Neuroscience 6th Edition By Purves, Augustine, Fitzpatrick, Hall, LaMantia, Mooney, Platt, White TES

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 1: Studying the Nervous System Multiple Choice 1. Which part of DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA? a. Exon b. Intron c. Promoter d. Non-coding DNA e. Regulatory DNA Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genetics and Genomics Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Genomics is the analysis of a. coding DNA sequences for a species. b. regulatory DNA sequences for an individual organism and a species. c. coding and regulatory DNA sequences for a species. d. coding and regulatory DNA sequences for an individual organism. e. coding and regulatory DNA of an individual organism or a species.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Genetics and Genomics Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Which of Camillo Golgi’s contributions enabled Santiago Ramón y Cajal to make observations that suggested that nerve cells are discrete entities? a. Articulation of the neuron doctrine b. Identifying the organelle later called the Golgi apparatus c. Development of a staining method based on impregnation with silver salts d. Improving the understanding of the pathophysiology of malaria e. Articulation of the reticular theory of nerve cell communication Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. The major proponent(s) of the neuron doctrine was(were) a. Camillo Golgi. b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal. c. Charles Sherrington. d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal and Charles Sherrington.

e. Camillo Golgi and Santiago Ramón y Cajal.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which function is a characteristic primarily of neurons only, and not glia? a. Transmits action potentials b. Supports electrical signals c. Repairs the nervous system d. Prevents regeneration of the nervous system e. Produces myelin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. In which part of a neuron would most of the endoplasmic reticulum be concentrated? a. Postsynaptic terminal b. Presynaptic terminal c. Axon d. Cell body e. Dendrite Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which intracellular component facilitates the processes of endocytosis and exocytosis underlying synaptic communication? a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Cytoskeleton d. Golgi apparatus e. Nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Most neurons have a. one axon hillock (initial segment). b. multiple axon hillocks (initial segments). c. one dendrite. d. one axon hillock (initial segment) and one dendrite. e. multiple axon hillocks (initial segments) and one dendrite.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

9. Which statement best describes the function of a neuron with multiple, highly branched dendrites and one axon? a. It passes information directly to multiple neurons. b. It cannot integrate information from multiple neurons. c. It receives information from only one other neuron. d. It integrates information from many neurons. e. The information it receives will not be relayed.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement best describes most neurons? a. They receive information via axons. b. They transmit information to other cells via dendrites. c. They are polarized. d. They conduct signals bidirectionally. e. They transmit electrical signals via cytoplasmic continuity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Compared with projection neurons, axons of local circuit neurons (interneurons) a. are longer. b. are shorter. c. have more synapses. d. have more branches. e. reach more postsynaptic neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. An action potential is a(n) _______ change in the electrical potential across the nerve cell membrane. a. single b. all-or-nothing c. permanent d. random e. unidirectional Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. The part of a synapse to which the contents of synaptic vesicles bind is called the a. presynaptic terminal. b. synaptic ending. c. axon terminal.

d. terminal bouton. e. receptor.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which cell produces myelin in the nerves of the peripheral nervous system? a. Astrocyte b. Neuron c. Schwann cell d. Microglia e. Neural progenitor cell Answer: c Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which glial cell type serves as a resident immune cell in the central nervous system? a. Glial stem cell b. Astrocyte c. Microglia d. Oligodendrocyte e. Schwann cell Answer: c Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. In the mature central nervous system, glial stem cells with the properties of astrocytes can give rise to a. astrocytes. b. neurons. c. oligodendrocytes. d. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes. e. astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and neurons.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Refer to the figure.

Which method was used to visualize the retinal neurons shown? a. Cresyl violet staining b. Intracellular injection of a fluorescent dye c. Intracellular injection of an enzyme d. Silver impregnation (the Golgi method) e. Nissl stain Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular Diversity in the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. The in situ hybridization method is based on a. labeling specific neuronal components with antibodies. b. using nucleic acid probes to detect mRNAs that encode specific genes. c. using nucleic acid probes to detect specific proteins. d. injecting a fluorescent dye into a neuron. e. formation of an insoluble colored product within cell bodies.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular Diversity in the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. In the knee-jerk reflex, the afferent neurons a. innervate leg flexor muscles. b. innervate leg flexor and extensor muscles. c. innervate leg extensor muscles. d. are sensory neurons. e. are cranial nerves.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

20. What is the role of interneurons in the knee-jerk reflex? a. Inhibition of motor neurons to all leg muscles b. Amplification of the response c. Dampen the pain of the hammer tap d. Relaxation of flexor muscles e. Transfer of signal from efferent to afferent neurons Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows patterns of action potentials (vertical lines) in neurons that form the neural circuits for the knee-jerk reflex. Which pattern represents the activity of a flexor motor neuron? a. Top b. Second from the top c. Third from the top d. Bottom e. None of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 22. Which component represents the peripheral nervous system? a. Nucleus (i.e., group of neurons) b. Spinal nerve c. Tract d. Column e. Commissure Answer: b

Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. From which part of the nervous system do cells that innervate neuromuscular junctions originate? a. Central nervous system (CNS) b. Peripheral nervous system (PNS) c. Somatic motor division of PNS d. Visceral motor division of PNS e. Autonomic nervous system Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 24. Why is the white matter lighter than the gray matter? a. These are just historic terms not representative of real colors. b. White matter is less dense than gray matter. c. White matter is more translucent than gray matter. d. White matter contains more Schwann cells, which are light in appearance. e. White matter is richer in myelin, which reflects more light than gray matter.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. The neurons whose synaptic connections with glandular cells trigger stomach secretions are located in a. the spinal cord. b. the brain stem. c. the ganglia located along the vertebral column. d. front of the vertebral column. e. the ganglia embedded in the wall of the stomach.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Neuroethology is the field devoted to studying complex behavior a. through specifically designed behavioral tasks. b. in the native environment. c. in a laboratory. d. during a limited number of trials. e. using invasive methods.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Analyzing Complex Behavior Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. Which brain research method is associated with the greatest safety concerns?

a. Computerized tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Event related potential analysis d. Electroencephalography e. Transcranial magnetic stimulation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Computerized Tomography Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Draw a simple diagram of a neuron and label its components. In what ways are neurons specialized for communication? How do these specialized features distinguish neurons from other types of cells?

Answer: Neurons have axons and dendrites, structures for maintaining and transmitting electrical potential, and synapses, all of which allow neurons to establish connections and share information.

Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Glia are at least as numerous as neurons in the brain, yet neurons are the predominant focus of neuroscience textbooks. Why? Answer: Neurons generate and conduct electrical and chemical signals, while glia primarily play a supporting role.

Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous SystemBloom’s Level: 1.

Remembering 3. What was the substance of the disagreement between Golgi and Cajal that, nevertheless, earned them both the 1906 Nobel Prize in Medicine or Physiology?

Answer: Golgi was a proponent of the “reticular theory,” which stated that all nerve cells are connected, whereas Cajal argued that nerve cells are discrete entities, which is now known as the neuron doctrine.

Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

4. What are the main types of glial cells, and what is the main function of each?

Answer: (a) Astrocytes maintain an optimal environment for neural signaling; (b) microglia respond to injury within the nervous system; (c) oligodendrocytes and (d) Schwann cell produce myelin in the CNS and the PNS, respectively.

Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which technique(s) would one use to: (a) find the boundaries between layers of the cortex; (b) determine where the axons from nucleus X project; (c) visualize neurons that make protein Y; and (d) examine the dendrites of neurons in region Z? Answer: (a) Nissl stain (b) Administration of radioactive or fluorescent tracers (c) Immunohistochemistry; in situ hybridization (d) Immunohistochemistry using antibodies against dendrite proteins Textbook Reference: Cellular Diversity in the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Draw a diagram of a myotatic spinal reflex. Show the afferent and efferent neurons and the interneuron (local circuit neuron).

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which structures are included in the central nervous system (CNS) and which are part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Answer: The CNS comprises the brain and the spinal cord; the PNS includes the sensory neurons that link their receptors with the CNS, as well as the motor axons that connect the CNS to skeletal muscles (somatic motor division) and the cells that innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands (visceral motor division).

Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

8. Compare spatial and temporal resolution of functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to those of magnetoencephalography (MEG).

Answer: Temporal resolution of MEG is superior to that of fMRI, but the fMRI is superior to MEG for spatial resolution.

Textbook Reference: Functional Brain Imaging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. What characteristics of magnetic resonance imaging make it such an attractive research tool?

Answer: MRI is a safe, noninvasive procedure that provides useful images of structure and brain function. It is also cost-effective.

Textbook Reference: Functional Brain Imaging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which statement accurately describes the expression of genes in the nervous system? a. Every gene in the human genome is expressed in the CNS. b. Splice variants add diversity to brain function via beneficial mutations. c. Most of the genes in the human genome are expressed in the CNS. d. The genes that are expressed in the CNS are expressed equally in all neurons. e. A small subset of the total human genome is expressed in the CNS. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Genetics and Genomics Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which technique first produced unequivocal support for the neuron doctrine of the nervous system (as opposed to the reticular theory)? a. Extracellular electrical recordings b. EEG (electroencephalogram) c. Calcium imaging d. Electron microscopy of nervous tissue e. Acetylcholinesterase staining Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Which statement accurately describes neural and glial cells? a. In both types, mitochondria are concentrated in the cell body. b. The endoplasmic reticulum is concentrated in axons. c. Exocytosis and endocytosis are important for synaptic communication. d. Glial cells and neurons rapidly transmit long-range electrical signals. e. Neither cell type relies on cytoskeletal filaments.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Refer to the figure.

Structure _______ is the main target for incoming signals received from the axons of other cells. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. A neuron that innervates (i.e., makes synaptic contact with) a large number of other neurons a. represents convergent neural signaling. b. represents divergent neural signaling. c. represents massive neural integration. d. must fire at very high frequencies to be useful. e. can fire only at very low frequencies.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which of the following is not an established role for glial cells? a. Integrating information to assist neural computation b. Maintaining the ionic milieu surrounding nerve cells c. Hastening the propagation of neural impulses d. Assisting synaptic transmission via neurotransmitter uptake

e. Providing scaffolds that assist neural development Answer: a Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Refer to the figure.

Which cell type forms the structure labeled C? a. Oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system b. Schwann cells in the central nervous system c. Astrocytes in the peripheral nervous system d. Microglia in the peripheral nervous system e. Oligodendrocytes in the peripheral nervous system Answer: a Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Which statement about astrocytes is true? a. They play a role in the formation of the blood-brain barrier. b. They form myelin in the peripheral nervous system. c. They produce collagen in the central nervous system. d. They produce antibodies. e. They regulate the chemical environment of the peripheral nervous system.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Glial Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. The technique that first revealed the tremendous diversity of neuronal cell types, by revealing different cell bodies along with their processes, is a. the Nissl stain. b. the Golgi technique (stain).

c. cresyl violet staining. d. fluorescence staining. e. electron microscopy.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular Diversity in the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. An advantage that intracellular recordings have over extracellular recordings is that they a. are easier to obtain. b. can be obtained in many more parts of the nervous system. c. can record synaptic and receptor potentials. d. can record from many neurons at once. e. can alter the threshold potential.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. During the knee jerk reflex, the role of the spinal interneuron is to _______ the _______ muscle, allowing the leg to _______. a. inhibit; flexor; extend b. inhibit; extensor; extend c. activate; flexor; extend d. inhibit; flexor; flex e. inhibit; extensor; flex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. A doctor taps the right knee in an individual who was in a car accident and has sustained damage to the right dorsal root of the lower spinal cord. Which motor response would you expect? a. Right leg extends b. Left leg extends c. Right leg flexes d. Left leg flexes e. Right leg remains motionless Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. The set of neurons and small ganglia associated with the digestive tract is called the _______ nervous system. a. peripheral b. autonomic c. enteric

d. sympathetic e. parasympathetic Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. A mouse model is created through Cre/lox technology in which a gene is knocked out of the central nervous system only. Which region would continue to express the gene? a. Diencephalon b. Cerebellum c. Cerebral hemispheres d. Spinal nerves e. Brainstem Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of the Human Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. A transgenic mouse animal model is created that expresses both the Cre recombinase gene, under control of a promoter for a gene expressed only in muscle fibers, and an androgen receptor with loxP sites around exon 2. How will expression of the androgen receptor protein be altered in the transgenic mouse? a. The mouse will not express androgen receptor in muscle fibers. b. The mouse will not express androgen receptor anywhere in the body. c. The mouse will express increased levels of androgen receptor in muscle fibers. d. The mouse will express increased levels of androgen receptor everywhere in the body. e. The mouse will not express androgen receptor in the nervous system.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genetic Analysis of Neural Systems Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. Which feature distinguishes the four model organisms (mouse, zebrafish, fruit fly, and nematode) from other animals that have been intensively studied by neuroscientists? a. Ease of genetic analysis and manipulation b. Nervous system of substantial complexity c. Extensive and interesting behavioral repertoire d. Specific neural structures or behaviors of interest e. Expression of behaviors is reflex-only (i.e., no complex behaviors) Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 1A: Model Organisms in Neuroscience Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement about a center-surround receptive field is false? a. It can be mapped by electrophysiological recording techniques. b. It is characterized by a circular center and a doughnut-shaped surround. c. It can involve an excitatory response (e.g., to touch). d. It can involve an inhibitory response (e.g., to touch).

e. It is found only in primary sensory cortex.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Analysis of Neural Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Cognitive neuroscience is concerned with a. perception. b. emotions. c. language. d. memory. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Analyzing Complex Behavior Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. The brain imaging technique that makes use of a narrow X-ray beam is called a. MRI. b. fMRI. c. PET. d. SPECT. e. CT. Answer: e Textbook Reference: Computerized Tomography Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. The structural brain imaging technique that relies on atoms behaving like small magnets is called a. MRI. b. EEG. c. PET. d. SPECT. e. CT. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Magnetic Resonance Imaging Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 2: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Multiple Choice 1. Which type(s) of electrical signals occur(s) within the neural circuit for a spinal reflex? a. Receptor potential only b. Action potential only c. Synaptic potential only d. Receptor potential and action potential only e. Receptor potential, synaptic potential, and action potential Answer: e Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The resting membrane potential typically ranges from _______ to _______. a. –90 mV; 90 mV b. 40 mV; 90 mV c. 40 V; 90 V d. –40 mV; –90 mV e. 0 mV; 90 mV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. An action potential occurs if current injected into a neuron _______ the neuron to reach _______ potential. a. depolarizes; synaptic b. hyperpolarizes; synaptic c. depolarizes; threshold d. hyperpolarizes; threshold e. hyperpolarizes; resting Answer: c Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. How will a neuron respond to an injection of negative current? a. It will become hyperpolarized. b. It will have a positive electrical response. c. It will generate a single action potential. d. It will generate multiple action potentials.

e. It will reach the threshold potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. The amplitude of the action potential of a given neuron is a. larger in response to depolarizing currents of greater magnitude. b. dependent on the magnitude of the sensory stimulus. c. related to the number of synapses on the neuron. d. smaller if the resting potential of the neuron is lower. e. always the same.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which stimulus is most likely to evoke an action potential? a. Small hyperpolarizing current pulse b. Large hyperpolarizing current pulse c. Small depolarizing current pulse d. Large depolarizing current pulse e. Microelectrode insertion Answer: d Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Subthreshold current injected into an axon flows _______ along the axon and _______ with distance from the site of injection. a. actively; remains constant b. actively; decays c. actively; grows d. passively; remains constant e. passively; decays Answer: e Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Transmission of Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What is the mechanism of action of most local anesthetics? a. Hyperpolarize resting membrane potential of neurons b. Block glutamate receptors in excitatory synapses c. Enhance the activity of inhibitory synapses by acting on postsynaptic GABA receptors d. Block Na+ channels involved in the generation of action potentials e. Bind opiate receptors Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Anesthesia and Neuronal Electrical Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

9. Which statement about active ion transporters is true? a. They are selectively permeable to certain ions. b. They are functionally similar to ion channels. c. They allow ion movement down the concentration gradient. d. They move all ions against the concentration gradient. e. They move certain ions against the concentration gradient.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement best describes the Nernst equation? a. It relates the equilibrium potential of an ion to its intracellular concentration. b. It relates the equilibrium potential of an ion to its extracellular concentration. c. It relates the equilibrium potential of an ion to its intra- and extracellular concentrations. d. It relates the equilibrium potentials of multiple ions to their intracellular concentrations. e. It relates the equilibrium potentials of multiple ions to their intra- and extracellular concentrations.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+-permeable membrane, at K+ equilibrium potential, there is _______ flux of K+ ions. a. a large inward b. a large outward c. no net d. a small inward e. a small outward Answer: c Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess of K+ in the inside compartment, how would the membrane potential change if all K+ ions were replaced by Na+ ions? a. It would double. b. It would be reduced by half. c. It would not change. d. It would become positive. e. No potential would be generated.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

13. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+- and Na+-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess of K+ in the inside compartment, how would the membrane potential change if all K+ ions were replaced by Na+ ions? a. It would double. b. It would be reduced by half. c. It would not change. d. It would become positive. e. No potential would be generated.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+- and Ca2+-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess of K+ in the inside compartment, how would the membrane potential change if all K+ ions were replaced by Ca2+ ions? a. It would double. b. It would be reduced by half. c. It would not change. d. It would become positive. e. No potential would be generated.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+- and Cl–-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess of K+ in the inside compartment, how would the membrane potential change if all K+ ions were replaced by Cl– ions? a. It would double. b. It would be reduced by half. c. It would not change. d. It would become positive e. No potential would be generated.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess of K+ in the inside compartment, how would K+ ions flow across the membrane? a. They would flow from the inside compartment to the outside compartment. b. They would flow from the outside compartment to the inside compartment. c. There would be no flow of K+ ions. d. They would flow in both directions at the same time in equal molar quantities. e. They would flow in both directions, but the flow would be negligible.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

17. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+-permeable membrane and a 10-fold excess K+ in the inside compartment, the membrane potential is experimentally made more negative than the K+ equilibrium potential. How would K+ ions flow across the membrane? a. They would flow from the inside compartment to the outside compartment. b. They would flow from the outside compartment to the inside compartment. c. There would be no flow of K+ ions. d. They would flow in both directions at the same time in equal molar quantities. e. They would flow in both directions, but the flow would be negligible.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Under which circumstances is the Goldman equation equivalent to the Nernst equation? a. When a membrane is permeable to only one ion b. When a membrane is permeable to multiple ions c. When the membrane is permeable to positively charged ions only d. When the membrane is permeable to negatively charged ions only e. When permeability of the membrane is different for different ions Answer: a Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. The resting potential of a cell is negative because a. there is an excess of K+ outside of the cell at rest. b. at rest there is an excess of K+ outside of the cell, and the membrane is permeable chiefly to K+. c. at rest there is an excess of K+ inside the cell, and the membrane is permeable chiefly to K+. d. at rest there is an excess of K+ inside the cell, but the membrane is permeable to all ions. e. there is an excess of Cl– ions outside of the cell at rest.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. How does membrane permeability to K+ (PK) and Na+ (PNa) change during an action potential? a. PNa always exceeds PK; permeability does not change for either ion. b. PK always exceeds PNa; permeability does not change for either ion. c. PNa exceeds PK at rest; PK temporarily increases during the action potential. d. PK exceeds PNa at rest; PNa temporarily increases during the action potential.

e. PK exceeds PNa at rest; PNa increases during the action potential and remains higher than PK until the next action potential, then it quickly drops.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 21. Concentrations of which ion, inside and outside of a neuron, have the greatest effect on the resting membrane potential? a. K+ b. Na+ c. Ca2+ d. Cl– e. PO43– Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. There is an excess of _______ in the extracellular compartment, relative to the intracellular compartment. a. Na+ only b. K+ only c. Na+ and Ca2+ only d. Na+ and Cl– only e. Na+, Cl–, and Ca2+ Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. Hodgkin and Katz discovered that the resting membrane potential changes by _______ mV per tenfold change in K+ concentration. a. +29 b. +58 c. +65 d. +90 e. +119 Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 24. Which experimental model did Hodgkin and Katz use in their studies of the resting membrane potential? a. Living squid neuron b. Neurons of Aplysia species c. Mammalian neurons d. Mammalian brain slices

e. Neurospheres Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. Which state of the plasma membrane does not occur during an action potential? a. Resting phase b. Rising phase c. Overshoot phase d. Falling phase e. Undershoot phase Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. During which phase of an action potential does membrane permeability to Na+ exceed membrane permeability to K+? a. Rising phase only b. Rising and overshoot phases c. Overshoot phase only d. Overshoot and falling phases e. All of the phases of the action potential Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. During the overshoot phase of an action potential, membrane potential briefly reaches a value near _______ mV. a. –80 b. –65 c. 0 d. +50 e. +90 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Draw a typical action potential. Label the axes and each phase of the action potential.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Explain the difference between action potentials (all-or-none) and synaptic potentials (graded).

Answer: Action potentials have the same amplitude regardless of stimulus frequency and intensity. In contrast, the amplitude of a synaptic potential does depend on the stimulus: the number of synapses activated, strength of each synapse, and the amount of synaptic activity.

Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. How is stimulus strength encoded by graded potentials? How is stimulus strength encoded by action potentials?

Answer: Stimulus strength is encoded by graded potentials by amplitude, and encoded by action potentials in frequency.

Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Explain the difference between hyperpolarization and depolarization.

Answer: The membrane potential becomes more negative during hyperpolarization, and it becomes more positive during depolarization.

Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Suppose a water-filled aquarium is divided into two compartments by a membrane that is impermeable to all ions. If KCl is added to one compartment, what will happen to the distribution of K+ and Cl–? Will there be a potential difference between the two compartments? What will happen to the membrane potential if the membrane suddenly becomes selectively permeable to K+ (but not to Cl–)?

Answer: If KCl is added to one compartment, nothing will happen because the membrane is impermeable. There will not be a potential difference between the two compartments.

If the membrane suddenly becomes selectively permeable to K+ (but not to Cl–), it will reach equilibrium potential for K+.

Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. How would you explain the statement, “Ion channels and ion pumps have complementary functions”?

Answer: Ion pumps move ions against ion concentration gradients while ion channels allow the flow of ions in the direction of the concentration gradient.

Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What is electrochemical equilibrium?

Answer: Electrochemical equilibrium is the state of balance between the concentration and electrical gradients at which there is no net flow of charge or ions.

Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Suppose you are recording a neuron’s resting membrane potential. If you add KCl to the external medium, what will happen to the resting potential? Compare this to what will happen if you add the same amount of NaCl. What can be concluded from this comparison?

Answer: Adding KCl will cause the resting potential to become less negative. Adding NaCl to the external medium will have a small effect because membrane permeability to Na+ is low. We can conclude that the resting membrane potential is primarily due to/attributable to the product of K+ permeability Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. In what situation would you use the Goldman equation instead of the Nernst equation?

Answer: If there is more than one permeant ion in the environment you would use the Goldman equation.

Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. What is the magnitude of a typical neuron’s resting membrane potential? Why do neurons and other cells have a negative resting membrane potential?

Answer: A typical neuron’s resting membrane potential is approximately –65 mV. It is negative because resting membrane is permeable mainly to K+, and there is a concentration gradient for K+ across the plasma membrane with roughly a 13-fold excess of K+ inside the cell.

Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. The synaptic potential

a. makes communication between nerve cells possible. b. occurs only in response to external stimuli. c. propagates along axons. d. determines the cell’s resting potential. e. results in a long-term change in a cell’s membrane potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. A dull probe stimulates a Pacinian corpuscle. An electrode is placed midway down the axon, and action potentials are recorded. After one second, the probe is pushed with greater force. What change will occur in the recording? a. The height of action potentials will increase. b. The frequency of action potentials will increase. c. The frequency of action potentials will decrease. d. The resting membrane potential will increase. e. The threshold potential level will increase.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Electrical Signals of Nerve Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Which statement best describes the electrical properties of nerve cells? a. They are exceptionally good conductors of electricity (much better than copper wires). b. They are similar in their electrical conduction properties to copper wires. c. In comparison to copper wires, they are relatively poor conductors of electricity. d. They are unable to conduct electricity under any circumstances. e. They are electron sinks; they absorb many electrons, but no electricity comes out of them.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Transmission of Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which statement best describes the action potential? a. An action potential is specialized to transmit signals over only very short distances. b. An action potential is a brief change in membrane potential from positive to negative. c. An action potential is elicited by hyperpolarization. d. An action potential occurs when the cell’s membrane potential reaches threshold. e. The level of depolarization is graded in proportion to the magnitude of the stimulus.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Transmission of Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Refer to the figure.

What would happen if the membrane became permeable to the Y+ ions? a. The Y+ ions would move into the bottom chamber, down their concentration gradient. b. The Y+ ions would move into the bottom chamber, down their electrical gradient. c. The Y+ ions would move into the top chamber, down their concentration gradient. d. The Y+ ions would move into the top chamber, down their electrical gradient. e. The Y+ ions would not move.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Which of the following is not necessary for neurons to communicate electrically? a. Consumption of metabolic energy b. Use of active transporters to create ionic gradients c. Separation of large amounts of electrical charge, with excess positive charges stored inside the cell d. Selective permeability of the cell membrane via different kinds of ion channels e. Changes in membrane potential caused by the movement of ions across the cell membrane Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. What is the major determinant of the permeability of a membrane to a specific ion? a. Size of the ion b. Concentration of the ion inside the cell c. Concentration of the ion outside the cell d. Electrical charge of the ion e. Number of open ion channels specific for that ion

Answer: e Textbook Reference: How Ion Movements Produce Electrical Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which statement regarding membrane potential and equilibrium potential is true? a. Membrane potential is affected by ion concentration in- and outside of the cell; equilibrium potential is affected only by ions inside the cell. b. Equilibrium potential is affected by the concentration and electrical gradients of one ion; membrane potential is affected by gradients of all ions. c. Both membrane and equilibrium potentials change during an action potential. d. Equilibrium potentials are affected by membrane permeability; membrane potentials are not. e. Equilibrium potentials are the same for all neurons; membrane potentials can be different depending on the neuron.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. A friend has taken a job in a neuroscience research lab, and is studying neurons in a freshwater snail. He has been told to calculate the equilibrium potential of K+. Which equation will he use and what other information will he need? a. Nernst equation; concentration of K+ inside and outside of the cell b. Nernst equation; concentration of K+ inside and outside of the cell and permeability of K+ c. Goldman equation; concentration of K+ inside and outside of the cell d. Goldman equation; concentration of K+ inside and outside of the cell and permeability of K+ e. Nernst equation; concentration of K+, Na+, and Cl– inside and outside of the cell Answer: a Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement about electrochemical equilibrium is true? a. It involves the movement of a relatively large number of ions, altering the concentrations of permeant ions. b. It occurs when the potential across the membrane exactly offsets the concentration gradient. c. The size of the potential is inversely proportional to the size of the ion gradient. d. The fluxes of ion that are required to generate the membrane potential disrupt chemical electroneutrality. e. For a given ion concentration gradient, the resulting potential is independent of the number of charges on the ion.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Forces That Create Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

11. Which factor is important in determining the membrane potential when there are multiple permeant ions? a. The concentration gradient of the individual ionic species b. The permeability of the membrane to the individual ionic species c. The sum total of all of the ions on both sides of the membrane d. Both a and b e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Which statement about the ionic permeability of cell membranes is true? a. In resting nerve cells, the membrane is permeable to all ions. b. The permeability of ions is constant over time. c. In resting nerve cells, the membrane is quite permeable to potassium. d. In resting nerve cells, the membrane is quite permeable to sodium. e. In resting nerve cells, the membrane is quite permeable to calcium.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Refer to the figure.

In the phase labeled B, _______ ions are moving _______ the cell. a. potassium; into b. sodium; into c. potassium; out of d. sodium; out of e. both sodium and potassium; into

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Refer to the figure.

In the phase labeled D, _______ ions are moving _______ the cell. a. potassium; into b. sodium; into c. potassium; out of d. sodium; out of e. both sodium and potassium; out of Answer: c Textbook Reference: Electrochemical Equilibrium in an Environment with More Than One Permeant Ion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which statement about ionic distributions in nerve cells is true? a. Potassium is higher outside cells than inside cells. b. Sodium is higher outside cells than inside cells. c. Chloride is higher inside cells than outside cells. d. Calcium is higher inside cells than outside cells. e. The concentrations of all ionic species are the same for all nerve cells in all animals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. A student new to neuroscience research is practicing recording resting membrane potentials from giant squid axons. During one of the trials, the resting membrane

potential, which is normally around –60 mV, measured –15 mV. Which statement best describes what might have occurred during the experiment? a. The student added too much potassium to the extracellular solution. b. The student added too much sodium to the extracellular solution. c. The student did not add enough potassium to the extracellular solution. d. The student did not add enough sodium to the extracellular solution. e. The student added too little potassium and too much sodium to the extracellular solution.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. How does the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron compare to the equilibrium potential (calculated by the Nernst equation) for potassium? a. The resting membrane potential is not exactly equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium because of variation among neurons. b. The resting membrane potential is not exactly equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium because rapid fluctuations in membrane potential prevent accurate measurements. c. The resting membrane potential is not exactly equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium because the membrane has some resting permeability to species other than potassium. d. The resting membrane potential is not exactly equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium because potassium does not contribute to the resting membrane potential. e. The resting membrane potential is exactly equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of the Resting Membrane Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. The squid giant axon is useful in neuronal studies because a. its axon is easy to penetrate with recording electrodes because it is so long. b. the cytoplasm in the axon can be extruded, thus allowing studies of its composition. c. multiple synapses between the nerve cells make them easy to study. d. its giant ion channels allow insertion of recording electrodes into the channels. e. the axon has fewer ion channels, which simplifies the analysis of observations.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 2A: The Remarkable Giant Nerve Cells of Squid Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. Studies of the ionic basis of the action potential in squid giant axon found that a. decreasing sodium outside the cell decreases the size of the action potential. b. decreasing sodium outside the cell increases the size of the action potential. c. decreasing potassium outside the cell decreases the size of the action potential. d. decreasing potassium outside the cell increases the size of the action potential.

e. manipulating sodium has large effects on both the size of the action potential and the resting membrane potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Hodgkin and Katz proposed that sodium was the predominant ion associated with the firing of an action potential because a. the membrane potential approaches the Na+ Nernst potential during the rising phase. b. the membrane potential approaches the Na+ Nernst potential during the falling phase. c. sodium ions can move more quickly than other ionic species. d. sodium ions are the only ions that can flow into the nerve cell body. e. the sodium gradient explains the rising phase, falling phase, and overshoot of the action potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 3: Voltage-Dependent Membrane Permeability Multiple Choice 1. Which statement about Na+ permeability during an action potential is most accurate? a. It is long lasting. b. It is responsible for the rising phase of the action potential. c. It is responsible for the falling phase of the action potential. d. It restores the membrane potential to its usual level following the action potential. e. All of the above Answer: b Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Work done by _______ elucidated changes in membrane permeability that underlie an action potential. a. Alan Hodgkin and Bernard Katz b. Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley c. Walther Nernst d. Kenneth Cole e. David Goldman Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. The voltage clamp method controls the _______ at any desired level. a. amplitude of an action potential b. frequency of an action potential c. membrane potential d. K+ current e. Na+ current Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. The classic voltage clamp technique would be suitable for which application? a. Indirect measurement of unidirectional current flowing through cell membrane b. Direct measurement of current flowing through the cell membrane c. Measurement of current flowing through a single ion channel d. Study of the ionic composition of the intracellular environment

e. Evaluation of effects of large intracellular molecules on the function of ion channels Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which current is produced in response to a hyperpolarizing stimulus in a giant axon of a squid? a. Inward capacitive current b. Outward capacitive current c. Transient inward current d. Delayed outward current e. Prolonged outward current Answer: a Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which current corresponds to a flow of Na+ in response to a depolarizing stimulus in a giant axon of a squid? a. Inward capacitive current b. Outward capacitive current c. Transient inward current d. Delayed outward current e. Prolonged outward current Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. The voltage clamp apparatus has _______ electrodes, and the _______ compares the actual membrane potential with the command potential. a. two; amplifier b. two; reference electrode c. two; recording electrode d. three; amplifier e. three; reference electrode Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. In voltage clamp experiments, the early current will disappear if the membrane is clamped at _______ mV. a. –26 b. 0 c. + 26 d. +52 e. +65 Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. In the experiments conducted by Hodgkin and Huxley, the early current disappeared if the membrane was clamped at _______ mV. a. –26 b. 0 c. + 26 d. +52 e. +65 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Refer to the figure.

Which of the following is the key event at a membrane potential of –26 mV? a. The late outward current increases in magnitude b. The late outward current decreases in magnitude c. The early current reverses its polarity d. The early and late currents flow inward e. The early current is at its maximum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Refer to the figure.

Which of the following is the key event at a membrane potential of 0 mV? a. The late outward current increases in magnitude b. The late outward current decreases in magnitude c. The early current reverses its polarity d. The early and late currents flow inward e. The early current is at its maximum Answer: e Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Refer to the figure.

Which of the following is the key event at a membrane potential of 26 mV? a. The late outward current increases in magnitude b. The late outward current decreases in magnitude c. The early current reverses its polarity d. The early and late currents flow inward e. The early current is at its maximum Answer: b Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Refer to the figure.

Which of the following is the key event at a membrane potential of 52 mV? a. The late outward current increases in magnitude b. The late outward current decreases in magnitude c. The early current reverses its polarity d. The early and late currents flow inward e. The early current is at its maximum Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Refer to the figure.

Which of the following is the key event at the membrane potential of 65 mV? a. The late outward current increases in magnitude b. The late outward current decreases in magnitude c. The early current reverses its polarity

d. The early and late currents flow outward e. The early current is at its maximum Answer: d Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Practically speaking, how would you determine that Na+ influx into a cell underlies the early current? a. Replace intracellular Na+ with its radioactive form and trace its movement across the membrane. b. Remove Na+ from the extracellular compartment and assess the early current under new conditions. c. Use the voltage clamp method to measure the current. d. Remove K+ from the intracellular compartment and assess the early current under the new conditions. e. Treat the cell with tetraethylammonium.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 16. Which conclusion can be drawn from Hodgkin and Huxley’s studies of K+ and Na+ conductances? a. Both conductances exhibit the property of time-dependent activation. b. Both conductances depend on voltage. c. K+ conductance reaches its maximum with a pronounced delay. d. Unlike K+ conductance, Na+ conductance reaches its maximum and inactivates rapidly. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. Which process(es) underlie(s) the refractory period? a. The slow time course of turning off K+ conductance activation b. The persistence of Na+ conductance inactivation c. The slow time course of turning off K+ conductance activation and the persistence of Na+ conductance inactivation d. The delay in K+ conductance activation e. Rapid activation of Na+ conductance Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reconstruction of the Action Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which statement about passive current involved in action potential propagation is most accurate? a. It acts as a booster at each point along the axon. b. It flows though the voltage-dependent K+ channels.

c. It flows though the voltage-dependent Na+ channels. d. It opens voltage-dependent Na+ channels in the adjacent region of axon. e. It opens voltage-dependent K+ channels in the adjacent region of axon.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. An action potential travels in only one direction along the axon because of its _______ property. a. refractory b. all-or-none c. passive d. active e. transient Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Which consequence of Na+ channels staying open, instead of closing after membrane depolarization, is most plausible? a. Action potentials would spread both ways, forward and backward. b. The refractory period would be longer. c. The refractory period would be shorter. d. The membrane would not repolarize (return to a negative value of membrane potential) following depolarization. e. None of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. Membrane potential depolarizes, Na+ channels open, Na+ current increases, _______. a. K+ channels open b. Na+ channels close c. Na+ current decrease d. Na+ current decrease e. membrane potential hyperpolarizes Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. Refer to the figure.

Which property of the action potential do the graphs in the figure illustrate? a. Refractoriness b. All-or-none c. High frequency d. Polarized propagation e. All of the above Answer: b Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. Which statement correctly differentiates between the passive and active current in a myelinated axon? a. The passive current flows only in the nodes of Ranvier, unlike the active current. b. The active current flows only in the nodes of Ranvier, unlike the passive current. c. The passive current flows in one direction along the axon, unlike the active current. d. The action potential propagation depends on the passive current only. e. The action potential propagation depends on the active current only.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Nodes of Ranvier represent a. points where two axons connect. b. gaps in myelin wrapping. c. areas of high synaptic density. d. segments of axon where only K+ channels are located. e. segments of axon where passive current flows.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. Which symptom(s) is characteristic of patients with multiple sclerosis? a. Bilateral blindness due to lesions of the optic nerve b. Unilateral motor weakness due to lesions of the corticospinal tracts

c. Abnormal somatic sensations due to lesions of somatosensory pathways d. Seizures from kindling of action potentials in adjacent neurons due to loss of insulation around axons e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 26. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism associated with multiple sclerosis? a. Myelin loss b. Axon damage c. Immune cell infiltration d. Immune response within the nervous system e. Loss of trophic support of the axon Answer: d Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What is the voltage clamp method?

Answer: The voltage clamp method allows characterization of permeability changes as a function of membrane potential and time.

Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Explain how Hodgkin and Huxley used the voltage clamp method to show that changes in permeability to Na+ and K+ underlie the action potential.

Answer: Using the giant axon of a squid, they showed that depolarization is followed by transient inward current and lasting outward current. This inward current does not flow if the membrane potential is clamped at +52 mV, the equilibrium potential for Na+, indicating that it is attributable to Na+ permeability. They also removed Na+ from the extracellular medium and found that this reverses the polarity of the early Na+ current but has no effect on the delayed lasting current. Using radioactive K+, they confirmed the involvement of K+ in the delayed current.

Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which way does current flow across the membrane during: a) the rising phase, and b) the falling phase of the action potential?

Answer: a) Inward b) Outward Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Suppose you are recording action potentials from a neuron. How will the action potential be affected if you remove: a) Na+, or b) K+ from the external medium?

Answer: a) It will be suppressed; the rising phase will not occur. b) It will be more difficult to trigger because the resting potential of the neuron will become even more negative.

Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. How does the voltage sensitivity of K+ conductance contribute to the action potential?

Answer: It enables the falling phase, allowing the action potential to finish running its course. Depolarization slowly activates the voltage-dependent K+ conductance, causing K+ to leave the cell and repolarizing the membrane potential toward EK. The hyperpolarization of the membrane potential causes the voltage-dependent K+ conductance to turn off, allowing the membrane potential to return to its resting level.

Textbook Reference: Reconstruction of the Action Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Explain the regenerative property of the action potential.

Answer: During the action potential, an active inward current produced by depolarization spreads passively inside the axon and depolarizes an adjacent membrane region. This results in generation of another action potential in this adjacent region, and the cycle repeats; hence, the regeneration of the action potential.

Textbook Reference: Reconstruction of the Action Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. What prevents action potentials from going back up the axon?

Answer: Refractoriness caused by Na+ channel inactivation and K+ channels opening.

Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Do unmyelinated axons generate and propagate action potentials?

Answer: Yes Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Explain how myelin speeds the conduction of the action potential.

Answer: It limits the areas of action potential generation, a time-consuming process, to nodes of Ranvier.

Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz

1. Which of the following is not integral to the action potential waveform? a. A change in permeability of the membrane to sodium b. A change in permeability of the membrane to potassium c. A transient increase in the sodium current d. An initial decrease in the potassium current e. A “self-activating” aspect to the rise in the sodium current Answer: d Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. For which reason was the development of the voltage clamp critical to investigations of the ionic basis of the action potential? a. Voltage changes in the cell cannot be seen without voltage clamp. b. Ionic conductances can be activated only in cells that have been voltage clamped. c. Voltage clamping allows simultaneous control of membrane potential and measurement of permeability changes. d. Sodium and potassium currents are activated in non-overlapping voltage regimes. e. Voltage clamping does not require specialized equipment.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which observation was not observed in Hodgkin and colleagues’ voltage-clamp study of squid action potentials? a. Capacitive currents in response to hyperpolarizing voltage steps b. Capacitive currents in response to depolarizing voltage steps c. A transient inward current as a result of depolarization d. A sustained outward current as a result of hyperpolarization e. A delayed outward current as a result of depolarization Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Currents across Nerve Cell Membranes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Refer to the figure.

A researcher conducts a voltage clamp experiment on a giant squid axon. She clamps a typical neuron at 0mV. Which graph represents the current changes she will observe. a. A

b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Refer to the graph.

A researcher conducts a voltage clamp experiment on a giant squid axon and collects the data shown in the graph. At what membrane potential was the cell clamped? a. 0 mV b. Sodium’s equilibrium potential c. –65 mV d. Potassium’s equilibrium potential e. –110 mV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Which observation is not evidence that helped to identify sodium as the early current of the action potential? a. The current declined when there was decreased driving force on sodium fluxes. b. The current disappeared near the Nernst potential for sodium. c. The early current was blocked by tetrodotoxin. d. The early current was unaffected by tetraethylammonium. e. When the late current was blocked, the reversal potential of the inward current shifted to a negative membrane potential.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which treatment was shown to eliminate the early inward current in squid giant axons? a. Removal of external sodium b. Doubling of external sodium c. Removal of external potassium

d. Doubling of external potassium e. Removal of all external cations Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. A neuron has received enough stimulation to fire an action potential; it also has been treated with TEA, a K+ channel blocker. Which outcome is possible? a. The cell will initially depolarize, but repolarization will take much longer because it relies only on ion pumps. b. The cell will initially depolarize and will continue to do so until the cell reaches the equilibrium potential for Na+. c. The cell will initially hyperpolarize and will return to resting membrane potential after a delay. d. There will be no change in membrane potential in the cell. e. There will be no change in membrane potential in the cell initially, but will it depolarize after a delay.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Types of Voltage-Dependent Ion Currents Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Which statement does not stem from the application of Ohm’s law to ionic conductances? a. The driving force on the ionic current is the difference between the membrane potential and the ion’s Nernst potential. b. The conductance for an ion is inversely proportional to the resistance of the membrane to the passage of that ion. c. All permeant ions experience an identical driving force at each time point during the course of an action potential. d. The conductance for each ion can be calculated based on the measured ionic currents and the calculated driving force. e. The calculations stemming from Ohm’s law can be used to derive a mathematical description of the action potential.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Voltage-Dependent Membrane Conductances Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Voltage clamp data, in which investigators analyzed membrane conductances during action potentials, showed all of the following except a. the sodium current was rapidly activated by depolarization. b. the potassium current activates on a comparatively slow time scale of a few ms. c. at certain potentials, there can be zero current even with a large conductance. d. depolarization leads to a time-dependent inactivation of the sodium current. e. depolarization leads to a time-dependent inactivation of the potassium current.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Two Voltage-Dependent Membrane Conductances

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which statement describes one of the features of Hodgkin and Huxley’s mathematical model? a. The action potential can be reconstructed based entirely on the time course and amplitudes of the ionic conductances. b. The fast-rising phase can be accounted for by selective potassium entry. c. The model is unable to mimic the experimentally measured refractory period. d. The falling phase can be at least partially accounted for by the inactivation of the potassium current. e. The undershoot can be accounted for by the time course of sodium current reactivation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reconstruction of the Action Potential Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which statement on the rising or overshoot phase of the action potential is true? a. The time from threshold to maximum depolarization is essentially instantaneous (i.e., too fast to be measured accurately with current electronics). b. A negative feedback loop leads to a regenerative depolarization that would increase continuously if unchecked. c. The degree of depolarization is limited in part by the declining driving force on potassium entry. d. The degree of depolarization is limited in part by the inactivation time course for the sodium current. e. The degree of depolarization is limited in part by the inactivation time course of the potassium current.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reconstruction of the Action Potential Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. When current is injected into an axon, a. an action potential is evoked before the current has spread any distance from the point of injection. b. the current will spread in only one direction. c. the current will spread passively only if it is a depolarizing current. d. the current will decay exponentially with increasing distance from the injection site (if no action potential is present). e. the current will propagate as an oscillating wave independently of its polarity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which phenomenon explains the unidirectional propagation of action potentials? a. The voltage dependence of the sodium channels b. The voltage dependence of the potassium channels

c. The presence of a refractory period at a location where an action potential has just passed d. Sufficient “leakiness” of the axons, such that backward propagation of action potentials is prevented e. The polarized orientation of microtubules within the axon Answer: c Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15.Which statement regarding refractory periods is true? a. They allow neurons to fire an unlimited number of action potentials per unit of time. b. During the refractory period the cell requires a less intense stimulus to reach threshold. c. The refractory period arises in part due to the increase in sodium conductance across the membrane. d. The refractory period arises in part due to the decrease in potassium conductance across the membrane. e. The refractory period ends when the sodium channels are no longer inactivated.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Signaling by Means of Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. The _______ most directly affects the rate of information processing within the central nervous system. a. number of sodium channels along an axon b. number of potassium channels along an axon c. propagation speed of action potentials d. threshold voltage of neurons e. ratio of sodium to potassium channels Answer: c Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Refer to the figure.

Where will voltage-gated Na+ channels be most abundant? a. Structure A b. Structure B c. Structure C d. Structure D e. Structure E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Refer to the figure.

What is the function structure C? a. Speeds up conduction of an action potential b. Location of protein synthesis and cellular machinery c. Receives incoming signals from other neurons d. Regulates chemical environment for signaling e. Regeneration of action potential

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which statement about myelination is false? a. Myelin sheaths are created by glial cells. b. Myelin serves to sharply increase the time constant of the axon. c. Multiple layers of closely opposed glial membranes wrap the axon and serve as an electrical insulator. d. Myelin is absent at the nodes of Ranvier. e. Sodium and potassium channels are clustered at the nodes of Ranvier.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Increased Conduction Velocity as a Result of Myelination Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement about multiple sclerosis (MS) is false? a. It is characterized by demyelination of axons along with some axon loss. b. It was recently proven that all cases of MS are due to persistent infection by a tropical parasite. c. Cases of MS vary considerably in terms of severity and progression of the illness. d. Symptoms of MS may include weakness, paralysis, double vision, monocular blindness, and abnormal somatic sensations. e. Magnetic resonance imaging can help diagnose some cases of MS. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Multiple Sclerosis Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 4: Ion Channels and Transporters Multiple Choice 1. Ion channels that are involved in generation of action potentials open or close in response to a. voltage. b. neurotransmitters. c. second messengers. d. mechanical stimulation. e. temperature.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. In what way are ion channels similar to active transporters? a. Both are proteins. b. Both actively move ions from one side of the membrane to the other. c. Both create ion concentration gradients. d. Both maintain ion concentration gradients. e. Both enable selective ion permeability.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Based on the observations made by Hodgkin and Huxley, one can expect ion channels to a. allow ions to move across the membrane quickly. b. work with the electrochemical gradients to pass ions. c. exist in distinct variants, allowing different types of ions to pass. d. respond to changes in the membrane potential. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which technique would you use to study the effects of the extracellular environment on ion channel activity? a. Conventional voltage clamp b. Whole-cell patch clamp

c. Inside-out patch clamp d. Outside-out patch clamp e. Cell-attached patch clamp Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Refer to the figure.

Which technique is illustrated in the figure, and what can it be used to measure? a. Whole-cell patch clamp; measures potentials from the entire cell b. Whole-cell patch clamp; measures the current that flows through a single ion channel c. Cell-attached patch clamp; measures potentials from the entire cell d. Cell-attached patch clamp; measures the current that flows through a single ion channel e. Outside-out patch clamp; measures the current that flows through a single ion channel Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What do microscopic and macroscopic Na+ currents have in common? a. They flow through a single ion channel b. They flow through multiple ion channels c. They flow through a large area of neuronal membrane d. They represent a flow of many ions e. They have a magnitude of 1–10 pA Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Which evidence supports the assertion that the macroscopic Na+ current is the sum of many microscopic Na+ currents? a. The probability of a Na+ channel opening increases as the membrane is hyperpolarized. b. The averaged collective response of single channels resembles the time course of the macroscopic current. c. Opening and closing of Na+ channels is concentration-dependent.

d. Tetrodotoxin blocks macroscopic, but not microscopic, currents. e. All of the above Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Refer to the graph.

Which statement does the graph illustrate? a. Microscopic current is directed inward when the membrane potential is more negative than the Na+ equilibrium potential. b. The averaged collective response of single Na+ channels resembles the time course of the macroscopic current. c. The behavior of Na+ channels is voltage dependent. d. Tetrodotoxin blocks both microscopic and macroscopic currents. e. Channels activate in response to depolarization and subsequently deactivate.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Which property is characteristic of Na+ channels but not K+ channels? a. Ion permeability b. Ion selectivity c. Voltage sensitivity d. Ability to inactivate e. Ability to bind neurotoxins Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. The K+ channel is made up of _______, each of which contains helical membranespanning domains with a _______ between them. a. two subunits; pore loop b. four domains; pore loop

c. four subunits; pore loop d. two subunits; pore e. two domains; selectivity filter Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which statement accurately describes the difference between bacterial and mammalian channels that are selectively permeable to K+? a. Mammalian channels have four subunits. b. Bacterial K+ channels have four pore loops. c. Mammalian K+ channels have four additional structures that act as voltage sensors. d. Bacterial K+ channels do not have a selectivity filter. e. There is no difference between bacterial and mammalian K+ channels.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Structures that form the voltage sensors of K+ channels a. are embedded in the cell membrane. b. extend into the intracellular space. c. extend into the extracellular space. d. are embedded in the cell membrane but extend into the extracellular space when the membrane is depolarized. e. are located within the channel pore.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Refer to the figure.

The figure depicts a normal action potential (left) and an action potential altered by application of a toxin (right).What are the source and mechanism of action of the toxin used? a. Cone snail; blocks the pore of Na+ channels b. Scorpion; slows the inactivation of Na+ channels

c. Scorpion; shifts the voltage dependence of the Na+ channel activation d. Wasp; blocks K+ channels e. Frog; removes the inactivation and shifts activation of Na+ channels Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Which toxin is not correctly paired with its mechanism of action? a. -toxin—slows the inactivation of Na+ channels b. Tetrodotoxin—blocks the pore of Na+ channels c. Charybdotoxin—blocks K+ channels d. Dendrotoxin—slows the activation of K+ channels e. Batrachotoxin—halts inactivation of Na+ channels Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 4B: Toxins That Poison Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. A K+ inward rectifier channel has a. two transmembrane domains, four pore loops, and a voltage sensor. b. two transmembrane domains and a pore loop, but no voltage sensor. c. two transmembrane domains, a pore loop, and a voltage sensor. d. six transmembrane domains and a pore loop, but no voltage sensor. e. six transmembrane domains, a pore loop, and a voltage sensor.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Voltage-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which channel(s) is(are) implicated in inherited forms of epilepsy? a. Ca2+ and Na+ only b. K+, Ca2+, and Na+ c. K+ and Ca2+ only d. K+ only e. Ca2+ only Answer: b Textbook Reference: Voltage-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Refer to the figure.

What type of ion channel is depicted? a. Voltage-gated K+ channel b. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel c. Ligand-gated K+ channel d. Ligand-gated Ca2+ channel e. Active K+ transporter Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ligand-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. Which substance binds only at the extracellular domain of a ligand-gated ion channel? a. H+ b. Neurotransmitter c. Ca2+ d. cAMP e. cGMP Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ligand-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which intervention will disrupt the function of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump? a. Removal of extracellular K+ b. Removal of extracellular Na+ c. Removal of extracellular ATP d. Removal of cytoplasmic Ca2+ e. Application of tetrodotoxin Answer: a Textbook Reference: ATPase pumps Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

20. Which transporter plays a key role in maintaining the concentration gradients of ions in the brain that are critical for generating electrical signals? a. SERCA b. PMCA c. Na+/K+ ATPase pump d. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger e. Na+/K+/Cl– co-transporter Answer: c Textbook Reference: ATPase Pumps Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. What is the net charge transported by one cycle of the Na+/ K+ ATPase pump? a. One positive charge leaves the cell b. Two positive charges leave the cell c. Three positive charges leave the cell d. One positive charge enters the cell e. There is no net change in charge Answer: a Textbook Reference: ATPase Pumps Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Refer to the figure.

What does the figure depict? a. Na+/K+ ATPase pump b. Na+/K+/Cl– channel c. Na+/K+/Cl– co-transporter d. Na+/K+/Cl– antiporter e. Na+/K+ antiporter Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Exchangers Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. Refer to the figure.

Which feature do the three transporters shown in the figure share? a. Use of ATP b. Voltage dependence c. Transport of all ions down their concentration gradient d. Transport of some ions down their concentration gradient and others up their gradient e. Transport of all ions up their concentration gradient Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Exchangers Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Which ion is transported down its concentration gradient by transporters? a. H+ b. Na+ c. K+ d. Cl– e. Ca2+ Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ion Exchangers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. What is patch clamping? Explain how it can be used to show that properties of voltagesensitive Na+ and K+ channels are responsible for the action potential.

Answer: Patch clamping is a technique in which a recording pipet is used to grip a cell membrane and record the electrical potential or flow of ions through one ion channel.

The patch clamp method allows experimental control of the membrane potential, and it can be used to characterize the voltage dependence of membrane currents. It allows measuring minute electrical currents such as those originating from a single ion channel.

Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Compare the responses of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels to depolarization.

Answer: Both types of channels open in response to depolarization; however, depolarization inactivates Na+ channel for a period of time. In contrast, K+ channels are not inactivated.

Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which experimental approaches can be used to determine which ions can pass through a particular ion channel?

Answer: X-ray crystallography, toxins, patch clamping.

Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Briefly describe how each of the following experimental approaches and tools can be used to study ion channels: X-ray crystallography Expression of mRNA in Xenopus oocyte Patch clamping Mutagenesis Toxins Answer: X-ray crystallography: provides information about the structure of the channel proteins.

Expression of mRNA in Xenopus oocyte: can be used to express a specific type of channel in the cell in order to study its function.

Patch clamping: can be used to evaluate current flowing through a single channel.

Mutagenesis: an be used to evaluate channel function in a genetically modified organism and compare the function to that in a genetically intact organism.

Toxins: used to modify or suppress the function of certain ion channels during studies.

Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Which structural features of K+ channels account for: a) ion selectivity, b) voltage sensitivity, and c) ion conductance?

Answer: a) Selectivity filter: pore loops create a pore too small for larger ions but too large for smaller ions to be stabilized. b) Voltage sensor c) Pore Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Which structural features of Cl– channels account for a) ion selectivity, b) voltage sensitivity, and c) ion conductance?

Answer: a) Positive charges in the pores that coordinate the negative ions as they move from one side of the membrane to the other b) Voltage-dependent movement of a negatively charged amino acid

c) Two separate pores, each surrounded by one of two identical subunits Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. There are nearly 100 genes for K+ channels. What value might there be in such variation?

Answer: The value of a large number of genes, which fall into several distinct groups of channel proteins, is that several different K+ channel proteins can be produced from them, each different from one another in function, permitting variation in cell function, such as the different signaling properties found among neurons.

Textbook Reference: The Diversity of Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. List five major stimulus types that can gate (open or close) various kinds of ion channels.

Answer: Voltage, ligand, mechanical force, temperature, and light Textbook Reference: Thermosensitive and Mechanosensitive Channels Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. What is the mechanism of action of the different active transporters? Explain the differences between the following types of active transporters: ATPase pumps, antiporters, and co-transporters. Provide an example of each.

Answer: All active transporters must be able to move ions across the membrane against their concentration gradient.

The ATPase pump moves ions across the membrane using energy derived from ATP hydrolysis. Example: Na+/K+ ATPase pump. An ion exchanger moves ions by using energy derived from electrochemical gradient of other ions. There are two types of ion exchangers: antiporters and co-transporters. Antiporters transport ions in opposite directions. Example: Na+/H+ exchanger. Co-transporters transport ions in the same direction. Example: Na+/K+/Cl– co-transporter.

Textbook Reference: Ion Exchangers Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. The proteins that establish ionic gradients are called a. passive transporters. b. active transporters. c. voltage-gated ion channels. d. ligand-gated ion channels. e. permeability transition pores.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

2. The current flowing through individual ion channels a. was visualized with the advent of the voltage clamp in 1956. b. exhibits the same time course across all individual sodium channels. c. reflects the passage of thousands of ions per millisecond. d. has a different voltage dependence than the macroscopic ionic current has. e. has a different reversal potential than the macroscopic ionic current has.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. In which way do potassium channels in the squid giant axon differ from sodium channels? a. The potassium channels pass only a few ions per second. b. The potassium channels show little voltage dependence. c. The summing of the individual potassium channels does not reconstruct the macroscopic current. d. Once the potassium channels open in response to a voltage step command, they tend to remain open. e. The potassium channels open in response to hyperpolarization of the membrane.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Refer to the figure.

In the phase labeled B, the voltage-gated sodium channels are ________ and the voltagegated potassium channels are ________. a. open; closed b. closed; open c. open; open d. inactivated; open

e. closed; inactivated Answer: a Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Refer to the figure.

In the phase labeled D, the voltage-gated sodium channels are ________ and the voltagegated potassium channels are ________. a. open; closed b. closed; open c. open; open d. inactivated; open e. closed; inactivated Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Which statement about voltage-gated ion channels is true? a. Without sodium channels, no current flows out b. Without potassium channels, no current flows in c. Na+ channels open after a short delay d. K+ channels close after a short delay e. Na+ and K+ channels can work independently of one another Answer: e Textbook Reference: Ion Channels Underlying Action Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. The paddle-like, charged transmembrane domains of potassium channels may a. serve as a plug or inactivation gate. b. be the primary voltage sensors.

c. confer ion selectivity to the channel. d. enable the aggregation of channel subunits into functional channels. e. dehydrate the ions as they cross the membrane.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. The technique that provides the most direct information about the physical, threedimensional structure of ion channels is a. the sequencing of the channel’s amino acids. b. physiological measurement of ion selectivity. c. X-ray crystallography. d. fluorescence imaging of channel subunit dynamics. e. high-performance liquid chromatography.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Ion Channels Work Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Animal toxins have been discovered that a. block sodium channels. b. prolong the open state of sodium channels. c. alter the voltage-dependence of sodium channels. d. block potassium channels. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 4B: Toxins That Poison Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. A surprising result that emerged from the molecular and genetic analysis of ion channels was the a. size of the individual ion channels. b. voltage-dependence of the ion channels. c. time-dependence of the ion channels. d. discovery of differences in ionic selectivity. e. sheer number of different ion channels.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Diversity of Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which statement regarding the diversity of ion channels is false? a. With only six different types, potassium channels are the least diverse channel type. b. There are at least 10 different sodium channels in humans. c. Sodium channels that do not inactivate have been found. d. There are least 10 different types of calcium channels. e. Calcium channels serve diverse functions such as influencing action potential shape and mediating the release of neurotransmitters.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Voltage-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. A patient presents with migraines that usually last about 48 hours and are accompanied by vomiting. Two of his immediate relatives show similar symptoms.

Which ion channel would you expect to be dysfunctional in this patient? a. Voltage-gated calcium channel b. Voltage-gated sodium channel c. Ligand-gated chloride channel d. Voltage-gated potassium channel e. Ligand-gated sodium channel Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Neurological Diseases Caused by Altered Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. In familial hemiplegic migraine, the underlying mutation in a calcium channel causes a. abnormally functioning pain receptors in the peripheral nervous system. b. enhanced synaptic excitation of second-order pain sensitive neurons. c. abnormal activation of thalamic pain centers. d. abnormal activation of neocortical pain centers. e. the syndrome by some unknown mechanism.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Neurological Diseases Caused by Altered Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which ligand-gated ion channel is regulated primarily by an intracellular signal? a. Glutamate receptor b. The potassium-activated calcium channel c. The glutamate receptor d. The cAMP- and cGMP-gated ion channels e. The acid-sensing ion channels Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ligand-Gated Ion Channels Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. The TRP ion channel family includes channels responsive to a. complex sequences of voltage commands. b. heat and cold. c. intracellular cyclic nucleotides. d. hyperpolarization. e. ultraviolet light.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Thermosensitive and Mechanosensitive Channels

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. What would occur if the ATPase pumps in a neuron stopped functioning? a. Concentration gradients would not be maintained across the membrane b. At rest, sodium would continuously depolarize the cell c. At rest, potassium would continuously depolarize the cell d. During the action potential, the sodium channel would not inactivate e. During the action potential, the voltage-gated ion channels would remain closed Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transporters Create and Maintain Ion Gradients Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Which of the following was observed in studies measuring the efflux of radioactive sodium from the squid giant axon? a. Dramatic increase of efflux during a brief train of action potentials b. Sharp drop in efflux when intracellular potassium was removed c. Dependence of efflux upon the presence of ATP d. Decrease of efflux when ATP synthesis was increased e. No recovery when potassium or ATP was restored.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: ATPase Pumps Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. The calcium ATPase a. is much simpler than the sodium–potassium pump because it has only three transmembrane regions. b. pumps 15 calcium ions for each molecule of ATP consumed. c. uses the same intracellular domain for both nucleotide binding and ion translocation. d. pumps calcium in a cyclical process that utilizes energy from ATP. e. is unique among transporters in that its pumping action involves no conformational changes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: ATPase Pumps Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. In the operation of sodium–potassium ATPase, a. there is an obligatory coupling of sodium efflux and potassium influx. b. this transporter (or “pump”) is electrogenic. c. phosphorylation and dephosphorylation respectively, are associated with the sodium and potassium transport steps. d. the pump transports two potassium ions for every three sodium ions. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: ATPase Pumps Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

20. Which statement is a common, defining feature of membrane-bound active ion transporters? a. All are electrogenic. b. All transport two or more different ions. c. All catalyze the conversion of ATP to ADP. d. All are able to move at least one ion against its concentration gradient. e. All move sodium across the membrane.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ion Exchangers Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 5: Synaptic Transmission Multiple Choice 1. Which structure can be found exclusively at an electrical synapse? a. Synaptic cleft b. Synaptic vesicle c. Connexon d. Neurotransmitter receptor e. Presynaptic membrane Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Classes of Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons that form _______ synapses are connected via _______. a. chemical; connexons b. chemical; neurotransmitter release c. electrical; gap junctions d. electrical; the synaptic cleft e. electrical; synaptic vesicles Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Classes of Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. How many connexin subunits form one complete synaptic channel? a. 4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 12 e. 16 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Electrical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which substances diffuse through connexon channels between pre- and postsynaptic neurons? a. Ions b. Second messengers c. Small proteins

d. ATP e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Electrical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which feature of an electrical synapse allows synchronizing the electrical activity of multiple neurons? a. Fast speed of transmission b. Ability of neurons to form gap junctions with glial cells c. Bidirectional transmission of electrical signals d. Slow transmission of signals e. Bidirectional transmission of chemical signals Answer: c Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Electrical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What is the action of the neurotransmitter at a chemical synapse? a. It acts on receptors in the postsynaptic membrane. b. It electrically activates the presynaptic neuron. c. It crosses the postsynaptic membrane and then activates ion channels in the postsynaptic neuron. d. It depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by delivering an electrical charge. e. It transfers an action potential from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which event is the first in the series of events that take place during chemical synaptic transmission? a. Neurotransmitter binds to its receptors. b. Influx of Ca2+ in the presynaptic terminal. c. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open. d. Neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft. e. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. At which point during signal transmission at a chemical synapse is exocytosis occurring? a. As neurotransmitter binds to its receptors b. While Ca2+ enters the presynaptic terminal c. As voltage-gated Ca2+ channels are opening d. During neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft e. During reuptake, as synaptic vesicles are reformed from the plasma membrane

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows an electron micrograph of a chemical synapse in the cerebral cortex.

Which statement about this synapse is accurate? a. Inside the postsynaptic neuron are synaptic vesicles, which fuse with the membrane in the postsynaptic density. b. Inside the presynaptic neuron are synaptic vesicles, which fuse with the membrane in the active zone. c. Inside the presynaptic neuron are synaptic vesicles, which fuse with the membrane in the postsynaptic density. d. A gap junction connects the two neurons via connexons that span the pre- and postsynaptic membranes. e. None of the above Answer: b Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. In the sequence of events in neurotransmission, which event occurs just after the action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal? a. Packaging of the neurotransmitter b. Delivery of the neurotransmitter to the presynaptic terminal c. Fusion of the synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane d. Influx of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal e. Release of the neurotransmitter Answer: d Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

11. Which researcher(s) proved that chemicals transfer electrical information between neurons? a. Rod MacKinnon b. Otto Loewi c. Jens Christian Skou d. Richard Keynes e. Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley Answer: b Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which step of peptide neurotransmitter processing takes place in the presynaptic terminal? a. Synthesis b. Packaging c. Transport d. Release e. Degradation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which vesicles, loaded with neuropeptides, arrive in the presynaptic terminal via axonal transport? a. Small clear-core vesicles b. Large clear-core vesicles c. Small dense-core vesicles d. Large dense-core vesicles e. Synaptic vesicles Answer: d Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are _______ for _______. a. taken back into the presynaptic terminal; degradation b. taken back into the presynaptic terminal; reuse c. taken up by the postsynaptic cell; degredation d. taken up by the postsynaptic cell; reuse e. scattered in the synaptic cleft; reuse Answer: b Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. If the distribution of EPP amplitudes has peaks at 0.4 mV, 0.8 mV, 1.2 mV, 1.6 mV, and 2.0 mV, what is the most likely amplitude of the MEPP?

a. 0.4 mV b. 0.8 mV c. 1.2 mV d. 1.6 mV e. 2.0 mV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Quantal Release of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. What is the source of the quanta that make up the EPP? a. Pulses of current that flow through the electrical synapse b. Fusion of individual synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane c. Individual action potentials d. Current through a single ion channel e. Short-term increases in membrane permeability Answer: b Textbook Reference: Release of Transmitters from Synaptic Vesicles Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. How would application of a Ca2+ channel blocker affect the function of a synapse? a. It would increase the magnitude of postsynaptic potential. b. It would decrease the magnitude of postsynaptic potential. c. It would eliminate the postsynaptic potential but have no effect on presynaptic neuron. d. It would eliminate the postsynaptic potential and the presynaptic Ca2+ current. e. It would eliminate the presynaptic Ca2+ current but have no effect on the postsynaptic potential.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Role of Calcium in Transmitter Secretion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. How would application of an intracellular Ca2+ chelator affect the function of a synapse? a. It would increase the magnitude of postsynaptic potential. b. It would decrease the magnitude of postsynaptic potential. c. It would eliminate the postsynaptic potential but have no effect on presynaptic potential. d. It would eliminate the postsynaptic potential and Ca2+-dependent vesicle fusion. e. It would eliminate the presynaptic Ca2+ current but have no effect on the postsynaptic potential.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Role of Calcium in Transmitter Secretion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. By which proposed molecular mechanism does Ca2+ promote fusion of synaptic vesicles? a. By binding to synapsin

b. By binding SNARE proteins to the complex formation c. By binding to SNARE proteins after the complex formation d. By binding to synaptotagmin and promoting formation of the SNARE complex, which facilitates fusion e. By binding to and inducing changes in synaptotagmin that cause the plasma membrane to curve, facilitating fusion Answer: e Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which protein plays a key role in endocytosis? a. Auxilin b. Clathrin c. Triskelion d. Actin e. Hsc70 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. At –10 mV, end plate current is _______ in amplitude and directed _______. a. small; inward b. small; outward c. large; inward d. large; outward e. None of the above Answer: a Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Membrane Permeability Changes during Synaptic Transmission Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Compare and contrast electrical and chemical synapses.

Answer: Electrical synapses allow for fast signal transmission and bidirectional communication between cells connected via an electrical synapse. Chemical synapses allow for a broad range of postsynaptic responses, but the transmission is slower in chemical synapses than electrical synapses.

Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Provide scientific evidence of the existence of chemical synapses.

Answer: Otto Loewi proved that electrical information can be transferred from the vagus nerve to the heart by means of a chemical signal, which was later shown to be acetylcholine.

Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. List the steps involved in chemical neurotransmission, beginning with the synthesis of neurotransmitter and ending with the response of the postsynaptic neuron.

Answer: a) Synthesis of the neurotransmitter b) Packaging of the neurotransmitter c) Delivery of the neurotransmitter to the presynaptic terminal (if neurotransmitter is synthesized in the cell body) d) Arrival of the action potential to the presynaptic terminal e) Influx of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal f) Fusion of the synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane g) Release of the neurotransmitter h) Binding of the neurotransmitter to its receptor on the postsynaptic membrane i) Response of the postsynaptic membrane or cell, which depends on the particular transmitter and receptor Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What is significant about the quantal nature of MEPPs? Answer: Each MEPP is evoked by the release of a single packet of neurotransmitter (synaptic vesicle) from the presynaptic terminal.

Textbook Reference: Quantal Release of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What evidence indicates that EPPs are composed of MEPPs? Answer: Experiments using Ca2+ and curare in the study of acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction led to the discovery of quantal fluctuations in the amplitude of EPPs. The amplitude of the smallest EPPs is similar in size to that of a single MEPP, and increments in the EPP response occur in units about the size of single MEPPs. Textbook Reference: Quantal Release of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Provide two lines of evidence that suggest that neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles.

Answer: a) Studies by Katz et al. showed that acetylcholine is released in packets, each equivalent to a MEPP. b) Studies by Heuser, Reese et al. revealed a correlation between the number of fused vesicles on an electron microphotograph and the number of quanta in the EPP produced.

Textbook Reference: Release of Transmitters from Synaptic Vesicles Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Summarize experimental evidence that synaptic vesicles are recycled in the axon terminal.

Answer: The enzyme horseradish peroxidase (HRP) was applied to the synaptic cleft at a frog neuromuscular junction while the neurons were stimulated. Movement of the enzyme was followed by observation under the electron microscope. HRP was first visualized in coated vesicles, then in endosomes, and finally, in newly-assembled synaptic vesicles.

Textbook Reference: Local Recycling of Synaptic Vesicles Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. “A rise in presynaptic Ca2+ is necessary and sufficient for neurotransmitter release.”

Which experimental evidence a) supports the claim that Ca2+ is necessary, and b) supports the claim that Ca2+ is sufficient?

Answer: a) Presynaptic microinjection of calcium chelators prevents presynaptic action potentials from causing neurotransmitter secretion. b) Microinjection of Ca2+ into presynaptic terminals triggers neurotransmitter release even in the absence of presynaptic action potentials.

Textbook Reference: The Role of Calcium in Transmitter Secretion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Name the two main proteins involved in endocytosis and describe their roles in the process.

Answer: Clathrin molecules assemble on the plasma membrane, forming domelike coated pits that initiate budding. These domes increase the curvature of the membrane until it becomes a vesicle-like structure that is connected to the plasma membrane by a narrow stalk. Dynamin forms a coil around this stalk and subsequently pinches off the coated vesicle.

Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Describe the roles of NSF and SNAPs, SNAREs, synaptotagmin, and synapsin in neurotransmitter secretion. Which one is key in the initiation of transmitter release by Ca2+?

Answer: NSF and SNAPs: prime synaptic vesicles for fusion SNAREs (synaptobrevin, syntaxin, SNAP-25): link vesicle with the presynaptic membrane Synaptotagmin: binds calcium to trigger fusion of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane Synapsin: keeps vesicles tethered within the reserve pool Synaptotagmin is key in the initiation of transmitter release.

Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz

1. Gap junctions may exhibit all of the following features except a. the ability to pass small metabolites, including some second messengers. b. the ability to pass electrical current bidirectionally. c. the ability to pass electrical current unidirectionally. d. the ability to amplify small incoming electrical signals into large regenerative potentials. e. the ability to synchronize the activity of populations of nerve cells.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Electrical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The capability of a nerve terminal to rapidly and dramatically produce very large changes in calcium levels is most dependent on the a. presence of calcium-selective ion channels. b. enormous gradient of calcium across the membrane. c. fact that calcium is a positively charged ion. d. fact that calcium is a divalent cation. e. All of the above are essential for producing large, rapid concentration changes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Listed below are the individual events that make up chemical synaptic transmission.

