves the system in a stable condition.

ANSWER: elementary business process EBP POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p74 60. A(n) _______ is something that occurs at a specific time and place and can be precisely measured.

ANSWER: event POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p74 61. An external agent or person that interacts with the system by supplying data is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: actor POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p76 62. An event that occurs simply by reaching a point in time is called a(n) _______ ______.

ANSWER: temporal event POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p77 63. The _______ states that events should be included during analysis only if the system would be required to respond Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases under perfect technology conditions.

ANSWER: perfect technology assumption POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p79 64. Checks and safety procedures that are put in place to protect the integrity of the system are called _______ ______ .

ANSWER: system controls POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p79 65. A UML model that is used to show use cases and their relationships to actors is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: use case diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p81 66. The _______ is the dividing line between the computerized portion of the system and the users who operate the system.

ANSWER: automation boundary POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p81 67. The _______ technique is a technique to identify use cases by determining specific goals or objectives must be completed by a user.

ANSWER: user goal user goal technique POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p73 68. The _______ technique is a technique to identify use cases by determining the external business events to which the system must respond.

ANSWER: event decomposition event decomposition technique POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p74 69. An event that occurs outside the system is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: external event POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p76 70. An event that occurs when something inside the system triggers the need for processing, but usually as a consequence of external activity is called a _______ event.

ANSWER: state state event POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p77 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases 71. A short sentence used by an end user that states what he/she does as part of his/her work is called a _______ _________.

ANSWER: user story POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p71 72. Features of a particular user story that must be present in the final system are called _________.

ANSWER: acceptance criteria POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p72 73. The standard template for a user story is “As a <______ _____> I want to <goal> so that <reason>”. Fill in the blank.

ANSWER: role role played POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p71 74. The final part of a user story is the ______ ______, which indicates the features that must be present.

ANSWER: acceptance criteria POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p72 75. Another name for a state event is a(n) ______ _____.

ANSWER: internal event POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p77 76. A diagram that illustrates actors and their relationships to the functions provided by the system is called a(n) ____ ____ _____.

ANSWER: use case diagram use-case diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p81 77. A relationship between use cases in which one use case is used by another use case is called the _________ _______.

ANSWER: includes relationship <<includes>> relationship POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p87 78. List the steps for using the event decomposition technique.

ANSWER: 1. Identify external events 2. Name a use case for each external event 3. Identify temporal events 4. Name a use case for each temporal event 5. Identify state events 6 Name a use case for each state event 7. Remove and perfect technology assumption events Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 03: Identifying User Stories and Use Cases POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p80 79. List the steps required to develop a Use Case Diagram.

ANSWER: 1. Identify all the stakeholders who need to see a use case diagram.

2. Determine what is important for each stakeholder.

3. Organize the use cases for each communication need. Draw the use case diagrams.

4. Carefully name each diagram as it pertains to each stakeholder and user.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p87 80. List three types of events and provide descriptions for each.

ANSWER: An external event is an event that occurs outside the system and is usually initiated by an external agent or actor.

A second type of event is the temporal, which occurs as a result of reaching a point in time.

A third type of even is a state event. This event occurs when something happens inside the system that triggers the need for processing.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p73-78 81. Describe two techniques for identifying use cases. Which is the most comprehensive approach?

ANSWER: Two techniques for identifying use cases are the user goal technique and the event decomposition technique. The user goal technique involves identifying all actors or users of the system and asking, “What are their goals in using the system?” Goals are identified at the elementary business process (EBP) level of analysis. The event decomposition technique involves asking, “What events does the system need to respond to?” External events, temporal events, and state events are identified. The use case is what the system does to react to or respond to each event. The event table is used to catalog information about each event and the resulting use case. The event decomposition technique is the most comprehensive technique. Both techniques involve the idea of an elementary business process (EBS) being a system process in response to a business event. A third technique discussed in chapter 7 is the CRUD technique, where the analyst identifies for each domain class the create, read or report, update, and delete use cases required. In practice, multiple approaches should be used to cross check each other to assure all use cases are identified.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p69-74 82. List the eight steps to identify use cases using the user goal technique.

ANSWER: 1. Identify users 2. Classify users by functional roles 3. Also classify by organizational level 4. Interview each type of user in each classification to identify goals 5. Build a preliminary list of use cases 6. Remove duplicates and inconsistencies 7. See where different users have the same needs (same use cases) 8. Review lists with each type of user POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p73-74

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling True / False 1. Two techniques to identify things in the problem domain are the noun technique and the verb technique. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p96 2. When identifying things in the problem domain, an analyst should focus primarily on tangible things about which information is required. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p97 3. When using the brainstorming technique it is often helpful to think about each use case and talking to users. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p97 4. The noun technique can be thought of as a variation of the brainstorming technique. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p98 5. When using the noun technique, the analyst begins by listing all the nouns that the users mention. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p98 6. The cardinality of a class is a measure of the number of objects in the class. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 7. The ERD crows feet cardinality constraint indicates a mandatory many relationship.

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p102-103 8. In UML a zero to many multiplicity constraint is shown with a “O” and crows feet on the line. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p106 9. A class of objects is equivalent to a set of objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p105 10. A superclass only exists as part of a generalization/specialization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p109 11. An abstract class is used to describe a “thing” that is abstract, i.e. not tangible. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p111 12. A composite object only exist as part of a whole-part relationship. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p112 13. In generalization/specialization the objects in a subclass are always also contained in the parent class. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p109 14. A semantic net illustrates individual objects within a class diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p104 p106 15. Attributes are part of a UML class diagram, but not included in ERD diagrams. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p99 16. Attributes can sometimes be combined together to form a larger group. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p100 17. A state-machine diagram is usually developed for every class in the problem domain class diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p116 18. Every state-machine diagram must have both origin states and destination states. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p118 19. Each concurrent path in a state-machine diagram will contain multiple states. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling Multiple Choice 20. The specific area of the user’s business need that is within the scope of the new system is called the _______. a. use cases b. user specifications c. functional requirements d. problem domain ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p96 21. One technique to find the “things” that need to be included in the new system begins by starting with a user and the use cases and then try to identify the necessary informational “things.” This technique is called the _______. a. domain analysis technique b. check list technique c. brainstorming technique d. noun technique ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p97 22. One technique for finding “things” that need to be in the new system is done by the analyst starts making lists of “things.” He may do this from information and even without talking to the users extensively. This technique is called the _______. a. domain analysis technique b. check list technique c. brainstorming technique d. noun technique ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p98 23. When making a list of nouns to determine what are the important “things” for the new system, there are three question that should be asked about each noun. Which of the following is one of those questions? a. Is it a tangible item? b. Is it an abstract item? c. Who needs information about this item? d. Should it be researched further?

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p98-99 24. A piece of information about a particular object is called a(n) _______. a. identifier b. attribute c. field Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling d. data value ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p99 25. An example of an attribute of an object might be _______. a. an inventory item b. items on a purchase order c. a social security number d. a calendar ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p99-100 26. An attribute whose value uniquely identifies an object is called a(n) _______. a. unique attribute b. secure attribute c. locking attribute d. key attribute ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p100 27. A(n) _______ is a naturally occurring association among specific things. a. relationship b. cardinality c. attribute d. composition ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 28. The number of associations that occur among specific things in an entity relationship diagram is called ____. a. a relationship b. an attribution c. a binary relationship d. cardinality ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 29. A synonym for cardinality (used with UML class diagrams) is ____. a. relationship b. multiplicity c. unary relationship Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling d. inheritance ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 30. ____ is used to describe the relationship between two things of the same type, such as one person being married to another person. a. Binary association b. Unary association c. Cardinality d. N-ary association ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p102 31. A synonym for cardinality (used with UML class diagrams) is _______. a. relationship b. multiplicity c. inheritance d. n-ary relationship ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 32. An attribute that contains a collection of related attributes is called a(n) _______. a. class attribute b. key attribute c. compound attribute d. association attribute ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p100 33. A measure of the number of links between one object and another object in a relationship is called the _______. a. linkups b. aggregations c. associations d. cardinality ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p101 34. In the traditional approach to system development, the system stores information about ____. a. objects b. data stores Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling c. attributes d. data entities ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p102 35. The crows feet notation on an ERD is a type of _______ constraint. a. cardinality b. multiplicity c. many-to-many d. relationship ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p102 36. A relationship that has a cardinality constraint of one or more is a(n) _______ relationship. a. mandatory b. optional c. unary d. binary ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p103

37.

The above cardinality constraint on the Order data entity indicates that there can be _____ . a. zero or many orders b. one or many orders c. many orders d. cannot be determined without the other side of the relationship ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p103

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling

38.

The association shown on the above image is a(n) ________ association. a. unary b. binary c. n-ary d. undefined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p102 39. The domain model class diagram is used to _______ . a. show the software classes in the problem domain layer of the system b. show the things involved in the user’s work that are important c. show the data entities for the new system d. show the relationships among the data entities ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p105 40. A relationship between a “sports team” and the players, coaches, and sponsor would be described as what kind of relationship? a. Aggregation b. Composition c. Generalization/Specialization d. Binary ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p112 41. As association class is frequently required for what kind of relationship? a. zero to one b. one to many c. many to many d. zero to many ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling REFERENCES: p107-108 42. In UML the constraint denoted by “0..*” indicates what? a. an optional relationship b. a mandatory relationship c. only a many maximum relationship d. never only one allowed ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p106 43. Which of the following is NOT true about a UML class. a. It is a classification of objects. b. It is a set of objects. c. It is similar to a data entity. d. It has multiplicity.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p 105 p 106 44. _____ is based on the idea that people classify things in terms of similarities and differences. a. Aggregation b. Composition c. Multiplicity d. Generalization/Specialization ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p110 45. A concept that allows subclasses to share the characteristics of their superclasses is called ____. a. aggregation b. composition c. multiplicity d. inheritance ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p110 46. A class that represents a many-to-many association between two other classes is called a(n) ____ class. a. problem domain b. superclass c. aggregated d. association ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p107-108 47. If we modeled a “sale” and the “sale items” with a whole-part relationship, it would best be described as a _______ relationship. a. aggregate b. composite c. inherited d. abstract ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p112 48. In a generalization/specialization relationship, it would not make sense for a class at the bottom of the hierarchy to be a(n) ______ class. a. composite b. association c. concrete d. abstract ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p111 49. Inheritance describes a condition between classes where _______ . a. some classes are always abstract b. subclasses inherit the names from superclasses c. classes are part of other classes d. classes share some attributes ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p109-111

50.

This notation indicates what type of association? a. Aggregation b. Composition c. Association d. Generalization/Specialization ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p110 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling 51. For real-world objects the state of an object is the same as its _______. a. lifeline b. status condition c. attribute values d. persistence ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p116 52. In a transition label in a state machine the syntax is A(B)[C]/D. The D stands for what? a. transition name b. true/false condition c. action expression d. input parameters ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 53. The guard-condition on a transition indicates what? a. Whether the transition fires. b. Whether the action-expression executes. c. Whether the object is in the correct state. d. Whether the trigger message is received.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 54. The action-expression occurs when? a. Before the object leaves the origin state. b. After the object enters the destination state. c. Before the object enters the destination state. d. Before the transition fires.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 55. In a state machine diagram, a state is represented by a(n) _______. a. oval b. black dot c. square d. arrow ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p118 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling 56. Which of the following is NOT an element in a transition label? a. trigger b. transition name c. guard condition d. action expression ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 57. Which of the following is NOT a step in the development of a state machine diagram? a. List all the status conditions for an object. b. Identify state exiting transitions. c. Expand the name of each state to identify concurrent activities. d. Sequence the state-transition fragments.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p120 58. A state machine diagram is used to document the states and transitions of a(n) _______. a. Business process b. Use case c. Message d. Object ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p116 59. The symbol that is used to initiate concurrent paths in a state machine diagram is what? a. synchronization bar b. concurrency bar c. concurrent paths d. multiple states ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p119 60. Descriptive properties of things in the problem domain are often documented as what? a. data entities b. relationships c. attributes d. objects ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p99 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling Multiple Response 61. When analyzing the list of nouns to determine whether to exclude a particular noun as an important “thing,” which of the following questions should be asked about the noun? (choose two) a. Is it in the domain? b. Is it a synonym of an existing thing? c. Is it a tangible item? d. Is it identifiable? e. Is it a persistent item? f. Is it an output from the system?

ANSWER: b, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p98 Completion 62. The specific area of the user’s business need that is within the scope of the new system is called the _______.

ANSWER: problem domain POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p96 63. A technique to identify problem domain objects in which developers and users work together in an open group setting is called the _______ .

ANSWER: brainstorming technique brainstorming POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p94 64. The technique for finding problem domain objects by finding and listing all the nouns in a dialog or description is called the _______.

ANSWER: noun technique noun POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p98 65. A descriptive piece of information about a thing or object is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: attribute POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p99 66. An attribute for an object which can be used to uniquely identify that object is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: key identifier POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p100 67. A term in UML that describes a naturally occurring relationship between specific things is called a(n) _______.

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling ANSWER: association POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p100 68. In UML notation for object-oriented approach the term _______ is used instead of cardinality.

ANSWER: multiplicity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p101 69. _______ is used to describe the actual range of linkups allowed in an association (the minimum and maximum values).

ANSWER: Multiplicity constraints Cardinality constraints POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p101 70. The diagram consisting of data entities and their relationships is called a(n) _______ .

ANSWER: entity relationship diagram entity-relationship diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p102 71. When words are concatenated together to form a single word and the first letter of each is capitalized it is called _______ notation.

ANSWER: camelback camelback notation camelcase camelcase notation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p105 72. An association that is also treated as a class is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: association class POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p107 73. A UML class that never has any objects within the class is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: abstract class abstract POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p111 74. A UML class that is allowed to have a set of actual objects within it is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: concrete class concrete POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p111 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling 75. In a relationship where there are superclasses and subclasses, the relationship is called a(n) _______ relationship.

ANSWER: generalization/specialization generalization specialization generalization-specialization POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p109 76. The idea that the attributes of a superclass are also attributes of a subclass is called ______.

ANSWER: inheritance POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p110 77. The general relationship between classes in which one class is a part or component of another class is called a(n) _______ relationship.

ANSWER: whole-part whole part whole/part POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p112 78. A type of relationship where between classes where the objects in one class are a part of the objects in another class BUT they can also exist as separate objects alone.

ANSWER: aggregation aggregate relationship aggregate POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p112 79. A type of relationship where between classes where the objects in one class are a part of the objects in another class AND they can only exist as part of the totality.

ANSWER: composition composite relationship composite POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p112 80. A drawing which shows individual objects and their links with other objects, and which is used to help understand the problem domain classes is called a(n) _______ .

ANSWER: semantic net POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p104 81. A condition during an object’s life when it satisfies some criterion is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: state POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p116 82. The movement of an object from one state to another is done through the process of a(n) ___________.

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling ANSWER: transition POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p116 83. A UML diagram that shows the life of an object in states and transitions is called a(n) __________.

ANSWER: state machine diagram state-machine diagram state machine state-machine POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p116 84. When an object moves from one state to another the ending state is a called a(n) __________.

ANSWER: destination state destination POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p118 85. The beginning state of an object when its states are diagrammed is called a(n) ___________.

ANSWER: pseudostate pseudo-state POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p118 86. In a state machine diagram when an object is in multiple states at the same time it is called _________.

ANSWER: concurrency concurrent state concurrent states POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p119 87. A sequential set of connected states and transitions is called a(n) _______________.

ANSWER: path POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p119 Essay 88. List the steps to follow when using the brainstorming technique for finding things.

ANSWER: 1. Identify a user and a set of use cases 2. Brainstorm with the user to identify necessary things 3. Use the identified things to ask addition questions about things 4. Expand to all other users and use cases 5. Merge the results and eliminate duplicates POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p98 89. Describe the difference between the noun technique and the brainstorming technique to find problem domain objects.

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Chapter 04: Domain Modeling ANSWER:

The brainstorming technique is more top-down where the analyst is thinking and categorizing objects from the beginning. The noun technique is more bottom-up where the analyst makes lists and later analyzes to refine and merge the nouns.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p98 90. Using the noun technique for finding “things” for the new system, what are the three questions you should ask about each noun you have identified? Explain what each question entails.

ANSWER: 1. Should it should be included - Is it unique? Is it within the scope? Are there multiple instances of it?

2. Should it be excluded -- Is it a synonym for an existing noun? Is it only an input? Is it only an output?

3. Should it be research further -- Is it an attribute? Will it become important in the future?

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p98-99

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 1. An actor is always outside of the automation boundary. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 2. Two difference scenarios of a use case would normally be described in a single fully developed use case description. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p136 3. A good way to describe a use case scenario is with a state chart. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p136 4. Activity diagrams are not helpful when the flow of activities is too complex. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p139 5. An activity diagram and the flow of activities in a fully developed use case description serve the same purpose. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p139 6. Since an activity diagram is not object-oriented (e.g. no objects), it is not a standard model of the object-oriented Unified Modeling Language (UML). a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p139 7. In a system sequence diagram the order of the messages is determined by numbering the messages. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 8. In a system sequence diagram a box refers to a class of objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 9. A true/false condition on a sequence diagram indicates whether the message can be processed or not. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 10. A loop frame and an asterisk mean the same thing in a sequence diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 11. On a sequence diagram, a message represents a service request. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 12. An Opt frame and an Alt frame do essentially the same thing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 13. An Opt frame and a true/false condition on a message serve essentially the same purpose. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 14. Activity diagrams are not helpful in developing system sequence diagrams (SSDs). a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p145 15. In the object-oriented approach to systems development, the flow of information is achieved by sending messages either to and from actors or back and forth between internal objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141-142 16. In an interaction diagram, messages are sent and received by individual objects, not by classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 17. In a sequence diagram, a message is considered to be an action that is invoked on the destination object. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 18. Activity diagrams cannot be used to describe processes that involve automated system activities. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p140-141 19. In an activity diagram, a separate use case may used as part of the workflow. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141 20. An oval indicates an embedded use case inside of an activity diagram. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141 21. Synchronization bars are used to indicate looping in an activity diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p140 22. A true/false condition on a message indicates the condition of the return value of the message, i.e. whether the message was successful or not. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 23. The best use of the CRUD technique is used to generate new use cases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p149 24. One of the disadvantages of UML and object-oriented models is the difficulty of synchronizing the models. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p150 25. Information for Use Case Descriptions is primarily derived from System Sequence Diagrams. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p1150 26. The CRUD technique can be used to identify new use cases as well as delete unnecessary use cases. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling REFERENCES: p149 27. In using the CRUD technique, new use cases and new stakeholders may be identified. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p150 28. On an activity diagram, the diamond represents an “AND” condition. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p140 29. A unique set of internal activities within a use case which represents a unique path through the use case is called a(n) _______. a. workflow b. sequence of activities c. scenario d. critical path ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p136 30. In a fully developed use case description the postcondition data describes what conditions? a. The status condition of the use case. b. The existence of domain model objects. c. The condition of the actor. d. The data that is output by the system.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p137 31. In a fully developed use case description the exception conditions represent what? a. What conditions might cause the system to crash. b. What conditions prevent the system from successfully completing the use case. c. What conditions will confuse the actor. d. Where the system might have “bugs” and produce erroneous results.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p137 32. In a fully developed use case description, the flow of activities is most similar to what?

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling a. An activity diagram b. A class diagram c. A state chart diagram d. A system sequence diagram ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p137 33. Numbering exception conditions, which often uses hierarchical numbering, in a fully developed use case description is helpful to _______. a. tie exception conditions to other diagrams or descriptions b. show which exception conditions are subordinate to other exceptions c. provide an identifier for each exception condition d. tie the exception condition to a processing step ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p137 34. In a fully developed use case description normally the preconditions describe what? a. What objects must exist prior to the use case executes. b. What data the actor must have before the use case executes. c. Who the actors are that invoke the use case. d. What business conditions must occur before the use case is invoked.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p137

35.

Which is correct? a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141 36. Which of the following is the best model to use to document the inputs and the outputs to a system?

