Emergency Medical Responder First On Scene 11th Edition By Chris, David, Keith TEST BANK

TEST BANK Emergency Medical Responder: First on Scene 11th Edition

by Chris Baudour, David Bergeron and Keith Wesley

TABLE OF CONTENTS: 1. Introduction to EMS Systems 2. Legal and Ethical Principles of Emergency Care 3. Wellness and Safety of the Emergency Medical Responder 4. Introduction to Medical Terminology, Human Anatomy, and Lifespan Development 5. Introduction to Pathophysiology 6. Principles of Lifting, Moving, and Positioning of Patients 7. Principles of Effective Communication 8. Principles of Effective Documentation 9. Principles of Airway Management and Ventilation 10. Principles of Oxygen Therapy 11. Principles of Resuscitation 12. Obtaining a Medical History and Vital Signs 13. Principles of Patient Assessment 14. Caring for Cardiac Emergencies 15. Caring for Respiratory Emergencies 16. Caring for Common Medical Emergencies 17. Caring for Environmental Emergencies 18. Caring for Soft-Tissue Injuries and Bleeding 19. Recognition and Care of Shock 20. Caring for Muscle and Bone Injuries 21. Caring for Head and Spinal Injuries 22. Caring for Chest and Abdominal Emergencies 23. Care During Pregnancy and Childbirth 24. Caring for Infants and Children 25. Special Considerations for the Geriatric Patient 26. Introduction to EMS Operations and Hazardous Response 27. Introduction to Multiple-Casualty Incidents, the Incident Command System, and Triage

Chapter 1 Introduction to EMS Systems 1) The term means the chain of human resources and services linked together to provide continuous emergency care from the scene to the medical facility.

A) EMT resources B) 911 services C) EMS system D) emergency services Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1 2) The Medical Director is a physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for: A) standards, protocols, and evaluation of patient care.

B) certification and licensure of EMRs. C) staffing decisions and hiring.

D) answering and dispatching 911 calls.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1 3) You have received an order over the phone from the Medical Director to administer oxygen to the patient. This would be called: A) off-line medical direction.

B) on-line medical direction.

C) hospital direction.

D) EMS coordinator direction.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Objective: 1 4) The procedures that an Emergency Medical Responder can and must legally provide as care for a patient are called: A) scope of practice.

B) scope of training.

C) standard of care.

D) standard of training.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 1

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5) Which agency coordinates EMS on a national level and defines all levels of EMS providers?

A) NEMSES B) AEMT C) NHTSA D) NSPM Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: 2 6) One important point where trained and untrained people come together as part of the EMS system is: A) the 911 service.

B) clinical care.

C) ambulance response.

D) evaluation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Objective: 3 7) How many nationally recognized levels of EMS training are covered by the National EMS Education Standards?

A) 8 B) 2 C) 5 D) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Objective: 4 8) Which level of EMS education allows the responder to perform cardiac defibrillation?

A) Paramedic B) AEMT C) EMT D) EMR Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 5 9) Which level is considered the minimum level of education and certification for ambulance personnel in most areas of the United States?

A) Paramedic B) AEMT C) EMT D) EMR Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 5 2 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Many police officers, firefighters, industrial workers, and other public service providers are trained as Emergency Medical Responders because the EMR level is designed specifically for those who: A) can insert advanced airways and IV lines.

B) have the authority to arrest suspects.

C) are ambulance personnel.

D) may arrive first on the scene.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 6 11) The EMS model known as the other than the fire department.

A) public utility B) EMS C) paramedic D) hospital-based Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Objective: 7

model is typically operated by a government entity

12) The scope of practice for an EMS provider is defined by A) national B) state or local C) professional organization D) medical Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 8

statutes and regulations.

13) Most 911 calls are automatically directed to a designated county agency with specially trained dispatchers.

A) emergency room switchboard.

B) fire department.

C) public safety answering point (PSAP) D) hospital Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 9

operated by a city or

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14) Which of the following procedures might be allowed for an Advanced EMT in certain states but not in others?

A) Assessment of injury B) Scene safety C) Administration of certain basic medications D) Starting an intravenous line Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 10 15) Off-line medical direction includes that give the EMS provider permission to administer specific interventions, such as oxygen and medications.

A) telephone orders B) medical intervention C) standing orders D) direct intervention Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Objective: 11 16) You are responding to a medical emergency involving a middle-aged man who broke his arm while playing football in the park with some college students. He appears angry and yells random insults at you. What should you do?

A) Tell him that you cannot treat him until he treats you with respect.

B) Stay calm and overlook his behavior.

C) Provide treatment but tell him that he's not hurt badly and to stop complaining.

D) Call for police back-up and avoid treating the patient until they arrive.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Objective: 12 17) In an EMS system, CQI means continuous improvement in the quality of: A) health care products.

B) hospital systems.

C) protocols and standards.

D) patient care.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13 Objective: 13 18) The public health system administered by counties, regions, and states promote the communities they serve.

A) emergency medical response services B) continuous quality improvement C) medical direction D) optimal health and quality of life Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14 4 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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for

Objective: 14 19) are specialized teams consisting of highly experienced, trained EMS personnel that can be deployed at a moment's notice to emergencies anywhere in the United States.

A) Disaster Medical Assistance Teams B) Emergency Medical Systems C) Emergency Response Teams D) First Responders Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14 Objective: 15 20) New research means new practices are constantly being developed to improve EMS practice.

Which two organizations release new guidelines for resuscitation and emergency care every 5 years?

A) American Medical Association and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services B) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration and the American Heart Association C) American Heart Association and the International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American Medical Association Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Objective: 16 21) Which new technology makes it possible for emergency personnel to easily locate and navigate to the scene of an emergency?

A) 911 B) EMS C) GPS D) MAPS Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Objective: 16 22) A(n) provides specialized services, such as trauma care, pediatric care, cardiac care, stroke care, or burn care.

A) outpatient clinic B) medical office C) dispatch center D) specialty hospital Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Objective: 1 23) Which of the following is the definition of "protocols"?

A) Indirect medical direction communicated by radio or telephone B) Written guidelines that direct the care EMS personnel provide for patients C) Specialized equipment to minimize contact with infectious substances D) Personal traits that indicate professionalism in an EMR 5 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Objective: 1 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You and your partner are called to a one-vehicle collision. A car has collided with a telephone pole. You arrive on the scene and notice that the police are controlling the traffic and that the power company has turned the power off. The patient is a 65-year-old male who is unconscious in the driver's seat. He is breathing and has a pulse. There is a starburst crack in the windshield, and the patient is unrestrained. As your crew is approaching the scene, the local Advanced Life Support Crew arrives.

24) As an Emergency Medical Responder on this call, the first responsibility for you and your crew would be to: A) determine the number of patients needing your care.

B) ensure that it is safe for you and your crew to enter the area.

C) determine the need for advanced resources.

D) ensure that the patient has an open airway.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Objective: 12 25) Which EMS professional should be the one to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythms and use the defibrillator if necessary?

A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) First Responder on Scene Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: 5 26) Spinal immobilization protocols in your area recently changed because of new research regarding cervical spine injuries. This change in protocol is an example of: A) anecdotal policy change.

B) evidence-based practice.

C) on-line medical direction.

D) independent protocol adjustment.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 2 Legal and Ethical Principles of Emergency Care 1) Unlawful physical contact with a patient is called: A) negligence.

B) abandonment.

C) battery.

D) harassment.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 23 Objective: 1 2) The term means the care that should be provided for any level of training based on local laws, administrative orders, and guidelines and protocols established by the local EMS system.

A) scope of practice B) standard of care C) ethical response D) emergency response Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Objective: 2 3) Ethics are the A) laws B) protocols C) duties D) moral principles Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 Objective: 3

that guide a person's right, good, and proper behavior.

4) You have a patient who has stopped breathing and has no signs of circulation. You notice a medical alert bracelet indicating the patient is a registered organ donor. This patient will be able to provide consent.

A) informed B) implied C) expressed D) competent Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 23 Objective: 4

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5) You are called to help a man who is having chest pains. When you arrive, he insists that he is fine and doesn't need any help. What should you do next?

A) Stay calm and professional, explain the potential dangers of refusing treatment, and document the refusal of care. Follow local laws for calling in additional assistance.

B) Carefully document the refusal of care, inform the patient that you cannot be held responsible for anything further, and withdraw from the scene.

C) Restrain the patient, and begin to evaluate and treat him while waiting for the police to arrive.

D) Inform the patient that he has given implied consent and begin treatment immediately.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Objective: 5 6) are relatively simple documents that allow individuals to define their wishes or appoint someone else to make health care decisions on their behalf.

A) Living wills B) Letters of Agreement C) Consent contracts D) Advance directives Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Objective: 7 7) During your assessment, a patient tells you that she has a DNR order. What should you do?

A) Inform the patient that you can't do anything for her unless she rescinds the DNR in writing.

B) Inform her that DNR orders have been replaced by the POLST form, and that without a POLST form, she must accept treatment.

C) Provide appropriate comfort and care within the bounds of the DNR. D) Stop all care immediately as is legally required by the DNR "cease and desist" clause.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Objective: 8 8) As a paid Emergency Medical Responder, while on duty you are expected to provide care according to the standard operating procedures outlined by your department. This is called: A) duty to act.

B) standard of care.

C) scope of practice.

D) delegation of authority.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Objective: 9

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9) Certain states have laws that protect care providers from civil liability for delivering care, as long as it is to their level of training and the best of their ability.

A) Innocent Bystander B) Good Samaritan C) First Responder D) Duty of Care Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 27 Objective: 10 10) HIPAA is a law that dictates the extent to which: A) an EMT may provide on-the-scene care.

B) a hospital may accept or refuse patients.

C) protected health information may be shared.

D) a patient may decline treatment or refuse consent.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Objective: 11 11) must alert authorities to certain events or conditions that they either know or suspect have occurred, such as child or elder abuse.

A) Emergency Medical Responders B) Paramedics (but not EMTs) C) Mandated reporters D) Bystanders Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29 Objective: 12 12) You are called to a scene where a young man has been shot while trying to rob a convenience store. When you arrive, the young man is lying on the floor and appears to be bleeding from his leg. The police are trying to calm down the store owner, who is in a rage and is waving his shotgun around. What should you do next?

A) Treat the patient and remove him from the scene, while staying out of the way of police officers.

B) Do not enter the scene until it is safe to do so or law enforcement tells you that you may enter.

C) Preserve the patient's clothing and avoid cutting through any holes from the gunshot.

D) Tell the store owner to step outside so that you can treat the patient. If the store owner refuses to cooperate, take him immediately into custody.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 30 Objective: 13

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13) Your crew responds to a call for a man who is on the ground with blood running freely from his arm. He is distressed and angrily tells you to go away, but doesn't seem to understand where he is or what has happened to him. His adult daughter tells you that the man has Alzheimer's and is on blood thinners. She begs you to help him. Can you assist the patient?

A) Yes. You must assist all emergency patients who are actively bleeding.

B) No. You may not assist a responsive patient who has refused treatment.

C) No. The patient has refused treatment and assisting him would violate HIPAA. D) Yes. The patient is not competent to make rational decisions about his health care.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Objective: 4 14) You and your partner are on the way back to work when you see a child who has been struck by a vehicle and is unresponsive in the road. You begin care for her and call for advanced care to transport her to a nearby emergency department. You know she can be legally transported based on: A) actual consent.

B) informed consent.

C) implied consent.

D) Good Samaritan laws.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 23 Objective: 4 15) You are responding to a one-car accident on a neighborhood street. An elderly woman hit a telephone pole while swerving to avoid a dog that was running loose. She is conscious and sitting in her car. After you determine that the scene is safe to approach, the next thing you should do is: A) ask for the woman's consent for care.

B) ask the woman to step out of the car so you can assess her injuries.

C) ensure that the dog is captured and controlled.

D) provide oxygen and begin an IV for fluids.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Objective: 4 16) For a lawsuit alleging negligence to be successful, the following four elements must be established EXCEPT: A) Duty to act B) Breach of duty C) Causation D) HIPAA violation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Objective: 9

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17) Your patient is a woman with a broken nose. She is at the park with her children, and she tells you she was hit in the face by a swing. After you take her vital signs and begin to administer first aid, she says that she's fine and you can go. From a legal perspective, what are your options?

A) You could be charged with battery if you continue to assist her.

B) You could be guilty of abandonment if you leave after beginning care.

C) You could be charged under the Good Samaritan law if you cease care.

D) You could be charged with assault if you call for someone with a higher level of training.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 27 Objective: 10 18) You have a critically injured patient who has been identified as an organ donor. How should this patient's treatment differ from that of other patients?

A) Consent for organ donation is equivalent to a Do Not Resuscitate order.

B) The patient should be carefully packed in ice to preserve the organs on the way to the hospital.

C) The patient should be put on special oxygen for organ preservation.

D) Emergency care for organ donors must not differ from that of non-organ donors.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 29 Objective: 13 19) What is considered a breach of duty?

A) A direct link between the care provided and damage to the patient B) A choice to prolong or not prolong life C) Care provided to a nonresponsive patient who cannot give consent D) Care to a less than an acceptable standard Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Objective: 9 20) What is the difference between a DNR order and an Advance Directive?

A) An advance directive is decided by the patient and a DNR order is decided by the physician.

B) An advance directive is decided by the physician and a DNR order is decided by the patient.

C) An advance directive relates to future treatment, while a DNR order relates to current treatment.

D) An advance directive relates to current treatment, while a DNR order relates to future treatment.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Objective: 8

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You respond to a 67-year-old female who has fallen at home. On arrival the patient is conscious and alert, with no respiratory or cardiac compromise. She states she tripped and fell and now has pain in her left hip. She thinks she might have heard a "pop" as she hit the floor. She has her neighbor at her side and says it is all right if you leave—the neighbor can get her up and to her favorite chair. She's afraid she can't afford the ambulance and the hospital, and she is sure she is just feeling her age. You know that the ambulance is on its way and should arrive soon.

21) For you to care for this patient, you must get her consent for treatment and transport. If you treat this patient against her will, you have committed: A) a confidentiality violation.

B) a standard of care breach.

C) negligence.

D) battery.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Objective: 5 22) The patient requests that you leave, and she tells you that she will get help from her neighbor. She refuses to sign anything either giving or refusing consent. You know the ambulance will be there soon, and you consider leaving. What should you do?

A) Leave or be charged with battery.

B) Insist that she must sign the refusal-of-care document.

C) Tell her neighbor that the woman is irrational and not competent to consent.

D) Wait for the ambulance to arrive, while calmly explaining to the woman that it would be best to allow care.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Objective: 5 23) You consider the appropriate for the patient by asking yourself what another individual with your training would and should do under similar circumstances.

A) legal obligations B) ethical response C) standard of care D) treatment protocols Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19 Objective: 2

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24) After you talk with the patient, she decides to allow you to treat her injury and says that she will go in the ambulance to the hospital. This form of consent is known as: A) expressed consent.

B) uninformed consent.

C) implied consent.

D) minor's consent.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Objective: 4 25) Following the call, one of the neighbors stops you and asks what happened over at that house. You know you cannot speak with the neighbor concerning the patient's condition because it would breach: A) the standard of care.

B) customer service protocols.

C) patient confidentiality.

D) your values.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Objective: 11

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 3 Wellness and Safety of the Emergency Medical Responder 1) You are about to start a new job and are told that you must have a medical exam prior to employment to determine your: A) fitness to work.

B) baseline health status.

C) drug use.

D) health qualifications.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 34 Objective: 1 2) Which vaccine is required by OSHA for any employee who has a reasonable risk of being exposed to blood or other infectious materials?

A) Tuberculosis B) HIV C) Hepatitis B D) Pneumonia Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 34 Objective: 2 3) Standard precautions are specific steps taken to prevent exposure to: A) potentially infectious patients.

B) bodily fluids.

C) broken glass and metal shards.

D) heat or chemical burns.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35 Objective: 4 4) Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions include: A) Hepatitis A and B vaccinations.

B) special plastic tents for infectious patients.

C) CDC warnings by radio and television.

D) wearing personal protective equipment.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35 Objective: 5 5) Pathogens that are breathed into the lungs enter the body through which route of exposure?

A) Inhalation B) Ingestion C) Injection D) Absorption Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36 14 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Objective: 6 6) Which type of PPE must be worn every time you are assisting a patient?

A) Gloves B) Gown C) Face mask D) Eye protection Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 Objective: 7 7) After cleaning reusable equipment with soap and water to remove all visible blood, vomit, and other bodily fluids, you must clean it again with an appropriate: A) partner.

B) supervisor.

C) pathogen.

D) disinfectant.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 Objective: 8 8) While working with a TB patient with a wet cough, you discover that despite wearing appropriate PPE, some of the patient's sputum has splattered onto your face. You wash the area thoroughly with soap and water, and document the exposure on the appropriate form. What must you also remember to do?

A) Get a tuberculosis vaccine within seven days.

B) Place yourself in quarantine when you reach the hospital.

C) Schedule a follow-up medical evaluation.

D) Complete an advance directive form.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 Objective: 9 9) You have received a call that a woman has been injured in a fight outside a downtown bar.

When you arrive, you are careful to park the ambulance where it will not block traffic. A crowd has gathered and you notice , so you know that you must not attempt to provide care until law enforcement says you may enter the scene.

A) a police car in front of the bar B) several people are carrying weapons C) the bar still has customers D) the patient is in handcuffs Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 Objective: 10 10) You are called to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. Arriving at the scene, you notice a fluid draining from the underside of the truck. You use your binoculars to look on the placard on the back of the vehicle so that you can identify the material from your: 15 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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A) Physician's Desk Reference.

B) Emergency Response Guidebook.

C) Standard Operations Procedure Manual.

D) Emergency Medical Responder Manual.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 Objective: 11 11) A(n) is any emotional or physical demand that causes stress.

A) incident B) irritant C) stressor D) casualty Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 Objective: 12 12) After responding to the case of a small child who was severely abused and who later died at the hospital, you are feeling especially down and distracted, even weeks later. This is because: A) multiple-casualty incidents are very sad.

B) the stress of being an EMR is too much for you.

C) the child's guardian is likely to retaliate against you.

D) the stress of a critical incident can continue long after the event.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 Objective: 13 13) After an unusually busy month, you notice that your partner seems more irritable than is usual for her lately, and is drinking more than usual, too. These are both indications of and your partner may need some help.

A) stress B) depression C) anxiety D) drug addiction Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 46 Objective: 14 14) You respond quickly to a call but the patient is already dead when you arrive. The patient's brother becomes very angry with you, even though it is clear that the patient would have died even if you had arrived earlier. What should you do?

A) Apologize for not arriving in time to save the patient, because the brother is in denial.

B) Advise the brother to move out of the anger stage and into acceptance, since there is nothing to be done for the patient.

C) Remind the brother that you got there as fast as you could and that the patient was a hopeless case.

D) Remain tolerant and recognize that anger is part of the way people deal with death.

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Diff: 1 Page Ref: 46 Objective: 15 15) Certain lifestyle changes, such as associated with the EMR job.

A) regular exercise B) eating more chocolate C) enjoying a cocktail D) getting divorced Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Objective: 16

, can help you cope better with the stress

16) In a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD), teams of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meet with rescuers and health care providers who have been involved in a critical incident, usually within after the incident.

A) 1 to 2 hours B) a month C) 24 to 72 hours D) 5 to 10 days Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 Objective: 17 17) Which potentially fatal disease can be transmitted by needle sticks or blood contact, and for which no vaccine is available?

A) Hepatitis B B) Meningitis C) HIV/AIDS D) Tuberculosis Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 40 Objective: 8 18) Which U.S. government agency is charged with identifying, preventing, and controlling diseases and other health problems?

A) CDC B) FDA C) HHS D) CISM Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

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You are caring for a 6-year-old female whom the family says has been very sick since last night.

She had a high fever, but they thought it was just the flu. Today the child became worse and complained of her neck hurting and being stiff. The child is now unresponsive and is not breathing. You have been ventilating her with a bag-valve device attached to oxygen until ALS arrives and takes over care and transports.

19) Your first responsibility on this call should be to: A) provide an airway for the child.

B) protect yourself and your partner.

C) provide support to the family.

D) notify advanced care.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 Objective: 11 20) Your patient may have a contagious disease that will require you to follow up with further treatment if exposed. You consider that the patient's symptoms are consistent with: A) HIV/AIDS. B) tuberculosis.

C) meningitis.

D) hepatitis C. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 40 Objective: 8 21) The best protection from this disease is to use all the common personal protective equipment you have because this disease is contracted through: A) blood.

B) respiratory secretions.

C) needle sticks.

D) fecal material.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 40 Objective: 8 22) Early on in the call, the child coughed directly into your face. You were not wearing eye protection and think there might have been an exposure. You should: A) wash with soap and water, and flush your eyes with clean water for 20 minutes.

B) do nothing; this patient is not contagious.

C) leave the patient and immediately go to the hospital.

D) wash your face with disinfectant solution.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 Objective: 9 23) You recognize that this call has the potential to cause you stress. Signs of stress include all of the following EXCEPT: A) bargaining.

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B) nausea.

C) headaches.

D) indecisiveness.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 46 Objective: 14

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 4 Introduction to Medical Terminology, Human Anatomy, and Lifespan Development 1) Which of the following medical terms is a root word meaning "of the brain"?

A) Col B) Encephal C) Pneum D) Hepat Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 53 Objective: 2 2) Which of the following medical terms means rapid?

A) Brady B) Febrile C) Apnea D) Tachy Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 54 Objective: 2 3) A body that is standing upright, facing forward, with arms down at the side and palms turned forward is in the position.

A) supine B) anterior C) anatomical D) recovery Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Objective: 3 4) Which body cavity houses the heart and lungs?