1. Diffusion of transmitter across the synaptic cleft 2. Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal 3. Vesicle fusion with plasma membrane 4. Opening of voltage-gated ion channels 5. Activation of presynaptic, calcium-sensitive proteins Which sequence represents the correct ordering of these events? a. 1; 2; 3; 4; 5 b. 2; 4; 5; 3; 1 c. 2; 5; 4; 3; 1 d. 5; 4; 2; 3; 1 e. 1; 2; 4; 5; 3 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Signaling Transmission at Chemical Synapses Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which characteristic is an accepted criterion for classifying a molecule as a neurotransmitter? a. It must be present in the presynaptic terminal. b. It must be released in response to presynaptic electrical activity. c. It must exert an effect on the postsynaptic cell. d. All of the above e. None of the above Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. A scientist wishes to develop a new drug that prevents synaptic communication via neuropeptides but not small molecule neurotransmitters. Which mechanism would be a good target for his drug? a. Disruption of axonal transport b. Blocking of voltage-gated calcium channels c. Disruption of V-SNARES d. Blocking of voltage-gated sodium channels e. Increasing levels of synaptotagmin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Properties of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Miniature end plate potentials, or MEPPs, are produced a. at miniature end plates. b. by the smallest axons. c. in response to weak stimuli. d. by the smallest neurotransmitters. e. by spontaneous release of neurotransmitter.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Quantal Release of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. To date, which observation is not part of the experimental evidence favoring the vesicular release hypothesis of neurotransmission? a. Fixed size of MEPPs b. Quantized distribution of events occurring at the neuromuscular junction c. Visualization of synaptic vesicles using electron microscopy d. Correspondence between a vesicle’s acetylcholine content and MEPP size e. Visualization of acetylcholine molecules diffusing out of the neck of the membranefused vesicle Answer: e Textbook Reference: Release of Transmitters from Synaptic Vesicles Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. The recycling of synaptic vesicles is tracked using HRP as a vesicle marker. What will be the observed sequence of HRP movement? a. Endosome, coated vesicle, vesicle reserve pool b. Vesicle reserve pool, coated vesicle, endosome c. Endosome, vesicle reserve pool, coated vesicle d. Coated vesicle, vesicle reserve pool, endosome e. Coated vesicle, endosome, vesicle reserve pool Answer: e Textbook Reference: Local Recycling of Synaptic Vesicles

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Which observation would indicate a role for calcium in transmitter secretion? a. Observation of presynaptic depolarizing currents after blockade of sodium channels b. Voltage clamp experiments showing voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal c. Induction of transmitter release by injection of calcium into the presynaptic terminal d. Blockade of transmitter release by injection of calcium blocker into the presynaptic terminal e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Role of Calcium in Transmitter Secretion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. You conduct a voltage clamp experiment in which you hold the presynaptic terminal of a glutamatergic neuron (a neuron that releases glutamate) at 0 mV. When you treat the terminal with TTX, an inward current is recorded. Which ion and ion channels are responsible for the current you observe? a. Calcium; voltage-gated calcium channels b. Sodium; voltage-gated sodium channels c. Potassium; voltage-gated potassium channels d. Calcium; ligand-gated non-specific cation channels e. Sodium; ligand-gated non-specific cation channels Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Role of Calcium in Transmitter Secretion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. SNARE proteins participate in vesicle exocytosis by a. forming a protein coat that maintains the vesicle’s integrity. b. binding calcium and then forming a pore into the vesicle. c. forming a protein complex that pulls the vesicle membrane against the plasma membrane. d. linking calcium channels to exocytotic fusion sites. e. pushing vesicles from the reserve pool into the docked pool.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which treatment would prevent the release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic terminal? a. Potassium channel blocker b. Acetylcholinesterase c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor d. A toxin that cleaves synaptobrevin e. AMPA antagonist Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. In an experiment on an animal model in which the synapsin gene is knocked out, you measure the density of synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic terminal within the active zone and outside the active zone in both knockout and control animals. Given what you know about the function of synapsin, what would you expect to find? a. There will be fewer vesicles in the reserve pool in knockout animals than in controls. b. There will be more vesicles in the reserve pool in knockout animals than in controls. c. There will be no vesicles in the presynaptic terminal in knockout animals. d. There will be no vesicles docked in the active zone in knockout animals. e. There will be no difference between knockout animals and controls.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Synaptic Vesicle Cycling Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. The decrease in size of individual quanta observed in familial infantile myasthenia is consistent with the observation of a. fewer calcium channels in the presynaptic terminals compared with healthy controls. b. a greater rate of spontaneous exocytosis depleting the size of the vesicle pool, than in healthy controls. c. smaller synaptic vesicles compared with healthy controls. d. a change in the sensitivity of the calcium release mechanism compared with healthy controls. e. a loss of all ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Disorders That Affect the Presynaptic Terminal Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Black widow spider venom is thought to disrupt the functioning of nerve terminals by a. proteolytic cleavage of SNARE proteins. b. circumventing the calcium-regulated step of exocytosis to promote massive exocytosis. c. binding to all molecules of synapsin, synaptotagmin, and synaptophysin, thereby preventing their normal functioning. d. punching holes in vesicles, thereby causing release of their contents into the cytosol. e. blocking calcium channels.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Disorders That Affect the Presynaptic Terminal Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which statement regarding metabotropic and ionotropic receptors is true? a. Metabotropic receptors open channels faster than ionotropic receptors do. b. Ionotropic receptors have immediate effects; metabotropic receptors produce long-term effects.

c. Both directly allow ion flow through an ion pore in the receptor. d. Metabotropic and ionotropic receptors act via the same mechanisms; the difference is the neurotransmitters that activate them. e. Ionotropic receptors require the activation of intracellular messengers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitter Receptors Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement about postsynaptic currents at the neuromuscular end plate is false? a. Depolarizing currents can be recorded from outside-out patches of the postsynaptic membrane. b. Individual channels tend to stay open for no more than a few milliseconds. c. Acetylcholine can induce openings of ligand-gated ion channels. d. The end plate potential is due to the opening of thousands or millions of channels. e. The end plate channels show a regenerative opening pattern that propagates an action potential along the length of the muscle fiber.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Membrane Permeability Changes during Synaptic Transmission Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. When a muscle fiber is held at a voltage of 0 mV at the neuromuscular end plate, acetylcholine no longer produces a current because a. the acetylcholine receptor channels all close instantly at 0 mV. b. an influx of sodium is balanced by an equal efflux of potassium. c. the membrane conductance for each permeant ion is 0 at 0 mV. d. at 0 mV, the potassium ions lodge in the receptor channel and block the influx of sodium. e. the Nernst potentials for both sodium and potassium are 0 mV in muscle fibers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Membrane Permeability Changes during Synaptic Transmission Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. The most important factor determining whether a receptor-operated ion channel is inhibitory or excitatory is a. the ligand-binding properties of the receptor. b. whether the permeant ion is positively or negatively charged. c. whether the permeant ion’s reversal potential is positive or negative to threshold. d. the number of different ions that can pass through the receptor. e. None of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Excitatory and Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which statement about EPSPs in the central nervous system is true?

a. They are much larger than end plate potentials. b. the istance between inputs does not affect the ability of EPSPs to summate c. the time between inputs does not affect the ability of EPSPs to summate d. Their effect in the central nervous system can be nullified by IPSPs. e. They can be hyperpolarizing.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Summation of Synaptic Potentials Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 6: Neurotransmitters and Their Receptors Multiple Choice 1. What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the adult brain? a. GABA b. Glutamate c. Dopamine d. Serotonin e. Norepinephrine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. To which category of neurotransmitters does acetylcholine belong? a. Purines b. Peptides c. Amino acids d. Biogenic amines e. Small-molecule neurotransmitters Answer: e Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. What is the mechanism of organophosphate toxicity? a. Inhibition of acetylcholine reuptake b. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase c. Inhibition of choline reuptake d. Blockage of postsynaptic channels e. Interference with the vesicle fusion process Answer: b Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which toxin blocks neuromuscular transmission by irreversibly binding to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, thus preventing acetylcholine from opening postsynaptic ion channels? a. α-bungarotoxin b. Nicotine c. Muscarine

d. Atropine e. Arecoline Answer: a Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which statement about a nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction is accurate? a. It has one binding site, and binding of one molecule of acetylcholine to this site will activate the receptor. b. It has three binding sites, and binding of only one molecule of acetylcholine to any of the sites will activate the receptor. c. It has two binding sites, and binding of two molecules of acetylcholine, one to each site, is required to activate the receptor. d. It has two binding sites, and binding of only one molecule of acetylcholine to either of the sites will activate the receptor. e. It has four binding sites, and binding of only three molecules of acetylcholine to any of the sites is required to activate the receptor.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which statement about muscarinic acetylcholine receptors is true? a. They control a ligand-gated channel. b. They mediate a rapid response to acetylcholine. c. They are ionotropic receptors. d. They are metabotropic receptors. e. They mediate the effects of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. What is the main cause of myasthenia gravis symptoms? a. Smaller EEPs and MEEPs b. Autoimmune reaction against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors c. Muscle weakness d. Insufficient quantities of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft e. Excessive activity of acetylcholinesterase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Which neurotransmitter is released at the majority of brain synapses, making it the most abundant neurotransmitter in the nervous system? a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine

c. Norepinephrine d. GABA e. Glutamate Answer: e Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. At which point during the glutamate–glutamine cycle is postsynaptic glutamate action terminated rapidly? a. Uptake of glutamine by the presynaptic neuron b. Synthesis of glutamine from glutamate c. Packaging of glutamate into synaptic vesicles d. Uptake of glutamate by the presynaptic terminal and glial cells e. Synthesis of glutamate from glutamine Answer: d Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Postsynaptic currents produced by AMPA glutamate receptors are _______ than those produced by other ionotropic glutamate receptors. a. larger b. smaller c. slower d. faster e. longer-lasting Answer: a Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which molecule binds NMDA receptors and prevents the flow of ions at resting and hyperpolarized membrane potentials? a. Glutamate b. Glycine c. Ca2+ d. Mg2+ e. NMDA Answer: d Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. In what way are GABA and glutamate similar in the adult brain? a. Both are inhibitory neurotransmitters. b. Both are excitatory neurotransmitters. c. Both are common in the nervous system. d. Both are synthesized from glucose in the presynaptic terminal.

e. Both are transported into synaptic vesicles via the vesicular inhibitory amino acid transporter.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. The GABA derivative -hydroxybutyrate a. causes sleeplessness. b. causes seizures. c. causes euphoria and memory deficit. d. improves concentration. e. suppresses appetite.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. When a GABAA ionotropic receptor is stimulated by GABA in a developing neuron, which ions flow through its channel, and what effect does this have on the postsynaptic cell? a. Cl–, which hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic cell b. Cl–, which depolarizes the postsynaptic cell c. Na+, which depolarizes the postsynaptic cell d. K+, which hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic cell e. None of the above; the GABAA receptor is metabotropic Answer: b Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Why does the function of GABAA receptors vary among neuronal types? a. Activity of the enzyme that breaks down GABA varies. b. Affinity of GABA to the receptor that mediates its reuptake varies. c. Multiple types of GABAA receptor subunits exist. d. Different ions can pass through the ion channel of the receptor. e. Concentration of GABA in synaptic vesicles varies.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. What is the subunit composition of a typical GABAA receptor? a. 2α only b. 2α and a β only c. 2α and 2β only d. 2α, 2β, and a  e. 2α, 2β, and 2 Answer: d Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which drug binds to the transmembrane domain of a GABAA receptor? a. Diazepam b. Chlordiazepoxide c. Ketamine d. Zolpidem e. Ethanol Answer: e Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Which receptor does the glycine receptor resemble structurally? a. GABAA b. GABAB c. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor d. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor e. NMDA receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. What is a common precursor of all catecholamines? a. Lysine b. Alanine c. Tyrosine d. Phenylalanine e. Tryptophan Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. In which order are catecholamine neurotransmitters synthesized? a. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine b. Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine c. Dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine d. Epinephrine, dopamine, norepinephrine e. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. The cell bodies of neurons that release norepinephrine project from which structure? a. Striatum b. Locus coeruleus c. Medulla oblongata

d. Substantia nigra e. Ventral tegmental area Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. Which would be the most likely consequence of a mutation that renders DOPA decarboxylase inactive? a. Dopamine reuptake by the presynaptic neuron would be impossible. b. DOPA would not be synthesized from tyrosine. c. Dopamine would not be produced. d. Dopamine would be synthesized from norepinephrine. e. Dopamine would not be broken down.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are sometimes used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. What is their mechanism of action? a. They inhibit the breakdown of dopamine. b. They inhibit the reuptake of dopamine by glia. c. They inhibit the reuptake of dopamine by neurons. d. They inhibit the synthesis of norepinephrine from dopamine. e. They inhibit the synthesis of dopamine.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Neurons in the CNS that release epinephrine regulate which function? a. Respiration b. Feeding c. Arousal d. Motivation e. Wakefulness Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. Which substance is a neurotransmitter that stimulates metabotropic 5-HT receptors, which have been implicated in circadian rhythm, satiety, motor behavior, and emotional state regulation? a. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) b. Tryptophan-5-hydroxylase c. Epinephrine d. Tryptophan e. Serotonin

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Although purinergic ionotropic receptors are widely distributed in the CNS, their only known roles are in a. mechanosensation and pain. b. sensation of pressure. c. thermosensation and pain. d. light-touch sensation and proprioception. e. proprioception and sensation of pressure.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: ATP and Other Purines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. Precursors of peptide neurotransmitters are synthesized in the _______ and packaged into vesicles in the _______. a. nucleus; presynaptic terminal b. rough endoplasmic reticulum; presynaptic terminal c. rough endoplasmic reticulum; endosome d. rough endoplasmic reticulum; trans-Golgi network e. smooth endoplasmic reticulum; trans-Golgi network Answer: d Textbook Reference: Peptide Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Unconventional neurotransmitters a. are released only from the presynaptic neuron. b. are packaged in synaptic vesicles. c. act only on the presynaptic neuron. d. are taken up by the presynaptic neuron for repackaging into vesicles. e. transmit signals between neurons.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Unconventional Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Give an example of a neurotransmitter in each category below (answers may vary). a) Purine b) Biogenic amine c) Amino acid d) Peptide Answer: a) ATP

b) Dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, histamine, serotonin c) Glutamate, aspartate, GABA, glycine d) Substance P, methionine enkephalin, neurokinin A, neuropeptide K, neuropeptide , and any of the peptides listed in Figure 6.22 Textbook Reference: Categories of Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. For each of the neurotransmitters (first column of table), list the precursor(s), ratelimiting enzyme of synthesis, and mechanism(s) of removal from the synaptic cleft.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Define and briefly describe the glutamate–glutamine cycle.

Answer: It is the process of glutamate recycling and synthesis, which rapidly terminates the action of glutamate on the postsynaptic neuron. Glutamate is taken up into local glial cells and converted to glutamine by glutamine synthase. Glutamine is then released from the glial cells via the SN1 transporter, taken up into nerve terminals vial SAT2 transporters, and subsequently converted back to glutamate within the nerve terminal by glutaminase.

Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Define excitotoxicity. Why is it clinically important?

Answer: Excitotoxicity results from an excessive release of glutamate in the brain during

brain trauma or disease that, itself, causes damage to the brain.

Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What are the three major types of ionotropic glutamate receptors, and why were they given their specific names? Why are two types of these receptors considered to be particularly important?

Answer: The three major types are NMDA, AMPA, and kainate receptors; they were named after their respective exogenous agonists. NMDA and AMPA receptors are particularly important because they are present in most central excitatory synapses.

Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What are the two major inhibitory neurotransmitters in the adult central nervous system?

Answer: GABA and glycine Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. What are the main structural and functional differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?

Answer: Ionotropic receptors are ligand-gated channels that permit the flow of ions when stimulated. Metabotropic receptors are not directly associated with an ion channel; they bind to G-proteins and initiate an intracellular cascade of events leading to changes in membrane permeability.

Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Compare peptide transmitters with small-molecule neurotransmitters in terms of synthesis and removal from the synaptic cleft.

Answer: Small-molecule neurotransmitters are synthesized in the cytoplasm of the presynaptic terminal, while peptide neurotransmitters are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and packaged by the Golgi apparatus. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft by specialized transporters on glial cells and neurons, whereas peptide neurotransmitters are catabolized into amino acid fragments in the synaptic cleft.

Textbook Reference: Peptide Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. What features make nitric oxide (NO) such an unusual neurotransmitter?

Answer: NO is a gas, so it easily permeates the plasma membrane and diffuses well beyond its point of origin.

Textbook Reference: Unconventional Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Organophosphates inhibit the action of acetylcholinesterase. What effect does this have in the cell? a. It prevents breakdown of ACh in the synapse causing increased activity at the postsynaptic cell. b. It prevents synthesis of ACh in the presynaptic terminal causing less neurotransmitter release. c. It prevents reuptake of ACh into the presynaptic terminal causing less neurotransmitter synthesis. d. It prevents binding of ACh on the postsynaptic cell causing less activity. e. It prevents reuptake of ACh into the presynaptic terminal causing increased activity at the postsynaptic cell.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor consists of _______ subunits. a. two b. three c. five d. seven e. nine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Acetylcholine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. The neurotoxin α-bungarotoxin (which is used by banded kraits in defense) acts by a. stimulating acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions. b. blocking transmission at neuromuscular junctions. c. blocking Ca2+ channels. d. blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. e. stimulating nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the CNS. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 6A Neurotoxins That Act on Neurotrnasmitter Receptors Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Glutamate is a. the most commonly used neurotransmitter in the brain. b. neurotoxic at high concentrations. c. a nonessential amino acid. d. often synthesized from glial-synthesized glutamine. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

5. Which is not a feature of glutamate signaling systems? a. The presence of multiple glutamate receptor families with different ionic selectivities b. Voltage-dependent gating of certain types of glutamate receptor c. The passage of large amounts of magnesium and calcium by NMDA receptors d. The use of specialized proteins for loading glutamate into vesicles e. The use of specialized proteins for removing glutamate from the synaptic cleft Answer: c Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which change could be responsible for increasing the amplitude of an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)? a. An increase in the amount of glutamate released into the synapse b. An increase in the myelination of the axon c. An increase in the number of GABA receptors on the postsynaptic membrane d. An increase in potassium conductance in the postsynaptic unit e. A decrease in the number of VGLUTs in the presynaptic terminal Answer: a Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. A researcher studying synaptic transmission in a glutamatergic hippocampal neuron attempts to measure calcium flow in the postsynaptic hippocampal neuron after either low or high intensity stimulation to the presynaptic neuron. Predict the results of the different stimulations. a. There will be an influx calcium after low intensity stimulation. b. There will be an efflux calcium after low intensity stimulation. c. There will be an influx calcium after high intensity stimulation. d. There will be an efflux calcium after high intensity stimulation. e. There will be an influx calcium after both types of stimulation (stimulation occurs at separate times, not together).

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Glutamate Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a. degeneration of lower motor neurons. b. degeneration of upper motor neurons. c. mutations affecting the synthesis of acetylcholine. d. mutations affecting acetylcholine receptors. e. an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Myasthenia Gravis: An Autoimmune Disease of Neuromuscular Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

9. Which receptor type can be modulated by both barbiturates and benzodiazepines? a. GABAA b. GABAB c. GABAC d. Glycine e. Muscarinic ACh receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. The presence of which compound or protein in a cell makes it quite likely that the cell is a GABAergic neuron? a. Pyridoxal phosphate b. Glutamic acid decarboxylase c. GABA transaminase d. γ-hydroxybutyrate e. Glutamine Answer: b Textbook Reference: GABA and Glycine Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Cell X fires an action potential and releases GABA onto Cell Y. Assuming only GABAA receptors are present on the postsynaptic membrane, which is at rest at – 55mV, which ion is responsible for the changes that would be observed? a. Chloride b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Calcium e. Magnesium Answer: a Textbook Reference: GABA and glycine Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. The transmitter GABA excites immature cortical neurons because a. immature GABA receptors pass more sodium than chloride. b. immature GABA-receptive neurons have a more negative firing threshold than mature neurons. c. immature GABA-receptive neurons express many Na+ / K+ / Cl– co-transporters. d. immature GABA-receptive neurons express many K+ / Cl– co-transporters. e. the opening of GABA receptor channels tends to excite immature cortical networks because of the networks’ wiring.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 6B: Excitatory Actions of GABA in the Developing Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

3. Which statement describes a possible outcome for a neurotransmitter after release into the synaptic cleft? a. Modulation by an enzyme, increasing its efficiency b. Reuptake into postsynaptic terminal via transporter proteins c. Activation of G-protein-coupled receptor on postsynaptic cell d. Activation of voltage-gated ion channel on presynaptic cell e. Uptake into postsynaptic cell via endocytosis Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which of the following is not a catecholamine? a. Dopamine b. Histamine c. Norepinephrine d. Epinephrine e. All of the above are catecholamines.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Listed below are the enzymes needed to synthesize epinephrine (adrenaline).

1. Dopamine-β hydroxylase 2. Tyrosine hydroxylase 3. Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl transferase 4. DOPA decarboxylase Which of the following is the correct sequence of enzyme actions in the synthesis of epinephrine? a. 2; 4; 1; 3 b. 3; 1; 4; 2 c. 2; 1; 3; 4 d. 1; 2; 4; 3 e. 2; 4; 3; 1 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Cocaine acts a. on GABAA receptors. b. as an MAO inhibitor. c. by blocking serotonin reuptake. d. by blocking dopamine reuptake. e. by blocking biogenic amine vesicular transporters.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biogenic Amines Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

17. While the nature of adenosine’s actions on central circuits is not well understood, adenosine is thought to have an inhibitory or relaxing effect based on which observation? a. Its presence in many inhibitory neurons b. Its ability to block the reuptake of inhibitory transmitters c. Its actions as a cofactor at glycine receptors d. The consequences of xanthine (e.g., caffeine) blockade of adenosine receptors e. The co-localization of adenosine with GABA in GABAergic synaptic vesicles Answer: d Textbook Reference: ATP and Other Purines Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Peptide neurotransmitters are often released a. shortly after their synthesis in presynaptic terminals. b. as pre-propeptides. c. as propeptides. d. more readily and quickly than nonpeptide transmitters. e. together with nonpeptide transmitters.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Peptide Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which of the following is not a class of opioid peptides? a. Dynorphins b. Endorphins c. Enkephalins d. Endocannabinoids e. Neoendorphins Answer: d Textbook Reference: Peptide Neurotransmitters Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Based on the distribution of endocannabinoid receptors in the brain, it can be surmised that Δ9-tetrahydrocannabinol likely has an influence on a. the neocortex. b. the hippocampus. c. basal ganglia. d. the hypothalamus. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 6C: Marijuana and the Brain Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 7: Molecular Signaling within Neurons Multiple Choice 1. Which type of signaling do mature neurons most commonly use to communicate? a. Electrical only b. Chemical only c. A combination of electrical and chemical d. Paracrine e. Endocrine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Strategies of Molecular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The effector molecule at the synapse of an intercellular signal transduction process is a(n) a. ion. b. ion channel. c. neurotransmitter molecule. d. synaptic vesicle. e. G-protein.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Strategies of Molecular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. What is the greatest advantage of the chemical signal transduction scheme? a. Signal amplification b. Activation of remote targets c. Activation of immediate targets d. Sequential nature e. Specificity Answer: a Textbook Reference: Strategies of Molecular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which molecule belongs to a class of cell-associated signaling molecules? a. Thyroxin b. Integrin c. Acetylcholine d. Testosterone

e. Nitric oxide Answer: b Textbook Reference: Activation of Signaling Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Cell-permeant signaling molecules bind to which type of receptor? a. Channel-linked b. Enzyme-linked c. G-protein–coupled d. Intracellular e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Receptor Types Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Most enzyme-linked receptors affect the function of the target cell by a. phosphorylating intracellular target proteins. b. catalyzing synthesis of hormones in the cytoplasm. c. facilitating the assembly of the cytoskeleton. d. generating an action potential. e. dimerizing.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Receptor Types Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. To which subunit(s) of heterotrimeric G-protein does a guanine nucleotide bind? a. α b. β c. βγ subunit complex d. γ e. δ Answer: a Textbook Reference: G-Proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Which of the following is the first step in the process of activation of a heterotrimeric G-protein? a. The α subunit binds to β and γ subunits to form the inactive trimer. b. The α subunit binds to GDP. c. The G-protein binds to the activated receptor. d. The α subunit dissociates from the βγ complex. e. The α subunit binds to downstream effector molecules.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: G-Proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

9. In what way does the function of monomeric G-proteins differ from that of heterotrimeric G-proteins? a. Monomeric G-proteins are active in the GTP-bound state, heterotrimeric G-proteins are not. b. Heterotrimeric G-protein activation is controlled by guanine nucleotide exchange factors, monomeric G-protein activation is not. c. Heterotrimeric G-proteins relay signals from cell surface receptors to intracellular targets, monomeric G-proteins do not. d. Monomeric G-protein activity is terminated by hydrolysis of GTP, heterotrimeric Gprotein activity is not. e. Heterotrimeric G-protein activity is regulated by GAP proteins, monomeric G-protein activity is not.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: G-Proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Which molecule is an effector directly downstream of an activated G-protein? a. Phospholipase C b. IP3 c. cAMP d. Protein kinase C e. Protein kinase A Answer: a Textbook Reference: G-Proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which role does calmodulin play in the intracellular cascade triggered by Ca2+? a. It modulates the strength of Ca2+ binding to its downstream targets. b. It serves as a Ca2+ buffer. c. It enhances downstream effects of Ca2+. d. It binds to its downstream targets when activated by Ca2+. e. It serves as a Ca2+ sensor when neurotransmitter is released.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. In which direction do Ca2+ ions flow through ryanodine receptors? a. From the cytoplasm into the endoplasmic reticulum b. From the endoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm c. From the extracellular space into the cytoplasm d. From the cytoplasm into the extracellular space e. From the cytoplasm into synaptic vesicles Answer: b Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

13. Which second messenger originates from both extracellular and intracellular compartments? a. Ca2+ b. Cyclic AMP c. Cyclic GMP d. IP3 e. Diacylglycerol Answer: a Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which second messenger plays an important role in sensory transduction processes? a. Ca2+ b. Cyclic nucleotide c. Nucleotide d. IP3 e. Diacylglycerol Answer: b Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which of the following provides an example of a second messenger producing another second messenger? a. IP3 binds to its receptor, enabling the release of Ca2+ from the cytosol. b. Diacylglycerol fuses with PIP2, producing IP3. c. Phospholipase C acts on PIP2, splitting it into IP3 and diacylglycerol. d. Ca2+ binds to calmodulin, promoting its binding to downstream protein kinases. e. G-proteins activate adenylyl cyclase in the plasma membrane, causing it to produce cyclic nucleotides.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. The catalytic domain of a protein kinase a. transfers a carboxyl group to the relevant amino acid of the target protein. b. transfers a phosphate group to the relevant amino acid of the target protein. c. transfers ATP to the relevant amino acid of the target protein. d. binds to IP3. e. binds to Ca2+ ions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement about protein kinases in the brain is most accurate? a. They amplify second messenger signals. b. Most are important regulators of neuronal signaling.

c. Each has a regulatory domain that inhibits the catalytic domain. d. The catalytic domain of a protein kinase is always inhibited. e. They can be activated only by second messengers.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which protein kinase is the primary effector of cAMP? a. PKA b. PKC c. CaMKII d. Protein tyrosine kinase e. MAPK Answer: a Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. Which kinase is activated by the phosphorylation of its activation loop? a. PKA b. PKC c. CaMKII d. Protein tyrosine kinase e. MAPK Answer: c Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement about protein phosphatases is false? a. They remove the phosphate group from proteins. b. They are more specific than protein kinases with regard to substrates. c. They possess a catalytic subunit. d. They possess a regulatory subunit. e. They reverse the effects of protein kinases.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. A hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease is excessive phosphorylation of tau protein, which is thought to be due to defects in a. PP2A. b. PP2B. c. MAPK. d. α-synuclein. e. CaMKII. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Protein Phosphatases

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. Schizophrenia and _______ are associated with mutations in MAOA and COMT genes. a. depression b. bipolar disorder c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder e. Alzheimer’s disease Answer: b Textbook Reference: Protein Phosphatases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. Which of the following is the first step in the nuclear signaling process? a. Binding of RNA polymerase b. Binding of transcriptional activator protein c. Binding of co-activator complex d. Transcription e. Chromatin decondensation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Nuclear Signaling Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 24. Which gene regulation strategy underlies the action of glucocorticoid hormones? a. Translocation of the receptor into the nucleus to bind to DNA b. DNA-bound receptor conformation change, enabling transcription c. Phosphorylation of CREB in the nucleus d. Activation of c-fos, an immediate early gene e. Activation of delayed response genes Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nuclear Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. Which neuronal mechanism increases the production of catecholamine neurotransmitters? a. Dimerization of tyrosine kinase receptors b. Co-activation of metabotropic and AMPA glutamate receptors c. Phosphorylation of tyrosine hydroxylase d. Activation of kinases that phosphorylate CREB e. Activation of the ras cascade Answer: c Textbook Reference: Example of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. Which signaling molecule mediates nerve growth factor (NGF)-dependent neuronal survival?

a. Akt kinase b. IP3 c. DAG d. MAPK e. Ras Answer: a Textbook Reference: Examples of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. What are some potential points of intersection (molecules) between second messenger systems?

Answer: CREB, kinases, second messengers, G-proteins Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. How do second messenger systems “turn off” after they have been turned on?

Answer: Enzymes such as phosphatases and phosphodiesterases facilitate turning off of second messenger cascades.

Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Define and provide an example of each of the following: Cell signaling molecules Receptors G-proteins Effector proteins Second messengers Later effectors Transcription factors Immediate early genes Answer: Cell signaling molecules: Molecules that activate intracellular signaling pathways.

Examples: neurotransmitters, hormones, integrins Receptors: Molecules that bind to signaling molecules specifically. Examples: nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, metabotropic glutamate receptor G-proteins: Molecules that couple receptors and their downstream effectors. Examples: GS, Gq Effector proteins: Molecules that serve as downstream targets of G-proteins. Example: adenylyl cyclase Second messengers: Products of effector proteins. Examples: cAMP, IP3, Ca2+ Later effectors: Targets of second messengers, typically, protein kinase enzymes that phosphorylate their molecular targets. Examples: protein kinase A, protein kinase C Transcription factors: Proteins that regulate the transcription process. Example: CREB

Immediate early genes: Genes that are expressed immediately after cell stimulation; their products act as transcription factors for delayed response genes. Example: c-fos Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Why is it crucial that Ca2+ levels are maintained at low concentrations inside the cell?

What is the mechanism of action that maintains a low concentration?

Answer: Ca2+ is a second messenger, and increases in its intracellular concentration can trigger signaling cascades and other events inside the cell. Pumping of Ca2+ into the intracellular compartments and extracellular space maintains low levels of Ca2+ levels.

Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Create a diagram illustrating how neurotransmission can lead to changes in gene expression, using the activation of CREB as an example.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Nuclear Signaling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Which pathway(s) can be activated by nerve growth factor (NGF)? What are some of the diverse effects of NGF? Answer: The PI3 kinase pathway, ras pathway, and phospholipase C pathway are all activated by NGF. NGF mediates neuronal survival, neurite outgrowth, and neuronal differentiation.

Textbook Reference: Examples of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which type of chemical signaling acts over a small neural region encompassing a cluster of nerve cells? a. Endocrine b. Exocrine c. Paracrine d. Synaptic e. Ephaptic Answer: c Textbook Reference: Strategies of Molecular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. In a signal transduction cascade using G-proteins and cAMP, which is not a signal amplification step? a. Activation of G-proteins by an activated receptor b. Activation of adenylyl cyclase molecules by G-proteins c. Creation of cAMP molecules by adenylyl cyclase d. Phosphorylation of target proteins by protein kinase A e. All of the above are steps in which amplification occurs Answer: b Textbook Reference: Strategies of Molecular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement about cell signaling pathways is true? a. Cellular responses are always short-lived. b. Cellular responses are always long-lived. c. Signaling is always initiated by membrane-bound receptors. d. Signaling is always initiated by intracellular receptors. e. Intracellular signal transduction pathways are always activated by a chemical signaling molecule.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Activation of Signaling Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. The acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction would best be described as a(n) a. channel-linked receptor. b. enzyme-linked receptor. c. G-protein-coupled receptor. d. nuclear receptor. e. gap junction.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Receptor Types Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

5. Cholera toxin locks the Gs subunit into an active state, in that GTP is bound and cannot be hydrolyzed back to GDP to turn off the subunit. What effect will cholera toxin have in the cell? a. The Gs subunit will more strongly inhibit adenylyl cyclase. b. Inhibited adenylyl cyclase will lead to increased cyclic AMP levels. c. Activated adenylyl cyclase will lead to decreased cyclic AMP levels. d. Increased cyclic AMP levels will lead to increased protein kinase A activation. e. Decreased cyclic AMP levels will lead to decreased protein kinase A activation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: G-proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. In the marine mollusk, Aplysia, serotonin binds to a G-protein-coupled receptor and activates a Gs subunit. The resulting activation of PKA leads to phosphorylation and closure of K+ channels. What effect would this have on the cell? a. Decreased K+ efflux depolarizing the cell b. Increased K+ efflux hyperpolarizing the cell c. Decreased K+ efflux hyperpolarizing the cell d. Increased K+ efflux depolarizing the cell e. No change in K+ ion flow or membrane potential Answer: a Textbook Reference: G-proteins and Their Molecular Targets Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Stimulation of metabotropic receptors cannot a. open ion pores in the G-protein structure. b. cause G-proteins to alter ion channels. c. cause G-proteins to start second messenger cascades. d. lead to widespread protein phosphorylation. e. lead to gene transcription.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which of the following does not contribute to maintaining low levels of calcium in resting nerve cells? a. Voltage-gated calcium channels b. The plasma membrane calcium ATPase c. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase d. The Na+ / Ca2+ calcium exchanger e. Mitochondria Answer: a Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which substance is a second messenger whose activity is terminated by a phosphatase?

a. Calcium b. CAMP c. cGMP d. Inositol trisphosphate e. Diacylglycerol Answer: d Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Which signaling pathway does not directly involve calcium? a. Ryanodine receptor b. IP3 receptor c. cGMP d. Phospholipase C e. Calmodulin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Second Messengers Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which development (by Tsien and colleagues) enabled the first precise spatial and temporal measurements of intracellular calcium dynamics? a. Voltage clamp b. Fura-2 c. Calcium green d. GFP e. Channel rhodopsin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 7A: Dynamic Imaging of Intracellular Signaling Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which statement about protein kinase-based signaling is false? a. Serine and threonine kinases are typically activated by second messengers. b. Tyrosine kinases are typically activated by extracellular signals. c. Each protein kinase has just one specific target protein that it phosphorylates. d. The effects of protein kinases can be balanced by protein phosphatases. e. Thousands of protein kinases are expressed in the brain.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which kinase is activated (in part) by a lipid? a. Protein kinase A b. Protein kinase C c. Protein kinase G d. CaM kinase II e. CaM kinase IV

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which of the following is not integral to the functioning of protein kinases? a. Hydrolysis of GTP prior to association of the regulatory and catalytic domains b. Reliance on functionally distinct roles of the different domains c. Binding of one or more messengers to a regulatory domain d. Inhibition of a catalytic domain by a regulatory domain e. Activation of a catalytic domain via a protein conformational change Answer: a Textbook Reference: Protein Kinases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Dendritic spines a. were discovered with the invention of electron microscopy in the 1950s. b. serve as “electrical compartments” to ensure localized depolarization. c. serve as “chemical compartments” to concentrate biochemical mechanisms. d. collectively form a set of hard-wired permanent neural connections. e. are the sites of all excitatory and inhibitory synaptic transmission in the mammalian CNS. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 7B: Dendritic Spines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which statement about dendritic spines is false? a. They enable localized, transient increases in calcium. b. They slow the diffusion of IP3, but do not prevent it from leaving the spine. c. They are the sites of excitatory synapses in various parts of the CNS. d. They have a bulbous head connected to a dendritic shaft by a narrow neck. e. They usually contain just three proteins: NMDA receptors, mGluR receptors, and CaM kinase II. Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 7B: Dendritic Spines Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which chemical signaling process is the slowest? a. Ion channel-mediated depolarization b. G-protein-mediated modulation of ion channels c. Phosphorylation of effector molecules by protein kinases d. Synthesis of proteins after CREB activation e. All of the above types of signaling processes have similar time courses Answer: d Textbook Reference: Nuclear Signaling Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

18. Listed below are the events that make up NGF-mediated growth of sensory neurons.

1. TrkA receptor self-phosphorylation 2. Translocation of activated kinases to the nucleus 3. NGF-induced dimerization of membrane receptors 4. TrkA induction of the ras signaling pathway Which is the correct sequence of these events? a. 1; 4; 3; 2 b. 4; 1; 3; 2 c. 3; 4; 1; 2 d. 3; 1; 4; 2 e. 1; 3; 4; 2 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Examples of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which statement about the LTD mechanism in cerebellar Purkinje cells is false? a. Alternating activation of climbing fibers and parallel fibers is required to induce LTD. b. The firing of parallel fibers activates mGluR receptors and generates IP3. c. Climbing fibers generate a large calcium signal in Purkinje cell dendrites. d. Both IP3 and calcium are required to activate the IP3 receptors and depress AMPA receptor activity. e. The strength of the parallel fiber synapses can be depressed for a long period of time.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Examples of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Tyrosine hydroxylase is a substrate for which protein kinase(s)? a. PKA b. PKC c. CaM kinase II d. MAP kinase e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Examples of Neuronal Signal Transduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 8: Synaptic Plasticity Multiple Choice 1. What causes synaptic facilitation? a. Buildup of Ca2+ in the presynaptic terminal b. Release of greater than usual number of synaptic vesicles c. Release of synaptic vesicles loaded with extra neurotransmitter d. Activation of synaptotagmin 7 by means of phosphorylation e. Stronger binding of Ca2+ to synaptotagmin 7 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Refer to the figure.

At which time interval would the postsynaptic membrane potential of the second stimulus be greatest? a. 8 ms b. 15 ms c. 20 ms d. 30 ms e. 50 ms Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. Refer to the figure.

Which statement describes the depicted phenomenon most accurately? a. Synaptic depression directly correlates with the concentration of extracellular Ca2+. b. Synaptic depression directly correlates with the amount of neurotransmitter released. c. Synaptic depression is inversely correlated with the amount of neurotransmitter released. d. Synaptic depression depends on the rate of neurotransmitter release. e. Synaptic depression depends on the concentration of neurotransmitter in synaptic vesicles.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. How would an increase in external Ca2+ concentration affect synaptic depression? a. It would increase the rate of depression. b. It would reduce the rate of depression. c. It would decrease the rate of neurotransmitter release and induce depression. d. It would increase the rate of neurotransmitter release and delay depression. e. It would have no effect on depression.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which type of short-term synaptic plasticity lasts the longest? a. Potentiation b. Augmentation

c. Depression d. Facilitation e. Post-tetanic potentiation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. What characteristic(s) make(s) Aplysia californica a practical model organism for studying the nervous system? a. Its great magnitude and variety of neurons b. Its large neurons c. The random location of its neurons d. That it is aquatic e. All of the above Answer: b Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Refer to the figure.

In which form of plasticity is this neural circuit involved, and which component of the circuit makes this form of plasticity possible? a. Habituation; interneuron b. Habituation; modulatory interneuron c. Sensitization; interneuron d. Sensitization; modulatory interneuron e. Sensitization; motor neuron Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

8. Refer to the figure.

Repeated stimulation of the siphon results in habituation. Which synaptic change occurs during habituation? a. The synapse between the sensory and motor neurons is depressed. b. The synapse between the sensory and motor neurons is potentiated. c. The synapse between the sensory neuron and the interneuron is depressed. d. The synapse between the sensory neuron and the modulatory interneuron is depressed. e. The synapse between the interneuron and the motor neuron is depressed.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Refer to the figure.

The function of which synapse is altered during sensitization?

a. The synapse between the sensory neuron of the siphon and the motor neuron b. The synapse between the sensory neuron of the tail and the modulatory interneuron c. The synapse between the sensory neuron of the siphon and the interneuron d. The synapse between the interneuron and the motor neuron e. The synapse between the modulatory interneuron and sensory neuron of the siphon Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Complete the sequence of events that take place in the presynaptic enhancement underlying short-term behavioral sensitization: Serotonin is released from facilitatory interneuron; Ca2+ influx into the presynaptic terminal is enhanced; more neurotransmitter is released; synaptic transmission is enhanced a. IP3 signaling keeps postsynaptic K+ channels closed. b. IP3 signaling keeps presynaptic K+ channels closed. c. PKA signaling keeps presynaptic K+ channels closed. d. PKA signaling keeps presynaptic K+ channels open. e. cAMP signaling keeps presynaptic K+ channels open.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Which process differentiates long-term from short-term sensitization? a. Synaptic transmission between the facilitatory and sensory neurons b. Changes in gene expression c. PKA activation d. Production of cAMP e. Changes in the synapses between the sensory and motor neurons Answer: b Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which Drosophila melanogaster genotype is associated with the worst performance in an olfactory learning task? a. Wild type b. Dunce mutant c. Rutabaga mutant d. Dunce, rutabaga double mutant e. The performance of all phenotypes is comparable.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 8A: Genetics of Learning and Memory in the Fruit Fly Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

13. Which characteristic of a living hippocampus slice is critically important to its suitability as an experimental system for studying learning? a. Its architecture: the hippocampus can be sectioned without destroying relevant circuits. b. The hippocampus contains few neurons, which makes it easy to study. c. The layer of the pyramidal neurons is divided into several regions. d. Long-term potentiation takes place in hippocampal synapses. e. The hippocampus is involved in learning.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. LTP represents a lasting increase in the size of EPSP a. following a high-frequency train of stimuli. b. following a low-frequency train of stimuli. c. following a single stimulus. d. that is restricted to the hippocampus. e. that is restricted to the cortex.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which property of LTP underlies Pavlovian conditioning? a. Requirement for coincident activation of pre- and postsynaptic neurons b. Specificity of input c. Associativity d. Complementarity e. Transience Answer: c Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which condition(s) must be met to induce LTP? a. Glutamate must be released from the presynaptic terminal. b. Glutamate must open the postsynaptic AMPA receptors. c. The postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized for a period of time. d. Mg2+ block must be expelled from NMDA receptors to allow Ca2+ influx. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. What is the immediate consequence of Mg2+ blockade removal from the NMDA receptors? a. Ca2+ influx into the presynaptic terminal b. Ca2+ influx into the postsynaptic terminal c. Na+ influx into the postsynaptic terminal

d. Postsynaptic EPSP e. Glutamate binding to its receptors Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. What would happen if Mg2+ was not expelled from NMDA channels? a. Glutamate would not bind to NMDA receptors. b. Glutamate would not bind to AMPA receptors. c. The postsynaptic membrane would not depolarize. d. EPSP would not occur. e. LTP would not occur.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. What is the mechanism of LTP expression? a. Increase in the number of postsynaptic NMDA receptors b. Increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors c. Increase in the number of presynaptic AMPA receptors d. Increase in the intracellular level of synaptotagmins e. Decrease in the level of glutamate released into the synaptic cleft Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. Which protein facilitates the late phase of LTP? a. Synaptotagmin b. CaMKII c. CREB d. PKC e. Clathrin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 21. Which process does not take place during LTD? a. Activation of protein kinases b. Activation of protein phosphatases c. Activation of PKC d. Activation of clathrin e. Activation of synaptotagmin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

22. Which second messenger(s) is(are) involved in postsynaptic depression? a. Ca2+ only b. cAMP and Ca2+ only c. DAG and IP3 only d. Ca2+, DAG, and IP3 e. cAMP, Ca2+, DAG, and IP3 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. Which statement about silent synapses is true? a. They cannot be induced to transmit information. b. They transmit information at a resting membrane potential. c. They can produce postsynaptic responses as a result of LTP. d. They contain both NMDA and AMPA receptors. e. They represent mature glutamatergic synapses.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Refer to the figure.

Glutamate sensitivity (the amplitude of response to the application of glutamate) is color coded. The micrograph on the right was taken 120 minutes after the micrograph on the left. Which form of plasticity is shown in the figure? a. Habituation b. Sensitization c. Synaptic facilitation d. LTP e. LTD Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

25. What triggers LTD? a. Ca2+ influx into the postsynaptic terminal b. Internalization of AMPA receptors c. High-frequency stimulation d. Low-frequency stimulation followed by small or slow increase in Ca2+ e. Low-frequency stimulation followed by sharp and dramatic increase in Ca2+ Answer: d Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. At which time interval between pre- and postsynaptic activity would STDP occur? a. 20 ms, but only if presynaptic activity occurs before postsynaptic activity b. 30 ms, but only if postsynaptic activity occurs before presynaptic activity c. 40 ms, regardless of whether pre- or postsynaptic activity occurs first d. 10–100 ms, regardless of whether pre- or postsynaptic activity occurs first e. 40–100 ms, regardless of whether pre- or postsynaptic activity occurs first Answer: c Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 27. Which statement about kindling is true? a. Its effect is reversible. b. Its effect is long-lasting. c. It is based on use of a single, weak stimulus to change the excitability of the brain. d. It is used to treat epilepsy. e. It is used to diagnose epilepsy.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Define the term “synaptic plasticity.”

Answer: It is the ability of synapses to change in strength.

Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. How do the short-term forms of synaptic plasticity contribute to learning and memory?

Answer: They cause the transmission at chemical synapses to change dynamically as a consequence of the recent history of synaptic activity, that is, experience.

Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. What is the synaptic basis for short-term sensitization in Aplysia?

Answer: Modulatory interneurons strengthen synaptic transmission in the gill withdrawal circuit, that is, the synapses between the sensory and motor neurons of the siphon.

Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Define long-term potentiation (LTP). Draw a diagram that shows how LTP is obtained experimentally in CA1 of the hippocampus.

Answer: Long-term potentiation represents a long-lasting increase in synaptic strength.

Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What is needed for: a) the initial acquisition of LTP and b) the maintenance of longlasting LTP? Answer: a) Increase in postsynaptic Ca2+ b) Increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors with subsequent changes in protein expression in the postsynaptic cell Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What is long-term depression (LTD)? How is it produced experimentally?

Answer: Long-term depression is a persistent, activity-dependent weakening of synaptic transmission. It can be produced in the lab by stimulating Schaffer collaterals at a low frequency/rate for a long period of time /10–15 minutes.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Compare cellular mechanisms involved in LTP versus LTD. Answer: LTP is accompanied by an increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors, whereas LTD is accompanied by a decrease in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. How are silent synapses converted to active excitatory synapses?

Answer: Silent synapses are turned “on” when (induced by LTP) AMPA receptors are added to postsynaptic membranes, and the postsynaptic cell becomes responsive to glutamate.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Why is it thought that Ca2+ levels might be involved in spike timing-dependent plasticity (STDP)?

Answer: If postsynaptic Ca2+ levels are high (as they are when presynaptic activity precedes postsynaptic potential), LTP occurs. If postsynaptic Ca2+ levels are low (as they are when postsynaptic potential precedes presynaptic activity), LTD occurs.

Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What might LTP and epilepsy have in common?

Answer: Long-lasting or even permanent changes in neuronal circuitry underlie both LTP and epilepsy.

Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which statement about the plasticity of synapses in the mammalian CNS is false? a. The hallmark of both short-term and long-term synaptic plasticity is that they always increase the strength of synaptic connections. b. The efficacy of synapses can be adjusted by modulating the amount of neurotransmitter that is released. c. Calcium ions play a central role in at least some forms of synaptic plasticity. d. Changes in synaptic efficacy can occur over time scales ranging from milliseconds to years. e. A variety of molecular mechanisms are involved in the different forms of synaptic plasticity.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Firing an action potential in an axon initially causes a 10-mV depolarization (EPSP) in a postsynaptic neuron, but after applying a certain stimulus to the axon, firing it causes an 8-mV depolarization after each action potential. This phenomenon is called synaptic a. enhancement. b. depression. c. facilitation.

d. augmentation. e. potentiation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. After firing a short burst of action potentials in an axon, researchers observe a larger EPSP in the postsynaptic cell, and this effect seems to last a few tens of milliseconds.

This is most likely due to the presynaptic terminal having a. extra calcium. b. lowered calcium. c. extra sodium. d. reduced sodium. e. extra magnesium.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which mechanism would be a plausible explanation for synaptic depression? a. Inhibition of postsynaptic calcium channels b. Activation of presynaptic potassium channels c. Depletion of docked synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic terminal d. Faster replenishment of vesicles to the reserve pool e. Enhancement of presynaptic sodium currents Answer: c Textbook Reference: Short-Term Synaptic Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which statement about long-term synaptic plasticity is false? a. The efficacy of transmission at many synapses depends on their history of synaptic activity. b. The tracking of long-term changes in synaptic efficacy is difficult in mammalian systems because of the complexity of mammalian brains. c. The gill withdrawal reflex in Aplysia can be enhanced by pairing a noxious stimulus with a mild touch. d. Associative learning in the Aplysia gill withdrawal reflex is relatively independent of the timing or the order in which different stimuli are applied. e. Gill withdrawal behavior in Aplysia can be altered for days or weeks by means of repeated pairings of shocks and touches.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which mechanism contributes to the long-term enhancement of the gill withdrawal reflex in Aplysia but is not involved in the short-term enhancement of the reflex?

a. Activation of G-protein-coupled receptors by serotonin b. Phosphorylation of CREB c. Activation of adenylyl cyclase d. Activation of protein kinase A e. Decreased opening of potassium channels during presynaptic action potentials Answer: b Textbook Reference: Long-Term Synaptic Plasticity and Behavioral Modification in Aplysia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Learning and memory processes in the fruit fly Drosophila show striking molecular overlap with analogous processes in Aplysia, in terms of their using all of the following except a. phosphodiesterase. b. adenylyl cyclase. c. adenylyl cyclase activating pathways. d. allosteric modulation of GABA receptors. e. CREB gene regulation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 8A: Genetics of Learning and Memory in the Fruit Fly Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which statement about LTP is false? a. LTP involves an enhancement in synaptic efficacy that can last for hours, days, weeks or even longer. b. If one synapse (A) is very strongly stimulated (sufficient to cause LTP), and another nearby synapse (B) on the same dendrite is weakly stimulated at the same time, then the second synapse (B) will also show LTP. c. If one synapse (A) is very strongly stimulated (sufficient to cause LTP), and a nearby synapse (B) on the same cell is weakly stimulated a few seconds later, then the second synapse (B) will also show LTP. d. The requirement for coincident pre- and postsynaptic activity was predicted by Donald Hebb in 1949. e. Hippocampal LTP was first reported by Bliss and Lomo about 1970.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. An electrode is used to stimulate a presynaptic nerve that synapses in the dentate gyrus (DG) of the hippocampus. Postsynaptic recordings are measured in the DG neurons. First a weak stimulus (stimulus A) is applied, and then a strong stimulus (stimulus B). If a second weak stimulus (stimulus C) is applied after the strong stimulus, which result would you expect? a. The postsynaptic response to the second weak stimulus (C) will be higher than the response to the strong stimulus (B).

b. The postsynaptic response to the second weak stimulus (C) will be lower than the response to the first weak stimulus (A). c. The postsynaptic response to the second weak stimulus (C) will be equal to the response to the first weak stimulus (A). d. The postsynaptic response to the second weak stimulus (C) will be equal to the response to the strong stimulus (B). e. The postsynaptic response to the second weak stimulus (C) will be higher than the response to the first weak stimulus (A).

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Long-Term Potentiation at a Hippocampal Synapse Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. A researcher is trying to study synaptic transmission in a glutamatergic hippocampal neuron. She is tasked with measuring calcium flow in the postsynaptic hippocampal neuron after either low or high intensity stimulation to the presynaptic neuron. During the experiment, she measures calcium influx after both low and high stimulation. Which statement best describes the error she made? a. She forgot to add magnesium to the extracellular solution b. She forgot to add calcium to the extracellular solution c. She forgot to add sodium to the extracellular solution d. She forgot to add potassium to the extracellular solution e. She completed all steps correctly.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. You are examining long-term potentiation in two groups of hippocampal neurons: control and treated. You induce lasting LTP in the control cells after repetitive highfrequency stimulation. In the treated cell, however, the potentiation begins to decrease after 2 hours. What treatment was given? a. A drug that blocks sodium channels b. A drug that opens calcium channels c. A drug that binds magnesium d. A drug that inhibits protein synthesis e. A drug that blocks clathrin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. The type of receptor that is critical for the induction of hippocampal LTP, admitting calcium into a dendritic spine, is called a(n) a. AMPA receptor. b. NMDA receptor. c. glycine receptor. d. cholinergic GPCR. e. noradrenergic GPCR.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 1 Remembering 13. The key aspect of receptor-gating in the associative induction of hippocampal LTP is that a. all glutamate receptors open automatically whenever glutamate is in the synaptic cleft. b. the NMDA receptor acts as a molecular coincidence detector. c. the AMPA receptor allows calcium into the cell only after the NMDA receptor is activated. d. both the NMDA and AMPA channels must be open in order for the cell to depolarize. e. The NMDA receptor allows the flow of magnesium into the cell.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement about the mechanisms underlying hippocampal LTP induction is false? a. An influx of calcium triggers two or more intracellular processes in the postsynaptic dendritic spine. b. Calcium may enhance transmitter release from the presynaptic terminal. c. Calcium may activate Ca2+/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II (CaMKII), which then autophosphorylates, leading to a long-term “on” state. d. Calcium may activate a signaling cascade that causes the insertion of glutamate receptors into the postsynaptic membrane. e. Calcium decreases a resting leak current of sodium so that the postsynaptic cell is closer to threshold and therefore fires more easily.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Potentiation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Silent synapses are “silent” because they a. have no presynaptic terminal. b. have AMPA receptors but no NMDA receptors. c. have NMDA receptors but no AMPA receptors. d. lack voltage-gated sodium channels. e. are continuously inhibited and so cannot be activated.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 8B: Silent Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which mechanism used in hippocampal LTD is not part of the hippocampal LTP mechanism? a. History-dependent modification of synaptic efficacy b. NMDA receptor activation c. Calcium influx

d. Calcium-dependent activation of protein phosphatases e. Calcium-dependent activation of protein kinases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. The targets of the phosphatases activated during hippocampal LTD are a. voltage-gated ion channels. b. ligand-gated ion channels. c. synaptic vesicle regulatory proteins. d. postsynaptic signaling pathways. e. unknown.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Cerebellar LTD depends on a. synergistic actions of calcium and IP3 on internal calcium release channels. b. synergistic actions of sodium and IP3 on internal calcium release channels. c. activation of AMPA receptors by voltage-gated ion channels. d. binding of IP3 to clathrin to activate endocytosis. e. calcium-dependent insertion of GABA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms Underlying Long-Term Depression Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which observation would demonstrate the spike timing-dependent plasticity of synapses? a. Whether or not LTP occurs is dependent on the specific temporal pattern of action potentials. b. LTP occurs whenever an action potential precedes an EPSP. c. LTD occurs whenever an action potential follows an EPSP. d. Switching the relative timing of action potential and EPSP by as little as 20 ms can switch the response from LTD to LTP, or vice-versa. e. A rhythmic pattern of spike–EPSP–spike–EPSP, at 40 ms intervals, produces maximal LTP. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Spike Timing-Dependent Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. In the context of neuropathological activity, the phenomenon of kindling refers to a. small burns made in cortex by an electrical stimulating electrode. b. the ability to induce LTP in the amygdala and other brain regions in live animals. c. the ability of daily administration of a weak, low-amplitude train of electrical pulses to gradually evoke larger and larger behavioral responses.

d. the phenomenon whereby a single, strong electrical pulse can evoke a full-blown seizure. e. chaotic patterns of neural activity resembling the flame of a candle.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Epilepsy: The Effect of Pathological Activity on Neural Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 9: The Somatic Sensory System: Touch and Proprioception Multiple Choice 1. Where would the cell body of a sensory neuron that transmits touch information from the cheek to the central nervous system be located? a. Ganglion alongside the brainstem b. Nucleus inside the brainstem c. Ganglion alongside the spinal cord d. Nucleus inside the spinal cord e. Ganglion immediately underneath the skin of the cheek Answer: a Textbook Reference: Afferent Fibers Convey Somatosensory Information to the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which feature is characteristic of the pseudounipolar neurons of the somatosensory system? a. Central and peripheral components of the fibers are of a similar length b. Thick fibers that enables fast signal transduction c. Fibers with particularly high myelin content d. Continuous fibers, with the cell body attached by a single process e. Multiple dendrites Answer: d Textbook Reference: Afferent Fibers Convey Somatosensory Information to the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Afferent fibers that lack specialized receptors at their terminals detect which type of stimuli? a. Touch b. Vibration c. Pressure d. Pain e. Itch Answer: d Textbook Reference: Afferent Fibers Convey Somatosensory Information to the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

4. Which afferent fibers have the largest diameter? a. Ia sensory afferents from the muscles b. Ia sensory afferents from the skin c. Aβ sensory afferents from the skin d. A and C fibers that conduct temperature information e. A and C fibers that conduct pain information Answer: a Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. The _______ is inversely proportional to the density of the fibers supplying an area. a. diameter of the afferent fiber b. size of the receptive field c. speed of conduction d. average stimulus strength e. distance between an area and the central nervous system Answer: b Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. On which body part would the two-point discrimination threshold be shortest? a. Thigh b. Foot c. Arm d. Thumb e. Ear Answer: d Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Rapidly adapting fibers are most likely to provide information about the _______ of a stimulus. a. shape b. weight c. texture d. movement e. temperature Answer: d Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Which type of somatosensory afferents transmit information from touch mechanoreceptors to the central nervous system? a. Ia b. II c. Aβ

d. Aδ e. C Answer: c Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Which afferents have the highest spatial resolution? a. Merkel afferents b. Meissner afferents c. Pacinian afferents d. Ruffini afferents e. Pain afferents Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized to Receive Tactile Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Meissner afferents account for about _______ of the mechanosensory innervation of the human hand. a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 75% e. 90% Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized to Receive Tactile Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Merkel afferent fibers convey information about which variable(s)? a. Motion detection b. Temperature c. Proprioception d. Shape and texture e. Subtle vibrations Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized to Receive Tactile Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. The longitudinal lanceolate endings do not respond to a. deflection of the hair by strokes on the skin. b. movement of air over the skin surface. c. sensual touch. d. gentle caress. e. pain.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized to Receive Tactile Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

13. A dermatome is an area innervated by a. fibers of the cells from a single dorsal root ganglion. b. the axon of a single neuron. c. fibers from one spinal cord segment. d. fibers with similar properties. e. fibers of the cells from a single nucleus in the brain stem.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dermatomes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which component of the musculoskeletal system is responsible for force-production? a. Muscle spindle b. Intrafusal muscle fiber c. Extrafusal muscle fiber d. Sensory afferents e. Connective tissue capsule Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which sensation would be affected if group II sensory afferents in a limb were rendered dysfunctional due to a mutation? a. Velocity of limb movement b. Direction of limb movement c. Touch to the limb d. Static position of the limb e. Change in muscle length Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. Which role do γ motor neurons play in the function of a muscle spindle? a. They improve the accuracy of the reported sensory information by innervating extrafusal fibers. b. They improve the accuracy of the reported sensory information by innervating intrafusal fibers. c. They enhance the force of muscle contraction by innervating extrafusal fibers. d. They enhance the force of muscle contraction by innervating intrafusal fibers. e. They coordinate the contraction of extrafusal and intrafusal fibers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. Muscles in which region would most likely have the lowest density of muscle spindles?

a. Tongue b. Extraocular c. Hand d. Neck e. Leg Answer: e Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Joint receptors are important to perception which information? a. Joint position near the limits of normal range of motion b. Joint movement c. Finger position near the limits of normal range of motion d. Finger movement e. Limb position and movement Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. The axons of the medial lemniscus synapse with neurons of the a. primary sensory cortex. b. thalamus. c. gracile nucleus. d. cuneate nucleus. e. dorsal root ganglion.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Tactile information from the face to the central nervous system follows which pathway? a. Cutaneous receptors, trigeminal ganglion, pons, VPL of thalamus, ipsilateral cortex b. Cutaneous receptors, trigeminal ganglion, trigeminal brainstem complex, VPL of thalamus, contralateral cortex c. Cutaneous receptors, cranial nerve V, trigeminal brainstem complex, VPM of thalamus, contralateral cortex d. Cutaneous receptors, dorsal root ganglion, trigeminal brainstem complex, VPM of thalamus, ipsilateral cortex e. Cutaneous receptors, dorsal root ganglion, dorsal column nuclei, VPM of thalamus, cortex Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Face: The Trigeminothalamic System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

21. Where are the bodies of the cells that innervate proprioceptors of the face located? a. Cervical dorsal root ganglia b. Thoracic dorsal root ganglia c. Trigeminal ganglia d. Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus e. Principal nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Proprioceptive Information from the Face Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. Organization in which region of the brain is represented as a complete somatotopic map? a. Primary somatosensory cortex SI b. Brodmann’s area 1 c. Brodmann’s area 2 d. Secondary somatosensory cortex SII e. Hypothalamus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Primary Somatosensory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. Refer to the figure.

Activity of which cortical area(s) depend(s) on the projections from other cortical areas? a. Secondary somatosensory cortex only b. Brodmann’s areas 1 and 2 only c. Brodmann’s areas 3a and 3b d. Secondary somatosensory cortex and Brodmann’s areas 1 and 2 e. Parietal areas 5 and 7 Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Primary Somatosensory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Functional reorganization in the brain a. occurs at all ages, all of the time. b. occurs after nerve damage, amputation, and skill training. c. results in a temporary loss of sensory input. d. occurs only during the first ten years of life. e. occurs only in the cortex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Plasticity in the Adult Cerebral Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. What change could improve the two-point discrimination of a region of skin?

Answer: An increase in the density of innervation and reduction of the receptive field size Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. What is a somatosensory receptive field?

Answer: The surface area over which stimulation results in a significant change in the rate of action potentials of a particular neuron.

Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. What is proprioception? Name three kinds of proprioceptors.

Answer: Proprioception is the ability to sense the position of the body and limbs in space.

Muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors are types of proprioceptors.

Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Where are the gracile and cuneate tracts located, and what information do they convey?

Answer: The gracile tract lies in the medial dorsal column of the spinal cord and conveys information from the lower limbs; the cuneate tract lies in the lateral dorsal column of the spinal cord and conveys information from the upper limbs, trunk, and neck.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Where is the primary somatic sensory cortex (SI) located?

Answer: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.

Textbook Reference: Primary Somatosensory Cortex

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Are there functional differences between the four Brodmann’s areas that comprise SI? Answer: Yes. Area 3b receives the bulk of input and projects to Brodmann’s areas 1 and 2.

Textbook Reference: Primary Somatosensory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Name one afferent and one efferent connections of somatic sensory cortex.

Answer: Afferent connection: thalamus Efferent connection: SII, Brodmann’s areas 5a and 7b (parietal areas posterior to area 2) Textbook Reference: Beyond SI: Corticocortical and Descending Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Would piano lessons lead to functional remapping in the somatosensory cortex?

Answer: Yes, increased and specialized use of the hands and fingers would produce changes in respective regions of the somatosensory and motor cortices.

Textbook Reference: Plasticity in the Adult Cerebral Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Somatosensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglion (DRG) transmit information a. from the cell body to the spinal cord. b. from the cell body to the skin. c. from the skin to the spinal cord. d. from the spinal cord to the skin. e. from the spinal cord to the brain.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Afferent Fibers Convey Somatosensory Information to the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. A sensory receptor or “generator” potential is usually due to a. resting or “leak” currents in the cell body. b. the activation of voltage-gated ion channels. c. the activation of ligand-gated ion channels. d. an external stimulus impinging upon sensory nerve endings. e. an internal stimulus modifying a synaptic signal between two interneurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Afferent Fibers Convey Somatosensory Information to the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

3. Which correctly ranks the diameter of afferent sensory axons from smallest to largest? a. Pain and temperature < cutaneous mechanoreceptor < muscle spindle b. Cutaneous mechanoreceptor < pain and temperature < muscle spindle c. Muscle spindle < cutaneous mechanoreceptor < pain and temperature d. Pain and temperature < muscle spindle < cutaneous mechanoreceptor e. Cutaneous mechanoreceptor < muscle spindle < pain and temperature Answer: a Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying Which statement best describes the relationship between receptive fields, density of mechanoreceptors, and two-point discrimination? a. The larger the receptive field, the higher the density of mechanoreceptors, the smaller the two-point discrimination threshold. b. The smaller the receptive field, the higher the density of mechanoreceptors, the larger the two-point discrimination threshold. c. The larger the receptive field, the higher the density of mechanoreceptors, the larger the two-point discrimination threshold. d. The smaller the receptive field, the higher the density of mechanoreceptors, the smaller the two-point discrimination. e. There is no relationship between receptive fields, density of mechanoreceptors, and two-point discrimination threshold.

Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. While in the library studying, you observe another student reading a Braille textbook. Which mechanoreceptor is responsible for registering the sharpest perception of the Braille type? a. Free nerve endings of C-fibers b. Pacinian corpuscles c. Ruffini endings d. Merkel cells e. Meissner corpuscles Answer: d Textbook Reference: Somatosensory Afferents Convey Different Functional Information Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Thomas is having trouble with discriminative touch, and it is determined that his rapidly-adapting, large receptive field mechanoreceptors are dysfunctional. Which mechanoreceptors is he having trouble with? a. Meissner corpuscles b. Pacinian corpuscles c. Merkel cells d. Free nerve endings e. Ruffini endings

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized to Receive Tactile Information Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which statement about dermatomes is false? a. They are defined by the area of skin innervated by each spinal nerve. b. Each dermatome innervates a discrete area of skin and does not overlap with other dermatomes. c. Knowledge of dermatomes can aid in determining the level of a spinal lesion. d. Dermatomes for touch, pressure, and vibration are larger than those for temperature and pain. e. The cutaneous areas of the fronts of the legs and the backs of the legs are in different dermatomes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dermatomes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which of the following is not a feature of the muscle spindle-based proprioceptive system? a. In-parallel attachment to tendons b. In-parallel alignment with extrafusal muscle fibers c. Mechanically gated ion channels d. Use of group Ia and II afferent axons e. Innervation by γ motor neurons Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanoreceptors Specialized for Proprioception Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. The “dorsal columns” refer to the a. pillar-like sensory structures found in the skin on the back. b. gray matter columns on the dorsal side of the spinal cord. c. bundles of axons running in the dorsal aspect of the spinal cord. d. large white matter columns connecting the cerebrum with the cerebellum. e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. The right gracile nucleus projects (i.e., sends action potentials) to the a. right cuneate tract. b. left somatosensory cortex. c. right thalamus. d. left thalamus. e. right lumbar spinal cord.

Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Where would the primary afferent axons conveying mechanosensory signals from the right arm be found? a. In the right cuneate tract of the cervical spinal cord b. In the left gracile tract of the cervical spinal cord c. In the right gracile tract of the cervical spinal cord d. In the right ventral roots of the lumbosacral spinal cord e. In the left ventral roots of the lumbosacral spinal cord Answer: a Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Syphilis can lead to a disorder in which there is a demyelination of the axons in the dorsal column of the spinal cord. How would mechanosensation be altered in an individual with this disorder? a. Contralateral loss of touch and proprioception b. Ipsilateral loss of touch and proprioception c. Contralateral loss of touch and ipsilateral loss of proprioception d. Ipsilateral loss of touch and contralateral loss of proprioception e. Both contralateral and ipsilateral loss of touch and proprioception Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. The internal capsule conducts sensory information a. between the dorsal root ganglion and the spinal cord. b. from the spinal cord to the brainstem. c. between the brainstem and thalamus. d. from the thalamus to the cortex. e. from the brainstem to the cortex.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Body: The Dorsal Column–Medial Lemniscal System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. The _______ of the trigeminal _______ conveys facial tactile information in much the same way that the dorsal column nuclei transmit lower body tactile information. a. principal nucleus; complex b. spinal nucleus; complex c. ophthalmic branch; nerve d. mandibular branch; nerve

e. maxillary branch; nerve Answer: a Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Tactile Information from the Face: The Trigeminothalamic System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which group of neurons is similar to dorsal root ganglia in terms of conveying information from the periphery to targets in the CNS but has an unusual location in the brainstem? a. Clarke’s nucleus b. Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus c. Trigeminal ganglion d. Principal nucleus of the trigeminal complex e. Mandibular nucleus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Proprioceptive Information from the Face: The Trigeminothalamic System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Which statement about proprioceptive afferents from the trunk and limbs is false? a. Many synapse within the dorsal horn. b. Many bifurcate after they enter spinal cord. c. Many cross at the spinal level and ascend contralaterally to the cerebellum. d. Many terminate on Clarke’s nucleus in the spinal cord. e. Many send collaterals to the dorsal column nuclei.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways Conveying Proprioceptive Information from the Body Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which statement about primary somatosensory cortex (S1) is true? a. It is, as a whole, encompassed within Brodmann’s area 17. b. Receptive field properties vary within different subregions of S1. c. The amount of cortex dedicated to each body part is proportional to the surface area of the body part. d. It is organized by receptor type, with a Pacinian area, a Merkel disc area, a temperature area, and a pain area. e. It is innervated by neurons located in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Primary Somatosensory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. In terms of the projections from primary sensory cortex (SI), a. the ascending sensory projections entering SI outnumber those descending out of cortex.

b. a second somatosensory cortical region (SII) receives convergent inputs from all regions of SI. c. SI neurons project directly to the hippocampus and amygdala. d. there are no interconnections within the regions of SI. e. SI region 3a projects out to parietal areas 5 and 7, which then communicate with the motor cortex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Beyond S1: Corticocortical and Descending Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which of the following is not observed in studies of sensory cortical plasticity? a. Peripheral anesthesia leads to transient changes in cortical receptive fields. b. Requiring a monkey to repeatedly use a digit (finger) can alter the monkey’s cortical representation of that finger. c. If a cortical region is deprived of input, after a while that region begins to respond to nearby regions of the periphery. d. Somatosensory cortex reorganization after limb amputation might contribute to phantom limb pain. e. All of the above are valid observations.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Plasticity in the Adult Cerebral Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. How would you expect the somatosensory cortex in an adult who doesn’t play an instrument to compare to that of an adult who has been playing piano since age 5? a. There would be no difference in the size or location of cortical representation of the fingers between the musician and non-musician. b. The musician would have smaller cortical representation of the fingers compared to the non-musician. c. There would be no difference in the size of cortical representation of the fingers between the musician and non-musician, but the cortex of the musician would be organized differently with the fingers being represented closer to the area that represents the chin. d. The musician would have larger cortical representation of the fingers compared to the non-musician. e. The musician would have larger cortical representation of the fingers, hand, arm, and face compared to the non-musician.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Plasticity in the Adult Cerebral Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 10: Pain Multiple Choice 1. Which pathway represents a route that pain information could take in the nervous system? a. Free nerve ending nociceptor, unmyelinated C fiber axon, spinal cord b. Free nerve ending nociceptor, myelinated C fiber axon, spinal cord c. Unspecialized, unmyelinated A axon, spinal cord d. Specialized pain receptor, partially myelinated A axon, brainstem e. Mechanoreceptor, myelinated axons, cranial nerve, spinal cord Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. What do nociceptor neurons and non-nociceptor somatosensory neurons have in common? a. Unspecialized nerve endings b. Specialized nerve endings c. Conduction velocity d. Highly-myelinated axons e. Cell body located in the dorsal root ganglia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Refer to the graph.

Which conclusion about the neuronal basis of pain is consistent with the graph? a. Stimuli of certain temperatures can activate nociceptors but not thermoreceptors.

b. These nociceptors respond only to stimuli that are sufficiently warm (approximately 43°C or above). c. There is a linear relationship between thermoreceptor response and temperature of the stimulus. d. The nociceptors and thermoreceptors respond to a thermal stimulus by decreasing the frequency of action potentials e. Any thermal stimulus can activate both the nociceptors and the thermoreceptors.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. Which fibers conduct the sensation of first pain? a. Unmyelinated C b. Myelinated Aδ c. Myelinated Ia d. Unmyelinated II e. Myelinated Aβ Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which sensation would an individual with anesthetized C fibers report when exposed to intense heat? a. Sharp pain followed by a dull burning b. Sharp pain only c. Dull burning only d. Tingling e. No sensation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Which channel is responsible for transmitting information about chemical irritants, such as components of cigarette smoke, in the environment? a. TRPV1 b. TRPA1 c. TRPV4 d. Piezo 2 e. ASIC3 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Transduction and Transmission of Nociceptive Signals Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. ASIC channels are involved in generating the sensation of pain associated with heart attack because, during heart attack, a. pH of the tissue increases, which activates the channels.

b. pH of the tissue decreases, which activates the channels. c. heart tissue undergoes necrosis, the products of which activate the channels. d. heart muscle contracts, and this mechanical force activates the channels. e. capsaicin produced in the heart muscle activates the channels.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Transduction and Transmission of Nociceptive Signals Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. What makes neurons of Rexed’s lamina V a likely substrate for referred pain? a. They receive nociceptive information. b. They receive somatosensory information. c. They receive converging information from somatosensory and nociceptive axons. d. They project directly to cortical structures. e. They receive descending inputs from the locus coeruleus.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Which deficit would a lesion restricted to the right side of the spinal cord produce? a. Mechanosensory deficit on the right side of the body only b. Mechanosensory deficit on the left side of the body only c. Pain deficit on the right side of the body only d. Pain deficit on the left side and mechanosensory deficit on the right side of the body e. Pain deficit on the right side and mechanosensory deficit on the left side of the body Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which structure contributes to the sensory-discriminative aspect of pain? a. Anterior cingulate cortex b. Ventral posterior medial nucleus of thalamus c. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus d. Amygdala e. Ventral posterior medial and lateral nuclei of the thalamus Answer: e Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. The small receptive fields of SI nociceptor neurons make possible the a. perception of affective-motivational aspects of pain. b. perception of extreme pain. c. perception of weak pain. d. precise localization of pain. e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Disruption of the _______ system prevents the transmission of _______ information. a. dorsal column-mediated lemniscal; visceral pain b. anterolateral; vibration c. dorsal column-mediated lemniscal; temperature d. anterolateral; visceral pain e. anterolateral; mechanosensory Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 10C: A Dorsal Column Pathway for Visceral Pain Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Colon cancer pain has been shown to be relieved by disruption of the visceral pain pathway at the level of the a. spinal cord near the midline at the sacral level. b. spinal cord near the midline at the thoracic level. c. ventral horn ipsilateral to the site of pain at the thoracic level. d. dorsal horn contralateral to the site of pain at the thoracic level. e. insular cortex ipsilateral to the site of pain.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 10C: A Dorsal Column Pathway for Visceral Pain Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Where are the bodies of first-order neurons that conduct pain and thermal information from the face located? a. Pars interpolaris b. Ventral posterior medial nucleus c. Brainstem d. Thalamus e. Trigeminal ganglia and ganglia of cranial nerves VII, IX, and X Answer: e Textbook Reference: Pain and Temperature Pathways for the Face Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which perception is an example of hyperalgesia? a. Pain following a small paper cut b. Pain following sunburn c. Sensitivity to innocuous stimulus like the sound of scratching a plate with a fork d. Increased sensitivity to light during a migraine episode e. Increased sensitivity to temperature after sunburn Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which mechanism contributes to peripheral sensitization following tissue damage? a. Release of peptides and neurotransmitters from nociceptors

b. Migration of immune cells to the site of damage c. Release of proinflammatory substances by the non-neuronal cells d. Potentiation of nociceptors by soluble proinflammatory substances e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Is it possible for an innocuous stimulus, such as touch, to evoke a sensation of pain? a. No, because the different types of information travel through separate pathways. b. No, because an innocuous stimulus is not strong enough to evoke pain sensation. c. Yes, because pain and touch information share a common pathway. d. Yes, it occurs by means of central sensitization. e. Yes, it occurs by means of peripheral sensitization.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. What is the basis of the windup form of central sensitization? a. Summation of slow postsynaptic potentials in the dorsal horn neurons b. Elevation of intracellular Ca2+ levels in the dorsal horn neurons c. Elevation of intracellular Cl– levels in the dorsal horn neurons d. Increase in transcription of the COX-2 enzyme e. Increase in production of chemokines by astrocytes Answer: a Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. Phantom pain is an example of a. allodynia. b. neuropathic pain. c. peripheral sensitization. d. potentiation. e. hallucination.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Refer to the figure.

Touching which body part, on a person who is missing his right hand, is most likely to evoke a sensation of being touched on his right fingers? a. Right eye b. Scalp c. Right shoulder d. Right leg e. Left jaw Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. Which statement about placebos is most accurate? a. Studies of the placebo effect prove that some people are imagining they feel pain. b. The use of placebos is a relatively new strategy for treating pain. c. Placebos relieve pain in some people by stimulating endogenous opioid receptors. d. In a study of patients with postoperative wounds, the placebo effect was shown to be ineffective in 75% of subjects given sterile saline as the placebo. e. None of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Placebo Effect Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. Which center has the highest order within the system that modulates the transmission of ascending pain signals? a. Raphe nuclei b. Locus coeruleus c. Parabrachial nucleus d. Medullary reticular formation e. Midbrain periaqueductal gray matter Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. Which statement correctly summarizes the gate theory of pain? a. Flow of ascending pain information is modified by stimulation of low-threshold mechanoreceptors. b. Flow of ascending pain information is modified by stimuli from cortical centers. c. Flow of ascending pain information is modified by stimuli from brainstem centers. d. Descending inputs from pain centers indirectly modify the activity of dorsal horn projection neurons by acting on local circuit neurons. e. Descending inputs from pain centers directly modify the activity of dorsal horn projection neurons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Receptors to which class of molecules are also found on microglia? a. Exogenous opiates b. Enkephalines c. Endorphins d. Dynorphins e. Endocannabinoids Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. In which region of the brain can all three endogenous opioid peptides be found? a. Rostral ventral medulla b. Dorsal horns of the spinal cord c. Periaqueductal gray matter d. Amygdala e. Insula Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. What is the evidence that nociception is mediated by specific nociceptors rather than by strong stimulation of somatosensory receptors or non-nociceptive thermoreceptors?

Answer: Transcutaneous nerve recording experiments have revealed that nociceptors and thermoreceptors respond differently to the same stimulus. Thermoreceptors reach their maximum firing rate at a temperature below the pain threshold and maintain that rate even at increasing levels of heat stimulation, whereas nociceptive thermoreceptors begin firing at a higher stimulus intensity and increase their firing rate as the stimulus intensity increases.

Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 2. Why do chili peppers seem hot?

Answer: Noxious heat and capsaicin (an ingredient in chili peppers) both activate the same TRPV1 receptors in A and C fibers.

Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Due to a spinal injury, a patient has lost pain and temperature sensation on the left half of his body from the waist down. Where is his injury? Where would you expect loss of tactile sensation in this patient?

Answer: The patient sustained a spinal cord injury at a lower thoracic level on the right side of his body. Tactile sensation will be lost on the right half of his body from the waist down.

Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Give an example of referred pain and offer a possible explanation.

Answer: Answers may vary (See Box 10B). An example of referred pain is feeling a pain in the left arm and left hand that actually originates in the upper chest wall. Referred pain can be explained by the fact that neurons that convey pain from visceral organs also convey cutaneous pain.

Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What is the recently discovered major pathway for visceral pain?

Answer: The dorsal column pathway for visceral pain Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. What factors might contribute to the fact that surgical removal of SI fails to abolish pain?

Answer: Multiple regions of the central nervous system, in addition to SI, are involved in processing of nociceptive information.

Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Are hyperalgesia and allodynia beneficial?

Answer: Yes, these mechanisms protect a body part previously exposed to a harmful stimulus from further damage.

Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. The placebo effect on pain can be blocked by naloxone. What does this observation reveal about the placebo effect?

Answer: Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist. Since naloxone can block the painrelieving effect of a placebo, the placebo effect appears to exert its effect by activating endogenous opioid receptors.

Textbook Reference: The Placebo Effect Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Are there practical applications of the gate theory of pain?

Answer: Yes, for example, rubbing a part of the body that has been exposed to a painful stimulus can alleviate pain, so we can immediately treat and allay the everyday pains of banging one’s leg, bumping one’s head, or being scratched by brambles.

Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What are the three major groups of endogenous opioids?

Answer: Enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. In terms of conduction velocity, the axons arising from peripheral nociceptors a. are the fastest conducting nerve fibers. b. are the second fastest group of fibers, slower only than muscle and joint proprioceptors. c. are the third fastest group of fibers, being slower than the group I and II sensory afferents. d. include the slowest-conducting of the peripheral sensory afferents. e. are of indeterminate conduction velocity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Refer to the figure.

In an experiment, subjects are given a selective A fiber-blocker and then exposed to a strong heat stimulus. Which curve best represents the expected perception of pain by the subjects? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nociceptors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. Which statement about TRP receptors is false? a. TRP channels are very specialized and found only in the pain system. b. TRP channels were discovered in studies of Drosophila phototransduction. c. TRPV1 receptors are sensitive to capsaicin and moderate heat.

d. TRPV1 receptors might be activated by endogenous compounds that are structurally related to capsaicin. e. TRP channels structurally resemble voltage-gated potassium channels.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Transduction and Transmission of Nociceptive Signals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. The bundle of central branches of pain-sensitive dorsal root ganglion cells forms a. Rexed’s laminae 1 and 5. b. Lissauer’s tract. c. the medial dorsal column. d. the lateral dorsal column. e. the anterolateral tract.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways Are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. A loss of tactile, pain, and temperature sensations localized to the lower right leg would most likely be the result of a. injury to the right side of the lower spinal cord. b. injury to the left side of the lower spinal cord. c. bilateral spinal cord injury at lower spinal levels. d. right peripheral nerve damage. e. left peripheral nerve damage.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways Are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A 32-year old male presents with a wound that has caused left hemisection of the spinal cord at T10. Which sensory loss would you expect to find? a. Contralateral loss of touch and proprioception below the level of the lesion; ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of the lesion b. Contralateral loss of touch, proprioception, pain, and temperature below the level of the lesion c. Ipsilateral loss of touch and proprioception below the level of the lesion; contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of the lesion d. Ipsilateral loss of touch, proprioception, pain, and temperature below the level of the lesion e. Ipsilateral and contralateral loss of touch, proprioception, pain, and temperature below the level of the lesion Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pain Pathways Are Distinct from Mechanosensory Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

7. Referred pain a. denotes the symptoms of patients who have been referred from a general practice physician to a pain management specialist. b. results when cutaneous sensory neurons send aberrant axonal branches to visceral organs. c. results when visceral neurons send aberrant axonal branches to the skin. d. arises from the conveyance of both visceral and cutaneous pain information by dorsal horn neurons. e. results when mechanosensation neurons, but not pain neurons, from the same location on the body have been damaged.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 10B: Referred Pain Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Which structure plays the largest role in the sensory-discriminative aspects of pain, as opposed to its affective aspects? a. Amygdala b. Periaqueductal gray c. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus d. Midline thalamic nuclei e. Anterior cingulate cortex Answer: c Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. In a neuroscience experiment examining the effect of hypnosis on pain perception, subjects were first poked in the hand with a sharp probe and asked to rate the pain on a 1 (no pain) to 5 (intense pain) scale. Researchers noted how much pressure it took to elicit pain at both a level 2 and a level 4. Subjects were then hypnotized and scanned using fMRI. During fMRI evaluation, subjects were poked with the sharp probe with enough pressure to elicit level 2 pain. Without changing the intensity of the pressure, researchers then persuaded subjects that the pressure was increasing during the fMRI measurements. In what brain region would you expect to see increases in activity in the hypnotized subjects? a. Hippocampus b. Somatosensory cortex c. Ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus d. Anterior cingulate e. No region would change in activity Answer: d Textbook Reference: Parallel Pain Pathways Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Which statement does not express one of the observations that contributed to the concept of a dorsal column pain pathway?

a. Spinal afferents project to the spinal intermediate gray matter. b. Intermediate gray axons project through the dorsal columns. c. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus and gracile nucleus neurons respond to noxious stimuli. d. Ventral posterior lateral nucleus and gracile nucleus pain responses are lost after a dorsal column lesion. e. Tactile sensations, but not pain sensations, are lost after the infusion of nociceptive inhibitors into the spinal intermediate gray region.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 10C: A Dorsal Column Pathway for Visceral Pain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Facial pain and temperature sensations are conveyed a. by large-diameter, heavily myelinated axons. b. by neurons located in the dorsal root ganglia. c. by axons that enter the pons and descend to the medulla. d. to the thalamus by ipsilaterally projecting reticulothalamic neurons. e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Pain and Temperature Pathways for the Face Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Terry is diagnosed with a lesion that damaged the right ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus. What symptoms would you expect Terry to show? a. Loss of pain and temperature sensation from stimuli to the right side of the face b. Loss of pain and temperature sensation from stimuli to the right side of the body c. Loss of pain and temperature sensation from stimuli to the left side of the face d. Loss of pain and temperature sensation from stimuli to the left side of the body e. Loss of pain and temperature sensation from stimuli to the both right and left side of the face Answer: c Textbook Reference: Pain and Temperature Pathways for the Face Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Nondiscriminative touch a. refers to the capacity to tactically sense things but with little two-point discrimination or ability to identify objects. b. is the tactile sensing pathway with the highest spatial resolution. c. refers to the sensation of objects via their painful and burning qualities. d. is mediated by second-order fibers that cross in the medulla and project directly to cingulate cortex. e. enables excellent object identification in cases of dorsal column injuries.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Other Modalities Mediated by the Anterolateral System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

14. Pruriceptors are a. signals emanating from the central autonomic nuclei. b. receptors that convey the affective nature of unpleasant or noxious stimuli. c. subsets of C fibers that are activated by itch-inducing stimuli. d. receptors concerned with the physiological states of the body. e. receptors involved in local motor pattern generation within visceral organs.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Other Modalities Mediated by the Anterolateral System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Peripheral sensitization a. occurs only after repeated injuries to a particular portion of the body. b. is distinguished from hyperalgesia, in that it mainly concerns pleasant stimuli. c. involves an “inflammatory soup” of histamine, prostaglandins, and many other compounds. d. involves the enhancement of such mechanoreceptors as the Pacinian and Meissner corpuscles. e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sensitization Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which statement about phantom limbs and phantom limb pain is false? a. Phantom limb sensation occurs in only a very small fraction of amputees, since illusory phantom limbs are rare. b. Phantom limb sensation and pain can occur transiently after local nerve block. c. Phantom limb sensation and pain are not relieved by ablations of the spinothalamic tract or sensory cortex. d. Phantom limb sensations can occur in children born without limbs. e. Mirror box therapy can offer relief for some individuals that experience phantom limb pain.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Phantom Limbs and Phantom Pain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. You hit your thumb with a hammer and immediately grab your finger and squeeze the injured area. The pain subsides slightly. Activation of what type of neuron is responsible for the reduction in pain sensation? a. A mechanoreceptor afferents b. Descending enkephalin efferents c. C fibers afferents d. Ia proprioceptive afferents e. Dorsal horn projection neurons Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

18. Which statement regarding the descending control of pain is false? a. Electrical and pharmacological stimulation of certain midbrain regions can alleviate pain. b. Insertion of acupuncture needles into the periaqueductal gray produces the same effect as electrically stimulating it. c. The cholinergic, dopaminergic, histaminergic, serotonergic, and noradrenergic systems all contribute to descending control of pain. d. Descending pathways can exert both excitatory and inhibitory influences on the activity of dorsal horn neurons. e. Descending control is mediated by synaptic contacts onto dorsal horn projection neurons, nociceptive afferents, excitatory and inhibitory interneurons, and the synaptic terminals of other descending pathways.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. The pathways that descend into the spinal cord and modulate pain transmission via direct influences on the dorsal horn arise from all areas except the a. parabrachial nucleus. b. periaqueductal gray. c. dorsal raphe. d. locus coeruleus. e. medullary reticular formation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Logan has been managing chronic pain in his leg and back from bike accident injuries for over a year. His doctor has suggested that they stimulate his brain in an attempt to relieve some of the pain. Stimulation of which region would be most likely to produce relief? a. Periaqueductal gray b. Somatosensory cortex c. Anterior cingulate d. Ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus e. Superior colliculus Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiological Basis of Pain Modulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 11: Vision: The Eye Multiple Choice 1. Which eye structure is paired with an appropriate characteristic? a. Cornea: contains neurons that are sensitive to light and transmit visual signals b. Aqueous humor: fills the space between the back of the lens and the retina c. Pupil: separates and protects the eye from the external environment d. Retina: produces melanin and capillaries to nourish photoreceptors e. Ciliary body: produces fluid to fill the front of the eye Answer: e Textbook Reference: Anatomy of the Eye Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. An optometrist discovers that her patient has poor drainage of his aqueous humor, and a test confirms high intraocular pressure. These symptoms suggest which condition? a. Presbyopia b. Emmetropia c. Cataracts d. Glaucoma e. Macular degeneration Answer: d Textbook Reference: Anatomy of the Eye Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. On its way to the retina, light passes through tissues and fluids in which order? a. Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor, retina b. Sclera, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor, retina c. Cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, retina d. Sclera, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, retina e. Cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, vitreous humor, retina Answer: a Textbook Reference: Anatomy of the Eye Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. During accommodation, the shape of the _______ is changed by the _______ in order to see objects accurately at varying distances. a. lens; zonule fibers b. lens; ciliary muscle c. pupil; ciliary muscle

d. pupil; zonule fibers e. iris; zonule fibers Answer: b Textbook Reference: Image Formation on the Retina Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Which statement about the optic disc is false? a. It is a region without photoreceptors. b. It is where retinal nerves leave the eye to reach targets in the thalamus and midbrain. c. It contains a small depression known as the fovea. d. It can be an indicator for intracranial pressure. e. It creates a blind spot.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Retinal Surface Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. A 68-year-old man notices that the boxes of his crossword puzzle look wavy and blurry for the word he is working on, but the boxes in the periphery of his focus remain clear. This symptom suggests that the man has which condition? a. Presbyopia b. Emmetropia c. Cataracts d. Glaucoma e. Macular degeneration Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Retinal Surface Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. What is the most direct path that light information travels on its way to the optic nerve? a. Photoreceptor cell; bipolar cell; ganglion cell; optic nerve b. Photoreceptor cell; ganglion cell; bipolar cell; optic nerve c. Bipolar cell; photoreceptor cell; ganglion cell; optic nerve d. Bipolar cell; ganglion cell; photoreceptor cell; optic nerve e. Ganglion cell; photoreceptor cell; bipolar cell; optic nerve Answer: a Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8.Which of the following statements about the location photoreceptors in the outermost layer of the retina is true. a. This placement allows light to stimulate the photoreceptors via the most direct path. b. The proximity to the pigment epithelium allows nourishment for the photoreceptor cells and recycling of photopigment. c. This placement allows more synapses to be formed between amacrine cells and ganglion cells. d. The proximity to the pigment epithelium determines if a photoreceptor cell

differentiates into a rod or a cone. e. This placement allows a light stimulus to be filtered when it travels through the other layers of the retina to reach the outermost layer.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Pigment Epithelium Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Applying a drug that increases cGMP levels in photoreceptors would cause which effect on a photoreceptor’s response to a photon of light? a. An intensified depolarization from normal b. An attenuated depolarization from normal c. An intensified hyperpolarization from normal d. An attenuated hyperpolarization from normal e. There would be no effect Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Which mechanism decreases sensitivity in a photoreceptor as levels of illumination increase? a. The retinoid cycle b. Accommodation c. Transducin d. Rhodopsin e. Light adaptation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. If a person had a mutation in the gene that codes for interphotoreceptor retinoid binding protein, what would be the most likely downstream effects? a. Arrestin would not be able to bind to rhodopsin. b. Opsin would not be able to activate the intracellular messenger transducin. c. Retinal could not be transported to and from the outer segment for the retinoid cycle. d. The conformational change from cis-retinal to trans-retinal could not take place during photoisomerization. e. PDE would not hydrolyze cGMP to reduce its concentration.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Mesopic vision is most likely to occur in which of the the following scenarios? a. Sitting on a sunny beach b. Standing in a dark closet c. Reading in a park on a cloudy afternoon d. Shopping inside a department store

e. Walking outdoors at the break of dawn Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. The reason that rods do not contribute to photopic vision is a. they are not being stimulated. b. their response is saturated. c. all of their membrane channels are open. d. they are not responsible for color vision. e. they have low resolution.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which of the following correctly matches rods and cones with their properties? a. Rods: high spatial resolution; cones: color vision b. Rods: high sensitivity to light; cones: high spatial resolution c. Rods: color vision; cones: low spatial resolution d. Rods: high sensitivity to light; cones: low spatial resolution e. Rods: low sensitivity to light; cones: color vision Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which statement about rod and cone convergence in the retina is true? a. Many cones converge onto one cone bipolar cell. b. Convergence makes the cone system a better detector of light. c. Convergence increases the spatial resolution of rods. d. The one-to-one relationship of rods to bipolar and ganglion cells increases acuity. e. Convergence allows rods to pool signals, generating larger responses in bipolar cells.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. What accounts for the fact that rods do not contribute to vision in daylight? a. Rods cannot be stimulated by photons in daylight. b. The occipital lobe ignores rod signaling in daylight. c. All membrane channels are closed due to saturation in daylight. d. The retinoid cycle in rods stops in daylight. e. cGMP is quickly depleted in daylight.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which symptom would you expect a person with damage to the fovea to experience?

a. Total blindness b. Poor peripheral vision c. Difficulty seeing large objects d. Trouble reading e. Increased sensitivity to light Answer: d Textbook Reference: Anatomical Distribution of Rods and Cones Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Which feature is responsible for the superior acuity of the fovea? a. Lack of retinal blood vessels b. Higher density of ganglion cells c. Increased concentration of rods d. Presence of the inner nuclear layer e. Maximum photon scattering before reaching the photoreceptors Answer: a Textbook Reference: Anatomical Distribution of Rods and Cones Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which property best differentiates the types of cones? a. Their location in the retina b. The number of synapses on bipolar cells c. The photopigments they contain d. Their overall ratio to other types of cones e. Their shape and processes Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. A genetically engineered macaque has had the gene that codes for M pigment knocked out. Which vision impairment should the knockout macaque have? a. Blue-yellow color blindness b. Anomalous trichromat c. Protanopia d. Deuteranopia e. Complete loss of color vision Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. A man with dichromatic vision would have the most trouble with which task? a. Determining when a red light turns green b. Differentiating his chess pieces from his opponent’s c. Reading a novel d. Seeing stars in the night sky e. Adjusting to bright lights in a store

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Why are males more likely than females to have red–green color deficiencies? a. Sex differences in their mitochondrial genes. b. The red and green pigment genes are located on the X chromosome. c. The red and green pigment genes are located on chromosome 7. d. Normal trichromats have one gene for red pigments. e. Normal trichromats have a varying number of genes for green pigments.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. How would an OFF-center neuron’s firing rate change when a light was turned on, turned off, and then turned on again? a. Increase, increase, decrease b. Increase, decrease, increase c. Decrease, increase, decrease d. Decrease, increase, increase e. Decrease, decrease, increase Answer: c Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. A photoreceptor cell is exposed to a flash of light. How does the membrane potential of this cell and its corresponding ON-center bipolar and ganglion cells change? a. Hyperpolarize, hyperpolarize, depolarize b. Depolarize, hyperpolarize, depolarize c. Hyperpolarize, depolarize, hyperpolarize d. Depolarize, hyperpolarize, hyperpolarize e. Hyperpolarize, depolarize, depolarize Answer: e Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. What is the major anatomical difference between ON-center and OFF-center bipolar cells that explains their selective response to light increments? a. They release different neurotransmitters onto ganglion cells. b. They have different glutamate receptor types. c. OFF-center cells have larger dendritic fields. d. They have different GABA receptor types. e. ON-center cells have larger cell bodies.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

26. A ganglion cell’s firing rate is proportional to what property of light? a. Wavelength b. Period c. Intensity d. Frequency e. Color Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Adjustable Operating Range of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. How would the firing of an ON-center ganglion cell respond as a light moved from the edge of the receptor field to the center of the receptive field? a. It would increase. b. It would decrease. c. It would increase then decrease. d. It would decrease then increase. e. There would be no change.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Luminance Contrast and Receptive Field Surrounds Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. In which scenario would an ON-center ganglion cell fire the most robustly? a. A small light shining in the center of the receptive field b. A light filling the center of the receptive field c. A light filling the center and surround of the receptive field d. A light filling only the surround of the receptor field e. No light shining in the receptor field Answer: b Textbook Reference: Luminance Contrast and Receptive Field Surrounds Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. Which cell type is thought to be responsible for the antagonistic surround of ganglion cells? a. Photoreceptor b. Bipolar c. Ganglion d. Horizontal e. Amacrine Answer: d Textbook Reference: Luminance Contrast and Receptive Field Surrounds Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 30. Due to a genetic modification, a mouse has no horizontal cells in its retinas. What impact will this have on the mouse’s vision? a. Dichromatic color blindness

b. Inability to detect light c. Reduced ability to determine relative stimulus intensity d. Increased ability to detect luminance e. There will be no effect on the mouse’s vision.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Luminance Contrast and Receptive Field Surrounds Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Are there more rods or cones in the retina? In the fovea?

Answer: There are many more rods (about 90 million) than cones (about 4.5 million) in the retina. However, cone density increases dramatically in the fovea, with the foveola being completely rod-free.

Textbook Reference: The Retinal Surface Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Describe the five types of retinal neurons. Which cells are in the outer nuclear layer?

Answer: Photoreceptors, or rods and cones, have an outer segment adjacent to the pigment epithelium and cell bodies in the outer nuclear layer. Photoreceptor cells synapse on bipolar cells, which in turn synapse on ganglion cells. The processes of horizontal cells allow for lateral interactions between photoreceptors and bipolar cells. The processes of amacrine cells are postsynaptic to bipolar cell terminals and presynaptic to the dendrites of ganglion cells. Amacrine cells can be classified into different subclasses, based on their function.

Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Is the retina part of the central nervous system? Explain.

Answer: The retina is part of the central nervous system because it is formed via outpocketing of the diencephalon during development. The retina contains a complex neuronal circuitry, allowing it to convert the graded electrical activity of the photoreceptors into action potentials that travel along the axons of the optic nerve.

Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. What is the role of horizontal cells?

Answer: Horizontal cells have cell bodies in the inner nuclear layer and processes that laterally connect photoreceptor cells and bipolar cells. It is thought that they regulate the amount of transmitter released from the photoreceptors to act on bipolar cells. This is important for luminance, or the ability to detect contrast over a wide range of light intensities.

Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

5. What are some differences between photoreceptors and other sensory cells?

Answer: Photoreceptors exhibit a graded change in membrane potential in response to light instead of action potential. They also maintain a resting membrane potential around –40 mV, and they hyperpolarize in the presence of light.

Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Explain the steps in phototransduction in a rod, including its resting state and what happens when a photon is absorbed.

Answer: At rest, a rod photoreceptor contains high levels of cGMP in its outer segment.

The cGMP binds to cGMP-gated cation channels, keeping them open, thus maintaining a depolarized state. When a photon is absorbed, cGMP levels decrease, cGMP dissociates from the channels, and the cGMP-gated channels close. This reduces the flow of Na+ and Ca2+ into the cell. However, K+ channels remain open in the presence of light, so positive charge flows out of the cell more rapidly than it flows in, leading to hyperpolarization.

Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Why is light adaptation in the retina so important, and what does it involve?

Answer: Light adaptation occurs when photoreceptors decrease their sensitivity as illumination increases. This prevents the receptors from saturating, and it extends the range of light intensities that they can respond to.

Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What are the advantages of animals having both rods and cones, rather than just one type of photoreceptor?

Answer: Rods are very sensitive to light and thus facilitate vision in low light. Cones have very high spatial resolution (providing visual acuity) and different photopigments (allowing animals to see in color). Having both rods and cones allows animals to see and process a great variety of visual stimuli in different environments and across a broad range of light conditions.

Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. What is the evidence that human color vision is trichromatic?

Answer: Studies show that any color stimulus can be duplicated by a second stimulus composed of three superimposed light sources of short, medium, and long wavelengths (as long as the intensity of the light sources can be independently adjusted).

Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. What observations led Kuffler to define two types of retinal ganglion cells: OFFcenter and ON-center? Explain how this receptive field organization is useful in detecting luminance contrast and changes in light intensity.

Answer: Kuffler discovered that each ganglion cell responds to stimulation in its

receptive field by increasing or decreasing its firing rate. ON-center and OFF-center cells responded oppositely to the presence or absence of light. These receptive fields overlap in the retina, allowing for a more complex detection of contrast and changes in light intensity.

Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. The iris a. is responsible for the refraction of light onto the retina. b. regulates the amount of light entering the eye. c. applies tension to the lens. d. contains the pigment epithelial cells that nourish photoreceptors. e. covers the cornea, shielding it from harmful UV rays.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Anatomy of the Eye Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Our underwater vision is poor because a. water disperses light, making it impossible to focus. b. under water there is no longer a refractive index difference between the cornea and the surrounding media. c. water seeps into the iris, causing temporary cloudiness. d. the hydrostatic pressure of water changes the shape of the eyeball. e. the ions in the water cause hyperpolarization in the photoreceptor cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Image Formation on the Retina Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Why is myopia in humans thought to be more common now than it was in ancient times? a. The vigorous exercise associated with early human lifestyles better nourished the retina. b. Early humans were not exposed to the environmental toxins present in modern life. c. Chronic exposure to fire smoke had a protective effect on the vision of early humans. d. Early humans did not engage in the kinds of activities (e.g., reading and writing from an early age, watching television) characteristic of modern life. e. Myopia was not less common; it was less recognized.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 11A: Myopia and Other Refractive Errors Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. The fovea a. covers approximately 40 percent of the retina.

b. lies at the center of the optic disk. c. lies at the center of the macula lutea. d. is synonymous with “fundus.” e. is the only part of the retina that contains xanthophyll.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Retinal Surface Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Age-related macular degeneration, or AMD, a. is rising in incidence in the United States. b. can be detected by means of the Amsler grid. c. can result from gradual loss of the pigment epithelium (dry AMD). d. can be treated by laser-induced phototoxicity (wet AMD). e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Macular Degeneration Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which sequence represents the most direct pathway for the transmission of visual information from the eye to the brain? a. Photoreceptor → bipolar cell → ganglion cell → brain b. Horizontal cell → bipolar cell → ganglion cell → brain c. Photoreceptor → bipolar cell → amacrine cell → brain d. Photoreceptor → horizontal cell → ganglion cell →brain e. Photoreceptor → bipolar cell → amacrine cell → ganglion cell → brain Answer: a Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. The two main functions of the retinal pigment epithelium are _______ and _______. a. structural support to maintain curvature of the retina; phagocytosis of shed outer segments b. structural support to maintain curvature of the retina; synthesis of rhodopsin c. phagocytosis of shed outer segments; synthesis of rhodopsin d. phagocytosis of shed outer segments; regeneration of the photoreceptor photopigments e. synthesis of rhodopsin; regeneration of the photoreceptor photopigments Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Pigment Epithelium Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which mechanism is not a component of the phototransduction signaling cascade initiated by light falling on a rod? a. Absorption of a photon of light by 11-cis retinal b. Activation of protein kinase A c. A conformational change in the rhodopsin protein d. Dissociation of the α subunit of transducin from the β/γ complex

e. Increased activity of PDE (phosphodiesterase) Answer: b Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. The mechanism that accounts for light-induced hyperpolarization of photoreceptors is a. the gating of ion channels by released retinal monomers. b. a sudden increase in the concentration of cAMP, leading to activation of potassium channels. c. a rapid fall in the concentration of cGMP, leading to closure of Na+ / Ca2+ channels. d. a rapid rise in the concentration of cGMP, leading to closure of Na+ / Ca2+ channels. e. light-induced photoisomerization of membrane-bound calcium channels.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Which statement regarding photoreceptor cells is true? a. Like typical sensory neurons, they fire action potentials when the cell depolarizes to threshold in response to stimuli. b. Unlike typical neurons, their resting membrane potential is more negative, usually around –100mV. c. Unlike typical neurons, cation channels are open at rest, allowing the influx of sodium and calcium. d. Unlike typical neurons, neurotransmitter release is dependent on an influx of potassium ions. e. Unlike typical neurons, they hyperpolarize in response to a stimulus due to opening of chloride channels.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Phototransduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. The death of retinal cells in retinitis pigmentosa is most likely caused by a. infection. b. apoptosis. c. excessive light exposure. d. environmental toxins. e. injury to the eye.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 11B: Retinitis Pigmentosa Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. The main reason that rods are more sensitive to light than cones is that a. the photopigment of rods is much more sensitive to light than the photopigment used in cones. b. the eye contains 1000 times as many rods as cones. c. the rod transduction mechanism provides greater signal amplification.

d. rods are sensitive to a much broader range of wavelengths. e. rods have many different types of opsin proteins.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. By which mechanism are rod signals transmitted in conditions of low light? a. Rod bipolar cells synapse on amacrine cells, which in turn synapse on cone bipolar cells. b. Rod bipolar cells synapse on off-center ganglion cells that then transmit the rod signals to other ganglion cells. c. Rod bipolar cells of both on and off types send outputs selectively to on- and off-center ganglion cells. d. Rod photoreceptors send their outputs directly to melanopsin-containing ganglion cells. e. Rod photoreceptors send their signals mainly through horizontal cells to the rod bipolar cells.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Functional Specialization of the Rod and Cone Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement about the distributions of rods and cones is true? a. Because cones carry three different color channels, there are three times as many cones as rods. b. Rods outnumber cones by 100 to 1, which explains the greater sensitivity of rods in low light. c. Rods are evenly distributed across the entire retina. d. The density of cones is 200-fold higher in the fovea than in the most eccentric retinal regions. e. The density of rods is highest in the far periphery of the retina.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Anatomical Distribution of Rods and Cones Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement about color vision is false? a. Because there are several different color types of cones, they are more sensitive to low (dim) illumination levels than the population of rods is. b. Cones (in humans) come in three different “colors”: blue, green, and red (or short-, medium-, and long-wavelength). c. Different wavelengths of light produce different patterns of activity in the cone population as a whole. d. Information from specific color cones can be selectively relayed to specific regions of a retinal ganglion cell’s receptive field. e. The different photopigments in each cone are highly sensitive to a small range of wavelengths but can actually be activated by photons of a wide range of wavelengths.

Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Cones and Color Vision Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. You measure changes in membrane potential in an ON-center bipolar cell that is exposed to light in the center of its receptive field. What response would you expect to see? a. An action potential b. Depolarization due to increased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell c. Hyperpolarization due to decreased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell d. Hyperpolarization due to increased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell e. Depolarization due to decreased release of glutamate by the photoreceptor cell Answer: e Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Which statement about center-surround receptive fields in the retina is false? a. Cells that are inhibited by light in their center are excited by light in their surround. b. Cells that are excited by light in their center are inhibited by light in their surround. c. The surround portion of the receptive field is typically an annulus (or doughnut-shaped ring) that surrounds the circular center. d. Light in the center of an off-center cell will increase its firing rate. e. The best stimulus for an on-center cell is light in its center and darkness in its surround.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Refer to the figure.

For an OFF-center ganglion cell, which stimulus on the cell’s receptive field would cause the highest rate of action potential firing? (In the figure, black fill indicates darkness, and white fill indicates light in the receptive field.) a. a b. b c. c d. d e. Both a and d would cause the same level of activation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Retinal Circuits for Light and Dark Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. Refer to the figure.

The illusion shown, in which dark rectangles are placed within a pattern of light and dark bars, is best explained by which statement? a. Light scatters between adjacent photoreceptors. b. Photoreceptors are unable to spatially resolve the intersections of the white bars. c. Photic information is conveyed only by graded electrical responses. d. Brightness percepts are generated on a statistical basis as a means of contending with the inherent ambiguity of luminance. e. All of the above are equally valid explanations.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 11D: The Perception of Light Intensity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. Which statement about the retina’s operation across different levels of ambient light is true? a. For a given level of ambient light, an ON-center ganglion cell responds proportionately to a small spot of light over an intensity range of about one log unit. b. Via adaptational mechanisms, ON-center ganglion cells can dynamically encode brightness levels in their ON-center over a range of 6 log units of ambient light levels. c. Ganglion cells generally do not report absolute light intensities, but rather encode relative intensity differences between center and surround. d. Interactions within the inner plexiform layer play an important role in modulating the photic sensitivity of ganglion cells. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Adjustable Operating Range of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 12: Central Visual Pathways Multiple Choice 1. Ganglion cell axons cross at the _______, thus the _______ contains information from both eyes. a. optic radiation; optic tract b. optic chiasm; optic nerve c. optic chiasm; optic tract d. optic tract; optic chiasm e. optic tract; optic nerve Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. What percentage of ganglion cell axons do not cross at the optic chiasm? a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 50% e. 65% Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. A man is brought to the emergency room after a car crash. A doctor shines a light in his right eye and only the right pupil constricts. Which of the following regions is most likely damaged? a. Primary visual cortex b. Edinger-Westphal nucleus c. Lateral geniculate nucleus d. Internal capsule e. Striate cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which region is not a target of retinal ganglion cell axons? a. Pretectum b. Superior colliculus

c. Suprachiasmatic nucleus d. Striate Cortex e. Lateral geniculate nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. A common genetic mutation causes a decrease in the crossing of the nerves at the optic chiasm in cats. These cats are still able to function normally by crossing their eyes. Why do they have to make this behavioral change? a. To better see objects in motion b. To regain their central vision c. To regain binocular vision d. To increase visual acuity e. To regain their peripheral vision Answer: e Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A researcher interested in studying how the brain adapts to complete loss of the right visual field should lesion which region to create an animal model of this anopsia? a. Left optic tract b. Left optic radiation c. Left optic nerve d. Right optic tract e. Right optic radiation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What is the name for the optic radiations that run through the temporal lobe on the way to the striate cortex? a. Anopsias b. Meyer’s loop c. Pretectum d. Brodmann’s Area 17 e. Superior colliculus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. How are ganglion cells that project to the hypothalamus different than other ganglion cells? a. They do not cross at the optic chiasm. b. They rely on rods and cones for light sensitivity. c. They can modulate responses to light using their own photopigment.

d. They form connections with bipolar cells in the retina. e. Their input is modified by interneurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functionally Distinct Types of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. An object located in the superior, temporal quadrant of the visual field would be mapped on which quadrant of the retina? a. Inferior, nasal b. Inferior, temporal c. Superior, nasal d. Superior, temporal e. Nasal, temporal Answer: a Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. The most anterior portions of the striate cortex correspond to which part of the visual field? a. Macular b. Binocular c. Superior d. Temporal e. Monocular Answer: e Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Damage to the striate cortex below the calcarine sulcus would result in difficulty processing information from which visual field? a. Inferior b. Nasal c. Superior d. Temporal e. Monocular Answer: c Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. How does the shape of the face affect binocular vision? a. It restricts the upper visual field. b. It reflects light into the eyes. c. It enhances peripheral vision. d. It restricts the lower visual field. e. It enhances the nasal visual field.

Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Neurons in the visual cortex respond to which type of stimulus? a. Changes in luminance b. Bars or edges in a particular orientation c. Light-dark spots d. Complex and irregular shapes e. Light-dark curves Answer: b Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. If a monkey is presented with an image of a train, neurons specific for which orientation would fire vigorously in V1? a. Left to right diagonal b. Right to left diagonal c. Vertical d. Horizontal e. Parallel Answer: d Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. As a stimulus rotates, neurons in the visual cortex increase and decrease their firing.

When a specific neuron reaches peak firing, the stimulus must be in which type of orientation for that neuron? a. Horizontal b. Preferred c. Vertical d. Particular e. Diagonal Answer: b Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Cortical neurons are not tuned to which property of a stimulus? a. Speed b. Bars or edges in a particular orientation c. Temporal frequency d. Direction of motion e. Coarseness of variations in contrast Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Pyramidal neurons use _______ as a neurotransmitter and smooth dendritic neurons use _______ as a neurotransmitter in the visual cortex. a. GABA; dopamine b. glutamate; dopamine c. GABA; glutamate d. dopamine; GABA e. glutamate; GABA Answer: e Textbook Reference: Primary Visual Cortex Architecture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) terminate in which layers of the primary visual cortex? a. 2 and 3 b. 4A and 6 c. 4A and 4C d. 4C and 5 e. 5 and 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Primary Visual Cortex Architecture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. A scientist adds a retrograde marker to the neurons in the superior colliculus of a monkey. The marker labels cell bodies. In which layer of the visual cortex would the scientist expect to find the marker? a. 1 b. 4A c. 4C d. 5 e. 6 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Primary Visual Cortex Architecture Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. Which layer of the striate cortex remains monocular? a. 1 b. 2/3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 21. Monocular axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) terminate in layer 4 to create which type of organization? a. Ocular dominance columns b. Monocular rows c. Monocular columns d. Ocular dominance rows e. Binocular columns Answer: a Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. A monkey born with a damaged retina does not receive input from his left eye. Which normal function of vision will the monkey be missing? a. Diplopia b. Stereopsis c. Strabismus d. Hemianopsia e. Color vision Answer: b Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. Which statement about P ganglion cells as compared to M ganglion cells is true? a. They have larger receptive fields. b. They have larger diameter axons. c. They have more extensive dendritic fields. d. They have smaller cell bodies. e. They have faster conduction velocities.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Division of Labor within the Primary Visual Pathway Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. A scientist is able to selectively damage the neurons in the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) that terminate in layer 4Cα of the visual cortex in a monkey. Which task will the monkey struggle with the most? a. Recognizing faces b. Determining when a red signal turns green c. Identifying a novel object d. Picking out a blue marble from a bowl of black and white marbles e. Tracking a fellow monkey running in a field Answer: e Textbook Reference: Division of Labor within the Primary Visual Pathway Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

25. The koniocellular pathway terminates in what layer of the V1? a. 1 b. 2/3 c. 4C d. 5 e. 6 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Division of Labor within the Primary Visual Pathway Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. The visual area that is located most anteriorly in the human brain is area a. MT. b. VP. c. V2. d. V1. e. V3.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. After a car accident, a man reports that he has lost his color vision. It is determined that his retina is still functioning normally even though he now sees in shades of gray. He most likely has sustained damage to area a. MT. b. VP. c. V2. d. V1. e. V4.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. A man has trouble determining when to politely say “hello” to people walking past him on a sidewalk. He notices people in the distance, but they don’t seem to be getting closer. When he decides to say “hello,” he realizes the person has already passed him.

What would be a plausible diagnosis for this man? a. Homonymous quadrantanopsia b. Cerebral akinetopsia c. Hemianopsia d. Cerebral achromatopsia e. Macular sparing Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 29. A monkey with damage to the ventral stream will have the most trouble with which

task? a. Determining when a blue signal turns white b. Analyzing the speed of a moving target c. Recognizing a familiar face d. Determining distances between objects e. Following the movement of a stimulus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What percentage of the axons in the optic nerve cross at the optic chiasm?

Answer: In humans, approximately 60% of axons cross at the optic chiasm.

Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. The retina sends information to the dorsolateral geniculate nucleus for pattern vision.

List three other targets of retinal ganglion cells, and indicate what each target is specialized for.

Answer: Retinal ganglion cells project to the pretectum for the pupillary light reflex, the suprachiasmatic nucleus for the retinohypothalamic pathway, and the superior colliculus for coordinating head and eye movements to visual targets.

Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. If the right visual cortex stops functioning, what part of the visual field will be lost?

Answer: The right visual cortex receives input from the left visual field, thus the left visual field will be lost.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Visual Field Deficits Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What part of the retina has the largest proportional representation?

Answer: The macula has the largest proportional representation in the occipital lobe. This is known as cortical magnification.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Visual Field Deficits Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Is the world mapped upside down on the retina? On V1?

Answer: The world is mapped upside-down and left-right reversed on the retina. The world is also mapped upside-down on V1, with the upper visual field being mapped below the calcarine sulcus and the lower visual field being mapped above it.

Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

6. Explain how Hubel and Wiesel mapped visual receptive fields. How do receptive field characteristics of neurons in V1 compare with those in the dorsolateral geniculate nucleus?

Answer: Hubel and Wiesel mapped visual receptive fields in anesthetized animals by recording individual neurons in the lateral geniculate nucleus and the cortex during retinal stimulation. Neurons in the dorsolateral geniculate nucleus were selective for luminance increases and decreases with center-surround receptive field organization like the retina. The V1 cortex selectively responded to bars or edges with specific orientation.

Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Are binocular neurons found in the lateral geniculate nucleus? Are they found in layer IV of the primary visual cortex? Where does input from both eyes first converge?

Answer: There are only monocular neurons found in the lateral geniculate nucleus and in layer 4 of the primary visual cortex. Input from both eyes first coverages in the other layers of the primary visual cortex.

Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What are ocular dominance columns?

Answer: Ocular dominance columns are axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus that terminate in cortical layer 4 and are segregated by left eye and right eye signaling.

Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Name or briefly describe two lines of evidence that suggest that the magnocellular and parvocellular streams are two parallel anatomical pathways with functionally distinct characteristics.

Answer: Evidence from cortical lesions and differences in electrophysiological response properties suggest two parallel anatomical pathways that analyze different aspects of visual stimuli.

Textbook Reference: Division of Labor within the Primary Visual Pathway Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What are the functions of the extrastriate areas MT and V4? What symptoms would result from selective damage to each of these areas?

Answer: MT is selective to properties of motion, whereas V4 is selective to the color of a visual stimulus. Damage to the MT would result in difficulty perceiving direction and speed of movement, and damage to V4 would result in the loss of color vision.

Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz

1. The retinal information that axons carry through the left internal capsule to visual cortex a. comes from the left eye only. b. comes from the right eye only. c. is 90% from the left eye. d. is 90% from the right eye. e. is a roughly 60/40 split of information from the two eyes.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. In the pupillary light reflex of a healthy individual, a. the reflex is elicited only by simultaneous photic stimulation of both eyes. b. light falling on the left eye will cause only left pupil constriction. c. light falling on the right eye will cause only left pupil constriction. d. light falling on one eye will cause both pupils to constrict equally. e. light falling on the left eye will cause both pupils to constrict, but the left will constrict about twice as much as the right.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Retinal axons project to the a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. superior colliculus. d. pretectum. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Central Projections of Retinal Ganglion Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Macular sparing a. is associated exclusively with cortical damage. b. results only from bilateral damage to the optic tracts. c. results only from bilateral damage to the optic nerves. d. is a transient phenomenon that precedes total blindness. e. is a selective preservation of vision, the basis of which is unknown.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Application: Visual Field Deficits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. A contralateral visual field deficit is a. found only in association with scotomas. b. often due to optic tract or cortical damage. c. found only with damage to the LGN.

d. indicative of a pituitary tumor. e. caused by damage to just one optic nerve.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Visual Field Deficits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Refer to the figure.

Damage to the left optic nerve would result in which type of visual field deficit? a. a b. b c. c d. d

e. e Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Visual Field Deficits Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. The strictly monocular portion of the visual field is represented exclusively by which region of the retina? a. Superior b. Inferior c. Nasal d. Temporal e. Fovea Answer: c Textbook Reference: Retinotopic Representation of the Visual Field Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Which feature is not a characteristic of certain primary visual cortex neurons? a. Sensitivity to edges b. Preference for a specific orientation c. Rate of change in contrast d. Preference for a specific direction of motion e. Recognition of faces Answer: e Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows the results of an experiment in which an animal is presented with visual stimuli, and recordings are taken simultaneously from the CNS. Given the stimuli and the observed recordings, where must the activated neurons be located? a. Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus b. Optic tract c. Primary visual cortex d. Fusiform gyrus e. Retinal ganglion cell Answer: c Textbook Reference: Spatiotemporal Tuning Properties of Neurons in Primary Visual Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement about the primary visual cortex is false? a. Each of the six layers has distinct cell types that send projections both within cortical columns and to structures outside of cortex. b. Pyramidal cells are the principal projection neurons of visual cortex. c. Layer 4C is dominated by spiny stellate cells. d. The upper layers (layers 2 and 3) project to layer 5. e. The lower layers (layers 5 and 6) project to the brainstem and thalamus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Primary Visual Cortex Architecture

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. In which structure would a visuotopically organized, alternating (left/right) pattern of monocular responsiveness be found? a. Layers 2 and 3 of LGN b. Layer 4 of LGN c. Layer 2/3 of visual cortex d. Layer 4 of visual cortex e. All layers of visual cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. In the upper layers (2 and 3) of primary visual cortex, a lateral sampling of pyramidal cell responses would reveal a. alternating bands of monocular columns (left eye only/right eye only). b. a population of binocular cells that respond equally well to both eyes. c. a roughly sinusoidal pattern of ocular dominance moving from left dominance, through equal responsiveness, to right dominance, and then back. d. only color-sensitive cells. e. only orientation-selective cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Near and far cells are distinct from other pyramidal cells in terms of their sensitivity to a. motion. b. edges. c. monocularity. d. binocular disparity. e. oscillating luminance.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. For which task would near and far cells help the viewer extract relevant information? a. Deciphering a random dot stereogram b. A color blindness test c. Compensating for near-sightedness and far-sightedness d. Perceiving color as objects moved closer e. Rapidly detecting objects moving in the visual periphery Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 12A: Random Dot Stereograms and Related Amusements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

15. Which statement about the lateral geniculate nuclei is false? a. Each lateral geniculate nucleus receives light from both the left and right eyes. b. The alternating layers represent alternate color sensitivities (i.e., blue–green–blue– green). c. They are organized into six principal layers. d. The four parvocellular layers have small cells. e. The two magnocellular layers have large cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Combining Inputs from Two Eyes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. In relation to other retinal ganglion cells, a P ganglion cell has a. a larger receptive field and sustained responses. b. a larger receptive field, a faster-conducting axon, and transient responses. c. a faster-conducting axon, finer spatial resolution, and better color sensitivity. d. finer spatial resolution and better color sensitivity. e. transient responses and better color sensitivity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Division of Labor within the Primary Visual Pathway Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Visual area _______ is most specialized for processing color information. a. V1 b. V2 c. V3 d. V4 e. V5 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. In which brain region would you expect to find very large, motion-sensitive cells that respond selectively to oriented moving edges, while lacking responsiveness to fine structural details? a. Parvocellular LGN b. Area 17 c. V4 d. Peristriate cortex e. Middle temporal area (MT) Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which statement about extrastriate areas is false? a. One “stream” of information helps the viewer detect fine details of structures and aids in object recognition.

b. One “stream” of information helps the viewer detect and analyze motion. c. The dorsal stream is thought to be important for understanding positional relationships between objects. d. Deficits in the ventral stream often give rise to visual deficits such as an inability to perceive the motion of objects. e. Information from parvocellular and magnocellular LGN contribute to both the dorsal and ventral streams.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Stanley has a car accident and is discharged from the hospital with orders to notify his doctor of any changes in health or unusual behaviors. A few days later he notices that his cat was moving in a very strange way, appearing to jump from place to place, as if in an old-time cinema reel. Stanley then discovers his brother is moving in the same way. What part of Stanley’s brain is dysfunctional? a. The primary visual cortex b. The dorsal visual pathway to the parietal lobe c. The ventral visual pathway to the temporal lobe d. The lateral geniculate nucleus e. The retina Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of Extrastriate Visual Areas Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney• Platt • White

Chapter 13: The Auditory System Multiple Choice 1. A human’s perception of pitch corresponds to the _______ of a sound wave; perception of loudness corresponds to the _______ of a sound wave. a. frequency; amplitude b. amplitude; frequency c. waveform; amplitude d. amplitude; phase e. phase; waveform Answer: a Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. For which sound energy would a Fourier transform be most useful in breaking down the frequency spectrum into its component waves? a. Wind b. White noise c. Running water d. Rain e. A duet Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. Which of the following would cause conductive hearing loss? a. Damage to the auditory nerve b. Genetic predisposition to hair cell damage c. Ossification of the middle ear bones d. Frequent exposure to gunfire sounds e. Attending many loud concerts Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. A father notices that his daughter does not respond to him when she isn’t facing him, nor does she turn her head toward loud noises. After several appointments with doctors, the family is informed that the girl has malformed hair cells, but has fully functioning auditory nerves. What type of hearing loss does this girl have, and what would be the best

treatment option? a. Conductive hearing loss; traditional hearing aid b. Conductive hearing loss; cochlear implant c. Sensorineural hearing loss; traditional hearing aid d. Sensorineural hearing loss; cochlear implant e. Sensorineural hearing loss; brainstem implant Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Which frequency would be detected by a 23-year-old female with normal hearing, but not be heard by a 72-year-old man with normal hearing? a. 10 Hz b. 300 Hz c. 5 kHz d. 20 kHz e. 40 kHz Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Audible Spectrum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Where does central processing first occur along the auditory pathway? a. Tympanic Membrane b. Cochlear nucleus c. Concha d. Superior olivary complex e. Inferior colliculus Answer: b Textbook Reference: A Synopsis of Auditory Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which structure is not part of the external ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Concha c. Pinna d. Auditory meatus e. Cochlea Answer: e Textbook Reference: The External Ear Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Hearing loss in the range of _______ is most detrimental to speech recognition. a. 20–50 Hz b. 100–400 Hz c. 700–900 Hz d. 2–5 kHz

e. 15–20 kHz Answer: d Textbook Reference: The External Ear Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. What is the main function of the ossicles? a. Reduce energy transfer to the cochlea from loud noises b. Reduce pressure in the middle ear c. Transfer vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window d. Convert sound vibrations into neural impulses e. Provide cues for elevation of high frequency sound sources Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Middle Ear Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. The _______ allows _______ to flow between the chambers on either side of the _______ membrane. a. round window; helicotrema; basilar b. perilymph; helicotrema; basilar c. round window; perilymph; tectorial d. oval window; helicotrema; tectorial e. helicotrema; perilymph; basilar Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Inner Ear Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Why is the flexibility of the round window vital for proper functioning of the cochlea? a. It is responsible for the differing flexibility of the basilar membrane. b. There must be a space for liquid to move after displacement from the oval window because liquid does not compress. c. It gives rise to the topographical mapping of frequency in the cochlea, which allows for the decomposition of sound. d. The traveling wave in the fluid produces a shearing motion of the hair cells, which causes a voltage change in the round window. e. It allows for a traveling wave to reach a point of maximum displacement based on its frequency.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Inner Ear Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Which structure(s) connect(s) adjacent stereocilia? a. Tip links b. Kinocilium c. Inner hair cells d. Outer hair cells

e. Microtubules Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hair Cells and the Mechanoelectrical Transduction of Sound Waves Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. A student who is working on a cure hearing loss develops a hair cell MET channel agonist. Would you expect this drug to be effective? Why? a. Yes; it would increase the flow of cations into the hair cell. b. Yes; it would open the MET channel without sound stimuli. c. Yes; it would induce a second messenger cascade that will hold MET channels open longer. d. No; the MET channel can only be altered by mechanical means. e. No; it would decrease the flow of cations into the hair cell.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hair Cells and the Mechanoelectrical Transduction of Sound Waves Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Which of the following is responsible for the biphasic receptor potential of hair cells? a. Differing ionic properties between the surrounding perilymph and endolymph b. Transduction channels that are open at rest c. Increases in intracellular calcium causing transmitter release d. Ion-pumping cells in the stria vascularis increasing intracellular potassium stores e. Gap junctions along the apical and basal surfaces Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. How does ionic composition of endolymph differ from most extracellular fluids? a. It is K+-poor and Na+-rich. b. It is Ca2+-poor and Na+-rich. c. It is K+-rich and Na+-rich. d. It is Ca2+-poor and Na+-poor. e. It is K+-rich and Na+-poor.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. In the inner ear, evidence suggests that the _______ is(are) an essential component of the cochlear amplifier. a. tectorial membrane b. stria vascularis c. outer hair cells d. endolymph e. scala media Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Cochlear Amplifier

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Spontaneous otoacoustic emissions can cause which of the following auditory problems? a. Deafness b. Tinnitus c. Presbyacusis d. Ossification of the ossicles e. Auditory nerve damage Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Cochlear Amplifier Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. A scientist studying auditory transmission of low frequencies would take a recording from nerves at the _______ of the cochlea and look for _______ firing in response to a stimulus. a. base; constant b. base; phase locked c. apex; constant d. apex; phase locked e. apex; out of phase Answer: d Textbook Reference: Tuning and Timing in the Auditory Nerve Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which of the following could a human ear transduce most optimally? a. A conversation b. A thunderstorm c. A dog barking d. A plane taking off e. A computerized tone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Tuning and Timing in the Auditory Nerve Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. The auditory nerve connects the _______ of the cochlea to the _______ in the medulla. a. spiral ganglion processes; inferior colliculus b. cochlear nucleus; inferior colliculus c. spiral ganglion processes; cochlear nucleus d. cochlear nucleus; spiral ganglion processes e. inferior colliculus; cochlear nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Information from the Cochlea Reaches Targets in the Brainstem Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

21. A 500-Hz signal from a speaker located to the left of a study participant will reach its target neuron in the ______ superior olive from the left ear _______ compared to the same neuron from the right ear. a. medial; sooner b. medial; later c. medial; at the same time d. lateral; sooner e. lateral; later Answer: a Textbook Reference: Integrating Information from the Two Ears Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. The lateral superior olive uses which of the following properties of interaural sound for localization? a. Time b. Frequency c. Waveform d. Period e. Intensity Answer: e Textbook Reference: Integrating Information from the Two Ears Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. Which statement about the nuclei of the lateral lemniscus is false? a. Their output converges at the pons. b. They receive input from the cochlear nucleus. c. They respond to monaural sound. d. They process duration of sound. e. They process onset of sound.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Monaural Pathways from the Cochlear Nucleus to the Nuclei of the Lateral Lemniscus Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Which part of the brain precisely maps sound tonotopically? a. Belt region b. Parabelt region c. Medial geniculate complex d. Core region e. Inferior colliculus Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. The auditory cortex is located on the _______ gyri within the _______ sulcus.

a. fusiform; lateral b. superior temporal; lateral c. inferior temporal; lateral d. transverse temporal; central e. fusiform; central Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. A woman has a stroke that damages her secondary auditory cortex. Which sounds will she have the most trouble making sense of? a. Sounds of nature b. Computerized tones c. Speech d. Car horns e. White noise Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. Which of the following best supports the notion that the auditory cortex is influenced by nonauditory information? a. Electrophysiological recordings reveal that primary auditory neurons have decreased response to sounds played in reverse. b. Neural responses to speech spread from posterior to anterior regions of the superior temporal gyrus. c. Alternating patches of EE and EI neurons are found near the tonotopic map. d. Auditory cortex activity decreases during speech production. e. Damage to the auditory cortex reveals an inability to discriminate temporal differences in speech.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 28. If a subject undergoes an MRI scan while listens to their favorite song, which area of the brain would you expect to show the greatest activity? a. Right belt b. Right core c. Left belt d. Left core e. All brain areas would show similar activity Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Which perceptual qualities of sound waves are based on frequency and which are based on amplitude?

Answer: The frequency of a sound wave corresponds to pitch, while the amplitude corresponds to loudness.

Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. What is the audible frequency range in humans (in Hz)? What is the approximate range of human speech sounds?

Answer: The audible range in humans is 20 Hz–20 kHz. The approximate range for human speech is 2–5 kHz. Textbook Reference: The Audible Spectrum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Describe the tonotopy of the basilar membrane.

Answer: The geometric structure of the basilar membrane allows a traveling wave from a stimulus to reach a point of maximum displacement based on frequency. High frequencies are detected at the base of the basilar membrane, while low frequencies are detected at the apex. This gives rise to topographical mapping of frequency.

Textbook Reference: The Inner Ear Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. List the steps in stimulus transduction, from the physical sound stimulus to the electrical signals of inner hair cells. Indicate which steps take place in the external, middle, and inner ear.

Answer: Sound waves are gathered in the external ear, and cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate. This vibration is transferred to the oval window of the cochlea via the ossicles of the middle ear. The vibration is transferred to the endolymph in the scala media to move the stereocilia of the hair cells against the tectorial membrane. This creates a shearing force that induces tip links on the stereocilia to modulate the opening of mechanoelectrical transduction channels. An influx of cations then depolarizes the cell, increasing internal Ca2+, and releasing transmitter onto the auditory nerve.

Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What is the function of the outer hair cells?

Answer: Outer cells are important in modulating basilar membrane motion, and studies indicate that they are a component of the cochlear amplifier.

Textbook Reference: The Cochlear Amplifier Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. What two strategies does the auditory system use to code sound frequency?

Answer: The auditory system uses temporal coding for sounds up to approximately 3 kHz. It also utilizes label-line coding via the tonotopically organized basilar membrane.

Textbook Reference: Tuning and Timing in the Auditory Nerve Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Where does the auditory nerve project?

Answer: The auditory nerve projects to the dorsal, posteroventral, and anteroventral cochlear nucleus.

Textbook Reference: How Information from the Cochlea Reaches Targets in the Brainstem Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Compare the strategies for sound localization via by neurons in the medial superior olive (MSO) versus the lateral superior olive (LSO)/medial nucleus of the trapezoid body (MNTB).

Answer: Sound localization in the MSO relies on interaural time differences for frequencies below 3 kHz. In the case of frequencies above 3 kHz, interaural intensities are responsible for sound localization via the LSO and MNTB. Textbook Reference: Integrating Information from the Two Ears Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Compare the functions of the inferior colliculus, medial geniculate complex (MGC), and primary auditory cortex.

Answer: The inferior colliculus is important in integrative functions, such as the processing of sound frequencies and integration of localization cues. The MGC is the relay station to the auditory cortex and it is selective for specific frequency combinations and time intervals of sounds. The auditory cortex maps sound tonotopically, and is influenced by other nonauditory information, such speech production.

Textbook Reference: The Auditory Thalamus Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. In order to increase the decibel measurement of a sound, one would have to alter its wave a. form. b. phase. c. amplitude. d. frequency. e. length.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sound Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement about the audible spectrum is false? a. Children can often hear frequencies that adults cannot. b. Small animals are often more sensitive to higher frequencies than larger animals.

c. Animals that echolocate often rely on very high-frequency sounds. d. Large predators often make low-frequency sounds as they approach their prey. e. Collectively, mammals can only hear tones at frequencies ranging from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Audible Spectrum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which of the following is not a cause of hearing loss? a. Acoustic trauma b. Ototoxic drugs c. Aging d. All of the above are causes of hearing loss. e. None of the above are causes of hearing loss.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Hearing Loss: Causes and Treatments Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which statement about the functioning of cochlear implants (CIs) is false? a. They are designed to induce electromechanical pressure waves within the cochlear fluid. b. They require an electrical connection from an implanted stimulator to a cochlear electrode array. c. They provide tonotopic delivery of electrical signals along the length of the cochlea. d. They require an auditory signal processing device that decomposes sounds into component frequencies. e. They electrically stimulate residual hair cells and/or primary auditory afferents.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Hearing Loss: Causes and Treatments Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Which function is not an operation of the outer ear? a. Boosting sound pressure level as it enters the ear b. Filtering sound in an adaptive manner based on source elevation c. Directing different frequencies of sound to specific cochlear locations d. Optimally transmitting sounds in our range of vocalizations e. Boosting frequencies by means of passive resonances Answer: c Textbook Reference: The External Ear Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which action is the primary function of the three bones in the middle ear? a. Selective transmission of high-frequency sounds b. Selective transmission of low-frequency sounds c. Amplification of sound pressure waves to increase auditory sensitivity d. Dampening sound pressure waves to prevent damage to the ear

e. Facilitation of fluid drainage from the Eustachian tube Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Middle Ear Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. What quality gives rise to tonotopy along the cochlea? a. The changing width and stiffness of the tectorial membrane b. The changing width and stiffness of the basilar membrane c. The speed at which sound waves propagate along the length of the cochlea d. The changing mechanical properties of the cochlear wall along the length of the cochlea e. The increasing density of the cochlear fluid along the length of the cochlea Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Inner Ear Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which statement about sensory transduction by hair cells is false? a. Bending of the cilia toward the longest cilium produces depolarization. b. The electrical activity initiated by the tip links is transmitted to the vesicular release sites along microtubules that undergo voltage-dependent rearrangements. c. The hair cell body (basal end) is bathed in perilymph, while the hair cell cilia are bathed in endolymph. d. Hair cells are presynaptic to second-order sensory neurons. e. The firing of action potentials in second-order sensory neurons can be either up- or down-regulated, depending on the direction in which the bundle of cilia (of the afferent hair cell) is bent.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hair Cells and the Mechanoelectrical Transduction of Sound Waves Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Research into the biology of those stem cells that generate cochlear hair cells during development could be valuable because a. hair cells are quite sensitive to damage. b. humans begin life with a relatively small number (~15,000 per cochlea) of hair cells. c. mammalian hair cells do not regenerate themselves. d. understanding the basic mechanisms of hair-cell development may suggest therapeutic approaches. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Hair Cells and the Mechanoelectrical Transduction of Sound Waves Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which ion and direction of flow is responsible for depolarization of inner hair cells? a. Potassium into the cell b. Potassium out of the cell c. Sodium into the cell

d. Sodium out of the cell e. Calcium out of the cell Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. In which way is the mechanism of hair-cell transduction distinct from sensory transduction mechanisms that occur outside the ear? a. Potassium influx from the endolymph depolarizes the hair cell. b. Potassium efflux into the perilymph repolarizes the hair cell. c. Calcium and calcium-activated potassium channels contribute to electromechanical resonance. d. The two domains of the hair cell operate, in effect, as two distinct compartments, each with its own ionic equilibrium potentials. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. What is the difference between the endolymph and perilymph? a. Perilymph is high in potassium and low in sodium; endolymph is high in sodium and low in potassium. b. Endolymph is high in potassium; perilymph is high in both potassium and calcium. c. Perilymph is located in the semicircular canals; endolymph is located in the cochlea. d. Endolymph is high in potassium and low in sodium; perilymph is high in sodium and low in potassium. e. The composition of perilymph is important for proper hair cell functioning; the composition of endolymph does not have effect hair cell functioning.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Mechanotransduction in Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which statement about auditory nerve fibers is false? a. Afferent fibers receive input from inner hair cells. b. Efferent fibers innervate the three rows of outer hair cells. c. The characteristic frequency of the hair cells varies systematically along the cochlear axis. d. The higher frequency fibers can respond well to stimuli at frequencies in the 10 to 20 kHz range. e. The lower frequency fibers have a sharp tuning peak plus a separate extended hump.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Tuning and Timing in the Auditory Nerve Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. If efferent axons that travel between the brainstem and cochlea are damaged, leaving the afferent axons intact, which structures would not function properly?

a. Outer hair cells b. Inner hair cells c. Kinocilium d. Hair cells in ampullae e. Tectorial membrane Answer: a Textbook Reference: Tuning and Timing in the Auditory Nerve Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Which of the following correctly pairs an auditory pathway location with its input? a. Superior olive—ipsilateral auditory nerve b. Inferior colliculus—axons from both cochlear nuclei and contralateral superior olive c. Nucleus of lateral lemniscus—axons from contralateral cochlear nucleus d. Medial geniculate complex—axons from ipsilateral superior colliculus e. Cochlear nuclei—contralateral auditory nerve Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Information from the Cochlea Reaches Targets in the Brainstem Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Which auditory property most depends upon the utilization of bilateral auditory information? a. Frequency discrimination b. Sound localization c. Distinguishing pitch from timbre d. Encoding of speech sounds e. Detection of very faint sounds Answer: b Textbook Reference: Integrating Information from the Two Ears Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. In which brain region are the intensities (not the phases) of impinging sound waves compared in order to determine the location of sound sources? a. Cochlear nucleus b. Inferior colliculus c. Medial geniculate complex d. Medial superior olive e. Lateral superior olive Answer: e Textbook Reference: Integrating Information from the Two Ears Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which statement about lemniscal and collicular sound processing is false? a. The different acoustical cell types seen in the inferior colliculus are also present in the cochlear nuclei, but they are not formed into a topographic map at the cochlear level of the pathway.

b. Unlike the physical mapping of the visual world onto the retina, the auditory space map in the inferior colliculus is purely a construct of the brainstem’s processing of auditory information. c. Certain collicular neurons respond preferentially to frequency-modulated sounds. d. Certain collicular neurons respond preferentially to sounds of a fixed duration. e. The monaural pathway connects the cochlear nucleus to the midbrain via the nuclei of the lateral lemniscus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Integration in the Inferior Colliculus Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. Cells with pronounced selectivity for specific combinations of sound frequencies are found in the a. ventral cochlear nucleus. b. nuclei of the lateral lemniscus. c. inferior colliculus. d. medial geniculate complex. e. lateral and medial superior olives.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Auditory Thalamus Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Refer to the figure.

Damage to which region would affect perception of sound the most? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: c Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Textbook Reference: The Auditory Cortex

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 14: The Vestibular System Multiple Choice 1. The sensory system that processes information regarding self-motion, head position, and spatial orientation is the _______ system. a. visual b. auditory c. vestibular d. olfactory e. gustatory Answer: c Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. In the labyrinth, the canal reuniens connects the _______ to the cochlea. a. saccule b. utricle c. ampullae d. semicircular canals e. facial nerve Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vestibular Labyrinth Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Which of the following would result from malformed tight junctions in the vestibular system? a. Difficulty detecting translational movements only b. Decreased cushioning between the labyrinth and the skull c. Increased signaling from hair cells in the ampullae d. Incomplete separation of endolymph and perilymph around hair cells e. Improper formation of ampullae at the base of the semicircular canals Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vestibular Labyrinth Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. After stereocilia move toward the kinocilium, a. mechanically-gated channels close. b. the hair cell hyperpolarizes. c. there is an efflux of calcium.

d. there is a decreased release of transmitter from the hair cell. e. there is increased signaling in the vestibular nerve.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Vestibular Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Why is it important that transduction channels are open at rest? a. To maintain separation of perilymph and endolymph b. To allow hair cells to signal both increases and decreases c. To permit movement of stereocilia in either direction d. So that transmitter is released only when stereocilia move toward the kinocilium e. To facilitate vestibular nerve firing in only when the head changes position Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vestibular Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. The area that divides the utricle and saccule into two populations of hair cells with different polarities is called a. Scarpa’s ganglion. b. the semicircular canal. c. the striola. d. the canal reuniens. e. the labyrinth.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Hair cells are located in the _______ and otoconia are embedded in the _______. a. macula; otolithic membrane b. gelatinous layer; otolithic membrane c. gelatinous layer; macula d. macula; gelatinous membrane e. otolithic membrane; macula Answer: a Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. In a monkey, which of the following would be a symptom of nonfunctional otoconia? a. Increased sensitivity to head movements b. Detection only of vertical movements c. Detection only of horizontal plane movements d. Detection only of rotational movements e. Decreased sensation of head movements Answer: e Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

9. What type of movement do the saccule and utricle respond to, respectively? a. Vertical; rotational b. Vertical; horizontal c. Rotational; vertical d. Horizontal; vertical e. Horizontal; rotational Answer: b Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which type of movement would the saccule detect? a. Tilting of the head to the side b. Quick acceleration in a roller coaster c. Abrupt stop while walking d. Head tilt up toward the sky e. Spinning motion of a carnival ride Answer: d Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. How would the firing rate of a person’s vestibular nerve fibers change as she accelerated from zero to 40 mph in a car, and then sustained that speed? a. Firing rate would increase and remain increased until she came to a stop again. b. Firing rate would increase only while she accelerated. c. Firing rate would decrease and remain decreased until she came to a stop again. d. Firing rate would decrease only while she accelerated. e. Firing rate would increase during acceleration, then decrease below baseline while at 40 mph.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Otolith Neurons Sense Head Tilts and Translational Head Movements Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. If a person tilted their head downward to tie their shoes and then straightened their head up again, firing rate of the vestibular nerve would a. increase and remain increased while the person was tying their shoes. b. increase only during the initial downward tilt of the head. c. decrease and remain decreased while the person was tying their shoes. d. decrease only during the initial downward tilt of the head. e. decrease during the initial downward tilt of the head and then increase as the head straightened back up.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Otolith Neurons Sense Head Tilts and Translational Head Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

13. The hair cells extend out of the _______ in the _______ of the semicircular canals. a. crista; ampulla b. cupula; ampulla c. cupula; crista d. ampulla; otolith e. otolith; cupula Answer: a Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. How are hair cells arranged in the semicircular canals? a. They line the semicircular canals and the ampulla. b. All hair cells on one of side of the head are in the same orientation. c. They are oppositely arranged within each ampulla along the striola. d. Kinocilia point in the same direction within an ampulla but are arranged oppositely to the corresponding ampulla in the other ear. e. They completely line the semicircular canals along the striola.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. If a researcher selectively damaged both of the semicircular canals of a rat, a. the rat would not be able to detect rotational perception. b. the rat would not be able to detect head tilt. c. the rat would receive rotational information one direction only. d. the rat would not be able to detect forward acceleration and deceleration. e. the rat would not be able to detect rotational information from one direction.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. How do the cupula and endolymph interact during head movements? a. Endolymph flows over the cupula to displace hair cells. b. Endolymph displaces the cupula in the same direction as the head movement. c. Endolymph mixes with the cupula to directly stimulate the hair cells. d. Endolymph displaces the cupula in the same direction as the head movement. e. Endolymph stays static and the cupula directly responds to head movements.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. How is firing in the vestibular nerve expected to change as a child rides a carousel? a. Increased firing while the child is in motion b. Decreased firing while the child is in motion c. Increased firing during acceleration, baseline firing during the ride, and decreased

firing during deceleration d. Decreased firing during acceleration, baseline firing during the ride, and increased firing during deceleration e. Increased firing during acceleration and during the ride, decreased firing during deceleration Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Semicircular Canal Neurons Sense Head Rotations Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Information from which region would not be integrated by the left vestibular nuclei? a. Right vestibular nuclei b. Cerebellum c. Visual system d. Somatosensory system e. Basal ganglia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which reflex allows a person to visually focus on an object as the head rotates? a. Vestibulocervical reflex b. Vestibulospinal reflex c. Vestibulo-ocular reflex d. Vestibular-cerebellar reflex e. Vestibulomotor reflex Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Due to the vestibulo-ocular reflex, which muscles contract when the head moves to the right? a. Left lateral rectus and right medial rectus b. Left lateral rectus and left medial rectus c. Right lateral rectus and left medial rectus d. Right lateral rectus and right medial rectus e. Left lateral rectus and right lateral rectus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. What would be the expected response to head rotations in a monkey if a researcher selectively lesioned its medial longitudinal fasciculus? a. A head rotation to the left would not move the right eye. b. A head rotation would move both eyes in the same direction as the rotation. c. A head rotation either right or left would not move the eyes. d. A head rotation to the right would not move the right eye.

e. A head rotation would move both eyes in the opposite direction of the rotation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Which task would a person with oscillopsia most struggle with? a. Watching TV b. Reading c. Checking a car’s blind spot d. Drawing e. Knitting Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. How does the body maintain posture and balance via the vestibulospinal reflex? a. Inhibitory signals are sent to extensor muscles in the trunk and limbs via the medial longitudinal fasciculus. b. Excitatory signals are sent to extensor muscles in the trunk and limbs via the vestibulospinal tracts. c. Excitatory signals are sent to flexor muscles in the trunk and limbs via the vestibulospinal tracts. d. Excitatory signals are sent to extensor muscles in the trunk and limbs via the medial longitudinal fasciculus. e. Inhibitory signals are sent to extensor muscles in the trunk and limbs via the vestibulospinal tracts.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Which brain region is a major target of the ascending vestibular pathways and also modulates vestibular activity via descending input to the vestibular nuclei? a. Cerebellum b. Amygdala c. Basal ganglia d. Hippocampus e. Fusiform gyrus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular–Cerebellar Pathways Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. For which of the following activities is the plasticity of the vestibulo-ocular reflex required? a. Reading various sized fonts b. Riding on a carnival ride c. Getting new corrective glasses/contacts

d. Moving from bright to dim environments e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular–Cerebellar Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 26. Which area of the cerebellum is responsible for distinguishing self-generated motion from the motion produced by external forces? a. Flocculus b. Paraflocculus c. Nodulus d. Rostral fastigial nucleus e. Uvula Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vestibular–Cerebellar Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. Stimulation to which area of the cortex elicits strong vestibular sensations? a. Brodmann’s area 2v b. Parietoinsular vestibular cortex c. Brodmann’s area 3a d. Fundus of the central sulcus e. Fusiform gyrus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vestibular Pathways to the Thalamus and Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Like many of our other senses, vestibular percepts integrate additional sensory information. The loss of which sense would most affect perception? a. Taste b. Smell c. Hearing d. Vision e. Touch Answer: d Textbook Reference: Spatial Orientation Perception and Multisensory Integration Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. In what ways are the vestibular and auditory sense organs similar?

Answer: Both the vestibular and auditory system have elaborate set of interconnected chambers that use endolymph movement and specialized hair cells to detect stimuli.

Textbook Reference: The Vestibular Labyrinth Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

2. How do otoconia play an important role in the vestibular system?

Answer: Otoconia are calcium carbonate crystals embedded in the otolithic membrane.

These crystals make the otolithic membrane heavier than the structures and fluids around them. This allows gravity to shift the membrane relative to the macula to produce a shearing motion.

Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. How do the saccule and utricle detect different directions of head tilts and translational motion?

Answer: They detect different directional movement because the saccules are oriented vertically, while the utricles are oriented horizontally. Additionally, hair cell populations are divided in two by the striola within each saccule and utricle.

Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Explain how the semicircular canals are specialized to assess rotational acceleration of the head, whereas the otolith organs are specialized to detect linear acceleration and static position of the head relative to the gravitational axis.

Answer: The semicircular canals lay in different planes within each side of the head. The hair cells in the ampulla of each semicircular canal have only one orientation. Each semicircular canal works in concert with its partner, located on the other side of the head, with its hair cells oppositely aligned. When the head rotates, the cupula within the semicircular canal in the plane of rotation increase firing rate on one side and decrease firing rate on the other side. This partnership results in information about head rotation in any direction. The striola in the otolith organs creates an axis of symmetry within each organ. Thus, firing will increase on one side of the organ while it decreases in the other.

The utricle and saccule are oriented in different planes to allow the head detect head tilts and translational movements in different directions.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which symptoms result from loss of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)?

Answer: Bilateral loss of the VOR would result in oscillopsia. People with this condition are unable to visually fixate on an object while the head is moving, and they report “bouncing vision.” However, those with unilateral damage are usually able to recover the ability to fixate on an object while the head moves.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which cranial nerve serves both vestibular and auditory hair cells? Where does the vestibular nerve project?

Answer: Cranial nerve VIII serves both vestibular and auditory hair cells. The vestibular nerve projects to the vestibular nuclei and directly to the cerebellum.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. What purposes do the vestibulocervical and vestibulospinal reflexes serve?

Answer: These reflexes are important for head and postural stability and balance, and for quick full body reflexes such as when a person is thrown off balance.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What symptoms indicate damage to the vestibular system?

Answer: The common symptoms of vestibular damage include poor balance, diminished head and postural stability, gait deviations, altered perception of personal and extrapersonal space, difficulty visually fixating on an object while the head moves, and altered slow and fast eye movements when the head rotates.

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. As your head turns horizontally to the left, what happens to activity levels in your left and right vestibular nerves? Would a similar pattern of activity be obtained by irrigating your left ear with warm or cold water?

Answer: As your head turns left, firing should increase in the left vestibular nerve and decrease in the right vestibular nerve. This pattern of firing could be obtained by irrigating the left ear with warm water.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Evaluation of the Vestibular System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. How does vestibular information reach the cortex?

Answer: Vestibular information is sent from the superior and lateral vestibular nuclei to the posterior nuclear complex of the thalamus. The thalamus then projects to a variety of areas in the cortex, including Brodmann’s area 3a, Brodmann’s area 2v, and the parietoinsular vestibular cortex (PIVC).

Textbook Reference: Vestibular Pathways to the Thalamus and Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. The vestibular system is able to detect a. translational acceleration in any direction. b. rotational acceleration in any direction. c. orientation of the head with respect to gravity. d. All of the above e. None of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vestibular Labyrinth Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

2. Both the cochlea and the labyrinth a. use otoliths in mechanotransduction. b. use hair cells in mechanotransduction. c. consist of semicircular canals. d. possess a spiral canal. e. possess a cupula.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vestibular Labyrinth Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement about the mechanotransduction mechanism of vestibular hair cells is true? a. Stereocilia are linked by small fibrous strands of gelatin. b. The tip link’s spring-like structure causes the cells to vibrate in resonance with the frequency of the sensory stimulus. c. The tip links are connected to cAMP-activated ion channels. d. Transduction is biphasic, in that movements toward and away from the kinocilium can produce increased or decreased firing of vestibular afferents. e. Protein strands that span four or five tips of stereocilia provide structural integrity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vestibular Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which statement about hair cells on the structures of the labyrinth is true? a. Only hair cells in the ampullae have a distinct pattern of orientation. b. Hair cells have the same pattern of orientation on all three structures. c. Each structure has a distinct pattern of hair cell orientation. d. Each structure has ordered patterns with interspersed randomly-oriented patches of nerve cells. e. The hair cells are randomly oriented on all three structures.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular Hair Cells Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Hair cell polarity is not important in a. cochlear signaling mechanisms. b. semicircular canal signaling mechanisms. c. otolith organ functioning. d. tip link transduction mechanisms. e. spontaneous nystagmus.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. The otoconia-containing organs of the vestibular system signal tilt and linear acceleration by virtue of

a. their crystals being heavier than surrounding tissue. b. their crystals being lighter than surrounding tissue. c. perilymph displacing the hair cells. d. the electric current that flows from otoconia to hair cells. e. the electric current that flows from hair cells to otoconia.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Otolith Organs: The Utricle and Saccule Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which organ is most sensitive to horizontal acceleration of the head? a. Saccule b. Utricle c. Both the saccule and utricle d. Horizontal semicircular canals e. Vertical semicircular canals Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Otolith Neurons Sense Head Tilts and Translational Head Movements Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Refer to the figure.