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling a. State chart diagram b. Fully developed use case description c. Activity diagram d. System sequence diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141 37. A vehicle object is denoted with the following label. a. vehicle b. Vehicle c. Vehicle d. :Vehicle ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 38. In UML terminology in a sequence diagram, a message refers to a(n) _______. a. input data b. communication between actors c. event d. action ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142-143 39. In a sequence diagram a horizontal dashed line represents what? a. A return message b. An input message c. A lifeline d. An event ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 40. In a sequence diagram the syntax of a message is given by the following: [A] B := C (D) The letter B represents what? a. message name b. return value c. true/false condition d. parameter list ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 41. In a sequence diagram the message-name is usually given in what format? a. verb-noun b. noun-verb c. action-object d. object-action ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 42. If the True/False condition on a message evaluates to false in a sequence diagram, which of the following is correct? a. The message is false. b. The message has no return value. c. The message is not processed. d. The message is not sent.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 43. On a systems sequence diagram, ____ indicate(s) a true/false condition. a. ( ) b. [ ] c. { } d. * ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p144 44. The ____ are the primary models from which other models draw information. a. state chart diagram and the problem domain class diagram. b. system sequence diagram and the activity diagram c. use case diagram and the problem domain class diagram d. use case description and the use case diagram ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p150 45. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of object-oriented modeling with several models is that _____. a. developing new models allows the analyst to discard unnecessary diagrams. b. developing new models ensures a consistency in the requirements. c. developing new models helps correct previously drawn diagrams d. developing new models helps gain deeper understanding of user requirements.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p1450 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 46. Which model is most useful in developing a State Machine Diagram a. System Sequence Diagram b. Activity Diagram c. Use Case Diagram d. Class Diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p150 47. What is the primary purpose of the CRUD technique? a. To identify areas of erroneous definition (CRUD). b. To validate the set of defined use cases c. To validate the set of classes d. To validate the interests of the stakeholders ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p148 48. CRUD stands for _______________. a. Create, Read, Update, Delete b. Create, Report, Upload, Destroy c. Create, Retract, Unload, Define d. Create, Refine, Update, Define ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p148 49. A good way to ensure that all the use cases have been identified is through _______________. a. the integration of UML models and comparing the results b. the brainstorming technique c. the CRUD technique d. the noun technique ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p149 50. Activity diagrams are useful in the development of ______________. a. System Sequence Diagrams b. Use Case Descriptions c. Class Diagrams d. State Machine Diagrams ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p146 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 51. On an Activity Diagram the arrows represent what? a. Transitions between states b. Flow of activities c. Relationship navigation d. None of the other selections ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p139 52. On an activity diagram, which of the following is NOT a valid use of a synchronization bar? a. To initiate concurrent paths b. To initiate a loop c. To initiate alternative paths d. To initiate concurrent paths by separate actors ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p140 53. Which of the following is NOT a valid construct as part of an activity diagram? a. Activity oval b. Actor name c. Use case oval d. Relationship line ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p141 54. On an SSD, a dashed arrow usually represents what? a. Object lifeline b. Optional message c. External message d. Return value(s) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 55. On an SSD, a named rectangular box represents what? a. A class b. An object c. A swim lane d. A note to explain something ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p142 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 56. Two methods to show a repeating message are: (Choose two) a. Dashed arrow b. Brackets [ ] c. Asterisk * d. Opt frame e. Loop frame f. Alt frame ANSWER: c, e POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p1243 57. Two methods to show a return value are: (Choose two) a. value := b. [ value ] c. ( value ) d. := value e. Solid arrow with value f. Dashed arrow with value ANSWER: a, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p143 58. A textual model that describes the processing details of a use case is called a(n) ________.

ANSWER: use case description POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p135 59. Use cases may have different “paths” or sequence of steps through the use case. These different paths are called _______.

ANSWER: scenarios scenario instance instances use case instance use case instances POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p136 60. A certain set of values or statuses that must exist before a use case begins is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: precondition pre-condition POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p137 61. A certain set of values or statuses that must exist after a use case completes its processing is called a(n) _______.

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling ANSWER:

postcondition post-condition POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p137 62. The diagram model that is useful to document the flow of activities on a fully developed use case description is called a(n) _______ diagram.

ANSWER: activity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p139 63. A diagram that shows the messages between an actor and the system is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: system sequence diagram system-sequence diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p141-142 64. Vertical dashed lines on a system sequence diagram are used to depict a(n) what?

ANSWER: lifeline object lifeline POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p142 65. An arrow on a system sequence diagram is used to depict a(n) what?

ANSWER: message POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p142 66. A box in a system sequence diagram refers to a(n) what?

ANSWER: object POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p142 67. On a sequence diagram when multiple messages are included within a repeating loop a(n) _______ is used to document it.

ANSWER: loop frame POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p143 68. On a sequence diagram a short notation that indicates a repeating message is a(n) _______.

ANSWER: asterisk * POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p143 69. In a sequence diagram the syntax of a message is given by the following: [A] B := C (D) The letter D represents what?

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling ANSWER:

parameter-list parameter list parameters input parameters POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p144 70. In a sequence diagram the syntax of a message is given by the following: [A] B := C (D) The letter B represents what?

ANSWER: return-value return-values return value return values POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p144 71. To show if-then-else condition on a sequence diagram use a(n) ______.

ANSWER: alt frame alt-frame POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p145 72. To show a set of messages that may be optional a(n) __________ is used.

ANSWER: opt frame opt-frame POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p144 73. A technique that is used to validate the set of use cases against identified classes is called __________ technique.

ANSWER: CRUD POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p148 74. On an activity diagram, what are the vertical rectangles that contain the activity ovals called?

ANSWER: swim lanes POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p139 75. The following is the message syntax for an SSD. “[ _________ ] return-value := message-name (parameter-list)” What is missing?

ANSWER: true/false condition true false condition true-false condition POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p144 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 05: Use Case Modeling 76. What does CRUD stand for? ____ ____ ____ ____ (no commas) ANSWER: Create Read Update Delete Create Report Update Delete Create Read/Report Update Delete POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p149 77. Briefly describe the purpose of a system sequence diagram.

ANSWER: A system sequence diagram (SSD) is used to describe the flow of information into and out of the automated system. Thus, an SSD documents the inputs and the outputs and identifies the interaction between actors and the system.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p141 78. List three types of frame notation in sequence diagrams.

ANSWER: Loop frame Opt frame Alt frame POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p143 p145 79. Identify the elements of the message syntax for a message on an SSD. ANSWER: * - asterisk (mentioned but not illustrated) Brackets with true/false condition Return-value := assignment operator message-name parameter list POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p145 80. List the four steps for developing and SSD from an activity diagram.

ANSWER: 1. Identify the input messages 2. Describe the input message with a name and input parameters.

3. Add special considerations for input message such as looping or true/false condition 4. Identify and add any return values POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p146

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design 1. The primary purpose of integrity controls is to track external activity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 2. Completeness control is an integrity control that identifies when a value in a field is too large or too small. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 3. The objective of design activities is to describe in detail the components of the final solution system that will serve as a blue print for construction. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p163 4. The key question to answer with the design of the user interface activity is, “How will the users interact with the system?” a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 5. In user interface design the detailed screen layouts should be done after the devices have been decided. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 6. During analysis, analysts build models to represent the real world and to understand the desired business processes with the information used in those processes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p163 7. It is just as important to have heavy user involvement during analysis as it is during design.

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p163 8. Cowboy coding is one of the newer techniques programming, often used with Agile techniques. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p164 9. The majority of new systems today must be integrated into existing networks without disrupting existing applications. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p166 10. The output of the design activities is a set of diagrams and documents that describe the solution system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p164 11. A big part of describing the environment is identifying and defining all the types of computing devices that will be required. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p166 12. Model building is a unique to Systems Analysis. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p162 13. Defining the technology architecture is part of the activity to Design the application components. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 14. Since the design activities all interact with each other, it really doesn’t matter which activity occurs first. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p166 15. One of the first steps in designing the application components is to divide the software into subsystems. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p167 16. Package diagrams are used primarily when designing the software classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 17. Designing a single user interface is now the exception, not the norm. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 18. User interface design requires both analysis and design. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 19. Prototypes and mock-ups are most useful in doing the design of the software classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design 20. Another name for the data model is the domain model. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p169 21. Database design often requires someone with analysis skills since many decisions must be made about the field sizes and characteristics. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p170 22. Database design is somewhat of a stand-alone activity because each database runs under its own DBMS. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p170 23. Security design and encryption issues are addressed during database design. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p170 24. A design class diagram is also called a data model. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p170 25. Symmetric key encryption uses a public key and a private key. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p178 26. An objective of security controls is to maintain a stable operating environment for users. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p176 27. Which is NOT an objective of integrity controls? a. Allow only valid business transactions b. Ensure that transactions are recorded completely c. Protect the assets of the organization d. Ensure a stable functioning operating environment ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 28. An integrity control that verifies the data in one field against the data in other fields is called a ____ control. a. completeness b. field combination c. value d. data validation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 29. What is a control that checks the value of a field to ensure that it is within the correct range? a. Answer control b. Completeness control c. Value limit control d. High-low control ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 30. What is the name of the control mechanism that is used to ensure that all necessary information for a transaction has been entered? a. Secure control b. Total control c. Comprehensive control d. Completeness control ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 31. What is the name of a general control technique used to ensure that entered data is correct? a. Data validation control b. Data access control c. Data acceptance control Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design d. Data completeness control ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 32. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the risk of fraud? a. Separation of duties b. Monitoring c. Asset reconciliation d. Authorization of users ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p174-175 33. Three types of users that are considered in the design of a security system are ____. a. manager user, technical user, and clerical user b. technical user, authorized user, and privileged user c. unauthorized user, registered user, and privileged user d. supervisor user, administration user, and operational user ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p177 34. Which user is known to the system and is authorized to access all or certain parts of it? a. Authorized user b. Registered user c. Valid user d. Authenticated user ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p177 35. A user who has special security and access to a system, such as the right to assign passwords, is called a ____. a. supervisor user b. database administrator c. privileged user d. technical user ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p177 36. Which of the following can be classified as privileged users? a. System programmers, application programmers, and system administrators b. Technical users and security personnel c. System operators and clerks Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design d. Administrators and accountants ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p177 37. When the data is encrypted with the public key in asymmetric encryption, it is decrypted with a(n) ____ key. a. asymmetric b. private c. public d. symmetric ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p178 38. A ____ is an institution's name and public key, which is encrypted and certified by a third party. a. private key b. digital certificate c. certifying authority d. digital key ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p180 39. Using digital signatures is primarily a technique to ____. a. verifying who sent a document b. allow for remote signatures on official documents c. electronically send a signature d. digitize (scan) a signed document ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p180 40. Which of the following is NOT considered a design model? a. Package diagram b. Sequence diagram c. User interface screen layouts d. Activity diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p161 41. Which of the following is NOT considered an analysis model? a. Class diagram b. State machine diagram c. User interface screen layouts Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design d. Activity diagram ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p164 42. Which of the following really is both an analysis (discovery) and a design process (solution). a. Environment design b. System interface design c. Database design d. User interface design ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 43. The domain model is always used as an input to which design activity? a. User Interface Design b. Security and controls design c. Database design d. Application Component Design ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p169 44. Which design activity that pervades all other design activities? a. Environment design b. Database design c. Security and controls design d. Interface design ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p171 45. Limiting user access to the system is considered what type of design activity? a. User interface design b. Security and controls design c. Describing the environment d. Application components design ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p176 46. A major comparison between analsys and design can be stated as: a. analysis includes users, design does not b. analysis builds models, design does not c. analysis is complex, design is simpler Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design d. analysis is understanding, design is solution ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p161 47. The objective of Implementation is to a. complete the specifications b. integrate the application components c. install a new system d. build a new system ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p163 48. Which of the following is not one of the design activities included in the Design System Components core process? a. Design the user interface b. Design the security controls c. Describe the environment d. Design the software methods ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 49. According to an Agile iterative development process in which iteration would design activities normally start? a. Pre-project activities b. First iteration c. Second iteration d. Sometime after the first iteration ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 50. According to an Agile iterative development process in which iteration would implementation activities normally start? a. Pre-project activities b. First iteration c. Second iteration d. Sometime after the first iteration ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 51. The design activity key question, “How will this system interact with other systems...” is part of which design activity? a. Describe the environment Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design b. Design the application components c. Design the interfaces d. Design security controls ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 52. The design activity key question, “What internal structure for each application component will ensure efficient construction...” is part of which design activity? a. Describe the environment b. Design the application components c. Design the user interface d. Design the software classes ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p165 53. What are two key elements of describing the environment? a. Programming language and operating system environment b. Communication protocols and security methods c. Hardware configuration and DBMS’s d. External systems and technology architecture ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p166 54. When describing the interfaces to external systems, which is not one of the important issues? a. Message formats b. Error handling c. Network addresses d. Programming languages ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p166 55. An application component can be thought of as a(n) __________. a. subsystem b. purchased package c. middleware software d. unit of software ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p167 56. Build or buy questions are usually addressed during which design activity?

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design a. Describe the environment b. Design the application components c. Design the software classes d. Design the database ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p167 57. Which is not a model normally produced as part of application component design? a. package diagram b. component diagram c. deployment diagram d. design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 58. A deployment diagram is most useful for which design activity? a. Describing the environment b. Designing application components c. Designing the user interface d. Designing software classes ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 59. Which of the following is a type of model used in user interface design? a. Communication diagram b. Class diagram c. Activity Diagram d. System sequence diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p169 60. A storyboard is useful for what? a. Requirements definition b. Design of the user interface c. Design of the software classes d. Describing the user environment ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p169 61. A knowledge of all the computing devices accessed by clients is required for which design activity?

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design a. Describing the environment b. Designing the application components c. Designing the user interface d. Designing the software classes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p168 62. A primary model used in software design is which of the following? a. Component model b. Deployment model c. System sequence diagram d. Design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p171 63. Software methods are usually identified in which design model? a. Deployment diagram b. State-machine diagram c. System sequence diagram d. Design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p170 64. Which is NOT an objective of integrity controls? a. Allow only valid business transactions b. Protect the assets of the organization c. Ensure that transactions are recorded completely d. Ensure a stable functioning operating environment ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 65. An integrity control that verifies the data in one field against the data in other fields is called a ____ control. a. completeness b. field combination c. value d. data validation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p173 66. A(n) ______ control is a control that rejects invalid inputs, prevent unauthorized outputs, and protects data and Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design programs against tampering.

ANSWER: integrity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p172 67. A control that checks the value of a field to ensure that it is within the correct range is a(n) _______ control.

ANSWER: value limit value-limit POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p172 68. A(n) ______ control restricts which persons or programs can add, modify or view information.

ANSWER: access POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p176 69. A model of fraud that states that opportunity, motivation, and rationalization must all exist for fraud to occur is called the ________.

ANSWER: fraud triangle POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p175 70. A control that protects the assets of an organization against all threats, primarily external threats is called ______ control.

ANSWER: security POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p175 71. ____________________ is the process of identifying a user to verify that he or she can have access to the system.

ANSWER: authentication POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p176 72. _______ is the process of allowing or restricting a specific user’s access to specific resources.

ANSWER: authorization POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p176 73. A(n) ____________________ is the list of users who have rights to access the system and data.

ANSWER: access control list POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p176 74. In ____________________ encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts the data.

ANSWER: symmetric POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p178 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design 75. The encoding of a message with a private key is called ____________________.

ANSWER: digital signing digital signature POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p180 76. A well-defined unit of software built to perform some specific tasks is called a(n) _____________.

ANSWER: application component component POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p167 77. Explain how a digital certificate works.

ANSWER: An entity who wants a certificate with its name and public key goes to a certifying authority and buys a certificate. The certifying authority encrypts the data with its own private key and gives the data back to the original entity. When someone asks the entity for its public key, it sends the certificate. The customer receives the certificate and opens it with the certifying authority’s public key.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p180 78. List the five primary activities that are included as part of systems design.

ANSWER: 1. Describe the environment 2. Design the application components 3. Design the database 4. Design the user interface 5. Design the software classes and methods POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p165 79. List four of the six primary design models that are used for systems design (used in this text).

ANSWER: 1. Package diagrams 2. Design class diagrams 3. Sequence diagrams 4. Design state machine diagrams 5. Deployment diagrams 6. Component diagrams POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p164 80. List and describe the six primary analysis models (used in this text).

ANSWER: 1. Class diagrams -- the classes in the problem domain 2. Use case diagrams -- an overview of the use cases and agents for the system 3. System sequence diagrams -- defines the messages between the agent and the system for a use case 4. Use case descriptions -- detailed information about a use case including pre-conditions, postconditions, flow of logic, exception conditions, etc.

5. State machine diagrams -- description of the various status conditions of an object and how it transitions from state to state.

6. Activity diagrams -- Workflow diagram showing the steps in a business process and the interaction Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 06: Foundations for Systems Design between actors and the system.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p161

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 1. Describing the environment is one of the detailed activities of core process 4: Design system components. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p187 2. Computing devices include all of the following: a server computer, a laptop, a smartphone, Kindle reader, and Apple Watch. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p188 3. The Internet and the WWW are synonyms. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 4. The Internet can be thought of as the network of networks. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 5. The Web is the highway over which messages and information travel from network to network. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 6. Although in common usage we refer to the Internet and the Web interchangeably, in reality they mean different things. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 7. Application software that usually executes with a browser is often just called an “app”. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 8. Computer users are the primary beneficiaries of Web services since they can find new functions and interesting applications by searching the Web for new Web services. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p197 9. The Amazon.com application can be considered a client/server architecture. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 10. In a client/server configuration the term “server” refers to the central computer equipment that houses the core resources. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 11. In a client/server configuration, it is possible for a single software component to be both client and server. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 12. In three-layer architecture, the three layers consist of the view layer, the business logic layer, and the domain layer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 13. A three-layer architecture requires at least three computers to be implemented correctly. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture REFERENCES: p200 14. A location diagram can be used to indicate the locations of the client computers and the server computers in a client/server environment. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p201 15. Another term for a network diagram is a deployment diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p203 16. A network diagram is a useful model to show three/layer architecture. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 p202 17. The primary benefit of a network diagram, is to show the network cabling and the network routers. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 p202 18. A network diagram and a deployment diagram show basically the same information, just in a different format. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p203 19. A network diagram and a location diagram show basically the same information but in a different format. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p202 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 20. For a large company such as RMO, external hosting of part or all of the system is not usually a cost effective technique. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p207 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities of Core Process 4: Design system components? a. Describe the environment b. Design the user interface c. Design application components d. Design security and integrity controls ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p187 22. What is a computer that manages shared resources for access across a network called? a. A hosted server b. Software as a Service (SaaS) c. A server computer d. A mainframe computer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p188 23. A personal computing device includes all of the following except ______. a. a laptop b. a smartphone c. a Kindle Reader d. a router ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p189 24. When we use the term the Web what is the correct definition? a. The set of interconnected networks that cover the world b. The set of world wide resources that are available over the Internet c. The set of server computers that connect to the Internet d. The set of networks and computers that support the Internet ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 25. Given the following URL, what is the correct description of the portion shown in bold? http://www.barnesandnoble.com/u/books-best selling-books/379003057 a. The protocol b. The resource name c. The server name d. The company name ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 26. When a URL of a Web resource is embedded within a Web page, it is called a(n) ________. a. hyperlink b. hot spot c. embedded URL d. mouse over ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 27. System software usually refers to what kind of software? a. Software that runs on servers but not on personal devices b. Operating systems and web servers c. All the software in an information system d. Software that runs on a specific system ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 28. Web-based application is software with the following characteristics: a. Executes only on a Web server b. Is written with html c. Is installed on a personal computing device d. Uses a browser and web-server ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 29. A toolbar might be considered an example of what? a. An App b. Browser Software c. System Software d. Embedded Software ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p192 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 30. A set of languages, rules and procedures to facilitate data exchange between among hardware and software components is called a(n) _______. a. uniform resource locator b. hypertext markup language c. protocol d. standard ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p193 31. Which of the following is not a valid Web protocol? a. VPN b. HTTPS c. HTML d. XML ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 32. What does XML stand for? a. Extra modified language b. Extreme modeling links c. Extended modeling language d. Extensible markup language ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 33. What does HTTP stand for? a. Hypertext Timeline Process b. Hypertext Translation Protocol c. Hypertext Transfer Protocol d. Hyperlink Text Transfer Process ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 34. What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS? a. No difference, just different names. b. HTTP is more secure than HTTPS c. HTTP is old technology, while HTTPS is the new standard d. Amazon uses HTTPS for credit card information ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture REFERENCES: p195 35. What is the latest version of HTML? a. HTML4 b. HTML5 c. HTML6 d. HTMLS ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 36. The set of computing hardware, network hardware and system software used by an organization is called the _________. a. application architecture b. technology architecture c. system architecture d. client/server architecture ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 37. An approach to implementing a software application where little or no software is installed and local computers, where the data is isolated between organizations a service computer is called _______. a. a software service b. a Web service c. a remote application d. software as a service ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p196 38. A function or service that is called from a Web application to another Web application is called a(n) ________. a. hyperlink b. Web service c. remote procedure call d. software as a service ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p197 39. A method of organizing software applications so that the data and core processing is in a central location and access to that core is distributed on user’s computing devices is called ________. a. application architecture b. client/server architecture c. technology architecture Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture d. three-layer architecture ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p198 40. Which of the following diagrams is correct?