A) Cranial B) Thoracic C) Abdominal D) Pelvic Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 Objective: 4

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5) You have a call for a 47-year-old patient with pain in the lower right side of her abdomen.

Because of the location of her pain, you suspect the problem is her: A) pancreas.

B) appendix.

C) spleen.

D) stomach.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61 Objective: 5 6) Which of the following is located outside of the chest cavity?

A) Pharynx B) Trachea C) Alveoli D) Left main bronchus Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 62 Objective: 6 7) carry blood away from the heart and can change diameter as necessary.

A) Veins B) Bronchioles C) Capillaries D) Arteries Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 63 Objective: 7 8) A patient complains of falling and has a deformity to the lower leg near the ankle. This is most likely to be an injury to the: A) circulatory system.

B) nervous system.

C) musculoskeletal system.

D) endocrine system.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 66 Objective: 8 9) The nervous system includes the brain and the spinal cord.

A) central B) autonomic C) sympathetic D) peripheral Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Objective: 9 21 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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10) The salivary glands are part of which bodily system?

A) Reproductive B) Endocrine C) Digestive D) Integumentary Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 72 Objective: 10 11) The patient tells you that she is 11 weeks pregnant. At this point of development, she is carrying a(n): A) zygote.

B) embryo.

C) neonate.

D) fetus.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Objective: 11 12) Waste in the urinary system moves from the kidneys to the bladder by way of a pair of small structures called: A) ureters.

B) fallopian tubes.

C) testes.

D) epididymis.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 75 Objective: 12 13) The largest organ of the body—covering on average more than 22 square feet—is the: A) brain.

B) skin.

C) intestine.

D) endocrine system.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 75 Objective: 13 14) Your patient has a tumor on his thyroid, which is part of the A) endocrine B) integumentary C) cardiovascular D) digestive Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 75 Objective: 14 22 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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system.

15) Your patient is a 2-year-old girl. In order to determine the size of equipment to use, you must calculate: A) her exact age in weeks.

B) her height in centimeters.

C) her height in inches.

D) her weight in kilograms.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 79 Objective: 15 16) Your patient is a 14-year-old boy who has broken his arm skateboarding down a flight of stairs. Which of the following is true of adolescent patients?

A) They are likely to take what you say literally.

B) Separation from their parents can cause anxiety.

C) Senses like vision, hearing, and small may be reduced.

D) Protecting their privacy and modesty may help gain their trust.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 81 Objective: 15 17) The term "medial" is defined as: A) laboratory results that are close to average.

B) an imaginary vertical line dividing the body into right and left.

C) toward the midline of the body.

D) toward the head.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 Objective: 1 18) Your patient fell off her bicycle while riding along a rural road. When you arrive, she is lying supine (which means ) in the weeds by the side of the road.

A) on her front B) on her back C) on her left side D) on her right side Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 Objective: 1

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19) Your patient is a 67-year-old woman who is very thin. She fell off a curb in the parking lot as she was leaving her dentist's office, and now she cannot stand up. Based on her age and condition, you estimate that she may have: A) been drinking alcohol.

B) low blood sugar.

C) broken a hip.

D) had a heart attack.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Objective: 8 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 47-year-old male was walking across the street when he was struck by an oncoming car. You find him conscious and alert. Your partner has taken spinal restriction, and you ensure that he has no compromise to the airway or circulation. He complains of abdominal pain, back pain, and pain in his left leg. You explain that the ambulance is on the way, and you begin a more detailed exam.

20) The patient was found lying face down. This is the A) supine B) prone C) lateral D) semi-Fowler's Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 Objective: 1

position.

21) The patient indicates considerable pain over the upper outer portion of the left side of his abdomen. You describe this pain as being in the _ of the patient's body.

A) LLQ B) RUQ C) RLQ D) LUQ Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 Objective: 5

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22) Pain to the abdomen in the upper left outer side of the abdomen is of concern because the could be injured and cause considerable internal bleeding.

A) stomach B) liver C) spleen D) gallbladder Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 Objective: 5 23) When discussing the pain in the back, you also check to see if the patient has feeling and movement in the extremities. You are checking to see if there is injury to the system.

A) nervous B) circulatory C) endocrine D) digestive Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Objective: 9 24) When assessing the patient's injured leg, you find a small cut on the inside of the leg, just below the knee. This injury can be described as being and to the knee.

A) proximal/medial B) distal/lateral C) distal/medial D) proximal/lateral Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 Objective: 1 25) This patient's back pain makes you suspicious of injury to the kidneys. The kidneys are contained: A) within the abdominal cavity.

B) behind the abdominal cavity.

C) within the pelvic cavity.

D) behind the thoracic cavity.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 Objective: 5

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 5 Introduction to Pathophysiology 1) The body process in which an adequate supply of oxygen converts glucose into energy is called: A) anaerobic metabolism.

B) aerobic metabolism.

C) metabolic acidosis.

D) metabolic compromise.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Objective: 1 2) Understanding is important for an EMR because knowing how the body's responses as well as the signs and symptoms that indicate something is wrong will help you identify issues promptly and provide better care.

A) perfusion B) electrolyte imbalance C) pathophysiology D) medicine Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Objective: 2 3) The regular delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the cell is called: A) perfusion.

B) hypotension.

C) sepsis.

D) homeostasis.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Objective: 3 4) An 85-year-old man complains of chest pain. He has a fast heart rate and a low blood pressure. His skin is pale, cool, and sweaty, and he feels anxious. This patient is showing signs and symptoms of: A) bradycardia.

B) hyperglycemia.

C) meningitis.

D) shock.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Objective: 3

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5) The body maintains _ in every cell of the body by the regular delivery of oxygen and nutrients and removal of waste products.

A) hypoperfusion B) homeostasis C) aerobic metabolism D) perfusion Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 Objective: 4 6) Ambient air contains what percentage of oxygen?

A) 21% B) 37% C) 68% D) 85% Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Objective: 4 7) Which of the following is a waste product that must be removed from the body?

A) Oxygen B) Ambient air C) Carbon dioxide D) Pathophysiology Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 86 Objective: 5 8) When the diaphragm contracts and the chest expands, the pressure inside the chest: A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) stays the same.

D) increases, then rapidly decreases.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Objective: 6 9) What is the difference between aerobic metabolism and anaerobic metabolism?

A) Aerobic metabolism is abnormal and uses oxygen to metabolize glucose.

B) Anaerobic metabolism is abnormal and uses oxygen to metabolize glucose.

C) Aerobic metabolism is normal and uses oxygen to metabolize glucose.

D) Anaerobic metabolism is normal and uses oxygen to metabolize glucose.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Objective: 6

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10) One of an EMR's most important jobs is to maintain a patent airway. Which of the following is the most common form of obstruction in the lower airway?

A) Loss of muscle control in the pharynx B) Bronchoconstriction C) Foreign bodies D) Allergic reaction Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Objective: 7 11) A occurs when bleeding inside the chest that causes the lung to collapse away from the chest wall.

A) pneumothorax B) pleural decompression C) hemothorax D) pulmonary edema Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89 Objective: 7 12) Arteries carry blood away from the heart, while veins carry to the heart.

A) deoxygenated/oxygenated B) whole/plasma C) hypoglycemic/hyperglycemic D) oxygenated/deoxygenated Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Objective: 8

blood back

13) The tiny blood vessels that allow substances to move in and out of the blood stream are called: A) aortas.

B) capillaries.

C) bronchioles.

D) arterioles.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 90 Objective: 8

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14) Which of the following conditions is associated with hypertension?

A) Sepsis B) Stroke C) Anaphylaxis D) Addison's disease Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 8 15) A patient with a rapid heart rate may have decreased cardiac output because: A) the ventricles do not have enough time to refill with blood, so stroke volume decreases.

B) the heart muscles become tired and are unable to pump as much blood.

C) the ventricles are filled with too much blood, so stroke volume increases.

D) the heart muscles become agitated and pump an excessive amount of blood.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 8 16) What are the two ways that the heart can fail?

A) Heart attack or stroke B) Sympathetic failure or parasympathetic failure C) Mechanical failure or electrical failure D) Bradycardia or tachycardia Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 9 17) Your patient is a 22-year-old man who has been stabbed in the chest. Which of the following is an immediate concern for this patient?

A) Mechanical heart failure B) Parasympathetic reaction C) Cardiac output D) Electrical heart failure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 Objective: 9 18) What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart in cases of hypoperfusion?

A) It slows the speed and decreases the strength of contractions.

B) It makes the heart less responsive to medication.

C) It makes the heart more likely to fail.

D) It increases the speed and strength of contractions.

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19) Children compensate for shock differently from adults. Which one of the following signs may indicate shock in a pediatric patient?

A) Hypertension B) Bradycardia C) Tachycardia D) Vomiting Answer: C Diff: 4 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10 20) A patient in shock has pale, cool, and sweaty skin. These skin signs are likely caused by: A) the patient's low blood pressure.

B) the sympathetic nervous system response.

C) low blood sugar.

D) a rainy environment.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 74-year-old woman feels weak and dizzy, has pale and sweaty skin, and has a fast and weak pulse.

21) Based on this patient's signs and symptoms, you should assume she has a problem with which body system?

A) Endocrine B) Renal C) Cardiovascular D) Musculoskeletal Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10 22) The fast and weak pulse of this patient causes you to suspect that her cardiac output has: A) increased.

B) decreased.

C) not been affected.

D) stopped.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10

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23) The dizziness this patient feels when standing might be caused by: A) poor perfusion to the brain when standing.

B) lower airway obstruction.

C) an asthma attack.

D) renal failure.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10 24) The patient's pale skin and sweating are the result of a constriction and narrowing of blood vessels known as: A) bradycardia.

B) hyperglycemia.

C) hyperperfusion.

D) compensation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Objective: 10

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 6 Principles of Lifting, Moving, and Positioning of Patients 1) The safe lifting technique that uses the large muscles in your legs and minimizes the risk of injury is called the: A) carry lift.

B) spot lift.

C) power lift.

D) straight lift.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 2 2) You are moving a stable patient down a staircase so you are using a stair chair. It is important to have someone "spot" you by when you are walking backwards down the stairs.

A) placing a hand on your back to help guide and steady you B) calling out any tripping hazards you are approaching C) carrying the other side of the stair chair D) placing the stair chair on their back Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 3 3) To minimize the chance of injury, it is important to avoid patient.

A) twisting your body B) bending your knees C) holding the weight close to your body D) lifting with your knees Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 4

when you lift your

4) Before starting to lift the patient, you and your partner should be sure to communicate by: A) talking to the patient calmly.

B) staying outside the patient's range of motion.

C) establishing eye contact.

D) lifting with your knees.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 96 Objective: 5

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5) Which of the following is a scenario in which you can use a standard move?

A) The patient is in immediate danger from oncoming traffic.

B) You cannot reach the patient to check for a patent airway.

C) The patient is blocking access to another patient with worse injuries.

D) The patient is stable but in an uncomfortable position that is aggravating her injury.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 6 6) Your patient must be removed immediately using a blanket drag. What must you be careful to do when using this method?

A) Avoid pulling on the patient's clothing B) Avoid dragging the patient sideways C) Pull along the short axis of the body D) Pull the patient by both legs Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 99 Objective: 6 7) Which statement about emergent moves is correct?

A) Emergent moves should occur after assessing the ABCs. B) Emergent moves should be directed by law enforcement.

C) Emergent moves are only used when the patient is in immediate danger.

D) Emergent moves are used only for victims of cardiac arrest.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 6 8) Which type of stretcher minimizes the risk of back injury for the EMR? A) Single-operator stretcher B) Dual-operator stretcher C) Bariatric stretcher D) Electric/pneumatic-lift stretcher Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Objective: 7 9) Which type of stretcher is used in rescue situations to transport patients over rough terrain?

A) Portable stretcher B) Flexible stretcher C) Combi-board stretcher D) Basket stretcher Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 106 Objective: 7

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10) You have an unresponsive patient with a suspected spinal injury. This is a situation that calls for the use of a: A) long spine board.

B) stair chair.

C) basket stretcher.

D) single-operator stretcher Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 108 Objective: 7 11) Your patient is unconscious and lying on her bed. You do not suspect a spinal injury but want to be sure her airway stays open and clear. The best position in which to transport this patient is the: A) recovery position.

B) semi-Fowler's position.

C) shock position.

D) standard position.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 8 12) The recovery position is also called the: A) Fowler's position.

B) lateral recumbent position.

C) shock position.

D) semi-Fowler's position.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 8 13) Which of the following describes the shock position?

A) Supine with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches B) Sitting upright at 90 degree angle C) Between supine and sitting, reclined at 45 degree angle D) Lying on left side Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 9

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14) You respond to the scene of a vehicle accident and find a female patient on the ground. She is bleeding from her head, talking incomprehensibly, and trying to fight off assistance. You should: A) use the stair chair to get her to the ambulance.

B) mechanically restrain the patient so that she cannot hurt herself or anyone else.

C) instruct the patient to lie flat on the ground so you can perform a direct lift.

D) use a three-man carry to get her onto your gurney.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 10 15) If you must restrain a patient, it is important to have A) dual-person stretcher B) wheeler stretcher C) law enforcement D) long spine board Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 10

with you.

16) Which of the following is best for EMRs to use with patients who require mechanical restraints?

A) Handcuffs B) Plastic zip ties C) Cervical collar D) Gauze roll Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Objective: 11 17) You will need assistance to restrain a patient. Participants should approach the patient all at once, with each one assigned to a particular limb. How many people are required to restrain a patient?

A) Four B) Two C) Five D) Eight Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Objective: 12

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18) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding restraining a patient?

A) Secure the patient face down.

B) Approach the patient one at a time.

C) Secure all limbs with whatever material is closest.

D) Talk to the patient calmly during the restraining process.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Objective: 12 19) You are attempting to transport a 57-year-old man to the hospital for observation. He is combative and must be restrained. What is the most serious complication that you must be sure to avoid when restraining this patient?

A) Shock position B) Positional asphyxia C) Neurologic complaint D) Blunt trauma from intoxication Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Objective: 13 20) Which position can result in restraint asphyxia and the potential death of the patient?

A) Supine B) Lateral C) Prone D) Seat Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Objective: 13 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You have been called to attend to a patient complaining of chest pain on the third floor of a local apartment complex. The patient has a history of angina and wants to be transported to the hospital. After assessment and beginning treatment, you and your partner formulate a plan for taking the patient down to the unit.

21) You and your partner will use a nonemergency move to get the patient from the third floor to the first floor because: A) there is no immediate threat to the patient's life.

B) your patient may be in immediate danger.

C) lifesaving care cannot be provided otherwise.

D) the patient has a life-threatening condition.

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22) To lift and carry the patient, you and your partner want to use appropriate body mechanics and lifting techniques to prevent any injury to yourselves. All of the following are appropriate techniques for safe moving and lifting EXCEPT: A) using your legs, not your back to do the lifting.

B) positioning your feet shoulder width apart.

C) never twisting or making moves other than the lift.

D) carrying the weight away from your body.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Objective: 2 23) The angina patient states that he will walk down two flights of stairs to your vehicle. You know that walking may be harmful for the patient's condition. Your training has told you that the best way to carry the patient down the stairs is to: A) perform the extremity carry.

B) use the stair chair.

C) do a direct carry.

D) use a long backboard.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 107 Objective: 7 24) After getting the angina patient downstairs and to the cot, the best position for the patient to be transported to the emergency department is the position.

A) prone B) recovery C) shock D) semi-Fowler's Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 Objective: 9

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 7 Principles of Effective Communication 1) The term refers to communication using the movements and attitudes of the body.

A) sign language B) body language C) verbal communication D) visual communication Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 118 Objective: 1 2) communication employs signs, symbols, and designs.

A) Visual B) Written C) Verbal D) Bodily Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 118 Objective: 2 3) For an act of communication to take place, the .

A) receptor/transmitter B) talker/listener C) writer/reader D) sender/receiver Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 119 Objective: 3

must transmit a message to the

4) The individual for whom a message is intended is called the: A) receptor.

B) transmitter.

C) receiver.

D) sender.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 119 Objective: 1

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5) When you talk to another person, only about 7% of your message is transmitted through the words you use. What percentage is transmitted through body language such as gestures and expression?

A) 55% B) 38% C) 24% D) 10% Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 119 Objective: 3 6) An individual's attitudes and beliefs or like and dislike for the sender or receiver can interfere with the message being communicated, creating a(n) barrier to communication.

A) emotional B) interpersonal C) physical D) perceptual Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 120 Objective: 4 7) Someone has called 911 for assistance, but the telephone connection is so poor that dispatch cannot hear what they are saying. This is a(n) barrier to communication.

A) physical B) perceptual C) emotional D) language Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 Objective: 4 8) You are at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The patient is telling you what happened.

Active listening with this patient would include: A) encouraging the patient to keep his story brief.

B) using professional language and jargon.

C) asking clarifying questions.

D) speaking slowly and loudly.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 120 Objective: 5

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9) One of the surprising rules of effective communication is that you must: A) remain passive and respectful.

B) speak quickly.

C) accept the reality of miscommunication.

D) avoid body language.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Objective: 5 10) You and your fellow Emergency Medical Responders have a discussion regarding the division of cleaning duties at your station. This would be called: A) nonverbal communication.

B) effective communication.

C) interpersonal communication.

D) therapeutic communication.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Objective: 6 11) The three objectives of therapeutic communication include all of the following EXCEPT: A) collecting information.

B) assessing behavior.

C) medical terminology.

D) educating.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Objective: 6 12) Therapeutic communication can be defined as the communication process that focuses on advancing the physical and emotional well-being of a patient.

A) radio B) face-to-face C) online D) research Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Objective: 6 13) For therapeutic communication to be successful when interviewing a patient, the patient must: A) be urged to cooperate.

B) speak English.

C) avoid perceptual barriers.

D) trust you.

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14) As an EMR, what are you attempting to learn by interviewing the patient?

A) Who was at fault for the accident B) The patient's medical history C) The patient's perceptions and attitudes D) Whether the patient is alert and responsive Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Objective: 7 15) Which of the following will help you establish a good rapport with a patient during the interview process?

A) Obtain the patient's preferred name early, and use it frequently during your interview.

B) Ask for the patient's name and level of training.

C) Stand at attention to convey a sense of professionalism.

D) Ask several questions at once to help the patient get his/her story in order.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 Objective: 7 16) You are interviewing a 98-year-old female with chest pain. All of the following are strategies for communicating with a geriatric patient EXCEPT: A) speaking slowly and clearly.

B) asking a family member for information if the patient seems confused.

C) calling the patient's physician for information.

D) being patient and allowing ample time for questions to be answered.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Objective: 8 17) When the paramedics arrive on the scene, you give them an overview of the patient's information and summarize the care you provided. This is called: A) nonverbal communication.

B) transfer of care.

C) therapeutic communication.

D) body language.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 124 Objective: 9

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18) When talking to the dispatch center on your radio, the communication goes through a highpowered radio called the that can transmit over a wide area.

A) terminal radio B) base station radio C) portable radio D) receiver radio Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Objective: 10 19) A fixed antenna that is used to boost a radio signal is called the: A) repeater.

B) base station.

C) receiver.

D) transfer radio.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Objective: 10 20) When communicating over the radio, EMS systems require the use of: A) specialized 10 codes.

B) Morse code.

C) clear and concise language.

D) both English and Spanish.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 126 Objective: 11 21) When making a radio call to the dispatch center, what is the first thing the EMR should say?

A) The radio identifier of the resource you are calling B) Your name and ID number C) Your location D) The patient's name and condition Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Objective: 11

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 65-year-old woman from Ecuador. She speaks some English, but not much. She points to her abdomen and says something that you do not understand. Then she begins to cry.

Her daughter arrives and asks you what is going on.

22) What is the best thing you can do to overcome the communication barrier with this patient?

A) Explain to the daughter that there is a communication barrier and that the hospital will provide a translator when you get there.

B) Ask the daughter to step back and stay out of the way.

C) Speak more slowly and loudly to the patient.

D) Ask her daughter to translate what the patient is saying.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Objective: 8 23) You radio to the hospital that you are bringing in a patient with pain in the lower right quadrant of her abdomen. You should do all of the following EXCEPT: A) identify yourself.

B) wait for a break in the traffic before speaking.

C) tell the patient to speak over the radio to give her symptoms.

D) use your portable radio.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Objective: 11 24) You suspect the patient's appendix is about to burst. When you do the transfer of care to the ambulance crew, you may have to skip providing because the patient must be transported immediately.

A) the patient's name and age B) vital signs C) chief complaint D) a complete report of care Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 124 Objective: 9

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 8 Principles of Effective Documentation 1) The written documentation of a patient encounter is called a(n): A) responder report.

B) health care report.

C) insurance report.

D) patient care report.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 1 2) is defined as technology such as laptop computers, electronic tablets, and cell phones and their use to document patient condition and care.

A) Online reporting B) Electronic documentation C) Technology response D) Traditional PDR Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 1 3) You are asked to give testimony in court about the care you gave to a patient. The attorney may ask you about items in your run report because the report: A) is a legal document.

B) shows continuity of care.

C) is educational.

D) provides statistical data.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2 4) The report from an unusual or challenging call may be used as an example of proper or improper documentation in training new EMRs. This is because patient care reports serve a(n) function.

A) continuity of care B) administrative C) educational D) legal Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2

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5) Your engine is called for a car accident. When you arrive on the scene, you see an unresponsive patient. You call for an ALS ambulance. As they assume patient care, you give them all the information so the ALS ambulance can continue with effective treatments. This is called: A) the minimum data set.

B) a radio report.

C) continuity of care.

D) the patient care report.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 4 6) When you fill in a patient report, note the time using the A) civilian B) 24-hour C) metric D) 12-hour Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2

time standard.