You are measuring firing rate from a vestibular axon that innervates a hair cell in the utricle (top left panel, leftmost hair cell). What should happen to the firing rate when the subjects tilt their head forward (right top panel)? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: e Textbook Reference: How Otolith Neurons Sense Head Tilts and Translational Head Movements Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Which structure is designed to detect angular acceleration? a. Saccule b. Utricle c. Semicircular canals

d. Cochlea e. Spiral ganglion Answer: c Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Which mechanism leads to activation of hair cells in the semicircular canals? a. Endolymph movement distorts the cupula. b. Linear acceleration causes the otolithic membrane to distort the hair cells. c. The basilar membrane moves in response to acceleration and distorts the hair cells. d. Perilymph moves around the canal causing the otonia to distort the hair cells. e. Static tilt allows gravity to move the reticular membrane.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. The semicircular canals are largely insensitive to linear acceleration because a. the forces produced by linear acceleration are the same on both sides of the cupula. b. the different hair cell orientations in the cupula cancel out any linear acceleration responses. c. forces generated by linear acceleration are never strong enough to bend hair cell bundles. d. linear acceleration does not exert a force on the fluid in the semicircular canal. e. None of the above; semicircular canals are highly sensitive to linear acceleration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Which statement about the firing rate in the vestibular afferents when an individual turns her head to the left is accurate? a. Firing rate in the afferent from the left horizontal semicircular canal increases. b. Firing rate in the afferent from the left horizontal semicircular canal decreases. c. Firing rate in the afferent from the left horizontal semicircular canal stays the same. d. Firing rate in the afferent from the right horizontal semicircular canal increases. e. Firing rate in the afferent from the right horizontal semicircular canal stays the same.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Semicircular Canals Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. _______ convey vestibular signals from the periphery to the CNS. a. Labyrinth hair cells b. Cells in the spiral ganglion c. Cells in Scarpa’s ganglion d. Cells in the abducens nucleus e. Cells in the vestibular nucleus Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. The vestibulo-ocular reflex is a mechanism for a. maintaining balance. b. visually tracking a slow-moving object. c. stabilizing gaze during head movement. d. preventing eye damage. e. All of the above Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Patients with severe bilateral vestibular damage do not exhibit a. a permanent deficit in visually fixating while moving. b. difficulty in visually tracking slow-moving objects. c. postural instabilities. d. impaired balance in low-light conditions. e. difficulty walking on uneven surfaces.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Neural pathways and signals mediating the vestibulospinal reflex a. arise from the medial vestibular nucleus. b. project through the medial longitudinal fasciculus. c. excite extensor muscles. d. excite flexor muscles. e. are mediated exclusively by reticulospinal synapses onto spinal motor neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Central Pathways for Stabilizing Gaze, Head, and Posture Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Squirting cold water into the ear of a reclined person will elicit eye movements a. only if the person is comatose. b. only if the person is awake. c. characteristic of different neurological deficits. d. by activating thermoreceptors in the labyrinth. e. by causing a “drowning” sensation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Evaluation of the Vestibular System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. A patient has bilateral damage to the medial longitudinal fasciculus. If she undergoes cold water irrigation in the right ear while unconscious, which oculomotor response would she show?

a. Slow movement of the right eye toward the right b. Slow movement of the left eye toward the right c. Slow movement of both eyes toward the right d. Slow movement of the right eye toward the left e. No eye movement Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Evaluation of the Vestibular System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Cortical neurons that receive vestibular input via the thalamus a. integrate multimodal sensory information. b. respond to rotation in the dark. c. receive visual and proprioceptive inputs. d. are likely involved with the perception of body orientation in extrapersonal space. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Vestibular Pathways to the Thalamus and Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. The sense of self-motion when, for example, a train adjacent to the one you are sitting on begins moving, is called a. vection. b. convection. c. disperception. d. commutation. e. extrasensory perception.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Spatial Orientation Perception and Multisensory Integration Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Test Bank to accompany

Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney• Platt • White

Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses Multiple Choice 1. Which structure separates the olfactory epithelium from the olfactory bulbs? a. Olfactory tract b. Odorants c. Pyriform cortex d. Cribiform plate e. Sphenoid bone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of the Olfactory System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. The olfactory bulb does not project to the a. thalamus. b. amygdala. c. entorhinal cortex. d. olfactory tubercle. e. pyriform cortex.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of the Olfactory System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which brain region is dedicated solely to olfaction perception? a. Amygdala b. Pyriform cortex c. Orbitofrontal cortex d. Hippocampal formation e. Hypothalamus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organization of the Olfactory System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. A room is filled with the scents of lavender and roses during a woman’s fMRI. Where would a researcher expect to see increased brain activity? a. Orbitofrontal cortex b. Cingulate cortex c. Insular cortex d. Both orbitofrontal and cingulate cortex

e. Both cingulate and insular cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Olfactory Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. In which disease or disorder is olfaction dysfunction or anosmia part of the diagnostic criteria? a. Eating disorders only b. Schizophrenia only c. Parkinson’s disease only d. Eating disorders and schizophrenia only e. Eating disorders, schizophrenia, Parkinson’s disease, and Alzheimer’s disease Answer: e Textbook Reference: Assessing Olfactory Function in the Laboratory or Clinic Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. The mucus layer and the epithelium, with neural and supporting cells is(are) called a. Bowman’s glands. b. basal cells. c. nasal mucosa. d. sustentacular. e. olfactory receptor neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfactory Epithelium and Olfactory Receptor Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. A scientist creates a knockout rat that has nonfunctional Bowman’s glands. Which functional effect would this most likely have on the rat? a. Inability to detect odorants b. Increased ability to maintain temperature and moisture of inhaled air c. Inability to generate olfactory receptor neurons continuously d. Increased susceptibility to infection e. Decreased surface area for odorants to bind to olfactory receptor neurons Answer: d Textbook Reference: Olfactory Epithelium and Olfactory Receptor Neurons Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Which cell types are not involved with proper generation of olfactory receptor neurons throughout an animal’s lifetime? a. Extant neurons b. Sustentacular cells c. Neural stem cells d. Basal cells e. Olfactory ensheathing cells Answer: b Textbook Reference: Olfactory Epithelium and Olfactory Receptor Neurons

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which conclusion can be drawn regarding the high number of olfactory pseudogenes in humans? a. The number of odorants in the environment has decreased over evolutionary time. b. Human olfaction detects as many odorants as other mammals but requires fewer expressed genes. c. The number of odorant receptor genes is irrelevant for determining an organism’s olfaction ability. d. Olfaction ability in humans is increasing, and we will soon be able to detect more odors than other mammals can. e. Reliance on olfaction has decreased throughout human evolution.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Odor Transduction and Odorant Receptor Proteins Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. A scientist creates a mouse model with dysfunctional cyclic nucleotide-gated channels. Which of the following would not occur in this model? a. Dissociation of α subunit from Golf b. Influx of calcium c. Increase in cAMP d. Activation of adenylyl cyclase III e. Odorant binding to odor receptor proteins Answer: b Textbook Reference: Molecular and Physiological Mechanisms of Olfactory Odor Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Which protein is important for modifying receptor sensitivity in olfaction? a. β-arrestin b. Calcium/calmodulin kinase II c. Phosphodiesterase d. Adenylyl cyclase III e. Golf Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular and Physiological Mechanisms of Olfactory Odor Transduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which cell type does not synapse within glomeruli? a. Mitral b. Tufted c. Periglomerular d. Granule e. Receptor Answer: d

Textbook Reference: The Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Exposure to a single odor activates _______ glomeruli, while exposure to a complex odor (150 compounds) activates _______ glomeruli. a. a few; many b. a few; all c. a few; a few d. many; many e. many; all Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. A patient sustains a head injury resulting in damage of some glomeruli. Which effect would most likely result from this damage? a. Inability to detect certain smells b. Decreased sensitivity to smells but all smells would be detectable c. Proliferation of periglomerular cells d. Inability to detect all smells e. No effect; glomeruli would regenerate from stem cells Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Which type cell type primarily forms the lateral olfactory tract, which projects to many areas in the brain? a. Olfactory receptor neuron b. Granule c. Tufted d. Mitral e. Periglomerular Answer: d Textbook Reference: Pyriform Cortical Processing of Information Relayed from the Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Most projections from the lateral olfactory tract are _______, and they _______ activate the pyriform cortex, _______ the activation of glomeruli to different odors. a. ipsilateral; selectively; like b. ipsilateral; broadly; unlike c. contralateral; selectively; unlike d. contralateral; broadly; unlike e. ipsilateral; broadly; like Answer: b Textbook Reference: Pyriform Cortical Processing of Information Relayed from the

Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Projections from the pyriform cortex to other brain regions allow olfaction to influence which other behavior(s) and/or function(s)? a. Sexual only b. Appetitive only c. Memory, sexual, and appetitive only d. Sexual and appetitive, but not visceral e. Sexual, appetitive, memory, and visceral Answer: e Textbook Reference: Pyriform Cortical Processing of Information Relayed from the Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. A _______ would be least likely to show a change in behavior in response to speciesspecific pheromones. a. human b. tiger c. rat d. badger e. wolf Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Predators, Prey, and Mates Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Neurons from the _______ project to the hypothalamus and the _______. a. accessory olfactory bulb; pyriform cortex b. accessory olfactory bulb; amygdala c. accessory olfactory bulb; cerebellum d. olfactory bulb; amygdala e. olfactory bulb; pyriform cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Predators, Prey, and Mates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. A scientist studying the vomeronasal system creates a V2R knockout rat.

Measurement of which variable would best evaluate the behavior of the knockout animal compared to controls? a. Time elapsed before mating between a male and female rat b. Time a mother spends with rat pups c. Number of aggressive bites between two male rats d. Distance traveled away from cat spray (kairomones) e. Time spent self-grooming while awake Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Molecular Mechanisms of Sensory

Transduction Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 21. Taste cells are not present in which part of the mouth? a. Tongue b. Pharynx c. Gums d. Upper esophagus e. Soft palate Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. _______ projections are topographically represented along the rostral–caudal axis in the _______. a. Cranial nerve; insular taste cortex b. Nucleus of the solitary tract; insular taste cortex c. Cranial nerve; gustatory nucleus d. Nucleus of the solitary tract; frontal taste cortex e. Cranial nerve; frontal taste cortex Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. _______ papilla, located posteriorly on the tongue, would respond most strongly to a _______ tastant. a. Foliate; umami b. Fungiform; salt c. Circumvallate; sweet d. Foliate; sour e. Circumvallate; bitter Answer: e Textbook Reference: Taste Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. A scientist creates a TRP channel knockout mouse model for all TRP channels. These mice would not be expected to respond to which of the following tastants in their drinking water? a. Sweet, bitter, umami, sour b. Sweet, salty c. Salty, bitter d. Umami, sour, salty e. Umami, bitter, sour, salty Answer: a Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

25. The T2R gene specifically codes for which taste? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Bitter d. Salty e. Umami Answer: c Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. A decrease in extracellular H+ would decrease the ability to detect which taste? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Bitter d. Salty e. Umami Answer: b Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. The G-protein gustducin is in involved in which of the following taste sensations? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Bitter d. Salty e. Umami Answer: c Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Which evidence supports labeled line coding in the taste system? a. Increasing concentrations of tastants can overcome a genetic mutation that results in a deficiency of taste receptors. b. The same behavioral responses are observed in response to all tastants when specific taste receptors are inactivated. c. No change in cranial nerve activity is observed when specific taste receptors are inactivated. d. Mice re-expressing PLCβ2 in T2-expressing taste cells in a PLCβ2 mutant mouse are able to respond to bitter tastes. e. Receptor proteins re-expressing are expressed broadly in taste cells and not in subsets.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Coding in the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 29. What would be the expected behavior of a TRPM5–/– knockout mouse compared to a

wild type mouse? a. Increased drinking of water with glucose b. Similar drinking of water with glutamate c. Increased drinking of water with quinine d. Similar drinking of water with sucrose e. Decreased drinking of water with atropine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Coding in the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What features of the olfactory system make it highly sensitive to low concentrations of odorants?

Answer: Low concentrations of odorants are detectable due to the high degree of convergence in the olfactory system. Many olfactory axons (25,000 in the mouse) that almost exclusively express a single odorant receptor gene project to one glomerulus. This glomerulus only synapses with a few (25 in the mouse) mitral cells. This convergence allows for amplification of olfactory receptor neuron signals.

Textbook Reference: The Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. How does olfactory information reach the brain region(s) that perceive(s) and interpret(s) odors?

Answer: Mitral cells in the olfactory bulb project to the pyriform cortex, which is the primary olfactory cortex, via the lateral olfactory tract.

Textbook Reference: Pyriform Cortical Processing of Information Relayed from the Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. What is the difference between pheromones and kairomones?

Answer: Pheromones are stimuli that mediate behaviors such as mating and social behavior among members of the same species. Kairomones are stimuli that modulate behavior between different species, such as predator and prey.

Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Predators, Prey, and Mates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Describe the steps in sensory transduction in olfactory neurons.

Answer: An odorant enters the nasal cavity and binds to an odor receptor protein located on the olfactory cilia. This triggers Golf to dissociate its α subunit to activate adenylyl cyclase III (ACIII). This increases cAMP, which opens cyclic nucleotide-gated channels to permit an influx of cyclic Na+ and Ca2+ for depolarization. When this depolarization reaches the axon hillock, action potentials are generated. This signal travels to a glomerulus where it synapses on mitral cells. These mitral cells then project to the pyriform cortex for processing.

Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Molecular Mechanisms of Sensory Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What are considered to be the primary taste categories?

Answer: The primary taste categories are salty, sour, sweet, bitter, and umami.

Textbook Reference: Taste Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. List some differences between olfaction and taste in central processing.

Answer: The olfactory system projects to its primary cortex before projecting to the thalamus, unlike other senses. Olfaction activation in the pyriform cortex is widespread, whereas each individual taste is distinctly represented in its own domain in the cerebral cortex.

Textbook Reference: Taste Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Compare the taste receptors for sour and salty with those for sweet, bitter, and umami.

Answer: Sour and salty use ion channels, the amiloride-sensitive Na+ channel, and H+permeant nonselective channel, respectively. Sweet, bitter, and umami all use G-protein coupled receptors. Sweet uses a T1R2 and T1R3 heterodimer, whereas umami uses a T1R1 and T1R3 heterodimer. Bitter uses only a T2R receptor for transduction.

Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. How does taste information reach the neocortex? What part(s) of the cortex receive(s) input from the taste pathway?

Answer: Taste information from taste cells is transmitted to the nucleus of the solitary tract via cranial nerves VII, IX, and X. This information is then relayed to the ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus and then projected to the insular and frontal taste cortices.

Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Are individual odors recognized by a labeled line strategy or by computing the activity from ensembles of neurons? Which system is involved in recognition of tastes?

Answer: Individual odors are recognized by computing the activity from ensembles of neurons, whereas tastes are recognized by labeled line coding.

Textbook Reference: Neural Coding in the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which structure is not part of the pathway by which olfactory signals first reach cortex?

a. Olfactory epithelium b. Olfactory bulb c. Olfactory thalamus d. Olfactory nerve e. Olfactory tract Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of the Olfactory System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. In terms of scent detection and tracking capabilities in humans, a. the olfactory epithelium of humans is larger than that of most canines. b. percentage-wise, humans devote more of their cortex to olfaction than do rats. c. humans (like dogs) can follow scent trails by frequent sniffing with orthogonal digressions. d. humans can detect most chemical compounds at levels of less than one part per billion. e. human olfactory capabilities exceed those of almost all other mammals.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfactory Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement about human odorant perception is false? a. The compound ethyl mercaptan is added to natural gas because this odorant is universally detectable by healthy humans. b. While some anosmias may ensue from olfactory receptor gene deficits, this has been difficult to substantiate. c. Olfactory hallucinations can be an early indicator of schizophrenia. d. Our ability to identify odors declines substantially with age. e. A “scratch and sniff” test is used by clinicians to aid early diagnosis of neurodegenerative disorders.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Assessing Olfactory Function in the Laboratory or Clinic Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Regarding a zinc nasal spray treatment to prevent the spread of the deadly polio virus, a. a 1937 trial of 5000 children in Toronto, Canada proved the efficacy of this nasal spray in limiting the spread of polio. b. the spray was rigorously tested for safety before its introduction into general use. c. while the zinc spray produced a short-lived, minor anosmia, there were no long-term adverse consequences of this treatment. d. the zinc spray was found in the 1940’s to be both ineffective and extremely harmful, but fortunately this mistaken use of zinc in a nasal therapy was never repeated. e. in the 1990s, some thought zinc could prevent the common cold and nasal sprays with zinc salts were created and sold but were not monitored by the FDA. Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Only One Nose Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

5. Which is not an established odorant-mediated response or capability of humans? a. Pheromone-based sexual attraction mediated by the vomeronasal organ b. Increased gastric motility in response to appetizing odors c. Infant recognition of, and increased suckling in response to, their mother’s odor d. A mother’s ability to recognize her own baby based upon odor e. Gagging or vomiting in response to a particularly noxious odor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Physiological and Behavioral Responses to Olfactory Stimuli Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Olfactory receptors are found at the highest concentration in a. the olfactory ensheathing cells. b. the olfactory cell cilia. c. the cribriform plate. d. Bowman’s gland cells. e. olfactory stem cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Olfactory Epithelium and Olfactory Receptor Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Olfactory receptors most closely resemble which protein in structure and mechanism of action? a. Tastant receptor for salt b. Voltage-gated ion channels c. Ion pumps d. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor e. Ionotropic neurotransmitter receptors Answer: d Textbook Reference: Odor Transduction and Odorant Receptor Proteins Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Odorant receptor genes and/or proteins a. constitute a unique gene family with no structural similarities to other receptor families. b. vary greatly in structure between vertebrate and invertebrate animals (e.g., in terms of number of transmembrane regions and their ability to interact with G-proteins). c. possess introns only in humans, allowing for greater alternative splicing and increased diversity. d. constitute approximately 3–5% of the genome of mammals. e. are expressed in overlapping patterns in olfactory receptor neurons resulting in each neuron expressing between 7 and 10 different olfactory receptors.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Odor Transduction and Odorant Receptor Proteins Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

9. Which of the following statements about the olfactory capabilities of dogs is false? a. Dogs can detect human moles that are cancerous. b. Dogs can be trained to detect breast cancer by sniffing exhaled air. c. Dogs can be trained to detect lung cancer by sniffing exhaled air. d. Dogs can detect bladder or kidney cancer by sniffing urine. e. The reliability of dogs in detecting cancers has led to their widespread use in oncology clinics.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 15A: The “Dogtor” Is In Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Listed below are the various components of the olfactory transduction process: 1. Golf G-protein 2. Voltage-gated sodium channel 3. Calcium-activated chloride channel 4. cAMP-gated ion channel 5. Adenylyl cyclase III Which of the following is the correct order in which these components are activated? a. 5; 1; 4; 3; 2 b. 1; 5; 4; 3; 2 c. 1; 5; 4; 2; 3 d. 5; 4; 1; 3; 2 e. 2; 1; 5; 4; 3 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Molecular and Physiological Mechanisms of Olfactory Odor Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. A mouse model with anosmia has been generated using gene knockout techniques.

Removing which gene would lead to anosmia? a. Gs subunit b. Adenyl cyclase III c. Diacylglycerol (DAG) d. TRP channel (specifically M5) e. H+-sensitive TRP channel Answer: b Textbook Reference: Molecular and Physiological Mechanisms of Olfactory Odor Transduction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. The Drosophila olfactory lobe, the mushroom body, appears similar in structure and function to the mammalian olfactory a. epithelium. b. glomerulus. c. bulb. d. cortex.

e. mitral cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. In humans, the olfaction-responsive brain area that responds to multimodal stimuli (such as the sight and smell of food) is located in a. pyriform cortex. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. the hippocampus. d. the amygdala. e. the olfactory tubercle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Pyriform Cortical Processing of Information Relayed from the Olfactory Bulb Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which statement about the pheromone-based sensory systems of mammals is false? a. Pheromones are usually detected in an organ that is distinct from the primary olfactory epithelium. b. Pheromone receptors project to a specialized (accessory) region of the olfactory bulb. c. The accessory olfactory bulb projects to the hypothalamus and amygdala. d. Vomeronasal receptors are highly expressed in all primates except humans. e. Pheromones mediate behaviors with conspecifics, whereas kairomones mediate behaviors with other animals.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vomeronasal System: Predators, Prey, and Mates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Stephanie has damage to her insular cortex. Which sense would have difficulty processing? a. Olfaction b. Vision c. Somatosensory d. Pain e. Taste Answer: e Textbook Reference: Organization of the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Samuel is having difficulty distinguishing bitter tastes. In which location might he have damage? a. Cranial nerve IX b. Cranial nerve I c. Cranial nerve VII d. Cranial nerve X

e. Nucleus of the solitary tract Answer: a Textbook Reference: Taste Perception in Humans Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Sour substances activate taste cells by a. first binding to other organic compounds found in saliva. b. binding to G-protein-coupled receptors. c. changing the potassium equilibrium potential of taste cells. d. the depolarizing effect of protons entering taste cells. e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. The sweet transduction system involves a. heterodimeric G-protein-coupled receptors. b. activation of G-proteins. c. activation of phospholipase C. d. IP3 activation of TRPM5 channels. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Taste Receptor Proteins and Transduction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which mechanism for the neural encoding of taste perception has the strongest experimental support? a. Lateral inhibition b. Second messenger discrimination c. Labeled lines d. Functional reactivation e. Sparse coding Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Coding in the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. According to one study, wild type mice cannot taste aspartame, a compound that humans find sweet (it does not activate mouse sweet receptors). A transgenic mouse line is created in which a bitter receptor, T2R19, has been knocked out. Additionally, the human sweet receptor gene has been engineered to be expressed selectively in mouse T2R19 cells. If the mice were then tested for lick rate preference when given different concentrations of aspartame in their water, which behavioral responses would you expect? a. The mice would prefer the aspartame solution over water and would increase lick rate as the concentration of aspartame increased.

b. The mice would prefer water over the aspartame solution and would decrease lick rate as the concentration of aspartame increased. c. The mice would show a U function, preferring the aspartame solution over water at very low and very high concentrations but not at common (i.e. those used in food products) concentrations of aspartame. d. The mice would show an inverted U function, preferring water over the aspartame solution at very low and very high concentrations but not at common (i.e., those used in food products) concentrations of aspartame. e. The mouse would show no difference in preference for water or the aspartame solution at any concentration of aspartame.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Coding in the Taste System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 16: Lower Motor Neuron Circuits and Motor Control Multiple Choice 1. Motor neurons with cell bodies in the cerebral cortex or the brainstem are part of which motor system? a. Lower motor neurons b. Upper motor neurons c. Both lower and upper motor neurons d. Cerebellum e. Basal ganglia Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Ava notices that when she consumes two alcoholic beverages within an hour she has trouble controlling her movements. She stumbles occasionally and may knock over a glass that she intended to pick up. She doesn’t have any trouble initiating movement, but all of her movements seem a little “off.” Which motor system is most affected by Ava’s alcohol consumption? a. Lower motor neurons b. Upper motor neurons c. Both lower and upper motor neurons d. Cerebellum e. Basal ganglia Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Huntington’s disease and Parkinson’s disease indicate the importance of which motor system for proper motor functioning? a. Lower motor neurons b. Upper motor neurons c. Both lower and upper motor neurons d. Cerebellum e. Basal ganglia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

4. Refer to the figure.

Where are lower motor neurons located? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. A woman sustains a spinal cord injury in a car accident and loses the ability to move her fingers and her hand. The injury most likely damaged which region of her spinal cord? a. Lateral ventral horn b. Lateral dorsal horn c. Medial ventral horn d. Medial dorsal horn e. Lateral column Answer: a Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Local circuit neurons that run the entire length of the spinal cord and connect the medial parts of the spinal cord gray matter are primarily involved in which type of movement? a. Movement of one limb b. Coordination of upper and lower limbs c. Postural control d. Fine control of distal extremities e. Coordinated movement between upper limbs Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. _______ innervate striated muscle fibers, and _______ innervate specialized fibers called _______. a. γ motor neurons; α motor neurons; muscle spindles b. α motor neurons; γ motor neurons; muscle spindles c. α motor neurons; γ motor neurons; extrafusal muscle fibers d. γ motor neurons; α motor neurons; intrafusal muscle fibers e. α motor neurons; γ motor neurons; extrafusal muscle fibers Answer: b Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which motor units are resistant to fatigue? a. Slow only b. Fast fatigue-resistant only c. Fast fatigue only d. Both slow and fast fatigue e. Both slow and fast fatigue-resistant Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Compared to the general population, weightlifters would be expected to have a higher ratio of which motor unit(s) in their legs? a. S only b. FR only c. FF only d. Both S and FF e. Both FR and FF Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. After a few minutes of repeated stimulation, _______ motor units can generate only a fraction of their maximum force, whereas _______ motor units maintain maximum force generation after an hour of repeated stimulation. a. S; FF b. FF; FR c. FF; S d. FR; S e. FR; FF Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

11. Muscles in which region of the body would be expected to have the highest ratio of slow motor units? a. Face b. Buttocks c. Finger d. Forearm e. Shoulder Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. As motor unit size increases, which property of the α motor neuron decreases? a. Excitability b. Cell body size c. Dendritic complexity d. Axonal diameter e. Number of axonal branches Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 16A: Motor Unit Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which observation would a researcher expect to make after chronically stimulating a cat’s leg muscle over a month-long period? a. Phenotypic change of FF motor units to S motor units b. Phenotypic change of S motor units to FF motor units c. Elimination of FR motor units d. No change in muscle phenotype e. No change in α motor neuron function Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 16A: Motor Unit Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. According to the size principle, in which order are motor units recruited in response to increasing synaptic input? a. FF, FR, S b. S, FF, FR c. FR, FF, S d. S, FR, FF e. FR, S, FF Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which activity would recruit all three types of motor units? a. Walking

b. Sleeping c. Kayaking d. Skipping e. Sprinting Answer: e Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Which neurons are responsible for muscle tone? a. α motor neurons b. Group I afferents c. Group II afferents d. γ motor neurons e. Interneurons Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which neurons coil around the middle of intrafusal fibers? a. α motor neurons b. Group I afferents c. Group II afferents d. γ motor neurons e. Interneurons Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. While helping a friend move, you hold out your arms to take a box from your friend.

To ensure that you do not drop the box, your _______ neurons send a signal to your _______ neurons to contract your biceps and relax your triceps. a. group Ia afferent; α motor b. group II afferent; α motor c. α motor; group Ia afferent d. group Ia afferent; γ motor e. group II afferent; γ motor Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. In a muscle with a high gain, a _______ stretch of a muscle would lead to _______ increase in extrafusal muscle tension. a. small; a small b. small; a large c. small; no d. large; a small

e. large; no Answer: b Textbook Reference: Modifying the Gain of Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which part of the lower motor neuron circuit prevents muscles from generating excessive tension and maintains steady muscle tone during muscle fatigue? a. Muscles spindles b. α motor neurons c. Golgi tendon organs d. Reciprocal innervation e. γ motor neurons Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying the Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. As a person squats, the quadriceps muscles contract. At the same time, the respective Golgi tendon organs _______ their firing rate, and the intrafusal muscle fibers _______ their firing rate. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase e. decrease; level off Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying the Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. The flexion-crossed extension reflex would occur in response to which activity? a. Holding a box steady as more items are added to it b. Coordinating your legs to squat c. A knee tap with a reflex hammer d. Squinting when you move from a dark room to bright sunlight e. Stepping on a sharp object Answer: e Textbook Reference: Flexion Reflex Pathways Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. During the flexion-crossed extension reflex, stimulation would lead to _______ of ipsilateral flexor muscles and _______ contralateral flexor muscles. a. excitation; excitation of b. excitation; inhibition of c. inhibition; inhibition of d. inhibition; excitation of

e. inhibition; no change in Answer: b Textbook Reference: Flexion Reflex Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Which neurons receive converging inputs from several different sources before they relay signals to the muscles in the flexor reflex? a. α motor neurons b. Group I afferents c. Group II afferents d. γ motor neurons e. Local circuit neurons Answer: e Textbook Reference: Flexion Reflex Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. The local circuits in the spinal cord that are fully capable of controlling the timing and coordination of complex locomotion are called a. central pattern generators. b. the mesencephalic locomotor region. c. the flexion-crossed extension reflex. d. reciprocal innervation. e. motor units.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Spinal Cord Circuitry and Locomotion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Which statement provides evidence that locomotion is organized by central pattern generators in the spinal cord? a. Retraction of a limb from a painful stimulus causes the opposite limb to extend support. b. Transection of the spinal cord does not prevent coordinated limb movements. c. Damage to descending pathways can result in the flexion reflex in response to squeezing of a limb. d. The swing phase of locomotion remains relatively constant across different speeds. e. Quadrupeds change their limb coordination patterns as they increase their locomotion speed.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Spinal Cord Circuitry and Locomotion Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 27. Which symptom is not caused by lower motor neuron syndrome? a. Loss of muscle tone b. Paralysis c. Impairment of fine movement only d. Muscle fibrillations

e. Loss of reflexes Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Lower Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Why are lower motor neurons referred to as the “final common pathway” for movements? Are the motor neurons that innervate head muscles upper or lower motor neurons?

Answer: Lower motor neurons are referred to as the “final common pathway” because commands for both voluntary and reflexive movement use this pathway to initiate movement in skeletal muscles. The motor neurons that innervate head muscles are lower motor neurons.

Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Do neurons in the cerebellum and basal ganglia synapse on  motor neurons?

Answer: No, neurons from the cerebellum and basal ganglia synapse on upper motor neurons, not  motor neurons, which are lower motor neurons.

Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. What comprises a motor unit?

Answer: The motor unit is an α motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. As a person tries to lift a heavy box, which type of motor unit is recruited first, and which is recruited last, according to the size principle?

Answer: According to the size principle, the smallest motor units would be recruited first and the largest motor units that generate the most force would be recruited last. Thus, low-threshold slow motor units are recruited, then FR motor units, and finally FF motor units.

Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. What is unique about the monosynaptic reflex arc in reciprocal innervation?

Answer: The monosynaptic reflex arc is unique because most sensory neurons from the periphery do not synapse directly on lower motor neurons. Most sensory neurons exert their effects through local circuit neurons instead.

Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Explain how the antagonist muscle is inhibited in reciprocal innervation.

Answer: When muscle spindles are stretched, activity in the group Ia afferents in increases. These Ia afferents directly excite the α motor neurons of the stretched muscle, but inhibit the α motor neurons of the antagonist muscle via reciprocal-Ia-inhibitory interneurons.

Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What the Golgi tendon organ reflex, and how does it function?

Answer: The Golgi tendon organ, located at the junction of a muscle and tendon, is arranged in series with extrafusal muscles. Thus, as a muscle contacts, the Golgi tendon organ increases its output to the Ib afferents. These afferent neurons connect with inhibitory interneurons to inhibit the muscle that is contracted. This negative feedback is the body’s way of protecting the muscle from extensive tension and helping to maintain a steady level of tone during muscle fatigue.

Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying the Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What happens to activity levels in muscle spindle afferents versus Golgi tendon organ afferents when a muscle contracts? When a muscle is passively stretched?

Answer: When a muscle contracts, afferent activity increases in a Golgi tendon organ and decreases in an intrafusal muscle fiber. When a muscle is stretched, afferent activity decreases in a Golgi tendon organ and increases in an intrafusal muscle fiber. These responses lead to the muscle spindle maintaining muscle length while the Golgi tendon organ maintains muscle force.

Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying the Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. List the three sources of direct synaptic input to  motor neurons. Which one is the major input?

Answer: The sources of direct synaptic input to  motor neurons include the motor cortex, the mesencephalic locomotor region, and local circuit neurons. The motor cortex is the major source of input.

Textbook Reference: Spinal Cord Circuitry and Locomotion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Describe central pattern generators in the spinal cord.

Answer: Central pattern generators are local circuits in the spinal cord that time and coordinate complex movements of locomotion.

Textbook Reference: Spinal Cord Circuitry and Locomotion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz

1. Upper motor neurons a. control the upper half of the torso. b. synapse on muscles in the eye, neck, and head. c. synapse on local circuit neurons and/or lower motor neurons. d. affect motor patterns only indirectly via their inputs to the basal ganglia. e. have cell bodies that are located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The part of the motor system that acts as a servomechanism to minimize motor error is a. Brodmann’s area 4. b. Brodmann’s area 6. c. the brainstem. d. the cerebellum. e. the basal ganglia.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Centers Responsible for Movement Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. A motor pool (as opposed to a motor unit) consists of a. all of the motor neurons that project to a given muscle. b. all of the motor neurons within a single segment of spinal cord. c. all of the motor neurons that project to a given limb. d. a single motor neuron and all of the muscles it innervates. e. a single motor neuron and all of its afferent interneurons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. The motor neurons innervating the medial gastrocnemius muscle of the cat are found a. concentrated within a single segment of cervical spinal cord. b. concentrated within a single segment of lumbar spinal cord. c. spanning several segments of medial lumbar and sacral spinal cord. d. spanning several segments of lateral lumbar and sacral spinal cord. e. distributed diffusely throughout the dorsal and ventral horns of lumbar and sacral spinal cord.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Spinal interneurons that project ipsilaterally between the lumbar and cervical enlargements are most likely involved with a. ensuring left–right alternation during rhythmic behaviors. b. ensuring coordination of the forelimbs and hindlimbs. c. ensuring the proper speed of locomotion.

d. coordinating activity of limb joints and extremities. e. producing alternating flexion and extension patterns in an individual limb.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Motor Neuron–Muscle Relationships Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A specialized motor unit, with an average size of three muscle fibers, controls a. finger movements. b. postural muscle. c. the large, fast contracting muscles used in sprinting. d. eye muscles. e. muscles of high-endurance athletes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Motor Unit Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which statement about the organization of muscles and motor neurons is false? a. Red muscle fibers contract slowly and produce the smallest amount of force. b. Large motor neurons are recruited only at higher levels of stimulus intensity. c. The fastest, strongest muscle fibers can produce the most sustained force output. d. As stimulation of a motor unit increases, the amount of force produced by the muscle increases. e. Individual muscles can be used in a variety of different locomotor patterns or gaits.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. The condition called “fused tetanus” refers to a. lockjaw symptoms resulting from exposure to the tetanus toxin. b. a muscle firing pattern resulting from one’s willing a muscle to contract at maximum velocity. c. the response of single muscle fibers to a single action potential input. d. a sustained maximal contraction due to intense motor unit firing. e. an excessive contraction that results in the fusing together of muscle fibers.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Asynchronous firing of motor neurons a. provides a means by which a population of motor neurons can maintain constant force over a finite time interval. b. refers to the pattern by which more lateral motor neurons are fired first and more medial ones later. c. refers to alternating firing of fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. d. does not occur under normal physiological conditions. e. is observed only in the γ motor neurons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which is not a feature of motor unit plasticity? a. Changes in the strength and endurance of individual muscle fibers b. Changes in the firing properties of motor neurons c. Changes in the size and location of motor pools d. Changes in muscle properties in response to the type of motor neurons innervating the muscle e. Capacity for a non-exercised arm to be influenced by unilateral training of the other arm Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 16A: Motor Unit Plasticity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. The patellar tendon (knee-jerk) reflex is a. mediated by Golgi tendon organs. b. a monosynaptic reflex arc mediated by Ia afferents. c. a polysynaptic reflex arc that integrates the input from groups Ia, Ib, and II afferents. d. mediated by collaterals of somatosensory afferents. e. a volitional response to the impending impact of an object (i.e., the physician’s rubber hammer) directed toward the knee.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. During the patellar reflex, you measure voltage change in the flexor muscle motor neuron cell body in the ventral horn of the spinal cord. After stimulation of the stretch receptors, which of the following would you observe? a. An EPSP b. An action potential c. An IPSP d. No change in voltage e. Constant action potential firing leading to fused tetanus in the flexor muscle Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Refer to the figure.

An animal model is developed in which gamma motor neurons are dysfunctional. If you record the activity of the Ia fiber (spindle afferent), which pattern would you expect to see when the innervated muscle contracts? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Modifying the Gain of Muscle Stretch Reflexes Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Golgi tendon organs are most sensitive to a. muscle tension. b. muscle stretch. c. absolute joint position. d. muscle contraction frequency. e. muscle fatigue.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Spinal Cord Circuitry Underlying the Regulation of Muscle Force Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which statement about the withdrawal reflex is false? a. It can be initiated by pain- and temperature-sensitive sensory fibers. b. It has opposing effects within a limb. c. It has opposing effects in the left and right limbs. d. It controls muscles by means of polysynaptic pathways. e. It results in extensor muscle activation within the stimulated limb.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Flexion Reflex Pathways Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which statement about cat locomotion is false? a. Flexors play an important role during the swing phase. b. Extensors play an important role during the stance phase. c. It is controlled by a single spinal central pattern generator (CPG) that always produces left–right alternation within a segment. d. Some gaits alternate activity between the left and right legs. e. Some gaits involve synchronous use of forelimbs and hindlimbs.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Spinal Cord Circuitry and Locomotion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. The lamprey central pattern generator (CPG) a. produces dorsal–ventral flexion waves that run the length of the body. b. requires sensory feedback in order for the spinal CPG to oscillate. c. is controlled by a series of segmental ganglia. d. generates an alternating left–right bending pattern by means of crossed inhibitory fibers. e. is easy to study because there are only four cells in each hemi-segment of the spinal cord.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 16B: Locomotion in the Leech and the Lamprey Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Proper functioning of the lamprey central pattern generator (CPG) is dependent on which input? a. Descending inputs from the brainstem or cortex b. Excitatory interneurons that cross the midline c. Inhibitory interneurons that cross the midline d. Inhibitory interneurons that do not cross the midline e. Motor neurons that cross the midline Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Box 16B: Locomotion in the Leech and the Lamprey Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which symptom would you expect to see in a patient with lower motor neuron damage? a. Hyperactive deep reflexes b. Increased muscle tone c. Babinski’s sign d. No development of atrophy e. Hypoactive deep reflexes Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Lower Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. One candidate hypothesis for the selective degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons in ALS is that a. these neurons share distinct sets of G-protein-coupled receptors. b. these neurons exhibit high resting firing rates. c. motor neurons are used far more intensively than other CNS cell types. d. these cells are exposed to infectious agents via their peripheral projections. e. their very long axons make them more vulnerable to defects in axonal transport.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 17: Upper Motor Neuron Control of the Brainstem and Spinal Cord Multiple Choice 1. Local circuit neurons that supply input to _______ lower motor neurons are located in the medial _______. a. medial; ventral horn b. lateral; intermediate zone c. medial; lateral white matter d. lateral; anterior white matter e. medial; intermediate zone Answer: e Textbook Reference: Organization of Descending Motor Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. In which area of the spinal cord can the axons of upper motor neurons that supply lower motor neurons for skilled movements be found? a. Medial ventral horn b. Lateral ventral horn c. Medial white matter d. Lateral white matter e. Medial intermediate zone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of Descending Motor Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Lower motor neurons responsible for posture and locomotion are found in the _______ and primarily receive input from upper motor neurons in the _______. a. medial ventral horn; brainstem b. lateral ventral horn; brainstem c. medial ventral horn; cerebral cortex d. lateral ventral horn; cerebral cortex e. medial dorsal horn; brainstem Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of Descending Motor Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Upper motor neurons in the cerebral cortex are located in which lobe(s) of the brain? a. Frontal

b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital e. Frontal and parietal Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. The pyramidal cells of the primary motor cortex are located in which cortical layer? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e. 6 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Refer to the figure.

The brain areas highlighted orange and red, respectively, are the a. primary motor cortex and premotor cortex. b. premotor cortex and somatosensory cortex. c. premotor cortex and primary motor cortex. d. primary motor cortex and somatosensory cortex. e. somatosensory cortex and primary motor cortex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. At which level of the nervous system does pyramidal decussation occur? a. Cerebral cortex b. Midbrain c. Pons d. Medulla

e. Spinal cord Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. What percentage of pyramidal tract fibers decussate to form the lateral corticospinal tract? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 90% e. 100% Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. The lateral corticospinal tract innervates α motor neurons that are important for which task? a. Vision b. Posture c. Writing d. Walking e. Speech Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. A man is rushed to the hospital after he has had a stroke involving his left middle cerebral artery. The man will likely lose his ability to a. raise both eyebrows. b. raise the right corner of his mouth. c. squint. d. push his tongue into his left cheek. e. furrow his brow.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Patterns of Facial Weakness and Their Importance for Localizing Neurological Injury Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

11. Which of the following body areas listed has the greatest area of motor cortex devoted to it? a. Neck b. Lips c. Wrist d. Knee

e. Brow Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. The peripheral muscle group that an upper motor neuron projects to is the a. muscle field. b. motor unit. c. muscle spindle. d. corticospinal tract. e. None of the above Answer: a Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Which evidence suggests that upper motor neurons in the primary cortex have a preferred direction? a. Spike-triggered averaging indicates that a single upper motor neuron activates a muscle field. b. Stimulation of the primary motor cortex can elicit movements in different areas of the body. c. Firing rates of upper motor neurons change prior to movements involving small forces. d. Mapping of the primary motor cortex indicates that many body regions overlap. e. The firing rate of a particular upper motor neuron is highest when the hand moves from left to right.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 14. Which experimental technique has been most helpful in mapping the primary motor cortex? a. Protein assays b. DNA analysis c. Cortical stimulation d. Cortical staining e. Lesioning studies Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which motor area of the brain receives extensive multisensory input from the parietal and frontal lobe? a. Primary motor cortex b. Premotor cortex c. Cerebellum d. Basal ganglia

e. Red nucleus Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. What is the name of the neurons that fire when an animal observes and performs a goal-oriented task? a. Medullary pyramids b. Broca’s area c. Reticular formation d. Betz cells e. Mirror motor neurons Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which area of the brain is important for initiating movements from memory without external cues? a. Broca’s area b. Medial premotor cortex c. Lateral premotor cortex d. Medial primary motor cortex e. Lateral primary motor cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Premotor cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. The area of the brain dedicated to speech production is a. premotor cortex. b. intraparietal sulcus. c. Broca’s area. d. Brodmann’s area. e. Wernicke’s area.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. Neurons from the _______ are responsible for regaining balance and posture via projections to the proximal muscles of the limbs. a. red nucleus b. superior colliculus c. reticular formation d. medial vestibulospinal tract e. lateral vestibulospinal tract Answer: e Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons

That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which function does the reticular formation contribute to? a. Cardiovascular control b. Coordination of eye movements c. Temporal and spatial coordination of limb and trunk movements d. Regulation of sleep e. Relaxation of muscles during restful periods Answer: e Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 21. The vestibulospinal tract would play a role in which of the following activities? a. Contracting your abdominal muscles as you tackle an opponent in football b. Shifting your weight to your right leg before you raise your left leg c. Extending your arms to protect yourself after you trip d. Contracting muscles in your left leg as you take a step with your right leg e. Contracting your triceps as you do a push up Answer: c Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 22. A person with damage to the direct motor pathway but an intact indirect motor pathway, would have the most difficulty a. walking up steps. b. tying shoes. c. running. d. climbing a ladder. e. swimming.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. Which brain region is important for controlling axial musculature in the neck? a. Broca’s area b. Reticular Formation c. Superior colliculus d. Medullary pyramids e. Rubrospinal tract Answer: c Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Which motor tract, important for controlling arms or forepaws, is prominent in animals but nonexistent in humans? a. Corticospinal tract b. Lateral vestibulospinal tract c. Corticobulbar tract d. Rubrospinal tract e. Medial vestibulospinal tract Answer: d Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. _______ neurons in the _______ reticular formation modulate forebrain activity. a. Magnocellular; medial b. Parvocellular; rostral c. Magnocellular; caudal d. Magnocellular; rostral e. Parvocellular; caudal Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 17C: The Reticular Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. Which upper motor neuron syndrome symptom is also present in healthy infants? a. Spinal shock b. Babinski sign c. Spasticity d. Decerebrate rigidity e. Mild atrophy Answer: b Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. A woman is rushed to the hospital after a serious car accident. When she enters the emergency room on a stretcher, a resident notices that her arms and legs are extended and her neck is retracted. The resident suspects the woman has sustained damage to her _______, causing decerebrate rigidity. a. pons b. red nucleus c. cerebral cortex d. spinal cord e. midbrain Answer: a Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron

Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Medial versus lateral spinal cord interneurons differ in location and pattern of connections. Describe how these anatomical distinctions correspond to functional differences.

Answer: Medial interneurons are located in the medial region of the intermediate zone of the spinal cord gray matter, and they synapse on lower motor neurons in the medial ventral horn that maintain posture, balance, and locomotion. Lateral interneurons are located in the lateral regions of the intermediate zone where they synapse on lower motor neurons in the lateral ventral horn that dictate skilled movements in distal limb muscles.

Textbook Reference: Organization of Descending Motor Control Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 2. Does the pyramidal tract originate only from the motor cortex? Does it terminate only in the spinal cord?

Answer: The pyramidal tract originates from the primary motor cortex and the premotor cortex. It terminates on the cranial nerve nuclei, reticular formation, red nucleus, and the spinal cord.

Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. The primary motor cortex “controls movements, not individual muscles.” What does statement mean, and what evidence supports this concept?

Answer: The spike-triggered averaging method showed that a single upper motor neuron directly facilitates the movement of multiple muscles that work together to perform a specific movement. These muscles are known as the muscle field of the upper motor neuron. Thus, a motor unit controls movement, not individual muscles.

Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Contrast the roles of the primary motor cortex and premotor cortex.

Answer: The primary motor cortex is responsible for initiating movement, while the premotor cortex encodes intention for movement. Both areas use the corticospinal tract, but upper motor neurons from the primary motor cortex have more monosynaptic connections to α motor neurons. Additionally, the primary motor cortex encodes action goals within personal space, whereas the premotor cortex encodes action goals for extrapersonal space.

Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. How would mirror motor neurons help someone learn new skills in a gymnastics class?

Answer: Mirror motor neurons would fire as a person watched a classmate or instructor

perform a new skill and while attempting to perform the new skill. These neurons would help the person learn the motor movements from the experience of observation.

Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Provide an example of feedforward and feedback in postural control.

Answer: The vestibular nuclei are responsible for feedback, or responding to a disturbance of body posture and stability. An example of feedback includes extending your arms and the dorsiflexion of your neck when you trip. The reticular formation is important in feedforward control, or stabilizing posture during ongoing movements. An example of feedforward control is the contraction of leg muscles to maintain stability before you attempt to pull on a handle with your arm.

Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. The major subcortical sources of upper motor neurons are the vestibular nuclei, superior colliculus, and red nucleus. For each region, briefly describe its role in motor control, and name the pathway that projects from each of these regions to the spinal cord.

Answer: The vestibular nuclei give rise to the medial and lateral vestibulospinal tracts, and they are important for recovering lost balance and posture. The superior colliculus projects to the reticular formation to control axial musculature of the neck. The red nucleus gives rise to the rubrospinal tract, which helps control the arms or forepaws of non-human primates and other mammals.

Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What is spinal shock?

Answer: Spinal shock is the lack of reflexive activity after a spinal cord injury. It is usually most noticeable in the arms and legs and is usually transient, with function often returning after several days.

Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. What is the basis for muscle tone?

Answer: Muscle tone is the resting level of tension in muscle, and it is dependent on the resting level of discharge of α motor neurons. This discharge is regulated by the γ efferent system in muscle spindle afferents.

Textbook Reference: Box 17D: Muscle Tone Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz

1. Upper motor neurons involved in the control of axial muscles would most likely project to the spinal cord in which pattern? a. Lateral gray matter over many spinal segments b. Lateral gray matter over just a few spinal segments c. Medial gray matter over many spinal segments d. Medial gray matter over just a few spinal segments e. Equal proportions to both lateral and medial gray matter Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of Descending Motor Control Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Cortical areas that plan and initiate motor sequences a. all fall within the primary motor cortex. b. comprise five functionally distinct and anatomically isolated regions. c. comprise several functionally distinct but highly interconnected regions. d. all receive direct inputs from the basal ganglia. e. all show a high threshold for the elicitation of motor behaviors.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Corticospinal axons mostly a. send ipsilateral axons into the lateral corticospinal tract. b. send contralateral axons into the ventral (anterior) corticospinal tract. c. synapse onto spinal α motor neurons. d. synapse onto spinal local circuit neurons. e. synapse onto spinal γ motor neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Refer to the figure.

A patient is having difficulty sitting and standing without support. If you know this is due to a spinal cord injury, in which location would you expect the damage to be? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Corticospinal and Corticobulbar Tracts Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Which method helped scientists correct a long-standing misconception about the neurological origins of facial weakness deficits seen in humans? a. fMRI, or functional magnetic resonance imaging b. Anatomical tract-tracing in primates c. High-resolution EEG d. Optical imaging of neuronal activation patterns in the cortex e. PET scans Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Patterns of Facial Weakness and Their Importance for Localizing Neurological Injury Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. A “muscle field” a. includes all of the muscles that are co-activated during any given behavior. b. includes all of the upper motor neurons that innervate a particular lower motor neuron. c. is the group of muscles whose activity is directly facilitated by a given upper motor neuron. d. is the force vector produced by stimulating an individual upper motor neuron. e. is the force vector produced by stimulating a small field of cortical premotor neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which statement about primary motor cortex neurons is false? a. The firing of primary motor cortical neurons occurs precisely at the onset of a muscle contraction. b. Primary motor cortical neurons can be directionally selective. c. The firing rate of a primary motor cortical neuron codes for or contributes to the force of a movement. d. The directional control of a movement is coded by the activity of a population of primary motor cortical neurons. e. The directional responses of primary motor cortical pyramidal cells tend to be broadly tuned in that they respond over a somewhat broad range of movement directions.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. When Graziano and colleagues extended cortical microstimulation in monkeys to time epochs approximating those of natural movements, they observed a. seizure-like contractions of a small group of muscles. b. repetitive movements of a limb or trunk muscle. c. sequential movements that were disrupted by “interfering” movements. d. purposeful movements distributed sequentially across multiple joints. e. increasingly strong movements eventually leading to spasticity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. “Spike-triggered averaging” a. refers to the generation of “average” motor behaviors by individual spikes. b. can be done only on awake, behaving monkeys. c. requires use of the patch-clamp technique to resolve spikes associated with single ion channels. d. is a means of correlating upper motor neuron activity with muscle activation. e. is used to determine the exact number of motor neurons contributing to each electromyogram (EMG) signal.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement about directional tuning and population coding by primary motor cortical neurons is true? a. The precision of directional motor movements equals the precision of directional tuning of individual primary motor cortical pyramidal cells. b. Most primary motor cortical neurons have two or three distinct, preferred directions separated by intervening ranges of non-preferred directions. c. The vector summation of population responses of primary motor cortical neurons is important for directional control of motor movements. d. Every possible direction of motion is made possible by specific populations of primary motor cortical neurons that are tuned specifically to each of the possible directions. e. Primary motor cortical neurons do not code direction.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Functional Organization of the Primary Motor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Which statement about “mirror” motor neurons is false? a. They are found in the ventrolateral portion of premotor cortex. b. They fire in response to a specific motor act, irrespective of there being a behavioral goal associated with the act. c. They fire in response to observation of a particular motor act being performed by others.

d. They fire most strongly in response to an observed motor act that corresponds to the act that would activate the neuron during self-initiated movements. e. They encode the intention to make a particular motor act.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Premotor Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. The rubrospinal pathway a. receives direct visual inputs. b. projects from the superior colliculus (or optic tectum) to the spinal cord. c. is the main pathway by which vestibular information is conveyed to the spinal cord. d. controls all head and eye movements. e. might not exist in humans.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. In an anticipatory postural response of a standing person about to tug on a handle, the early response of leg muscles (such as the gastrocnemius) that precedes the actual tug is an example of a. feedforward motor control. b. feedback motor control. c. equilibrium-point motor control. d. a “winner take all” motor coding strategy. e. sparse population coding.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. The “indirect pathway” from cortex to spinal cord does not play a role in a. feed-forward postural adjustments. b. weight shifts, as when a cat lifts one paw. c. certain motor functions that are spared after damage to the direct corticospinal pathway. d. post-injury recovery of fine motor functions such as using two fingers to pick up food. e. relaying information from cortex to spinal cord via the reticulospinal neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Motor Control Centers in the Brainstem: Upper Motor Neurons That Maintain Balance, Govern Posture, Initiate Locomotion, and Orient Gaze Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which is not a function of the reticular formation? a. Modulation of cortical functions via serotonergic, noradrenergic, and cholinergic transmitter systems

b. Modulation of cortico-striatal interactions c. Descending modulation of spinal reflexes d. Coordination of gaze centers and branchiomotor functions e. Transmission of spinal nociceptive and tactile sensory signals to the cerebellum Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 17C: The Reticular Formation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which statement about the reticular activating system is true? a. Its only essential role is the multimodal integration of sensory information. b. It plays a direct role in the activation of all somatic motor neurons. c. It plays a direct role in the activation of all visceral motor neurons. d. It supports transitions between sleep and wakefulness. e. It plays a direct role in the suppression of all somatic motor neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 17C: The Reticular Formation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. The acute phase of upper motor neuron syndrome is characterized by a. the passive dropping of an affected limb that has been elevated and then released. b. the tendency of an affected limb to remain in any position in which it has been placed. c. an infant-like Babinski response. d. spasticity. e. random waves of muscle contraction that propagate throughout the affected limb and body parts.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which statement about the Babinski sign (or reflex) is false? a. It involves the corticospinal tract. b. The reflex changes between infancy and later development. c. It is considered an upper motor neuron deficit. d. It concerns normal versus abnormal flexion of the fingers. e. It can be affected by stroke, trauma, and other neurological problems.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. A patient is diagnosed with a tumor located in the right internal capsule. Which motor dysfunction would you expect to see in this patient? a. Left side paralysis (or severe weakness) of the lower face b. Right side paralysis (or severe weakness) of the lower face c. Left side paralysis (or severe weakness) of the full face

d. Right side paralysis (or severe weakness) of the full face e. Left side paralysis (or severe weakness) of the upper face Answer: a Textbook Reference: Damage to Descending Motor Pathways: The Upper Motor Neuron Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. Although the phenomenon is not well understood, the increased muscle tone and spasticity that develop after an upper motor neuron injury appears to be due, at least in part, to a. increased responsiveness of motor neurons to Ia afferent inputs. b. decreased responsiveness of motor neurons to Ia afferent inputs. c. pooling of GABA in the spinal gray matter. d. pooling of glutamate in the spinal gray matter. e. increased activity of undamaged descending upper motor neurons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 17D: Muscle Tone Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 18: Modulation of Movement by the Basal Ganglia Multiple Choice 1. Which nuclei comprise the striatum? a. Globus pallidus and caudate b. Putamen and pallidum c. Caudate and substantia nigra pars compacta d. Putamen and caudate e. Pallidum and substantia nigra pars compacta Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Where are medium spiny neurons located? a. Striatum b. Pallidum c. Globus pallidus d. Substantia nigra pars compacta e. Subthalamic nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Output from the basal ganglia projects from which structures? a. Globus pallidus and caudate b. Putamen and pallidum c. Globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata d. Putamen and caudate e. Pallidum and substantia nigra pars compacta Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which regions of the cerebral cortex project directly to the striatum? a. Association areas of the frontal and parietal lobes b. Temporal lobe c. Insular cortex d. Cingulate cortex e. Nearly all regions of the cerebral cortex

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Refer to the figure.

Which region of the basal ganglia is indicated by the asterisk? a. Striatum b. Pallidum c. Globus pallidus d. Substantia nigra pars compacta e. Subthalamic nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. What evidence suggests that medium spiny neurons are associated with a decision to move? a. Cortical areas concerned with the hand converge in a different striatum area than cortical areas concerned with the leg. b. Neurons in the putamen and caudate discharge seconds before the initiation of movement. c. The more extensively interconnected the area of cortex, the greater the overlap in their projections to the striatum. d. Staining of the striatum reveals patches surrounded by matrix. e. Input and output into the different components of the striatum is unique.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Which neurons do not directly synapse on the striatum? a. Cortical neurons b. Local circuit neurons

c. α motor neurons d. Thalamic neurons e. Dopaminergic neurons from the brainstem Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Dopaminergic neurons that synapse on medium spiny neurons originate from which brain region? a. Substantia nigra pars reticulata b. Pallidum c. Globus pallidus d. Substantia nigra pars compacta e. Subthalamic nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. The transmitter for the medium spiny neurons of the striatum is a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. dopamine. d. serotonin, e. norepinephrine.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. There is a high degree of convergence from the medium spiny neurons to the neurons of the _______ and _______. a. caudate; putamen b. globus pallidus; substantia nigra pars compacta c. caudate; substantia nigra pars reticulata d. globus pallidus; substantia nigra pars reticulata e. putamen; substantia nigra pars compacta Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Efferent neurons from the globus pallidus that influence the activity of the motor areas of the cortex arise from the _______ segment and relay in the _______ before reaching the cortex. a. internal; VA/VL thalamic nuclei b. external; VA/VL thalamic nuclei c. internal; substantia nigra pars compacta d. external; substantia nigra pars compacta e. internal; substantia nigra pars reticulata

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Excitation of the motor cortex is associated with excitation in which other brain region? a. Striatum b. Pallidum c. Globus pallidus d. Substantia nigra pars reticulata e. VA/VL complex of thalamus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. A researcher injects a GABA antagonist into the globus pallidus and then stimulates the striatum. What are the expected changes in the downstream response? a. Increased activation of the globus pallidus and increased excitation of the motor cortex b. Decreased activation of the globus pallidus and increased excitation of the motor cortex c. Increased activation of the globus pallidus and decreased excitation of the VA/VL complex of the thalamus d. Increased activation of the globus pallidus and increased excitation of the VA/VL complex of the thalamus e. Decreased activation of the globus pallidus and decreased excitation of the motor cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Substania nigra pars reticulata axons project to _______; the globus pallidus axons do not project to this region. a. substantia nigra pars compacta. b. superior colliculus. c. thalamus. d. caudate. e. cerebral cortex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. The external segment of the globus pallidus projects to the internal segment and the _______ in the _______ pathway. a. subthalamic nucleus; direct b. caudate; direct c. subthalamic nucleus; indirect d. caudate; indirect e. VA/VL complex of the thalamus; indirect Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Subthalamic nucleus neurons that project to the internal segment of the globus pallidus release which transmitter? a. Glutamate b. GABA c. Dopamine d. Serotonin e. Norepinephrine Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Increased activity from the _______ to the subthalamic nucleus increases the _______ input to the VA/VL complex of the thalamus. a. cerebral cortex; excitatory b. internal segment; inhibitory c. external segment; excitatory d. cerebral cortex; inhibitory e. internal segment; excitatory Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. D1 and D2 receptors are _______, with D1 receptors _______ cAMP and D2 receptors _______ cAMP. a. metabotropic; decreasing; increasing b. metabotropic; increasing; decreasing c. metabotropic; increasing; maintaining d. ionotropic; decreasing; increasing e. ionotropic; increasing; decreasing Answer: b Textbook Reference: Dopamine Modulates Basal Ganglia Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which evidence suggests that dopaminergic input to the striatum may contribute to rewardrelated modulation of behavior? a. Shortly before the onset of a saccade, medium spiny neurons drastically reduce the firing of reticulata neurons. b. Reward-based behavior is eliminated by caudate injections of D2 receptor antagonists. c. Optogenetic methods that selectively activate the direct pathway show that monkeys prefer sucrose water over plain water. d. Dopaminergic synapses on medium spiny neurons are on the shaft of spines that receive input from the cerebral cortex. e. In monkeys, latencies of saccades toward a target are shorter when associated with a larger

reward.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Dopamine Modulates Basal Ganglia Circuits Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. A scientist creates a D1 receptor knockout mouse. How would this effect the functioning of the basal ganglia? a. Cerebral cortex input to spiny neurons would not be enhanced. b. There would be decreased input from the substantia nigra pars compacta onto the striatum. c. The indirect pathway would be eliminated. d. cAMP would only be increased due to substantia nigra pars compacta input. e. Reward-based behavior would be reduced.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Dopamine Modulates Basal Ganglia Circuits Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 21. While visiting a distant uncle, you notice that his face seems “mask-like” and that he keeps calling you and your sister by your mother’s name. He shuffles when he walks, and his shoulders are stooped. Based on these symptoms, which condition would you suspect that your uncle had? a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Multiple sclerosis e. Muscular dystrophy Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Refer to the figure.

The midbrain on the left shows evidence of which disease/disorder? a. Down syndrome b. Huntington’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease d. Alzheimer’s disease e. Traumatic brain injury Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. In Parkinson’s disease, dopaminergic input from the _______ decreases. a. striatum b. subthalamic nucleus c. internal globus pallidus d. substantia nigra pars compacta e. VA/VL complex of the thalamus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. People suffering from Parkinson’s disease have increased _______ of the VA/VL complex of the thalamus, leading to decreased excitation of the _______. a. inhibition; frontal cortex b. inhibition; subthalamic nucleus c. inhibition; internal globus pallidus d. excitation; frontal cortex e. excitation; subthalamic nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. Which region is one of the most common targets for deep brain stimulation? a. Frontal cortex b. Subthalamic nucleus c. Caudate d. Substantia nigra pars compacta e. VA/VL complex of the thalamus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Deep Brain Stimulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Your 48-year-old cousin’s mood seems to be increasingly irritable and impulsive the last few years. You also notice that his left arm seems to move a lot more than his right. It seems that your cousin tries to cover up this extra movement by incorporating it into seemingly intentional movements. When you discuss this with your mother, she recalls that her aunt had similar behaviors. Which condition would you expect that your cousin has? a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease

d. Hemiballismus e. Muscular dystrophy Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. Huntington’s disease is characterized by degeneration of neurons that project to the _______. a. striatum b. subthalamic nucleus c. external globus pallidus d. substantia nigra pars compacta e. VA/VL complex of thalamus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. People suffering from Huntington’s disease have _______ inhibition of the VA/VL complex of the thalamus, leading to increased excitation of the _______. a. decreased; frontal cortex b. decreased; subthalamic nucleus c. decreased; internal globus pallidus d. increased; frontal cortex e. increased; subthalamic nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 29. Damage to the subthalamic nucleus results in which condition? a. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Hemiballismus e. Muscular dystrophy Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Summarize the role of the basal ganglia in movement.

Answer: The basal ganglia link most areas of the cerebral cortex with upper motor neurons in the primary motor and premotor cortices and the brainstem via a subcortical loop. This loop modulates the beginning and ending of movement sequences, and their influence is required for the functional regulation of voluntary movements.

Textbook Reference: Overview

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Which structures are the major components of the basal ganglia? List the primary receiving and output areas of the basal ganglia.

Answer: The major components of the basal ganglia are the striatum, which includes the caudate and the putamen, and the pallidum, which includes the globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata. The basal ganglia receive input at the striatum. The pallidum receives input from the medium spiny neurons of the striatum and is known as the output area, due to its projections to other parts of the brain.

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Define and describe the corpus striatum.

Answer: The corpus striatum is a historical term, meaning “striped body,” collectively referring to the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus. Historically, the globus pallidus was grouped with the caudate and putamen; however, research studies have discovered neurochemical, anatomical, and physiological distinctions between the pallidum and what is now known as the striatum (caudate and putamen nuclei).

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. What is the largest source of neural input to the basal ganglia?

Answer: The largest neural input to the basal ganglia comes from the cerebral cortex. Nearly all regions project to the striatum via the corticostriatal pathway.

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Would putamen neurons fire as a person is reaching for a doughnut, or in anticipation of the reach? Would the firing correspond with the position of the doughnut or with the starting position of the arm? What does this suggest about the role of the putamen?

Answer: Neurons of the putamen would fire in anticipation of the reach. This firing would correspond to the position of the doughnut rather than the position of the arm. This indicates that the putamen is important for encoding the decision to move toward a goal rather than the actual movement itself.

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What is disinhibition? Briefly describe how inhibition and disinhibition operate in the control of saccades.

Answer: Disinhibition occurs when an inhibitory input synapses on a center that has an inhibitory output. By inhibiting an inhibitor, the downstream targets are released from inhibition, or disinhibited. In a saccade, the cortex signals to the medium spiny neurons of the caudate. These spiny neurons release GABA, an inhibitory transmitter, onto the substantia nigra pars reticulata.

The inhibitory center is now disinhibited, and the superior colliculus can generate action potentials to command a saccade.

Textbook Reference: Evidence from Studies of Eye Movements

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. In Parkinson’s disease, which neurons degenerate? Explain the hypokinetic symptoms of this disease in terms of the circuitry of the basal ganglia.

Answer: Dopaminergic neurons from the substantia nigra degenerate in Parkinson’s disease. The decreased dopamine release onto the caudate and putamen decreases their inhibitory output.

Thus, the globus pallidus has a stronger inhibitory effect on the VA/VL complex of the thalamus, and the frontal cortex receives decreased input.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Deep Brain Stimulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What types of treatments have been used to alleviate Parkinson’s symptoms?

Answer: One treatment includes deep brain stimulation to the internal segment of the globus pallidus and the subthalamic nucleus. Other therapies include gene therapy, stem cell grafts, and pharmaceuticals, like Levodopa, to increase dopamine in the basal ganglia.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Deep Brain Stimulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. In Huntington’s disease, which neurons degenerate? Explain, in terms of basal ganglia circuitry, how this would lead to hyperkinetic symptoms.

Answer: The medium spiny neurons in the basal ganglia that project to the external segment of the globus pallidus degenerate in Huntington’s disease. Loss of these neurons results in reduced inhibitory input from the striatum to the external globus pallidus, allowing the external segment to increase its inhibitory output to the subthalamic nucleus, reducing output of the subthalamic nucleus to the internal segment of the globus pallidus. This decreases the inhibitory output from the internal segment of the globus pallidus, leading to increased excitation from the VA/VL complex of the thalamus to the frontal cortex. This increased excitation of the frontal cortex leads to the increased involuntary movements that are characteristic of Huntington’s disease.

Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Parallel loops involving the basal ganglia each handle information from different cortical areas. Diagram the motor loop, indicating whether each of the pathways is excitatory or inhibitory. What are the other loops involving the basal ganglia?

Answer:

Other non-motor loops that use the basal ganglia include the dorsolateral prefrontal loop and the limbic loop.

Textbook Reference: Box 18B: Basal Ganglia Loops and Non-Motor Brain Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. The primary input to the striatum is from a. the globus pallidus. b. cerebral cortex. c. cerebellar cortex. d. the thalamus. e. the reticular formation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement about the basal ganglia is false? a. The basal ganglia include the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus. b. The striatum includes the caudate and putamen. c. The pallidum includes the globus pallidus and the substantia nigra pars reticulata. d. The striatum receives the bulk of the inputs to the basal ganglia. e. The major outputs of the basal ganglia are from the putamen.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

3. The axons transmitting cortical signals to the basal ganglia a. arise from cortical patches that that project exclusively to the basal ganglia. b. arise almost entirely from axons of the corticothalamic tract. c. arise almost entirely from axons of the corticospinal tract. d. are extremely fine fibers that arise mainly from corticocortical projections. e. carry information whose nature is poorly understood.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections to the Basal Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. One of the outputs of the basal ganglia, the substantia nigra pars reticulata, is most similar in its function to the a. thalamus. b. caudate. c. putamen d. globus pallidus. e. substantia nigra pars compacta.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which statement about the medium spiny neurons in the caudate and putamen is false? a. They are GABAergic. b. They receive input from dopaminergic neurons. c. They are the major output of the striatum. d. They outnumber their target neurons in the globus pallidus by about a factor of 1,000. e. Each one densely innervates 100 to 200 pallidal neurons.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Listed below are the events that occur during basal ganglia functioning.

1. Disinhibition of ventral anterior and ventral lateral thalamic nuclei 2. Inhibition of globus pallidus 3. Excitation of caudate and putamen Which of the following is the correct sequence of these events? a. 1; 2; 3 b. 3; 2; 1 c. 1; 3; 2 d. 3; 1; 2 e. 2; 3; 1 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections from the Basal Ganglia to Other Brain Regions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. The substantia nigra pars reticulata projects to the

a. inferior colliculus. b. superior colliculus. c. ventral anterior and ventral lateral thalamus. d. corpus striatum. e. substantia nigra pars compacta.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evidence from Studies of Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Focal application of a GABA receptor agonist within the substantia nigra pars reticulata would most likely a. result in symptoms of Parkinson’s disease such as those induced by MPTP. b. lead to degeneration of the globus pallidus. c. produce a temporary thought disorder. d. result in abnormal limb movements. e. result in involuntary saccadic eye movements.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Evidence from Studies of Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Which statement about the subthalamic nucleus is true? a. It receives input from the globus pallidus external segment. b. It receives input from the globus pallidus internal segment. c. It receives input from the substantia nigra pars compacta. d. Its main output is to the substantia nigra pars compacta. e. It is the main source of dopaminergic input to the putamen.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. The basal ganglia are thought to elicit movement via a. direct excitation of the primary motor cortex. b. direct excitation of the premotor cortex. c. disinhibition of thalamic neurons (VA/VL). d. direct excitation of thalamic neurons (VA/VL). e. excitatory projections from the subthalamic nucleus to higher-order association areas of cortex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. The basal ganglia’s ability to evoke one specific movement pattern out of an almost endless variety of possible movement patterns is best ascribed to which neural coding strategy? a. Feedforward coding b. Feedback coding c. Center-surround style decision making

d. Coarse premotor coding e. Rebound excitation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Dopamine is released into the striatum from the substantia nigra pars compacta. Which neural response would you expect to see? a. Activation of the frontal cortex by activating the direct pathway and inhibiting the indirect pathway b. Inhibition of the frontal cortex by activating the direct pathway and inhibiting the indirect pathway c. Activation of the frontal cortex by inhibiting the direct pathway and inhibiting the indirect pathway d. Inhibition of the frontal cortex by inhibiting the direct pathway and activating the indirect pathway e. Activation of the frontal cortex by inhibiting the direct pathway and activating the indirect pathway Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Basal Ganglia System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Which statement about the dopaminergic system associated with the basal ganglia is false? a. The primary set of dopamine cells is located in the substantia nigra pars compacta. b. The dopamine cells receive major input from medium spiny neurons. c. The dopamine cells project to both segments of the globus pallidus. d. Dopamine exerts excitatory and inhibitory effects on the corpus striatum. e. Dopamine D1 and D2 receptors are both G-protein-coupled receptors.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Dopamine Modulates Basal Ganglia Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. In monkeys, a decreased latency of saccadic eye movements toward a target object is associated with a. a higher spontaneous firing rate of neurons in the globus pallidus. b. faster conduction of action potentials through the corpus striatum. c. ablation of the substantia nigra pars reticulata. d. ablation of the substantia nigra pars compacta. e. the size of the reward received for completing the movement.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Dopamine Modulates Basal Ganglia Circuits Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Parkinson’s disease is associated with loss of a. dopamine neurons that project to the striatum, leading to a hypokinetic disorder.

b. glutamatergic neurons in the thalamus that project to the motor cortex, leading to a hypokinetic disorder. c. dopamine neurons in the subthalamic nuclei, leading to a hyperkinetic disorder. d. input from the cerebral cortex to the striatum, leading to a hyperkinetic disorder. e. dopamine neurons in the caudate, leading to a hypokinetic disorder.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. MPTP is a compound that a. is given to rats to cure paralysis. b. destroys the substantia nigra of monkeys (and humans). c. destroys the cerebellum of monkeys (and humans). d. is used to treat Parkinson’s disease. e. fluorescently labels dopaminergic neurons to enhance their visualization.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hypokinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. In deep brain stimulation for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, a. a miniature battery and slender microelectrode array are implanted in the basal ganglia. b. stimulation is directed to the substantia nigra because excitation of this region directly elicits complex motor programs. c. the electrodes are implanted “blind,” using only stereological landmarks. d. stimulation parameters such as pulse width, current amplitudes, and pattern are determined by trial and error. e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Deep Brain Stimulation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Deep brain stimulation is a potential treatment for advanced Parkinson’s disease. Where might a neurosurgeon implant an electrode when using this technique? a. Motor cortex b. Subthalamic nucleus c. Premotor cortex d. Striatum e. Substantia nigra Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Deep Brain Stimulation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Which statement regarding Huntington’s disease is false? a. It involves atrophy of the striatum (caudate and putamen). b. It is attributed to a genetic defect in the huntingtin gene.

c. It results in involuntary, choreiform motor acts. d. It is attributable to excessive nucleotide repeats in the responsible gene. e. Recent genetic findings have led to successful gene therapy treatment and a cure.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Hyperkinetic Movement Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. In addition to their traditional motor program selection and implementation functions, the basal ganglia are also thought to be involved in a. drug-seeking behaviors. b. mood changes. c. initiation and termination of thought patterns related to planning and attention. d. disorders such as Tourette’s syndrome and schizophrenia. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 18B: Basal Ganglia Loops and Non-Motor Brain Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 19: Modulation of Movement by the Cerebellum Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is a major function of the cerebellum? a. Alter local circuits of the brainstem and spinal cord via direct projections to the lower motor neurons b. Analyze errors between intended motor output and actual motor output c. Modulate the output of the basal ganglia d. Relay information from the primary somatosensory cortex to the primary motor cortex e. Modulate and relay executive decision-making information from the prefrontal cortex to the rest of the cerebral cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which cerebellar structure is correctly paired with its function? a. Cerebrocerebellum—vestibulo-ocular reflex b. Spinocerebellum—speech c. Vestibulocerebellum—posture d. Vermis—movement of distal muscles e. Folia—highly skilled movement Answer: c Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Damage to the midline of the cerebellar cortex would lead to dysfunction in what type of motor output? a. Eye movement b. Finger movement c. Lower extremity movement d. Mouth movement e. Upper extremity movement Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which structure relays input between the cortex and the cerebellum? a. Thalamus

b. Superior colliculus c. Dentate nucleus d. Pontine nucleus e. Subthalamic nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which structure is responsible for input only to the cerebellum? a. Inferior cerebellar peduncle b. Middle cerebellar peduncle c. Superior cerebellar peduncle d. Vestibular nuclei e. Spinal cord Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Fibers from which structure(s) cross the midline prior to synapsing in the cerebellum? a. Dorsal nucleus of Clarke b. External cuneate nucleus c. Vestibular nuclei d. Red nucleus e. Pontine nuclei Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Damage to which structure would lead to dysfunction in cerebellar learning and memory functions? a. Nodulus b. Flocculus c. Inferior olive d. Vestibular nucleus e. Vermis Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. The primary motor cortex processes information for muscles on the _______ side of the body; the cerebellum processes information for muscles on _______ side(s) of the body. a. contralateral; the contralateral b. ipsilateral; the ipsilateral c. contralateral; both d. ipsilateral; the contralateral e. contralateral; the ipsilateral

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. When the right cerebellum is damaged, which cortical region loses input (either directly or indirectly)? a. Right thalamus b. Left spinal cord c. Left reticular formation d. Left motor cortex e. Right premotor cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What is the role of the red nucleus? a. It sends vestibular information to the cerebellar cortex. b. It relays cerebellar output to the thalamus. c. It modulates cerebellar output prior to synapsing on the dorsal nucleus of Clarke. d. It modulates thalamic input to the cerebrocerebellum. e. It provides cerebellar output feedback to the inferior olive.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which cerebellar output is correctly paired with its function? a. Cerebrocerebellum—motor execution b. Spinocerebellum—balance c. Spinocerebellum—motor execution d. Vestibulocerebellum—motor planning e. Cerebrocerebellum—vestibulo-ocular regulation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Damage to which pathway would affect voluntary movement of the limbs? a. Interposed nuclei output to the thalamus via the superior cerebellar peduncle b. Fastigial nuclei output to the reticular formation via the inferior cerebellar peduncle c. Dentate nuclei output to the superior colliculus via the middle cerebellar peduncle d. Interposed nuclei output to the vestibular nuclei via the inferior cerebellar peduncle e. Fastigial nuclei output to the thalamus via the middle cerebellar peduncle Answer: a Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. What cell type does not have direct contact with Purkinje cells?

a. Granule cells b. Climbing fibers c. Mossy fibers d. Deep cerebellar nuclear cells e. Basket cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which of the following is a characteristic of Purkinje cells that allows for the high level of convergence and divergence from the granule cells? a. Cell body located in the Purkinje cell layer b. An elaborate dendritic tree that extends in parallel with the parallel fibers c. Receiving of numerous synaptic contacts from climbing fibers d. Providing numerous synaptic contacts to deep cerebellar nuclear cells e. An elaborate dendritic tree that extends perpendicularly to the parallel fibers Answer: e Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which type of cell provides the only output from the cerebellar cortex? a. Granular cells b. Mossy fibers c. Purkinje cells d. Climbing fibers e. Deep cerebellar nuclear cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which synapses have the strongest excitatory connection? a. Climbing fibers synapsing on Purkinje cells b. Mossy fibers synapsing on granule cells c. Basket cells synapsing on Purkinje cells d. Purkinje cells synapsing on deep cerebellar nuclei cells e. Deep cerebellar nuclei cells synapsing on climbing fibers Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Selectively inhibiting gap junction channels would directly alter the activity in which region? a. Superior colliculus b. Inferior olive c. Spinocerebellum d. Flocculus e. Dentate nucleus

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. What role do climbing fibers play in the cerebellum? a. They lead to long-term depression, which reduces the strength of parallel fiber synapses. b. They lead to long-term potentiation, which increases the strength of parallel fiber synapses. c. They inhibit mossy fibers. d. They disinhibit granule cells. e. They inhibit Purkinje cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. What is the functional result of long-term depression in the cerebellum? a. A stronger neuronal response of the deep excitatory loop b. A stronger neuronal response of the cortical inhibitory loop c. A weaker neuronal response of the deep excitatory loop d. A stronger neuronal response of the deep inhibitory loop e. A weaker neuronal response of the cortical excitatory loop Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which synaptic connection would be most affected by the presence of a GABA antagonist in the cerebellum? a. Mossy fiber input onto deep cerebellar nuclear cells b. Parallel fiber input onto Purkinje cells c. Climbing fiber input onto Purkinje cells d. Mossy fiber input onto granule cells e. Purkinje cell input onto deep cerebellar nuclear cells Answer: e Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. A patient is having trouble with long-term motor learning. The results of an MRI scan indicate the presence of a small tumor. Where is the tumor most likely located? a. Thalamus b. Primary motor cortex c. Superior colliculus d. Dorsal nucleus of Clarke e. Inferior olive Answer: e Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

22. While studying Purkinje neurons, you measure sustained long-term potentiation in a Purkinje neuron following stimulation of climbing fibers. What other characteristic would you expect this neuron to show? a. High basal rates of simple spike activity b. No expression of zebrin II c. Low basal rates of complex spike activity d. Expression of zebrin II e. Expression of GABAB receptors Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. Which statement describes the pattern of activity in Purkinje and deep cerebellar nuclear cells during course of a movement? a. Neither cell type fires at rest; activity only increases during movement. b. Both cell types are tonically active, and activity can increase or decrease during movement. c. Both cell types fire at maximum rate at rest, and activity only decreases during movement. d. Purkinje cells do not fire at rest, and activity only increases during movement, but deep cerebellar nuclear cells are tonically active, and activity can increase or decrease during movement. e. Purkinje cells are tonically active, and activity can increase or decrease during movement, but deep cerebellar nuclear cells do not fire at rest, and activity only increases during movement.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cerebellar Circuitry and the Coordination of Ongoing Movement Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. A 50-year old patient begins to have trouble making smooth, coordinated movements. His medical history reveals that his mother, maternal aunt, and maternal grandfather all exhibited similar symptoms in middle age. What is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms? a. A tumor in the vestibulocerebellum b. A blood clot in the vessels supplying the middle cerebellar peduncle c. A dominant mutation in the PrP gene d. A recessive mutation in the acetylcholinesterase gene e. A loss of dopamine neurons in the cerebrocerebellum Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Prion Diseases Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. A patient with left cerebellar damage would most likely exhibit which symptom? a. Jerky, imprecise movements on the left side of the body b. The inability to stop a movement (hyperkinetic) on the left side of the body c. Jerky, imprecise movements on the right side of the body d. The inability to stop a movement (hyperkinetic) on the right side of the body e. Jerky, imprecise movements on both sides of the body Answer: a Textbook Reference: Further Consequences of Cerebellar Lesions

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 26. Long term alcohol abuse can lead to a wide and staggering gait due to damage in the a. posterior vestibulocerebellum. b. anterior spinocerebellum. c. lateral cerebrocerebellum. d. thalamus. e. flocculus.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Further Consequences of Cerebellar Lesions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. Nystagmus can result from damage to which structure? a. Vermis b. Dentate nucleus c. Vestibulocerebellum d. Middle cerebellar peduncle e. Cerebrocerebellum Answer: c Textbook Reference: Further Consequences of Cerebellar Lesions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 28. Disruption of the cerebellar circuity early in life has been associated with what other neurological disorder? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Huntington’s disease c. Paralysis d. Autism e. Alzheimer’s disease Answer: d Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering Textbook Reference: Box 19A: Genetic Analysis of Cerebellar Function

Short Answer 1. Name the three cerebellar peduncles. Which contain cerebellar afferents, and which contain efferents?