a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 41. A software architecture that divides an application into view, business logic, and data is called a(n) ________. a. distributed architecture b. two-layer architecture c. three-layer architecture d. client/server architecture ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 42. In a three-layer architecture, what are the three layers? a. view layer, business logic layer, and data layer b. view, service layer, domain layer c. client layer, view layer, and data layer d. client layer, domain layer, and server layer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 43. In a three-layer architecture, the application server would be part of which layer? a. view layer b. business logic layer c. data layer d. server layer ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p200 44. Amazon.com is a good example of what kind of architecture? a. Web based architecture b. three-layer architecture c. server based architecture d. server farm architecture ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 p199 45. The model that best shows how software components are distributed across hardware components is the ________. a. client/server diagram b. location diagram c. network diagram d. deployment diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p203 46. The activity of Describing the Environment consists of what two key elements? a. Internal systems and application architecture b. External systems and technology architecture c. External systems and internal applications d. Software applications and database technology ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p203 47. Which of the following are examples of distributed architectures? (choose all that apply) a. technology architecture b. three-layer architecture c. application architecture d. client/server architecture e. browser based architecture f. LAN architecture Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture ANSWER: b, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p198 p199 48. Which of the following activities are included in the core process of Design System Components? (choose all that apply) a. Describe the environment b. Describe the network c. Design the software classes d. Design the database e. Design the security elements f. Design the graphics ANSWER: a, c, d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p187 49. Which of the following are examples of embedded software? (choose all that apply) a. Toolbars b. POS systems c. User interfaces d. DBMSs e. Operating systems f. Widgets ANSWER: a, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p192 50. What are the layers of a three-layer architecture? (choose all that apply) a. data layer b. domain layer c. client layer d. server layer e. application layer f. user interface layer ANSWER: a, b, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 51. What are the characteristics of a Web service? (choose all that apply) a. Does not execute on the calling applications computer b. Input data is sent via an attachment c. Has a charge or cost associated with it each time it is used d. Returns results encoded as a Web page e. Client data is stored on a central server Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture f. Is called via a URL ANSWER: a, d, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p197 52. What are the characteristics of SAAS? (Choose all that apply) a. Costs are calculated on a “use” basis b. Software is installed remotely with no local involvement c. User data is stored and isolated on central computers d. Services are usually available during specified time periods e. Little, if any, software is installed on the user’s computer f. SAAS company often deploys an on sight employee to assist the client ANSWER: a, c, e POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p196 53. Which of the following are key questions that may be used to describe the environment? (choose all that apply) a. Where will the users be located? b. What data conversion techniques will be used? c. What software applications need to be deployed? d. Who are the key system engineers? e. What operating systems are being used? f. What are the data bases that will be used?

ANSWER: a, e, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p204 54. In the activity Designing Application Components which of the following tasks should be considered? (choose all that apply) a. Determine integration requirements between components b. Determine which user interface technique will be used for the components c. Determine which DBMS will be utilized d. Determine the test cases for integrating the application components e. Determine the classes and methods in each component f. Determine the boundaries of the various application components ANSWER: a, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p208-211 55. When Designing Application Components, which characteristics of use cases are helpful to define component boundaries? (choose all that apply) a. Must be installed concurrently b. Require the same security level c. Sharing common data d. Similarities in actors Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture e. Have the same pre-conditions f. Triggered by same events ANSWER: c, d, f POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p208 56. A computer that manages shared resources and allows users to access those resources over a network is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: server POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p188 57. A small computer network that is deployed in a single building or small office is called a(n) ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: local area network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 58. What does LAN stand for?

ANSWER: local area network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 59. The high-speed, high capacity network that interconnects regions, countries, and continents is called the _____ _____ _____.

ANSWER: Internet backbone network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 60. The set of resources that can be accessed over the Internet is referred to was the ______ _____ ______.

ANSWER: World Wide Web POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 61. What does URL stand for?

ANSWER: Uniform Resource Locator POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 62. The identifier of a Web resource and which defines a protocol, a server or domain name, and a resource identifier is called a(n) ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: Uniform Resource Locator POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 63. When a URL of Web resource is embedded within a Web page, it is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: hyperlink Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p190 64. Software that performs user- or business-specific tasks is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: application software POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 65. Software, such as Web server software, and works behind the scenes is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: system software POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 66. An application that uses a browser for the user interface is usually called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: Web-based application Web based application POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p191 67. A ______ is a set of languages, rules, and procedures to facilitate accurate data exchange.

ANSWER: protocol POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p193 68. A secure communications scheme that utilizes the Internet but with very secure technologies so that it appears as a dedicated network is called a(n) _____ _____ _____.

ANSWER: virtual private network POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 69. What does HTML stand for?

ANSWER: Hypertext Markup Language POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 70. What does XML stand for?

ANSWER: Extensible Markup Language POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 71. What does HTTP stand for?

ANSWER: Hypertext Transfer Protocol POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 72. What does HTTPS stand for?

ANSWER: Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 73. A protocol that defines the structure and content of a web page is called _____ _____ _____.

ANSWER: Hypertext Markup Language POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 74. A language that is an extension of HTML that allows the user to define new tags is called ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: Extensible Markup Language POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p194 75. A protocol that defines the format and content of Web requests and data communication is called _____ _____ _____.

ANSWER: Hypertext Transfer Protocol POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 76. The set of computing hardware, network hardware and system software in an organization is usually referred to as the ______ ______.

ANSWER: technology architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 77. The set of information systems the organization needs to support its operations is often called the ______ ______.

ANSWER: application architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p195 78. What does SaaS stand for?

ANSWER: Software as a Service POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p196 79. A software function or set of functions or services that can be executed via Web protocols is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: Web service POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p197 80. A client/server architecture that divides an application into view, business logic and data layers is called _____ _____ ______.

ANSWER: three-layer architecture three layer architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 07: Defining the System Architecture 81. A method of configuring a distributed software application into components that manage the resources and components that use the resources is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: client/server architecture client server architecture

client-server architecture POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p198 82. In a three-layer architecture, another name for the business logic layer is the ______ ______.

ANSWER: domain layer POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p199 83. The ability of a component or system to interact with other components or systems is referred to as ______.

ANSWER: interoperability POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p201 84. A diagram that shows how hardware components are interconnected with devices and cabling is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: network diagram POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p202 85. In a complex, integrated software system there is usually one group or application component that has responsibility for maintaining the master copy of data items. This entity is called the _____ _____ ANSWER: system of record POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p212 86. One of the best methods to understand and describe the deployment environment is to ask questions. There are many categories and types of questions that will help in this activity. This chapter lists four major categories of questions that are important. List and briefly describe each of these four question categories.

ANSWER: 1. What are the key features of the deployment environment? These questions have to do with the operating systems, the existing software systems including the DBMSs, security issues, and APIs of existing systems.

2. What are the external systems and external databases must the new system interface with? These questions consider the protocols to be used, the format and content of the external data, the frequency and method of interactions, and what security issues are important.

3. What kind of devices will be used, primarily for automated interactions? These questions have to do with format and encoding of automated data, what protocols, what security, and what APIs will be used.

4. What user-interface technology will be used? These questions consider the hardware and middle-ware software that will support the user interfaces. Included are questions about user devices and system software as well as security, protocols and APIs. POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p204-205

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface 1. Ease of learning and ease of use are often in conflict. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p220 2. User interface design is frequently added to the system after the business rules and business logic has been designed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p220 3. To implement the dialog metaphor requires voice communication and voice recognition capabilities on the computer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p222 4. A good example of an error message might be, “The account information is missing critical data. Please re-enter.” a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p231 5. Users need to feel that they can explore options and take actions that can be cancelled without difficulty. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 6. Adequate feedback from a system to user data entry helps reduce errors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p224 7. Menu design and dialog design should be done separately. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p234 8. An initial grouping of cases by actor and subsystem is a good starting point for menu design. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p222 9. Each dialog may only have one window form. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p237 10. Storyboarding should result in a detailed dialog design. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p236 11. The design of a desktop system and a Web based system have similar performance issues that must be considered. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p240 12. Consistency and continuity are synonyms and can be used interchangeably. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p225 13. Sometimes in user interface design it is a good practice to have controls that are hidden and not visible. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p227 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface 14. For online reading sans-serif fonts are recommended. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 15. Use of fancy fonts always add interest and clarity to a web page and are recommended for many online systems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 16. Shortcut keys are an interesting feature, but are seldom used by experienced users. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p231 17. A use case description is the best place to start for the design of the forms for a user interface. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p235 18. When designing the UI for a mobile device, two important considerations are limited screen size and screen brightness. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p243 19. Even though tablets and smartphones have many common properties, probably the biggest benefit of designing for a tablet is the ease of navigation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p245 20. Using a textbox for data entry of standard values is a good example of minimizing key strokes. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p239 21. The overriding issue on the design of data entry screens is to minimize errors. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p239 22. Smartphone apps are usually designed for a particular platform. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p242 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of user-centered design? a. Focus early on the users and their work. b. Evaluate design to ensure usability. c. Business requirements drive development. d. Use iterative development.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p220 24. A metaphor of human-computer interaction (HCI) in which the user interacts directly with objects on the display screen, is referred to as ____. a. desktop metaphor b. direct manipulation metaphor c. document metaphor d. dialog metaphor ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p221 25. An approach where the visual display is organized into regions and includes an arrangement of common tool icons is called a ____. a. desktop metaphor b. direct manipulation c. document metaphor d. dialog metaphor ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p220 26. A metaphor of human-computer interaction (HCI) in which interacting with the computer, is much like carrying on a conversation is called ____. a. desktop metaphor b. direct manipulation c. document metaphor d. dialog metaphor ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p222 27. Software (such as typical tax preparation software) which in essence interviews the user is following which user interface metaphor? a. Collaboration metaphor b. Document metaphor c. Interview metaphor d. Dialog metaphor ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p222 28. The study of human interaction with machines in general is called ____. a. human factors engineering b. user-centered design c. human-computer interaction d. usability ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p221 29. A metaphor of human-computer interaction, in which interaction with the computer involves browsing and entering data on electronic documents, is referred to as a ____ metaphor. a. desktop b. direct manipulation c. document d. dialog ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p221 30. A key principle of human-computer interaction (HCI) that states that all controls should be noticeable is called ____. a. informative feedback b. affordance Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface c. consistency d. visibility ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p223 31. A key principle of human-computer interaction (HCI), that states that the appearance of any control should suggest its functionality, is called ____. a. informative feedback b. affordance c. consistency d. visibility ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p223 32. Since it is not always clear that Web page objects are clickable, or when a control has recognized the click, designers should be careful to apply the principle of ____. a. affordance b. consistency c. shortcuts d. feedback ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p223 33. Each dialog within the system should be organized with a clear sequence–a beginning, middle, and end. This describes which of the rules for designing interactive interfaces? a. Offer informative feedback b. Permit easy reversal of actions c. Support internal locus of control d. Design dialogs to yield closure.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p228 34. Operating systems deliberately include an electronic “click” sound for keyboard and mouse activities. This describes which of the eight golden rules for designing interactive interfaces? a. Offer informative feedback b. Offer simple error handling c. Support internal locus of control d. Strive for consistency ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p223 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface 35. “When subsequent processing is delayed by more than a second or two, users may repeatedly press controls or re-enter information, resulting in processing errors and user frustration” is an example of what? a. Lack of error handling b. Lack of feedback c. Lack of closure d. Lack of consistency ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p223 36. Designers should be sure to include cancel buttons on all dialog boxes which allow the user to back up. This is an example of what? a. Easy reversal of actions b. Reduce short term memory load c. Good error handling d. Dialog that yields closure ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 37. A report that contains only information about nonstandard or out-of-bound conditions is a(n) ____ report. a. runtime b. error c. exception d. executive ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p246 38. A report that is used primarily for strategic decision making is called a(n) ____ report. a. executive b. key item c. exception d. summary ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p246 39. The ability to link a summary field to the supporting detail, and to dynamically view that detail on a screen, is called ____. a. exploding report b. windowing a field c. dynamic reporting d. drill down ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p249 40. The major advantage of screen output versus printed output is that screen output ____. a. can be updated dynamically b. is more user friendly c. has more information d. is more secure ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p249 41. Electronic reports can provide a(n) ____ on the report to activate a lower-level report, which provides more detailed information. a. cursor link b. activation key c. mouseover d. hot spot hyperlink ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p249 42. One effective way to present large volumes of data is to summarize it and present it ____. a. in tabular form b. in graphical chart or diagram c. with control totals d. on a computer screen ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p250 43. Two of the most common graphical charting techniques are ____. a. vertical charts and horizontal charts b. line charts and series charts c. bar charts and pie charts d. printed charts and screen charts ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p250 44. Which is not a type of consistency that is important in user interface design? a. Across platforms b. Across users c. Across a suit of apps d. Within an app Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p224-225 45. Which of the following is not one of the standard methods to aid a user to find and utilize hidden controls or actions that are not obvious? a. Visual diagrams b. Tool tip c. Grouping of icons d. Affordance ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p227 46. Which of the following is not a principle of Closure? a. Definite end point of the steps of a procedure b. Protecting and saving user’s input fields. c. Allow the user to undo their actions. d. Have clear navigation path.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 47. When a user fills out an online form, but makes an error and the data is not immediately accepted (until the input error is corrected), if the system clears all the fields and requires the user to start over, this is an example of violating the principle of ______. a. clear error messages and processing b. always allowing a way out c. protecting the user’s work d. making actions reversible ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 48. One good way to prevent errors on input forms is to _______. a. include active discovery b. provide shortcut keys c. write clear error messages d. provide “undo” capability ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 49. When working in an application and the user saves their work, sometimes at the bottom of the window, a progress bar will indicate show the progress of the save operation. This is an example of what? a. Provide closure on a dialogue or action.

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface b. Saving the user’s work c. Active discovery d. Affordance ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p228 50. Which of the following is not necessarily something to consider when designing the labels and other text on a screen? a. The age of the target audience b. The main output devices that will be used c. The type of font to be displayed d. The brightness of the screen ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p229 51. Which of the following is not a recommended technique for good error processing? a. Place the cursor on the error field. b. Indicate which input has the error. c. Provide a solution to the error. d. Clear the field that is in error.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p231 52. Which of the follow is the best technique to determine how many menu items are needed and how to structure the menus and sub menus. a. Group use cases by actor. b. Group use cases by data requirements c. Group business functions by department d. Group use cases by dependency ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p233-234 53. Which analysis model provides the best starting point for identifying screens for user interface design? a. Activity Diagram b. Domain model diagram c. Use case description d. System sequence diagrams ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p235 54. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary considerations when designing the user interface?

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface a. Is the system a custom application or a browser based app? b. What kind of devices will it run on? c. What operating system will it run on? d. What types of user interface controls will be required?

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p238 55. The primary principles of UI design of a desktop system include principles which also generally apply to other types of devices. Which of the following principles is NOT an important guideline when considering the layout and format of a particular screen. a. Each screen should have a primary purpose. b. Controls on a screen should be grouped by related function c. Grammar and spelling should be correct. d. Dark colors should be avoided.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p238 56. Which of the following is NOT one of the considerations of designing input forms for desktop systems? a. Align the textboxes vertically b. Validate all input data at the source c. Automatically put the cursor in the first textbox d. Use list boxes and check boxes when possible ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p239 57. Which are the two additional important issues of Web based UI design over local desktop UI design? a. Advertising space and screen size b. Browser compatibility and advertising space c. Load time and browser compatibility d. Screen size and load time ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p240-241 58. Which of the following are the two primary characteristics of smartphone UI design that are different than UI desktop design? a. Limited screen size and touch screen b. Touch screen and screen orientation c. Screen orientation and limited screen size d. Screen dimensions (height and width) and limited size ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface REFERENCES: p243 59. The ____________________ is everything the end user comes into contact with while using the system–physically, perceptually, and conceptually.

ANSWER: user interface POINTS: 2 60. What is the term used for design techniques that embody the view that the user interface is the entire system.

ANSWER: user-centered design user centered design POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p220 61. The degree to which a system is easy to learn and to use is called _______.

ANSWER: useability useability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p220 62. When the appearance of a specific control suggests its function, that is called _______.

ANSWER: affordance POINTS: 2 63. When a control provides immediate feedback to a user, such as when a button shows it has been clicked, another term besides feedback that is often used is called _______.

ANSWER: visibility POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p223 64. A technique to create a sequence of sketches of the display screen during a dialog is called _____.

ANSWER: storyboarding storyboard POINTS: 2 65. A type of text box input control that only contains a set of predefined data values is called a ______.

ANSWER: list box POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p239 66. A type of text box that contains a set of predefined values but also allows the user to enter new values is called a ______.

ANSWER: combo box POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p239 67. A type of input control where the user can select only one item from a group of items.

ANSWER: radio button Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p224 68. A type of input control that allows the user to select multiple items within a group of items is called _______.

ANSWER: check boxes check box POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p224 69. A user-interface output design technique that allows a user to select a summary field and view the supporting details is called _______.

ANSWER: drill down drill-down POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p249 70. A broad concept that applies to all aspects of a person’s interaction with a software application including actions, responces, and perceptions is called the ______ ______.

ANSWER: user experience POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p219 71. _____ _____ _____ is a field of study concerned with the effectiveness and efficiency of user interfaces considering of computer systems, input and output technologies and phsycological aspects.

ANSWER: human-computer interaction human computer interaction

human-computer interaction (HCI) POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p221 72. When a control on a user interface screen provides a definite visual or audio response by the system in response to a user action, it is called ______.

ANSWER: feedback POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p223 73. Brief instructions that pop up when the mouse hovers over a control is called a(n) _____ ____.

ANSWER: tool tip POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p223 74. The idea of maintaining a certain level of consistency across multiple releases over time of a software application is referred to as ______.

ANSWER: continuity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p226 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface 75. A feature of the user interface that provides clues to help the users uncover hidden features is called ______.

ANSWER: discoverability POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p227 76. When a user interface has obvious features that lead or invite users to try things so as to discover hidden features it is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: active discovery POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p227 77. Using the dialogue metaphor, it is important the each dialogue has a defined beginning and ending. This concept is referred to as ______.

ANSWER: closure POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p228 78. A technique of displaying the sequence of pages traveres within an application to allow easy backing up to a previous page is called ________.

ANSWER: breadcrumbs breadcrumb navigation

breadcrumbs (navigation) POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p230 79. When a web site is designed so that it can be correctly and effectively displayed on small, mobile devices (as well as desktop devices) it is said to be ______ ______.

ANSWER: mobile responsive POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p243 80. On small mobile devices due to the lack of screen space, sometimes menu navigation icons are placed along one edge of the screen in a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: action bar POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p244 81. Reports that provide detailed or summary information about transactions that fall outside the normal range of values are called _____ _____.

ANSWER: exception reports POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p246 82. Reports that are used by high-level managers to assess the overall health and performance of the organization are called ______ ______.

ANSWER: executive reports POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 08: Designing the User Interface REFERENCES: p246 83. When doing data entry on a smartphone a frequent problem is touching two controls at the same time or touching the wrong control. This is an example of ______ ______ problems.