7) All patient information is private and confidential and may not be shared with anyone except the chain of direct patient care. What is the one exception to this rule?

A) Adult children requesting information on geriatric parents B) Request from a witness who is concerned about the patient C) Request from a journalist reporting on the incident D) Request from law enforcement in certain circumstances Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2 8) Information on a patient care report that includes details about the call itself is called the: A) 911 call.

B) run data.

C) shift report.

D) chief complaint.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 132 Objective: 3

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9) When you write a patient care report, which of the following should be included in the Patient Data section?

A) Scene location B) Sending facility C) Mechanism of injury D) Diagnosis Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 132 Objective: 3 10) Your report states "The patient was leaning too far out of the window and may have been pushed." Your supervisor notes that this statement is not: A) accurate.

B) subjective.

C) complete.

D) objective.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 3 11) Which of the following would be considered subjective information in terms of the patient care report?

A) Symptoms B) Pulse rate C) Blood pressure D) Bruising Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 3 12) The minimum data set is the smallest amount of information required by patient, particularly for 911 calls.

A) the State Board of Health B) the Emergency Responders Union C) the American Medical Association D) the U.S. Department of Transportation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 4

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for each

13) Which of the following must be included in the minimum data set?

A) Qualifications of all EMRs attending the scene B) Complete patient interview C) Time of arrival at the patient's location D) Narrative including witness statements Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 4 14) The narrative portion of the patient care report is where you tell the story of the patient, the chief complaint, and the care provided up to the point of transfer. Because this section is in narrative format, it is important to: A) include subjective observations omitted elsewhere.

B) describe the patient's symptoms in his/her own words.

C) use nonstandard abbreviations.

D) be clear, concise, and objective.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 4 15) You are writing a patient care report. You write 18 for the respiration and it should have been 16. The best way to correct this is to , write your initials, then write the correct number A) cover the error with correction fluid B) draw a single line through the error C) erase the error D) write the correct number over the incorrect number Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 5 16) What is the typical way to correct an error on an electronic patient care report?

A) Submit an electronic addendum to the original report B) Cross out the error and write the correction next to it C) Cover the error with correction fluid and write the correction on top of it D) Electronic reports cannot be corrected.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 5

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17) Which of the following represents the most traditional documentation tool used by Emergency Medical Responders?

A) Computer-scan forms B) Paper forms C) Laptop/tablet computer D) Smartphone app Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 6 18) Which of the following patient report form methods uses a fill-in-the-bubble format?

A) Computer-scan forms B) Paper forms C) Laptop/tablet computer D) Smartphone app Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 6 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 28-year-old man who has overdosed on heroin. When you arrive on the scene, you administer naloxone and call for the ambulance service to transport him to the hospital for further treatment.

19) To document the details of the call, the patient, and the care you provided, you will need to: A) fill out a "run report."

B) radio your prehospital care report to dispatch.

C) provide no more than the minimum data set.

D) follow the ambulance to the hospital for continuity of care.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2 20) It is very important to note the patient's vital signs as well as the administration of naloxone in order to ensure: A) confidential documentation.

B) continuity of care.

C) the minimum data set.

D) electronic documentation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2

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21) While the patient is being loaded into the ambulance, a police officer says she'll be requesting a copy of your report. You know that all patient information must be considered private and confidential. This patient's medical information: A) may not be shared with anyone outside the chain of direct patient care.

B) can only be released with a court order from a federal judge.

C) can be provided to law enforcement if the patient signs a release.

D) may be requested by law enforcement under certain conditions.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 Objective: 2 22) Which of the following information should NOT be recorded in the patient care report?

A) Patient's blood pressure was 134/83 mmHg. B) Patient's heart rate was 123 bpm.

C) Patient is a drug addict.

D) Patient was placed on high flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 Objective: 4 23) To fill out the appropriate patient care report form used by your agency, you complete the form by hand neatly so that it can be read by the scanner.

A) paper B) fill-in-the-bubble C) smartphone D) tablet Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 134 Objective: 6

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 9 Principles of Airway Management and Ventilation 1) The term refers to the process where air and oxygen are brought into the body and carbon dioxide is removed.

A) hypoxia B) respiratory compromise C) apnea D) ventilation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 139 Objective: 2 2) Firefighters have pulled a woman out of a burning building. She is not burned but she has been exposed to a lot of smoke, which means she is at risk for: A) apnea.

B) cardiac arrest.

C) respiratory compromise.

D) delayed burns.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 140 Objective: 4 3) Normal air is approximately A) 21%/78% B) 50%/50% C) 95%/5% D) 1%/99% Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 139 Objective: 3

oxygen and

nitrogen.

4) Clinical death occurs when both heartbeat and ventilation stop. This can be reversed within if the patient receives CPR. A) 10 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 60 minutes.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 140 Objective: 5

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5) Which part of the respiratory system is a leaf-shaped structure that covers the opening of the larynx upon swallowing?

A) Pharynx B) Epiglottis C) Trachea D) Alveoli Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 141 Objective: 2 6) Your patient has a broken leg. He is awake and talking normally to bystanders. When you see this, you have already assessed that he has: A) respiratory compromise.

B) tidal volume.

C) only a few minutes to live.

D) a patent airway.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 143 Objective: 6 7) Your patient is an elderly woman who reports she is having trouble breathing. You notice that her breathing pattern is slow, shallow, and gasping. Recognizing these signs of , you suspect she may have had a heart attack.

A) cyanosis B) accessory musculature C) agonal respirations D) tidal volume Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 143 Objective: 7 8) Your patient is unresponsive. To assess his breathing, you listen and feel for signs of breathing to assess whether he has adequate: A) tidal volume.

B) dyspnea.

C) cyanosis.

D) agonal respirations.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 143 Objective: 7

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9) Positive pressure ventilation uses external pressure to: A) shift the patient's position so breathing is not obstructed.

B) open the airway of a patient with an airway obstruction.

C) open the airway of a patient with no suspected neck or spine injury.

D) force air into the patient's lungs.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Objective: 8 10) Your patient has been thrown from a vehicle during an accident. You need to ensure a patent airway but are concerned that the patient may have a spine injury. Which method do you use?

A) Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver B) Jaw-thrust maneuver C) Positive pressure ventilation D) Tracheostomy Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Objective: 9 11) When performing the jaw-thrust maneuver, you should position yourself: A) at the patient's left side.

B) at the patient's right side.

C) at the top of the patient's head.

D) straddling the patient's abdomen.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145 Objective: 9 12) When using a pocket face mask, be sure to choose one that: A) fits your face.

B) fits the patient.

C) has a two-way valve.

D) is small enough to attach to a key ring.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 146 Objective: 10 13) Your patient requires mouth-to-mask ventilations. You place the mask over her face, with your thumbs and fingers forming a C shape on each side of the cone. You take a normal breath and breathe into the one-way valve over _ for each breath.

A) two seconds B) 30 seconds C) one second D) half a second Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 146 Objective: 10 52 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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14) How can you tell if your ventilation efforts are successful?

A) The patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation.

B) The patient will regain consciousness.

C) The patient's skin color will become bluer.

D) You will be able to feel the patient's pulse.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Objective: 11 15) If you are alone and your patient is a child or infant, provide rescue support for then call 911 for assistance.

A) 2 minutes B) 6 minutes C) 12 minutes D) 20 minutes Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Objective: 11 16) Which of the following is a common problem with the mouth-to-barrier ventilation technique?

A) Providing breaths over a full second B) Failing to form a tight seal over the face shield opening C) Pinching the patient's nose completely closed D) Tilting the patient's head back Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Objective: 11 17) Which of the following is true of pediatric patients compared to adult patients?

A) The trachea is larger in proportion to the body.

B) Obstruction can be caused by hypoextension.

C) They depend less on the diaphragm for breathing.

D) Gastric distension is more common.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 148 Objective: 12

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,

18) Your patient has a stoma and requires ventilation. You can attach a stoma tube.

A) bag-mask device B) pocket face mask C) barrier shield D) HEPA filter Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 149 Objective: 12 19) Obstruction by A) dentures B) stomach contents C) the tongue D) food Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 151 Objective: 14

directly to the

is the most common anatomical airway obstruction.

20) Which of the following causes of airway obstruction may be impossible for the EMR to relieve?

A) Tongue in pharynx B) Food blockage C) Vomit D) Tissue damage Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 151 Objective: 13 21) Your patient is making a high-pitched sound as she breathes in. You recognize the sign of a partial airway obstruction caused by a swelling in the larynx.

A) wheezing B) tinnitus C) laryngectomy D) stridor Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 151 Objective: 15

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as

SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You and your partner decide to stop at the local restaurant to have lunch. A family sitting across from you seems to be having fun while joking with the children. All of a sudden you hear a shriek and see the mother lifting the child from the high chair. The mother screams, "My baby can't breathe." The 11-month-old boy is conscious and not making any noises. His eyes are wide open, and his skin is turning blue around the lips.

22) An 11-month-old boy is conscious and not making any noises. His eyes are wide open, and his skin is turning blue around the lips. You suspect the child has: A) a complete airway obstruction.

B) experienced a seizure.

C) a mild airway obstruction.

D) cardiac arrest.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 152 Objective: 16 23) Which of the following would you perform on a conscious infant who has a complete airway obstruction?

A) Abdominal thrusts B) Blind finger sweep C) Back blows and chest thrusts D) Upside position and shakes Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 152 Objective: 16

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You and your partner are responding to a patient who passed out in a store. Your patient is a 21year-old male who stated to his friend that he was feeling light-headed. Upon arrival you find your patient on the floor. He has a pulse but is not breathing.

24) The patient is unresponsive and does not appear to have a gag reflex. Paying careful attention, you perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and insert the right size through the patient's mouth and into his throat.

A) nasal cannula B) simple mask C) oropharyngeal airway D) nasopharyngeal airway Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 157 Objective: 17 25) After placing an airway down the throat of a young adult male patient who has passed out in a store. While suctioning the patient you notice he has a gag reflex after all. Which of the following is the best choice for an airway adjunct?

A) Soft airway B) Bag-valve mask C) Oropharyngeal airway D) Nasopharyngeal airway Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 157 Objective: 18 26) Your patient has vomited and has fluid in his mouth. You should suction for no more than: A) 5 seconds.

B) 10 seconds.

C) 15 seconds.

D) 20 seconds.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Objective: 19

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27) You are going to place a nasopharyngeal airway in a young adult male patient. To determine which size airway you should use, you measure the patient from the to the .

A) tip of the forehead / tip of the nose B) tip of the nose / ear lobe C) lips / jaw D) jaw / ear lobe Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165 Objective: 20

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 10 Principles of Oxygen Therapy 1) Supplemental oxygen is stored at 100%, but that is not the concentration found in normal air.

The mix of oxygen and room air given to patients is, therefore, somewhere between: A) 16% and 50%.

B) 21% and 100%.

C) 50% and 75%.

D) 1% and 21%.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 171 Objective: 2 2) Which of the following is NOT a common indication for oxygen administration?

A) Abdominal pain B) Altered mental status C) Significant mechanism of injury D) Abnormal vital signs Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 171 Objective: 3 3) The Emergency Medical Responder is using a D cylinder, which contains about liters of oxygen.

A) 640 B) 425 C) 680 D) 450 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 173 Objective: 4 4) You check the pressure gauge on the E cylinder of oxygen and see that it is half full. That means the cylinder is at _ psi.

A) 2,500 B) 2,000 C) 1,500 D) 1,000 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 173 Objective: 4

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5) When working with oxygen cylinders, be sure to avoid letting oxygen and oil come into contact with each other. This could cause: A) a loss of pressure.

B) an explosion.

C) lowered oxygen percentage.

D) a conversion factor.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 172 Objective: 5 6) When working with high-pressure cylinders, it is important to keep safe usage in mind, such as: A) use tape to label cylinders.

B) store reserve oxygen cylinders in a warm, ventilated room.

C) tighten all valves and connections hand-tight only.

D) have aluminum cylinders hydrostatically tested every 10 years.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 Objective: 6 7) Placing tape on oxygen cylinders can: A) help you distinguish between different types of cylinders.

B) maintain O ring quality.

C) cause a fire if oxygen reacts with the adhesive.

D) prevent the cylinder from igniting.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 Objective: 6 8) An important function of the oxygen regulator on a cylinder is to control the delivery of oxygen with the , an adjustable dial that controls the specific flow of oxygen to the patient.

A) pressure gauge B) concentration supplementer C) saturation meter D) liter flow valve Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Objective: 7

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9) When administering oxygen to a patient via a nasal cannula, the maximum LPM flow is: A) 10 LPM. B) 2 LPM. C) 4 LPM. D) 6 LPM. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Objective: 8 10) A patient receiving 2 LPM of oxygen via nasal cannula is receiving oxygen.

A) 25 B) 29 C) 41 D) 45 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Objective: 8

percent

11) A patient who is not breathing should receive oxygen via: A) nasal cannula.

B) Venturi mask.

C) bag-valve mask.

D) nonrebreather face mask.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Objective: 9 12) A patient who will not tolerate oxygen by mask or cannula might benefit from: A) blow-by oxygen.

B) positive pressure ventilation.

C) no supplemental oxygen.

D) a smaller face mask.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Objective: 9 13) To prevent oxygen bottles from being filled with a gas other than oxygen, the bottles are: A) painted forest green.

B) a standard 5 1/2 inches in diameter.

C) filled using the PIN index safety system.

D) humidified.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 175 Objective: 7

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14) Which of the following is the gasket used to seal a regulator to the oxygen cylinder?

A) B ring B) O ring C) C ring D) D ring Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 175 Objective: 1 15) The purpose of humidifying oxygen is: A) to increase the pressure in the oxygen cylinder.

B) to avoid drying out the patient's mucous membranes and upper airway passages.

C) to prevent damage to thin and fragile skin on the face of geriatric patients.

D) to lubricate the oxygen so it flows better through the cannula tubes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Objective: 7 16) To deliver 30% oxygen to an alert patient in moderate distress, the EMR would use a(n): A) nonrebreather mask.

B) reservoir bag.

C) E cylinder.

D) nasal cannula.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Objective: 8 17) Which of the following describes the parts of a nonrebreather mask?

A) Nasal cannula, two-way valve B) Venturi mask, E cylinder, humidifier C) Demand valve, reservoir bag D) Face mask, one-way valve, reservoir bag Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Objective: 9 18) Your patient is not breathing. The best way for you to provide oxygen through a bag mask is to have a: A) C ring B) partner.

C) blow-by delivery system.

D) nasal cannula as a backup.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Objective: 9

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19) To confirm the integrity of the cylinder and that no leaks exist, the U.S. DOT requires a at least every 5 years.

A) pin index safety system B) pressure regulator C) hydrostatic test D) liter flow exam Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 Objective: 6 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is an elderly woman who complains of chest pain. She is alert and responsive. You plan to provide supplemental oxygen using a nonrebreather mask.

20) The first thing you should do before applying the nonrebreather mask is to: A) explain that the mask provides supplemental oxygen that will help her.

B) manually stabilize the patient's head.

C) ensure that the O-ring is on the regulator port.

D) choose the smallest possible cylinder.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 181 Objective: 9 21) Your patient has agreed to supplemental oxygen. Before you place the mask on her face, you must remember to: A) adjust the flow rate to 5 LPM. B) inflate the reservoir bag.

C) set the bag to deliver 25% oxygen.

D) complete the hydrostatic test.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Objective: 9 22) When you place the mask on the patient's face, you take care to create a proper seal. You also ensure that the reservoir when the patient takes her deepest breath.

A) inflates at least two thirds B) has a flow rate of 35 LPM C) recycles the exhaled air through the humidifier D) does not deflate by more than one third Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Objective: 9

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 11 Principles of Resuscitation 1) Which of the following is NOT a link in the adult chain of survival?

A) Early CPR B) Progressive CPR training C) Early advanced life support D) Rapid defibrillation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 186 Objective: 3 2) When a patient's heart stops pumping blood, the patient is: A) in cardiac arrest.

B) alert and responsive.

C) deceased.

D) placed on a long spine board.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 186 Objective: 2 3) Deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart from elsewhere in the body through the: A) descending aorta.

B) left ventricle.

C) superior vena cava.

D) pulmonary artery.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 Objective: 1 4) The most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults is: A) "weekend warrior" exercise.

B) choking.

C) respiratory arrest.

D) myocardial infarction.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Objective: 4 5) You 5-year-old patient is in cardiac arrest. You suspect: A) an underlying respiratory problem.

B) electrocution.

C) a myocardial infraction.

D) foul play.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Objective: 4 63 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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6) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation can save the patient's life between clinical death and biological death by: A) providing fibrillation.

B) maintaining electrical activity in the brain.

C) circulating oxygenated blood to the brain.

D) resetting the pace of the heart.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 Objective: 5 7) Before you begin CPR, the patient must be: A) prone on a firm surface.

B) supine on a firm surface.

C) prone on a soft surface.

D) supine on a soft surface.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 Objective: 5 8) Your patient is a 17-year-old boy who is unresponsive and his chest is not rising and falling.

You send a bystander to call 911 and place the patient on his back. To administer CPR, the first you thing you need to do next is: A) check the carotid artery for a pulse.

B) place the heel of your hand on the lower half of the patient's sternum.

C) check the brachial artery for a pulse.

D) deliver compressions no deeper than 2.4 inches.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 189 Objective: 5 9) What is the ratio of breaths to compressions when providing CPR? A) 1 breath to 5 compressions B) 1 breath to 10 compressions C) 2 breaths to 30 compressions D) 2 breaths to 50 compressions Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 Objective: 5

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10) The signs of A) cardiac arrest B) pneumothorax C) aortic aneurism D) heart failure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Objective: 6

are unresponsiveness, no breathing, and no pulse.

11) When performing CPR on a patient, you must interrupt compressions as little as possible.

What is the longest amount of time that CPR can be interrupted?

A) 1 second B) 10 seconds C) 30 seconds D) 60 seconds Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 194 Objective: 7 12) When performing one-rescuer CPR on an infant, compressions are performed with: A) the heel of one hand.

B) one finger.

C) two hands.

D) two fingers.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 199 Objective: 8 13) The maximum depth of compression for an infant is: A) 1 to 1 1/2 inches.

B) one-third to one-half the depth of the chest.

C) one-quarter to one-third the depth of the chest.

D) 1/2 to 1 1/2 inches.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 194 Objective: 8 14) To perform adequate compressions for a child under 8 years of age: A) use the ring and middle finger of one hand on the middle of the sternum.

B) place one hand on the midsternum and cover it with the other hand.

C) place the heel of one hand at the imaginary nipple line over the sternum.

D) depress the sternum one-quarter to one-half the depth of the chest.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 199 Objective: 8

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15) You arrive on scene to find a 57-year-old man who is not breathing. Another EMR is present and has begun CPR. You should: A) clear the area of bystanders to make room for the ambulance.

B) get in position to begin chest compressions while the first rescuer is delivering breaths.

C) take over CPR while the first rescuer takes a break.

D) alternate with the first rescuer to deliver breaths and chest compressions.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Objective: 8 16) Automated external defibrillators (AEDs) can assess a heart's rhythm, determine if defibrillation is necessary, and deliver a(n) when needed.

A) chest compression B) rescue breath C) electrical shock D) instant message Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 201 Objective: 9 17) When caring for a patient who has no pulse and is not breathing, your goal should be to apply an automated external defibrillator: A) as soon as possible.

B) after 5 minutes of CPR. C) after contacting medical direction.

D) as soon as the paramedics arrive.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 203 Objective: 8 18) During two-rescuer CPR on an infant, the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is: A) 30 to 2.

B) 15 to 2.

C) 5 to 1.

D) 30 to 3.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 199 Objective: 8 19) For a patient with a condition called asystole, the AED: A) must be used for at least 60 seconds.

B) helps the EMR identify ventricular fibrillation.

C) is more effective than the semi-automatic version.

D) will not be effective.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9 66 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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20) While applying an AED to the patient, you notice a medication patch on the chest where you plan to place the AED pad. You should: A) remove the patch and wipe the skin before applying the AED pad.

B) apply the AED pad over the patch.

C) apply the AED pad to the left of the patch.

D) not use the AED. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 Objective: 9 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You are having lunch at a restaurant in your neighborhood. An elderly man at a nearby table collapses. He is unresponsive. The owner tells you there is no AED available and calls 911.

21) For an unresponsive patient, you should first perform a primary assessment to determine whether: A) the patient has a patent airway.

B) the patient is breathing.

C) the patient has had a myocardial infarction.

D) the patient is wearing a medication patch.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 188 Objective: 6 22) Your determine that the patient is in cardiac arrest, based on lack of breathing and pulse. You should start CPR at a ratio of compressions for every breaths.

A) 30 / 2 B) 15 / 2 C) 30 / 1 D) 5 / 1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192 Objective: 5

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23) Because your patient is elderly, you find you have to press harder to achieve the 2 inch compression. You also hear sounds of , but know this is more likely to be breaking cartilage than breaking bone.

A) distension B) crepitus C) asystole D) tachycardia Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192 Objective: 5 24) After a few minutes of CPR, your elderly patient has regained a pulse but is still not breathing on his own. You should: A) stop CPR and wait for the ambulance crew to arrive and take over.

B) increase the pressure of the compressions.

C) change rescue breaths to 1 per 30 compressions.

D) cease rescue breaths and continue compressions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 193 Objective: 5

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 12 Obtaining a Medical History and Vital Signs 1) All the information you gather about the patient's current and previous medical conditions is referred to as the patient's: A) chief complaint.

B) health experience.

C) medical history.

D) state of health.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 211 Objective: 2 2) What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?

A) A sign is observed and a symptom is felt or experienced.

B) A symptom is observed by the EMR and a sign is observed by the patient.

C) A symptom is observed and a sign is felt or experienced.

