Sleey's Essentials Of Anatomy And Physiology 11th Edition By Cinnamon Vanputte, Jennifer Regan, Andr

CHAPTER 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The scientific discipline that deals with the processes or functions of living organisms is __________.

A) physiology B) anatomic imaging C) regional anatomy D) surface anatomy E) systemic anatomy

2)

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) The coordinated activity of the organ systems is necessary for normal function.

B) Because organ systems are so interrelated, dysfunction in one organ system can have profound effects on other systems.

C) An organism is any living thing considered as a whole whether composed of one cell such as a bacterium or trillions of cells such as a human.

D) Living things are highly organized, and disruption of this organized state can lead to loss of function and death.

E) All of the choices are correct.

3) __________ refers to the specific interrelationships among the parts of an organism and how these parts interact to perform functions.

A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Development

4)

Growth refers to an increase in size of all or part of an organism. It can result from

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A) an increase in the number of cells within the organism.

B) an increase in the size of individual cells within the organism.

C) an increase in the amount of substances surrounding the cells.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

5) __________ includes the changes an organism undergoes through time beginning with fertilization and ending at death.

A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Reproduction E) Development

6) __________ refers to the ability of an organism to sense changes in the environment and make adjustments needed to help maintain its life.

A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Development

7) Which of these characteristics of life means “The ability to use energy to perform vital functions”?

A) Organization B) Metabolism C) Responsiveness D) Growth E) Differentiation

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8) According to the six criteria given as the characteristics of life (organization, metabolism, responsiveness, growth, development, and reproduction), is a virus such as HIV “alive”?

A) Yes, it has all 6 characteristics.

B) No, it has none of the 6 characteristics.

C) Unknown, it has one characteristic (when not including its host cell's components) but does not have the rest.

9)

The chemical level of organization

A) involves the interaction between atoms and the formation of molecules.

B) is made up of organ systems that are classified as a unit by function.

C) determines the structural and functional characteristics of all organisms.

D) Both “involves the interaction between atoms and the formation of molecules” and “determines the structural and functional characteristics of all organisms” are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

10)

Homeostasis is the condition produced by

A) a resistance to change of any kind.

B) the tendency for change in a body variable to be counteracted as soon as the body variable goes past its normal range of values.

C) the tendency for continued change in the same direction regardless of current values of a body variable.

D) the presence of pathogens.

E) All of the choices are correct.

11)

Which of these statements is true of negative feedback?

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A) Negative feedback is important for maintaining homeostasis in the body.

B) Negative feedback makes any deviation from a normal value larger.

C) Negative feedback occurs when the uterus contracts during childbirth.

D) Negative feedback is a very unusual control mechanism in the human body.

E) Negative feedback will usually result in illness or other disturbance of normal systems.

12)

Which of these is an example of a positive-feedback mechanism?

A) An increase in blood pressure activates mechanisms that decrease blood pressure.

B) Increased amounts of a hormone in the blood cause a decrease in the secretion of that hormone.

C) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases breathing rate, which decreases carbon dioxide in the blood.

D) Increased amounts of fluid in the blood result in increased quantities of urine, which decreases the fluid content of the blood.

E) Increased stretch of the uterus causes it to contract, which further increases stretch.

13) A patient with a bleeding ulcer had an elevated heart rate, but his blood pressure was very low and dropping. After the bleeding was stopped and a blood transfusion was given, blood pressure increased. Which of these statements are consistent with these observations?

A) Negative-feedback mechanisms are occasionally inadequate without medical intervention.

B) The transfusion interrupted a positive-feedback mechanism.

C) The transfusion interrupted a negative-feedback mechanism.

D) The transfusion was not necessary.

E) Both "Negative-feedback mechanisms are occasionally inadequate without medical intervention" and "The transfusion interrupted a positive-feedback mechanism" are correct.

14) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases respiration (breathing) rate. Which of these statements would apply to this mechanism?

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A) This is a rare example of a positive-feedback system in the body, because increased carbon dioxide increases respiration rate.

B) This is positive feedback because an increased respiration rate increases oxygen in the blood.

C) This is negative feedback, because increased respiration rate decreases carbon dioxide in the blood.

D) This is negative feedback, because a deviation from normal is enhanced and made larger.

E) This is negative feedback, because increased respiration rate decreases oxygen in the blood.

15)

Positive-feedback mechanisms A) are few in a normal healthy individual.

B) are used to amplify the effect or response of a system.

C) sometimes can create a deviation from homeostasis that leads to death.

D) cause the deviation from normal to become even more pronounced.

E) All of the choices are correct.

16) The regulation of room temperature by a thermostat is an example of a feedback loop. In this system, a sensor within the thermostat detects a change in temperature below a programmed set point. The thermostat then sends a signal, which turns on the furnace. The furnace heats the room bringing it back up to the programmed temperature. Once the room temperature reaches the programmed set point, the thermostat “turns off” the furnace. Which of the following statements is consistent with the above scenario?

A) This scenario is an example of a negative-feedback mechanism.

B) The thermostat is the “control center” while the furnace is the “effector.”

C) This scenario is different from how negative feedback works in the body because negative feedback in the body maintains a normal range of values instead of one specific set point.

D) The “receptor” in this scenario is the temperature sensor within the thermostat.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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17) The study of external features, such as bony projections that serve as landmarks to locate deeper structures is called __________.

A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging

18) The study of the body’s organization that considers the heart, blood and all of the associated blood vessels as a unit is called __________.

A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging

19) The study of the body’s organization by areas (the approach used in most medical schools) is called __________.

A) systemic anatomy B) regional anatomy C) surface anatomy D) physiology E) anatomic imaging

20)

In which quadrant of the abdomen is most of the liver usually located?

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A) Left lower quadrant B) Right lower quadrant C) Left upper quadrant D) Right upper quadrant

21)

In which quadrant of the abdomen would the pain of acute appendicitis be felt?

A) Left lower quadrant B) Right lower quadrant C) Left upper quadrant D) Right upper quadrant

22)

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the ___________.

A) diaphragm B) mediastinum C) liver D) lungs E) pelvic muscles

23) In which of these cavities would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found?

A) Thoracic B) Pleural C) Pelvic D) Abdominal E) Pericardial

24)

The pericardial cavity

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A) contains the pericardial fluid.

B) surrounds the lungs.

C) is located between visceral peritoneum and parietal peritoneum.

D) is retroperitoneal.

E) All of the choices are correct.

25)

The kidneys, adrenal glands, pancreas, and urinary bladder are A) connected to the body wall by mesenteries.

B) covered with visceral peritoneum.

C) found in the peritoneal cavity.

D) retroperitoneal.

E) surrounded by peritoneal fluid.

26)

Which of the following cavities contains the liver, stomach, kidneys, and spleen?

A) Thoracic cavity B) Pelvic cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Pericardial cavity E) Pleural cavity

27)

A cavity containing the lungs, but not the heart is the __________ cavity.

A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural

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28) A cavity enclosed by the bones of the pelvis and containing the urinary bladder is the __________ cavity.

A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural

29)

A cavity containing the heart, but not the lungs is the __________ cavity.

A) thoracic B) pelvic C) abdominal D) pericardial E) pleural

30) A patient arrives at an emergency room with a traumatic pneumothorax after a car accident. In the course of the accident, the patient suffered a penetration wound, which allowed air to fill the space around one of her lungs causing it to collapse. Which serous membranes were likely damaged assuming that the lung itself was not punctured?

A) Visceral pleura B) Visceral pericardium C) Parietal pleura D) Visceral peritoneum E) Mesenteries

31) If you make a Jell-O mold that has strawberries suspended in it and whipped cream on top, the strawberries are _____________ while the whipped cream is _________.

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A) superficial; deep B) deep; superficial C) anterior; deep D) prone; deep E) All of the choices are correct.

32) When you scratch a cat's back along its spine, which of the following terms would apply to the skin you are scratching?

A) Dorsal, superior, posterior, lateral B) Ventral, inferior, anterior, medial, deep C) Dorsal, superior, medial, superficial D) Ventral, superior, medial, deep E) Ventral, inferior, posterior, lateral

33) Which of the following pairs of terms are synonymous in bipedal animals such as humans but not in quadrupeds (animals that walk on all four feet)?

A) Superior and anterior B) Anterior and superficial C) Proximal and superficial D) Anterior and ventral E) Dorsal and lateral

34)

Anatomical position refers to individuals that are A) standing erect, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing inward.

B) standing erect, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing anterior.

C) laying supine, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing inward.

D) laying supine, upper limbs at their sides, and palms facing anterior.

E) laying supine, upper limbs extended over their head.

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35)

Which of the sections below separates the body into superior and inferior parts?

A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section

36)

Which of the sections below separates the body into dorsal and ventral parts?

A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section

37)

Which of the sections below separates the body into right and left parts?

A) Frontal section B) Median plane/(sagittal) section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section

38)

Which of the following is a cut through the long axis of an organ?

A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section

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39)

Which of the following is a cut through an organ at right angles to the long axis?

A) Frontal section B) Sagittal section C) Longitudinal section D) Transverse section E) Oblique section

40)

When a person is in anatomical position, the wrist is _____ to the elbow.

A) proximal B) dorsal C) distal D) ventral E) superior

41)

From the anatomical position, the scapula (shoulder blade) is always _____ to the ribs.

A) dorsal B) posterior C) superficial D) both dorsal and posterior E) dorsal, posterior, and superficial

42) The guillotine, a medieval instrument for beheading criminals, could be described as passing along a _________ plane through the neck.

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A) frontal B) sagittal C) transverse D) longitudinal E) superior

43) A cut across the long axis of an organ at an angle other than a right angle is described as a(n) __________ section.

A) longitudinal B) oblique C) transverse D) cross E) horizontal

44)

The fluid found between serous membrane layers A) is blood.

B) reduces friction.

C) is secreted by digestive glands.

D) appears only after an injury.

E) Both “is blood” and “appears only after an injury” are correct.

45)

The mesenteries A) are double-layered membranes.

B) anchor some abdominal organs to the body wall.

C) are not connected to retroperitoneal organs.

D) are continuous with the parietal and visceral peritoneum.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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46)

Which of these statements about serous membranes is true?

A) Serous membranes line cavities that open to the outside of the body.

B) Visceral serous membranes are in contact with internal organs.

C) Retroperitoneal organs are surrounded by both parietal and visceral serous membranes.

D) Serous membranes surround the pleural and peritoneal cavities, but not the pericardial cavity.

E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

In studying physiology, it is important to recognize that structures within the body are A) static.

B) dynamic and mutable.

C) fixed.

D) unchanging.

48)

Given these structures:

1) Cell 2) Organ 3) Chemical 4) Organ system 5) Organism 6) Tissue Arrange the structures in the correct order from smallest to largest.

A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 C) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5 D) 4, 5, 3, 1, 6, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5

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49) The basic structural and functional unit of an organism, such as plant or animal, is the __________.

A) organ B) cell C) organelle D) organ system E) tissue

50) The statement “a group of cells with similar structure and function plus the extracellular substances located between them” describes __________.

A) an organelle B) an organism C) an organ D) an organ system E) a tissue

51)

Which of the following is NOT the correct name of an organ system?

A) Integumentary B) Lymphatic C) Cardiovascular D) Muscular E) Hormonal

52) Which of the following statements correctly describes the control center of a homeostatic mechanism?

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A) The control center of a homeostatic mechanism detects changes in the external and internal environment.

B) The control center responds to environmental changes by always increasing the body variable.

C) The control center receives information from receptors and determines a response to a change in a body variable.

D) The control center is usually a muscle or gland that responds to a stimulus.

E) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Which statement below describes a physiological process?

A) The skin is composed of two major tissue layers, the epidermis and dermis.

B) The thoracic cavity contains several organs including the heart and lungs.

C) The blood transports nutrients and oxygen to the cells of the body.

D) The pancreas is considered part of the digestive and endocrine systems.

E) A cell contains cytosol and organelles.

54)

The spleen, thymus, and tonsils are all part of the __________ system.

A) digestive B) endocrine C) lymphatic D) reproductive E) respiratory

55)

The major goals of physiology include

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A) understanding and predicting the body’s response to stimuli.

B) understanding how the body maintains homeostasis.

C) knowing the location of the various organs of the body.

D) describing the various components of the eleven organ systems of the body.

E) Both “understanding and predicting the body’s response to stimuli” and “understanding how the body maintains homeostasis” are correct.

56)

Understanding the relationship between structure and function allows us to A) investigate and understand disease.

B) pursue a career in the health sciences.

C) evaluate recommendations from our own medical professionals.

D) evaluate the validity of advertisements and reports concerning health.

E) All of the choices are correct.

57) If a person is standing erect, facing forward and has her hands on her hips, what movements must she make to assume the anatomical position?

A) She needs to lower her upper limbs to her side with her palms facing posteriorly.

B) She needs to raise her upper limbs so that they are at right angles to her body.

C) She needs to bend her knees slightly and raise her upper limbs so they are above her head.

D) She needs to lower her upper limbs to her side with her palms facing anteriorly.

E) She does not need to make any movements because she is already in the anatomical position.

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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

58)

58.1) The region designated by the letter “E” is known as the _________________ region.

A) umbilical B) hypogastric C) lumbar D) hypochondriac E) iliac

58.2) The region designated by the letter "H" is known as the _________________ region.

A) umbilical B) hypogastric C) lumbar D) hypochondriac E) iliac

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_11e 1) A 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) E 14) C 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) E 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) E 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) E 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) E 51) E 52) E 53) C 54) C 55) E 56) E Version 1

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57) D 58) Section Break 58.1) A 58.2) B

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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Chemistry is the scientific discipline that is concerned with cellular composition and the structure of their substances and the reactions they undergo. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2) Which of the following is/are responsible for most of the mass of an atom?

A) Neutron B) Proton C) Electron D) Both neutron and proton E) Both electron and neutron

3)

The mass number of an element is A) the number of neutrons in the atom.

B) the number of protons in the atom.

C) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.

D) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of electrons.

E) the sum of the number of neutrons plus the number of electrons.

4)

The chemical notation for magnesium ions is Mg

+2

. The designation +2 indicates that

A) two electrons have been lost.

B) two protons have been gained.

C) the ion is negatively charged.

D) the atomic number is two.

E) the number of electrons equals the number of protons.

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5) The smallest particle of an element that has the chemical characteristics of that element is a(n) __________.

A) neutron B) proton C) electron D) atom E) electron cloud

6)

Subatomic particles located in the nucleus of an atom are called __________.

A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) orbitals E) Both "protons" and "neutrons" are correct.

7) Subatomic particles that possess a negative charge, and move around the nucleus of an atom, are called __________.

A) protons B) electrons C) neutrons D) photons E) quarks

8)

The atomic number of an atom is equal to

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A) the number of neutrons in the atom.

B) the number of protons in the atom.

C) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.

D) the sum of the number of protons plus the number of electrons.

E) the sum of the number of neutrons plus the number of electrons.

9)

The amount of matter in an object is its __________.

A) mass B) weight C) atomic number D) element E) ionic charge

10)

The chemical behavior of an atom is largely determined by A) the number of neutrons it has.

B) the size of its nucleus.

C) the electrons closest to the nucleus.

D) the size of neutrons it has.

E) its outermost electrons.

11)

Every atom of the element carbon has the same number of A) protons.

B) neutrons.

C) electrons.

D) photons.

E) quarks.

12)

Atoms that have gained or lost electrons are called

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A) ions.

B) covalents.

C) nonpolars.

D) molecules.

E) neutrons.

13)

After a neutral atom accepts an additional electron, it becomes A) positively charged.

B) negatively charged.

C) an ion.

D) a molecule.

E) Both "negatively charged" and "an ion" are correct.

14) Two atoms with the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called __________.

A) isotopes B) ions C) electrolytes D) compounds E) Both "ions" and "electrolytes" are correct.

15)

The chemical symbol Ca

2+

indicates that a calcium atom has

A) two protons in its nucleus.

B) lost two neutrons.

C) gained two protons.

D) lost two electrons.

E) an atomic number greater than 2.

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16)

If an iron atom (Fe) lost three electrons, what would be the charge of the resulting ion?

A) Fe -3 B) Fe +6 C) Fe +1 D) Fe +2 E) Fe +3

17) Atom X has an atomic number of 20 and has a mass number of 40. The number of protons in Atom X is equal to A) 10.

B) 20.

C) 30.

D) 40.

E) 60.

18) Atom Y has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons. What is the atomic number of Atom Y? A) 11 B) 12 C) 22 D) 23 E) 24

19) Y?

Atom Y has 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of Atom

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A) 11 B) 12 C) 22 D) 23 E) 24

20) __________ energy is a form of potential energy resulting from positions and interactions among subatomic particles.

A) Chemical B) Mechanical C) Radiant D) Electric E) Heat

21)

Energy A) is the capacity to do work.

B) can neither be created nor destroyed.

C) is constantly being converted into different forms by the body.

D) can be stored in the chemical bonds between molecules/subatomic particles.

E) All of the choices are correct.

22) Which of the following analogies does NOT accurately illustrate the energy type it is paired with?

A) The cocking back of the trigger on a starter's pistol before a race—Potential energy.

B) Picking up speed while rolling down a snow-covered hill in winter—Kinetic energy.

C) The stretching of a bungee cord without releasing it—Mechanical energy.

D) The spring-up you get when you jump on a pogo stick—Kinetic energy.

E) Basketball players bending their knees before they do a layup—Mechanical energy.

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23)

If the products of a chemical reaction contain less potential energy than the reactants, A) energy has been stored in the molecular bonds of the product.

B) energy has been released by the breaking of molecular bonds.

C) the reaction will be reversible without additional energy input.

D) a synthesis reaction is likely to have occurred.

E) All of the choices are correct.

24)

The conversion of ATP into ADP A) adds a phosphate group.

B) stores energy in the release of an inorganic phosphate group.

C) is an example of an exchange reaction.

D) is reversible.

E) requires the input of energy.

25)

According to the law of conservation of energy, the total energy of the universe is A) constant.

B) increasing exponentially.

C) decreasing exponentially.

D) increasing linearly.

E) decreasing linearly.

26) The conversion between different states of energy (e.g., potential energy to kinetic energy)

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A) is not 100% efficient.

B) is 100% efficient.

C) typically generates heat.

D) is not possible, because energy can not change its state.

E) Both "is 100% efficient" and "typically generates heat" are correct.

27) When there is an equal sharing of electrons between atoms, the bond that is formed is called A) an ionic bond.

B) a polar covalent bond.

C) a nonpolar covalent bond.

D) a hydrogen bond.

E) None of the choices are correct.

28)

Nonpolar molecules A) are created when the bonding atoms share electrons equally between themselves.

B) have an asymmetrical electrical charge.

C) are also considered ions.

D) result from polar covalent bonds.

E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

Which of the following statements is FALSE about molecules?

A) In order to be considered a molecule, a structure must be an independent unit.

B) All compounds are automatically considered molecules.

C) Molecules are formed when two or more atoms chemically combine to form a structure that behaves as an independent unit.

D) The atoms that make up a molecule can either be the same or different.

E) The atoms that make up a molecule must be chemically bound to one another.

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30)

Which of the following is considered a compound but not a molecule?

A) Water (H 20) B) Sodium chloride (NaCl) C) Calcium (Ca 2+) D) Glucose (C 6H 12O 6) E) All of the choices are correct.

31)

Which of the following is NOT considered a compound?

A) Water (H 20) B) Sodium chloride (NaCl) C) Hydrogen chloride (HCl) D) A hydrogen molecule (H 2) E) All of the choices are correct.

32) When one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron a(n) __________ bond between the two atoms results.

A) covalent B) hydrogen C) ionic D) explosive E) radioactive

33)

Covalent bonds occur when

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A) one atom loses an electron.

B) two substances dissociate in water.

C) two atoms share electrons.

D) ions are formed.

E) one atom gains an electron.

34) The unequal, asymmetric sharing of electrons that results in one end (pole) of the molecule having a small electrical charge opposite the other end is called __________ bonding.

A) hydrogen B) polar covalent C) double covalent D) ionic E) nonpolar covalent

35)

If a molecule consists of two or more different kinds of atoms, it is a(n) __________.

A) atom B) ion C) isotope D) compound E) Both "atom" and "ion" are correct.

36)

Ionic compounds A) are held together by the force of attraction between oppositely charged ions.

B) are not considered to be molecules.

C) do not have distinct units.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

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37) When the hydrogen bonds that maintain a protein's three-dimensional shape are broken, the protein becomes nonfunctional, and is said to be __________.

A) essential B) denatured C) structural D) unsaturated E) saturated

38)

The chemical compound that is represented by the acronym DNA A) contains the sugar deoxyribose.

B) has two chains that form a double helix.

C) is composed of nucleotides.

D) is responsible for controlling cell activities.

E) All the choices are correct.

39) Given that sodium bicarbonate dissociates to form Na + and HCO 3 - when mixed with water, which of these would be part of the explanation for taking bicarbonate (NaHCO 3) for excess stomach acid?

A) NaHCO 3 will not release hydrogen ions when mixed with water.

B) HCO 3- will be a hydrogen ion acceptor.

C) Free hydrogen ions increase the acidity of a solution.

D) When bicarbonate ions combine with hydrogen ions, the pH increases.

E) All of the choices are correct.

40) A(n) __________ is formed when one atom loses an electron and another atom accepts that electron.

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A) ion B) ionic bond C) hydrogen bond D) covalent bond E) atom

41)

A(n) __________ is formed when two atoms share electrons.

A) ion B) ionic bond C) hydrogen bond D) covalent bond E) atom

42)

Substances that donate hydrogen ions (protons) to a solution are called __________.

A) acids B) bases C) alkaline D) salts

43)

A solution with a pH of 7 is considered to be __________.

A) acidic B) basic or alkaline C) neutral D) in equilibrium

44) Chemicals that resist changes in pH when acids or bases are added to a solution are __________.

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A) acids B) bases C) salts D) buffers

45) A solution with a greater concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions is __________.

A) a buffer B) a salt C) basic D) acidic E) hydrophobic

46) Given that MgCl 2 is composed of Mg considered to be a(n) __________.

+2

ions and Cl

-

ions, MgCl

2 would be

A) acid B) base C) salt D) buffer

47)

A(n) __________ is formed by the reaction of an acid and a base.

A) acid B) base C) salt D) buffer

48) A solution with a pH of 4 would have __________ hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.

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A) 2 times more B) 2 times fewer C) 20 times more D) 20 times fewer E) 100 times more

49)

This figure represents an example of a(n) __________.

A) steroid B) triglyceride C) phospholipids D) wax E) fatty acid

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50)

This figure represents an example of a(n) __________.

A) protein B) nucleic acid C) lipid D) carbohydrate E) ATP molecule

51)

Monosaccharides are the building blocks for __________.

A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins

52)

Glycerol and fatty acids are the building blocks for __________.

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A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins

53)

Nucleotides are the building blocks for __________.

A) carbohydrates B) fats (triglycerides) C) nucleic acids D) proteins

54) The macromolecules that function as the genetic material and are involved in protein synthesis are __________.

A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

55) Which group of major organic molecules is a common fuel nutrient and includes glycogen as a storage molecule?

A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids

56) A large organic molecule was analyzed and found to contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. Of the following choices, which would most likely have been the type of molecule analyzed?

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A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Protein D) Nucleic acid E) Steroid

57)

The building blocks for proteins are __________.

A) monosaccharides B) disaccharides C) glycerol and fatty acids D) nucleotides E) amino acids

58)

Which of these statements is TRUE?

A) Carbohydrates are organic molecules formed from amino acid building blocks.

B) Monosaccharides become bound together by hydrolysis reactions to form polysaccharides.

C) Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides are large inorganic molecules.

D) The building blocks for lipids are nucleotides.

E) Nucleic acids are composed of monomers called nucleotides.

59)

The chemical compound that is represented by the acronym ATP

A) is synthesized using energy released during the breakdown of food molecules.

B) can be broken down to ADP and a fatty acid.

C) has nothing to do with stored energy.

D) is a common temporary storage form of immediately usable energy within cells.

E) Both "is synthesized using energy released during the breakdown of food molecules" and "is a common temporary storage form of immediately usable energy within cells" are correct.

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60)

Sucrose is an example of a(n) __________.

A) monosaccharide B) lipid C) disaccharide D) inorganic molecule E) polysaccharide

61)

Glycogen and starch are examples of __________.

A) monosaccharides B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) polysaccharides E) lipids

62)

Which of these statements concerning lipids is NOT true?

A) The building blocks of fats (triglycerides) are fatty acids and glycerol.

B) A fatty acid that contains only single covalent bonds between the carbon atoms is called unsaturated.

C) Fats, phospholipids, and steroids are lipids.

D) Lipids are substances that dissolve in nonpolar solvents.

63) When two or more atoms, ions, or molecules combine to form a new and larger molecule, the process is called a __________ reaction.

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A) decomposition B) synthesis C) reversible D) buffer E) equilibrium

64)

Which of the following processes is (are) a synthesis reaction?

A) Glycolysis B) The creation of a protein from amino acids C) Glycogenolysis D) All of the choices are correct.

65) Chemical reactions that can proceed from reactants to products and from products to reactants are called __________ reactions.

A) exchange B) synthesis C) decomposition D) reversible E) net reaction

66) In a reversible reaction, when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of reactant formation, the reaction is A) stopped.

B) at equilibrium.

C) in danger of exploding.

D) a net decomposition reaction.

E) a net synthesis reaction.

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67) A substance that increases the rate at which a reaction proceeds, without itself being changed or depleted, is a __________.

A) catalyst B) reactant C) buffer D) base E) product

68)

Enzymes A) are globular proteins.

B) function as biological catalysts.

C) lower the activation energy of a reaction.

D) can be used to regulate chemical reactions.

E) All of the choices are correct.

69)

Which of the following will decrease the rate at which a reaction occurs?

A) Decreasing the concentration of reactants B) Increasing the concentration of reactants C) Increasing the temperature D) Increasing the amount of the required catalyst E) All of the choices are correct.

70) In living things, which of these is most important for regulating the rate of chemical reactions?

A) Changing the concentration of reactants B) Changing temperature C) Changing the concentration and activity of enzymes that catalyze the reactions D) The nature of reacting substances; for example, carbohydrates react faster than lipids.

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71)

Enzymes function by A) increasing the activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction.

B) having a specific shape that allows them to bind to particular reactants.

C) each enzyme acting as a catalyst for many different reaction types.

D) greatly decreasing reaction rates.

E) doing all of these.

72)

Which of these is NOT a property of water that makes it useful for living organisms?

A) Water allows body temperature to increase or decrease rapidly.

B) Water causes ionic substances to dissociate.

C) Water acts as a lubricant.

D) Water is necessary for the transport of nutrients, gases, and waste products.

E) Water is necessary for many chemical reactions.

73)

Which of these is an organic molecule?

A) H 2O B) H 2CO 3 C) CO 2 D) NaCl E) CaCl 2

74)

Which of the following pairs correctly match(es) the example with its classification?

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A) Compound—two atoms of hydrogen combined B) Molecule—sodium chloride C) Molecule—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined D) Compound—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined E) Both "Molecule—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined" and "Compound—two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom combined" are correct.

75)

Which of the following statements about ionic compounds is TRUE?

A) Ionic compounds dissociate in water because negative ions are attracted to the negative ends of water molecules and positive ions are attracted to the positive ends of water molecules.

B) Ionic compounds dissociate in water because positive ions are attracted to the negative ends of water molecules and negative ions are attracted to the positive ends of water molecules.

76)

Understanding chemistry is important for the study of anatomy and physiology because

A) the body is composed of chemicals.

B) the interactions of the different chemicals of the body are responsible for body function.

C) many diseases and disorders can be explained at the chemical level.

D) All of the choices are correct.

77) The weak attraction between the negative end of one polar molecule and the positive end of another polar molecule is called a(n) __________ bond.

A) polar covalent B) ionic C) nonpolar covalent D) hydrogen

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78)

When ionic compounds dissolve in water, they A) dissociate, meaning they separate from each other.

B) interact with water molecules.

C) separate to form electrolytes.

D) All of the choices are correct.

79)

Oxygen is essential for most living organisms because

A) it acts as a buffer, regulating pH. B) it stabilizes body temperature.

C) it is an important enzyme.

D) it is an important reactant in a complex series of chemical reactions in which energy is extracted from food molecules.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_11e 1) FALSE 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) E 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) E 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) E 58) E 59) E 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) E 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) E 75) B 76) D 77) D 78) D 79) D

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CHAPTER 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Apoptosis decreases the number of cells within various tissues of the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Peroxisomes contain enzymes that break down unwanted materials in the cell, such as hydrogen peroxide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

3) All of the following are protein components of the cytoskeleton EXCEPT __________.

A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) centrosomes E) All of the choices are correct.

4) ____________ are components of the cytoskeleton that help to provide support, assist in cell division, and form cilia.

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Centrosomes

5) Moveable projections from the surface of cells found in abundance in the respiratory tract are __________.

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A) flagella B) cilia C) centrioles D) microvilli E) nucleoli

6)

Cell shrinkage is also called __________.

A) crenation B) lysis C) cellular dissolution D) hydrostatic pressure E) All of the choices are correct.

7) cell?

Which of the following organelles are NOT paired correctly with their location within the

A) Nucleolus—within the nucleus B) Cilia—on the cell surface C) Golgi apparatus—on the cell surface D) Microtubules—within the cytoplasm E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum—within the cytoplasm of the cell

8)

The nucleolus A) is located in the cytoplasm.

B) is the location for production of large and small ribosomal subunits.

C) has its own distinct membrane.

D) is important for the formation of Golgi apparatus.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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9) A cell that produces large amounts of lipoproteins (proteins combined with lipids) for secretion from the cell would have large numbers of __________.

A) lysosomes B) Golgi apparatuses C) centrioles D) membrane transporters E) All of the choices are correct.

10)

Secretory vesicles pinch off from __________.

A) the Golgi apparatus B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) the nucleus

11)

Which of these cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria?

A) Bone cells B) Muscle cells C) Adipocytes (fat cells) D) Blood cells E) Skin cells

12) A cell examined under the microscope shows large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum, many Golgi apparatuses, and many secretory vesicles. To which of the following tissues would this cell most likely belong?

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A) Bone B) Muscle C) Mammary gland D) Blood E) Adipose

13)

Membrane channels that allow ions to constantly pass through are called _________.

A) leak channels B) gated channels C) exocytosis D) endocytosis E) Both “leak channels” and “gated channels” are correct.

14) Membrane channels that limit the movement of ions across the cell membrane are called __________.

A) leak channels B) gated channels C) exocytosis D) endocytosis E) Both “leak channels” and “gated channels” are correct.

15)

Substances outside the cell membrane are called A) intracellular substances.

B) extracellular substances.

C) intercellular substances.

D) Both "extracellular substances" and "intercellular substances" are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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16)

According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, A) protein molecules that perform important cellular functions float in a lipid bilayer.

B) there is a double protein layer in the plasma membrane.

C) there are lipids floating in the protein layer.

D) carbohydrates function as membrane channels.

E) nonpolar ends of phospholipids are exposed to water inside and outside the cell.

17)

Phospholipid molecules A) have a phosphate-containing end that is nonpolar.

B) have a fatty acid end that is polar.

C) are arranged in a double layer in the cell membrane.

D) are not found in the cell membrane.

E) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Which molecule can directly pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Potassium C) Sodium D) Glucose E) Calcium

19)

Cell membranes are said to be selectively permeable because they A) allow the free passage of some materials and restrict the passage of others.

B) allow the passage of materials in one direction but not the other.

C) permit the passage of most materials but not of water.

D) allow the passage of positively charged particles but not negatively charged particles.

20)

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the cell membrane?

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A) Cholesterol within the membrane gives it added strength and flexibility.

B) Receptor molecules are embedded in the membrane for intercellular communication.

C) Carbohydrates bind to protein molecules thereby modifying the protein's function as a membrane channel.

D) Receptor molecules embedded in the membrane are involved in cellular recognition.

E) All of the choices are correct.

21) Which of the following would occur if no cell membranes in your body were selectively permeable?

A) Action potentials would not be generated.

B) Cells would be isotonic to their environment.

C) You would be subject to a higher rate of illness and disease.

D) Cells would not be able to get and keep enough glucose to function.

E) All of the choices are plausible.

22) __________, located within the cytoplasm of the cell, facilitate the movement of chromosomes during cell division.

A) Secretory vesicles B) Centrioles C) Cilia D) Microvilli E) Flagella

23)

Which of the following cell organelles is NOT correctly matched with its function?

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A) Nucleus—contains genes that determine the structure and function of each cell B) Lysosome—contains digestive enzymes C) Mitochondria—site of protein synthesis D) Golgi apparatus—packages proteins in secretory vesicles E) Smooth ER—site of lipid synthesis

24)

The sperm cell is able to move (is motile) because of its __________.