ANSWER: fat finger POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p243 84. Briefly describe each of the four metaphors for designing the Human-Computer Interface.

ANSWER: 1. Direct manipulation metaphor - Manipulating objects on a display that look like physical objects (pictures) or that represent them (icons) 2. Desktop metaphor - Organizing visual display into distinct regions, with a large empty workspace in the middle and a collection of tool icons around the perimeter 3. Document metaphor - Visually representing the data in files as paper pages or forms. These pages can be linked together by references (hyperlinks) 4. Dialog metaphor - The user and computer accomplishing a task by engaging in a conversation or dialog by using text, voice, or tools, such as labeled buttons POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p221 85. Briefly discuss the three major considerations that affect user-interface design.

ANSWER: 1. The first consideration is whether system is a customer application or a browser based system.

Custom based can use the controls available in standard and custom libraries. Browser based systems must conform to the controls available in browsers using html.

2. The second consideration is the type of devices that the user interface will be designed for. Will the UI be displayed on only one type of device or many types? If only one, is it desktop, laptop, tablet, or smartphone.

3. The third consideration is the platform of the system UI. Apple controls are distinct from Windows controls, and the system will require the use of the correct type of UI controls POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p238 86. Seven items are listed as important layout and formatting issues for the design of the UI for smartphones. Identify at least four.

ANSWER: 1. Each screen should have a single focus or purpose.

2. Screens need both portrait- and landscape-view capabilities.

3. When appropriate, screens should be allowed to resize without losing screen controls.

4. Screen components should be directly touch-manipulated.

5. Visible navigation controls should be placed at the bottom of the screen.

6. Due to screen swiping, both horizontal and vertical scrolling is allowed.

7. Use small pop-up screens when additional information is needed.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p243

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database 1. A relation describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical data store or database. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p259 2. A relational database management system stores data in tables. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 3. Every table in a relational database must have a foreign key. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 4. A foreign key is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exists as a primary key in another table. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 5. Invented keys that are not automatically generated in a relational database are dangerous and require careful scrutiny. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p268 6. Relationships in a relational database are usually represented by embedding a foreign key in each participating table. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p268 7. Classes that participate in a classification hierarchy can be represented within a relational database as a set of tables with the primary key of the general class table replicated in the other tables. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p270 8. Classes that participate in a classification relationship can only be represented within a relational database as a single table containing all the attributes in each class. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p270 9. A relational database table is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in second normal form (2NF) and if every non-key field is functionally dependent on the primary key. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p277-278 10. A relational database table is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in second normal form (2NF) and if no non-key field is functionally dependent on any other non-key field. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p277 11. Problem domain modeling and database normalization are incompatible techniques for relational database design. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p273 12. One-to-many and many-to-many relationships are both represented by foreign keys in a relational database. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p269-270 13. Referential integrity is a consistent relational database state in which every foreign key value also exists as a primary key value. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p271 14. Every database in a DBMS consists of two separate data stores. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p259 15. The domain data in a database is sometimes referred to as metadata. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p259 16. A local business office with a small database which is only used by two or three users would most probably implement a desktop DBMS. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p261 17. A phased database development and deployment (using iterative development) is usually the safest approach to deploying the best database solution. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p262 18. In an iterative approach to software development, it is usually best to develop the database in the first few iterations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p262 19. To ensure that the database is designed correctly, an important member of the project team is the data administrator. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database REFERENCES: p262 20. Relationships between tables is usually indicated through the use of a foreign key. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 21. In a one-to-many association the primary key of the “many” class is placed as a foreign key in the “one” class. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p268 22. Including a total amount field as the sum of other fields in a table is a violation of second normal form. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p277 23. A write lock on a database allows other users to read the data, but they cannot update any data. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p286 24. A(n) ____ describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical data store or database. a. relation b. DBMS c. schema d. attribute ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p259 25. Which of the following is NOT a component or function of a typical database management system (DBMS)? a. Low-level process management b. Direct query processor c. Application program interface processor d. Administrative interface ANSWER: a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p259 26. In a relational database, a row can be referred to as a(n) ____. a. field b. tuple c. attribute d. relation ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 27. Data elements in a relational database are organized into ____. a. attributes b. objects c. tables d. tuples ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 28. A(n) ____ is a field or set of fields used to uniquely identify each row. a. primary key b. foreign key c. object identifier d. attribute ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 29. ____ are a critical element of relational database design because they are the bases for representing relationships among tables. a. Keys b. Attributes c. Fields d. Tables ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 30. One column of a table in a relational database is called a(n) ____. a. attribute b. relation c. tuple d. element Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 31. A(n) ____ is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exists as a primary key in another table. a. primary key b. foreign key c. object identifier d. candidate key ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 32. Each class on an class diagram is represented by a(n) ____ in a relational database. a. attribute b. row c. table d. column ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p265 33. All ____ in a table are guaranteed to be unique if the table's primary key is guaranteed to be unique. a. columns b. foreign keys c. rows d. values ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p264 34. A separate relation must be created to store the attributes of a ____ relationship among two other classes. a. one-to-one b. one-to-many c. many-to-many d. not any (not necessary) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p269-270 35. ____ is a consistent relational database state in which every foreign key value also exists as a primary key value. a. First normal form (1NF) b. Database synchronization c. Function dependency d. Referential integrity Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p271 36. Referential integrity is normally enforced by the ____. a. application programmer b. database management system c. operating system d. user ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p271 37. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if it has no repeating fields or groups of fields, and hence all rows have the same columns. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p273-274 38. ___________ is where the value in one field determines the value in another field in the same record. a. First normal form b. Second normal form c. Referential integrity d. Functional dependency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p275 39. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if every non-key field is functionally dependent on the primary key. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p275 40. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if no non-key field is functionally dependent on any other non-key field. a. first b. second Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database c. third d. fourth ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p276 41. What can be said about the following relational database table (key is underlined): (Choose the most correct answer.)

CourseSectionID, StudentID, Grade, StudentName a. Not in any valid normal form b. In First Normal Form c. In First and Second Normal Form d. In First, Second, and Third Normal Form ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p275 42. What can be said about the following relational database table (key is underlined): (Choose the most correct answer) StudentID, Name, Major, CreditsCompleted, GPA, AcademicStanding a. Not in any valid normal form b. In First Normal Form c. In First and Second Normal Form d. In First, Second, and Third Normal Form ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p275 43. Microsoft SQL Server is an example of what? a. An application server b. A database management system c. A programming language compiler d. A Web server ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p258 44. Which is not one of the responsibilities of the DA? a. Provide data naming standards b. Keep track of who owns the data c. Set up standards for data validation d. Establish user authentication for data access ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p262 45. Which is NOT one of the responsibilities of the database administrator?

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database a. Backup the database b. Do performance tuning c. Set up user authentication d. Determine data confidentiality ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p262 46. Which of the following is not a synonym of the others? a. row b. Tuple c. record d. field ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 47. Which of the following is not a synonym of the others? a. column b. attribute c. field d. tuple ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p263 48. In a many-to-many association, the primary key of the created table consists of which of the following? a. The primary keys of the associated tables b. An invented key with computer generated values c. The foreign keys of the associated tables d. Does not need a key field ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p268 49. A field in a relational table called “address” would be an example of what? a. candidate data type b. primitive data type c. compound data type d. complex data type ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p278 50. Which of the following contains both global and local schemas with distinct DBMSs? Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database a. Decentralized database b. Distributed database c. Heterogeneous distributed database d. Homogeneous distributed database ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p279 51. In a distributed database when the data is divided so that separate rows of the same table are at distinct locations that is referred to as _________. a. data replication b. horizontal partitioning c. vertical partitioning d. synchronization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p281 52. In a distributed database when the data is divided so that separate columns of the same table are at distinct locations that is referred to as _________. a. data replication b. horizontal partitioning c. vertical partitioning d. synchronization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p282 53. A database lock that does not allow another user to update the data is called what? a. Write lock b. Shared lock c. Transaction lock d. Database lock ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p286 54. A(n) ____________________ describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical data store or database.

ANSWER: schema POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p259 55. In a database a two-dimensional data structure consisting of columns and rows is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: table relation Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p263 56. A(n) ____________________ is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exist as a primary key in another table.

ANSWER: foreign key POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p264 57. The condition that requires that every value in a foreign key must have an equivalent value as the primary key in another table is called ________ ______.

ANSWER: referential integrity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p271 58. Non-key (“bad”) redundancy can be systematically identified and eliminated from a relational database by ____________________ of the database.

ANSWER: normalization normalizing POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p272 59. A relational database table is in ____________________ normal form if it has no repeating fields or groups of fields, i.e. if it has the same number of columns for every row.

ANSWER: first 1NF 1st POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p273 60. A data type that is supported directly by computer hardware or a programming language is called a(n) _______ data type.

ANSWER: primitive POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p279 61. A data type that is defined by extending or combining other data types is called a(n) ______ data type.

ANSWER: complex POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p279 62. When it is necessary to update one database copy with changes made to the other database, it is called _________.

ANSWER: database synchronization synchronization POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p281 63. A _______ is an integrated collection of stored data that is centrally managed and controlled Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER: database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p258 64. What does DBMS stand for?

ANSWER: database management system POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p258 65. A software system whose purpose is to manage and control the data in a database is called a(n) _______ _______ ______.

ANSWER: database management system POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p258 66. What does SQL stand for?

ANSWER: structured query language POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p259 67. ______ ______ ______ is a query language used to access and update the data in a relational database.

ANSWER: structured query language POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p259 68. The person who is in charge of the structure and integrity of the data is called the _____ _____.

ANSWER: data administrator POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p262 69. The person who is in charge of the safety and operation of the DBMS is called the _____ _____.

ANSWER: database administrator POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p262 70. What does DBA stand for?

ANSWER: database administrator POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p262 71. A specific type of DBMS that organizes the data into tables is called a(n) ______ ______ _____ _____.

ANSWER: relational database management system POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p263 72. In a database table a tuple is the same thing as a(n) ______.

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database ANSWER:

row record POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p263 73. In a database table a column is the same thing as a(n) ______.

ANSWER: attribute field POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p263 74. An attribute or set of attributes that uniquely define the rows in a table is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: key POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p264 75. If there is more than one field in a database table that is unique for all rows each one may be called a(n) ______ _____.

ANSWER: candidate key POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p264 76. If there is more than one field in a database table that is unique for all rows only one of those fields will be identified as the ______ ______ for the table.

ANSWER: primary key POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p264 77. GUID stands for ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: globally unique identifier POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p268 78. A constraint which is stored in the schema and which ensures that all foreign keys have associated primary keys is called a(n) ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: referential integrity constraint POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p272 79. A formal technique for transforming a relational schema to an equivalent one that eliminates data anomalies is called _______.

ANSWER: normalization POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p273 80. A database table is in _____ _____ _____ if all non-key attributes are functionally dependent on the entire key.

ANSWER: second normal form Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database 2nd normal form POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p275 81. A database table is in _____ _____ _____ if no non-key attributes are functionally dependent on any other non-key attributes.

ANSWER: third normal form 3rd normal form POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p276 82. A database that is stored at multiple locations but which does not need to be interconnected or synchronized is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: decentralized database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p279 83. A distributed database configuration where all databases use the same DBMS and have a global schema is called a(n) ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: homogeneous distributed database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p279 84. A distributed database configuration which contains both global and local schemas and which allows purely local data is called a(n) ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: heterogeneous distributed database hetrogeneous distributed database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p279 85. In a distributed database configuration when all the tables are copied to all locations that is called _____ ______ ANSWER: data replication replicating data POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p280 86. A technique for protecting the database wherein every update to the database is recorded with audit information is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: transaction logging POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p285 87. When there is a piece of work or an action that includes several steps and updates to the data and which all must complete to be valid, that piece or work is called a(n) _______.

ANSWER: transaction POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p186 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database 88. The technique of applying exclusive control to a part of the database to one user at a time is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: database lock POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p286 89. A lock on a portion of the database by one user, which allows other users to read the data is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: read lock shared lock POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p286 90. A lock on a portion of the database by one user, which does not allow other users to read or access the data is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: exclusive lock write lock POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p286 91. Another name for a read lock is a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: shared lock POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p286 92. Another name for a write lock is a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: exclusive lock POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p286 93. List and briefly describe the four components of a database management system.

ANSWER: 1. Application Program Interface -- allows programming language interface to write scripts and logic to produce results based on complex logic.

2. End-user query processor -- this provides the SQL statements to query and update the database.

3. Administrative interface -- provides the functionality to create the schema and change the database configuration parameters.

4. Database access and control logic -- this is the actual DB engine which updates the database and retrieves results.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p259 94. What danger(s) is/are inherent in using keys invented by external agents as primary keys in a relational database?

ANSWER: Referential integrity depends on primary key uniqueness. By using key values assigned by external entities, an organization risks the possibility that referential integrity may be broken at some time in the future (e.g., duplicate shipment tracking numbers from competing shipping companies).

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p268 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 09: Designing the Database 95. Databases and DBMSs include several important data access and data management features, four of which are identified in the chapter. List three of the four.

ANSWER: 1. Simultaneous access by many users and application programs 2. Access to data without writing application programs (i.e., via the Direct SQL processor) 3. Application of uniform and consistent access and content controls 4. Integration of data stored on multiple servers distributed across multiple locations POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p260 96. In database design and administration the hardware and network architecture is an important consideration. The chapter describes four distinct hardware configurations for the deployment of a database based on the size and reach of the database. Identify an briefly describe each of the four.

ANSWER: 1. A single desktop system residing on one computer and used only by one or two users.

2. A shared database that resides on a database server for a LAN. A database of this size can be accessed by all the users in a particular office or department.

3. A larger database requiring multiple servers, but that is contained within a single server farm or data center. This configuration requires a sophisticated switchboard function with decision and routing protocols to respond to queries and updates.

4. Finally, when the organization becomes global with many users worldwide (or in multiple locations in a single country), it is often required to have multiple data centers or server farms centers.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p261

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development 1. A project cannot have both predictive and adaptive elements. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 2. A project that has high technical risk should use the predictive approach. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 3. All adaptive approaches include iterations. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p299 4. In incremental development, an increment is always completed in each iteration. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 5. The SDLC development approach taught in the textbook is a variation of the spiral model. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 6. The modified waterfall approach requires overlapping phases. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 7. The predictive waterfall SDLC explicitly includes a support phase, but the adaptive SDLCs do not. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 8. A model is a representation of an important aspect of the real world. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p302 9. A tool is a software support that helps create models or other components required in the project. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p303 10. Anytime people need to either record or communicate information, it is useful to create a model. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p303 11. Adopting an Agile approach for a project is relatively easy. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p305 12. In Agile Development, contracts include options for the customer to cancel if the project is not progressing, as measured by the incremental deliverables. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p305 13. Agile Modeling emphasizes creating only models that are necessary. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development REFERENCES: p305 14. In Agile Modeling, change is seen as the exception, not the norm. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p305 15. Agile Modeling principles suggest that CASE tools should be used whenever possible. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p306 16. An Agile Modeling practice used in incremental modeling is to create several models in parallel. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p306 17. Maintaining simplicity in Agile Modeling eliminates the need for validating the models with code. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p306 18. In the UP life cycle, some working software is tested and reviewed with system users at the end of each iteration. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308 19. The elaboration phase of the UP is usually completed in one iteration. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308 20. The UP should not be tailored to the needs of a specific organization or system project.

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308 21. Most iterations in the UP involve work in all disciplines. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p310 22. The Unified Process (UP) life cycle has four phases: inception, elaboration, construction, and conversion. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308 23. In XP, each programmer is responsible for her or her own code. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p314 24. XP recommends that system code be written before test code. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p314 25. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p317 26. Once a Scrum team has agreed on a goal and has selected items from the backlog list, the scope of the sprint is frozen. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p318 27. The purpose of a Scrum daily meeting is to find solutions for any issues that have arisen since the last meeting. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p318 28. In a Scrum project users can change the items being worked on whenever necessary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p318 29. An approach to the SDLC that plans the project in advance and then progresses according to the plan is called what? a. A predictive approach b. An adaptive approach c. An Agile approach d. A project management approach ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 30. The _____ approach is an SDLC approach that assumes the output of each phase are frozen before moving on to the next phase. a. iterative b. spiral model c. waterfall model d. prototyping ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 31. An adaptive approach to a development project is best used when _______. a. the system has low technical risk b. the requirements are simple and the system is small c. the requirements are well understood d. the requirements are uncertain ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p299 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development 32. An approach to the SDLC where the phases overlap is often referred to as the _______ approach. a. modified waterfall b. waterfall c. modified predictive d. spiral ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p299 33. The term ____ refers to an approach that completes parts of a system in one or more iterations and puts them into operation for users. a. incremental development b. adaptive development c. bottom-up development d. predictive development ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 34. The term “____” means that work activities are done once, then again, and yet again. a. agile modeling b. iteration c. waterfall approach d. incremental development ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p300 35. Which of the following is NOT one of the major activities of the support phase? a. Training the users b. Maintaining the system c. Enhancing the system d. Supporting the users ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 36. The objective of the ____ is to keep the system running productively during the years following its initial installation. a. version release b. support phase c. maintenance phase d. deployment phase ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development 37. A(n) _____ provides guidelines to follow for completing every activity in systems development, including specific models, tools, and techniques. a. predictive approach b. object-oriented analysis c. system development methodology d. systems development life cycle ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p301 38. The term “_______” is used to separate out some aspect of the real world that is important to understand when we build a model. a. brainstorm b. synthesis c. analysis d. abstraction ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p302 39. A(n) “_______” is a guideline to help an analyst complete a specific task and often includes step-by-step instructions to do something such as how to create a model. a. tool b. technique c. methodology d. SDLC ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p303 40. Which of the following is a basic value of agile software development? a. Following a plan over responding to change b. Working software over comprehensive documentation c. Processes and tools over individuals and interactions d. Contract negotiation over customer collaboration ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p304 41. What is the primary goal in Agile Modeling? a. building model templates for future projects b. building multiple models c. focusing on representation with good models d. developing software Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p305 42. Which of the following is NOT an Agile Modeling principle? a. Minimize your modeling activity b. Know your models and how to use them c. Focus on content rather than representation d. Maintain core models to verify past decisions ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p305 43. A(n) _____ approach to the SDLC is used when the exact requirements of a system or needs of users are not well understood. a. predictive b. persistent c. incremental d. adaptive ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p298 44. In Agile modeling what are the two important reasons for building models? a. To understand what you are building and to communicate the solution b. To document a solution and to instruct other developers c. To communicate with the user and to obtain feedback d. To write good code and to design good databases ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p306 45. A(n) ______ is a representation of an important aspect of the real world. a. methodology b. tool c. technique d. model ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p302 46. Which of the following methodologies use an adaptive approach to systems development? a. Unified Process b. Extreme Programming c. Scrum Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development d. All of them ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p307 47. UP disciplines are involved in each iteration, which is typically planned to span ____. a. one week b. two weeks c. four weeks d. eight weeks ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p310 48. The UP ____ discipline involves setting up the guidelines to manage releases and versions. a. project management b. configuration and change management c. deployment d. environment ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p311 49. The UP life cycle model includes all of the following: a. phases, activities, and artifacts b. phases, disciplines, and iterations c. activities, iterations, and processes d. analysis, design, and implementation phases ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308-311 50. Which of the following is completed in the inception phase of the UP? a. Prepare the deployment b. Resolve high risks c. Design and implement the core architecture and functions d. Produce rough estimates of cost and schedule ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p308-309 51. Which of the following is completed in the transition phase of the UP? a. Complete beta test b. Resolve high risks c. Implement the core functions Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development d. Make the plans to deploy ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p309 52. The basis of an XP plan is a set of ____ that users develop. a. use cases b. user stories c. classes d. diagrams ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p313 53. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the system. a. product backlog b. system metaphor c. object framework d. meta model ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p313 54. The first XP development activity is creating ____. a. system metaphor b. development plan for releases c. set of acceptance tests d. user stories ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p313 55. Which of the following is NOT an XP practice? a. Simple designs b. Anyone can change code c. Small releases d. No required coding standards ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p313 56. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____. a. performing acceptance testing b. creating acceptance tests c. planning a series of iterations Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development d. dividing code assignments among teams ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p313 57. Scrum focuses primarily on the ____ level. a. team b. software c. manager d. sprint ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p317 58. In Scrum, the ____ maintains the product backlog list. a. product owner b. Scrum master c. Scrum team d. project manager ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p317 59. A Scrum sprint is a firm ____ time box, with a specific goal or deliverable. a. 7 day b. 14 day c. 30 day d. 60 day ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p318 60. Which of the following is NOT a question that is asked in a Scrum meeting? a. What have you done since last meeting? b. What will you do by the next meeting? c. What obstacles are hindering you? d. Are you meeting your scheduled deliverables?