D) Signs and symptoms are the same thing.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 211 Objective: 3 3) Which of the following would be considered a symptom?

A) Blood pressure B) Pupil reaction C) Headache D) Bruising Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 212 Objective: 3 4) Your patient states that she feels nauseated. She is describing a: A) symptom.

B) sign.

C) diagnosis.

D) suspicion.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 212 Objective: 3 5) The is defined as the main medical complaint as described by the patient.

A) medical history B) primary symptom C) chief complaint D) health sign Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 212 Objective: 1 69 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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6) The P in the acronym SAMPLE stands for: A) pain.

B) past pertinent medical history.

C) place orientation.

D) pedal pulse.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 Objective: 4 7) In the acronym SAMPLE, the L stands for: A) list of medications.

B) longstanding allergies.

C) latent pulse rate.

D) last oral intake.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 Objective: 4 8) In the OPQRST secondary assessment tool, the letter P stands for: A) perfusion.

B) provocation.

C) palpation.

D) past pertinent medical history.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 Objective: 5 9) In the OPQRST secondary assessment tool, the letter S stands for severity, which is measured by the patient on a scale of: A) A to Z. B) best to worst.

C) 0 to 100.

D) 1 to 10.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 Objective: 5 10) Taking vital signs is one way to help assess the patient's perfusion status. Perfusion is best described as: A) the exchange of gas and carbon dioxide in the alveoli.

B) the delivery of oxygenated blood to the cells and tissues.

C) the removal of waste from cells and tissues.

D) the movement of fluids in the body.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 70 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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11) To determine whether a patient is stable or unstable, it helps to compare vital signs taken after interventions to the set.

A) standard B) typical C) baseline D) average Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 12) To assess respirations, grasp the patient's wrist as though taking the pulse. Hold the arm against the upper abdomen and: A) observe the patient's chest movements in and out.

B) listen for good tidal volume.

C) observe the oxygen/carbon dioxide exchange.

D) watch for level of responsiveness.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 Objective: 7 13) The pulse of an infant under the age of 12 months is assessed at the: A) wrist.

B) neck.

C) groin.

D) upper arm.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 221 Objective: 8 14) Blood pressure is a measurement of: A) the amount of blood ejected from the heart during each beat.

B) the pressure against the walls of the arteries.

C) the amount of fluid in the body.

D) the total blood volume in the body.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 217 Objective: 6 15) The most appropriate location to assess a pulse in an unresponsive patient is the: A) femoral artery.

B) carotid artery.

C) radial artery.

D) distal artery.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 220 Objective: 7 16) The method of determining blood pressure by use of a blood pressure cuff and a stethoscope 71 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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is called: A) palpation.

B) diaphoresis.

C) auscultation.

D) taking a medical history.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 223 Objective: 10 17) The three characteristics of the patient's skin that you can assess without special equipment are: A) volume, tone, and pulse.

B) color, temperature, and moisture.

C) perfusion, jaundice, and temperature.

D) height, weight, and surface area.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 227 Objective: 10 18) Capillary refill is useful in evaluating circulatory status and perfusion. To assess capillary refill for an adult patient: A) squeeze the nail bed of a finger.

B) slap the palm of the hand lightly.

C) prick the earlobe.

D) tap below the knee.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 229 Objective: 10 19) To assess the patient's pupil response using a flashlight: A) shine the light into the pupil, then move the light rapidly up and down.

B) move the light from the top to the bottom.

C) move the light from the side directly at the pupil.

D) shine the light directly in the pupil, then turn the light off.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10 20) Which mnemonic acronym is used when assessing the patient's pupils?

A) SAMPLE B) OPQRST C) AVPU D) PERRL Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 Objective: 10 SCENARIO 72 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You are called to a scene where a middle-aged woman has fallen down a flight of stairs. One thing you need to assess is the patient's mental status and vital signs.

21) Your patient appears to be unconscious, but when you ask her a question, she answers without making any sense. You note her level of responsiveness is: A) alert.

B) verbal.

C) to pain.

D) unresponsive.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 217 Objective: 9 22) Your patient regains consciousness and is able to tell you her name and location but does not know what time it is or what has happened to her. You would record her alertness status as: A) A&O × 8 B) A&O × 6 C) A&O × 4 D) A&O × 2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 Objective: 9 23) While assessing your patient's respiration, you listen for sounds of that could indicate a fractured skull.

A) snoring B) crowing C) gurgling D) wheezing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 Objective: 9 24) Your patient's pulse rate is 88. You know that this heart rate: A) would be normal only for an infant.

B) is elevated above normal.

C) is normal for an adult.

D) is below normal for an adult.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 221 Objective: 10

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 13 Principles of Patient Assessment 1) A includes a visual overview of the entire scene to identify any obvious or potential hazards prior to entering.

A) primary assessment B) scene size-up C) confirming diagnosis D) secondary assessment Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 234 Objective: 1 2) The term refers to actions taken to correct or stabilize a patient's illness or injury.

A) primary assessment B) secondary assessment C) interventions D) mechanism of injury Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 235 Objective: 1 3) You and your partner are dispatched to a crime scene where there is a stabbing victim. Your first priority is to: A) perform a rapid secondary assessment.

B) perform a scene size-up.

C) perform a primary assessment.

D) obtain vital signs.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Objective: 2 4) One component of the scene size-up is , which includes wearing disposable gloves.

A) determining if the scene is safe for you and others B) determine the need for additional resources C) taking BSI precautions D) considering the need for spinal precautions Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 241 Objective: 3

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5) You respond to the scene of a patient having trouble breathing. As you approach the house, the patient's husband begins yelling at you to get off the property and threatens violence if you come closer. You should: A) attempt to gain access to the house through a back door, so you can evaluate the patient's condition.

B) work with your crew to restrain the man so you can treat the patient.

C) attempt to calm the husband by explaining why you are there.

D) retreat to a safe distance and wait for law enforcement.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 241 Objective: 4 6) The specific personal protective equipment used to minimize contact with blood and body fluids from a patient is called: A) antifluid protective garments (APG).

B) body substance isolation (BSI).

C) patient isolation unit (PIU).

D) decontamination equipment (DE).

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Objective: 4 7) The Emergency Medical Responder plays an important role in ensuring the safety of all people at the scene of an emergency. This is why the scene size-up includes: A) providing oxygen.

B) taking vital signs.

C) the head-to-toe exam.

D) determining the number of patients.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Objective: 5 8) You are called to help a middle-aged woman who fainted on a very hot day, and when she fell, cracked her head on the sidewalk. Her head is bleeding. What is the mechanism of injury?

A) Possible dehydration B) Impact with the sidewalk C) Heat exhaustion D) Syncope Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6

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9) Your patient presents with chest pain and nausea. For this patient, "chest pain" represents: A) the mechanism of injury.

B) the nature of illness.

C) the diagnosis.

D) the cause of sickness.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6 10) Your patient is a 79-year-old man who fell down and cut his leg. Blood is running freely from the cut, but the patient says he fine and starts to try to stand up. Because of , you should suspect that his injuries may be worse than usual for this type of event.

A) his gender B) his age C) the nature of the illness D) the mechanism of injury Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6 11) The primary assessment is designed to help the Emergency Medical Responder: A) make a quick, less detailed assessment of the most critical areas of your patient.

B) detect and correct all immediate threats to life.

C) collect and report subjective findings.

D) compare vital signs at specific intervals.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 Objective: 7 12) When you assess a patient's mental status, you first need to determine if the patient is: A) intelligent.

B) psychotic.

C) on drugs.

D) conscious.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 Objective: 8 13) The ABCs of emergency care are: A) autonomy, baselines, consciousness.

B) adequate blood circulation.

C) airway, breathing, circulation.

D) adults, babies, children.

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14) Your patient has fallen out of a tall tree. While you assess her airway, breathing, and circulation, your patient may also need for you to provide by using your hands to physically hold her head and neck still.

A) a mechanism of injury B) protection to bystanders C) artificial stability D) manual stabilization Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 245 Objective: 8 15) Which of the following acronyms would be most useful in assessing your patient's mental status?

A) BP-DOC B) SAMPLE C) AVPU D) DCAP-BTLS Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247 Objective: 8 16) When you assess an adult patient's circulation, you should check the patient's pulse.

A) radial B) carotid C) brachial D) femoral Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248 Objective: 8 17) A patient with altered mental status or abnormal vital signs should be considered: A) unstable.

B) stable.

C) BSI. D) unsafe.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 237 Objective: 9

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18) Your patient is a 2-year-old child who is having trouble breathing. To open his airway, you should: A) use the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.

B) use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

C) move his head into a neutral position.

D) tilt his head back.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Objective: 10 19) You are having trouble locating a brachial pulse on a 2-month-old female patient. The infant is crying and moving normally. Another way of evaluating circulation on this infant would be to assess her: A) pupils.

B) motor reflexes.

C) capillary refill time.

D) grip strength.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Objective: 10 20) Which of the following best describes the purpose of the secondary assessment?

A) To identify immediate life threats B) To evaluate the effectiveness of any interventions C) To determine the priority of patient transport D) To discover and care for the patient's specific injuries or medical problems Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 250 Objective: 11 21) Your patient complains of arm pain after falling off of her bicycle. You palpate the arm and feel crepitus. Crepitus is best described as: A) swollen, painful tissue.

B) the grating sensation felt when broken bones rub together.

C) air bubbles trapped under the skin.

D) the feeling of a bone or joint being deformed.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 252 Objective: 1

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22) Your patient has sprained her ankle after falling down a flight of stairs. She is stable, so you are able perform a focused secondary assessment. What do you next for this patient?

A) Gather the patient history B) Call for an ambulance C) Take vital signs D) Assess her mental status Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 250 Objective: 12 23) The trauma patient is one who has: A) sustained some type of physical injury.

B) been through a frightening experience.

C) a phobia.

D) an anxiety response to injury.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Objective: 12 24) Which part of the body is sometimes referred to as the "kill zone"?

A) The left anterior side B) From the head to the thighs C) The entire posterior side D) Any part with a puncture wound Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Objective: 12 25) For a stable medical patient with no trauma, you should determine the chief complaint, observe signs and symptoms, and: A) gather the patient history.

B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

C) transport with no further assessment.

D) perform a rapid assessment and prepare for rapid transport.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 254 Objective: 13 26) Which of the following acronyms would be most useful in assessing your patient's medical history?

A) BP-DOC B) SAMPLE C) AVPU D) DCAP-BTLS Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Objective: 14 79 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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27) When you use the SAMPLE tool to gather information from the patient, what are you asking for when you reach the letter L? A) Last memory before the incident B) Last oral intake C) Latest prescriptions D) Location of pain Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Objective: 14 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 35-year-old man who has been hit by a pickup truck while jogging on the side of a busy road. He is unresponsive. His left leg is twisted and the end of the femur is visible.

28) The scene is secure. As you approach your patient, the first thing you will do is: A) assess his mental status.

B) apply pressure to stop the bleeding.

C) set the broken bone.

D) form a general impression.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Objective: 8 29) For this patient, you will perform a rapid secondary assessment using which assessment tool?

A) BP-DOC B) SAMPLE C) AVPU D) DCAP-BTLS Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 258 Objective: 15 30) How often should a patient with serious injuries be reassessed?

A) Once B) Twice C) Every 5 minutes D) Every 15 minutes Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 264 Objective: 16

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 14 Caring for Cardiac Emergencies 1) The is the largest and strongest chamber of the heart and must force blood out to the entire body.

A) sinoatrial node B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) superior vena cava Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 3 2) The chamber of the heart that pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs is called the: A) left atrium.

B) right ventricle.

C) right atrium.

D) left ventricle.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 270 Objective: 3 3) The is part of the sophisticated electrical system that keeps the heart beating.

A) acute artery.

B) myocardial system C) cardiac compromise D) conduction pathway Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 1 4) has many causes and can present with different signs and symptoms, such as tightness or pain in the chest, diaphoresis, or abnormal pulse.

A) Cardiac compromise B) Angina pectoris C) Ventricular conduction D) Atrioventriculosis Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 4

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5) is similar to a heart attack, but coronary blood flow is not completely cut off and there is no actual damage to the heart muscle.

A) Heart failure B) Angina pectoris C) Myocardial infarction D) Chest pressure Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 6 6) Also called a heart attack, interrupted.

A) cardiac arrest B) angina pectoris C) pericarditis D) myocardial infarction Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 272 Objective: 6

occurs when the blood supply to a portion of the heart is

7) Patients with usually have a chief complaint of difficulty breathing, although they may complain of chest pain.

A) congestive heart failure B) pedal edema C) angina D) hypertension Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 280 Objective: 6 8) You are treating a 54-year-old male complaining of crushing chest pressure. He states that the pain started about 45 minutes ago and has gotten worse in the last 20 minutes. He also complains of nausea and is pale and sweaty. These signs and symptoms are consistent with: A) congestive heart failure.

B) myocardial infarction.

C) angina pectoris.

D) heartburn.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 273 Objective: 6

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9) The mnemonic commonly used to evaluate a patient's chest pain is: A) OPQRST. B) SAMPLE. C) BP-DOC. D) AVPU. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 275 Objective: 7 10) The American Heart Association recommends administering oxygen to a chest pain patient with an oxygen saturation of less than: A) 100 percent.

B) 97 percent.

C) 94 percent.

D) 90 percent.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 277 Objective: 7 11) You are treating a patient who is having chest pain. Your patient states that he has a prescription for nitroglycerin tablets but has not taken any yet. You should: A) confiscate the tablets.

B) place one nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue.

C) spray once in each of the patient's nostrils.

D) begin CPR immediately and call for transport.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 278 Objective: 7 12) Some medications can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following is your best option to avoid absorbing medications intended for a patient?

A) Wear gloves B) Wash hands before handling medications C) Wash hands after handling medications D) Always have the patient handle medications Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 279 Objective: 7

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13) Your patient is a 52-year-old female who complains of weakness, anxiety, shortness of breath, and a rapid heartbeat. You suspect she may be experiencing: A) cardiac compromise.

B) a respiratory emergency.

C) hypoglycemia.

D) a stroke.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 5 14) You have a patient who has complained of having difficulty breathing for the last several days. He tells you that it has gotten worse tonight. He states that he has been unable to sleep lying flat because it makes him short of breath. You observe a blanket and pillow in the chair where he has been sleeping, and you notice that the patient's ankles are swollen. You suspect the patient is experiencing: A) angina pectoris.

B) asthma.

C) COPD. D) congestive heart failure.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 274 Objective: 6 15) Some of the causes of lung diseases.

A) pneumonia B) chronic MI C) chronic heart failure D) acute heart failure Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 274 Objective: 6

include diseased heart valves, hypertension, and various

16) Which of the following questions would be MOST helpful when evaluating a patient with chest pain?

A) "Have you fallen today?"

B) "Do you have a history of asthma?"

C) "Have you eaten any spicy foods today?"

D) "What were you doing when the pain started?"

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 275 Objective: 7

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17) Which of the following statements about angina pectoris and myocardial infarction is most correct?

A) In angina pectoris, chest pain remains for longer than 10 minutes; in myocardial infarction the pain resolves quickly.

B) Angina pectoris is not a serious condition, while myocardial infarction is.

C) In angina pectoris, chest pain resolves within a few minutes; in myocardial infarction the pain does not resolve.

D) Myocardial infarction is resolved with medication; angina pectoris in not treatable.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 6 18) Medical conditions such as compromise.

A) Alzheimer's B) heart failure C) gall stones D) nausea Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 Objective: 4

are among the most common causes of cardiac

19) Which of the following patient populations is likely to experience "classic" signs of cardiac compromise, such as chest pain radiating to the left arm?

A) Elderly patients B) Middle aged males C) Women D) Diabetic patients Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 272 Objective: 5 20) Which of the following questions would the Emergency Medical Responder ask in order to evaluate the Q in the OPQRST mnemonic?

A) "Exactly when did your pain start?"

B) "Is your pain sharp or dull?"

C) "Can you point to where the pain is?"

D) "Does anything make your pain better or worse?"

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 275 Objective: 7

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21) Nitroglycerine is a medication commonly prescribed to patients with angina pectoris.

Nitroglycerine helps relieve cardiac chest pain because it: A) dilates the blood vessels and increases the workload of the heart.

B) dilates the blood vessels and reduces the workload of the heart.

C) constricts the blood vessels, increasing blood pressure.

D) constricts the blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 278 Objective: 7 22) Which of the following is a contraindication for administering nitroglycerine?

A) The patient complains of chest pain.

B) The patient has been prescribed NTG. C) The patient has a head injury.

D) The patient has a systolic blood pressure of 175 mmHg. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 278 Objective: 7 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 72-year-old woman with diabetes. She complains of feeling generally weak and nauseated. She says she's sure it's just indigestion because she has the feeling of heartburn.

23) What do this patient's personal characteristics and health history suggest to the Emergency Medical Responder?

A) She probably has the flu, which is aggravated by her diabetes.

B) She may be suffering cardiac compromise with non-classical symptoms.

C) She has the classic symptoms of myocardial infarction.

D) She is not ill but just seeking attention.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 273 Objective: 5 24) As you begin emergency care for this patient, you first maintain an open airway and request ALS service. Since the patient is alert, you assist her to a sitting position and: A) begin CPR while you wait for the ambulance.

B) start an IV line and administer fluids.

C) then to a prone position on the stretcher.

D) administer oxygen, with her permission.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 276 Objective: 7

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25) You recognize from the patient's condition that she has not suffered a cardiac arrest, but you are still suspicious that she may have had a heart attack. How do you know that the patient is not in cardiac arrest?

A) Patients suffering a cardiac arrest are unresponsive, not breathing, and have no pulse.

B) Patients suffering a cardiac arrest are responsive and complain of chest pain.

C) Patients suffering a cardiac arrest complain of anxiety and a feeling of impending doom.

D) Patients suffering a cardiac arrest complain of chest discomfort, diaphoresis, and dyspnea.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 272 Objective: 5 26) You ask the patient what medication she is taking and she points to an array of bottles on the counter. What should the EMR do about her medication?

A) Administer any diabetes medications.

B) Check the expiration dates and dispose of any expired medication properly.

C) Gather all the medication in a bag to transport to the hospital with the patient.

D) Call the poison control center to determine if her illness is caused by polypharmacy.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 279 Objective: 7

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 15 Caring for Respiratory Emergencies 1) The upper airway refers to: A) the space from the trachea to the carina.

B) the mediastinum and diaphragm.

C) the bronchioles and the alveoli.

D) the nasopharynx and the oropharynx.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 283 Objective: 1 2) An inadequate supply of oxygen is called: A) hypoglycemia.

B) hypercarbia.

C) hypoxia.

D) hyperoxygenation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 284 Objective: 2 3) Respiratory compromise can result from: A) low blood sugar.

B) work of breathing.

C) traumatic injury.

D) osteochondrosis.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 285 Objective: 3 4) Which of the following is characteristic of normal breathing?

A) Accessory muscle use B) 10-30 breaths per minute C) Irregular rhythm D) 40-80 shallow breaths per minute Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 284 Objective: 4

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5) People experiencing dyspnea will sit or stand with their hands on their knees, shoulders arched upward, and their head forward. This position is known as the: A) comfort position.

B) recovery position.

C) tripod position.

D) recumbent position.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 286 Objective: 4 6) Reflexive gasping breaths called agonal respirations may occur during _ not be considered normal breathing.

A) asthma B) emphysema C) bronchitis D) cardiac arrest Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 286 Objective: 4

and should

7) You and your partner are called to the home of a 50-year-old male. His breathing is labored and difficult, and he is complaining of feeling suffocated. He is sitting in the tripod position and his skin is cyanotic. You recognize these signs and symptoms of: A) respiratory compromise.

B) COPD. C) sleep apnea.

D) hyperventilation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 287 Objective: 4 8) Your patient has a persistent cough and breathes with her lips pursed. She says she is always tired and short of breath, and admits to being a smoker. You notice that her upper torso is barrel shaped. You recognize the signs and symptoms of: A) asthma.

B) COPD. C) respiratory failure.

D) heart failure.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 287 Objective: 5

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9) The disease that affects millions of people in the United States and is characterized by a narrowing of the lower airways, wheezing, and sensitivity to irritants is called: A) emphysema.

B) chronic bronchitis.

C) COPD. D) asthma.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 289 Objective: 5 10) Your patient is experiencing anxiety, severe shortness of breath, dizziness, and spasms in his fingers and toes. You recognize that he is hyperventilating in reaction to a stressful situation, so you first , then administer low-flow oxygen.

A) remove him from the environment B) have him breathe into a paper bag C) transport him to the emergency room D) make sure his oxygen saturation is below 80% Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 11) Your patient is unresponsive after a motorcycle accident. You assess the airway and hear gurgling respirations. You should: A) give two rescue breaths.

B) perform a head tilt-chin lift.

C) insert an OPA. D) suction the airway.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 292 Objective: 6 12) You are assessing the airway of an unresponsive patient. You hear snoring respirations. The snoring indicates that: A) the tongue may be partially obstructing the airway.

B) the patient has overdosed on narcotics.

C) the patient is asleep.

D) there may be swelling in the soft tissues of the throat.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 292 Objective: 6

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13) You arrive on scene for a 19-year-old female complaining of difficulty breathing. The scene is safe, additional resources have been called, and there is no evidence of trauma. The patient has a patent airway and is breathing 20 times per minute with labored respirations. You should: A) administer oxygen.

B) collect a SAMPLE history.

C) obtain a second set of vitals.

D) have her breathe into a paper bag.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 Objective: 6 14) You arrive to the scene of a narcotic overdose. Your patient is a 45-year-old male who is unresponsive with snoring respirations. You should: A) look around for drug paraphernalia.

B) suction the airway.

C) open the airway with a head tilt-chin lift.

D) apply a nonrebreather mask.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 Objective: 6 15) Your patient is in respiratory failure. His breathing is too slow and too shallow, and he is no longer alert. You should: A) break an ammonia capsule under his nose to bring him around.

B) administer supplemental oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

C) use an appropriate bag-mask device to provide manual ventilations.

D) place a nasal cannula under his nose to provide oxygen.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 Objective: 6 16) Your patient is a 48-year-old male with a history of asthma. You check his metered-dose inhaler and see that it expired four days ago. You should: A) have the patient cough vigorously to dislodge any mucus, then use the inhaler.

B) not allow the patient to self-administer expired medication.

C) administer a dose to the patient, then provide positive pressure ventilation.

D) tell him to self-administer a dose to "tide him over" until he gets to the hospital.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 294 Objective: 6

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17) Your patient is pale and his lips appear blue. He can't tell you how he's feeling because he is not conscious. Recognizing the classic signs of hypoxia, you: A) assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

B) roll the patient onto his side.

C) perform the jaw-thrust maneuver.

D) provide supplemental oxygen with a nonrebreather mask.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 Objective: 6 18) One of the classic signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress is the: A) inability to sit down.

B) inability to speak in full sentences.

C) inability to stand up.

D) inability to walk.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 292 Objective: 6 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 78-year-old woman whose breathing is labored and audible. She is pale but conscious. Her son tells you that she went to the doctor that morning, was diagnosed with pneumonia, and has a prescription for antibiotics, but that a few hours later she appeared to take a turn for the worse.

19) Pneumonia is caused by an infection causing an accumulation of pus in the lungs. This and results in respiratory compromise.

A) prevents the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide B) prevents hypercarbonia from reaching the brachioles C) is caused by bleeding in the chest cavity D) is called pulmonary edema Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 287 Objective: 5 20) Since your patient is responsive, you should pay attention to her indicate whether her situation is getting worse.

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, which may

21) Because of her pneumonia, your patient may have an inadequate amount of oxygen in her blood. To test this, you place her finger into a pulse oximeter. The normal range for oxygen saturation is: A) 54% to 70%.

B) 75% to 85%.

C) 89% to 93%.

D) 94% to 99%.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5

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Chapter 16 Caring for Common Medical Emergencies 1) One of the most common complaints to which an Emergency Medical Responder is called is that of , in which the patient's alertness and responsiveness to his or her surroundings is decreased.

A) altered mental status B) suicidal ideation C) abnormal vital signs D) congestive heart failure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 299 Objective: 1 2) An altered mental state can be brought on by any of the following EXCEPT: A) hypoxia.

B) head injury.

C) baseline status.

D) shock.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 300 Objective: 2 3) Before you and your crew can evaluate a patient's altered mental status, you first need to determine . Family, friends, and caregivers can help describe this.

A) all current illnesses B) vital signs C) hypoxia status D) baseline mental status Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 300 Objective: 2 4) Your patient is fully alert and oriented. What number would this patient receive on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A) 15 B) 10 C) 20 D) 1 Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 300 Objective: 2

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5) Your patient is a 17-year-old female who is unconscious. Friends report that she seemed confused and was speaking incoherently, became combative when they tried to intervene, and then fainted. You recognize these as signs of: A) a drug overdose.

B) an altered mental state.

C) a stroke.

D) a diabetic emergency.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 300 Objective: 3 6) The AVPU scale measures mental status in four categories by assessing whether a patient is alert, verbal, painful, and: A) unresponsive.

B) uncooperative.

C) unconscious.

D) unreliable.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301 Objective: 4 7) When measuring alertness in a patient using the AVPU scale, what does it mean to say the patient is A & O × 3?

A) The patient can tell you their name, where they are, and what happened to them.

B) The patient can tell you their name, where they are, and answer questions.

C) The patient can tell you what hurts, where they are, and what time it is.

D) The patient can tell you their name, where they are, and what time it is.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 302 Objective: 4 8) Your patient has had a seizure in which his entire body stiffened. This stiffening is called: A) clonic muscle activity.

B) tonic muscle activity.

C) generalized seizure activity.

D) partial seizure activity.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5

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9) A 15-year-old boy is having a generalized seizure in a classroom at school. Appropriate care for this patient includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) holding his head firmly to prevent head injury.

B) moving furniture away from the patient.

C) applying oxygen.

D) placing a blanket under the patient's head.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 303 Objective: 6 10) Your patient is a 75-year-old man whose family reports he "is not acting right." The patient has right arm weakness and slurred speech. You suspect this patient is experiencing a: A) poisoning.

B) stroke.

C) seizure.

D) heart attack.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 304 Objective: 7 11) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a stroke patient?

A) It is important to make sure the patient is feeling better before the ambulance departs.

B) It is important to determine that the patient has truly had a stroke and not a seizure.

C) It is important to transport this patient to the hospital immediately.

D) It is important to obtain verbal and written consent from the patient before transportation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 306 Objective: 8 12) There are two diabetic emergencies cause by an imbalance of blood sugar and insulin. Which comes on more slowly and is characterized in part by a dry mouth and thirst?

A) Insulin intoxication B) Insulin shock C) Hypoglycemia D) Hyperglycemia Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 307 Objective: 10

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13) Your patient is a 38-year-old man who has come to pick up his child from daycare. The staff has called 911 because the man appears to be drunk—he is staggering around and talking incoherently. Just as you arrive, he loses consciousness. As you begin your primary assessment, you notice that his breath smells like nail polish remover. This makes you suspect that your patient is: A) having a stroke.

B) experiencing a drug overdose.

C) experiencing a diabetic emergency.

D) having a generalized seizure.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 308 Objective: 9 14) Your patient is a middle-aged woman who is dizzy, weak, shaking, and has an altered mental status. She has a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as diabetic. Which of the following should be part of your care for this patient?

A) Loosen restrictive clothing.

B) Try to ascertain if the patient has taken insulin or eaten food recently.

C) Place a spoon in the patient's mouth.

D) Hold the patient still until the episode has passed.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 308 Objective: 11 15) When providing emergency care to a patient who has ingested a poisonous substance, when should you call the poison control center?

A) Call at the time of the secondary assessment.

B) Call from the ambulance on the way to the hospital with the patient.

C) Call before assessing the patient and keep them standing by.

D) Call from your vehicle while going to the scene.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 311 Objective: 12 16) A 3-year-old boy presents with an altered mental status. His parents state that he wandered into the garage unattended. Which of these signs indicates that he has ingested a poisonous substance?

A) Excessive saliva formation B) Hives C) Itching D) Swollen nasal membranes Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 310 Objective: 13

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17) Your patient is a 25-year-old female who has overdosed on fentanyl. In addition to providing ABC care, you should be careful to avoid: A) exposure to the drug.

B) administering oxygen.

C) allowing the patient to vomit.

D) generalized infections.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 316 Objective: 14 18) Your patient is a 72-year-old female who complains of dizziness and appears confused after being found on the floor of a garage where a car is running. As you begin your primary assessment, she has a seizure. You suspect she is experiencing: A) poisoning from an ingested substance.

B) a diabetic emergency.

C) carbon monoxide poisoning.

D) a respiratory emergency.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 311 Objective: 15 19) You arrive at a skilled nursing facility to care for an 89-year-old patient with an altered mental status. Staff at the facility state that the patient is being treated for a urinary tract infection, finished her antibiotics yesterday, and began acting differently this morning. The patient's skin is hot to the touch. She has a rapid heart rate and a low blood pressure. You suspect this patient is experiencing: A) sepsis.

B) kidney failure.

C) a medication reaction.

D) dementia.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 316 Objective: 16 20) Your patient is an 89-year-old female who you suspect has a generalized infection. Her airway is patent, she is breathing 18 times per minute with good tidal volume, and she has a rapid and weak pulse. Her skin is pale, warm, and moist. Another responder reports that her blood pressure is 88/60. You should FIRST: A) take a repeat blood pressure to confirm hypotension.

B) obtain a SAMPLE history.

C) administer oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

D) take appropriate BSI precautions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 316 Objective: 17

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21) A 12-year-old boy complains of difficulty breathing after eating a cookie at a birthday party.

His face and hands are swollen, and he has large red hives all over his body. You hear a highpitched noise as he breathes in. You should treat this patient for: A) a serious allergic reaction.

B) a foreign body airway obstruction.

C) sepsis.

D) hyperglycemia.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 317 Objective: 18 22) An 11-year-old boy is having a severe allergic reaction after being stung by a bee. He is lethargic and appears to be having trouble breathing. You hear stridorous respirations.

Appropriate treatment of this patient includes: A) delayed transport to the hospital.

B) assisting with the administration of nitroglycerine.

C) assisting with the administration of an EpiPen. D) administering intravenous fluids.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 317 Objective: 19 23) You respond to a local college campus for a patient with an altered mental status. You find a middle-aged male patient sitting in his office. His heart rate and blood pressure are elevated. He tells you that he has not urinated that day. You suspect this patient is experiencing: A) an allergic reaction.

B) renal failure.

C) liver failure.

D) a stroke.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 318 Objective: 20 24) The access point used for hemodialysis is called a(n): A) fistula.

B) ventricle.

C) aneurysm.

D) vesicle.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 318 Objective: 21

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25) A situation in which the patient exhibits abnormal behavior that is unacceptable or intolerable to the patient, family, or community is considered: A) showing off.

B) grounds for immediate arrest.

C) a behavioral emergency.

D) grounds to exit the scene without providing care.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 319 Objective: 22 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You and your partner respond to a scene where a young man is yelling and waving a baseball bat to keep bystanders away from him. He shouts that you and your partner are part of an alien conspiracy, but he is cannot clearly state what the conspiracy is about. You recognize the signs of a behavioral emergency.

26) What is the first thing you should do when you encounter a person having a behavioral emergency?

A) Perform a primary assessment.

B) Look for track marks.

C) Perform a scene size-up and consider the need for law enforcement.

D) Play along with hallucinations or delusions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 319 Objective: 23 27) Your patient is shouting curses and waving a bat. You recognize this behavior as indicating your patient may have a potential for: A) violence.

B) seizure activity.

C) infection.

D) athletics.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 320 Objective: 23

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28) The patient's behavior is becoming more violent, and you have a strong belief that he will hurt himself or someone else. You have called for law enforcement and they are on their way.

Before physically restraining this patient, you must: A) obtain the patient's consent for treatment.

B) work the patient into a corner so you can grab him.

C) consult with medical direction before taking further action.

D) work with your partner to wrestle the patient onto the stretcher.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 321 Objective: 23

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 17 Caring for Environmental Emergencies 1) Body heat is lost by _ air.

A) radiation B) circulation C) convection D) evaporation Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 326 Objective: 2

when surrounding warmer air rises and is replaced by cooler

2) You are responding to a construction site on a hot day where a person has become dizzy. On your arrival, you find a patient lying on the ground being fanned by his friends. He is sweating heavily. This patient most likely has: A) become exhausted.

B) anaphylaxis.

C) hyperthermia.

D) hypothermia.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 327 Objective: 3 3) You are treating a 14-year-old female patient who was lost on a family camping trip on a hot summer day. Her clothes are wet with perspiration, she is lightheaded, and complains of muscle cramps in her legs. Which of the following is the right course of action?

A) Give her water or a balanced electrolyte drink.

B) Provide oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.

C) Place cold packs on her neck, armpits, wrists, and groin.

D) Remove wet clothing and place a blanket over and under the patient.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 328 Objective: 4 4) Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that your patient was suffering from heat stroke rather than heat exhaustion?

A) Nausea and vomiting B) Rapid breathing C) Dizziness D) Skin is hot and dry Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 330 Objective: 5

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5) Your patient is a 37-year-old man who collapsed while playing soccer. He is confused, and his skin is hot and dry. He has rapid and shallow breathing and a rapid and weak pulse. Appropriate care for this patient should include: A) encouraging him to drink an electrolyte replacement drink.

B) administering oral glucose.

C) aggressive cooling with ice packs and cold water.

D) covering the patient with a blanket to preserve modesty.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 330 Objective: 4 6) You are treating a 32-year-old woman who was found wandering on a snowy day in only a light jacket. She is not shivering, but she seems drowsy and not very responsive. You suspect this patient is in the of hypothermia.

A) mild stage B) moderate stage C) severe stage D) final stage Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 330 Objective: 6 7) Your patient is a 65-year-old man who has been found lying in an alley off a major city street during one of the coldest nights of the year. His skin feels cold and he complains of muscle stiffness. What should you do?

A) Have him drink a cup of decaffeinated coffee.

B) Transport him to the hospital as soon as possible.

C) Assist him to stand and walk around to get warmer.

D) Begin CPR. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 332 Objective: 7 8) Which of the following is a late sign of frostbite?

A) Numbness and tingling in the exposed area B) Slow or absent capillary refill C) Skin of affected area is cool and soft.

D) Skin is pale and waxy.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 330 Objective: 6

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9) Your patient is a 6-year-old boy who was playing in the park. He has a red spot on his arm that is red, itchy, and painful. You notice a small puncture wound in the center of the spot and recognize that he has: A) been stung by an insect.

B) been bitten by a snake.

C) been stung by a jelly fish.

D) come into contact with a live electrical wire.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 335 Objective: 8 10) The Emergency Medical Responder recognizes that anaphylaxis is: A) only a danger if it doesn't resolve within 25 minutes.

B) a life-threatening allergic reaction.

C) a mild allergic reaction.

D) never life threatening, as long as care is provided.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 335 Objective: 8 11) Which of the following is part of caring for a patient with a possible snakebite?

A) Use a plastic credit card to scrape the wound.

B) Remove any jewelry from the bitten extremity.

C) Administer an epinephrine autoinjector.

D) Rinse the bite with hot water and again with vinegar.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337 Objective: 9 12) You are treating a 7-year-old male who was found floating face down in a swimming pool.

As you perform CPR and make sure he is breathing, his mother tells you that the boy fell from the top of the water slide. You should suspect: A) injuries related to the fall.

B) a heart attack.

C) that the boy has ADHD. D) hyperthermia.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337 Objective: 10

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13) You respond to a call that a man has fallen into a lake and may be injured. When you arrive, his friends have pulled him out of the water. He is unresponsive and will require life support care. You suspect a possible neck or spine injury. You should: A) use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B) use the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver.

C) roll the patient onto his side in case of vomiting.

D) keep the patient floating in a face-up position.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 339 Objective: 11 14) What is the best way to remove an alert patient from the water if she is near shore but too far to reach with your hand, and you have not been trained in water rescue?

A) Call the U.S. Coast Guard to rescue her.

B) Wade slowly into the water until you can reach her.

C) Hold out an object such as a long stick or an article of clothing for her to grab.

D) Call out that you are here to help and tell her to swim to you.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338 Objective: 12 15) The Emergency Medical Responder recognizes that it is unsafe to attempt a water rescue without proper training. If you must enter the water to save the patient's life, be sure to: A) provide mouth-to-mask resuscitation as quickly as possible.

B) recognize the signs and symptoms of decompression sickness.

C) apply the mammalian diving reflex.

D) wear a personal floatation device.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 337 Objective: 12 16) occurs when small bubbles of nitrogen gas form in the bloodstream when a diver ascends from a depth too quickly. These bubbles can form an air embolism that will obstruct blood flow wherever they form and cause severe pain and even death.

A) Hypothermia B) Decompression sickness C) An aneurysm D) Ischemic stroke Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 341 Objective: 13

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17) Your patient is a 29-year-old diver who is exhibiting signs of decompression sickness, such as: A) severe pain in her middle ear.

B) shivering.

C) pain and itching.

D) frothy blood from her nose.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 341 Objective: 13 18) Why is it important to notify dispatch if you suspect a patient has a diving-related submersion emergency, such as decompression sickness?

A) The dispatcher can give step-by-step care instructions to the Emergency Medical Responders.

B) The dispatcher needs to know the diagnosis of every patient for record keeping purposes.

C) The dispatcher may direct the ambulance to a specialized facility.

D) Diving emergencies are rare, so the dispatcher will want to know something unusual has happened.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 341 Objective: 14 19) A 5-year-old girl is trapped on the ice of a frozen lake. She is crying and asking you to come and get her off the ice. You should: A) call for additional resources.

B) slide on your stomach out to her and provide care.

C) attempt to walk toward her on the ice but turn around if the ice begins to crack.

D) tell her she will fall through the ice if she doesn't come to you without assistance.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 342 Objective: 15 20) You have rescued a 22-year-old man who fell through the ice into a pond. You suspect he is severely hypothermic, therefore you should: A) begin rewarming procedures immediately.

B) immerse him in a hot bath until the ambulance arrives.

C) get him to a warm environment, remove wet clothing, and cover him with blankets.

D) strap him to a stretcher and wait for the ambulance.

Answer: C Diff: 4 Page Ref: 342 Objective: 15

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a 74-year-old woman with diabetes who presents with altered mental status, cool skin, abnormal pulse, and muscle stiffness. Her son called 911 when he arrived at her home and found her in this condition. You notice that the thermostat is set to 58 degrees F. Her son tells you that she doesn't like to turn up the heat because fuel is so expensive.

21) Based on this patient's signs and symptoms, you suspect that she is experiencing: A) a stoke.

B) hypothermia.

C) anaphylaxis.

D) insulin shock.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 331 Objective: 6 22) You recognize that your patient is at greater risk for a cold-related emergency because she has diabetes, which affects: A) judgement.

B) fluid levels.

C) perfusion.

D) muscles.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 331 Objective: 7 23) The nearest hospital is a mile away. The ambulance is ready for transport. What should you do?

A) Provide rewarming before transporting the patient to the hospital.

B) Have the patient drink a hot cup of tea before getting into the ambulance.

C) Assess her pulse for 35 to 40 seconds to be sure she is still alive.

D) Do not delay transport to provide active rewarming.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 332 Objective: 7

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 18 Caring for Soft-Tissue Injuries and Bleeding 1) A 4-year-old male has fallen off a play structure at the park. He presents with an abrasion to his right shoulder, which is oozing a small amount of dark blood. This type of bleeding is best classified as: A) capillary bleeding.

B) arterial bleeding.

C) potentially life threatening.

D) severe bleeding.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 350 Objective: 3 2) A patient has bright red blood spurting from a laceration on his leg. This bleeding is best described as: A) arterial bleeding.

B) venous bleeding.

C) capillary bleeding.

D) aortic bleeding.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 350 Objective: 3 3) Your patient is bleeding profusely from a wound to her wrist. There are no dressings immediately available. What should you do first?

A) Apply a tourniquet B) Apply direct pressure with your gloved hand C) Call for the ambulance to bring dressings D) Elevate the wound Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 352 Objective: 4 4) A is any material (preferably sterile) that is placed directly onto an open wound to control bleeding and prevent additional contamination.

A) treatment B) tourniquet C) dressing D) bandage Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 355 Objective: 5

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5) The material applied to hold a dressing in place is called a: A) bandage.

B) dressing.

C) suture.

D) 4 × 4.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 355 Objective: 6 6) You are caring for a patient who was kicked repeatedly in the chest and stomach during an assault. His skin is bruised, his abdomen is distended, and his vomit shows streaks of red. You suspect: A) infection.

B) brain injury.

C) pulmonary edema.

D) internal bleeding.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 358 Objective: 7 7) What should you always be prepared for when caring for a patient with signs of internal bleeding?

A) Combativeness B) The need for a hemostatic dressing C) The signs and symptoms of shock D) Hyperthermia Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 358 Objective: 8 8) You are caring for a patient who was the victim of a rollover vehicle accident. The patient has injuries to her head, chest, pelvis, and legs. Her abdomen is rigid and bruised, and she is unconscious. You identify that this patient has suffered: A) multisystem trauma.

B) irreversible wounds.

C) mortal injuries.

D) irreversible trauma.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 358 Objective: 9

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9) A 42-year-old male has been hit in the abdomen with a baseball bat and has a very large bruise. You recognize that this kind of could mean significant internal blood loss.

A) multisystem trauma B) laceration C) closed wound D) avulsion Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 360 Objective: 10 10) Your patient presents with a wound to her forearm. Your exam reveals a 3 cm wound that has smooth edges and appears to go through several layers of tissue. This type of soft tissue injury is best classified as a: A) contusion.

B) laceration.

C) puncture.

D) crush injury.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 360 Objective: 10 11) Your patient is a 27-year-old woman with a patent airway and a deep abrasion on her arm from falling off her motor scooter into the road. To remove superficial foreign matter, such as gravel and road dirt, you should: A) gently wipe the surface of the wound with a sterile gauze pad.

B) rinse the wound thoroughly with distilled water.

C) brush debris from the wound with your gloved hand.

D) tear away any avulsed skin that may be concealing debris.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 362 Objective: 11 12) A 56-year-old man has amputated his hand during a carpentry accident. Care for this patient should include: A) transporting the amputated part in a different vehicle, so as not to upset the patient.

B) placing the amputated hand directly on ice.

C) calling for a social worker to meet you at the hospital, to help the patient adjust to having one hand.

D) wrapping the amputated hand in a sterile dressing, placing it in a plastic bag, and keeping it cool during transport.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 372 Objective: 12

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13) Your patient presents with an arrow impaled in his shoulder following a bow-hunting accident. His airway is patent, he is breathing 18 times per minute with good tidal volume, and all bleeding has been controlled. To prepare this patient for transport, you should: A) cut the arrow close to the skin to prevent movement.

B) carefully remove the arrow and transport immediately.

C) attempt to push the arrow through and out the other side.

D) stabilize the arrow with bulky dressings.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 365 Objective: 13 14) You are treating a 2-year-old girl with sand in her eyes after falling at the beach. Your exam reveals visible particles of sand in both eyes. You should: A) use a cotton swab to scrape away all visible sand particles from the eye.

B) carefully pour water into the corner of the eye nearest to her nose to rinse away the foreign objects.

C) transport the patient without rinsing the eye, as the hospital has special equipment to remove the sand.

D) instruct the mother to hold the child's face under running water from a nearby shower.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 366 Objective: 14 15) A responsive patient with a nosebleed and no other injuries should be placed in which position?

A) Seated, leaning slightly forward B) Recovery position C) Trendelenburg position D) Prone, with legs curled under Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 369 Objective: 15 16) Your patient presents with skin that is red and painful to the touch after spilling hot coffee on the top of her foot. There are no blisters present. This burn is most appropriately classified as: A) full thickness.

B) partial thickness.

C) minor.

D) superficial.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 371 Objective: 16

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17) A 32-year-old intoxicated male presents with burns to his hands after falling into a bonfire.

His hands are blistered and extremely painful. This burn would best be classified as: A) partial thickness.

B) severe.

C) full thickness.

D) minor.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 371 Objective: 16 18) The rule of nines is a tool used to: A) determine the likelihood of death from hypovolemic shock.

B) gather a thorough and detailed medical history.

C) estimate the total body surface area affected by burns.

D) calculate the total amount of blood lost from trauma.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 372 Objective: 17 19) You are caring for a patient with partial thickness burns to the front and back of both his legs. You estimate the total body surface area burned to be: A) 12 percent.

B) 24 percent.

C) 36 percent.

D) 48 percent.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 372 Objective: 17 20) Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was burned when a propane stove exploded. He presents with partial and full thickness burns to his arms and torso. You should cover his burns with: A) hemostatic dressings.

B) moist, sterile dressings.

C) dry, sterile dressings.

D) gauze soaked in burn gel.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 373 Objective: 18

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21) The primary method for caring for most chemical burns is to: A) apply ice to the burned area.

B) flush the burned area with water for 20 minutes.

C) rinse with cold water for 15 seconds and apply a pressure dressing.

D) applying a premoistened dressing.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 376 Objective: 19 22) When approaching the scene where a patient has sustained electrical burns, the first thing you would do is: A) look for two burn sites.

B) ensure a patent airway and adequate breathing.

C) apply dry, clean dressings to the burn sites.

D) make sure the source of electricity is turned off.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 377 Objective: 19 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 53-year-old male patient has cut his leg with a chain saw. His airway is patent, he is breathing 18 times per minute with good tidal volume, and supplemental oxygen has been applied.

Bleeding has been controlled with a tourniquet, and the patient is pale, diaphoretic, and anxious.

23) Due to the patient's extensive blood loss, you should expect to: A) gather a detailed medical history.

B) treat the patient for shock.

C) question bystanders.

D) perform a reassessment.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 354 Objective: 4 24) In the past, it was thought that if a tourniquet was used, the patient would always lose the limb to which the tourniquet was applied. What will prevent this from happening?

A) Immediate transport to the hospital B) Reapplying the tourniquet every 10 minutes C) Application of a pressure dressing over the tourniquet D) Replacing the tourniquet with a pressure dressing after 20 minutes Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 354 Objective: 4

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25) The patient is increasingly anxious and begins to thrash around. What should you do?

A) Ask medical direction for permission to sedate the patient.

B) Ask medical direction for permission to restrain the patient until law enforcement arrives.

C) Administer additional oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

D) Reassure the patient, help him to keep still, and initiate transport as soon as possible.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 363 Objective: 11

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 19 Recognition and Care of Shock 1) The term describes the failure of the body's circulatory system to provide an adequate supply of well-oxygenated blood and nutrients to all vital organs.

A) hypotension B) shock C) sepsis D) hyperperfusion Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 354 Objective: 1 2) Shock results from an interruption in the processes of normal: A) perfusion.

B) parthenogenesis.

C) mental function.

D) peristalsis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 382 Objective: 2 3) Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of hypovolemic shock?

A) Blood vessels relax and cause a drop in blood pressure.

B) The body retains fluid and causes high blood pressure.

C) A lack of total blood volume causes poor perfusion.

D) The heart is unable to pump blood effectively through the body.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 382 Objective: 2 4) Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock?

A) An allergic reaction causes fluid and blood to leak out of the vessels, causing hypovolemia.

B) A serious allergic reaction causes the blood vessels to dilate uncontrollably, resulting in a loss of blood pressure.

C) A blood clot prevents blood from returning to the heart and causes a drop in blood pressure.

D) The heart is not able to effectively pump blood through the body.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 386 Objective: 2

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5) occurs when blood vessels over-dilate, creating more space than the available blood supply can fill.

A) Obstructive shock B) Distributive shock C) Vascular shock D) Arterial shock Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 Objective: 2 6) The four major categories of shock are: A) psychogenic, anxiety, cardiac, gastrointestinal.

B) septic, neurogenic, distributive, respiratory.

C) respiratory, geriatric, pediatric, febrile.

D) hypovolemic, distributive, cardiogenic, obstructive.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 384 Objective: 3 7) A 37-year-old female presents as lethargic but oriented, complaining of weakness and dizziness. She states that she has been vomiting for three days and has had severe diarrhea. She has a rapid and weak pulse, and her blood pressure is 92/58. What category of shock is this patient likely experiencing?

A) Distributive B) Hypovolemic C) Cardiogenic D) Respiratory Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 384 Objective: 3 8) A 79-year-old female is complaining of chest pain and a rapid heartbeat. She tells you that she had a heart attack a few years ago and that this feels exactly the same. Her blood pressure is 92/58, and she is showing signs of shock, which you suspect is in the category.

A) obstructive B) hypovolemic C) septic D) cardiogenic Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 382 Objective: 3

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9) Which category of shock would be caused by pericardial tamponade?

A) Distributive B) Hypovolemic C) Cardiogenic D) Obstructive Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 385 Objective: 3 10) Sometimes the body is unable to keep the blood vessels constricted, and the vessels in the body relax, causing a dangerous drop in blood pressure. This is called: A) obstructive shock.

B) distributive shock.

C) vascular shock.

D) arterial shock.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 383 Objective: 3 11) Within the four categories of shock, there are seven main types. Which of the following would fall into the category of hypovolemic shock?

A) Hemorrhagic shock B) Anaphylactic shock C) Psychogenic shock D) Septic shock Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 386 Objective: 4 12) Which of the seven types of shock is also one of the four larger categories of shock?

A) Hemorrhagic shock B) Cardiogenic shock C) Psychogenic shock D) Neurogenic shock Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 386 Objective: 4

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13) Your patient is in the early stages of shock. You notice that her pulse rate is high. This is a normal reaction to shock called , and occurs because her body is releasing epinephrine to help maintain her blood pressure.

A) hemorrhagic shock B) cardiogenic shock C) compensated shock D) neurogenic shock Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 387 Objective: 4 14) A 67-year-old female with pneumonia complains of chills and difficulty breathing. During the primary assessment, you note that her blood pressure is low. You suspect she is in septic shock, which is: A) caused by damage to the spinal cord.

B) a life-threatening type of distributive shock.

C) a severe allergic reaction.

D) a self-correcting condition caused by fear.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 386 Objective: 4 15) Sometimes a factor such as fear causes the nervous system to react and rapidly dilates the blood vessels, causing fainting (syncope). This is called: A) obstructive shock.

B) fearful shock.

C) vascular shock.

D) psychogenic shock.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 16) A 24-year-old man is bleeding profusely. You suspect he is in hemorrhagic shock. His blood pressure is dropping, and his heart rate is beginning to slow. What stage of shock is this patient in?

A) Hypotensive B) Decompensated C) Compensated D) Deadly Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 388 Objective: 4

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17) Your patient is a 47-year-old woman who has been in a car accident. She is not bleeding but has a large bruise on her chest and upper abdomen. She appears anxious and some of the things she says don't make any sense. You recognize that: A) as a paranoid schizophrenic, she should not have been operating a motor vehicle.

B) altered mental status is the most sensitive indicator for the presence of shock.

C) internal bleeding is the most obvious indicator that the patient will go into shock.

D) she is about to have an ischemic stroke.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 Objective: 5 18) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of shock that is most likely to occur before the others?

A) Increased heart rate B) Cardiac arrest C) Pale and sweaty skin D) Restlessness Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 388 Objective: 5 19) A 17-year-old boy has fallen from a tree. He is not very coherent and cannot stand. Based on the mechanism of injury, what should you assume?

A) There is internal bleeding, which can lead to hypovolemic shock.

B) A pulmonary embolism caused obstructive shock, leading to the fall.

C) Since he is young, his heart will pump faster to compensate for any shock, so no treatment is needed.

D) He is likely to have a head injury, which can lead to psychogenic shock.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6 20) A 26-year-old female is in neurogenic shock from an injury to her spine. Her blood pressure is 100/72, and she is having trouble breathing. Which of the following is correct care for this patient?

A) Place her in the recovery position.

B) Ensure an airway and adequate breathing.

C) Have her drink water to reverse hypovolemia.

D) Place ice packs under her armpits and on her abdomen.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6

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21) You suspect your patient has experienced psychogenic shock after hearing some bad news, which caused him to faint and fall to the floor. What treatment should you provide for this patient?

A) Reverse the shock by administering oxygen per local protocols.

B) Have the patient sit down for a few minutes.

C) Examine the patient for injuries caused by the fall.

D) Restrain the patient on the stretcher so he does not fall again.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6 22) A 23-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident. He is showing signs and symptoms of shock. Appropriate care for this patient includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) keeping the patient warm.

B) administering oxygen if allowed.

C) giving small sips of water to support hydration.

D) placing the patient in a supine position.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6 23) If the mechanism of injury causes suspicion for internal bleeding, it is important to begin treating the patient for: A) broken bones.

B) shock.

C) hypoglycemia.

D) dehydration.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 76-year-old man is complaining of chest pain and dizziness after falling off his porch. He has a rapid and weak pulse, and his skin is cool, pale, and sweaty. His blood pressure is 96/64, and he says he feels as though he might pass out.

24) The patient's blood pressure is abnormally low. This is called pathophysiology of shock.

A) hypotension B) hypertension C) hypoperfusion D) hyperperfusion Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 382 Objective: 2

, which is part of the

25) What does your patient's age of 76 tell you about his reaction to shock?

A) An older person is more likely to compensate for shock with high blood pressure than with low blood pressure.

B) Due to physical changes of aging, the body's mechanisms that defend against shock may not function as well as in a younger person.

C) Geriatric patients may become more aggressive when they are in shock due to underlying mental disorders such as dementia.

D) An older person will probably have a less noticeable reaction to shock because they have greater experience with medical problems than a younger person.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 388 Objective: 4 26) In your opinion, your geriatric patient's fall was due to syncope rather than any underlying condition. Which of the following would be the correct treatment?

A) Have him sit quietly on the stretcher and give him a glass of tepid water to replace fluids.

B) Keep the patient cool and ask him to eat something, in case he is having a diabetic emergency.

C) Check him for injuries and advise him to see a health care professional as soon as possible.

D) Tell him to sit on the porch with his feet on the steps, then lean over and put his head between his knees.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6

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27) Which of the following should be done FIRST to help delay the progress of shock in this patient?

A) Provide a blanket B) Calm and reassure the patient C) Administer oxygen per local protocols D) Ensure an open airway Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 389 Objective: 6

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 20 Caring for Muscle and Bone Injuries 1) Which of the following are components of the musculoskeletal system?

A) Brain, heart, lungs B) Tongue, trachea, stomach C) Spleen, liver, pancreas D) Muscles, bones, joints Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 393 Objective: 2 2) The is made up of all the bones that form the upper and lower extremities, including the clavicles, scapulae, arms, wrists, hands, hips, legs, ankles, and feet.

A) musculoskeletal system B) appendicular skeleton C) anterior skeleton D) axial skeleton Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394 Objective: 2 3) A patient presents with an angulated upper arm after a gymnastics accident. This patient likely has an injury to which of the following bones?

A) Fibula B) Ulna C) Humerus D) Scapula Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394 Objective: 3 4) The ulna and radius are medical terms for the bones found in the: A) forearm.

B) shoulder blade.

C) pelvic girdle.

D) spinal column.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 396 Objective: 3 5) A patient has swelling and deformity in her right upper thigh after a motor vehicle crash. You are concerned about an injury to which bone?

A) Clavicle B) Femur C) Humerus D) Patella Answer: B 123 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Diff: 1 Page Ref: 396 Objective: 3 6) The function of the musculoskeletal system is to: A) fight infection and disease.

B) exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

C) provide support, movement, protection and cell production.

D) provide transportation of nutrients to the rest of the body.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 403 Objective: 4 7) Which of the following best describes the function of the bones in the musculoskeletal system?

A) Control how and when the body moves B) Regulate hormone levels and fluid balance C) Allow the brain to send signals to other parts of the body D) Provide support, protection, and cell production Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 8) Your patient broke his wrist when he tripped over a tree root and put out his hand to try to break his fall. You recognize that this kind of break is caused by force.

A) direct B) indirect C) twisting D) minor Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397 Objective: 5 9) A 32-year-old man was pushed into a piece of machinery that caught his foot in a gear and injured his leg severely. This injury was caused by force.

A) direct B) indirect C) twisting D) major Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 5 10) An open injury is best defined as a(n): A) injury where something (such as a bone) tears through the skin.

B) soft-tissue injury categorized by pain, swelling, and deformity.

C) injury where the bone is broken beneath the skin.

D) soft-tissue injury where blood collects beneath the skin.

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Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 6 11) Your patient presents with pain, deformity, swelling and crepitus to the left wrist. This injury would best be described as: A) open injury.

B) compound fracture.

C) hairline fracture.

D) closed injury.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 6 12) Which of the following occurs when the end of a bone that is part of a joint is pushed out of place?

A) Strain B) Fracture C) Dislocation D) Sprain Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 7 13) A sprain is an injury affecting which type of tissue?

A) Bone B) Muscle C) Ligament D) Joint Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 7 14) The most common signs and symptoms of distal extremity injuries include: A) rapid heartbeat, respiration, and pain.

B) bleeding, shock, and paralysis.

C) numbness and tingling in all extremities.

D) pain, swelling, discoloration, and deformity.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 398 Objective: 8 15) Your patient fell off her mountain bike when she rode it down a steep incline. Her leg is injured and painful. To assess the injury, you ask her if she can move the limb, but she says she's afraid to try because it hurts so much. Which of the following should you ask her to do instead?

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D) Tell you if leg is swollen or just fat Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 400 Objective: 8 16) Which of the following is the BEST description of an open fracture?

A) A break where there is visible bone protruding from the injury site B) Any fracture where the soft tissue adjacent to the injury is damaged and open C) A fracture that requires surgical repair D) Any injury where there are multiple broken bones in one area of the body Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 400 Objective: 8 17) Your patient presents with an angulated and swollen right forearm after falling off a skateboard. You feel crepitus upon palpation. This patient has likely experienced a: A) strain.

B) fracture.

C) sprain.

D) dislocation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 400 Objective: 9 18) Your patient has broken his tibia and the ends of the bone are raising the tissue but not sticking out of the wound. To minimize the chance of this closed fracture becoming an open fracture, you will: A) place the ends of the bone back into place.

B) apply a splint.

C) ask the patient what he remembers.

D) apply direct, twisting force to straighten the leg.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 403 Objective: 10 19) All splinting of an injured bone must immobilize: A) only the joint directly below the injury.

B) the joints directly above and below the injury.

C) the straight bone but not the joint.

D) only the joint directly above the injury.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 405 Objective: 10 20) A sling and a swathe may be used for: A) injuries to the neck and head.

B) injuries to the upper arm bone and forearm.

C) injuries to the abdomen.

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D) injuries to the lower leg or foot.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 405 Objective: 10 21) Of the following steps in caring for a patient with an open fracture of the femur, which one has first priority?

A) Ensure an open airway and adequate breathing.

B) Manually immobilize the extremity.

C) Apply a cold pack to the injury site.

D) Check for distal circulation, sensation, and motor function.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 402 Objective: 11 22) Your patient has an open fracture of the ulna. Which of the following is the first thing you should do?

A) Immobilize the joints above and below the injury with a sling B) Secure the injured extremity to the body with a swathe C) Cut away clothing to expose the injury site, then control bleeding.

D) Splint the injury, then prop the extremity up on a pillow Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 402 Objective: 11 23) If your initial assessment of an injured knee reveals no distal pulse, you should it is allowed by your EMS system.

A) administer aspirin for pain B) vigorously massage the extremity C) lower the extremity below the level of the heart D) make one attempt to straighten the limb Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 417 Objective: 12 24) Which of the following is the appropriate time to use a traction splint?

A) Suspected isolated mid-shaft femur fractures B) Suspected injury to the knee C) Suspected injury to the foot D) Suspected isolated pelvic fracture Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 417 Objective: 12 25) Which of the following best describes the position of function for the hand?

A) Wrist straight with all fingers extended.

B) All fingers curled, forming a fist.

C) Fingers relaxed with the wrist at a 90-degree angle.

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if

D) Fingers slightly flexed, wrist cocked slightly upward Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 409 Objective: 13 26) Which of the following should be done FIRST when caring for a patient with an open fracture?

A) A detailed head-to-toe exam B) Obtain vital signs C) Reassessment D) Control bleeding Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 411 Objective: 13 27) What is the minimum number of people needed to properly apply a splint?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 412 Objective: 13 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 37-year-old male was involved in a rollover collision and is unresponsive. He has musculoskeletal injuries, as well as injuries to other body systems.

28) This patient has injuries to his chest from hitting the steering column. This type of injury is generally caused by: A) twisting force B) direct force C) indirect force D) converse force Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397 Objective: 5 29) Which of the following is the first priority during your primary assessment for this severely injured patient?

A) Look for and control all major bleeding B) Assess the ABCs and mental status C) Note the mechanism of injury D) Stabilize neck and spinal injuries 128 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 401 Objective: 9 30) This patient should be: A) placed in the recovery position while each injury is immobilized individually.

B) transported without lights and sirens, as chances of survival are slim.

C) questioned about the mechanism of injury.

D) totally immobilized on a long board for rapid transit.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 415 Objective: 14

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Chapter 21 Caring for Head and Spine Injuries 1) The central nervous system is made up of: A) the cranium and vertebrae.

B) the peripheral nerves.

C) the ribs and cervical spine.

D) the brain and spinal column.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 425 Objective: 2 2) The cranium is made up of: A) the bones of the face and neck.

B) the bones of the pelvis.

C) the bones of the head and face.

D) the bones of the torso.

Answer: C Diff: 4 Page Ref: 425 Objective: 3 3) The spinal column: A) begins at the rib cage and ends at the lower back.

B) is very strong and not susceptible to injury.

C) begins at the base of the skull and extends down into the pelvis.

D) is part of the peripheral nervous system.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 435 Objective: 4 4) A young man has fallen head first from the roof of a three-story building onto a grassy surface. You should: A) not consider spinal injury since he fell onto a soft surface.

B) ask him to stand to assess for spinal injury.

C) suspect injury to the cervical spine.

D) call for law enforcement since he is likely intoxicated.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 435 Objective: 4

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5) A 36-year-old female is unresponsive after a motorcycle accident. Because of the mechanism of injury, you should suspect she has sustained: A) a head or spinal injury.

B) peripheral nervous system injury.

C) meningitis.

D) a twisting blow.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 426 Objective: 5 6) All unresponsive trauma patients should be assumed to have which of the following?

A) Intoxication B) High blood sugar C) Low blood sugar D) Spinal injury Answer: D Diff: 4 Page Ref: 426 Objective: 5 7) Your patient is a 13-year-old girl who was hit in the head with the ball while playing soccer and was briefly knocked out. Now she has a headache but wants to keep playing. You should: A) let her resume play, but tell her to go to the doctor if her headache gets worse.

B) assume an open head injury, even though you don't see any blood, and continue with emergency care.

C) suspect concussion unless you find signs of swelling around the patients eyes.

D) withhold any interventions until a higher level of care arrives.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 428 Objective: 6 8) One of the common signs and symptoms of a potential head injury is: A) deformity of the shoulder.

B) nausea and vomiting.

C) bleeding from an upper extremity.

D) blunt force trauma.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 429 Objective: 7 9) When caring for a patient who has sustained a head injury, it is important to: A) maintain manual stabilization of the head and neck.

B) control bleeding with as much pressure as you can apply.

C) open the airway using the head-tilt/chin-lift method if the patient is responsive.

D) have the patient sit up, hands on knees, leaning slightly forward.

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10) When caring for an injury to the face, it is important to watch out for _ that nothing is accidentally forced into the patient's airway.

A) bleeding from the tooth socket B) broken teeth or dental appliances C) supplemental oxygen D) penetrating trauma to the back Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430 Objective: 8

and ensure

11) Which of the following patient presentations is MOST consistent with cervical spine injury?

A) Weakness, numbness, and tingling of the hands and feet on one side of the body B) Paralysis and impaired breathing C) Loss of feeling in the legs but not the arms D) Shortness of breath, chest pain, left arm pain Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 431 Objective: 9 12) Your patient has fallen and complains of pain in his neck and shoulder. He is alert and oriented, and is not experiencing any numbness or weakness. What is the appropriate means of spinal motion restriction for this patient?

A) Rigid cervical collar B) Manual stabilization C) Soft cervical collar D) Long board Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 434 Objective: 10 13) A 17-year-old male has crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He has adequate respiration but you suspect a spinal injury. What should you do about his helmet?

A) Kneel on one side of the patient and unstrap the helmet.

B) Pull the sides of the helmet apart using the straps and slowly lift it off the patient's head.

C) Leave the helmet on, secure the patient to a long board with his head in a neutral, in-line position.

D) Kneel behind the patient's head, pull the helmet toward you until it comes off, and apply a soft cervical collar.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 441 Objective: 10

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14) When properly fitted, a rigid cervical collar should: A) completely cover the ears.

B) come at least one inch forward of the chin.

C) be used to immobilize an unconscious patient.

D) come close to or slightly overlap the earlobe.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 437 Objective: 10 15) Your suspect your patient has a spinal injury. You have completed your primary assessment and treated all life threats. Your next step is to: A) gather a complete patient history.

B) perform a reassessment.

C) call for medical direction to determine further treatment.

D) follow local protocol for immobilizing the patient.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 436 Objective: 10 16) Your patient was hit by a car and thrown several yards. He presents with snoring respirations and a rapid and weak radial pulse. You suspect a spinal injury, based on the mechanism of injury. You should FIRST: A) open the airway with a head tilt-chin lift.

B) immobilize the patient to a backboard.

C) open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

D) obtain a set of vital signs.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 433 Objective: 11 17) A patient is trapped in the back seat of a car. He is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing, but you cannot reach him to ensure an open airway in his current position. You suspect spinal injuries. You should: A) apply a nasal cannula because you must never move a patient with suspected spinal injuries.

B) withhold oxygen until a higher level of care arrives.

C) remove him from the vehicle to manage his ABCs. D) keep the patient still and splint any injuries you can reach.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 436 Objective: 11

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 36-year-old male has fallen from a second-story window after drinking heavily at a party. He complains of pain in his left forearm but there is no external sign of injury there. He also tells you that he cannot feel his legs. His breathing is diaphragmatic.

18) Based on the mechanism of injury, you suspect that the pains in his arm is: A) a hallucination.

B) referred pain.

C) a distracting injury.

D) a radiating injury.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 434 Objective: 10 19) You must carefully check all your patient's extremities for A) concussion, sensitivity, malformation B) circulation, sensation, and motor function C) cracks, sprains, or multisystem trauma D) crepitus, systemic injuries, maladaptation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 431 Objective: 9

, or CSM.

20) The signs and symptoms exhibited by this patient make you suspect: A) there is no serious spinal cord injury.

B) a probable injury to the lower spinal cord.

C) a probable injury to the spinal cord somewhere below the neck.

D) a probably injury to the cervical area of the spinal cord.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 433 Objective: 9 21) To minimize the patient's head and neck movement prior to packaging him on an immobilization device for transport, you will need to: A) apply sterile dressings to the distracting injury.

B) treat for hyperextension injury.

C) administer oxygen with a bag mask.

D) select and apply an appropriate cervical collar.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 436 Objective: 10

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 22 Caring for Chest and Abdominal Emergencies 1) Which of the following best describes the mediastinum?

A) The space between the inner and outer lining of the lungs B) The space that houses the heart, aorta, and esophagus C) The fibrous sac surrounding the heart D) The space between the ribs and the diaphragm Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446 Objective: 3 2) What are the two layers of the thin, saclike structure that surrounds each lung?

A) The left and right intercostal muscles B) The vena cava and the aortal cava C) The visceral pleura and the parietal pleura D) The pleural space and the thoracic cavity Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446 Objective: 3 3) A spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when there is: A) infection in the chest wall.

B) penetrating injury to the chest.

C) damage to the pericardium.

D) a rupture in a weak area in the lung.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 447 Objective: 4 4) Which of the following can happen as result of an open chest injury from a knife wound?

A) Impairment of normal breathing B) Squeezed heart C) Spontaneous pneumothorax D) Flail chest Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 447 Objective: 4 5) Which of the following describes a hemothorax?

A) Air in the pleural space.

B) Instability in the chest wall affecting breathing C) Bones grind together D) Blood in the pleural space Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 448 Objective: 5 135 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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6) Your patient has sustained a blunt impact to the chest. Which signs or symptoms make you suspect a closed chest injury?

A) Bleeding from the injury B) Accessory muscle use C) Tension pneumothorax D) Sucking sound Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 448 Objective: 6 7) Paradoxical movement indicates a: A) flail chest.

B) pneumothorax.

C) hemothorax.

D) cardiac tamponade.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 448 Objective: 6 8) Your patient was injured when his airbag deployed during a head-on collision. To begin your assessment, you first: A) palpate for signs of deformity.

B) pay attention to any soft or spongy areas.

C) remove or cut away clothing to expose the chest.

D) use a bag mask to administer oxygen.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 448 Objective: 7 9) Your patient has a flail chest. What does the Emergency Medical Responder understand about stabilizing the flail segment?

A) Do not attempt to stabilize the flail segment.

B) Stabilize the segment by wrapping thick bandages around it.

C) Remove the flail segment with your gloved hand, then pack the wound with a sterile dressing.

D) Support good tidal volume to prevent infection and sepsis.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 449 Objective: 8

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10) Your patient presents with a single stab wound to the right chest. He complains of sharp pain while breathing and feels short of breath. His lung sounds are clear on the left but diminished on the right. You suspect: A) injury to the larynx.

B) spinal injury.

C) flail chest.

D) open pneumothorax.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 449 Objective: 4 11) Sucking chest wounds must be sealed immediately to prevent: A) infection.

B) blood entering the chest.

C) air entering the chest cavity.

D) excessive bleeding.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450 Objective: 9 12) A 47-year-old female presents with a single gunshot wound to the chest. You can see and hear air moving in and out of the wound. You should: A) irrigate the wound with normal saline.

B) apply antibiotic cream to the wound.

C) apply an occlusive dressing.

D) stabilize the bullet.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450 Objective: 9 13) Your patient has penetrating trauma to the chest, which you have covered with an occlusive dressing. As you monitor the patient's breathing, you notice he is having more difficulty. You should: A) wrap the dressing more tightly with absorbent bandages.

B) apply tracheal deviation until breathing normalizes.

C) palpate for signs of flail chest.

D) release the dressing momentarily to see if air escapes from the wound.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450 Objective: 9

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14) Your patient presents with a piece of rebar impaled in his chest. You should: A) remove the rebar and apply an occlusive dressing.

B) cut the rebar as close to the patient as possible.

C) stabilize the object with bulky dressings.

D) do nothing until a higher level of care arrives.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 451 Objective: 9 15) The abdominal cavity is separated from the chest cavity by the: A) diaphragm.

B) liver.

C) stomach.

D) rib cage.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 452 Objective: 10 16) For assessment purposes, the Emergency Medical Responder thinks of the abdomen as being divided into: A) quadrants.

B) quintets.

C) anterior and posterior segments.

D) axial and anatomical segments.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 452 Objective: 10 17) Your patient is vomiting bright red blood. You should suspect: A) appendicitis.

B) tension pneumothorax.

C) diverticulitis.

D) active internal bleeding.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 454 Objective: 11 18) When a patient is "guarding" his abdomen, you will notice that he: A) curls up on his side and covers his stomach with his hands.

B) bends his head and upper chest toward his feet.

C) sits up with his knees drawn up to his chest.

D) has noticeable swelling in the affected area.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 453 Objective: 12

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19) A 13-year-old boy was punched in the stomach during a "play fight" with a friend. To assess for a closed abdominal injury, you will to determine where the pain is and where it is not.

A) listen for sucking sounds B) palpate all quadrants C) assess his ABCs D) cover the area with an occlusive dressing Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 455 Objective: 12 20) Care for an evisceration includes: A) covering the wound with a moist, sterile dressing.

B) irrigating the wound with warm saline.

C) putting the spilled intestines back into the wound.

D) putting hot packs on the dressing to prevent heat loss.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 455 Objective: 13 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

A 16-year-old boy was tackled hard at football practice. He received hard blows to the chest and abdomen.

21) When assessing a patient who has a blunt-force trauma to the chest, you should be suspicious of: A) liver damage.

B) a sucking chest wound.

C) flail chest.

D) subcutaneous air.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 447 Objective: 7 22) When assessing your patient for a closed chest injury, which of the following would tell you to suspect flail chest?

A) Blood seeping into the chest cavity B) Ruptured lungs C) Guarding behavior D) Areas that feel soft or spongy during palpation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 449 Objective: 7 139 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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23) When assessing a patient who has a blunt-force trauma to the abdomen, you should: A) suspect a pneumothorax.

B) palpate the quadrants.

C) obtain help before removing his helmet.

D) suspect a hemothorax.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 452 Objective: 12 24) While assessing your patient for closed abdominal injury, you notice that he has pain in the upper left quadrant. Which of the following organs may be injured?

A) Spleen B) Gall bladder C) Pancreas D) Appendix Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 452 Objective: 10 25) Your patient complains of a dull pain in his abdomen, which feels rigid and looks distended.

You recognize these signs and symptoms of: A) appendicitis.

B) aortic dissection.

C) evisceration.

D) internal bleeding.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 454 Objective: 11

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 23 Care During Pregnancy and Childbirth 1) The fetus grows inside a special sac called the: A) amniotic sac.

B) placenta.

C) ovum.

D) cervical sac.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 463 Objective: 2 2) Which of the following is a sign of imminent delivery?

A) Onset of regular contractions B) Cervix dilated to 5 cm C) Gestation D) Crowning Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 462 Objective: 3 3) The second stage of labor begins: A) when contractions begin.

B) when the baby enters the birth canal.

C) when the baby is born.

D) when the placenta delivers.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 463 Objective: 4 4) A pregnant woman has been experiencing light contractions that come at irregular intervals.

These are called: A) the second stage of labor.

B) contraction time.

C) stage two intervals.

D) Braxton-Hicks contractions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 464 Objective: 4

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5) If your response unit does not carry a commercial OB kit, you will need to collect appropriate equipment, including: A) sheets to use in place of PPE. B) gauze pads for draping the mother and drying the baby.

C) a basin for disposing of soiled linens and dressings.

D) sterile scissors or single-edged razor for cutting the umbilical cord.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 465 Objective: 5 6) Your patient is an expectant mother in active labor. That means her contractions are no more than apart.

A) ten minutes B) five minutes C) two minutes D) seven minutes Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 466 Objective: 6 7) When assisting an expectant mother, her water breaks and she is experiencing contractions every five minutes. You determine that crowning is not present. At this point, you should: A) arrange for transport.

B) begin predelivery assessment.

C) deliver the baby.

D) tell her to push.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 466 Objective: 6 8) Your patient is an expectant mother with signs of imminent delivery. You realize that you will have to deliver the baby. What is the first thing to do when assisting with a normal delivery?

A) Drape the mother and place her on top of clean sheets or towels.

B) Wash your hands with soap and water or with commercial hand wash.

C) Place one hand below the baby's head to support it.

D) Check for the presence of a nuchal cord.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 468 Objective: 7

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9) While helping a pregnant woman to deliver her baby, you discover that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck. What should you do?

A) Call for immediate assistance.

B) Tell the mother to stop labor until you remove the cord.

C) Use two fingers and attempt to slip the cord over the baby's head.

D) Pull the amniotic sac out of the mother and the cord will go with it.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 470 Objective: 7 10) Your primary concern when caring for a newborn baby is: A) clearing the airway and ensuring that the baby is breathing.

B) assessing for meconium staining.

C) assessing whether the mother is having twins.

D) determining how much blood the mother lost during delivery.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 471 Objective: 8 11) You are caring for a newborn baby who is not breathing. You try rubbing the baby's back gently but vigorously, without result. What else can you do to stimulate breathing in a newborn?

A) Keep the baby warm.

B) Have the mother try nursing him.

C) Snap your index fingers on the soles of the feet.

D) Cut the umbilical cord between two clamps.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 472 Objective: 8 12) For nonbreathing newborns, provide ventilations at: A) 20 to 30 breaths per minute.

B) 60 to 70 breaths per minute.

C) 30 to 40 breaths per minute.

D) 40 to 60 breaths per minute.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 483 Objective: 8 13) After ventilating a newborn for 30 seconds, check the baby's heart rate. If the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute, you should: A) stop artificial ventilations and apply oxygen via nonrebreather mask.

B) stop artificial respirations and apply oxygen via nasal cannula.

C) continue ventilations and begin chest compressions.

D) continue ventilating for an additional 60 seconds.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 473 Objective: 8 143 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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14) After helping to deliver a healthy baby, you notice the mother is having a significant amount of vaginal bleeding. You should: A) place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening.

B) pack the vaginal canal with sterile gauze.

C) have the mother firmly squeeze her knees together.

D) elevate the pelvis to slow the bleeding.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 475 Objective: 9 15) You must save the placenta, all attached membranes, and all soiled sheets and towels so that a physician can examine them to ensure the entire organ and its membranes were expelled from the uterus. If you don't have a basin or container to collect these items, allow the afterbirth to deliver directly: A) onto the ground.

B) onto a towel.

C) into a biohazard bag.

D) onto the baby.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 475 Objective: 9 16) Sometimes a woman in the early stages of pregnancy notices a light discharge of blood. This may be spotting or it may be: A) premature delivery.

B) the sign of an STD. C) a miscarriage.

D) false labor.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 476 Objective: 10 17) Bleeding that occurs during the third trimester of pregnancy may indicate a problem with the: A) amniotic sac.

B) placenta.

C) ovaries.

D) uterus.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 476 Objective: 11

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18) Which of the following is appropriate care for a pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding?

A) Have the patient insert a tampon.

B) Place the patient on her right side and have her squeeze her legs together.

C) Dispose of all blood-soaked items as biological waste.

D) Place a sanitary pad or bulky dressing over the vaginal opening.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 476 Objective: 12 19) If the baby is stressed during delivery, she may eliminate fecal material called meconium. If this material mixes with the amniotic fluid, there is a danger that: A) the mother will develop sepsis.

B) premature delivery may result.

C) the baby may inhale it, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

D) the pregnancy may become ectopic.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 478 Objective: 13 20) You are assisting a pregnant woman who has gone into labor. During your examination, you realize the baby is in a breech position. What should you do?

A) Initiate transport immediately.

B) Reach inside the birth canal and turn the baby around.

C) Ask the mother to roll over so the baby will be facing the right direction.

D) Deliver the baby as usual.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 478 Objective: 13 21) During the last few months of pregnancy, a woman can develop back.

A) collapsed umbilicus B) supine hypotensive syndrome C) preeclampsia D) gestational diabetes Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 14 22) What is the treatment for supine hypotensive syndrome?

A) Place the patient in the prone position.

B) Provide supplemental oxygen.

C) Have the patient assume the knee-chest position.

D) Have the patient lie on her left side.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 15 145 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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if she lies on her

23) Your patient is a pregnant woman with abnormally high blood pressure and swollen legs and ankles. You recognize these as signs of: A) preeclampsia.

B) hypotension.

C) eclampsia.

D) uterine enlargement.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 16 24) When you recognize the signs of preeclampsia in a pregnant patient, rapid transport to the hospital is essential. This is because preeclampsia can lead to: A) breech positioning.

B) eclampsia, which is life threatening.

C) prolapsed umbilical cord.

D) gestational diabetes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 18 25) Which of the following is important for an Emergency Medical Responder to understand when assisting a pregnant woman with a traumatic injury?

A) A traumatic injury in the mother can rotate the baby in utero, causing a breech presentation.

B) The amniotic sac protects the fetus from blunt force trauma more at the end of pregnancy than at the beginning.

C) Her larger blood volume means she may not show early signs of shock.

D) Pregnant women often have altered mental status that may not be related to the injury.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 19 26) A pregnant woman whose blood pressure is dropping may have experienced a(n): A) traumatic injury.

B) contraction.

C) amniotic event.

D) bloody show.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 481 Objective: 20

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

Your patient is a woman who is in her 38th week of pregnancy. She started having contractions while at her job, and her employer called 911.

27) Based on the fact that the mother is in her 38th week of pregnancy, you understand that this pregnancy is: A) full term.

B) high risk.

C) in the second trimester.

D) an emergency.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 462 Objective: 1 28) You time her labor pains using , which means from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next one.

A) contraction time B) labor segments C) interval time D) intermittent units Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 463 Objective: 4 29) As you prepare to assist the mother with a field delivery, which of the following is a relevant question you should ask?

A) Do twins run in the family?

B) Has her water broken?

C) Would she like to use the bathroom before delivering?

D) Does she have preeclampsia?

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 466 Objective: 6 30) If there is nobody else there to act as coach, you should talk to the mother during the labor process and stay alert for: A) fontanels.

B) eclampsia.

C) gestational diabetes.

D) vomiting.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 470 Objective: 7 147 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 24 Caring for Infants and Children 1) The components of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle are: A) airway, breathing, and circulation.

B) appearance, work of breathing, circulation.

C) mental status, airway, and motor function.

D) circulation, sensation, and motor function.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 495 Objective: 3 2) As you walk into a residence, you see a 3-year-old boy who looks at you and smiles. He is leaning forward and has visible retractions and accessory muscle use. His skin appears normal.

Which component of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle is affected in this patient?

A) Work of breathing B) Appearance C) Circulation D) Airway Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 495 Objective: 3 3) When approaching a child, you should: A) avoid eye contact.

B) speak to her directly.

C) speak only to the parents.

D) stand above her looking down.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 489 Objective: 4 4) One trick that can help when you need to provide oxygen to an uncooperative small child is to push the oxygen tubing: A) through a paper cup.

B) down the child's throat.

C) into the child's nose.

D) back and forth in front of the child's face.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 497 Objective: 4

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5) To help keep an infant or child calm, the order of the physical assessment should be: A) toe to head.

B) random and surprising.

C) head to toe.

D) always from a distance.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 498 Objective: 4 6) What is the most common cause for cardiac arrest in a child?

A) Coronary artery disease B) Respiratory arrest C) High blood pressure D) Unexpected exertion Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 499 Objective: 5 7) An acute respiratory condition found in infants and children and characterized by a barking type of cough is known as: A) bronchiolitis.

B) asthma.

C) croup.

D) epiglottitis.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 500 Objective: 6 8) Which of the following questions is MOST appropriate to ask the parent of a child who has had a seizure?

A) What did the child eat for breakfast?

B) When was the last time the child went to the doctor?

C) Has the child had a fever?

D) Does the child have any allergies?

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 501 Objective: 6 9) Which statement is true regarding children and drowning?

A) A child with no heartbeat is considered biologically dead.

B) Because of their smaller surface area, children are less prone to hypothermia.

C) Children have been revived more often than adults after 30 minutes submersion in cold water.

D) Once a child is alert after submersion in water, there is no more danger.

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10) The sudden, unexplained death of an apparently healthy baby is called: A) SIDS. B) ALTE. C) AIDS. D) SDDS. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 505 Objective: 7 11) Your infant patient has died suddenly and unexplainably during sleep. You should: A) classify the death as an incident of SIDS and notify authorities.

B) start resuscitation unless rigor mortis and/or lividity are present.

C) leave the scene so the family can grieve.

D) question the parents to identify any child abuse.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 505 Objective: 8 12) Your patient is an 18-month-old child who fell into a fire pit. Although his father pulled him out immediately, you estimate the child has burns on about 40% of his body. You should: A) Use the rule of nines to precisely determine the percentage of body surface that is damaged before beginning first aid.

B) Report a potential case of child abuse to law enforcement, then arrange for transport.

C) Place the child on his back and administer 40 to 60 breaths with a bag mask device.

D) Care for the burned area with dry, sterile dressings and arrange for immediate transport.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 Objective: 9 13) When using the rule of nines to assess burned body area percentage in children, the Emergency Medical Responder must remember that: A) all percentages must be halved to account for a child's smaller size.

B) all percentages must be doubled to account for a child's different proportions.

C) the total percentage must add up to precisely 100%.

D) the head and neck is 18% in a child and only 9% in adult.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 Objective: 10

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14) Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate the possibility of psychological abuse in a child?

A) Combativeness, staring, manipulativeness B) Extreme anxiety, extreme passiveness, avoidance of eye contact C) Rashes or sores around the genitals, unusually good grades D) Old bruises, areas of swelling, burn marks Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 507 Objective: 11 15) Which of the following might well indicate that a child has been sexually abused?

A) Genital injuries B) Head injuries C) Asthma D) Cigarette burns Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 508 Objective: 11 16) When you suspect abuse or neglect of a child and the caregivers are present, you should: A) provide necessary care, document findings, and alert proper authorities.

B) inform the parents that you are removing the child for his/her own safety.

C) tell the abuser to admit what has happened or you will call the police.

D) ask the caregiver to leave the room so you can speak to the child.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 510 Objective: 12 17) In most states, Emergency Medical Responders are designated by law as means you must report cases of suspected abuse or neglect.

A) child welfare agents B) exempt from HIPAA confidentiality rules C) law enforcement officers D) mandated reporters Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 507 Objective: 12

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, which

SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You arrive on scene to find a four-year-old boy with a fresh burn on his back in the approximate shape of a triangle with curved sides. The child is not crying and accepts your examination passively. During your examination, you notice yellow bruises and several healed scars. The father stands in the background with his arms folded, not looking at you. The mother tells you a detailed story about how the child pulled the iron onto himself by pulling on the cord.

18) Based on your scene size-up and primary assessment of the young boy with a large burn on his back, what do you suspect?

A) Developmental disability B) Hypoxia and shock C) Physical and psychological child abuse D) Head trauma Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 509 Objective: 11 19) What is the correct treatment for this child's burns?

A) Submerge the child in cold running water B) Cover the burned area with nonadherent burn dressings C) Apply burn cream D) Apply an ice pack for 20 minutes Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 506 Objective: 9 20) Proper care for this child's injuries involves immediate transport to the burn unit at the hospital, but the parents don't want you to take him. You should: A) leave the child at home but notify child protective services after you leave.

B) tell them you don't believe a word of the mother's story about how the child was injured and you are placing them under arrest.

C) tell them the child needs to be seen by a health care provider because of the difficulty of determining the seriousness of injuries in the field.

D) explain that you will be transporting the child to the hospital with or without their permission, as required by law.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 510 Objective: 12

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21) Which side of the pediatric assessment triangle has told you that this child may be the victim of abuse?

A) Airway B) Appearance C) Work of Breath D) Circulation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 495 Objective: 3

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 25 Special Considerations for the Geriatric Patient 1) Older adults commonly have: A) active social lives.

B) no living relatives.

C) multiple medical conditions.

D) uncooperative attitudes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 Objective: 3 2) Unintentional medication errors are common among elderly patients because: A) caregivers can't read English.

B) doctors prescribe the wrong medications.

C) elder abuse is common.

D) they often have multiple prescriptions.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 Objective: 3 3) Which of the following is a problem caused by limited mobility in older adults?

A) Having to move to a warmer climate B) Depression C) Verbal abuse D) Altered sense of smell Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519 Objective: 3 4) You notice that your elderly patient seems to be having trouble hearing you. You should: A) lift him into the ambulance where there is less noise.

B) put your hand on his arm so he can find you.

C) direct your questions to family or caregivers.

D) offer to let the patient listen through the stethoscope.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519

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Objective: 3 5) Your patient is unable to tell you what day it is or the last time he ate. You are unsure if he is always like this or if this is a new onset of altered mental status. You should first: A) check his medications to see if he has been taking them as directed.

B) interview family members and caregivers about his normal mental status.

C) perform a physical assessment to check for traumatic injuries.

D) assume this is normal for the patient but still persuade him to see his physician.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519 Objective: 3 6) Which of the following is a common age-related change in the respiratory system of geriatric patients?

A) Reduced strength and endurance of respiratory muscles B) Smaller, narrower airways C) Excessive mucus production D) Trouble remembering to breathe Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 522 Objective: 4 7) For older adults, loss of elasticity in the blood vessels can result in: A) difficulty remembering recent events.

B) decreased reaction time.

C) constipation.

D) high blood pressure.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 521 Objective: 4 8) You notice that your elderly patient has multiple bruises and minor skin tears on her arm after striking it on a doorway as she walked through it. You determine her injuries are likely due to: A) liver spots or age spots on her arm.

B) self-abuse due to clinical depression.

C) loss of elasticity and thickness of the skin.

D) her inability to take care of herself.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 522 Objective: 4 9) When addressing a geriatric patient, which of the following is the best way?

A) Call the patient "honey" or "sweetie" so they will trust you.

B) Call the patient by his or her first name to show friendliness.

C) Address the patient directly by title and last name (e.g., Mr. Green or Mrs. Smith) D) Avoid eye contact so as not to frighten the patient.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 523 155 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Objective: 5 10) In addition to your regular scene size-up, with an elderly patient you should check for: A) the size of the home.

B) conditions that suggest abuse or neglect.

C) a working vehicle and valid license.

D) family members living nearby.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 523 Objective: 5 11) is a progressive, degenerative disease that attacks the brain and results in impaired thinking.

A) Alzheimer's B) Crohn's disease C) Urticaria D) Emphysema Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 Objective: 6 12) What is the leading cause of injury and death among the elderly?

A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Suicide D) Trauma from falls Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 Objective: 6 13) You are called for an elderly man who was found lying on the sidewalk early on a cold winter morning. He has a light jacket on, but it appears he has been outside overnight. There is a pile of mail scattered nearby. Your assessment shows that his extremities are very cold and he seems disoriented. He groans when you palpate his pelvis. You should suspect he is suffering from: A) Alzheimer's disease.

B) a medication overdose.

C) hypothermia.

D) a closed head injury.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 Objective: 6

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14) You are called to assist an elderly woman who has fallen. She says she feels stupid because she tripped over a small rug at the bottom of the stairs. This tells you that: A) she most likely has an underlying medical condition.

B) the patient is overmedicating.

C) she has some form of dementia.

D) this is a mechanical fall.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 Objective: 6 15) One duty of an Emergency Medical Responder is to advocate for adult population by identifying in the home.

A) injury prevention / potential hazards B) dementia prevention / stimulating materials C) socialization / isolating conditions D) caregivers / possible improvements Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 525 Objective: 7

among the older

16) You are called for a 72-year-old widower who lives with his grandson in a nice middle-class neighborhood. He is bleeding from a head wound, and he tells you that he fell in the shower.

You notice multiple bruises of various colors on his arms and that the room where he stays is messy and has a foul smell. His grandson tells you that he does not need to go to the hospital.

You should suspect the patient: A) may be being abused.

B) doesn't have insurance.

C) has mild dementia.

D) is clinically depressed.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 525 Objective: 8 17) Which of the following would indicate emotional abuse of the elderly?

A) Embezzlement of property B) Poor hygiene and unkempt appearance C) Threats of harm or humiliation D) Signs of malnutrition Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 525 Objective: 8

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18) You suspect your elderly patient may be the victim of neglect. You should: A) confront caregivers.

B) keep quiet since you have no proof.

C) explain the situation to a friend and ask for his or her opinion.

D) notify the proper authorities.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 526 Objective: 9 19) Most states require Emergency Medical Responders to with regard to their geriatric patients. Make sure you know the legal requirements for your local area.

A) report cases of physical or mental frailty B) report suspected cases of abuse and neglect C) encourage social connectedness D) assist with coping and adapting to change Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 526 Objective: 9 20) Which of the following people is at the greatest risk of suicide, based on their demographics?

A) A 72-year-old man who is recently divorced, plays golf, and goes to jazz concerts.

B) A 78-year-old woman with mobility issues who volunteers at the local library.

C) An 87-year-old man who lives alone, doesn't go out, and has chronic arthritis.

D) A 90-year-old woman who likes to garden and visits with her neighbors and grandchildren every week.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 526 Objective: 10 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You are called to the scene of an elderly man who fell on the sidewalk in front of his house. He appears to be lucid and even cheerful, and says that he's fine, it happens all the time. You notice that he has an abrasion on his arm that is bleeding profusely.

21) Which of the following is an appropriate technique to use during the physical exam of an elderly patient?

A) Remove clothing completely to ensure a thorough assessment.

B) Handle the patient gently and carefully.

C) Palpate the abdomen more firmly than usual.

D) Conduct the exam in a cool environment to avoid overheating.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 523 Objective: 5 158 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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22) Your elderly patient shows you his list of medications and tells you what he takes them for.

You should also ask: A) "Are you taking all of them as prescribed?"

B) "Do you share your medications with your wife?"

C) "Who is your physician?"

D) "How often do you have your prescriptions refilled?"

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 Objective: 3 23) One medication your patient takes is a blood thinner. Because of this, you will pay extra attention to the wound on his arm and watch for signs of: A) drug use.

B) elder abuse.

C) internal bleeding.

D) dementia.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518 Objective: 3 24) Your patient says he doesn't actually remember falling down. Combined with his previous statement that "it happens all the time" you suspect and suggest that he tell his regular doctor about the falls.

A) an underlying medical issue B) elder abuse C) attention seeking D) clumsiness Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 524 Objective: 6 25) During your scene size-up and conversation with this patient, you stay alert for signs of such as poor hygiene, inappropriate clothing, or avoiding medical and dental care.

A) physical abuse B) self-neglect C) suicidal tendencies D) congenital heart failure Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 525 Objective: 9

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 26 Introduction to EMS Operations and Hazardous Response 1) During Phase 1 of a typical emergency response call, you should be prepared with appropriate medical supplies such as: A) gloves and masks.

B) suctioning equipment.

C) blankets.

D) other qualified personnel.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 532 Objective: 2 2) Which statement is true regarding your tools and equipment?

A) As long as you have at least 75% of standard equipment, you can call dispatch for appropriate resources later.

B) Protective gear will be provided on-scene by medical direction.

C) Legally and ethically, you are prohibited by your level of training from preparing equipment.

D) Being prepared means having all tools and equipment ready to go at all times.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 531 Objective: 3 3) During an emergency response call, A) Phase 1 B) Phase 2 C) Phase 4 D) Phase 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 Objective: 4

begins when you arrive at the scene.

4) Which of the following is the duty of the Emergency Medical Responder during Phase 6 of an emergency response call?

A) Report the actual location of the incident if it is different from what was given by dispatch.

B) Prepare for the next call by cleaning and disinfecting equipment and restocking supplies.

C) Load patients on appropriate devices and assist in preparing the patients for transport.

D) Size up the scene to ensure it is safe before entering.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 534 Objective: 4

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5) Which of the following is true regarding the use of lights and sirens?

A) Emergency lights must be on for all emergency responses.

B) Sirens must be on for all emergency responses.

C) Sirens must never be used in a residential neighborhood.

D) Use emergency lights only when approaching and traveling through intersections.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 Objective: 5 6) Phase 3 of an emergency call means you are en route to the scene. An emergency vehicle has special driving privileges; therefore, it is important to drive: A) with lights and sirens on.

B) on both sides of the road.

C) with due regard for the safety of others.

D) in a way that demonstrates risk and speed.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 Objective: 6 7) Which of the following should the Emergency Medical Responder report to dispatch as additional information once you arrive on the scene?

A) Personal protective equipment B) Whether you used lights, sirens, or both C) Estimated time of arrival D) Number of victims Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 Objective: 7 8) When working on the scene of a call that is located on a highway, Emergency Medical Responders should wear: A) a helmet.

B) PPE and a reflective vest.

C) boots with reinforced toes.

D) leather gloves.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 Objective: 7

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9) Which of the following is a duty that an Emergency Medical Responder would have at the scene of an accident prior to providing care for injured patients?

A) Make the scene safe for other responders and bystanders B) Ensure a patent airway C) Monitor ABCs D) Assist with preparation for transport Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 534 Objective: 8 10) Why does the Emergency Medical Responder have to proceed with caution and carefully observe the scene of a motor vehicle collision?

A) The EMR is only assisting law enforcement to free trapped patients.

B) Every collision scene is unique.

C) The hot zone has not yet been established.

D) Bystanders may have a key.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 534 Objective: 8 11) Which of the following may affect the stability of an overturned vehicle?

A) Deployed airbags B) Hybrid vehicle C) Slippery surfaces D) Locked doors Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 Objective: 9 12) To help stabilize stacked vehicles following a collision: A) use a complex access tool.

B) prop the doors open.

C) sprinkle dirt or kitty litter around the wheels.

D) chock the wheels of both vehicles.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 Objective: 9 13) Which of the following actions BEST describes what an Emergency Medical Responder should do when a patient is trapped in an overturned vehicle?

A) Immediately right the vehicle B) Pull the patient to safety C) Climb into the vehicle to provide patient care D) Stabilize the vehicle Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 Objective: 10 162 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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14) What is the safest and most sensible way to attempt to gain access to a patient inside a vehicle that is on its side?

A) Through the door B) Through the window C) Through the trunk D) Through the roof Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 Objective: 10 15) Which of the following access methods is used when the Emergency Medical Responder gains access to a patient through a window?

A) Simple access B) Complex access C) Rescue access D) Window access Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 536 Objective: 11 16) What is the difference between simple and complex access when extricating a patient from a vehicle?

A) Simple access requires simple tools and special training.

B) Complex access requires tools, special equipment, and additional training.

C) Complex access means the patient must be treated before the extrication.

D) Simple access means the patient is treated before the extrication.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 536 Objective: 11 17) Remember when approaching an accident involving an electric or hybrid vehicle, that: A) these vehicles are likely to be built on a different chassis than conventional models.

B) there is no fire hazard since there is no gasoline.

C) the likelihood of being exposed to high voltage electricity is low.

D) you are in great danger of electrocution.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 540 Objective: 11

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18) What should the Emergency Medical Responder do prior to entering a building through a window?

A) Poke the floor for signs of weakness B) Ask the patient to move away from the window C) Carefully lift out the back seat D) Use the spring-loaded punch to break the glass, as close to the door as possible Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 541 Objective: 12 19) Gaining access to a patient in of Emergency Medical Responder duties.

A) time to save their life B) respiratory arrest C) a locked building D) a nursing home Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 541 Objective: 12

may require special skills and tools outside the range

20) What is your top priority when responding to a call where a building or vehicle is on fire?

A) Your own safety B) The safety of the people inside C) Ensuring there are no toxic fumes D) Training for the fire service Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 542 Objective: 13 21) You have responded to a call for a patient who is unconscious. When you arrive, you can smell natural gas. This means you must immediately: A) give your patient oxygen by bag mask.

B) evacuate the building and call dispatch.

C) follow the smell to find the source and turn it off.

D) turn on all the lights so you can see the source of the gas.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 542 Objective: 14

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22) You have been called to an emergency scene. As you are approaching, you see that there are downed power lines draped over a car that has crashed into the pole. You don't see any sparks or signs of electricity. What should you do?

A) Approach the car and check the handles to see if the doors are unlocked.

B) Tell the driver of the car to open the door and step carefully out of the car.

C) Park your vehicle at least a pole away from the downed lines.

D) If there is a wet patch of ground, stand in it to protect yourself from fire.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 543 Objective: 15 23) Which of the following types of information that the Emergency Medical Responder provides during a hazardous materials incident will tell dispatch where the material came from?

A) Type of container B) Type of material C) Name of the manufacturer D) Name of the material Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 545 Objective: 16 24) Which of the following is the best resource for Emergency Medical Responders at the scene of a hazardous material incident?

A) Emergency Response Guidebook B) The Internet C) Poison Control Center D) Medical direction Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 544 Objective: 16 25) According to OSHA, which is the lowest level of hazmat training that allows the use of chemical protective equipment?

A) Hazardous materials specialist B) Hazardous materials technician C) First responder operational D) First responder awareness Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 544 Objective: 16

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26) Which of the following should you look for when trying to determine whether hazardous materials are present during your scene size-up?

A) Downed power lines B) Placards and labels C) Make of vehicle D) Locked doors Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 545 Objective: 17 27) Which of the following terms BEST describes the area where a hazardous material has been spilled or released?

A) Off-limit zone B) Cold zone C) Hot zone D) Warm zone Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 546 Objective: 18 28) At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, the area set up for decontamination of people and equipment is in the: A) Off-limit zone B) Cold zone C) Hot zone D) Warm zone Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 546 Objective: 18

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SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You and your partner are first on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. One vehicle is a compact car that is completely upside down on the road. You can see the driver moving slightly behind the deployed airbag. The other vehicle is an SUV on its side on a grassy verge with a slight incline. There are two people in the SUV. 29) Where should you park your emergency vehicle?

A) Directly behind the accident, to protect the patients from oncoming traffic B) About 50 feet in front of the scene, preferably in a spot where you are upwind and uphill from the accident C) At least 200 feet from the scene, with lights off D) Directly in front of the accident, for easiest access Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 534 Objective: 7 30) Which of the following is the correct thing to do regarding the overturned vehicle?

A) Attempt to gain access to the patient by opening the door and deflating the airbag.

B) When at least three other responders are on the scene, manually turn the car back over with their assistance.

C) Without moving the vehicle, break the window and begin your primary assessment.

D) Stabilize the overturned vehicle while waiting for fire service units and before you try to reach the occupant.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 Objective: 10 31) You have stabilized the SUV that is on its side by placing blocks between the road surface and the roof line. In order to extricate the patients by breaking a window, you should: A) wear proper extrication PPE including nonlatex gloves and a paper mask.

B) use the complex access method.

C) try the rear window first.

D) use a hooked wire.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 536 Objective: 10

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32) Why should you not attempt to break the windshield in order to extract patients from a motor vehicle?

A) It is illegal in most states to purposely break a windshield.

B) Windshields are made of tempered glass, which when shattered will create many small, sharp fragments, which could cut the patient.

C) Windshields are resistant to the spring-loaded center punch used to break car windows.

D) Windshields are made of laminated safety glass, so even when shattered, the glass pieces stay together, making access more difficult.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 538 Objective: 10

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Emergency Medical Responder: First on the Scene, 11e (Le Baudour) Chapter 27 Introduction to Multiple-Casualty Incidents, the Incident Command System, and Triage 1) Which of the following most accurately defines a multiple casualty incident?

A) A major crash or traffic accident B) Any incident that results in more than 10 critically injured patients C) A hazardous material incident or terrorist attack D) Any incident that results in enough patients to overwhelm immediately available resources Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 553 Objective: 2 2) Common causes of multiple casualty incidents include: A) house fires.

B) flu season.

C) heart attacks.

D) mass shootings.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 553 Objective: 3 3) What is the role of the Emergency Medical Responder within the incident command system?

A) Assume command of the incident B) Plan logistics for resources and coordinating ambulance transport C) Activate the National Incident Management System D) Function as part of the medical branch group Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 554 Objective: 4 4) The model used for the command, control, and coordination of resources at a large-scale emergency is called: A) Incident Control Structure.

B) Emergency Response System.

C) Incident Command System.

D) Emergency Command Structure.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 554 Objective: 4

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5) The National Incident Management System was developed by the: A) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

B) Chemical Transportation Emergency Center.

C) Department of Transportation Emergency Response Agency.

D) U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 554 Objective: 4 6) The EMR may be assigned to the triage group at a multi-casualty incident. This group: A) assesses and sorts all patients and communicates resource requirements.

B) directs movement to the transport division.

C) determines the location for the treatment group.

D) designates an ambulance staging division.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 556 Objective: 5 7) is a method of sorting patients for care and transport based on the severity of their injuries or illnesses.

A) Emergency response B) Emergency care C) Triage D) Treatment Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 556 Objective: 6 8) In a triage situation during a multiple-casualty incident, which of the following patients is most in need of treatment?

A) An elderly man with shallow cuts from flying debris who is alert and breathing B) A young girl with bright red blood coming from a laceration in her upper leg C) A young man who is coughing and sneezing D) A middle-aged woman with a sprained back who may be mentally ill Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 557 Objective: 7 9) What is the purpose of the START triage system?

A) To provide CPR to patients in cardiac arrest B) To decide which patients are likely to not survive the incident C) To provide airway management to the greatest number of patients D) To identify patients who are most in need of immediate transport Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 557 Objective: 8 170 Copyright © 2019 Pearson Education, Inc.

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10) Which tag color used in the START Triage assessment stands for "delayed"?

A) Red B) Yellow C) Green D) Black Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 557 Objective: 8 11) According to the START protocol, once the "walking wounded" have left the scene, you should begin triaging: A) the patients closest to you.

B) the patients with the greatest need.

C) the ambulatory patients.

D) the patients who are not breathing.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 558 Objective: 8 12) When a patient is relocated to a treatment area, he will be immediately reassessed. This is referred to as: A) secondary triage.

B) duplicate triage.

C) secondary evaluation.

D) negligence.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 569 Objective: 9 13) You are performing triage at an industrial accident. Which of the following patients would receive a red tag?

A) A patient who is breathing 32 times per minute B) A patient who has a laceration for which the bleeding has been controlled C) A patient who has died during the accident D) A patient who was not injured in the accident but is upset by the accident Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 568 Objective: 7

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14) You are approaching the scene of collapsed stadium bleachers. Which of the following would be appropriate to say as you approach the patients?

A) "Please check the pulse of the person next to you."

B) "Does anyone know CPR?" C) "Who can tell me exactly what happened here?"

D) "If you are able to walk, please move to the designated safe area."

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 569 Objective: 7 15) The START triage tag color for immediate transport is: A) black.

B) green.

C) red.

D) yellow.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 567 Objective: 8 16) When performing triage on a patient, you find that he is initially apneic, but his respirations increase to 30 breaths per minute when you open the airway. This patient would be tagged as: A) immediate.

B) delayed.

C) minor.

D) deceased.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 568 Objective: 8 17) The alternate version of the START triage system used for pediatric patients is known as: A) ChildSTART. B) HeadSTART. C) JumpSTART. D) PedSTART. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 560 Objective: 10 18) A nonbreathing child could still have: A) respiratory failure.

B) a pulse.

C) cardiac arrest.

D) plenty of oxygen.

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19) Which triage system prioritizes patients during mass casualty incidents using the categories sort, assess, lifesaving intervention, and treatment/transport?

A) START B) JumpSTART C) SALT D) SALITT Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 562 Objective: 11 20) Using the SALT system, if you find a life threat, you should provide lifesaving intervention: A) for 20 seconds.

B) for up to a minute.

C) for 30 seconds, and again for 20 seconds.

D) for not less than 5 minutes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 562 Objective: 11 SCENARIO Use this scenario to answer the following question(s).

You respond to a multiple-casualty incident in which a school bus has gone off the bridge over a highway into the traffic below. You are assigned to triage the children from the bus.

21) Which triage system will be most useful for triaging elementary school-age children?

A) START B) SALT C) JumpSTART D) KidSALT Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 560 Objective: 10 22) Your first step is to move all children who A) can walk B) are not bleeding C) are conscious D) are breathing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 561 Objective: 10

to the area set aside for minor injuries.

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23) One of your triage patients is an 8-year-old girl. She is not breathing, so you open her airway. She is still not breathing, but she does have a pulse. You should: A) send her to the minor injury staging area.

B) ventilate five times using an appropriate barrier.

C) have her jump up and down ("jump start") to get her breath moving.

D) categorize the patient as deceased and move on to the next patient.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 561 Objective: 10 24) Which pediatric patient should be categorized as "delayed"?

A) One who can walk and has adequate perfusion according to the peripheral pulse check B) One who shows decerebrate posturing C) One who is alert, responds to your voice, and responds appropriately to pain D) One who is unresponsive but has a pulse and is breathing Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 562 Objective: 10 25) After the incident is over, you find that you are feeling more stressed than usual after triaging so many children. Which of the following should be provided to help you?

A) Stress training to teach you how to handle these incidents without a stress reaction B) A night out with your fellow responders, doing something fun like drinking and playing darts C) Mandatory psychological counseling sessions D) Critical incident stress debriefing sessions Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 562 Objective: 10

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