Answer: Superior cerebellar peduncle: mostly efferent fibers Middle cerebellar peduncle: afferent fibers Inferior cerebellar peduncle: both afferent and efferent fibers Textbook Reference: Organization of the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. What is the largest source of input to the cerebellum?

Answer: The cerebral cortex Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. What is meant by “fractured” somatotopy in the cerebellar cortex?

Answer: Each region of the body is represented multiple times in the cerebellum, in cell clusters.

This differs from the single continuous map that of the primary somatosensory cortex.

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. What types of sensory information do you think the cerebellum might require in order to compare intended movements with actual movements? How does the cerebellum receive its sensory input?

Answer: Sensory information the cerebellum requires for this task includes vestibular, proprioceptive, visual, and auditory information. Vestibular axons arise from the eighth cranial nerve and vestibular nuclei in the pons and medulla. Proprioceptive inputs arise from the dorsal nucleus of Clarke, external cuneate nucleus, and mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus. Other sensory information is relayed via brainstem nuclei.

Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What are the functional differences between the cerebrocerebellum, vestibulocerebellum, and spinocerebellum?

Answer: The cerebrocerebellum plays an important role in planning motor movements and executing highly skilled movements, like speech. The spinocerebellum is concerned with general motor execution The vestibulocerebellum is primarily responsible for posture and the vestibuloocular reflex.

Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Neither the cerebellum nor the basal ganglia project directly to the spinal cord. How then does their activity influence motor neurons? Briefly compare their roles.

Answer: Output from the cerebellum and basal ganglia relays through the thalamus before projecting to the primary motor cortex, so both regions have their effects by modulating activity in upper motor neuron circuits. The basal ganglia are important for the initiation and termination of movement, while the cerebellum is responsible for smoothing movement while it is occurring.

Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Diagram the basic circuit of the cerebellum, showing a Purkinje cell, granule cell, parallel fiber, mossy fiber, climbing fiber, and a neuron in a deep cerebellar nucleus. Label the three layers of the cerebellar cortex.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. What type of neurons carry the output of the cerebellar cortex? Is it true that all of the output of the cerebellar cortex is inhibitory? Do you think this is inconsistent with the complex tasks of the cerebellum?

Answer: The GABAergic Purkinje cells provide the output of the cerebellar cortex, so all output is inhibitory. Yes, the inhibitory Purkinje output to the deep cerebellar nuclei cells modulates the excitatory input the deep cerebellar nuclei cells receive from the mossy and climbing fibers, allowing for error correction of motor output and motor learning, a critical function of the cerebellum.

Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. What does cerebellar ataxia reveal about normal functioning of the cerebellum?

Answer: Cerebellar ataxia is the absence of smooth, coordinated motor output. Location of motor output dysfunction depends on location of cerebellar damage, but the overall symptom of jerky, imprecise movements indicates that the cerebellum plays an important role in error correction of muscle movement.

Textbook Reference: Cerebellar Circuitry and the Coordination of Ongoing Movement Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. What is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD) and what causes it?

Answer: CJD is a rare, neurological disorder characterized by problems with motor coordination, dementia, and seizures. It is a prion disease, caused by a mutation (either spontaneous or inherited) in the gene for prion protein (PrP).

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Prion Diseases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which part of the cerebellum is highly developed in humans and involved with the planning and execution of complex spatial and temporal sequences? a. Cerebrocerebellum b. Spinocerebellum c. Vestibulocerebellum d. Flocculus e. Nodulus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which part of the cerebellum receives input directly from the spinal cord? a. Cerebrocerebellum b. Spinocerebellum c. Vestibulocerebellum d. Flocculus e. Nodulus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organization of the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. The cell bodies that give rise to the largest number of fibers entering the cerebellum are located in the a. cerebral cortex. b. cerebellar cortex. c. pons. d. medulla. e. superior colliculus.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. The large size of the cerebral peduncles in the midbrain is related to cerebellar inputs a. arriving through the superior cerebellar peduncles. b. arriving through the middle cerebellar peduncles. c. arriving through the inferior cerebellar peduncles. d. projecting to the vermis. e. projecting to the vestibulocerebellum.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Projections to the Cerebellum

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Which structure does not receive input from the cerebellar cortex? a. Dentate nucleus b. Interposed nucleus c. Fastigial nucleus d. Red nucleus e. Vestibular nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Which structure plays the largest role in cerebellar-cortical “closed loop” circuits? a. Dentate nucleus b. Interposed nucleus c. Fastigial nucleus d. Peduncular nucleus e. Accessory dorsal column nuclei Answer: a Textbook Reference: Projections from the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which cell type carries the main output from the cerebellar cortex and is considered the prime computational element of the cerebellum? a. Purkinje b. Granule c. Golgi d. Basket e. Stellate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. The axons from the pontine nuclei into the cerebellum are referred to as _______ fibers. a. parallel b. basket c. mossy d. stellate e. climbing Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Which is thought to be the role of the climbing fiber input to the cerebellar cortex? a. Summation of motor errors from different sources b. Provision of a difference error between two sources

c. Making fast online adjustments of ongoing motor patterns d. Gradual correction of motor errors over many trials e. Provision of a training signal for the parallel fiber synapses onto Purkinje cells Answer: e Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Mossy fibers synapse on a. Purkinje cells and deep cerebellar nuclei. b. Purkinje cells and granule cells. c. granule cells and deep cerebellar nuclei. d. deep cerebellar and pontine nuclei. e. Golgi, basket, and stellate cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. The _______ make an “inhibitory nest of synapses” with the Purkinje cell bodies. a. granule cells b. climbing fibers c. deep cerebellar nuclear cells d. basket cells e. mossy fibers Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which statement about cerebellar Purkinje cells is false? a. A Purkinje cell’s dendritic field branches in a narrow plane. b. A Purkinje cell’s dendritic field is oriented parallel to the parallel fibers. c. A Purkinje cell is contacted by roughly 200,000 granule cells. d. Purkinje cells project to the deep cerebellar nuclei. e. Purkinje cells inhibit deep cerebellar nuclear cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. A patient is having trouble with short-term error correction in his motor behavior. His doctor suspects the patient has a tumor and orders an MRI scan. Where does the doctor expect to find a tumor? a. Vestibular nucleus b. Inferior olive c. Superior colliculus d. Dorsal nucleus of Clarke e. Pontine nucleus Answer: b

Textbook Reference: Circuits within the Cerebellum Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. During electrical recordings from cerebellar neurons, flipping the wrist back and forth a. elicits the firing of Purkinje cells and deep cerebellar neurons in alternation. b. leads to neuronal responses associated with relaxation or contraction of specific muscles and changes in joint position and movement direction. c. initiates a repeating sequence of activation, from granule cells, to Purkinje cells, to stellate cells, to deep cerebellar neurons. d. initiates a repeating sequence of activation, from Purkinje cells, to basket cells, to stellate cells, to deep cerebellar neurons. e. decreases firing patterns in deep cerebellar nuclei cells as long as the movement continues.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cerebellar Circuitry and the Coordination of Ongoing Movement Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Cerebellar ataxia is characterized by a. difficulty with initiating movements. b. an inability to perform goal-directed movements. c. an inability to perform complex sequences of movements. d. jerky, imprecise movements. e. difficulty with stopping movements.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cerebellar Circuitry and the Coordination of Ongoing Movement Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which statement about recalibration of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) is false? a. The VOR is precisely recalibrated with each eye movement so that perfect fixation can be maintained during head rotation. b. The cerebellum is involved in adjusting the VOR when eye movements do not properly compensate for head rotation. c. The cerebellum integrates visual information, vestibular information, and motor information when performing recalibration. d. In the absence of the cerebellum, the VOR cannot be recalibrated. e. All of the above statements are true.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cerebellar Circuitry and the Coordination of Ongoing Movement Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Which of the following did not lead to, nor help confirm, the theory that a proteinaceous agent or prion, and not a virus, causes such diseases as scrapie and “mad cow disease”? a. The occurrence of a scrapie-like disease among New Guinea cannibals b. The extreme sensitivity of the infectious agent to UV light c. Affinity chromatographic purification of the infectious agent, which lacks nucleic acids d. Inherited spongiform encephalopathies in humans e. Resistance in mice with a null mutation in PrPC (prion protein control)

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Prion Diseases Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Alcohol-induced damage to the vermis of the cerebellum has been associated with a. chronically slurred speech. b. word-finding difficulties. c. a wide and staggering gait. d. inability to perform fine movements of the hands and fingers. e. impaired judgment.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Further Consequences of Cerebellar Lesions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. In the weaver mutant strain of mouse, the defect associated with ataxia, hypotonia, and tremor is a. the disappearance of the cerebrocerebellum. b. a complete lack of Purkinje cells. c. a marked lack of granule cells. d. misplaced cells in cerebellar cortex due to an extracellular matrix deficit. e. a cerebellum shrunk to half its normal size, albeit with normal cellular architecture.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 19A: Genetic Analysis of Cerebellar Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which statement about the reeler mutation in mice is false? a. The name reeler was given based on the pattern of impaired locomotor abilities it produces. b. Because of induced genetic abnormalities, it was impossible to determine which chromosome contained the reeler mutation. c. A “synthetic” reeler mutation was discovered by chance after inserting DNA marker fragments into the mouse genome. d. The mutation appears to interfere with the extracellular matrix in the cerebellum. e. In reeler mice, the Purkinje, granule, and interneurons are found in incorrect locations in the cerebellum.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 19A: Genetic Analysis of Cerebellar Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 20: Eye Movements and Sensorimotor Integration Multiple Choice 1. What is the importance of the rapid eye movements (saccades) when examining an image? a. Information about the scene is collected during the saccades. b. The saccades align important aspects of the scene with the fovea. c. The saccades allow the eye to gather information in an organized manner, like that of a typewriter, so no detail is missed. d. The saccades align important aspects of the scene with non-foveal regions of the retina, so both rods and cones can be activated. e. The saccades result in completely random acquisition of information about the scene, from which the primary visual cortex “fills in” the missing information.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: What Eye Movements Accomplish Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Damage to the medial rectus muscle would lead to dysfunction in which motor response? a. Abduction of the eye b. Elevation of the eye c. Depression of the eye d. Adduction of the eye e. Intorsion of the eye Answer: d Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Which muscle is primarily responsible for abduction of the eye? a. Lateral rectus b. Medial rectus c. Inferior rectus d. Superior rectus e. Superior oblique Answer: a Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. How is cranial nerve IV different from other cranial or spinal motor nerves? a. It innervates muscles on the contralateral side of the body. b. It exits from the ventral aspect of the central nervous system.

c. It innervates more than one muscle. d. The cell bodies do not lie in a distinct nucleus. e. The axons descend down the brainstem and spinal cord before leaving the central nervous system.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Where are the lower motor neuron cell bodies that innervate the lateral rectus muscle located? a. Oculomotor nucleus b. Trochlear nucleus c. Abducens nucleus d. Cranial nerve III e. Cranial nerve IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. A drooping eyelid can be expected as result of damage to the _______ nerve. a. optic b. oculomotor c. trochlear d. trigeminal e. abducens Answer: b Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. What is the function of tiny saccades and drift during visual perception? a. To move the retinal stimulus to cones of different wavelengths to get full color perception b. To focus on the entirety of a scene c. To avoid focusing on retinal blood vessels d. To move the retinal stimulus away from the blind spot of the eye e. To change retinal stimulus during fixation, preventing retinal adaptation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 20A: The Perception of Stabilized Retinal Images Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. If fixation of an eye is controlled, such that the eye remains fixated at a single point on a projected image, a. features of the image become sharper. b. movement of the image becomes easier to detect. c. subtle changes in the image that would otherwise have been missed are now detectable. d. colors become more vivid. e. the image fades rapidly.

Answer: e

Textbook Reference: Box 20A: The Perception of Stabilized Retinal Images Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Refer to the figure.

A subject in an eye movement experiment is instructed to focus on a specific target. After the start of the scene, the target is moved. The target is moved again (solid red line in figure) 200 ms later. Which graph depicts the change in the subject’s eye position that the researchers would expect to see?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: c Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. The type of eye movement that is used to focus vision at different distances is called a. saccades. b. vergence. c. smooth pursuit. d. optokinetic. e. vestibulo-ocular.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

11. How do vergence movements differ from other eye movements? a. Vergence movements are voluntary eye movements. b. Vergence movements are reflexive eye movements. c. Vergence movements are significantly slower. d. Vergence movements are ballistic. e. In vergence movements, the eyes move in different directions.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. While driving, you quickly glance horizontally to the left without moving your head. During that eye movement, which neuronal response is most likely occurring? a. A decrease in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the left abducens nucleus and right oculomotor nucleus b. An increase in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the left abducens nucleus and right oculomotor nucleus c. An increase in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the right abducens nucleus and a decrease in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the left oculomotor nucleus d. An increase in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the right abducens nucleus and left oculomotor nucleus e. An increase in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the left abducens nucleus and a decrease in firing rate in lower motor neurons in the right oculomotor nucleus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. The right paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) innervates the a. right abducens nucleus directly and the left oculomotor nucleus indirectly. b. left abducens nucleus directly and the right oculomotor nucleus indirectly. c. right abducens nucleus indirectly and the left oculomotor nucleus directly. d. right abducens nucleus indirectly and the right oculomotor nucleus directly. e. right abducens nucleus directly and the left abducens nucleus indirectly.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Activation of the left paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) leads to which eye movements? a. Both eyes move up b. Both eyes move down c. Both eyes move to the right d. Both eyes move to the left e. Both eyes move toward the nose Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. The frontal eye fields influence horizontal eye movement by innervating the a. superior colliculus only. b. paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) only. c. oculomotor nuclei only. d. superior colliculus and the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF). e. oculomotor nuclei and the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF).

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Refer to the figure.

An experimental animal undergoes a surgical lesion and testing after recovery reveals that the animal has lost the ability to make saccades. Where is the lesion most likely located? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. In regulating lateral rectus muscle activity, abducens motor neurons fire a. tonically, but with the firing rate regulated up or down as position changes. b. only during changes in position. c. in bursts during all eye movements and then at lower firing rates at different holding positions. d. in bursts during medial eye movements and at somewhat lower firing rates during medial displacements. e. in bursts during lateral eye movements and at somewhat lower firing rates during lateral displacements.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Saccadic eye movements a. are initiated exclusively by the frontal eye fields. b. occur in random directions in response to stimulation from the superior colliculus. c. depend on topographic maps in the inferior colliculus and Brodmann’s area 17. d. are preceded by activity in the superior colliculus and the frontal eye fields. e. are mediated exclusively by the oculomotor nerve.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Damage to the medial longitudinal fasciculus would affect communication between the a. right abducens nucleus and the left oculomotor nucleus. b. left oculomotor nucleus and the left medial rectus muscle. c. right paramedian pontine reticular formation and the right abducens nucleus. d. left paramedian pontine reticular formation and the right trochlear nucleus. e. left abducens nucleus and the left lateral rectus muscle.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. How are the upper motor neurons in the superior colliculus organized? a. As a map of visual space b. As a map of auditory space c. As a map of somatotopic representation of the body d. As a topographical map of eye movement vectors e. As neurons clustered together based on which eye muscles are directly innervated Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. David Sparks’ work on saccadic eye movements in monkeys showed that

a. stimulation of the superior colliculus in monkeys produces the exact same responses as stimulation of the superior colliculus in humans. b. greater and greater electrical currents are required to enable monkeys to look repeatedly toward a specific location. c. deviating a monkey’s eye position causes the monkey to miss a cued visual target by the amount of the deviation. d. a monkey whose eye position has been deviated will compensate for the induced shift and bring its foveae into alignment with the cued target. e. the stimulation of different cells within a small region of the superior colliculus produces strikingly diverse eye movements in terms of distance and direction.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. A patient is asked to perform a sequence of eye movements without moving his head. He successfully looks to the right, but when asked to look forward or to the left, only the right eye moves in the correct direction. The left eye remains looking toward the left, and the patient complains of diplopia. The patient most likely has neurological damage to which nerve? a. Left oculomotor nerve b. Right oculomotor nerve c. Left abducens nerve d. Right abducens nerve e. Right trochlear nerve Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Eye Movements and Neurological Injury, Disease, and Disorder Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. Which cognitive disorder is correctly paired with its eye movement dysfunction? a. Parkinson’s disease—lack of anti-saccade b. Huntington’s disease—impairment in smooth pursuit movements c. Alzheimer’s disease—inability to initiate voluntary saccades d. Parkinson’s disease—hyperactive vestibulo-ocular reflex e. Schizophrenia—impairment in smooth pursuit movements Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Eye Movements and Neurological Injury, Disease, and Disorder Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 24. Which statement regarding neurons in the superior colliculus is most accurate? a. Visual information activates neurons in the deep layers of the superior colliculus. b. Visual neurons synapse on a large number of motor neurons, and one motor neuron is innervated by many visual neurons. c. Activation of visual neurons always results in activation of the corresponding motor neurons. d. Visual neurons respond to a specific region of visual space and synapse on motor neurons that move the eye to that same region.

e. All layers of the superior colliculus have a homunculus-like somatosensory map.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 20B: Sensorimotor Integration in the Superior Colliculus Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 25. Which evidence suggests that activation of visual neurons in the superior colliculus is neither necessary nor sufficient for eliciting saccades? a. Motor neurons in the superior colliculus are activated when new visual stimuli appear. b. Spontaneous saccades do not occur. c. Animals make a saccade when an object appears in their visual field. d. Electrical activation of a visual neuron in the superior colliculus causes action potentials in motor neurons. e. Animals can be trained to not make a saccade when new visual stimuli appear.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 20B: Sensorimotor Integration in the Superior Colliculus Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 26. Anterograde tracers are used to visualize downstream neural connections. If you were to inject an anterograde tracer into a site in the superior colliculus that was known to move the eye directly to the left, where would you expect to see labeled neurons (where would the superior colliculus innervate), according to the proposed models? a. The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) b. The rostral interstitial nucleus c. The paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF) and the rostral interstitial nucleus d. The frontal eye fields e. The trochlear nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 20C: From Place Codes to Rate Codes Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 27. An experimental animal undergoes a surgical lesion, and testing after recovery reveals that the animal has lost the ability to perform smooth pursuit movements. In which structure is the lesion most likely located? a. Superior colliculus b. Frontal eye fields c. Middle temporal area d. Striatum e. Rostral interstitial nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Smooth Pursuit Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. Damage to the dorsal visual stream in the parietal lobe would affect which type of eye movement? a. Optokinetic b. Smooth pursuit

c. Saccades d. Vergence e. Vestibulo-ocular Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Smooth Pursuit Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. Velocity of a vergence movement is coded by frequency of action potentials in neurons located in the a. superior colliculus. b. frontal eye fields. c. vergence centers in the brainstem. d. vestibular nuclei. e. trochlear nuclei.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Vergence Movements Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 30. Damage to the vergence centers in the brainstem would lead to dysfunction in all eye alterations except a. convergence. b. anti-saccades. c. accommodation of the lens. d. divergence. e. pupillary constriction.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Vergence Movements Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Usually, you do not see the shadows of blood vessels in your retina. Why not?

Answer: The vascular shadows are normally invisible because they create a stabilized retinal image and activate only one set of photoreceptors. The photoreceptors undergo retinal adaptation after a short period of time, which interferes with perception of the shadows.

Textbook Reference: Box 20A: The Perception of Stabilized Retinal Images Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Create a table indicating which three cranial nerves innervate the extraocular muscles and which brainstem nuclei contain their cell bodies of origin, as well as what (if anything) these cranial nerves do in addition to controlling eye movements.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Briefly describe what visual perception would be like without eye movements. Consider the role of eye movements in achieving foveation, preventing the stabilization of retinal images, and carrying out smooth pursuit and vergence movements.

Answer: Without saccades, smooth pursuit movements, and vergence movements, the eye would not be able to shift the direction of gaze to foveate targets in the visual space. Without vestibuloocular and optokinetic movements, the eye would not be able to stabilize gaze when compensating for head movements or large-scale movements in the visual scene. Without tiny saccades and drift movements, foveated objects would continue to stimulate the same set of photoreceptors, eventually causing retinal adaptation, causing the objects to disappear.

Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What are the five kinds of stereotyped eye movements? Are they voluntary or reflexive?

Answer: Saccades: both voluntary and reflexive Smooth pursuit: voluntary Vergence: reflexive Vestibulo-ocular: reflexive Optokinetic: reflexive Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What is meant by the statement that saccades are ballistic?

Answer: If the target object moves while a saccade is occurring, the saccade must complete its movement before responding to the subsequent change in target position.

Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. You are about to drink some coffee when an insect lands on the rim of your cup. What three reflexive visual responses do you make? (Hint: Think of the near reflex triad.)

Answer: The three visual reflexes are convergence, accommodation of the lens, and pupillary constriction. These are also known as the near reflex triad.

Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

7. How do neurons in the oculomotor nuclei signal amplitude versus direction of an eye movement?

Answer: Amplitude of a saccade is correlated with the duration of firing in the lower motor neurons. Direction is based on which eye muscles are activated.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which sensory modalities can elicit eye movements?

Answer: Neurons in the superior colliculus respond to visual, auditory, and somatosensory stimuli.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Where are the horizontal and vertical gaze centers? How do they help the superior colliculus translate motor goals into eye movements?

Answer: The gaze centers are located in the reticular formation. The gaze centers simplify the circuits needed to move the eyes in any direction. The superior colliculus can integrate sensory information and then innervate the two gaze centers instead of innervating a unique set of individual motor neurons to each eye muscle for each eye movement.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. The superior colliculus and frontal eye fields complement each other in the control of saccades. Name one aspect that is primarily controlled by the superior colliculus, and one that is primarily controlled by the frontal eye fields.

Answer: The superior colliculus is responsible for the ability to perform express saccades, which are quick, reflex-like eye movement. The front eye fields are necessary for the ability to perform anti-saccades, the movement of the eyes away from a stimulus in the visual field. The frontal eye fields are also necessary for locating an object within a scene of distracting objects.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. When visually examining an object such as a painting of a face, a person will usually a. focus on just one point on the painting to obtain a sense of the gestalt. b. raster scan their eyes across the painting, much like a television camera. c. make many rapid eye movements in different directions, acquiring the most information during the times when the eye is moving across the object. d. make many rapid eye movements, in different directions, acquiring information primarily during brief pauses at different locations on the object. e. make eye movements that trace along different contours of the object, until the entire object is perceived.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: What Eye Movements Accomplish

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. A patient is having trouble abducting their left eye (moving the eye in a direction away from the nose). What nervous system damage would you expect to find from diagnostic tests? a. Damage to the left cranial nerve III b. Damage to the left cranial nerve IV c. Damage to the left cranial nerve VI d. Damage to the right cranial nerve IV e. Damage to the right cranial nerve VI Answer: c Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Which nucleus innervates the superior oblique muscle? a. Trochlear nucleus b. Abducens nucleus c. Oculomotor nucleus d. Lateral vestibular nucleus e. Medial vestibular nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. A patient complains of inability to move his right eye toward his nose and a drooping right eyelid. What other symptom would you expect to find upon examination? a. Pupillary constriction in right eye b. Pupillary dilation in right eye c. Pupillary constriction in left eye d. Inability to perform anti-saccade in left eye e. Difficulty moving right eye away from nose Answer: b Textbook Reference: Actions and Innervation of Extraocular Muscles Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which statement about stabilized retinal images is false? a. The fading of retinal images serves mainly to protect neurons in LGN and area 17 from photodamage. b. More than 150 years ago, Purkinje showed that shadows of retinal blood vessels can be visualized with a light pressed against a closed eyelid. c. Images of retinal blood vessels (or their shadows) disappear in a fraction of second when a light source is stabilized. d. Retinal adaptation is thought to contribute to the stabilized image phenomenon. e. Interocular transfer of the stabilized image effect indicates at least some role for central processing.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 20A: The Perception of Stabilized Retinal Images

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Which of the following is not one of the five basic types of eye movements? a. Saccades b. Vergence c. Ptosis d. Optokinetic e. Vestibulo-ocular Answer: c Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Refer to the figure.

What type of eye movement occurs after 0.5 seconds? a. Smooth pursuit b. Optokinetic c. Saccades d. Vergence e. Vestibulo-ocular Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

8. When shaking one’s head back and forth while looking straight ahead at a stationary object, the mechanism that maintains the focal image at a roughly constant location on the retina is called a. retinal stabilization. b. the vestibulo-ocular reflex. c. the oculomotor reflex. d. smooth pursuit. e. the optokinetic reflex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. You are watching a movie and having a snack when you accidently drop some of your food, causing you to avert your gaze from the television across the room to your lap. What is one visual response that will occur? a. Conjugate eye movements b. Accommodation of the lens c. Divergence of the eyes d. Vestibulo-ocular movements e. Ptosis Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Eye Movements and Their Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Refer to the figure.

A patient recovering from a car accident discovers that she can no longer voluntarily direct her gaze away from a stimulus in her visual field (she cannot perform an anti-saccade). The patient most likely has sustained damage in which location shown in the figure? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Which statement about the directional control of saccadic eye movements is true? a. Several distant sites within the superior colliculus must be co-activated to produce eye movements in certain directions. b. Stimulation of particular upper motor neurons in the superior colliculus always produces a movement to the same point in visuotopic space. c. Stimulation of particular upper motor neurons in the superior colliculus always produces a movement of the same magnitude and direction. d. Retinal afferents from each visuotopic location project to all regions of the superior colliculus so that each region can be foveated from any starting eye position. e. Saccades to an oblique direction are produced by staircase-like eye movements.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement about the motor functions of the superior colliculus (SC) is false? a. In the SC, location in visual space is mapped in register with an auditory map. b. The SC helps to coordinate eye and head movements. c. Neurons in a particular part of the SC are activated by stimuli in a specific region of visual space. d. The SC assists in the transformation of sensory signals into motor commands. e. The uppermost layer of the SC is a somatotopic map that enables us to look at different locations on our body.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Lesions of the left frontal eye field result in a. persistent, debilitating eye movements to the left. b. persistent, debilitating eye movements to the right. c. transient deviation of the eye to the left, plus a transient contralateral saccade deficit. d. transient deviation of the eye to the right, plus a transient contralateral saccade deficit. e. virtually no detectable deficit in any eye movements.

Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Saccadic Eye Movements Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. A patient is experiencing double vision. A medical exam reveals that she can successfully gaze to the left (without head movement), but when asked to gaze forward or to the right, only the right eye moves as directed. Where is the doctor most likely to find neurological damage in this patient? a. In the left oculomotor nerve b. In the right oculomotor nerve c. In the left abducens nerve d. In the right abducens nerve e. In the right trochlear nerve Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Eye Movements and Neurological Injury, Disease, and Disorder Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. During a medical exam, a patient presents with eye movement task dysfunctions.

Specifically, smooth pursuit movements are jerky, with more errors and irregularities than average. During a free-viewing test, visual sampling of a scene is less robust than average, viewing only a small portion of the image. Finally, the patient has difficulty remaining fixated on a target object. What disorder might these test results indicate? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Schizophrenia c. Parkinson’s disease d. Huntington’s disease e. Myasthenia gravis Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Eye Movements and Neurological Injury, Disease, and Disorder Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. Which statement about sensorimotor integration in the superior colliculus (SC) is false? a. Retinal activity always causes activation of cells in the upper layers of the SC. b. The activation of neurons in the upper layers of the SC results in offset activation of lower-SC layers, producing a checkerboard pattern of upper-to-lower layer signaling. c. Activity in the superficial, visual layer of the SC is not necessary for a saccade to occur. d. Activity in the superficial, visual layer of the SC is not sufficient for a saccade to occur. e. Saccades can occur in the dark.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 20B: Sensorimotor Integration in the Superior Colliculus Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement about the transformation from retinotopic coordinates to oculomotor commands is true? a. Eye movements are determined solely by the specific oculomotor neurons that are activated.

b. Eye movements are determined solely by the total number of activated oculomotor neurons. c. Eye movements are determined by the particular oculomotor neurons that are active and their firing rates. d. Oculomotor neurons fire in rhythmic bursts until the correct eye position is obtained. e. Oculomotor neurons have a high basal firing rate, and movement is based on inhibition of the neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 20C: From Place Codes to Rate Codes Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which structure is not involved in the generation of smooth pursuit eye movements? a. The superior colliculus b. The PPRF c. The frontal eye fields d. Area MT e. All of the structures above are involved in the generation of smooth pursuit eye movements.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Smooth Pursuit Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which brain region(s) is(are) thought to be most important for vergence eye movements? a. Frontal eye fields b. Ventral visual stream in the temporal lobe c. Extrastriate occipital regions d. Superior colliculus e. Medial and lateral vestibular nuclei Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Vergence Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Vergence eye movements a. depend on binocular disparity measurements made in neocortex. b. are performed in conjunction with saccadic eye movements. c. depend on vergence centers in the midbrain. d. are driven by bursts of action potentials that drive either converging or diverging movements. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Vergence Movements Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 21: The Visceral Motor System 1. What is one way in which the visceral motor system is different from the somatic motor system? a. Lower motor neurons of the visceral motor system are located inside the central nervous system. b. Visceral motor neuron axons contact only one or two muscle fibers. c. Neurotransmitters in the visceral motor system must travel farther across the synaptic terminal because the synapse is less differentiated in the visceral system. d. Upper motor neurons of the visceral motor system are located in the parietal and temporal lobes. e. Visceral motor neurons release norepinephrine and do not rely on the actions of cotransmitters.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Distinctive Features of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which tissue is not innervated by the autonomic nervous system? a. Sweat glands b. Stomach c. Heart d. Bladder e. Bones/Cerebrum Answer: e Textbook Reference: Distinctive Features of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. During activation of the parasympathetic nervous system a. the pupils constrict. b. the blood vessels in the skin constrict. c. there is an increase in heart output. d. the bronchi dilate. e. piloerection occurs.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. A patient has a demyelinating disease. Which structure in the visceral motor system would you expect to be affected? a. Gray communicating ramus

b. White communicating ramus c. Lateral horn of the spinal cord d. Dorsal root ganglia e. Intermediolateral cell column Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. What is the purpose of the adrenal medulla? a. To enhance the response of parasympathetic activity b. To release hormones needed for reproduction c. To increase the peristaltic activity of the gut d. To release epinephrine and norepinephrine into the system e. To increase the amount of acetylcholine available at visceral motor synapses Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which region of the hypothalamus controls the visceral motor system? a. Paraventricular nucleus b. Medial preoptic nucleus c. Supraoptic nucleus d. Suprachiasmatic nucleus e. Ventromedial nucleus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 21A: The Hypothalamus Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which action is not a function of the hypothalamus? a. Regulation of blood flow and composition b. Regulation of the autonomic nervous system c. Release of hormones from the pituitary d. Response to sexually arousing stimuli e. Enhancement of diverse sensorimotor transformations Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 21A: The Hypothalamus Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is correctly paired with its preganglionic neuron location? a. PNS—upper lumbar spinal cord b. SNS—brainstem c. PNS—thoracic spinal cord d. SNS—nucleus ambiguous e. PNS—Edinger-Westphal nucleus Answer: e

Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. How do parasympathetic ganglia differ from sympathetic ganglia? a. Sympathetic ganglia are located near the target organs; parasympathetic ganglia are located near the spinal cord. b. Sympathetic ganglion neurons have more extensive dendritic branching than parasympathetic ganglion neurons. c. Sympathetic ganglion neurons are innervated by only a few preganglionic neurons; parasympathetic ganglion neurons are innervated by many preganglionic neurons. d. Sympathetic ganglia innervate fewer target organs than parasympathetic ganglia. e. Parasympathetic ganglion neurons have a more diverse set of inputs than sympathetic ganglion neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Up to 40% of people diagnosed with partial epilepsy do not respond to anti-seizure medications. Chronic vagal nerve stimulation has been approved as an alternative treatment for these patients. What side effect might this treatment cause? a. Pupillary constriction b. Increased heart rate c. Increased peristaltic movement d. Decreased gut secretions e. Bladder wall relaxation Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Which structure(s) in the visceral motor system is(are) responsible for coordinating rhythmical contraction of muscle to move contents through the gastrointestinal tract? a. Submucous plexus b. Stellate ganglia c. Myenteric plexus d. Celiac ganglia e. Nucleus of the solitary tract Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Enteric Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Damage to which region would result in dysfunction in the processing of visceral sensory information? a. Myenteric plexus b. Celiac ganglia c. Edinger-Westphal nucleus d. Nucleus of the solitary tract

e. Paraventricular nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sensory Components of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. A patient presents with drooping of the left eyelid, left pupillary constriction, sunken appearance of the left eye, and decreased sweating on the left side of the face. Where would you first look for nervous system damage? a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus b. Oculomotor nerve c. Lumbar region of the spinal cord d. Insular cortex e. Upper thoracic region of the spinal cord Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Horner’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. A mouse model is created that exhibits severe overeating and weight gain. Which modification could produce this behavior? a. Overexpression of leptin b. Knockout of MCR-4 c. Overexpression of POMC d. Overexpression of alpha-MSH e. Chronic activation of leptin receptors Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 21B: Obesity and the Brain Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Damage to which region(s) would alter regulation of appetite? a. Ventrolateral and anterior hypothalamus b. Anterior pituitary c. Superior cervical ganglion d. Edinger-Westphal nucleus e. Insular cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 21B: Obesity and the Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. You examine a number of cellular endpoints in a sympathetic preganglionic neuron after treatment with a muscarinic agonist. What result would you expect to see after stimulation? a. Membrane depolarization and a decrease in potassium conductance b. Membrane hyperpolarization and an increase in potassium conductance c. Membrane depolarization and a decrease in sodium conductance d. Membrane hyperpolarization and an increase in calcium conductance e. Membrane depolarization and an increase in potassium conductance Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. A patient has a mutation in the gene for the rate-limiting enzyme in norepinephrine synthesis, leading to decreased levels of the neurotransmitter. Which part of the visceral system will be affected by this mutation? a. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons b. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons c. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons d. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons e. All preganglionic neurons Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. The postganglionic sympathetic neuron releases _______ onto all target organs except _______. a. acetylcholine; blood vessels b. norepinephrine; piloerector muscles c. acetylcholine; heart d. norepinephrine; sweat glands e. norepinephrine; adrenal medulla Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. A patient complains of cold fingers and toes, along with slight pain and numbness, when she goes out in cold weather. She is diagnosed with Raynaud’s disease, a condition in which blood vessels in the fingers and toes over-constrict in response to cold, limiting blood supply to the region. Which type of compound might relieve these symptoms? a. Muscarinic receptor agonist b. Alpha adrenergic receptor antagonist c. Beta adrenergic receptor agonist d. GABA receptor antagonist e. Nicotinic receptor agonist Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. A lesion to the glossopharyngeal nerve would disrupt the flow of which type of information? a. Blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels b. Blood pressure c. Bladder pressure d. Motor output to the heart e. Motor output to the bladder Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. In a healthy individual, which response occurs to prevent fainting as a result of orthostatic hypotension? a. Decrease in parasympathetic activity in the vagus nerve b. Decrease in sympathetic activity in the thoracic spinal cord c. Increase in parasympathetic activity in the vagus nerve d. Increase in sympathetic activity in the vagus nerve e. Increase in parasympathetic activity in the thoracic spinal cord Answer: a Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. What type of sensory receptors are necessary for the proper regulation of cardiovascular function? a. Chemoreceptors b. Baroreceptors and thermoreceptors c. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors d. Nociceptors and thermoreceptors e. Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and thermoreceptors Answer: a Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. A lesion in which location would alter parasympathetic input to the heart? a. Upper thoracic spinal cord b. Cardiac plexus c. Carotid plexus d. Superior cervical ganglion e. Myenteric plexus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 24. Baroreceptor activation in response to a rise in blood pressure a. activates neurons in the nucleus of the solitary tract. b. stimulates tonic activity in sympathetic preganglionic neurons in the upper thoracic spinal cord. c. stimulates parasympathetic preganglionic neurons in the dorsal motor nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. d. is unaffected by damage to the cardiac plexus. e. is less influential than information from carotid chemoreceptors.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

25. Which process must occur for bladder voiding? a. The sympathetic system must increase activity and cause the bladder wall to relax. b. Activity in visceral motor neurons innervated by the sacral spinal cord must cause the internal and external sphincter muscles to relax. c. Strong bladder distention must send sensory information to inhibit the parasympathetic system. d. Information from the pontine micturition center must inhibit the somatic motor system, relaxing the external sphincter muscle. e. Sacral spinal cord activity must increase output to both visceral and somatic motor neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of the Bladder Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. A patient has spinal cord damage at level T1 and T2. He also presents with urination problems. What other symptoms would you expect him to show? a. Automatic, involuntary, and often incomplete voiding of bladder b. No bladder voiding, even when full c. Voluntary control over bladder voiding, but bladder only partially empties d. Pain associated with urination e. Constant urination Answer: a Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of the Bladder Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. What purpose do forebrain structures play in micturition? a. They release hormones from the pituitary to control bladder contraction. b. They evaluate pain associated with urination. c. They integrate and evaluate contextual cues and signal when it is safe to void. d. They control which chemicals are released into the urine by the adrenal medulla. e. They allow the kidneys to pass urine into the bladder.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of the Bladder Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 28. What type of sensory receptors are necessary for the proper regulation of bladder function? a. Thermoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Nociceptors d. Mechanoreceptors e. Chemoreceptors and Nociceptors Answer: d Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of the Bladder Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

29. A patient was in a car accident, and he has spinal cord damage in sacral segments S2–S4.

How would this damage affect his sexual functioning? a. Vasoconstriction would be inhibited. b. Somatosensory input from his genital region could not be processed. c. Incidence of erection would be increased. d. Activation of the bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus muscles would increase. e. Less stimulation would be required to trigger ejaculation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Sexual Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 30. Which compound or type of drug would increase smooth muscle relaxation in the reproductive organs? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Drug that inhibits norepinephrine synthesis c. Muscarinic agonist d. Drug that increases phosphodiesterase activity e. Drug that increases NO availability Answer: e Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Sexual Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. How does the visceral motor system differ from the somatic motor system? Consider location of lower motor neurons, type of innervation, neurotransmitters, and major brain regions that control activity in each system.

Answer: The lower motor neurons of the visceral motor system are located outside the CNS, whereas the lower motor neurons of the somatic motor system are in the spinal cord. The synapses between somatic motor system lower motor neurons and muscle fibers are much more differentiated than those found in the visceral motor system. Visceral motor axons are highly branched, and neurotransmitters in the visceral motor system must travel farther across the synaptic terminal. The visceral motor system is controlled by structures in the ventral and medial parts of the forebrain and the brainstem; the somatic motor system is controlled by upper motor neurons in the posterior frontal lobe. Visceral motor neurons release a variety of neurotransmitters, whereas the somatic motor system relies on the release of acetylcholine.

Textbook Reference: Distinctive Features of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. List five consequences of activating the sympathetic nervous system, and explain how each prepares the animal for “fight or flight.”

Answer: Pupillary dilation—allows more light to hit retina, improving visual perception Vasoconstriction in skin and gut—reroutes blood to muscles, directing nutrients to skeletal muscles Piloerection—allows animals with fur to look larger and more fearsome

Bronchial dilation—increases oxygenation Increased heart rate and stroke volume—maximally perfuses skeletal muscles and brain Inhibition of peristaltic movement and secretion—inhibits unnecessary functions, conserving energy Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. List four homeostatic functions of the hypothalamus.

Answer: Control of blood flow Regulation of energy metabolism Regulation of reproductive activity Coordination of responses to threatening conditions Textbook Reference: Box 21A: The Hypothalamus Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. List four consequences of activating the parasympathetic nervous system, and explain how each effect serves the “rest and digest” function.

Answer: Pupillary constriction—reduces light to retina Decreased heart rate—allows for rest Increased peristaltic activity and secretion—promotes digestion Bladder wall contraction—allows for urinary voiding when not in danger Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Name two organs that receive sympathetic but not parasympathetic innervation.

Answer: Most arterial blood vessels; sweat glands; adrenal medulla; piloerector muscles of the skin Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Why do many investigators consider the enteric nervous system to be separate from the autonomic nervous system?

Answer: The neurons in the enteric nervous system can act independently of any autonomic nervous system input. For example, peristalsis in the gut can occur even when the tissue is removed from the body (in vitro).

Textbook Reference: The Enteric Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Is there a sensory component to the visceral motor system? Explain.

Answer: Yes. Sensory afferents from the viscera provide information to local reflex circuits that modulate motor function within organs and to higher CNS centers to modulate hormonal and behavioral responses.

Textbook Reference: Sensory Components of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What are the two main cortical regions that regulate the autonomic nervous system?

Answer: The posterior insular cortex and the medial prefrontal cortex Textbook Reference: Central Control of Visceral Motor Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Diagram the sympathetic and parasympathetic control of the heart, showing the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons. Indicate the principal neurotransmitter released by each neuron.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What would happen to the heart rate if the sympathetic innervation to the heart were severed?

What if the parasympathetic innervation were severed?

Answer: With no sympathetic innervation, the nervous system would not be able to actively increase heart rate or stroke volume, and a decrease in parasympathetic activity, which normally slows the heart, would indirectly increase heart rate. On the other hand, without parasympathetic innervation heart rate could not be directly, actively decreased.

Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. The idea that every tissue is innervated by two sets of nerve fibers of opposite character can be attributed to a. ancient Egyptians, based on their use of internal and external medicines. b. the observations of the Greek physician Hypocrites, based on observations of pupillary reflexes and autonomic changes in heart rate. c. Walter Gaskell, based on his neuroanatomical and physiological studies. d. John Langley, based on his studies of chemical neurotransmission. e. Walter Cannon, based on his studies of homeostasis.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Early Studies of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement comparing the somatic and visceral motor systems is true? a. The motor neuron is located in the CNS in both systems. b. The somatic motor system uses only acetylcholine, whereas the visceral system uses acetylcholine and norepinephrine. c. The visceral synapses are thinner than the somatic neuromuscular junction. d. Input to the effector organ comes directly from the spinal cord in the visceral system but synapses outside the CNS in the somatic system. e. Each visceral motor neuron synapses on only one muscle fiber, whereas each somatic motor neuron synapses on numerous fibers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Distinctive Features of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement about the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is false? a. ANS lower motor neurons are all located either in the brainstem or in peripheral ganglia. b. The ANS has two major branches: the sympathetic and the parasympathetic. c. The ANS helps coordinate the activity of involuntary motor reactions and visceral functions. d. Some ANS neurons are located in a plexus in or near the target organ. e. While some ANS fibers are cholinergic, others are noradrenergic.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Distinctive Features of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which change would not be expected to result from sympathetic nervous system activation? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased blood flow to the heart c. Increased blood flow to certain muscles d. Decreased blood flow to the GI tract e. Increased uptake of glucose by the liver Answer: e

Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. The cell bodies of sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in a. the dorsal column nuclei in the brainstem. b. the intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord. c. the dorsal root ganglia. d. small neuronal clusters situated outside of target organs such as the intestines and kidney. e. the pituitary.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Which statement correctly describes a distinction between the sympathetic (SNS) and parasympathetic (PNS) branches of the ANS? a. Postganglionic fibers of the PNS use norepinephrine, whereas those of the SNS use acetylcholine. b. The SNS postganglionic cell bodies are present in a chain alongside the spinal cord, whereas the PNS ganglia are more peripherally distributed. c. The PNS has long postganglionic fibers, whereas the SNS has quite short postganglionic fibers. d. The PNS is activated during exercise, whereas the SNS is active during eating. e. All of the above statements correctly describe distinctions between the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS. Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Sympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System; The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which structure releases a variety of hormones in response to hypothalamic releasing factors? a. Hippocampus b. Hypothalamus c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary e. Suprachiasmatic nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 21A: The Hypothalamus Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Exposure to a nerve agent that causes a build-up of acetylcholine at autonomic postganglionic synapses is not likely to produce a. constriction of the pupils. b. increased peristaltic activity in the gastrointestinal tract. c. decreased outflow of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla. d. increased heart rate. e. constriction of the airways.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Parasympathetic Division of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. The enteric nervous system a. has about one-tenth the number of neurons as the spinal cord. b. is innervated only by the parasympathetic branch of the ANS. c. contains two major subdivisions: the submucous plexus and the myenteric plexus. d. depends on parasympathetic signals for its ongoing operations. e. has just one main role: regulating the activity of the gastrointestinal tract’s smooth muscles.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Enteric Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. The reason that pain sensation in visceral organs is often associated with or “referred” to a sensory surface of the body is most likely because a. the DRG neurons that sense peripheral pain have axon collaterals extending into the viscera. b. there are too few autonomic sensory fibers for us to distinguish surface pain from deep pain. c. autonomic sensory fibers synapse upon the pain-sensitive nuclei in brainstem that receive somatic pain sensations. d. autonomic sensory fibers synapse on the pain-sensitive second-order spinal neurons that receive somatic pain sensations. e. there is no plausible biological mechanism that would allow pain to be associated exclusively with our internal organs.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sensory Components of the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which function is not performed by the nucleus of the solitary tract? a. Providing reflexive control of visceral motor functions b. Relaying autonomic signals to the parabrachial nucleus c. Integration of gustatory signals d. Sending information to higher integrative centers such as the amygdala and hypothalamus e. Sending an autonomic map directly to insular and prefrontal cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Central Control of Visceral Motor Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. The structure most directly responsible for an emotional blushing response is the a. nucleus of the solitary tract. b. parabrachial nucleus. c. hypothalamus. d. central autonomic network. e. pituitary.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Central Control of Visceral Motor Functions

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Which structure(s) receive(s) hunger-related peptide signals from both the stomach and adipose tissues? a. Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus b. Ventrolateral and anterior hypothalamic nuclei c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary e. Gastrosatiety nucleus of the hypothalamus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 21B: Obesity and the Brain Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which statement about the neurotransmitter receptors of autonomic neurons and their target neurons is false? a. Nicotinic receptors are found at preganglionic synapses. b. Preganglionic muscarinic receptors close potassium channels and hyperpolarize neurons. c. At parasympathetic postganglionic synapses, different muscarinic receptor types are found in the gut and cardiovascular organs. d. The targets of postganglionic sympathetic fibers use a wide variety of noradrenergic receptors. e. The sweat glands are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. An experimental animal is treated with a drug that lowers blood pressure by blocking synaptic transmission only in autonomic ganglia. This drug is most likely a(n) a. muscarinic receptor agonist. b. α-adrenergic receptor agonist. c. β-adrenergic receptor antagonist. d. GABA receptor antagonist. e. nicotinic receptor antagonist.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neurotransmission in the Visceral Motor System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. Which statement about the baroreceptor reflex is false? a. It involves regulation of both the SNS and PNS. b. It can produce a coordinated increase in heart rate and strength of cardiac muscle contraction. c. Activation of the reflex causes orthostatic hypotension. d. A drop in blood pressure can stimulate the release of adrenaline from the adrenal gland. e. Baroreceptor signals are relayed via the nucleus of the solitary tract to autonomic centers in the reticular formation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

17. Information about blood gas levels is transmitted to the CNS via a. the glossopharyngeal nerve. b. the sympathetic chain ganglia. c. preganglionic sympathetic fibers. d. postganglionic sympathetic fibers. e. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Which change would be a likely response to blood loss? a. Slowing of the heart rate b. Constriction of peripheral blood vessels c. Decreased release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla d. Shunting of blood to the arms, legs, and skin e. Increased neuronal activity in the cardiac plexus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Cardiovascular Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which structure is involved in micturition (urination)? a. Orbital-medial prefrontal cortex b. A pontine autonomic center c. Somatic motor neurons d. Sacral and thoracic visceral motor neurons e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of the Bladder Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. The drug sildenafil (Viagra), which increases nitric oxide by inhibiting a phosphodiesterase, directly aids a. cognitive aspects of reproduction. b. the functioning of sympathetic preganglionic neurons. c. the functioning of parasympathetic preganglionic neurons. d. the relaxation of venous (cavernous) sinusoids. e. the stimulation of prostatic and vaginal secretions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Autonomic Regulation of Sexual Function Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 22: Early Brain Development Multiple Choice 1. The notochord forms from which germ layer? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Neuroectoderm e. Telencephalon Answer: b Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. What role does the notochord play during development? a. It is a transient structure that defines the axis of symmetry of the organism. b. It gives rise to cortical tissue. c. It releases inductive signaling molecules. d. It is the location of embryonic stem cell production. e. It gives rise to the spinal cord.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. From which structure do the neural crest cells arise? a. Notochord b. Pre-somitic mesoderm c. Lateral endoderm d. Dorsal aspect of the neural tube e. Ventral aspect of the neural tube Answer: d Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which is an essential characteristic of neural stem cells? a. The ability to differentiate into any type of cell b. The ability to dispense with bacteria, damaged neuron, or toxic proteins in the brain c. The ability to guide neurons to their final location d. The ability to suppress the activity of the immune system e. The ability to differentiate into any cell type found in the central nervous system

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 22A: Stem Cells: Promise and Peril Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. The use of stem cells in research and medical therapy has always been surrounded by ethical debates. A recent research breakthrough has allayed some ethical fears. What was this breakthrough? a. The use of informed consent b. The ability to grow cell lines (generations of cells) in the lab c. The ability to turn differentiated somatic cells into pluripotent stem cells d. The ability to create full organs in the lab e. The ability to convert chicken stem cells into human stem cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 22A: Stem Cells: Promise and Peril Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. The hypothalamus arises from which primitive brain region? a. Telencephalon b. Diencephalon c. Mesencephalon d. Metencephalon e. Myelencephalon Answer: d Textbook Reference: Formation of the Major Brain Subdivisions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. In the lab, you are examining the roles of cellular structures in the developing embryo by altering the location of cells. In one experiment, two separate nervous systems began to develop in the same embryo. Which alteration could produce this outcome? a. Removing roofplate cells b. Relocating mesenchymal cells c. Relocating somite cells d. Relocating primitive pit cells e. Removing floorplate cells Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Which inductive signal has its effects on neural development by acting directly as a transcription factor? a. Fibroblast growth factor b. Retinoic acid bound to a retinoid receptor c. Wnt bound to receptor tyrosine kinase d. Bone morphogenetic protein e. Sonic hedgehog bound to Patched protein Answer: b

Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which inductive signal is correctly paired with its receptor? a. Wnt—Receptor serine kinase b. Fibroblast growth factor—Frizzled protein c. Sonic hedgehog—Patched protein d. Bone morphogenetic protein—Noggin e. Retinoic acid—Smoothened Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What is the difference between embryonic stem cells (ESCs) and induced pluripotent stem cells (IPSCs)? a. IPSCs are created from fully differentiated cells; ESCs are generated from the first cell divisions after fertilization. b. ESCs can differentiate into any cell type; IPSCs can only become non-neural cell types. c. ESCs cannot be successfully grown in the lab; IPSCs can. d. IPSCs can differentiate into any cell type; ESCs can only become neural cell types. e. ESCs require UV radiation to differentiate in the lab; IPSCs do not.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Stem Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Inductive signals lead to changes in gene transcription, resulting in regions of transcription factor expression in the neural tube. These transcription factors and other signals will lead to sensory neurons differentiating a. ventrally, near the floorplate. b. ventrally, near the roofplate. c. dorsally, near the floorplate. d. dorsally, near the roofplate. e. medially, in between the floorplate and roofplate.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Integrated Inductive Signals Establish Neuron Identity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. How are a cortical neuron’s birthday and cortical organization related? a. Cortical layers are organized to include cells from a wide range of birthdates. b. Early born neurons are located in the more superficial cortical layers. c. Early born neurons are located in the more posterior regions of the cortex. d. Cells that originate at about the same time are organized into the same cortical layers. e. There is no relationship between cortical organization and time of cell origin.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Initial Differentiation of Neurons and Glia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

13. What is the difference between symmetrical and asymmetrical division? a. Symmetrical division is more rapid than asymmetrical division. b. Cells that divide symmetrically can divide a limited number of times; cells that divide asymmetrically can divide an unlimited number of times. c. Symmetrical division leads to greater amplification in numbers of differentiated cells compared to asymmetrical division. d. Asymmetrical division results in a new stem cell; symmetrical division results in a postmitotic neuroblast. e. Symmetrical division results in a new stem cell; asymmetrical division results in a postmitotic neuroblast.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Initial Differentiation of Neurons and Glia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which manipulation would inhibit the process of neuronal differentiation from neural stem cells? a. Increase in Delta cell surface ligands b. A mutation of the protein that cleaves Notch that makes it permanently active c. A mutation in the intracellular terminal of Notch that prevents it from entering the nucleus d. A mutation in RBP-J that prevents it from repressing transcription e. A mutation in the promotor for bHLH that increases transcription Answer: c Textbook Reference: Molecular Regulation of Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which factor is not involved in differentiation of a diverse range of neurons and glia? a. Whether differentiation occurred via symmetrical or asymmetrical division b. Cell lineage c. Cell-to-cell interactions d. Diffusible inductive signals e. The particular set of transcription factors expressed in the cell Answer: a Textbook Reference: Generation of Neuronal Diversity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. A young, female patient was developing normally until age 3, but then began to show autistic-like social behaviors, a regression in her language and cognitive skills, and motor deficits. Which condition does the patient most likely have? a. Rett Syndrome b. Waardenburg’s syndrome c. Hydrocephalus d. Anencephaly e. Down syndrome Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruptions of Early Neural Development

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. A mouse model is created in which the Noggin protein is knocked out. How would this affect development in the mouse? a. Neuroectoderm would differentiate into epidermis instead of neural tissue. b. Somites would differentiate into neural tissue instead of muscle and bone. c. Target gene expression in the notochord would be decreased. d. Fibroblast growth factor would have no effect on developing cells. e. Wnt would be unable to bind to the Frizzled protein.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruptions of Early Neural Development Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. Differentiation of neural stem cells into neurons, oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes involves balanced regulation of different genes. Which cellular signal is specific to oligodendrogenesis? a. Notch b. Noggin c. Olig1 d. Sonic hedgehog e. Nrg Answer: c Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruptions of Early Neural Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. A pregnant experimental animal was treated with excess vitamin A. Which outcome would you expect to see in her offspring? a. Increased number of cells present in laminar layer 6 b. Disruption in transcriptional regulation of other inductive signals like Sonic hedgehog c. Persistence of notochord after birth d. Development of the floorplate and roofplate in abnormal locations in the neural tube e. Development of Rett Syndrome Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. A young patient is diagnosed with medulloblastoma. Which mechanism may be responsible for this cancer? a. Retinoic acid deficiency during gestation b. Upregulation of Notch protein c. Mutation in the Patched protein d. Folic acid deficiency during gestation e. Mutation in Hox genes Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. An experimental animal develops with fetal abnormalities, specifically, the hemispheres of the forebrain do not have clear separation, and there are midline facial defects. Which condition does the experimental animal most likely have? a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Spina bifida c. Anencephaly d. Waardenburg’s syndrome e. Holoprosencephaly Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Which mechanism underlies the development of medulloblastoma? a. An upregulation in the expression of Patch and Smoothened b. Failure of proliferating cell nucleus and cytoplasm to return to the lumenal surface of the neural tube c. Mutation in the genes for Noggin and Chordin d. Cell proliferation in the external granule cell layer due to elevated Gli1 levels e. Folic acid deficiency disrupts neural tube closure Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. An experimental animal model is discovered in which the neural crest does not form. Which cell type is most likely missing in this animal model? a. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons b. Purkinje cells c. Cortical pyramidal cells d. Skeletal motor neurons e. Dorsal root ganglion neurons Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. An experimental animal has the bHLH family members Snail1 and Snail2 knocked out. What effect would this have on neural development? a. Neural crest cells would not be able to make the switch from epithelial to mesenchymal cells. b. Progenitor cells would not be able to be converted into astrocytes. c. The ectoderm would not be converted into neuroectoderm. d. Neurons in the Purkinje cell layer would proliferate uncontrollably. e. The noncanonical Wnt pathway would be inhibited.

Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. Which gene(s) play(s) a role in the ability of cancer cells to migrate to other regions of the body? a. Snail b. Sonic hedgehog c. Noggin/Chordin d. Recombining binding protein J (RBP-J) e. Methly CpG-binding Protein 2 (MECP2) Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 26. Which signal is required to induce a neural crest cell to differentiate into a sensory neuron? a. Wnt b. Leukemia inhibitory factor c. Ciliary neurotrophic factor d. Pax3 e. Hox genes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 27. Which disorder results from disrupted migration of enteric nervous system neurons? a. Spina bifida b. Anencephaly c. Hirschprung’s disease d. Waardenburg’s syndrome e. Holoprosencephaly Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 28. Neural crest progenitor cells are able to differentiate into a number of different cell types.

Which cell is a non-neuronal cell type that arises from neural crest cells? a. Somites b. Schwann cells c. Bergman glia d. Granule cell e. Melanocyte Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 29. Which cell type is responsible for assisting neuroblast migration in the CNS?

a. Mature neurons b. Somites c. Schwann cells d. Radial glial cells e. Chromaffin cells Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 30. A young patient is brought to the doctor because of failure to thrive and is diagnosed with lissencephaly. Which test results might have led to this diagnosis? a. A genetic analysis showing a mutation in the Smoothened gene b. A visual analysis revealing lack of closure of the posterior neural tube c. An MRI revealing a tumor in the cerebellum d. An abdominal X-ray showing an obstructed colon e. An MRI revealing a lack of sulci and gyri in the cerebral cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Neuronal Migration and Cortical Migration Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to the neural tube? Describe the process of neurulation. What does the neural tube become?

Answer: The neural tube arises from the ectoderm. During neurulation, the notochord sends signals to the ectoderm layer, causing cells to differentiate into neuroectodermal precursor cells, and this region of ectoderm thickens into the neural plate, which eventually folds into the neural tube. The neural stem cells of the neural tube become the central nervous system and most of the peripheral nervous system.

Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Distinguish between embryonic stem cell (ES cell), neural stem cell, induced pleuripotential stem cells (IPSCs), and neural progenitor cells.

Answer: All stem cells have the ability for self-renewal. In addition, ES cells are able to differentiate into any cell type in the organism. Neural stem cells can differentiate into any cell type found in the central and peripheral nervous systems. IPSCs are produced in the lab and can differentiate into any tissue type, like ES cells, but they are created from differentiated somatic cells like skin cells or fibroblasts. Neural progenitor cells are not able to self-renew and can only give rise to one type of neural cell.

Textbook Reference: Box 22A: Stem Cells: Promise and Peril Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Draw the embryonic brain, subdivided into five primitive brain regions. Label the five regions

on the figure, and give examples of major brain derivatives of each region. Which of these subdivisions originates from the forebrain? Midbrain? Hindbrain?

Answer:

Telencephalon—Cerebral cortex, hippocampus, basal ganglia, basal forebrain nuclei, olfactory bulb Diencephalon—Thalamus, hypothalamus, optic vesicles Mesencephalon—Superior and inferior colliculi, midbrain tegmentum Metencephalon—Cerebellum and pons Myelencephalon—Medulla The telencephalon and diencephalon originate from the forebrain, the mesencephalon from the midbrain, and the metencephalon and myelencephalon from the hindbrain.

Textbook Reference: Formation of the Major Brain Subdivisions Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. Although the roofplate and floorplate of the neural tube are transient embryonic structures, they influence the course of CNS development. Describe their role(s).

Answer: Both the roofplate and floorplate produce and secrete inductive signals that are responsible for driving appropriate cellular differentiation in the developing embryo.

Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. List one inductive signal that affects gene expression by acting as a transcription factor, and two that act indirectly, via receptors.

Answer: Retinoid receptors, when bound to retinoic acid, act as transcription factors to alter expression of target genes.

Fibroblast growth factor, bone morphogenetic protein, Wnt, and Sonic hedgehog all alter gene expression indirectly via receptors Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. How is a cell’s birthdate determined experimentally? Why is a neuron’s birthdate important?

Answer: A cell’s birthdate can be determined by using markers, such as radioactive thymidine, that are incorporated into the DNA during mitosis and can be visualized later in development.

Cells in the CNS are organized by birthdate, so cells in the same laminar layer tend to have been born around the same time. These cells also express similar transcription factors, whereas cells in separate cellular layers, that were born at different times, express different factors.

Textbook Reference: Initial Differentiation of Neurons and Glia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What are the molecules that determine whether cells differentiate as neurons, oligodendrocytes, or astrocytes?

Answer: Balanced signaling activity of Notch and bHLH gene products is necessary for differentiation into neuronal precursor cells. Astrocyte precursors are created by balanced signaling of proneural bHLHs and a combination of Notch/Nrg. Finally, oligodendrocyte precursors differentiate when regulation of proneural bHLHs and a combination of Olig1/2 and Nkx2.1 are balanced.

Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruptions of Early Neural Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What determines the fate of neural crest cells?

Answer: Cell-to-cell interaction, the presence of signaling molecules, and regulation of gene expression during migration influence the differentiation of neural crest cells.

Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Why are radial glial cells important in neurodevelopment?

Answer: Radial glial cells play multiple roles in the developing brain, but one of the most important is to guide migrating neuroblasts in the CNS to their final destinations. The future neurons follow the long processes of the glial cells. They are also believed to be neural stem cells.

Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. The three main layers in the early embryonic stage of brain development are the a. ectoplasm, endoplasm, and mesoplasm. b. ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. c. gastrula, blastula, and notochord. d. ectoderm, ectoplasm, and notochord. e. anterior, medial, and posterior.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. The process by which three germ layers form around a central tube running the length of a developing vertebrate animal is called a. gastrulation.

b. perturbation. c. intubation. d. cephalization. e. neuronal differentiation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. The structure that causes formation of neural tissue in an overlying germ layer is called the a. ectoderm. b. notochord. c. endoderm. d. neural crest. e. neural tube.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Formation of the Nervous System: Gastrulation and Neurulation Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which statement about embryonic stem (ES) cells is correct? a. ES cells are normally derived from unfertilized eggs. b. ES cells can be derived from male sperm. c. ES cells are normally derived from pre-gastrula stage embryos. d. Neural stem cells derived at later stages are essentially equivalent to ES cells. e. Non-neural somatic stem cells are always equipotent to ES cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 22A: Stem Cells: Promise and Peril Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. The cephalic flexure a. occurs in the general region of the myelencephalon. b. becomes the prosencephalon, which develops into the forebrain. c. is the precursor of the spinal cord. d. is caudal to the cervical flexure. e. will become the lateral ventricles.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Formation of the Major Brain Subdivisions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Hox genes a. allow differentiating neurons to “home in” on their eventual specialized phenotype by small random changes in gene expression. b. enable the progressive regionalization of the developing neural tube. c. are found on all chromosomes in all vertebrate animals. d. are activated whenever there are perturbations of homeostasis. e. are only found in invertebrates.

Answer: b

Textbook Reference: Formation of the Major Brain Subdivisions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. The peptide hormone that induces motor neuron development via the cooperative binding of Patched and Smoothened is called a. Wnt. b. TGF. c. brain morphogenetic protein. d. Sonic hedgehog. e. retinoic acid.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. The Wnt signal transduction pathway influences neuronal development by a. regulating cell movements necessary for neuromere formation. b. regulating intracellular potassium via the Frizzled receptor protein. c. changing cell shape and polarity via a Jun kinase signaling pathway. d. activating transcription factors via the stabilization and translocation of β-catenin. e. binding to BMP receptor proteins.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Neural Induction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. To establish neuronal identity, a. a mosaic of transcription factors in subsets of precursor cells are required in the developing neural tube. b. transcription factors establish differences in gene expression in the dorsal, intermediate, and ventral spinal cord. c. the gene expression potential of neuronal precursors is chemically limited. d. inductive signals modify gene expression in immature neuroblasts. e. All of the above are required to establish neuronal identity.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Integrated Inductive Signals Establish Neuron Identity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Once the neural tube has formed, the next step in the formation of the nervous system is a. neuronal migration. b. synaptogenesis. c. neurogenesis. d. process outgrowth. e. synaptic pruning.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Initial Differentiation of Neurons and Glia Bloom’s Level: 2 Understanding

11. Neuroblasts a. give rise to neuronal precursor cells. b. are neurons that are slated to die or “implode” during development. c. are the most slowly dividing neuronal precursor cells. d. arise from symmetrical cell divisions. e. arise from asymmetrical cell divisions.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Initial Differentiation of Neurons and Glia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement on the generation of neuronal diversity is false? a. Neuronal lineages play an important role in determining a neuron’s identity. b. Diffusible signals play an important role in determining a neuron’s identity. c. Cell–cell interactions play an important role in determining a neuron’s identity. d. Signaling molecules used in the earliest steps of neural induction and regionalization are reused later in development to define specific neuronal classes. e. The known details of generating neuronal diversity are now sufficient to generate all types of neurons in vitro.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Generation of Neuronal Diversity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Mutations in PAX3 and PAX6 genes can cause a. Waardenburg syndrome. b. fragile X syndrome. c. Down syndrome. d. autism. e. Helsinki syndrome.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruptions of Early Neural Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. A mutation in which inductive signal would disrupt proper patterning of dorsal/ventral centers? a. Proneural bHLHs b. Notch c. TGF-β d. Chordin e. Pax6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Molecular and Genetic Disruption of Early Neural Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Which statement about retinoic acid and its derivatives is false? a. A deficiency of vitamin A can lead to fetal abnormalities. b. An excess of vitamin A can lead to birth defects.

c. Maternal ingestion of as little as 0.00000025 gram of retinoic acid per gram maternal weight can lead to markedly altered patterns of neuronal gene expression. d. Retinoic acid acts by binding to key DNA sequences, resulting in the expression of faulty mRNA molecules. e. Use of the anti-acne drug Accutane by pregnant women resulted in a range of birth defects.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which statement about mutations of Sonic hedgehog and its associated receptors and signaling pathways is false? a. They cause approximately 30 percent of stillbirths. b. They can result in a cyclopean (single) eye. c. They can lead to holoprosencephaly. d. They can transform granule cells, leading to medulloblastoma. e. They can transform basal epidermal cells, leading to basal cell carcinoma.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Inductive Signals and Neurodevelopmental Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Migration of neural crest cells has been shown to a. depend exclusively upon a cell’s previous division history, namely, the exact number of preceding cell divisions. b. be an essentially random process in which migrating crest cells disperse widely throughout the body before encountering specific target locations. c. require the dissolution of cell–cell adhesions in order for them to migrate. d. require suppression of the Snail genes, which would otherwise slow down their migration. e. require following the long processes of radial glial cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. The most common means by which migrating neurons move through the CNS is by a. following their own chemically-guided growth cones. b. following axon tracts laid down by pioneer neurons. c. following gradients of cell adhesion molecules. d. following radial glia fibers. e. bulk migration, in which many cells are carried along by their migrating neighbors.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. What mechanism is responsible for the development of Hirschsprung’s disease? a. Abnormal migration of neural crest cells

b. Abnormal differentiation of enteric nervous system cells c. Inhibition of differentiation of sensory neurons d. Mutation in Sonic hedgehog e. Deficiency of retinoic acid (RA) Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neuronal Migration in the Peripheral Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. A patient with a mutation in the Doublecortin gene would most likely be diagnosed with which condition? a. Microcephaly b. Lissencephaly c. Spina bifida d. Anencephaly e. Holoprosencephaly Answer: b Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Neuronal Migration and Cortical Migration Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 23: Construction of Neural Circuits Multiple Choice 1. How is polarity determined in a neuron? a. PAR proteins accumulate preferentially in the apical dendrite. b. PAR proteins accumulate preferentially in the axon. c. Zic2 accumulates on the dorsal side of the cell. d. An axon forms near membrane-bound TRP channels. e. Netrin activates DCC near the dendritic pole.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neuronal Polarization: The First Step in Neural Circuit Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. An animal model is created that has PAR-3 knocked out. Aside from morphological changes, what other molecular abnormality would you expect to see? a. Downregulation of integrins b. No intracellular calcium c. Downregulation of TRP channels d. Upregulation of EphB1 receptor expression e. Tau, an axon-specific cytoskeleton protein, would be present in all neurites Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neuronal Polarization: The First Step in Neural Circuit Formation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. The gene that encodes the EphB1 receptor is knocked out of a mouse model, and retinal projections are examined. Which outcome would you expect? a. There will be fewer contralateral projections compared to controls. b. There will be more contralateral projections compared to controls. c. There will be fewer ipsilateral projections compared to controls. d. There will be more ipsilateral projections compared to controls. e. The ipsilateral and contralateral projections will have swapped places compared to controls.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 23A: Choosing Sides: Axon Guidance at the Optic Chiasm Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. You are studying an animal model that has 100% retinal projection crossover at the optic chiasm. If you were to examine gene expression in the retinal neurons, which gene would be present in control animals but absent in the experimental animals? a. Actin

b. TRP channel c. Actin d. Zic2 e. PAR-3 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 23A: Choosing Sides: Axon Guidance at the Optic Chiasm Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. What mechanism is necessary for growth cone motility? a. Presence of netrins b. Exposure to semaphorins c. Blockage of calcium channels d. Nuclear localization of integrins e. Polymerization and depolymerization of actin and tubulin Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Growth Cone Motility Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Actin and tubulin dynamics in growth cones are influenced or regulated by a. extracellular calcium. b. voltage-gated sodium channels. c. guanylyl cyclase. d. TRP channels. e. Sema3A. Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Growth Cone Motility Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which axon guidance molecule or receptor is a protein kinase? a. Integrin b. CAM L1 c. Cadherin d. Eph receptor e. β-catenin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Non-Diffusible Signals for Axon Guidance Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Extracellular matrix molecules serve as ligands for a. integrin receptors. b. unc5 and robo. c. plexin. d. cadherin. e. L1.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Non-Diffusible Signals for Axon Guidance

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. A patient is discovered to have a mutation in the gene for ROBO3, a receptor for a family of chemorepellent ligands. Which symptom(s) would you expect this patient to display? a. Intellectual and language disabilities b. Anosmia c. Limited ability to move his eyes horizontally d. Infertility e. Paralysis Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Axon Guidance Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. One of the symptoms of Kallmann syndrome is infertility. What abnormal mechanism causes this condition? a. Failure of GnRH neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus b. Failure of neuronal differentiation in the diencephalon c. Failure of neurons to cross the midline at the corpus callosum d. Failure of the reproductive system to develop e. Failure of autonomic nervous system innervation of the reproductive system Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Axon Guidance Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Netrin a. is a chemoattractant molecule that binds to the DCC (“deleted in colorectal cancer”) receptor. b. is named for nectar, because it has been equated to a nectar of the gods for its trophic effects. c. is present in very high quantities and thus attracts many axons. d. is present only in birds and mammals. e. is an integral, or fixed, component of the extracellular matrix.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. If you were to examine the brains of netrin-1 knockout mice, what abnormality would you expect to see? a. Missing hypothalamus b. Callosal agenesis c. Disrupted olfactory nerve development d. Congenital fibrosis of the extraocular muscles e. Missing retinal cells Answer: b Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Refer to the figure.