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p318 61. The term “____________________” refers to related system development activities, which are grouped into categories of project planning, analysis, design, implementation, and support.

ANSWER: phase Phase Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p298 62. A method of executing the systems development life cycle (SDLC) which assumes rigid planning and final decision making at each step, is called the ____________________ approach.

ANSWER: waterfall waterfall model POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p299 63. A development approach in which the complete system structure is built but with minimum functionality is called the _______.

ANSWER: walking skeleton POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p300 64. Using a(n) ____________________ approach to the SDLC assumes requirements and needs for the planned system are uncertain ANSWER: adaptive POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p298 65. What is the term used to describe an adaptive type of project that is both chaotic and controlled or ordered?

ANSWER: Chaordic POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p304 66. What is the term used to describe a guiding philosophy in which only the models that are necessary, with a valid need and the right level of detail, are created.

ANSWER: Agile modeling Agile development Agile POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p305 67. An SDLC approach that completes portions of the system in small increments across iterations and integrates it into the whole is called _____.

ANSWER: incremental development POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p300 68. A(n) ________ is a set of functionally related activities that combine to enable the develop process in a UP project.

ANSWER: discipline UP discipline POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p309-310 69. _______ is an XP practice in which two programmers work together on designing, coding, and testing.

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development ANSWER: Refactoring POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p314 70. _______ is an XP practice in which two programmers work together on designing, coding, and testing.

ANSWER: Pair programming Pair-programming POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p314 71. In XP, a system is delivered to users in multiple stages called _________.

ANSWER: releases small releases POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p315 72. The basic idea behind the ____________________ development methodology is to respond to a current situation as rapidly and positively as possible.

ANSWER: Scrum POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p316-317 73. A(n) ____________ is a prioritized list of user requirements used to choose work to be done during a Scrum project.

ANSWER: product backlog POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p317 74. In Scrum, a(n) ________ is the client stakeholder for whom a system is being built.

ANSWER: product owner POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p317 75. The _________ is a small group of developers who work together on a Scrum project.

ANSWER: Scrum team POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p317 76. A Scrum _______ is a time-controlled mini-project that implements a specific portion of a system.

ANSWER: sprint POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p318 77. Every day during the sprint, the Scrum master holds a daily ____________________ which is a meeting of all members of the team.

ANSWER: scrum scrum meeting POINTS: 2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development REFERENCES: p318 78. List at least 6 principles of Agile Modeling.

ANSWER: Develop software as your primary goal Enable the next effort as your secondary goal.

Minimize your modeling activity—few and simple.

Embrace change, and change incrementally.

Model with a purpose.

Build multiple models.

Build high-quality models and get feedback rapidly.

Focus on content rather than representation.

Learn from each other with open communication.

Know your models and how to use them.

Adapt to specific project needs.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p245 79. List the six main UP development disciplines.

ANSWER: Business modeling Requirements Design Implementation Testing Deployment POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p310 80. List and describe the four phases of the UP development methodology.

ANSWER: 1. Inception -- Develop an approximate vision of the system, make the business case, define the scope, and produce rough estimates for cost and schedule.

2. Elaboration -- Define the vision, identify and describe all requirements, finalize the scope, design and implement the core architecture and functions, resolve high risks, and produce realistic estimates for cost and schedule.

3. Construction -- Iteratively implement the remaining lower-risk, predictable, and easier elements and prepare for deployment.

4. Transition -- Complete the beta test and deployment so users have a working system and are ready to benefit as expected.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p309 81. List and describe the four XP Core Values.

ANSWER: 1. Communication -- Effective communication involves not only documentation, but also verbal discussion.

2. Feedback -- Feedback on functionality and requirements should come from the users, feedback on designs and code should come from other developers, and feedback on satisfying a business need should come from the client. XP integrates feedback into every aspect of development.

3. Courage -- Developers always need courage to face the harsh choice of doing things right or throwing away bad code and starting over. XP practices are designed to give developers the courage to ? “do it right.?”

4. Simplicity -- The simplest and most straightforward approach should be taken on all aspects of the project.

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Chapter 10: Approaches to System Development XP includes techniques to reinforce this principle and make it a standard way of developing systems.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p312-313 82. List at least six of the XP Practices.

ANSWER: Planning Refactoring the code System metaphor Testing Owning the code collectively Small releases Pair programming Continuous integration Forty-hour week Simple designs On-site customer Coding standards POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p313

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management 1. A good project manager focuses his energy on the success of the project team and allows the oversight committee to monitor and report project status. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p329 2. A major reason that software development projects to fail is due to poor project management. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p328 3. Newer iterative and Agile development paradigms have improved project success. However, these approaches still have one-third of all projects have problems delivering satisfactory results on time. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p328 4. Ceremony refers to the official kick-off meeting to start a project. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p330 5. Since the Agile philosophy embraces change, project scope management is not important for Agile projects. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p333 6. The final decision of project scope in an Agile project rests with the users. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p333 7. With Agile Time Management scheduling is only done on a micro level and not a macro level. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p334 8. With Agile Cost Management it is important to control the costs, even more important than estimating the costs to get project approval. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p334 9. Agile project managers do not try to answer the question “How much will the project cost?” a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p334 10. In Agile projects the easiest portions of the system are built in the first few iterations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p335 11. Projects are seldom initiated to solve immediate business problems. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p336 12. It is usually impossible to make an accurate estimate of the time required to complete a development project. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p339 13. One important step in estimating the time required for a project is to try to identify all of the functional requirements of a the new system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p339 14. One of the responsibilities of the project manager in getting a project approved is to try to predict the value of business benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p340 15. In adaptive, iterative projects there are usually two types of schedules created. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p350 16. Although most project status can be reported electronically, for most projects a periodic printed status report (such as a newsletter) is still critically important. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p349 17. The System Vision Document consists of the problem description and the business benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p337 18. Performing the risk analysis is part of Core Process 2, (Plan and monitor the project). a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p336 19. Which of the following statements best defines what a project is? a. A planned activity consisting of defined tasks by a team of people. b. A sequence of steps with a scheduled completion. c. A set of procedures that must be completed in a timely fashion. d. A planned undertaking with a start and stop and that produces a result.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p327 20. Which of the following best describes the reason why projects fail? a. Technological problems b. System is too complex c. Wrong development methodology d. Undefined project management practices ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p328 21. According to the Dr Dobbs report on project success what is the approximate percent of Agile or iterative projects that can be considered completely successful? a. 35% b. 50% c. 65% d. 80% ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p328 22. The organization and direction of other people to achieve a planned result within a predetermined schedule and budget is called what? a. Project delivery management b. Project integration management c. Project human resource management d. Project management ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p329 23. Which of the following is NOT one of the external responsibilities of a project manager? a. Report project status b. Assess project risks c. Work with the client d. Identify resource needs ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p329 24. Which of the following is NOT one of the internal responsibilities of a project manager? a. Develop the project schedule b. Develop specifications c. Assign work to team members Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management d. Monitor project milestones ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p329 25. Which of the following is NOT one of the PMBOK knowledge areas? a. Integration Management b. Documentation Management c. Risk Management d. Procurement Management ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p331 26. Which of the following principles of project management evaluates Requests for Proposals? a. Integration Management b. Quality Management c. Human Resource Management d. Procurement Management ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p331 27. What technique is used to control the scope in an Agile project? a. Not important to worry about scope. b. Freeze the requirements in an early iteration. c. Keep a prioritized list of required functions. d. Let the client and the users worry about the scope.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p333 28. Project Quality Management is different for Agile projects because they place heavy emphasis in what additional area? a. The quality of the testing process. b. The quality of the project processes. c. The quality of the deliverables. d. The quality of the team members.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p335 29. Which of the following is also called a steering committee? a. Executive committee b. Strategic planning committee Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management c. Project approval committee d. Oversight committee ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p330 30. Which of the following is NOT a standard reason for initiating a system development project. a. To respond to an opportunity b. To reduce staffing requirements c. To resolve a problem d. To respond to an external directive ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p336 31. A ____ combines three components: the problem description, the business benefits, and the system capabilities. a. Project charter b. Proof-of-concept analysis c. System vision document d. System scope document ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p337 32. Which of the following is NOT a common question asked by the client before giving project approval? a. How much will it cost? b. How long will it take? c. Who is the project manager? d. What are the benefits?

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p337 33. Usually the highest cost for the development and deployment of a new system is _____. a. License fees for new software b. Salaries of the development team c. Computer and network equipment d. Data center costs ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p340 34. The time from the deployment of a new system until the break-even point is reached is sometimes called the ______. a. investment period b. net present value Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management c. return on investment d. payback period ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p342 35. The net present value for a year is calculated by _______. a. combining benefits and costs for a defined number of years b. applying the discount rate to the combination of benefits and costs c. determining when the benefits offset the costs d. applying the discount factor to the combination of benefits and costs ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p341-342 36. Which is NOT one of the primary areas for risk and feasibility analysis? a. Organizational risks b. Deployment risks c. Resource risks d. Schedule risks ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p343 37. The fear of using a computer (computer phobia) is a type of _______ risk. a. Technological risk b. Resource (people) risk c. Organizational risk d. Deployment risk ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p343 38. Missing milestones on a project may be an indication of project that has high _______ risk. a. Schedule b. Resource c. Deployment d. Technological ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p344 39. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities of the second core process to plan and monitor the project. a. Establish the work environment b. Build work schedules Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management c. Evaluate work processes d. Estimate the project length ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p345 40. Which is NOT an activity associated with establishing the project environment? a. Record and communicate project information. b. Establish the working environment. c. Establish team processes and procedures. d. Identify staffing requirements.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p346-348 41. The creation of a work breakdown structure is helpful in the development of what? a. Software testing plan. b. Project iteration schedule. c. Detailed work schedule. d. Detailed effort estimates of work tasks.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p350-351 42. Estimating the effort required and identifying task dependencies is usually part of the work to create what? a. The project iteration schedule b. The detailed work schedule c. The project time estimate d. The critical path ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p350 43. When the project team asks “Are our working relationships with the user effective?” it is doing what? a. An end of iteration review b. An end of project review c. A performance review d. A work breakdown structure ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p354 44. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities associated with staffing the project team? a. Conducting team-building exercises. b. Developing a resource plan.

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management c. Organizing work groups. d. Setting up programming rules and guidelines.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p354 45. Which is NOT a criterion that is used to determine how to define tasks for a work breakdown structure. a. How to know when the task is complete. b. How to estimate the effort required. c. A logical way to determine its predecessor. d. It should take one to five days.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p352 46. Given a project schedule with all tasks connected with one-way arrows and task durations. The critical path is _____. a. the longest path through the network b. the shortest path through the network c. neither the longest nor shortest path through the network d. it cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p354 47. The present value of $200,000 development costs in year 0 assuming a 10% discount rate is: a. $180,000 b. $190,000 c. $200,000 d. $210,000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p342 48. Which would be the least desirable reason to initiate a new development project? a. To take advantage of a new sales opportunity b. To solve an internal business problem c. To respond to a legislative requirement d. To take advantage of new technology ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p336 49. Which two of the following are activities belonging to the first core process? a. Schedule the work b. Perform risk and feasibility analysis Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management c. Choose the project manager d. Establish the project environment e. Evaluate the work processes f. Quantify project approval factors ANSWER: b, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p336 50. Which two of the following activities belong to the second core process of planning and monitoring the project? a. Establish the project environment b. Estimate the project cost c. Analyze project risk and feasibility d. Determine project scope e. Estimate the project length f. Staff and allocate resources ANSWER: a, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p345 51. Which two of the following questions (decision points) are important when monitoring project progress? a. Is the task on target? b. Is the task too large? c. Is the task clearly defined? d. Is the variance significant? e. Is the corrective action sufficient? f. Is the status complete?

ANSWER: a, d POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p355 52. The term “__________ __________” refers to the organization and direction of other people to achieve a planned result within a predetermined schedule and budget.

ANSWER: project management POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p329 53. The person or group that funds the project is called the _____ .

ANSWER: client POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p329 54. The person or group that work directly with the system are called _______ .

ANSWER: user users POINTS: 2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management REFERENCES: p329 55. The _______ consists of clients and key manager who review the progress and direct the project.

ANSWER: oversight committee POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p329 56. The level of formality of a project is often referred to as _______ .

ANSWER: ceremony POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p330 57. A project management guide and standard of fundamental project management principles is referred to as the _______.

ANSWER: PMBOK Project Management Body of Knowledge POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p331 58. A document to help define the scope of the new system is called a(n) _____ _____ _____.

ANSWER: system vision document System vision document

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p337 59. The benefits that accrue to an organization, usually measured in dollars, from the deployment of a new system are called ______ ______.

ANSWER: business benefits POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p337 60. The required functions and capabilities of the new system that are developed in order to get approval for the development project are called the _______ ______.

ANSWER: system capabilities POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p337 61. The dollar value of benefits reduced by the dollar value of costs combined together and expressed in current dollars is called the ______ _____ _____.

ANSWER: net present value NPV POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p341 62. What is the name given to the process of comparing costs and benefits to see whether investing in a new system will be beneficial?

ANSWER: cost/benefit analysis cost benefit analysis Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management cost-benefit analysis POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p341 63. The point in time at which dollar benefits offset the dollar costs is called the _______ _____ _____ .

ANSWER: break-even point break even point POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p342 64. What is the term that describes the time period after which the dollar benefits have offset the dollar costs?

ANSWER: payback period pay back period pay-back period POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p342 65. An increased level of customer satisfaction is an example of a(n) _______ ______.

ANSWER: intangible benefit POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p342 66. The hierarchical list of activities of a project that is used to create work schedule is called the _____ ______ ______.

ANSWER: work breakdown structure WBS POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p351 67. A bar chart that portrays the schedule by the length of horizontal bars is called a _______ _____.

ANSWER: Gantt chart POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p353 68. The sequence of tasks in a schedule that cannot be delayed without delaying the project is called the _______ _____ .

ANSWER: critical path POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p353 69. The meeting held at the end of an iteration to determine what was successful and what can be improved is called what?

ANSWER: Retrospective A retrospective POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p354 70. A benefit that can be measured in terms of dollars is called a(n) ____ _____.

ANSWER: tangible benefit Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p342 71. A project tracking tool that provides a summary of the status of various project items such as open tasks and expenditures is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: project dashboard POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p347 72. The deployment of a new system resulted in the reduction of the office staff from seven people to five people. This is an example of a(n) ______ _______.

ANSWER: tangible benefit POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p342 73. List several (at least four) reasons why projects fail.

ANSWER: 1. Undefined project management practices 2. Poor IT management and poor IT procedures 3. Inadequate executive support 4. Inexperienced project managers 5. Unclear business objectives 6. Inadequate user involvement POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p328 74. List several (at least four) of the internal responsibilities of a project manager.

ANSWER: 1. Develop the project schedule 2. Recruit and train team members 3. Assign work to teams and team members 4. Assess project risks 5. Monitor and control project deliverables and milestones POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p329 75. List the three major external responsibilities of a project manager.

ANSWER: 1. Report the projects progress and status 2. Work with the client and other stakeholders 3. Identify resource needs and obtain resources POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p329 76. List the ten areas of the Project Management Body of Knowledge.

ANSWER: Project Scope Management Project Time Management Project Cost Management Project Quality Management Project Human Resource Management Project Communication Management Project Risk Management Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management Project Procurement Management Project Integration Management Project Stakeholder Management POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p331 77. List the four activities of the first core process: Identify the problem and obtain approval.

ANSWER: 1. Identify the problem 2. Quantify project approval factors 3. Perform risk and feasibility analysis 4. Review with the client and obtain approval POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p336 78. List the three primary reasons for initiating a software development project.

ANSWER: 1. To respond to an opportunity 2. To resolve a problem 3. To respond to an external directive POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p336 79. List three primary criteria to obtain approval for a project. These criteria are often three key questions asked by the client before giving approval.

ANSWER: 1. How long will it take? (What is the estimated time) 2. How much will it cost? (What is the estimated cost) 3. What will it do for us? (What are the estimated benefits.)

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p337 80. List four primary areas that are considered in risk and feasibility analysis.

ANSWER: 1. Organizational risk and feasibility 2. Technological risk and feasibility 3. Resource risk and feasibility (usually people resources) 4. Schedule risks and feasibility POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p343-344 81. List the five activities of the second core process: Plan and monitor the project.

ANSWER: 1. Establish the work environment.

2. Schedule the work.

3. Staff and allocate resources.

4. Evaluate work processes.

5. Monitor progress and make corrections.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p336 82. List the three steps required to develop a detailed schedule of the work to be done within an iteration.

ANSWER: 1. Develop a work breakdown structure.

2. Estimate effort and identify dependencies Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 11: Project Planning and Project Management 3. Create the schedule with a Gantt chart.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p351

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals 1. An object-oriented program consists of a set of object classes that work together to process an input message. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p368 2. In object-oriented design, the design models are extensions of the analysis models. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p367 3. One tenet of Agile philosophy is that while analysis models may be useful, it generally is not necessary to develop design models. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p367 4. The objective of object-oriented analysis is to identify the objects that must work together to carry out each use case. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p368 5. The design models that are useful for modeling the flow of execution are Communication diagrams, Sequence diagrams, and Activity diagrams. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 6. The only difference between a domain class diagram and a design class diagram is the addition of the methods. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 7. The objective of object-oriented design is to identify and specify all the classes and messages that work together to carry out each use case.