A) numerous cilia B) microvilli C) flagellum D) numerous lysosomes E) active transport mechanism

25) Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the cell membrane?

A) Lipid-soluble molecules — pass through membrane channels.

B) Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) — dissolve in double phospholipid layer.

C) Large, water-soluble molecules — transported by carrier-mediated processes.

D) Glucose and amino acid molecules — pass through membrane channels.

E) All of the choices are correctly paired.

26)

Active transport A) can move substances against their concentration gradient.

B) requires metabolic energy (ATPs).

C) may exchange one substance for another.

D) involves carrier molecules.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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27)

Endocytosis

A) involves the formation of a vesicle by invagination of the cell membrane.

B) involves the movement of materials to the outside of the cell.

C) is the opposite of phagocytosis.

D) is a kind of passive transport.

E) Both “involves the movement of materials to the outside of the cell” and “is the opposite of phagocytosis” are correct.

28)

Translation A) requires three types of DNA. B) requires the pairing of codons on tRNA with anticodons on mRNA. C) involves copying RNA from DNA molecules.

D) involves formation of peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids.

E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

Transcription

A) takes place in the nucleus of the cell.

B) occurs when double strands of DNA separate, and RNA nucleotides pair with DNA nucleotides.

C) produces mRNA. D) determines the sequence of codons on a particular mRNA molecule.

E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

Arrange the following steps of protein synthesis in the proper order.

1) DNA is transcribed to mRNA. 2) tRNA pairs with mRNA. 3) mRNA passes from nucleus into cytoplasm.

4) Peptide bonds form.

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 1, 2, 4, 2 D) 1, 4, 3, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 2

31) A selective poison that blocked the function of the mitochondria was used on a group of cells. Which of the following processes would most likely be interrupted by the presence of this poison?

A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Facilitated diffusion D) Active transport E) All of the choices are correct.

32) The information in the nucleic acid ____________ is carried in the multiple groups of three nucleotides called codons.

A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

33) The nucleic acid that combines with preexisting protein to form ribosomal subunits is __________.

A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

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34)

The nucleic acid that is synthesized in the nucleus from a DNA template is __________.

A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) All of the choices are correct.

35) The process whereby cells develop with specialized structures and functions is __________.

A) cytokinesis B) apoptosis C) replication D) differentiation E) transcription

36) The type of membrane transport that involves the ingestion of solid particles by vesicle formation is __________.

A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

37) The usual process for moving very large molecules, such as whole proteins, across the cell membrane is by __________.

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A) simple diffusion B) passive transport C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

38) ______________ is a specific type of endocytosis that is responsible for bringing liquids and small particles into cells through the formation of small vesicles.

A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Receptor-mediated endocytosis D) Exocytosis

39)

Carrier-mediated transport mechanisms A) exhibit specificity.

B) function to move large water-soluble molecules.

C) function to move electrically charged ions.

D) include facilitated diffusion, active transport, and secondary active transport.

E) All of the choices are correct.

40)

Secondary active transport

A) involves the use of endocytosis.

B) involves the active transport of one substance to establish a concentration gradient, thereby providing energy for the movement of a second substance.

C) involves the use of exocytosis.

D) involves the passive transport of one substance to establish a concentration gradient, thereby providing energy for the movement of a second substance.

E) involves the facilitated transport of one substance which then ‘pulls’ along a second substance.

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41) If all of the peroxisomes in a cell were suddenly removed, how would this affect the cell’s immediate activity and function?

A) The cell would no longer be able to break down glucose.

B) The cell would be unable to produce proteins.

C) The cell would be unable to perform transcription.

D) The cell would no longer be able to break down fatty acids, hydrogen peroxide, and amino acids.

E) The cell would no longer be able to break down proteins and nucleic acids.

42) A gene is a sequence of __________ providing a chemical set of instructions for making a __________.

A) nucleotides; lipid B) nucleotides; protein C) amino acids; protein D) carbohydrates; polysaccharide E) fatty acids; lipid

43)

When a cell prepares to divide,

A) the DNA is loosely coiled into chromatin and is visible when viewed with a microscope.

B) the nucleoli appear and become larger.

C) the DNA is tightly coiled into structures called ribosomes.

D) the chromosomes become tightly coiled and are visible when viewed with a microscope.

E) the nuclear envelope forms.

44)

In humans,

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A) the diploid number of chromosomes is 46.

B) each body cell has 23 chromosomes.

C) each body cell has 2 pairs of sex chromosomes.

D) a male has two X chromosomes in each body cell.

E) each body cell has 46 autosomes.

45)

During the process of mitosis in humans, A) centrioles are points of attachment between chromatids.

B) replication of DNA during interphase produces identical chromatids.

C) when centromeres separate, there are two identical sets of 23 chromosomes.

D) four daughter cells are produced from one original cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

46)

This diagram best shows a cell during the _________ stage of mitosis.

A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase

47) This diagram best shows a cell during the _________ stage of mitosis.

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A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase

48) This diagram best shows a cell during _________ of mitosis.

A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase

49)

In cotransport, A) no ATP is used.

B) the diffusing substance and the transported substance move in opposite directions.

C) the diffusing substance and the transported substance move in the same direction.

D) the substance moves directly through the cell membrane without the aid of proteins.

E) None of the choices are correct.

50)

The process called diffusion

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A) is the tendency for solute molecules to move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

B) is the product of random movement of all atoms, molecules, and ions in a solution.

C) always produces net movement of materials against the concentration gradient for that material.

D) Both "is the tendency for solute molecules to move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration" and "is the product of random movement of all atoms, molecules, and ions in a solution" are correct.

E) Both "is the tendency for solute molecules to move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration" and "always produces net movement of materials against the concentration gradient for that material" are correct.

51)

Which of the following statements concerning solutes and solvents is true?

A) The solvent is the predominant liquid or gas in a solution.

B) At equilibrium, all solute particles cease movement.

C) When oxygen is present in the blood, blood is the solute and oxygen is the solvent.

D) All solute particles move into or out of the cell by diffusion.

E) All of the choices are correct.

52)

What percentage of factors affecting aging are genetic?

A) 100% B) 50% C) 35% D) 15%

53) The force required to prevent the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is __________ pressure.

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A) hydrostatic B) diffusion C) osmotic D) membrane E) selective

54) If sugar solution A, which is twice as concentrated as sugar solution B, is separated from solution B by a selectively permeable membrane, A) there would be a net movement of water from A to B. B) there would be a net movement of water from B to A. C) there would be no net movement of water.

D) there would be a net movement of solutes from A to B. E) there would be a net movement of solutes from B to A.

55)

If a red blood cell were placed in distilled water, we would expect the cell to A) swell and lyse.

B) shrink and lyse.

C) swell and crenate.

D) shrink and crenate.

56) Which of the following statements concerning facilitated diffusion and active transport is correct?

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A) Both facilitated diffusion and active transport require ATP, but only active transport requires carrier molecules.

B) Both facilitated diffusion and active transport require carrier molecules, but only active transport requires ATP. C) Facilitated diffusion is used to exchange one substance for another, but active transport only moves a single substance.

D) Facilitated diffusion and active transport both move substances down the concentration gradient, but active facilitated diffusion requires ATP to do so.

E) All of the choices are correct.

57) A dialysis membrane is selectively permeable, and substances smaller than proteins are able to pass through. The dialysis machine allows blood to flow past one side of the dialysis membrane and the dialysis fluid flows on the other side of the membrane. If you wanted to use a dialysis machine to remove only urea (a small molecule) from blood, what could you use for the dialysis fluid?

A) A solution that is isotonic and contains only protein B) A solution that is isotonic and contains the same concentration of substances as blood, except for having no urea in it C) Distilled water D) Whole blood E) Hypertonic saltwater

58) The type of membrane transport that uses carrier molecules to move substances with the concentration gradient for that substance is __________.

A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

59) In _____________, molecules show a net movement from greater to lesser concentration due to the random motion of the molecules.

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A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) endocytosis

60) When placed in a ________ solution, a cell will exhibit a net loss of water. The specific process by which the water leaves the cell is called __________.

A) hypertonic; osmosis B) hypertonic; facilitated transport C) isotonic; exocytosis D) hypotonic; osmosis E) hypotonic; diffusion

61)

What term dealing with cancer means “spreading to a new site”?

A) Benign B) Sarcoma C) Metastasis D) Malignant E) Carcinoma

62) cell?

Which of the following organelles are NOT correctly paired with their location within the

A) Peroxisome—within the cytoplasm B) Microvilli—on the cell surface C) Golgi apparatus—within the cytoplasm D) Centrioles—part of a chromosome E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum—within the cytoplasm of the cell

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63)

Our body cells perform several important functions, including A) cell metabolism and energy use.

B) reproduction and inheritance.

C) communication.

D) synthesis of molecules.

E) All of the choices are correct.

64) The __________ endoplasmic reticulum manufactures lipids and carbohydrates, whereas the __________ endoplasmic reticulum assists with the synthesis of proteins, which it sends to the Golgi apparatus.

A) rough; smooth B) smooth; curved C) curved; smooth D) smooth; rough

65) A cell releases a substance that travels through the extracellular fluid and binds to a membrane protein on a different cell. This is an example of which cell function? What type of membrane protein does the substance bind?

A) Metabolism; Receptor B) Communication; Enzyme C) Metabolism; Enzyme D) Communication; Receptor

66) Which hypothesis regarding aging suggests that cell lines have a fixed number of cell divisions before the cell line dies?

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A) Death genes B) DNA damage C) Free radicals D) Cellular clocks

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) E 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) E Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) E 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) E 37) E 38) B 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) B Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) E 64) D 65) D 66) D

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CHAPTER 4 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of these is NOT one of the four basic tissue types?

A) Glandular B) Connective C) Muscle D) Epithelium E) Nervous

2)

Understanding tissue structure and function is important because

A) there is a relationship between the structure of each tissue type (how it is organized) and its function (what it does).

B) there is a relationship between tissue structure and organ function.

C) many diseases and pathologies are tissue and cell type specific.

D) changes at the tissue level affect the function of organs.

E) All of the choices are correct.

3)

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about epithelial tissue?

A) Epithelial tissue is vascular.

B) Epithelial tissue provides physical protection for organs.

C) Epithelial tissue functions in absorption and secretion.

D) Epithelial tissue controls the permeability into and out of an area or organ.

E) Epithelial tissue consists almost entirely of cells, with very little extracellular material between them, thereby forming a barrier against entry into the body.

4)

Basement membranes

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A) function as a filter and a barrier to cell or pathogen movement.

B) attach epithelial cells to the underlying tissue.

C) are secreted partially by epithelial cells and partially by the cells of the underlying tissue.

D) All of the choices are correct.

5)

Epithelial cells A) cover body surfaces or form glands.

B) usually have a free surface that is not in contact with other cells.

C) have a basement membrane that attaches to underlying tissues.

D) can be somewhat far away from any blood vessel.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6) The most correct classification of an epithelial tissue consisting of many layers of cells, in which the outer layers are flat and thin and the basal layers are cuboidal or columnar, is A) simple columnar epithelium.

B) pseudostratified epithelium.

C) stratified squamous epithelium.

D) transitional epithelium.

E) simple squamous epithelium.

7) Epithelial cells that appear cube-like when an organ is relaxed, and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid, are classified as A) simple columnar epithelium.

B) pseudostratified epithelium.

C) stratified squamous epithelium.

D) transitional epithelium.

E) simple squamous epithelium.

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8) Epithelium that consists of a single layer of cells, in which some cells are tall and thin and reach the free surface and others do not, is classified as A) simple columnar epithelium.

B) pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

C) stratified squamous epithelium.

D) transitional epithelium.

E) simple squamous epithelium.

9)

Which of these epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function?

A) Simple squamous epithelium—diffusion or filtration B) Stratified squamous epithelium—protection from abrasion C) Simple cuboidal epithelium—active transport, facilitated diffusion, or secretion D) Simple columnar epithelium—secretion or absorption E) All the choices are correct.

10)

Which of the following statements about transitional epithelium is FALSE?

A) Transitional epithelium has cells that change shape when the tissue is stretched.

B) Transitional epithelium is found in the lining of the urinary bladder, the ureters, and the superior urethra.

C) Transitional epithelium is pseudostratified.

D) As transitional epithelium is stretched, the number of cell layers decreases.

E) Transitional epithelium is found in cavities that can expand greatly in volume.

11) Which of the following characteristics of tissues and cells would aid in diffusion or the movement of materials into and out of the body through the epithelium?

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A) Multiple layers of relatively flat, thin cells.

B) A single layer of relatively flat, thin cells.

C) Multiple layers of cuboidal cells.

D) A single layer of cuboidal cells.

E) Multiple layers of columnar cells.

12)

Stratified epithelial tissues

A) have a single layer of cells and a basement membrane.

B) have multiple layers of cells that hinder movement of materials into the body.

C) aid in the movement of materials into the body.

D) are found in areas of the body where abrasions can occur.

E) Both "have multiple layers of cells that hinder movement of materials into the body" and "are found in areas of the body where abrasions can occur" are correct.

13) In which of the following types of epithelial tissues would the movement of materials into or out of the body be fastest?

A) Simple squamous epithelial tissue B) Stratified squamous epithelial tissue C) Simple columnar epithelial tissue D) Stratified columnar epithelial tissue E) Transitional epithelial tissue

14)

Which of the types of epithelial free surfaces is correctly matched with its function?

A) Smooth—decreases friction B) With microvilli—cell moves from place to place C) Ciliated—increased surface area D) All of the choices are correct.

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15) Cell connections that bind adjacent cells together and form permeability barriers are called A) tight junctions.

B) gap junctions.

C) desmosomes.

D) plasma junctions.

E) tonosomes.

16) The blood-brain barrier is a specialized epithelium that prevents many materials from passing from the blood into the brain. The cell connections most likely present between the cells forming this barrier are A) desmosomes.

B) gap junctions.

C) tight junctions.

D) plasma junctions.

E) Both "desmosomes" and "gap junctions" are correct.

17)

Hemidesmosomes A) anchor cells to the basement membrane.

B) are found in epithelium that is subjected to a high degree of stress.

C) are a modified form of a desmosomes.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

18) Cells of the epidermis are mechanically linked together via __________, which, together with a network of fine proteins and intercellular cement, connect the cell membranes of the two cells.

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A) desmosomes B) tight junctions C) gap junctions D) voltage gated ion channels

19)

A gland with branching ducts that expand into saclike structures is a A) simple tubular endocrine gland.

B) simple acinar exocrine gland.

C) compound tubular exocrine gland.

D) compound acinar exocrine gland.

E) compound tubular endocrine gland.

20)

Endocrine glands

A) have ducts.

B) secrete hormones.

C) secrete substances onto a surface or into an organ.

D) Both "secrete hormones" and "secrete substances onto a surface or into an organ" are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

21) The smell of your favorite food makes you salivate. Your saliva is being secreted from what type of gland?

A) Exocrine B) Endocrine C) Unicellular (goblet cells) D) Paracrine E) Exocrine and endocrine

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22)

Connective tissue cells whose names contain the suffix -blast

A) produce matrix.

B) maintain the matrix.

C) break down the matrix for remodeling.

D) ingest foreign substances through phagocytosis.

E) are non-motile cells that release histamines and other chemicals to promote inflammation.

23)

Connective tissue cells whose names contain the suffix -cyte

A) produce matrix.

B) maintain the matrix.

C) break down the matrix for remodeling.

D) ingest foreign substances through phagocytosis.

E) are non-motile cells that release histamines and other chemicals to promote inflammation.

24)

Connective tissue cells whose names contain the suffix -clast

A) produce matrix.

B) maintain the matrix.

C) break down the matrix for remodeling.

D) ingest foreign substances through phagocytosis.

E) are non-motile cells that release histamines and other chemicals to promote inflammation.

25)

Connective tissue

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A) joins together cells and tissues and transports substances.

B) provides a supporting framework for the body.

C) is characterized by large amounts of extracellular matrix.

D) Both "joins together cells and tissues and transports substances" and "is characterized by large amounts of extracellular matrix.

E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Major components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue include A) protein fibers, carbohydrates, and lipids.

B) phospholipids, glycoproteins, and proteins.

C) protein fibers, ground substance, and fluid.

D) ground substance, glycoproteins, and phospholipids.

E) ground substance, carbohydrates, and fluid.

27)

Which kind of connective tissue cells is NOT correctly matched with its function?

A) -blast cells—make holes in extracellular matrix.

B) -clast cells—break down the extracellular matrix.

C) -cyte cells—maintain the extracellular matrix.

D) Mast cells—release chemicals promoting inflammation.

E) Macrophages—move about and ingest foreign substances.

28)

Which of these connective tissue types is NOT correctly matched with its description?

A) Adipose tissue—very little extracellular matrix; cells filled with lipids B) Bone—hard connective tissue with mineralized matrix C) Dense collagenous connective tissue—widely separated collagen fibers running in random directions D) Fibrocartilage—more collagen and less ground substance than hyaline cartilage E) Blood—liquid matrix

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29)

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?

A) Striated B) Branching fibers C) Intercalated disks present.

D) Under involuntary (unconscious) control E) Many nuclei per cell

30)

Which of the following statements about cartilage is FALSE?

A) Cartilage does not have blood vessels and therefore heals slowly after injury.

B) Proteoglycans within the matrix trap water, making the cartilage relatively rigid and resistant to compression.

C) Collagen fibers within the matrix give cartilage its flexibility and strength.

D) Cells within cartilage are located in lacunae.

E) The matrix of cartilage is mineralized and calcified, giving it a ringlike pattern.

31)

Which of the following fiber types is NOT correctly paired with its function?

A) Collagen—flexible, resists stretching.

B) Reticular—forms a supporting network between cells.

C) Elastic—allows for consistent stretch and recoil.

D) Collagen—gives tissue its strength.

E) All of the choices are correct.

32) Which of the following would NOT lead to an increase in the strength and compression resistance of a connective tissue?

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A) Increasing the number of collagen fibers in the matrix.

B) Decreasing the number of collagen fibers in the matrix.

C) Increasing the concentration of proteoglycans in the ground substance.

D) Aligning the fibers in the matrix in direction of most stress or force.

E) All of the choices are correct.

33)

Which of these comparisons between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle is NOT correct?

A) Smooth muscle cells are tapered at each end; skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

B) Smooth muscle cells are under voluntary control; skeletal muscle cells are under involuntary control.

C) Smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow organs except the heart; skeletal muscle attaches to the skeleton.

D) Smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus; skeletal muscle cells have many.

E) Smooth muscle cells have no striations; skeletal muscle cells have striations.

34)

Which of these characteristics of membranes is CORRECT?

A) Mucous membranes line internal body cavities.

B) Serous membranes produce fluid that is secreted into the blood.

C) Most multicellular membranes consist of two layers of tissue (epithelial and connective).

D) Serous membranes are found lining the digestive and excretory systems.

E) Serous membranes are found lining the retroperitoneal organs.

35)

Synovial membranes

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A) produce synovial fluid.

B) line the inside of joint cavities.

C) make the joint very slippery.

D) reduce friction, allowing for smooth movement within the joint.

E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

A sunburn results from damage to which type of membrane?

A) Serous B) Cutaneous C) Peritoneal D) Synovial E) Pleural

37) Following an injury, chemicals are released or activated in the injured tissues. These chemicals, called chemical mediators, include A) histamine.

B) neutrophils.

C) prostaglandins.

D) pus.

E) Both "histamine" and "protaglandins" are correct.

38)

The presence of chemical mediators of inflammation results in A) vasodilation of blood vessels.

B) increased permeability of blood vessels.

C) pain.

D) symptoms of redness and heat.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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39) Which of these does NOT occur because of increased permeability of blood vessels during the inflammatory process?

A) Neutrophils move into the injured tissue.

B) Edema, or swelling, of the tissues occurs.

C) Fibrin diffuses into tissues and forms a fibrous network in the extracellular space.

D) Pus leaks out of blood vessels.

E) Increased fluid in the tissues causes increased tissue pressure, which causes pain.

40)

The major symptoms of inflammation include A) redness and swelling.

B) heat.

C) pain.

D) disturbance of function.

E) All of the choices are correct.

41)

When new, viable cells replace dead cells, the process is called A) remuneration.

B) fibrosis.

C) regeneration.

D) reunification.

E) Both "fibrosis" and "regeneration" are correct.

42) Which of these statements concerning the ability of certain cells to divide and produce new cells is NOT correct?

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A) Regeneration is accomplished primarily by stem cells.

B) Regeneration can involve differentiated cells in liver and pancreas.

C) Stem cells continue to divide throughout life.

D) Mature skeletal muscle cells are able to divide.

E) Mature cardiac muscle cells are unable to divide.

43)

In regeneration, A) a new type of tissue develops, causing the loss of some function.

B) new cells of a different tissue type develop, and normal function is restored.

C) new cells of the same type are created, and normal function is usually restored.

D) the damaged cells repair themselves perfectly, restoring function.

E) viable cells are replaced by dead cells.

44)

Two types of phagocytic cells involved in tissue repair are A) fibroblasts and chondrocytes.

B) epithelial cells and fibroblasts.

C) neutrophils and macrophages.

D) clots and scabs.

E) dead cells and live cells.

45) During tissue repair, the clot is first replaced by __________, a delicate connective tissue that consists of fibroblasts, collagen, and capillaries.

A) granulation tissue B) phagocytic tissue C) dense connective tissue D) fibrin tissue E) pus

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46) Heavy smoking destroys pseudostratified ciliated epithelium in the trachea ("windpipe").

Which of these conditions might occur in the trachea if replacement epithelial cells are not ciliated?

A) Accumulation of mucus in the trachea.

B) Accumulation of foreign particles in the trachea.

C) Increased coughing.

D) All of the choices are correct.

47)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium in the urinary bladder.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

48)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium in the alveoli of lungs.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

49)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium in the kidney tubules.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

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50)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium lining the small intestine.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

51)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium in the outer layer of skin.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

52)

You would normally expect to find __________ epithelium lining blood vessels.

A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) stratified squamous D) transitional E) simple columnar

53) __________ are small channels that allow materials to pass from one epithelial cell to another.

A) Tight junctions B) Gap junctions C) Desmosomes D) Hemidesmosomes

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54)

__________ forms the disks between vertebrae.

A) Dense collagenous connective tissue B) Hyaline cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Elastic cartilage E) Loose or areolar connective tissue

55)

The connective tissue that makes up the external ear is A) dense collagenous connective tissue.

B) hyaline cartilage.

C) fibrocartilage.

D) elastic cartilage.

E) loose or areolar connective tissue.

56)

The connective tissue that composes tendons and ligaments is A) dense collagenous connective tissue.

B) hyaline cartilage.

C) fibrocartilage.

D) elastic cartilage.

E) loose or areolar connective tissue.

57)

____________ covers ends of bones at joints.

A) Dense collagenous connective tissue B) Hyaline cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) Elastic cartilage E) Loose or areolar connective tissue

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58)

The connective tissue that covers muscles, glands, and nerves is A) dense collagenous connective tissue.

B) hyaline cartilage.

C) fibrocartilage.

D) elastic cartilage.

E) loose or areolar connective tissue.

59)

The tracheal rings are composed of A) dense collagenous connective tissue.

B) hyaline cartilage.

C) fibrocartilage.

D) elastic cartilage.

E) loose or areolar connective tissue.

60)

_____________ are striated.

A) Skeletal muscle cells B) Cardiac muscle cells C) Smooth muscle cells D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle cells E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle cells

61)

_____________ are located in the walls of the stomach and small intestine.

A) Skeletal muscle cells B) Cardiac muscle cells C) Smooth muscle cells D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle cells E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle cells

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62)

_____________ are joined to each other by structures called intercalated disks.

A) Skeletal muscle cells B) Cardiac muscle cells C) Smooth muscle cells D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle cells E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle cells

63)

_____________ usually contain only a single nucleus.

A) Skeletal muscle cells B) Cardiac muscle cells C) Smooth muscle cells D) Both skeletal and cardiac muscle cells E) Both cardiac and smooth muscle cells

64)

The supportive cells of the nervous system are called _________.

A) dendrites B) cell bodies C) axons D) glia E) neurons

65)

Which one of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?

A) Protects underlying structures.

B) Secretes and absorbs substances.

C) Cushions and insulates.

D) Acts as a barrier.

E) Permits passage of substances.

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66)

_____________ cells are unicellular glands that produce mucus.

A) Goblet B) Blast C) Germ D) Mast E) Adipose

67)

Which of the following is NOT an example of age-related changes in tissue?

A) Cell division is slower.

B) Red blood cell synthesis decreases.

C) Injuries require more time to heal.

D) Collagen fibers decrease in number, yet become more flexible.

E) All of the choices are correct.

68) The lenses of the eyes are composed of many proteins. The flexibility of the lenses allows for changes in their shape and these shape changes are important to the ability to focus on viewed objects. Based on your understanding of how aging affects the extracellular matrix, why is it not surprising that older individuals have difficulty in viewing near objects?

A) The flexibility of the lenses increases as protein in the lenses become irregular.

B) The cells of the lenses increase in number, causing the lenses to become more opaque.

C) The lenses become smaller in diameter as the proteins increase in number.

D) The lenses become less flexible as proteins become more irregular and less flexible.

E) All of the choices are correct.

69) A tissue sample is examined and found to have an extensive mineralized extracellular matrix. The cells are scattered within the matrix. This sample is __________ tissue.

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A) epithelial B) loose connective C) muscle D) bone E) None of the choices are correct.

70) The ceruminous glands secrete earwax into the external auditory canal, which can help protect the eardrum from being damaged if a foreign object enters the external auditory canal.

Based on this description, determine which statement correctly describes earwax secretion.

A) Earwax is a hormone, because it is secreted onto an epithelial surface by an endocrine gland.

B) Earwax is secreted by exocrine glands, through ducts that empty onto an epithelial surface.

C) Earwax is most likely secreted by endocrine glands into the blood and eventually deposited into the external auditory canal.

D) None of the choices are correct.

71) The iris of the eye is the colored part of the eye and is composed of muscle tissue. Select the statement below that best explains the type of muscle tissue that makes up the iris.

A) The iris is cardiac muscle, because cardiac muscle is the only involuntary muscle type.

B) The iris is smooth muscle, because it is involuntary muscle that is not located in the heart.

C) The iris is skeletal muscle, because skeletal muscle is involuntary muscle tissue.

72) __________ are cells within nervous tissue that are responsible for conducting action potentials.

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A) Neurons B) Glia C) Fibroblasts D) Goblet cells

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_11e 1) A 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) C Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) E 36) B 37) E 38) E 39) D 40) E 41) E 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) E 51) C 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) E 59) B 60) D 61) C 62) B 63) E 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) B 72) A

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CHAPTER 5 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Ethnic variations in skin color are determined by A) the number of melanocytes.

B) the amount and type of melanin produced.

C) the distribution and deposition of melanin.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Both "the number of melanocytes" and "the distribution and depostion of melanin produced" are correct.

2)

A burn is an injury to a tissue caused by A) exposure to excess heat.

B) exposure to excess cold.

C) friction.

D) exposure to chemicals.

E) All of the choices are correct.

3)

The subcutaneous tissue A) is also called hypodermis.

B) is loose connective tissue that attaches the skin to underlying bone and muscle.

C) is important for padding and insulation.

D) contains about half of the body's stored lipids.

E) All of the choices are correct.

4)

Fingerprints are produced by __________.

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A) striae B) cleavage lines C) friction ridges D) reticular lines E) subcutaneous tissue

5)

The stratum corneum of the epidermis A) consists of continuously dividing cells.

B) can become thickened and form a structure called a callus or corn.

C) has cells that are continuously moving toward the stratum basale.

D) has cells that synthesize melanin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6)

Melanin A) is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum corneum.

B) is produced by melanocytes.

C) is responsible for cyanosis.

D) is responsible for birthmarks.

E) All of the choices are correct.

7) Paul is on the newest diet craze. After a couple of weeks of eating only carrots and carrotbased products, he begins to notice that his skin has a decidedly yellowish tint. This is because A) excess carotene from his diet has accumulated in the lipids of the stratum corneum.

B) liver damage has occurred, and bile pigments are building up.

C) excess melanin from his diet has accumulated in the lipids of the dermis.

D) he has recently been exposed to a lot of ultraviolet light.

E) his change in diet has nothing to due with the yellowish tint. It is just a natural change due to aging.

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8)

Redness of the skin can result from all of the following except A) the inflammatory response.

B) anger or blushing.

C) exposure to heat.

D) mildly cool temperatures.

E) All of the choices are correct.

9) One type of contraceptive device is a skin patch that contains a chemical absorbed through the skin. Which of the following substances would most likely be the type of chemical involved?

A) A protein B) Substances dissolved in water C) A steroid D) A carbohydrate E) A protein associated with a carbohydrate

10)

A hair is formed or made by cells within the A) hair shaft.

B) hair root.

C) arrector pili.

D) cuticle.

E) hair bulb.

11)

Hair color

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A) is determined by the varying amounts and types of melanin.

B) can fade with age.

C) is produced by the melanocytes in the hair bulb.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

12)

Which of the following statements about glands of the skin is true?

A) Sebaceous glands produce an oily white substance rich in lipids.

B) Sebum is important in cooling the body.

C) Eccrine sweat glands become active at puberty because of the influence of sex hormones.

D) Eccrine sweat glands produce a thick secretion rich in organic substances.

E) All of the choices are correct.

13)

The nail grows from the A) nail body.

B) nail matrix.

C) eponychium.

D) lunula.

E) stratum corneum.

14)

The lunula is part of the A) nail body.

B) eponychium.

C) nail matrix.

D) stratum corneum.

E) nail root.

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15)

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Nails grow continually and do not have a resting stage.

B) The nail consists of layers of living cells from the stratum corneum.

C) The cells of a nail are filled with a special hard type of keratin.

D) The nail matrix and nail bed have a stratum basale.

E) The production of cells within the nail matrix results in the growth of the nail.

16)

When exposed to the cold, the ears and nose may appear red. This is because

A) blood vessels in the nose and ears have constricted to conserve heat.

B) cyanosis occurs when blood flow slows down.

C) the nose and ears have a thicker, more keratinized stratum corneum than the rest of the face.

D) cold causes an inflammatory reaction in the nose and ears.

E) blood vessels dilate to prevent tissue damage from the cold.

17)

Vitamin D A) stimulates calcium and phosphate uptake in the small intestine.

B) is formed from a precursor molecule that is made when skin is exposed to ultraviolet

light.

C) is formed from a precursor molecule that is modified in the liver and kidneys.

D) may be required in the diet if a person is exposed to very little ultraviolet light.

E) All of the choices are correct.

18) Which of the following functions of the integumentary system is NOT correctly matched with an example?

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A) Sensation—Pain, heat, cold, and pressure receptors in the skin.

B) Temperature regulation—Radiation and convection of heat from blood flowing in the dermis.

C) Excretion—Hydrogen ions are moved from the skin into the urine.

D) Vitamin D production—Active vitamin D is produced from a precursor molecule.

E) All of the choices are correct.

19)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aging of the integumentary system?

A) Loss of elastic fibers in the skin.

B) Increase in activity of sweat and sebaceous glands.

C) Decreased number of melanocytes.

D) Loss of pigment in hair.

E) Skin becomes thinner and more transparent.

20)

Which of the following conditions is NOT correctly paired with its symptoms?

A) Vitamin A deficiency—Excess keratin deposits in skin leading to sand paper-like texture.

B) Iron-deficiency anemia—Nails become flat or concave (spoon-like).

C) Psoriasis—Circular scaly lesions.

D) Cyanosis—Bluish color of skin resulting from decreased blood oxygen content.

E) Acne—Inflammation of hair follicles and sebaceous glands.

21)

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the integumentary system?

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A) The condition of the skin, hair, and nails is affected by nutritional status.

B) Intact skin plays an important role in preventing water loss, because its lipids act as a barrier to osmosis.

C) Keratin in the epidermis absorbs ultraviolet light and protects the underlying structures from its damaging effects.

D) Hair acts as a heat insulator and protective barrier.

E) Vitamin D stimulates the uptake of calcium and phosphate in the intestine.

22)

Third-degree burns A) are also called partial-thickness burns.

B) cause immediate pain.

C) involve only the epidermis.

D) result in excessive fluid loss.

E) All of the choices are correct.

23) Chef Brandi suffered a burn on her arm when a kettle of spaghetti sauce exploded. The doctor, using a forceps, pulls on a hair within the area that is burned. The hair easily pulls out.

What degree of burn did the patient have?