In the lab, a student is examining netrin-1 in the developing mouse spinal cord. Which structure would show the highest level of netrin-1 expression? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Which guidance molecule is responsible for preventing developing axons from crossing the midline more than once? a. Slit b. Netrin c. Semaphorin d. CAM e. Cadherin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which family of chemorepellent molecules is active primarily during development? a. Slit b. Anosmin c. Ephrin d. Semaphorins e. Neuroligins Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Which signaling intermediate is responsible for converting Sema3A from a chemorepellent to a chemoattractive signal for dendrites? a. Netrin b. Soluble gyanylyl cyclase (sGC) c. TRP receptors d. DCC receptors e. PAR Answer: b Textbook Reference: Directed Dendritic Growth: Ensuring Polarity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. A mutation in which gene would lead to abnormalities in spacing of dendritic branches? a. Plexin b. Zic2 c. Integrin d. ROBO-3 e. DSCAM Answer: e Textbook Reference: Dendritic Tiling: Defining Synaptic Space Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which manipulation would disrupt normal retinal topographic mapping mechanisms in the mouse superior colliculus? a. Upregulating EphA5 receptor in the nasal retina b. Upregulating Ephrin A2 in the posterior superior colliculus c. Upregulating EphA5 receptor in the temporal retina d. Downregulating EphA5 receptor in the anterior superior colliculus e. Downregulating EphA5 receptor in the posterior superior colliculus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Formation of Topographic Maps Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. Polymorphisms in neuregulin1 can lead to increased probability of developing which disorder? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Schizophrenia c. Callosal agenesis d. Kallman syndrome e. Horizontal gaze palsy Answer: b Textbook Reference: Selective Synapse Formation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

20. In Drosophila, what prevents a neuron from establishing synapses on itself? a. DSCAM b. Integrin c. Ephrin A2 d. Sema3A e. BDNF Answer: a Textbook Reference: Selective Synapse Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. Which cellular molecules released by the target cell are responsible for supporting an innervating neuron, leading to its growth and survival? a. Protocadherins b. Neurexins c. Netrins d. Semaphorins e. Neurotrophic factors Answer: e Textbook Reference: Regulation of Neuronal Connections by Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. Male rodents have more motor neurons in the spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus, a motor neuron pool that controls muscles of the penis. Females do not have this muscle and have fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord region. What mechanism could lead to this sexual dimorphism in the number of motor neurons? a. Lack of cell adhesion molecules in females leads to no nerve cells attempting to innervate that region. b. Lack of cell adhesion molecules in females leads to apoptosis of nerve cells innervating that region. c. Upregulation of chemoattractant molecules in males leads to neurogenesis of nerve cells innervating that region. d. Lack of neurotrophic factors in females leads to apoptosis of nerve cells innervating the region. e. Upregulation of neurotrophic factors in males leads to apoptosis of nerve cells innervating the region.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulation of Neuronal Connections by Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 23. Treatment with which type of drug would prevent synapse elimination in a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron? a. Norepinephrine receptor antagonist that acts on the presynaptic membrane b. Acetylcholine receptor agonist that acts on the presynaptic membrane c. Acetylcholine receptor antagonist that acts on the postsynaptic membrane d. Potassium channel blocker that acts on the postsynaptic membrane e. Acetylcholinesterase that acts in the synaptic cleft

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Competitive Interactions and the Formation of Neuronal Connections Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Which statement about competitive interactions during the innervation of the neuromuscular junction is false? a. Blocking action potentials with TTX prevents the reduction of polyneuronal innervation. b. Blocking acetylcholine receptors with curare leads to the loss of all synaptic inputs. c. Polyneuronal innervation can be visualized with stains that reveal the presynaptic terminal and postsynaptic receptors. d. Reduction of polyneuronal innervation does not result from active displacement of the “losing” input by the eventual “winner.” e. The eventual mononeuronal innervation results from a “winner-take-all” process in which the losing axon’s input begins to lose strength, resulting in receptor loss and then further weakening.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Competitive Interactions and the Formation of Neuronal Connections Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. Which molecule that acts as a neurotrophic factor is also considered a cytokine because of its role in immune responses? a. Nerve growth factor b. Brain derived growth factor c. Neurotrophin-3 d. Glial-derived neurotrophic factor e. Ciliary neurotrophic factor Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. A mutation in the TrkA receptor gene would affect signaling of which neurotrophin? a. BDNF b. NGF c. NT-3 d. NT-4/5 e. Both BDNF and NT-4/5 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. Activation of Trk receptors can affect cell survival by initiating an intracellular signaling cascade via which protein? a. PI3 kinase b. c-Jun c. PLC d. Ras e. RhoA

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Neurite outgrowth promoted by neurotrophin signaling would be inhibited if there was a mutation in the gene for which protein? a. PLC b. RhoA c. PKB Akt kinase d. MAP Kinase e. DAG Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. Which statement about the p75 receptor is false? a. It can be activated by the same neurotrophins that activate Trk receptors. b. It is identical to the Trk receptors in terms of molecular structure and signaling pathways. c. It can initiate the c-jun transcriptional activation pathway. d. It can act through Rho GTPases to regulate neurite outgrowth. e. It is best activated by “unprocessed” neurotrophins.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Explain how the cytoskeleton is important in growth cone behavior.

Answer: The filopodia of the growth cones constantly grow and retract, searching the environment for chemoattractant and chemorepulsive cues. In order for this motility to occur, the growth cone cytoskeleton must be dynamic. Globular actin freely moves in the cytoplasm as monomer molecules, which can be elongated into filamentous actin to grow the filopodia. When filamentous actin is broken down, the filopodia retracts. Elongation of the axon occurs when tubulin polymerizes into microtubules.

Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Growth Cone Motility Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Name three components of the extracellular matrix that serve as axon guidance molecules.

How do neurons detect and respond to these molecules?

Answer: Laminins, collagens, and fibronectin. Neurons detect cell adhesion molecules with a family of receptors called integrins. Integrins bind laminin, collagen, or fibronectin, which then initiates an intracellular cascade of events, including activating cytoplasmic protein kinases and opening calcium channels.

Textbook Reference: Non-Diffusible Signals for Axon Guidance Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

3. List the major families of diffusible and non-diffusible axon guidance molecules. What kinds of factors could determine whether a guidance molecule is a chemoattractant or a chemorepellant?

Answer: Non-diffusible: Extracellular matrix molecules and their integrin receptors; Ca2+-independent cell adhesion molecules (CAMs); Ca2+-dependent cell adhesion molecules (cadherins); Ephrins and Eph receptors Diffusible: Netrin/slit family; Semaphorins The effects a guidance molecule has on a cell depend on the receptor it activates and the cellular mechanisms it initiates.

Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. What is the difference between trophic and tropic molecules?

Answer: Tropic molecules guide the growing axons to a target, whereas trophic molecules support and survival and growth of the neuron once contact with the target has been established.

Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What evidence did Sperry find that supports his chemoaffinity hypothesis? Have Sperry’s proposed “recognition molecules” been found?

Answer: The frog optic nerve can regenerate after damage, and when Sperry crushed the axons tracts, the retinal neurons re-innervated the tectum in a topographical manner. Although Sperry was incorrect when he envisioned a “lock and key” system for the identification tags between the tectum and retinal neurons, it has now been established that gradients of ephrins and Eph receptors across the tectum and retina lead to matching levels of specific ligands and receptors.

Textbook Reference: Formation of Topographic Maps Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What are some of the molecules that initiate synaptogenesis and participate in the early establishment of synapses? How do the pre- and postsynaptic components of a synapse become so well aligned?

Answer: The ephrins, CAMs, and cadherin molecules first play a role in recognizing suitable postsynaptic targets. Then adhesion molecules link the pre- and postsynaptic terminals for synaptogenesis. Neurexins and neuroligins are expressed at all synapses; presynaptic neurexin binds postsynaptic neuroligin, lining up the two membranes. Synaptic terminal machinery is then recruited by the adhesion molecules.

Textbook Reference: Selective Synapse Formation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What evidence suggests that activity-dependent competition governs synapse elimination?

Answer: Blocking synaptic activity at the neuromuscular junction, either by antagonizing postsynaptic ACh receptors or by blocking presynaptic sodium channels, inhibits synaptic elimination. Polyneuronal innervation remains.

Textbook Reference: Competitive Interactions and the Formation of Neuronal Connections

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What is the evidence that NGF is important in development? In the development of autonomic innervation, which cells produce NGF, and which cells does NGF support?

Answer: When NGF action was blocked during development, adult mice had smaller superior cervical ganglion. Additionally, in vitro sensory ganglia grown in the presence of NGF have significantly more neurite growth compared to ganglia grown in the absence of NGF, which have few, if any neurites.

Target tissues, such as smooth muscle, vascular tissue, and glandular tissue, produce NGF, which then supports the sympathetic neurons innervating the regions.

Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Name three members of the neurotrophin group of neurotrophic factors. How do their Trk receptors work? What aspects of development are influenced by neurotrophins?

Answer: NGF, BDNF, NT-3, and NT-4/5. Trk receptors activate three second-messenger cascades: • They activate the GPTase ras, which then activates MAP kinases, affecting neurite outgrowth and differentiation.

• They activate PI3 kinase, which then activates Akt kinase, affecting cell survival.

• They activate PLC, which initiates DAG / IP3 pathways, affecting activity-depending plasticity.

Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. The first step in developing the adult morphology of a neuron is a. insertion of voltage-gated ion channels into the cell membrane. b. establishment of an apical–basal cytoskeletal polarity. c. the appearance of an axon as the first protrusion from the cell body. d. the appearance of an apical dendrite as the first protrusion from the cell body. e. producing the appropriate neurotransmitters and receptors.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neuronal Polarization: The First Step in Neural Circuit Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. An animal model is created in which no cell polarity is determined, and no neurite grows into the characteristic axon. Which cellular mechanism is abnormal? a. Function of Par-3 in the axon b. Expression of ephrin B2 c. Expression of integrins d. Presence of cadherin proteins in membrane e. Cell adhesion molecule binding to integrin Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Neuronal Polarization: The First Step in Neural Circuit Formation Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. If one followed a growth cone through a “decision point” at which a choice about direction must be made, one would observe the growth cone a. forming a sharp point to pierce through the territory. b. flattening and opening all its ion channels. c. extending numerous filopodia, as if searching for environmental cues. d. bundling numerous filopodia into a battering-ram shape in order to penetrate the tissue in the new direction. e. firing barrages of action potentials to help it electrically burrow into the new tissue.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Axon Growth Cone Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which does not contribute to the laterality of retinal ganglion cell central projections? a. Expression of the Zic2 transcription factor b. Expression of EphB1 receptors in temporal retinal axons c. Expression of ephrin B2 ligand on midline glial cells d. Attraction of EphB1 axons to the ephrin B2 ligand e. The presence of a clear boundary between the retinal ganglion cells that project either ipsilaterally or contralaterally Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 23A: Choosing Sides: Axon Guidance at the Optic Chiasm Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Elongation of the axon proper (as it trails the growth cone) is most directly a consequence of a. actin polymerization. b. actin depolymerization. c. tubulin polymerization. d. tubulin depolymerization. e. filopodia withdrawal.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Growth Cone Motility Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Axon guidance cues can affect a. actin dynamics. b. the complement of receptors and channels at the surface of the plasma membrane. c. gene expression. d. the microtubule cytoskeleton. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Non-Diffusible Signals for Axon Guidance Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

7. A patient presents with postural and motor control dysfunction along with the inability to move her eyes horizontally. To make a diagnosis, you would check for a mutation in the _______ gene and examine the _______ with diffusion tensor imaging. a. L1; corpus callosum b. ROBO3; corticospinal tract c. KAL1; oculomotor nerve d. KIF21A; olfactory nerve e. Fibronectin; corpus callosum Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Axon Guidance Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Consider a couple being seen at a fertility clinic. During one of their appointments, the doctor requests that the woman not wear perfume to future appointments, in consideration of patients with chemical sensitivities. The man jokes that he is not one of those people, as he cannot smell anything. What suspicion might the fertility doctor have after hearing this new information? a. The woman cannot get pregnant because her cell adhesion molecules, L1, are dysfunctional. b. The man is infertile because his kinesin motor protein, KIF21A, is dysfunctional. c. The woman’s perfume is triggering a chemorepellent ligand receptor, which is making it difficult for the couple to conceive. d. The man has Kallmann syndrome. e. The man needs a zinc supplement.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Axon Guidance Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Semaphorins bound to cell surfaces or the extracellular matrix a. bind to robo and slit to prevent decussation of axons. b. cause growth cones to collapse and axons to stop growing. c. produce elevated potassium levels in most growth cones. d. attract growing axons toward the target region. e. establish polarity of the neuron.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Refer to the figure.

On the left, spinal cord axons in a control mouse are visualized in red. On the right, axons are shown in a knockout mouse model. Which gene is knocked out in the mouse on the right? a. The gene for plexin b. The gene for integrin c. The gene for a calcium channel d. The gene for the Eph receptor e. Netrin-1 Answer: e Textbook Reference: Chemoattraction and Chemorepulsion Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. A mutation in which gene would decrease dendritic branching in a neuron? a. Slit1 b. Sema3A c. Netrin-1 d. Gamma protocadherin e. PAR-3 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Directed Dendritic Growth: Ensuring Polarity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Roger Sperry’s chemoaffinity hypothesis a. arises from the fact that frog axons are able to regenerate. b. is supported by the orderly reinnervation of the frog optic tectum by regenerating retinal ganglion cells. c. correctly predicted that each optic tectal neuron–retinal axon pair would have a unique molecular lock-and-key recognition signal. d. was based upon his discovery of cell adhesion molecules in the optic tectum. e. relies on the random innervation of the optic tectum by retinal neurons Answer: b Textbook Reference: Formation of Topographic Maps Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

13. The two molecules that aid the molecular construction of most CNS synapses by recruiting pre- and postsynaptic machinery are _______ and _______. a. neurexin; neuroligin b. netrin; ephrin c. ephrin; the Eph receptor d. cadherin; protocadherin e. SynCAM; cadherin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Selective Synapse Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. In Drosophila, the DSCAM1 gene plays an important role in cell recognition. What mechanism allows this one gene to identify large numbers of neurons? a. Intracellular post-translational modifications b. Extracellular post-translational modifications c. Numerous alternative splicing locations d. Differences in expression levels e. Differences in location in the cell membrane Answer: c Textbook Reference: Selective Synapse Formation Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Neurotrophic factors a. provide hundreds of directional cues to guide axons to correct target locations. b. allow the CNS to produce and maintain a large number of excess neurons. c. play a role in adjusting the size of neuronal populations to an appropriate number. d. deliver glucose to sustain cells. e. deliver ATP to sustain cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Neuronal Connections by Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Neurotrophic factors a. ensure that the correct numbers of axons innervate each target cell. b. ensure that each axon innervates the correct number of target cells. c. are involved in the elimination of excess synaptic connections. d. influence the degree of divergence and convergence in synaptic innervation. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Competitive Interactions and the Formation of Neuronal Connections Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. The reported correlation between the number of dendrites and the number of innervating axons in adult rabbit ciliary ganglion cells a. was based on a behavioral read out of ciliary ganglion function.

b. served mainly to confirm similar findings established for CNS neurons. c. demonstrated that neurons cannot make more postsynaptic sites than they have dendrites. d. suggested that local competition between two nearby synapses results in the elimination of one of them. e. established that the more neurons innervating a target, the smaller the dendritic branching.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 23B: Why Do Neurons Have Dendrites?

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. A key observation leading to the discovery of trophic factors was a. that neurons do not require trophic factors if they receive sufficient glucose and oxygen. b. that all neurons appeared to release a self-stimulating trophic factor. c. the chance observation of neurons with extremely fat axons growing at remarkable speeds. d. the effect of mouse tumor cells on axon growth in mice. e. the effects of a mouse tumor that rapidly killed neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Molecular Basis of Trophic Interactions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which statement about neurotrophin activation of tyrosine kinase (Trk) receptors is true? a. Neural growth factor activates TrkA and TrkC. b. NT-3 activates TrkC and co-activates TrkA. c. BDNF and NT-4/5 both activate TrkA. d. BDNF and NT-4/5 both activate TrkB. e. All four neurotrophins activate all three Trk receptors.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. A mutation in the TrkC receptor gene would affect signaling of which neurotrophin? a. BDNF b. NGF c. NT-3 d. NT-4/5 e. Both BDNF and NT-4/5 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neurotrophin Signaling Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 24: Circuit Development: Intrinsic Factors and Sex Differences Multiple Choice 1. Sexually dimorphic somatic structures and neural brain circuits are most prominently involved in a. learning and memory. b. language functions. c. reproductive and parenting behaviors. d. emotional behaviors. e. cognitive and executive functions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sexual Dimorphisms and Sexually Dimorphic Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. What is the direct role of the SRY gene? a. Development of the ovaries b. Feminization of the brain c. Masculinization of the brain d. Development of the testes e. Production of enzymes that synthesize testosterone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. A male student participated in a genetic testing experiment at his university. He discovered that he is genetically XX. How could this be? a. There is a mutation in his gene for Müllerian-inhibiting substance. b. His fetal ovaries produced high levels of estrogen during development. c. During meiosis, the SRY gene was translocated to one of his autosomes. d. His second X chromosome was completely inactivated, leading to the default male phenotype. e. There is a mutation in his androgen receptor gene.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. Which neurotransmitters play an important role in the feeling of being in love? a. Oxytocin and vasopressin b. Norepinephrine and epinephrine c. Dopamine and serotonin

d. Oxytocin and serotonin e. Dopamine and vasopressin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 24A: The Science of Love (or, Love as a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Which experimental manipulation would prevent the formation of a partner preference in a female vole? a. Injection of a D2 receptor agonist in the nucleus accumbens b. Injection of a D2 receptor antagonist in the ventral pallidum c. Injection of a D2 receptor antagonist in the nucleus accumbens d. Injection of a vasopressin agonist in the ventral pallidum e. Injection of a vasopressin agonist in the nucleus accumbens Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 24A: The Science of Love (or, Love as a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Janet is examining slides containing male vole brain slices. She determines the vole she is looking at lived a monogamous, pair-bonded lifestyle. What did she see on the slides that led her to that conclusion? a. The animal had a high density of vasopressin receptors in the nucleus accumbens. b. The animal had a low density of dopamine receptors D2 in the nucleus accumbens. c. The animal had a low density of oxytocin receptors in the nucleus accumbens. d. The animal had a high density of vasopressin receptors in the ventral pallidum. e. The animal had a low density of dopamine receptors D2 in the ventral pallidum.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 24A: The Science of Love (or, Love as a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Which brain region is deactivated when a mother views a picture of her child? a. Caudate putamen b. Amygdala c. Ventral tegmental area d. Primary visual cortex e. Cerebellum Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 24A: The Science of Love (or, Love as a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. Aromatase is responsible for which action? a. Converts testosterone to estradiol b. Converts estradiol to testosterone c. Converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone d. Converts dihydrotestosterone to testosterone e. Converts progesterone to testosterone Answer: a

Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Which substance is not involved in masculinization of the genitalia and nervous system? a. Epinephrine b. Testosterone c. Estradiol d. Müllerian inhibiting substance (MIS) e. Aromatase Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. If an aromatase inhibitor was given during perinatal development, what effect would that have on the animal? a. It would prevent the masculinization by testosterone (mediated via androgen receptors). b. It would increase the masculinization by estrogen (mediated via estrogen receptors). c. It would decrease the feminization by estrogen (mediated via estrogen receptors). d. It would increase the masculinization by testosterone (mediated via androgen receptors). e. It would prevent the masculinization by estrogen (mediated via estrogen receptors).

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. In the rat, estrogen receptors are densely distributed in which brain region? a. Hypothalamus b. Olfactory bulb c. Corpus callosum d. Cerebellum e. Spinal cord Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. A female mouse is treated during development with testosterone. What effect would this have on the development of the spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus (SNB) system? a. The bulbocavernosus muscle would be present, and the number of motor neurons present would not be different from controls. b. The bulbocavernosus muscle would be present, and the number of motor neurons present would be more than controls. c. The bulbocavernosus muscle would not be present, and the number of motor neurons present would not be different from controls. d. The bulbocavernosus muscle would not be present, and the number of motor neurons present would be more than controls. e. The bulbocavernosus muscle would not be present, and the number of motor neurons present would be less than controls.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Development of Dimorphisms in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Which statement about sexual dimorphism of the spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus (SNB) in rats is false? a. It innervates the bulbocavernosus and levator ani muscles in males. b. Apoptotic death of target muscle cells in females leads to neuronal death in the SNB. c. The male perineal muscles have androgen receptors, but the female muscles do not. d. Males have more SNB neurons than females. e. SNB neurons in males express androgen receptors.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Development of Dimorphisms in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. What effect would a mutation in the estrogen receptor gene have on the development of the AVPV? a. The AVPV in knockout males would be larger than control males. b. The AVPV in knockout females would be larger than control females. c. The AVPV in knockout males would be smaller than control males. d. The AVPV in knockout females would be smaller than control females. e. The AVPV in knockout females would be the same size as control males.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. What effect would testosterone treatment during development have on the size of the adult SDN-POA? a. Treated males would have decreased cell numbers compared to control males due to an increase in apoptosis. b. Treated females would have increased cell numbers compared to control females due to an increase in neurogenesis. c. Treated females would have increased cell numbers compared to control females due to inhibition of apoptosis. d. Treated females would have decreased cell numbers compared to control females due to an increase in apoptosis. e. Treated females would have increased cell numbers compared to control females due to an increase in neurogenesis.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. What effect would testosterone treatment during development have on the size of the adult AVPV? a. Treated males would have decreased cell numbers compared to control males due to a decrease in neurogenesis.

b. Treated females would have increased cell numbers compared to control females due to an increase in neurogenesis. c. Treated females would have increased cell numbers compared to control females due to inhibition of apoptosis. d. Treated females would have decreased cell numbers compared to control females due to an increase in apoptosis. e. Treated females would have decreased cell numbers compared to control females due to a decrease in neurogenesis.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. A rodent animal model has a mutation in the androgen receptor (AR), making it dysfunctional. If you looked at the SND-POA of adults of this mutant AR animal model, what would you expect to see? a. The SDN-POA would be the same size in mutant males as in control females. b. The SDN-POA would be bigger in mutant females than in mutant males. c. The SDN-POA would be smaller in mutant males than in control females. d. The SDN-POA would be the same size in mutant males as in control males. e. The SDN-POA would be bigger in mutant females than in control males.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. Treating a male zebra finch during development with which drug would lead to a female-like neural song circuit? a. Androgen receptor agonist b. Androgen receptor antagonist c. Estrogen receptor agonist d. Estrogen receptor antagonist e. Progesterone receptor antagonist Answer: d Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. A female rodent is treated with dihydrotestosterone (DHT) during development. DHT acts on androgen receptors and is not converted to estradiol. Which outcome would you expect to see? a. Her SDN-POA would be larger than control females. b. Her SDN-POA would be smaller than control females. c. Her SDN-POA would be the same size as control females. d. Her SDN-POA would be larger than control males. e. Her SDN-POA would be the same size as control males.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

20. What role does Bax play in the cell during development? a. It increases apoptosis. b. It decreases apoptosis. c. It increases neurogenesis. d. It increases neurite outgrowth. e. It increases dendritic spine density.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. Upregulating Bcl2 in the developing mouse would have which effect on the brain? a. It would decrease SDN-POA size in females and decrease AVPV size in males. b. It would decrease SDN-POA size in males and decrease AVPV size in females. c. It would increase SDN-POA size in females and increase AVPV size in males. d. It would increase both the SDN-POA and AVPV in males. e. It would increase both the SDN-POA and AVPV in females.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 22. What effect does estrogen have on hippocampal neurons compared to non-hormone treated neurons? a. Estrogen decreases the amplitude of EPSPs. b. Estrogen increases the amplitude of IPSPs. c. Estrogen decreases the amplitude of IPSPs. d. Estrogen decreases LTP after high frequency stimulation. e. Estrogen enhances LTP after high frequency stimulation.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. Rat pups from high licking mothers were cross fostered to low licking mothers, and pups from low licking mothers were given to high licking mothers. The stress responses of the cross fostered pups were more similar to the foster mother than the biological mother. From this we can conclude that a. stress responses have little to do with gene expression. b. low licking is a form of abuse in rats. c. maternal care may be an epigenetic factor in the development of the stress response. d. the relation of licking to stress is not correlational. e. the stress response is modulated by heritable components.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: The Good Mother Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 24. Compared to offspring of low-LG/ABN females, high-LG/ABN offspring have a. increased GR expression in the hippocampus and a more adaptive response to stress.

b. decreased GR expression in the hippocampus and a less adaptive response to stress. c. increased GR expression in the hippocampus and a less adaptive response to stress. d. decreased GR expression in the hippocampus and a more adaptive response to stress. e. no difference in GR expression in the hippocampus and a more adaptive response to stress.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: The Good Mother Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. A baby is born with intersex genitalia. A blood test shows high levels of circulating testosterone. Genetic testing of the baby would likely indicate which condition? a. The baby is XY and has androgen insensitivity syndrome. b. The baby is XX and has congenital adrenal hyperplasia. c. The baby has only 1 X chromosome and has Turner’s syndrome. d. The baby has a mutation in 5-alpha reductase and has 5-alpha reductase deficiency. e. The baby is XYY and has Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 26. Which statement about 5-α-reductase enzyme deficiency in males from the Dominican Republic is false? a. This enzyme deficiency results in a lack of dihydrotestosterone during development. b. Genitalia are initially female in appearance. c. At puberty these individuals develop phenotypically male genitalia. d. Early genetic testing offers no benefits for these individuals. e. When such individuals are raised as males they tend to retain their masculine gender identity as well as a heterosexual sexual orientation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. What causes Turner’s syndrome? a. An extra Y chromosome in a genetic female b. An extra Y chromosome in a genetic male c. Missing an X chromosome in a genetic female d. Missing a Y chromosome in a genetic male e. An extra X chromosome in a genetic female Answer: c Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 28. What functional difference in the brain exists between heterosexual and homosexual men? a. When presented as an odorant, estrogens activate the hypothalamus in homosexual but not heterosexual men. b. When presented as an odorant, androgens activate the hypothalamus in heterosexual but not homosexual men.

c. When presented as an odorant, estrogens activate the cingulate cortex in homosexual but not heterosexual men. d. When presented as an odorant, androgens activate the cingulate cortex in heterosexual but not homosexual men. e. When presented as an odorant, androgens activate the hypothalamus in homosexual but not heterosexual men.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sexual Orientation and Human Brain Structure Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 29. What functional difference in the brain exists between heterosexual and homosexual women? a. When presented as an odorant, estrogens activate the cingulate cortex in homosexual but not heterosexual women. b. When presented as an odorant, androgens activate the hypothalamus in homosexual but not heterosexual women. c. When presented as an odorant, estrogens activate the hypothalamus in heterosexual but not homosexual women. d. When presented as an odorant, estrogens activate the hypothalamus in homosexual but not heterosexual women. e. When presented as an odorant, androgens activate the cingulate cortex in homosexual but not heterosexual women.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sexual Orientation and Human Brain Structure Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 30. Functional neuroimaging studies examining sex differences in the amygdala’s response to an emotional memory have shown a. greater activation in the right amygdala in females compared to males. b. greater activation in the left amygdala in females compared to males. c. bilaterally greater activation in the amygdala in females compared to males. d. bilaterally greater activation in the amygdala in males compared to females. e. no difference between females and males.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sex-Based Differences in Cognitive Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. What is meant by sexually dimorphic? Give examples of sexually dimorphic cognition and behavior.

Answer: Sexually dimorphic refers to consistent, physical differences that exist between males and females of a species. For example, antennae of male tobacco hawk moths are much larger than females’ and are lined with cilia only in male moths; these differences are paralleled in the organization of the glomeruli in the olfactory system. Additionally, only male zebra finches sing complex songs. The males have larger physical properties, like the syrinx, and also larger nuclei

in the brain regions related to bird song.

Textbook Reference: Sexual Dimorphisms and Sexually Dimorphic Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. What dictates whether the primordial gonads will become testes or ovaries?

Answer: The presence of the SRY gene initiates gene expression cascades that lead to development of the testis. In the absence of SRY, ovaries develop.

Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Distinguish between sexual identity and sexual orientation.

Answer: Sexual identity refers to how an individual sees themselves in relation to phenotypic sex. It does not always parallel the chromosomal or phenotypic sex. Sexual orientation refers to attraction toward another person. For example, orientation can be toward the opposite sex (heterosexual), the same sex (homosexual), both sexes (bisexual), or neither sex (asexual).

Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. If both males and females make estrogens and androgens, how do sex hormones specify a “male” versus “female” brain?

Answer: Both males and females can produce estrogens and androgens, but there are significant differences in the levels of each hormone and the timing of their production, particularly during development. During gestation, males have a surge of testosterone release from the testes, which can act directly on androgen receptors or be converted to estradiol via aromatase.

Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s level: 3. Applying 5. What prevents the mother’s circulating estrogens from affecting the sexual differentiation of her fetus?

Answer: Fetuses express a protein called α-fetoprotein, which binds circulating estrogens, preventing them from activating estrogen receptors and having masculinizing effects.

Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s level: 2. Understanding 6. What is the evidence that sex hormones influence brain circuitry early in development?

Distinguish between organizational and activational effects of these hormones.

Answer: Experimental studies that altered hormone levels during development have shown that sex hormones alter brain circuitry. For example, treating female rodents with testosterone during development leads to an increase in the size of the SDN-POA and a decrease in the size of the AVPV. Organizational effects are those that take place during development, setting up the nervous system for future behaviors. Activational effects take place later in life, when circulating hormones “activate” the brain circuits that were organized early in life to perform adult behaviors.

Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors

Bloom’s level: 3. Applying 7. Explain how testosterone promotes sex differences in the SNB of the rat spinal cord, the AVPV of the hypothalamus, and the SDN of the preoptic area. What is the function of each of these areas?

Answer: Testosterone affects the spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus (SNB) group of motor neurons by promoting survival of the bulbocavernosus and levator ani muscles in the male, which degrade in the females. Trophic signals from the muscles keep the motor neurons alive.

These motor neurons and muscles are important for penile function.

Testosterone, via conversion to estrogen, leads to apoptosis in the neurons of the AVPV, which is larger in females than in males. The AVPV regulates the ovulatory cycles. In the SDN-POA, though, testosterone, via conversion to estrogen, prevents the expression of apoptotic genes, leading to larger SDN-POAs in males. The SDN-POA mediates mate selection and reproductive behaviors.

Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What evidence is there that sex-related brain circuits can change even in adulthood?

Answer: Dendritic spine density and synaptic transmission properties in the hippocampus change during the estrogen fluctuations of the estrous cycle in female rodents. Additionally, there are neuroprotective effects of estrogens that are lost after hysterectomy. Finally, illicit testosterone use in athletes can have significant effects on mood and behavior.

Textbook Reference: Steroid Receptors and Responses in the Adult Brain Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. If a person’s chromosomal sex is male, is the phenotypic sex necessarily male? Explain.

Answer: No. XY individuals that have mutations in genes for either the androgen receptor or Müllerian-inhibiting hormone will develop as phenotypically female (however, both sets of individuals will develop testes). Also, an XY individual that does not have a functioning SRY gene will develop as phenotypically female.

Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Simon LeVay found that a size difference between homosexual and heterosexual males in the INAH3 region of the hypothalamus. What criticisms have arisen surrounding his work?

Answer: A sizeable proportion of the self-identified homosexual men that were examined in LeVay’s study had died of AIDS-related causes. It since has been determined that AIDS alters brain structure, regardless of sexual orientation, and more recent work has failed to replicate the INAH3 size difference finding.

Textbook Reference: Sexual Orientation and Human Brain Structure Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Sexual dimorphism refers to

a. the characteristics of organisms that are hermaphroditic. b. physical differences between sexes in a species. c. neural similarities between sexes in a species. d. the development of the gametes. e. All the genetic differences between the sexes in a species.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sexual Dimorphisms and Sexually Dimorphic Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which statement about sex chromosomes is true? a. They are often specific for a particular male or female genotype. b. Males in some species have three copies of the sex chromosome. c. In some species, a male-specific chromosome can be either present or absent. d. In humans, females have two X chromosomes, whereas males have one X and one Y. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement about the SRY gene is false? a. In XXY males, the presence of SRY results in male gonadal development. b. SRY is expressed in the brain. c. Activation of the SRY gene during the first trimester of gestation results in male gonadal development. d. SRY is responsible for producing TDF (testis-determining factor). e. SRY is the single gene that defines male genotypic and phenotypic sex characteristics.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sex, Gonads, Bodies, and Brains Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which brain system is associated with the feeling of being in love? a. Motor b. Somatosensory c. Visual d. Autonomic e. Reward Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 24A The Science of Love (or, Love As a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows the amount of time male prairie voles (control: CSF; treated: VP) spend with a pair-bonded partner compared to time spent with a stranger. Which drug was injected into the ventral pallidum (VP) in the treated animal group to produce these results? a. D2 receptor agonist b. Vasopressin antagonist c. D2 receptor antagonist d. Oxytocin antagonist e. Vasopressin agonist Answer: b Textbook Reference: BOX 24A The Science of Love (or, Love As a Drug) Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 6. Circulating α-fetoprotein in the fetus a. binds to circulating testosterone. b. binds to circulating estrogens. c. is a substance (in addition to the gonadal steroid hormones) that has direct effects on sexual brain dimorphisms. d. is not found in fetuses of placental mammals. e. is only found in female fetuses.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. 5-α-reductase is responsible for the conversion of a. testosterone to estradiol. b. estradiol to testosterone. c. testosterone to dihydrotestosterone. d. dihydrotestosterone to testosterone. e. progesterone to testosterone.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

8. A mouse line has the α-fetoprotein gene knocked out. What effect would you expect this have on the animals? a. Female brains will be more feminized than controls. b. Female brains will be more masculinized than controls. c. Male brains will be more feminized than controls. d. XY animals will develop as female. e. XX animals will develop as male.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hormonal Influences on Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows the number of motor neurons in two regions of Onuf’s nucleus in male and female rats. Which statement best describes the results? a. Males have more motor neurons in the VL group and the DM group compared to females. b. Females have more motor neurons in the VL group and the DM group compared to males. c. Females have more motor neurons in the VL group and an almost equal number of motor neurons in the DM group compared to males. d. Males have more motor neurons in the VL group and an almost equal number of motor neurons in the DM group compared to females. e. Males have an almost equal number of motor neurons in the VL group and the DM group compared to females.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Development of Dimorphisms in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Studies examining the sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (SDN-POA) have shown that a. it is larger in male rats than in female rats. b. administering androgens to adult female rats results in a larger SDN-POA.

c. if it is lesioned in male rats, they exhibit female style copulatory behaviors. d. in female rats, SDN-POA neurons are quiescent during sexual arousal and partner-seeking. e. in male monkeys, SDN-POA neurons are most active during mating.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Which drug, when given during development, would block masculinization of the SDN-POA in male rodents? a. Estrogen receptor agonist b. Androgen receptor agonist c. Aromatase inhibitor d. Androgen receptor antagonist e. 5-α-reductase inhibitor Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Which drug, when given during development, would lead to the development of a male-like neural song circuit in a female zebra finch? a. Androgen receptor agonist b. Androgen receptor antagonist c. Estrogen receptor agonist d. Estrogen receptor antagonist e. Progesterone receptor antagonist Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Dimorphisms and the Establishment of Reproductive Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Estradiol can a. stimulate brain dimorphisms by decreasing cell size, dendritic length, and dendritic branching. b. decrease synaptic density during development. c. decrease the density of adult hippocampal spines during the estrous cycle. d. reduce LTP after high-frequency stimulation. e. modify potassium and calcium conductances in hippocampal neurons to increase action potential rate.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which is not a result of circulating gonadal steroids? a. Promotion of neuronal synchrony in the hypothalamic PVN via increased gap junctions b. Silencing of large populations of neurons that are no longer needed c. Alterations of calcium and potassium conductances in hippocampal neurons d. Enhancement of long-term potentiation (LTP) when high estrogen concentrations are coupled with high-frequency stimulation

e. Changes in the rate of action potential firing in hippocampal neurons Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. You examine the AVPV in adult animals that had the Bax gene inactivated during development. What would you expect to see? a. Experimental males will have a smaller AVPV than control males. b. Experimental males will have a larger AVPV than control males. c. Experimental males will have the same size AVPV as control males. d. Experimental females will have a smaller AVPV than control males. e. Experimental females will have a smaller AVPV than control females.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Basis of Sexually Dimorphic Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Studies of high-LG/ABN rat mothers, low-LG/ABN rat mothers, and their offspring have shown that a. pups born to low-LG/ABN mothers also exhibit low-LG/ABN parenting behaviors in adulthood, even when they have been reared by high-LG/ABN mothers. b. pups reared by high-LG/ABN mothers exhibit better adaptive responses to stress than those reared by low-LG/ABN mothers. c. offspring of high-LG/ABN mothers have lower levels of glucocorticoid receptors in the hippocampus. d. the differences in the expression of high- or low-LG/ABN is based on modifications of the glucocorticoid receptor gene. e. differences in maternal care alter dopamine signaling, leading to offspring of high-LG/ABN moms having increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptors.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: The Good Mother Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Estrogen and androgen receptors can be found in the hippocampus as well as in the a. substantia nigra. b. amygdala. c. cerebral cortex. d. cerebellum. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Steroid Receptors and Responses in the Adult Brain Bloom’s Level: 1 Remembering 18. Which syndrome results from an abnormal number of chromosomes? a. Klinefelter’s syndrome b. Testes-at-12 c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

d. Androgen insensitivity e. All of the above Answer: a Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. A 15-year-old girl has not experienced puberty, so she and her mother visit the doctor. She is otherwise healthy and gender-typical. A blood test shows high levels of circulating testosterone, and a genetic test is ordered. Which result would you expect the genetic test to show? a. The girl is XY and has androgen insensitivity syndrome. b. The girl is XX and has congenital adrenal hyperplasia. c. The girl has only one X chromosome and has Turner’s syndrome. d. The girl has a mutation in 5-alpha reductase and has 5-alpha reductase deficiency. e. The girl is XYY and has Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Human Genetic Disorders of Genotypic and Phenotypic Sex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. Postmortem studies of a human interstitial nucleus of the hypothalamus (INAH3) have demonstrated that a. the size of the INAH3 is a reliable indicator of sexual orientation. b. INAH3 is smaller in males who self-identified as homosexual than it is in heterosexual females. c. the density of neurons in the INAH3 reliably predicts sexual orientation. d. INAH3 is larger in males who self-identified as homosexual than it is in heterosexual males. e. INAH3 is smaller in males who self-identified as homosexual than it is in heterosexual males Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sexual Orientation and Human Brain Structure Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 25: Experience-Dependent Plasticity in the Developing Brain Multiple Choice 1. The number of total synapses in the visual cortex increases until approximately what age in humans? a. 25 weeks gestation b. Birth c. 8 months d. 5 years e. 20 years Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Activity and Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement regarding critical periods is true? a. The behavior will not develop without input from the environment. b. Stimulation from the environment activates sensory or motor pathways. c. Stimulation from the environment leads to changes in synaptic connections. d. Neural connections are mostly permanent outside of the critical period timeframe. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Which evidence best supports the idea that primates show innate maternal imprinting? a. Mother monkeys prefer the smell of their infants over other babies. b. Infant humans show fear reactions on the day of birth. c. Infant monkeys follow the first moving object they see after birth. d. Infant monkeys prefer a soft, inanimate mother surrogate over a wire surrogate with food. e. Infant humans show a preference for their father’s smell within the first day of life.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 25A: Built-In Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 4. In which cell type are the retinal waves initiated? a. Amacrine cells b. Bipolar cells c. Photoreceptors d. Ganglion cells

e. Horizontal cells Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Role of Oscillations in Establishing Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. What difference would you expect to see between mice that had fetal retinal waves blocked and control animals? a. Photoreceptors in experimental mice do not hyperpolarize in response to light. b. The bipolar cells in experimental mice release GABA. c. There is a decrease in the number of fibers that cross at the optic chiasm in experimental mice. d. The visual cortex would be separated into ocular dominance columns in layers 3 and 5 in experimental mice. e. The LGN in experimental mice is not segregated into monocular layers.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Role of Oscillations in Establishing Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Refer to the figure.

A radioactive tracer is injected into the eye. Which tissue does this autoradiograph show? a. Retinal waves of Layers 2 and 3 b. Ocular dominance columns of Layer 4 c. Integrated retinal inputs of Layer 5 d. Binocular cells of Layers 2 and 3 e. White and gray matter of Layer 4 Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Role of Oscillations in Establishing Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Which experimental evidence best supports the idea that retinal waves are responsible for initial organization of the visual cortex?

a. Recorded activity in the retina correlates highly with recorded activity in the visual cortex. b. Calcium influx changes at a rapid and significant rate across the retinal surface. c. Calcium transients correlate highly with EPSPs in retinal cells. d. Radioactive tracers injected into the retina allow visualization of ocular dominance columns in the visual cortex. e. Monocular deprivation at one month of age in the cat leads to altered ocular dominance columns in the visual cortex.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Role of Oscillations in Establishing Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 8. Which evidence best supports the idea that the critical period for the organization of the visual cortex lasts a finite time? a. Monocular deprivation in a kitten leads to the majority of cortical cells responding to only the open eye. b. Monocular deprivation in an adult cat has little effect on the distribution of cortical neurons activated by stimulation of both eyes. c. A normal adult cat will have the majority of cortical cells activated by some degree to stimulation in both eyes. d. Monocular deprivation in a kitten leads to the majority of cortical cells responding to only the closed eye. e. Dark exposure after monocular deprivation will increase visual acuity in the previously closed eye.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 9. You want to record from a visual cortex neuron that is innervated by only one eye. Where is the best location to place your recording electrode? a. Layer 2 b. Layer 3 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5 e. Layer 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. A kitten is deprived of visual stimulation in one eye for the first 2 months of life. After the cat reaches adulthood, you record from different areas of the nervous system the response to direct electrical stimulation to the deprived eye. Where would you expect to see neuronal dysfunction compared to a control cat? a. Photoreceptor cells b. Retinal ganglion cells c. LGN cells d. Visual cortex cells

e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. A kitten is deprived of visual stimulation in one eye for the first 2 months of life. After the cat reaches adulthood, you record from cells in the visual cortex in response to light stimulus on both eyes. Which outcome would you expect? a. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the non-deprived eye. b. There is an even distribution of cells that are activated by stimulation to only the non-deprived eye (1/3 of cells), only the deprived eye (1/3 of cells), and a combination of both eyes (1/3 of cells). c. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the deprived eye. d. Most cells are activated to some degree by stimulation in both eyes. e. Most cells are non-responsive.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Which statement does not describe a feature of critical periods that supports the proper development of visual systems? a. They persist over a limited window of time (relative to the animal’s lifespan). b. Large circuitry effects can occur on a time scale of days. c. Sensory input is required for the adaptive process to occur. d. They result in essentially permanent changes in the affected neural circuitry. e. They promote plasticity over the animal’s entire lifetime.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. An adult cat is deprived of visual stimulation in one eye for a year. After that time, you record from cells in the visual cortex in response to light stimulus on both eyes. Which outcome would you expect? a. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the non-deprived eye. b. There is an even distribution of cells that are activated by stimulation to only the non-deprived eye (1/3 of cells), only the deprived eye (1/3 of cells), and a combination of both eyes (1/3 of cells). c. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the deprived eye. d. Most cells are activated to some degree by stimulation in both eyes. e. Most cells are non-responsive.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Changes in ocular dominance columns in the visual cortex after visual deprivation during development provided support for which idea?

a. Cortical neurons that do not receive sufficient stimulation during the critical period undergo apoptosis. b. Cortical neurons that do not receive sufficient stimulation during the critical period become unresponsive. c. There is a significant amount of plasticity in the adult visual system, and visual training can improve sight. d. Cortical neurons that do not receive sufficient stimulation during the critical period continue to be innervated by thalamic neurons, but the threshold for action potential firing is higher compared to controls. e. There is competitive interaction for postsynaptic space during the critical period.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 15. In rats, what procedure, when applied during adulthood, results in increased visual acuity after visual deprivation during development? a. Bright light exposure b. Dark exposure c. Induction of retinal waves d. Flashing light exposure e. Optical illusion training Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dancing in the Dark Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. The ability of dark exposure to extend the timeframe of the critical period is believed to be due to delayed maturation of neurons that release which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. Glutamate c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine e. Serotonin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dancing in the Dark Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Refer to the figure.

The data in the graph are the results of recording from neurons in the visual cortex in a cat while presenting a light stimulus to each eye. Neurons in group 1 are activated by only the contralateral eye, neurons in group 7 are activated by only the ipsilateral eye, and neurons in group 2 through 6 are activated by a combination of both eyes. What experimental procedure did the cat undergo before the data was collected? a. Monocular deprivation in development b. Monocular deprivation in adulthood c. Induced strabismus in development d. Binocular deprivation in development e. Induced strabismus in adulthood Answer: c Textbook Reference: Manipulating Competition Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. How does the development of visual cortical neuron orientation preference differ from the development of ocular dominance? a. The critical period for orientation preference lasts from birth into adulthood; the critical period for ocular dominance lasts from birth to about 3 months. b. Orientation preference is established prior to birth; ocular dominance requires development after birth. c. Orientation preference does not require binocular vision during the critical period; ocular dominance does. d. Orientation preference is a “blank slate” at birth with no established development; ocular dominance columns have a baseline amount of segregation at birth. e. Even if not developed properly, orientation preference does not affect visual processing; when not developed properly, ocular dominance has a significant effect on visual processing.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Binocular Competition and Orientation Tuning for Binocular Vision Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 19. Which treatment option might a doctor recommend for an infant patient diagnosed with esotropia? a. Immediate surgical correction b. Surgical correction at age 2 c. Immediate light stimulation therapy for the affected eye d. Immediate dark stimulation therapy for the affected eye e. Dark stimulation therapy for the affected eye at age 2 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Amblyopia, Strabismus, and Critical Periods for Human Vision Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. How does the treatment for bilateral congenital cataracts differ from unilateral congenital cataracts? a. Intervention can be performed at a later time point for unilateral cataracts. b. Intervention can be performed at a later time point for bilateral cataracts. c. Intervention for unilateral cataracts can be performed with non-invasive, training procedures, but bilateral cataracts require surgery. d. It is not possible to correct bilateral cataracts. e. The treatment is the same for both diagnoses.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Amblyopia, Strabismus, and Critical Periods for Human Vision Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. Which neurotransmitter is most important for the cortical changes that occur during a critical period? a. GABA b. Glutamate c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine e. Serotonin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. Which neurotrophic factor has been shown to play an important role in plasticity during critical periods? a. Nerve growth factor b. Ciliary neurotrophic factor c. Neurotrophin-3 d. Glial-derived neurotrophic factor e. Brain derived growth factor Answer: e

Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. One target of the serine-threonine kinase CaMKII is a. Ube3a b. NGF c. Voltage-gated calcium channels d. AMPA-R e. mGluR Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 24. Which ion is responsible for the intracellular mechanisms that are necessary during a critical period? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium e. Magnesium Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. Which characteristic may play a role in the fact that young children can acquire languages with more fluency than adults? a. Auditory processing by the hair cells undergoes functional changes at approximately age 8. b. The regions of the brain activated by word-processing tasks in children are different than those activated in adults. c. The elementary school language curriculum solidifies language knowledge, reducing plasticity. d. The primary neurotransmitter in the language center in the brain in children is different than the transmitter in adults. e. Synapse proliferation in the auditory cortex continues only until about age 10.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for a Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. Which evidence best supports the idea of a critical period for human language development? a. Babies start verbally “babbling” at about 7 months of age. b. Hearing infants start manual (hand) “babbling” at about 10 months of age. c. Word-processing tasks activate the same neuronal network in 7-year-olds as in adults. d. Deaf infants will not develop language if not provided with sign language at a young age. e. Cortical white matter increases until puberty and then begins to decline.

Answer: d

Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for a Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 27. Which evidence best supports the notion that infants can recognize all phonemes, regardless of parent language? a. Infants from Japanese-speaking households verbally “babble” at the same age as infants from English-speaking households. b. Infants from Japanese-speaking households can discriminate “ba” and “pa” sounds as well as infants from English-speaking households, and they retain that ability later in life. c. Infants from Japanese-speaking households can discriminate “r” and “l” sounds as well as infants from English-speaking households, despite losing that ability later on in life. d. Word-processing tasks activate different cortical regions in infants from Japanese-speaking households than in infants from English-speaking households. e. There is no evidence that supports this claim.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for a Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 28. Which disorder is associated with decreased cortical gray matter growth during early postnatal life? a. ADHD b. Schizophrenia c. Alzheimer’s d. Bipolar disorder e. Depression Answer: a Textbook Reference: Human Brain Development, Activity-Dependent Plasticity, and Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 29. Longitudinal MRI studies of children from age 5 to age 20 led to what finding? a. Gray matter volume increases across the measured time. b. White matter volume decreases across the measured time. c. Gray matter volume decreases across the measured time. d. Gray matter volume increases for a few years and then declines for the remainder of the measured time. e. Gray matter volume declines for a few years and then increases for the remainder of the measured time.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Human Brain Development, Activity-Dependent Plasticity, and Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. How might Hebb’s postulate account for the formation of ocular dominance columns?

Answer: Hebb’s postulate states that synapses with correlated activity patterns will strengthen while other connections will weaken, establishing competition between inputs. Ocular dominance columns are formed when input from one eye successfully innervates a neuron while input from the other eye retracts from that neuron but successfully innervates a neuron elsewhere, all due to competitive interaction.

Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Describe the effects of monocular deprivation during a critical period on the development of ocular dominance columns. Include the experimental methods that have been used to make these observations in your answer.

Answer: When tracers are injected into an eye, ocular dominance columns in cortical layer 4 of healthy animals can be seen as alternating stripes of roughly equal width. When one eye is deprived of visual stimulation during development, however, the input from the closed eye decreases significantly, and as a result, the stripes from the open eye occupy a majority of the cortical space.

Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. How are ocular dominance columns affected by binocular deprivation compared to monocular deprivation? What would you conclude from this observation?

Answer: Binocular deprivation has little effect on the development of ocular dominance columns, unlike monocular deprivation. When both eyes are deprived, there is no imbalance in activity, so the ocular dominance columns develop normally. This indicates that changes in the visual cortex are based on the distribution of inputs.

Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. What recent data suggests the adult visual cortex retains some plasticity outside of the critical periods?

Answer: In adult rats that underwent monocular deprivation during the critical period in development, visual acuity of the deprived eye was immediately improved following several days in a dark environment. In these adult rats, visual acuity was further improved after subsequent testing.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dancing in the Dark Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 5. How does strabismus during the critical period affect the development of ocular dominance in the visual cortex? What are the consequences on visual perception?

Answer: In the cat, strabismus leads to most neurons of the visual cortex being responsive to stimulation in one eye or the other and few being responsive to stimulation that reaches both eyes (binocularly driven). In humans, untreated strabismus can lead to visual impairment, including complete blindness, in the affected eye.

Textbook Reference: Amblyopia, Strabismus, and Critical Periods for Human Vision Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What are the clinical implications of Hubel and Wiesel’s research on the effects of monocular deprivation and strabismus?

Answer: The early work of Hubel and Wiesel has led to the understanding that visual interventions in response to disease or dysfunction must occur early in life, and when this happens, adult vision can be saved.

Textbook Reference: Amblyopia, Strabismus, and Critical Periods for Human Vision Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 7. Explain how Ca2+ may be involved in Hebbian strengthening of synapses through changes in gene expression.

Answer: Calcium activates CaMKII and ERK, which phosphorylate target proteins like AMPAR. The kinases also translocate to the nucleus and activate transcription factors like CREB, altering gene transcription. Increases in calcium signaling can also modify the cytoskeleton of the cell and alter trafficking of proteins in the cell.

Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What is a critical period? Give three examples.

Answer: A critical period is a time in development during which experience can alter aspects of the nervous system that has highly plastic characteristics. Examples include the learning of proper songs from male tutors in young male zebra finches, imprinting on the mother bird in newly hatched chicks, the development of ocular dominance columns in the visual cortex in mammals, and language learning in humans.

Textbook Reference: Evidence for Critical Periods in Other Sensory Systems Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. How would you test for the presence of a critical period?

Answer: One way to test for the presence of a critical period is to remove the source of the experience or activity (e.g., visual stimulation, auditory stimulation, hormonal stimulation) and measure changes in neural organization.

Textbook Reference: Evidence for Critical Periods in Other Sensory Systems Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Describe the parallels between the learning of speech in humans and courtship songs in birds.

Answer: In both cases, the young have a limited time during which they must be exposed to language or songs from adults. There must also be sufficient time for the young to practice repeating and refine their communication.

Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for a Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz

1. Hebb’s postulate a. implies that co-activated synaptic contacts will be strengthened, and other synapses weakened. b. is an extension of his theory of critical periods. c. was based on the voltage-dependent properties of the AMPA receptor. d. does not apply to synaptic elimination in development. e. requires multiple inputs from one neuron.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Activity and Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Refer to the figure.

The images shown are Golgi-stained neurons in the cerebral cortex from individuals at three different ages: birth, 2 years old, and 6 years old. In which choice is each image paired correctly with the subject’s age? a. Left panel: Birth; Middle panel: 2 years; Right panel: 6 years b. Left panel: Birth; Middle panel: 6 years; Right panel: 2 years c. Left panel: 6 years; Middle panel: 2 years Right panel: birth d. Left panel: 6 years; Middle panel: Birth; Right panel: 2 years e. 1: 2 years old; 2: 6 years old; 3: birth Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Activity and Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. Which statement correctly describes a characteristic of a critical period?

a. Failure to respond typically results in the immediate death of the animal. b. Cortical neural networks are connected and activated for the first time. c. Neural plasticity does not occur without sensory input. d. Sensory inputs are first connected to regions that control motor outputs. e. Dendritic branching and synaptogenesis accelerate on a massive scale throughout the CNS. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Critical periods are present for a. various forms of imprinting. b. language-learning in humans. c. song-learning in some species of birds. d. certain kinds of visual information processing. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which example is not a form of imprinting? a. Geese following a moving object b. Rats’ preference for nipple odors c. A ewe subjected to its own lamb’s scent d. Maternal milk let-down in response to a baby’s crying e. A baby monkey choosing a terry cloth mother Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 25A: Built-In Behaviors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Refer to the figure.

The micrograph shows the separation of contralateral versus ipsilateral innervation in the lateral geniculate nucleus after a radioactive tracer was injected into the eye. Which mechanism is responsible for the final segregated retinal input apparent in the micrograph? a. Photoreceptor stimulation by light b. Chemoattraction c. Neurogenesis d. Retinal waves e. Monocular deprivation Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Role of Oscillations in Establishing Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Hubel and Wiesel’s discovery of a critical period in visual system development was based on their observations of _______ during this period. a. the number of cortical layers formed b. the diversity of neuronal cell types formed c. changes in orientation selectivity d. changes in ocular dominance e. change in the total number of cortical neurons Answer: d Textbook Reference: Critical Periods in Visual System Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. In the investigation of a visual critical period, transynaptic labeling was used to a. label reciprocal circuitry (i.e., pathways from LGN to cortex and back to LGN). b. show which LGN neurons synapse at different cortical layers. c. show that the number of retinothalamic synapses from one eye equals the number of thalamocortical synapses conveying information from that same eye. d. reveal an alternating pattern of cortical innervation stemming from the left and right eye.

e. visualize the optic nerves.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Critical Periods in Visual System Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Studies found that the neural response to an eyelid being sutured shut was a. similar in kittens and adult cats. b. dramatic in kittens but very mild in adult cats. c. cortical lamination inversion, whereby layer 4 was moved above layers 2 and 3. d. neural cell death throughout the sutured animal’s visual cortex. e. neural cell death, specifically in the areas of the animal’s cortex innervated by the sutured eye.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Hubel and Wiesel’s findings of an ocular dominance critical period suggest that children with an eye that is visually impaired or obstructed throughout the critical period will a. become blind in the impaired eye only. b. suffer serious vision loss in both eyes. c. have a minor visual deficit that can easily be ameliorated with visual training. d. have permanently impaired depth perception and binocular fusion. e. be unable to perceive motion or color in either eye.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Refer to the figure.

The data in the graph reflects activity recorded from neurons in the visual cortex of a cat while presenting a light stimulus to each eye. Neurons in group 1 are activated by the contralateral eye only, neurons in group 7 are activated by the ipsilateral eye only, and neurons in group 2 through 6 are activated by a combination of both eyes. Which experimental procedure did the cat most likely undergo before these results were collected? a. Monocular deprivation during early development b. Monocular deprivation in adulthood c. Strabismus during early development d. Binocular deprivation during early development e. Strabismus in adulthood Answer: a Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. A kitten is deprived of visual stimulation in both eyes for the first 2 months of life. When the cat reaches adulthood, the response of cells in the visual cortex to a light stimulus on the two eyes is recorded. Which outcome would you expect? a. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the contralateral eye. b. Most cells are activated only by stimulation to the ipsilateral eye. c. The cells that are activated by stimulation only to the non-deprived eye (1/3 of cells), only the deprived eye (1/3 of cells), and a combination of both eyes (1/3 of cells) are evenly distributed. d. Most cells are activated by some degree to stimulation in both eyes. e. Most cells are non-responsive.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Effects of Visual Deprivation on Ocular Dominance Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Which evidence best supports the idea that the adult visual cortex retains mechanisms for plasticity after the critical period? a. Monocular deprivation in a kitten leads to the majority of cortical cells responding to only the non-deprived eye. b. Monocular deprivation in an adult cat alters the distribution of cortical neurons activated by stimulation of both eyes. c. The majority of cortical cells in a normal adult cat are activated to some degree by stimulation in both eyes. d. If strabismus is induced when a cat is born, the adult cat will have very few cortical cells that are activated to some degree by stimulation of both eyes. e. Dark exposure after monocular deprivation will increase visual acuity in the deprived eye.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Dancing in the Dark Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 14. Experimentally-induced strabismus in the cat helped to confirm the role of correlation in synaptic wiring because the a. total activity in the two eyes was about the same.

b. activity in the two eyes was poorly correlated because of the strabismus. c. ocular dominance columns in visual cortex layer 4 were sharper than in control animals. d. the number of binocular neurons in the cat visual cortex was significantly reduced. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Manipulating Competition Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement about amblyopia is false? a. Critical-period related amblyopia is most often caused by strabismus. b. Congenital cataracts, if not promptly treated, can lead to permanent visual deficits. c. Nematode infections result in “river blindness” for millions of people. d. Bilateral cataracts in children produce far more serious long-term deficits than cataracts in just one eye. e. In humans, treatment of cataracts or strabismus before the age of 4 months largely prevents the damage induced by monocular visual deprivation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Amblyopia, Strabismus, and Critical Periods for Human Vision Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which cell type is exquisitely sensitive to experience-driven neuronal inputs during early postnatal life? a. Cholinergic b. GABAergic c. Glycinergic d. Dopaminergic e. Serotonergic Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Regulation of Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which sensory system has not been shown to exhibit a developmental critical period? a. Visual b. Proprioceptive c. Auditory d. Somatic sensory e. Olfactory Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evidence for Critical Periods in Other Sensory Systems Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Which is not part of the evidence for the existence of a critical period in language learning? a. Only intense language instruction can adequately compensate for early language deprivation. b. Deaf children, if unaided, are not able to develop adequate language skills. c. Deaf children receiving sign-language training are able to develop good language skills. d. By 1 year of age, toddlers lose the ability to discriminate foreign phonemes.

e. By 8 years of age, the ability to acquire accent-free foreign language fluency declines.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for a Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. The ability of infants to _______ demonstrates an early predilection for language learning. a. distinguish parental voices from the voices of non-parents b. respond to only those phonemes used in their parents’ language c. distinguish phonemes used in all human languages d. exhibit “perfect pitch” e. distinguish words from nonsense syllables Answer: c Textbook Reference: Language Development: A Critical Period for Distinctly Human Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which statement about synapse elimination and grey matter volume is false? a. The number of cortical synapses declines during adolescence and then remains relatively constant thereafter. b. The decline in cortical synapses roughly corresponds to a generalized human “critical period.” c. Synaptic decline is more prolonged in higher order (association) cortical areas than in primary sensory areas. d. Children with ADHD have slightly greater volumes of grey matter than age-matched controls at all ages. e. Initial gray matter growth in young childhood is most robust in in primary sensory and motor regions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Human Brain Development, Activity-Dependent Plasticity, and Critical Periods Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 26: Repair and Regeneration in the Nervous System 1. What neural characteristics complicate the ability of the brain to repair itself after damage? a. Total number of cells b. The ability to respond to cytokines c. The presence of a cytoskeleton d. The cellular diversity and electrical properties e. The location of cells in relation to blood vessels Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Damaged Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The ability of physical therapy to improve movement in once paralyzed limbs is most likely due to a. Reorganization of other cortical regions to support the functions of the damaged region b. Neurogenesis in the damaged cortical region c. Repair of the damaged neurons d. Increase in functionality of spinal cord circuitry e. Migration of stem cells to the damaged cortical region Answer: a Textbook Reference: Functional Reorganization without Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. A patient suffered a middle cerebral artery stroke, which resulted in difficultly completing hand movements and gripping objects. She participates in motor performance training and subsequently shows significant improvement in hand movement tasks. If you were to compare fMRI images of cortical activity in this patient immediately after the insult with images taken after the training, what would you expect to see? a. She would have increased activity in the primary motor cortex after training. b. She would have decreased activity in the primary motor cortex after training. c. She would have increased activity in the visual cortex after training. d. She would have increased activity in the somatosensory cortex after training. e. She would have decreased activity in the somatosensory cortex after training.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Reorganization without Repair Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. What type of neuronal repair is the most successful, clinically? a. Regrowth of damaged CNS neurons b. Neurogenesis

c. Drug-induced neuronal migration d. Neuronal repair does not occur e. Peripheral nerve regeneration Answer: e Textbook Reference: Three Types of Neuronal Repair Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Why does neurite regrowth in the central nervous system often fail? a. Local overgrowth of glial cells b. Macrophage infiltration degenerates the cell body c. Absence of neurotrophic factor receptors on the axon d. Absence of oligodendrocyte precursor cells e. Inhibition of inflammatory response Answer: a Textbook Reference: Three Types of Neuronal Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What mechanism is responsible for the success of regeneration of synapses in the central nervous system (CNS) seen after neurogenesis compared to the absence of functional connections after repair of damaged CNS neurons? a. The presence of glia b. The immune response c. The presence of neural stem cells d. The absence of glia e. The secretion of chemorepellents by Schwann cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Three Types of Neuronal Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. What early evidence supported the idea that the peripheral nervous system could undergo repair? a. After optic nerve transection, Henry Head regained some visual acuity. b. Blocking macrophages in the region of nerve transection leads to increased recovery of function. c. After fibular nerve transection, mice provided with a leg splint recover motor function faster than those forced to exercise. d. To support growth of the eye, goldfish undergo neurogenesis in the retina. e. After radial nerve transection, Henry Head regained some sensation in his arm.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Peripheral Nerve Regeneration Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. After peripheral nerve damage, pharmacological blockage of which cell type would prevent repair? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes

c. Neural stem cells d. Schwann cells e. Microglia Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Listed below are the individual events that occur after peripheral nerve transection.

Schwann cells express adhesion molecules Schwann cells proliferate Axon distal to cut phagocytosed by macrophages Axon distal to cut degenerates Growth-promoting genes in the axon are downregulated Which is the correct sequence of these events? a. B; A; E; D; C b. D; C; B; A; E c. C; D; E; A; B d. A; B; C; D; E e. E; D; A; C; B Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Refer to figure.

A leg nerve was transected in two mice. A graft was placed to bridge the distance between the two nerve segments in each mouse (arrows). After two weeks, the nerves were examined for regrowth. Which statement best explains the difference between the two nerves? a. The mouse on the left was given a low sodium diet; the mouse on the right was given a normal diet. b. The mouse on the right was placed into a splint to prevent movement; the mouse on the left had to undergo normal daily movement. c. The mouse on the right was subjected to constant darkness; the mouse on the left was subjected to 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark per day. d. The mouse on the right had normal TrkB receptor levels; the mouse on the left had upregulated TrkB receptor levels. e. The mouse on the right was made to exercise during the two weeks; the mouse on the left received no exercise.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Which mechanism is not performed by Schwann cells during the repair process? a. Secretion of extracellular matrix molecules b. Expression and secretion of neurotrophic factors c. Upregulation of genes for cytoskeletal reassembly and protein trafficking

d. Creation of an environment that mimics early development e. Expression of cell adhesion molecules Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which evidence supports the idea that CNS neurons, besides motor neurons, can support axon growth and repair? a. Postganglionic autonomic nerves can reestablish synaptic connections with additional neurotrophic factor treatment. b. Ischemia causes a cellular cascade that leads to an increase in expression of Bcl2. c. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy increases deposits of tau protein in the cortex. d. Peripheral grafts can support regrowth from the retina to the superior colliculus. e. Hypoxia leads to an increase in cytochrome c release from the mitochondria.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 13. A transection occurs at the base of the brain stem severing descending spinal inputs. What is one possible treatment that could benefit axonal regrowth? a. Use a peripheral nerve graft to bridge axons above and below the injury. b. Use a central nerve graft to bridge axons above and below the injury. c. Do nothing; innate processes exist that will lead to significant regeneration. d. Use a pharmacological blockade of Bcl2 in the damaged region. e. Treat with a drug that enhances the immune response.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. Which disorder is associated with mutations in scaffolding proteins at the neuromuscular junction? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Muscular dystrophy c. Myasthenia Gravis d. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy e. Multiple Sclerosis Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Pharmacological blockade of which molecule during peripheral nerve regeneration would have no effect on the repair process? a. AChR b. BDNF c. p75 receptors d. NT3

e. GAP43 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. The sympathetic T5 ganglion and superior cervical ganglion (C8) are removed from a donor guinea pig and transplanted into the superior cervical ganglion of a host animal. The host animal is then given time for reinnervation of the new neurons. How does innervation compare between the donor T5 and C8 neurons? a. The T5 neurons are innervated by a more rostral set of ventral root nerves. b. Both the T5 and C8 are innervated equally by the same ventral root nerves. c. The C8 neurons are innervated by a more rostral set of ventral root nerves. d. Only the C8 neurons reinnervate. e. Only the T5 neurons reinnervate.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: BOX 26A: Specific Regeneration of Synaptic Connections in Autonomic Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. Refer to figure.

The figure shows a postmortem brain section from a 45-year old patient that suffered from chronic traumatic encephalopathy. The brown region shows deposits of what protein? a. AChE b. MusK c. TrkB d. GAP43 e. Tau Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Casualties of War and Sports Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. What is one difference between peripheral and central nervous system regeneration? a. The presence of a growth cone b. The presence of glial cells

c. The presence of an immune response d. Removal of myelin debris e. The presence of secreted factors from glial cells Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. How do glial cells affect regeneration in the nervous system? a. They form a physical barrier in the PNS. b. They secrete antigrowth factors in the PNS. c. They infiltrate the area and clean up debris in the CNS. d. They form a pathway or conduit for the axon to regrow in the CNS. e. The secrete neurotrophins and extracellular matrix molecules in the CNS. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Hypoxia can cause apoptosis by increasing excitotoxicity in the cell via glutamate. What downstream cellular effects would this have? a. A decrease in caspase-9 expression b. An increase in caspase-3 expression c. An increase in Bcl2 expression d. A decrease in DNA fragmentation e. A decrease in chromosome condensation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. Which mechanism can initiate the cellular cascade for apoptosis? a. Inhibitory toxicity by GABA b. Excitotoxicity by acetylcholine c. Inhibitory toxicity by glycine d. Excitotoxicity by glutamate e. Excitotoxicity by serotonin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. Which protein is expressed by both oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells and inhibits axon growth in the CNS but not in the PNS? a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Slit c. Myelin-associated glycoprotein d. Semaphorin 3A e. Integrin Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Glial Scar Formation in the Injured Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. What is the purpose of glial scarring? a. To provide a conduit for axon growth b. To prevent nearby cells from reinnervating the target tissue c. To generate new glial cells d. To prevent immune response cells from attacking neurons e. To protect nearby healthy cells from inflammation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Immune Activation and Inflammation Following Brain Injury Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. Which molecule is produced by astrocytes located in a glial scar and inhibits axonal growth? a. Caspase-3 b. Integrin c. Semaphorin 3A d. Neuregulin e. Retinoic acid Answer: c Textbook Reference: Axon Growth After Brain Injury Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. Which compound does not prevent the passage of an axonal growth cone through a glial scar in the CNS? a. Semaphorin 3A b. Ephrins c. Tenascin d. Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan e. ColQ Answer: e Textbook Reference: Axon Growth after Brain Injury Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Which statement about the adult goldfish visual system is false? a. Retinal stem cells generate all the retinal cell types except for rods. b. Rod photoreceptors are generated by a distinct precursor cell. c. As the goldfish eye grows, the retina adds a ring of new cells. d. Axons of new ganglion cells grow along the optic nerve and innervate the optic tectum. e. As new axons innervate the optic tectum, patches of neurogenesis occur throughout the tectum while maintaining the existing coordinates of the tectal retinotopic map.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Adult Neurogenesis in Non-Mammalian Vertebrates Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

27. A patient is diagnosed with a bilateral lesion to the subventricular zone. What other brain area would be affected by this lesion? a. The olfactory bulb b. The amygdala c. The hippocampus d. The cerebellum e. The retina Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurogenesis in the Adult Mammalian Brain Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. A tracer is injected into the lateral ventricles. Where would you expect to see labeled cells? a. The subgranular zone b. The rostral migratory stream c. The hippocampus d. The amygdala e. The cerebellum Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurogenesis in the Adult Mammalian Brain Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. A mutation in the gene for which compound would alter the ability of neuroblasts to travel in the rostral migratory stream? a. Bcl2 b. Tau c. GAP43 d. NCAM e. Caspase-9 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Mechanisms of Adult Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 30. What is the function of the rostral migratory stream? a. To move newly born cells from the SVZ to the olfactory bulb b. To move newly born cells from the SGZ to the hippocampus c. To move newly born cells from the fourth ventricle to the cerebellum d. To move old, apoptotic cells from the song system to the lateral ventricle e. To move old, apoptotic cells from the hippocampus to the SVZ Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Mechanisms of Adult Neurogenesis.

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Other than functional reorganization of intact neurons, what are the three types of repair that

occur in response to damage to the nervous system?

Answer: Peripheral nerve regeneration, restoration of damaged CNS neurons, and neurogenesis.

Textbook Reference: Three Types of Neuronal Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Why does a peripheral nerve regenerate better if it is crushed than if it is cut?

Answer: After being crushed, the damaged axon does not degenerate completely; complete degeneration occurs after being severed. When portions of the axon are still present, they provide a guide for the regenerating axon to follow.

Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. In what ways does regeneration of nerves in the periphery recapitulate the initial development of nerves?

Answer: Schwann cells secrete extracellular matrix molecules to provide a substrate for axon growth, and they increase expression of cell adhesion molecules and neurotrophic factors. The proximal end of the damaged axon transforms into a growth cone, expressing complementary cell surface adhesion molecules and receptors for the neurotrophic factors.

Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Why do axons regenerate so much more successfully in the PNS than the CNS? Answer: Injury within the CNS often initiates cascades that result in necrosis or apoptosis of the damaged neurons and nearby neurons. Additionally, unlike in the PNS, mechanisms do not exist in the CNS to reestablish a development-like environment. Glial and microglial activity actively inhibit growth of the CNS axons.

Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What is apoptosis? What kinds of stimuli trigger apoptosis?

Answer: Apoptosis is programmed cell death. Stimuli including DNA damage, hypoxia, stress, and growth factor withdrawal can lead to excitotoxicity caused by elevated glutamate levels or to cytokine receptor activation by inflammatory cytokines. These mechanisms then lead to cellular changes that result in cell death.

Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. In what ways do glia participate in repair and regeneration in the nervous system?

Answer: In the peripheral nervous system, the Schwann cells proliferate and provide a pathway for axonal regrowth. They secrete molecules such as laminin, fibronectin, and collagens to provide physical guidance for extension. They also can secrete growth factors like BDNF to promote regrowth.

In the central nervous system, glial cells actively prevent axon regrowth and create a glial scar to form a barrier to prevent inflammatory damage to nearby cells.

Textbook Reference: Glial Scar Formation in the Injured Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

7. Give two examples in which extensive neurogenesis occurs in the adult brain of nonmammalian vertebrates.

Answer: Retinal and optic tectum cell neurogenesis in the goldfish Cells in the song-control centers (HVC, RA, Area X) in male songbirds Textbook Reference: Adult Neurogenesis in Non-Mammalian Vertebrates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What is a transit amplifying cell?

Answer: A transit amplifying cell is a precursor cell derived from a neural stem cell. These cells divide asynchronously to generate neurons and glia, but unlike stem cells, they can only undergo a finite number of divisions.

Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Mechanisms of Adult Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Describe evidence that no new neurons are added to the adult mammalian neocortex.

Answer: Since nuclear weapon testing that occurred between 1955 and 1963 caused an increase in atmospheric 14C levels, neurons born during that time would incorporate a greater ratio of 14C into their nuclear DNA. Data showed that in individuals that were adults during that time, there was no increase in the concentration of 14C in neurons. Only individuals that were born during that period of increased atmospheric 14C showed elevated concentrations of 14C in their nuclei, indicating neurogenesis in humans takes place only during development, and not during adulthood.

Textbook Reference: Box 26B: Nuclear Weapons and Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which statement about functional reorganization after brain damage is false? a. Movements of paralyzed limbs may return to some extent. b. As recovery progresses, larger areas of cortex become activated during an experimental task (as seen by brain imaging). c. To some degree, undamaged regions of cortex can functionally substitute for damaged regions. d. The extensive connectivity of motor cortex may facilitate recovery of motor functions. e. LTP, LTD, sprouting, and changes in GABAergic circuits may all contribute to functional recovery.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Functional Reorganization without Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which repair mechanism does not occur in mammals when nervous tissue is damaged? a. Long-range regrowth of damaged axons in the peripheral nervous system b. Restoration of damaged central neurons c. Long-range regrowth of damaged axons in the central nervous system d. Neurogenesis

e. Neuronal sprouting Answer: c Textbook Reference: Three Types of Neuronal Repair Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. The most effective means to promote peripheral nerve regeneration is a. electrical stimulation of the proximal nerve trunk. b. electrical stimulation of the distal nerve trunk. c. precise reapposition of the proximal and distal nerve segments. d. injection of Schwann cells into the nearby damaged tissue. e. application of growth factors to the proximal nerve trunk.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which event is part of the molecular response to peripheral nerve damage? a. Expression of cell adhesion molecules in Schwann cells b. Expression of receptors complementary to cell adhesion molecules on regenerating axons c. Secretion of BDNF by Schwann cells d. Expression of Trk and P75 receptors on growth cones e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Which procedure has been used experimentally to regrow damaged axons in the CNS? a. Provide damaged axons with a peripheral nerve graft b. Upregulation of BNDF in damaged cells c. Blockage of glial cells d. Inhibition of the immune response e. Upregulation of Bcl2 in damaged cells Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Cellular and Molecular Basis of Peripheral Nerve Repair Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which substance(s) or structure is(are) decreased at the denervated neuromuscular junction? a. NGF b. NT3 and NT4 c. BDNF d. S laminin e. Acetylcholine receptors Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regeneration of Peripheral Synapses Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Studies of autonomic nerve regeneration have demonstrated that

a. regeneration is extremely precise; each preganglionic fiber reestablishes synapses on the exact same postganglionic cells that they previously innervated. b. only sympathetic fibers can regenerate accurately. c. only parasympathetic fibers can regenerate accurately. d. preganglionic fibers show a strong preference for innervating their normal postganglionic targets. e. autonomic regeneration occurs randomly onto both ganglion cells and target tissues.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 26A: Specific Regeneration of Synaptic Connections in Autonomic Ganglia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which type of damage does not commonly occur in the CNS? a. Physical trauma b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypoxia d. Neurodegeneration e. All of the above are common types of CNS damage.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regeneration in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Which symptom is not a reported consequence of traumatic brain injury, such as may result from a concussion or blast injury? a. Headaches b. Depression c. Early cognitive impairment and dementia d. Appearance of tau protein deposits in the brain e. All of the above are reported symptoms of traumatic brain injury.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Casualties of War and Sports Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement describes a major factor in the failure of damaged CNS neurons to regenerate their axons? a. There are no known neurons in adults that can regenerate axons. b. Inhibitory factors prevent robust axonal regeneration in the CNS. c. Axons have no guidance regarding the direction in which they should regenerate. d. Damaged neural regions no longer express a neuroprotective caspase gene. e. Loss of glutamate from damaged regions results in too little glutamate to support synaptic signaling.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

11. Researchers use a technique called RNA interference to significantly decrease, but not completely remove, expression of the Bcl2 gene in the amygdala of lab animals. What would be the effect of this change? a. An increase in apoptosis b. A decrease in necrosis c. An increase in axon regrowth after injury d. A decrease in glial cell infiltration after injury e. A decrease in microglia activation after injury Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Responses to Injury in the Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Listed below are cells associated with the immune response in the CNS in response to a compromised blood-brain barrier.