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p374 8. The primary difference between a design class symbol and a problem domain class symbol is the addition of method signatures. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 9. Detailed Object-oriented design (OOD) is done on a use case-by-use case basis. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p374 10. Developers do not typically add more classes to design class diagrams than were originally defined in the domain model. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p383 11. It is usually a bad idea to try to include user-interface classes to a CRC design. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p385 12. One popular standard UML model that is used for object-oriented design is through the use of CRC Cards. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p373 13. Both a communication diagram and a sequence diagram have the same purpose and provide basically the same information. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p373 14. The first step in object-oriented design is to develop the design class diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p374 15. In the design of a complex use case, both a communication diagram and a sequence diagram may be needed. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p375 16. The primary difference between the first-cut design class diagram and the final design class diagram is the addition of method signatures. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p374 p388 17. One type of design class stereotype is called a “concrete class” because it can be instantiated. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p376 18. A “persistent” class is sometimes referred to as an “entity” class. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p376 19. Visibility is a design property that indicates whether a class can be “seen” by the user interface classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 20. Attributes within a property class can have their own properties. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 21. A class level attribute applies to all instances of a class. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p379 22. In order for an object to send a message to another object it must have navigation to that object. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p380 23. A one-to-many relationship means that a foreign key is placed in the “many” class, which gives navigation visibility from the “many” class to the “one” class. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p381 24. Navigation visibility may be bidirectional. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p381 25. CRC stands for Class-Responsibility-Communication. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p382 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals 26. High coupling is usually better than low coupling because it makes the system more integrated. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p391 27. Cohesion is a measure of how well the system “hangs together” by having strong connections between classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p392 28. Object responsibility is important because it helps to decide what methods are assigned to what classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p389-390 29. Separation of responsibilities is the basic principle upon which multilayer design is founded. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p390 30. Design using CRC cards does not require the use of a design class diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p375 31. In generalization/specialization the attributes (but not the associations) of the subclass are inherited from the superclass. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p379 32. Which of the following is NOT part of a multilayer object-oriented design (OOD)? a. Database access b. Problem domain object Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals c. User input form d. Functional module ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p368 33. Which analysis model serves as an input model to a design class diagram? a. Use case diagram b. Activity diagram c. Domain model class diagram d. System sequence diagram (SSD) ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the design models used for object-oriented design. a. Communication diagram b. System sequence diagram c. CRC cards d. Design class diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 35. Which diagram is directly used to identify methods and write programming code for object-oriented systems? a. Sequence diagram b. Design class diagram c. Package diagram d. State-machine diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 36. Which two models are primary models in object-oriented detailed design? a. Design class diagram and component diagram b. Package diagram and CRC cards c. Sequence diagram and communication diagram d. Sequence diagram and design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p372 37. In Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation, a stereotype is indicated by ____. a. parentheses b. brackets Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals c. guillemets d. underline ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p376 38. An input window class is an example of a(n) ____ design class type. a. boundary b. control c. entity d. persistent ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p376 39. A(n) ____ class acts as a switchboard between the view layer and the domain layer. a. boundary b. controller c. entity d. persistent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 40. Which of the following is included in the top compartment of a design class? a. Attributes b. Parameter list c. Type-expression d. Stereotype name ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 41. In design class notation, the ____ of an attribute is enclosed in curly braces {}. a. visibility b. type-expression c. initial-value d. property ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 42. Which of the following is valid Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation for a method signature? a. visibility name:type-expression {parameter list} b. name:class-name (parameter list):type-expression Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals c. visibility name(parameter list):type-expression d. visibility class-name:name:type-expression {parameter list} ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 43. Which of the following is correct UML notation for an attribute in a design class? a. visibility name:type-expression = initial-value{property} b. visibility class-name:type-expression {property} c. visibility name:initial-value(property) d. visibility name:type-expression initial-value (property) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p377 44. Given two classes, customer and order, which class would probably have navigational visibility to which class? a. Cannot determine based on the information provided b. Bidirectional -- each has visibility to the other c. Order to Customer d. Customer to Order ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p381 45. If you are doing detailed design for the use case Create New Order, which class should receive the first input? a. Order Transaction b. Order c. Order Handler d. Customer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p381 46. CRC stands for what? a. Collaboration responsibility card b. Class responsibility collaboration c. class relationship collaboration d. collaboration relationship class ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p382 47. UML provides a technique to extend the standard UML notation to include new symbols. This technique is called ________. a. extending Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals b. stereotyping c. prototyping d. externalizing ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p376 48. Which of the following is usually NOT included in a first-cut design class diagram? a. Initial value information for attributes b. Attribute types c. Method signatures d. Navigation visibility arrows ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p379-380 49. Which of the following is a general guideline for designing navigation visibility? a. A superior/subordinate relationship is usually navigated from the superior to the subordinate class b. A superior/subordinate relationship is usually navigated from the subordinate to the superior class c. Relationships in which objects in one class cannot exist without objects of another class are usually navigated from the more dependent class to the more independent class d. Navigation arrows should not be modified during the design process ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p380-381 50. After completing a use-case design using CRC cards, the next step is to _______. a. add required utility classes b. select another use case c. program the use case d. update the design class diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p375 51. In a design class diagram, navigation visibility is identified by ____. a. a solid arrow between the classes, pointing to the visible class b. a solid arrow between the classes, initiating from the visible class c. a dashed arrow between the classes, pointing to the visible class d. a solid line between the classes ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p380-381 52. Which of the following is true of class-level methods?

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals a. They depend on the existence of a particular object. b. They cannot access data across all objects. c. They are executed by the class instead of a specific object of the class. d. There can only be one class method per class.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p378 53. Which of the following is the best coupling choice for an input window, domain, and database object in a system? a. The input window is coupled to both the domain and database objects. b. The input window is coupled to the domain and the domain is coupled to the database. c. The input window and the domain are both coupled to the database object. d. All objects are coupled to each other.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p386-387 54. High coupling ____ in a system. a. is easier to maintain b. reduces ripple effects in a system when changes occur c. adds complexity d. decreases visibility between classes ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p391 55. ____ is a qualitative measure of the consistency of functions within a single class. a. Cohesion b. Encapsulation c. Coupling d. Visibility ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p392 56. A class that is responsible for accessing both the Internet and a database has ____ cohesion. a. very low b. low c. medium d. high ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p392 57. A class named SaleItem which has methods to calculate its own price is said to have good ______.

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals a. API b. cohesion c. coupling d. object responsibility ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p389 58. A plugin, such as adobe PDF reader, that is attached to a browser, such as Firefox, is a good example of what design principle? a. Separation of concerns b. Protection from Variations c. Indirection d. Good cohesion ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p390 59. A Web based application that integrates HTML code with business logic is said to be in violation of what design principle? a. Object responsibility b. Indirection c. Protection from variations d. Coupling ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p390 60. If a class is reusable, that is to say that it can be used in several different applications, then it has been designed using what good design principle? An example might be a button class. a. Separation of concerns b. Object responsibility c. Low coupling d. High cohesion ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p392 61. Which is a valid sequence of modeling steps for designing a use case? a. Choose use case, CRC cards, Final DCD, package diagram b. Sequence diagram, DCD, State chart diagram, Package diagram c. First cut DCD, CRC cards, package diagram, Final DCD d. First cut DCD, Communication diagram, Final DCD, Package Diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals REFERENCES: p375 62. Which of the following are information items on CRC cards. (Choose two) a. Object names b. Method signatures c. Attributes d. Stereotypes e. Interactions f. Responsibilities ANSWER: c, f POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p383 63. The creation of a programming object based on the template provided by the class definition is called _______.

ANSWER: instantiation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p368 64. The main purpose of a(n) ______ ______ diagram is to document and describe the programming classes that will be built for the new system.

ANSWER: design class POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p369 65. A(n) _______ ______ class is a class that is used to retrieve data from a database.

ANSWER: data access POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p377 66. A(n) _______ class is one where its objects exist after the system is turned off.

ANSWER: persistent POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p376 67. What is the term used to define the characteristic of an object attribute that describes whether it can be directly accessed by another object -- denoted by + or - ?

ANSWER: visibility POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p376 68. What do we call the notation that shows all the information required to call or invoke a method?

ANSWER: method signature POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p377-378 69. What is the term to denote a method that is invoked on a class instead of on an object?

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals ANSWER:

class-level method class level method POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p378 70. The term used to identify an attribute that contains the same value for all objects of this type in the system is _______.

ANSWER: class-level attribute class level attribute POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p379 71. A class that can never have objects of its type created is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: abstract class POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p379 72. A class that can be instantiated with objects of its type being created is called a(n) ______ _____.

ANSWER: concrete class POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p379 73. The term “______ ______” is a design principle in which one object has reference to another object and can thus interact with it.

ANSWER: navigation visibility navigation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p380 74. A brainstorming technique for designing interactions in use cases by assigning responsibilities and collaborations for classes is called _______ ______ .

ANSWER: CRC cards class responsibility collaboration cards class-responsibility-collaboration cards POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p382 75. The term “_______” is a measure of the focus or unity of purpose within a single class.

ANSWER: cohesion POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p392 76. What is the term that is used to describe a design principle in which parts of a system that are unlikely to change are segregated from those that will?

ANSWER: Protection from variations Protection-from-variations POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p390 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals 77. What term is used to describe a design principle in which an intermediate class is placed between two classes to decouple them but still link them?

ANSWER: Indirection POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p391 78. A design principle in which objects are responsible for carrying out system processing is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: object responsibility object-responsibility POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p389 79. When an object receives a message, a(n) _______, which is a small segment of program logic, receives the message and processes it.

ANSWER: method POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p368-369 80. The general term that refers to the process to identify the set of classes, their methods and the messages to execute a use case is called ______ ______ ______.

ANSWER: object-oriented design object oriented design POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p374 81. An object-oriented program consists of a set of computing ______.

ANSWER: objects POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p368 82. ______ ______ are shown in the class definition of the design class diagram to document the functions that objects of that class perform.

ANSWER: method signatures POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p369-370 83. A ________ is a way of categorizing a model element (particularly a class definition). It is usually denoted with guillemets.

ANSWER: stereotype POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p376 84. A ______ class is a class such as a user interface class that is visible from the outside world.

ANSWER: boundary view POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p376 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 12: Object-Oriented Design: Fundamentals 85. A ______ class is a class that mediates between the outside world and the internal system classes. It often can be considered a switchboard.

ANSWER: controller POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p377 86. ______ ______ ______ is a design principle that recommends segregating classes into separate packages based on primary focus of responsibility.

ANSWER: Separation of Responsibilities Separation of Concerns Separation-of-Responsibilities

Separation-of-Concerns POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p390 87. _______ is a qualitative measure of how closely the classes in a design class diagram are linked together.

ANSWER: Coupling POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p391 88. Describe the generalized object-oriented detailed design steps.

ANSWER: Step 1. Choose a use case.

Step 2. Develop a first cut design class diagram.

Step 3. Develop detailed design diagrams using either CRC cards, Communication diagram, or Sequence diagram.

Step 4. Update the design class diagram with methods and navigation information Step 5. Partition the solution with package diagrams as appropriate POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p375 89. Describe the process to do use case realization with CRC cards.

ANSWER: 1. Select a single use case. Create a use case controller card.

2. Identify the primary problem domain class that has responsibility for this use case.

3. Identify all the other problem domain classes that are needed to carry out functions to complete this use case. Define the individual responsibilities of each class. Also define which classes collaborate (e.g. use) other classes to provide functions or information.

4. Optionally add user-interface classes.

5. Optionally add data access classes and other utility classes.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p383

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization 1. Adding a use case controller to a sequence diagram is an example of applying a design pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 2. The controller object is usually part of view layer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 3. The starting point for identifying messages in detailed design of a use case is always the SSD. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p404 4. The activation lifeline is depicted by a vertical dashed line under an object. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 5. The initial version of a communication diagram contains view layer and business layer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p405 6. Design class diagrams and interaction diagrams should be developed independent of each other. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p403-404 7. The first-cut DCD includes method signatures. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p404 8. The perfect memory assumption means that there is always adequate memory to execute the program. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p417 9. The perfect technology assumption means not to worry about issues such as user security. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p417 10. The perfect solution assumption means that we do not worry about exception conditions. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p417 11. A loop or repeating message or messages in a sequence diagram is depicted by a rectangle box. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p415 12. The best technique for accessing the database when multiple objects are needed is just to let the data access object instantiate objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p422 13. There are two preferred methods to accessing the database. One is to have newly instantiated object call the data access object. The other is to let the controller access the data access object. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization REFERENCES: p422 14. Since updating a design class diagram is done after the use case realization is complete, visibility information is no longer necessary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p408 15. Dependency relationships cannot exist between classes within packages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p425-426 16. The code “if (someObject == null)” is part of the factory pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p431 17. A timeline on a communication diagram indicates the sequence of the messages. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 18. An interaction diagram is a subclass of a sequence diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 19. Links on communication diagram simple show the flow of messages and are not the associations between classes. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p401 20. The true/false condition on a message indicates whether the method on the destination object will execute.

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 21. Messages are comprised of five elements, all of which are optional except the method name. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 22. Messages on communication diagrams use the same syntax as messages from on sequence diagrams. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 23. Detailed design of use cases using communication diagrams requires that each input message is analyzed and extended. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p404 24. Message names should be given to indicate the service requested from the destination object. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p405 25. A return value in an interaction diagram is often a named object. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p403 26. On a communication diagram a common method to indicate a return value is with a dashed arrow. a. True b. False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p403 27. On a sequence diagram the messages are numbered to indicate the order of firing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 28. On a sequence diagram activation lifelines are attached to lifelines. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 29. On a sequence diagram constructor messages are always sent directly to the object itself. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 30. A lifeline indicates when a method is executing for a destination object. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 31. On a sequence diagram, view layer objects send messages to the controller. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p419 32. It is better to have the data access object create a new object when multiple objects may be created. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p422 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization 33. The adapter pattern facilitates changing the API method names in a system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p430 34. A singleton pattern is a type of factory pattern. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p431-432 35. System designers frequently create a class called a ____ that can serve as a collection point for incoming messages. a. switchboard b. message controller c. use case controller d. message collector ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 36. What is the least cohesive approach in creating use case controllers in a system? a. Define a single controller for all use cases. b. Define several controllers, each with a specific set of responsibilities c. Create a single controller for a single subsystem d. Create one controller per use case ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 37. The realization of a use case–determining what objects collaborate by sending messages to each other to carry out the use case–is done through the development of a(n) ____ diagram. a. system sequence b. package c. interaction d. design class ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 38. Which is the correct notation for a message label on a sequence diagram? a. * [true/false]RetVal := name (param) b. [true/false]RetVal == name (param) Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization c. [true/false]seq# RetVal := name (param) d. * [true/false] seq# Retval := name (param) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 39. Which of the following is NOT a valid technique to return data from an input message? a. A return object name b. A return message c. A return value on an input message d. A return condition name ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 40. When a message is sent from an originating object to a destination object it means that ______. a. data is being passed from the origin object to the destination object b. a transition is occurring between the objects c. a method is being invoked on the originating object d. a method is being invoked on the destination object ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 41. What is the first step in constructing a first-cut sequence diagram from the elements of the system sequence diagram (SSD)? a. Determine which messages must be sent b. Create a use case controller c. Replace the :System object with all the objects that must collaborate d. Select an input message from the use case ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p404 42. Developing a(n) ____ diagram is a multistep process of determining which objects work together and how they work together. a. design class b. interaction c. state machine d. package ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p403 p410 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization 43. When denoting a specific object in a sequence diagram, a ____ serves as the divider between the object name and the specific object identifier. a. double colon b. colon c. dash d. dot ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p409 44. When a use case controller receives the initial request for an inquiry when the data access layer is added, it first ____. a. begins the process to initialize the necessary data access objects in memory b. sends a message to the database to see if it is available c. sends a message to the appropriate data access object to retrieve the data d. sends a return message to the view layer ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p419 45. In a sequence when one assumes that the objects are already available to receive messages, that is considered to be the _______. a. perfect technology assumption b. perfect memory assumption c. perfect solution assumption d. perfect design assumption ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p417 46. The perfect technology assumption implies that _______. a. the equipment will work without any problems b. the users understand the technology c. issues related to technology are ignored d. issues related to scalability (high volumes) are ignored ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p417 47. User interface objects in a sequence diagram often are labeled with the stereotype ____. a. entity b. view or boundary c. control d. persistent ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization REFERENCES: p419 48. Which of the following is an example of an interaction diagram? a. Design class diagram b. Data access diagram c. Package diagram d. Communication diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p399 49. The primary models used for OO detailed design are ____ diagrams. a. design class and statechart b. package and statechart c. package and deployment d. design class and interaction ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p399 50. Which design model provides information for a design class diagram? a. Deployment diagram b. Interaction diagram c. Statechart diagram d. Package diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p407 51. Which of the following symbols is used in a communication diagram, but not in a sequence diagram? a. Message arrow b. Object c. Activation lifeline d. Link ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 52. Communication diagrams indicates the order of the messages with ____. a. sequence numbers b. activation lifelines c. arrows d. links ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization REFERENCES: p401 53. ____ methods must be included in a design class diagram. a. Constructor b. Use case specific c. Getter d. Setter ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p407 54. The final step in the object-oriented design (OOD) process consists of developing the ____. a. attributes of the design classes b. method names of the design classes c. interaction diagrams d. package diagrams ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p424 55. ____ diagrams partition a design class diagram into related functions. a. Statechart b. Sequence c. Interaction d. Package ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p425 56. The following notation “anOrd:Order” can be interpreted as follows: a. Order is a class. anOrd is the identifier of an object in the class b. Order is an object. anOrd is the identifier for that order c. Order is a class. anOrd is an object in that class d. Order is an object. anOrd is the reference to that object ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p403 57. Which of the following is NOT a component of the design pattern template? a. Problem that requires a solution b. Example of the pattern c. Description of when the pattern does not apply d. Consequences of the pattern ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization REFERENCES: p428 58. Domain layer classes should ____. a. prepare persistent classes for storage to the database b. start up and shut down the system c. edit and validate input data d. establish and maintain connections to the database ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p427 59. Data access layer classes should ____. a. process all business rules with appropriate logic b. accept input data c. display data fields d. contain Structure Query Language (SQL) statements ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p427 60. View layer classes should do all of the following EXCEPT _______. a. capture clicks and data entry b. start and shut down the system c. create problem domain classes d. display forms ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p427 61. A different implementation of a function is required in an existing system. The best way to integrate this function into the system is ______ a. to write the code in a new class b. to write the code in an existing class c. with the factory pattern d. with the adapter pattern ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p428 62. The Sales subsystem needs to instantiate a new cart object. How should this be done? a. Let the factory object do it. b. Let the view layer object do it. c. Let the controller object do it. d. Let the customer object do it.

ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p415 63. Given the following code, identify the pattern.

Class MyBuilder { static MyBuilder builder = null; { if builder == null {builder = new MyBuilder( ); return builder; } a. Factory Pattern b. Singleton Pattern c. Factory Method Pattern d. Adapter Pattern ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p433 64. What is the correct syntax notation for a message on a communication diagram? a. [t/f condition] seq-numb: ret-value := msg-name (para-list) b. [t/f condition] ret-value := msg-name (para-list) c. [t/f condition] seq-numb: ret-value = msg-name (para-list) d. [t/f condition] seq-numb ret-value = msg-name (para-list) ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p402 65. Which of the following figures is NOT correct?

a. A b. B Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization c. C d. D ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p400 66. What is the process of detail design for a particular use case by elaborating the messages that are necessary to execute the use case?

ANSWER: use case realization POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p399 67. Standard design techniques and templates that are recognized as good practice are called _________ ________.

ANSWER: design patterns POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p428 68. The _________________ pattern is a based on a class that helps to decouple the view layer from the business logic layer by receiving all input messages.

ANSWER: controller use case controller POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p400 69. A type of interaction diagram that emphasizes the order of the messages between objects for a specific use case is called a(n) ________ diagram.

ANSWER: sequence POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p399 70. A type of interaction diagram that emphasizes the objects that send and receive messages for a specific use case is called a(n) _______ diagram.

ANSWER: communication POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p399 71. A representation of a period during which a method of an object is alive and executing is called its ______ ______.

ANSWER: activation lifeline activation life line POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p409 72. The ________ ________ DCD usually contains no method signatures, but does contain navigation visibility.

ANSWER: first cut first-cut POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p404 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization 73. A labeled arrow between lifelines on a sequence diagram is called a(n) _______________.

ANSWER: message POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p409 74. In a communication diagram, a(n) ____________________ is used to show that two objects share a message.

ANSWER: link POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p401 75. A type of interaction diagram that does not have activation lifelines is called a ____________ diagram.

ANSWER: communication POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p401 76. A dashed arrow represents a(n) _______ relationship in a package diagram.

ANSWER: dependency POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p426 77. _____________ ____________ are relationships among elements that indicate which elements affect other elements in a system.

ANSWER: Dependency relationships POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p425 78. A type of diagram that is used to define groups of classes as a subsystem is called a _______________ diagram.

ANSWER: package POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p426 79. The ______ ______ classes contain the user interface classes.

ANSWER: view layer POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p417 80. The _____________ pattern can be used to connect two disparate systems.

ANSWER: adapter POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p429 81. The _______________ pattern is used to instantiate objects as a service.

ANSWER: factory POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p430 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization 82. A pattern that ensures that it only instantiates itself one time is called the _____________ pattern.

ANSWER: singleton POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p431 83. Object classes that are created during design to facilitate the final solution, but are not part of the problem domain are sometimes referred to as ______ ______.

ANSWER: artifacts artifact objects artifact classes POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p401 84. In a communication diagram the person or system that sends the initial message is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: actor POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p401 85. The portion of a message syntax that is contained within square brackets is called the ____ _____ ______.

ANSWER: true/false condition true-false condition true false condition POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p402 86. Given the following partial syntax for a message, the underline represents what part of the message? “sequencenumber: return-value := message-name (_______)” ANSWER: parameter parameter list parameter-list POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p402 87. The ________ pattern is a good example of “protection from variations” and “indirection.”

ANSWER: adapter POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p428 88. The _______ pattern is used to reduce coupling between layers.

ANSWER: controller use case controller POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p428 89. When a domain object needs to create a utility object, such as a data access object, it often will use a design pattern called the _______ pattern.