A) First-degree burn B) Second-degree burn C) Third-degree burn

24)

Malignant melanoma

A) is the least dangerous form of skin cancer.

B) usually arises from melanocytes in a preexisting mole.

C) rarely metastasizes.

D) is the most common type of skin cancer.

E) is the least dangerous form of skin cancer and usually arises from melanocytes in a preexisting mole.

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25)

Which of the following statements is true concerning skin cancer?

A) Basal cell carcinoma produces an open ulcer.

B) Squamous cell carcinoma often arises from a preexisting mole.

C) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells within the stratum basale.

D) Malignant melanoma poses little danger of metastasis.

E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

To be safe and effective, sunscreen preparations should block A) UVA only.

B) UVB only.

C) both UVA and UVB. D) all forms of radiation other than UVA or UVB.

27) Given that viruses are not affected by antibiotics, which of the following types of skin infection might be successfully treated with an antibiotic?

A) Cold sores B) Chicken pox C) Acne D) Warts E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

The shaft is a structural component found associated with A) hair (or hair follicle).

B) nails (or nail bed).

C) glands.

D) sensory receptors.

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29)

The type of glands that open on surface of skin and have a watery secretion are A) eccrine sweat glands.

B) apocrine sweat glands.

C) sebaceous glands.

D) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The type of glands that open into a hair follicle and have a thick organic secretion are A) eccrine sweat glands.

B) apocrine sweat glands.

C) sebaceous glands.

D) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

E) All of the choices are correct.

31)

The type of glands that open into a hair follicle and produce sebum are A) eccrine sweat glands.

B) apocrine sweat glands.

C) sebaceous glands.

D) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

The type of glands that lubricate skin and hair and protect against some bacteria are A) eccrine sweat glands.

B) apocrine sweat glands.

C) sebaceous glands.

D) both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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33)

Which type of glands help to cool the body?

A) Eccrine sweat glands B) Apocrine sweat glands C) Sebaceous glands D) Both eccrine and apocrine sweat glands E) All of the choices are correct.

34)

Cyanosis is caused by A) altered blood flow to the skin (overall or in small areas).

B) increased number of active melanocytes.

C) collection of abnormal pigment (not melanin) in the skin.

D) decreased oxygen content of blood.

E) increased production of melanin by normal number of melanocytes.

35)

Jaundice is caused by A) altered blood flow to the skin (overall or in small areas).

B) increased number of active melanocytes.

C) collection of abnormal bile pigment in the skin.

D) decreased oxygen content of blood.

E) increased production of melanin by normal number of melanocytes.

36)

Which one of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system?

A) Protection against abrasion and UV light.

B) Regulation of body temperature by controlling blood flow.

C) Excretion of small amounts of waste products.

D) Vitamin A production with exposure to UV light.

E) Detection of heat, cold, pressure, and pain sensations.

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37) The ___________ is the layer of the skin made of epithelial tissue, and the __________ is composed of dense connective tissue.

A) epidermis; dermis B) epidermis; subcutaneous tissue C) dermis; epidermis D) dermis; subcutaneous tissue E) subcutaneous tissue; dermis

38) Copyright © The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display.

In the figure, the letter B best represents the A) cortex.

B) cuticle.

C) papilla.

D) arrector pili muscle.

E) medulla.

39)

When a cancer is said to have metastasized, it means that

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A) it has stopped growing.

B) it has spread to other areas of the body.

C) it has been destroyed by the body's defenses.

D) it has broken through the epidermis and formed a freckle on the skin.

E) it has changed color and shrunk in size.

40) Which of the following helps in preventing the spread and growth of some types of skin cancer to other areas of the body?

A) Gap junctions B) Basement membranes C) An avascular (with out blood vessels) epidermis D) Gap junctions and basement membranes are correct.

E) Both “basement membranes “ and “an avascular (with out blood vessels) epidermis” are correct.

41) Sandra has been working very long hours the past three months and has had very little time to relax. She works as a medical transcriptionist and spends most of her time at her desk.

The results of her recent annual physical indicated that her calcium levels were on the lower end of the acceptable values. Her physician suggests that she adjust her diet to include more calciumrich foods and to spend some time outdoors. Why would her physician suggest she spend time outdoors?

A) Relaxing outdoors would provide fresh air, which helps with calcium absorption.

B) If Sandra is outdoors, she is less likely to eat snack foods that are not calcium-rich.

C) Sun exposureenables the production of calcium in the body.

D) Sun exposure enables the production of vitamin D in the body, which is necessary for calcium absorption at the small intestine.

42) Which statement best contrasts the characteristics of the stratum basale cells with the stratum corneum cells?

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A) Stratum corneum cells are usually cuboidal or columnar cells; whereas, stratum basale cells are usually squamous cells.

B) Stratum corneum cells are living cells, but stratum basale cells are dead.

C) Stratum corneum cells are dead cells, but stratum basale cells are living cells.

D) Stratum corneum cells are all dead keratinocytes, but stratum basale cells are all melanocytes.

E) None of the choices are correct.

43) Most babies have more adipose tissue in the subcutaneous tissue compared to adults.Which of the following statements gives a valid explanation for the difference?

A) Babies have more adipose tissue because they do not exercise enough.

B) Babies lose body heat more easily than adults, due to their size, and the extra adipose tissue helps regulate body temperature by providing insulation.

C) As we age, adipose tissue steadily decreases.

D) All of the choices are correct.

44) Sharon and Jennifer are sisters and grew up in the same household. Jennifer enjoyed spending her days outside while Sharon enjoyed staying inside most days. Which statement best describes how this difference in sun exposure affecting skin aging between the two sisters?

A) Jennifer’s skin is more likely to age at a slower pace, because sun exposure increases collagen production.

B) Jennifer’s skin is more likely to age at a faster pace, because sun exposure decreases collagen and elastic fibers in the skin.

C) Sharon’s skin is more likely to age at a faster pace, because her body produces less vitamin.

D) Sharon’s skin is more likely to age a slower pace, because her melanocytes will become inactive.

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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

45) Copyright © The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display.

45.1)

In the figure, the letter F best represents the

A) epidermis.

B) dermis.

C) subcutaneous tissue.

D) arrector pili muscle.

E) hair follicle.

45.2)

In the figure, the letter A best represents

A) a sweat gland.

B) a sebaceous gland.

C) the subcutaneous tissue.

D) an arrector pili muscle.

E) a hair follicle.

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46) Copyright © The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. Permission required for reproduction or display.

46.1)

In the figure, the letter A best represents the

A) nail bed.

B) nail root.

C) nail matrix.

D) free edge.

E) eponychium.

46.2)

The site of nail growth is at the structure labeled with the

A) letter A. B) letter B. C) letter C. D) letter D. E) letter E.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_11e 1) E 2) E 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) E 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) E 17) E 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) E 39) B 40) E 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) Section Break 45.1) B 45.2) B 46) Section Break 46.1) E 46.2) C

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CHAPTER 6 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or false? The nasal septum is a solid structure composed of a single bone. ⊚ ⊚

2)

True or false? Infection of the frontal sinus often causes a headache. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

True or false? The coccyx is part of the pelvic girdle. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

True or false? Cartilaginous joints are always diarthrotic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

5) Bone growth A) occurs through the deposition of new bone lamellae onto existing bone or other connective tissue.

B) at the epiphyseal plates causes increase in bone diameter.

C) causing an increase in the length of the bone is called appositional growth.

D) is accomplished by the osteoclasts.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6)

Bone remodeling

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A) is essential for maintaining blood calcium levels.

B) continues throughout the life span of the individual.

C) is accomplished by the actions of the osteoclasts and osteoblasts.

D) is controlled by the actions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

7)

In adults, which of the following represents a set of fused bones?

A) Femur B) Temporal bone C) Radius D) Sacral bone E) Tibia

8) What are the most effective preventive measures to reduce the effects of aging on the skeletal system?

A) Decreasing physical activity and the amount of stress on the bones.

B) Increasing physical activity.

C) Ingesting dietary calcium with a vitamin D supplement.

D) Decreasing dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D. E) Both "increasing physical activity" and "ingesting dietary calcium with a vitamin D supplement" are correct.

9)

The functions of the skeletal system include all of the following EXCEPT A) support and protection.

B) movement and leverage.

C) transport of materials via its fluid matrix.

D) blood cell production.

E) storage of minerals.

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10)

The skeletal system aids in movement by A) contracting and generating tension.

B) acting as points of attachment for muscle to provide leverage.

C) releasing the energy needed for muscle contraction.

D) providing a site for blood cell production.

E) All of the choices are correct.

11)

The extracellular matrix of bone

A) contains collagen and minerals.

B) has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite).

C) is entirely composed of proteoglycans.

D) Both "contains collagen and minerals" and "has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite)" are correct.

E) Both "has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite)" and "is entirely composed of proteoglycans" are correct.

12)

Bones is a type of A) cartilage.

B) epithelial tissue.

C) muscle tissue.

D) connective tissue.

E) multi-cellular membrane.

13)

The extracellular matrix of cartilage may contain

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A) primarily collagen fibers.

B) collagen fibers and minerals.

C) collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and proteoglycans.

D) primarily elastic fibers.

E) chondrocytes.

14)

The extracellular matrix of tendons and ligaments is made up of A) primarily collagen fibers.

B) collagen and minerals.

C) collagen and proteoglycan.

D) osteocytes.

E) chondrocytes.

15)

During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in length is the A) medullary cavity.

B) marrow.

C) epiphyseal plate.

D) endosteum.

E) periosteum.

16)

The outer surface of bone is covered by a connective tissue layer called the A) lamellae.

B) periosteum.

C) endosteum.

D) epiphysis.

E) diaphysis.

17)

A long bone

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A) has a medullary cavity in the diaphysis.

B) has red marrow and yellow marrow in its cavities.

C) has endosteum lining the medullary cavity.

D) has an epiphysis at each end.

E) All of the choices are correct.

18) Compact bone consists of cells called osteocytes located within spaces in the matrix called A) lamellae.

B) haversian canals.

C) canaliculi.

D) lacunae.

E) medullary cavities.

19) In compact bone, a haversian canal, with the lamellae and osteocytes surrounding it is called a(n) A) lacunae.

B) osteon.

C) canaliculi.

D) spongy bone.

E) medullary cavities.

20)

The interconnecting rods or plates of bone in spongy bone are called A) osteocytes.

B) trabeculae.

C) haversian canals.

D) haversian systems.

E) epiphyses.

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21) Corey’s A&P teacher used the analogy of managing a checking account to illustrate the concept of calcium homeostasis. She said that certain aspects are like “earning money,” “spending money,” and “saving money.” Which role does the skeletal system play in this analogy?

A) The skeletal system is like the process of earning money, because it is the source of new calcium to the body.

B) The skeletal system is like the process of spending money, because it is the area where calcium ions are removed from the body.

C) The skeletal system is like the process of saving money, because it is the area where existing calcium ions can be stored or removed when needed.

22)

When bone growth in length stops, A) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the epiphyseal

line.

B) the bone of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by cartilage and is called the articular cartilage.

C) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the periosteum.

D) the bone of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by cartilage and is called the endosteum.

E) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the lamellar line.

23)

The periosteum A) contains blood vessels and nerves.

B) contains osteoblasts.

C) is composed of dense connective tissue.

D) covers the outer surface of bones.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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24)

Trabeculae A) add strength to the bone without adding weight.

B) are found primarily in spongy bone.

C) consist of several lamellae with osteocytes between the lamellae.

D) have no central canals or blood vessels.

E) All of the choices are correct.

25) Which of the following shows the path of nutrients needed by the osteocytes in compact bone?

A) Osteocytes → lacuna → blood vessels in central canals → diffusion through the canaliculi → blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum → general circulation B) Osteocytes → lacuna → diffusion through the canaliculi → blood vessels in central canals → blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum → general circulation C) Blood vessels in central canals → blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum → diffusion through the canaliculi → lacuna → osteocyte D) Blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum → blood vessels in central canals → diffusion through the canaliculi → lacuna → osteocyte E) Blood vessels in periosteum → direct diffusion through the hard, ossified matrix → osteocyte

26)

Intramembranous ossification A) occurs in the bones of the skull.

B) is the process that produces most of the skeletal system.

C) occurs when bones develop from cartilage models.

D) occurs when osteoblasts invade the spaces left by dying cartilage cells.

E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the nasal septum?

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A) Vomer B) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone C) Cartilage forming the anterior part D) Nasal conchae

28)

Which of these statements about bone growth is NOT correct?

A) Bone growth can occur beneath the periosteum or in the epiphyseal plate.

B) Growth at the epiphyseal plate is responsible for the increase in length of long bones.

C) Bone growth occurs primarily because osteoclasts start forming new bone.

D) In the epiphyseal plate, dying chondrocytes are replaced by osteoblasts.

E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

Which of these statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?

A) Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.

B) As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.

C) Bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body.

D) The zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus.

E) Both "Bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body" and "The zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus" are correct."

30)

Which of the following does NOT occur during endochondral ossification?

A) Chondrocytes in the cartilage model enlarge, and then die.

B) The cartilage is calcified.

C) A medullary cavity is formed as the osteoblasts remove bone and calcified cartilage.

D) A primary ossification center forms in the center of the diaphysis as blood vessels and osteoblasts invade the calcified cartilage.

E) The presence of blood vessels in the outer surface of the future bone causes some of the unspecified connective tissue cells on the surface to become osteoblasts.

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31)

Which of the following bones were likely produced through endochondral ossification?

A) Femur B) Frontal C) Parietal D) Temporal E) None of the choices are correct.

32) Which of these anatomical terms for bone features is NOT correctly matched with its description?

A) Condyle—Smooth, rounded end of bone where it forms a joint with another bone B) Tubercle or Tuberosity—knob or enlargement C) Process—Prominent indentation D) Head—Enlarged (often rounded) end E) Facet—Small, flattened articular surface

33)

Which of these bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) Skull B) Ribs C) Sternum D) Clavicle E) Hyoid

34)

The joint uniting the parietal and temporal bones is the

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A) lambdoid suture.

B) coronal suture.

C) temporomandibular joint.

D) mastoid suture.

E) squamous suture.

35)

The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the A) maxilla and mandible.

B) zygomatic and mandible.

C) maxilla and zygomatic.

D) maxilla and frontal.

E) frontal and mandible.

36)

Which of these statements about the skull is TRUE? A) The external auditory canal is a canal in the temporal bone.

B) The zygomatic arch consists of joined processes between the frontal and zygomatic

bones.

C) The nasal conchae are bones that form the nasal septum.

D) The mastoid process is a prominent lump just anterior to the ear.

E) The bridge of the nose is formed by the frontal bone.

37)

__________ ribs attach directly to the sternum by means of costal cartilages.

A) Floating B) False C) True

38) Andrew is suffering from a sinus infection. He is experiencing pain just below his eyes.

Which paranasal sinus is most affected by the infection?

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A) Frontal B) Maxillary C) Parietal D) Sphenoid E) Ethmoid

39) Which of these bones or bone parts of the skull is/are correctly matched with their function?

A) Sella turcica—Contains pituitary gland B) Nasal conchae—Increase surface area in the nasal cavity C) Paranasal sinuses—Decrease weight and act as resonating chambers D) Hyoid bone—Serves as point of attachment for neck and tongue muscles E) All of the choices are correct.

40)

The palate

A) separates the nasal cavity from the mouth.

B) consists of a hard palate and a soft palate.

C) is a point of attachment for tongue muscles.

D) is formed by the palatine and sphenoid bones.

E) Both "separates the nasal cavity from the mouth" and "consists of a hard palate and a soft palate" are correct."

41) Which of these sections of the vertebral column is matched with its correct number of vertebrae?

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A) Thoracic—7 vertebrae.

B) Cervical—12 vertebrae.

C) Sacral—5 vertebrae fused into one sacrum.

D) Lumbar—8 vertebrae.

E) Coccygeal—2 vertebrae fused into one coccyx.

42)

Which of these sections of the vertebral column curve posteriorly?

A) Cervical curvature and lumbar curvature B) Thoracic curvature and cervical curvature C) Thoracic curvature and lumbar curvature D) lumbar curvature and sacrum (with coccyx) E) Thoracic curvature and sacrum (with coccyx)

43)

Which of the following bones is NOT part of the pelvic girdle?

A) Sacrum B) Femur C) Left hip bone D) Right hip bone

44)

When classifying a joint based on function, which characteristic is most important?

A) Type of connective tissue between bones.

B) Whether or not hyaline cartilage is present.

C) Range of motion.

D) Type of ossification that formed the bones.

E) All of the choices are correct.

45)

The pectoral girdle

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A) attaches the lower limb to the body.

B) consists of the clavicle and scapula.

C) is part of the axial skeleton.

D) is attached to the body only where the clavicle attaches to the vertebrae.

E) All of the choices are correct.

46)

The scapula A) has a depression called the glenoid cavity where the head of the humerus articulates.

B) has a coracoid process to which arm and chest muscles attach.

C) has an acromion process to which the clavicle attaches.

D) has a ridge, called the spine, on the posterior surface.

E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

Which of these statements concerning the appendicular styloid processes is TRUE?

A) A styloid process is located on the proximal end of the ulna.

B) The styloid processes serve as points of attachment for forearm muscles.

C) A styloid process is located on the head of the radius.

D) The styloid processes are located on the radius and ulna where they articulate with the wrist.

E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

Which of these statements concerning the upper limb is TRUE? A) The hand is composed of 5 metacarpals.

B) Each digit is composed of 4 phalanges.

C) The wrist is composed of 10 carpal bones.

D) The head of the ulna is closer to the thumb than is the distal end of the radius.

E) Epicondyles on the radius and ulna provide attachment sites for forearm muscles.

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49)

The hip bones A) are part of the pectoral girdle.

B) are formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and femur.

C) each have a large hole called the greater trochanter.

D) are joined together posteriorly by the pubic symphysis.

E) join the sacrum at the sacroiliac joint.

50) You are a forensic scientist who has just been given a skeleton to examine. You need to determine if the victim was male or female. Which of the following characteristics of the pelvic girdle is consistent with the police hypothesis that the victim was female?

A) The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped.

B) The sub-pubic angle is greater than 90 degrees.

C) The sacral promontory projects anteriorly.

D) Ischial tuberosities are turned medially.

E) Ischial spines are relatively close together.

51) Large points of muscle attachment near the proximal end of the femur are called __________.

A) epicondyles B) a malleolus C) the acetabulum D) the trochanters E) the patellas

52)

Fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called __________.

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A) sutures B) synovial joints C) gomphoses D) cartilaginous joints E) syndesmoses

53)

Which of these statements about synovial joints is correct?

A) Articular cartilage covers articular surfaces of bones.

B) Synovial joints contain synovial fluid.

C) The synovial membrane may extend as a pocket or sac, called a bursa.

D) The joint cavity is enclosed by a joint capsule.

E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

Which of these joints is a saddle joint?

A) Knee joint B) Shoulder joint C) Articular processes between vertebrae D) Thumb joint E) Joint between occipital condyles and the atlas

55) You turn the doorknob clockwise with your right hand to open the door. The movement your hand makes is __________.

A) extension B) flexion C) adduction D) pronation E) supination

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56)

Which of these bones touches all of the others?

A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Sphenoid D) Parietal E) Maxillary

57) After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron was given a choice of which vertebrae to fuse together—that is, he could leave only one articulation unfused. He decided to choose the fusion that would still allow him to shake his head “no.” His choice was to leave the __________unfused.

A) atlas to axis joint B) atlas to occipital condyles articulation C) articulation between C2 and C3 D) articulation between C6 and C7

58)

Which of these movements would be needed to bend over and touch your big toe?

A) Extension of arms B) Extension of forearms C) Flexion at the waist D) Both "Extension of forearms" and "Flexion at the waist" are correct.

E) Both "Extension of arms" and "Flexion at the waist" are correct.

59) A blow to the shoulder often breaks the clavicle, but very seldom breaks the scapula.

Why?

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A) The scapula is larger than the clavicle.

B) The clavicle provides the only bony attachment of the pectoral girdle to the body.

C) The scapula is more protected by muscle.

D) When the body is moving forward, the clavicle is more likely to be struck than the scapula.

E) All of the choices are correct.

60) John was running downfield with the football. As he tried to avoid a tackle, he stepped in a hole and his foot was twisted under him with great force. The x-ray shows a “broken ankle.”

The structure that is most likely broken is the A) calcaneus bone.

B) the patella.

C) a bone in the second metatarsal.

D) the lateral malleolus of the fibula.

E) the head of the fibula.

61)

During the process of bone repair, immobilization of the bone is most useful during

A) the last 2 weeks, as bone remodeling occurs.

B) the first 4 to 6 hours, until the blood clot forms.

C) the first 2 weeks, until the callus has formed.

D) the first 4 to 6 weeks, until spongy bone has closed the break.

E) the entire 2 to 3 months that it takes for compact bone to replace the compact bone that was originally lost.

62)

A greenstick fracture is one specific example of a(n) __________ fracture.

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A) comminuted B) impacted C) incomplete D) compound E) oblique

63)

The bone disease osteoporosis is associated with A) decreased amount of mineral in the bone.

B) increased formation of abnormal tissue in synovial joints followed by inflammation.

C) overall decrease in the total amount of bone tissue.

D) too little activity in osteoblasts.

E) increased uric acid being deposited in joint capsules.

64)

Vertebrae are best classified as A) long bones.

B) short bones.

C) flat bones.

D) irregular bones.

65)

Carpals and tarsals are best classified as __________ bones.

A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular

66)

The ulna and radius are best classified as __________ bones.

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A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular

67)

The ribs and sternum are best classified as __________ bone.

A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular

68)

The maxilla is a(n) __________ bone.

A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular bone

69)

The anatomical term for a cavity found inside bone is __________.

A) canal or meatus B) fissure C) fossa D) sinus E) foramen

70)

__________ is the anatomical term for a depression found in bone.

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A) Canal or meatus B) Fissure C) Fossa D) Sinus E) Foramen

71)

A __________ is a hole found in bone.

A) canal or meatus B) fissure C) fossa D) sinus E) foramen

72)

The anatomical term for a tunnel in bone is A) canal or meatus.

B) fissure.

C) fossa.

D) sinus.

E) foramen.

73)

The __________ is (are) the opening through which the spinal cord connects to the brain.

A) mandibular fossa B) foramen magnum C) nasolacrimal canal D) optic foramen E) orbital fissures

74)

The __________ is (are) the opening that passes from the orbit to the nasal cavity.

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A) mandibular fossa B) foramen magnum C) nasolacrimal canal D) optic foramen E) orbital fissures

75) The __________ is (are) the opening through which the optic nerve passes into the cranial vault.

A) mandibular fossa B) foramen magnum C) nasolacrimal canal D) optic foramen E) orbital fissures

76) The __________ is (are) the opening(s) through which nerves or blood vessels communicate with the orbit.

A) mandibular fossa B) foramen magnum C) nasolacrimal canal D) optic foramen E) superior and inferior orbital fissures

77) The __________ is (are) the depression where the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.

A) mandibular fossa B) foramen magnum C) nasolacrimal canal D) optic foramen E) orbital fissures

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78)

The __________ is (are) the weight-bearing portion of a vertebra.

A) articular facets B) vertebral canal C) vertebral body D) spinous process E) intervertebral foramina

79)

The lumps that can be felt down the midline of the back are the A) articular facets.

B) vertebral canals.

C) vertebral bodies.

D) spinous processes.

E) intervertebral foramina.

80)

The location where vertebrae join each other is (are) the A) articular facets.

B) vertebral canal.

C) vertebral body.

D) spinous process.

E) intervertebral foramina.

81)

The locations where spinal nerves exit the vertebrae is (are) the A) articular facets.

B) vertebral canal.

C) vertebral body.

D) spinous process.

E) intervertebral foramina.

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82)

The __________ is (are) the opening through which the spinal cord passes.

A) articular facets B) vertebral canal C) vertebral body D) spinous process E) intervertebral foramina

83)

The extracellular matrix of bone does NOT include

A) collagen fibers.

B) elastic fibers.

C) calcium.

D) phosphate.

E) Bone includes collagen fibers, elastic fibers, calcium, and phosphate in its extracellular matrix.

84) __________ marrow consists of bone-forming cells and is found in the __________ of adults.

A) Yellow; medullary cavity B) Yellow; proximal epiphyses C) Red; medullary cavity D) Red; proximal epiphyses

85)

The long bones of the body form through __________ ossification.

A) chondralmembranous B) intramembranous C) endochondral D) endomembranous

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86)

The cells that actively break down osseous tissue are __________.

A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteoprogenitor cells D) osteocytes

87) Regina is a vegan (a vegetarian who does not eat any animal products, not even dairy or eggs). Regina has suffered a series of unexplained bone fractures. Her doctor completed some tests and discovered that her levels of parathyroid hormone are elevated. Which of the following hypotheses would be the most plausible explanation of Regina’s medical issues?

A) The lack of meat in her diet is causing anemia and preventing bone growth.

B) The lack of dairy in her diet has severely restricted the amount of calcium she has available. This deficiency stimulated the release of PTH, which caused more of the calcium stores in her bones to be mobilized. The deficiency has gone on for so long that she has weakened her bones.

C) The lack of dairy in her diet has severely restricted the amount of calcium she has available. This deficiency stimulated the release of calcitonin, which caused more of the calcium stores in her bones to be mobilized. The deficiency has gone on for so long that she has weakened her bones.

D) Her parathyroid glands are malfunctioning and producing too much calcitonin thereby stimulating osteoblast activity and weakening her bones.

88) If blood calcium levels are too high, __________ activity decreases, while __________ activity increases.

A) osteoclast; osteoblast B) osteoblast; osteoclast C) osteocyte; osteoclast D) osteoclast; osteon E) chondrocyte; osteon

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89) A person whose thyroid has been removed may have low levels of __________ and thus __________ blood calcium levels without replacement treatment.

A) parathyroid hormone; slightly higher B) parathyroid hormone; slightly lower C) calcitonin; slightly higher D) calcitonin; slightly lower E) melatonin; slightly higher

90)

Parathyroid hormone A) is secreted by the parathyroid glands.

B) causes an increase in the breakdown of bone.

C) increases the levels of blood calcium in the body.

D) indirectly stimulates osteoclast activity.

E) All of the choices are correct.

91)

__________ secretion results in reabsorption of calcium from the urine in the kidney.

A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroid hormone C) Vitamin D D) Cholecalciferol

92)

__________ is bone inflammation that is usually due to a bacterial infection.

A) Osteoporosis B) Osteomalacia C) Osteopetrosis D) Osteogenesis imperfecta E) Osteomyelitis

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93)

From the list below, pick the ONLY bone that is unpaired.

A) Sphenoid B) Zygomatic C) Nasal D) Maxilla E) Temporal

94)

This figure illustrates

A) the atlas.

B) the axis.

C) a general cervical vertebrae (C3–C7).

D) a general thoracic vertebrae.

E) a general lumbar vertebrae.

95) While walking through a dark house, you hit the outside of your ankle on a bedpost.

More than likely you have hit the __________, which is a component of the __________.

A) calcaneus; tibia B) calcaneus; fibula C) lateral malleolus; tibia D) lateral malleolus; fibula

96)

The joint between a tooth and its socket is an example of a __________ joint.

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A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial

97)

__________ joints, a type of synovial joint, move only in one plane.

A) Hinge B) Ball-socket C) Ellipsoidal D) Pivot E) Saddle

98) __________ is a unique movement that occurs at the thumb as it moves toward the little finger.

A) Pronation B) Eversion C) Opposition D) Circumduction E) Excursion

99)

Which of the following does NOT occur as you age?

A) The bone matrix becomes more brittle due to the reduction in the collagen-to-mineral

ratio.

B) The total amount of matrix in bone decreases.

C) Osteoclast activity outstrips osteoblast activity.

D) There is a decreased likelihood of bone fractures.

E) The production of synovial fluid decreases.

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100) Joints are classified structurally according to the __________ that binds them, and functionally according to their __________.

A) fluid-filled membrane; strength B) bone; size C) connective tissue; degree of motion D) ligament; location

101)

Which of the following cartilaginous joints has fibrocartilage connecting the bones?

A) Epiphyseal plate B) Pubic symphysis C) Intervertebral disks D) None of the choices are correct.

102)

The __________ of a synovial joint provides a smooth surface where the two bones meet.

A) joint capsule B) bursae C) articular cartilage D) tendon sheath

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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

103)

103.1)

The letter D on this figure is pointing to the __________.

A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) endosteum E) medullary cavity

103.2)

The letter B on this figure represents the __________.

A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) endosteum E) medullary cavity

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104)

104.1)

The structure designated by the letter A is the

A) articular facet.

B) transverse process.

C) vertebral foramen.

D) spinous process.

E) body.

104.2)

The structure designated by the letter B is the

A) articular facet.

B) transverse process.

C) vertebral foramen.

D) spinous process.

E) body.

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105)

105.1)

This figure illustrates the __________.

A) femur B) humerus C) radius D) ulna E) tibia

105.2)

The letter B in this figure represents the

A) medial epicondyle.

B) greater tubercle.

C) olecranon fossa.

D) trochlea.

E) deltoid tuberosity.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_11e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) A 6) E 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) E 24) E 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) E 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) E 40) E 41) C 42) E 43) B 44) C 45) E 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) E 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) E 54) D 55) E 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) D 59) E 60) D 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) E 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) E 77) A 78) C 79) D 80) A 81) E 82) B 83) B 84) D 85) C 86) B Version 1

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87) B 88) A 89) C 90) E 91) B 92) E 93) A 94) B 95) D 96) A 97) A 98) C 99) D 100) C 101) C 102) C 103) Section Break 103.1) C 103.2) A 104) Section Break 104.1) C 104.2) D 105) Section Break 105.1) B 105.2) C

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CHAPTER 7 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The __________ is the functional unit of skeletal muscle because it is the smallest portion of the skeletal muscle capable of __________.

A) muscle fiber; receiving a stimulus B) muscle fiber; contracting C) sarcomere; contracting D) sarcomere; receiving a stimulus E) myofibril; contracting

2)

Acetylcholine A) is the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction.

B) is broken down by acetylcholinesterase.

C) binds to receptors on the muscle cell membrane.

D) causes an influx of sodium ions into the muscle cell when bound to its receptor.

E) All of the choices are correct.

3) The myosin myofilaments are anchored in the center of the sarcomere by the __________.

A) Z disks B) A band C) M line D) I band E) H zone

4)

The actin myofilaments are attached to the __________.

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A) Z disks B) A band C) M line D) I band E) H zone

5)

Muscle fibers A) have a relatively high metabolic rate.

B) depend upon large amounts of O 2.

C) contain large numbers of mitochondria.

D) preferentially use aerobic respiration.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6)

Connective tissue that surrounds the fasciculi is called __________.

A) perimysium B) endomysium C) fascia D) fasciculi E) microfibrils

7)

Actin myofilaments A) resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.

B) are attached to Z lines at one end of the sarcomere.

C) form the I band where actin overlaps with myosin myofilaments.

D) form the epimysium.

E) All the choices are correct.

8)

A muscle fiber will not respond to a stimulus until that stimulus reaches

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A) tetany.

B) relaxation level.

C) rigor mortis level.

D) threshold level.

E) recruitment level.

9) Which of the following characteristics would establish conclusively that muscle tissue being examined was skeletal muscle tissue?

A) Many nuclei per cell B) Striations present C) Contracts spontaneously D) Intercalated disks present E) Under involuntary control

10)

The __________ is attached to bones via tendons.

A) myofilament B) myofibril C) muscle fiber D) muscle fasciculus E) whole skeletal muscle

11)

The __________ is a group of muscle fibers surrounded by perimysium A) myofilament B) myofibril C) muscle fiber D) muscle fascicle E) whole skeletal muscle

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12)

A _________ is a single muscle cell.

A) myofilament B) myofibril C) muscle fiber D) muscle fasciculus E) whole skeletal muscle

13) The specific molecules that provide calcium-binding sites on actin are __________ molecules.

A) troponin B) tropomyosin C) titin D) myosin

14)

The ____________ consists of only actin myofilaments.

A) A band B) I band C) H zone D) M line E) Z disk

15)

The __________ is the smooth ER of a muscle fiber and stores calcium ions.

A) sarcolemma B) sarcoplasmic reticulum C) sarcomere D) sarcoplasm E) T tubules

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16)

Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of aging on the muscular system?

A) Reduction in muscle mass B) Increase in response time to stimulus C) Reduction in number of motor units D) Reduction in surface area of the neuromuscular junction E) Increase in the number of myofilaments in each fiber

17)

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) The resting potential of a cell develops because the cell membrane is more permeable to K + than it is to most other ions.

B) The concentration of Na + is higher inside the cell than outside.

C) Potassium ions only diffuse down their gradient until the charge difference across the membrane is great enough (electrical equilibrium) to prevent additional diffusion.

D) Potassium’s tendency to diffuse out is opposed by the attractive forces of the negative charge inside the cell.

E) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the normal resting concentrations of ions on either side of the cell membrane.

18) What would happen if the cell membrane suddenly became impermeable to potassium ions (K +)?

A) The outside of the cell membrane would become more positively charged.

B) The cell would become more negatively charged.

C) The cell would become more positively charged.

D) The cell would depolarize.

E) Both “the outside of the cell membrane would become more positively charged” and “the cell would depolarize” are correct.

19) In a resting cell, K + ions have a higher concentration __________ the cell, which results in the net movement of K + __________ of the cell.

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A) inside; out B) outside; into C) inside; into D) outside; out

20)

The normal resting cell membrane is the most permeable to A) sodium ions.

B) potassium ions.

C) negatively charged proteins.

D) calcium ions.

E) magnesium ions.

21) What are the relative concentrations of Na +, K + and dissolved proteins in the intracellular solution (i.e., cytosol) as opposed to concentrations in the extracellular fluid?

A) ↑ Na +, ↑ K +, and ↑ dissolved proteins inside the cell B) ↑ Na +, ↓ K +, and ↑ dissolved proteins inside the cell C) ↓ Na +, ↑ K +, and ↑ dissolved proteins inside the cell D) ↓ Na +, ↓ K +, and ↓ dissolved proteins inside the cell

22) Curare is a poison used by South American Indians. It is known to bind to ACh receptors, preventing the binding of ACh. What effect would curare have on muscle function?

A) The muscle fibers would contract uncontrollably and continually.

B) The muscle fibers would not contract, because the Na + channels, which cause depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane, are never signaled to open.

C) The presynaptic release of ACh would be inhibited, therefore the muscle would not contract.

D) The action of acetylcholinesterase would be inhibited, causing increased contraction.

E) Both “the muscle fibers would contract uncontrollably and continually” and “the action of acetylcholinesterase would be inhibited causing increased contraction” are correct.

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23) Caffeine aids in the movement of calcium ions across cell membranes by both making it easier for the Ca 2+ channels to open and by holding the channels open longer. How would the administration of caffeine to a muscle fiber affect its contraction?

A) Caffeine would increase the strength of the fiber’s contraction.

B) Caffeine would allow more cross-bridges to form in the fiber.

C) Caffeine would increase the duration of the fiber’s contraction.

D) At high enough levels, caffeine would cause the muscle fiber to contract without a signal from the associated motor neuron.

E) All of the choices are correct.

24)

In skeletal muscle contraction and relaxation, Ca2+

A) bind to myosin myofilaments.

B) are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport.

C) are released from the T tubules by active transport.

D) provide the energy for muscle contraction.

E) Both “ bind to myosin myofilaments” and “are returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport” are correct.

25)

Aerobic respiration A) requires oxygen.

B) breaks down glucose.

C) produces ATP, CO 2, and H 2O. D) takes place in mitochondria located within the muscle fiber sarcoplasm.

E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Aerobic respiration

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A) results in the breakdown of glucose to yield ATP and lactate.

B) is much less efficient than anaerobic respiration.

C) can use fatty acids and amino acids to generate ATP. D) can occur much faster than anaerobic respiration.

E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

ATP A) attaches to the myosin myofilaments.

B) provides energy for the movement of the cross-bridges.

C) is required for muscle relaxation.

D) releases part of its energy as heat.

E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

A high-energy molecule that can be quickly used to produce ATP is __________.

A) creatine phosphate B) glucose C) carbon dioxide.

D) lactate.

E) water

29)

Creatine phosphate A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.

B) can replace ATP in binding myosin molecules during contraction.

C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.

D) is formed only during strenuous exercise.

E) causes the build up of lactic acid.

30)

Cardiac muscle

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A) is under involuntary control.

B) has long, cylindrical cells.

C) has many nuclei per cell.

D) has no striations.

E) All of the choices are correct.

31)

Smooth muscle A) has no distinct sarcomeres.

B) contracts more slowly than skeletal muscle.

C) may be autorhythmic.

D) does not develop an oxygen deficit.

E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

The biceps brachii muscle and the triceps brachii muscle A) are synergists.

B) are antagonists.

C) both flex the forearm.

D) are both antagonists and flexors of the forearm.

E) are both synergists and flexors of the forearm.

33)

If someone winks at you, they are using their A) zygomaticus muscles.

B) occipitofrontalis muscle.

C) orbicularis oculi.

D) depressor anguli oris.

E) orbicularis oris.

34)

Which of the following muscles are used to elevate the larynx?

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A) The masseter B) The soft palate muscles C) The hyoid muscles D) The pharyngeal constrictors E) The sternocleidomastoid

35)

The primary muscle(s) responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration is/are A) the diaphragm.

B) the external intercostals.

C) the rectus abdominis.

D) the internal intercostals.

E) the erector spinae.

36)

Which of these muscles is NOT a fixator of the scapula?

A) Latissimus dorsi B) Trapezius C) Levator scapulae D) Serratus anterior E) Pectoralis minor

37)

The major abductor of the upper limb is the __________.

A) trapezius B) latissimus dorsi C) deltoid D) pectoralis major E) biceps brachii

38)

The anterior hip muscle that flexes the thigh is the __________.

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A) iliopsoas B) gluteus medius C) tensor fascia latae D) gluteus maximus E) entire gluteal group

39)

The hip muscle commonly used as a site for injection is the __________.

A) gluteus maximus B) gluteus medius C) iliopsoas D) tensor fascia latae E) hamstring muscle

40)

An anterior thigh muscle that extends the leg is the __________.

A) sartorius B) quadriceps femoris C) hamstring group D) adductor group E) iliopsoas

41) Pull-ups are easier to do with the hands supinated than with the hands pronated. An explanation for this is A) the biceps brachii is attached to the radial tuberosity.

B) the biceps brachii supinates the forearm.

C) if the forearm is pronated, the biceps brachii is ineffective in flexing the forearm.

D) the brachialis is a much smaller muscle than the biceps brachii.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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42) Dr. Davis, your anatomy and physiology instructor, is conducting a field trip, and notices a dog approaching a fire hydrant. Always alert to instructional opportunities, he excitedly says, “Now watch as the dog utilizes his__________ and __________ muscles to lift his leg.”

A) iliopsoas; gluteus medius B) gluteus maximus; tensor fascia latae C) gluteus maximus; adductor longus D) iliopsoas; quadriceps femoris E) gluteus medius; adductor longus

43)

Muscles are named according to their: A) location or number of heads.

B) function or action.

C) origin or insertion point.

D) size or shape.

E) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Organophosphates cause spastic paralysis because A) their action produces a constant stimulus to contract.

B) they inhibit the activity of acetylcholinesterase.

C) they prevent the degradation of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction.

D) they prevent the muscles from relaxing.

E) All of the choices are correct.

45)

A condition known as flaccid paralysis

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A) arises because the muscle is incapable of contracting in response to nervous stimulation.

B) arises because acetylcholinesterase levels are artificially low.

C) arises because the muscle is incapable of relaxing.

D) arises because acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction never breaks down.

E) All of the choices are correct.

46)

Muscles that work together to cause movement are called __________.

A) origins B) insertions C) synergists D) antagonists E) prime movers

47) For any given movement, the __________ is a muscle in a group that plays a major role in the desired movement.

A) origin B) insertion C) agonist D) antagonist E) prime mover

48)

The muscle that works in opposition to another muscle is the __________.

A) origin B) insertion C) agonist D) antagonist E) prime mover

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49) The __________ is the end of a muscle attached to a bone undergoing the greatest movement.

A) origin B) insertion C) agonist D) antagonist E) prime mover

50) The muscles of domesticated chickens represent the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fiber well. Chickens do not fly long distances but rather have burst of flight so they can quickly move away from danger. The muscles for flight (breast muscles) are lighter in color than the muscles for walking and running (leg muscles). Which types of muscle fibers are found in each area?

A) Muscles for flight are composed primarily of slow-twitch muscle fibers, and muscles for walking and running are composed primarily of fast-twitch muscle.

B) Muscles for flight are composed primarily of fast-twitch muscle fibers, and muscles for walking and running are composed primarily of slow-twitch muscle.

C) Both muscle groups are composed of an even ratio of fast-twitch and slow-twitch fibers.

51)

The characteristic that allows muscles to have a slow, smooth, sustained contraction is A) the all-or-none response.

B) temporal summation.

C) recruitment of motor units.

D) anaerobic respiration.

E) rigor mortis.

52) The condition in which a muscle remains contracted between stimuli without relaxing is called a/an ___________.

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A) recruitment B) tetanus C) the all-or-none response D) a motor unit E) the lag phase

53) Arrange the following events in the correct order that they occur during skeletal muscle contraction.

1) Calcium ions move along their concentration gradient.

2) Action potential occurs in cell membrane.

3) Ion channels open in sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4) Action potential moves along T tubules.

5) Actin to myosin cross-bridges form.

A) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 B) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 C) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 D) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

54)

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) When muscles contract, the actin myofilaments are pulled toward the M lines (the center), thus decreasing the overall sarcomere length.

B) During muscle contraction, the actual length of the actin and myosin molecules changes.

C) The sarcolemma is a specialized plasma membrane of a muscle cell.

D) A muscle cell is also called a muscle fiber.

E) Normally, skeletal muscle fibers do not contract unless they are stimulated by motor neurons.

55) A single motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates is called a __________.

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A) neuromuscular junction B) synaptic cleft C) motor unit D) synapse E) presynaptic terminal

56)

Contractibility is the ability of skeletal muscle to A) shorten with force.

B) lengthen passively.

C) respond to a stimulus.

D) recoil to their original resting length.

E) be stretched.

57)

Excitability is the ability of skeletal muscle to A) shorten with force.

B) lengthen passively.

C) respond to a stimulus.

D) recoil to its original resting length.

E) be stretched.

58)

Extensibility is the ability of skeletal muscle to A) shorten with force.

B) respond to a stimulus.

C) recoil to its original resting length.

D) be stretched.

E) create heat energy through contraction.

59)

Elasticity is the ability of skeletal muscle to

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A) shorten with force.

B) lengthen passively.

C) respond to a stimulus.

D) recoil to its original resting length.

E) generate new collagen fibers.

60)

Which of the following motor units would allow for greater muscular control?

A) A motor unit made up of a motor neuron and five muscle fibers.

B) A motor unit made up of a motor neuron and ten muscle fibers.

C) A motor unit made up of a motor neuron and twenty muscle fibers.

D) A motor unit made up of a motor neuron and one hundred muscle fibers.

E) A motor unit made up of a motor neuron and one thousand muscle fibers.

61) Which of the following muscles most likely contain motor units that are relatively small (motor neurons that innervate only a small number of muscle fibers each)?

A) Biceps femoris B) Trapezius C) Intrinsic hand muscles D) Latissimus dorsi E) Sternocleidomastoid

62)

A chemical that is considered an acetylcholine antagonist

A) increases the activity of acetylcholine.

B) decreases or prevents the activity of acetylcholine.

C) magnifies the effect of acetylcholine on the neuromuscular junction.

D) causes the release of acetylcholine.

E) Both “magnifies the effect of acetylcholine on the neuromuscular junction” and “causes the release of acetylcholine” are correct.

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63)

Satellite cells A) are undifferentiated cells below the endomysium.

B) can differentiate and divide into new functional muscle fibers.

C) are stimulated by the destruction of existing muscle fibers.

D) are stimulated by intensive strength training.

E) All of the choices are correct.

64)

In a neuromuscular junction, A) the presynaptic terminal is separated from the postsynaptic terminal by the synaptic

cleft.

B) the presynaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with sodium ions.

C) the presynaptic terminal contains receptor molecules for the neurotransmitter.

D) the neurotransmitter causes an action potential in the presynaptic terminal.

E) All of the choices are correct.

65) What ensures that one action potential in the neuron yields only one action potential in the skeletal muscle fibers of the stimulated motor unit and therefore only one contraction per fiber?

A) The amount of calcium that enters the presynaptic cell B) The rate of diffusion of acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft C) The number of muscle fibers that make up the motor unit D) Enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase E) All of the choices are correct.

66) Most types of nerve gas exert their effect by inactivating acetylcholinesterase. One of the antidotes for nerve gas is atropine, which is also a poison. Although it may seem strange to have one poison counteract the effects of another poison, which of the following suggestions might be accurate for the effect that atropine has on the neuromuscular junction?

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A) Atropine increases the production of acetylcholine in the synaptic vesicles.

B) Atropine increases the release of acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft.

C) Atropine increases the number of receptor sites for acetylcholine on the muscle cell membrane.

D) Atropine attaches to receptor sites for acetylcholine on the muscle cell membrane.

E) Atropine increases both the release of acetylcholine and the number of available receptor sites.

67) The __________ phase is the time between the application of a stimulus and the beginning of a contraction.

A) lag B) relaxation C) contraction D) refractory

68)

The constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time is __________.

A) potentialenergy B) muscle energy C) muscle tone D) myofibrilenergy

69) In __________ contraction the amount of tension increases during contraction, but the length of the muscle does not change.

A) eccentric B) isotonic C) isometric D) concentric

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70) While driving by an elementary school one cold winter day, Shawn noticed the students were jumping up and down or running in place. Remembering her days in anatomy and physiology class, she realized that what she learned in class about functions of muscle tissue was something these students knew already. Which statement best describes the function the students were intuitively using?

A) The students were jumping up and down and running in place to increase the contractions of smooth muscle to help move their breakfast along their digestive tracts.

B) The students were jumping up and down and running in place to ensure the cardiac muscle of their hearts continued to contract.

C) The students were jumping up and down and running in place so muscle contractions would generate heat to keep them warm in the cold environment.

D) None of the choices are correct.

71)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?

A) Communication B) Movement C) Storage of calcium ions D) Maintenance of posture

72) The darker color of a slow-twitch muscle fiber compared to a fast-twitch muscle fiber is due to A) the higher glycogen content.

B) the lower number of mitochondria.

C) the higher myoglobin content.

D) None of the choices are correct.

73)

Which of the following best represents an isotonic muscle contraction?

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A) Pushing against a brick wall B) Remaining standing for long periods of time C) Picking up a pencil D) All of the choices are correct.

74)

Which of the following muscle characteristic is important for maintain posture?

A) Elasticity B) Refractory period C) Muscle tone D) Treppe

75)

If someone smiles at you, they are using their A) zygomaticus muscles.

B) occipitofrontalis muscle.

C) orbicularis oculi.

D) depressor anguli oris.

E) orbicularis oris.

76)

Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in mastication?

A) The masseter B) The temporalis C) The hyoid muscles D) The pterygoid E) None of the choices are correct.

77)

The primary muscle group responsible for keeping the back straight is

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A) external intercostals.

B) erector spinae.

C) rectus abdominis.

D) internal intercostals.

E) external obliques.

78)

Which of the following statements is true about the aging effects on skeletal muscle?

A) Muscle mass decreases due to increasing numbers of fast-twitch fibers.

B) Motor unit size decreases with age.

C) An active lifestyle will not reduce the loss of muscle mass.

D) Increasing exercise can improve muscle activity in elderly people.

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

79)

79.1)

The area identified by letter A in this figure represents

A) the A band.

B) the M line.

C) a sarcomere.

D) the I band.

E) a Z disk.

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The area identified by letter B in this figure represents 22

A) the A band.

B) the M line.

C) a sarcomere.

D) the I band.

E) a Z disk.

80)

80.1)

The area identified by letter A in this figure represents the

A) action potential.

B) synaptic vesicles.

C) acetylcholine molecules.

D) synaptic cleft.

E) sodium ions.

80.2)

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The letter B in this figure represents

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A) action potential.

B) synaptic vesicles.

C) acetylcholine molecules.

D) synaptic cleft.

E) sodium ions.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_11e 1) C 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) E 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) E 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) E 24) B 25) E 26) C Version 1

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27) E 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) E 42) B 43) E 44) E 45) B 46) C 47) E 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) C 58) D 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) E 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) C 69) C 70) C 71) C 72) C 73) C 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) D 79) Section Break 79.1) C 79.2) A 80) Section Break 80.1) D 80.2) E

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CHAPTER 8 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following are major functions of the nervous system?

A) Receive sensory input B) Integrate information C) Maintain homeostasis D) Control muscles and glands E) All of the choices are correct.

2)

Leak ion channels A) open in response to changes in the membrane potential.

B) are always open.

C) open in response to neurotransmitters or other chemicals.

D) are closed until opened by specific signals.

E) are responsible for the generation of the action potential in neurons.

3)

Voltage-gated ion channels

A) open in response to changes in the membrane potential.

B) are always open.

C) open in response to neurotransmitters or other chemicals.

D) are responsible for the generation of the action potential in neurons.

E) Both ""open in response to changes in the membrane potential"" and ""are resonsible for the generation of the action potential in neurons"" are correct.

4)

Which of the following is not TRUE of K

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leak channels?

1

A) They are always open.

B) They are 50–100 times more prevalent than Na + leak channels.

C) They have the greatest contribution to the resting potential of the cell.

D) They are responsible for the depolarization phase of the action potential.

E) They allow K + ions to “leak” down their concentration gradient and out of the cell.

5)

Following neurotransmitter activation of chemically gated Na

+

channels,

A) the Na + channels open for a brief time, generating a local current.

B) the cell may reach threshold.

C) the inside of the membrane becomes more positive.

D) a local potential is generated.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6)

Local potentials A) are propagated down the length of the axon.

B) if strong enough, activate voltage-gated channels to initiate and action potential.

C) are another name for action potentials.

D) are produced by the brief influx of K + from the neuron.

E) are produced by the brief efflux of Na + from the neuron.

7)

Continuous propagation of the action potential

A) occurs in myelinated axons.

B) occurs primarily in unmyelinated axons.

C) is a function of the nodes of Ranvier.

D) is quicker than saltatory conduction.

E) Both "occurs in myelinated axons" and "is a function of the nodes of Ranvier" are correct.

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8) Which of the following statements about summation in the nervous system is INCORRECT? A) Summation of signals in neuronal pathways allows integration of multiple subthreshold changes in local potential.

B) Spatial summation occurs when local potentials originate from different locations on the postsynaptic neuron.

C) Spatial summation also occurs when local potentials overlap in time.

D) Both spatial and temporal summation can lead to either inhibition or stimulation, depending upon the signal type.

E) A single presynaptic action potential usually does not cause a sufficiently large postsynaptic local potential to cause the postsynaptic cell to reach threshold.

9)

The coccygeal plexus

A) supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the pelvic floor.

B) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the skin over the coccyx.

C) supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the lower leg and ankle.

D) supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the pelvic floor and supplies sensory cutaneous innervation to the skin over the coccyx.

E) All of the choices are correct.

10) Every morning Alessandra sits in a quiet room with her eyes closed and allows her brain to rest before the start of her busy workday. An EEG of her brain would most likely show a higher frequency of which of the following wave types?

A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Delta waves D) Theta waves E) Gamma waves

11) Sophia is taking her Anatomy and Physiology test. An EEG of her brain would most likely show a higher frequency of which of the following wave types?

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A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Delta waves D) Theta waves E) Gamma waves

12) Which of the following represents the usual progression of dominant brain activity in a normal person who is falling asleep?

A) Alpha waves→beta waves→theta waves B) Beta waves→alpha waves→delta waves C) Alpha waves→beta waves→delta waves D) Delta waves→alpha waves→theta waves E) Theta waves→alpha waves→beta waves

13) Which of the following brain-wave patterns is observed primarily in deep sleep, infants, and patients with severe brain disorders?

A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Delta waves D) Theta waves E) Gamma waves

14) If you are experiencing extreme frustration, your brain is more likely to exhibit which type of wave pattern?

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A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Delta waves D) Theta waves E) Gamma waves

15)

The limbic system A) influences long-term declarative memory.

B) influences motivation and mood.

C) influences visceral responses to emotions.

D) receives sensory input from the olfactory nerves.

E) All of the choices are correct.

16) The type of memory that is involved with the retaining of facts such as names or dates as well as associated emotional undertones is called __________ memory.

A) short-term B) declarative C) procedural D) implicit E) working

17) The type of memory that is involved with the development of motor skills such as riding a bike is called __________ memory.

A) short-term B) declarative C) procedural D) explicit E) working

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18) The type of memory that is retained for a few seconds or minutes and is limited by the number of pieces of information is called __________ memory.

A) working B) declarative C) procedural D) implicit E) explicit

19) In a neuron, short, branching cytoplasmic extensions that receive information and carry it to the cell body are called __________.

A) dendrites B) axons C) cell bodies D) axon hillock E) a myelin sheath

20)

Axons A) may branch to form collateral axons.

B) have an axon hillock which is devoid of Nissl bodies.

C) are often surrounded by a myelin sheath.

D) carry action potentials away from the cell body.

E) All of the choices are correct.

21)

The glial cells that form a myelin sheath around axons are

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A) the microglia.

B) the ependymal cells.

C) the Schwann cells.

D) the oligodendrocytes.

E) Both "the Schwann cells" and "the oligodendrocytes" are correct.

22) Gaps between segments of oligodendrocytes or between individual Schwann cells are called __________.

A) ganglia B) microglia C) nodes of Ranvier D) ependymal cells E) nerve tracts

23)

The nodes of Ranvier A) contain voltage-gated ion channels.

B) allow the current to flow easily between the extracellular fluid and the axon.

C) allow action potentials to propagate.

D) allow for saltatory conduction of the action potential.

E) All of the choices are correct.

24)

White matter of the central nervous system A) is formed by nerve cell bodies and their dendrites.

B) is formed by bundles of parallel axons with their myelin sheaths.

C) forms the cortex of the brain.

D) forms nuclei deep within the brain.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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25)

Clusters of neuron cell bodies located in the PNS are called __________.

A) nuclei B) nerve tracts C) nerves D) ganglia E) nodes of Ranvier

26)

An action potential occurs A) if the membrane potential reaches a threshold value.

B) when negative proteins and ions rapidly enter the cell.

C) when the inside of the cell becomes negative compared to the outside.

D) when there is repolarization.

E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

Action potentials

A) are propagated more rapidly in unmyelinated axons.

B) are triggered at the nodes of Ranvier.

C) occur in an all-or-none fashion.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Both "are triggered at the nodes of Ranvier" and "occur in an all-or-none fashion" are correct.

28)

Chemical substances released from the presynaptic terminal

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A) bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.

B) may inhibit or stimulate an action potential in the postsynaptic membrane depending on the receptors.

C) are normally broken down by enzymes located in the synapse.

D) are called neurotransmitters.

E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

A reflex A) is an involuntary reaction in response to a stimulus.

B) allows a person to react to stimuli more quickly.

C) is a form of negative feedback response.

D) conducts signals from the periphery to the spinal cord and then back to the periphery.

E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

Which of the following is NOT an essential component of a reflex arc?

A) Sensory receptor B) Afferent (sensory) neuron C) Spinal pathway D) Efferent (motor) neuron E) Effector organ

31)

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of A) the brain.

B) the spinal cord.

C) all the nerves and ganglia outside of the brain and spinal cord.

D) the white and grey matter and the spinal cord.

E) the white matter and the ganglia.

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32)

The dorsal (posterior) horns of the spinal cord contain A) sensory neurons.

B) motor neurons.

C) sympathetic autonomic neurons.

D) nerve tracts.

E) white matter.

33)

Dorsal roots of the spinal cord A) have dorsal root ganglia.

B) have efferent nerve processes.

C) contain neurons that carry action potentials away from the spinal cord.

D) unite with other dorsal roots to form spinal nerves.

E) All of the choices are correct.

34)

The spinothalamic tracts of the spinal cord A) are descending tracts.

B) carry pain, temperature, and light touch sensations.

C) carry proprioceptive information.

D) have upper and lower motor neurons.

E) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Descending tracts

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A) include the corticospinal tract.

B) contain axons of upper motor neurons that cross over to the other side of the spinal cord.

C) include the extrapyramidal tracts, which are involved in unconscious control of motor function.

D) contain upper motor neurons that modulate the activity of lower motor neurons.

E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Cranial nerves may contain A) sensory (afferent) neurons.

B) motor (efferent) neurons.

C) parasympathetic (efferent) neurons.

D) All of the choices are correct.

37)

Spinal nerves A) are organized into plexuses, except for T2 to T11.

B) contain both afferent and efferent fibers.

C) mostly exit between adjacent vertebrae.

D) have both autonomic and somatomotor efferent fibers.

E) All of the choices are correct.

38) Four mounds, found in the roof of the midbrain, that are involved in integration of hearing and visual reflexes are A) the medullary pyramids.

B) the reticular formation.

C) the pons.

D) the colliculi.

E) Both "the medullary pyramids" and "the pons" are correct.

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39) A group of nuclei scattered throughout the brainstem that play a role in arousing and maintaining consciousness are collectively called the __________.

A) reticular formation B) pons C) colliculi D) pyramids E) midbrain

40)

Which of these is NOT a component of the diencephalon?

A) Thalamus B) Pons C) Pineal gland D) Hypothalamus E) None of the choices are correct.

41) The part of the epithalamus that is an endocrine gland, is located posterior to the thalamus, and may influence puberty, is the __________.

A) reticular formation B) midbrain C) mammillary bodies D) pineal gland E) infundibulum

42) The numerous raised folds on the surface of each cerebral hemisphere are called __________.

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A) gyri B) sulci C) fissures D) lobes E) pineal bodies

43) Axons carrying general sensory information synapse on neurons in the __________, which is part of the diencephalon. From there, the information is relayed to the primary somatosensory cortex.

A) association areas B) primary sensory areas C) premotor area D) prefrontal area E) thalamus

44) A person decides to jump over a chair, plans how to do it, and then actually jumps over the chair. This sequence involved the following areas of the brain in which order?

1) prefrontal area 2) premotor area 3) primary motor area A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 2 C) 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1 E) 3, 1, 2

45) To understand a word that one hears, action potentials from the ear reach the auditory cortex, travel to the auditory association cortex, and are comprehended as meaningful words by

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A) Broca area (motor speech area).

B) Wernicke (sensory speech) area.

C) prefrontal area.

D) primary somatic sensory cortex.

E) aphasic area.

46) A whole series of neurons that are involved in the long-term retention of a given piece of information, thought, or idea is called A) short-term memory.

B) a memory engram.

C) an EEG. D) aphasia.

E) brain waves.

47)

The corpus callosum A) consists of a broad band of white tracts.

B) is found at the base of the longitudinal fissure.

C) is the largest of the commissures.

D) allows sensory information to be shared between the two cerebral hemispheres.

E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

The right cerebral hemisphere (in most people) A) controls the activity of, and receives sensory input from, the left side of the body.

B) contains the language centers.

C) is the analytical half of the cerebrum.

D) has a larger volume and mass than the left cerebral hemisphere.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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49)

Basal nuclei A) contain the corpus striatum.

B) contain the substantia nigra.

C) are important in planning, organizing, and coordinating motor movements.

D) are linked with the thalamus and cerebral cortex.

E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

The cerebellum

A) has no gyri or sulci.

B) acts as an agonist as one of its major functions.

C) is involved in balance, maintenance of muscle tone, and coordination of fine motor movement.

D) is stimulated by alcohol.

E) Both "acts as an agonist as one of its major functions" and "is involved in balance, maintenance of muscle tone, and coordination of fine motor movement" are correct.

51)

The thickest and most superficial of the meninges is the __________.

A) pia mater B) arachnoid layer C) dura mater D) choroid plexus E) dural sinus

52) A space within the dura mater that collects blood from the small veins of the brain is called the __________.

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A) epidural space B) subarachnoid space C) dural venous sinuses D) arachnoid layer E) meningeal space

53)

The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system A) has postganglionic cell bodies in chain ganglia or collateral ganglia.

B) has preganglionic neurons in cranial nerves or sacral spinal nerves.

C) when stimulated, slows the heart rate and the respiration rate.

D) includes preganglionic neurons that secrete norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter.

E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system A) is involved in involuntary activities, such as digestion, urination, and defecation.

B) has postganglionic cell bodies in terminal ganglia, located either near or within target

organs.

C) has both preganglionic and postganglionic neurons that secrete acetylcholine.

D) has preganglionic cell bodies located in cranial and sacral areas.

E) All of the choices are correct.

55) If a person whose corpus callosum has been severed is asked to find an object with his left hand, without looking, A) he probably could not find it.

B) he probably could find it, but could not say what it is.

C) he probably could find it and say what it is.

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56) Roger Romeo, always the confident and self-assured man-about-campus, is dismayed to find that every time he smells the perfume his first girlfriend wore, he gets tears in his eyes and a lump in his throat. What is the most likely physiological explanation for this involuntary response?

A) The frontal lobe controls motor activity, which is inhibited by smell.

B) The substantia nigra secretes dopamine, which inhibits his corpus striatum and causes emotional responses (i.e., acting like a “dope”).

C) The mammillary bodies in the hypothalamus produce strong reflexive physical and emotional responses to odors and memories.

D) The temporal lobe evaluates auditory and olfactory input.

E) The comparator function of the cerebellum compares old and new smells.

57) Why is it not normally possible for action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron to produce an action potential in the presynaptic neuron?

A) The axon terminals of presynaptic neurons have no acetylcholine receptors.

B) The presynaptic neurons do not have a resting membrane potential.

C) The synaptic cleft allows the diffusion of acetylcholine in one direction only.

D) The synaptic vesicles in the postsynaptic terminal are inactive.

E) Both "The presynaptic neurons do no have a resting membrane potential" and "The synaptic cleft allows the diffusion of acetylcholine in one direction only" are correct.

58) Jess and Charles both have been diagnosed with epilepsy. When Jess experiences a seizure he also experiences convulsions (involuntary muscle contractions). Charles does not experience convulsions with his seizures. Which of the following statements best explains the differences between their experiences?

A) Jess’s seizures affect somatic motor areas of the brain, but Charles’s seizures do not.

B) Jess’s seizures affect autonomic areas of the brain, but Charles’s seizures do not.

C) Charles has likely been misdiagnosed.

D) Jess is probably older than Charles.

E) None of the choices are correct.

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59)

The __________ consists of the brain and spinal cord.

A) central nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system E) afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

60) The __________ is the efferent subdivision that transmits impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

A) central nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system E) afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

61)

The __________ consists of nerves, receptors, ganglia, and synapses outside the CNS. A) central nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system E) afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

62) The __________ is the efferent subdivision that transmits impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands through thoracic spinal nerves.

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A) central nervous system B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system E) afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

63) Which type of cell is composed of one dendrite and one axon, and is found in the eye and nose?

A) Pseudo-unipolar neuron B) Schwann cell C) Bipolar neuron D) Multipolar neuron E) Pyramidal cell

64) Which type of cell has a single process that functions as an axon and a dendrite? Most sensory neurons fit into this classification.

A) Pseudo-unipolar neuron B) Schwann cell C) Bipolar neuron D) Multipolar neuron E) Pyramidal cell

65) Which type of cell has several dendrites and one axon? Most motor neurons fit into this classification.

A) Pseudo-unipolar neuron B) Schwann cell C) Bipolar neuron D) Multipolar neuron E) Pyramidal cell

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66) Saundra had a stroke and has loss the ability to move her right arm. Which area of the brain was most likely affected by the stroke?

A) The right parietal lobe of the cerebrum B) The right frontal lobe of the cerebrum C) The left parietal lobe of the cerebrum D) The left frontal lobe of the cerebrum E) The left temporal lobe

67) Reception and evaluation of most sensory information, such as touch, balance, and taste, are all associated with A) the temporal lobes.

B) the frontal lobes of cerebral cortex.

C) the parietal lobes of cerebral cortex.

D) the occipital lobes of the cerebral cortex.

E) the cerebellum.

68)

Which of the following would be an expected symptom of damage to the temporal lobe?

A) Impaired recognition of sounds B) Vision loss C) Lack of impulse control D) Loss of movement in the upper limbs E) Loss of pain perception

69) When a doctor gives a patient epidural anesthesia, the needle is inserted between which two structures?

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A) Pia mater and arachnoid mater B) Body of the vertebrae and dura mater C) Spinal cord and arachnoid mater D) Periosteum and dura mater E) Dorsal root ganglion and the transverse process

70)

The enteric nervous system

A) consists of the plexuses within the wall of the digestive tract.

B) includes sensory neurons, sympathetic and parasympathetic motor neurons, and enteric neurons.

C) is capable of monitoring and controlling the digestive tract independent of the CNS. D) stimulates glands to secrete substances into the digestive tract.

E) All of the choices are correct.

71)

The effects of aging on the nervous system include all of the following EXCEPT

A) a decrease in the number of sensory neurons.

B) a decrease in neuronal function.

C) a decrease in the number of motor neurons.

D) a decrease in the size and weight of the brain.

E) an increase in the flexibility of neuron plasma membranes, which increases the ability of the neurons to function.

72) Receptors in certain blood vessels detect changes in blood pressure. When blood pressure begins to rise, some of these receptors send signals to the medulla, which then sends signals to the heart to alter heart rate, thereby reducing blood pressure. Which function of the nervous system is illustrated in this example?

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A) Receiving sensory input B) Integrating information C) Controlling muscles and glands D) Maintaining homeostasis E) All of the choices are correct.

73)

In a __________ neural pathway, two or more neurons synapse with the same neuron.

A) sensory B) motor C) autonomic D) diverging E) converging

74) In a spinal cord, somatic motor neurons are located in the __________ horns of gray matter.

A) posterior B) lateral C) dorsal D) ventral

75) Sam suffered a spinal cord injury. When the emergency room physician evaluated the injury he determined that the injury only affected one side of Sam’s spinal cord and was isolated to only a few segments. Sam was unable to move her left arm as a result of the injury. Which region of the spinal cord was injured?

A) The posterior column and dorsal roots of several segments in the lumbar region.

B) The anterior gray horns and ventral roots of several segments in the cervical region.

C) The lateral gray horns and dorsal roots of several segments in the cervical region.

D) The anterior gray horns and the ventral roots of several segments in the lumbar region.

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76) The portion of the brain that is located posterior to the brainstem and inferior to the cerebrum is the __________.

A) thalamus B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) midbrain

77) The cortical areas that are immediately adjacent to the primary sensory areas and are involved in the process of recognition are called __________.

A) somatic motor areas B) association areas C) recognition areas D) premotor cortex

78) The motor neurons that extend from the ventral roots of spinal segments are in the __________ motor pathway.

A) upper B) lower C) primary D) secondary

79) Francis is suffering from dizziness. His family doctor has run several tests and believes the problem is damage to a cranial nerve. Which nerve is most likely damaged?

A) Optic nerve B) Vestibulocochlear nerve C) Glossopharyngeal nerve D) Vagus

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80) Which of the following is an accurate comparison between the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system?

A) A single somatic motor neuron extends from the CNS to the muscle, but two autonomic neurons in a series extend from the CNS to the effector.

B) The somatic motor system controls muscle tissue, and the autonomic nervous system controls glands.

C) The somatic motor neurons extend from only the thoracic region of the spinal cord, and the autonomic neurons extend from only the brainstem.

D) All of the choices are correct.

81) The effectors of the somatic nervous system are __________, and the effectors of the autonomic nervous system are __________.

A) skeletal muscles; cardiac muscle B) skeletal; glands.

C) skeletal; smooth muscle.

D) All of the choices are correct.

82) Trina was reading about a supplement that can help a person lose weight. When she tried it, she experienced some horrible side effects. Her heart rate was high and she perspired profusely. It appears from these effects that the supplement increased __________ activation.

A) somatic motor system B) parasympathetic C) enteric nervous system D) sympathetic

83) The __________ nervous system consists of the plexuses within the wall of the digestive tract.

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A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) central E) enteric

84)

An elderly person is more likely to fall because of A) a decreased sense of the position of the limbs and joints.

B) reduced function in sensory neurons that monitor thirst.

C) a decrease in sensory neurons in the skin.

D) disruption of sleep patterns.

E) None of the choices are correct.

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

85)

85.1)

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The letter A represents which structure on this figure of a neuron?

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A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Axon hillock D) Node of Ranvier E) Schwann cell

85.2)

The letter B represents which structure on this figure of a neuron?

A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Collateral branch of axon D) Node of Ranvier

85.3)

The letter C represents what structure on this figure of a neuron?

A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Axon hillock D) Node of Ranvier E) Schwann cell

85.4)

This figure is an example of a __________ neuron.

A) multipolar B) bipolar C) pseudo-unipolar D) dipolar

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_11e 1) E 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) E 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) E 22) C 23) E 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) E 28) E 29) E 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) D 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) E 48) A 49) E 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) E 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) E 62) C 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) B 70) E 71) E 72) E 73) E 74) D 75) B 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) B 80) A 81) D 82) D 83) E 84) E 85) Section Break 85.1) A Version 1

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85.2) B 85.3) D 85.4) A

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CHAPTER 9 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or False? Short wavelengths, from high-pitched sounds, cause displacement of the basilar membrane near the oval window. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) True or False? The conscious awareness of stimuli or sensory receptors is called perception. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) True or False? Receptors for the special senses are specialized in structure and are localized to specific organs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) True or False? Feeling heat and cold are examples of general sensation; but light and deep touch are examples of special senses. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

True or False? As one ages, the eye lens becomes more flexible. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

6) __________ detect light touch and superficial pressure and are found in the epidermis.

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A) Meissner corpuscles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Merkel disks D) Ruffini corpuscles E) Free nerve endings

7) __________ respond to fine, discriminative touch and are found just deep to the epidermis.

A) Meissner corpuscles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Merkel disks D) Ruffini corpuscles E) Free nerve endings

8)

The fleshy part of the external ear on the outside of the head is the __________.

A) external auditory canal B) ceruminous gland C) tympanic membrane D) auricle E) middle ear

9)

The auditory ossicles A) include the malleus, incus, and stapes.

B) are located in the inner ear.

C) decrease the vibrations from the tympanic membrane.

D) transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the round window.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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10) In the cochlea, the space that extends from the oval window to the apex of the cochlear spiral is the __________.

A) cochlear duct B) scala vestibuli C) scala tympani D) spiral lamina E) tectorial membrane

11)

The spiral organ A) is located in the scala tympani.

B) contains specialized sensory cells with hairlike projections.

C) has sensory neurons with their cell bodies in the spiral lamina.

D) has hair cells with their tips embedded in the basilar membrane.

E) has afferent nerve fibers that form the tectorial nerve.

12)

The vestibule A) is associated with static equilibrium.

B) can be divided into the utricle and saccule.

C) has chambers with patches of specialized epithelium called maculae.

D) contains maculae, which have hair cells embedded into a gelatinous mass.

E) All of the choices are correct.

13)

The hair cells and tectorial membrane are found in the A) saccule and utricle.

B) cochlea.

C) semicircular canals.

D) tympanum.

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14)

In the figure of the ear, the letter A indicates the __________.

A) external auditory canal B) tympanic membrane C) semicircular canals D) cochlea E) auditory ossicles

15)

In the figure of the ear, the letter C indicates the __________.

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A) external auditory canal B) tympanic membrane C) semicircular canals D) cochlea E) auditory tube

16)

Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary taste sensations?

A) Bitter B) Salty C) Sour D) Spicy E) Sweet

17)

Which of these statements about taste is NOT true?

A) Taste buds are oval structures located on the surface of certain papillae on the

tongue.

B) Each taste bud has about 40 taste cells.

C) Taste cells contain hairlike processes called taste hairs.

D) Many taste sensations are strongly influenced by olfactory sensations.

E) A taste bud is able to detect only one taste sensation.

18)

Axons from olfactory neurons A) pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.

B) enter the olfactory bulbs and synapse with interneurons.

C) form cranial nerve I. D) eventually relay information to the brain through the olfactory tracts.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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19)

The ability to perceive many different colors results from A) stimulation of combinations of rods and cones.

B) patterns of stimulation across the three types of cones.

C) retinal detachment.

D) the sensitivity of rods to photons of light.

E) the different varieties of retinal in each cone type.

20) The firm, opaque, white, outer connective tissue layer of the posterior five-sixths of the eye is the __________.

A) sclera B) cornea C) vascular tunic D) choroid E) nervous tunic

21)

The choroid of the eye A) is part of the fibrous tunic.

B) appears white in color.

C) anteriorly, is continuous with the sclera.

D) consists of a vascular network and large numbers of melanin-containing cells.

E) is part of the nervous tunic.

22)

The iris A) surrounds an opening called the pupil.

B) is the colored portion of the eye.

C) controls the diameter of the pupil.

D) is stimulated to contract by parasympathetic stimulation.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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23)

The sensory retina A) is the outer portion of the retina.

B) contains pigment.

C) keeps light from being reflected back into the eye.

D) contains rod and cone cells.

E) All of the choices are correct.

24)

Retinal A) combines with rhodopsin to produce opsin.

B) releases energy when opsin attaches.

C) synthesis in rod cells requires vitamin A. D) retains its shape when struck by light.

E) All of the choices are correct.

25) The spot where a number of blood vessels enter the eye, and where the optic nerve exits the eye, is called the __________.

A) macula.

B) fovea centralis.

C) blind spot.

D) optic disk.

E) Both "blind spot" and "optic disk" are correct.

26)

Light rays

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A) striking the retina cause changes in the neural signals that are relayed to the brain.

B) are refracted by the cornea, lens, and humors.

C) are refracted as they pass through a convex lens.

D) that are converging reach a crossing point called the focal point.

E) All of the choices are correct.

27) The part of the eye that produces the greatest amount of convergence of light is the __________.

A) cornea B) lens C) humors D) fovea centralis E) optic disk

28)

To focus on objects closer than 20 feet away, A) the lens must become flatter.

B) the ciliary muscles must contract.

C) the suspensory ligaments must increase tension on the lens.

D) the cornea must move inward.

E) All of the choices are correct.

29) The lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by __________; this movement is accomplished by the __________.

A) moving up and down; suspensory ligaments B) changing shape from spherical to flat; suspensory ligaments and ciliary body C) opening and closing; iris diaphragm D) moving up and down; papillary constrictor muscles E) moving towards the cornea; macula and fovea

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30)

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about the eye and vision?

A) Light absorption in the eye requires the presence of photopigments such as rhodopsin.

B) The fovea contains mostly cones and is the area of sharpest vision.

C) Rods only detect the presence of light, whereas cones detect the specific wavelength of light.

D) The human eye changes the focal distance to focus exactly like a camera focuses.

E) When viewing distant objects, your lens becomes more flat.

31) When you walk into a dark room, the __________ smooth muscles of the iris __________ the pupil of your eye.

A) radial; dilate B) radial; constrict C) circular; dilate D) circular; constrict E) papillary; constrict

32) You are walking down the street when a strange dog begins to chase you. You manage to duck into a store and notice in a nearby hanging mirror that your pupils are very dilated. Which of the following most likely accounts for this?

A) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn, stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

B) The parasympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn, stimulated the radial smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

C) The sympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn, stimulated the radial smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

D) The sympathetic nervous system was stimulated by the scare, and it, in turn, stimulated the circular smooth muscles of the iris to contract.

33)

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

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A) Depth perception occurs where the two visual fields of the eyes overlap.

B) One common cause of double vision is a misalignment of the eyes due to a weakening of the extrinsic eye muscles.

C) Depth perception requires monocular vision.

D) The image seen by each eye is called the visual field of that eye.

34) During training for night combat, soldiers are trained to look slightly to one side of objects they detect. This is because A) looking directly at an object places the image on the fovea centralis.

B) looking directly at an object places the image on the optic disk.

C) color vision is better if you look slightly to one side of an object.

D) the fovea has very few rod cells, which are necessary for vision in dim light.

E) Both "looking directly at an object places the image on the fovea centralis" and "the fovea has very few rod cells, which are necessary for vision in dim light" are correct.

35) A person with cataracts was treated by surgically removing the lenses of his eyes. The type of glasses he should get to compensate for the removal of his lenses would be A) concave lenses.

B) convex lenses.

C) glasses to compensate for astigmatism.

36) The middle layer of the eye that, consists of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris is the __________.

A) conjunctiva B) fibrous tunic C) vascular tunic D) nervous tunic E) crystalline lens

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37)

The maculae and otoliths are found in the A) saccule and utricle.

B) cochlea.

C) semicircular canals.

D) tympanum.

38)

Which of the following is not an accessory structure of the eye?

A) Conjunctiva B) Lacrimal apparatus C) Retina D) Extrinsic eye muscles E) Eyelids

39)

In the figure of the eye, the letter B indicates the __________.

A) retina B) choroid C) sclera D) cornea E) lens

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40)

In the figure of the eye, the letter C indicates the __________.

A) retina B) choroid C) sclera D) cornea E) lens

41)

Receptors for the general senses are found A) in a few clusters.

B) only in the integumentary system.

C) widely distributed throughout the body.

D) throughout the visceral organs.

E) only in the skin.

42)

Sensory receptors involved in the perception of pain are called __________.

A) tactile corpuscles B) lamellated corpuscles C) nociceptors D) mechanoreceptors E) agonists

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43)

Special senses arise from receptors located A) primarily in the head.

B) throughout the integumentary system.

C) in the fingertips.

D) in internal organs.

E) only in the central nervous system.

44)

The gelatinous mass inside of the eye is called the __________.

A) lacrimal secretion B) mucoid body C) vitreous humor D) hyaloid mass E) scleroid humor

45)

Which of the following accurately describes a sensation?

A) A person describes the color of a shirt that is on display.

B) A child recognizes the taste of her favorite fruit juice.

C) An action potential is generated when touch receptors are stimulated.

D) A receptor is inhibited by the application of a pain relief cream.

E) None of the choices are correct.

46) __________ is characterized by a group of unpleasant perceptual and emotional experiences.

A) Temperature B) Touch C) Pain D) Proprioception E) Vision

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47) Joanna has been experiencing diffuse pain in her upper right shoulder and right upper abdomen. The pain is most likely the result of A) referred pain from the heart.

B) referred pain from the appendix.

C) referred pain from the liver and gallbladder.

D) a urinary tract infection.

E) acid reflux.

48)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a special sense?

A) Vision B) Equilibrium C) Proprioception D) Hearing E) Olfaction

49) When you have a cold, the mucus secretions in your respiratory tract increase and are usually thicker than normal. How would this affect your sense of smell?

A) The increased mucus includes substances that inhibit the olfactory receptor cells.

B) The inflammation of the nasal cavity blocks most of the action potentials generated at the olfactory organ.

C) The increased amount of mucus reduces the number of odorants that can reach and bind to olfactory receptor cells.

D) The virus that caused the cold has damaged the olfactory organ.

E) None of the choices are correct.

50) Sheri is having an issue with her eyes and visits her family doctor. He explains that she has a blockage in her lacrimal canaliculi. Based on this diagnosis, what issue did she most likely suffer from?

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A) She had a “runny” nose.

B) She had a sty.

C) She constantly looked as if she were crying.

D) She could not blink her left eye.

E) All of the choices are correct.

51) Jennifer is a 45-year-old mother of two. She was walking across campus one day when she heard someone call her name, but she wasn’t quite sure from where the voice was coming from. She slowly turned in a circle and realized her colleague was standing right behind her.

What is a likely explanation of Jennifer’s inability to localize the sound?

A) Jennifer has experienced an increase in her sense of hearing and notices all sounds, making it difficult to discern just one.

B) Jennifer most likely has an issue with here cerebellum that makes it difficult to interpret proprioceptive information and therefore awareness of body position.

C) Jennifer is experiencing loss of hearing, but not evenly in both ears, making it difficult to determine the direction of sound.

D) None of the choices are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) E 18) E 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) E Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) E 35) B 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) B 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) C

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CHAPTER 10 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) __________ are intercellular chemical signals, secreted by nerve cells, and are important in functions of the nervous system.

A) Pheromones B) Hormones C) Neurotransmitters D) Autocrine chemical messengers E) Paracrine chemical messengers

2)

__________ are substances released by cells that affect other cells nearby.

A) Pheromones B) Hormones C) Neurotransmitters D) Autocrine chemical messengers E) Paracrine chemical messengers

3)

Hormones alter cellular properties and functions by A) changing the quantities of enzymes present.

B) opening or closing ion channels.

C) changing the rate of enzyme breakdown.

D) changing the rates of transcription or translation in a cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

4)

Lipid-soluble hormones

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A) are polar molecules.

B) bind to intracellular receptors in the target cell.

C) dissolve readily in water for easy transport in the blood.

D) include those hormones derived from proteins and amino acids.

E) All of the choices are correct.

5)

Thyroid hormones A) are amino acid derivatives.

B) are lipid-soluble.

C) can diffuse through the cell membrane of the target cell.

D) bind to intracellular receptors in the target cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

6) Which type of hormone molecule is NOT correctly matched with the example or description?

A) Protein hormone—Anterior pituitary hormones B) Protein hormone—Prostaglandin-like hormone C) Lipid hormone—Steroids D) Peptide hormone—Posterior pituitary hormones E) Lipid hormone—Hormone that diffuses through the cell membrane.

7)

Which of these statements concerning hormone action is TRUE?

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A) Most protein and peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of the cell membrane.

B) The combination of a hormone with its receptor may alter the permeability of the cell membrane.

C) A hormone that combines with a receptor in the cell membrane may act as a first messenger.

D) Cyclic AMP (cAMP) functions as a second messenger.

E) All of the choices are correct.

8)

Intracellular receptors

A) are located in the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell.

B) typically bind to lipophilic (hydrophobic) chemical signals.

C) are associated with hormones such as steroids.

D) may cause changes in transcription and translation when bound to appropriate signals.

E) All of the choices are correct.

9)

Membrane-bound receptors can A) open or close membrane channels.

B) activate G proteins.

C) activate enzymes attached to the cell membrane.

D) produce a cascade effect by activating many enzymes inside the cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

10)

__________ are produced in response to hormonal activation of G proteins.

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A) Primary messengers B) Hormones C) Secondary messengers D) Pheromones E) All of the choices are correct.

11) Releasing and inhibiting hormones that control anterior pituitary hormone secretion are produced by the __________.

A) anterior pituitary B) posterior pituitary C) hypothalamus D) adrenal gland E) pineal gland

12)

The posterior pituitary gland is stimulated to secrete hormones by A) stimulation of neurons within the hypothalamus.

B) stimulation of glandular cells within the posterior pituitary.

C) stimulation of the cells of the infundibulum.

D) stimulation of neurons within the anterior pituitary.

E) All of the choices are correct.

13)

The hypothalamus controls the activity of the pituitary gland by

A) secreting neurohormones.

B) secreting releasing hormones.

C) secreting inhibiting hormones.

D) stimulation of nerve cells within the hypothalamus, which extend into the posterior pituitary gland.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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14)

The hypothalamic-pituitary portal system A) is a collection of nerves that connect the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary.

B) includes capillary beds and veins that transport releasing hormones.

C) allows the anterior pituitary to control the hypothalamus and cerebrum.

D) connects the hypothalamus to the midbrain.

E) carries blood directly to the posterior pituitary.

15)

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired with its location or function?

A) C cells — scattered throughout loose connective tissue between thyroid follicles B) C cells — secretion of calcitonin C) Thyroglobulin — scattered throughout loose connective tissue between thyroid follicles D) Thyroglobulin — colloid of thyroid follicles E) Thyroid hormones — regulation of metabolic rate in the body

16)

Gonadotropins A) are secreted by the posterior pituitary.

B) regulate growth, development, and function of the ovaries and testes.

C) include both TSH and ACTH. D) are controlled by a releasing hormone from the thyroid gland.

E) directly promote water retention by the kidneys.

17)

Thyroid hormones are synthesized and stored in the __________ of the thyroid.

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A) C cells B) follicles C) parafollicular cells D) capillaries E) portal system

18)

Growth hormone

A) stimulates lipid synthesis.

B) favors protein breakdown.

C) deficiency in an adult can produce pituitary dwarfism.

D) excess after growth is complete produces acromegaly.

E) Both "deficiency in an adult can produce pituitary dwarfism" and "excess after growth is complete produces acromegaly" are correct.

19)

ACTH stimulates the A) thyroid gland.

B) ovaries and testes.

C) hypothalamus.

D) adrenal cortex.

E) posterior pituitary.

20)

ADH

A) is sometimes called oxytocin.

B) can cause blood vessels to constrict when present in the blood in large amounts.

C) causes “milk letdown” from the breasts of lactating women.

D) stimulates melanocytes and causes them to synthesize melanin.

E) is sometimes called oxytocin and can cause blood vessels to constrict when present in the blood in large amounts as properties.

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21)

Calcitonin A) is secreted by the parathyroid glands.

B) increases the amount of calcium absorbed by the intestine.

C) is synthesized by C cells of the thyroid gland.

D) increases the rate of calcium release from bone.

E) is secreted when blood calcium levels drop too low.

22)

Symptoms of diabetes mellitus include A) increased appetite.

B) lack of thirst.

C) high energy level.

D) limited urine output.

E) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Secretion of which of these hormones would increase shortly after a meal?

A) Glucagon B) Growth hormone C) Epinephrine D) Glucocorticoids E) Insulin

24) Which of these hormones increases blood glucose levels, increases lipid breakdown, but slows protein breakdown?

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A) Glucagon B) Epinephrine C) Insulin D) Glucocorticoids E) Growth hormone

25)

Melatonin A) is secreted by the thymus gland.

B) is thought to increase the secretion of releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.

C) increases FSH and LH secretion.

D) may be controlled by changes in day length.

E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Insulin is secreted by the A) anterior pituitary gland.

B) posterior pituitary gland.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

E) beta cells of the pancreatic islets.

27)

Oxytocin is secreted by the A) anterior pituitary gland.

B) posterior pituitary gland.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

E) beta cells of the pancreatic islets.

28)

Growth hormone is secreted by the

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A) anterior pituitary gland.

B) posterior pituitary gland.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

E) beta cells of the pancreatic islets.

29)

Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted by the A) anterior pituitary gland.

B) posterior pituitary gland.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

E) beta cells of the pancreatic islets.

30)

Target cells in the thyroid gland respond to __________.

A) LH B) prolactin C) ACTH D) ADH E) TSH

31)

Type I diabetes mellitus

A) is caused by the secretion of too little insulin from the pancreas.

B) is caused by the insufficient numbers of insulin receptors on target cells.

C) is caused by defective receptors that do not respond to insulin.

D) can be regulated by diet alone.

E) Both "is caused by the insufficient numbers of insulin receptors on target cells" and "is caused by defective receptors that do not respond to insulin" are correct.

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32) A man with an abnormally high level of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) would exhibit which of the following symptoms?

A) Hyperglycemia B) Reduced sperm production C) Increased frequency of urination D) Darkening of the skin E) Constant thirst

33)

T

3 (triiodothyronine)

A) synthesis requires calcium.

B) binding to target tissues causes increases in metabolism, body temperature, and normal growth.

C) contains four iodine molecules.

D) is released from the thymus gland.

E) is released in response to T 4 secretion.

34)

Prolactin

A) helps development and production of milk in the breast.

B) causes “milk letdown” from the breasts of lactating women.

C) causes contraction of the muscle of the uterus.

D) stimulates development of sperm cells in males.

E) Both "causes "milk letdown" from the breasts of lactating women" and "causes contraction of the muscle of the uterus" are correct.

35)

The adrenal medulla

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A) is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.

B) produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.

C) is stimulated when a person is physically excited.

D) produces the fight-or-flight response.

E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Cortisol A) is classified as a glucocorticoid.

B) initiates the breakdown of protein and lipids.

C) reduces the inflammatory effect (when in pharmacological doses).

D) secretion is stimulated by ACTH. E) All of the choices are correct.

37)

Adrenal androgens A) are produced in large amounts by the adrenal medulla.

B) stimulate the development of male sexual characteristics.

C) reduce the inflammatory response as a primary effect.

D) cause reabsorption of potassium and water.

E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The thymus gland A) becomes smaller with increasing age.

B) is important in the function of the immune system.

C) secretes thymosin.

D) is found in the upper part of the thoracic cavity above the heart.

E) All of the choices are correct.

39)

If blood glucose decreases below normal,

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A) the nervous system will malfunction.

B) the increased breakdown of lipids tends to produce metabolic alkalosis.

C) large volumes of urine will be produced.

D) the heart rate will decrease.

E) All of these choices are correct.

40)

Insulin is secreted in response to A) increased blood glucose levels.

B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation.

C) decreased blood levels of amino acids.

D) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Aldosterone

A) causes potassium ions to be retained in the body.

B) secretion is stimulated primarily by ACTH. C) secretion increases when blood potassium levels increase.

D) causes increased retention of sodium ions and water by the body.

E) Both "secretion increases when blood potassium levels increase" and "causes increased retention of sodium ions and water by the body" are correct.

42)

Which of these statements concerning aldosterone secretion is NOT correct?

A) Low blood pressure stimulates the release of renin from the kidney.

B) Renin causes angiotensinogen to be converted to angiotensin I. C) Angiotensin II acts on the adrenal cortex to increase aldosterone secretion.

D) Aldosterone causes increased potassium retention.

E) Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels.

43)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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A) increases calcium level in the blood.

B) inhibits the formation of active vitamin D in the kidneys.

C) decreases the rate of bone breakdown.

D) has an effect similar to that of calcitonin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

44) Nina has been extremely tired lately. She feels overwhelmed with school and work, and lacks the motivation to participate in many of the fun activities she usually enjoys. She has noticed that she has gained weight, even though she doesn’t feel that she has changed her diet. A family friend, who is also a nurse, suggested that she see a physician, maybe an endocrinologist, because he thinks it may be a hormonal imbalance. Which gland or endocrine structure is most likely involved, based on the description of Nina’s symptoms?

A) Thyroid B) Parathyroid C) Adrenal D) Thymus E) Kidney

45)

Hyperparathyroidism A) is an abnormally low production or secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH).

B) results in an increase in blood cell production.

C) results in an increase in calcium levels in the blood.

D) is an abnormally high production of calcitonin.

E) is caused by an increase in the absorption of potassium from the small intestine.

46)

Which of the following is NOT a function of the endocrine system?

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A) Regulates water balance by controlling the solute concentration of the blood B) Regulates skeletal muscle contraction strength C) Regulates satiation and the breakdown of food into individual nutrients D) Regulates the rate of metabolism E) Regulates the levels of nutrients such as glucose in the blood

47)

A hormone is described as a molecule that A) is produced in varying amounts by collections of cells.

B) enters blood and is transported some distance.

C) acts on specific tissues called target tissues.

D) All of the choices are correct.

48)

Exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands in that exocrine glands A) secrete only into the bloodstream.

B) secrete only local hormones.

C) secrete through ducts or tubes to the body's exterior or into a hollow organ.

D) only secrete salts.

E) secrete only into the urine.

49)

Most hormones are taken up and degraded by the __________ and __________.

A) liver; kidney B) spleen; kidney C) spleen; liver D) bone marrow; spleen E) bone marrow; liver

50)

Secretion of hormones is controlled by

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A) the concentration of mineral ions in the blood.

B) neural input.

C) tropic hormones.

D) the concentration of mineral ions in the blood and tropic hormones.

E) All of the choices are correct.

51) The hypothalamus secretes __________, which are classified as __________ hormones.

They increase the secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone, or __________ hormones, whereby they decrease the secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone.

A) hormones; inhibiting; releasing B) regulatory hormones; releasing; transferring C) neurohormones; releasing; inhibitory D) stimulatory hormones; secretory; inhibitory

52)

__________ is inhibited by humoral stimuli.

A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B) Glucagon C) Testosterone

53) Which of the following is a mechanism that helps maintain fairly constant levels of certain hormones in the blood?

A) Hormones move into target organs.

B) Hormones are associated with binding proteins.

C) Hormones are excreted by the kidneys.

D) Hormones are broken down by enzymes.

54) The tendency for each type of hormone to bind to one type of receptor and not to others is called __________.

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A) agonism B) antagonism C) specificity D) complementarity

55)

Which of the following statements is NOT true of prostaglandins?

A) Prostaglandins are more often function as autocrine or paracrine chemical signals.

B) Some prostaglandins cause smooth muscle cells to relax.

C) Prostaglandins are secreted by the pancreas to regulate blood glucose levels.

D) Platelets secrete prostaglandins as part of normal blood clotting.

E) Aspirin inhibits prostaglandin activity.

56)

Which of the following changes to the endocrine system is NOT a result of aging?

A) GH secretion decreases.

B) Melatonin secretion decreases.

C) Thyroid hormone secretion decreases.

D) Parathyroid hormone secretion decreases.

57)

Removal of the anterior pituitary would affect the functioning of the A) thyroid gland.

B) pancreas islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

C) parathyroid gland.

D) adrenal medulla.

E) kidney.

58) In response to high blood glucose, the pancreas releases insulin to enable glucose to enter body cells. When the blood glucose level returns to normal, insulin release stops. This is an example of regulation by __________.

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A) endocrine dysplasia B) negative feedback C) positive feedback D) neural regulation E) somatic regulation

59)

This figure shows the endocrine system. Which number indicates the thymus gland?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

60) Ted was playing softball with several of his friends when a line drive hit him in the chest.

Which gland of the body could possibly be damaged from this type of injury?

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A) Thyroid B) Thymus C) Pancreas D) Adrenal gland E) Pineal gland

61)

Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of the endocrine system?

A) Regulation of metabolism rate B) Tissue development C) Regulation of the defense of the body D) Control of blood glucose levels E) All of the choices are correct.

62) The __________ are the structures of the body that hormones associate with to produce a coordinated response.

A) effectors B) target tissues C) hormones D) synapses E) Both "effectors" and "target tissues" are correct.

63) Joshua has failed to study for his lab practical. He knows that Mr. Lyons will test him on the various glands of the body so he is prepared to “divide and conquer” by first determining if the gland is exocrine or endocrine. Which characteristics should he look for to determine this?

A) If the gland has ducts, this indicates an endocrine gland.

B) If the gland is associated with the exterior of the body, this indicates an exocrine gland.

C) If the gland is highly vascularized, this indicates an exocrine gland.

D) If the gland is associated with the digestive tract, this indicates an endocrine gland.

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64)

Hormones alter cellular properties and functions by A) changing the quantities of enzymes present.

B) opening or closing ion channels.

C) changing the rate of enzyme breakdown.

D) changing the rates of transcription or translation in a cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

65) Upon initial chemical analysis an unknown hormone is identified as a peptide hormone.

Based on this information, which of the following statements about the hormone is NOT true?

A) The hormone has a very long half-life in the blood.

B) The hormone is water-soluble.

C) The hormone most likely is transported in the blood as a free hormone.

D) The hormone most likely binds to membrane receptors on the target cell.

E) None of the choices are correct.

66) High blood calcium levels stimulate the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the regulation of calcitonin secretion?

A) Calcitonin is regulated by humoral stimuli.

B) Calcitonin is regulated by neural stimuli.

C) Calcitonin is regulated by hormonal stimuli.

D) Both "Calcitonin is regulated by neural stimuli." and "Calcitonin is regulated by hormonal stimuli." are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

67) Inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus regulate the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones through __________ regulation.

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A) humoral B) neural C) hormonal D) Both "neural" and "hormonal" are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

68) An unknown hormone that regulates blood potassium levels is regulated by a positivefeedback mechanism. Which of the following statements best describes the regulation of the hormone’s secretion?

A) An increase in the level of circulating hormone would inhibit further secretion of the same hormone.

B) An increase in the level of circulating hormone would stimulate further secretion of the same hormone.

C) A decrease in the level of circulating hormone would stimulate further secretion of the same hormone.

69) Which of the following changes would be most disruptive to hormone action at the target tissue?

A) A change in the shape of the receptor site B) An increase in the number of receptors on the target tissue C) The introduction of a new receptor molecule on the target tissue D) All of the choices are correct.

70) When a hormone binds to a membrane-bound receptor, it stimulates the appearance of several second messengers in the cell. This is known as __________.

A) amplification B) inhibition C) stimulation D) humoral regulation

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71) George is studying the action of a certain hormone in a model organism. He knows that the hormone is water-soluble and that it binds to membrane-bound receptors. He would like to determine whether if this hormone causes the appearance of second messengers in the cell.

Which of the following results would indicate the involvement of second messengers?

A) After binding, the level of activity of certain enzymes inside the cell increases dramatically.

B) After binding, the membrane potential changes.

C) After binding, protein synthesis increases.

D) All of the choices are correct.

72) Hannah has been feeling very “on edge” lately and has developed a voracious appetite, though she just seems to continue to lose weight. Her physician has discovered that her symptoms are the result of abnormal secretion by her anterior pituitary. Which anterior pituitary hormone is most likely involved?

A) TSH B) ACTH C) GH D) MSH

73) The regulation of blood glucose is a typical example of negative feedback. Insulin and glucagon work together to maintain blood glucose levels in a narrow range. The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose. What is the stimulus for glucagon secretion?

A) Low blood glucose levels B) High blood glucose levels

74) Which hormone could athletes use to increase performance by possibly increasing ATP production in the muscles?

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A) Erythropoietin B) Aldosterone C) ACTH D) Glucagon

75) Sara is a 67-year-old grandmother who has recently experienced an ankle fracture. She was surprised when her doctor told her that the fracture was due to age-related changes in her endocrine system that resulted in lower levels of calcium in her bones. What change in her endocrine system would have this result?

A) Decreased TSH secretion B) Increased TSH secretion C) Decreased PTH secretion D) Increased PTH secretion

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_11e 1) C 2) E 3) E 4) B 5) E 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) E 24) E 25) D 26) E Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) A 30) E 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) E 37) B 38) E 39) A 40) A 41) E 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) E 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) D Version 1

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57) A 58) B 59) D 60) B 61) E 62) E 63) B 64) E 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) D

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CHAPTER 11 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Blood A) is a type of epithelial tissue.

B) consists of formed elements and cells.

C) transports waste products to cells.

D) makes up over 50% of the body's weight.

E) has a total volume of approximately 5 liters.

2)

The major component of plasma is __________.

A) ions B) proteins C) water D) gases E) nutrients

3)

Plasma proteins A) include albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

B) are a major factor in determining osmotic pressure of blood.

C) are responsible for clot formation.

D) include antibodies and many other chemicals that function in immunity.

E) All of the choices are correct.

4)

Normally, the volume of the blood plasma

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A) remains fairly constant, with water intake through the digestive tract roughly equaling water loss through the kidneys, lungs, GI tract, and skin.

B) fluctuates wildly throughout the day, with water intake through the digestive tract exceeding water loss through the kidneys, lungs, GI tract, and skin.

C) fluctuates wildly between hours with water loss through the kidneys, lungs, GI tract, and skin exceeding water intake through the digestive tract.

D) is determined solely by the concentration of dissolved substances.

E) Both "fluctuates wildly throughout the day, with water intake through the digestive tract exceeding water loss through the kidneys, lungs, GI tract, and skin" and "is determined solely by the concentration of dissolved substances" are correct.

5)

What is the function of water in the plasma?

A) It acts as a solvent and as a suspending medium for blood components.

B) It maintains osmotic pressure.

C) It destroys foreign substances.

D) It forms clots.

E) It is a source of energy.

6)

Globulins in the plasma A) act as a solvent and as a suspending medium for blood components.

B) maintain osmotic pressure.

C) are involved in aerobic respiration.

D) function as transport molecules and clotting factors.

E) serve as a source of energy.

7) Which of the following constituents of the blood plasma help maintain the osmotic pressure of the blood?

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A) Albumins B) Sodium chloride C) Dissolved waste products D) Nutrients and dissolved waste products E) Both "albumins" and "sodium chloride" are correct.

8)

The process of blood cell production is called __________.

A) erythroblastosis B) hemocytosis C) hematopoiesis D) megakaryocytosis E) thrombocytosis

9) All of the formed elements of the blood are formed from a single population of cells called __________.

A) lymphoblasts B) megakaryoblasts C) monoblasts D) hemocytoblasts E) proerythroblasts

10)

Red blood cells A) are biconvex disks.

B) have several nuclei in each cell.

C) divide frequently.

D) contain large quantities of hemoglobin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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11)

Red blood cell production

A) occurs from cells called proerythroblasts.

B) is stimulated by erythropoietin.

C) requires vitamin C and amino acids.

D) is stimulated when blood oxygen levels increase.

E) Both "occurs from cells called proerythroblasts" and "is stimulated by erythropoietin" are correct.

12)

Erythropoietin A) requires vitamin B 12 as a cofactor.

B) is produced in the intestines.

C) stimulates red bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.

D) is produced when high blood oxygen levels occur.

E) All of the choices are correct.

13) When old or damaged red blood cells are removed from the circulation, the hemoglobin molecules are broken down A) and removed from the blood by antibodies.

B) into heme and globin molecules.

C) and their heme groups are converted into amino acids and recycled.

D) and their globin groups are converted to bilirubin.

E) and their iron is excreted into the small intestine as part of bile.

14)

An overproduction of red blood cells is known as __________.

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A) pernicious anemia B) thalassemia C) aplastic anemia D) polycythemia E) leukemia

15)

The biconcave shape of red blood cells A) increases the surface area of the red blood cell.

B) makes it easier for gases to move into and out of the cell.

C) allows for bending or folding of the cell.

D) enables it to pass through small blood vessels more easily.

E) All of the choices are correct.

16)

The loss of the nucleus and most organelles in red blood cells A) prevents the cells from being able to divide.

B) prevents the cells from being able to repair themselves.

C) means that RBC will have a shorter life span than average body cells.

D) allows the cell to carry more hemoglobin and therefore more oxygen.

E) All of the choices are correct.

17)

Erythropoietin stimulates A) the activity of the osteoblasts.

B) yellow bone marrow to produce more white blood cells.

C) red bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.

D) yellow bone marrow to produce more lipids.

E) red bone marrow to slow production of blood plasma.

18)

Each hemoglobin molecule

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A) consists of 4 protein chains and 4 heme groups.

B) can carry 1 oxygen molecule.

C) contains red-pigmented globin molecules.

D) contains 1 iron atom.

E) is bluish in color when bound to oxygen.

19) In newborns, bilirubin can increase faster than the liver can break it down. The buildup of bilirubin in the circulation results in __________.

A) jaundice B) cyanosis C) leukemia D) thalassemia E) anemia

20)

Which of these statements concerning gases in the blood is true?

A) Hemoglobin transports a small percentage of the oxygen transported by the blood.

B) Almost all of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported by hemoglobin.

C) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin 210 times as fast as oxygen does.

D) Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes a reaction that converts oxygen into a bicarbonate ion.

E) Most oxygen is transported dissolved in the plasma.

21)

Bilirubin A) is normally excreted into the small intestine in the bile.

B) can produce jaundice if the excretion of bile is hindered.

C) is responsible for the brown color of feces.

D) is produced from the breakdown of heme groups.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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22)

In contrast to red blood cells, leukocytes A) are smaller.

B) have no nucleus, whereas red blood cells may have many nuclei.

C) can leave the blood and move by amoeboid movement through tissues.

D) contain more iron in addition to the iron in the hemoglobin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Which of these leukocytes is NOT correctly matched with its function or description?

A) Monocytes—Become macrophages.

B) Lymphocytes—Important in the immune response.

C) Basophils—Synthesize or produce antibodies.

D) Eosinophils—Involved in destroying certain worm parasites.

E) Neutrophils—Phagocytize microorganisms and other foreign substances.

24) An 8-year-old boy periodically has trouble breathing. A complete blood count is performed to determine if he has stress-anxiety syndrome or asthma (an allergic reaction). With which type(s) of white blood cells should you be most concerned?

A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Both "neutrophils" and "lymphocytes" are correct.

E) Both "lymphocytes" and "eosinophils" are correct.

25)

__________ are the most common leukocytes and their dead cells are part of pus.

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A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Basophils E) Monocytes

26)

__________ release histamine and heparin.

A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Basophils E) Monocytes

27) Elliot has not been well since his last camping trip. He went to the clinic, where the physician ran several blood tests. His test results indicated elevation of the number of eosinophils. Which of following may explain Elliot’s illness?

A) Elliot most likely is suffering from a bacterial infection.

B) Elliot is anemic.

C) Elliot may have contracted some type of worm parasite.

D) Elliot may have developed an allergy to a particular food.

E) None of the choices are correct.

28)

__________ perform phagocytosis, especially when out of the blood and in tissues.

A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Basophils E) Monocytes

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29)

__________ are the largest of the leukocytes.

A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Eosinophils D) Basophils E) Monocytes

30)

Which of these statements concerning white blood count is correct?

A) There are normally 50,000 to 100,000 leukocytes per cubic millimeter of blood.

B) Leukopenia is an abnormally high WBC resulting from a tumor of the red marrow or a bacterial infection.

C) Leukemia is a type of cancer that results in abnormal production of one or more types of leukocyte.

D) Leukocytosis is an abnormally low WBC count.

E) Excess production of white blood cells has no effect on red blood cell production.

31)

Which of these does NOT help to prevent blood loss?

A) Formation of a network of fibrin B) Formation of a platelet plug C) Synthesis of thromboxanes D) Release of heparin E) Blood vessel constriction

32)

Clotting factor activation can start with

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A) the formation of fibrin.

B) the activation of fibrinogen.

C) the contact of clotting factors with connective tissue.

D) clot retraction.

E) Both "the contact of clotting factors with connective tissue" and "clot retraction" are correct.

33)

Platelet adhesion A) results in platelets sticking to collagen exposed by blood vessel damage.

B) is mediated through von Willebrand factor.

C) causes the activation of the platelets.

D) allows for the platelets to change shape and release chemicals.

E) All of the choices are correct.

34)

Platelets A) are also called lymphocytes.

B) have no cell membrane.

C) are produced in the spleen.

D) play an important role in hemostasis.

E) All of the choices are correct.

35)

As platelets become “activated,” they A) express surface receptors called fibrinogen receptors.

B) release endothelin.

C) release von Willebrand factor.

D) release thrombocytes.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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36) Given the following compounds, which of these sequences represents the most correct order of normal clotting factor activation?

1) Fibrin 2) Fibrinogen 3) Prothrombin 4) Thrombin A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 4, 2 C) 2, 1, 4, 3 D) 2, 1, 3, 4 E) 3, 4, 2, 1

37)

The healing process after clot formation involves A) clot retraction.

B) repair of the damaged vessel by fibroblasts.

C) repair of the wound by division of epithelial cells.

D) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.

E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of these substances dissolves clots?

A) Plasminogen B) Plasmin C) Tissue plasminogen activator D) Antithrombin E) Prothrombin

39) Which of the following would inhibit the activation of platelets or the formation of the platelet plug?

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A) Increased amounts of thromboxanes B) Increased levels of von Willebrand factor C) Increased levels of fibrinogen D) Aspirin (which inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins) E) All of the choices are correct.

40)

Vitamin K A) is important for the synthesis of clotting factors.

B) comes from your diet.

C) is produced by bacteria in the large intestine.

D) can be obtained from food such as milk.

E) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Which of the following could cause an abnormal prothrombin time?

A) Vitamin K deficiency B) Liver disease C) Drug therapy D) Decreased levels of von Willebrand factor E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

Which of these statements about antigen-antibody interactions is correct?

A) The surface of red blood cells is covered with molecules called antigens.

B) The surface of platelets is covered with molecules called antibodies.

C) When antibodies bind to antigens, the result can be agglutination (clumping together) of cells.

D) Blood groups are named for the antibodies normally present in that blood.

E) Both "the surface of red blood cells is covered with molecules called antigens" and "when antibodies bind to antigens, the result can be agglutination (clumping together) of cells" are correct.

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43)

Which of these statements concerning ABO blood types is correct?

A) Persons with type O blood have been called universal donors.

B) Persons with type B blood who receive type A blood would have a transfusion reaction.

C) To reduce the likelihood of a transfusion reaction, all possible blood groups should be correctly typed.

D) Antibodies in the blood of the donor can react with the antigens in the blood of the recipient.

E) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Cross-matching of blood

A) is done after a transfusion.

B) is done to help ensure that there are no new antigens formed in the recipient.

C) involves mixing a donor’s blood cells with the recipient’s serum.

D) involves mixing a recipient’s blood cells with the donor’s serum.

E) Both "is done after a transfusion" and "involves mixing a recipient's blood cells with the donor's serum" are correct.

45) A red blood cell (RBC) count on an adult male showed 5 million red blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood. We should consider this to be A) normal.

B) an example of anemia.

C) an example of polycythemia.

D) an example of agglutination.

E) a transfusion reaction.

46)

__________ is the spread of microorganisms and their toxins by the blood.

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A) Anemia B) Thalassemia C) Ischemia D) DIC E) Septicemia

47) Long ago, one cure for anemia was to feed a patient beef jerky soaked in the gastric juices of a pig. In cases in which this cure worked, the type of anemia was most likely __________.

A) hemorrhagic anemia B) aplastic anemia C) pernicious anemia D) iron-deficiency anemia E) sickle-cell anemia

48)

In __________, red blood cells rupture or are destroyed at an excessive rate.

A) hemolytic anemia B) pernicious anemia C) aplastic anemia D) hemorrhagic anemia E) sickle-cell anemia

49) Grace was involved in car accident and was admitted to the hospital with a ruptured spleen. Which of the following conditions could result from the rupture?

A) Hemolytic anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Aplastic anemia D) Hemorrhagic anemia E) Sickle-cell anemia

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50)

Inadequate vitamin B

12 can cause __________ anemia.

A) hemolytic B) pernicious C) aplastic D) hemorrhagic E) sickle-cell

51) Damage to red marrow by chemicals or radiation can cause aplastic anemia. Which cell type is most likely affected?

A) Hemocytoblast B) Myeloid stem cell C) Lymphoid stem cell D) Both "hemocytoblast" and "myeloid stem cell" are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

52)

__________ is a hereditary disease that produces abnormal hemoglobin.

A) Hemolytic anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Aplastic anemia D) Hemorrhagic anemia E) Sickle-cell anemia

53) Which of these statements concerning the differential white blood cell count is NOT correct?

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A) In normal counts, the largest percentage is neutrophils.

B) In normal counts, the second largest percentage is basophils.

C) In bacterial infections, the neutrophil count is often greatly increased.

D) In allergic reactions, the eosinophil and basophil counts are elevated.

E) None of the choices are incorrect.

54)

Hemophilia is an inherited abnormality in A) one or more of the clotting factors.

B) platelet membrane receptors.

C) the globin portions of the hemoglobin.

D) antibody production.

E) intrinsic factor production.

55)

Plasma is __________, whereas formed elements are __________.

A) a blood gas; blood clots B) the liquid portion of blood; the cells C) lacking in protein; regulators of blood osmolality D) the cellular portion of blood; acellular components E) mostly protein; the matrix

56)

Blood is a type of __________ tissue.

A) epithelial B) glandular C) connective D) areolar

57)

Platelets

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A) are also known as thrombocytes.

B) are actually fragments of cells.

C) play a role in preventing blood loss.

D) can become sticky when exposed to connective tissue.

E) All of the choices are correct.

58) When you are in a cold environment, your nose and ears turn red because blood flow increases A) in the nose and ears to increase oxygen delivery to overactive tissue.

B) in the nose and ears to deliver nutrients to overactive tissue.

C) in the nose and ears to deliver hormones that enhance the senses.

D) to carry warmth to the cold tissue, reducing tissue damage.

E) All of the choices are correct.

59)

The most abundant substance in blood is __________.

A) hemoglobin B) red blood cells C) proteins D) water E) glucose

60)

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

A) Transport of nutrients B) Transport of neurotransmitters C) Protection against pathogens D) Regulation of pH E) Regulation of body temperature

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61) A substance has been identified that stimulates the production of platelets. What is the most likely target of this substance?

A) Lymphoid stem cells B) Megakaryocytes C) Proerythroblasts D) Platelets E) All of the choices are correct.

62)

Which of the following best describes the structure of platelets?

A) A biconcave disk B) Cytoplasmic fragments C) Large cell with a bilobed nucleus D) Long fiber E) Star-shaped cell with central nucleus

63) Individuals who undergo chemotherapy often experience anemia. Which substance could be used to help alleviate this condition?

A) Vitamin D B) Erythropoietin C) Bilirubin D) Glucose E) Fibrinogen

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_11e 1) E 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) E 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) C 28) E 29) E 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) E 37) E 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) E 42) E 43) E 44) E 45) A 46) E 47) C 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) E 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) E 58) D 59) D 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) B

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CHAPTER 12 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) All of the following are functions of the heart EXCEPT A) generation of blood pressure.

B) ensuring one-way flow of blood.

C) generation of the formed elements of the blood.

D) regulation rate and force of blood delivery.

E) distribution of oxygenated blood to tissues.

2)

Which of these statements concerning the form and location of the heart is correct?

A) The apex is the most superior part of the heart.

B) The apex is directed to the left, and deep to the 5 th intercostal space.

C) The base of the heart is directed inferior and slightly posterior.

D) The most superior part of the heart is deep to the 12 th intercostal space.

E) Both "The apex is the most superior part of the heart." and "The base of the heart is directed inferior and slightly posterior." are correct.

3)

The pericardium, or pericardial sac, A) is a double-layered, closed structure.

B) anchors the heart in the mediastinum.

C) has a tough, fibrous, connective tissue outer layer.

D) has an inner layer of squamous epithelial cells.

E) All of the choices are correct.

4)

The serous pericardium just internal to the fibrous pericardium is called the

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A) visceral pericardium.

B) epicardium.

C) parietal pericardium.

D) parietal pleura.

E) Both "visceral pericardium" and "epicardium" are correct.

5)

The blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart tissue itself are the A) pulmonary veins.

B) coronary arteries.

C) coronary sinuses.

D) pulmonary trunks.

E) venae cavae.

6)

Which of these statements about the coronary arteries is true?

A) The left coronary artery supplies the anterior wall of the heart and most of the left ventricle.

B) The right coronary artery supplies most of the right ventricle.

C) Blood flow through the coronary arteries is greatest during ventricular diastole (relaxation).

D) A heart attack occurs if a coronary artery is blocked.

E) All of the choices are correct.

7)

Coronary arteries may become blocked A) by a thrombus, producing a coronary thrombosis.

B) and cause the formation of atherosclerotic lesions.

C) as the direct result of angina pectoris.

D) as the direct result of an infarct (area of tissue death) in the heart.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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8)

The right atrium A) is the location of the pacemaker cells of a normal heart.

B) prevents blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

C) prevents blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

D) prevents blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

E) prevents blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle.

9) the

A large groove that runs around the heart, and separates the atria from the ventricles, is

A) anterior interventricular septum.

B) posterior interventricular septum.

C) coronary sinus.

D) coronary sulcus.

E) cardiac fissure.

10)

The atria of the heart A) are separated from each other by the interventricular septum.

B) function primarily as reservoirs for blood collection.

C) function primarily as the pumps of the heart.

D) receive blood from the aorta and pulmonary trunk.

E) All of the choices are correct.

11)

In a stenosed valve,

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A) a swishing sound occurs immediately after the valve closes.

B) the opening is narrowed.

C) the valve does not close completely.

D) blood is leaking through the closed valve.

E) All of the choices are correct.

12)

Which of these valves is found between the right atrium and the right ventricle?

A) Tricuspid valve B) Bicuspid (mitral) valve C) Aortic semilunar valve D) Pulmonary semilunar valve E) Interventricular septum

13)

The bicuspid (mitral) valve A) is the location of the pacemaker cells of a normal heart.

B) prevents blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

C) prevents blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

D) prevents blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

E) prevents blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle.

14)

The aortic semilunar valve A) is the location of the pacemaker cells of a normal heart.

B) prevents blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

C) prevents blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

D) prevents blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

E) prevents blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle.

15)

The pulmonary semilunar valve

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A) is the location of the pacemaker cells of a normal heart.

B) prevents blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

C) prevents blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

D) prevents blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

E) prevents blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle.

16)

The tricuspid valve A) is the location of the pacemaker cells of a normal heart.

B) prevents blood flow from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

C) prevents blood flow from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

D) prevents blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

E) prevents blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle.

17) Melinda suffers from stenosis of the aortic semilunar valve. This increases the rigidity of the valve, making it difficult for it to open. This increases the __________, therefore __________ the cardiac output.

A) afterload; decreasing B) afterload; increasing C) preload; decreasing D) preload; increasing E) venous return; decreasing

18)

Which of these is NOT one of the large veins carrying blood to the heart?

A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Pulmonary vein E) Coronary sinus

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19)

Which of these statements concerning the normal pathway of blood flow is NOT correct?

A) Blood flows from the pulmonary arteries to the lungs.

B) Blood flows from the pulmonary veins to the right atrium.

C) Blood flows from the aorta to all parts of the body.

D) Blood flows from the coronary sinus to the right atrium.

E) Neither ""Blood flows from the pulmonary veins to the right atrium."" and ""Blood flows from the coronary sinus to the right atrium."" is correct.

20) In a normal heart, when the right ventricle contracts, it forces blood through the __________ valve.

A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) aortic semilunar D) pulmonary semilunar

21) Which of these statements concerning the functional characteristics of the heart chambers is NOT correct?

A) During ventricular diastole, blood collects in the right and left atria.

B) At the very beginning of ventricular diastole, blood flows directly from the atria into the relaxed ventricles.

C) 70% of ventricular filling occurs before the atria contract.

D) During ventricular systole, the atrioventricular valves close.

E) During ventricular diastole, the semilunar valves open.

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22) The vessel labeled with the letter B delivers blood A) from the left ventricle to the body.

B) from the left ventricle to the lungs.

C) from the right ventricle to the lungs.

D) from the right atrium to the vena cava.

E) from the right atrium to the body.

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23) The vessel labeled with the letter C receives blood from the A) superior vena cava.

B) pulmonary veins.

C) aorta.

D) left atrium.

E) right ventricle.

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24) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.

1) Right atrium 2) Left atrium 3) Right ventricle 4) Left ventricle 5) Superior & inferior vena cava 6) Aorta 7) Pulmonary artery 8) Pulmonary vein 9) Mitral/bicuspid valve 10) Tricuspid valve 11) Pulmonary semilunar valve 12) Aorta semilunar valve What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering the heart from the BODY and leaving for PULMONARY CIRCULATION? A) 8, 1, 10, 3, 11, 7 B) 5, 1, 10, 3, 11, 7 C) 5, 2, 9, 4, 12, 6 D) 6, 12, 1, 2, 10, 4 E) 8, 2, 3, 7, 11, 6

25) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart.

1) Right atrium 2) Left atrium 3) Right ventricle 4) Left ventricle 5) Superior & inferior vena cava 6) Aorta 7) Pulmonary artery 8) Pulmonary vein 9) Mitral/bicuspid valve 10) Tricuspid valve 11) Pulmonary semilunar valve 12) Aorta semilunar valve What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering the heart from the LUNGS leaving for SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION (i.e., the body)?

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A) 8, 2, 9, 4, 12, 6 B) 8, 1, 10, 3, 11, 7 C) 5, 1, 10, 3, 11, 7 D) 7, 2, 9, 4, 12, 6 E) 6, 12, 1, 2, 10, 4

26)

The right side of the heart forces blood to flow A) to the body.

B) to the lungs.

C) through the systemic circulation.

D) Both "to the body." and "through the systemic circulation." are correct.

E) Both "to the lungs." and "through the systemic circulation." are correct.

27)

Papillary muscles A) contract when the ventricles relax.

B) prevent the valves from closing during ventricular diastole.

C) are attached to the semilunar valves via the chordae tendineae.

D) prevent the backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular systole.

E) prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the aorta.

28) Papillary muscles are attached to the cusps of valves by thin, strong, connective tissue strings called A) the chordae tendineae.

B) the interventricular septa.

C) the auricles.

D) the interventricular sulcus.

E) the coronary sinus.

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29)

The cardiac skeleton A) forms fibrous rings around the atrioventricular and semilunar valves.

B) serves as electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles.

C) provides a rigid source of attachment for cardiac muscle.

D) provides solid support for the heart valves.

E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The layer of the heart wall that is the visceral pericardium is also called the A) endocardium.

B) myocardium.

C) epicardium.

D) chordae tendineae.

E) mediastinum.

31)

The thick middle layer of the heart, composed of cardiac muscle, is the A) endocardium.

B) myocardium.

C) epicardium.

D) chordae tendineae.

32)

Like skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle A) relies on calcium and ATP to contract.

B) is controlled by the stimulation of motor units.

C) uses temporal summation to increase contractile force.

D) has both fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.

E) is multinucleate.

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33) If the left bundle branch is damaged, what would be the effect on the activity of the heart?

A) Weak or absent contraction of the left atrium.

B) Weak or absent contraction of the left ventricle.

C) Sustained contraction of the left side of the heart.

D) Increased stimulation of the left ventricle.

E) All of the choices are correct.

34)

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?

A) Rich in mitochondria B) Striated C) Special cell-to-cell contacts called intercalated disks D) Can develop a significant oxygen debt E) Elongated, branching cells usually with one nucleus

35)

Which of the following is TRUE of cardiac muscle?

A) Cardiac muscle tissue has both an intracellular and extracellular source of Ca 2+.

B) Cardiac muscle tissue has slow Ca 2+ voltage gates in the membrane that make cardiac muscle incapable of tetanus.

C) In cardiac muscle tissue, excitation spreads from cell to cell via intercalated disks.

D) Cardiac muscle tissue does not require nerve activity to stimulate a contraction.

E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Intercalated disks in cardiac muscle

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A) are a type of gap junction.

B) allow all of the muscle fibers in an area to contract at the same time.

C) prevent the cells from pulling apart.

D) reduce the electrical resistance between cells, allowing APs to pass more easily from cell to cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

37)

Cardiac muscle cells A) twist when they contract.

B) shorten when they contract.

C) lengthen when they contract.

D) contract by motor units.

E) Both "twist when they contract." and "shorten when they contract." are correct.

38) The specialized __________ in the intercalated disks allow cytoplasm to flow freely between adjacent cells.

A) valves B) hemidesmosomes C) desmosomes D) gap junctions E) tight junctions

39)

Action potentials in contractile cardiac muscle cells A) are much faster than action potentials in skeletal muscle.

B) have no plateau phase.

C) involve voltage-gated calcium ion channels.

D) have sodium ion channels that open and cause repolarization.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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40) As a result of the long refractory period generated by __________, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit __________.

A) the influx of calcium ions, tetanic contractions B) the out flow of K +, tetanic contractions C) the influx of Na +, tetanic contractions D) the influx of Ca 2+, recruitment E) the out flow of K +, recruitment

41)

Which of the following structures are able to spontaneously generate an action potential?

A) The sinoatrial node (SA Node) B) The atrioventricular node (AV Node) C) The atrioventricular bundle D) The right and left bundle branches E) All of the choices are correct.

42) As the impulse from the SA node spreads across the atria, it is prevented from stimulating the ventricles by the A) SA node.

B) AV node.

C) tricuspid and bicuspid valves.

D) semilunar valves.

E) fibrous cardiac skeleton.

43) Given the following structures of the conduction system of the heart, arrange them in the order in which an action potential would pass through them.

1) AV node 2) Atrioventricular bundle 3) Bundle branches 4) Purkinje fibers

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 1, 4, 2, 3 D) 2, 1, 3, 4 E) 3, 1, 2, 4

44)

If the SA node is unable to function, A) an ectopic beat may be initiated by another part of the heart.

B) the heart rate will be slower.

C) the AV node will become the pacemaker for the heart.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

45)

Which of these statements concerning the conduction system of the heart is TRUE?

A) The sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart acts as the pacemaker.

B) The SA node is located on the upper wall of the left atrium.

C) The AV node conducts action potentials rapidly through it.

D) Action potentials are carried slowly through the atrioventricular bundle.

E) Both "The sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart acts as the pacemaker." and "The SA node is located on the upper wall of the atrium." are correct.

46)

In a normal electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG),

A) the P wave results from repolarization of the atria.

B) the QRS complex results from depolarization of the ventricles.

C) the T wave represents repolarization of the ventricles.

D) during the P-R interval, the ventricles contract.

E) Both "the QRS complex results from depolarization of the ventricles" and "the T wave represents repolarization of the ventricles" are correct.

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47)

On an ECG, a long P-R interval might indicate A) tachycardia.

B) an AV node block.

C) atrial fibrillation.

D) sinus arrhythmia.

E) an SA node block.

48)

If an ECG indicates no P wave, a possible explanation would be A) damage to the SA node.

B) damage to the AV node.

C) damage to ventricular muscle.

D) excessive vagus nerve stimulation.

E) ectopic beats in the ventricles.

49)

Repolarization of the ventricles is shown as the __________ on an EKG. A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

50) The contraction of the atria and beginning relaxation of the atriaoccurs during the __________ on an EKG.

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A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

51)

Depolarization of the atria is shown as the __________ on an EKG. A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

52)

Depolarization of the ventricles is shown as the __________ on an EKG. A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

53) When all ventricular cells depolarize and then repolarize, this is shown on an EKG as the __________.

A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

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54)

Repolarization of the atria occurs during the __________ on an EKG. A) P wave B) P-Q (or P-R) interval C) QRS complex D) Q-T interval E) T wave

55) When listening to Maria’s heart, the doctor notices a swishing sound immediately after the first heart sound. Which of the following is correct?

A) Maria has a heart murmur.

B) The sound occurs immediately after the AV valves close.

C) Maria might have an incompetent valve.

D) The sound is generated by the leakage of blood through a poorly closed valve.

E) All of the choices are correct.

56)

Ventricular systole A) occurs between the first and second heart sounds.

B) occurs just prior to the first heart sound.

C) lasts longer than ventricular diastole.

D) is the relaxation phase of the ventricles.

E) All of the choices are correct.

57)

Tachycardia occurs when

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A) the heart rate is lower than 60 beats per minute.

B) the heart rate is higher than 100 beats per minute.

C) ventricular fibrillation occurs.

D) ectopic beats occur in the atria.

E) Both "the heart rate is higher than 100 beats per minute." and "ectropic beats occur in the atria." are correct.

58)

Cardiac output is equal to A) the volume of blood pumped by either ventricle during one second.

B) the stroke volume times the number of beats per hour.

C) the volume of blood in the body times the number of beats per minute.

D) the stroke volume times the beats per minute.

E) the volume of blood in the body divided by the stroke volume.

59)

Which of these factors would cause a decrease in cardiac output?

A) Increased body temperature B) Increased venous return C) Clinical depression D) Increased epinephrine secretion E) Decreased blood pH

60)

The cardioregulatory center of the brain is located in the __________.

A) hypothalamus B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) cerebellum E) thalamus

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61)

Which of these is NOT part of an extrinsic regulatory mechanism of the heart?

A) Baroreceptor reflex B) Sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation of the SA node C) Epinephrine secreted from the adrenal medulla D) Chemoreceptors for oxygen in the medulla oblongata E) Change in venous return

62)

Which of these factors would cause an increase in heart rate?

A) Increased parasympathetic stimulation B) Stimulation of baroreceptors in the aorta C) A decrease in blood pH D) A decrease in carbon dioxide in the blood E) Excess potassium ions

63) When blood pressure increases, a number of events occur that return blood pressure to normal. Which of the following is NOT one of the events that occur after an increase in blood pressure?

A) Baroreceptors in the aorta and internal carotid arteries are stimulated.

B) Increased action potential frequency to the cardioregulatory center of the brain occurs.

C) Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart occurs.

D) Heart rate and stroke volume decrease.

E) Blood pressure decreases.

64)

Cutting the vagus nerve to the heart would cause

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A) the heart to quit beating.

B) the heart rate to decrease.

C) no change in heart rate.

D) the heart rate to increase.

E) an AV block.

65) Which of the following occurs when the chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata detect a low blood pH? A) Parasympathetic stimulation increases.

B) The heart rate and stroke volume decrease.

C) The adrenal medulla increases the secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.

D) Blood flow to the lungs decreases.

E) The cardioregulatory center decreases sympathetic stimulation.

66)

Which of these is NOT a factor that increases the risk for cardiovascular disease?

A) Smoking B) Hypertension C) Daily aspirin use D) Chronic stress E) Lack of physical exercise

67)

Pulmonary edema normally follows soon after A) right heart failure.

B) left heart failure.

C) complete heart failure.

D) left ventricular hypertrophy.

E) primary hypertension.

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68)

Which of these conditions might an antibiotic be effective in treating?

A) Angina pectoris B) Patent ductus arteriosus C) Septal defect D) Coronary heart disease E) Rheumatic heart disease

69) The heart medication that is frequently given to people who suffer from heart failure because it slows and strengthens contractions of the heart muscle is (are) __________.

A) digitalis B) nitroglycerine C) beta-blockers D) calcium channel blockers E) anticoagulants

70) The heart medication that causes a reduction in heart rate and in the strength of cardiac muscle contraction is (are) __________.

A) digitalis B) nitroglycerine C) beta-adrenergic blocking agents D) calcium channel blockers E) anticoagulants

71) The injection of a calcium channel blocker will cause an increase in which of the following?

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A) Stroke volume B) Contractile strength C) Cardiac output D) Coronary blood flow E) Blood pressure

72)

All of the following occur as the cardiovascular system ages EXCEPT A) decrease in cardiac output.

B) hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

C) increased afterload.

D) decreased elasticity of heart and aorta.

E) increase in the overall resting heart rate.

73) Obstruction of the __________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others.

A) left marginal vein B) left coronary artery (LCA) C) posterior interventricular vein D) anterior interventricular branch E) circumflex branch

74)

When ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure, A) ejection occurs.

B) the atria pump blood into the ventricles.

C) a ventricle is in diastole.

D) blood is pumped into the atrium.

E) AV valves close.

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75) Jonah has an incompetent tricuspid valve. Which function of his heart is compromised by this defect?

A) Generating blood pressure B) Routing blood C) Ensuring one-way blood flow D) Regulating blood supply E) All of the choices are correct.

76) A common age-related change in the cardiovascular system is a decrease in cardiac output. Which of the following would NOT be an explanation for this decrease?

A) A decrease in maximum heart rate.

B) Hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

C) An increase in afterload.

D) Changes in the conduction system that alter patterns of cardiac stimulation.

E) An increase in the strength of cardiac muscle contractions.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_11e 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) E 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) E 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) E 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) E 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) E 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) E 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) E 47) B 48) A 49) E 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) D 54) C 55) E 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) D 59) C 60) B 61) E 62) C 63) C 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) E 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) E 73) B 74) E 75) E 76) E

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CHAPTER 13 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Functions of the peripheral circulation include all of the following EXCEPT A) carrying blood to the tissues.

B) exchanging waste products and nutrients.

C) transporting hormones and components of the immune system.

D) pumping blood into the arteries.

E) directing blood flow to areas of increased need.

2)

The systemic vessels A) transport blood through all parts of the body from the left ventricle to the right

atrium.

B) supply oxygen and nutrients to all cells of the body.

C) carry away carbon dioxide and waste from all cells of the body.

D) are part of the peripheral circulation.

E) All of the choices are correct.

3)

Which of the following is most likely to be an elastic artery?

A) The ascending aorta B) The coronary arteries C) The right internal thoracic artery D) The parietal arteries E) None of the choices are correct.

4)

Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a muscular artery?

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A) The ascending aorta B) The pulmonary trunk C) The aortic arch D) The superior mesenteric E) None of the choices are correct.

5)

The arteries with walls that are mostly smooth muscle are A) medium-size (distributing) arteries.

B) elastic arteries.

C) arterioles.

D) capillaries.

6)

Which of these arteries are able to actively dilate and constrict?

A) Elastic arteries B) Medium-size (distributing) arteries C) Arterioles D) Small arteries E) Answers "Elastic arteries" and "Medium-size (distributing) arteries" and "Arterioles" and "Small arteries" are correct.

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7)

Which layer of the blood vessel wall is marked with the letter A?

A) Tunica adventitia B) Tunica intima C) Tunica media

8)

The layer of the blood vessel wall that is marked by letter B is composed of __________.

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A) smooth muscle only B) smooth muscle and elastic tissue C) endothelium only D) endothelium and basement membrane E) elastic tissue only

9)

Arteries A) carry only oxygenated blood.

B) carry blood away from the heart.

C) have valves.

D) serve as a blood reservoir.

E) All of the choices are correct.

10)

Which of these have no smooth muscle in their walls?

A) Venules B) Small veins C) Medium-size veins D) Large veins E) All of the choices are correct.

11)

Valves

A) are found in veins less than 2 mm in diameter.

B) consist of folds in the tunica adventitia.

C) are found more often in the leg veins than in the arm veins.

D) allow blood to flow only toward the heart.

E) Both "are found more often in the leg veins than in the arm veins" and "allow blood to flow only toward the heart" are correct.

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12) Given the following vessels, arrange them in the sequence blood would pass through when traveling from the heart to body tissues.

1) Arterioles 2) Capillaries 3) Elastic arteries 4) Muscular arteries A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 2, 1, 3, 4 D) 3, 4, 1, 2 E) 4, 3, 1, 2

13)

Concerning blood vessel walls, A) the tunica adventitia is composed of connective tissue.

B) the tunica intima is smooth muscle.

C) the tunica media is an endothelial layer.

D) the walls of arteries are thinner and contain less elastic tissue than veins.

E) capillaries have the thickest walls of all the blood vessels.

14)

Capillaries A) have a lot of smooth muscle in their walls.

B) are a location of gas and nutrient exchange.

C) are more numerous in such tissues as bone and dense connective tissue.

D) experience very high internal pressures.

E) All of the choices are correct.

15)

Blood flow through capillaries is regulated by

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A) one-way valves in the veins.

B) precapillary sphincters.

C) skeletal muscle contraction.

D) elastic valves.

E) the tunica intima.

16) If blood flow to the left atrium is blocked, in which blood vessel would the obstruction most likely be found?

A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Pulmonary vein E) Coronary sinus

17) Emboli that form in a vein in the lower limbs are most likely to become lodged in the lungs because A) blood flows directly from the legs to the thorax.

B) the vessels increase in size from the legs to the heart and then decrease in size from the heart to the lungs.

C) the lungs naturally act as a filter for the blood.

D) the emboli become adhesive when exposed to the air in the lungs.

E) None of the choices are correct.

18) The right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery branch from the __________.

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A) aorta B) left common carotid artery C) brachiocephalic artery D) basilar artery E) vertebral artery

19)

The artery that transports blood to the left upper limb is the __________.

A) aorta B) brachiocephalic artery C) left common carotid artery D) left subclavian artery E) left vertebral artery

20) The arteries found in the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae are the __________ arteries.

A) common carotid B) vertebral C) internal carotid D) external carotid E) subclavian

21)

Parietal arteries that branch from the thoracic (descending) aorta

A) supply the thoracic organs.

B) include the posterior intercostal arteries.

C) include the anterior intercostal arteries.

D) include the superior phrenic arteries.

E) Both "include the posterior intercostal arteries." and "include the superior phrenic arteries." are correct.

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22)

Which of these is NOT an unpaired visceral branch of the abdominal aorta?

A) Celiac artery B) Superior phrenic artery C) Superior mesenteric artery D) Inferior mesenteric artery E) All of the choices are correct.

23) The artery that supplies the urinary bladder, rectum, uterus, and vagina is the __________ artery.

A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) median sacral D) inferior phrenic E) lumbar

24)

Which of these arteries branches to form the anterior tibial and posterior tibial arteries?

A) External iliac artery B) Internal iliac artery C) Popliteal artery D) Femoral artery E) Common iliac artery

25) Which of these arteries might a red blood cell pass through if it started in the left ventricle and went to the brain?

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A) Radial artery B) Brachiocephalic artery C) External carotid artery D) Axillaryartery E) Both “radial artery” and “brachiocephalic artery” are correct.

26)

The __________ is (are) responsible for transporting blood to the upper limbs.

A) subclavian arteries B) common carotid arteries C) external carotid arteries D) internal carotid arteries E) cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)

27)

The __________ supply (supplies) blood to the face, nose, and mouth.

A) subclavian arteries B) common carotid arteries C) external carotid arteries D) internal carotid arteries E) cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)

28)

The __________ is (are) formed when the vertebral arteries unite at the base of the brain.

A) subclavian arteries B) common carotid arteries C) external carotid arteries D) internal carotid arteries E) cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)

29)

The stomach, spleen, and liver receive their blood from the __________.

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A) inferior mesenteric arteries B) renal arteries C) suprarenal arteries D) superior mesenteric artery E) celiac trunk

30)

The kidneys receive their blood from the __________.

A) inferior mesenteric arteries B) renal arteries C) suprarenal arteries D) superior mesenteric artery E) celiac trunk

31)

The adrenal glands receive their blood from the __________.

A) inferior mesenteric arteries B) renal arteries C) suprarenal arteries D) superior mesenteric artery E) celiac trunk

32) Blockage of which vessel would lead to tissue damage in the small intestine, pancreas, and upper colon?

A) Inferior mesenteric arteries B) Renal arteries C) Suprarenal arteries D) Superior mesenteric artery E) Celiac trunk

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33)

The lower colon receives its blood from the __________.

A) inferior mesenteric arteries B) renal arteries C) suprarenal arteries D) superior mesenteric artery E) celiac trunk

34)

The first vessel to branch from the aortic arch is the __________.

A) right subclavian artery B) right common carotid artery C) left subclavian artery D) brachiocephalic artery E) left common carotid artery

35) The vessels that supply blood to most of the brain tissue are branches of the __________ at the base of the brain.

A) vertebral arteries B) cerebral arterial circle C) axillary arteries D) external carotid arteries E) subclavian arteries

36) Given the following vessels, trace a red blood cell from the brachiocephalic artery to the thumb side of the hand. Although all of the arteries listed are included in the upper limb, not all will be used.

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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 4, 3 C) 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 4, 1, 2, 3 E) 4, 1, 2, 5

37) Your coach says that you need more strength and endurance in your quads, so you head to the gym to work that group of muscles. Which of the following blood vessels is most likely supplying that muscle group with oxygenated blood?

A) Femoral artery B) Femoral vein C) Saphenous vein D) Dorsalis pedis artery E) Fibular or peroneal artery

38) The __________ is the part of the descending aorta that extends from the diaphragm to the common iliac arteries.

A) ascending aorta B) aortic arch C) thoracic aorta D) abdominal aorta

39)

The portion of the aorta that gives rise to the coronary arteries is the __________.

A) ascending aorta B) aortic arch C) thoracic aorta D) abdominal aorta

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40)

The part of the aorta that gives rise to the left common carotid artery is the __________.

A) ascending aorta B) aortic arch C) thoracic aorta D) abdominal aorta

41)

The __________ is the longest portion of the aorta.

A) ascending aorta B) aortic arch C) thoracic aorta D) abdominal aorta

42) The part of the descending aorta that extends from the thorax to the diaphragm is the __________.

A) ascending aorta B) aortic arch C) thoracic aorta D) abdominal aorta

43)

The __________ veins drain the kidneys.

A) suprarenal B) renal C) testicular D) ovarian E) mesenteric

44)

The __________ veins drain the testes in males.

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A) suprarenal B) renal C) testicular D) ovarian E) mesenteric

45)

The __________ veins drain the adrenal glands.

A) suprarenal B) renal C) testicular D) ovarian E) mesenteric

46)

The __________ veins drain the ovaries in females.

A) suprarenal B) renal C) testicular D) ovarian E) mesenteric

47) Which of these vessels would blood from the cranial vault NOT pass through as it returned to the heart?

A) External jugular veins B) Internal jugular veins C) Subclavian veins D) Brachiocephalic veins E) Both "external jugular veins" and "subclavian veins" are correct.

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48) The __________ begins with capillaries in the viscera and ends with capillaries in the liver.

A) superior mesenteric vein B) inferior mesenteric vein C) hepatic portal system D) hepatic vein E) gastric vein

49) Blood from the descending colon and rectum is carried to the hepatic portal vein by the __________ vein.

A) superior mesenteric B) inferior mesenteric C) splenic D) gastric E) cystic

50)

Which of these is a superficial vein of the lower limbs?

A) Anterior tibial vein B) Femoral vein C) Popliteal vein D) Great saphenous vein E) Internal iliac vein

51)

A portal system

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A) begins and ends with capillary beds.

B) has no pumping mechanism between capillary beds.

C) is a specialized network of blood vessels.

D) is exemplified by the hepatic portal system and the pituitary-hypothalamic portal system.

E) All of the choices are correct.

52)

Regulation of peripheral resistance occurs most often in the __________.

A) large arteries B) medium-size arteries C) arterioles D) capillaries E) veins

53)

Blood pressure measurements are most commonly taken at the ________.

A) brachial vein B) basilic vein C) cephalic vein D) median cubital vein

54) The body has several ways to keep blood moving forward through the veins. Which of the following does NOT explain how this happens?

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A) The pressure in the veins is lower than the pressure in the arteries (i.e., blood flows down its pressure gradient).

B) Valves in the veins prevent backflow.

C) Blood continues to move with the aid of the respiratory pump (changes in pressure in thoracic cavity during inhalation and exhalation).

D) The pumping of the venous endothelial contraction nodules (which act like a series of miniature hearts) ensure blood flow.

E) Blood continues to move with the aid of contractions of skeletal muscles.

55)

Which of the following blood vessels have highest resistance to blood flow?

A) Elastic arteries and muscular arteries B) Muscular arteries and large veins C) Arterioles and capillaries D) Large veins and venules E) Elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and large veins

56)

A blood pressure reading of 120/80

A) indicates a diastolic pressure of 120 mm Hg. B) demonstrates Korotkoff's sounds at pressures above 120 mm Hg when taking blood pressure.

C) indicates the diastolic pressure would be sufficient to lift a column of mercury 80 mm.

D) would be considered normal for a resting young adult male.

E) Both ""indicates the diastolic pressure would be sufficient to lift a column of mercury 80 mm"" and ""would be considered normal for a resting young adult male"" are correct.

57) The most rapid decline in blood pressure occurs in the __________ because of their __________ resistance.

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A) large arteries; high B) medium-size arteries; low C) arterioles; high D) elastic arteries; low E) veins; high

58) If a normal person has a blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg, by comparison a person with arteriosclerosis might have a reading of __________.

A) 150/60 mm Hg B) 120/60 mm Hg C) 100/80 mm Hg D) 120/100 mm Hg E) 80/120 mm Hg

59)

Which of the following occur as stroke volume increases?

A) Systolic pressure increases more than diastolic pressure.

B) Pulse pressure decreases.

C) Cardiac output decreases.

D) Resistance to blood flow increases.

E) The amount of blood sent to the systemic circulation decreases.

60)

Regarding fluid movement through the capillaries, A) blood pressure moves fluid out of the capillaries.

B) osmotic pressure moves fluid into the capillaries.

C) blood usually has a greater osmotic pressure than interstitial fluid.

D) nine-tenths of the fluid that leaves the capillary reenters the capillary.

E) All of the choices are correct.

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61)

Edema will develop if

A) the capillary blood pressure is always higher than the capillary osmotic pressure.

B) the lymphatic vessels are blocked.

C) the osmotic concentration of the blood is a lot less than the osmotic concentration of the interstitial fluid.

D) the capillary beds suddenly become more permeable to proteins such as albumen.

E) All of the choices are correct.

62) When the by-products of metabolism build up in the tissue spaces, the precapillary sphincters __________, causing blood flow to the tissue to __________.

A) contract; decrease B) contract; increase C) relax; decrease D) relax; increase E) close; remain the same

63) When the concentration of carbon dioxide decreases in the tissue, the precapillary sphincters __________, causing blood flow to the tissue to __________.

A) contract; decrease B) contract; increase C) relax; decrease D) relax; increase E) close; remain the same

64) Increased metabolism leads to an increase in carbon dioxide production in the tissues and a decrease in pH. How would the precapillary sphincters respond to these?

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A) They would contract, causing blood flow to the tissue to decrease.

B) They would contract, causing blood flow to the tissue to increase.

C) They would relax, causing blood flow to the tissue to decrease.

D) They would relax, causing blood flow to the tissue to increase.

65) When the pH of the tissue increases, the precapillary sphincters __________, causing blood flow to the tissue to __________.

A) contract; decrease B) contract; increase C) relax; decrease D) relax; increase E) close; remain the same

66)

Local control of blood flow

A) occurs because of contraction or relaxation of precapillary sphincters.

B) causes precapillary sphincters to contract when carbon dioxide levels decrease in tissue spaces.

C) causes an increase in blood flow when oxygen levels increase in tissue spaces.

D) Both "occurs because of contraction or relaxation of precapillary sphincters" and "causes an increase in blood flow when oxygen levels increase in tissue spaces" are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

67) When cells become active in a certain area of the body, the blood flow to the capillaries in that area must __________ to provide more __________.

A) increase; O 2 B) decrease; O 2 C) increase; CO 2 D) decrease; sodium E) decrease; ATP

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68) As you work your quads, you notice that the tissue in that part of the leg is pinker (flush with increased blood flow). What has caused this increase in blood flow to the quads?

A) An increase in the oxygen concentration in the tissue.

B) An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the tissue.

C) The constriction of precapillary sphincters in the capillary beds of the muscle.

D) The overall decrease in the temperature of the muscle tissue as the muscles contract.

E) A rise in the pH of the blood and interstitial fluid of the muscle.

69) In most vessels, epinephrine and norepinephrine cause __________, but in skeletal and cardiac muscle, these hormones cause __________.

A) vasoconstriction; vasodilatation B) vasodilatation; vasoconstriction C) increases to blood flow; decreases to blood flow D) increases in oxygen concentration; decreases in oxygen concentration E) Both "vasodilatation; vasoconstriction" and "increases to blood flow; decreases to blood flow" are correct.

70)

Vasomotor tone

A) is maintained by the parasympathetic nervous system.

B) occurs in response to the vasomotor center in the cerebellum.

C) occurs when action potentials travel through sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibers.

D) keeps peripheral blood vessels in a partially constricted state.

E) Both "occurs when action potentials travel through sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibers" and "keeps peripheral blood vessels in a partially constricted state" are correct.

71) Stimulation of the vasomotor center in the medulla oblongata causes __________ and therefore __________ to the cardiac output.

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A) vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels; increases B) vasodilation of the peripheral blood vessels; decreases C) vasodilation of the peripheral blood vessels; increases D) vasoconstriction of the peripheral blood vessels; decreases E) a decrease in vasomotor tone; decreases

72) Rachel just found out that the anatomy practical is today. This has caused her blood pressure to suddenly increase. How would her body respond to this sudden change?

A) Blood pressure would decrease as the walls of her blood vessels relaxed, decreasing vasomotor tone.

B) Peripheral resistance would increase in her blood vessels as blood vessels dilate.

C) Vasoconstriction of her blood vessels would decrease overall blood pressure.

D) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would decrease her heart rate and therefore her blood pressure.

E) All of the choices are correct.

73)

The __________ contain(s) baroreceptors.

A) subclavian arteries B) common carotid arteries C) external carotid arteries D) internal carotid arteries E) cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)

74)

An increase in which of these would produce an increase in mean arterial pressure?

A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Peripheral resistance D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Both "Heart rate" and "Stroke volume" are correct.

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75)

Which of these conditions would stimulate the chemoreceptor reflex?

A) Increased oxygen content of the blood B) Increased carbon dioxide content of the blood C) Decreased pH of the blood D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Both "Increased carbon dioxide content of the blood" and "Decreased pH of the blood" are correct.

76)

The chemoreceptor reflexes

A) cause an increase in blood flow to the lungs.

B) cause a decrease in blood flow to the lungs.

C) helps decrease blood oxygen levels.

D) cause a decrease in blood flow to the heart.

E) Both "cause a decrease in blood flow to the lungs." and "cause a decrease in blood flow to the heart." are correct.

77)

Epinephrine causes

A) increased heart rate and stroke volume.

B) vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin and viscera.

C) vasoconstriction of blood vessels to skeletal muscle and heart muscle.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Both "increased heart rate and stroke volume." and "vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin and viscera." are correct.

78)

Which of these would occur as a result of increased renin release by the kidneys?

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A) An increase in angiotensin production B) An increase in aldosterone secretion C) An increase in sodium ion reabsorption D) An increase in water reabsorption E) All of the choices are correct.

79) Which of these chemical substances, when released into the blood, would cause blood pressure to decrease?

A) Epinephrine B) Angiotensin C) Aldosterone D) Vasopressin E) Atrial natriuretic factor

80) A famous tag-team heavyweight wrestler has a famous “sleeper hold” that he uses on opponents. Using only a single digit on each hand, he presses on his opponent’s neck (while he has them in a full nelson) until his opponent passes out. What are the structures on which he is pressing, and what is the effect?

A) Subclavian arteries; Blood flow is stopped.

B) Carotid bodies; Chemoreceptors stimulated and blood pressure decreased.

C) Baroreceptors in carotid sinus; Peripheral vasodilation, decreased heart rate.

D) Vertebral arteries; Blood flow to brain is stopped.

81) Nancy was involved in a severe car accident. She received a large laceration on her thigh that caused hemorrhaging. Which statement below describes how the body would respond to the sudden loss of blood?

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A) The decrease in blood volume and blood flow would stimulate the release of renin from the kidneys.

B) Nancy’s heart rate would slow down, allowing blood to move slowly through the vessels.

C) Aldosterone release from the adrenal gland would decrease.

D) Baroreceptors would detect the increase in blood pressure and work to lower blood pressure.

82)

A hormone that is released in response to an increase in blood pressure is __________.

A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) angiotensin I D) angiotensin II E) atrial natriuretic peptide

83)

In severe cases of shock,

A) the normal regulatory mechanisms for blood pressure control are adequate to return the body to homeostasis.

B) the cardiac output rises dramatically.

C) a positive feedback cycle develops.

D) the baroreceptor reflexes are adequate for returning blood pressure to normal.

E) renin secretion decreases, causing a rise in blood pressure.

84)

Deposition of material in the walls of arteries to form plaques is called __________.

A) atherosclerosis B) varicose veins C) thrombosis D) pulmonary blockage E) phlebitis

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85)

Which of these are factors that increase the likelihood of atherosclerosis?

A) Lack of exercise B) Smoking C) Obesity D) Genetics E) All of the choices are correct.

86)

Inflammation of the veins is known as __________.

A) varicose veins B) thrombosis C) phlebitis D) necrosis E) an embolus

87) A patient, Allen, was found to have severe arteriosclerosis of his renal arteries, which reduces renal blood flow. Which of these would be consistent with that condition?

A) Hypotension (low blood pressure) B) Hypertension (high blood pressure) C) Decreased vasomotor tone D) Exaggerated sympathetic stimulation of the heart E) Both "Hypotension (low blood pressure)" and "Decreased vasomotor tone" are correct.

88)

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, causes edema in the tissues because

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A) it raises the capillary osmotic pressure, thereby forcing water back into the capillaries at a higher rate then normal.

B) it raises the capillary osmotic pressure, thereby driving water out of the capillaries and into the interstitial spaces at a higher rate than normal.

C) it raises the capillary blood pressure, thereby driving water out of the capillaries and into the interstitial spaces at a higher rate than normal.

D) it lowers the capillary blood pressure, thereby decreasing the amount of water accumulating in the tissues.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_11e 1) D 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) E 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) E 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) E 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) E Version 1

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57) C 58) A 59) A 60) E 61) E 62) D 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) E 71) A 72) E 73) D 74) D 75) E 76) A 77) E 78) E 79) E 80) C 81) A 82) E 83) C 84) A 85) E 86) C Version 1

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87) B 88) C

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CHAPTER 14 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following functions of the lymphatic system ensures that tissues are not damaged due to accumulation of excess fluid?

A) Fluid balance B) Lipid absorption C) Defense D) All of the choices are correct.

2)

Lipids absorbed from the digestive tract A) pass through lymphatic vessels before entering venous circulation.

B) remain in lymphatic vessels until released to cells in other tissues.

C) cause clots that block the flow of blood through lymphatic vessels.

D) usually are lipids that result in coronary heart disease.

3)

Chyle is different from other lymph in that A) it appears red due to the high protein content.

B) it appears white due to the high lipid content.

C) it has more lymphocytes compared to typical lymph.

D) it has less of the pigment bilirubin that accounts for the typical of lymph.

4)

Which of the following statements concerning lymph is TRUE?

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A) Lymph is formed from a watery filtrate produced by the kidneys.

B) Lymph is formed from excess interstitial fluid that fails to reenter the blood circulation.

C) Lymph forms within the red bone marrow and functions to defend the body against viral infections.

D) Lymph is secreted by the serous membranes of the body into closed cavities that contain organs.

5)

Lymphatic vessels carry lymph A) along the exact same circuit as the blood vessels of the body.

B) from the peripheral tissues to large veins in the thorax.

C) from arteries through tissues to veins.

D) only from the tissues of the upper and lower limbs of the body.

6) Lymphatic fluid collected from the upper right side of the head would enter the venous circulation through the __________.

A) thoracic duct B) right lymphatic duct C) right thoracic duct D) Both "right lymphatic duct" and "right thoracic duct" are correct.

7)

The primary function of the tonsils is to

A) protect against foreign particles and microorganisms entering the body through the nose and mouth.

B) indicate whether or not a person has “strep throat.”

C) produce mucus to trap dust particles that enter through inhaled air.

D) detect the amount of water present in ingested material.

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8)

The structures that filter lymph are called __________.

A) tonsils B) lymph nodes C) spleens D) Both "lymph nodes" and "spleens" are correct.

9) Josiah was diagnosed with a thymus tumor when he was in his late 40s. His physician suggested removing the thymus gland, but Josiah wasn’t sure this was such a good idea. What would you say to Josiah to explain that his physician’s suggestion was a good one?

A) The thyroid gland has the same function as the thymus, so the thyroid would continue to perform those functions if the thymus is removed.

B) The thymus is less functional in older adults.

C) The thymus is only important if a person develops mononucleosis, which is a childhood disease.

D) The thymus is essentially another name for lymph nodes, so removal of one is not detrimental.

10)

One of the primary functions of the spleen is to A) filter the lymph.

B) produce B lymphocytes.

C) filter the blood.

D) produce the plasma proteins.

11) Which of the following statements is NOT the meaning of specificity, in relation to immunity?

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A) Only the T lymphocytes responds to virus-infected cells.

B) Cells of adaptive immunity recognize particular substances.

C) Each T cell has a specific area of the body that it defends.

D) Secondary responses occur only during specific ages, usually after the age of 45.

12) Due to __________, the immune system responds faster and more strongly to a particular pathogen that the body has already encountered.

A) specificity B) memory C) innate D) immunotherapy

13) Gerald has not been feeling well lately and goes to the clinic on his college campus. The results of his white blood cell count indicate an increase in the number of neutrophils. Based on this information, what is Gerald most likely suffering from?

A) A viral infection B) A bacterial infection C) Allergies D) Cancer

14)

Which of the following is NOT a physical barrier of innate immunity?

A) Skin B) Tears C) Mucous membranes D) The skin, tears, and mucous membranes are all physical barriers of innate immunity.

15) Which of the following is released by cells infected by viruses to stimulate neighboring cells to produce antiviral proteins?

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A) Complement B) Interferon C) Antibodies D) All of the choices are correct.

16) __________ are lymphocytes that are part of innate immunity and recognize and destroy tumor cells or virus-infected cells.

A) Neutrophils B) Natural killer cells C) Basophils D) Helper T cells

17)

Which of the following are the cardinal signs of local inflammation?

A) Redness, swelling, chills, pain B) Redness, itch, swelling, heat C) Redness, swelling, heat, pain D) Redness and swelling only

18) Hank has a severe toothache, but he does not want to go the dentist. Instead, he reads about a “natural” cure on a website. After five days, the pain in his jaw is extremely severe and he is also running a fever. Which of the following best explains Hank’s symptoms?

A) A local bacterial infection has progressed to systemic inflammation.

B) Natural killer cells are attacking normal cells of the gum.

C) There is a local inflammation of the gums.

D) None of the choices are correct.

19) __________ are substances either introduced to the body or produced by the body that stimulate adaptive immune responses.

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A) Antibodies B) Antigens C) Interferons D) Pyrogens

20)

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of a foreign antigen?

A) Pollen B) Chemicals released bacteria C) Surface antigens of red blood cells D) Viruses

21) __________ are lymphocytes that mature in the bone marrow, whereas __________ are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.

A) T cells; B cells B) B cells; NK cells C) B cells; T cells D) T cells; NK cells

22) A physician would like to stimulate proliferation of helper T cells in one of his patients.

Which of the following is most likely to lead to his desired effect?

A) Increasing the number of MHC class II molecules in healthy cells B) Decreasing the number of B cells C) Increasing interleukin-2 secretion D) Both "Decreasing the number of B cells" and "Increasing interleukin-2 secretion" are correct.

23) Cells that respond to specific intracellular antigens are considered part of __________ immunity.

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A) antibody-mediated B) innate C) cell-mediated D) Both "innate" and "cell-mediated" are correct.

24) Antibody-mediated immunity involves the __________ lymphocytes, which, when activated, produce __________ that ultimately produced antibodies.

A) helper T cells; B cells B) B cells; cytotoxic T cells C) B cells; plasma D) cytotoxic T cells; B cells

25)

__________ is secreted into saliva and tears, and found in breast milk.

A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD

26) __________ functions as an antigen-binding receptor on B cells, but is not responsible for transfusion reactions.

A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD

27)

__________ crosses the placenta to provide immune protection to the fetus and newborn.

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A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD

28)

__________ is often the first antibody produced in response to an antigen.

A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD

29)

__________ binds to mast cells and basophils and stimulates the inflammatory response.

A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD

30) __________ occurs when the immune system is exposed to an antigen to which it has previously responded.

A) Primary response B) Secondary response C) Memory response D) Both "Secondary response" and "Memory response" are correct.

31)

Which of the following explains the long-lasting effect of adaptive immunity?

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A) Memory cells respond faster than the original cells during a primary response.

B) During a memory response, additional memory cells are produced to maintain immunity.

C) Memory cells respond more strongly than the original cells of a primary response.

D) All of the choices are correct.

32)

__________ T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Memory D) Suppressor

33) __________ T cells are important regulatory cells that coordinate the activities of antibody-mediated and cell-mediated immunity.

A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Memory D) Suppressor

34) Infant botulism occurs when the botulism bacterium grows in the digestive tract of an infant. The spores of the bacterium are most likely introduced when the infant is fed honey or exposed to the spores in soil. The infection is very serious but can be treated. In infants, botulism immune globulin is administered. This substance binds to the toxin produced by the bacterium and inactivates it. Which type of acquired immunity is represented by this treatment of infant botulism?

A) Active natural immunity B) Active artificial immunity C) Passive natural immunity D) Passive artificial immunity

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35) Which of the following is an example of how a person acquires an active natural immunity?

A) Jessica contracted chicken pox in the first grade.

B) Samuel was vaccinated against polio before starting grade school.

C) Josie received antiserum for rabies after being bitten by a stray dog.

D) Alexander received antibodies from his mother through the placenta before he was born.

36) __________ are administered to stimulate the immune system to produce memory cells for a particular pathogen.

A) Antisera B) Antibiotics C) Steroids D) Vaccines

37)

Which of the following statements about the immune system is NOT true?

A) The immune system consists of innate immunity and adaptive immunity.

B) All components of the immune system work together to protect the tissues from pathogens.

C) Helper T cells coordinate the activities of adaptive immunity as well as innate immunity.

D) Pathogens can stimulate adaptive immunity or innate immunity, but not both at the same time.

38) Which of the following statements best represents coordination among the various components of the immune system?

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A) Helper T cells stimulate B cells and cytotoxic T cells to respond to pathogens and release substances that increase phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages.

B) Activated B cells give rise to plasma cells and memory cells to fight against current and future pathogens.

C) Natural killer cells destroy virus-infected cells to reduce the chance of the virus spreading to other cells.

D) Cytotoxic T cells release substances that destroy virus-infected cells.

39) __________ treats disease by altering immune system function or by directly attacking harmful cells.

A) Memory response B) Autoimmune disease C) Immunotherapy D) Immunology

40)

Which of the following is NOT an example of immunotherapy?

A) Vaccines B) Antisera C) Monoclonal antibodies D) Use of cytokines to promote inflammation E) All of these choices are correct.

41)

Which of the following correctly describes the effect of aging on the lymphatic system?

A) Aging has very little effect on the lymphatic system’s ability to remove fluid from

tissues.

B) As an individual ages, lipid absorption from the small intestine by lacteals decreases.

C) Aging decreases the filtering process of the spleen.

D) All of the choices are correct.

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42) As a person ages, much of the tissue of the thymus is replaced with adipose tissue. This affects the immune system by A) reducing the number of mature T cells produced.

B) reducing the number of B cells produced.

C) destroying the location for neutrophil activation.

D) All of the choices are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_11e 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) E Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) A 42) A

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CHAPTER 15 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?

A) Regulation of blood pH B) Gas exchange C) Olfaction D) Delivery of oxygen to the tissues of the body E) Voice production

2)

Respiration ensures that _________ enters the body and that __________ exits the body.

A) oxygen; water B) oxygen; carbon dioxide C) carbon dioxide; oxygen D) carbon dioxide; water

3)

The __________ is the entrance of the respiratory tract.

A) nose B) oral cavity C) pharynx D) trachea

4)

The __________ is the common passageway for the respiratory and digestive systems.

A) oral cavity B) pharynx C) larynx D) esophagus

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5)

The larynx is the air passageway between the __________ and the __________.

A) oral cavity; trachea B) pharynx; lungs C) pharynx; trachea D) nasal cavity; trachea

6) The __________ is a membranous tube reinforced by C-shaped cartilage; it is attached to the larynx and extends into the mediastinum.

A) trachea B) pharynx C) esophagus D) laryngopharynx

7)

The __________ are branched from the trachea that insert into the lungs.

A) alveoli B) pharynx C) esophagus D) primary bronchi

8)

The left lung has __________ lobes, and the right lung has __________ lobes.

A) 2; 3 B) 3; 2 C) 3; 4 D) 1; 3

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9) Arrange the following structures to show to the path an oxygen molecule would follow once inhaled.

(1) Alveolus (2) Bronchus (3) Bronchiole (4) Laryngopharynx (5) Larynx (6) Nasal cavity (7) Nasopharynx (8) Oropharynx (9) Trachea A) 6, 7, 8, 4, 5, 9, 2, 3, 1 B) 6, 8, 7, 4, 5, 9, 2, 3, 1 C) 6, 7, 8 , 5, 4, 9, 2, 3, 1 D) 6, 7, 8, 4, 5, 9, 3, 2, 1

10) The __________ is composed of the alveolar wall and the walls of surrounding capillaries.

A) respiratory membrane B) mucosa C) pleura D) All of the choices are correct.

11) During inspiration, the diaphragm __________, causing a(n) __________ in thoracic volume and a(n) __________ in alveolar pressure.

A) contracts; increase; decrease B) contracts; decrease; increase C) relaxes; increase; decrease D) relaxes; decrease; increase

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12) During expiration, the diaphragm __________, causing a(n) __________ in thoracic volume and a(n) __________ in alveolar pressure.

A) contracts; increase; decrease B) contracts; decrease; increase C) relaxes; increase; decrease D) relaxes; decrease; increase

13) __________ is a substance secreted by cells of the alveoli that reduces surface tension of the fluid around the alveoli, preventing collapse of the alveoli.

A) Surfactant B) Mucus C) Pleural fluid D) Both “surfactant” and “pleural fluid” are correct.

14)

Which of the following ensures that pleural pressure is lower than alveolar pressure?

A) Surfactant B) Fluid removal by the lymphatic tissue C) Relaxation of the muscle of respiration D) All of the choices are correct.

15)

__________ is the volume of air inspired or expired with each breath.

A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Inspiratory reserve volume C) Residual volume D) Tidal volume

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16) Lee is completing a respiratory physiology lab activity. Using a simple spirometer, he needs to measure his vital capacity. Which of the following techniques would be best to complete the exercise?

A) Lee should complete one normal respiratory cycle (inhale and exhale) and then immediately exhale as much as possible through the spirometer.

B) Lee should take a deep breath and then exhale through the spirometer until he can no longer exhale.

C) Lee should inhale normally and then exhale normally through the spirometer.

D) Lee cannot measure vital capacity using a spirometer.

17)

Which of the following factors affects gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?

A) Thickness of the membrane B) The total surface area of the respiratory membrane C) The partial pressure of gases across the membrane D) All of the choices are correct.

18) When a lobe of a lung is surgically removed, which factor is altered in relation to gas exchange at the respiratory membrane?

A) Thickness of the membrane B) The total surface area of the respiratory membrane C) The partial pressure of gases across the membrane D) All of the choices are correct.

19)

Oxygen enters the blood at the lungs because A) low blood pressure does not oppose oxygen movement.

B) the partial pressure of oxygen is lower in the blood than in the alveoli.

C) the partial pressure of oxygen is higher in the blood than in the alveoli.

D) oxygen is attracted to the negative charges of plasma proteins.

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20)

To increase CO

2 levels in the blood, a person should

A) take deeper and longer breaths.

B) hold their breath.

C) breathe faster than normal.

D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Most of the oxygen entering the blood is transported A) bound to plasma proteins in the plasma.

B) bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells.

C) converted to bicarbonate ions.

D) as dissolved gas in the blood plasma.

22)

Most of the carbon dioxide entering the blood is transported A) bound to plasma proteins in the plasma.

B) bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells.

C) converted to bicarbonate ions.

D) as dissolved gas in the blood plasma.

23)

The basic rhythm of breathing is controlled by neurons in the __________.

A) medulla oblongata B) heart C) cerebrum D) lungs

24) Paulette was involved in a serious accident that damaged her brainstem. As a result, she cannot breathe on her own due to lack of stimulation of the diaphragm. Which area of the brainstem is most likely affected?

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A) The ventral respiratory groups of the medulla B) The dorsal respiratory groups of the medulla C) The pontine respiratory group D) All of the above are correct.

25) The __________ supports rhythmic respiration movements by limiting the extent of inspiration.

A) Hering-Breuer reflex B) Dalton reflex C) Boyle reflex D) All of the above are correct.

26)

The driving force regulating breathing is __________.

A) blood CO 2 levels B) blood O 2 levels C) blood glucose levels D) Both “blood CO 2 levels” and “blood O 2” levels.

27) Sally’s daughter Sue is having a tantrum in the toy store, lying on the floor and holding her breath. While Sue holds her breath, her blood pH will A) decrease as her blood CO 2 levels increase.

B) increase as her blood CO 2 levels decrease.

C) increase as her blood CO 2 levels increase.

D) decrease as her blood CO 2 levels decrease.

28)

Which of the following affects blood pH?

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A) Blood CO 2 levels B) Blood O 2 levels C) Both "Blood CO2 levels" and "Blood O2 levels" are correct.

29)

Exercise training A) increases the body’s efficiency in delivering oxygen to the tissues.

B) leads to a decrease in vital capacity.

C) usually results in an increase in residual volume.

D) All of the choices are correct.

30)

After regular exercise training, a person’s vital capacity A) increases slightly.

B) increases greatly.

C) decreases greatly.

D) decreases slightly.

31)

Vital capacity decreases with age because

A) the muscles of respiration weaken.

B) cartilage and ribs become stiffer.

C) brain activity decreases.

D) Both "the muscles of respiration weaken." and "cartilage and ribs become stiffer." are correct.

32)

Which of the following is a normal effect of aging on the respiratory system?

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A) Increased susceptibility to respiratory infections B) Increased residual volume C) Decreased gas exchange at the respiratory membrane D) All of the choices are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_11e 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) D

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CHAPTER 16 MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?

A) Ingestion of food B) Digestion of food C) Absorption of nutrients D) Transport of nutrients to the tissues of the body

2)

During digestion, A) food is broken down from complex particles into smaller molecules.

B) food moves from the digestive tract into the blood.

C) food enters the digestive tract through the mouth.

D) products are removed from the body.

3)

The four layers of the digestive tract wall, from innermost to outermost, are A) mucosa, muscularis, serosa, and submucosa.

B) serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa.

C) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa.

D) submucosa, serosa, muscularis, and mucosa.

4) If a person ingests a poison that targets the smooth muscle of the digestive tract, which tunic will be most affected?

A) Mucosa B) Serosa C) Muscularis D) Submucosa

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5)

The __________ of a tooth contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue.

A) crown B) root C) pulp cavity D) dentin

6) __________ protects the tooth from abrasion and acids produced by bacteria in the mouth.

A) Enamel B) Cementum C) Dentin D) Pulp

7)

The largest of the salivary glands are the __________ glands.

A) parotid B) sublingual C) submandibular

8) The digestive enzyme __________ is secreted in the saliva and begins carbohydrate digestion.

A) salivary amylase B) mucin C) lysozyme D) buffers

9)

__________, also called chewing, breaks down large food particles into smaller ones.

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A) Mastication B) Digestion C) Segmentation D) Deglutition

10) Joanna was chewing gum and talking to her friend when suddenly she swallowed her gum. Which phase of swallowing was most likely involved in the accidental swallowing of her gum?

A) Voluntary phase B) Pharyngeal phase C) Esophageal phase

11) The __________ is a ring of smooth muscle that regulates the movement of material out of the stomach and into the small intestine.

A) cardiac sphincter B) pyloric sphincter C) ileocecal sphincter

12)

The four regions of the stomach include the A) body, cardiac, duodenum, and fundus.

B) cardiac, fundus, body, pyloric region.

C) cardiac, fundus, pyloric region, and duodenum.

D) None of the choices are correct.

13) Sally has suffered from digestive issues for some time. Her physician has prescribed a medication that reduces the amount of HCl secreted in her stomach. What structure of the stomach wall is most affected by this medication?

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A) Mucous neck cells B) Parietal cells C) Endocrine cells D) Chief cells

14) During gastric bypass surgery, the size of the stomach is greatly reduced, limiting the amount of food a person can consume. Which of the following side effects may result from this procedure?

A) Increased production of HCl in response to smaller meals B) Low red blood cell count due to lower levels of vitamin B 12 absorption C) Increased digestion of proteins in the remaining stomach area D) All of the choices are correct.

15)

__________ waves force chyme toward and through the pyloric sphincter.

A) Mixing B) Peristaltic C) Deglutition D) Both "mixing" and "peristaltic" are correct.

16)

__________ waves thoroughly mix ingested food with stomach secretions.

A) Mixing B) Peristaltic C) Deglutition D) Both "mixing" and "peristaltic" are correct.

17) Celiac disease (gluten enteropathy) is a disease that damages the epithelial cells of the small intestine, causing the intestinal villi to be blunted. What effect would this have on the function of the small intestine?

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A) The surface area for absorption would be decreased, leading to lower levels of nutrient absorption.

B) The epithelial lining becomes more permeable, allowing for absorption of more nutrients.

C) No effect would occur, because the intestinal villi are not important to the function of the small intestine.

18)

Which features of the small intestine increase its absorptive ability?

A) The overall length of the small intestine B) Presence of circular folds in the mucosa and submucosa C) Presence of villi in the mucosa D) Presence of microvilli on the epithelial cells lining the small intestine E) All of the choices are correct.

19)

The __________ cells of intestinal glands secrete mucus.

A) absorptive B) goblet C) granular D) endocrine

20)

The __________ cells of intestinal glands secrete digestive enzymes.

A) absorptive B) goblet C) granular D) endocrine

21)

The __________ carries blood that is rich in nutrients from the digestive tract to the liver.

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A) hepatic portal vein B) hepatic artery C) hepatic vein D) endocrine

22)

The __________ carries digestive enzymes and buffers toward the duodenum.

A) common hepatic duct B) pancreatic duct C) common bile duct D) cystic duct

23)

The __________ produces bile, an important substance for fat digestion.

A) gallbladder B) liver C) pancreas D) stomach

24)

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the function of the pancreas?

A) The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum of the small intestine.

B) The pancreas secretes bile to assist with the digestion of lipids.

C) The pancreas secretes hormones that regulate blood glucose levels.

D) The pancreas secretes buffers to regulate the pH of chyme in the small intestine.

25) Which of the following is the correct order of sections that material passes through as it moves through the large intestine?

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A) Cecum, ascending colon, descending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon, rectum B) Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum C) Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, cecum, rectum D) Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

26)

The __________ is a small tubular structure attached to the cecum of the large intestine.

A) appendix B) gallbladder C) cystic duct D) Peyer's patch

27)

The functions of the large intestine include(s)

A) converting chyme to feces.

B) absorptions of major nutrients, such as carbohydrates.

C) absorption of water from intestinal contents.

D) Both "converting chyme to feces." and "absorptions of major nutrients, such as carbohydrates." are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

__________ is/are strong contractions that propel contents of the colon toward the anus.

A) Peristalsis B) Segmentation C) Mass movements D) Mixing waves

29) Suppose there existed an ingestible substance that would limit the amount of lipids the body could absorb. Which of the following mechanisms would likely explain the action of this imaginary substance?

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A) The substance blocks the activity of pancreatic amylase.

B) The substance blocks the absorption of tripeptides.

C) The substance reduces the effect of bile salts on emulsification.

D) All of the choices are correct.

30) Before carbohydrates can be absorbed at the small intestine, they must first be broken down into __________.

A) amino acids B) micelles C) monosaccharides D) fatty acids and monoglycerides

31)

Many amino acids are absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells by __________.

A) osmosis B) active transport C) cotransport D) simple diffusion

32) Most of the lipids absorbed at the small intestine move into the __________ before moving into the blood.

A) lymph B) gallbladder C) pancreas D) large intestine

33)

Most of the water absorption that occurs in digestive tract takes place in the __________.

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A) stomach B) small intestine C) large intestine

34) Which statement below best explains why rapid movement of chyme through the small intestine often leads to diarrhea?

A) The large intestine is unable to absorb the extra water that the small intestine failed to absorb.

B) All water absorption occurs in the small intestine, so rapid movement through the small intestine prevents any water absorption from the chyme.

C) The rapid movement of chyme through the small intestine leads to more solutes in the chyme and more water being released into the digestive tract at the large intestine.

D) Rapid movement of chyme through the digestive tract is necessary for absorption of nutrients to occur at the large intestine.

35)

All of the following are normal effects of aging on the digestive tract EXCEPT A) increased motility of the digestive tract.

B) thinning of the submucosa and serosa.

C) decline in liver function.

D) reduction in digestive gland secretion.

36) As we age, the enamel of our teeth thins. Which of following is a possible consequence of this age-related change?

A) Loss of teeth because of lack of attachment with the periodontal ligament B) Increased chance for damage to the dentin of the tooth C) Pain associated with chewing as the tooth moves in the gomphosis joint D) All of the choices are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_11e 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) C 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) B

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CHAPTER 17 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or False? A simple chemical signal can activate or inhibit enzyme activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2) For the following processes, select those that regulate enzyme activity.

A) Enzyme synthesis B) Genetic control C) Receptor-mediated enzyme activity D) Negative-feedback regulation E) Hormonal control

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

3) Nutrition includes the study of A) the nutrients in foods.

B) the body’s utilization of nutrients.

C) how nutrients play a role in your body’s health.

D) digestion, absorption, and transportation of nutrients.

E) All of these choices are correct.

4)

Complex carbohydrates include

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A) glucose and fructose.

B) maltose and sucrose.

C) starch, glycogen, and cellulose.

D) cellulose and glucose.

E) glucose and lactose.

5)

Water-soluble vitamins include A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin D. D) vitamin K. E) vitamin E.

6)

Which of the following statements regarding metabolic reactions is true?

A) Catabolic reactions are synthesis reactions.

B) Anabolic reactions are involved in the production of proteins from amino acids.

C) The energy derived from anabolism is used to drive catabolism.

D) Anabolic reactions release energy.

E) Catabolic reactions consume energy.

7)

Glycolysis is best defined as the breakdown of A) glucose to carbon dioxide and water.

B) glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid.

C) pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water.

D) glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.

E) glucose to glycogen.

8)

Which of the following statements about the citric acid cycle is FALSE?

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A) The process occurs in the mitochondria.

B) The major end product of the cycle is lactic acid.

C) At several steps, NADH molecules are formed.

D) Carbon dioxide is produced at several steps in the cycle.

E) Two ATP are formed in the cycle from one glucose.

9) is

A molecule that moves electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain

A) pyruvic acid.

B) CO 2.

C) ADP. D) NADH. E) H 2O.

10)

When glucose is metabolized in the absence of oxygen, one of the end products is A) pyruvic acid.

B) ketone bodies.

C) lactic acid.

D) citric acid.

E) nitric acid.

11)

The events that occur in the postabsorptive state collectively A) decrease fat metabolism.

B) maintain blood glucose levels.

C) interconvert proteins to fats.

D) assure adequate lipogenesis.

E) maintain protein levels.

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12)

Metabolic rate is the total amount of A) glucose absorbed by the small intestine each hour.

B) heat produced by body cells in an hour.

C) energy produced and used by the body per unit of time.

D) carbon dioxide exhaled per unit of time.

E) kilocalories consumed.

13)

The portion of the brain that regulates body temperature is the A) cerebral cortex.

B) hypothalamus.

C) medulla oblongata.

D) pons.

E) hypophysis.

14)

The transfer of heat between the body and the air or water is A) radiation.

B) conduction.

C) evaporation.

D) convection.

15) Incomplete fatty acid oxidation produces ____________, which might lead to ____________.

A) triglycerides; new triglycerides B) ketone bodies; acidosis C) pyruvic acid; acidosis D) glycerol; alkalosis E) acetyl-CoA; acidosis

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_11e 1) TRUE 2) [A, B, C, D, E] 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B

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CHAPTER 18 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or False? The urinary system consists of two kidneys, one ureter, one urinary bladder, and two urethrae. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

True or False? The kidneys lie on the posterior abdominal wall, within the peritoneum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) True or False? The renal corpuscle consists of the Bowman’s capsule and the peritubular capillaries. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4)

True or False? Dilation of the afferent arteriole would increase glomerular pressure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) True or False? The distal convoluted tubule is the primary site for the reabsorption of solutes and water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) True or False? By the time the glomerular filtrate reaches the tip of the renal pyramid, the concentration of the filtrate is higher than the concentration of the interstitial fluid. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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7)

True or False? The internal urinary sphincter is composed of smooth muscle tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

8) Arrange the following structures in correct sequence.

1. Ureter 2. Renal Pelvis 3. Calyx 4. Urinary Bladder 5. Urethra A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 C) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 D) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 E) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

9)

Which of the following are functions of the urinary system?

1. Vitamin D synthesis 2. Excretion 3. Regulation of red blood cell synthesis 4. Regulation of the concentration of solutes in the blood 5. Regulation of blood volume and pressure 6. Chemical digestion A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 E) 2, 3, 4, 6

10)

Which is NOT a function of the urinary system?

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A) Regulation of blood volume B) Excretion of wastes C) Regulation of erythrocyte production D) Regulation of lymphocyte production E) Storage of urine

11)

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the A) renal capsule.

B) minor calyx.

C) renal pelvis.

D) renal sinus.

E) renal cortex.

12) List the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a. Capsular space of glomerulus b. Loop of Henle c. Collecting duct d. Distal convoluted tubule e. Proximal convoluted tubule A) a, c, b, e, d B) e, d, b, a, c C) b, e, c, d, a D) b, d, c, e, a E) a, e, b, d, c

13)

Hypoalbuminemia would cause

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A) an increase in glomerular filtration pressure.

B) a decrease in glomerular filtration pressure.

C) a decrease in glomerular filtration rate.

D) no change in glomerular filtration pressure.

14) Which portion of the renal tubule reabsorbs electrolytes, plasma proteins, nutrients, vitamins, and water?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule B) Distal convoluted tubule C) Ascending limb of nephron loop D) Descending limb of nephron loop E) Collecting duct

15) Na + reabsorption is a(n) __________ process, whereas Cl __________ process.

−

reabsorption is a(n)

A) active; active B) active; passive C) passive; passive D) passive; active

16) An increase of ADH causes the kidneys to ________ the reabsorption of water, causing them to produce _______ urine.

A) increase; more B) increase; less C) decrease; more D) decrease; less

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17) Aldosterone causes an increase in Na+ and Cl− _________________ from the nephrons, which _________ the volume of urine output.

A) reabsorption; increases B) reabsorption; decreases C) secretion; increases D) secretion; decreases

18)

List the portions of the urinary system in the correct order.

a. Trigone of bladder b. Urethra c. Ureter d. Urinary bladder A) b, c, a, d B) c, a, d, b C) b, c, d, a D) c, d, a, b E) b, a, c, d

19)

Where is the micturition reflex initiated?

A) Spinal cord B) Medulla oblongata C) Urinary bladder D) Urethra

20) The ____________ fluid compartment of the body consists of all of the fluid inside the cells, whereas the ______________ fluid compartment consists of fluid outside the cells, such as interstitial fluid and plasma.

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A) intracellular; extracellular B) extracellular; intracellular C) interior; exterior D) subcellular; metacellular

21) The movement of water and electrolytes between fluid compartments is regulated primarily by A) diffusion and osmosis.

B) hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure.

C) pinocytosis and phagocytosis.

D) active and passive transport.

E) diet and weather.

22)

The kidneys help to regulate the pH of body fluids by controlling the A) excretion of hydrogen ions.

B) conversion of acids to bases.

C) filtration of buffers.

D) reabsorption of carbon dioxide.

E) reabsorption of glucose.

23)

Potassium levels in the body are regulated by A) ADH. B) PTH. C) calcitonin.

D) aldosterone.

E) insulin.

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24) An increase in blood CO blood pH.

2 levels is followed by a(n) ____ in H

+

ions and a(n) ____ in

A) decrease; decrease B) decrease; increase C) increase; increase D) increase; decrease E) increase; no change

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_11e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) B 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) D

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CHAPTER 19 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or False? A positive-feedback loop causes a self-amplifying cycle where a physiological change leads to even greater change in the same direction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) True or False? A negative-feedback loop is a process in which the body senses a change, and activates mechanisms to reverse that change. ⊚ ⊚

3)

True or False? Progesterone has a negative-feedback effect on GnRH and LH. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

True or False? Germ-line cells are haploid but gametes are diploid. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

True or False? Estrogen has a positive-feedback effect on GnRH and LH. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

true false

True or False? Independent assortment occurs in prophase I. ⊚ ⊚

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1

7) True or False? Meiosis II of spermatogenesis results in the formation of secondary spermatocytes. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

True or False? During spermatogenesis, spermatids differentiate into spermatozoa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) True or False? The primary spermatocytes and the spermatogonia each contain 46 chromosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) True or False? The spermatids and the secondary spermatocytes each contain 23 chromosomes. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

True or False? At full maturity, an oocyte is located in the corona radiata. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) True or False? During ovulation, the oocyte is surrounded by some of the cells of the corona radiata called the cumulus mass. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

True or False? Chromosome duplication occurs prior to both mitosis and meiosis.

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⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

True or False? Between 40% and 50% of infertile women suffer from endometriosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) True or False? Decreasing prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels in the blood may indicate a tumor of the prostate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) True or False? The inner part of the ovary is composed of dense connective tissue and contains the ovarian follicles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.

17) Check all that occur during the female sex act.

A) The labia become smaller.

B) Steroids such as progesterone are converted to androgens.

C) Mucus-like fluid is secreted into the vagina.

D) Motor action potentials are conducted from the spinal cord to the reproductive organs by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

18) Which of the following ovarian hormones is involved in a positive-feedback loop with the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary?

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A) Progesterone B) Luteinizing hormone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Estrogen E) Gonadotropin

19) Which of the following hormones is released by the anterior pituitary as a part of that positive-feedback loop between it and the ovary?

A) Progesterone B) Luteinizing hormone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Estrogen E) Gonadotropin

20) Which of the following hormones is released by the corpus luteum after ovulation and causes a negative-feedback loop with the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary?

A) Progesterone B) Luteinizing hormone C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) Estrogen E) Gonadotropin

21)

Before ovulation, small amounts of estrogen are released by A) the ovaries.

B) the corpus luteum.

C) the anterior pituitary.

D) the hypothalamus.

E) the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus.

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22)

The release of estrogen from the ovaries stimulates the release of GnRH from A) the ovaries.

B) the corpus luteum.

C) the anterior pituitary.

D) the hypothalamus.

E) the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus.

23)

After ovulation, progesterone is produced by A) the ovaries.

B) the corpus luteum.

C) the anterior pituitary.

D) the hypothalamus.

E) the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus.

24)

Centromeres divide during A) mitosis and meiosis I. B) mitosis and meiosis II. C) meiosis II only.

D) meiosis I and meiosis II. E) mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis II.

25)

Which of the following describes meiosis II in humans?

A) 4N -> 2N B) 2N -> 2N C) 2N -> 1N D) 1N -> 2N E) 1N -> 1N

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26)

Arrange the following events in the order in which they occur during meiosis I.

1 = Separation of homologous chromosomes 2 = Synapsis 3 = Crossing-over 4 = Independent assortment A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 2, 3, 1, 4 D) 2, 3, 4, 1 E) 2, 4, 3, 1

27)

Spermatogenesis occurs in the A) epididymis.

B) seminiferous tubules.

C) prostate gland.

D) vas deferens.

E) seminal vesicle.

28)

Which of the following is a correct sequence of cells in spermatogenesis?

A) Spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte B) Spermatogonium, secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte C) Primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonium D) Primary spermatocyte, spermatogonium, secondary spermatocyte E) None of the choices are correct.

29)

During spermatogenesis, which of the following cells is the first to become haploid?

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A) Primary spermatocyte B) Secondary spermatocyte C) Sperm cells D) Spermatid E) Spermatogonium

30)

A spermatogonium A) divides by mitosis to produce two spermatids.

B) divides by meiosis to produce four spermatids.

C) divides by meiosis to produce two primary spermatocytes.

D) divides by mitosis to produce two primary spermatocytes.

E) divides by mitosis to produce a spermatogonium and a primary spermatocyte.

31)

A primary spermatocyte A) divides by mitosis to produce two secondary spermatocytes.

B) divides by meiosis to produce two secondary spermatocytes.

C) divides by meiosis to produce four spermatids.

D) divides by meiosis to produce two spermatids.

E) divides by mitosis to produce two spermatids.

32)

Each spermatid A) divides by meiosis to produce four sperm cells.

B) divides by mitosis to produce four sperm cells.

C) divides by meiosis to produce two sperm cells.

D) divides by mitosis to produce two sperm cells.

E) differentiates into a sperm cell.

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33) When a primary follicle enlarges, and there are several layers of granulosa cells, it is called a A) primordial follicle.

B) primary follicle.

C) secondary follicle.

D) mature follicle.

E) corpus luteum.

34)

Which of the following has an antrum?

A) Primordial follicle B) Primary follicle C) Secondary follicle D) Mature follicle E) Corpus luteum

35)

Which of the following is involved in ovulation?

A) Primordial follicle B) Primary follicle C) Secondary follicle D) Mature follicle E) Corpus luteum

36)

Luteinizing hormone (LH) binds to interstitial (Leydig) cells and A) inhibits Sertoli cells.

B) promotes sperm cell production by the Leydig cells.

C) decreases testosterone production by the Leydig cells.

D) stimulates GnRH levels to increase in the testes.

E) increases testosterone production by the Leydig cells.

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37)

The major factor controlling the onset of puberty in males is A) a decrease in GnRH levels.

B) the production of testosterone by the testes.

C) the ability of the pituitary to secrete FSH and LH. D) the hypothalamus becoming less sensitive to the inhibitory effects of androgens.

E) None of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of the following events in the male sex act occurs last and results in ejaculation?

A) Peristaltic contractions of the ductus deferens B) Contractions of skeletal muscle at the base of the penis C) Constriction of the internal sphincter of the urinary bladder D) Release of secretions from the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland E) Accumulation of semen in the prostatic urethra

39)

The ovary is attached to the superior margin of the uterus by the A) mesovarium.

B) broad ligament.

C) ovarian ligament.

D) suspensory ligament.

E) round ligament.

40)

Which of the following is produced in the ovary and then leaves the ovary?

A) Testosterone B) Corpus luteum C) Secondary oocyte D) FSH E) Menstrual blood

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41) Indicate the pathway of an egg as it passes through the uterine tube.

1. Ampulla 2. Fimbriae 3. Infundibulum 4. Isthmus A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 4, 1, 3 C) 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 E) 3, 1, 2, 4

42)

Which reproductive function is a function solely of the female reproductive system?

A) Production of reproductive hormones B) Fertilization C) Production of gametes D) Development and nourishment of a new individual

43)

Which of the following cell types is formed at the end of the first meiotic division?

A) Spermatid B) Spermatogonia C) Primary spermatocyte D) Secondary spermatocyte E) Spermatozoa

44)

The interstitial cells (Leydig cells)

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A) produce sperm.

B) form the wall of the rete testis.

C) cover the testis with a white tunic.

D) secrete seminal fluid.

E) secrete testosterone.

45) List the following structures in the order in which sperm would pass through them from the seminiferous tubules to the urethra.

1. Ductus deferens (vas deferens) 2. Efferent ductules 3. Epididymis 4. Ejaculatory duct 5. Rete testis A) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 C) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 D) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 E) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

46)

Which of the following glands is correctly matched with its function?

A) Seminal vesicles—Provide nutrients for sperm B) Prostate—Lubricates the penis during intercourse C) Bulbourethral glands—Produce a thin, sweet fluid D) Testes—Produce most of the semen E) Prostate—Contributes most of the fluid

47)

During the female sex act,

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A) the clitoris becomes engorged with blood.

B) vaginal mucoid secretions are reduced.

C) vaginal, uterine, and perineal muscles relax.

D) an orgasm always occurs to ensure fertilization.

E) an orgasm always occurs.

48) The change in the production of estrogen and progesterone during midlife is called ___________, whereas the cessation of menstruation is called ______________.

A) climacteric; menopause B) menopause; climacteric C) menopause; atresia D) atresia; climacteric E) climacteric; atresia

49)

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change of the female reproductive system?

A) Dryness of the vagina B) Decreased estrogen and progesterone production C) Cessation of the menses D) Decreased incidence of breast cancer

50)

Shortly after ovulation, A) the granulosa cells become corpus luteum cells.

B) estrogen increases but progesterone decreases.

C) the level of LH rises even more than before ovulation.

D) GnRH receptors upregulate.

E) corpus luteum degenerates.

51)

The location of the testes and the epididymides in the scrotum

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A) allows more room for other organs in the abdominal cavity.

B) keeps these organs close to the penis.

C) provides a temperature that is suitable for normal sperm development.

D) keeps them isolated from the accessory glands of the system.

E) helps to protect them.

52)

Which of the following events happens after ovulation?

A) Progesterone production by follicles declines.

B) GnRH levels are affected by negative feedback.

C) LH and FSH levels continue to increase.

D) GnRH receptors upregulate.

E) GnRH levels are affected by positive feedback.

53) The number of cells produced by meiosis is ________ the number of cells produced by mitosis.

A) one-fourth B) half C) equal to D) twice E) four times

54)

The uterine wall is composed mostly of A) loose connective tissue.

B) dense connective tissue.

C) simple columnar epithelium.

D) smooth muscle.

E) serous tissue.

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55)

All of the following are male secondary sex characteristics EXCEPT A) enlargement of the larynx.

B) enlargement of the genitalia.

C) increased growth and distribution of body hair.

D) skeletal muscle growth.

E) thickening of the skin.

56)

A pap smear is a diagnostic test to determine if a woman has cancer of the A) vagina.

B) breast.

C) cervix.

D) ovary.

E) uterine tube.

57)

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called A) inguinal hernia.

B) cryptorchidism.

C) testicular torsion.

D) epididymitis E) hypogonadism.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) [B, C, D] 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) E 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) E 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) D 44) E 45) E 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) B

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CHAPTER 20 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) True or False? Newborns lose 5–10% of their body weight during the first few days of life. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) True or False? It is estimated that the newborn’s central nervous system contains the adult number of neurons, but subsequent brain growth and maturation add new neuroglia. ⊚ ⊚

3)

True or False? Death is defined as the loss of heartbeat and respiration. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

True or False? Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

5) The prenatal period during which the major organ systems form is the A) fetal period.

B) germinal period.

C) embryonic period.

D) neonatal period.

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6) Which of the following is the correct order of structures that the sperm must penetrate to fertilize the secondary oocyte?

A) Corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida B) Zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane C) Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane D) Oocyte plasma membrane, zona radiata, corona pellucida

7) Which of the following structures attaches to the uterine wall and begins the process of implantation?

A) Blastocyst B) Morula C) Gastrocyst D) Zygote

8) Which hormone(s) is (are) secreted by the chorion to maintain the endometrium of the uterus?

A) LH B) Human chorionic gonadotropin C) Progesterone and estrogen D) Oxytocin

9)

Which of the following is derived from the endoderm?

A) Brain B) Urinary bladder C) Dermis of skin D) Muscles

10)

Which of the following is derived from the neural crest cells?

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A) Spinal cord B) Brain C) Peripheral nervous system D) All of the choices are correct.

11)

What structure forms the lower jaw?

A) Mesonephros B) Mandibular processes C) Neural tube D) Secondary palate E) Somites

12)

The foramen ovale is an opening that allows fetal blood to pass from the A) right atrium to the left atrium.

B) left atrium to the right atrium.

C) right ventricle to the left ventricle.

D) left ventricle to the right ventricle.

E) fetal liver to the inferior vena cava.

13)

Which of the following is a correct match?

A) First stage of labor—Baby exits vagina.

B) Second stage of labor—Ends with cervix dilation to maximum.

C) Third stage of labor—Placenta expelled from uterus.

14)

Which of the following is responsible for milk release or milk letdown after birth?

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A) Progesterone B) Prolactin C) Oxytocin D) None of the choices are correct.

15)

“Neonate” is the term used to refer to a baby A) in the 24—48 hours preceding birth.

B) in the 24—48 hours after birth.

C) during the first month after birth.

D) during the six months after birth.

E) during the first year after birth.

16)

The onset of puberty is considered to be the beginning of which life stage?

A) Early childhood B) Late childhood C) Adolescence D) Young adult E) Middle age

17)

Which of the following would NOT provide evidence for a genetic basis for aging?

A) Children of short-lived parents live shorter lives than children of long-lived parents.

B) Cells divide for only a set number of divisions.

C) Cell lines become nonfunctional before their maximum number of divisions is reached.

D) Smoking and excessive alcohol intake are linked to shorter life spans.

E) Certain genes that code for antioxidant enzymes to detoxify free radicals are present in animals that live longer.

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18)

Which of the following is part of the definition of brain death?

A) Loss of reflexes B) Lack of spontaneous movement C) A flat electroencephalogram (EEG)

19)

Which of the following is the gene expression seen in sickle-cell disease?

A) Dominance B) Incomplete dominance C) Homozygous recessive D) Codominance

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) D Since smoking and alcohol consumption are not genetic factors they would not provide a genetic basis for aging. They can, however, act to increase the affects of aging.

18) C 19) B

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