A. Neutrophils B. T and B cells C. Microglia D. Cytokines What is the correct sequence for appearance of these cells at the site of damage? a. A; B; C; D b. B; D; A; C c. D; A; C; B d. C; A; D; B e. D; C; B; A Answer: c Textbook Reference: Immune Activation and Inflammation Following Brain Injury Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. What is the function of Semaphorin 3A, which is secreted by astrocytes following injury in the CNS? a. To recruit activated microglia b. To strengthen the blood-brain barrier c. To promote growth cone formation d. To break down myelin debris e. To inhibit axonal growth Answer: e Textbook Reference: Axon Growth After Brain Injury Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement about the genesis of new neurons in the adult brain is true? a. The reports of Altman and colleagues on adult neurogenesis in rats were widely dismissed as misidentification of glia as neurons. b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal established the existence of massive neurogenesis in adult mice and rats. c. Neurons are constantly born in many parts of the CNS but then immediately undergo apoptosis.

d. Adult neurogenesis occurs in four locations, one in each of the ventricles. e. Advanced techniques have made it clear that massive numbers of new neurons are born and integrated into the circuits of most brainstem nuclei and cortical areas.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurogenesis in the Mature Central Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement about neurogenesis in the forebrain of songbirds is true? a. Each year, newly born neurons replace the entire population of song-related neurons in bird forebrain nuclei. b. Some birds continually replace significant numbers of neurons in song control centers throughout their lifetime. c. New neurons are found in the forebrains only of those bird species that learn new songs each year. d. New neurons are always produced seasonally in songbirds and are linked to mating rituals. e. Forebrain neurogenesis has been demonstrated to be necessary for the learning of new songs.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Adult Neurogenesis in Non-Mammalian Vertebrates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. In the mammalian brain, a. neurogenesis occurs primarily in the thalamus and brainstem. b. newly born neurons form populations of local circuit and long-distance projection interneurons. c. new neurons are born in the precise location in which they will mature and form synaptic contacts. d. a large majority of newly born neurons will survive and integrate into existing neural circuits. e. the functional significance of adult neurogenesis, if any, is unknown.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Neurogenesis in the Adult Mammalian Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Where do neuronal precursor cells that will eventually become hippocampal interneurons reside? a. In the subventricular zone b. In the subgranular zone c. In the rostral migratory stream d. In the lateral wall of the corpus callosum e. In the fourth ventricle Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurogenesis in the Adult Mammalian Brain Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. In adult mammals, neural stem cells that are capable of giving rise to both neurons and glia in vitro can be found in the subventricular regions of the a. cortical hemispheres.

b. cerebellum. c. midbrain. d. spinal cord. e. All of the above Answer: e Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Mechanisms of Adult Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. An intermediate type of rapidly-dividing neuronal precursor cell is a a. transit amplifying cell. b. postmitotic blast cell. c. glioblast. d. neuroblast. e. SVC totipotent stem cell.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular and Molecular Mechanisms of Adult Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement correctly describes the connection between the testing of nuclear weapons and cortical neurogenesis? a. Atmospheric radiation led to many mutant cortical neurons, which were replaced by new ones. b. Atmospheric radionuclides produced an “isotopic haze” in cortices, against which newborn neurons were easily recognized. c. Radionuclides from the atmosphere suppressed cortical neurogenesis, leading to statistically smaller cortices in individuals exposed to radiation in utero. d. The lack of elevation of 14C in the cortical neurons of people born before nuclear testing (i.e., before 1955) suggests that no new cortical neurons are generated in adult humans. e. None of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 26B: Nuclear Weapons and Neurogenesis Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 27: Cognitive Functions and the Organization of the Cerebral Cortex Multiple Choice 1. Early in the twentieth century, scientists divided the brain into approximately 50 regions based on which characteristic? a. Function of region b. Neurotransmitter released c. Developmental birthdate d. Histological features e. Location in relation to sulci and gyri Answer: d Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. The neocortex has connections with a number of nervous system regions. What is one structure that receives output from the neocortex but does not provide input to the neocortex? a. Hippocampus b. Spinal cord c. Amygdala d. Thalamus e. Brainstem Answer: b Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. If thalamic output to the cortex was disrupted, which layer of the neocortex would be affected? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5 e. Layer 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. If neocortical output from Layer 5 was disrupted, communication with which structure would be affected? a. Striatum b. Thalamus

c. Brainstem modulatory systems d. Visual cortex e. Motor cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. How many cellular layers make up the neocortex? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. Some regions 5 and some regions 6 e. Some regions 3, some regions 5, and some regions 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. Which option correctly pairs the cortical layer with its cellular characteristic? a. Layer 1—Pyramidal neurons that leave the cortex b. Layer 2—Neuropil c. Layer 4—Stellate neurons d. Layer 5—Pyramidal neurons that connect within the cortex e. Layer 6—Stem cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which statement correctly describes how paleocortex differs from neocortex? a. It has 4 cellular layers. b. It is not bilateral. c. The cells cannot be visualized by Nissl stains. d. It is more susceptible to disease. e. It is evolutionarily older.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Damage to which two thalamic nuclei would affect output to the association cortices but not to primary sensory or motor cortices? a. Lateral geniculate and medial geniculate b. Pulvinar and medial dorsal c. Ventral posterior lateral and ventral posterior medial d. Pulvinar and medial geniculate e. Lateral geniculate and medial dorsal Answer: b Textbook Reference: Unique Features of the Association Cortices

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Both lesion and functional neuroimaging studies in humans have shown that right parietal regions are involved in a. directing attention to the right and left hemispace. b. directing attention to the left hemispace only. c. directing attention to the right hemispace only. d. identifying objects. e. recognizing faces.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. A husband reports that his wife has begun acting strangely. For example, she refuses to eat the food on the left side of her plate at meals, claiming she has finished all her food. She also has neglected to put her left arm in her shirt the last few days and has begun putting her makeup on only the right side of her face. Hearing these symptoms, where would you expect to find damage in the woman’s nervous system? a. Right posterior parietal cortex b. Bilateral fusiform gyrus c. Left lateral surface of temporal lobe d. Bilateral dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Right ventromedial prefrontal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Refer to the figure.

A patient is asked to draw a house by copying the model picture shown above. His version is shown on the right. Which of the following disorders would you suspect the patient has? a. Blindsight b. Contralateral neglect syndrome c. Prosopagnosia d. Visual agnosia

e. Alzheimer’s disease Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. In a visual task requiring selective attention, a subject must report the shape and color of a target object, ignoring other characteristics like size, location, and direction of movement.

During the experiment, the target appears randomly either in the right or left visual field. How would you expect cortical activity to differ depending on which field the target appears in? a. During left visual field presentation, both the left and right parietal association cortices will be equally active; during right visual field presentation, only the left parietal cortex will be active. b. During right visual field presentation, only the left parietal association cortex will be active; during left visual field presentation, only the right parietal cortex will be active. c. During right visual field presentation, both the left and right parietal association cortices will be equally active; during left visual field presentation, only the right parietal cortex will be active. d. During left visual field presentation, both the left and right parietal association cortices will be equally active; during right visual field presentation, only the right parietal cortex will be active. e. Both the left and right parietal association cortices will be equally active during presentations in both the left and right visual fields.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. A monkey is trained to respond to a visual target; it receives a reward when it completes the task correctly. If the monkey’s parietal lobe neurons were recorded during the task, what data would you expect to collect? a. Neuronal activity would be positively correlated with the size of the visual object. b. Neuronal activity would be positively correlated with the size of the expected reward. c. Neuronal activity would be positively correlated with the number of visual objects presented. d. Neuronal activity would be negatively correlated with the number of visual objects presented. e. Neuronal activity would be negatively correlated with the size of the visual object.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 14. Refer to the figure.

Which behavioral task would lead to increased firing rate in the neurons in the location outlined in the figure? a. Attending a visual target b. Ignoring a visual target c. Recognizing a face d. Playing the Wisconsin card sorting task e. Participating in a delayed response task Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. What experimental evidence demonstrates the synesthesia phenomenon? a. Subjects with color–taste synesthesia are better chefs. b. Subjects with color–grapheme synesthesia score better than controls on numerical visual search tasks. c. Subjects with color–grapheme synesthesia learn to read at a younger age. d. Subjects with color–grapheme synesthesia learn to read at an older age. e. Subjects with any form of synesthesia have a higher probability of being diagnosed with ADHD. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 27B: Synesthesia Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 16. At dinner one evening, your friend proclaims that the chicken tastes like a beautiful sunset.

What condition do you expect your friend has? a. Contralateral neglect syndrome b. Visual agnosia c. Prosopagnosia d. Amnesia e. Synesthesia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 27B: Synesthesia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

17. A major function of the temporal lobe is a. directing attention to the body. b. directing attention to extrapersonal space. c. recognition and identification of stimuli. d. planning for the future. e. impulse control.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Prosopagnosia arises from damage in which location? a. Left lateral surface of the temporal lobe b. Right posterior parietal cortex c. Bilateral ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Right fusiform gyrus e. Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Individuals with prosopagnosia a. cannot discriminate subtle shape differences. b. cannot recognize the face of a familiar person. c. cannot recognize the voice of a familiar person. d. have damage in the prefrontal cortex. e. have damage in the posterior parietal cortex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Damage to which region would lead to language-related agnosia? a. Lateral surface of left temporal lobe b. Right fusiform gyrus c. Left fusiform gyrus d. Right posterior parietal cortex e. Left posterior parietal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. Refer to the figure.

The data in the graphs represent the firing of a neuron in a monkey brain recorded while presenting the monkey with the corresponding images. In which region was the neuron being recording located? a. Posterior parietal cortex b. Dorsomedial prefrontal cortex c. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Inferior temporal cortex e. Superior occipital cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 22. During an MRI, a subject is shown an image of a face. In which region would you expect to see an increase in neural activity? a. Cerebellum b. Striatum c. Right fusiform gyrus d. Right posterior parietal e. Prefrontal cortex Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. During behavioral testing, a monkey is unable to complete the delayed response task.

Neurological damage to which area would produce this symptom? a. Right fusiform gyrus b. Left posterior parietal cortex c. Left ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Bilateral dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Lateral surface of right temporal lobe Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

24. During behavioral testing, a monkey is unable to complete the Wisconsin card sorting task.

Neurological damage to which area would produce this symptom? a. Fusiform gyrus b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Posterior parietal cortex d. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. Lateral surface of the temporal lobe Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. Which change or deficiency was not reported in early case studies of individuals with frontal lobe damage? a. Difficulty with planning b. Difficulty with intellectual functioning c. Lack of behavioral restraint and self-control d. Changes in social functioning e. Personality changes Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 26. Refer to the figure.

While a monkey participates in a delayed response task, data from a cortical neuron is collected.

Each bar in the graph represents an action potential in the neuron, and the red box is the time the screen is closed. The cortical neuron being recorded is located in which region? a. Fusiform gyrus b. Posterior parietal cortex c. Lateral surface of the temporal lobe d. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

27. Refer to the figure.

The activated region in the fMRI scan above is responsible for which function? a. Recognizing faces b. Identifying objects c. The planning and execution of appropriate behavior d. Directing attention to the body e. Directing attention to extrapersonal space Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 28. Refer to the figure.

Subjects indicated whether they prefer French fries from Restaurant A or B. They are then given French fries from the restaurant they prefer while being evaluated using fMRI. The figure shows the activation of a particular brain region in response to tasting fries from Restaurant A compared to Restaurant B (y axis) plotted against the number of times a subject chose A over B (x axis). Which brain region showed differences in activation? a. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

b. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. Fusiform gyrus d. Posterior parietal cortex e. Lateral surface of the temporal lobe Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 29. Why did the medical community stop performing leukotomies around 1950? a. The survival rate of the surgery was too low. b. Deep brain stimulation techniques were invented. c. The increased risk of stroke and heart attack following surgery decreased patient interest in the technique. d. Effective psychotropic drugs were developed. e. It was discovered that transecting the corpus callosum was a more effective treatment.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Psychosurgery Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. On what basis did Brodmann decide where to put the boundaries between Brodmann’s areas?

Answer: Broadmann used cytoarchitectural characteristics like cellular density, size, shape, inputs, and outputs.

Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Describe the basic organizational features of neocortex that are shared by sensory, motor, and association cortices.

Answer: All regions of the neocortex are divided into 6 layers, or laminae. In general, layer 1 is mostly neuropil, layers 2 and 3 consist of smaller pyramidal cells, layer 4 has a high density of stellate neurons, and layers 5 and 6 contain larger-projection pyramidal neurons. Brainstem modulatory systems send input to every layer, and other cortical regions send input to layers 1, 2, 4, and 5. Finally, the thalamus sends projections to layer 4. Layers 2 and 3 send output to other cortical regions, layer 5 sends projections to subcortical structures, and layer 6 communicates with the thalamus.

Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. In what ways do the inputs to association cortices distinguish them from sensory and motor cortices?

Answer: The thalamic nuclei that project to the association cortex send information that has already been processed by the cortex, unlike the thalamic nuclei that project to the primary sensory cortices. Also, the association cortices have more corticocortical connections than do primary sensory and motor regions.

Textbook Reference: Unique Features of the Association Cortices Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What does contralateral neglect syndrome suggest about the neuroanatomy of attention?

Answer: Damage to the right parietal association cortex leads to expression of contralateral neglect syndrome. Damage to the left hemisphere does not result in the same symptoms. This is because the right parietal lobe directs attention to objects in both the right and the left side of the body and extrapersonal space. The left parietal lobe only directs attention to the right side.

Therefore, when damage occurs in the left hemisphere, the right cortex is able to compensate for the injury, but the left cortex cannot compensate for damage in the right hemisphere.

Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. A patient that has recently had a stroke is diagnosed with a right parietal association cortex lesion. What symptoms would you expect this patient to exhibit?

Answer: The patient would likely display symptoms of contralateral hemineglect, ignoring the left half of their body and objects in the left side of their extrapersonal space. They might forget to put their left arm or left leg into their clothes, or even argue that their left arm or left leg does not even exist.

Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What is the current theory for the cause of synesthesia?

Answer: It is believed that, during early development, aberrant wiring occurs in the cortex.

Textbook Reference: Box 27B: Synesthesia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. How do studies of agnosias contribute to cognitive neuroscience?

Answer: The location of damage that causes each set of symptoms can be determined by MRI. Based on the location of the damage, the symptoms of the agnosia can provide insight into the functions of specific brain regions.

Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 8. What are the main functions of (a) the parietal association cortex, (b) the temporal association cortex, and (c) the frontal association cortex?

Answer: The parietal association cortex is responsible for directing attention to the body or objects in extrapersonal space. The temporal association cortex is necessary for the recognition and identification of objects. The frontal association cortex is responsible for the planning and execution of appropriate behavior.

Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. What experimental approaches have been used to reveal the functions of the association cortices?

Answer: The functions of the association cortices have been determined by examining behavior

in patients with cortical lesions, using brain imaging techniques to correlate regional activity with tasks, and using non-human primate models to measure electrophysiological properties of neurons while completing tasks.

Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which cortical region is particularly important for success at the delayed response task?

Answer: Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. The part of cerebral cortex that is especially important for selecting and planning appropriate behavioral responses is the _______ lobe. a. occipital b. parietal c. temporal d. frontal e. cognitive Answer: d Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Korbinian Brodmann was known for his a. neurophysiological studies of neocortical pyramidal cells. b. generation of cytoarchitectonic maps of the brain. c. pioneering work in visual-spatial neglect syndrome. d. surgical technique for leukotomies. e. behavioral studies on the functions of the frontal lobes in monkeys.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. If output from neocortical layer 6 is blocked, which structure would lose significant input? a. Superior colliculus b. Striatum c. Brainstem modulatory systems d. Cerebellum e. Thalamus Answer: e Textbook Reference: A Primer on Cortical Structure Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which statement about the cellular structure of the cerebral cortex is true?

a. Neocortex, found in all four lobes, contains three to six cellular layers. b. The cytoarchitecture in the all association cortices appears histologically the same. c. The archicortex includes the hippocampus. d. The primitive paleocortex is found only in non-human primates. e. The functions of 6-layered cortex are demonstrably more efficient than those in 3-layered cortex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. If you could knock out a gene that is expressed only in stellate neurons, which neocortical layer would be most affected? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 4 d. Layer 5 e. Layer 6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 27A: Cortical Lamination Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Thalamic nuclei that are not involved in relaying primary motor or sensory input, but do have inputs to association cortices, are the _______ and _______ nuclei. a. pulvinar; medial geniculate b. medial geniculate; lateral dorsal c. ventral posterior; lateral dorsal d. reticular; lateral geniculate e. pulvinar; medial dorsal Answer: e Textbook Reference: Unique Features of the Association Cortices Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Electrophysiological studies in non-human primates allow scientists to a study speech circuits in the frontal lobe. b. examine the responses of single cortical neurons in awake, behaving subjects. c. knockout genes important to cognitive tasks in specific regions of interest. d. understand how the CNS processes information in the parietal lobe by testing identification capabilities. e. understand how the CNS processes information in the temporal lobe by testing planning capabilities.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Information on the role of the parietal lobe in selective attention was obtained by a. punishing monkeys for making mistakes.

b. rewarding monkeys for making correct choices. c. training genetically-modified mice to recognize objects. d. training monkeys to associate arbitrary symbols with assorted objects. e. recording from neurons in unconscious monkeys.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Contralateral neglect syndrome arises from damage in which location? a. Left posterior parietal cortex b. Right fusiform gyrus c. Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Right posterior parietal cortex e. Bilateral ventromedial prefrontal cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Which symptom would you expect an individual with a right parietal lobe lesion to exhibit? a. Deficit in attention to the right side of the body or space b. The perception of two sensory systems together (e.g., seeing colors when hearing music) c. Deficit in recognizing faces d. Deficit in attention to the left side of the body or space e. Diminished success during Wisconsin card sorting task Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Which figure best illustrates the control of attention by the two hemispheres?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d

Textbook Reference: The Parietal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Studies of neuronal responses in the temporal cortex of the rhesus monkey have revealed a. individual cells that are tuned to a specific object only. b. individual cells that fire in response to one specific familiar face. c. norm-based tuning and population coding of objects. d. tonic firing for a variety of related objects of various sizes, colors, and orientations. e. activation of cells based on subjective preference for an object.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which symptoms would you expect a patient with a right temporal lobe lesion to exhibit? a. Deficit in attention to the left side of the body or space b. Deficit in recognizing faces c. Deficit in attention to the right side of the body or space d. The perception of two sensory systems together (e.g., seeing colors when hearing music) e. Diminished or abolished success during the delayed response task Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. A teacher at a local school feels frustrated whenever the seasons change because her students begin wearing different shoes to school. This troubles her because she usually identifies her students by their footwear, and without that clue, she must wait for each student to talk before she knows who they are. Considering her symptoms, where would you expect to find damage in her nervous system? a. Right lateral surface of the temporal lobe b. Right posterior parietal cortex c. Left ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Bilateral dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Right fusiform gyrus Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. The _______ association cortex is involved in recognizing objects, while the _______ association cortex is involved in deciding what to do with the object. a. temporal; frontal b. frontal; parietal c. parietal; temporal d. temporal; parietal e. frontal; temporal Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Temporal Association Cortex

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. In terms of brain anatomy, the largest lobes in humans are the _______ lobes. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal e. All lobes are roughly equivalent in size.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. The delayed response task has been used to examine a. neuronal activity near the central sulcus during a response delay period. b. long-term memory ability. c. performance impairments in monkeys with bilateral prefrontal lesions. d. impulse control in humans. e. reward preference in monkeys.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. What symptom would you expect bilateral lesions to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex to produce in a monkey? a. Delayed or abolished success during the delayed response task b. Inability to recognize faces c. Deficit in attention to the body d. The perception of two sensory systems together (e.g., seeing colors when hearing music) e. Deficit in attention paid to extrapersonal space Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Frontal Association Cortex Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Neuropsychological testing a. has been used only in animal studies. b. allows for the systematic study of frontal lobe functions in humans. c. is no longer used as a method for examining brain functions. d. predominantly involves tests of personality. e. can readily identify individuals with criminal intent.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 27C: Neuropsychological Testing Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. The leukotomy was used in the 1930s and 1940s predominantly as a(n) a. alternative treatment to the psychotropic medications available at the time. b. experimental technique for studying brain function in rats.

c. treatment for schizophrenia and other mental illnesses. d. procedure for enhancing the intelligence of developmentally handicapped individuals. e. treatment for severe epilepsy.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Psychosurgery Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 28: Cortical States Multiple Choice 1. George takes part in a circadian rhythm experiment. After spending a few days with lights coming on at 6:00 A.M. and going off at 10:00 P.M., he is subjected to constant low light. What will the George’s activity pattern look like during the constant low light conditions? a. He will continue to wake at 6:00 A.M. and go to bed at 10:00 P.M. every day (same schedule). b. He will continue to wake at 6:00 A.M. but go to bed at 3:00 P.M. every day (more sleep). c. He will begin to wake and go to bed slightly later each day (shifted schedule). d. He will sleep for short, random periods throughout the day (no schedule). e. He will continue to wake at 6:00 A.M. but go to bed at 2:00 A.M. every day (less sleep).

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 2. Which photopigment plays an important role in entrainment to a circadian cycle? a. Melanopsin b. Rhodopsin c. Pinopsin d. Neuropsin e. Photopsin Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. How do the light-sensitive cells responsible for entrainment differ from rod and cone photoreceptors? a. They are located in the retinal bipolar layer. b. They are located in the pineal gland. c. They release GABA. d. They project to the thalamus. e. They are depolarized by light.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. If activity in the photosensitive retinal ganglion cells was inhibited, which region would lose direct input? a. The lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus

b. The suprachiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus c. The medial geniculate nucleus in thalamus d. The medial preoptic area in the hypothalamus e. The visual cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Removal of light cues would alter transcription of which genes in a mammal? a. Per1, Per2, and Per3 b. Cry and Ccg c. Clk and Cry d. Clk and Bmal1 e. Bmal1 and Per1 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Biological Clocks Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A loss-of-function mutation in which gene would lead to an increase in the transcription of Per1? a. Cry b. Per3 c. Bmal1 d. Clk e. Ccg Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Biological Clocks Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What causes beta rhythm waves to have small amplitudes and delta rhythm waves to have high amplitudes? a. The inputs to cortical neurons are synchronized while awake, but irregular during sleep. b. The inputs to cortical neurons are irregular while awake, but synchronized during sleep. c. More neurons are being recorded from while awake than asleep. d. Fewer neurons are being recorded from while awake than asleep. e. The thalamus has a stronger output during sleep than during wakefulness.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 28A: Electroencephalography Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which function is not currently being considered as a purpose of sleep in humans? a. Replenishing brain glycogen levels b. Conserving resources c. Consolidating memories d. Clearing metabolic waste produced by neurons from the brain e. Resynthesizing neurotransmitters lost throughout the day

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Purpose of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. An elderly patient complains of long-term insomnia. What other disorder might the patient suffer from, considering its co-ocurrance with severe insomnia? a. Autism b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. Myasthenia gravis e. Major depression Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement conveys a possible reason for the observed association between insomnia and depression? a. Insomnia and depression both rely on proper functioning of the GABAergic system in the cortex. b. Treatments for depression often include caffeine-like stimulants. c. The cortical changes that occur in depression lead to less metabolic waste being generated in the brain, and thus less need for sleep. d. Insomnia and depression both rely on the balance between cholinergic, adrenergic, and serotonergic systems. e. Insomnia and depression both rely on proper functioning of the dopaminergic system in the cortex.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. A 60-year old, overweight patient is having trouble staying asleep during the night. His wife says he sleeps so soundly he barely moves, and at times he loudly inhales and jerks awake. The patient most likely has which sleep disorder? a. Narcolepsy b. Sleep apnea c. Insomnia d. Chronic fatigue syndrome e. Restless leg syndrome Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. A patient is having difficulty sleeping because he feels tingling in his right leg, and only moving his leg will make it stop. He has tried a number of different treatments, like massage and diet changes, but nothing has helped. What treatment would his doctor most likely suggest? a. Benzodiazepines

b. Adenosine receptor antagonist c. A positive-pressure mask d. Ritalin e. An antidepressant Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. What treatment might a doctor recommend for a patient that has been diagnosed with narcolepsy? a. Benzodiazepines b. An adenosine receptor agonist c. A stimulant like Ritalin d. A positive-pressure mask e. An antidepressant Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. Which evidence provided insight into the causes of narcolepsy? a. Lyme disease causes similar symptoms to narcolepsy. b. Increasing airflow during the night reduces symptoms. c. D2 receptor mouse knockouts show symptoms similar to human patients with narcolepsy. d. A mutation in Orx2 in dogs leads to hyperexcitability of the neurons that promote REM sleep. e. Amygdala activity increases during REM sleep.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which neurological system has been shown to be dysfunctional in narcoleptic patients? a. Serotonin b. Orexin c. GABA d. Histamine e. Acetylcholine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Why do animals like giraffes sleep for only a few minutes at a time? a. They have less need for memory consolidation than other animals that sleep longer. b. They have evolved to generate less neuronal metabolic waste during the day. c. As prey, they must remain constantly aware of their surroundings. d. They have high energy needs and must eat constantly throughout the day. e. Amount of sleep is correlated with body size; the larger the animal, the lower the requirement for sleep.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sleep in Different Species Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Sleep spindles occur during which sleep stage? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. REM Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Stages of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. As an individual moves from the awake state through stage IV sleep, the EEG patterns a. increase in amplitude and decrease in frequency. b. increase in both amplitude and frequency. c. decrease in amplitude and increase in frequency. d. decrease in both amplitude and frequency. e. do not change in amplitude but increase in frequency.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Stages of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which evidence best supports the notion that sleep is important for consolidating memories? a. When awakened from sleep, humans often report dreams that are related to experiences of the previous day. b. Depriving humans of REM sleep leads to reduced cognitive abilities. c. Patients taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (antidepressant medication) are more successful at memory tasks than controls. d. In rodents, neurons in the hippocampus that were active during a spatial memory task are reactivated during sleep. e. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex shows increased activity during REM sleep.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 28C: Dreaming Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 20. Where do the signals that are responsible for the saccade-like eye movements during REM sleep originate from? a. Rostral interstitial nucleus b. Reticular activating system c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Superior Colliculus e. Pontine reticular formation Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 21. Refer to the figure.

Which brain region was stimulated (yellow bar in figure) to produce the change in cortical state shown? a. Reticular activating system b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Anterior cingulate cortex d. Rostral interstitial nucleus e. Parahippocampal gyrus Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 22. What is the pathway of the EEG waves seen during REM sleep? a. Rostral interstitial nucleus → medial geniculate nucleus → occipital cortex b. Superior colliculus → pulvinar nucleus → hypothalamus c. Pontine reticular formation → lateral geniculate nucleus → occipital cortex d. Retinal ganglion cells → lateral geniculate → superior colliculus e. Tuberomammillary nucleus → lateral hypothalamus → reticular formation Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. If you were conducting a rodent sleep study in a research lab and needed to lesion the orexin neuron group, which brain region would you need to target? a. Thalamus b. Pons c. Reticular formation d. Hypothalamus e. Cerebellum Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 24. Which set correctly pairs the brainstem nucleus with its neurotransmitter? a. Tuberomammillary nucleus—acetylcholine

b. Locus coeruleus—dopamine c. Cholinergic nuclei—norepinephrine d. VPLO—histamine e. Raphe nuclei—serotonin Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. During a sleep study, one of the subjects sleeps while in an fMRI. When he enters REM sleep, what change in activity would you expect to observe? a. Decreased activity in the amygdala b. Increased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex c. Increased activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Increased activity in the posterior cingulate cortex e. Decreased activity in the parahippocampal gyrus Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 26. Refer to the figure.

You measure the above firing rates from one neuron during these two sleep–wake states. Where must this neuron be located? a. VLPO b. Locus coeruleus c. Pons d. Reticular formation e. Raphe nuclei Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 27. Which type of drug would most likely be helpful as a sleep aid? a. Adenosine receptor antagonist b. Orexin receptor antagonist c. Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors e. Histamine receptor agonist

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. Which type of drug could be used to stabilize thalamic neurons in the oscillatory, or bursting, state? a. Acetylcholine agonist b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors c. Orexin receptor agonist d. GABA agonist e. Adenosine receptor antagonist Answer: d Textbook Reference: Thalamocortical Interactions in Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. When a patient who previously had severe epilepsy is presented with an object in her right visual field, she is able to verbally identify it. However, when an object is presented in her left visual field, she claims there is nothing there. When asked to draw the object present in her left visual field with her left hand, she could draw the image (even though she is right-handed). What could explain this behavior? a. She has blindsight. b. She has narcolepsy. c. She has a mutation in Orx2. d. She has had TMS of the primary visual cortex. e. She has had surgery to transect her corpus callosum.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Consciousness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. Provide two lines of evidence that indicate the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is the master circadian clock.

Answer: Removal of the SCN leads to arrhythmicity in animals; when SCN neurons are removed and transplanted to cell culture in the lab, they continue to show circadian rhythms of activity.

Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Provide evidence that circadian rhythmicity is endogenous.

Answer: When animals, including humans, are placed in an environment with no external time cues, they enter a free running rhythm of activity that follows a regular pattern of activity and sleep that is either slightly shorter or slightly longer than 24 hours, indicating that the animals have an endogenous clock controlling rhythmicity. Additionally, when genes necessary for the functioning of the molecular clock are mutated or knocked out, the animal’s circadian rhythm diverges from the typical 24-hour rhythm.

Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Biological Clocks Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 3. What gives rise to the EEG rhythms?

Answer: The EEG measures electrical activity in cortical regions, and these rhythms are altered by activity in the thalamus and the reticular activating system in the brainstem.

Textbook Reference: Box 28A: Electroencephalography Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. What can be said about the purpose of sleep? In your answer, include the effects of sleep deprivation.

Answer: Why animals sleep is not well understood. Theories being considered include: to replenish brain glycogen levels, to conserve energy at night (when the environment is cooler), to avoid maneuvering during times of low visual acuity due to darkness, to consolidate memories, or to remove metabolic waste from the brain.

Even though the purpose of sleep is poorly understood, it is recognized that sleep is necessary, since long-term sleep deprivation can be fatal in mammals.

Textbook Reference: The Purpose of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Describe the stages of the sleep cycle.

Answer: Stage I is the drowsy period, and it is characterized by theta waves. Stage II is a deeper non-REM sleep, in which high-frequency oscillations called sleep spindles occur. Stage III and IV are known as slow-wave sleep and are characterized by delta waves. Finally, REM sleep is characterized by EEG waves that look similar to wakefulness or stage I sleep.

Textbook Reference: The Stages of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What can be said about the purpose of REM sleep?

Answer: The purpose of REM sleep is not clear. Assertions such as REM sleep plays a role in memory consolidation and REM sleep can be used to remove unwanted memories demonstrate the controversy that exists in the attempt to elucidate the function of REM sleep. Depriving humans of REM sleep does not seem to have an impact on their daily functioning, so it appears that REM sleep may not be necessary.

Textbook Reference: Box 28C: Dreaming Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Is REM sleep more like deep sleep or wakefulness? Explain.

Answer: Cortical activity during REM sleep looks much like the waves that are recorded during wakefulness. REM sleep is characterized by high-frequency, low-amplitude activity.

Additionally, physiological measures like heart rate, respiration, and metabolism increase during REM sleep to almost the same levels seen during wakefulness.

Textbook Reference: Box 28C: Dreaming Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Distinguish between alpha, beta, delta, and PGO waves. Which represents greater synchrony

of neural activity, alpha or delta waves?

Answer: Alpha waves are typically recorded during wakefulness but with eyes closed; they are higher-frequency and lower-amplitude than beta waves. Beta waves are high-frequency and lowamplitude waves that occur during periods of attention. Delta waves occur during slow wave sleep and are characterized by low-frequency, high-amplitude activity. PGO waves occur during REM sleep and look like waves that occur during wakefulness or drowsiness. They are higher frequency and lower amplitude than delta waves.

As frequency decreases and amplitude increases, this indicates an increase in synchrony of neural activity; therefore, delta waves have the highest cortical synchrony.

Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Which brain regions and neurotransmitters are responsible for promoting wakefulness and which promote sleep?

Answer: Three brainstem nuclei and two hypothalamic nuclei are important for promoting wakefulness. The cholinergic nuclei (acetylcholine), raphe nuclei (serotonin), locus coeruleus (norepinephrine), and tuberomammillary nucleus (histamine) all have widespread connections throughout the cortex. Additionally, the orexin neurons of the lateral hypothalamus interact with these nuclei.

The VLPO in the hypothalamus promotes sleep by inhibiting the arousal regions listed above.

Textbook Reference: Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. What information about consciousness does blindsight give us?

Answer: When objects are placed within a subject’s scotoma, the subject is not conscious of the object; the subject reports no visual perception of the object. However, the object does activate extrastriatal regions of the cortex (regions of higher processing beyond the primary visual cortex). This indicates that activity in cortical areas alone is not sufficient for conscious recognition of objects.

Textbook Reference: Consciousness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. A human in a cave, deprived of all time clues, would a. maintain an essentially perfect 24-hour sleep–wake cycle for several months. b. sleep in brief bouts, like a giraffe does. c. begin free-running (i.e., would operate on a cycle of approximately 24-hours, based on the internal clock). d. oscillate between cycles much shorter than 24 hours and cycles much longer than 24 hours. e. sleep almost all the time.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

2. The entrainment of our body’s circadian rhythm to the environmental light–dark cycles is mediated by a. rod photoreceptors in the retina. b. cone photoreceptors in the retina. c. specialized retinal ganglion cells. d. photoreceptors within the SCN. e. photoreceptors in the pineal gland.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. The sleep-promoting substance melatonin a. is produced by the pituitary gland. b. is synthesized from the chemical precursor tyrosine. c. reaches a maximum blood concentration between 2:00 and 4:00 A.M. d. is produced in greater amounts in the elderly. e. provides dramatic relief in cases of fatal familial insomnia.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Circadian Cycle Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which statement about the molecular clock present in fruit flies and humans is false? a. The clock’s transcriptional network consists of just two genes that oscillate in antiphase to one another. b. The per gene is named for “period.” c. Different per mutations can result in long, short, or no circadian rhythms. d. The amount of Per protein and per mRNA show circadian rhythms. e. The PER2 and CRY proteins associate with one another, diffuse into the nucleus as a complex, and inhibit the transcriptional activity of CLOCK and BMAL1.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Molecular Mechanisms of Biological Clocks Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 5. Which statement about the EEG is false? a. It has virtually no clinical value because of its poor spatial resolution. b. Its temporal resolution can resolve different-frequency brain waves. c. It can detect distinct rhythms or frequency bands in different regions of the brain. d. EEG rhythms depend in part on activity of the thalamus. e. The functional significance of cortical oscillations detected by EEG is unknown.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 28A: Electroencephalography Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Rats completely deprived of sleep a. will die within a few weeks. b. can live for several months if carefully fed and watered.

c. exhibit extreme aggression toward other rats. d. show a specific problem-solving deficit after several weeks. e. gain weight and become extremely lethargic.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Purpose of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which statement about human sleep cycles is false? a. Adults, on average, need about 7.5 hours of sleep a night. b. The need for sleep increases with age. c. Body temperature decreases at night. d. Growth hormone increases at night. e. Cortisol levels begin to increase toward early morning.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Purpose of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Narcolepsy is caused by a. a mutation in the orexin-2 receptor. b. excessive consumption of alcohol or caffeine. c. misuse of stimulants such as Ritalin. d. an inability to focus or concentrate that results in lapses into REM sleep. e. taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

Answer: a Clinical Applications: Sleep Disorders and Their Treatment Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Dolphins have a unique sleep style in that a. they have only REM sleep. b. they sleep in very brief bouts that last only a few minutes at a time. c. they sleep only for a few minutes a day. d. only half their brain (or cerebrum) sleeps at a time. e. they alternate on a regular basis between sleeping during the day and sleeping at night.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sleep in Different Species Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. The deepest stage of sleep is _______ sleep. a. spindle-wave b. slow-wave c. REM d. stage I e. stage II Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Stages of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

11. Slow-wave sleep a. is characterized by sleep-spindles. b. includes stage III and stage IV sleep. c. occurs only once a night. d. is characterized by rapid eye movements. e. is characterized by EEG oscillations in the 100 to 200 Hz range.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Stages of Sleep Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Which physiological change is not characteristic of non-REM sleep? a. Rolling eye movements b. Decreased body temperature c. Decreased heart rate d. Penile erection e. Decreased blood pressure Answer: d Textbook Reference: Physiological Changes in Sleep States Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which statement does not describe a theory or view offered to explain REM sleep and/or dreaming? a. During dreaming, the conscious ego relaxes its hold on the subconscious “id.” b. REM is necessary for survival because the eye movements prevent fixation blindness. c. REM consolidates memories by strengthening relevant synaptic connections. d. REM helps expunge intrusive or “parasitic” modes of thought. e. Dream content is cognitive “trash” as much as it is “treasure.”

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 28C Dreaming Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. The reticular activating system a. is a region of forebrain that activates the rest of the brain. b. is a thalamocortical loop involved in attention. c. includes a group of brainstem cholinergic neurons that induces wakefulness. d. defines a cerebellar region that becomes active at the end of a sleep cycle. e. is a reticular or mesh-like network that wraps around the cerebrum.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement about REM sleep is false? a. Pontine reticular signals trigger eye movements by activating the superior colliculus. b. REM sleep EEG waves propagate through thalamus to cortex and are called PGO waves.

c. Activity in the amygdala, parahippocampus, and anterior cingulate cortex increases during REM sleep. d. The influence of the frontal cortex decreases markedly during REM sleep. e. Many of the eye movements during REM sleep are caused by light leaking through the eyelids.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Antihistamines make people drowsy because they a. inhibit the cholinergic nuclei in the brainstem. b. excite several classes of neurons in the raphe. c. mimic noradrenaline and serotonin at several metabotropic receptors. d. are selectively taken up by VLPO neurons. e. block the effects of tuberomammillary hypothalamic neurons.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. A rodent undergoes a lesion to the lateral hypothalamus. You would expect the animal to show symptoms similar to which human disorder? a. Narcolepsy b. Restless leg syndrome c. Insomnia d. Sleep apnea e. Chronic fatigue syndrome Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Neural Circuits Governing Sleep Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Which statement about thalamocortical circuits is false? a. Reciprocal projections connect the thalamus and cortex. b. Thalamic neurons can exist in a bursting state or a tonically active state. c. A thalamic bursting state coincides with periods of heightened awareness. d. Cholinergic and noradrenergic activity promote a tonic firing state. e. A tonic state is believed to be associated with transmission of external information to cortex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Thalamocortical Interactions in Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. The cells that receive cortical inputs and hyperpolarize thalamocortical neurons are a. found throughout the brainstem. b. a subset of the cholinergic cells of the reticular activating system. c. GABAergic neurons found in the thalamic reticular nucleus. d. the only cells that show low-threshold calcium spikes. e. the primary source of the noradrenergic fibers ascending into cortex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Thalamocortical Interactions in Sleep Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which statement, according to our current state of knowledge, is most likely true? a. All animals are inherently self-aware, including fruit flies. b. Only mammals have a capacity that can truly be called consciousness. c. Sleep evolved to disable consciousness. d. As long as one rejects the idea of dualism, there is no impediment to the notion of creating conscious machines. e. Neurobiology may soon reveal the basis of consciousness.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Neural Correlates of Consciousness Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 29: Attention Multiple Choice 1. A subject is presented with two different dialogues, one in each ear, at the same time. She is then asked to repeat one of the dialogues. What does this test measure? a. Hemispatial neglect b. Balint’s syndrome c. Exogenous attention d. Biasing signals e. Selective attention Answer: e Textbook Reference: Attention as “Selective” Processing Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Which evidence suggests that unattended information is processed in the brain and that filtering occurs late in the sensory processing pathway? a. Using arrow cueing to indicate the location of a target improves task completion. b. Attention spreads from one modality to another. c. A person attends to his name when it is mentioned in an unattended conversation. d. Patients with right parietal lobe lesions ignore the left half of visual space. e. Subthreshold microstimulation of the frontal eye field enhances neuronal response in a single V4 neuron.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Attention as “Selective” Processing Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 3. Subjects are asked to focus on a center point until a shape appears, and then name the shape.

Before the shape appears, an arrow appears either pointing in the direction the shape will appear (valid), pointing in both directions (neutral), or pointing in the opposite direction from which the shape will appear (invalid). How would the subjects’ reaction time for naming the shape differ among these conditions?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 4. Subjects are asked to focus on the center of a screen until a shape appears, and then name the shape (e.g., square or circle). Before the shape appears, an arrow appears that either points in the direction the shape will appear (valid), points in both directions (neutral), or points in the opposite direction the shape will appear (invalid). What does this test measure? a. Exogenous attention b. Inhibition of return c. Supramodal attention d. Endogenous attention e. Biasing signals Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which method could be used to measure exogenous attention? a. Require the subject to examine multiple stimuli in an image, requiring eye saccades. b. Use a cue, like a flash of light, that does not provide explicit information about where a target image is likely to appear. c. Alert the subject in advance where a target image is likely to appear. d. Present auditory stimuli in a visually attended location. e. Instruct the subject to remain focused on one point while a target image appears elsewhere.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Refer to the figure.

While subjects are focusing on a blank screen, a flash of light unexpectedly appears in one of two locations. Following the flash, a target image appears on the screen. Half the time the target image is in the same location as the flash, and half the time it is presented on the other side of the screen. The data collected are presented in the graph. What phenomenon occurs when the target is presented more than 300 ms after the cue? a. Supramodal attention b. Exogenous attention c. Endogenous attention d. Inhibition of return e. Biasing signal Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Which statement regarding the time course of attention is most accurate? a. For endogenous attention, improved processing of a cued target starts immediately after the cue. b. For exogenous attention, improved processing of a cued target starts as early as 75 ms after the cue. c. For exogenous attention, improved processing of a cued target can last for seconds after the cue. d. For endogenous attention, improved processing of a cued target lasts only a few hundred milliseconds. e. For endogenous attention, post-cue intervals of longer than 300 ms lead to a deficit in processing of the cued target.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. What is endogenous attention? a. An involuntary shift in attention caused by salient stimuli in the environment b. Aligning visual and auditory processing with an attended stimulus c. Directing attention to a stimulus without movement of the head or eyes d. Focusing attention on information from multiple sensory systems at the same time e. A conscious and voluntary shift in attention to a particular target Answer: e Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. What is exogenous attention? a. An involuntary shift in attention caused by salient stimuli in the environment b. Directing attention to a stimulus without movement of the head or eyes c. A conscious and voluntary shift in attention to a particular target d. Focusing attention on information from multiple sensory systems at the same time e. Aligning visual and auditory processing with an attended stimulus

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. What is covert attention? a. Focusing attention on information from multiple sensory systems at the same time b. Aligning visual and auditory processing with an attended stimulus c. Directing attention to a stimulus without movement of the head or eyes d. An involuntary shift in attention caused by salient stimuli in the environment e. A conscious and voluntary shift in attention to a particular target Answer: c Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. What is overt attention? a. Focusing attention on information from multiple sensory systems at the same time b. Aligning visual and auditory processing with an attended stimulus c. Directing attention to a stimulus without movement of the head or eyes d. An involuntary shift in attention caused by salient stimuli in the environment e. A conscious and voluntary shift in attention to a particular target Answer: b Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which method could be used to measure covert attention? a. Present auditory stimuli in a visually attended location. b. Require the subject to examine multiple stimuli in an image, requiring eye saccades. c. Instruct the subject to remain focused on one point while a target image appears elsewhere. d. Alert the subject in advance where a target image is likely to appear. e. Use a cue, like a flash of light, that does not provide explicit information about where a target image is likely to appear.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. When subjects are presented with a picture of a person, they tend to focus their attention on the face and eyes of the individual. However, when they are asked to draw conclusions about the individual in the image, like wealth, they shift their gaze to look at the clothes or surrounding environment. What does this test measure? a. Overt attention b. Covert attention c. Supramodal attention d. Exogenous attention e. Inhibition of return Answer: a Textbook Reference: Covert Attention

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. What is supramodal attention? a. Aligning visual and auditory processing with an attended stimulus b. Directing attention to a stimulus without movement of the head or eyes c. An involuntary shift in attention caused by salient stimuli in the environment d. A conscious and voluntary shift in attention to a particular target e. Focusing attention on information from multiple sensory systems at the same time Answer: e Textbook Reference: Attention across Sensory Modalities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which method could be used to measure supramodal attention? a. Instruct the subject to remain focused on one point while a target image appears elsewhere. b. Require the subject to examine multiple stimuli in an image, requiring eye saccades. c. Present auditory stimuli in a visually attended location. d. Alert the subject in advance where a target image is likely to appear. e. Use a cue, like a flash of light, that does not provide explicit information about where a target image is likely to appear.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Attention across Sensory Modalities Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. What is problematic about the concept of an executive controller that oversees attention? a. There is lateralization of attentional function. b. The regions involved in control of attention are too large to measure accurately. c. Deficits after brain damage are too complex to characterize. d. Animal studies cannot translate to human attention. e. There is strong overlap between the regions important for attention and other behavioral tasks.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Evidence for a Brain System that Controls Attention Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. After trauma to the head, a patient sustains damage in the right inferior parietal lobe. What symptoms would you expect to see? a. Inability to attend to more than one visual object at a time b. Deficit of attention paid to the left side of the body and extrapersonal space c. Inability for unexpected salient stimuli in the environment to involuntarily shift her attention d. Deficit of attention paid to the right side of the body and extrapersonal space e. Inability to attend to more than one sensory modality at a time Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Refer to the figure.

A subject is instructed to draw a clock from memory. Her version is shown in the figure. What would the patient’s diagnosis most likely be? a. Hemispatial neglect syndrome b. Balint’s syndrome c. Deficit in supramodal attention d. Lesion in the superior colliculus e. Deficit in covert attention Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. A monkey shows symptoms of left hemispatial neglect syndrome. Which procedure could alleviate the symptoms? a. Lesion the right superior colliculus b. Stimulating the right primary visual cortex c. Stimulating the left primary visual cortex d. Lesion the left superior colliculus e. Lesion the left superior parietal lobule Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. Which statement describes the Sprague effect? a. Microstimulation of the frontal eye field can enhance the response of a V4 neuron. b. The symptoms of hemispatial neglect can be attenuated by a lesion of the superior colliculus contralateral to the parietal lobe lesion. c. Individuals with Balint’s syndrome can communicate information about multiple stimulus qualities as long as they are embodied in the same object. d. When targets appear after approximately 300 ms in the same location as an exogenous cue, subjects are slower to respond than to uncued targets. e. Attending to one’s name when it is mentioned in an unattended conversation.

Answer: b

Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions That Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 21. The superior colliculus is connected to the parietal cortex via which structure? a. Hypothalamus b. Reticular formation c. Pulvinar d. Paraventricular nucleus of the thalamus e. Corpus callosum Answer: c Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions That Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. Lesions in the _______ cortex, particularly those that connect to the _______ cortex, can also cause attentional deficits. a. frontal; parietal b. temporal; parietal c. occipital; frontal d. temporal; frontal e. frontal; temporal Answer: a Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions That Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 23. An experiment is run to examine cortical regions in the attention network. During the test, a recording electrode measures neuronal activity in the V4 region of the visual cortex. When microstimulation of a second region occurs, a V4 neuron shows enhanced response to a bar in the cell’s receptive field. Which region was stimulated? a. Right inferior parietal lobe b. Pulvinar c. Superior colliculus d. Reticular formation e. Frontal eye field Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 29A: Attention and the Frontal Eye Fields Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Damage to which cortical region in the frontal-parietal attention network would likely affect endogenous attention? a. Temporal-parietal junction b. Inferior parietal lobule c. Frontal eye fields d. Ventral frontal cortex e. Inferior frontal gyrus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

25. Refer to the figure.

Which regions of the frontal-parietal attention network are believed to be responsible for exogenous attention? a. A and B b. A and D c. C and D d. B and C e. B and D Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 26. Refer to the figure.

Which region is likely to cause hemispatial neglect syndrome when damaged? a. A b. B c. C

d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 27. After a stroke, a patient sustains bilateral damage to the dorsal posterior parietal and lateral occipital cortex. Which symptoms would you expect this patient to exhibit? a. Deficit of attention paid to the left side of the body and extrapersonal space b. Inability for unexpected salient stimuli in the environment to involuntarily shift attention c. Deficit of attention paid to the right side of the body and extrapersonal space d. Inability to attend to more than one visual object at a time e. Inability to attend to more than one sensory modality at a time Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. A patient experienced a severe head trauma and now is unable to point to an object in space under visual guidance and has difficulty moving his eyes toward a visual target. What would the most likely diagnosis for this patient be? a. Balint’s syndrome b. Hemispatial neglect syndrome c. Deficit in supramodal attention d. Lesion in the superior colliculus e. Deficit in covert attention Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 29. Refer to the figure.

After a stroke, a patient is presented with the images shown in the figure and asked to indicate whether the lengths of two nearby rectangles are equal. When the rectangles are part of one

object (Complete), the patient is usually able to correctly assess the lengths. When the rectangles are split into two objects (Separate), however, the patient’s performance drops to near chance alone. In which brain regions would you expect to find damage? a. Ventral frontal and superior temporal cortex b. Dorsal posterior parietal and superior temporal cortex c. Ventral frontal and lateral occipital cortex d. Dorsolateral frontal and lateral occipital cortex e. Dorsal posterior parietal and lateral occipital cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 30. Monkeys were trained to attend to one target image when two images were presented. During this test, firing rate was recorded from a V4 neuron with a receptive field that included both images. One image was an optimal stimulus for the neuron (effective), whereas the other image was not (ineffective). Which graph represents the data you would expect to collect?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: Studies in Non-Human Primates Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What is the difference between endogenous and exogenous attention?

Answer: Endogenous attention is a result of voluntarily directing one’s attention toward a target.

An example is shifting one’s focus in response to a command. Exogenous attention, on the other hand, occurs in response to an unexpected stimulus in the environment. For example, when you are outside reading a book and hear a dog bark, your attention is drawn away from reading toward the dog.

Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. What is the difference between overt and covert attention?

Answer: Overt attention is when the head and eyes move the gaze to the target of interest. Covert attention occurs when the focus of attention shifts but the gaze does not.

Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. What symptoms would lead to a diagnosis of hemispatial neglect? In an MRI scan, where would you expect to find damage?

Answer: Hemispatial neglect is characterized by lack of attention to the left side of the body and extrapersonal space that is not due to blindness in the left visual field. Behaviors such as not dressing the left side of the body, or ignoring the food on the left side of a plate, are examples of hemispatial neglect. The condition arises from damage to the right inferior parietal cortex, most commonly, but damage to other parietal regions, such as the temporal cortex or the frontal cortex, can also lead to attention deficits.

Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What evidence suggests that attention is not controlled by a single brain region but by a number of brain regions working as a network?

Answer: The fact that damage to a range of brain areas can lead to attention deficits indicates that attention is controlled by a network of structures and not a single cortical region. Clinical research shows that damage to the right parietal cortex, right superior temporal cortex, and right frontal cortex, specifically the frontal eye fields, can lead to dysfunction in attention.

Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions that Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

5. Damage in which cortical regions would result in dysfunction of endogenous attention?

Answer: Interparietal sulcus, superior parietal lobule, and frontal eye fields Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Damage in which cortical regions would result in dysfunction of exogenous attention?

Answer: Temporal-parietal junction: inferior parietal lobule and superior temporal gyrus Ventral frontal cortex: inferior frontal gyrus; middle frontal gyrus Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Damage in which region leads to Balint’s syndrome? What symptoms are associated with the disorder?

Answer: Balint’s syndrome arises from bilateral damage in the posterior parietal and lateral occipital cortices. There are three main symptoms: simultanagnosia, or the inability to focus on more than one object in the visual field at a time; optic ataxia, or the inability to point at or grab an object in space; and oculomotor ataxia, or voluntarily moving the gaze to a visual target.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What neurological difference exists in V4 neurons between focusing attention on an effective stimulus versus an ineffective stimulus when both are present in the receptive field of the neuron?

Answer: A V4 neuron will show a significant increase in firing rate when the subject focuses on the effective stimulus in the receptive field. When the subject focuses on the ineffective stimulus, firing rate increases above baseline but not as high as the effective stimulus.

Textbook Reference: Studies in Non-Human Primates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Identify three methods that have been used to understand the neurological mechanisms of attention.

Answer: Sensory attention testing, such as endogenous or exogenous cueing paradigms; examining attention deficits in patients with brain damage; lesion and stimulation studies in nonhuman primates; MRI scans in humans and animals undergoing attention tasks.

Textbook Reference: Studies in Non-Human Primates Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. What issue complicates the concept of an executive controller over attention?

Answer: The brain regions implicated in the control of attention all are responsible for other complex tasks. Additionally, a system that would integrate all the information necessary to generate appropriate attention responses would require the entire brain and nervous system.

Textbook Reference: Problems with the Concept of Attention as Executive Control Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Selective attention is exemplified by a. cue validity. b. cue-to-target interval. c. hemispatial neglect. d. the cocktail party effect. e. the Sprague effect.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Attention as “Selective” Processing Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which method could be used to measure endogenous attention? a. A cue, like a flash of light, that does not provide explicit information about where a target image is likely to appear. b. Alerting a subject in advance where a target image is likely to appear. c. Requiring the subject to examine multiple stimuli in an image, requiring eye saccades. d. Instructing the subject to remain focused on one point while a target image appears elsewhere. e. Presenting auditory stimuli in a visually attended location.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. While subjects are focusing on a blank screen, a flash of light unexpectedly appears in one of two locations. Following the flash, a target image appears on the screen. Half of the time the target image is in the same location as the flash, and half the time it is presented on the other side of the screen. What does this test measure? a. Endogenous attention b. Supramodal attention c. Biasing signals d. Hemispatial neglect e. Exogenous attention Answer: e Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Which method could be used to measure inhibition of return? a. During an exogenous attention task, wait at least 300 ms after presenting the cue before presenting the target image. b. During an overt attention task, present the target image immediately after the cue. c. During a covert attention task, wait at least 300 ms after the cue before presenting the target image. d. During an endogenous attention task, present the target image immediately after the cue. e. During a supramodal attention task, present the second sensory modality stimulus immediately after the first.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endogenous versus Exogenous Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Subjects are asked to focus on a red dot in the center of an otherwise blank screen. They are told that an arrow will appear, pointing to either the left or the right, and then a target image will appear. The subjects’ task is to report the color of the target image while maintaining their visual focus on the red dot in the center. What does this test measure? a. Overt attention b. Supramodal attention c. Covert attention d. Exogenous attention e. Inhibition of return Answer: c Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Which method could be used to measure overt attention? a. A cue, like a flash of light, that does not provide explicit information about where a target image is likely to appear. b. Requiring the subject to examine multiple pieces of stimuli in an image, requiring eye saccades. c. Presenting auditory stimuli in a visually attended location. d. Alerting the subject in advance where a target image is likely to appear. e. Instructing the subject to remain focused on one point and report on a target image that appears elsewhere.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Covert Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. A subject is instructed to focus on an image of a person. While the subject examines the image, an auditory stimulus is presented from the same location. What does this test measure? a. The subject’s saliency map b. Biasing signals c. Inhibition of return d. Hemispatial neglect e. Supramodal attention Answer: e Textbook Reference: Attention across Sensory Modalities Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Hemispatial neglect arises from damage in which location? a. Right primary visual cortex b. Left frontal eye field c. Right inferior parietal lobe d. Left superior colliculus

e. Left superior parietal lobule Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. A patient is asked to imagine himself walking down the middle of the Main Street in his childhood town and name the stores he passes. As he does this, he lists only the stores on the right side of the street. When asked about a store that used to be on the left side of the street, he replies that it must have closed. The patient is then instructed to imagine turning around and walking back the way he came. This time, he again lists only the stores that are on his right (which were on his left before). Based on these symptoms, where would you expect to find damage in the patient’s nervous system? a. Right inferior parietal lobe b. Right primary visual cortex c. Left frontal eye field d. Left superior colliculus e. Left superior parietal lobule Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. Which statement regarding attention processing in primates is most accurate? a. Humans have right hemisphere control of attention; non-human primates have left hemisphere control. b. Humans have left hemisphere control of attention; non-human primates have right hemisphere control. c. Both humans and non-human primates have right hemisphere control of attention. d. Both humans and non-human primates have left hemisphere control of attention. e. Humans have right hemisphere control of attention; non-human primates do not show lateralization of control of attention.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement regarding lateralization of attention is true? a. The right parietal cortex influences attention only in the left visual field; the left parietal cortex influences attention only in the right visual field. b. The right parietal cortex influences attention in both visual fields; the left parietal cortex influences attention only in the right visual field. c. The right parietal cortex influences attention only in the right visual field; the left parietal cortex influences attention only in the left visual field. d. The right parietal cortex influences attention only in the left visual field; the left parietal cortex influences attention in both visual fields. e. Both the right and left parietal cortices influence attention in both visual fields.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evidence from Neurological Patients: Hemispatial Neglect Syndrome

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Damage in which location would prevent communication between the superior colliculus and the parietal cortex? a. Pulvinar b. Fornix c. Mammillary body d. Inferior colliculus e. Anterior commissure Answer: a Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions That Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 13. Which symptom is not produced by lesions to the frontal eye fields? a. Deficits with task switching b. Inability to ignore unnecessary information c. Failure to initiate eye movements to targets in the contralateral visual field d. Blindness in a region of the visual field e. Inability to direct attention toward the contralateral side Answer: d Textbook Reference: Other Brain Regions That Affect Attention Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Which statement correctly describes the effect of microstimulation of the frontal eye fields on the firing rate of a visual cortex neuron? a. The firing rate of a V4 neuron is decreased in response to a bar in the cell’s receptive field. b. The firing rate of a V4 neuron is enhanced in response to a bar in the cell’s receptive field. c. The firing rate of a V4 neuron is enhanced even without a stimulus in the cell’s receptive field. d. The firing rate of a V4 neuron is decreased even without a stimulus in the cell’s receptive field. e. The firing rate of a V4 neuron is not affected.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 29A: Attention and the Frontal Eye Fields Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Refer to the figure.

Which regions of the frontal-parietal attention network are believed to be responsible for endogenous attention? a. A and B b. A and D c. B and C d. B and D e. C and D Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Damage to which cortical region in the frontal-parietal attention network would likely affect exogenous attention? a. Frontal eye fields b. Interparietal sulcus c. Superior parietal lobule d. Pulvinar e. Temporal-parietal junction Answer: e Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Which region is not part of the frontal-parietal attention network? a. Ventral frontal cortex b. Frontal eye fields c. V4 d. Temporal-parietal junction e. Interparietal sulcus Answer: c

Textbook Reference: Evidence from Normal Subjects Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Balint’s syndrome arises from damage in which locations? a. Ventral frontal and superior temporal cortex b. Dorsal posterior parietal and superior temporal cortex c. Ventral frontal and lateral occipital cortex d. Dorsolateral frontal and lateral occipital cortex e. Dorsal posterior parietal and lateral occipital cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Refer to the figure.

A patient is presented with the images in the figure one at a time and asked to report how many colors she can see. When the two colors are presented as separate objects, as in the Random or Single display, she reports that she can see only one color. When the two colors are presented as part of the same object, however, she reports seeing both colors. What would the most likely diagnosis of this patient be? a. Hemispatial neglect syndrome b. Balint’s syndrome c. Deficit in supramodal attention d. Lesion in the superior colliculus e. Deficit in covert attention Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Balint’s Syndrome Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. Refer to the figure.

In a study, monkeys were trained to attend to one target image when two images were presented.

During the test, firing rate was recorded from a V4 neuron with a receptive field that included both images. One image was an optimal stimulus for the neuron (effective), whereas the other image was not (ineffective). What conclusion can be drawn from the results of this study? a. Neuronal responses of V4 neurons are inhibited when an ineffective stimulus is present in the receptive field, regardless of which stimulus is being attended. b. Neuronal responses of V4 neurons are increased when an effective stimulus is present in the receptive field, regardless of which stimulus is being attended. c. Neuronal responses of V4 neurons depend on where attention is focused within the neuron’s receptive field. d. Neuronal responses of V4 neurons drop below baseline firing when an ineffective stimulus is being attended. e. Neuronal responses of V4 neurons do not change from baseline when both effective and ineffective stimuli are present in the receptive field.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Studies in Non-Human Primates Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 30: Memory Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is not an example of declarative memory? a. Remembering what you had for dinner b. Remembering how to ride a bike c. Remembering that a wrench is a tool d. Remembering your friend’s phone number e. Remembering the scene of an accident Answer: b Textbook Reference: Qualitative Categories of Human Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Which is an example of phylogenetic memory? a. A person remembering a list of seven numbers b. A rodent learning a maze to win a reward c. A person successfully completing more word fragments from previously studied words than new words d. An infant monkey being frightened of snakes e. A person remembering all the streets in London Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 30A: Phylogenetic Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. Being able to repeat a list of 10 words just after first being presented with them is an example of which type of memory? a. Immediate memory b. Long-term memory c. Short-term memory d. Non-declarative memory e. Phylogenetic memory Answer: c Textbook Reference: Temporal Categories of Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which is not an aspect of long-term memory? a. Long-term changes in synaptic connectivity b. Consolidation of information c. Storage of information for years or decades

d. The use of sensory-modality specific “memory registers” e. The storage of items of particular significance Answer: d Textbook Reference: Temporal Categories of Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Subjects take part in a two-day memory test. On day one, they are given a list of words to read. On day 2, they are provided with word fragments and asked to complete the fragment with the first word they think of. Half of the fragments come from words they saw on day one, half from words they had not seen. Which graph depicts the data you would expect to collect?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Priming Bloom’s Level: 4. Analysis 6. Subjects studied a set of pictures of different items, such as food, furniture, and animals. Later, they were presented with the same pictures along with new pictures and asked to identify the images they already had seen. The control group had normal access to food (Group A) between studying and testing; the experimental subjects were asked to fast for 12 hours (Group B) between studying and testing. Which graph depicts the data you would expect to collect from this experiment?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Importance of Association in Information Storage Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. A mouse is subjected to training while in a chamber with an electric grid on the floor that can deliver shocks to the mouse’s feet. Whenever a blue light appears in the chamber, the mouse is given a shock, which elicits a freezing response in the mouse. How would you expect the mouse to behave after the training session? a. The animal will stop freezing in response to the shocks. b. The animal will display freezing behavior constantly regardless of stimulus. c. The animal will freeze in response to the blue light alone. d. The animal will continue to freeze in response to the shock, but not to the blue light alone. e. The animal will freeze in response to the blue light, and any new stimulus (yellow light, soft train whistle) presented, alone.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Conditioned Learning Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. A young child discovers that if he finds a specific black object and pushes a specific button, the television will come on. What type of learning is this? a. Operant conditioning b. Classical conditioning c. Motivated memory learning d. Priming e. Anterograde learning Answer: a Textbook Reference: Conditioned Learning Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. During a learning test, a subject wears a small device on their finger that elicits a painful shock. When this occurs, the subject’s heart rate increases slightly, but significantly. As part of the test, the shock is consistently paired with a red light. After a number of pairings, the person responds with an elevated heart rate to the red light alone. In this example, which term best describes the red light? a. Conditioned response b. Conditioned stimulus c. Unconditioned stimulus d. Unconditioned response e. Engram Answer: b Textbook Reference: Conditioned Learning

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. After conditioned learning, if the conditioned stimulus is presented alone a number of times, without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response eventually disappears. What is this called? a. Reconditioning b. Priming c. Working d. Consolidation e. Extinction Answer: e Textbook Reference: Conditioned Learning Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Refer to the figure.

Over the course of 15 years, two individuals were asked to recall facts about a single life event.

The data are presented above. What would explain the difference in results between the two subjects? a. Subject A has anterograde amnesia; subject B is a typical individual. b. Subject A is a typical individual; subject B has hippocampal damage. c. Subject A has hippocampal damage; subject B is a typical individual. d. Subject A is a typical individual; subject B has superior autobiographical memory. e. Subject A has basal ganglia damage; subject B is a typical individual.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Forgetting Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

12. Which evidence best supports the idea that long-term declarative memories are not stored in the hippocampus? a. Rats cannot learn to find an underwater platform if the hippocampus has been lesioned prior to testing. b. R.B. could not learn new declarative memories. c. H.M. could recall memories from his childhood. d. Electroconvulsive therapy can lead to retrograde amnesia. e. H.M. could learn to play the piano.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Which statement about the clinical case of H.M. is false? a. It showed that bilateral medial temporal structures are important in the formation of declarative memories. b. H.M.’s intellectual functions, as measured by intelligence tests, sharply declined after his surgery. c. H.M.’s nondeclarative memory was intact. d. H.M. was unable to remember clinicians who worked with him for many years. e. H.M. had a profound loss of declarative memory functions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Where is the hippocampus located? a. Posterior parietal lobe b. Medial temporal lobe c. Prefrontal cortex d. Brainstem e. Superior occipital lobe Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. A subject is asked to memorize a list of 15 words while being scanned in an fMRI machine.

Where would you expect to see increased brain activity? a. Amygdala b. Hippocampus c. Posterior parietal lobe d. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Basal ganglia Answer: b Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

16. Which brain region is not thought to be involved in the acquisition or storage of declarative memory? a. Hippocampus b. Parahippocampal gyrus c. Medial temporal lobe d. Basal ganglia e. Association cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. London taxi cab drivers must take a test of the city’s 25,000 streets prior to becoming licensed. When the brains of these drivers are compared with control individuals, what difference is found? a. Drivers have a smaller anterior hippocampus than controls. b. Drivers have a larger posterior hippocampus than controls. c. Drivers have larger basal ganglia than controls. d. Drivers have a smaller amygdala than controls. e. Drivers have a smaller prefrontal cortex than controls.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Refer to the figure.

A patient is having difficulty with short-term memory after being in a car accident. Which brain region was most likely damaged? a. A b. B c. C

d. D e. E Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. Which structure do researchers believe provides a cognitive map of long-term memories? a. Hippocampus b. Prefrontal cortex c. Fornix d. Amygdala e. Basal ganglia Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. Where are long-term declarative memories stored? a. Cerebral cortex b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Basal ganglia e. Cerebellum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Sites of Long-Term Memory Storage Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 21. When Barry views an image of a face, his fusiform gyrus shows activation. When he later recalls the same face in his imagination, where in his brain would you expect to see activation? a. Fusiform gyrus b. Amygdala c. Basal ganglia d. Prefrontal cortex e. Occipital lobe Answer: a Textbook Reference: Sites of Long-Term Memory Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Which pathology leads to an increased risk of Alzheimer’s disease? a. A mutation in the presenilin 4 gene b. Homozygosity for the e2 ApoE allele c. Increase in blood cholesterol d. Accumulation of the Aβ42 peptide e. Sedentary lifestyle in young adulthood Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s Disease Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

23. Which genetic characteristic increases the risk of Alzheimer’s disease, but is not sufficient to cause the disorder? a. A mutation in the presenilin 1 gene b. A mutation in the presenilin 2 gene c. A mutation in the amyloid precursor protein gene d. Homozygosity for the e3 ApoE allele e. Homozygosity for the e4 ApoE allele Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s Disease Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. The pathology in Alzheimer’s disease is not thought to involve a. abnormal processing of amyloid precursor protein (APP). b. mutations in presenilin 1 and 2. c. homozygosity for the e4 form of ApoE. d. mutations on chromosome 21. e. neurofibrillary tangles in the fornix.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s Disease Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. Damage to which region would cause the loss of place cells? a. Amygdala b. Hippocampus c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum e. Entorhinal cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 30D: Place Cells and Grid Cells Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Refer to the figure.

A lesion in the region shown above would lead to a. a loss of place cells. b. procedural memory deficits. c. a loss of grid cells. d. long-term memory deficits. e. eye-blink conditioning deficits.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 30D: Place Cells and Grid Cells Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 27. Studying cognitive changes in which condition revealed a role for basal ganglia in memory? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Superior autobiographical memory c. Parkinson’s disease d. Retrograde amnesia e. Epilepsy Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Damage to which structure would affect a person’s ability to learn how to play the piano? a. Basal ganglia b. Occipital lobe c. Amygdala d. Hippocampus e. Fornix Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

29. Eye-blink conditioning occurs when a person learns to blink in response to a tone that predicts a puff of air into the eye. If a patient was unable to learn to blink in response to a tone, which region would you expect to be dysfunctional? a. Hippocampus b. Amygdala c. Mammillary body d. Corpus callosum e. Cerebellum Answer: e Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 30. Which statement about the structural changes that occur in the brain during healthy aging is accurate? a. Brain weight decreases due to a decline in the number of neurons. b. Brain weight decreases due to a decline in the number of both synapses and neurons. c. Brain weight increases due to an increase in the number of synapses. d. Brain weight decreases due to a decline in the number of synapses. e. Brain weight stays the same, but there is an increase in the number of synapses and a decrease in the number of neurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Memory and Aging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Distinguish between declarative memory and nondeclarative (procedural) memory. Give examples of each.

Answer: Declarative memory is memory of facts and events that can be consciously retrieved and expressed by language, such as remembering a life event, recalling facts from a history class, or how to navigate from home to work. Nondeclarative memory is the memory of skills and habits, such as how to play the piano or how to swim.

Textbook Reference: Qualitative Categories of Human Memory Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Distinguish between immediate, working (short-term), and long-term memory. Give an example of each.

Answer: Immediate memory allows storage of information for up to a second. An example is visual information from our constant saccadic eye movements.

Short-term memory allows for information storage for a longer timeframe, seconds to minutes.

Repeating a phone number or playing a card matching game and remembering where certain cards are located are examples of short-term memory.

Long-term memory is the storage of information for a few days to an entire lifetime. Long-term

memory includes remembering important life events, language rules, or your favorite song from childhood.

Textbook Reference: Temporal Categories of Memory Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Would you want to have a perfect memory? What are the advantages of forgetting?

Answer: Probably not. The process of forgetting allows us to focus on important aspects of our environment without being constantly overwhelmed by trivial information.

Textbook Reference: Forgetting Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 4. What lines of evidence support the proposal that declarative memory and procedural memory involve different brain mechanisms?

Answer: Clinical subjects H.M., N.A., and R.B. all had damage to the hippocampal region of the brain, which resulted in significant memory deficits, but only to declarative memory. In each case, the patients retained the ability to learn new skills, thus their procedural memory was intact.

This suggests that different brain regions are responsible for the two types of memory.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What has patient H.M. taught us about human memory?

Answer: H.M. had bilateral medial temporal lobe damage. His symptoms after the surgery included the inability to form short-term memories, but he retained the ability to recall information and events from before his surgery, so his long-term memory was intact.

Additionally, he was able to learn new skills like playing the piano (although he could not remember participating in the process of learning the piano). His case shed light on the idea that long-term memory and procedural memory are controlled by regions outside of the medial temporal lobe.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What approaches are used to assess hippocampal involvement in memory consolidation?

Answer: The role of the hippocampus in memory formation can be assessed in different ways.

Examining patients that have hippocampus damage or using fMRI to scan healthy subjects can give insight into hippocampal function. Additionally, lesion studies in laboratory animals allow observation of the effects of damage to specific locations.

Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which evidence suggests that short-term and long-term memory involve different brain mechanisms?

Answer: In addition to retaining procedural memory, clinical subjects H.M., N.A., and R.B. also retained their memories that were consolidated prior to their injuries. They had anterograde, but not retrograde, amnesia. Damage to the hippocampus does not affect long-term memory storage, only short-term. Additionally, it was discovered that loss of cortical regions could lead to retrograde amnesia as did experimental techniques such as electroconvulsive therapy. These

findings indicate that long-term memory storage occurs in the cortex.

Textbook Reference: Sites of Long-Term Memory Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. What are the neural and behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease? Briefly summarize the current view on the causes of Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer: The behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer’s include impaired memory function; deficits in language skills, visual-spatial orientation, and abstract thinking; and eventual changes in personality. The diagnosis can only be confirmed by examining the brain after death. Neural characteristics of the disease include the presence of neurofibrillary tangles, senile plaques, and a loss of neurons.

The cause of most Alzheimer’s cases is not known, but genetic mutations seem to play a role.

Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 have been identified in early-onset, familial Alzheimer’s. Additionally, homozygosity for the e4 allele of the ApoE gene increases the risk of late onset Alzheimer’s.

Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s disease Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Describe evidence that supports the role of the basal ganglia in the storage of nondeclarative memories.

Answer: Patients suffering from Huntington’s disease or Parkinson’s disease (and not receiving dopamine treatment) perform worse than healthy controls on motor skill learning tests.

Additionally, healthy controls show increased brain activity in the basal ganglia while performing the motor skill tests.

Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. What changes occur in the brain as humans age?

Answer: As humans get older, the size of their brain shrinks, most likely due to a loss of connections, since the number of neurons does not change much over time. These structural changes probably cause the decline in memory function that occurs with age.