ANSWER: factory POINTS: 2 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 13: Object-Oriented Design: Use Case Realization REFERENCES: p430 90. List and briefly describe the five parts included in the description of a design pattern.

ANSWER: 1. Pattern name -- a title or name used to recognize the design pattern.

2. Problem -- a description of what the problem is that requires a solution. Justification for the need for this particular design pattern.

3. Solution -- a description of how to implement this design pattern.

4. Example -- a specific example showing a diagrammatic or programming solution. Specific so that it is obvious how this design pattern is applied.

5. Benefits or consequences -- How this design pattern solves the stated problem. What are the specifics of the solution with regard to the identified problem.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p428 91. Describe the three basic guideline steps for creating the messages in the initial communication diagram.

ANSWER: 1. Identify all the classes required to support all of the internal messages for one input message.

2. Take each input message and determine all other internal messages.

3. Flesh out all internal messages with iteration, true/false conditions, return values, and passed parameters.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p404 92. What considerations should be taken into account when choosing the type of interaction diagram for a system design model?

ANSWER: Many designers use communication diagrams to sketch out a solution. If the use case is smaller or not too complex, a simple communication diagram may suffice. Drawing a communication diagram is an effective way to get a quick overview of the objects that work together. However, for more complex situations, a sequence diagram may be required to visualize the flow and sequence of the messages. It is not unusual to find a mix within the same set of specifications: some use cases described by communication diagrams and others shown with sequence diagrams.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p399 93. How has the differences between programming languages and database languages driven the trend to a multilayer design?

ANSWER: One of the problems with object-oriented programs that use databases is a slight mismatch between programming languages and database Structured Query Language (SQL) statements. In a database, tables are linked through the use of foreign keys and data is obtained through a relational join. However, in OO programming languages, references are made to objects in memory to obtain data. Therefore, the design, programming, and maintenance in a system is easier if separate classes are defined to access the database and get the data in a form that is conducive to processing in the computer. Rather than mix the business logic with the data access logic, it is better to define separate classes and let each focus on its primary responsibility.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p417-419

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System 1. Testing and construction should be done independently of each other. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p443 2. Acceptance testing is an informal activity in most development projects. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 3. Due to design principles for object-oriented systems, such as cohesion and coupling, integration testing is usually a straightforward process with little complexity. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p446-447 4. Frequently customer payments for new systems are tied to specific acceptance tests. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 5. To perform data conversion of complex data, programs must be constructed and tested in the same manner as operational software. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p453 6. The purpose of system documentation is to help the end users understand the details of how the system works. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p454 7. How to start up the system and how to shut it down are examples of system documentation. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p456 8. Describing program functions required to implement specific business procedures is an example of user documentation. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p456 9. Top-down and bottom-up development order cannot be applied to object-oriented designs (OODs). a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 10. The primary advantage of direct deployment, as compared to other installation methods, is minimal risk to business operations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p462 11. Parallel deployment is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are severe. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p462 12. There is no one single method for performing phased deployment. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p464 13. Partial parallel deployment and operation always entails the risk that significant errors or problems will go undetected. a. True b. False ANSWER: True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p463 14. Older production versions should not be overlapped with test versions of future production releases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 15. Beta versions do not need to be stored after the production version is released. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466-467 16. In some deployment situations, it may be possible to begin operation of the new system without converting data from the old system. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p453 17. Test data represents a set of starting states, events or activities, and ending states. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p444 18. A good unit test is thorough and is usually required only once. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p446 19. Since a both good and bad data were used in unit testing, integration testing usually only requires the use of good data. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p447 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System 20. The two major items tested in integration test are the interfaces and the expected results. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p446-447 21. An error tracking log would first be used in system testing. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p447 22. In an Agile, iterative type of project, integration tests are typically done at the end of each iteration and system tests are done in the final couple of iterations. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 23. When the developers start doing systems design is a good time for the users to develop test cases. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p450 24. Each use case specification should have test cases identified which can be used for UAT. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p450 25. Managing the user acceptance test is a complex endeavor, much like a mini-project. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p451 26. Modern development and documentation tools have all but eliminated the need to create and maintain system documentation. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p455 27. Which of the following is NOT a condition describing a test case? a. And ending state or response b. One or more events to which the software must respond c. A set of input data d. A starting state ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p444 28. The goal of _______ is to identify and fix as many errors as possible before units are combined into larger software units. a. user testing b. unit testing c. integration testing d. stress testing ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p445 29. ____ testing tests the behavior of a group of modules or methods. a. Driver b. Integration c. System d. Unit ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p447 30. ____ testing examines the behavior of an entire subsystem or independent subsystem with respect to technical and user requirements. a. Driver b. Integration c. System d. Unit ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p448 31. A(n) ____ test is a test performed to determine whether the system fulfills user requirements. a. acceptance Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System b. integration c. system d. performance ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 32. An error condition consisting of an error in the passing of parameters -- a method passes or returns an unexpected value such as a negative price -- is usually found in what kind of testing? a. Unit testing b. Integration testing c. System testing d. Acceptance testing ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p446 33. A build and smoke test is often performed how frequently? a. Several times a week b. Weekly c. At least monthly d. Before going live ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 34. The primary purpose and benefit of a build and smoke test is to _______ . a. test major additions to the software b. test equipment malfunctions c. test programmer expertise d. test integration problems ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 35. A stress test is also called a _____ test. a. throughput b. performance c. volume d. equipment ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p449 36. Complex modifications to database structure for a new system may require ____ the data after the changes.

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System a. testing b. deleting c. reloading d. indexing ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p453 37. Often the deployment of a new system will require training. What groups typically may require training? a. Executive users and operational users b. Clerical staff and middle managers c. End users and system operators d. Management users and operational users ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p454 38. Under input, process, output (IPO) development order, programs or methods that ____ are developed first. a. produce output b. process input c. obtain external input d. send system interfaces ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p458 39. Which of the following is NOT a typically used development order for program modules? a. Left-to-right b. Use case c. Top-down d. Input, process, output ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p458 40. Which of the following is a major advantage of input, process, output development order? a. The development process is rapid b. Testing is more straightforward c. Not as much testing is required d. User interface is easier to develop ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p458-459 41. Which of the following is an advantage of top-down program development order as compared to bottom-up program Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System development order? a. There is always a working and testable version. b. All programming staff are immediately put to work. c. Stub modules or methods don’t need to be written. d. There are multiple iterations.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 42. Which of the following is a disadvantage of top-down program development order as compared to bottom-up program development order? a. There is always a working and testable version of the program. b. Programming staff are not immediately put to work. c. Stub modules or methods don't need to be written. d. Development proceeds downward.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 43. Drivers are used extensively in ____ development, because called methods and child modules are developed and unittested before their parents are developed. a. top-down b. input, process, output c. object-oriented d. bottom-up ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 44. The acronym SCCS is an abbreviation of ____. a. source code controlling system b. source code capture system c. source code control system d. standard coding control system ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 45. Under which of the following circumstances might a direct deployment be a good choice? a. System downtime cannot be tolerated. b. The new system is not replacing an older system. c. The system contains mission-critical applications. d. The system is large and complex, with relatively independent subsystems.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System REFERENCES: p462 46. The primary advantage of ____ deployment is its simplicity. a. direct b. parallel c. phased d. networked ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p462 47. In a ____ deployment, the system is installed and brought into operation in a series of steps. a. phased b. direct c. parallel d. stepwise ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p464 48. The primary disadvantage of ____ deployment is increased complexity. a. direct b. phased c. parallel d. networked ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p464 49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of parallel deployment? a. The need to acquire extra space for computer equipment and personnel b. Substantial downtime c. The old system is turned off and not available d. Loss of mission-critical systems ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p463 50. A(n) ____ version is a system that is incomplete but ready for some level of rigorous testing. a. production b. maintenance c. alpha d. beta ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System REFERENCES: p466 51. A(n) ____ version is a system that is stable enough to be tested by end users. a. production b. maintenance c. alpha d. beta ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 52. A(n) ____ version is a system version created for long-term release to users. a. production b. maintenance c. alpha d. beta ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 53. A minor production release, called a(n) ____ version, provides bug fixes and small changes to existing features. a. production b. maintenance c. alpha d. beta ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 54. A ____ system is a copy of the production system that is modified to test a maintenance change. a. temporary b. secondary c. test d. replicated ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p469 55. A maintenance change typically skims or skips the ____ activities of the system development life cycle (SDLC). a. analysis b. design c. planning d. testing ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System REFERENCES: p468 56. Most organizations use a(n) ____ form to propose and document a maintenance change. a. user request b. change request c. maintenance report d. team request ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 57. Another common name for a production version is a(n) ______. a. installed version b. deployed version c. live version d. release version ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p466 58. Which is NOT a reason that a full parallel deployment and operation may not be practical? a. Incompatibility between inputs for the old and new b. Insufficient capacity for both systems on the same equipment c. Insufficient training for the new system while using old system d. Insufficient staffing levels for both systems ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p463 59. Which is NOT one of the primary characteristic of unit testing: a. It is done in isolation. b. Test data and the test are done by the coding programmer. c. It does not require additional resources. d. It requires the use of a test driver.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p445 60. If one class calls a method in another class, but uses the wrong API method names, this is would be an error that would first be identified by what kind of test? a. unit test b. system test c. integration test d. build and smoke test ANSWER: c Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p446 61. Which is NOT one of the types of items that is tested during system testing? a. Business functions b. Resource usage c. Throughput d. Interfaces ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p448 62. A principle of iterative development is to implement the high-risk components of the system first. This approach best falls into what kind of development paradigm? a. Top-down development b. Bottom-up development c. Use-case-driven development d. Input, process, output development ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: p460 63. A(n) ____________________ is a formal description of a starting state, one or more events to which the software must respond, and the expected response or ending state.

ANSWER: test case POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p444 64. A(n) ____________________ is a method developed for unit testing, that simulates the calling behavior of a method that hasn't yet been developed.

ANSWER: driver POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p445 65. A method or class developed for unit testing that simulates the execution of the method or class that has not been written yet is called a(n) _____.

ANSWER: stub POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p445 66. An type of integration test that tests an entire subsystem or an entire system is called a(n) _______ _______.

ANSWER: system system test POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p448

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System 67. A type of integration test that determines whether a system or subsystem can meet time-based throughput criteria is called a(n) _______ _______ .

ANSWER: performance test stress test POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p449 68. _________ ___________ is the desired or maximum allowable time limit for software response to a query or update.

ANSWER: Response time Response POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p449 69. ____________________ is the desired or minimum number of queries and transactions that must be processed per minute or hour.

ANSWER: Throughput POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p449 70. A type of system test performed to determine if the entire system fulfills the user requirements is called a(n) _______ ______ _______.

ANSWER: user acceptance test acceptance test UAT POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p449 71. ____________________ documentation includes descriptions of how to interact with and maintain the system, as used by end users and system operators.

ANSWER: User End user POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p454 72. A(n) _____________ development order is one that implements input modules first, business logic modules next, and output modules last.

ANSWER: input, process, output IPO input-process-output input process output POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p458 73. Stubs are needed for ____________________ development.

ANSWER: top-down top down POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p460 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System 74. ____________________ tests are valuable because they provide rapid feedback regarding significant problems.

ANSWER: Build and smoke Build-and-smoke POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p449 75. A(n) _______ is an automated tool for tracking source code files and controlling changes to those files.

ANSWER: source code control system SCCS POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p460 76. ________ deployment is most useful when a system is large, complex, and composed of relatively independent subsystems.

ANSWER: Phased POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p464 77. End users test ___________ versions by using them to do real work.

ANSWER: beta POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p466 78. The ________ system is the version of the system used day to day.

ANSWER: production POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p466 79. A set of starting states, some events or activities represented by inputs, and ending states or conditions is represented by ______ _______.

ANSWER: test data POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p444 80. A test of an individual method or even a class in isolation from the rest of the system is called ______ ______.

ANSWER: unit test POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p445 81. A test of the functional behavior of a group of classes or components when combined together is called a(n) ______ ______.

ANSWER: integration test POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p446 82. Written descriptions of system requirements, architecture and implementation details is usually referred to as _______ Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System _______.

ANSWER: system documentation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p454 83. Written descriptions of how to input data and how to invoke the functions of the system is usually called ______ ______.

ANSWER: user documentation POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p454 84. A system development based on selecting specific use cases to be developed first, might be called ______ _____ ______ _____.

ANSWER: use case driven development use-case-driven development POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: p460 85. List and briefly describe the four activities of Core Process 5: Build, text, and integrate system components, i.e.

Implementation activities.

ANSWER: 1. Program the software -- This is the actually programming done in some programming language.

2. Unit test the software -- Unit testing is that testing that tests each class and its methods in a limited or narrow context. It is usually done by the programmer or programming team.

3. Identify and build test cases -- In order to test the system at a broader level, such as integration or system test, test cases need to be created. These test cases will simulate a real-world environment with both good and bad data.

4. Integrate and test components -- This is the highest level testing associated with this core process.

The various components (sets of classes) are combined together and tested to ensure that they can function together.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p443and on 86. List and briefly describe the six activities of Core Process 6: Complete system tests and deploy the solution, i.e.

Deployment activities.

ANSWER: 1. Perform system and stress tests -- System tests are tests that involve all parts of the system in multiple cycles including period based testing (i.e. month-end). Stress testing includes high volumes of transactions and other testing that tests the throughput of the system.

2. Perform user acceptance tests -- User acceptance tests are an extension of system tests. They test the entire system across time periods, but use data that is either live data or simulated live data. Users will also test the system for usability, easy of use, and correctness of all answers.

3. Convert existing data -- Things like Customer records will need to be transported from the old system to the new system. This can be a complex and time consuming activity.

4. Build materials and conduct training -- This activity can range from almost non-existent to comprehensive and extensive depending on the complexity of the new system and its variance from the previous system.

5. Configure and set up the environment -- This is primarily a technical activity to establish a reliable, solid, optimized production environment.

6. Deploy the solution -- Actually “turning on” the new system and using it for productive business use.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p443 and on Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Chapter 14: Deploying the New System 87. List and briefly describe three ways to deploy a new system.

ANSWER: 1. Direct deployment -- The old system is turned off (if there is one), and the new system is turned on.

This is the most simple, and the highest risk approach.

2. Parallel deployment -- Both systems are run in parallel, either partially or completely. This is the safest, but also the most expensive.

3. Phased deployment -- The new system is turned on a piece at a time. This is also a safer approach than direct, but it also can be complex to coordinate the different phases as they cut over.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p462-465 88. Identify and briefly describe the six procedures that must be put in place to begin integration testing.

ANSWER: 1. Building the component for integration test. This means to combine several units together into a component to be integrated.

2. Creating test data. Integration test data is more complex and usually requires coordination between programmers.

3. Conducting the integration test. Decisions must be made and assignments given about who will conduct the integration tests, how they are done, what resources are used, and how frequently they are executed.

4. Evaluating the results. Often this requires involvement by all the programmers.

5. Logging test results. An error log is usually kept at this point to ensure that errors are tracked and corrected.

6. Correcting the code and retesting. Normally, the programmer who wrote the original code makes the corrections, conducts any required unit tests, and submits the components back for integration testing. The person conducting the integration test usually attempts to identify and isolate the cause of the error as much as possible.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: p447-448

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst 1. Systems analysis means understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should accomplish. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 2. The systems analyst's work is described as problem solving for an organization. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 4 3. Technology alone increases productivity and profits. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 4. The primary activity of a system developer is programming. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 5. When deciding which information system solution to recommend the analyst should recommend the one with the fewest risks and the most benefits. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 4 6. The difference between the system boundary and the automation boundary is that the system boundary is contained within the automation boundary. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7-8 7. The components of an information system are the computer hardware, the computer software and the data. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7-8 8. Since business problems tend to be similar, systems analysts seldom focus on a specific business industry. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 12 9. Interpersonal people skills are the analysts more important skills. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 12 10. Due to outsourcing programming to off-shore companies in India, China, and the old Soviet Block, careers in information systems is not expected to be a growth industry in the future. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 14 11. Today the nature and types of jobs for information system graduates is more varied than ever before. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 13-14 12. Systems analysis and design focuses on understanding the business problem and outlining the approach to solve it. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 13. The primary skill required of a good systems analyst is to be able to program effectively and efficiently. a. True b. False ANSWER: False Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3-4 14. The process of understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should accomplish is called systems ____. a. design b. specification c. analysis d. administration ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 15. Systems ____ means specifying in detail how the many components of the information system should be physically implemented. a. design b. specification c. analysis d. administration ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 16. The term “____” refers to a business professional who uses analysis and design techniques to solve business problems using information technology. a. database manager b. computer programmer c. systems analyst d. business analyst ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 17. The text identifies three primary areas of skills that are required of a systems analyst. Which of the following is NOT one of the three? a. People skills b. Technical skills c. Business skills d. Writing skills ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 18. The most important role of a systems analyst in business is ____. a. technical understanding of information systems b. problem solving Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst c. knowing what data needs to be stored and used d. special programming skills ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 19. A(n) ____ includes hardware, software, inputs, outputs, data, people, and procedures. a. system b. information system c. subsystem d. functional decomposition ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 20. ____ refers to the division of a system into processes or subsystems. a. System design b. Data management c. Programming d. Functional Decomposition ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 21. An automation boundary is best described as the separation between the ____. a. system and its environment b. automated part of a system and the manual part of a system c. manual part of a system and its environment d. automated part of a system and its environment ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 22. Support systems that allow employees to communicate with each other and with customers and suppliers are called ____. a. transaction processing systems (TPS) b. decision support/knowledge based systems (DSS/KBS) c. office support systems (OSS) d. collaboration support systems (CSS) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 8-9 23. Which of the following is the analyst’s approach to problem solving? a. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs, then research and understand the problem.

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst b. Develop a set of possible solutions, then verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs. c. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs, then define the requirements for solving the problem. d. Define the details of the chosen solution, then implement it.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 5 24. A knowledge management system a. indexes all the knowledge contained within an organization. b. supports the storage of and access to documents within an organization. c. is another term for a library system. d. requires a very large amount of online storage space.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 9 25. A system that is subject to many external laws and regulations is a(n) _______. a. collaboration support system b. manufacturing management system c. human resource management system d. business knowledge system ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 8-9 26. The two systems that are externally oriented, i.e. they focus on entities outside of the organization a. collaboration support and knowledge management systems b. manufacturing and supply chain management systems c. accounting/financial and human resource management systems d. customer relationship and supply chain management systems ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 8-9 27. A business intelligence system supports _______. a. strategic planning and executive decision making b. just in time inventory decisions c. customer service requirements d. business process activities ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 9 28. Such things as how to do project planning, or how to do cost/benefit analysis, or how to conduct an interview is called Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst _______. a. techniques b. strategies c. methodologies d. a knowledge base ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 11 29. Understanding the way an organization performs its procedures is what kind of skill area? a. Technical skills b. Business skills c. Organizational skills d. People skills ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 12 30. Highly integrated systems that support company-wide operations and data, often combining aspects of many other systems is a(n) ____. a. decision support/knowledge based system (DDS/KBS) b. management information system (MIS) c. communication support system d. enterprise resource planning application ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 9 31. A process in which an organization commits to using an integrated set of software packages for key information systems is called ____. a. business process re-engineering b. applications architecture planning c. strategic planning d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 9 32. After investing resources in thoroughly understanding the business problem, the analyst decides that the costs of solving the problem will likely outweigh the benefits. The analyst should ____. a. move to the design activities b. invest more in the project to increase the benefits c. resolve feasibility issues d. suggest that the project be discontinued ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 4 33. One common element of all types of business information systems is that they all _______. a. use client/server architecture b. interact with investors c. interact with customers d. use database technology ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 5 34. Which of the following is NOT a defined area of knowledge that is required of systems analysts? a. Problem solving knowledge b. Technical knowledge c. Business knowledge d. People knowledge ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 10 35. A type of information system that allows geographically distributed personnel to work together on projects and tasks is called a(n) ________. a. human resource management system (HRM) b. knowledge management system (KMS) c. collaboration support system (CSS) d. business intelligence system ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap A p 9 36. A collection of interrelated components that collect, process, store, and provide as output the information needed to complete a business task is called a(n) ________.

ANSWER: information system information system (IS)

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 6 37. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of interrelated components that function together to achieve some outcome.

ANSWER: system POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 6 38. An approach to dividing a system into components based on subsystems is referred to as ____________.

ANSWER: functional decomposition Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 39. Every system has a _______ between itself and the environment.

ANSWER: system boundary boundary

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 40. The ______________ describes the separation between the automated part of a system and the manual part of a system.

ANSWER: automation boundary POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 41. Those skills which have to do with computers, programming, networks, and databases are called ___________________ skills.

ANSWER: technical POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 10-11 42. A centrally managed collection of data that is accessible to many users and systems at the same time is called a(n) __________________.

ANSWER: database POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 10 43. A specific software application that assists developers in creating models or other components required for a project is called a(n) _____.

ANSWER: tool POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 11 44. Since a systems developer often works on systems that contain confidential corporate information, it is important that he or she have a high commitment to ________ and ethics.

ANSWER: integrity POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 13 45. The process of understanding and specifying what the information system should accomplish is called _______.

ANSWER: systems analysis system analysis

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 46. The process of specifying how the components of the new system should be implemented is called ________.

ANSWER: systems design system design Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 47. A business professional who uses analysis and design techniques to solve business problems using technology is called a(n) ________.

ANSWER: systems analyst system analyst POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3 48. A system that is part of a larger system is called a(n) ____.

ANSWER: subsystem POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap A p 7 49. List the steps taken in the analyst's general approach to problem solving.

ANSWER: 1. Research and understand the problem 2. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs 3. Define the requirements for solving the problem 4. Develop a set of possible solutions (alternatives) 5. Decide which solution is best and make a recommendation 6. Define the details of the chosen solution 7. Implement the solution 8. Monitor to make sure that you obtain the desired results POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap A p 5 50. What are the three required areas of skills of the system analyst?

ANSWER: System analysts need a great variety of special skills. They need to understand how to build information systems (technical skills) and must understand the business they are working for (business skills). They also need to understand people and the way they work (people skills).

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap A p 3

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements 1. The traditional approach to system development views a system as a collection of interacting objects. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 21 2. Traditional computer processes are much like procedural computer programs in that they contain instructions that execute in sequence. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 21 3. The object-oriented approach to systems development views a system as a collection of processes, some performed by people and some performed by the computer. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 21 4. The term “diagram 0” is used synonymously with context diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26-27 5. System boundaries are not shown clearly on context diagrams. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 6. Diagram 0 summarizes an entire system or subsystem in greater detail than a context diagram. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 27 7. Context diagrams do not usually show data stores. a. True Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 8. The traditional approach to information systems development describes activities as ____. a. processes carried out by people or computers b. objects that interact with people and each other c. objects that send and respond to messages d. activities that require computational support ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 21 9. A(n) ____ is a person or organization outside the system boundary that supplies data inputs or accepts data outputs. a. data flow b. data store c. external agent d. customer ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 22 10. Which of the following refers to a modeling technique that breaks the system into a hierarchical set of increasingly more detailed models? a. Data store b. Level of abstraction c. Data flow d. Context diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 24 11. A(n) ____ is a data flow diagram (DFD) that summarizes all processing activity within the system in a single process symbol. a. Event partition diagram b. level of abstraction c. Diagram 0 d. context diagram ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 12. A(n) ____ represents the system response to one event. a. DFD fragment Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements b. context diagram c. diagram 0 d. event-partitioned system model ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 13. A data flow diagram (DFD) that models system requirements using a single process for each event in a system or subsystem is called a(n) ____. a. context diagram b. DFD fragment c. event-partitioned system model d. diagram 1.0 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 27 14. The term diagram 0 is another name for a(n) ____. a. context diagram b. DFD fragment c. event-partitioned system model d. lowest level diagram ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 27 15. If the data flow diagram (DFD) is a ____, then it assumes that the system will be implemented with perfect technology. a. context diagram b. logical model c. physical model d. prototype model ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 32 16. A(n) ____ can be a physical system model, a logical system model, or a blend of the two. a. process definition b. data flow diagram c. entity-relationship diagram d. context diagram ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 32 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements 17. Which of the following data flow diagram (DFD) symbols usually corresponds to a data entity on an entityrelationship diagram (ERD)? a. Data store b. Data flow c. Data link d. Process ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 23 18. Which of the following data flow diagram (DFD) symbols represents the communication between an external agent and a process while the process is executing? a. Process b. Data link c. Real-time link d. Data store ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 23 19. An analyst can avoid information overload by adhering to the rule of ____. a. functional decomposition b. interface minimization c. process dependency d. balancing ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 35 20. ____ is the equivalence of data content between data flows entering and leaving a process and data flows entering and leaving a process decomposition data flow diagram (DFD). a. Balancing b. Interface minimization c. Complexity minimization d. Abstraction ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 36 21. Minimization of interfaces is directly related to the rule of ____. a. miracle b. black hole c. balancing d. 7 ± 2 ANSWER: d Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 35 22. On a DFD a(n) ____ represents a file or part of a database that stores information about a data entity. a. process b. data flow c. data store d. data link ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 23 23. Which of the following is NOT a technique to document program logic for a process. a. Structured English b. Decision Matrix c. Decision Tree d. Decision Table ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 38-40 24. Analysts sometimes can spot black holes and miracles simply by examining the _________. a. context diagram b. entity relationship diagram c. data flow diagram d. structured English ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 37 25. Which of the following is a table that describes the relationship between processes and the locations in which they are performed? a. Location diagram b. Black hole c. Activity-location matrix d. Activity-data matrix ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 48 26. Which of the following is a diagram or map that identifies all of the processing locations of a system? a. Location diagram b. Activity-location matrix c. Activity-data matrix d. CRUD table Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 47 27. A ____ is a textual description of a data flow’s content and internal structure. a. data store rule b. data flow definition c. data flow rule d. process definition ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 43 28. In small development projects, a(n) ____ may be a small loose-leaf notebook or word processing file. a. data store b. data dictionary c. activity-data matrix d. decision table ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 46 29. A symbol on a data flow diagram (DFD) that represents an algorithm or procedure by which data inputs are transformed into data outputs is called a(n) ____. a. process b. transaction c. activity d. data flow ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap B p 23 30. A diagram that represents system requirements as processes, external agents, data flows, and data stores is called a(n) ______.

ANSWER: data flow diagram data flow diagram (DFD) DFD

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 22 31. A symbol on a data flow diagram (DFD) that represents an algorithm or procedure by which data inputs are transformed into data outputs is called a(n) __________.

ANSWER: process POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 22 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements 32. A place where data are held pending future access by one or more processes in a DFD is called a(n) ________.

ANSWER: data store POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 22 33. A(n) ________ is a data flow diagram (DFD) that summarizes all processing activity within the system in a single process symbol.

ANSWER: context diagram POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 34. A DFD _______ represents the system response to one event within a single process symbol.

ANSWER: fragment POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 26 35. A data flow diagram (DFD) that models system requirements using a single process for each event in a system or subsystem is called a(n) ____.

ANSWER: event-partitioned system model diagram 0

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 27-28 36. An assumption about DFDs that includes things such as instant processing, infinite storage, and zero errors is called ______.

ANSWER: perfect internal technology POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 32 37. If too much information is presented at once, people experience a phenomenon called _______ .

ANSWER: information overload POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 35 38. The rule of 7 ± 2 is also known as _________.

ANSWER: Miller’s number POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 35 39. _________ is a principle of model design that seeks simplicity by limiting the number of connections among model components.

ANSWER: minimization of interfaces POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 35 40. The term “__________” is used to describe the equivalence of data content between data flows entering and leaving a process and data flows entering and leaving a process decomposition data flow diagram (DFD).

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements ANSWER: balancing POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 36 41. A process or data store with data input that is never used to produce a data output is referred to as a(n) ______.

ANSWER: black hole POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 37 42. A(n) _______ is a process or data store with a data element that is created out of nothing.

ANSWER: miracle POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 37 43. ___________ is a method of writing process specifications that combines structure programming techniques with narrative English.

ANSWER: Structured English POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 38 44. ___________ can summarize decision logic more concisely than structured English.

ANSWER: decision tables decision trees decision tables and decision trees

POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 41 45. A(n) ________ is a graphical description of process logic that uses lines organized like branches of a tree.

ANSWER: decision tree POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 41 46. A(n) _______ is a tabular representation of processing logic containing decision variables, decision variable values, and actions or formulas.

ANSWER: decision table POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 41 47. A(n) ________ is a table that describes stored data entities, the locations from which they are accessed, and the nature of the accesses.

ANSWER: activity-data matrix POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap B p 48 48. List the five symbols used on a data flow diagram (DFD) and briefly explain what each symbol represents.

ANSWER: A process (rectangle with rounded corners) represents transformation of data input(s) into data output(s).

A data flow (straight arrow) represents movement of data among processes, data stores, and external Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements agents.

An external agent (square) represents a person, organization, or system outside the system boundary that supplies or receives data.

A data store (rectangle with one end open) represents data stored for later retrieval.

A real-time link (arrow with a double bend) represents exchange of data between a process and an external agent while the process is executing.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap B p 23 49. What are the first four steps involved in the construction of a decision table?

ANSWER: 1. Identify each decision variable and its allowable values.

2. Compute the number of decision variable combinations as the product of the number of values of each decision table.

3. Construct a table with one more column than the number of decision variable combinations computed in step 2.

4. Assign the decision variable with the fewest values to the first row of the table. Put the decision variable name in the first column. Divide the remaining columns into sets of columns for each decision variable value.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap B p 40-41 50. Explain the difference between traditional and object-oriented approaches to system development.

ANSWER: The traditional and the object-oriented approaches to system development differ in how a system’s response to an event is modeled and implemented. The traditional approach views a system as a collection of processes, some performed by people and some performed by computers. In contrast, the object-oriented approach views a system as a collection of interacting objects. Objects are capable of behaviors that allow them to interact with each other and with people using the system.

POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap B p 21

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques 1. Payback period is usually calculated for the same time period as the discount rate is applied. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57 2. The first step in NPV calculations is to determine the discount rate. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 3. A PERT/CPM is another name for a type of Gantt Chart. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 58 4. A milestone task always has a duration of zero days. a. True b. False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 69 5. In Microsoft Project calculating and assigning the duration time to a summary task is usually fairly complex. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 68 6. In Microsoft Project a Tracking Gantt chart is useful to keep track of the resources on a project. a. True b. False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 69 7. The present value of $200,000 development costs in year 0 assuming a 10% discount rate is: a. $180,000 b. $190,000 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques c. $200,000 d. $210,000 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55-56 8. The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate. a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) b. return on investment (ROI) c. cost/benefit analysis d. net present value (NPV) ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55-56 9. Which of the following equations represents the present value (PV) of a discounted future amount (FA) at a discount rate (i) for multiple periods (n)? a. b. c. d.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 10. The discount factor for 2 time periods at 10% discount rate is ______. a. .9090 b. .8899 c. .8264 d. .7513 ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 11. Which of the following is also referred to as the breakeven point? a. Net present value (NPV) b. Payback period c. Return on Investment (ROI) d. cost/benefit equalization ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57 12. Given that the NPV at the end of year 3 was -$185,000 and it was +$265,00 at the end of year 4, what is the payback Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques period? a. Not enough information to calculate. b. 150 days c. Three years and 41 days d. Three years and 150 days.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57 13. To determine a percentage return on an initial investment, which of the following techniques should be used? a. None of these will work b. Payback calculations c. Net present value d. Return on investment ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57 14. The most common way to determine the discount rate for NPV calculations is by _____. a. using company policy b. using the federally published discount rates c. using the results of ROI calculations d. calculating current loan interest rates ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 15. A(n) _____ chart is a chart for scheduling a project based on individual tasks or activities and their dependencies. a. WBS b. PERT c. PMBOK d. Project ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 58

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques

16.

Given the above figure, what is the Net Present Value (NPV) for Year 2? a. $55,800 b. $59,340 c. $60,850 d. $61,620 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 56

17.

Given the above figure, what is the Cumulative NPV after Year 2? a. $76, 760 b. $15,140 c. $5,380 d. -$44,200 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 56

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques

18.

Given the above figure, when is the Breakeven point? a. 637 days b. 538 days c. 458 days d. 272 days ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57

19.

Given the above figure, what is the 2 year ROI without discount? a. 129% b. 182% c. 207% d. 238% ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 58

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques

20.

Given the above PERT/CPM chart, how many days does it take for the project to end? a. 15 days b. 13 days c. 12 days d. 9 days ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60-61

21.

Given the above figure, what is the early start time of task number 6? a. 6 days Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques b. 7 days c. 8 days d. 9 days ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60-61

22.

Given the above figure, what is the late start time for task number 5? a. 6 days b. 7 days c. 8 days d. 9 days ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60-61

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques

23.

Given the above figure what tasks are included in the critical path? a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 b. 1, 2, 3, 6, 7 c. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7 d. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60-61 24. Which of the following equations is correct for calculating early start time? a. b. c. d.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60 25. Which of the following equations is correct for calculating late start times with concurrent tasks? a. b. c. d.

ANSWER:

a

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 62 26. In a PERT/CPM chart when several tasks are in sequence to form a path segment but are not on the critical path the total slack time is _____? a. the same for each one b. the sum of the individual slack times c. equal to the greatest slack time d. equal to the smallest slack time ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 62 27. In a PERT/CPM chart the lag time represents _____. a. a dead time between tasks b. the difference between the early start time and the late start time c. the delay between the projected completion and actual completion of a task d. the time required to coordinate tasks on separate paths ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 61 28. Which of the following is NOT a type of dependency between tasks on a PERT/CPM chart? a. Resource mandatory b. Project mandatory c. External mandatory d. Discretionary ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 58 29. In Microsoft Project if task B need to begin two days after task A started, you would use a task dependency of _______. a. FS + 2 days b. SS + 2 days c. FS - 2 days d. SS - 2 days ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 65 30. The method used in Microsoft Project for making summary tasks is by _______ the detailed tasks. a. leveling b. subtasking c. promoting Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques d. demoting ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 65 31. A split screen in Microsoft Project is an effective way to ______ . a. view multiple projects at the same time b. view both summary information and detailed task information c. view the Gantt chart and the Resource sheet at the same time d. view the planning chart view and the tracking chart view at the same time ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 64 32. Given a project schedule with all tasks connected via one way arrows and with task durations. The critical path is ______. a. the longest path through the network b. the shortest path through the network c. neither the longest nor the shortest path through the network d. it cannot be determined ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 68-69 33. A project manager has purchased some training classes for JAVA programming for new members of his team. This would be considered to be part of which PM management area? a. Time management b. Communication management c. Human resource management d. Procurement management ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 74 34. Setting up a change control log to keep track of new system requirements is part of what PMBOK area? a. Cost Management b. Quality Management c. Time Management d. Scope Management ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 72 35. The three techniques used for Scope Management are Defining the scope, _______ , and Controlling the scope. a. Reducing the scope Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques b. Approving the scope c. Monitoring the scope d. Verifying the scope ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 72 36. To ensure that the project schedule accurately accommodates the necessary work is part of the objective of which PMBOK management area? a. Schedule management b. Time management c. Quality management d. Resource management ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 72 37. Which is NOT one of the characteristics of a quality software system? a. Fit for intended purpose b. Robust c. Secure d. Easy to install ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 73 38. Good Project Communication Management requires techniques in three important areas: (1) gathering information (2) disseminating information and (3) ________ . a. managing internal communications b. managing stakeholder information c. managing the database of information d. managing the project documentation ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 75 39. For a particular project the new system requires the installation of new servers. Managing this activity fits best in which project management area? a. Quality management b. Time management c. Cost management d. Procurement management ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 REFERENCES: Chap C p 76 Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques 40. The annual percentage rate that an amount of money is discounted to bring to a present value is called the _____.

ANSWER: discount rate POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 41. The accumulation of yearly discounts based on a discount rate is called the ______.

ANSWER: discount factor POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 55 42. The earliest time that a task can start on a project schedule is called its _____.

ANSWER: early start time POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 60 43. The latest time that a task can start on a project schedule without negative impacts to the overall schedule is called the ______.

ANSWER: late start time POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 61 44. The _____ is the point at which the increased cash flow exactly pays off the costs of development and operation.

ANSWER: breakeven point payback period POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 57 45. The amount of time a task or sequence of tasks can be delayed without impacting the project is called the _____.

ANSWER: slack time POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 62 46. In Microsoft Project the process (either manual or automated) which resolves resource conflicts is called ______.

ANSWER: leveling level resource leveling POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 68 47. In Microsoft Project a PERT/CPM chart view is called a _____ diagram.

ANSWER: network Network POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 70 48. In Microsoft Project a task that indicates the completion of a deliverable or some other completion item is called a Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques _____ task.

ANSWER: milestone POINTS: 2 REFERENCES: Chap C p 69 49. List the nine PMBOK knowledge areas.

ANSWER: Project scope management Project time management Project cost management Project quality management Project human resources management Project communications management Project risk management Project procurement management Project integration management POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 71 50. List and briefly explain six characteristics of a quality system.

ANSWER: --Easy to use -- it is intuitive for the users and has techniques to support both novices and power users.

--Fit for intended purpose -- it must completely solve the business need for which it was built --Robust -- does not easily crash or break; handles bad input data --Reliable -- it gives consistent and correct answers --Secure -- is not easily ‘hacked’ or compromised --Maintainable -- built so that programmers can understand structure and code and easily make modifications POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 73 51. Briefly identify and explain the three primary objectives of Project Scope Management.

ANSWER: --Define the functions for the new system -- to identify and determine all the functions that are required --Verify the functions -- prioritize the identified functions to determine which can be included --Control the set of functions -- control the scope to avoid scope creep POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 71 52. Briefly identify and explain the three objectives of Project Time Management.

ANSWER: --Build an accurate project schedule -- make sure the schedule is complete and includes all work that must be done --Schedule resources -- make sure that resources are not over allocated, but are scheduled effectively --Measure completed work -- keep track of work as it progresses so that the project can be controlled accurately POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 72 53. Briefly identify and explain the four objectives of Project Cost Management.

ANSWER: --Accurately estimate project costs -- Using work estimates, time estimates, and resource estimates make an estimate of total project costs --Predict cash flows -- based on project resources, estimate the timing of cash flows Cengage Learning Testing, Powered by Cognero

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Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques --Control project costs -- only allow valid project costs to be accepted --Capture and record project costs -- keep accurate records of all expenditures POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 73 54. List and briefly explain at least four of the six objectives of Human Resource Management.

ANSWER: --Staff the project with the right resources -- both the timing and the skill mix of project members must be determined and controlled --Provide training -- team members should be trained and have development opportunities as part of the project --Organize the teams -- team members must be organized into work units; even self-organizing teams must organize --Build effectiveness -- work teams should work on how to improve relationships and working associations and efficiency --Provide leadership -- team members work better if they have a vision of the project and its potential --Provide an effective work environment -- team members are more effective if their are no obstacles and if they have all the tools and resources required POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 74 55. List and briefly describe the four objectives of Project Communication Management.

ANSWER: --Gather information -- make sure all necessary information is collected. Set up methods to do so in a timely manner --Disseminate information -- ensure that accurate information is made available frequently to all stakeholders --Keep team members informed -- often one serious problem is that team members do not know what is going on within the rest of the team. Establish methods to keep all informed --Keep a central repository -- ensure that collected information is stored in an easily accessible, safe, and secure location and format POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 74-75 56. List and briefly describe the objectives of Project Procurement Management.

ANSWER: --Plan the procurement -- decide and make plans on how items will be purchased - how to find them, how to evaluate them, how to buy them, how to ensure they are delivered --Ensure solicitation is correct and complete -- using RFPs (Request for proposal) or other mechanisms make sure adequate research is done before a commit to purchase --Evaluate alternatives -- make sure the evaluation process is fair, complete, with bias, accurate --Ensure adequate contracts -- work with legal staff to ensure that the contracts are comprehensive and cover all contingencies --Monitor deliverables -- make sure deliverables are received on time, and that they are as specified, and that they function correctly POINTS: 5 REFERENCES: Chap C p 75-76

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