Textbook Reference: Memory and Aging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Nondeclarative memory includes a. recalling daily events. b. learning of motor skills. c. verbally sharing historical facts. d. remembering words and their meaning. e. conveying emotional aspects of an event.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Qualitative Categories of Human Memory

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Memory that is “passed down” through natural selection within a species (i.e., instinctual behavior) is called _______ memory. a. phylogenetic b. very long-term c. natural selection d. evolutionary e. growth Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 30A: Phylogenetic Memory Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Which of the following illustrates working memory? a. Holding information in mind for less than a second b. Holding and mentally manipulating information for seconds to minutes c. Holding information for several days d. Using engrams to retain information e. Learning new motor skills Answer: b Textbook Reference: Temporal Categories of Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Which characteristic is not an aspect of long-term memory? a. Long-term changes in synaptic connectivity b. Consolidation of information c. Storage of information for years or decades d. The use of sensory modality-specific “memory registers” e. The storage of items of particular significance Answer: d Textbook Reference: Temporal Categories of Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Priming a. refers to the enhancement of memory recall by the deliberate rehearsal of earlier events in the day. b. refers to a memory store that is infallible because it involves no conscious decision-making. c. includes the propensity to choose words from a word-list despite having no recollection of having recently encountered those words. d. refers to enhanced digit-memory span after performing general memory exercises. e. is very susceptible to disruption via injury or aging.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Priming Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which memory performance task would not improve by constructing mental associations?

a. Reciting back strings of numbers of increasing length b. Remembering a complex route to a destination c. Remembering the names of all the people in a large group d. Perfecting a pitch in baseball e. Remembering lists of words or facts, like the order of taxonomy in biology Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of Association in Information Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. Which statement about forgetting as a mental process is false? a. Though all information is permanently stored in the brain, some details cannot be accessed. b. Forgetting, to some degree, is a normal mental process. c. Forgetting occurs if memories are unused or allowed to deteriorate over time. d. A person forgets information that he or she finds meaningless or unimportant. e. Forgetting may be pathological in cases of neurological injury.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Forgetting Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. The loss of memories that had been stored before an injury or the onset of an illness is called a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. semantic amnesia. d. Korsakoff’s syndrome. e. declarative amnesia.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Amnesia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. What did research on spatial learning in rats trained on a water maze task reveal? a. Some strains of rats are able to swim directly to a submerged platform without training. b. After training, rats remember the location of a submerged platform for just a few days. c. Healthy rats are able to make associations between visual cues outside the water tank and the location of a submerged resting platform. d. The principal effect of hippocampal lesions is that rats require many more trials to learn the location of a submerged platform. e. Hippocampal lesions decrease the ability of a rat to swim, thereby increasing the amount of time it takes to find a hidden platform.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Two groups of rats are trained in a water maze task where they need to swim to a hidden platform. After 10 trials, rats in group A can successfully use environmental cues in the room to find the platform in less than 10 seconds. Rats in group B are unable to find the platform

efficiently, discovering it randomly every time. In which brain region do rats in group B most likely have lesions? a. Hippocampus b. Basal ganglia c. Corpus callosum d. Prefrontal cortex e. Posterior parietal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Declarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. Which evidence best supports the idea that the hippocampus alone is responsible for the acquisition of declarative memory? a. K. C. could recall little personal history. b. Electroconvulsive therapy can lead to retrograde amnesia. c. H. M. could recall memories from his childhood. d. R. B. displayed significant anterograde amnesia. e. H. M. could learn to play the piano.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Where is the amygdala located? a. Posterior parietal lobe b. Prefrontal cortex c. Medial temporal lobe d. Brainstem e. Superior occipital lobe Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Some Especially Instructive Clinical Cases Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Which evidence suggests that the cerebral cortex is the brain substrate for long-term storage of declarative memory? a. Patients with Parkinson’s disease have trouble reproducing sequences of finger movements. b. Patients with Huntington’s disease perform poorly on mirror tracing tasks. c. Subjects in a functional neuroimaging study show the same pattern of cortical activation when recalling a particular stimulus as they did while studying that stimulus. d. Imaging studies of animals carrying out sequencing tasks show activation of the basal ganglia and prefrontal cortex. e. Animals with cerebellar damage cannot learn to blink in response to a tone that reliably predicts a puff of air directed at the eye.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sites of Long-Term Memory Storage Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

14. Alzheimer’s disease a. is a type of dementia. b. is marked initially by alterations in personality. c. has no genetic basis in those who experience the early onset form. d. can be diagnosed definitively with an MRI scan. e. affects the cerebellum first.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s Disease Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which symptom is a histopathological feature of Alzheimer’s disease? a. Diffuse proliferation of glia b. Lewy bodies c. Spongiform encephalopathy d. Neurofibrillary tangles e. Loss of astrocytes Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 30C: Alzheimer’s Disease Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Damage to which region would cause the loss of grid cells? a. Amygdala b. Entorhinal cortex c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum e. Posterior parietal cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 30D: Place Cells and Grid Cells Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Visual priming, whereby previously studied visual information influences subsequent performance, requires intact functioning in which brain structure? a. Hippocampus b. Medial temporal lobes c. Visual association cortex d. Dorsal thalamus e. Medial diencephalon Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Damage to the _______ interferes with complex motor learning. a. hippocampus b. substantia nigra c. dorsal thalamus

d. ventral temporal cortex e. mammillary bodies Answer: b Textbook Reference: Brain Systems Underlying Nondeclarative Memory Acquisition and Storage Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. In the process of normal aging, the a. weight of the brain gradually decreases. b. number of neurons in the central nervous system decreases dramatically. c. number of brain synapses increases. d. brain experiences dramatic shrinkage in all regions. e. regions associated with memory formation become smaller, but the weight of the brain as a whole remains constant.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Memory and Aging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which strategy may help older adults improve their memory? a. Reducing or avoiding challenging experiences b. Eating extra snacks to feed the brain c. Continuing the same exercise program, even when tired d. Taking relaxing vacations on the beach e. Regularly completing online “brain exercises” Answer: e Textbook Reference: Memory and Aging Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 31: Emotion Multiple Choice 1. Which measurement is not frequently used to examine physiological changes associated with emotional arousal? a. Skin conductance b. Heart rate c. Respiratory rate d. Facial motor response e. Blood pressure Answer: d Textbook Reference: Physiological Changes Associated with Emotion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. Which physiological measure of emotional arousal is also used in polygraph tests? a. Startle response b. Heart rate c. Skin conductance d. Blood pressure e. Gut motility Answer: c Textbook Reference: Physiological Changes Associated with Emotion Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Electrical stimulation of which brain structure has been shown experimentally to elicit sham rage in a cat? a. Thalamus b. Cerebral cortex c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus e. All of the above Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. Which statement does not describe one of the findings of Bard and Hess’s studies of emotion? a. The hypothalamus is important in the expression of coordinated emotional behaviors. b. The visceral and somatic motor aspects of emotion are mediated by a common brain circuit.

c. Coordinated emotional behaviors can occur even if neocortex has been removed. d. Sham rage expressions can be elicited by means of hypothalamic stimulation. e. Hypothalamic stimulation can cause an animal to assume a defensive posture indicative of fear.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Refer to the figure.

A cat undergoes surgery to remove the brain region shown in blue in the figure. What type of behavior would you expect to see after the cat awakes from anesthesia? a. Rageful b. Fearful c. Docile d. Lethargic e. Hypersexual Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. For emotional processing, which structure is the main target of the hypothalamus? a. Amygdala b. Thalamus c. Reticular formation d. Pituitary e. Hippocampus Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. A patient presents with upper motor syndrome, following a car accident, due to damage of the descending pathways from the motor cortex. Which limitation would you expect to see in the patient?

a. He can smile when asked, but cannot smile when told a funny joke. b. His Duchenne smile does not activate the orbicularis oculi muscles of his eyes. c. He cannot furrow his eyebrows in anger. d. He cannot move any facial muscle in any situation. e. He is unable to smile when asked, but can smile when told a funny joke.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 31A: Determination of Facial Expressions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. The Duchenne smile a. involves activation of the obicularis oculi muscles around the eyes. b. is driven selectively via the pyramidal motor system. c. involves those muscles affected in voluntary facial paresis. d. is unaffected by lesions that cause emotional facial paresis. e. is controlled by voluntary motor control.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 31A: Determination of Facial Expressions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which structure is responsible for controlling the Duchenne smile? a. Primary motor cortex b. Anterior cingulate c. Hippocampus d. Amygdala e. Basal ganglia Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 31A: Determination of Facial Expressions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Damage to which structure would prevent communication from the cingulate cortex to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus? a. Fornix b. Corpus callosum c. Mammillary body d. Basal ganglia e. Anterior commissure Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Klüver–Bucy syndrome is characterized by a. olfactory agnosia. b. increased oral behaviors. c. decreased sexual behaviors. d. extreme fear reactions. e. lethargy

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

12. Refer to the figure.

Which region is responsible for communication between the hippocampus and the hypothalamus? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Which amygdaloid nucleus is correctly paired with its primary connections? a. Medial nucleus—orbital prefrontal cortex b. Basolateral nucleus—olfactory bulb c. Medial nucleus—brainstem d. Central nucleus—hypothalamus

e. Central nucleus—thalamus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 31B: The Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. Scientists paired a blue light signal with an electrical shock to the feet of rats. After multiple paired presentations, the rats responded to the blue light stimulus when presented alone in the same way they respond to the electrical shock. Lesions to which brain area would prevent the rats from learning to respond to the light alone? a. The lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (visual nucleus) b. The medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (auditory nucleus) c. The primary visual cortex d. The hypothalamus e. The hippocampus Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. A lab rat undergoes fear conditioning training in which a soft tone is paired with an electric shock. However, after repeated tests, the rat does not show freezing behavior in response to the tone alone. What could explain this result? a. The rat had primary auditory cortex damage. b. The rat had its amygdala electrically stimulated. c. The rat hippocampal damage. d. The rat had received an injection of an NMDA receptor antagonist in its amygdala. e. The rat had received an injection of a GABA agonist in its hypothalamus.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Cats carry a protozoan parasite, Toxoplasma gondii, which is spread to rodents. Once the rodents are infected, the parasite destroys part of the rodent’s brain, causing them to lose their fear of cats and thus provide the cat with easy prey. Which brain structure does this parasite most likely target? a. Hippocampus b. Amygdala c. Cerebral cortex d. Basal ganglia e. Posterior cingulate cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 17. Refer to the figure.

In this MRI scan of a patient, a region of damage is outlined in red. What condition does this individual most likely have? a. Amnesia b. Depression c. Excessive fear d. Addiction e. Urbach-Wiethe disease Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 31C: Fear and the Human Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 18. Which evidence supports the idea that depression has a genetic component? a. Abnormal patterns of blood flow are seen in the limbic system of depressed patients. b. There is a higher concordance of depression in monozygotic than dizygotic twins. c. Depression has a higher lifetime incidence in women than in men. d. Symptoms of depression can be managed by drugs that influence the catecholaminergic system. e. Subjects with left anterior hemisphere lesions have an increased prevalence of depression.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. Which region does not have abnormal patterns of blood flow in depressed patients? a. Amygdala b. Mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus c. Hippocampus d. Orbital prefrontal cortex

e. Medial prefrontal cortex Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. A lesion in which region of the brain would increase one’s likelihood of developing depression? a. Left anterior hemisphere b. Right anterior hemisphere c. Left posterior hemisphere d. Right posterior hemisphere e. Lesions do not increase the likelihood of depression.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cortical Lateralization of Emotional Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. A lesion in the left hemisphere would be more likely than a right hemisphere lesion to affect which aspect of emotional processing? a. Regulation of negative emotions b. Regulation of positive emotions c. Regulation of all emotions d. Expression of emotion in speech e. Comprehension of emotion in speech Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cortical Lateralization of Emotional Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 22. Refer to the figure.

Subjects are asked to rank the trustworthiness of faces while their neural activation patterns are recorded by MRI. Measurements from which brain region would produce the data presented above? a. Orbital prefrontal cortex b. Medial prefrontal cortex c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus e. Amygdala Answer: e Textbook Reference: Emotion, Reason, and Social Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 23. Damage to which region of the basal ganglia would alter processing through the limbic loop? a. Anterior caudate b. Nucleus accumbens c. Putamen d. Globus pallidus e. Subthalamic nucleus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 24. Which region sends dopaminergic inputs to the nucleus accumbens? a. Substantia nigra pars compacta b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Posterior parietal cortex d. Ventral tegmental area e. Putamen Answer: d Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 25. Which drug of abuse exerts its effect by interacting directly with dopamine synapses in the nucleus accumbens? a. Cocaine b. Heroin c. Alcohol d. Nicotine e. Marijuana Answer: a Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. What molecular change in the limbic loop is associated with addiction? a. Decreased CREB expression in the ventral tegmental area

b. Decreased expression of AMPA receptor subunits in the ventral tegmental area c. Increased tyrosine hydroxylase activity in the ventral tegmental area d. Increased expression of ΔFosB in the ventral tegmental area e. Decreased CREB expression in the nucleus accumbens Answer: c Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. In associative learning studies in monkeys, subjects that had been successfully conditioned to a stimulus showed _______ dopaminergic neural activity in the ventral tegmental area _______. a. decreased; when they were given a reward b. decreased; in response to the conditioned stimulus c. increased; when they were given a reward d. decreased; when the predicted reward was withheld e. increased; when the predicted reward was withheld Answer: d Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 28. Which symptom is not characteristic of PTSD? a. Re-experiencing the trauma b. Numbed responsiveness c. Heighted arousal d. Hyperactivity e. Avoiding reminders of the event Answer: d Textbook Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 29. Which change in brain structure is common in patients with PTSD? a. Increased size of the amygdala b. Increased size of the hippocampus c. Reduced size of the hypothalamus d. Increased size of the hypothalamus e. Reduced size of the amygdala Answer: e Textbook Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 30. In a conditioned fear paradigm, how do PTSD patients differ from trauma-exposed controls? a. PTSD patients have difficulty pairing a neutral stimulus with a fear-inducing stimulus. b. PTSD patients have difficulty extinguishing learned fear. c. PTSD patients show fear responses to stimuli that have not been paired with a fear-inducing stimulus. d. Their baseline SCR magnitude is significantly lower than controls. e. There is no difference in conditioned fear learning between PTSD patients and controls.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. What role does the autonomic nervous system play in emotions?

Answer: The autonomic nervous system is responsible for the physiological responses seen during emotional arousal. Blushing when embarrassed, turning pale when afraid, increased heart rate when angry, and increased pupil size when surprised are all examples of involuntary changes seen during emotion.

Textbook Reference: Physiological Changes Associated with Emotion Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. When you think about this morning’s argument with your landlord, you become angry, complete with pounding heart and elevated blood pressure. What components of the nervous system are involved in this progression from cognition to emotion?

Answer: The complex stimuli associated with remembering the event are processed in the forebrain and relayed to the hypothalamus and reticular formation, and then to visceral and somatic motor nuclei. Activation of these motor nuclei leads to an increase in the sympathetic system, which causes the increase in blood pressure and heart rate.

Textbook Reference: Is the Motor Activity Underlying Emotion Cause or Effect?

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Are emotional facial expressions voluntary or involuntary? Explain, including a discussion of neurological pathways in your answer.

Answer: Facial expressions have both a voluntary and an involuntary component, controlled by distinct descending motor pathways from the brain. Humans can smile on command (voluntary), but we also automatically laugh when we find something humorous (involuntary).

The separate pathways can be seen in two types of facial paresis. In facial motor paresis, individuals have damage to the somatic motor system pathway. These individuals are unable to form a smile on command but can smile normally when amused. The opposite is true in individuals with emotional motor paresis, in which the individual has damage in descending pathways from the medial forebrain or hypothalamus and cannot smile involuntarily.

Textbook Reference: Box 31A: Determination of Facial Expressions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What is the limbic system?

Answer: The limbic system is the circuitry that controls emotions; it includes the amygdala, cingulate cortex, parahippocampal gyrus, prefrontal cortex, mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus, and ventral regions of the basal ganglia.

Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. What neural connections does the amygdala have that make it a nodal point, linking cortical

and subcortical regions in emotional processing?

Answer: The amygdala communicates with a wide-range of neural structures. It receives sensory information from the thalamus and from sensory cortices. It also communicates with various components of the limbic system including the orbital and medial prefrontal cortices, the basal ganglia, the mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus, the hypothalamus, and the brainstem. It is able to link sensory information with the somatic and visceral motor efferent systems.

Textbook Reference: Box 31B: The Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What lines of evidence implicate the amygdala in fear conditioning? How might neurons in the amygdala associate a previously neutral stimulus with a fear-evoking stimulus?

Answer: When the amygdala is lesioned, damaged, or inactivated pharmacologically, an animal’s ability to pair an innocuous stimulus with a fear-inducing one is prevented. The amygdala is able to make this association because it is a region where different types of sensory information converge and can be processed together.

Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 7. What are affective disorders? What are two of the most severe affective disorders?

Answer: Affective disorders are disorders of mood and are characterized by abnormal regulation of happiness and sadness. Major depression and manic depression are the most severe of these disorders.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. How is depression diagnosed and treated? Does it have a genetic basis?

Answer: Depression is diagnosed in patients that exhibit a profound sense of despair and some or all of the following criteria: disordered eating and weight control, sleeping disorders, poor concentration, inappropriate guilt, and decreased sexual interest.

The disorder does seem to have a genetic component, as there is higher concordance of depression in monozygotic twins compared to dizygotic twins.

Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 9. Describe differences between the right and left hemispheres in the control of emotions.

Answer: Although both sides of the brain are involved in processing emotion, the manner in which they do so is different. The right hemisphere plays a larger role in the perception, processing, and expression of emotion. It is particularly important for the affective aspects of speech. Individuals with right hemisphere damage may only be able to speak in monotone, despite retaining the ability to experience emotional feelings. The right hemisphere also is better at detecting emotional nuances in speech or from images. One more aspect of laterality is that the right hemisphere plays a larger role in processing negative emotions, whereas the left hemisphere processes positive emotions.

Textbook Reference: Cortical Lateralization of Emotional Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

10. What cellular and molecular adaptations are associated with addiction? Describe how different drug addictions involve a common neural substrate.

Answer: Activation of the limbic circuitry under healthy conditions can motivate an animal to acquire a reward or avoid a punishment. Drugs of abuse hijack this system by altering the basal ganglia dopamine system. Numerous drugs alter the functioning of either the dopaminergic neurons of the ventral tegmental area (VTA) or the medium spiny neurons in the nucleus accumbens that receive VTA projections.

Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. In response to electrical stimulation of a particular brain region, a rat shows increased blood pressure and heart rate, dilation of the pupils, erection of the hair on the back, arching of the back, and biting at the air. Which region could the electrode be stimulating? a. Fornix b. Thalamus c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebral cortex e. Hippocampus Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. When the hypothalamus is stimulated in awake cats, which behaviors are elicited? a. Hyperactivity and hypersexuality b. Docility and lethargy c. Submission and depression d. Fear and hyperactivity e. Rage and fear Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Integration of Emotional Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 3. A patient can smile when asked to by her doctor, but when she is told a funny joke, she is unable to smile. Where does the patient most likely have damage? a. Descending projections from the hypothalamus b. Descending projections from the motor cortex c. Descending pyramidal track projections d. Ascending projections to the motor cortex e. Ascending projections to the cerebellum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 31A: Determination of Facial Expressions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

4. Two brain structures not originally proposed by Papez as important to emotional experience and expression, but are now known to be important, are the _______ and the _______. a. mammillary bodies; amygdala b. cingulate gyrus; fornix c. amygdala; orbital prefrontal cortex d. parahippocampal gyrus; cingulate gyrus e. orbital prefrontal cortex; hippocampus Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. Injury to the fornix would prevent neural communication from the _______ to the _______. a. cingulate cortex; anterior nucleus of the thalamus b. hippocampus; hypothalamus c. hypothalamus; cingulate cortex d. anterior nucleus of the thalamus; hippocampus e. mammillary body; amygdala Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Limbic System Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Which structure does not provide input to the amygdala? a. Orbital prefrontal cortex b. Medial prefrontal cortex c. Olfactory cortex d. Thalamus e. Basal ganglia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 31B: The Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. In the rat, a response to _______ constitutes a conditioned fear response. a. a rubber snake placed in its cage b. the smell of a noxious food c. a foot shock, given intermittently, d. a tone, which has been repeatedly paired with a foot shock, e. food reward given after voluntary interaction with bedding soaked with cat urine Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 8. Which statement about the amygdala is false? a. It is involved in making associations between neutral and fearful stimuli. b. It processes information about rewarding stimuli. c. It shows NMDA receptor-dependent long-term potentiation. d. It is involved in procedural learning.

e. It receives information from the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of the Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Patient S. M., who suffered selective bilateral damage to the amygdala, exhibited a. heightened fear. b. an absence of fear. c. deep sadness. d. a predisposition to outbursts of anger. e. heightened disgust reactions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 31C: Fear and the Human Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. A patient is asked to watch horror movies and rate his level of perceived fear on a scale of 1 to 10 (10 being terrified). Control subjects have an average rating report of 6.5; the patient, however, has an average rating of 1 for perceived fear. If you were to read an MRI scan of the patient, where would you expect to see damage? a. Hippocampus b. Hypothalamus c. Basal ganglia d. Amygdala e. Thalamus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 31C: Fear and the Human Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 11. The most mysterious aspect of emotional experience is a. the association of neutral stimuli with reward. b. the association of neutral stimuli with punishment. c. the highly subjective “feelings” that attend many emotional states. d. innate fear responses. e. the ability to remember strong emotional stimuli.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relationship between Neocortex and Amygdala Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which symptoms, together, indicate clinical depression? a. Feelings of despair and manic episodes b. Disordered sleeping (hypersomnia, insomnia) and nightmares c. Poor concentration and sleeplessness due to anxiety d. Disordered eating and asymmetrical facial expression of emotions e. Deep sadness, disordered sleep and eating, and poor concentration Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 13. Functional neuroimaging studies (Drevets and Raichle) of subjects with unipolar depression have shown a. decreased blood flow in the amygdala and specific areas in the prefrontal cortex. b. no difference in blood flow patterns between depressed and non-depressed subjects. c. abnormal blood flow in the cingulate cortex that continues even after resolution of depressive symptoms. d. increased blood flow in the amygdala and specific areas in the prefrontal cortex. e. increased blood flow in all limbic structures.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Affective Disorders Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. An inability to express emotion through modulation of speech is called a. anomia. b. aprosodia. c. alexia. d. agnosia. e. agraphia.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cortical Lateralization of Emotional Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. Which statement about lateralization of emotional processing is true? a. The left hemisphere is involved in negative emotional experience and mood. b. The right hemisphere is involved in the perception and expression of emotion. c. Emotional facial expressions are more readily identified when presented to the right versus the left visual field. d. Reports of depression are higher in individuals with right anterior hemisphere lesions than left anterior hemisphere lesions. e. Individuals tend to express emotions more fully with facial musculature of the right side.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cortical Lateralization of Emotional Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. The vicarious states suggested by Damasio give mental representations of contingencies that a. help identify rewarding stimuli. b. help identify punishing stimuli. c. support William James’ quote that, “emotion dissociated from all bodily feeling is inconceivable.” d. help an individual to identify favorable or unfavorable outcomes of different scenarios. e. recur during both daydreams and nightmares.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Emotion, Reason, and Social Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

17. Which neurotransmitter has been identified as seminally involved in an organism’s reward system and is often altered by drugs of abuse? a. Dopamine b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Acetylcholine e. Glutamate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Ventral divisions of the basal ganglia receive excitatory inputs from the a. mediodorsal nucleus of the thalamus. b. anterior cingulate. c. hypothalamus. d. ventral pallidum. e. hippocampus.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 19. Which brain structures have been identified as primary sites where neuronal activity is altered by drugs of abuse? a. Amygdala and orbital frontal cortex b. Ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens c. Cingulate cortex and nucleus accumbens d. Ventral tegmental area and amygdala e. Hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Emotion and Addiction Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. How does brain function differ between PTSD patients and trauma-exposed controls? a. The vmPFC is hypoactive during extinction learning in PTSD compared to controls. b. The vmPFC is hyperactive during extinction learning in PTSD compared to controls. c. The amygdala is hypoactive during conditioned fear learning in PTSD compared to controls. d. The cingulate cortex is hypoactive during extinction learning in PTSD compared to controls. e. The thalamus is hyperactive during conditioned fear learning in PTSD compared to controls.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 32: Thinking, Planning, and Deciding Multiple Choice 1. Which statement correctly describes a characteristic of the prefrontal cortex? a. It has clearly defined subregions. b. The majority of connections between subregions are unidirectional. c. Brodmann cytoarchitectonic areas are well established. d. It is located in the frontal lobe, posterior to the motor cortex. e. It can only be found in humans.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: A Sketch of the Relevant Circuitry Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. A patient was in a car accident and his orbitofrontal cortex was damaged. Which cognitive function would you expect him to have difficulty with? a. Flexibility b. Evaluation of options c. Short-term memory capacity d. Learning from the consequences of behavior e. Self-awareness Answer: b Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Which region does not directly communicate with the orbitofrontal cortex? a. Premotor cortex b. Primary somatosensory cortex c. Thalamus d. Hippocampus e. Amygdala Answer: a Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Changes in blood flow to which brain region can be used to predict purchasing behavior based on personal preferences? a. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex c. Anterior cingulate cortex

d. Posterior cingulate cortex e. Orbitofrontal cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. After a stroke, a patient begins to have difficulty making choices when presented with different options. For example, when given information about local restaurants, such as cuisine, prices, and table availability, he is unable to choose which one to go to. Where would you expect to find neural damage in this patient? a. Anterior insula b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Anterior cingulate cortex d. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. Posterior cingulate cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. Which region has not been shown to be involved in assessing the value of objects? a. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. Orbitofrontal cortex c. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Dorsal anterior cingulate cortex e. Ventral striatum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. The lateral prefrontal cortex has bidirectional connections with a number of other regions. One structure that receives input from the lateral prefrontal cortex, but does not reciprocate the connection directly is the a. thalamus. b. insula. c. basal ganglia. d. amygdala. e. frontal eye fields.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Rodent studies have helped researchers determine that the motivation to perform a behavior (want) is controlled by a separate neurological circuit than the pleasure obtained from a reward or behavior (like). Which statement correctly describes these circuits and what they control? a. The dopamine system controls the wanting aspect; the serotonin system controls the liking aspect.

b. The acetylcholine system controls the wanting aspect; the dopamine system controls the liking aspect. c. The dopamine system controls the wanting aspect; the µ-opioid system controls the liking aspect. d. The µ-opioid system controls the wanting aspect; the dopamine system controls the liking aspect. e. The µ-opioid system controls the wanting aspect; the serotonin system controls the liking aspect.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 32A: Dopamine and Reward Prediction Errors Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which two regions are major sources of dopamine in the brain? a. Cerebellum and nucleus accumbens b. Orbitofrontal cortex and thalamus c. Ventral tegmental area and cerebellum d. Ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra pars compacta e. Substantia nigra pars compacta and thalamus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 32A: Dopamine and Reward Prediction Errors Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. A stimulating electrode is placed in the brain, and its activation causes a significant increase in dopamine release in the prefrontal cortex. Where is the stimulating electrode most likely located? a. Ventral tegmental area b. Nucleus accumbens c. Striatum d. Substantia nigra pars compacta e. Thalamus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 32A: Dopamine and Reward Prediction Errors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Monkeys are trained to associate a light cue with a juice reward. During testing, neuronal firing rate is measured in dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area. For the test, the monkeys are shown the light, but not given a reward. How would the neurons respond during the testing period? a. The firing rate would increase during presentation of the light and at the time the reward was expected to be received. b. The firing rate would increase during presentation of the light but would decrease when the reward was not given as expected. c. The firing rate would not change during presentation of the light but would decrease when the reward was not given as expected. d. The firing rate would decrease during presentation of the light but would increase at the time the reward was expected to be received.

e. The firing rate would not change during the test since no reward was given.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 32A: Dopamine and Reward Prediction Errors Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 12. Refer to the figure.

Which region is believed to be responsible for being flexible in different situations? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: c Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. In a delayed response task, a monkey is trained to look at a small dot on in the center of a screen while a target image appears briefly elsewhere on the screen. The monkey must continue to fixate on the center dot while remembering where the target image was located. After a delay, a cue is given, and the monkey can gaze at the location where the target image had been located.

How would you expect a dorsolateral prefrontal cortex neuron to respond during this task? a. The neuron would fire during the delay, regardless of location of the target image. b. The neuron would fire while the target image was visible, regardless of location of the target image. c. The neuron would fire during the delay, and the firing rate would depend on the location of the target image. d. The neuron would not fire during the response after the delay. e. The neuron would fire during the response after the delay, regardless of location of the target image.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

14. While playing a game, in which you must remember a list of eight words, while being scanned by fMRI, which of your brain regions would most likely show increased activity? a. Posterior cingulate cortex b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Ventral striatum d. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. Thalamus Answer: b Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Which brain region is responsible for successful completion of the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task? a. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. Anterior cingulate cortex c. Posterior cingulate cortex d. Anterior insula e. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. Refer to the figure.

A subject completes a Stroop task while being scanned in an fMRI machine. Where would you expect to see an increase in brain activity? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

17. A 28-year-old patient was diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder in adolescence and, despite years of various treatments, still suffers from severe symptoms. Which treatment might the doctor suggest for this individual? a. Deep brain stimulation of the orbitofrontal cortex b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor medication c. Surgical ablation of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Transcranial magnetic stimulation of the anterior insula e. Surgical ablation of the anterior cingulate cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. A patient diagnosed with depression has been successfully managing her symptoms with medication. If a brain scan was completed at the time of diagnosis and again after a year of treatment, what change in brain function would you expect to see? a. A decrease in activity in the subgenual cingulate cortex b. An increase in activity in the orbitofrontal cortex c. A decrease in activity in the amygdala d. An increase in activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. An increase in activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Psychosurgical Treatments for Mental Illness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 19. After years of therapy and medications, a patient’s depression is still unmanaged, and she suffers daily. Her doctor suggests a treatment used only for the most severe cases of depression.

What is the suggested treatment? a. Deep brain stimulation of the hippocampus b. Surgical ablation of the orbitofrontal cortex c. Transcranial magnetic stimulation of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Deep brain stimulation of the subgenual cingulate cortex e. Surgical ablation of the amygdala Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Psychosurgical Treatments for Mental Illness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. A patient’s ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is damaged in a car accident. Which cognitive function would you expect her to have difficulty with? a. Evaluation of options b. Self-control c. Reward prediction d. Flexibility e. Self-awareness Answer: b Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

21. Damage in which brain region has been linked to Tourette syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and clinical depression? a. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex b. Orbitofrontal cortex c. Posterior cingulate cortex d. Anterior insula e. Dorsomedial prefrontal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 22. A patient, who has just been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder, wishes to try an up-and-coming, non-invasive treatment to help him stop the expression of unwanted impulses.

Which treatment would suit this patient and be likely to relieve his symptoms? a. Deep brain stimulation of the anterior cingulate cortex b. Transcranial magnetic stimulation of the amygdala c. Cingulotomy d. EEG monitoring of the orbitofrontal cortex e. Transcranial magnetic stimulation of the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 23. Refer to the figure.

Which region is responsible for monitoring unconscious body states to regulate behavior? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: e Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 24. Which brain regions are responsible for the control of somatic markers?

a. The anterior cingulate cortex and the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. The anterior insula and the ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. The orbitofrontal cortex and the anterior insula cortex d. The dorsomedial prefrontal cortex and ventromedial prefrontal cortex e. The posterior cingulate cortex and the anterior cingulate cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 25. After a stroke damages his anterior insula, a patient undergoes cognitive testing during a therapy session. How would the patient likely perform on the Iowa Gambling Task compared to healthy controls? a. The subject would choose the advantageous decks more frequently and would show lower Galvanic skin responses. b. The subject would choose the disadvantageous decks more frequently and would show higher Galvanic skin responses. c. The subject would choose the disadvantageous decks more frequently and would show lower Galvanic skin responses. d. The subject would choose the advantageous decks more frequently and would show higher Galvanic skin responses. e. The subject would choose the disadvantageous decks more frequently and would show equivalent Galvanic skin responses.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 26. Which behavior would likely be exhibited after damage to the anterior insula? a. Predilection to addiction to drugs of abuse b. Impulsivity c. Failure to complete the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task d. Difficulty remembering information e. Ease of quitting harmful behaviors like gambling Answer: e Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. Refer to the figure.

Which region is believed to be responsible for self-awareness? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: b Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 28. Which region is the most metabolically active part of the brain? a. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex b. Anterior cingulate cortex c. Ventral striatum d. Amygdala e. Posterior cingulate cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 29. A patient is beginning to show early signs of Alzheimer’s. If you could do a histological study of his brain at this point in the disease, in which brain region would you expect to see degeneration? a. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. Posterior cingulate cortex c. Anterior insular cortex d. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Putamen Answer: b Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 30. Refer to the figure.

Monkeys performed either a cognitively demanding laboratory task, a short-term memory task, or no task at all while the firing rates from individual neurons were measured. The firing rate data are presented in the graph. Where are these neurons most likely located? a. Posterior cingulate cortex b. Hippocampus c. Caudate d. Anterior cingulate cortex e. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. How does the size of the prefrontal cortex in humans compare to that of other mammals?

Answer: Controlling for total brain size, humans have a larger prefrontal cortex than non-primate mammals. The proportion of prefrontal cortex to overall neocortex size is roughly the same among primates.

Textbook Reference: A Sketch of the Relevant Circuity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. What evidence implicates the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) as the site responsible for evaluation of options?

Answer: When monkeys are tested for preferences related to reward, some OFC neurons track their individual preferences or subjective value. Additionally, the OFC is also active in humans in response to personal preference. For example, subjects tend to prefer wine that is more expensive, regardless of taste, and OFC activity changes in response to this preference.

Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 3. Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex might lead to deficits in what function(s)?

Answer: Flexibility and the ability to override habits, short term memory, and maintenance of rules and changing behavior in response to changing rules Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. What is the Stroop task? Discuss where and under what conditions it causes brain activation.

Answer: The Stroop task presents words in different color print. The words are either matched with their color (e.g., the word blue written in blue ink), incongruent with their color (e.g., the word yellow written in green ink), or neutral (e.g., the word truck written in red ink). When the word/color pairing is incongruent, activity in the anterior cingulate cortex increases.

Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. What is cingulotomy? What is its purpose, and why does it work?

Answer: Cingulotomy is the surgical ablation of the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). It is sometimes used to treat severe cases of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). In OCD patients, the ACC is hyperactive. By removing the ACC, the individuals might be less sensitive to minor errors and proceed with healthier responses.

Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. What is the main role of the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex? What evidence supports this claim?

Answer: The ventrolateral prefrontal cortex (VLPFC) is responsible for self-control and inhibition of behavior. The VLPFC is active during inhibition tests like the go/no-go task and task switching tests where subjects are required to stop expected behaviors. Individuals with lesions in the VLPFC have difficulty with these tasks.

Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. What disorders have been associated with abnormal functioning of the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex?

Answer: Tourette syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and clinical depression Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. A pharmaceutical company has discovered a method for targeting specific brain regions with pharmacological agents and wants to develop a drug to help people quit smoking. An effective product would act on which target region and in what way?

Answer: A drug that inhibits the activity of the anterior insula Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

9. A patient has a family history of Alzheimer’s disease and has opted to undergo MRI scans every other year in hopes of obtaining an early diagnosis. Which brain region should be examined closely for signs of the disease, and why?

Answer: The posterior cingulate cortex should be examined because it is one of the first regions affected in Alzheimer’s disease.

Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Describe the default-mode network. What happens when there are disruptions to this network?

Answer: The default-mode network (DMN) is a group of brain structures that are active when the brain is not engaged in a task. Regions in the network include the posterior cingulate cortex, the ventromedial prefrontal cortex, the temporal-parietal junction, and the cerebellar tonsils.

Disruptions in the DMN are associated with schizophrenia, autism, and OCD. Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice Quiz from Dashboard 1. Refer to the figure.

Which brain region is believed to be responsible for evaluating options? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: c Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 2. A subject is asked to identify her favorite snack, and she responds that it is graham crackers.

While in an MRI machine, she is eats graham crackers until she is full, and then the experiment ends. Which change in brain activity would you expect to see over the course of the experiment? a. Activity in the posterior cingulate cortex would increase.

b. Activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex would increase. c. Activity in the anterior cingulate cortex would decrease. d. Activity in the orbitofrontal cortex would decrease. e. Activity in the anterior insula would decrease.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. The orbitofrontal cortex has neuroanatomy and function similar to which region? a. Posterior cingulate cortex b. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. Thalamus d. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex e. Anterior insula Answer: b Textbook Reference: Orbitofrontal Cortex and the Evaluation of Options Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Damage to which brain region would destroy the cell bodies responsible for the nigrostriatal dopamine pathway? a. Ventral tegmental area b. Striatum c. Thalamus d. Nucleus accumbens e. Substantia nigra pars compacta Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 32A: Dopamine and Reward Prediction Errors Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which region does not communicate directly with the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex? a. Orbitofrontal cortex b. Anterior cingulate cortex c. Premotor cortex d. Primary visual cortex e. Thalamus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. During cognitive testing following a stroke, a patient has trouble successfully completing the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task. She is able to learn the first rule (color), but once the rule is switched to number, she is unable to change her strategy and performs poorly. In which region does she most likely have damage? a. Anterior cingulate cortex b. Posterior cingulate cortex

c. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex d. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Orbitofrontal cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. After a patient recovers from a severe head trauma, imaging shows that he has sustained damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. Which symptom is he likely to exhibit? a. A deficit in short-term memory b. Inability to decide between different options c. Difficulty learning from consequences of behavior d. Loss of self-control e. Difficulty changing behavior based on visceral inputs Answer: a Textbook Reference: Dorsolateral Prefrontal Cortex and the Planning and Organization of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. How is error-related negativity measured? a. An increase in blood flow in fMRI in the orbitofrontal cortex b. A change in EEG signal from the anterior cingulate cortex c. A decrease in blood flow in fMRI in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. A behavioral change as a response to being told a correct answer is wrong e. A change in EEG signal from the occipital cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. During a Stroop task, a subject is presented with two words to read while undergoing fMRI; the word “green” written in green, and the word “orange” written in purple. Which of the following would you expect to see in the subject’s brain activity during the task? a. The posterior cingulate cortex would be less active while reading the word “orange” than the word “green.” b. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex would be more active while reading the word “orange” than the word “green.” c. The anterior cingulate cortex would be more active while reading the word “orange” than the word “green.” d. The anterior insula would be less active while reading the word “orange” than the word “green.” e. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex would be more active while reading the word “orange” than the word “green.”

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

10. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is associated with increased levels of activity in which brain region? a. Posterior cingulate cortex b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Thalamus d. Anterior cingulate cortex e. Striatum Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cingulate Cortex and Learning from the Consequences of Behavior Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. A brain scan of an individual reveals overactivation in the subgenual cingulate cortex, particularly when the subject is asked to ruminate about their day. Which disorder might this person have? a. Autism b. Depression c. Schizophrenia d. Alzheimer’s disease e. ADHD Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Psychosurgical Treatments for Mental Illness Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 12. Refer to the figure.

Which brain region is believed to be responsible for self-control? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

13. An individual with a lesion in the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is likely to exhibit which behavior? a. Inability to make decisions b. Inability to learn from the consequences of behavior c. Impulsive responses d. Inability to monitor visceral inputs e. Forgetfulness Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. Which brain region is critical for success in the go/no-go task? a. Orbitofrontal cortex b. Posterior cingulate cortex c. Ventrolateral prefrontal cortex d. Dorsomedial prefrontal cortex e. Anterior insula Answer: c Textbook Reference: Ventrolateral Prefrontal Cortex and Self-Control Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 15. During cognitive testing, a subject continues to choose the disadvantageous decks during the Iowa Gambling Task. If the subject underwent an MRI scan, where would you expect to see damage? a. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. Posterior cingulate cortex c. Amygdala d. Anterior insula e. Orbitofrontal cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 16. Damage in which brain region has been associated with an improved ability to quit smoking? a. Anterior insula b. Posterior cingulate cortex c. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex d. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex e. Anterior cingulate cortex Answer: a Textbook Reference: Anterior Insula and the Internal Milieu Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Which region is part of the prefrontal cortex? a. Orbitofrontal cortex b. Anterior insular

c. Posterior cingulate cortex d. Putamen e. Ventral striatum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. When would you expect neuronal firing rates in the posterior cingulate cortex to be at their highest? a. When a subject is completing a go/no-go task b. When a subject is completing the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task c. When a subject is holding information in their short-term memory d. When a subject is daydreaming e. When a subject is making a choice from a set of options Answer: d Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. Which region is not considered to be part of the default-mode network? a. Posterior cingulate cortex b. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. Temporal-parietal junction e. Cerebellar tonsils Answer: c Textbook Reference: Posterior Cingulate Cortex and Self-Awareness Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 20. What does the readiness potential measure? a. In fMRI, an increase in blood flow in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. In fMRI, a decrease in blood flow in the anterior cingulate c. A change in EEG signal from the orbitofrontal cortex d. A change in EEG signal from the occipital cortex e. A change in EEG signal from the premotor cortex Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 32B: What Does Neuroscience Have to Say about Free Will?

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 33: Speech and Language Multiple Chioce 1. Which element of language is controlled mainly by the right hemisphere? a. Syntax b. Grammar c. Prosody d. Lexicon e. Phonemes Answer: c Textbook Reference: Representation of Language in the Brain Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Refer to the figure.

Where is Broca’s area located? a. A b. B c. C

d. D e. E Answer: a Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. Refer to the figure.

Where is Wernicke’s area located? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: d Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. Refer to the figure.

Where is the primary auditory cortex located? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Answer: e Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Which brain region is correctly paired with its Brodmann area? a. Broca’s area—46 b. Wernicke’s area—22 c. Wernicke’s area—17 d. Broca’s area—10 and 11 e. Wernicke’s area—37 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A patient has a head injury and can no longer produce speech, although he understands what is said to him. Which disorder do these symptoms implicate? a. Broca’s aphasia b. Wernicke’s aphasia c. Dysarthria d. Agraphias e. Conduction aphasia

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. After a stroke, an individual has difficulty understanding speech, but can form and speak words, albeit nonsensically. Which disorder do these symptoms implicate? a. Conduction aphasia b. Alexia c. Dysarthria d. Broca’s aphasia e. Wernicke’s aphasia Answer: e Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 8. Damage to which region causes conduction aphasia? a. Frontal eye fields b. Auditory cortex c. Orbitofrontal cortex d. Arcuate fasciculus e. Motor cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. Which structure is responsible for creating the vibrations that become speech stimuli? a. Trachea b. Epiglottis c. Larynx d. Pharynx e. Soft palate Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 33A: The Generation of Speech Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 10. Which symptom is characteristic of Broca’s aphasia? a. Lack of comprehension b. Little repetition c. Fluent speech d. Disordered syntax e. Adequate grammar Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Presentations of Aphasia

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 11. Which symptom is characteristic of Wernicke’s aphasia? a. Lack of comprehension b. Halting speech c. Repetition of words d. Disordered grammar e. Disordered syntax Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Presentations of Aphasia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 12. Which methods first confirmed the presence of lateralization of language control? a. Examining speech deficits in stroke patients b. Examining stereognosis in split-brain patients c. Examining comprehension deficits in monkeys following cortical lesions d. Comparing post-mortem anatomical data with results from in-depth language testing throughout life e. Examining speech changes in patients that undergo deep brain stimulation Answer: b Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 13. Studies of split-brain patients have indicated that the left hemisphere has predominate control of which function? a. Analysis of left visual field b. Emotional coloring of language c. Spatial abilities d. Writing e. Left hand stereognosis Answer: d Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. Studies of split-brain patients have indicated that the right hemisphere has predominate control of which function? a. Lexical language b. Syntactic language c. Writing d. Right hand stereognosis e. Spatial abilities Answer: e Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization

Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. Which region has been shown to have structural lateralization? a. Broca’s area b. Planum temporale c. Wernicke’s area d. Primary auditory cortex e. Primary visual cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Search for Anatomical Differences between the Hemispheres Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 16. A healthy patient undergoes the Wada test with injection into the right carotid artery. He quickly begins to show language deficits. What does this data tell you about the patient? a. He is right-hemispheric dominant for language. b. He has dysarthria. c. He is right-handed. d. He has a lesion in the right temporal lobe. e. He has aprosodia.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Approximately what percent of the population is right-hemispheric dominant for language? a. 3% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 97% Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 18. Which region was determined by PET scan to be the most active when subjects are passively viewing words? a. Broca’s area b. Visual cortex c. Wernicke’s area d. Motor cortex e. Auditory cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

19. After a stroke, a patient begins speaking in a monotone voice. Comprehension and performance of speech are unaltered, but his family claims they cannot tell if he is asking a question or making a statement when he talks. His wife also mentions that his language toward her is no longer “loving.” What would be a plausible diagnosis based on these symptoms? a. Alexia caused by damage to Broca’s area b. Agraphia caused by damage to Wernicke’s area c. Increased prosody caused by damage to the right temporal lobe d. Dysarthria caused by damage to the left temporal lobe e. Aprosodia caused by damage to the right temporal lobe Answer: e Textbook Reference: The Role of the Right Hemisphere in Language Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 20. A couple adopts twin brothers as newborns. As the boys mature, it is clear they have language deficits, leading to largely incomprehensible speech. They also have lower IQs than other children their age. Which condition is most likely causing these deficits? a. Damage to Wernicke’s area b. Lack of appropriate stimulation during the critical period c. A mutation in the FOXP2 gene d. Damage to the right temporal lobe e. Auditory dysfunction Answer: c Textbook Reference: Genes and Language Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. What type of protein does the FOXP2 gene encode? a. Sodium channel b. GABA receptor c. Phosphokinase d. Transcription factor e. Dopamine transporter Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genes and Language Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. Studies of deaf patients with either left or right hemisphere lesions demonstrated that a. the language center for signed language is in the left parietal lobe. b. the language centers of the brain are specialized for pairing symbols with meaning, rather than specialized for heard and spoken language. c. deaf individuals do not have lateralized control of language. d. lesions of the premotor cortex are associated with aphasic signs. e. there is no critical period for the acquisition of sign language.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sign Language Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 23. After a stroke, a deaf patient has trouble adding emotional tone to her signs. An MRI scan of the patient would most likely reveal damage to which structure? a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. Right orbitofrontal cortex d. Right temporal lobe e. Left occipital lobe Answer: d Textbook Reference: Sign Language Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 24. Which evidence does not support the claim that there is an early critical period for the acquisition of language? a. Children can learn a second language fluently if exposed prior to age 7. b. When deafness occurs in early childhood, spoken language declines significantly due to the inability to receive auditory feedback. c. Genie was able to learn to speak in adulthood. d. The neural network associated with language-based tasks changes after childhood. e. When deprived of language stimulation in childhood, individuals are unable to become fluent speakers.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: A Critical Period for Language Acquisition Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 25. Which symptom is not characteristic of dyslexia? a. Poor reading skills b. Difficulty processing speech sounds c. Difficulty translating visual to verbal information d. Poor spelling skills e. Lower than normal intelligence Answer: e Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. A subject undergoes an fMRI scan while completing language tasks. First, she is asked to read a sentence. Then she is asked to listen to the sentence. Then she is asked to speak the sentence. Which region of the brain would be active during the first task but not the second two? a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area

c. The visual word form area d. Left orbitofrontal cortex e. Right temporal lobe Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 27. Refer to the figure.

The figure shows an fMRI scan of a subject completing a laboratory task. What was the subject most likely doing during the task? a. Reading a story b. Telling a story c. Hearing a story d. Hearing music e. Watching a movie Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 28. Where is the visual word form area located? a. Left posterior frontal lobe b. Left occipito-temporal sulcus c. Right posterior frontal lobe d. Right occipito-temporal sulcus e. Left posterior parietal lobe Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

29. How does finch birdsong learning differ from human language learning? a. Humans have a critical period for language learning; songbirds do not. b. Humans must hear language to be able to reproduce it; songbirds do not. c. Humans must be able to practice and receive auditory feedback; songbirds do not. d. Humans have regional dialects in language; songbirds do not. e. Humans do not have any language template when born; songbirds have a rough template at birth.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 33C: Learned Vocal Communication in Birds Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 30. Which statement about the acquisition of birdsong is false? a. Quail can produce the full repertoire of songs even if they are raised in isolation. b. Young finches need to hear the song only 10–20 times to be able to mimic it later. c. When presented with songs of multiple bird species, young finches will preferentially learn the song of their species. d. To learn a song, young finches must hear it from a song tutor, which is usually their mother. e. Young finches must have a period of practice and auditory feedback to produce an appropriate song in adulthood.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 33C: Learned Vocal Communication in Birds Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. What is language? Is it unique to humans? Explain.

Answer: Language is the ability to provide meaning to arbitrary symbols to express ourselves to others. It can take a number of forms—thoughts, speech, writing, or signs. As communication in other animals continues to be studied, it appears that humans are not unique in their ability to share information. Bees communicate location with a dance; birds use song for courting; and chimpanzees communicate with gestures, objects, and facial expressions. Although humans have the most complex and creative form of language, other animals have developed ways to communicate.

Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 2. Where is Broca’s area? Wernicke’s area? Compare Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia.

Answer: Broca’s area is located in the posterior left inferior frontal lobe. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior and superior left temporal lobe. Broca’s aphasia is the inability to produce language. Wernicke’s aphasia is the inability to understand spoken language.

Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

3. Collectively, what do the various aphasias tell us about the neural basis of language?

Answer: Aphasias indicate that there is localized and lateralized control of speech and language in the human brain.

Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. Compare the language functions of the right and left hemispheres. What techniques have been used to investigate cerebral lateralization (hemispheric specialization)?

Answer: The left hemisphere largely controls the lexicon, grammar, and syntax of language. The right hemisphere controls the emotional or affective element of language, also known as prosody. Lateralization of function has been examined in patients that have damage to cortical association regions (as a result of injury or stroke) or by studying split-brain patients.

Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. If a split-brain patient is briefly shown a pencil in her left visual field, will she be able to describe the pencil? Explain with the aid of a diagram.

Answer:

She will not be able to describe the pencil. The visual information from the left visual field will be processed by the right visual cortex. The right visual cortex cannot communicate with the left

side of the brain, however, so the visual information cannot reach Broca’s area for naming.

Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. A doctor conducts the Wada test on a healthy patient with an injection into the left carotid artery. Throughout the test, the patient continues to have relatively normal language ability, with little deficit understanding or producing speech. Which hand is most likely dominant in this patient? Explain your reasoning.

Answer: The patient is likely left-handed. By injecting anesthetic into the left carotid artery, the doctor is transiently shutting down the left hemisphere of the brain. That the patient continues to have normal language abilities indicates that s/he has right-hemispheric dominance of language.

The vast majority (97%) of people are left-hemispheric dominant for language, but those that have right side dominance are more likely to be left-handed.

Textbook Reference: Box 33B: Language and Handedness; Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. Identify four methods that have been used to examine organization of language in the human brain.

Answer: Comparing language deficits with brain damage, postmortem; examining language abilities of split-brain patients; mapping cortical regions prior to surgery; testing during hemispheric anesthetization (the Wada test); PET and fMRI scans during language tasks Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. What evidence indicates that language regions of the brain are specialized for symbolic representation and not specifically for heard and spoken words?

Answer: Studies examining congenitally deaf individuals show that the same language regions (e.g., Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas) that are critical for hearing individuals are also used to process sign language. Additionally, when individuals that have been deaf and using sign language since birth have damage to the language centers in the left hemisphere, they, too, show aphasia like symptoms in their ability to communicate using sign language.

Textbook Reference: Sign Language Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluating 9. What evidence supports the claim that there is a genetic basis for language development?

Answer: The K.E. family has an autosomal recessive mutation in the FOXP2 gene, which is located on chromosome 7. This gene encodes for a transcription factor that influences the formation of neural circuits that process language, among other functions. The family shows language deficits—they are unable to make appropriate speech sounds, leading to the production of unintelligible language. Additionally, language disorders such as dyslexia tend to run in families, suggesting a genetic basis.

Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

10. What symptoms are seen, and which brain region is dysfunctional, in dyslexia?

Answer: Dyslexic people have difficulty learning to read and tend to have trouble processing speech sounds as well as translating visual to verbal information and vice versa. Additionally, they often have difficulty writing and spelling. However, there is no deficit in overall intelligence. In dyslexic patients, the visual word form area in the left occipito-temporal sulcus shows lower activation while completing reading tasks.

Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Choice from Dashboard Quiz 1. Which statement about language is false? a. Failure to develop language during childhood results in severe, lifelong linguistic deficits. b. Language depends on specialized areas of the temporal and frontal lobes. c. The left hemisphere usually plays a dominant role in semantic processing. d. The right hemisphere usually governs emotional or affective aspects of language. e. Cortical areas used in sign language are largely different from those used in spoken language.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Overview Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. The most essential function of the core cortical language areas is a. early processing of speech sounds. b. assembling sound sequences into word-length auditory percepts. c. generation of speech motor patterns. d. generation of gestures. e. symbolic representation.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Representation of Language in the Brain Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. The initial discovery that humans possess language-specific cortical areas was a result of a. studies of patients with brain lesions. b. electrophysiological recording experiments. c. early X-ray brain imaging experiments. d. genetic analysis of precursor “language” areas in non-human primates. e. neuroanatomical tracing experiments.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 4. As evidenced by the studies of Paul Broca, patients with damage to the ventroposterior region of the left frontal cortex a. show diverse motor deficits along with speech generation deficits.

b. show diverse sensory deficits along with receptive language deficits. c. are able to produce words but have difficulty understanding language. d. can understand language but cannot produce organized speech. e. lose the capacity to produce and understand specific categories of words (e.g., verbs).

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. As evidenced by the studies of Carl Wernicke, patients with damage to the left temporal lobe a. show diverse motor deficits along with speech generation deficits. b. show diverse sensory deficits along with receptive language deficits. c. can produce words but have difficulty understanding language. d. can understand language but cannot produce organized speech. e. lose the capacity to produce and understand specific categories of words (e.g., verbs).

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Aphasias Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. The structure that is important to the production of virtually all vocalizations is the a. pharynx. b. larynx. c. tongue. d. nasal cavity. e. epiglottis.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 33A: The Generation of Speech Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Phonemes are a. basic speech sounds, in general. b. the vowel-like speech sounds. c. the consonant-like speech sounds. d. the percepts elicited by different speech sounds. e. a new kind of auditory percept emerging from ubiquitous cell phone ring tones.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 33A: The Generation of Speech Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 8. During the 1950s and 1960s Norman Geschwind a. confirmed the functions of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas by lesioning analogous areas in chimps. b. confirmed the functions of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas by making experimental lesions in humans in the context of neurosurgery to treat epilepsy. c. conducted X-ray-based studies on localization of language areas. d. showed that Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas have many functions other than language.

e. showed that a number of cortical areas (other than Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas) have specialized language functions.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Clinical Presentations of Aphasia Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. A patient holding a ball in his right hand identifies it as “a ball,” but when holding it in his left hand he calls it “a round thing.” This patient most likely a. is a split-brain patient. b. is undergoing the Wada procedure. c. has Wernicke’s aphasia. d. has Broca’s aphasia. e. has dysarthria.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: An Ingenious Confirmation of Language Lateralization Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement about human handedness is false? a. About 90 percent of humans are right-handed, independent of culture. b. Evidence indicates that our ancestors, into antiquity, were predominantly right-handed. c. Right-handed people tend to have significantly better language skills than left-handed people. d. Currently there are surprisingly few left-handers among the elderly. e. Handedness is usually assessed by asking individuals about their preferences.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Box 33B: Language and Handedness Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement about lateralization of brain functions is true? a. Right-handers always show left-brain language dominance. b. Left-handers always show right-brain language dominance. c. There are no correlations between language and hand dominance. d. There is evidence that language and hand dominance originated from a single genetic mutation in our early hominid ancestors. e. The prevalence of dominance suggests that lateralization of function maximizes use of the available neural circuitry.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 33B: Language and Handedness Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. The anatomical asymmetry of the planum temporale a. explains the known correlations between language and handedness. b. is diminished in right-handers. c. is diminished in left-handers. d. shows a perfect correlation with language dominance. e. is detectable in about two-thirds of humans.

Answer: e

Textbook Reference: The Search for Anatomical Differences between the Hemispheres Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. The method of clinically assessing language lateralization in humans by anesthetizing one hemisphere was devised by a. Paul Broca. b. Carl Wernicke. c. Roger Sperry. d. John Wada. e. Norman Geschwind.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 14. Wilder Penfield, in the course of epilepsy surgery, performed electrical stimulation of cortex for the main purpose of a. avoiding damage to critical language brain structures during the surgery. b. eliciting patient verbalizations to ensure that they were not feeling pain. c. mapping language functions in areas that had not previously been studied. d. mapping language functions with greater precision than previously accomplished. e. testing success of the surgery.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement about the localization of language functions in human neocortex is false? a. Neurons have been found that respond preferentially to a single, specific word. b. Electrical stimulation at many different cortical locations interferes with language functions. c. The specific pattern of “effective stimulus locations” varies significantly from one person to the next. d. In bilingual people, words with the same meaning from two different languages may be stored in different cortical locations. e. PET imaging experiments have shown that large regions of the left hemisphere are active in word recognition and production.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mapping Language Functions Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. According to current consensus, the most likely role of the right hemisphere in language is in the a. lower-level analysis of sensory signals from which the meaning of language is extracted. b. programming of word sequences based on their semantic content. c. processing the emotional and tonal (prosodic) components of language. d. reading and writing of languages with spatially complex characters, such as Mandarin Chinese. e. communication of sign language.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Role of the Right Hemisphere in Language Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement about language in people who are deaf is false? a. Lesions of Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas produce deficits analogous to those caused by these lesions in hearing people. b. Lesions of the right hemisphere affect the emotional tone of signing. c. People who are deaf show lateralization of function similar to that of hearing people. d. The offspring of deaf parents exhibit “babbling” in sign language that is analogous to the verbal babbling of children in hearing families. e. Studies of congenitally deaf individuals indicate that Broca’s area is specific to spoken language, whereas a region in the anterior temporal lobe is specific for visual and signed communication.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Sign Language Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Healthy controls and patients with dyslexia are asked to read a paragraph while being scanned by fMRI. Where would you expect to see functional differences between the two groups during this task? a. Left occipito-temporal sulcus b. Broca’s area c. Wernicke’s area d. Left orbitofrontal cortex e. Right temporal lobe Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 19. A seven-year-old boy is having trouble learning to read at school. He undergoes some cognitive tests and an fMRI scan. The scan shows decreased activity in the left occipito-temporal sulcus compared to other children his age. Which disorder do these results implicate? a. Broca’s aphasia b. Wernicke’s aphasia c. Alexias d. Dyslexia e. Dysarthria Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reading and Dyslexia Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. Which statement about the language capacities of humans and non-humans is true? a. Only humans have the ability to understand symbols and communicate information. b. Honeybees have the ability to learn many different symbols and to change their behavior in response to retraining.

c. Chimps in captivity have learned hundreds of symbols and are able to use them in a manner comparable to the speech of adult humans. d. Chimps in the wild communicate by means of gestures, facial expressions, and the manipulation of objects. e. Primates use their left hemisphere to perceive affective tone in intraspecies communications.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Do Other Animals Have Language?

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Test Bank to accompany Neuroscience, Sixth Edition Purves • Augustine • Fitzpatrick • Hall • LaMantia • Mooney • Platt • White

Chapter 34: Development and Evolution of Cognitive Functions Multiple Choice 1. Which process allows a species to become specialized to its local environment? a. Assimilation b. Accommodation c. Fitness d. Adjustment e. Adaptation Answer: e Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. One way developing children construct an understanding of the world is to combine new information into their preexisting beliefs. What is this process called? a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Adaptation d. Fitness e. Drift Answer: b Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. You are conducting a child development experiment and are currently studying a five-yearold. What type of cognitive behavior would you expect to see? a. Egocentric perspective; use of symbols in play behavior b. Reflex responses reliant on sensory and motor abilities c. Reasoning about the world; limited abstract thinking d. Adept at reasoning and abstract thinking e. Lack of understanding the permanence of objects even when out of eyesight Answer: a Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 4. You are conducting a child development experiment and are currently studying a fifteen-yearold. What type of cognitive behavior would you expect to see? a. Reasoning about the world; limited abstract thinking b. Egocentric perspective; use of symbols in play behavior

c. Reflex responses reliant on sensory and motor abilities d. Adept at reasoning and abstract thinking e. Lack of understanding the permanence of objects even when out of eyesight Answer: d Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 5. Damage to which structure during development would prevent neurogenesis? a. Ventricular zone b. Forebrain c. Hindbrain d. Somite e. Notochord Answer: a Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 6. What role does the ventricular zone play during development? a. It becomes the thalamus. b. It sends out molecular cues to help guide axons. c. It generates cerebrospinal fluid. d. It becomes the peripheral nervous system. e. It is the location of cell division of the neuronal precursor cells.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which cellular machinery is critical for the diversity of cell types in the human brain? a. Ion channels b. Myelin sheath c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Sodium/potassium pumps e. Transcription factors Answer: e Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Which characteristic does not help differentiate between different neuronal types? a. Neurotransmitters present b. Receptors at postsynaptic sites c. Morphology of axons and dendrites d. Signaling properties of action potentials e. Date of birth Answer: e Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

9. Inhibition of which type of cell would have a direct effect on the development of cognitive functions? a. Oligodendrocyte b. Schwann cell c. Astrocyte d. Microglia e. Macrophage Answer: a Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 10. Which region would you expect to complete synaptogenesis first? a. Parietal association cortex b. Somatosensory cortex c. Temporal association cortex d. Prefrontal cortex e. All regions complete synaptogenesis at the same time Answer: b Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement regarding synaptogenesis is most accurate? a. Synaptogenesis in one group of CNS neurons is frequently accompanied by cell death in another group of neurons. b. Synaptogenesis occurs in an anterior-to-posterior manner throughout the brain. c. Synaptogenesis plays little to no role in the course of development of cognitive functions. d. Synaptogenesis does not initiate until myelination in the CNS is complete. e. Synaptogenesis is always accompanied by synapse loss and rearrangement.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement regarding brain size is most accurate? a. There is no sex difference in development of brain volume. b. White matter volume peaks in males earlier than in females. c. Cerebral volume peaks in the mid-teenage years. d. Neocortical regions all follow the same time course for development of brain size, peaking at the same age across the brain. e. The brain reaches 80% of its adult size by age fifteen.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Brain Size and Cognitive Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. If you wanted to complete an experiment that required the brain to be at its largest size during life, which age group would you study?

a. Infants b. Teenagers c. 20-year-olds d. 50-year-olds e. 70-year-olds Answer: b Textbook Reference: Brain Size and Cognitive Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 14. Which conclusion can be drawn from a comparison of a macaque monkey brain and a cow brain? a. The level of gyrification correlates with intelligence. b. Absolute brain size is not an accurate indicator of cognitive ability. c. Visual acuity depends on the amount of cortical space in the visual cortex. d. The size of the hippocampus is dependent on sex hormones. e. The number of layers in the neocortex predicts intelligence.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Brain Size and the Evolution of Cognition Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 15. Which conclusion can be drawn from the evidence that visual acuity is correlated with the amount of visual cortex allocated to each part of the visual field? a. The level of gyrification correlates with quality of cognitive function. b. The number of layers of neocortex correlates with quality of cognitive function. c. The size of the visual cortex is dependent on sex hormones. d. The quality of cognitive function is dependent on the level of laterality. e. The quality of cognitive function relies on the size of cortex dedicated to that function.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 16. Two patients are currently undergoing rehabilitation after a stroke, which, in both patients, lead to cortical damage in the language areas in the left hemisphere. One patient is suffering from severe aphasia, while the other patient has significantly less devastating language dysfunction. What could explain this difference? a. The aphasic patient has a smaller brain volume than the second patient. b. The aphasic patient is male, and the other patient is female. c. The aphasic patient has a larger brain volume than the second patient. d. The aphasic patient has less while matter than the second patient. e. The aphasic patient is older than the second patient.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 17. Sex differences in spatial navigation ability in experimental animals correlate with differences in the size of which structure?

a. Hypothalamus b. Hippocampus c. Thalamus d. Cerebellum e. Pons Answer: b Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 18. Which factor limits the size of the skull, and therefore the brain, in mammals? a. Number of feet used for locomotion (bi- vs quadrupeds) b. Number of neck muscles c. Size of the female pelvic canal d. Location of postural (proximal) muscles e. Strength of the neck muscles Answer: c Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. Which statement regarding evolution of the neocortex is most accurate? a. Within primates there is no indication that neocortical folding is associated with increased cognitive function. b. Gyrification allows for an increase in volume without an increase in surface area. c. Within a family, the size of the neocortex is not related to the size of the whole brain. d. Neocortical ballooning is an effective mechanism to manage an increase in brain size. e. Gyrification allows for an increase in brain complexity without a corresponding increase in skull size.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 20. Which quantifiable measurement would you use if you wanted to examine the evolution of structural complexity of the brain? a. The number of total neurons relative to brain size b. The number of protein-encoding genes in the genome c. The number of different neuronal cell types relative to brain size d. The number of total glia relative to brain size e. The number of brain regions in which adult neurogenesis occurs Answer: c Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 21. Which gene appears to play a role in the development of brain size? a. Microcephalin-1 b. Noggin c. Chordin

d. Snail1 e. Wnt Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evolution of Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 22. What theory exists to explain diversity in neocortical size between rats and macaques? a. Neurogenesis is faster in macaques. b. The neocortex is developed first in macaques but last in rats. c. Migration is faster in macaques. d. The neocortex has more time to develop in macaques. e. Synaptogenesis is faster in macaques.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolution of Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 23. Which statement regarding cortical thickness and intelligence is most accurate? a. Individuals with the highest intelligence have a thicker prefrontal cortex in young childhood than individuals with average or high intelligence. b. Individuals with the highest intelligence show a peak in prefrontal cortical thickness at a younger age than individuals with average or high intelligence. c. Individuals with the highest intelligence have a thicker prefrontal cortex in their early twenties than individuals with average or high intelligence. d. Individuals with the highest intelligence have a thinner prefrontal cortex in young childhood than individuals with average or high intelligence. e. Individuals with the highest intelligence have a thinner prefrontal cortex across the life span than individuals with average or high intelligence.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Box 34C: The Neurobiology of Intelligence Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 24. If you wanted to study the fossils of the first hominin that demonstrated a significant increase in brain size, which human ancestor would you work with? a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Austrolopithecines d. Homo sapiens e. Sivapithecus Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fossil Evidence on the Evolution of Brain and Cognition Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 25. Which hominin species had a larger brain size than extant Homo sapiens? a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Neanderthals

d. Australopithecines e. Sivapithecus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fossil Evidence on the Evolution of Brain and Cognition Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 26. Which brain region is larger in bird species that rely on stored food for their winter diet compared to those species that do not rely on stored food? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Amygdala d. Prefrontal cortex e. Hippocampus Answer: e Textbook Reference: Evolution of Learning and Memory Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 27. A lesion in which area would cause the greatest damage to spindle cells? a. Orbitofrontal cortex b. Hypothalamus c. V4 d. Anterior cingulate cortex e. Somatosensory cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolution of Social Cognition Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 28. Which symptom is not characteristic of autism? a. Impairment of nonverbal behaviors b. High prevalence of depression c. Failure to share enjoyment of others d. Failure to develop peer relationships e. Lack of emotional reciprocity Answer: b Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Autism Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 29. A young toddler is showing symptoms of autism. In an MRI scan of the child, what abnormality, compared to healthy controls, would you expect to find? a. Smaller brain size b. Less gyrification c. Decreased white matter in the cerebellum d. Increased cerebral gray matter in the frontal lobe e. Decreased number of synaptic connections Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Autism

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 30. Which region has not been shown to be volumetrically different between autistic patients and healthy controls? a. Amygdala b. Frontal lobe c. Thalamus d. Temporal lobe e. Cerebellum Answer: c Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Autism Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. List the seven processes that must occur for proper development of the brain and cognitive function.

Answer: Neurulation Cell proliferation Cell Migration Myelination Synaptogenesis Synaptic pruning Synaptic rearrangement Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. What differences exist between the development of white matter and gray matter? Do sex differences exist? Draw a graph for each type, showing changes in their volume as a function of age.

Answer: White matter volume increases throughout life. Gray matter volume, on the other hand, peaks during the teenage years and then decreases after that. In both white and gray matter, males have larger volume, on average.

Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 3. What evidence indicates that absolute brain size is not an accurate indicator of cognitive ability?

Answer: Some intelligent animals, like a macaque monkey, have smaller brains than animals that are less intelligent, like a cow.

Textbook Reference: Brain Size and the Evolution of Cognition Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. What evidence, from studies of sex differences in the brain, supports the conclusion that structural differences in the brain may underlie cognitive abilities?

Answer: The control of language in males is more lateralized than in females. This difference may explain why females, on average, have stronger language skills and are less likely to become aphasic after a stroke that damages the language regions in the left hemisphere.

Additionally, lateralization also shows a sex difference in the processing of visuospatial information, a task in which males tend to outperform females.

Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 5. If you wanted to examine a characteristic of the neocortex that is limited to mammals, what would you choose?

Answer: The six-layered cortical structures Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

6. What are the benefits of gyrification? Lissencephaly is a disorder in which there is no gyrification of the cortex. Given what you know about the benefits of gyrification, how would you expect the cognitive functions of a patient with lissencephaly to compare with those of a healthy control?

Answer: Gyrification allows for increased cortical surface area without an increase in volume.

Gyri and sulci are characteristic of complex brains and higher cognitive functioning. Patients with lissencephaly would have significantly decreased cognitive abilities compared to healthy controls.

Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 7. A mutation in which gene would have significant effects on brain size?

Answer: Microcephalin-1 Textbook Reference: Evolution of Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. How might developmental timing explain differences in brain structure size?

Answer: In species with higher cognitive abilities, like macaque monkeys, an increase in duration of development allows brain structures more time to undergo cell proliferation, migration, and synaptogenesis, resulting in an increased number of neurons and connections.

Textbook Reference: Evolution of Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 9. You conduct a study examining brain structure in children that are ranked as average intelligence, higher intelligence, or highest intelligence. Draw a graph of the cortical thickness data you would expect to collect from subjects in these groups, aged 7 to 19.

Answer:

Textbook Reference: Box 34C: The Neurobiology of Intelligence Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing

10. What three characteristics of primates support the hypothesis that the evolution of advanced cognitive abilities seen in primates has been socially driven?

Answer: 1. Primate societies are the most complex of all animals.

2. Measures of advanced brain development, like neocortical size, correlate with measures of social complexity, such as number of grooming partners.

3. The primate brain is specialized for processing information of a social nature. For example, some neurons in the temporal lobe are specialized for processing faces.

Textbook Reference: Evolution of Social Cognition Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding

Multiple Chioce from Dashboard Quiz 1. One way a developing child constructs an understanding of the world is to change or modify their preexisting beliefs due to new information. What is this process called? a. Assimilation b. Adaptation c. Fitness d. Accommodation e. Drift Answer: d Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 2. You are conducting a child development experiment and are currently studying a one-yearold. What type of cognitive behavior would you expect to see? a. Reflex responses reliant on sensory and motor abilities b. Egocentric perspective; use of symbols in play behavior c. Reasoning about the world; limited abstract thinking d. Adept at reasoning and abstract thinking e. A grasp of complex concepts such as cause and effect and time Answer: a Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 3. You are conducting a child development experiment and are currently studying a ten-year-old.

What type of cognitive behavior would you expect to see? a. Egocentric perspective; use of symbols in play behavior b. Reflex responses reliant on sensory and motor abilities c. Reasoning about the world; limited abstract thinking d. Adept at reasoning and abstract thinking e. Lack of understanding the permanence of objects even when out of eyesight Answer: c Textbook Reference: Foundations of Developmental and Evolutionary Cognitive Neurobiology Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying

4. At what point in development is the majority of neurogenesis complete? a. End of second trimester b. End of first trimester c. End of third trimester d. End of first year of life e. End of fifth year of life Answer: a Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. If you wanted to study neurons in the brain that were born first, where would you look? a. Superficial layers of neocortical gray matter b. Deep layers of the brain c. Cerebellum d. Pons e. Spinal cord Answer: b Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 6. Which brain region is the last to be fully myelinated? a. Parietal association cortex b. Prefrontal cortex c. Temporal association cortex d. Motor cortex e. Somatosensory cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 7. Which statement about myelination is most accurate? a. Myelination begins in early childhood. b. Myelination is complete by early childhood. c. The time course of myelination parallels that of gaining cognitive functions. d. Myelination is not believed to play a role in the development of cognitive functions. e. Myelination occurs in a rostral–caudal manner.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. In an experiment, thalamic neurons that usually input to the visual cortex are rewired to project to the auditory cortex instead. What effect would you expect this to have? a. The experimental animal would be blind. b. The experimental animal would be deaf. c. Neurons in the auditory cortex would begin processing visual information.

d. Neurons in the visual cortex would begin processing auditory information. e. Visual stimuli would result in auditory perception.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Development of Cognitive Abilities Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 9. Refer to the figure.

You are examining regional growth in the developing brain by imaging myelination levels. You collect the MRI data shown in the figure. Red indicates low levels of myelination; blue indicates high levels. What age would you predict this subject to be? a. 5 years old b. 15 years old c. 25 years old d. 40 years old e. 80 years old Answer: a Textbook Reference: Brain Size and Cognitive Development Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyzing 10. What assumption led to the nineteenth-century idea that white European males had greater intelligence than other groups of people? a. Assuming intelligence was related to head size b. Assuming intelligence was related to height c. Assuming intelligence was related to wealth d. Assuming intelligence was encoded on the “male” genes e. Assuming intelligence was negatively correlated with age at puberty Answer: a Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 11. Why are women less likely than men to suffer from aphasia following a stroke that damages the language areas of the cortex? a. Women have higher levels of myelination in the language centers than men. b. Women have lower levels of myelination in the language centers than men.

c. Women have more gray matter in the language centers than men. d. Women have more white matter in the language centers than men. e. Women process language more bilaterally than men.

Answer: e Textbook Reference: Box 34B: Brain Differences among Modern Humans Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement best describes the relationship between neocortex volume and brain size? a. In all mammalian species, the number of neocortical layers increases as brain size increases. b. In primates, the size of the neocortex relative to the brain increases as you move up the cladogram. c. In all mammalian species, the size of the neocortex relative to the brain stays constant as you move up the cladogram. d. In all mammalian species, the size of the neocortex relative to the brain decreases as you move up the cladogram. e. In all mammalian species, as brain size increases, neocortical ballooning becomes more prevalent.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 13. Which statement regarding gyrification is most accurate? a. The gyrification index increases as neocortical volume decreases. b. The gyrification index increases as skull size increases. c. The gyrification index decreases as intelligence increases. d. The gyrification index increases as neocortical volume increases. e. The gyrification index is dependent on the presence of sex hormones during development.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Relative Brain Size and Cerebral Complexity Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 14. During a gestational ultrasound, it is discovered that a fetus has an abnormally small head. If you were to run a genetic analysis on the baby, in which gene would you expect to find a mutation? a. Microcephalin-1 b. Snail2 c. Methly CpG-binding Protein 2 d. Ciliary neurotrophic factor e. Pax3 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evolution of Brain Development Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 15. What was the first adaptive change that distinguished the Australopithecines from the great apes? a. Skull size

b. Tool use c. Fire use d. Body size e. Bipedalism Answer: e Textbook Reference: Fossil Evidence on the Evolution of Brain and Cognition Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 16. Which hominin species had the largest brain size? a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecines d. Neanderthals e. Homo sapiens sapiens Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fossil Evidence on the Evolution of Brain and Cognition Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 17. Damage to which brain region would affect winter diet more in bird species that rely on stored food than in those that do not rely on stored food? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Amygdala d. Hippocampus e. Prefrontal cortex Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolution of Learning and Memory Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 18. Which function has not been attributed to the anterior cingulate cortex? a. Attention b. Evaluation of options c. Decision making d. Empathy e. Theory-of-mind Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evolution of Social Cognition Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 19. You are studying the differences in visual processing of faces between autistic patients and healthy controls. What would you expect the data to show? a. In autistic patients, there is no correlation between activation of the fusiform gyrus and the duration of gaze fixation on the face. b. Autistic patients focus longer on the eyes when examining images compared to healthy controls.

c. When examining faces, activity in the fusiform gyrus is higher in autistic patients compared to healthy controls. d. When examining faces, activity in the fusiform gyrus is lower in autistic patients compared to healthy controls. e. In autistic patients, there is a negative correlation between activation of the fusiform gyrus and the duration of gaze fixation on the face.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Autism Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 20. If you wanted to examine white and gray volume differences between autistic patients and healthy controls, subjects of which age would be most informative? a. 5-year-olds b. 15-year-olds c. 25-year-olds d. 55-year-olds e. 75-year-olds Answer: a Textbook Reference: Clinical Applications: Autism Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying