Cognitive Neuroscience The Biology Of The Mind 5th Edition By Gazzaniga, Ivry, Mangun TEST BANK

Test Bank for Cognitive Neuroscience, The Biology of the Mind 5th Edition by Gazzaniga, Ivry; Mangun Chapter 1: A Brief History of Cognitive Neuroscience LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1.1 Explain the origins of the field of cognitive neuroscience.

1.2 Describe the roots of the debate over localization of function.

1.3 Explain the ways in which brain structure was studied.

1.4 Understand the philosophical origins of cognitive psychology.

1.5 Discuss behaviorism and its principal tenets.

1.6 Explain how and why cognitive psychology came to the forefront of the psychological fields.

1.7 Identify the different methods that are used to measure brain function and structure.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What term was coined by Thomas Willis as a consequence of the case of Anne Green? a. psychopathology b. cognition c. neurology d. psychosis ANS: C OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective MSC: Remembering

2. Aside from saving Anne Green’s life, Thomas Willis and Christopher Wren also a. created very accurate drawings of the brain. b. came up with the names of a number of brain structures. c. took the first steps that led to cognitive neuroscience. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Medium REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective MSC: Understanding

3. Each of the following are reasons why Willis is considered one of the early figures in cognitive neuroscience EXCEPT: a. He named many brain parts. b. He gave frequent lectures on specific brain regions. c. He was among the first to link behavioral deficits to brain damage. d. He created very accurate brain images.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Medium REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective MSC: Remembering

4. While studying brain function, it is often useful to think of development in terms of which is the perspective of . a. cognition; cognitive neuroscience c. blood flow; magnetic resonance imaging b. survival; evolution d. dysfunction; psychopathology ANS: B OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective

,

5. Which stance would most likely hold an assumption that physical elements of the brain are responsible for the conscious mind? a. monism c. dualism b. behaviorism d. relativism ANS: A OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective

6. René Descartes posited that the mind was separate from the body. However, he implicated a single brain structure, the pineal gland, as having what function? a. regulating feelings and emotions c. moderating cognitive processes b. connecting the mind and the body d. adjusting behavior ANS: B OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Easy REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective MSC: Remembering

7. Considering the perspective recommended for approaching cognitive neuroscience, which of the following would best explain how a cognitive function may have developed? a. learning and reward c. neurological dysfunction b. integration with technology d. hunting and gathering ANS: D OBJ: 1.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective

8. A central issue of modern cognitive neuroscience is whether specific human cognitive abilities a. arise from networks of brain areas working together. b. are determined by the shape and size of the human skull or the brain beneath. c. are best studied using the scientific method. d. can be best identified using the Golgi silver method of staining or fMRI. ANS: A OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

9. The discipline of phrenology was founded by a. Broca and Wernicke. b. Fritsch and Hitzig.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.2

c. Ramón y Cajal and Sherrington. d. Gall and Spurzheim.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

10. Phrenologists believed that the contour of the skull could provide valuable information about an individual’s cognitive capacities and personality traits. This approach was based on the assumption that a. skull protrusions are caused by disproportionate development of the brain areas beneath them, which are responsible for different specific functions. b. certain traits such as aggressiveness lead to life experiences and injuries that alter the shape of the skull in specific ways. c. life experiences and injuries that alter the shape of the skull in specific ways lead to certain traits, such as aggressiveness. d. the development of the skull bones directly influences the configuration of the soft brain areas beneath them, which are responsible for different specific functions.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.2 11. Localizationist is to a. Wernicke; Gall

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

as holistic is to

. c. Flourens; Broca

b. Gall; Flourens ANS: B OBJ: 1.2

d. Broca; Wernicke DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

12. Gall’s method for investigating phrenology was flawed because a. he used the wrong language to explain the characteristics he observed. b. he did not tell Napoleon Bonaparte that he possessed noble characteristics. c. he sought only to confirm, not disprove, the correlations he observed. d. he used his own skull as the base model.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

13. The view known as aggregate field theory, which stated that the whole brain participates in behavior, is most associated with a. Broca. c. Brodmann. b. Hughlings Jackson. d. Flourens.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

14. The key observation leading John Hughlings Jackson to propose a topographical organization in the cerebral cortex was that a. speech disturbances could be identified by left-hemisphere lesions. b. the two hemispheres of the brain served different functions. c. seizures begin in a localized region of the cortex. d. focal brain damage causes specific behavioral deficits.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

15. In developing phrenology, Gall’s main failure was that a. he did not seek disconfirming evidence. b. he was not a scientist. c. his method was correlational. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

16. Giovanni visits his local phrenologist. What is this person likely to tell him? a. You are a domineering person. b. Your father was a very domineering person. c. Your brother is a domineering person. d. Your mother was a very domineering person.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

17. The view developed by Marie Jean Pierre Flourens, based on the idea that processes like language and memory cannot be localized within circumscribed brain regions, was known as a. the neuron doctrine. c. rationalism. b. aggregate field theory. d. the law of effect.

ANS: B

DIF:

Easy

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

OBJ: 1.2

MSC: Remembering

18. John Hughlings Jackson proposed a with people with . a. holistic; aphasia b. topographic; aphasia ANS: C OBJ: 1.2 19.

organization in the cerebral cortex, based on his work c. topographic; epilepsy d. holistic; epilepsy

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

was one of the first brain scientists to realize that specific cognitive functions can be localized to specific parts of the brain and that many different functional regions can take part in a given behavior. a. Broca c. Flourens b. Hughlings Jackson d. Brodmann ANS: B OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

20. Which 19th-century scientist suggested that the frontal lobe contributes to language and speech production? a. Flourens c. Broca b. Wernicke d. Brodmann ANS: C OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

21. Patient Leborgne was nicknamed "Tan" because that was the only word he could utter. Leborgne had developed an aphasia due to a lesion in which area of the brain? a. frontal cortex c. cerebellum b. Broca’s area d. Wernicke’s area ANS: B OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

22. Which of the following things would have been the most difficult for the famous individual studied by Paul Broca to do, compared to before his stroke? a. listening to a piano recital c. reading a book aloud b. appreciating a painting d. playing a game of cards ANS: C OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

23. Which of the following things would have been the most difficult for the famous individual described

by Carl Wernicke to do, compared to before his stroke? a. understanding a speech c. singing a song b. painting a picture d. riding a horse ANS: A OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

24. Wernicke was an early researcher who suggested that the contributes to language comprehension. a. right frontotemporal area c. right temporoparietal area b. left frontotemporal area d. left temporoparietal area

ANS: D OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

25. Wernicke is to as Broca is to . a. understanding speech; speaking b. speaking; understanding speech c. aggregate field theory; topographic organization d. aggregate field theory; aggregate field theory ANS: A OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

26. As a first approximation, individuals with damage to the left inferior frontal lobe tend to have more difficulty with , whereas individuals with damage to the left posterior temporal lobe tend to have more difficulty with . a. fine motor control; the sense of touch b. the sense of touch; fine motor control c. the production of language; the perception of language d. the perception of language; the production of language ANS: C OBJ: 1.2

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

27. One reason that early research on specific human cognitive capacities and the brain areas that are responsible for them developed rather slowly before the 20th century is that a. most early investigators were limited to postmortem studies to localize lesions. b. investigators did not know the brain was separated into two hemispheres until the 20th century. c. most early investigators focused on studying the brain–behavior relationship in animals rather than in humans. d. there was little interest in this field until the 20th century.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

28. Korbinian Brodmann used techniques to document 52 regions of the brain that differed in . a. phrenological; cytoarchitectonics c. tissue staining; cytoarchitectonics b. phrenological; chronometrics d. tissue staining; chronometrics ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

29. Each of the following contributions led to the establishment of the neuron doctrine EXCEPT: a. Golgi’s silver method. b. Purkinje’s description of the first nerve cell. c. Thorndike’s observation of adaptive response. d. Brodmann’s cortical maps.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

30. Researchers Fritsch and Hitzig found support for the idea that specific functions are localized to discrete parts of the cortex in an experiment using electrical stimulation of a dog’s brain. More specifically, they found systematic relationship between the portion of the cortex stimulated and specific . a. a; movements b. a; vocalizations c. no; movements d. no; vocalizations ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

31. Cytoarchitectonic maps distinguish different cortical regions by a. the structure of their surface convolutions. b. their structure at the cellular level. c. the complex functions they perform. d. the basic functions they perform.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

32. Yvette wants to figure out whether cells in two different layers of the occipital lobe have different functions. What would she have done if she had been a scientist in the early 20th century? a. look at a CAT scan b. observe the tracts that connect each layer c. study living patients with damage to those cells d. look at the layers under a microscope ANS: D OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

33. The neuroanatomist who described 52 distinct cortical areas based on cell structure and arrangement, and whose classification scheme is often used today, was a. Purkinje. c. Brodmann. b. Helmholtz. d. Hyde.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

34. Which of the following terms refers to the idea of a continuous mass of tissue that shares a common cytoplasm? a. synapse c. striatum b. syncytium d. claustrum ANS: B OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

35. La reazione nera, or “the black reaction,” refers to a. a cell stain developed by Golgi. b. a perceptual phenomenon described by the Gestalt psychologists. c. a ganglion preparation developed by Arvanitaki. d. a type of reinforcement-based learning described by the behaviorists.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

36. Which of the following scientists contributed to modern neuroscience in the 19th century? a. Paul Broca c. Gustav Theodor Fritsch b. Sir Charles Sherrington d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

37. Which of the following statements best describes the “neuron doctrine”? a. The nervous system consists of a fused network of interconnected fibers. b. The brain can be subdivided into regions that are distinct in cytoarchitectonics yet functionally interactive. c. The nervous system consists of physically distinct cells that are functionally interactive. d. The brain can be subdivided into functionally autonomous modules.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

38. The neuron doctrine is usually credited to . a. Purkinje; Brodmann b. Brodmann; Purkinje ANS: D OBJ: 1.3

, who used a staining technique pioneered by c. Golgi; Ramón y Cajal d. Ramón y Cajal; Golgi

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

39. The primary contribution of Golgi to the field of cognitive neuroscience was that he a. developed a staining technique that permitted full visualization of individual neurons. b. showed experimentally that the nervous system is composed of a net of physically interconnected neuronal units. c. discovered that cells in different regions of the cortex also differ in shape and size. d. demonstrated that nerves can release chemicals that have an activating effect on nearby muscle cells.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

40. The term synapse, coined by Sherrington, refers to the junction between a. a blood vessel and surrounding neurons. b. two different cytoarchitectonic regions in the brain. c. two adjacent neurons. d. an axon and the cell body of a neuron.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.3

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

41. Rationalism is the philosophical position that knowledge a. originates from sensory experience. b. must be experimentally tested. c. must be deduced and justified through reason. d. is globally distributed in the cortex.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

42. Empiricism is the philosophical position that all knowledge a. must be deduced and justified through reason.

b. originates from sensory experience. c. must be experimentally tested. d. is globally distributed in the cortex.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

43. Which of the following is NOT true of empiricism? a. It is primarily associated with the British philosophers Hobbes, Hume, and Mill. b. It was a foundation for the associationist–behaviorist school of psychology. c. It postulates a special role for reason and induction in human thought. d. It emphasizes sensory experience in the development of knowledge.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Medium REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Understanding

44. Ebbinghaus, who is considered the father of modern memory research, was among the first to demonstrate that a. different types of brain lesions can produce different types of memory deficits. b. in terms of cognition, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c. behavior is best understood in terms of stimulus–response relationships. d. internal mental processes can be measured in rigorous and reproducible ways.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story

45. All of the following are representative of the emergence of the field of cognitive science in the second half of the 20th century EXCEPT a. new developments in computer technology and artificial intelligence. b. a philosophical shift in the field toward empiricism and associationism. c. Chomsky’s work arguing that behaviorist theories cannot explain language acquisition. d. Miller’s work showing that internal processes like short-term memory can be quantified.

ANS: B OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story

46. Thorndike’s law of effect a. stated that much knowledge is innately specified due to natural selection. b. was written to oppose Darwin’s theory of natural selection. c. stated that a behavior that is followed by a reward is likely to occur again. d. was written to oppose the behaviorists.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.5 47.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

is the idea that all knowledge comes from sensory experiences, while holds that truth is intellectual. a. Empiricism; rationalism b. Empiricism; logic c. Rationalism; empiricism d. Rationalism; logic ANS: A OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Medium REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Understanding

48. John Watson famously argued that newborn babies

a. b. c. d.

are incapable of forming memories. have an intelligence comparable to our nearest primate cousins. can be raised to become anything. will develop different intellectual abilities according to innate differences.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story

49. According to associationist Herman Ebbinghaus, complex processes such as memory a. can be understood by combining different pieces of information. b. are best understood in terms of a stimulus’s emergent properties. c. cannot be measured because they are not behaviors. d. can be measured in an analytic fashion.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story

50. According to Edward Thorndike, which of the following is NOT true about rewards? a. They indicate which creatures have malleable structures in the brain. b. They help to stamp things into the mind. c. They lead to adaptive learning. d. They are part of the law of effect.

ANS: A OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story

51. “Cells that fire together, wire together” was first proposed by Donald Hebb as an explanation for a. epileptic seizures and their effects. b. cytoarchitectural variation. c. the way in which the brain codes new learning. d. amnesia caused by brain damage.

ANS: C OBJ: 1.5

DIF: Medium REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Understanding

52. Noam Chomsky argued that the structure of human languages is B. F. Skinner’s assertion that languages are . a. innate; learned c. universal; rational b. learned; universal d. rational; innate ANS: A OBJ: 1.6

, in contrast to

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

53. Which of the following people did NOT play a strong role in the theoretical shift in psychology in the latter part of the 20th century? a. Noam Chomsky c. George A. Miller b. Sir Charles Sherrington d. Claude Shannon ANS: B OBJ: 1.6

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

54. Which of the following was NOT contributory to the development of the electroencephalogram? a. measuring continuous activity from the cerebral cortex of dogs and apes b. studying patients who had skull defects c. making photographic recordings of activity from a string galvanometer d. publishing a paper describing recordings of brain currents

ANS: B OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

55. You decide that you want to measure blood flow of the brain. Which of the following methods would you employ to best achieve your goal? a. Listen to the blood flow across veins. b. Look at red blood cells under a microscope. c. Measure the amount of iron in the blood. d. None of the answer options is correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

56. Computerized axial tomography is to MRI as a. X-ray; radio frequencies b. structure; function ANS: A OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

is to . c. blood oxygenation; X-ray d. radiation; dipoles

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

57. Which of the following methods relies on blood oxygenation? a. magnetic resonance imaging b. functional magnetic resonance imaging c. computerized axial tomography d. electroencephalogram ANS: B OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Medium REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience MSC: Understanding

58. Suppose you are investigating neurological function, and one of the initial portions of your procedure is to inject radioactive oxygen-15 into the patient’s bloodstream. Which of the following methods are you most likely using to measure neurological activity? a. electroencephalography (EEG) c. positron emission tomography (PET) b. computerized axial tomography (CAT) d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) ANS: C OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

59. A group of investigators is conducting research on brain tumors, and they need to obtain threedimensional brain views to localize the tumors. Which instrument will provide the least invasive way to obtain their objective? a. electroencephalography (EEG) c. positron emission tomography (PET) b. computerized axial tomography (CAT) d. magnetoencephalography (MEG) ANS: B OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

60. Imagine that you are one of the researchers who advanced the field of cognitive neuroscience by developing a new instrument to measure the brain. Computerized axial tomography (CAT) has already been developed, but your team wants to expand the CAT to develop an instrument that will provide information about brain function. Which method are you most likely developing? a. electroencephalography (EEG) c. positron emission tomography (PET) b. functional magnetic resonance imaging d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (fMRI)

ANS: C OBJ: 1.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience

SHORT ANSWER 1. Draw a diagram demonstrating the approach known as the scientific method. Your diagram should indicate the general procedures used and the order in which they are performed.

ANS: Answers will vary. Each should include the following: - make an observation - ask why it came about - form a hypothesis - design and perform an experiment - draw a conclusion - may also include replication DIF: Difficult MSC: Creating

REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective

OBJ: 1.1

2. Describe how and why the term cognitive neuroscience was chosen for this field. Be sure to mention the two fields that combined to create this new field of study.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.1 A Historical Perspective MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.4

3. Localizationists argued that higher cognitive functions were the product of brain activity in specific areas. Give evidence that they used to support their claims.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.1

4. Paul Broca and Carl Wernicke discovered two different forms of aphasia. Compare and contrast them.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 1.2

5. Describe the main tenets of the Neuron Doctrine.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.2

6. Describe the evidence that led Marie-Jean-Pierre Flourens to move the field away from localization toward aggregate-field theory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.2 The Brain Story MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.2

7. A major question in cognitive neuroscience is the extent to which regions of the brain are independent or integrated. Which of these two viewpoints is most valid? Present evidence to support your view.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 1.2 The Brain Story

OBJ: 1.2

8. Associationism and empiricism are two main philosophical positions. Pick the one you think best describes how humans come to know things and explain why you think this.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.4

9. Describe the transition from behaviorist to cognitive approaches in psychology.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 1.4

10. Noam Chomsky wrote an article titled “Three Models for the Description of Language.” Describe how the findings he reported moved the field of cognitive psychology forward.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 1.3 The Psychological Story MSC: Remembering 11. Describe two principal methods used to measure brain structure.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 1.7

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 1.4

12. You would like to understand at what point in time an event took place in the brain. What neuroimaging method would you choose? Explain why you would choose this method and what information you would be missing.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 1.7

REF: 1.4 The Instruments of Neuroscience MSC: Understanding

Chapter 2: Structure and Function of the Nervous System

LEARNING OBJECTIVES

2.1 Understand the structure of neurons and synapses.

2.2 Explain the role of ion channels in changing neuronal membrane potential.

2.3 Describe the impact of depolarization on the resting potential, and on the likelihood of subsequent action potentials.

2.4 Describe the influence of myelin and voltage-gated ion channels on action potentials.

2.5 Understand electrical and chemical transmission at the synapse, including the use and removal of neurotransmitters after binding.

2.6 Explain the roles of different types of glial cells, including astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, and microglial cells.

2.7 Define and recognize differences between the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, sympathetic system, parasympathetic system, cerebral cortex, gray and white matter, and corpus callosum.

2.8 Understand the functions of the spinal cord, brainstem, and cerebellum.

2.9 Understand the functions of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland.

2.10 Understand the functions of the limbic system and basal ganglia.

2.11 Define and describe anatomical structures and principles that include gyri, sulci, Brodmann areas, lobes, topography, and association cortices.

2.12 Explain the developmental process of the nervous system and the mechanisms behind neurogenesis.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The two main classes of cells in the nervous system are a. dendrites and axons. c. neurons and glial cells. b. axons and neurons. d. glial cells and dendrites.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

2. In the nervous system, these cells provide structural support and insulation for neurons. a. glia c. mitochondria b. dendrites d. Purkinje cells ANS: A OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

3. Two main types of projections extend from the cell body of a neuron. other neurons, while send information to other neurons. a. Synapses; glia c. Glia; synapses

receive inputs from

b. Axons; dendrites ANS: D OBJ: 2.1

d. Dendrites; axons DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

4. Within a neuron, the transmission of information is usually . Between neurons, the transmission of information is usually . a. chemical; chemical c. electrical; chemical b. electrical; electrical d. chemical; electrical ANS: C OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Medium REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

5. The term concentration gradient refers to a difference in the a. number of two different ion types within the neuron. b. number of ions found on opposite sides of the cell membrane. c. permeability of the membrane to one kind of ion compared to another. d. permeability of the membrane at rest compared to during an action potential.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.1 | 2.2

DIF: Medium REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

6. At the resting state, a higher concentration of is found outside a neuron and a higher concentration of is found inside a neuron. a. K+; Na+ c. dopamine; serotonin b. Na+; K+ d. serotonin; dopamine ANS: B OBJ: 2.1 | 2.2

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

7. If you were to insert a microelectrode through the cell membrane of a neuron, you would be able to demonstrate that a. the region inside the cell membrane is more positively charged than the region outside the membrane. b. the region inside the cell membrane is more negatively charged than the region outside the membrane. c. there is a greater concentration of potassium ions outside the cell membrane than inside the membrane. d. there is a greater concentration of potassium ions inside the cell membrane than outside the membrane.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.1 | 2.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

8. The ease with which a cell membrane will permit ions to cross is referred to as a. the concentration gradient. c. the action potential. b. permeability. d. conductivity.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

9. If you inserted a micropipette into a neuron without harming the cell and pumped in a small quantity of calcium ions, each of which carried two positive charges, how would this affect the membrane potential? a. The membrane potential would become depolarized relative to the resting potential. b. The membrane potential would become hyperpolarized relative to the resting potential.

c. There would be no change because calcium does not contribute to the resting potential. d. There would be no change because the sodium–potassium pump would remove excess calcium from the cell.

ANS: A DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3 | 2.4 MSC: Applying

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

10. The Hodgkin–Huxley cycle describes how the depolarization of the membrane causes voltage-gated sodium channels to , allowing sodium ions to enter the cell. This change in sodium concentration then causes of the cell. a. close; fewer; further depolarization c. open; more; further depolarization b. close; fewer; repolarization d. open; more; repolarization ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3 | 2.4 MSC: Understanding

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

11. Ouabain is a toxin that works by permanently inhibiting the activity of sodium–potassium pumps embedded in neuronal membranes. How would ouabain administration affect the resting potential of a neuron? a. The magnitude of the resting potential would shift toward zero. b. The resting potential would hyperpolarize toward a more negative value. c. The resting potential would reverse to a positive, rather than a negative, value. d. Application of ouabain would not affect the resting potential.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

12. The value of the membrane potential to which an axon must be depolarized to initiate an action potential is called the potential for that neuron. a. graded c. threshold b. resting d. refractory ANS: C OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

13. The poison tetraethylammonium (TEA) interferes with normal neural communication. The toxin binds to and blocks voltage-gated potassium channels in the neuron cell membrane. Which of the following best describes the effects of TEA on the action potential? a. The depolarization phase of the action potential fails to occur. b. The repolarization phase of the action potential is blocked. c. The refractory period of the action potential is shortened. d. The action potential fails to be regenerated at the nodes of Ranvier.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

14. Demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis disrupt normal neural communication by a. destroying receptors on postsynaptic cells so that neurotransmitters cannot bind normally. b. creating lesions in the blood–brain barrier that allow toxic substances to enter the brain from the bloodstream. c. causing deterioration of the fatty substance that normally coats and insulates axons. d. diminishing the activity of the sodium–potassium pumps that usually maintain the resting potential of neurons.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

15. The nodes of Ranvier are a. vesicles of neurotransmitters, stored in presynaptic neurons. b. little knobs attached by small necks to the surface of dendrites. c. vesicles of calcium ions, stored in postsynaptic neurons. d. points along axons that are not surrounded by myelin.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

16. The primary reason why neurons are refractory for a short period after firing action potentials, and the reason underlying the absolute refractory period, is that the a. voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated. b. voltage-gated potassium channels are inactivated. c. sodium–potassium pump has to remove sodium ions from inside the cell. d. sodium–potassium pump has to retrieve potassium ions from outside the cell.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

17. If electrical currents on multiple dendrites sum together at the axon hillock, and the current flows across the neuronal membrane to the spike-triggering zone, what is likely to happen? a. An action potential will be initiated. b. A sodium-potassium pump will activate. c. Hyperpolarization. d. Saltatory conduction.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Medium REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Understanding

18. The term saltatory conduction refers to the fact that a. action potentials travel faster when extracellular salt concentration is high. b. action potentials evoked by strong stimuli travel faster than those evoked by weaker stimuli. c. action potentials appear to jump from node to node in myelinated axons. d. action potentials are generated only by myelinated portions of axons.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

19. In which of the following diseases is myelin damaged or lost? a. Alzheimer’s b. Parkinson’s c. schizophrenia d. multiple sclerosis ANS: D OBJ: 2.4 20.

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

enable(s) the rapid transmission of action potentials down an axon and increase(s) the distance over which transmission can occur. a. Soma b. Dendrites c. Neurotransmitters d. Myelin

ANS: D OBJ: 2.4

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

21. The , which is comprised of , restricts the diffusion of certain molecules and microbes from the circulatory system, protecting the brain from chemical compounds that might otherwise interfere with neuronal activity. a. sodium–potassium pump; astrocytes c. myelin sheath; oligodendrites b. blood–brain barrier; astrocytes d. lipid bilayer; oligodendrites ANS: B OBJ: 2.6

DIF: Medium REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

22. Which of the following cells produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system? a. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes b. microglia d. Schwann cells ANS: D OBJ: 2.6

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

23. Which of the following cells devour and remove damaged brain cells? a. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes b. microglia d. Schwann cells ANS: B OBJ: 2.6

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

24. Which of the following statements best describes the immediate consequence of neurotransmitter molecules binding to ligand-gated ion channel receptors? a. Voltage-gated channels in the cell membrane open and permit ion flow through the membrane. b. The activity of the sodium–potassium pumps increases. c. Calcium absorption into the axon terminal cell is triggered. d. Neurotransmitter-containing vesicles bind to the inside of the axon terminal membrane.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.2 | 2.5

DIF: Medium REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Understanding

25. The role of calcium ions (Ca2+) in synaptic transmission is to a. bind neurotransmitter molecules to the postsynaptic membrane. b. mediate the release of neurotransmitter molecules from the presynaptic neuron. c. repolarize the postsynaptic cell after transmission has been completed. d. increase the activity of the sodium–potassium pumps in the presynaptic cell.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Easy REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Remembering

26. Which of the following sequences of steps best represents the order of events that occur during synaptic transmission? a. binding of neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic membrane ⟶ diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synapse ⟶ release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell b. diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synapse ⟶ binding of neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic membrane ⟶ release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell c. release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell ⟶ binding of neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic membrane ⟶ diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synapse d. release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell ⟶ diffusion of neurotransmitter

across the synapse ⟶ binding of neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic membrane ANS: D OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

27. Compare the following analogy to chemical synaptic transmission: Two postage companies use different methods for delivery. Company One’s method is to send a delivery person out with packages that will be delivered directly to the address on the label. Company Two’s method is to send a delivery person out to a transfer center, and a second driver will deliver the package to the address. Company One’s method best compares to , while Company Two’s method best compares to . Company uses a faster method. a. G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs); ligand-gated ion channels; One b. G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs); ligand-gated ion channels; Two c. ligand-gated ion channels; G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs); One d. ligand-gated ion channels; G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs); Two ANS: C OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

28. Consider the synapse shown schematically here.

If neuron A causes neuron B to become hyperpolarized relative to B’s resting state, a. neuron B is more likely to fire its own action potential. b. neuron B is less likely to release neurotransmitter molecules from its own axon terminal. c. neuron B is more likely to absorb extracellular potassium through voltage-gated channels. d. neuron B is less likely to absorb extracellular sodium through the sodium–potassium pump.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

29. A gap junction is a. the point where a neurotransmitter vesicle binds to the presynaptic membrane. b. a connection between two sections of a G protein that plays a role in second-messenger cascades. c. a transmembrane channel that connects the cytoplasm of two cells at an electrical synapse. d. more likely to be found on the amino acids than on the biogenic amines.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Easy REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Remembering

30. Which of the following is a catecholamine? a. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) b. glutamate ANS: D OBJ: 2.5

c. serotonin d. norepinephrine

DIF: Medium REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Remembering

31. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on postsynaptic neurons a. is always either excitatory or inhibitory. b. depends on the properties of the postsynaptic neuron.

c. may be modulated by the presence or absence of another neurotransmitter. d. depends on the properties of the postsynaptic neuron and may be modulated by the presence or absence of another neurotransmitter.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Medium REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Understanding

32. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for removing a neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft? a. diffusion of the neurotransmitter away from the synapse b. active reuptake of the neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic terminal c. enzymatic breakdown of the neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft d. transport of the neurotransmitter by ion channels into neighboring glial cells ANS: D OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

33. Many drugs produce their effects by facilitating or interfering with neurotransmitters at synapses.

Which of the following drugs would most likely increase the effect of serotonin? a. a drug that binds to directly coupled serotonin receptors but does not change membrane permeability to ions b. a drug that prevents the activity of an enzyme that breaks down serotonin molecules in the synaptic cleft c. a drug that blocks the effect of Ca2+ ions d. a drug that blocks the effect of a conditional neurotransmitter that normally facilitates the effect of serotonin ANS: B OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

34. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the lateral and third ventricles by the a. dura mater. c. globus pallidus. b. substantia nigra. d. choroid plexus.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

35. The thick outer membrane that encloses the brain within the skull is the a. gray matter. c. myelin sheath. b. white matter. d. dura mater.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

36. The two main divisions of the central nervous system are the a. forebrain and brainstem. c. brain and spinal cord. b. white matter and gray matter. d. cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

37. The difference between gray matter and white matter is that gray matter refers to white matter refers to . a. protruding rounded surfaces; fissures and invaginations b. fissures and invaginations; protruding rounded surfaces c. cell bodies; axon tracts d. axons; cell bodies

, whereas

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

38. Gray matter is to white matter as a. gyri; sulci b. glial cells; neurons ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

are to . c. cell bodies; axon tracts d. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure

39.39.The brainstem includes all of the following components EXCEPT the a. medulla. c. hypothalamus. b. midbrain. d. pons.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.8

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

40. The specialized structures that comprise the midbrain control functions such as a. hormone regulation. c. memory. b. visual reflexes. d. emotional processing.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.8

DIF: Easy REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain MSC: Understanding

41. The dorsal portions of the gray matter in the spinal cord carry a. motor information. b. sensory information. c. motor and sensory information from the dorsal surface of the body. d. sensory and motor information to the cerebellum.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.8

DIF: Medium REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain MSC: Understanding

42. A patient has great difficulty in maintaining his posture, walking, and coordinating his movements. His brain injuries probably involve the a. cerebellum. c. superior colliculus. b. corpus callosum. d. third ventricle.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.8

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

43. A patient reports that she is functionally blind after a focal brain injury, even though her eyes and optic nerves are completely intact. Of the structures listed here, the most probable location for the brain injury is the a. inferior colliculus. c. superior temporal lobe. b. lateral geniculate nucleus. d. postcentral gyrus.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

44. The part of the thalamus that is most important in relaying information to the primary visual cortex is the a. lateral geniculate nucleus. c. medial geniculate nucleus. b. superior colliculus. d. inferior colliculus.

ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

OBJ: 2.9

MSC: Remembering

45. This brain structure is often called the gateway to the cortex because almost all sensory inputs synapse here before continuing to their primary cortical sensory areas. a. hypothalamus c. thalamus b. hippocampus d. amygdala ANS: C OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Easy REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain MSC: Remembering

46. Which of the following functions is NOT mediated primarily by the hypothalamus? a. endocrine system regulation b. maintenance of homeostatic states in the body c. relay of sensory information from the body to the cortex d. hormone control ANS: C OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

47. As a result of a brain injury to this diencephalic structure, a patient is experiencing disruptions in maintaining homeostasis of bodily states and endocrine control. a. thalamus c. hippocampus b. hypothalamus d. cingulate gyrus ANS: B OBJ: 2.9 48.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

Injury to the hypothalamus would most likely interfere with a. hormone regulation. c. memory. b. motor control. d. olfactory sensation.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.9

DIF: Medium REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain MSC: Understanding

49. All of the structures listed here are major components of the basal ganglia EXCEPT the a. globus pallidus. c. caudate nucleus. b. amygdala. d. putamen.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

50. As a result of a brain injury to the medial temporal lobes and neighboring subcortical structures, a patient exhibits a number of cognitive and behavioral changes. Of the following options, which is the LEAST likely to be affected? a. memory c. learning b. emotional processing d. somatosensation ANS: D OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

51. The is a system of structures that includes the been implicated in . a. limbic system; amygdala; emotion behavior b. limbic system; putamen; motor preparation c. basal ganglia; amygdala; emotion behavior d. basal ganglia; hippocampus; motor preparation

. This system has

ANS: A OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

52. All of the following are advantages of a folded cerebral cortex EXCEPT: a. The need for blood vasculature in the cortex is eliminated. b. Neural conduction time between areas is reduced. c. Neurons are brought into closer three-dimensional relationships. d. More cortical surface can be packed into the skull.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

53. Communication between the two hemispheres of the brain occurs mainly through the a. basal ganglia. c. corpus callosum. b. cingulate gyrus. d. limbic system.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

54. The corpus callosum a. permits communication between the two cerebral hemispheres. b. is the area of the cortex in which information about touch, pain, temperature, and limb position is processed. c. separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes. d. is a fluid-filled chamber that cushions and supports the brain.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

55. The most caudal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the lobe. a. frontal c. occipital b. temporal d. parietal ANS: C OBJ: 2.7 | 2.11

DIF: Medium REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

56. Neurons in two different regions of Brodmann’s cytoarchitectonic map always a. use different types of neurotransmitters to communicate. b. differ in cell morphology and organization. c. lie inside different lobes of the cerebral cortex. d. are separated by fissures in the cortex.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

57. The temporal lobe is to the occipital lobe as a. touch; vision b. touch; audition c. audition; vision d. audition; touch ANS: C OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

is to

.

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

58. The morphology of the brain of Albert Einstein revealed an unusual Sylvian fissure, the division that separates the lobe from the lobes. a. occipital; frontal and parietal c. frontal; temporal and occipital b. temporal; frontal and parietal d. parietal; temporal and occipital ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

59. The central sulcus is an anatomical landmark that separates the lobe. a. temporal; frontal c. parietal; occipital b. frontal; parietal d. occipital; temporal ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

lobe from the

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

60. The term cytoarchitectonics refers to a. how cells in one brain region appear morphologically and how they are arranged with respect to each other. b. how assemblies of neurons function together and how they communicate with neighboring ganglia. c. how different brain regions differ in volume and how they interact to produce complex cognitive phenomena. d. how the brains of different animals differ from each other in gross anatomy and the evolutionary bases of these differences.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Medium REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

61. Of the following choices, the most anterior portion of the frontal lobes—the prefrontal cortex—is most critical to a. processing information about pain, touch, and temperature. b. executive functions. c. the “what” visual pathway. d. the “where” visual pathway.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

62. The primary visual cortex, or V1, is located in a. the striate cortex. c. Heschl’s gyrus. b. Brodmann area 41. d. the Sylvian fissure.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

63. The neocortex contains a. 10; layer IV b. 10; layer I ANS: C OBJ: 2.11

cortical layers, with typically being the input layer. c. six; layer IV d. six; layer I

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

64. The frontal lobe is parietal lobe. a. posterior; superior

to the occipital lobe, whereas the temporal lobe is c. superior; caudal

to the

b. anterior; inferior ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

d. inferior; rostral DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

65. All of the following terms refer to the same cortical region that processes visual input EXCEPT a. striate cortex. c. Heschl’s gyrus. b. area V1. d. Brodmann area 17.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

66. The primary auditory cortex is organized using a tonotopic map, which means that there is an orderly representation of a. loudness. c. duration. b. frequency. d. spatial location.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

67. A patient recently suffered a traumatic blow to the head. She reports that she is having social difficulties, such as adding inappropriate comments to conversations. She cannot seem to control these outbursts. Which area of her cortex is most likely affected? a. the posterior frontal lobe c. the anterior frontal lobe b. the anterior parietal lobe d. the posterior parietal lobe ANS: C OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

68. The volume of cortex that is not sensory or motor has traditionally been termed a. extrastriate c. association b. cognitive d. equipotential ANS: C OBJ: 2.11

cortex.

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

69. Parts of the brain where metabolic activity is relatively high are characterized by a. elevated regional blood flow. b. increased cerebrospinal fluid production. c. a high degree of myelination. d. greater concentrations of calcium ions.

ANS: A OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Medium REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Understanding

70. This type of early cell line is the precursor to the cells that will compose the nervous system. a. blastula c. endoderm b. gastrula d. ectoderm ANS: D OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Medium REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

71. Which of the following statements regarding the prenatal development of the human nervous system is correct? a. The brain develops from ectoderm cells, whereas the spinal cord develops from mesoderm cells.

b. Ectoderm cells are the precursors of the entire nervous system. c. Glial cells are derived from endoderm cells, whereas neurons are derived from ectoderm cells. d. Mesoderm cells are the precursors for all parts of the human nervous system.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System

72. A team of scientists from California and Sweden (Eriksson et al., 1998) administered BrdU, a synthetic form of thymidine, to patients. Which of the following best summarizes the findings from these procedures? a. Very few neurons are generated after birth. b. Synaptogenesis and synapse elimination peak earlier in sensory cortex than in association cortex. c. Brains of humans and rats are anatomically similar. d. New neurons are produced in the adult human brain.

ANS: D OBJ: 2.12 73.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System

refers to the process of rapid cell division that occurs early in development of the nervous system. a. Neurulation c. Neuronal migration b. Neuronal proliferation d. Neural determination ANS: B OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Easy REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

74. The cells in the brain that guide migrating neurons to their final locations are called a. microglia. c. oligodendrocytes. b. radial glia. d. ventricular cells.

ANS: B OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Easy REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

75. Which of the following best describes the reason for substantial growth of the human brain from birth to adulthood? a. The birth of neurons and expansion of axons. b. The absorption of cerebral fluid into the brain. c. The formation of synapses and growth of dendritic trees. d. The formation of new neurons.

ANS: C OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System

TRUE/FALSE 1. The cell body of a neuron contains the same machinery found in most cells, including a nucleus, ribosomes, and mitochondria.

ANS: T OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

2. Dendrites, which are large treelike processes extending from a neuron, are said to be presynaptic.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.1

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

3. Action potentials are electrical signals that are conducted down the axon of a neuron.

ANS: T OBJ: 2.1 | 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

4. The term selective permeability refers to the fact that a cell membrane will allow some ions to pass through more readily than others.

ANS: T OBJ: 2.1 | 2.2

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

5. The resting potential of a neuron is typically +40 to +90 millivolts (mV).

ANS: F OBJ: 2.1 | 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

6. The equilibrium potential is the membrane voltage at which there is no net flow of ions in or out.

ANS: T DIF: Easy OBJ: 2.1 | 2.2 | 2.3 MSC: Remembering

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

7. Hyperpolarization makes the inside of a cell more positive and more likely to generate an action potential.

ANS: F DIF: Easy OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3 | 2.4 MSC: Remembering

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System

8. The amplitude of an action potential is directly proportional to the size of the initial depolarization that produced it.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

9. If the sum of the excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) causes a postsynaptic neuron to reach its threshold, then the postsynaptic neuron will generate an action potential.

ANS: T OBJ: 2.3

DIF: Easy REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Understanding

10. Communication between two neurons is always achieved through chemical, and not electrical, mechanisms.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.5

DIF: Easy REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission MSC: Remembering

11. The term commissure refers to the white matter tracts that connect the brain and spinal cord.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.7

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

12. Neural inputs that target the cortex and originate in the thalamus are referred to as corticothalamic.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy REF: 2.3 Overview of Nervous System Structure MSC: Remembering

13. The hippocampus is considered part of the neocortex.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.10

DIF: Easy REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain MSC: Remembering

14. Sulci are the protruding rounded surfaces of the cortex, and gyri are the fissures and invaginations between the sulci.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.11

DIF: Easy REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex MSC: Remembering

15. During development, a structure called the blastula begins to form when the neural plate invaginates via neural folds being pushed up at its border.

ANS: F OBJ: 2.12

DIF: Easy REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the structure of a prototypical neuron. In your answer, provide definitions for the following terms: soma, axon, dendrite, myelin, and synapse.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.1

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Analyzing

2. Describe the chemical and electrical properties of an action potential. In your answer, describe the movement of Na+ ions and K+ ions across the cell membrane and the resulting changes in electrical potential.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3 | 2.4 MSC: Analyzing 3. Explain the concept of electrochemical equilibrium. How does this concept allow us to understand the transmembrane potentials in neurons?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Analyzing

4. What are the major differences between electrotonic conduction and the action potential? Describe how these two processes play out in neural transmission.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.2 | 2.3

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Analyzing

5. Describe the structure, and explain the function, of three types of glial cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.6

REF: 2.1 The Cells of the Nervous System MSC: Analyzing

6. How do two neurons communicate with each other? Describe the process of synaptic transmission, including both chemical and electrical synapses.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 2.2 Synaptic Transmission

OBJ: 2.5

7. Choose six of the following eight brain regions. For each region, briefly describe its location in the brain and one of its functions. Draw a picture to accompany your answer.

• frontal lobe • parietal lobe • temporal lobe • occipital lobe • basal ganglia • hypothalamus • thalamus • cerebellum ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

OBJ: 2.8 | 2.9 | 2.10 | 2.11

8. What are the advantages of a cerebral cortex with gyri and sulci? Why might the human cerebral cortex be more heavily folded than those of other mammals?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.4 A Guided Tour of the Brain

OBJ: 2.11

9. Histological methods have been used to classify the cerebral cortex into different cytoarchitectonic divisions, such as the Brodmann areas. Can we predict the function of a brain region based on cytoarchitectonics? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 2.5 The Cerebral Cortex

OBJ: 2.11

10. Describe the events following the fertilization of an egg that pertain to the development of the nervous system. In your answer, name the three main types of cell lines found in the blastula and describe what parts of the organism these cells become.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 2.12

REF: 2.7 Development of the Nervous System MSC: Analyzing

Chapter 3: Methods of Cognitive Neuroscience LEARNING OBJECTIVES 3.1 Identify the goals and focuses of cognitive psychology.

3.2 Explain mental representations and transformations, and give examples of each.

3.3 Describe how naturally occurring and experimentally derived lesions can increase our understanding of the functional roles of brain regions.

3.4 Describe and distinguish among the causes and symptoms of different types of brain damage, including strokes, tumors, degenerative disorders, neurological trauma, and epilepsy.

3.5 Distinguish between single and double dissociations, and understand why they are important for elucidating brain structure-function relationships.

3.6 Understand the advantages and disadvantages of investigations that perturb brain function through drugs, magnetic or electrical stimulation, and genetic manipulation.

3.7 Explain how computerized tomography is used to image the structure of the brain.

3.8 Describe what magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) can and cannot reveal about brain structure.

3.9 Understand the uses and advantages of single-cell and multiunit recordings.

3.10 Explain how electroencephalography (EEG) and event-related potential (ERP) signals reflect electrical activity of the brain.

3.11 Identify the advantages of using magnetoencephalography (MEG) to measure electrical activity of neuronal populations.

3.12 Explain how radioactive tracers are used in positron emission tomography (PET) to measure metabolic brain activity, and give examples of popular tracers.

3.13 Describe how functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) uses the hemodynamic response to identify changes in neuronal activity.

3.14 Discuss the uses and advantages of employing computer models to understand cognitive processes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The field of is based on the idea that perception and thought employ mental representations that undergo transformations as they are used. a. neuropsychology c. cognitive psychology b. computer modeling d. neuroimaging ANS: C OBJ: 3.1 | 3.2

DIF: Easy REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Understanding

2. Posner and his colleagues had participants view two letters and respond according to whether these letters were both vowels, both consonants, or one of each. Participants were fastest when viewing two physically identical letters, somewhat slower when viewing the same letter in two different fonts, and slowest when two different consonants were presented. This finding shows that a. we form multiple representations of stimuli. b. we form representations of stimuli based only on their physical attributes. c. we form representations of stimuli based only on their abstract category membership. d. more complex mental representations produce faster reaction times.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Medium REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Understanding

3. The Sternberg paradigm illustrates that when a set of letters held in short-term memory is tested with a recognition task, the time needed to respond to a probe item is a. unrelated to the number of items in the memory set and is unrelated to whether the probe item was part of the original list. b. unrelated to the number of items in the memory set but is affected by whether the probe item was part of the original list. c. related by a linear function to the number of items in the memory set, the slope of which is the same regardless of whether the probe item was part of the original list. d. related by a linear function to the number of items in the memory set, the slope of which is steeper when the probe item was not part of the original list.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods

4. People are better at identifying a briefly presented letter on a computer screen if the letter is a. a vowel rather than a consonant. c. processed serially. b. presented as part of a word. d. printed in colored ink.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Easy REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Understanding

5. The Stroop effect demonstrates that when viewing a. colors, we are successful at suppressing color representations when they are irrelevant to the task. b. words, we are successful at suppressing word representations when they are irrelevant to the task. c. colors, we cannot help but activate color representations even when they are irrelevant to the task. d. words, we cannot help but activate word representations even when they are irrelevant to the task.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.2

DIF: Medium REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Understanding

6. One of the experimental strengths of brain-lesion methods in animals, compared to human neuropsychology, is that a. animal work can be truly experimental, whereas with humans we are limited to correlational inferences. b. with animal work, we can be confident that the effect of a lesion eliminates the contribution of a single structure. c. humans, but not other animals, often develop compensatory strategies to minimize the consequences of a lesion. d. with animals, but not humans, we can create temporary “lesions” using transcranial

magnetic stimulation (TMS).

ANS: A OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

7. A blockage of the posterior cerebral arteries that resulted in brain damage would most likely cause a deficit in a. vision. c. somatosensation. b. motor function. d. speech.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.3 | 3.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

8. A patient has an injury to the parietal lobe and has a selective deficit in processing information about the spatial location of visual stimuli. You hypothesize that this region of the brain is distinct in function from other visual areas in the temporal lobe, in which you suspect shape perception information is processed. To establish a double dissociation between the two functions and brain regions, you would need to find another person who had damage to the a. same part of the parietal lobe but did not have a visuospatial deficit. b. temporal lobe and had both visuospatial and shape perception deficits. c. same part of the parietal lobe and had only a shape perception deficit. d. temporal lobe and had only a shape perception deficit.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.3 | 3.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

9. Which of the following is an advantage of the group study approach in neuropsychology, compared to the individual case study approach? a. A group study allows a cognitive process to be related to particular underlying brain structures with greater reliability. b. A group study can employ the methods of cognitive psychology. c. A group study avoids the problem of compensatory strategies. d. A group study allows neuroimages to be produced.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Medium REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Understanding

10. Which of the following degenerative disorders is believed to have the strongest genetic component? a. Alzheimer’s disease c. Huntington’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease d. Korsakoff’s disease ANS: C OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Medium REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Understanding

11. For which disorder have patients benefited from deep-brain stimulation of the basal ganglia? a. epilepsy c. Parkinson’s disease b. Huntington’s disease d. strokes ANS: C OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Medium REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Remembering

12. What part of the brain does an angiogram allow you to visualize? a. ventricles c. cell bodies b. meninges d. arteries ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

OBJ: 3.4

MSC: Understanding

13. The driver in a car accident first hits the windshield with great force, then rebounds backward. Which part of the driver's brain would you expect to be damaged as a result of the countercoup injury? a. the dorsolateral frontal lobes c. the medial temporal lobes b. the posterior occipital lobes d. the anterior tips of the temporal lobes ANS: B OBJ: 3.4 14.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

is a condition characterized by excessive and abnormally patterned activity in the brain. a. Progressive supranuclear palsy c. Multiple sclerosis b. Epilepsy d. Aneurysm ANS: B OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Easy REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Remembering

15. Resecting or removing regions of cortex and cutting the corpus callosum are techniques that are usually used to a. alleviate severe chronic epilepsy. b. reduce the symptoms of depression. c. increase the functioning of dopaminergic cells in people with Parkinson’s disease. d. relieve imbalances in neurotransmitter levels that can lead to Alzheimer’s disease.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Medium REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Remembering

16. The term is used to describe the situation in which group 1 is impaired on task X and unimpaired on task Y and group 2 is impaired on task Y and unimpaired on task X. In contrast, the term is used when group 1 is impaired on task X and unimpaired on task Y and group 2 is unimpaired on both tasks X and Y. a. single dissociation; double dissociation b. double dissociation; single dissociation c. double dissociation; triple dissociation d. triple dissociation; double dissociation ANS: B OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

17. For a researcher to provide evidence that a brain area and cognitive function are associated, they could use a dissociation, however, to provide more substantial evidence about the function and function localization, they would need a dissociation. a. single; double b. double; single c. double; triple d. triple; double ANS: A OBJ: 3.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

18. Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) affects brain function by a. altering neuronal polarization. b. increasing binding to a radioactive tracer. c. transcranial magnetic stimulation. d. knocking out genes.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Easy REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Understanding

19. A knockout mouse a. has damage to a particular neural structure due to a physical lesion. b. has a transient functional lesion because of administration of neurotransmitter antagonists. c. is part of a special genetic strain that lacks or no longer expresses certain genes. d. is bred to perform poorly on maze-solving tasks.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Easy REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Remembering

20. The technique known as can be used to induce virtual lesions in humans. a. EEG (electroencephalography) b. TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation) c. MEG (magnetoencephalography) d. PET (positron emission tomography) ANS: B OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Easy REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Remembering

21. Which of the following imaging techniques would be best for visualizing a skull fracture? a. CT (computerized tomography) b. PET (positron emission tomography) c. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) d. DTI (diffusion tensor imaging) ANS: A OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain

22. Which of the following imaging techniques can be thought of as a three-dimensional X-ray? a. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) b. CT (computerized tomography) c. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) d. PET (positron emission tomography) ANS: B OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Easy REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Understanding

23. This neuroimaging technique combines X-ray pictures taken from many different angles into a compressed two-dimensional representation of the brain. a. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) c. PET (positron emission tomography) b. CT (computerized tomography) d. EEG (electroencephalography) ANS: B OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Easy REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Remembering

24. Which of the following neuroimaging techniques involves manipulating the orientation of hydrogen atoms? a. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) c. MEG (magnetoencephalography) b. PET (positron emission tomography) d. ERP (event-related potential) ANS: A OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Easy REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Remembering

25. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) image is constructed from signals that are generated by

a. b. c. d.

protons being perturbed by the Earth’s magnetic field. protons rebounding to the Earth’s magnetic field. protons being perturbed by the MRI’s magnetic field. protons rebounding to the MRI’s magnetic field.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Difficult REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Understanding

26. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) a. is like a conventional X-ray but it allows the reconstruction of three-dimensional space from compressed two-dimensional images. b. is an imaging method used to evaluate the circulatory system in the brain. c. involves inserting electrodes that produce continuous signals to trigger neural activity in the brain. d. is performed with an MRI scanner but measures the density and motion of water contained in axons.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.8

DIF: Easy REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Remembering

27. You have isolated a neuron in the occipital lobes that you believe is responsible for processing information about color. What type of neurophysiological technique would allow you to assess this hypothesis in a living animal? a. single-cell recording c. electrical stimulation b. histology d. Golgi stain ANS: A OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity

28. The particular region of space in which a stimulus must be presented to evoke a response from a given neuron is its a. topographic map. c. receptive field. b. sensory homunculus. d. baseline space.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Medium REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Remembering

29. What can you infer about the responsiveness of two neurons in the visual cortex that lie next to each other in V1? a. Both cells share a common receptive field. b. The cells are sensitive to precisely the same stimulus characteristics. c. The receptive fields of these cells are also next to each other. d. Both cells have identical baseline activity rates.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Medium REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Understanding

30. One limitation of what we can learn through the single-cell recording technique is that a. it is often difficult to determine the baseline activity level of a single neuron. b. patterns of activity among groups of neurons may describe the function of a brain area better. c. the receptive field of a single neuron changes as the brain develops. d. single-cell recording is effective only in exploring the primary sensory cortex.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Medium REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Understanding

31. Which of the following types of topographic representation does NOT incorporate information about the location of a stimulus in space? a. retinotopic maps in the visual cortex b. motor maps in the motor cortex c. cochleotopic maps in the auditory cortex d. somatosensory maps in the somatosensory cortex ANS: C OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity

32. The electrical signal evoked by a class of sensory, motor, or cognitive events, which is observed by averaging multiple EEG traces, is known as a(n) a. brain response potential. c. event-related potential. b. mean event trace. d. neural activity trace.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.10

DIF: Easy REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Remembering

33. Research questions about the time course of cognition are better addressed using methods like , whereas questions about the anatomy of cognition are better addressed using methods like . a. ERP (event-related potential); fMRI c. PET (positron emission tomography); (functional magnetic resonance imaging) MEG (magnetoencephalography) b. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance d. MEG (magnetoencephalography); ERP imaging); PET (positron emission (event-related potential) tomography) ANS: A DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.10 | 3.11 | 3.12 | 3.13

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Understanding

34. Which of the following is an advantage of MEG (magnetoencephalography) over EEG (electroencephalography)? a. With MEG, current flow can be detected in any orientation. b. With MEG, the inverse problem can be avoided. c. With MEG, magnetic fields are not distorted by the skull. d. With MEG, the temporal resolution is much better.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.10 | 3.11

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity

35. Which of the following best describes the major limitation of MEG (magnetoencephalography)? a. MEG requires medical personnel to be present during use. b. It is difficult to locate the source of an MEG signal. c. The MEG requires a magnetically shielded room. d. MEG has poor temporal resolution.

ANS: C OBJ: 3.11

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity

36. The formation of plaques composed of abnormal amyloid protein in the brain is a characteristic symptom of a. Alzheimer’s disease. c. Huntington’s disease. b. Parkinson’s disease. d. Korsakoff’s disease.

ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Remembering 37. A patient suffering from a progressive neurological disorder is brought to a neurologist for diagnosis.

The neurologist notes that the patient’s MRI reveals a great deal of cortical atrophy and suspects that the problem may be Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following symptoms, if also discovered, would confirm this diagnosis? a. tremors and difficulty in initiating movement b. double vision c. loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia d. presence of amyloid plaques during postmortem examination of the brain ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Applying 38. The small regions in a three-dimensional grid, approximately 5 to 10 cubic millimeters in volume, that neuroimagers use to map the brain are known as a. posners. c. voxels. b. sternbergs. d. pixels.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.7 | 3.8 | 3.12 | 3.13 MSC: Remembering 39. Which neuroimaging technique involves injecting an isotope of oxygen into the bloodstream and using it to measure regional cerebral blood flow? a. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance c. CT (computerized tomography) imaging) b. PET (positron emission tomography) d. EEG (electroencephalography) ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.12 MSC: Remembering 40. Suppose oxygen-15 is used as the tracer isotope in a PET (positron emission tomography) study.

Which of the following best describes how the PET scanner traces the oxygen-15 after it has been injected into a participant’s bloodstream? a. The oxygen-15 nuclei decay and emit electrons, the electrons collide with positrons to create gamma rays, and the gamma rays are then detected by the PET scanner. b. The oxygen-15 nuclei decay and emit positrons, and the positrons are then detected by the PET scanner. c. The oxygen-15 nuclei decay and emit electrons, and the electrons collide with photons, creating positrons which are then detected by the PET scanner. d. The oxygen-15 nuclei decay and emit positrons, the positrons collide with electrons to create gamma rays, and the gamma rays are then detected by the PET scanner.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.12 MSC: Analyzing 41. Functional connectivity is a measure of functional relatedness between different a. stimuli. c. neurons. b. brain regions. d. methods.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.13 MSC: Understanding 42. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is based on a measurement of a. magnetic fields emanating from the surface of the brain. b. the distribution of dye in the arteries and veins of the brain. c. virtual lesions following intense magnetic stimulation of the brain. d. ratios of oxygenated to deoxygenated hemoglobin in the brain.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.13 MSC: Remembering 43.

is the science of simulating natural cognitive processes on computers. a. Mental chronometry c. Artificial intelligence b. Neuropsychology d. Cognitive psychology ANS: C OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Easy REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Remembering

44. The greatest advantage of incorporating computer modeling into the study of a cognitive phenomenon is that a. this approach best demonstrates the limitations of information processing in natural cognition. b. computers can analyze a larger amount of data than can real brains. c. it is no longer necessary to test humans to understand cognition. d. this technique can generate explicit, testable theories of natural cognition.

ANS: D OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Medium REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Understanding

45. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer modeling? a. Creating a simulation leads researchers to be completely explicit in the modeled operations. b. Some models have homunculus-like teachers, just like those of biological organisms. c. Such models can lead to testable predictions. d. Models can be “lesioned” to see how their performance changes when they are altered.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience

46. Neural network models often a. have distributed processing. b. store information discretely in isolated and independent units. c. have static activation levels. d. are symbolic in nature.

ANS: A OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Medium REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Remembering

47. Research using models sometimes involves “lesioning” the model to see if it adequately simulates the behavioral deficits observed in neurological patients. a. symbolic c. neural network b. propositional d. chronometric

ANS: C OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Medium REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Understanding

48. The model of Kali and Dayan predicted that the maintenance of memories over time would a. depend on reactivation of thalamo–neocortical connections. b. depend on reactivation of hippocampal–neocortical connections. c. not depend on reactivation of thalamo–neocortical connections, even though these are essential for the formation of new memories. d. not depend on reactivation of hippocampal–neocortical connections, even though these are essential for the formation of new memories.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Medium REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Understanding

49. Which of the following methods would best reveal an integrative perspective of the brain and its functionality? a. Analyzing electroencephalography (EEG) data using both event-related potential (ERP) and spectral analysis. b. Comparing patients with lesions to healthy individuals who have undergone transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). c. Employing a participant survey before or after functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). d. Collecting positron emission topography (PET) data from the same participant on two separate days.

ANS: B OBJ: 3.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.9 Converging Methods

50. Which of the following can be done by combining functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and cannot be done by using only one of these methodologies? a. Investigators can evaluate neurological function and provide effective treatment. b. Investigators can test causal inferences of neural function. c. Investigators can observe the time course of neural processing. d. Investigators can localize neural activity to exact brain regions.

ANS: B DIF: OBJ: 3.3 | 3.6 | 3.13

Difficult

REF: 3.9 Converging Methods MSC: Analyzing

TRUE/FALSE 1. The Sternberg experiment showed that the amount of time it takes to compare a target item with a list of items in memory increases with the number of items in the memory set. This is an example of parallel processing.

ANS: F OBJ: 3.1 | 3.2

DIF: Easy REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Understanding

2. The most frequent cause of stroke is occlusion of the normal passage of blood by a foreign substance, such as an embolus.

ANS: T OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Easy REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Remembering

3. Some progressive neurological disorders can be caused by viruses like the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and the herpes simplex virus.

ANS: T OBJ: 3.4

DIF: Medium REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain MSC: Understanding

4. Weaver mice are a knockout strain in which Purkinje cells, the prominent cell type in the hippocampus, fail to develop. As a result, these mice are “maze dull.”

ANS: F OBJ: 3.6

DIF: Medium REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Understanding

5. The best neuroimaging method for visualizing the white and gray matter is computerized tomography (CT).

ANS: F OBJ: 3.7

DIF: Easy REF: 3.4 Structural Analysis of the Brain MSC: Understanding

6. When performing a single-cell recording, researchers typically carefully insert a thin electrode through the cell membrane into the interior of a neuron.

ANS: F OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Difficult REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Understanding

7. The term tonotopic refers to the fact that the cochlea and the auditory cortex contain maps that are organized according to the sound frequencies that best stimulate the cells.

ANS: T OBJ: 3.9

DIF: Easy REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Remembering

8. Computational models can vary widely in the level of explanation they seek to provide, and they can range from the cellular/molecular level to the systems level.

ANS: T OBJ: 3.14

DIF: Easy REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the Stroop effect? Describe a principle of cognition that the task’s results reveal.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.1 | 3.2

REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods MSC: Analyzing

2. What is a mental representation? How are mental representations transformed? Give an example to support each of your two answers.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium

REF: 3.1 Cognitive Psychology and Behavioral Methods

OBJ: 3.2

MSC: Analyzing

3. What are single and double dissociations? Provide an example of a neuropsychological study illustrating each one.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 3.2 Studying the Damaged Brain

OBJ: 3.5

4. Cognitive neuropsychological approaches using people who have suffered a stroke, tumor, or neurological disorder are sometimes described as “correlational.” Explain what this means, and provide a hypothetical case study to illustrate your point.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3.3 | 3.4

REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Analyzing

5. Why are methods that perturb neural function useful to researchers? Give examples of at least two such methods.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.6

REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Analyzing

6. How do transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) differ? Give a real or hypothetical example of an occasion when one of these methods would be preferable to the other. Explain why.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3.6

REF: 3.3 Methods to Perturb Neural Function MSC: Analyzing

7. Describe an experiment you could conduct in order to understand the properties of a particular cell’s receptive field.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3.9

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Evaluating

8. Compare and contrast electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetoencephalography (MEG). Highlight their similarities and differences in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.10 | 3.11

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Analyzing

9. What is an event-related potential (ERP)? What benefits do ERPs bring to a researcher’s toolkit?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.10

REF: 3.5 Methods to Measure Neural Activity MSC: Analyzing

10. Choose two of the following methods and briefly describe how they work. For each of your choices, describe a research question (real or hypothetical) for which this method would be an appropriate choice, and explain why.

• functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) • transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) • electroencephalography (EEG) • computerized tomography (CT) • diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging OBJ: 3.6 | 3.8 | 3.10 | 3.13 MSC: Evaluating 11. What role does an isotope play in positron emission tomography (PET)? Include a real or hypothetical example.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 3.12

REF: 3.6 The Marriage of Function and Structure: Neuroimaging MSC: Analyzing

12. How do computational models contribute to our understanding of cognitive neuroscience? Include an example in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 3.8 Computational Neuroscience

OBJ: 3.14

Chapter 4: Hemispheric Specialization LEARNING OBJECTIVES 4.1 Explain how the area of hemispheric specialization fi rst gained prominence.

4.2 Identify the anatomy of the hemispheres.

4.3 Discuss key findings with regard to patients who have had their cerebral hemispheres disconnected.

4.4 Understand the role of hemispheric specialization in different cognitive domains.

4.5 Explain how hemispheric specialization plays a role in thinking about ourselves and others.

4.6 Explain the evolutionary bases of hemispheric specialization.

4.7 Recognize the ways in which hemispheric specialization sheds light on consciousness.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dr. Joseph Bogen severed the corpus callosum of patient W.J. in order to relieve which symptom(s)? a. seizures c. dizziness b. cold sweats d. memory loss ANS: A OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Easy REF: 4.A Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

2. After patient W.J. had his corpus collosum severed, he participated in a series of tasks. One of these tasks demonstrated that the specializations of each hemisphere were different. This task permitted him to use , and consequently . a. his left hand; he was able to press a button when a light flashed on the right side of the screen b. his right hand; he could not arrange colored blocks to match a simple pattern c. both hands; he was able to press a button when a light flashed on either side of the screen d. both hands; his two hands were working in opposition while he arranged colored blocks ANS: D OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 4.A Hemispheric Specialization

3. The posterior and anterior commissures are NOT thick enough for which of the following? a. to serve as an alternative interhemispheric route for the corpus callosum b. to provide connections between the temporal lobes c. to provide limited connectivity between the hemispheres d. to provide connectivity for basic light reflexes ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 4.2

4. Which of the following is NOT true of the Wada test? a. It entails the injection of amobarbital. b. It can be used to determine which hemisphere is language dominant. c. It determines the extent to which the corpus callosum has been resected. d. It is used before elective surgery for the treatment of epilepsy.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 4.2

5. Which of the following is NOT an anatomical or physiological difference between the cerebral hemispheres? a. The planum temporale is larger on the left side. b. The Sylvian or lateral fissure is steeper on the left side. c. Parts of the thalamus are larger on the left side. d. Left-hemisphere neurons tend to have more high-order dendritic branching than righthemisphere neurons.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 4.2

6. One issue in the study of laterality has been to determine whether children with developmental language disabilities show different patterns of hemispheric asymmetry relative to control populations.

MRI studies of dyslexic children have found that a. the left planum temporale tends to be larger than the right planum temporale in this group. b. the right planum temporale tends to be larger than the left planum temporale in this group. c. the left and right planum temporale tend to be symmetrical in this group. d. their brains are indistinguishable from the brains of control participants with regard to hemispheric asymmetry.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

7. An anatomical difference between the cerebral hemispheres that may be related to language lateralization is the enlargement of the in the left hemisphere. a. hippocampus c. planum temporale b. cingulate gyrus d. primary visual pathway ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

8. One difficulty in interpreting the correlation between asymmetry in the planum temporale and language function that has recently arisen is that a. the extent of the anatomical differences between the left and right hemispheres may have been overestimated by the techniques used to identify this region. b. it has been found that the planum temporale is an area of great plasticity that changes in size throughout development. c. newer studies indicate that the planum temporale is involved not in language function but rather in vision. d. current studies suggest that fewer people than previously thought have left-hemisphere language dominance.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 4.2

9. On which basis you know about the neurophysiological and microanatomical differences between the right and left hemispheres, choose the option here that correctly lists the properties of cortical tissue samples taken from the left hemisphere. a. relatively greater high-order dendritic branching, relatively dense packing of cortical columns b. relatively less high-order dendritic branching, relatively dense packing of cortical columns c. relatively greater high-order dendritic branching, relatively loose packing of cortical columns d. relatively less high-order dendritic branching, relatively loose packing of cortical columns ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

10. What are homotopic brain areas? a. regions of the cortex that are organized according to spatial maps of the environment b. areas in corresponding locations in the two cerebral hemispheres c. areas in the brain that are organized according to spatial and auditory frequency d. regions of the cortex found within the same cerebral hemisphere ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

11. The main mass of fibers that carries signals from the cortex in one cerebral hemisphere to the other is called the a. anterior commissure. c. arcuate fasciculus. b. corpus callosum. d. planum temporale.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

12. Which of the following, if any, describes a proposed function of the corpus callosum? a. to guide migrating neurons in the prenatal brain to destinations in the opposite hemisphere b. to allow each hemisphere to inhibit the activity of the other c. to provide structural support for the dorsal and medial portions of the cerebral cortex d. None of the answer options describes a proposed function of the corpus callosum.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 4.2

13. Examination of cerebral organization in the left and right hemispheres indicates that a. there are obvious anatomical differences between the hemispheres but no obvious functional differences. b. there are obvious functional differences between the hemispheres but no obvious anatomical differences. c. the two hemispheres are more different from one another in function than they are similar. d. the two hemispheres are more similar to one another in function than they are different.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 4.3

14. Split-brain research is associated with which of the following? a. lobotomy c. hemispherectomy b. callosotomy d. craniectomy ANS: B OBJ: 4.1

DIF: Easy REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

15. Which of the following is a methodological issue that arises in studies investigating cerebral laterality in split-brain patients? a. Due to their epilepsy, these people may not have had normal brain organization before surgery. b. The size of the corpus callosum and the effects of severing it are too variable. c. Sectioning the corpus callosum causes severe behavioral side effects that make research participation difficult. d. Each person’s physiological response to the surgery is different and creates new patterns of brain organization during recovery.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Medium REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Understanding

16. Which of the following people would be most likely to receive the split-brain procedure? a. a person with amnesia c. a person with aphasia b. a person with schizophrenia d. a person with epilepsy ANS: D OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Understanding

17. Assessment of the visual processing carried out by each hemisphere in split-brain patients usually involves the brief simultaneous presentation of different stimuli to each visual field while the participant fixates on a central point in space. Why is it necessary to ensure that stimulus presentation is brief? a. If the stimuli were presented over longer intervals, information would be transferred between the hemispheres through the corpus callosum. b. Brief presentation prevents participants from focusing attention on the stimuli. c. The short presentation time is necessary to prevent eye movements, which would redirect information across the visual fields. d. Increasing the presentation time increases task difficulty for split-brain patients.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Medium REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Understanding

18. A small object, such as a key, is placed in the right hand of a split-brain patient who has her eyes closed. Assuming that this person has left-hemisphere language dominance, which of the following best describes her ability to report information about the object based on how it feels? a. She will be able to name and describe it verbally. b. She will not be able to name it verbally. c. She will be able to write out the object’s name using her left hand. d. She will not be able to direct focused attention to the object.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection

19. The following is a sample stimulus shown briefly to a split-brain patient who has the typical pattern of language dominance. If you ask her to name the object she sees, what will her answer probably be?

a. “Square” b. “Circle” ANS: B OBJ: 4.3

c. “Square and circle” d. “Nothing” DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection

20. Visual information that is presented briefly to the visual field is processed first by the left half of each retina and then by the hemisphere of the brain. a. right; right c. left; right b. right; left d. left; left ANS: B OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Medium REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Understanding

21. If a split-brain patient with the typical pattern of language dominance is shown an object briefly in her left visual field, she will be able to indicate what she saw successfully if she is asked to a. speak its name. b. point to the object using her left hand. c. point to the object using her right hand. d. verbally describe, rather than name, the object.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Medium REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Understanding

22. If you section all of the corpus callosum EXCEPT the splenial region, information about inputs to the a. left and right ears will be successfully integrated. b. left and right hands will be successfully integrated. c. left and right visual field will be successfully integrated. d. left hand and the right visual field will be successfully integrated.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection

23. The word superiority effect can be documented a. in only the left hemisphere because this effect stems from the auditory lexicon. b. in both hemispheres because this effect stems from the auditory lexicon. c. in only the left hemisphere because this effect stems from the visual lexicon. d. in both hemispheres because this effect stems from the visual lexicon.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Understanding 24. To which of the following aspects of language does the right hemisphere seem to make the smallest contribution, if any? a. generative syntax c. emotional prosody b. the mental lexicon d. spontaneous facial expressions ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients

OBJ: 4.4

MSC: Remembering

25. A general function that is associated with right-hemisphere activity in most people is a. language production and comprehension. b. comprehension and memory for meaningful gestures. c. the word superiority effect. d. visuospatial processing.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 26. Although there is a general consensus that the right hemisphere is superior on some tasks that require visuospatial processing, such as the block design task, the findings on this topic are also somewhat inconsistent. One explanation for this inconsistency is that the block design task a. involves many cognitive operations, and not all of them may be lateralized to the right hemisphere. b. has many verbal components that may emphasize left- rather than right-hemisphere function. c. requires fine motor coordination, which is regulated by the right hemisphere. d. is too simple a task to demonstrate strong laterality effects.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 27. One advantage to studying cerebral laterality from an information-processing perspective rather than a task-based perspective is that the information-processing approach a. is a less parsimonious approach to describing laterality effects. b. focuses on how each hemisphere works independently of the other. c. emphasizes that the two hemispheres may work in concert to perform a task. d. minimizes the role of evolution in hemispheric specialization.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 28. Studies of the production of facial expressions suggest that although can generate spontaneous facial expressions, can generate voluntary facial expressions. a. only the left hemisphere; both hemispheres b. only the right hemisphere; both hemispheres c. both hemispheres; only the left hemisphere d. both hemispheres; only the right hemisphere ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 29. Split-brain patients are asked to detect targets that appear briefly on a computer screen. On some trials, the targets are preceded by cues that correctly indicate their upcoming location. The detection advantage produced by the cues a. occurs only if the cue and subsequent target are shown in the same visual field. b. occurs only if the cue and subsequent target appear in the left visual field. c. occurs only if the cue and subsequent target appear in the right visual field. d. occurs regardless of which visual field contains the cue and target.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying 30. Lesions of the right hemisphere disrupt perception of in visual stimuli and speech. a. global structure; prosody c. local structure; prosody b. global structure; formants d. local structure; formants

in

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 31. Based on what you have learned about laterality, which of the following statements is most accurate? a. People utilize the right hemisphere for visual spatial tasks. b. People utilize the left hemisphere for language. c. Both hemispheres play a role in most tasks in all people, working in concert with each other. d. The hemispheres are functionally identical.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients | 4.4 The Interpreter | 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Evaluating 32. The term refers to the idea that a complex perceptual stimulus can be described on multiple levels of detail. a. dichotomania c. generative assembling device b. hierarchical structure d. heterotopic mapping ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 33. The phenomenon of global precedence described by Navon (1977) is that when hierarchically structured stimuli are presented, a. global shapes are extracted before local shapes. b. local shapes are easier for the visual system to extract than global shapes. c. global shapes take longer to process than local shapes. d. local shapes can interfere with the perception of global shapes.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 34. Based on the work of Navon (1977), which of the following types of stimuli would probably produce the shortest reaction times if participants were required to detect the presence of an “L” in the figure? a. L L LLL L L b. F F FFF c. L

L LLL d. All reaction times would be roughly the same.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying 35. When presented with lateralized local–global stimuli to control, participants generally a. identify local targets more quickly by the right hemisphere than the left hemisphere. b. identify global targets more quickly by the right hemisphere than the left hemisphere. c. identify local targets more quickly when a stimulus is presented in the left visual field rather than the right visual field. d. identify both global and local targets more quickly when stimuli are presented in the right visual field rather than the left visual field.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Analyzing 36. Robertson and colleagues (1988) investigated possible asymmetries in the processing of hierarchical figures by people who had suffered unilateral brain injuries. They found that patients with injuries to the left hemisphere had difficulty in identifying elements, and patients with injuries to the right hemisphere had difficulty in identifying elements. a. the global; the local c. the local; both local and global b. the local; the global d. both local and global; the global ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 37. Here are a hierarchical letter figure and a copy of this stimulus drawn by a person with a unilateral brain injury. Where is the most probable location of this injury?

a. the right dorsolateral frontal lobe b. the left temporoparietal cortex

c. the right fusiform gyrus d. the right occipital lobe

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Analyzing 38. In an experiment with patients, a group of researchers used nonlinguistic hierarchical shape stimuli such as the example here. How did the results differ from those obtained with hierarchical letter stimuli?

a. The results were the same regardless of whether letter stimuli or shape stimuli were used. b. Neither patient group showed any local impairment when shape stimuli were used instead of letters. c. Neither patient group showed any global impairment when shape stimuli were used instead of letters. d. Neither patient group showed global or local impairment when shape stimuli were used instead of letters.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying 39. Theory of mind is to the interpreter as the a. subconscious; conscious b. conscious; subconscious c. right hemisphere; left hemisphere d. left hemisphere; right hemisphere

is to the

.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients | 4.4 The Interpreter OBJ: 4.4 | 4.5 MSC: Analyzing 40. One of the hallmarks of humans is our ability to draw causal inferences. In the textbook this is termed a. the visionary. c. the interpreter. b. the clairvoyant. d. the predicter.

ANS: C OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Easy REF: 4.4 The Interpreter MSC: Remembering

41. You are watching a show on TV while speaking on your cell phone to a loved one. A commercial with a couple fighting appears. Suddenly, the person says something on the phone and you get irritated. The person on the other side of the line is perplexed by your response. This is an example of a. the interpreter. c. rationalization. b. left hemisphere brain activity. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 4.4 The Interpreter

42. In one experiment a group of pictures was presented to split-brain patients. Then a set of pictures was presented either to the left or the right hemisphere. Which of the following statements is true? a. The left hemisphere accurately identified only the previously presented pictures. b. The right hemisphere misidentified related pictures as being presented. c. The left hemisphere accurately identified only the previously presented pictures, and the right hemisphere misidentified related pictures as being presented. d. None of the answer options is correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 4.4 The Interpreter

43. Animals and humans are shown items that have a 75/25 probability of being in one of two categories.

Which participants would perform the best on this task? a. intact humans b. intact animals c. right-hemisphere-damaged patients d. Intact humans, intact animals, and right-hemisphere-damaged patients would perform equally well.

ANS: B OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Medium REF: 4.4 The Interpreter MSC: Understanding

44. A split-brain patient is presented with instructions in their left visual field to draw a circle. The experimenter verbally asks the patient to explain why they drew a circle. Which of the following responses is the patient MOST likely to report? a. “I was drawing a clock.” b. “I’m not sure why I drew a circle.” c. “I did not draw a circle.” d. They will not respond.

ANS: A OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 4.4 The Interpreter

45. When participants in a dichotic listening task with word stimuli are asked afterward to report as many items as possible, they consistently produce the words that were presented to the right ear much more frequently than the words that were presented to the left ear. This phenomenon is called a. binaural integration. c. the right-ear advantage. b. the word superiority effect. d. the frequency hypothesis.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 46. When listening to a song, the right ear is to the left ear as is/are to a. melodies; words c. volume; pitch b. words; melodies d. pitch; volume

.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Analyzing 47. Imagine that you are a neurologist and you have a child patient whom you suspect has agenesis of the corpus collosum (ACC). During a meeting with the child's parents, which of the following complaints are they LEAST likely to report? a. The child has been experiencing attentional difficulties. b. The child sometimes has trouble producing words. c. The child has been unable to connect socially with his or her peers. d. The child often experiences difficulties with sports that require hand-eye coordination.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying

48. Studies of cerebral laterality in nonhuman species indicate that hemispheric differences a. are found in many species, and the specific functions involved are quite similar. b. are found in many species, but the specific functions involved often differ. c. are typically found only in humans and other primate species, and the specific functions involved differ from species to species. d. have been strongly documented in humans only.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering 49. Localized specialized networks that can perform functions are called a. areas. c. items. b. units. d. modules.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering 50. Which of the following statements best describes the correlation between handedness and hemisphere dominance for language function in humans? a. The correlation is strong, such that for language almost all right-handers have lefthemisphere dominance and almost all left-handers have right-hemisphere dominance. b. The correlation is strong only for left-handers, whereas right-handers do not generally have a particular language-dominant hemisphere. c. The correlation is strong only for left-handers, who almost all have right-hemisphere dominance for language, whereas right-handers do not generally have a particular language-dominant hemisphere. d. The correlation is weak, such that almost all right-handers and at least half of left-handers exhibit left-hemisphere language dominance, regardless of handedness.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering TRUE/FALSE 1. Brain asymmetries are restricted to the cerebral cortex and are not found in subcortical structures.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

2. Asymmetries in language-associated brain regions have been documented at the level of individual neurons that make up the cortical columns.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 4.2

3. Many callosal projections link homotopic areas in corresponding locations in the two hemispheres.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 4.1 Anatomical Correlates of Hemispheric Specialization

OBJ: 4.2

MSC: Remembering 4. In neurologically intact people, we can restrict information to only the left hemisphere by presenting it visually in the right visual field.

ANS: F OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

5. There appear to be two mental lexicons, one in each hemisphere.

ANS: T OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

6. The right hemisphere is more important than the left for both the perception and production of facial expressions.

ANS: F OBJ: 4.3

DIF: Easy REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

7. Drawings of hierarchical figures by people with left-hemisphere lesions are likely to focus on local elements while missing global structure.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 8. The interpreter is a specialization of the left hemisphere.

ANS: T OBJ: 4.5

DIF: Easy REF: 4.4 The Interpreter MSC: Remembering

9. The dichotic listening task has been used to show a left-ear advantage for remembering dichotically presented words, consistent with the idea that the left hemisphere processes language.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 10. One theory of the relationship between language and handedness suggests that both speech and dexterity are related.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe a visual field experiment involving a patient who has undergone the split-brain procedure. In your answer, provide at least one example of a question this person would not be able to answer under these conditions.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 4.3

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Analyzing

2. How do the two hemispheres differentially process the local and global elements of visual hierarchical stimuli?

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 4.3

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

3. Describe how the right and left hemispheres differ in terms of facial recognition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 4.3

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Analyzing

4. Describe how the facial expressions of right- and left-hemisphere-damaged patients differ.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 4.3

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

5. Describe how the right and left hemispheres differ in terms of the processing of melodies and words for a song.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 4.3

REF: 4.2 Splitting the Brain: Cortical Disconnection MSC: Remembering

6. Damage to the right hemisphere is known to cause visual spatial function deficits. Give an example of a result from an experiment that supports this.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 4.3 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from Split-Brain Patients | 4.4 The Interpreter | 4.5 Evidence of Lateralized Brain Functions from the Normal and Malfunctioning Brain OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 7. The right and left hemispheres have both been called interpreters. Describe the difference.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 4.4 The Interpreter MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 4.5

8. Some people suggest that the loss of visual spatial ability is due to the acquisition of language. Give an example of this from work with nonhuman primates.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 4.6

REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Understanding

9. How is Brodmann area 22 specialized for the processing of auditory signals in humans?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 4.6

REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Understanding

10. Describe how modularity plays a role in consciousness.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 4.7

REF: 4.6 The Evolutionary Basis of Hemispheric Specialization MSC: Analyzing

Chapter 5: Sensation and Perception LEARNING OBJECTIVES 5.1 Explain the stages and mechanisms of auditory signal transduction from the ear to the primary auditory cortex, and understand how interaural processing aids sound localization.

5.2 Explain the stages and mechanisms of olfactory signal transduction from the nose to the primary olfactory and orbitofrontal cortices, and understand how airflow is used in olfaction.

5.3 Explain the stages and mechanisms of gustatory signal transduction from the mouth to the primary gustatory and orbitofrontal cortices, and the role of orbitofrontal cortex in food reward.

5.4 Understand the types of stimulation that activate corpuscles, nociceptors, and nerve cells at muscle and tendon junctions, and that S1’s sensory homunculus is plastic and reflects differences in somatosensory sensitivity across the body.

5.5 Explain the stages and mechanisms of visual signal transduction from the retina to the V1 and subcortical structures.

5.6 Understand cell receptive fields and retinotopic maps.

5.7 Describe the functionality of distinct visual cortex regions and their cell responses.

5.8 Understand that activity in higher visual areas is more closely related to our percept than primary visual cortex activity.

5.9 Explain the impact of lesions on the superior colliculus, visual cortex, V4, and V5.

5.10 Describe the roles of multisensory neural responses and multimodal processing and the scenarios that produce them.

5.11 Describe synesthesia and its neural correlates.

5.12 Describe the cortical reorganization that can occur after sensory deprivation, including visual cortex plasticity in blind individuals.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are common across each sensory system, EXCEPT: a. Neuronal signals are passed along specific sensory nerves. b. System nerves terminate either monosynaptically or disynaptically in different parts of the thalamus. c. The system begins with a structure for collecting, filtering, and amplifying information from the environment. d. The system contains specialized receptor cells that transduce environmental stimuli.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.1 Senses, Sensation, and Perception

2. Information about which of the following senses does NOT pass through the thalamus on the way to the cortex? a. audition c. gustation

b. olfaction ANS: B OBJ: 5.2

d. somatosensation DIF: Easy REF: 5.1 Senses, Sensation, and Perception MSC: Remembering

3. How many types of receptors are there in the olfactory epithelium? a. two c. five b. four d. more than five ANS: D OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

4. The primary olfactory cortex is located at the junction of the and a. frontal; temporal c. temporal; occipital b. frontal; parietal d. parietal; occipital ANS: A OBJ: 5.2

lobes.

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

5. The orbitofrontal cortex is considered a secondary cortical area for which of the following senses? a. proprioception c. olfaction b. vision d. audition ANS: C OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

6. Neurons in the olfactory bulb demonstrate an extensive amount of convergence and divergence. This means that neurons in this system a. sometimes fire synchronously and asynchronously with respect to each other. b. project to, and receive input from, a large number of other neurons. c. synapse onto their own presynaptic neurons, creating feedback loops. d. send output to regions of the brain both near and far from the olfactory epithelium.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Medium REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Understanding

7. After modeling the quick habituation found in the olfactory system, Sobel’s fMRI research suggested that a. the primary olfactory cortex is related to sniffing, and the orbitofrontal cortex is related to smell. b. the orbitofrontal cortex is related to sniffing, and the primary olfactory cortex is related to smell. c. the orbitofrontal cortex is related to sniffing and smell, whereas the primary olfactory cortex is related to smell but not sniffing. d. the primary olfactory cortex is related to sniffing and smell, whereas the orbitofrontal cortex is related to smell but not sniffing.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Medium REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Understanding

8. Which of the following is a documented asymmetry in the olfactory system? a. The number of receptor types in the left olfactory epithelium is 10 times greater than in the right olfactory epithelium. b. The cortical volume of the primary olfactory cortex is larger on the right side than on the left in right-handed people. c. The nasal passage in one nostril is larger than in the other nostril, and this switches back

and forth every few hours. d. Although the left nostril projects to both left and right cerebral hemispheres, the right nostril projects only to the right hemisphere.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

9. Of the following choices, the strongest evidence for a link between the sense of smell and the triggering of memories is the observation that a. the olfactory cortex has direct connectivity to the limbic cortex. b. the olfactory cortex has direct connectivity to area MT. c. people with damage to the basal ganglia have compromised odor recognition. d. people with damage to the cerebellum have compromised odor recognition.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.2 Olfaction

10. Sobel and colleagues (Gelstein et al., 2011) asked male participants to rate pictures of women’s faces in terms of sexual attraction. While rating the photos, they instructed the participants to sniff either tears from “donor women” or an odorless saline solution. Which of the following best summarizes the findings of this study? a. Participants rated faces as less sexually attractive when sniffing tears compared to when they were sniffing the saline solution. b. Participants rated faces as more sexually attractive when sniffing tears compared to when they were sniffing the saline solution. c. Participants were equally likely to rate faces as sexually attractive, regardless of whether they were sniffing tears or saline. d. There were no differences in participant ratings, however functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) data revealed differences in activation for brain areas associated with sexual arousal.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.2 Olfaction

11. Suppose you injected an anterograde tracer into taste-specific regions of the thalamus. Which of the following are you LEAST likely to find? a. Clustering is evident for bitter tastes. b. Clustering is evident for sweet tastes. c. The salty cluster may be distributed over multiple pathways. d. The sour cluster may be distributed over multiple pathways.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF: 5.3 Gustation

12. Peng and colleagues manipulated the behavior of mice by activating differential regions of the gustatory cortex. Based on their findings, which of the following scenarios is MOST plausible if translated to human behavior? a. Andrew visits his mother’s house and prefers to eat near the kitchen where he can smell his mother’s cooking. b. Charlene prefers her meals when the food is divided on the plate and the flavors are not mixed together. c. George closes the windows and doors in his office while he eats his lunch. d. Alena frequently chooses to drink coffee at her favorite dessert bar, even if she isn’t eating dessert.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 5.3 Gustation

13. The basic taste umami is experienced when eating foods rich in a. fat. c. carbohydrates. b. protein. d. minerals.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Easy REF: 5.3 Gustation MSC: Remembering

14. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic tastes? a. acid c. sweet b. bitter d. umami ANS: A OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Easy REF: 5.3 Gustation MSC: Remembering

15. The primary gustatory cortex is located in the a. thalamus and hypothalamus. b. hippocampus and amygdala.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.3

c. pons and medulla. d. insula and operculum.

DIF: Easy REF: 5.3 Gustation MSC: Remembering

16. The orbitofrontal cortex is an integration area for which two senses? a. somatosensation and vision c. olfaction and gustation b. vision and audition d. somatosensation and proprioception ANS: C OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Easy REF: 5.3 Gustation MSC: Remembering

17. In which of the following brain areas might you expect an expert taster such as a chef or sommelier to have unique patterns of neural connectivity? a. the superior temporal gyrus c. the orbitofrontal cortex b. area MT d. the basal ganglia ANS: C OBJ: 5.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 5.3 Gustation

18. Which of the following is NOT a type of corpuscle used for somatosensation? a. Merkel c. Meissner b. Calvert d. Pacinian ANS: B OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Easy REF: 5.4 Somatosensation MSC: Remembering

19. Information about the left hand is processed a. in the left hemisphere for both the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. b. in the right hemisphere for both the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. c. in the left hemisphere for the primary somatosensory cortex and bilaterally for the secondary somatosensory cortex. d. in the right hemisphere for the primary somatosensory cortex and bilaterally for the secondary somatosensory cortex.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Medium REF: 5.4 Somatosensation MSC: Understanding

20. Which area of the body has the greatest amount of representation in the human primary somatosensory cortex? a. hands c. gums b. feet d. trunk ANS: A OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Medium REF: 5.4 Somatosensation MSC: Understanding

21. In the auditory system, the conversion of sound waves into action potentials occurs in the a. ganglion cells. c. cochlear nucleus. b. eardrum. d. hair cells.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Understanding

Medium

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

22. In the auditory system, the basilar membrane is located within the a. cochlea. c. pinna. b. eardrum. d. middle ear.

ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

23. High-frequency sounds primarily activate hair cells at the of the cochlea, whereas lowfrequency sounds primarily activate hair cells at the of the cochlea. a. base (thicker end); apex (thinner end) c. superior end; inferior end b. apex (thinner end); base (thicker end) d. inferior end; superior end ANS: A DIF: MSC: Remembering

Medium

REF: 5.5 Audition

24. Vision is to audition as the is to the a. medial geniculate nucleus; lateral geniculate nucleus b. lateral geniculate nucleus; medial geniculate nucleus c. medial geniculate nucleus; cochlear nucleus d. cochlear nucleus; medial geniculate nucleus ANS: B OBJ: 5.1 | 5.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

25. The primary auditory cortex is located in the a. medial geniculate nucleus. b. inferior temporal lobe.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

OBJ: 5.1

.

REF: 5.5 Audition | 5.6 Vision

c. lateral geniculate nucleus. d. superior temporal lobe.

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

26. The two cues that barn owls use to localize sounds are a. echolocation and interaural time. b. interaural time and interaural intensity. c. interaural intensity and interaural frequency. d. interaural frequency and echolocation.

ANS: B DIF: MSC: Remembering

Medium

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

27. Konishi’s model of spatial hearing in the barn owl posits that interaural time is computed using , whereas interaural intensity differences are computed using . a. relative rate of firing; coincidence detectors b. coincidence detectors; relative rate of firing c. unimodal processing; multimodal integration d. multimodal integration; unimodal processing ANS: B DIF: MSC: Understanding

Medium

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

28. Cells in the posterior part of A1 are to cells in the anterior part of A1 as . a. sharp tuning; coarse tuning c. high frequency; low frequency b. coarse tuning; sharp tuning d. low frequency; high frequency ANS: C MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 5.5 Audition

is to

OBJ: 5.1

29. The primary visual pathway is best described as a. retina ⟶ optic nerve ⟶ hypothalamus ⟶ superior colliculus ⟶ occipital lobe. b. retina ⟶ cochlea ⟶ optic chiasm ⟶ thalamus ⟶ occipital lobe. c. retina ⟶ optic nerve ⟶ optic chiasm ⟶ thalamus ⟶ occipital lobe. d. retina ⟶ hippocampus ⟶ thalamus ⟶ superior colliculus ⟶ occipital lobe.

ANS: C MSC: Analyzing

DIF:

Medium

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

30. Due to a defect in one type of photoreceptor, Sheena has poor vision at night, when light levels are relatively low. Which type of photoreceptor is defective? a. ganglion cell c. rod b. cone d. cornea ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF: Easy

31. The highest density of the retina. a. cones; fovea b. cones; periphery ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

, or color-sensitive photoreceptors, can be found in the

of

c. rods; fovea d. rods; periphery Medium

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

32. Before entering the brain, each optic nerve splits into two branches so that information from the half of each retina crosses to the opposite side of the brain. a. nasal (medial) c. left (dorsal) b. temporal (lateral) d. right (ventral) ANS: A DIF: MSC: Understanding

Medium

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

33. A patient has an injury to the optic nerves, such that the branches of each optic nerve that normally cross to the opposite side of the brain at the optic chiasm are severed. The remaining branches, which do not cross to the other side of the brain, are intact. Which of the following best describes the effect of this injury on his vision? a. The patient can now see only by using his right eye; his left eye is functionally blind.

b. Only information from the left visual field can enter the patient's brain for processing. c. Only the signal for half the visual field of each eye is processed by the brain. d. The patient's brain now receives visual information only from the medial half of each retina.

ANS: C MSC: Applying

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

34. Simple cells in the primary visual cortex selectively respond to visual stimuli based on a. direction of stimulus motion. c. stimulus orientation. b. stimulus color. d. distance of the stimulus from the viewer.

ANS: C DIF: MSC: Remembering

Medium

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5 | 5.6

35. If you were to conduct a single-cell recording from a neuron in the MT region of the extrastriate visual cortex, you would probably find that the cell fires most vigorously to a a. bar of light that alternates in color between red and green. b. bar of light tilted at a 15° angle in the center of the cell’s receptive field. c. corner-shaped region of light on a dark background. d. bar of light that moves across the cell’s receptive field.

ANS: D MSC: Applying

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.6 | 5.7

36. Using single-cell recording, you isolate a neuron in area MT that selectively responds to moving stimuli. What other response property would you expect from this cell? a. It is selective for stimulus color. c. It is selective for stimulus hue. b. It is selective for stimulus shape. d. It is selective for stimulus velocity.

ANS: D DIF: MSC: Understanding

Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.7

37. If a patient has a unilateral lesion in area V5, which of the following disruptions is the patient MOST likely to experience? a. A selective loss of motion perception. c. An agnosia. b. A disorder of color perception. d. A subtle deficit in motion perception.

ANS: D OBJ: 5.5 | 5.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception

38. Disorders of color perception that arise from disturbances in the central nervous system are called a. achromatopsia. c. akinetopsia. b. anomia. d. agnosia.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.6 | 5.9

DIF: Easy REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception MSC: Remembering

39. Achromatopsia is due to a. the absence of the photopigment sensitive to long wavelengths. b. the absence of the photopigment sensitive to short wavelengths. c. cortical lesions in area V4. d. cortical lesions in area MT. ANS: C OBJ: 5.7 | 5.9

DIF: Medium REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception MSC: Remembering

40. A patient who has a focal brain injury to the human analog of area MT would demonstrate all of the following for visually presented stimuli EXCEPT a. accurate shape discrimination. c. accurate hue discrimination. b. accurate velocity discrimination. d. accurate object recognition.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.7 | 5.9

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception

41. Why is it difficult to investigate the conscious experience of perception using monkeys? a. Monkeys do not have conscious experiences. b. We cannot infer a conscious experience from monkeys’ behavior. c. Human visual regions do not correspond perfectly to monkey visual regions. d. Visual illusions do not affect nonhuman animals.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.8

DIF: Difficult REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception MSC: Understanding

42. A selective loss of motion perception is called a. achromatopsia. c. akinetopsia. b. anomia. d. agnosia.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.9

DIF: Easy REF: 5.7 From Sensation to Perception MSC: Remembering

43. A patient with progressive supranuclear palsy is suffering from gradual deterioration of his superior colliculus. Which of the following statements best describes the result of this disease? a. The patient has intact acuity and shape perception, but he can no longer recognize visual objects. b. The patient demonstrates the phenomenon of blindsight. c. The patient is cortically blind. d. The patient is unable to initiate eye movements.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Applying

OBJ: 5.7 | 5.9

44. While simultaneously listening to a person saying “ba” and seeing a video of them saying “fa,” you will most likely hear . This is because of . a. “ba”; the McGurk effect c. “ba”; sensory acuity b. “fa”; the McGurk effect d. “fa”; sensory acuity ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Applying

OBJ: 5.10

45. Which subcortical region is known to maintain multimodal maps of the environment and is involved in the control and orienting of movements? a. the pons c. the medulla b. the cerebellum d. the superior colliculus ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 5.10

46. Which term is used to describe an idiosyncratic union between or within sensory modalities, such as experiencing the color red whenever seeing the letter A? a. achromatopsia c. synesthesia b. akinetopsia d. agnosia ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 5.11

47. Which of the following results would be expected for an individual experiencing the most common form of synesthesia? a. Their visual cortices have been shown to be sensitive to tactile discrimination. b. They show interference effects when asked to identify the colors of letters if the colors are inconsistent with their synesthetic experiences. c. Their somatosensory cortices have been shown to be sensitive to visual information. d. They show interference effects when asked to identify sung letters if the pitches are inconsistent with their synesthetic experiences.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 5.11

48. Which of the following is the best example of cortical plasticity? a. the processing of tactile information by blind people in cortical regions that process visual information in sighted people b. the ability of the barn owl to localize objects in space based on auditory and not visual information c. the integration of information about olfaction and gustation in the orbitofrontal cortex d. the activation of the superior colliculus by visual information in patients exhibiting blindsight ANS: A OBJ: 5.12

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.9 Perceptual Reorganization

49. Studies of cortical organization in blind people have shown that compared to sighted people, a. blind people show increased activity in the occipital cortex when idly sweeping their fingers over rough surfaces and when given tactile discrimination tasks. b. blind people show increased activity in the occipital cortex when given tactile discrimination tasks but not when idly sweeping their fingers over rough surfaces. c. blind people show no difference in occipital cortex activity when idly sweeping their fingers over rough surfaces or when given tactile discrimination tasks. d. blind people show no difference in occipital cortex activity when given tactile discrimination tasks and increased activity when idly sweeping their fingers over rough surfaces.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.12

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.9 Perceptual Reorganization

50. Which of the following sequences best represents the processing order of the cochlear implant? a. Sound waves are converted into digital representations ⟶ digital representations are converted into electrical signals ⟶ electrical signals are transmitted as radio waves ⟶ radio waves are delivered to the cochlea. b. Sound waves are converted into electrical signals ⟶ electrical signals are converted into digital representations ⟶ digital representations are transmitted as radio waves ⟶ radio waves are reconverted into electrical signals that travel to the cochlea.

c. Sound waves are converted into digital representations ⟶ digital representations are converted into radio waves ⟶ radio waves are converted into electrical signals ⟶ electrical signals travel to the cochlea. d. Sound waves are converted into electrical signals ⟶ electrical signals are converted into radio waves ⟶ radio waves are converted into digital representations ⟶ digital representations are delivered to the cochlea.

ANS: B OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.10 Engineering for Compensation

51. A review of outcomes compared children who had received cochlear implants at ages ranging from 6 months to 6 years. Which of the following best describes the findings of this review? a. Children who received the implant before 12 months of age had superior communication outcomes. b. Children who received the implant after 12 months of age had superior communication outcomes. c. The implant was most effective for children between the ages of 2 and 6 years old. d. The implant was most effective when implanted during the critical period of 18 months of age.

ANS: A OBJ: 5.1

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.10 Engineering for Compensation

52. Which of the following is NOT applicable to the epiretinal implant? a. It is driven by an external video camera. b. Users have been able to identify objects, detect motion, and regain mobility. c. It works by exploiting the remaining photoreceptors. d. It is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for clinical use.

ANS: C OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Easy MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.10 Engineering for Compensation

53. If you have a patient with significant photoreceptor loss, what is the BEST treatment available that you can offer? a. Eyeglasses c. Epiretinal implants b. Subretinal implant d. Cochlear implants ANS: C OBJ: 5.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 5.10 Engineering for Compensation

TRUE/FALSE 1. Odorants from the mouth can travel back up into the nasal cavity.

ANS: T OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

2. The primary olfactory cortex is located in the parietal lobe.

ANS: F OBJ: 5.2

DIF: Easy REF: 5.2 Olfaction MSC: Remembering

3. The senses of olfaction and gustation are known as chemical senses because they begin with stimulation by chemicals (odorants or tastants).

ANS: T OBJ: 5.2 | 5.3

DIF: Easy REF: 5.3 Gustation MSC: Remembering

4. The term proprioception refers to the sensation of knowing the position of the body and limbs.

ANS: T OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Easy REF: 5.4 Somatosensation MSC: Remembering

5. Different parts of the body are represented in the primary somatosensory cortex in proportion to their size.

ANS: F OBJ: 5.4

DIF: Easy REF: 5.4 Somatosensation MSC: Remembering

6. During audition, sound vibrations are encoded as neural signals in the basilar membrane of the cochlea.

ANS: T DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

7. Unlike the visual system, auditory information does not pass through the thalamus on the way to the cortex.

ANS: F DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

8. The two ears of the barn owl are positioned asymmetrically on the head, improving sound localization in the vertical direction.

ANS: T DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

9. Information about color is extensively processed in visual area V5.

ANS: F DIF: MSC: Remembering

Easy

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.7

10. The term akinetopsia refers to unusual sensory unions—either between two senses, such as perceiving tastes for words, or within a single sense, such as perceiving colors for letters.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 5.11

SHORT ANSWER 1. How do the two nostrils provide the brain with slightly different samples of the olfactory environment?

Why might this be advantageous?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.2 Olfaction

OBJ: 5.2

2. How do we know that somatosensory cortex is plastic? Describe the method and results of at least one experiment to support your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 5.3 Gustation

OBJ: 5.4

3. Describe two ways in which the auditory system of the barn owl computes auditory spatial information.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium

REF: 5.5 Audition

OBJ: 5.1

MSC: Analyzing

4. Give several reasons why the following statement is incorrect: “The right visual field is processed by the left hemisphere of the brain, while the left visual field is processed by the right.”

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.5

MSC: Analyzing

5. How do receptive fields change as you proceed up the visual pathway (starting at the lateral geniculate nucleus [LGN])? Include an example of a stimulus that would, and would not, cause a neural response for a hypothetical cell at each stage.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.6

MSC: Analyzing

6. Why might it be computationally useful for the primate brain to have so many different visual areas?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.7

MSC: Analyzing

7. Argue that activity in higher visual areas is more closely linked to the percept we experience than are early visual areas, using experimental findings to support your argument.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.8

MSC: Evaluating

8. Describe two experiments that would allow you to determine if an individual has achromatopsia or has akinetopsia. If the symptoms appeared after a head injury, which brain regions are likely damaged in each case?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult

REF: 5.6 Vision

OBJ: 5.9

MSC: Evaluating

9. What would the subjective experience of color-grapheme synesthesia be like? Describe an experiment (real or hypothetical) that would demonstrate that these associations are automatically experienced.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5.11

REF: 5.8 Multimodal Perception: I See What You're Sayin' MSC: Analyzing

10. Speculate about what kinds of information might be processed in the superior temporal lobe of a congenitally deaf person. In your answer, consider the kinds of environmental information that are especially important in the absence of sound.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 5.9 Perceptual Reorganization

OBJ: 5.12

Chapter 6: Object Recognition LEARNING OBJECTIVES 6.1 Describe the roles of the ventral (occipitotemporal) and dorsal (occipitoparietal) streams.

6.2 Understand how studies with lesion patients can inform our understanding of normal and abnormal object recognition.

6.3 Identify neural regions that play a central role in object recognition.

6.4 Describe neurons in the temporal and parietal lobes in terms of their physiological properties and relationship to the visual system.

6.5 Describe and differentiate between various neuropsychological impairments, including various agnosias, ataxias, and alexia.

6.6 Understand object constancy, view dependency, and view invariance.

6.7 Differentiate between “grandmother cell” and ensemble theories of recognition.

6.8 Define and provide examples of category-specific deficits.

6.9 Describe evidence for the specialization of the FFA for face processing.

6.10 Describe evidence for the specialization of the PPA for processing information about spatial relations.

6.11 Describe and distinguish between analytic and holistic processing.

6.12 Describe and distinguish between encoding and decoding models in fMRI. 6.13 Discuss potential uses of “mind reading” technologies.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An undercover agent notices a green car parked outside her apartment building when she leaves for work at 8:00 a.m. Later she notices the same car in a store parking lot and becomes suspicious that she is being followed. The agent’s ability to recognize the car under these two different circumstances is an example of a. viewer-centered object recognition. c. perceptual categorization. b. object constancy. d. property-based organization.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.6 2.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 6.1 Computational Problems in Object Recognition

is the ability to recognize an object under many different viewing conditions and in many different contexts. a. Ensemble coding c. Apperceptive agnosia b. Object constancy d. Repetition suppression ANS: B OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Easy REF: 6.1 Computational Problems in Object Recognition MSC: Remembering

3. With regard to perception, the term feature refers to a. the most important aspect of a figure, such as its identity or name.

b. a complex pattern of sensory stimulation, such as a face or word. c. any combination of elements that requires attention for processing, such as the conjunction of color and shape. d. a fundamental component of a visual pattern, such as edge orientation or color.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.7

DIF: Medium REF: 6.1 Computational Problems in Object Recognition MSC: Understanding

4. Anatomical outputs from the occipital lobe follow two major axon bundles that terminate in the and . a. anterior parietal lobe; posterior frontal lobe b. posterior frontal lobe; inferior temporal lobe c. inferior temporal lobe; posterior parietal lobe d. posterior parietal lobe; anterior parietal lobe ANS: C OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Remembering

5. A patient’s ability to represent the spatial layout of their environment has become disturbed. The patient most likely has damage in the lobe. a. temporal c. frontal b. parietal d. occipital ANS: B OBJ: 6.1 | 6.2

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

6. The patient D.F., studied by Goodale and Milner (1982), had severe problems with object recognition.

When presented with a circular block into which a slot had been cut, a. D.F. was able to insert a card into the slot when asked to do so, even though she was unable to follow the instruction to orient the card so that it would fit. b. D.F. was able to orient the card so that it would fit into the slot but was not able to insert the card into the slot when asked to do so. c. D.F. was unable to deduce that this object could be used to contain slips of paper upon touching it. d. D.F. was able to deduce that this object could be used to contain slips of paper but was unable to provide a name for the object upon touching it.

ANS: A DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.1 | 6.2 | 6.5 MSC: Remembering

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

7. Pohl (1973) conducted a study of the “what” and “where” pathways in brain-lesioned monkeys using two different tasks: a landmark discrimination task, which required a visuospatial judgment, and an object discrimination task, which required object recognition. He found that monkeys with temporal lobe lesions became severely impaired in learning the task but not the task.

Monkeys with posterior parietal lesions showed the pattern of performance. a. object discrimination; landmark discrimination; same b. landmark discrimination; object discrimination; same c. object discrimination; landmark discrimination; opposite d. landmark discrimination; object discrimination; opposite ANS: C OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

8. Lomber and Malhorta (2008) conducted a study asking cats to identify the where and what of an auditory stimulus. Using thin tubes of cold liquid, the researchers induced transient lesions. Lesions to the anterior auditory region disrupted the task but not the task. When lesions were induced to the posterior auditory region, the cats showed the pattern of performance. a. localization; pattern discrimination; same b. pattern discrimination; localization; same c. localization; pattern discrimination; opposite d. pattern discrimination; localization; opposite ANS: D OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

9. A role of the dorsal visual system in computing the way in which a movement should be produced argues for a dichotomy between a. “why” and “where”. c. “what” and “how”. b. “where” and “what”. d. “how” and “why”.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3

DIF: Medium REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Understanding

10. During a single-cell recording study, you locate a neuron in one of the two main output pathways from the occipital cortex that has a large receptive field in the central part of the visual field. The cell probably lies inside the pathway and is specialized for . a. dorsal; object recognition c. parietal; spatial layout b. ventral; spatial layout d. temporal; object recognition ANS: D OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

11. With regard to the two main output pathways from the occipital lobe, dorsal is to ventral. a. “where”; “what” c. “who”; “what” b. “what”; “where” d. “what”; “who” ANS: A OBJ: 6.1 | 6.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

is to

as

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

12. Optic ataxia is to associative visual agnosia as lesions are to lesions. a. posterior parietal; superior temporal c. dorsal pathway; ventral pathway b. inferior parietal; posterior temporal d. ventral pathway; dorsal pathway ANS: C OBJ: 6.1 | 6.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception

13. The “what” versus “where” distinction is supported by single-cell recording studies showing that neurons in the lobes have receptive fields that are almost always located in the fovea, where high-acuity vision takes place. a. anterior occipital c. posterior parietal b. inferior temporal d. superior temporal ANS: B OBJ: 6.4

DIF: Medium REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Understanding

14. Optic ataxia is an inability to a. name familiar objects. b. read, acquired as an adult.

c. recognize familiar visual objects. d. use visual information to guide movements.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Remembering

15. In functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies, when a stimulus is repeated, the BOLD response can be for the second presentation compared to the first. This is known as the . a. lower; repetition enhancement effect b. lower; repetition suppression effect c. higher; repetition enhancement effect d. higher; repetition suppression effect ANS: B OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Easy REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Remembering

16. Eliminating a gnostic unit would a. slightly disrupt recognition of a region of space. b. slightly disrupt recognition of a complex object. c. completely disrupt recognition of a region of space. d. completely disrupt recognition of a complex object.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.7

DIF: Medium REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Understanding

17. There are various issues with the idea that single neurons encode the mental representations for all possible complex visual stimuli. Which of the following is NOT one of these issues? a. Loss of any single visual recognition neuron would have too great an impact on perception. b. These single neurons would have to adapt as the objects they respond to change over time. c. Neurophysiological evidence that visual cells respond to specific types of stimuli is lacking. d. This approach cannot explain how we recognize novel objects.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects

18. According to ensemble theories of object recognition, it is possible to confuse similar-looking objects because a. objects that appear similar activate overlapping networks of cells. b. similar-looking objects activate the same grandmother cell. c. cells in the extrastriate cortex have large receptive fields and therefore low spatial resolution. d. object constancy prevents the visual system from encoding fine details about objects.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.7

DIF: Easy REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Understanding

19. Each of the following are factors that currently restrict our ability to decode information from the brain, EXCEPT a. the spatial resolution of our equipment. b. the availability of necessary data for building decoding models. c. the accuracy of the model for how the brain encodes information. d. the temporal resolution of our equipment.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.12

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects

20. To create an effective encoding model of the brain’s visual activity, what properties should be used to model V1 voxel activity? a. semantic properties c. face properties b. receptive field properties d. place properties ANS: B OBJ: 6.12

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

21. Decoding is to encoding as a. neural activity; mind reading b. mind reading; neural activity ANS: B OBJ: 6.12

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects

is to

. c. object recognition; object identification d. object identification; object recognition

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects

22. Which characteristic of brain activity is promising for the potential to decode dreams in the future? a. Activity patterns during perception resemble those generated when people imagine the same object. b. Activity levels during perception resemble those generated when people imagine the same object. c. Activity patterns in V1 resemble patterns in the temporal lobe. d. Activity levels in V1 resemble levels in the temporal lobe.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.13

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects

23. Using equipment such as EEG and fMRI, it is possible that in the future, detection of psychopathy, lies, terrorism, and murder. a. advanced algorithms b. facial recognition c. mind reading d. machine learning ANS: C OBJ: 6.13

will assist the

DIF: Medium REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Understanding

24. A researcher wishes to investigate the visual processing of bodies in the human brain using TMS. Where should he or she stimulate? a. on the border of the occipital and temporal lobes b. on the border of the occipital and parietal lobes c. on the border of the temporal and parietal lobes d. on the border of the parietal and frontal lobes ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.2 | 6.8 MSC: Applying 25. Neurons in the inferior temporal (IT) cortex rarely respond to . Rather, they respond to . a. lines or spots; human hands c. animate objects; inanimate objects b. human hands; lines or spots d. inanimate objects; animate objects ANS: A

DIF:

Easy

REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.3 | 6.4 MSC: Remembering 26. Cells that respond to the human hand are located in the , and their responsive firing rate is high regardless of the hand’s . a. inferior temporal cortex; orientation c. superior temporal sulcus; orientation b. inferior temporal cortex; detail d. superior temporal sulcus; detail ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.3 | 6.4 MSC: Remembering 27. Regarding facial recognition, the ventral pathway is to the superior temporal sulcus as to . a. emotion; familiarity b. direction of gaze; features c. structure; movement d. movement; emotion

is

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.9 MSC: Analyzing 28. A major source of evidence against the idea that faces are processed in a special neural region in humans is that the candidate region a. is used to process a variety of perceptual stimuli in nonhuman primates. b. is also involved in processing highly familiar places. c. is recruited when people have to make discriminations among highly familiar stimuli. d. varies significantly in location from person to person.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.9 MSC: Understanding 29. Why might the brain have dedicated regions devoted to recognizing faces or places, but not for making other types of distinctions such as object discrepancies? a. Faces and places are most prevalent in our environment, rather than objects. b. Objects require numerous neural regions to sum various object parts. c. Recognizing faces and remembering places serves a superior evolutionary advantage. d. There are too many object categories for the brain to dedicate distinct object regions.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.9 | 6.10 MSC: Evaluating 30. Which of the following is a brain region that would likely be implicated in processing spatial relations in an outdoor scene? a. the fusiform place area (FPA) b. the parahippocampal place area (PPA) c. the fusiform face area (FFA) d. the parahippocampal face area (PFA) ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.10 MSC: Remembering

31. While conducting an fMRI study, you ask participants to view photographs of scenes and to make distinctions about those scenes. For example, you instruct participants to respond when trees are near a lake or when a house is near a garden. In which area of the brain do you most likely to see a pronounced BOLD signal? a. the fusiform place area (FPA) b. the parahippocampal place area (PPA) c. the intraparietal place area (IPA) d. the supratemporal place area (PFA) ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.10 MSC: Applying 32. Generally, brain lesions in individuals with associative agnosia are a. in the left hemisphere. c. in the right hemisphere. b. not highly localized. d. more severe than most lesions.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.2 | 6.5

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

33. A person with a visual agnosia has difficulty in recognizing drawings of familiar objects, such as an apple. If she were asked to imagine an apple rather than to inspect a picture of an apple, you would expect to find that a. she can generate visual images normally because agnosia does not affect internally generated information. b. she has great difficulty in generating visual images as well as visual perception because the two skills share common brain regions. c. she can generate visual images correctly and easily, but she cannot recognize them because of a memory deficit. d. she has great difficulty with generating images of faces but not other kinds of objects.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.2 | 6.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

34. According to Warrington’s model, patients with left posterior lesions should be particularly impaired in a. recognizing the visually invariant properties of objects. b. linking functionally associated visual inputs. c. matching different views of an object as representing the same item. d. segmenting a complex drawing into its component parts.

ANS: B DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.2 | 6.5 | 6.8 MSC: Understanding

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

35. Which of the following statements does NOT explain why some patients are visually agnosic for living (animate) things versus nonliving (inanimate) things? a. Knowledge about different categories of objects may be represented in different parts of the brain. b. Inanimate objects may activate kinesthetic representations that animate objects do not. c. Animate objects may share more visual features than inanimate objects. d. There are more familiar animate objects in the environment than inanimate objects.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.2 | 6.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

36. The term associative visual agnosia is reserved for patients who a. have perceptual impairments due to problems with the ventral stream. b. cannot recognize objects despite having normal perceptual representations. c. have perceptual impairments due to problems with the dorsal stream. d. cannot recognize objects due to compromised perceptual representations.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Remembering

37. A patient like G.S. who had visual object agnosia would have difficulty in identifying an object unless a. the object had been familiar to him prior to his brain injury. b. he was asked to describe the object’s use rather than its specific name. c. he was permitted to touch the object before making a response. d. the object was presented in the contralesional side of the visual field.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Medium REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Understanding

38. When her telephone rings, a patient who has been diagnosed with visual object agnosia immediately picks up the receiver and answers it correctly. Why doesn’t this person show any signs of an object recognition deficit in this scenario? a. The patient can still recognize extremely familiar objects, such as her own belongings. b. The patient is impaired only in the recognition of faces, not other classes of objects. c. The patient can use the sound of the ringing telephone to cue its recognition. d. The patient can recognize objects as long as they remain stationary.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

39. When a picture of a hammer is placed in front of Patient H, she is unable to identify it. How can you determine if her difficulty is in recognizing the object or in simply remembering its name? a. Ask her to demonstrate its use rather than identifying it. b. Ask her to close her eyes before attempting to name it. c. Ask her to copy the picture of the object instead of naming it. d. Ask her to trace the outline of the object instead of naming it.

ANS: A OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

40. A patient who has difficulty matching pictures of the same object taken from different vantage points may be showing which dysfunction? a. anomia c. apperceptive visual agnosia b. alexia d. associative visual agnosia ANS: C OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Understanding

41. After suffering from a focal brain injury, a patient has difficulty in recognizing visually presented objects, despite normal acuity and color perception. Notably, she has severe difficulty in judging whether two pictures, each showing a different view, represent the same object. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. apperceptive visual agnosia c. synesthesia b. associative visual agnosia d. prosopagnosia ANS: A OBJ: 6.5 | 6.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

42. Humphreys and Riddoch (1994) described a patient with a syndrome they called integrative visual agnosia, which was characterized by difficulty in a. linking visual percepts to long-term knowledge about objects. b. combining parts of objects into coherent whole percepts. c. drawing and copying pictures of objects. d. matching different views of an object as representing the same item.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.5 | 6.6

DIF: Easy REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Remembering

43. Warrington (1985) proposed an anatomical model of the cognitive operations necessary to explain object recognition. The first stage in this model involves the detection and categorization of visually invariant information, which occurs in the hemisphere; the second stage involves the semantic categorization of visual input, which occurs in hemisphere(s). a. left; the right c. right; the left b. left; both the left and right d. right; both the left and right ANS: C OBJ: 6.6

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

44. A stroke patient is having trouble recognizing objects. For example, sometimes he can’t recognize his own cat depending on how the cat is positioned. Where in the brain does this patient most likely have damage? a. inferior temporal cortex c. left hemisphere b. superior temporal sulcus d. right hemisphere ANS: D OBJ: 6.5 | 6.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

45. When a person who has learned to read proficiently subsequently develops reading problems as a result of brain injury, this deficit is called a. acquired agraphia. c. acquired alexia. b. apperceptive visual agnosia. d. apperceptive ataxia.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.2 | 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Remembering

46. Prosopagnosia is to alexia as a. face recognition; reading b. reading; face recognition ANS: A OBJ: 6.2 | 6.5 47.

is to

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

. c. writing; reading d. reading; writing REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces

is to as face recognition is to object recognition. a. Agnosia; prosopagnosia c. Alexia; agnosia b. Prosopagnosia; agnosia d. Agnosia; alexia ANS: B OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces

48. As a neurologist, you have a patient with prosopagnosia, and the patient has also lost the ability to read. Which of the following are you LEAST likely to report after examining this patient? a. Patient shows signs of a lesion in the inferior parietal lobe. b. Patient shows signs of a lesion in the ventral pathway.

c. Patient is able to identify an individual when hearing the individual’s voice. d. Patient demonstrates impaired object perception.

ANS: A DIF: OBJ: 6.5 | 6.8 | 6.9 | 6.11

Difficult

REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Applying

49. Patients with prosopagnosia typically have difficulty recognizing a. the faces of famous people but not those of their family. b. the faces of their family but not those of their friends. c. the faces of their friends but not those of famous people. d. the faces of both their friends and famous people.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.8

DIF: Medium REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Understanding

50. Which of the following disorders may be associated with impaired facial perception? a. dyslexia c. social communication disorder b. autism spectrum disorder d. intellectual disability ANS: B OBJ: 6.8 | 6.9

DIF: Easy REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Remembering

51. Why do people fail to notice when the mouth and eyes of an inverted face remain upright? a. Humans do not perceive eyes or mouths in faces. b. The overall configuration remains the same. c. They have apperceptive agnosia. d. They have prosopagnosia.

ANS: B OBJ: 6.11

DIF: Easy REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Understanding

52. Tanaka and Farah (1993) used line drawings of faces and houses in a recognition task. Participants were instructed to associate houses with names of those who lived there, and to associate faces with names. During the recall portion of the task, items were presented either in isolation or in context.

Which of the following best describes the findings of this study? a. Participants were better at identifying the house when presented as a whole object. b. Participants were better at identifying a face when presented in conjunction with other parts of the person’s face. c. Participants’ perception of the house did not depend on whether the test items were presented in isolation or as an entire object. d. Participants performed the same for house perception regardless of whether presentation was in isolation or in context; however, face perception was better when features were presented in context.

ANS: D OBJ: 6.11

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces

53. Which of the following BEST describes why facial perception is unique compared to object or word recognition? a. Our ability to recognize faces is superior. b. Facial recognition is localized to a special neural region. c. Facial recognition requires a sum of parts. d. Facial recognition does not require a sum of parts.

ANS: C OBJ: 6.11

DIF: Medium REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Understanding

TRUE/FALSE 1. The dorsal visual pathway is associated with the parietal lobe.

ANS: T OBJ: 6.1

DIF: Easy REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Remembering

2. The results of most single-cell studies of temporal lobe neurons support the gnostic unit hypothesis.

ANS: F OBJ: 6.7

DIF: Easy REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Remembering

3. An encoding model of brain activity predicts brain activity from a given stimulus.

ANS: T OBJ: 6.12

DIF: Easy REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Remembering

4. Category-specific deficits may be an emergent property of the fact that different kinds of information are needed to recognize living and nonliving objects.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.8 MSC: Remembering 5. The fusiform face area is part of the dorsal stream.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.9 MSC: Remembering 6. Three primary localized regions include face, place, and clothes areas.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas OBJ: 6.9 | 6.10 MSC: Remembering 7. Selective damage to the primary visual cortex typically leads to visual agnosia.

ANS: F DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.2 | 6.3 | 6.5 MSC: Remembering

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

8. A major distinction in the study of visual agnosia is that between apperceptive visual agnosia and associative visual agnosia.

ANS: T OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Remembering

9. Patients with associative visual agnosia can typically describe the functions of objects if they are given the names of the objects verbally.

ANS: T OBJ: 6.5

DIF: Easy REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition MSC: Understanding

10. Synesthesia is a deficit in the ability to recognize faces that cannot be directly attributed to deterioration in intellectual function.

ANS: F OBJ: 6.8

DIF: Easy REF: 6.6 Prosopagnosia Is a Failure to Recognize Faces MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. Why is object constancy a difficult computational problem for the visual system? Describe some potential changes that can occur when we view the same object under different circumstances.

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.6

REF: 6.1 Computational Problems in Object Recognition MSC: Analyzing

2. Describe the visual system’s dorsal and ventral pathways. In your answer, describe the kinds of information that are processed in each pathway and the lobes of the brain that are involved. Give an example of an experiment discussed in class or your text that supports this distinction in the visual system.

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception OBJ: 6.1 | 6.2 | 6.3 MSC: Analyzing 3. How do receptive fields of cells in the ventral and dorsal streams differ? How do these characteristics support the functions of the ventral and dorsal streams?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.1 | 6.4

REF: 6.2 Multiple Pathways for Visual Perception MSC: Evaluating

4. How can researchers use our knowledge of the visual system to maximize the decoding of brain activity? What factors currently limit decoding performance?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.12

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Analyzing

5. What are some of the ethical issues that come up regarding mind reading? Describe the potential pros and cons of “mind-reading” technologies.

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.13

REF: 6.3 Seeing Shapes and Perceiving Objects MSC: Analyzing

6. Explain a category-based and property-based organization of semantic knowledge. Discuss evidence in favor of each account.

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.7 | 6.8

REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas MSC: Analyzing

7. It has been suggested that the fusiform gyrus is specialized for processing faces. What are the sources of evidence for and against this position?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 6.9 | 6.11

REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas MSC: Analyzing

8. What categories of visual stimuli have regions of cortex that are activated when a person views examples from each category? Describe one approach that can establish a causal role of each region for perceiving these categories. Why is this evidence that these regions are involved in processing these categories?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 6.9 | 6.10

REF: 6.4 Specificity of Object Recognition in Higher Visual Areas MSC: Evaluating

9. You, a neurologist, have just met a patient who suffered a stroke last year and is having trouble identifying objects. Could this person be experiencing visual agnosia? What tasks could you ask the patient to perform to help you determine the source of the problem?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

OBJ: 6.5

10. There is some evidence for a double dissociation between agnosia for animate (living) things compared to inanimate (nonliving) things. Does this mean that there are distinct brain systems for representing these two categories? Why or why not?

ANS: Answer will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 6.5 Failures in Object Recognition

OBJ: 6.8

Chapter 7: Attention LEARNING OBJECTIVES 7.1 Describe what attention is and how it was initially studied.

7.2 Identify the brain structures that are involved in attention.

7.3 Discuss key findings with regard to patients who have problems with attention.

7.4 Understand the different models that have been offered to explain how attention operates.

7.5 Identify the neural mechanisms of attention.

7.6 Identify attentional control networks.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The main deficit in Bálint’s syndrome is that patients can focus attention only on a. contralesional objects. c. one object at a time. b. ipsilesional objects. d. the foveal part of the visual field.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.1

DIF: Easy REF: 7.A Attention MSC: Remembering

2. The term refers to the operations involved when we select for further processing a limited subset of information from the total information available to us from our sensory systems and stored mental representations. a. arousal c. attention b. vigilance d. cuing ANS: C OBJ: 7.1 3.

DIF: Easy REF: 7.A Attention MSC: Remembering

refers to the ability to choose certain sensory inputs for further information processing while ignoring others. a. Vigilance c. Visual search b. Arousal d. Selective attention ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 7.1 Selective Attention and the Anatomy of Attention MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 7.1

4. Which component of attention is associated with the pulvinar? a. the ability to engage visual attention at a particular location in the visual field b. the capacity to move the focus of visual attention from one location to another c. the ability to disengage attention from a particular location in the visual field d. the ability to locate a conjunction target that is embedded in a field of distracters ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 7.1 Selective Attention and the Anatomy of Attention MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 7.2

5. Joan is a patient who had a stroke in her right parietal lobe and has extinction as a result of her injury.

When placed in a driving simulator she would be most likely to miss which stimulus when stopped at a virtual crosswalk and staring straight ahead? (Note: For this question, assume drivers sit on the left side of the car.) a. a pedestrian on the driver side b. a pedestrian on the passenger side c. a pedestrian on the driver side when a second pedestrian is on the passenger side at the same time d. a pedestrian on the passenger side when a second pedestrian is on the driver side at the same time ANS: C OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention

6. Patients with extinction are unable to detect a visual stimulus presented on the contralesional side of space if a. the stimulus is presented alone in the visual field. b. this stimulus is presented at the same time as a stimulus on the ipsilesional side of the visual field. c. there is no cue that precedes the stimulus. d. the stimulus is presented with another at a more lateral position in the contralesional visual field.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention MSC: Remembering

7. The involuntary failure to attend to sensory stimuli presented on the side of space opposite to the site of brain injury (in the absence of sensory problems) is called syndrome. a. agnosia c. blindsight b. neglect d. hemianopia ANS: B OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention MSC: Remembering

8. The primary functional problem that results from damage to the attentional network and that produces neglect syndrome is that patients a. fail to process sensory information from the ipsilesional side of space. b. fail to process sensory information from the contralesional side of space. c. cannot disengage attention from information in the ipsilesional side of space. d. cannot disengage attention from information in the contralesional side of space.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention | 7.5 Attentional Control Networks OBJ: 7.3 MSC: Understanding 9. The observation that extinction is worse when identical, rather than different, stimuli are simultaneously presented to the ipsilesional and contralesional sides of the visual field indicates that a. neglected stimuli do not undergo perceptual processing in the absence of focused attention. b. neglected stimuli undergo perceptual processing in the absence of focused attention. c. neglected stimuli can capture attention involuntarily. d. neglected stimuli are often confused with stimuli that are successfully attended.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention

10. When Bisiach and Luzzatti (1978) asked patients with the neglect syndrome to describe their own mental images of the Italian city in which they lived, the researchers found that a. these patients demonstrated a deficit in moving attention from one location in their mental images to another. b. patients had great difficulty in generating mental images in general. c. there was no evidence of neglect for internally generated mental images. d. the patients also neglected the contralesional side of their own mental images.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention MSC: Remembering

11. Why isn’t the neuropsychology of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) typically studied as a model to understand the anatomy of attention networks? a. ADHD is primarily a sensory issue. b. Because ADHD is so much more common in boys than in girls, the findings would be too heavily gender biased. c. Both the anatomical and behavioral differences in ADHD make it a more complex phenomenon to study than neglect or Bálint’s syndrome. d. The brains of children with ADHD are still developing.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Medium REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention MSC: Understanding

12. If a patient were demonstrating characteristics of unilateral neglect, which of the following would best explain the patient's symptoms? a. Left hemisphere structures contain a full map of visual space, whereas right hemisphere structures contain only a map of contralateral space. b. Left hemisphere structures contain a full map of visual space, whereas right hemisphere structures contain only a map of ipsilateral space. c. Right hemisphere structures contain a full map of visual space, whereas left hemisphere structures contain only a map of contralateral space. d. Right hemisphere structures contain a full map of visual space, whereas left hemisphere structures contain only a map of ipsilateral space.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention

13. Attention can be divided into two broad categories: a. neglect and extinction. c. cortical and subcortical. b. voluntary and reflexive. d. major and minor.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.1

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

14. Patients with neglect have deficits in deficits in attention. a. object-based; scene-based b. scene-based; object-based ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

attention and those with Bálint’s syndrome have c. visual; kinesthetic d. kinesthetic; visual

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

15. In one of the earliest studies of visual attention, Helmholtz (1894) constructed a screen on which letters were painted at various distances from the center. Following a brief illumination, he found that

a. he could perceive letters located within the focus of his attention better than letters outside, even when his eyes remained at the center of the screen. b. he could remember all the letters on the screen if he scanned the screen with his eyes prior to the brief illumination. c. he could perceive letters located within the focus of his attention better than letters outside, but only if he moved his eyes to bring the letters to the center of his visual field. d. he could remember all the letters on the screen, demonstrating that visual iconic memory increases in capacity with attentional focus.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

16. During a particularly boring lecture, you carefully note the time on a clock that is mounted on the side wall of the classroom while keeping your eyes fixated on the professor’s face. This is an example of a. covert attention. c. extinction. b. inhibition of return. d. conjunction search.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.4 17.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

The ability to direct attention independently of gaze or eye fixation is called a. overt attention. c. the attentional spotlight. b. covert attention. d. visual search.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

18. You are sitting in a coffee shop talking to your best friend while everyone around you talks and music is playing in the background. The fact that you can attend to your friend and ignore the other sounds around you is best described by which of the following items? a. dichotic listening c. the cocktail party effect b. vigilance d. endogenous cuing ANS: A OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

19. Your brother sees that you are talking to a friend through a Bluetooth piece in your left ear while the news is on TV in the room. What is he likely to observe after you hang up? a. You do not remember anything. b. You can accurately report the news for the day. c. You can remember the details of your friend’s conversation. d. You are equally accurate at reporting what happened in the world today and what your friend spoke to you about.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

20. Which of the following phenomena is the most problematic for a strong early-selection view of attention? a. endogenous cuing c. exogenous cuing b. the cocktail party phenomenon d. intrusion of the unattended ANS: D OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

21.

is the idea that a stimulus does not have to be completely analyzed before it can be either selected for further processing or rejected as irrelevant. a. Sensory arousal c. Early selection b. Dichotic perception d. Late selection ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

22. In dichotic listening studies, it has been found that a participant usually notices when his or her own name is embedded in the ignored channel. This finding is considered evidence that a. selection occurs late in perceptual processing. b. selection occurs early in perceptual processing. c. there is a separate cognitive system for name recognition. d. recognition of familiar stimuli does not require attention.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

23. To explain dichotic listening findings such as the observation that a participant usually notices when his or her own name is embedded in the ignored channel, Treisman (1969) proposed that a. unattended information is not completely excluded from higher analysis, but merely attenuated. b. attention can be explained only in terms of late, rather than early, selection mechanisms. c. relatively unique types of stimuli, such as names, do not require attention for processing. d. familiar stimuli that have been learned previously by participants do not require attention for processing.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

24. Both early- and late-selection models of attention share the idea that a. a large proportion of incoming sensory information is filtered from further analysis before meaning is extracted. b. information is excluded from higher-level processing only after stimuli have been identified. c. the human information processing system cannot fully process every piece of information it receives. d. semantic encoding and analysis precede selection in information processing.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

25. All of the following describe differences between early-selection and late-selection models of attention EXCEPT a. early-selection models argue that selection occurs before semantic analysis of incoming stimuli. b. late-selection models argue that human information processing has limited capacity, whereas early-selection models argue that capacity is unlimited. c. early-selection models argue that all higher-level information processing requires the use of attention. d. late-selection models argue that a stimulus may be categorized or even identified before selection.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

26. In attention experiments, cues that correctly predict the location of the target are called whereas cues that predict other locations are called . a. endogenous; exogenous c. valid; invalid b. benefits; costs d. overt; covert ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

,

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

27. Which of the following phenomena is the most consciously mediated? a. inhibition of return c. exogenous cuing b. reflexive attention d. endogenous cuing ANS: D OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

28. The process of directing one’s attention to a specific external stimulus is called a. vigilance. c. orienting. b. arousal. d. extinction.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

29. One finding demonstrated by the Posner spatial cuing task (1980) is that a. the focus of attention can be moved separately from eye fixation. b. compared to neutral cues, valid cues result in slower reaction time to targets. c. compared to invalid cues, neutral cues result in slower reaction time to targets. d. attention cannot be directed spatially without a corresponding eye movement.

ANS: A OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

30. The Posner spatial cuing task (1980) showed that cuing participants to the location of an upcoming target a. increased reaction time to detect the target. b. decreased reaction time to detect the target. c. failed to affect reaction time but did increase detection accuracy. d. failed to affect either reaction time or detection accuracy.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

31. Results of the Posner spatial cuing task (1980) showed that cuing participants to the location of an upcoming target decreased their reaction time to detect it because attention enhanced perceptual processing for the target. This finding is most consistent with models of attention. a. gating c. early-selection b. bottleneck d. late-selection ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

32. You are working diligently in the chemistry laboratory when suddenly a small explosion occurs in the rear of the room, immediately and automatically capturing your attention. This is an example of a. inhibition of return. c. voluntary orienting. b. exogenous cuing. d. controlled processing.

ANS: B OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

33. You are walking down the street and talking to a friend when suddenly, a car screeches its tires, causing you to turn and look toward the sound. This is an example of attention. a. endogenous, covert c. exogenous, covert b. endogenous, overt d. exogenous, overt ANS: D OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

34. On one trial of the Posner spatial cuing task (1980), a flash of light validly cued the location of an upcoming target and enhanced the participant’s reaction time to detect that target. Which of the following statements about the participant’s subsequent responding to this location is most accurate? a. Detection of targets that appear in this position on subsequent trials will also be enhanced. b. Detection of targets that appear in this position on subsequent trials will be unaffected. c. Detection of targets that appear in this position on subsequent trials will be inhibited from now on. d. Detection of targets that appear in this position on subsequent trials will be temporarily inhibited.

ANS: D OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

35. The observation that participants are actually slower to detect targets that appear at recent previously attended locations is called a. attentional fatigue. c. inhibition of return. b. exogenous cuing. d. pop-out search.

ANS: C OBJ: 7.4

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

36. Alexandra believes that the effects of attention on perception occur very quickly on a fine temporal scale. Which of the following techniques should she use to investigate the changes in perceptual processing that may accompany focused attention? a. CT (computerized tomography) c. MEG (magnetoencephalography) b. PET (positron emission tomography) d. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Remembering 37. Techniques such as EEG are particularly well suited to studies of attention. However, one difficulty in using these techniques is that a. one must also use a structural neuroimaging technique to isolate the source of attentional activation to a specific brain structure. b. one must also use a functional neuroimaging technique to isolate the source of attentional activation to a specific brain structure. c. EEG is an expensive and extremely invasive neuroimaging technique. d. electrical signals in the brain are not affected by the use of focused attention.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Evaluating

38. Hillyard and colleagues (1973) recorded event-related potentials (ERP) from participants while they performed a dichotic listening task. When comparing the ERPs collected when participants attended to a given signal to those collected when they ignored this signal, the researchers found that auditory ERPs a. began later for attended versus unattended signals. b. began earlier for attended versus unattended signals. c. were larger for attended versus unattended signals. d. were smaller for attended versus unattended signals.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Understanding 39. In ERP studies of performance on the dichotic listening task, Hillyard and colleagues (1973) found that attended signals are accompanied by a negative-polarity waveform that is relatively large and peaks at approximately 180 milliseconds after stimulus presentation. This waveform is called the auditory potential. a. N1 c. ERF b. P3 d. sensory ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Remembering 40. Directing attention to a visual stimulus produces a positive ERP waveform called the P1 waveform if participants are a. overtly, rather than covertly, directing attention. b. selectively attending to the stimulus based on its location. c. exogenously (externally) cued rather than endogenously (internally) cued to the stimulus. d. shown a different stimulus in each eye.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Remembering 41. The P1 ERP is associated most closely with the a. direction of attention to the spatial location of a visually presented object. b. pop-out of feature-based visual targets in visual search. c. direction of attention to the specific ear through which a particular signal is presented. d. increased activity of cells in the primary and secondary auditory cortex.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Remembering 42. Studies of attention employing the P1 waveform and the N1 waveform suggest that a. both vision and audition involve a late-selection mechanism. b. both vision and audition involve an early-selection mechanism. c. visual attention primarily involves early selection, whereas auditory attention primarily involves late selection. d. auditory attention primarily involves early selection, whereas visual attention primarily involves late selection.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection

OBJ: 7.5

MSC: Understanding

43. You are looking for a friend who is supposed to meet you in a crowded lecture hall. You know that she is wearing a grey sweatshirt and glasses. Which kind of visual search best describes this situation? a. conjunction search c. pop-out search b. feature search d. parallel search ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Applying 44. Visual search for targets requires the use of selective attention, whereas visual search for targets can occur without sequential attention. a. pop-out; conjunction c. conjunction; feature b. pop-out; feature d. feature; conjunction ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Remembering 45. Visual search is slowest when a. the focus of attention is driven by voluntary, controlled search. b. the focus of attention is driven by the sensory information. c. the number of distracters in the display is large. d. the number of features in the display is large.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Analyzing 46. At the neuronal level, the fundamental effect of selective attention is understood to be that selective attention results in a. increased neuronal activity throughout the brain. b. increased neuronal activity in areas that would be processing the attended stimulus. c. increased neuronal activity in areas that would otherwise not be processing the attended stimulus. d. a change in the brain regions that would typically be processing a stimulus.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.5 MSC: Understanding 47. Injury to which brain structure results in a deficit in moving focused attention from a particular location in the visual field to another? a. the posterior parietal lobe b. the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus c. the superior colliculus d. the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus ANS: C OBJ: 7.2

DIF: Medium REF: 7.5 Attentional Control Networks MSC: Understanding

48. Your friend is looking for you and sees your face on someone else’s body. This is most likely due to an error in which attentional system? a. the ventral system c. neither the ventral system nor the dorsal

system d. both the ventral system and the dorsal system

b. the dorsal system ANS: D OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 7.5 Attentional Control Networks

49. You are chasing a tennis ball that has been hit away from you. Which of the following brain areas is least involved in tracking that stimulus? a. the parietal lobe c. the inferotemporal cortex b. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. V1 ANS: B OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 7.5 Attentional Control Networks

50. In general, it could be said that areas tend to be involved with the control of attention, whereas areas are affected by attention. a. frontal and parietal; sensory processing b. subcortical; parietal and frontal c. sensory processing; temporal and parietal d. sensory processing; frontal and parietal ANS: A OBJ: 7.6

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 7.5 Attentional Control Networks

TRUE/FALSE 1. Unilateral spatial neglect typically results from damage to the left temporal lobe.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 7.1 Selective Attention and the Anatomy of Attention MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 7.2

2. Models of late selection hypothesize that attended and ignored inputs are processed equivalently by the perceptual system, reaching a stage of semantic analysis.

ANS: T OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

3. In exogenous cuing, the orienting of attention to the cue is driven primarily by the participant’s goals.

ANS: F OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

4. In visual search tasks, the amount of time it takes to find a target among distracters is independent of the number of distracters if the target can be identified by a single feature.

ANS: T OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

5. Attention can be directed to both spatial and nonspatial features of target visual stimuli.

ANS: T OBJ: 7.3

DIF: Easy REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Remembering

6. ERP studies of visual and auditory attention suggest that early ERP components like the P1 and N1 are not modulated by the participant’s attentional state.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.4 MSC: Remembering 7. Spatial attention to one hemifield leads to increased neural activity in the fusiform gyrus in the ipsilateral hemisphere.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.4 MSC: Remembering 8. When spatial attention is introduced to one stimulus in a spatial array, simultaneous presentation of competing stimuli interferes less compared to the absence of spatial attention.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.4 MSC: Remembering 9. Extrastriate cortical regions specialized for the processing of color, form, and motion are modulated by visual attention to these stimulus features.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection OBJ: 7.4 MSC: Remembering SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the neurological syndrome known as neglect? Describe the typical symptoms and associated brain regions. How does complete neglect differ from extinction?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 7.3

REF: 7.2 The Neuropsychology of Attention MSC: Remembering

2. How do early- and late-selection models of attention differ? Propose a dichotic listening experiment that would provide evidence to distinguish between these two models.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

OBJ: 7.4

3. Describe the experimental design of a Posner cuing experiment. In your answer, provide definitions for the terms exogenous cuing, endogenous cuing, valid trial, invalid trial, and inhibition of return.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 7.4

4. Describe the basic findings of the visual search research conducted by Treisman and colleagues. In particular, describe the difference between a feature search and a conjunction search. Draw a figure illustrating a typical response-time pattern for the two search types.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 7.3 Models of Attention MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 7.4

5. Describe the role of attention in perception. What might you conclude based on behavioral studies?

How do studies of the neural substrate inform behavioral results?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 7.3 Models of Attention

OBJ: 7.4

6. What is the difference between voluntary attention and reflexive attention, and between overt and covert attention? Are the distinctions the same? If not, how do they differ?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 7.2

REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection MSC: Remembering

7. Can object representations modulate spatial attention? Please describe evidence to support your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 7.5

REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection MSC: Remembering

8. Please describe the dorsal and ventral system of attention. What role do they play in neglect?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 7.5

REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection MSC: Remembering

9. Describe the subcortical structures involved in attention. Do you think these structures contribute to voluntary or reflexive attention? Why or why not?

ANS:

Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 7.5

REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection MSC: Evaluating

10. Describe the cortical structures involved in attention. Do you think these structures contribute to voluntary or reflexive attention? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 7.5

REF: 7.4 Neural Mechanisms of Attention and Perceptual Selection MSC: Evaluating

Chapter 8: Action LEARNING OBJECTIVES 8.1 Explain how alpha motor neurons lead to the contraction of muscle fibers.

8.2 Understand the structures and functions of the subcortical and cortical motor regions involved in motor control, and the consequences of damage to these structures.

8.3 Describe how spinal motor signals generate actions and how they are modulated by a hierarchically organized motor system.

8.4 Understand the stimuli that drive neurons in motor areas and how population vectors signal the direction of a forthcoming movement.

8.5 Understand the affordance competition hypothesis and the parallel activation of goals and movement plans across supplementary and parietal motor areas.

8.6 Explain the past use, current use, and future potential of brain-machine interface systems (BMIs).

8.7 Describe how the basal ganglia infl uence cortical activity, and the role of a striatal disinhibition signal.

8.8 Explain the role of dopamine in healthy individuals and its impact on the symptoms and treatment of Parkinson’s disease, including drugs and deep-brain stimulation.

8.9 Understand the mirror neuron hypothesis.

8.10 Explain how sensorimotor learning and online control are modulated by the cerebellum, and how the primary motor cortex is involved in the long-term retention of skills.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT an effector? a. the brain b. the jaw ANS: A OBJ: 8.1

c. the arm d. the back

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

2. The neurotransmitter responsible for translating action potentials into mechanical actions at muscles is a. norepinephrine. c. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. d. serotonin.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

3. Alpha motor neurons in the spinal cord communicate with muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine, which influences muscle activity by a. depolarizing neurons in the peripheral nervous system. b. directly causing muscle contractions. c. hyperpolarizing peripheral motor neurons. d. inhibiting neurons in the dorsal root of the spinal cord.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

4. The primary interaction of muscles and the nervous system involves the alpha motor neurons, which originate in the , exit through the , and terminate in the muscles. a. brain; dorsal root c. spinal cord; dorsal root b. brain; ventral root d. spinal cord; ventral root ANS: D OBJ: 8.1

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

5. A laboratory dog has had surgery to separate the spinal components of its motor system from the cortical and subcortical components. Which of the following best describes the motor abilities of this animal? a. The dog is able to sit and roll over in response to commands. b. The dog can move proximal effectors normally, but not distal effectors. c. The dog demonstrates reflexive withdrawal of its foot in response to sudden stimulation. d. The dog is completely paralyzed from the neck down.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.1 | 8.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures

6. When a voluntary movement such as contracting one’s right biceps is generated, what other signals, if any, must accompany this command? a. A signal to antagonist muscles, such as the right triceps, to relax. b. A signal to antagonist muscles, such as the right triceps, to flex simultaneously. c. A signal to antagonist muscles, such as the left biceps, to relax. d. No other signal is necessary.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.1 | 8.2

DIF: Medium REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

7. Hemiplegia is the a. paralysis of the side of the body that is contralateral to the injured brain region. b. paralysis of the side of the body that is ipsilateral to the injured brain region. c. loss of sensory feedback from the side of the body that is contralateral to the injured brain region. d. loss of sensory feedback from the side of the body that is ipsilateral to the injured brain region.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

8. Loss of blood flow in the a. anterior cerebral artery b. vertebral artery ANS: C OBJ: 8.2

is the most common cause of hemiplegia. c. middle cerebral artery d. circle of Willis

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

9. The loss of a motor skill that cannot be attributed to hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, or motivation is called a. hemiparesis. c. apraxia. b. hypermetria. d. akinetopsia.

ANS: C

DIF:

Easy

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures

OBJ: 8.2

MSC: Remembering

10. After suffering a focal brain injury, a patient has great difficulty in pantomiming particular motor actions such as turning a key in a lock. Because other problems like hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, and lack of motivation have been ruled out, your diagnosis would be a. agnosia. c. anomia. b. apraxia. d. akinetopsia.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Medium REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

11. Which of the following is NOT a part of the basal ganglia? a. the putamen c. the caudate b. the claustrum d. the globus pallidus ANS: B OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

12. Lesions to this region of the cerebellum lead to postural instability and difficulty in keeping one’s eyes fixed on a visual object despite head or body movements. a. the spinocerebellum c. the neocerebellum b. the vestibulocerebellum d. the dentate nucleus ANS: B OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

13. Corticospinal fibers originate primarily in the a. cerebellum. b. supplementary motor area.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3

c. premotor cortex. d. primary motor cortex.

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

14. The term decussation refers to a. a type of cerebrovascular accident that frequently damages motor structures. b. the shift in involvement from the premotor cortex to the supplementary motor area (SMA) with motor learning. c. the crossing of nerve fibers from one side of the body to the other. d. a type of rapid involuntary movement made by people with Huntington’s disease.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

15. The excitatory command to contract the biceps muscle of the arm is normally accompanied by an inhibitory command to relax the antagonist triceps muscle. If this inhibitory signal failed to occur, a. the passive stretching of the triceps would trigger a stretch reflex that would return the arm to its original position. b. the contraction of the biceps would be irreversible, and the limb would remain frozen in the resulting position. c. the contraction of the biceps would cause tearing of fibers in the triceps and severe muscle damage. d. the fibers that make up the triceps muscle would shorten and thicken during the resulting passive stretch.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures

16. Neurons in each half of the cerebellum synapse on targets in the thalamus and other subcortical structures, and therefore regulate the effectors on the side of the body. a. ipsilateral; ipsilateral c. contralateral; ipsilateral b. ipsilateral; contralateral d. contralateral; contralateral ANS: C OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3

DIF: Medium REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Understanding

17. Single-cell recording studies have indicated that the control of internally guided motor sequences, whereas the control of externally guided motor sequences. a. supplementary motor cortex; premotor cortex b. premotor cortex; supplementary motor cortex c. basal ganglia; cerebellum d. cerebellum; basal ganglia ANS: A OBJ: 8.2 | 8.4

may be especially important in the may be especially important in the

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

18. The pyramidal motor tract carries signals from the motor cortex of each cerebral hemisphere to side(s) of the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal motor tracts carry signals from various subcortical structures to side(s) of the spinal cord. a. the ipsilateral; both the ipsilateral and contralateral b. both the ipsilateral and contralateral; the ipsilateral c. the contralateral; both the ipsilateral and contralateral d. both the contralateral and ipsilateral; the contralateral ANS: C OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

19. Lesions to the pyramidal motor tract would produce difficulty in moving effectors on which side of the body? a. the contralateral side b. the ipsilateral side c. both the contralateral and ipsilateral sides d. neither the contralateral nor the ipsilateral side: the pyramidal neurons do not innervate effector muscles ANS: A OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures

20. One major difference between the pyramidal and the extrapyramidal motor tracts is their points of origin. The pyramidal tracts carry messages from to the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal tracts carry messages from to the spinal cord. a. cortical structures; subcortical structures b. cranial nerves; peripheral nerves c. basal ganglia; the cerebral cortex d. subcortical structures; the cerebral cortex ANS: A OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

21. Simple reflexive motor responses to external stimuli rely primarily on the function of the , whereas motor behaviors that are only minimally dependent on such external cues rely primarily on the function of the . a. basal ganglia; spinal cord c. spinal cord; motor cortex b. cerebellum; brainstem d. motor cortex; brainstem ANS: C OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

22. Sherrington (1947) surgically disconnected spinal motor neurons from cortical and subcortical motor centers in laboratory animals. Which of the following statements is true about the subsequent motor behavior of these animals? a. The animals could still generate voluntary movements, but reflexive responses were disrupted. b. Reflexive responses were intact, but complex voluntary movements were disrupted. c. The animals showed normal motor function as long as sensory inputs from the dorsal root were also severed. d. The animals became completely motionless and unresponsive to stimulation.

ANS: B DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.1 | 8.2 | 8.3 MSC: Understanding

REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control

23. Neurons in the spinal cord that can mediate sequences of motor actions even in the absence of external sensory feedback signals are called a. proximal effectors. c. alpha motor neurons. b. central pattern generators. d. ventral root neurons.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control

24. Which of the following types of motor behavior probably relies most on the function of a central pattern generator? a. walking c. drawing b. speaking d. juggling ANS: A OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Medium REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control MSC: Understanding

25. Studies of deafferentation and its effect on movement control in humans and other species demonstrate that a. movement depends on internal mental representations of the consequences of motor commands. b. movement depends on the availability of intact sensory feedback from effectors. c. movement is controlled by information from sensory receptors rather than muscles. d. movement is controlled differently in humans than in other primate species.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Medium REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control MSC: Understanding

26. The concept of endpoint control refers to the observation that voluntary muscle events a. are programmed to result in the displacement of an effector based on the desired distance from its starting point. b. are programmed to result in the displacement of an effector based on its desired final location. c. require sensory feedback that arrives after an effector has been moved to its desired

location. d. require sensory feedback from an effector that arrives during the entire course of its movement.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.3 | 8.4

DIF: Medium REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control MSC: Remembering

27. Single-cell recording studies of the motor control of reaching movements have demonstrated that neurons in the motor cortex are selectively active based on the a. distance through which a reaching movement must pass. b. direction in which a reaching movement is generated. c. speed at which a reaching movement is performed. d. final arm position achieved once a reaching movement is completed.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Remembering

28. Using single-cell recording, a researcher isolates a neuron in the motor cortex of a monkey that is extremely active when the monkey moves its arm from left to right. In subsequent trials, the animal is required to move its arm from the starting to the ending locations diagrammed here.

Which, if any, of these additional trials will also increase activity in this neuron? a. C only c. A, B, and D b. A and B d. D only ANS: B OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways

29. With regard to motor cortex, a population vector is the a. summed activity of the neurons in the motor cortex, including cells that are tuned to all directions. b. summed activity of the neurons in the motor cortex, including only cells that are tuned to the same preferred direction. c. total number of neurons that are tuned to the same preferred direction. d. preferred direction of a single neuron.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Remembering

30. Which of the following statements best describes the population vector associated with a reaching movement from left to right? a. The population vector shifts from right to left only while the arm is actually moving. b. The population vector shifts from left to right only after the arm has moved and stopped. c. The population vector shifts from left to right only while the arm is actually moving. d. The population vector shifts from left to right before the arm begins to move.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Medium REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Understanding

31. The fact that the population vector recorded in the motor cortex precedes the corresponding reaching movement indicates that motor cortex activity a. is primarily involved in the planning of movement.

b. is independent of voluntary movement. c. automatically leads to movement. d. is related to the movement of specific muscle groups.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Understanding

32. When you first learn how to execute the complex motor sequence that comprises a slam dunk in basketball, a circuit including the is active. After much practice, once you have learned the sequence well, a second circuit involving the is active. a. parietal cortex; lateral premotor area b. lateral premotor area; supplementary motor area c. supplementary motor area; parietal cortex d. basal ganglia; parietal cortex ANS: B OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning

33. The seem(s) particularly important in the control and planning of complex motor sequences as opposed to simple movements. a. primary motor cortex b. primary somatosensory cortex c. motor cortex regions in the prefrontal lobes d. motor cortex regions in the parietal lobes ANS: C OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Easy REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning MSC: Remembering

34. In the period of time immediately following focal brain injury to the supplementary motor cortex, patients may reach out and grasp objects with the affected arm when they have not been asked to do so, or even when they have been explicitly told not to do so. This is an example of a. apraxia. c. Huntington’s disease. b. hemiplegia. d. alien hand syndrome.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Easy REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning MSC: Understanding

35. In the days following her stroke, Patient E cannot refrain from reaching out and grasping nearby objects even when she has been asked not to do so. This syndrome probably is the result of the abnormal dominance of the loop. a. lateral supplementary motor area b. lateral premotor c. medial supplementary motor area d. medial premotor ANS: C OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Medium REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning MSC: Understanding

36. Franz and colleagues (1996) asked a patient who had had his corpus callosum surgically severed to draw figures like the ones here, each simultaneously with a different hand.

Compared to neurologically intact control participants, they found that this patient a. was better at producing movements simultaneously with both hands, even when they differed in direction. b. was selectively impaired when simultaneously producing movements with each hand when they differed in direction. c. performed poorly and was especially impaired when the figures closely resembled each other. d. was better at producing movements simultaneously with both hands only when they differed in direction.

ANS: A OBJ: 8.5

DIF: Medium REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning MSC: Understanding

37. Chapin’s early work on a brain-machine interface (BMI) in rats used an online population vector that matched the of the rats’ movement. a. direction c. velocity b. force d. complexity ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Medium REF: 8.6 Recouping Motor Loss MSC: Remembering

38. Once a BMI takes on the ability to reward a rat that was previously rewarded by pressing a lever, how will the rat’s lever-pressing rate change? a. There will be no change. c. Lever-pressing will slightly decrease. b. Lever-pressing will slightly increase. d. Lever-pressing will eventually stop.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 8.6 Recouping Motor Loss

39. Which of the following sets of elements is sufficient to produce an effective brain-machine interface? a. a computer to generate artificial neuronal activity and a prosthetic limb b. an electrode array to record neural activity, a robotic arm, and a lever c. an electrode array to record neural activity, a prosthetic limb, and computer software that can interpret intended actions from neural activity d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 8.6 Recouping Motor Loss

40. One limitation of most BMI systems is that they a. do not use motor cortex activity from the individual controlling the prosthetic. b. use only visual feedback and not somatosensory feedback. c. are not capable of improved precision with user practice. d. require input from literally millions of neurons in order to work effectively.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.6

DIF: Medium REF: 8.6 Recouping Motor Loss MSC: Understanding

41. Parkinson’s disease results from cell death in the , which is a part of the a. substantia nigra; cerebellum c. striatum; cerebellum b. substantia nigra; basal ganglia d. striatum; basal ganglia ANS: B OBJ: 8.2 | 8.8

.

DIF: Easy REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Remembering

42. A patient has damage to the basal ganglia, particularly within the striatum, and demonstrates both chorea and hyperkinesia. What is your diagnosis? a. Parkinson’s disease c. hypermetria b. Huntington’s disease d. bradykinesia ANS: B OBJ: 8.2 | 8.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia

43. What disorder is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic fibers in the substantia nigra, which results in deficits in initiating voluntary movements, bradykinesia, and the progressive emergence of a resting tremor? a. Huntington’s disease c. hemiballism b. Parkinson’s disease d. cogwheeling ANS: B OBJ: 8.8

DIF: Medium REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Understanding

44. Hyperkinesia is to as hypokinesia is to a. Parkinson’s disease; Huntington’s disease b. Huntington’s disease; Parkinson’s disease c. apraxia; hemiballism d. hemiballism; apraxia ANS: B DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.2 | 8.7 | 8.8 MSC: Understanding

.

REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia

45. One proposed role of dopamine in the context of motor learning via the basal ganglia is that dopamine release a. from the basal ganglia to motor cortex stimulates motor learning. b. from the substantia nigra prevents Parkinson’s disease by facilitating motor learning. c. in the basal ganglia results in a combination of stimulatory and inhibitory influences that reinforces particular motor actions. d. in the basal ganglia produces multiple motor responses simultaneously.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.7

DIF: Difficult REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Understanding

46. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of a process related to basal ganglia influence/striatal disinhibition? a. The striatum receives a dopamine signal that produces different results when dopamine binds D1 as opposed to D2 receptors. b. Striatal disinhibition can affect a wide range of motor behavior, including eye movements. c. Neurons in the internal segment of the globus pallidus have a relatively high baseline firing rate, and the direct path of the striatum inhibits them. d. Inhibition of the internal segment of the globus pallidus dampens cortical activity to decrease motor output.

ANS: D

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia

OBJ: 8.7

MSC: Analyzing

47. Keele’s work with people with Parkinson’s disease suggests that they may have difficulties in which of the following cognitive operations? a. discriminating scents c. facial recognition b. spatial memory d. set shifting ANS: D OBJ: 8.8

DIF: Easy REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Understanding

48. One reason that lesions to the cerebellum disrupt the eye blink conditioning response is because a. the cerebellum regulates the production of acetylcholine in peripheral motor neurons. b. this structure is involved in timing the activation of different effectors involved in a learned motor sequence. c. the cerebellum controls the initiation of eye movements. d. this structure normally inhibits activity in the motor cortex, and when this inhibition is disrupted, motor learning is impaired.

ANS: B OBJ: 8.10

DIF: Medium REF: 8.8 Learning and Performing New Skills MSC: Understanding

49. Which of the following would demonstrate the finding that some aspects of motor learning are independent of the specific effectors used to perform an action? a. Right-handed pitchers have great difficulty in throwing a baseball accurately with the left hand. b. Actions such as the backhand stroke in tennis require the coordination of a sequence of separate movements. c. All cyclists tend to use the same set of effectors in riding, regardless of the specific age at which they learned to ride a bicycle. d. One’s signature looks very similar regardless of whether one uses the left or the right hand to produce it.

ANS: D OBJ: 8.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 8.8 Learning and Performing New Skills

50. Using transgenic mice, Wagner et al.’s 2017 study provided which of the following pieces of evidence that the cerebellum is involved with learning and predictive processes? a. The cerebellum has more cells than the entire rest of the brain combined. b. It is possible to perform calcium imaging on transgenic mice whose granule cells had been transfected with genes encoding fluorescent proteins. c. Not only did the activity of certain cerebellar cells correspond with certain motor activity, but the activity of some cerebellar cells reflected trial outcomes. d. Cerebellar cells directly affected motor cortex cells in a way that indicates that the cerebellum is involved with learning and predictive processes.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.10

DIF: Medium REF: 8.8 Learning and Performing New Skills MSC: Understanding

51. Kawai et al.’s 2015 study used rats to explore how lesions of the motor cortex impact the ability to learn and perform motor sequences. What results regarding the motor cortex did this study yield? a. Cerebellar activity, but not motor cortex activity, was necessary to learn a new motor sequence. b. Motor cortex activity was more critical than cerebellar activity in enabling rats to overcome their dislike for reward delay. c. Once a new motor sequence had been learned, the cerebellum was sufficient to produce

that motor sequence, even without motor cortex input. d. Neither the cerebellum nor motor cortex was necessary to learn a new motor skill.

ANS: C OBJ: 8.10

DIF: Medium REF: 8.8 Learning and Performing New Skills MSC: Understanding

TRUE/FALSE 1. The supplementary motor area (SMA) is particularly active during externally guided movements.

ANS: F OBJ: 8.2 | 8.5

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

2. With time, people who experience a hemiplegia typically experience a full recovery.

ANS: F OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

3. A diagnosis of apraxia is mainly exclusionary: a person is said to have apraxia if he or she has a coordination problem that can’t be linked to a deficit in controlling the muscles themselves.

ANS: T OBJ: 8.2

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

4. Single axons of the corticospinal tract can extend for more than one meter.

ANS: T OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

5. Although simple reflexes can occur without sensory input, the generation of rhythmic walking movements requires sensory feedback from the environment.

ANS: F OBJ: 8.3

DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Remembering

6. In performing a sequence of complex actions, such as playing the piano, each movement is planned primarily in relation to the immediately preceding and subsequent movements.

ANS: F OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Medium REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control MSC: Remembering

7. Before a movement is initiated, the population vector in the motor cortex has already shifted in the direction of the planned movement.

ANS: T OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: 8.2 Computational Issues in Motor Control MSC: Remembering

8. Activity in the premotor cortex reflects not only the trajectory of a movement but also the context in which the movement occurs.

ANS: T OBJ: 8.4

DIF: Easy REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. Where are the primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex, and the supplementary motor area located in the brain? What do we know about the different functions of these three areas?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.2

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Analyzing

2. Describe the neurological condition of apraxia. How does this disorder inform our understanding of how complex movements are represented in the brain?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 8.2

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Analyzing

3. How is the planning of a complex movement hierarchical? Provide an example.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.3

REF: 8.1 The Anatomy and Control of Motor Structures MSC: Analyzing

4. What is a population vector? How do population vectors play a role in the initiation of a movement?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.4

REF: 8.3 Physiological Analysis of Motor Pathways MSC: Analyzing

5. Describe the affordance competition hypothesis and explain how single-cell recordings support the model.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 8.5

REF: 8.4 Goal Selection and Action Planning MSC: Analyzing

6. Argue for or against the future promise of BMI systems. Use examples of successes or limitations in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 8.6 Recouping Motor Loss

OBJ: 8.6

7. Why is the basal ganglia structure referred to as a “gatekeeper?” How is inhibition used in its gatekeeping functions?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.7

REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Analyzing

8. Compare and contrast the neurological disorders of Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease. How are they similar, and how do they differ?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 8.7 | 8.8

REF: 8.7 Movement Initiation and the Basal Ganglia MSC: Analyzing

9. What does it mean to say that the cerebellum uses a “forward model?” Support your answer with a real-life example and experimental evidence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 8.10

REF: 8.8 Learning and Performing New Skills MSC: Analyzing

Chapter 9: Memory LEARNING OBJECTIVES 9.1 Understand the different stages of learning and memory.

9.2 Describe the brain areas involved in memory and memory-related functions.

9.3 Explain anterograde and retrograde amnesia, as well as dementias.

9.4 Understand the importance of memory duration for memory distinctions.

9.5 Understand the importance of the type of information being stored for distinctions between different types of memory.

9.6 Explain the differences between declarative and nondeclarative memory, and their subtypes.

9.7 Describe how functional MRI findings suggest the involvement of the hippocampus in encoding and retrieval of episodic memories, and extrahippocampal regions in supporting familiarity.

9.8 Understand the roles of retrosplenial and parahippocampal cortices.

9.9 Explain the standard consolidation theory and multiple trace theory.

9.10 Describe the consequences of lesions to nonhippocampal temporal cortex.

9.11 Explain Hebbian learning, long-term potentiation, and the role of NMDA receptors.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

is the process of acquiring new information, whereas this process and can be revealed at a later time. a. Recall; recognition c. Learning; memory b. Recognition; recall d. Memory; learning

is the trace that results from

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.1 MSC: Remembering 2.

refers to the processing of incoming information to be stored. a. Retrieval c. Encoding b. Recall d. Explicit memory ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.1 MSC: Remembering

3. The encoding of information to be stored involves two stages: , in which inputs in sensory buffers and sensory analysis stages are registered, and then , in which a stronger representation for storage is created. a. consolidation; storage c. retrieval; acquisition b. storage; retrieval d. acquisition; consolidation ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.1 MSC: Understanding

4. The result of acquisition and consolidation is to the process involved in accessing memory traces as is to . a. memory; storage b. merging; retrieval c. retrieval; storage d. storage; retrieval ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.1 MSC: Analyzing 5. Which brain structure is located in the medial temporal lobe and is of particular importance in the formation of new long-term memories? a. the hypothalamus c. the hippocampus b. the colliculus d. the caudate ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.2 MSC: Remembering 6. Which of the following is NOT an area of cortex in the medial temporal lobe that interacts with the hippocampus in the formation of new long-term memories? a. cingulate c. parahippocampal b. entorhinal d. perirhinal ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy OBJ: 9.2 MSC: Remembering 7. Deficits in memory as a function of brain damage, disease, or psychological trauma are known collectively as a. aphasia. c. anomia. b. agnosia. d. amnesia.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Remembering

8. Which of the following statements is true of the kind of amnesia demonstrated by people with bilateral hippocampal damage (like patients H.M. and R.B.) or people with diencephalon injury (like people with Korsakoff’s syndrome)? a. They forget their dates of birth. b. They can still learn new skills, such as the serial reaction time task, after the injury. c. They remember meeting new people after the injury. d. They have good memory for learning facts after the injury but fail to show priming effects.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Understanding

9. A 1957 study of patients who had undergone removal of the medial temporal lobe for the treatment of epilepsy suggested that a. the removal of either the right or the left medial temporal lobe results in profound amnesia. b. greater amnesia is associated with the removal of the left medial temporal lobe. c. greater amnesia is associated with the removal of the right medial temporal lobe. d. profound amnesia is associated only with bilateral medial temporal lobe removal.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Understanding

10. Which of the following would be the most difficult for the famous patient H.M. and other patients with medial temporal lobe removal? a. reading a string of numbers written on a piece of paper b. remembering a series of seven numbers for 20 seconds c. learning the words for numbers in a foreign language d. improving in the ability to write numbers with the nondominant hand ANS: C OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia

11. Your favorite cartoon character has been struck over the head and can no longer remember his name or where he lives. This is an example of a. anterograde aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde aphasia. d. retrograde amnesia.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia

12. Decreased oxygenation and cell death is to as beta-amyloid proteins negatively affecting synapse formation and neuroplasticity is to . a. amnesia; anomia c. vascular dementia; Alzheimer’s disease b. anomia; amnesia d. Alzheimer’s disease; vascular dementia ANS: C OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia

13. You diagnose two different patients, each with a form of dementia. Patient 1 has a neurogenerative disease; Patient 2 does NOT have a neurogenerative disease. Which of the following summarizes the two patient reports? a. Patient 1: Rare form of dementia, prognosis: partial recovery likely. Patient 2: common form of dementia, prognosis: progressive, recovery unlikely. b. Patient 1: vascular dementia, areas affected: frontal and parietal lobes. Patient 2: frontotemporal lobar dementia, areas affected: parietal and occipital lobes. c. Patient 1: frontotemporal lobar dementia, areas affected: medial temporal lobes. Patient 2: Alzheimer’s disease, areas affected: frontal lobes. d. Patient 1: Alzheimer’s disease, areas affected: medial temporal lobes. Patient 2: frontotemporal lobar dementia, areas affected: frontal lobes.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Difficult REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Applying | Evaluating

14. After suffering a severe head injury, a patient demonstrates a dense anterograde amnesia. She a. has trouble remembering events that occurred before the injury. b. cannot remember events that occurred after the injury. c. has equal difficulty remembering events that occurred before and after her injury. d. has normal long-term memory but impaired working memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia

15. A patient visits a neurologist and complains of memory problems, such as trouble remembering telephone numbers. After a few tests, the neurologist determines that there is a large impairment in the digit span, but no impairment in remembering the past or in forming new memories. Which brain area is the most likely to be impaired? a. the left medial temporal lobe c. the left perisylvian cortex b. the right medial temporal lobe d. the right perisylvian cortex ANS: C DIF: Medium OBJ: 9.2 | 9.4 | 9.5 MSC: Applying

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

16. The memory performance of patients K.F. and E.E., when compared to the memory performance of people with amnesia, such as patient H.M, demonstrates a double dissociation between two types of memory. Which of the following statements best describes these results? a. H.M. has a deficit limited to explicit memory, whereas K.F. and E.E. have deficits limited to implicit memory. b. H.M. has a deficit limited to long-term memory, whereas K.F. and E.E. have deficits limited to short-term memory. c. H.M. has anterograde amnesia, whereas K.F. and E.E. have retrograde amnesia. d. H.M. has an injury to the medial temporal lobes, whereas K.F. and E.E. have injuries to the lateral temporal lobes.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

17. Research using the mismatch field (MMF), which is the magnetic equivalent of the mismatch negativity (MMN), has suggested that auditory sensory memory has a duration of about a. 10 milliseconds. c. 1 second. b. 100 milliseconds. d. 10 seconds.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.4 | 9.5

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

18. George Miller and other investigators found that humans can hold about memory at a time. a. three c. seven b. five d. nine ANS: C OBJ: 9.4

items in short-term

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

19. Organizing individual bits of information into higher-order units can increase the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory. This strategy is called a. the recency effect. c. the serial position effect. b. encoding. d. chunking.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

20. According to the modal model of memory, information that is currently held within short-term memory originates from a. sensory memory. c. both sensory and working memory. b. working memory. d. neither sensory nor working memory.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.4 | 9.5

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

21. Which of the following best describes the flow of information in the Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968) modal model of memory? a. short-term storage ⟶ long-term storage ⟶ sensory memory b. short-term storage ⟶ sensory memory ⟶ long-term storage c. sensory memory ⟶ short-term storage ⟶ long-term storage d. sensory memory ⟶ long-term storage ⟶ short-term storage ANS: C OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

22. Which of the following statements concerning types of memory in the modal model of memory is FALSE? a. At any moment, there is more information in sensory memory than in short-term memory. b. Some contents of sensory memory are selected via attention and next processed in longterm memory. c. Sensory memory has a shorter duration than short-term memory. d. Long-term memory has a longer duration than sensory memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

23. You learn of an experiment conducted in 1942 by a researcher named Malmo. Malmo discovered that monkeys with certain lesions were impaired in a delayed-response task, but not when the lights were turned off. Malmo hypothesized that switching off the lights removed potential interference. Which of the following theories incorporates this kind of short-term interference? a. the phonological loop c. procedural memory b. Hebbian learning d. the modal model of memory ANS: D OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

24. The term refers to a limited-capacity store that not only retains information over the shortterm (maintenance) but also permits the performance of mental operations with the contents of this store (manipulation). a. working memory c. sensory memory b. short-term memory d. long-term memory ANS: A OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

25. One finding that supports the idea that information in working memory is represented by an acoustic (auditory) code rather than a semantic (meaning-based) code is that when participants are given a list of words to learn and then are immediately tested for recall, performance is when the list contains items that are similar in . a. worse; meaning b. better; meaning c. worse; sound d. better; sound ANS: C OBJ: 9.4 | 9.5

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

26. Of the following choices, damage to the is most likely to result in impairment to the visuospatial sketch pad, or visual working memory. a. parietal–occipital cortex c. hippocampus

b. medial temporal lobe ANS: A OBJ: 9.4 | 9.5 27.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

Visual sensory memory is to a. iconic memory; echoic memory b. partial report; whole report ANS: A OBJ: 9.5

d. perisylvian region REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

as auditory sensory memory is to . c. echoic memory; iconic memory d. whole report; partial report

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

28. One major difference between the visual icon and the auditory echo is that the a. visual icon is a sensory memory representation, whereas the auditory echo is a short-term memory representation. b. auditory echo lasts longer than the visual icon. c. visual icon is a type of explicit memory, but the auditory echo is a type of implicit memory. d. auditory echo involves conscious recollection, whereas the visual icon does not.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Understanding

29. One property of the central executive mechanism proposed by Baddeley and Hitch is that it a. controls the phonological loop but not the visuospatial sketch pad. b. is not linked to a single modality. c. operates primarily over visual information. d. operates primarily over auditory information.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Understanding

30. The component that is responsible for acoustically coding information in working memory is the a. visuospatial sketchpad. c. phonological loop. b. central executive. d. subvocal loop.

ANS: C OBJ: 9.5

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

31. Declarative or explicit memory is knowledge that a. one can access consciously. c. is a form of sensory memory. b. one cannot access consciously. d. is a form of short-term memory.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

32. Implicit memory is to as explicit memory is to a. priming; episodic memory b. conditioning; priming c. episodic memory; semantic memory d. procedural learning; nondeclarative learning ANS: A OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

.

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

33. Barbara remembers that Madrid is the capital of Spain, but she has no idea when or where she acquired this knowledge. Her memory is accurate, but her memory is incomplete. a. semantic; episodic c. episodic; implicit b. nonassociative; semantic d. explicit; implicit ANS: A OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

34. Classical conditioning is an example of a specific type of memory. a. priming c. episodic b. semantic d. nondeclarative ANS: D OBJ: 9.6 35.

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

memory does NOT affect behavior consciously. a. Nondeclarative c. Episodic b. Declarative d. Explicit ANS: A OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

36. In the delayed nonmatching to sample task, animals are taught in a single trial that a specific object is associated with a food reward. When this object is shown again in a subsequent trial in the presence of a new object, the animal a. must select the old object again to receive a food reward. b. must select the new item to receive a food reward. c. must select first the old item, then the new item, to receive a food reward. d. must select first the new item, then the old item, to receive a food reward.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System

37. Patient H.M. is to the as patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome are to the a. medial temporal lobes; cerebellum c. diencephalon; medial temporal lobes b. cerebellum; diencephalon d. medial temporal lobes; diencephalon ANS: D OBJ: 9.2 | 9.3

DIF: Easy MSC: Analyzing

.

REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System

38. It appears that the medial temporal lobes and the diencephalon are important in consolidating explicit long-term memories but are not themselves the storage sites for this knowledge because a. most skills and habits acquired before injury to these structures will remain intact. b. only priming and conditioning show signs of impairment following damage to these structures. c. only nonassociative learning and priming show signs of impairment following damage to these structures. d. most episodic and semantic memories acquired before injury to these structures will remain intact.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3 | 9.9

DIF: Medium REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System MSC: Understanding

39. Two weeks ago, you saw a patient who was suffering from amnesia, and the amnesia appeared to be related to the vertebrobasilar artery system. Currently, the patient’s memory seems to have returned to normal. Which of the following people is most likely to be the patient described?

a. A 35-year-old professional football player who has been regularly exposed to head trauma over a number of years. b. A 42-year-old woman who recently lost a child and is severely depressed. c. A 67-year-old woman who has recently suffered a stroke. d. A 59-year-old grocery store owner who works long hours and is struggling financially.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.3 | 9.10

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System

40. Following a case of encephalitis, a person has developed lesions in his anterior temporal lobes, but his medial temporal structures are intact. Which of the following is most likely to be true of this person? a. The person has isolated anterograde amnesia. b. The person has isolated retrograde amnesia. c. The person has Korsakoff’s syndrome. d. The person has a specific deficit of implicit memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System

41. After a brain injury, a person is found to have isolated retrograde amnesia. Which of the following brain regions is probably damaged? a. the medial temporal lobes c. the superior parietal lobes b. the anterior temporal lobes d. the dorsolateral frontal lobes ANS: B OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System

42. Greater activity in the frontal and parietal portions of the retrieval network is to activity in the medial temporal lobe and sensory areas is to . a. false memories; true memories b. true memories; false memories c. encoding; decoding d. decoding; encoding

as greater

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.2 MSC: Analyzing 43. Neuroimaging work has suggested that during the retrieval of a list of studied items, the hippocampus is most active a. for items that are correctly recollected as old items. b. for items that are incorrectly recollected as old items. c. for items that are correctly rejected as new items. d. for items that are incorrectly rejected as new items.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.7 MSC: Remembering 44. Recent neuroimaging and neuropsychological work in memory has attempted to disentangle , which seems to implicate the hippocampus and the posterior parahippocampal cortex, from , which seems to implicate the perirhinal cortex. a. acquisition; consolidation c. recollection; familiarity b. consolidation; acquisition d. familiarity; recollection ANS: C

DIF:

Medium

REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.7 | 9.8 MSC: Analyzing 45. Neuroimaging studies of the left and right hemispheres in memory function indicate that a. memory structures in the brain are similar in function in the left and right hemispheres. b. encoding and retrieval processes in long-term memory may be lateralized to different hemispheres. c. implicit memory function is localized primarily to the left hemisphere, whereas explicit memory is localized to the right hemisphere. d. working memory information is processed primarily in the left hemisphere.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.7 MSC: Understanding 46. When individuals encode information that relates to themselves, which of following regions is particularly likely to be active? a. occipital lobe c. retrosplenial cortex b. amygdala d. parahippocampal cortex ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.8 MSC: Understanding 47. Consider the binding-of-items-and-contexts (BIC) model. The perirhinal cortex is to the parahippocampal cortex as is to . a. retrieval; relational memory b. relational memory; retrieval c. who and what; when and where d. when and where; who and what ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.8 MSC: Analyzing 48. Under the standard consolidation theory, the involvement of the hippocampus in accessing memories is best described as a. temporary. c. flexible. b. permanent. d. rigid.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.9

DIF: Easy REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation MSC: Remembering

49. Under the multiple trace theory, the neocortex is to semantic memory as the hippocampus is to a. procedural memory. c. semantic memory. b. relational memory. d. episodic memory.

ANS: D OBJ: 9.9

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation

50. Which of the following best describes a component of the multiple trace theory? a. The hippocampus plays a temporary role in the consolidation of long-term memories. b. Episodic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval. c. Short-term memory stores rely solely on the neocortex. d. Semantic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval.

ANS: B OBJ: 9.9

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation

51. Herpes simplex encephalitis shares which characteristic with semantic dementia? a. a similar prevalence rate b. potential damage to the anterior temporal lobe c. viral transmission d. hippocampal atrophy ANS: C OBJ: 9.10

DIF: Medium REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation MSC: Understanding

52. Hebbian learning occurs when a. a synapse is strengthened by the synchronous activity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons. b. a synapse is weakened by the synchronous activity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons. c. short-term memories represented in the hippocampus are consolidated to the cortex. d. short-term memories represented in the cortex are consolidated to the hippocampus.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.11

DIF: Easy REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory MSC: Remembering

53. Long-term potentiation does NOT occur unless the neurotransmitter synapse to bind to postsynaptic NMDA receptors. a. GABA c. serotonin b. norepinephrine d. glutamate ANS: D OBJ: 9.11

is present in the

DIF: Medium REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory MSC: Understanding

54. Imagine that a new drug is discovered that acts by depleting the brain of free magnesium ions. How would this drug affect long-term potentiation (LTP)? a. The amount of LTP would increase. b. The amount of LTP would decrease. c. The amount of LTP would not change. d. The amount of LTP would first decrease, then increase.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.11

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory

55. Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of NMDA receptors in mediating LTP in the brain? a. NMDA receptors are critical to inducing LTP but not to maintaining LTP. b. NMDA receptors block LTP in the brain unless magnesium ions are present. c. NMDA receptors are depolarized by the binding of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. d. NMDA receptors create LTP by transporting magnesium ions from outside the cell into the cell.

ANS: A OBJ: 9.11 TRUE/FALSE

DIF: Medium MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory

1. Patients with damage to the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus typically do not have difficulty performing short-term memory tasks such as the digit span.

ANS: T OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Remembering

2. Patient H.M. had severe retrograde amnesia.

ANS: F OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Medium REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Remembering

3. People with amnesia often show preserved implicit learning and nondeclarative memory.

ANS: T OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia MSC: Remembering

4. In the Atkinson and Shiffrin modal model, information can be lost by both decay and interference at each stage.

ANS: T OBJ: 9.4

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

5. Semantic memory is a kind of declarative memory that concerns events we recall from our own lives.

ANS: F OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Medium REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

6. Most forms of classical conditioning can be considered declarative memory.

ANS: F OBJ: 9.6

DIF: Easy REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory MSC: Remembering

7. Lesions to the hippocampus typically do not result in profound memory problems unless the lesions also encompass the amygdala.

ANS: F OBJ: 9.2

DIF: Medium REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System MSC: Remembering

8. Korsakoff’s syndrome is associated with alcoholism.

ANS: T OBJ: 9.3

DIF: Easy REF: 9.4 The Medial Temporal Lobe Memory System MSC: Remembering

9. During memory retrieval, cortical regions that were important during encoding are reactivated.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging OBJ: 9.2 | 9.7 MSC: Remembering 10. Dopamine is the neurotransmitter most associated with long-term potentiation.

ANS: F OBJ: 9.11

DIF: Easy REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. Define each of the three major stages of learning.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 9.1

REF: 9.1 Learning and Memory, and Their Associated Anatomy MSC: Understanding

2. What is the difference between anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia? Give examples of the kinds of memories that would (and would not) be impaired with each condition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.2 Memory Deficits: Amnesia

OBJ: 9.3

3. Describe the Baddeley–Hitch model of working memory. In your answer, provide the names and descriptions for the three major components of the model, along with their likely neurological correlates.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

OBJ: 9.2 | 9.5

4. One of the most well-known neuropsychological case studies is the person known as patient H.M. Describe the region of the brain that was damaged in H.M. and the resulting neuropsychological deficits and dissociations for which his case is known.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

OBJ: 9.2 | 9.3

5. Your textbook describes several different proposed distinctions in memory, including short-term and long-term, declarative and nondeclarative, and episodic and semantic. How do these different terms interrelate? What evidence supports these distinctions?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.3 Mechanisms of Memory

OBJ: 9.4 | 9.5 | 9.6

6. Describe the subsequent-memory paradigm, used by Charan Ranganath and others. Explain how it has been used with neuroimaging to understand the specific involvement of brain regions in memory.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 9.7

REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging MSC: Analyzing

7. Describe the BIC model. Describe an experiment that supports the model.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 9.8

REF: 9.5 Distinguishing Human Memory Systems with Imaging MSC: Analyzing

8. Imagine that B.T. and G.J. move abroad and then marry. Between moving and marrying, B.T. receives damage to his hippocampus and G.J. receives damage to her anterior temporal lobes. What might B.T. and G.J. each remember and not remember about moving and getting married? As you list each memory, include whether it is episodic or semantic. How does Ribot’s law impact your answer?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation

OBJ: 9.2 | 9.3 | 9.6 | 9.10

9. Design an experiment to test the standard consolidation versus multiple-trace theories of consolidation.

Describe the results you would expect from each theory.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 9.6 Memory Consolidation

OBJ: 9.9

10. Describe the phenomenon of LTP. How does blocking LTP affect memory?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 9.11

REF: 9.7 Cellular Basis of Learning and Memory MSC: Analyzing

Chapter 10: Emotion LEARNING OBJECTIVES 10.1 Define what an emotion is.

10.2 Identify the brain structures that are involved in emotion.

10.3 Establish categories for emotions.

10.4 Discuss theories that explain how emotions are generated.

10.5 Describe the amygdala and its role in emotion.

10.6 Understand the interaction between emotion and other cognitive processes.

10.7 Discuss how emotion plays a role in the evaluation of social stimuli.

10.8 Identify the mechanisms that are involved in the control of emotion.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of emotions? a. a physiological reaction to a stimulus c. a feeling b. similarity to moods d. a behavioral response ANS: B OBJ: 10.1 2. Emotions are a. observable b. experienced ANS: D OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Medium REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Understanding responses to external or internal stimuli. c. perceivable d. valenced DIF: Easy REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Remembering

3. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the six basic facial expressions representing emotional states? a. disgust c. surprise b. jealousy d. fear ANS: B OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Medium REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Understanding

4. Which of the following statements best describes the distinction between affect, mood, and emotion? a. Affect is the most general term of the three, and it includes emotions, which tend to be short-term and reactionary; moods tend to last longer than emotions. b. Affect is the most general term of the three, followed by emotions, which are unpredictable and volatile, followed by moods, which are more specific types of emotions. c. Emotions are the most general term of the three, and they incorporate both affect, which refers to the more specific emotions, and mood, which refers to the less specific emotions. d. Emotions, mood, and affect are all similar in scope, but emotions are more powerful than mood or affect.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Medium REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Understanding

5. One theory of emotion and the brain from the mid 20th century implicated the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus. These structures were later named the circuit. a. Lazarus c. MacLean b. Zajonc d. Papez ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 10.2

6. Which of the following is NOT a well-established basic emotion? a. anger c. contempt b. sadness d. surprise ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 10.2

7. A patient reports feeling intense sadness. Which of the following signs would indicate that this is true? a. facial expression c. brief duration b. physiological reaction d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 10.2

8. Which of the following best describes our current understanding of the brain areas that process emotions? a. The frontal cortex processes the most emotion, with emotional regulation coming from the limbic system and subcortical structures. b. The limbic system seems to be heavily involved in processing emotion, with contribution from other brain areas, particularly in frontal-medial cortical areas. c. The limbic system and Papez Circuit process emotion, with little known contribution from other brain areas d. In essence, the entire brain processes emotion in some way.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 10.2

9. Which of the following outcomes is MOST likely to be produced by the information gleaned from studies using multivoxel pattern analysis (MVPA) and 7-tesla scanning (7T) technology to better elucidate the neural structures associated with different emotional states? a. All emotions are essentially processed by the same brain regions, but with different degrees of activation corresponding to different emotions. b. Each emotion is processed by a particular area of the brain. c. Each emotion is processed by a network of brain regions, and these networks are each distinct from each other. d. Each emotion is processed by a network of brain regions, some of which overlap with many other emotions, and some of which overlap with few or no other emotions.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 10.2

10. Some theories of emotion employ a factor approach. In one conceptualization, the first factor is , or how pleasant or unpleasant the stimulus is, and the second factor is , or how intense the emotional response is. a. arousal; valence c. excitation; benignity b. valence; arousal d. benignity; excitation ANS: B OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Medium REF: 10.3 Categorizing Emotions MSC: Understanding

11. In one conceptualization of emotions (Davidson et al. 1990), some emotional states such as happiness and surprise create a tendency to , whereas other emotional states such as fear and disgust create a tendency to . a. approach; withdraw c. assess directly; assess indirectly b. withdraw; approach d. assess indirectly; assess directly ANS: A OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Easy REF: 10.3 Categorizing Emotions MSC: Remembering

12. Which of the following would be MOST useful in establishing discrete categories of emotions? a. A better understanding of how genders experience certain emotional states differently from each other. b. A better understanding of which overlapping networks of brain regions process which emotions. c. A better understanding of how emotions are affected by cognitive processing. d. A better understanding of why some emotions are felt more frequently than others.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 10.3 Categorizing Emotions

13. Which of the following, in itself, would be expected to have the LEAST effect on individual differences in emotional processing of a particular stimulus? a. Differences in the physiological changes induced by the stimulus. b. Differences in the cognitive appraisal of the stimulus. c. Differences in the neural structures that process emotional stimuli. d. Differences in the gender of individuals processing the stimulus.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 10.4 Theories of Emotion Generation

14. Julian spots a snake in the forest. He immediately runs away from it and then notes that he is scared as he is running. Which of the following theories would suggest that his feeling of fear is due entirely to the fact that Julian notices his physiological response? a. James–Lange theory b. Cannon–Bard theory c. Le-Doux’s high road and low road theory d. cognitive interpretation theory ANS: A OBJ: 10.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 10.4 Theories of Emotion Generation

15. Klüver–Bucy syndrome is associated with damage to which brain structure or region? a. the hippocampus c. the amygdala b. the perirhinal cortex d. the parahippocampal cortex ANS: C OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy REF: 10.5 The Amygdala MSC: Remembering

16. The is a small, almond-shaped structure in the medial temporal lobe, immediately adjacent to the anterior portion of the . a. caudate; hippocampus c. amygdala; basal ganglia b. caudate; basal ganglia d. amygdala; hippocampus ANS: D OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy REF: 10.5 The Amygdala MSC: Remembering

17. The amygdala consists of several subnuclei. During fear conditioning, information converges on the of the amygdala and from there projects to the . a. lateral nucleus; central nucleus b. central nucleus; lateral nucleus c. lateral geniculate nucleus; medial geniculate nucleus d. medial geniculate nucleus; lateral geniculate nucleus ANS: A OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Medium REF: 10.5 The Amygdala MSC: Understanding

18. Fear conditioning is a more specific instance of a. classical conditioning. c. explicit memory. b. operant conditioning. d. semantic memory.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Easy REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Remembering

19. One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “low road.” This pathway can be characterized as and involves a . a. “slow and analytical”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala b. “slow and analytical”; projection to the cortex c. “quick and dirty”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala d. “quick and dirty”; projection to the cortex ANS: C OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Medium REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Understanding

20. One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “high road.” This pathway can be characterized as and involves a . a. “slow and analytical”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala b. “slow and analytical”; project to the cortex c. “quick and dirty”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala d. “quick and dirty”; projection to the cortex ANS: B OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Medium REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Understanding

21. A double dissociation has been demonstrated between people with damage to the , who show impairment in the explicit or declarative aspects of fear conditioning, and people with damage to the , who show impairment in the implicit or nondeclarative aspects of fear conditioning. a. frontal lobe; hippocampus c. amygdala; basal ganglia b. hippocampus; amygdala d. basal ganglia; frontal lobe ANS: B OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning

22. Which of the following results best supports the notion that the amygdala modulates the consolidation of hippocampus-based memories? a. Hippocampus-based learning occurs only if the learner is not experiencing stress or arousal. b. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning occurs only if the learner is stressed or aroused. c. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs only if the arousal is initiated prior to learning. d. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs after the initial encoding of the task, during retention.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning

23. The mechanism through which the amygdala modulates hippocampus-based learning may be related to the observation that a. arousing stimuli decay less quickly than nonarousing stimuli do. b. arousing stimuli decay more quickly than nonarousing stimuli do. c. arousing stimuli are more likely to create interference effects. d. arousing stimuli are less likely to create interference effects.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Easy REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Remembering

24. You conduct an experiment in which you expose a rat repeatedly to a 440 Hz tone and an electric shock. After a few trials, the rat begins to show signs of fear in response to the tone. In this paradigm, the electric shock is the , while the tone is the . a. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus c. conditioned response; unconditioned response d. unconditioned response; conditioned response ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Understanding 25. Lesions to the amygdala unconditioned responses to aversive events, to acquire and express a conditioned response to neutral stimuli. a. do not block; nor do they block c. block; but they do not block b. do not block; but they do block d. block; and they also block

the ability

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Understanding 26. Patient S.P., who had bilateral damage to the amygdala, participated in a study involving the pairing of a blue square with an electric shock. S.P.’s skin conductance response (SCR) and verbal report indicated that a. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square and demonstrated an implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. b. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did not demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. c. she did not have any explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did demonstrate an implicit fear-conditioning SCR response. d. she did not have an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue

square, nor did she demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Analyzing 27. Which of the following is true about the role of the amygdala in explicit emotional learning? a. The amygdala performs a modulatory role in declarative memory. b. The amygdala is thought to enhance explicit memory retrieval in the hippocampus. c. The amygdala is thought to enhance the initial encoding of explicit memories. d. The amygdala is primarily involved in implicit, not explicit, emotional learning.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Analyzing 28. In a fear-conditioning experiment, you find a person who shows a normal skin conductance response to a conditioned stimulus (such as a blue square) but who does not consciously remember the pairing of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus (such as a shock). This person may have damage to the a. amygdala. c. anterior cingulate. b. hippocampus. d. basal ganglia.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Remembering 29. Which of the following is a way in which the amygdala interacts with hippocampus-dependent memories? a. inhibiting the parahippocampal cortex during encoding of emotional memories b. encoding the temporal relationship between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli c. filtering emotional stimuli and preventing the hippocampus from processing them d. enhancing the strength of explicit or declarative memories for emotional events ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Remembering 30. Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and emotional learning? a. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses, regardless of whether the initial learning was implicit or explicit. b. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses only when the initial learning was implicit. c. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses only when the initial learning was explicit. d. The amygdala does not play a role in the expression of fear responses but does play a role in their acquisition.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Understanding 31. A rat’s performance on the Morris water maze, a test of spatial ability and memory, will be affected in what way by a lesion to the amygdala? a. The rat will be impaired in learning all aspects of the water maze.

b. The rat will not be impaired in a basic water maze task, but it will fail to show the stronger retention that would otherwise be expected if the task includes a physical stressor. c. The rat will be impaired in the basic aspects of the water maze task, but it will still show an improvement in retention if the task includes a physical stressor. d. The rat will be unimpaired in learning the water maze task because the amygdala is important only for the expression of previously learned conditioned responses.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Understanding 32.

Neuroimaging of the perception of facial expression suggests that a. the amygdala is selectively active when we view angry faces. b. the amygdala responds most strongly to angry faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions. c. the amygdala is selectively active when we view fearful faces. d. the amygdala responds most strongly to fearful faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Easy REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli MSC: Remembering

33. The amygdala responds to fearful facial expressions a. regardless of whether the face is consciously perceived. b. only in cases where the face is consciously perceived. c. only in cases where the face is not consciously perceived. d. more strongly if the face is consciously perceived.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Easy REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli MSC: Remembering

34. Which of the following is typically true of people with bilateral damage to the amygdala? a. They do not produce a full range of facial expressions. b. They are like controls in their implicit and explicit reactions to race. c. They are unable to recognize emotional prosody. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: B OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Easy REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli MSC: Remembering

35. The implicit association test (IAT) measures the degree to which social groups are automatically associated with positive and negative evaluations. Which of the following is FALSE regarding this test? a. One variant of the test examines attitudes toward different racial groups. b. The primary measures of this test are response latencies. c. The IAT is designed to reflect declarative memories. d. Part of this test involves categorizing words as good or bad.

ANS: C OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli

36. Research on racial stereotypes conducted by Phelps and colleagues (2000) suggested that when European–American participants viewed pictures of unfamiliar African–American men, activity in the of these participants was correlated with the results of behavioral measures of racial beliefs and attitudes.

a. b. c. d.

orbitofrontal cortex; direct or explicit orbitofrontal cortex; indirect or implicit amygdala; direct or explicit amygdala; indirect or implicit

ANS: D OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli

37. Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and indirect evaluations of racial bias? a. White participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task. b. People with bilateral amygdala damage do not show evidence of a racial bias on implicit behavioral tasks. c. "White participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task" and "people with bilateral amygdala damage do not show evidence of a racial bias on implicit behavioral tasks" are both correct answers. d. Neither "white participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task" nor "people with bilateral amygdala damage do not show evidence of a racial bias on implicit behavioral tasks" is a correct answer.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli

38. Cunningham and colleagues (2004) suggested that although the amygdala plays a role in the automatic evaluation of social groups, controlled processing may implicate which of the following brain regions? a. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex b. the parahippocampal cortex d. the hippocampus ANS: C OBJ: 10.7

DIF: Easy REF: 10.8 Emotion and Social Stimuli MSC: Remembering

39. Which statement best characterizes the insula’s role in emotional processing? a. The insula processes interoception and bodily states, and plays a role in connecting the physiology of emotion with emotional state. b. The insula receives information about emotional state and feeds it back to the body, which produces interoception. c. The insula is primarily involved with decision making and the perception of emotions in other people, and thus is most associated with social cognition. d. The insula is primarily involved with the same domains of emotional processing as the amygdala.

ANS: A OBJ: 10.2 40.

DIF: Medium REF: 10.9 Other Areas, Other Emotions MSC: Understanding

The insula is MOST involved in which of the following? a. happiness c. love b. disgust d. sadness ANS: B OBJ: 10.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 10.9 Other Areas, Other Emotions

41. Emotional regulation refers to the processes that influence emotions in which of the following ways? a. the type of emotions we have

b. when emotions occur c. how emotions are experienced and expressed d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.8

DIF: Easy REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion MSC: Remembering

42. EEG studies have found that those with more emotion voluntarily. a. anterior b. posterior ANS: D OBJ: 10.8

activity are better able to suppress negative c. right-sided d. left-sided

DIF: Easy REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion MSC: Remembering

43. A friend comes into your house and eats all the chocolates in your pantry. You come in and at first are very angry. Then you think to yourself, “That’s actually better for me. Now I don’t have to eat all those calories.” What have you done? a. antecedent-focused regulation c. reduction of your anger b. reappraisal d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 10.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion

44. Which area of the frontal lobe does NOT show increased activity in the cognitive control of emotion? a. left lateral prefrontal cortex c. left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. left dorsomedial prefrontal cortex d. left rostromedial prefrontal cortex ANS: A OBJ: 10.8

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion

TRUE/FALSE 1. Patient S.M., who had damage to the amygdala, had difficulty recognizing sadness in the expressions of other people.

ANS: F OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Easy REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Remembering

2. Evidence from cognitive neuroscience suggests that the recognition of the six basic facial expressions of emotion is processed in the amygdala.

ANS: F OBJ: 10.1

DIF: Easy REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

MSC: Remembering

3. The Papez circuit includes the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 10.2

4. Paul Ekman argued that the perception of facial expressions of emotion is highly relative across cultures.

ANS: F OBJ: 10.3

DIF: Easy REF: 10.3 Categorizing Emotions MSC: Remembering

5. The role of the amygdala in emotion and memory has been studied using a form of classical conditioning known as fear conditioning.

ANS: T OBJ: 10.5

DIF: Easy REF: 10.5 The Amygdala MSC: Remembering

6. One pathway through which information about unconditioned or conditioned stimuli reaches the amygdala is known as the “high road” and has a cortical component.

ANS: T OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Easy REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Remembering

7. The role of the amygdala in learning to respond to stimuli that have come to represent aversive events through fear conditioning is primarily implicit.

ANS: T OBJ: 10.6

DIF: Easy REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Remembering

8. A common conditioned stimulus (CS) in fear-conditioning experiments is an electric shock.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Remembering 9. In some of the fear-conditioning experiments described in your text, simple shapes like a blue square are used as the conditioned stimulus (CS).

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Remembering 10. When someone is emotionally aroused, the hippocampus plays a modulatory role in strengthening the consolidation of amygdala-based memory.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes OBJ: 10.6 MSC: Remembering SHORT ANSWER 1. How might you investigate the assertion that basic facial expressions of emotion are universal, rather than being culturally relative? Describe an experiment that might inform this issue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 10.1 What Is an Emotion?

OBJ: 10.1

2. Describe the different brain areas involved in emotion. What role does the amygdala play in these systems? How does it differ from the role of other brain areas?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 10.2

REF: 10.2 Neural Systems Involved in Emotion Processing MSC: Remembering

3. What are some functions of the amygdala in emotional processing? In your answer, describe two experiments that illustrate the conditions in which the amygdala does (or does not) play a role.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 10.5 The Amygdala MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 10.5

4. Describe a potential real-world scenario in which you might experience fear conditioning. What are the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli in your scenario?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 10.6

REF: 10.6 The Influence of Emotion on Learning MSC: Applying

5. How do the hippocampus and amygdala interact in learning and memory? Under what conditions will the amygdala play a role in hippocampus-based learning? Under what conditions will it not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 10.6

REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes MSC: Evaluating

6. What is an implicit measure? Describe a study covered in your text or in class that investigated cognition using both implicit and explicit measures.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 10.6

REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes MSC: Evaluating

7. Describe the brain areas involved in love. Is this brain activity similar to or different from that observed in other emotions? Provide evidence to support your view.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 10.6

REF: 10.7 Interactions Between Emotion and Other Cognitive Processes MSC: Remembering

8. Are there hemispheric differences in emotional regulation? Describe evidence to support your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 10.8

REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion MSC: Analyzing

9. What is emotional regulation? Describe the different forms of regulation and the neural structures involved.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 10.8

REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion MSC: Remembering

10. Describe the role of the insula in emotion.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 10.8

REF: 10.10 Get a Grip! Cognitive Control of Emotion MSC: Remembering

Chapter 11: Language LEARNING OBJECTIVES 11.1 Identify the brain structures that are involved in language.

11.2 Draw a link between brain damage and the resulting language deficits.

11.3 Describe language and how it is represented in the brain.

11.4 Explain language comprehension.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following, if true, would be most helpful toward advancing our understanding of the anatomy of language? a. if mice had a sophisticated spoken language b. if language was not so heavily left-lateralized c. if more subcortical structures were involved in language processing d. if there were not so many different languages in existence ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Applying

OBJ: 11.1

2. The language-relevant regions of the right hemisphere would be most critical to understanding which of the following? a. a complicated sentence b. sarcasm c. someone speaking quickly d. a foreign language ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Applying

OBJ: 11.1

3. Which of the following brain structures is NOT directly involved in language? a. Sylvian fissure c. inferior parietal lobule b. angular gyrus d. inferior frontal cortex ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.1

4. The left perisylvian network of language includes which areas? a. Broca’s area c. both Broca's area and Wernicke's area b. Wernicke’s area d. neither Broca's area nor Wernicke's area ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.1

5. A patient with dysarthria has trouble a. controlling the muscles that articulate speech sounds. b. activating word-form representations based on conceptual knowledge.

c. converting knowledge about written characters into their sounds. d. segmenting speech into separate words.

ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering 6.

OBJ: 11.2

is a general term for deficits in language comprehension and production that occur as the result of brain injury. a. Alexia c. Agrammatism b. Aphasia d. Anomia ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.2

7. Which of the following statements best describes agrammatic aphasics? a. They are able to process language but not produce it. b. Their grammar is intact but their word choice is nonsensical. c. They are unable to use syntax. d. Their disorder is only one of speech production.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 11.2

8. Which of the following statements does NOT describe agrammatic aphasics? a. They are unable to process grammar. b. They rely on overlearned forms of grammar. c. They are unable to use syntax. d. They have difficulty with comprehension.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Analyzing

OBJ: 11.2

9. Patient “Tan,” studied by the neurologist Broca, had great difficulty in generating spontaneous speech and was unable to utter any word other than the nonsense syllable “tan.” Postmortem autopsy of Tan’s brain revealed a. abnormal EEG signals from the left frontal operculum. b. a lesion in the left inferior frontal cortex. c. cerebral hemorrhage in the right inferior frontal lobes. d. demyelination in a region of the left anterior frontal lobes.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.2

10. You encounter an aphasic patient with language deficits resulting from brain injury. You are also likely to also observe hemiparesis on the side of the body, which would indicate that the hemisphere is especially critical to language function. a. left; left c. right; left b. left; right d. right; right ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits

OBJ: 11.2

MSC: Applying 11. The German neurologist Wernicke found that injury to which region of the brain resulted in poor language comprehension and nonsensical but relatively fluent speech? a. the left arcuate fasciculus b. the left posterior and superior temporal lobe c. the right inferior frontal lobe d. the right medial temporal lobe ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.2

12. The speech of people with Broca’s aphasia is usually slow and effortful and consists of primarily concrete words, while words that serve grammatical functions are omitted. This type of speech output is called a. word salad. c. spectral speech. b. telegraphic speech. d. paraphasic speech.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.2

13. Which of the following sentences would a person with Broca’s aphasia be most likely to misunderstand? a. “The shirt that Michael bought yesterday is too small for him.” b. “The woman whom Richard met yesterday is leaving for Vancouver.” c. “The dog that George petted yesterday bit him and then ran away.” d. People with Broca’s aphasia would not be likely to misunderstand any of these sentences because they have only expressive deficits.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Evaluating

OBJ: 11.2

14. People with Broca’s aphasia may have subtle deficits in their ability to comprehend language based on its grammatical structure. This symptom is called a. aphemia. c. agrammatism. b. alexia. d. semantic dementia.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.2

15. A current controversy regarding the usefulness of Broca’s aphasia as a diagnostic category focuses on the observation that a. there is no strict correspondence between lesions of Broca’s area and the symptoms classically associated with Broca’s aphasia. b. Broca’s aphasia is far too frequently diagnosed and may actually subsume other subtypes of aphasia. c. Broca’s aphasia has been found to occur as a result of right-hemisphere injury just as often as left-hemisphere injury. d. Broca’s aphasia is usually a secondary aphasia rather than a selective deficit.

ANS: A

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Evaluating

OBJ: 11.2

16. A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. What is the most probable diagnosis? a. acquired alexia c. Wernicke’s aphasia b. conduction aphasia d. Broca’s aphasia ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.2

17. A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. Which part of this person’s brain is most likely damaged? a. the anterior language areas in the right hemisphere b. the posterior language areas in the right hemisphere c. the anterior language areas in the left hemisphere d. the posterior language areas in the left hemisphere ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.2

18. Recent studies have shown that the lesion associated with persistent severe Wernicke’s aphasia may have to include not only Wernicke’s area itself, but also a. Broca’s area. b. the analogous region of cortex in the right hemisphere. c. the white matter tracts below Wernicke’s area. d. the arcuate fasciculus.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.2

19. A person with conduction aphasia is most likely to have difficulty in a. comprehending spoken language. b. speaking fluently. c. repeating spoken language. d. understanding function words like “if” or “but.”

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.2

20. The term refers to the collective store of information about the semantics, syntax, orthography, and phonology of words. a. word form c. mental lexicon b. acquired dyslexia d. prosody ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Remembering 21.

is to the meaning of a word as a. Orthography; phonology

OBJ: 11.3

is to the spelling of a word. c. Prosody; semantics

b. Phonology; prosody

d. Semantics; orthography

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.3

22. When you are shown the written word “neuroscience” and you read it aloud, you are translating information into information about this word. a. syntactic; semantic c. orthographic; phonological b. semantic; orthographic d. phonological; syntactic ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.3

23. The concept of “words in the same neighborhood” is analogous to which of the following in the semantic domain? a. words that rhyme c. words related in meaning b. words that are spelled similarly d. None of the answer options is correct.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Evaluating

OBJ: 11.3

24. Which of the following statements regarding the organization of semantic networks is FALSE? a. The most frequently associated nodes have the largest distances between them in the network. b. Concepts that have strong associations to each other in meaning have strong connections. c. If one node is activated, the greatest amount of spreading activation will accrue in its closest neighbors. d. Spreading activation is greater between nodes that are accessed together frequently than between nodes that are accessed together infrequently.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Evaluating

OBJ: 11.3

25. The mental lexicon is thought to be organized as a semantic network in which word meanings are connected to each other, as in the two-dimensional diagram here. Based on what you know about how strength of association between word meanings is represented in semantic networks, determine which of the following statements regarding the network is true.

a. Jackal is a less-frequently accessed animal word than cat. b. The association between dog and jackal is weaker than the association between cat and jackal. c. Jackal is a less-frequently accessed animal word than dog.

d. The association between dog and cat is stronger than the association between animal and cat.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Applying

OBJ: 11.3

26. Which of the following is NOT a property of the Word Bank? a. It has many phonological neighbors. c. It has more than one pronunciation. b. It has many semantic neighbors. d. It has more than one meaning.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.3

27. Language errors in which a person substitutes words that are related in meaning for one another are called a. lemma confusions. c. semantic paraphasias. b. syntactic substitutions. d. orthographic intrusions.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.3

28. An aphasic person who makes semantic paraphasia errors in her speech might say “ she actually intends to say “ .” a. kit; cat c. cow; horse b. am; is d. spin; snip ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Applying

” when

OBJ: 11.3

29. The symptoms of all of the following neurological language syndromes suggest the disruption of an organized semantic network in which word meanings are stored, EXCEPT a. Wernicke’s aphasia. c. progressive semantic dementia. b. deep dyslexia. d. conduction aphasia.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Evaluating

OBJ: 11.3

30. Which of the following best describes the three main components of word or lexical processing in the correct order, according to most modular models of word recognition? a. lexical access ⟶ lexical integration ⟶ lexical selection b. lexical access ⟶ lexical selection ⟶ lexical integration c. lexical selection ⟶ lexical access ⟶ lexical integration d. lexical selection ⟶ lexical integration ⟶ lexical access ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.3

31. Which of the following is NOT true of infants’ speech recognition abilities? a. At birth infants can distinguish between any phoneme. b. The babbling of infants becomes more and more like the native language as they age.

c. At 9 months infants are unable to recognize foreign language phonemes. d. Early babbling has phonemes from all the languages in the world.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps

32. Segmenting the boundaries between words is a particularly difficult computational problem in a. reading. c. speech perception. b. writing. d. prosody.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.4 33.

DIF: Easy REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Remembering

specifically refers to the variations in the pitch of a speaker’s voice that convey emotion and emphasis in speech. a. Phonology c. Speech segmentation b. Prosody d. Orthography ANS: B OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Remembering

34. Which of the following best describes a case that depends primarily on prosodic aspects of language? a. The ability to recognize the characteristic rise that occurs at the end of a sentence in a speaker’s voice when she asks a question. b. The ability to discriminate between homophones like “blue” and “blew” when they are used in sentences. c. The ability to pronounce “head” correctly, even though it is an irregular word. d. The ability to retrieve the correct name associated with a familiar pictured face.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps

35. The observation that we can understand the speech of different speakers, regardless of variations in the pitches of the speakers’ voices, the speakers’ rates of speech, and the speakers’ dialects, indicates that a. the prosodic components of speech have little functional significance in speech comprehension. b. the recognition of spoken words depends on orthography rather than other aspects of language. c. speech comprehension involves semantic analysis of words rather than phonological analysis of words. d. speech recognition cannot rely on the direct matching of specific sounds to language representations in memory.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps

36. A major issue in the study of word recognition involves the extent to which relatively low-level sensory representations interact with relatively high-level information, such as the context in which a word appears. A modular model of word comprehension would be most likely to argue that a. there is a great degree of interaction between low-level and high-level representations. b. processing at each level is independent, and there is little or no interaction between them. c. certain levels may interact freely, whereas others cannot. d. the degree to which the levels of word processing interact with each other depends on the type of word being processed.

ANS: B

DIF:

Difficult

REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps

OBJ: 11.4

MSC: Analyzing

37. You receive a text message that reads “What time do you want to have lunch tomorrow night?” Which word would lead to an N400 for you? a. time c. tomorrow b. you d. night ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps

38. You receive a text message that reads “My steak eaten up by the broccoli.” Which word would lead to a P600 for you? a. steak c. the b. eaten d. broccoli ANS: B OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps

39. The P600, also known as the SPS, is an ERP component that is sensitive to the violation of expectations based mostly on a. the physical appearance of words. c. semantics. b. the pronunciation of words. d. syntax.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps MSC: Understanding

40. An early ERP component associated with morphosyntactic violations is the a. LAN. c. MMN. b. N400. d. P600.

ANS: A OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps MSC: Understanding

41. In Hagoort’s language model, the “memory” component is mediated by the “unification” component by the , and the “control” component by the a. inferior frontal cortex; temporal lobe; lateral frontal cortex b. inferior frontal cortex; lateral frontal cortex; temporal lobe c. temporal lobe; lateral frontal cortex; inferior frontal cortex d. temporal lobe; inferior frontal gyrus; lateral frontal cortex ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

, the .

DIF: Medium REF: 11.5 Neural Models of Language Comprehension MSC: Understanding

42. Considering the Memory and Unification components of Hagoort’s model of language comprehension, during a conversation with your professor, a. memory would be working to remember what your professor was saying. b. unification would be integrating information your professor was saying with information you previously knew about the subject. c. memory would be recalling the previous interactions you’d had with your professor. d. unification would be pulling together and integrating various components of the words coming out of your professor's mouth to process what she was saying.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 11.5 Neural Models of Language Comprehension

43. The brain regions involved with the unification process in Hagoort’s model suggest that a person with a major comprehension deficit due to significant damage in Brodmann area 45 (BA45) could be expected to exhibit which of the following? a. an abnormal N400 b. an abnormal P600 c. both an abnormal N400 and an abnormal P600 d. None of the answer options is correct.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 11.5 Neural Models of Language Comprehension

44. In studies with implanted electrodes, Sahin and colleagues (2009) found that Broca’s area processed which elements of language? a. lexical c. phonological b. grammatical d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Medium REF: 11.6 Neural Models of Speech Production MSC: Understanding

45. Under certain circumstances, when the conceptual representation of an item is activated, there is subsequent difficulty activating the corresponding word form in the mental lexicon, even though other information about the item can be accessed. This phenomenon is called a. minimal attachment. c. lemma interference. b. dysarthria. d. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Easy REF: 11.6 Neural Models of Speech Production MSC: Remembering

46. According to Levelt’s (1989) model of speech production, two main processing stages are involved in generating a meaningful utterance. In the stage, the speaker determines what he or she intends to express to the listener; in the stage, word choices and the grammatical role that each word will play are determined. a. microplanning; macroplanning c. microplanning; lemma b. macroplanning; lemma d. macroplanning; microplanning ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.6 Neural Models of Speech Production MSC: Remembering

47. According to Levelt, information-specific networks exist for word forms at the the grammatical properties of words at the level. a. N400; P600 c. semantic; parsing b. lexeme; lemma d. frontal; temporal ANS: B OBJ: 11.4

level and for

DIF: Easy REF: 11.6 Neural Models of Speech Production MSC: Understanding

48. Which of the following evolutionary anatomical developments from apes to humans seems to have most greatly facilitated humans’ capacity for sophisticated spoken language? a. increased size of left inferior frontal gyrus b. increased size of left lateral temporal areas c. increased connectivity within inferior frontal and lateral temporal areas d. increased connectivity between inferior frontal, lateral temporal, and inferior parietal areas ANS: D OBJ: 11.1

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language

49. Animal calls were thought to be purely emotional. Which of the following findings with monkey calls does NOT contradict this view? a. A call in presence of a snake led to monkeys looking down. b. A call in presence of a leopard led monkeys to flee into the trees. c. A call is seldom made when a monkey is alone. d. Calls can be strung together in predictable orders.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language

50. What is the main reason that there has been more success teaching nonhuman primates to use sign language than spoken language? a. Hand signals are easier than vocalizations. b. Vocalizations are better controlled in humans. c. Control of manual gestures is better in nonhuman primates. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language MSC: Understanding

51. Homo sapiens have made the leap from a. gestural; manual b. manual; gestural ANS: C OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

to sequences. c. manual; vocal d. vocal; manual REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language

52. Which of the following, if true, would be damaging to evidence cited to support the hypothesis that spoken language evolved from gestural language? a. Monkeys actually have a much more sophisticated spoken language than previously thought. b. Monkeys can be trained to use gestural language, but not spoken language. c. Monkey brains are organized ipsilaterally with regard to motor control. d. Monkey brains are incapable of processing sophisticated spoken language.

ANS: C OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language

TRUE/FALSE 1. A normal adult speaker has passive knowledge of about 50,000 words.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.3

2. Semantic priming effects are due to spreading activation in many models of lexical processing.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.3

3. Saying the word “horse” when intending to say the word “cow” is an example of a semantic paraphasia.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 11.3

4. Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that make a difference to meaning.

ANS: T OBJ: 11.3

DIF: Easy REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Remembering

5. The information that a listener derives from the speech rhythm and pitch of the speaker’s voice is referred to as morphological.

ANS: F OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Remembering

6. The three primary ways in which words are symbolized in different writing systems are alphabetic, syllabic, and logographic.

ANS: T OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Remembering

7. The Spanish language uses the logographic system for written words.

ANS: F OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps

8. Modular models of language comprehension argue for a high degree of interactivity between different specialized modules.

ANS: F OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps MSC: Understanding

9. The immediate assignment of syntactic structure of incoming words is known as parsing.

ANS: T OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Easy REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps MSC: Understanding

10. Listening to a sentence like “He spreads the warm bread with socks” will evoke a P600 brain potential.

ANS: F OBJ: 11.4

DIF: Medium REF: 11.4 Language Comprehension: Later Steps MSC: Understanding

SHORT ANSWER 1. What role does the right hemisphere play in language comprehension? Describe two experimental techniques that would allow you to dissociate the contribution of the right hemisphere from that of the left.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult

REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits

OBJ: 11.1

MSC: Applying

2. What is the difference between Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia? Where are Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area located in the brain?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.2

REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

3. What is conduction aphasia? What causes this syndrome? How does it differ from Broca’s and Wernicke’s aphasia?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.2

REF: 11.1 The Anatomy of Language and Language Deficits MSC: Understanding

4. What are the three stages of processing after a word is perceptually analyzed? Does this differ for visual and auditory processing? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.3

REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

5. What is a semantic paraphasia? What does this tell us about the way in which words are organized in the mental lexicon?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.3

REF: 11.2 The Fundamentals of Language in the Human Brain MSC: Understanding

6. What pathway does spoken word recognition take in the brain? Describe the role of the most important areas in this network.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.4

REF: 11.3 Language Comprehension: Early Steps MSC: Understanding

7. Describe Hagoort’s model of language, including its three functional components and the brain areas to which they relate.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium

REF: 11.5 Neural Models of Language Comprehension

OBJ: 11.1

MSC: Understanding

8. Describe Levelt’s model of language production. What evidence has been used to support this model?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 11.3

REF: 11.5 Neural Models of Language Comprehension MSC: Understanding

9. Generative theories of language evolution suggest a connection between speech and what other human communication form? Provide evidence to support this view.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult REF: 11.7 Evolution of Language MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 11.4

Chapter 12: Cognitive Control LEARNING OBJECTIVES 12.1 Define cognitive control.

12.2 Identify brain regions involved in cognitive control.

12.3 Describe deficits of cognitive control.

12.4 Characterize goal-oriented behavior.

12.5 Discuss the neural bases of decision making.

12.6 Discuss the neural bases of goal-oriented behaviors and why they succeed or fail.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Cognitive control is often associated with a. goal-oriented behavior. b. decision making.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.1

c. cognitive flexibility. d. All of the answer options are correct.

DIF: Medium REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Understanding

2. Cognitive control is NOT involved in which of the following? a. goal-oriented behavior c. cognitive flexibility b. decision making d. implicit memory ANS: D OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Medium REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Understanding

3. Which of the following processes would LEAST involve cognitive control? a. playing “Simon Says” with your niece and nephew b. jumping rope with your niece and nephew, after not having jumped rope for at least 10 years c. choosing what kind of pizzas to order based on input from a group of several people d. not letting yourself have another glass of wine, even though you want to have one ANS: B OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control

4. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is sometimes thought of as being associated with cognitive control deficits. Which piece of evidence best supports this? a. ADHD stimulant medications have a particularly high affinity for frontal lobe structures involved in cognitive control. b. ADHD stimulant medications work by increasing attentional selection, which facilitates cognitive control. c. Attention and cognitive control are more or less synonymous. d. The interplay between attention and cognitive control is much stronger in children with ADHD than in children who do not have ADHD. ANS: A OBJ: 12.1 | 12.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control

5. The statement “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” is discussed in multiple places in this chapter.

Which of the following, if true, would be inconsistent with that statement? a. Squirrel monkeys and dogs tend to exhibit poorer cognitive control than chimpanzees. b. The frontal lobes of dogs are fully developed within their first 2 years of life. c. The frontal lobes of chimpanzees become fully developed at a younger age than the frontal lobes of squirrel monkeys or dogs. d. Humans exhibit better cognitive control than chimpanzees, but our frontal lobes take longer to develop.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control

6. Three main subdivisions of the prefrontal cortex are the a. primary motor cortex, lateral prefrontal cortex, and frontal pole. b. lateral prefrontal cortex, frontal pole, and medial frontal cortex. c. frontal pole, medial frontal cortex, and anterior cingulate. d. medial frontal cortex, anterior cingulate, and primary motor cortex.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.2

DIF: Medium REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Understanding

7. The most caudal part of the frontal lobe contains the region. a. lateral prefrontal cortex c. anterior cingulate b. premotor d. primary motor ANS: D OBJ: 12.2

DIF: Easy REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Remembering

8. Which of the following statements best describes the anatomical connectivity of the prefrontal lobes to the rest of the brain? a. Most synapses in the prefrontal cortex originate from subcortical regions rather than from other cortical regions in the brain. b. Almost all connections in this area carry inputs from other regions of the cortex rather than from subcortical regions. c. Connections in this region tend to carry inputs from other parts of the prefrontal cortex rather than from other lobes of the brain. d. There are extensive projections to and from the prefrontal cortex to all other lobes of the brain.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.2

DIF: Easy REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Remembering

9. The ventromedial zone is also known as (the) a. primary motor cortex. b. Wernicke’s area.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.2

c. anterior cingulate cortex. d. orbitofrontal cortex.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Remembering

10. Focal injuries of the prefrontal cortex generally produce all of the following cognitive changes or symptoms EXCEPT a. deficits in planning complex behaviors. b. perseveration in responding. c. fluent aphasia. d. disruption of working memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

11. John is unable to carry on the most rudimentary conversations. Whenever someone changes the subject he persists on the same topic for several minutes. Eventually, people simply leave him alone, talking to himself. John has a. deficits in planning complex behaviors. b. perseveration in responding. c. fluent aphasia. d. disruption of working memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

12. A patient with a frontal lobe lesion kneels and prays when watching another person do the same thing in the middle of the cafeteria. This is an example of a. deficits in planning complex behaviors. b. perseveration in responding. c. utilization behavior. d. disruption of working memory.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

13. The information that you are currently thinking about, perceiving, or using to guide responding is held in this type of memory store. a. source memory c. working memory b. anterograde memory d. implicit memory ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

14. Which of the following best describes a real-life example of the delayed-response task? a. After reading and studying on Sunday afternoon, you take a cognitive neuroscience exam on Monday morning. b. After looking up the phone number of a local pizza place, you walk across the room to the telephone and begin dialing it. c. After staring intently at a bright streetlamp, you notice that there is an afterimage of the light even when you move your eyes to another location. d. Every time you visit the doctor to receive a shot, she gives you a cherry lollipop. After several visits you find that the taste of cherry lollipops makes you anxious.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior

15. You are driving around town. Which of the following stops will require the most working memory? a. stopping at a frequently visited supermarket b. stopping at home c. stopping at a friend’s home d. stopping at a business you have never visited before ANS: D OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

16. Working memory has been called the

REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior

of the mind.

a. blackboard b. bookshelves ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

c. filing cabinet d. staple gun DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

17. A monkey is taught that food is associated with a stimulus card that has a star on it. After training, the animal receives a lesion to the lateral prefrontal cortex. The monkey’s memory for the food–stimulus card association is then tested by presenting the animal with the two stimulus cards diagrammed here.

How will the monkey now respond? a. The monkey will remember the correct response and choose stimulus card 1 to earn a food reward. b. The memory trace left by the training period will be disrupted by the surgery, and the monkey will randomly select among the stimulus cards. c. The monkey will no longer be able to retrieve old memories, even if the representations are intact, and will randomly select among the stimulus cards. d. The monkey will no longer be able to recognize visual patterns and will randomly select among the stimulus cards.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

18. Lesions of the lateral prefrontal cortex disrupt memory but not a. long-term; working c. working; long-term b. long-term; short-term d. working; short-term ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

memory.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

19. A monkey that has previously received a lesion in the lateral prefrontal cortex is shown two food wells, each of which is covered by a marked stimulus card:

As the monkey watches, a food reward is placed into the left well and then both wells are covered. If the monkey is now allowed to retrieve the food reward immediately, it will a. correctly select the left food well. b. select from either of the food wells randomly. c. incorrectly select the right well. d. no longer respond to either of the food wells.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Medium REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Understanding

20. The human analog of the delayed-response task that is used as a test of cognitive development in human infants is the task. a. delayed-reward c. sensorimotor development b. object permanence d. conservation of quantity ANS: B OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

21. While the will be most active during the encoding of a face stimulus, the active during the delay period. a. prefrontal gyrus; fusiform gyrus c. anterior cingulate; hippocampus b. fusiform gyrus; prefrontal cortex d. hippocampus; anterior cingulate ANS: B OBJ: 12.4

will be

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

22. Which patient group is most likely to be impaired on a task in which one must decide which of two pictures was seen most recently? a. patients with frontal lobe injuries c. patients with parietal lobe injuries b. patients with temporal lobe injuries d. patients with occipital lobe injuries ANS: A OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

23. Which of the following is NOT a gradient along which the prefrontal cortex is organized? a. anterior-posterior c. left-right b. ventral-dorsal d. lateral-medial ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

24. A person who has difficulty with “recency memory” tasks would have the most difficulty with which of the following? a. remembering a list of items to purchase at the market b. setting a table with forks, knives, and spoons c. recognizing the difference between two similar ingredients d. entering the ingredients for a recipe in the correct order ANS: D OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior

25. Neuroimaging experiments have demonstrated that working memory engages the a. prefrontal cortex to a larger degree than any other cortical area. b. anterior cingulate to a larger degree than any other cortical area. c. prefrontal cortex and more posterior brain areas involved in perception and mental representation. d. anterior cingulate and more posterior brain areas involved in perception and mental representation.

ANS: C OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

26. You conduct a single-cell recording study of a lateral prefrontal cortical cell while an animal performs a delayed-response task. Which of the following response profiles best matches the behavior of the cell if it is primarily involved in working memory function? (Each vertical line represents an action potential.) a.

b.

c.

d.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.4 27.

DIF: Medium REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Understanding

theories describe what people ought to do, whereas theories describe what people actually do. a. Normative; descriptive c. Decision-making; goal-oriented b. Descriptive; normative d. Goal-oriented; decision-making ANS: A OBJ: 12.5

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Remembering

28. Action-outcome decisions involve a more decisions are more . a. habitual; automatic b. automatic; controlled ANS: C OBJ: 12.5

, whereas secondary reinforcers do not. c. some value d. survival value

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Remembering

30. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex involves involves more valuation. a. controlled; automatic b. automatic; controlled ANS: B OBJ: 12.5

c. controlled; automatic d. None of the answer options is correct.

DIF: Medium REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Understanding

29. Primary reinforcers involve a. acquired value b. no value ANS: D OBJ: 12.5

form of processing, whereas stimulus-response

valuation, whereas dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. long-term; short-term d. short-term; long-term

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Remembering

31. You encounter a bear, which triggers an emotional response. Which of the following areas would not show increased dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway?

a. amygdala b. hippocampus ANS: D OBJ: 12.5

c. anterior cingulate cortex d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.4 Decision Making

32. With which of the following is prediction error NOT correlated? a. the difference between what is expected and what is obtained b. changes in dopamine activity c. updating of valuation of information and learning d. the unconditioned stimulus ANS: D OBJ: 12.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 12.4 Decision Making

33. People with frontal lobe injuries and control participants were asked to figure out a way to clean a floor when there are no towels. Which of the following statements would be associated with frontal lobe patients and not controls? a. “The floor is dirty.” b. “Just take your blouse off and clean it with that.” c. “We can clean the floor with the soles of our shoes.” d. “We need a cloth or paper to clean the floor.”

ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task

34. One conceptualization of the prefrontal cortex, offered by Shimamura (2000), which could explain the seemingly disparate set of impairments associated with damage to this area, is that a. one underlying function of the prefrontal lobes is to select the information that is most task-relevant. b. separate regions within the prefrontal cortex are specialized for these different functions. c. the prefrontal cortex is not directly involved in memory but is a relay station for information processing that occurs in the temporal lobes. d. information in the prefrontal cortex is temporarily represented in other neural sites, including the basal ganglia, during working memory.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Difficult REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Understanding

35. Imagine that a frontal lobe patient meets a very good friend and his family doctor. Which of the two would this patient be able to engage more easily in a short conversation? a. the very good friend c. both would be equally easy b. the family doctor d. both would be equally difficult ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task

36. Thompson-Schill and colleagues (1997, 1998) conducted an experiment in which participants generated an appropriate verb in response to a presented noun. They found that the processing of nouns such as rope, which have many semantically associated verbs, elicited activity in the inferior frontal cortex than did nouns such as scissors, which do not. This result supports the hypothesis of inferior frontal lobe function. a. greater; working memory retrieval c. less; working memory retrieval b. greater; selection d. less; selection ANS: B

DIF:

Medium

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task

OBJ: 12.6

MSC: Understanding

37. An experiment that requires participants to respond based on one goal, such as naming digits, on some trials and another goal, such as naming letters, on other trials is an example of a(n) paradigm. a. error-monitoring c. Stroop b. task-switching d. contention-scheduling ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Understanding

38. In the task-switching experiment involving a digit task and a letter task, a digit or letter response was indicated by a word or by a color. Which of these conditions was particularly problematic when switching between digits and letters for frontal lobe patients? a. letters indicated by words c. digits indicated by words b. digits indicated by colors d. None of the answer options is correct.

ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Easy REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Remembering

39. Which of the following findings, if true, would best argue in favor of the parallel processing model of multi-tasking, as opposed to the task-switching model? a. Participants’ performance in the dual task condition improved dramatically over time with practice. b. Brain activity increased throughout frontal cortex in the dual task condition with practice. c. Frontal connectivity between brain areas involved in each task increased with time and practice. d. Participants’ improvements over time in the dual task condition were highly correlated with their improvements on each individual task.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task

40. The idea that the prefrontal cortex filters out and inhibits irrelevant information is supported by the ERP findings of Knight and Grabowecky (1995), who found that patients with prefrontal lesions produced in response to ignored tones during a listening task. a. smaller evoked potentials b. larger evoked potentials c. evoked potentials that were longer in duration d. evoked potentials that were briefer in duration ANS: B OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Medium REF: 12.6 Mechanisms of Goal-Based Selection MSC: Understanding

41. In a delayed response task, participants were asked to look at faces or scenes or engage in passive viewing. Which of the following results distinguished older adults from young adults when viewing faces relative to passive viewing? a. The older adults showed reduced activation in the fusiform face area. b. The older adults showed reduced activation in the parahippocampal place area. c. The young adults showed reduced activation in the fusiform face area. d. The young adults showed reduced activation in the parahippocampal place area.

ANS: D OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 12.6 Mechanisms of Goal-Based Selection

42. In a stop-signal task, participants are asked to a. choose between two responses but abort their response when signaled to do so. b. identify the color (red, yellow, or green) in which color words have been written. c. sort cards into piles but change the sorting rule when the stop signal appears. d. drive a virtual car through crowded London streets, obeying all traffic signals.

ANS: A OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Medium REF: 12.6 Mechanisms of Goal-Based Selection MSC: Understanding

43. At any given time, many different schema control units may be activated. However, we can rarely carry out more than one unit at a time and must select the most appropriate one to translate into action.

The units are mutually inhibitory, and only the most activated one wins the competition for expression.

This type of selection mechanism is called a. the supervisory attentional system. c. the somatic marker hypothesis. b. contention scheduling. d. utilization behavior.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.6

44. For situations in which no routine procedure can be used to generate an appropriate response, which type of mechanism is used to select the best schema control unit for translation into action? a. the somatic marker hypothesis c. the supervisory attentional system b. utilization behavior d. source encoding ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.6

45. Which of the following is NOT a situation that you would expect to engage the supervisory attentional system? a. one that engages a specific schema control unit b. one that requires planning or decision making c. one that requires error detection d. one that is difficult ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.6

46. Which of the following situations would be most likely to engage the anterior cingulate cortex? a. A waiter walks over to your table at a restaurant and holds an open menu in front of you. b. You walk into the elevator of your apartment building and press the button for your floor. c. You enter your classroom and find someone sitting in your usual seat. d. A good friend asks you to remind him of your telephone number.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Applying

OBJ: 12.6

47. In general, increased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex has been observed when participants perform tasks that have any of the following properties EXCEPT: a. The task requires planning and decision making. b. The task involves well-learned or automatic responses. c. The task is likely to require error correction.

d. The task requires a response that competes with another strong habitual response.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.6

48. The supervisory attentional system, which seems to be localized to the in the brain, becomes active during the Stroop task because this task requires . a. orbitofrontal cortex; a response (vocalizing a perceived color) that competes with a strong habitual response (reading) b. orbitofrontal cortex; a response (reading) that competes with a strong habitual response (vocalizing a perceived color) c. anterior cingulate cortex; a response (reading) that competes with a strong habitual response (vocalizing a perceived color) d. anterior cingulate cortex; a response (vocalizing a perceived color) that competes with a strong habitual response (reading) ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 12.6

49. Hypothetically, which of the following would represent a potential consequence of a population of children whose frontal lobes were far more developed than neurotypical children? a. They would be more impulsive. b. They would be more cognitively inflexible. c. They would be less goal-oriented in their behavior. d. They would have more difficulty multi-tasking.

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Applying

OBJ: 12.6

TRUE/FALSE 1. The lateral prefrontal cortex is important for working memory tasks.

ANS: T OBJ: 12.1

DIF: Easy REF: 12.1 The Anatomy Behind Cognitive Control MSC: Remembering

2. People with frontal lobe lesions are often impaired in organizing and segregating events in memory.

ANS: T OBJ: 12.3

DIF: Easy REF: MSC: Remembering

12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

3. Appropriate goal-oriented behavior is typically described as stimulus-driven.

ANS: F OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

4. Although the prefrontal cortex is not essential for working memory, it is particularly important for the storage of associative knowledge.

ANS: F OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Medium REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Understanding

5. Prefrontal areas are likely a temporary repository for representations accessed from other neural sites.

ANS: T OBJ: 12.4

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

6. Switching tasks requires maintenance but not manipulation of information in working memory.

ANS: F OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Medium REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Understanding

7. Dynamic filtering is one view of the prefrontal cortex, in which this area is a repository of representations and selects information most relevant to the current task.

ANS: T OBJ: 12.6

DIF: Medium REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Understanding

8. The error-related negativity (ERN) has been localized to the anterior cingulate cortex.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 12.6

9. The key function of the inferior temporal lobe is to evaluate response conflict.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 12.6

SHORT ANSWER 1. You have just been introduced to two people, one of whom suffers from a frontal lobe syndrome and the other from visual agnosia. However, you do not know which person is which. Describe some questions or tasks that you could use to determine which person has the frontal lobe syndrome and which one has visual agnosia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

OBJ: 12.3

2. Which aspects of memory are compromised following damage to the frontal lobe? Which aspects are relatively unimpaired?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.3

3. In what ways might we consider drug addiction to be an issue of cognitive control? In what ways might this characterization be problematic? What result would you expect to find if you extended cognitive control experiments to people who chronically use drugs?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 12.2 Cognitive Control Deficits

OBJ: 12.3

4. Provide an example of a delayed-response task. How has this task informed our understanding of the prefrontal cortex?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior

OBJ: 12.4

5. What anatomical gradients have been proposed to account for frontal-lobe function?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.3 Goal-Oriented Behavior MSC: Remembering

OBJ: 12.4

6. How do the ventromedial and dorsolateral prefrontal cortices differ in terms of valuation? Give an example.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.5

7. Describe the components of valuation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.5

8. Is there more than one decision system? Provide evidence to support your view.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy REF: 12.4 Decision Making MSC: Understanding

OBJ: 12.5

9. Imagine that a frontal lobe patient meets a very good friend and his family doctor. Describe how the patient’s conversation would differ between the two. Is this similar or different to the way in which a person without frontal lobe damage would communicate with them?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 12.6

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Applying

10. You need to develop a plan for cleaning your room. Describe how a frontal lobe patient would struggle with this task.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 12.6

REF: 12.5 Goal Planning: Staying on Task MSC: Applying

11. Describe the supervisory attentional system. What brain area is thought to be involved? Describe neuroimaging studies that support your view.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 12.6

REF: 12.7 Ensuring That Goal-Oriented Behaviors Succeed MSC: Understanding

Chapter 13: Social Cognition LEARNING OBJECTIVES 13.1 Identify brain regions involved in social cognition.

13.2 Describe deficits of social cognition.

13.3 Characterize the nature of self-knowledge.

13.4 Discuss how people represent other people’s mental states.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which brain region is the most susceptible to coup-contrecoup injury? a. the occipital cortex c. the temporal cortex b. the parietal cortex d. the orbitofrontal cortex ANS: D OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

2. A traumatic brain injury in which impact causes the brain to bounce against the back of the skull and then rebound is known as a injury. a. coup de foudre c. coup-contrecoup b. coup de main d. coup d’oeil ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

3. The most salient symptom in people who have suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is a. inappropriate social behavior. c. intellectual disability b. aphasia. d. agnosia.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

4. What were the circumstances under which Phineas Gage sustained his brain injury? a. a 20-foot fall during construction of the Eiffel Tower that resulted in coup-contrecoup injury b. a gunshot wound during the Battle of Gettysburg that penetrated his skull c. an explosion while laying a Vermont railway that sent a tamping iron through his head d. a shipwreck off the coast of Australia that deprived his brain of oxygen for 10 minutes ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

5. Which of the following resulted in the significant personality changes observed in Phineas Gage? a. Parkinson’s disease c. orbitofrontal damage b. temporal lobe epilepsy d. limbic damage ANS: C OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

6. Phineas Gage, who suffered injury to the orbitofrontal cortex, experienced changes in all of the following areas as a result of his injury EXCEPT

a. b. c. d.

inhibition of inappropriate social behavior. performance on cognitive tests. planning of complex behaviors. personality and temperament.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Medium REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Understanding

7. Which of the following areas is LEAST involved in social cognition? a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. anterior cingulate gyrus b. inferior frontal gyrus d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex ANS: B OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Difficult MSC: Analyzing

REF: 13.1 Anatomical Substrates of Social Cognition

8. Which term describes the deficits associated with autism spectrum disorder? a. change blindness c. blindsight b. faceblindness d. mindblindness ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 13.3 Social Behavioral Deficits in Acquired and Neurodevelopmental Disorders OBJ: 13.2 MSC: Remembering 9. Baron Cohen has proposed that people with the term mindblindness. a. aphasia b. agnosia

have impaired theory-of-mind abilities, coining c. agraphia d. autism spectrum disorder

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 13.3 Social Behavioral Deficits in Acquired and Neurodevelopmental Disorders OBJ: 13.2 MSC: Remembering 10. Which of the following hypothetical programs would be MOST helpful toward alleviating the social deficits typically observed in antisocial personality disorder (APD), autism spectrum disorder (ASD), or schizophrenia? a. A program that is able to teach people with ASD how to interpret intentions of others. b. A program that is able to teach people with APD social rules and expectations. c. A program that is able to teach people with schizophrenia to be less paranoid of others. d. A program that is able to teach people with schizophrenia to follow the gaze of others.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 13.3 Social Behavioral Deficits in Acquired and Neurodevelopmental Disorders OBJ: 13.2 MSC: Applying 11. The self-referent effect refers to the phenomenon that a. social judgments about oneself tend to be biased. b. social judgments about oneself tend to be highly accurate. c. information processed in relation to the self is distorted in memory. d. information processed in relation to the self is enhanced in memory.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself

12. In what way might the self-referent effect and the depth-of-processing effect be related? a. Information processed in relation to the self may benefit from the wealth of information about the self in memory.

b. Information processed in relation to the self may be skewed by our biased representations of our own personalities and traits. c. The self is a special cognitive structure with unique mnemonic or organizational elements. d. The self has elements that promote processing in a way that is distinct from other cognitive systems.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

13. In an experiment by William Kelley and colleagues (2002), participants judged personality adjectives in relation to either themselves or the U.S. president. The results suggested that memory for words processed in relation to the self was than that for words processed in relation to the U.S. president, and that the former condition resulted in greater neural activity in the cortex. a. better; dorsolateral prefrontal c. better; medial prefrontal b. worse; dorsolateral prefrontal d. worse; medial prefrontal ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

14. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and event-related potentials (ERP) studies suggest that the medial prefrontal cortex may be involved in tasks requiring a. hierarchical processing. c. implicit memory. b. self-referential processing. d. perceptual memory.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

15. When deciding whether an adjective describes , we rely on . a. others; memories of specific behaviors b. ourselves; memories of specific behaviors c. others; more global perceptions d. ourselves AND others; memories of specific behaviors AND more global perceptions ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself

16. Stanley Klein and colleagues (2002) found that after rating a personality adjective for selfdescriptiveness, participants were to recall a time in which they exhibited the characteristic, suggesting that self-characteristics linked to recall of specific past behaviors. a. faster; are c. equally fast; are b. slower; are not d. equally fast; are not ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

17. People with retrograde and anterograde amnesia are to maintain a sense of self because our judgments about self-characteristics are recall of specific past behaviors. a. able; dependent on c. not able; dependent on b. able; not linked to d. not able; not linked to ANS: B OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

18. Studies using fMRI have found that neural activity in the medial prefrontal cortex when people make self-referential judgments compared to other judgments, suggesting that when we are “at rest” we are engaging in a number of self-referential processes.

a. increases more b. increases less ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

c. decreases more d. decreases less DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

19. One concern with interpreting fMRI studies employing a “resting state” for comparison with cognitive activities of interest is that a. the brain uses considerably more blood and oxygen when it is “at rest.” b. many processes are engaged “at rest,” including self-referential processes. c. participants in experiments are particularly prone to movement artifacts when “at rest.” d. there is too little blood flow in the brain “at rest” for accurate measurements.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

20. Which brain area seems to be the most important for selectively attending to positive self-relevant information, as opposed to negative self-relevant information? a. the anterior cingulate cortex c. the orbitofrontal cortex b. the medial prefrontal cortex d. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

21. People with damage to the orbitofrontal cortex tend to be of their social mistakes in the moment, become embarrassed by them if they view a video of themselves after the fact. a. aware; and they also c. unaware; but they do b. aware; but they do not d. unaware; and they do not ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

22. Most children who are asked to sort a set of facial pictures will likely sort on the basis of whereas autistic children will likely sort on the basis of . a. emotional expression; physical features b. physical features; emotional expression c. eye gaze; emotional expression d. emotional expression; eye gaze ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

23. Which of the following is true of the prefrontal cortex, schizophrenia, and depression? a. Both schizophrenia and depression are associated with hypermetabolism in the prefrontal cortex. b. Both schizophrenia and depression are associated with hypometabolism in the prefrontal cortex. c. While schizophrenia is associated with hypermetabolism in the prefrontal cortex, depression is associated with hypometabolism in the prefrontal cortex. d. While schizophrenia is associated with hypometabolism in the prefrontal cortex, depression is associated with hypermetabolism in the prefrontal cortex.

ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

,

24. A patient recently had a tumor near his temporoparietal junction (TPJ) removed. Since then, he has been experiencing occasional out-of-body experiences. Which of the following surgical ramifications might explain this? a. removal of a brain region that inhibits TPJ activity b. disruption of activity in TPJ c. removal of a brain region that stimulates TPJ d. disruption of white matter tracts emanating from TPJ ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself

25. Anomalies in bodily experience, such as xenomelia and alien limb syndrome, are generally thought to be due to , but are actually due to . a. issues with peripheral nerves stemming from the affected limb; psychological issues b. psychological issues; issues with peripheral nerves stemming from the affected limb c. psychological issues; issues with processing in a particular area of the brain related to sensorimotor integration d. issues with processing in a particular area of the brain related to sensorimotor integration; psychological issues ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

26. The Sally-Anne task is used to test whether someone a. understands that people can have different mental states. b. possesses unconscious biases against women. c. follows social conventions for appropriate behavior. d. can form new declarative memories accurately.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Easy REF: 13.5 Understanding the Mental States of Others MSC: Remembering

27. To engage in joint attention, a child will pay attention to a. the direction of your eye gaze. c. your hand gestures. b. the content of your speech. d. your body language.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Medium REF: 13.5 Understanding the Mental States of Others MSC: Understanding

28. The term theory of mind refers to a. the philosophical position that the mind is not reducible to the brain. b. our ability to make inferences about the mental states of other people. c. the argument that only humans experience self-awareness. d. the notion that human cognition is deeply rooted in mental representation.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Medium REF: 13.5 Understanding the Mental States of Others MSC: Understanding

29. Studies of the perception of the self and others have suggested that a. similar regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions about the self and about others. b. similar regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions about the self and about others, if they are close. c. similar regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions about others, regardless of whether they are close.

d. three distinct regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions about the self, close others, and acquaintances.

ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 13.6 Neural Correlates of Experience Sharing Theory (Simulation Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 30. If neuroimaging studies showed that entirely different brain regions were activated when a person experienced pain from those that are activated when a person viewed or imagined someone else experiencing pain, this would a. be inconsistent with mirror neuron involvement in empathic processes. b. indicate that this person does not experience empathy. c. indicate that this person felt different quantities of pain for self versus others. d. provide evidence for embodied simulation.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 13.6 Neural Correlates of Experience Sharing Theory (Simulation Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Applying 31. Which of the following statements best characterizes our ability to modulate our empathic responses? a. Our empathic responses are generally static and not variable from one situation to another. b. Our empathic responses are mostly static, but can be modulated in very specific situations, such as when a person’s job requires them to inflict pain upon others. c. Our empathic responses are mostly static, but can be modulated in situations where we have very strong feelings or connections to others. d. Our empathic responses are not particularly static, and can be modulated even by relatively trivial connections to others.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 13.6 Neural Correlates of Experience Sharing Theory (Simulation Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Understanding 32. When reading a series of statements such as “At the party, he was the first to start dancing on the table,” the is more active when making a personality inference as opposed to remembering the order of the statements. a. anterior insula cortex c. anterior cingulate cortex b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. medial prefrontal cortex ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 33. Tasks involving thinking about mental states often engage which region of the brain, in comparison to thinking about social background or life events? a. the left inferior frontal lobe c. the right temporoparietal junction b. the left precentral gyrus d. the right anterior cingulate ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 34. What do mentalizing tasks have in common with attentional cuing tasks? a. Both tasks have strong social cognition components. b. Both tasks strongly engage the right anterior cingulate. c. Both tasks require that participants direct their attention away from invalid information.

d. Both tasks strongly engage the right anterior cingulate, and both tasks require that participants direct their attention away from invalid information.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Understanding 35. Single-cell recording studies in monkeys and human neuroimaging studies support the idea that the is important for interpreting eye gaze in relation to mental states. a. temporoparietal junction c. orbitofrontal cortex b. superior temporal sulcus d. medial frontal cortex ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 36. Autistic children are likely to report that when performing the Sally–Anne task. a. Sally will look in the location in which Anne has put the marble b. Sally will look in the location where she originally put the marble c. Sally will move the marble back to its original location d. Sally will prefer to focus on her own thoughts and not look for the marble ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 13.8 Autism Spectrum Disorder and the Mental States of Others OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Evaluating 37. What did Ami Klin find when autistic people watched the film Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf? a. They failed to understand the sarcasm in the dialogue. b. They began to refer to an imaginary child like the characters in the movie. c. They did not pay attention to the faces and eyes of the characters. d. They mimicked the lines spoken by Martha but not George.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 13.8 Autism Spectrum Disorder and the Mental States of Others OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Understanding 38. Studies of the neural bases of autism have found that people with autism a. have less activation in the medial prefrontal cortex and superior temporal sulcus when performing theory of mind tasks. b. have smaller amygdalae in comparison to nonautistic people. c. do not significantly deactivate the medial prefrontal cortex when performing non-selfreferential tasks. d. All of the answer options are true.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 13.8 Autism Spectrum Disorder and the Mental States of Others OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Analyzing 39. Studies of people with autism have suggested that they do not significantly deactivate the when performing non-self-referential tasks. This is consistent with the observation that many people with autism have an unusual focus on rather than . a. medial prefrontal cortex; the external world; internal states b. medial prefrontal cortex; internal states; the external world c. temporoparietal junction; their own mental states; the mental states of others d. temporoparietal junction; the mental states of others; their own mental states

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 13.8 Autism Spectrum Disorder and the Mental States of Others OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Analyzing 40. In a social faux pas experiment, participants are presented with a scenario in which one character accidentally says something impolite to another character. When people with orbitofrontal damage perform this task a. they fail to understand that anything impolite has been said. b. they understand that something impolite has been said but that it wasn’t intended. c. they believe that the impolite comment was intentional. d. they begin to imitate the impolite comments, not realizing this is inappropriate.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

41. In a teasing experiment, people with orbitofrontal injuries and control participants were asked to make up nicknames for an experimenter whom they did not know well. What were the results? a. The control participants chose flattering nicknames, whereas the people with orbitofrontal injuries chose unflattering ones. b. The people with orbitofrontal injuries chose flattering nicknames, whereas the control participants chose unflattering ones. c. The control participants refused to perform the task, finding the idea socially inappropriate. d. The people with orbitofrontal injuries refused to perform the task, finding the idea socially inappropriate.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge MSC: Understanding

42. The experimental economics task known as the "Ultimatum Game" provides evidence that humans a. make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses. b. make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses, unless they have suffered damage to the amygdala. c. do not always make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses. d. do not always make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses, unless they have suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex.

ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Difficult MSC: Evaluating

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

43. In the experimental economics task known as the “Ultimatum Game,” one participant must choose how to split a sum of money with another player. The second player can choose to accept the offer—or to reject it, meaning neither player receives anything. Consideration of unfair offers is associated with activity in the , an area that has been associated with disgust. a. superior temporal sulcus c. cingulate cortex b. orbitofrontal cortex d. insula ANS: D OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge MSC: Remembering

44. The trolley problem and footbridge problem are ethical thought experiments involving life-or-death situations. Which of the following is true? a. Both situations involve sacrificing one life to save multiple other lives. b. The death in the trolley problem has greater perceived personal involvement. c. Most people agree that it is unacceptable to act in either dilemma.

d. Thinking about the trolley problem results in greater emotional processing.

ANS: A OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

45. Functional MRI studies of ethical dilemmas suggest that decisions recruit working memory processes, whereas decisions recruit emotional and social cognitive processes. a. personal; impersonal c. moral; ethical b. impersonal; personal d. ethical; moral ANS: B OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

46. Raine (2002) has argued that violent behavior. a. genetic b. environmental ANS: C OBJ: 13.3

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

factors play a role in determining whether someone exhibits c. both genetic and environmental d. neither genetic nor environmental

DIF: Easy REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge MSC: Remembering

47. If a stroke patient was better at answering abstract conditional logic questions that evaluate rule violations than at answering equivalent logic questions that evaluate rule violations involving people, this would indicate that the person’s stroke most likely had a. nonspecifically compromised the patient's problem-solving abilities. b. specifically affected the patient's brain system attuned to social contract violations. c. not affected any brain systems involved with solving either of these types of problems. d. compromised the patient's Theory of Mind capabilities.

ANS: B OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

TRUE/FALSE 1. Phineas Gage was a famous neurological patient who suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex.

ANS: T OBJ: 13.1

DIF: Easy REF: 13.A Social Cognition MSC: Remembering

2. Information processed in relation to the self is better remembered than that which is processed in relation to others.

ANS: T OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

3. Research suggests that self-description judgments rely on recall of specific autobiographical episodes.

ANS: F OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

4. Neuroimaging studies suggest that the medial prefrontal cortex activates more relative to a baseline when people make self-referential judgments than when they make other kinds of judgments.

ANS: T

DIF:

Easy

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself

OBJ: 13.3

MSC: Remembering

5. The anterior cingulate cortex is important for distinguishing positive self-relevant information from negative self-relevant information.

ANS: T OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Remembering

6. Simulation theory suggests that theory of mind is based on an ability to put ourselves in the shoes of another person, using our own minds to simulate what might be going on in the mind of someone else.

ANS: T OBJ: 13.4

DIF: Easy REF: 13.5 Understanding the Mental States of Others MSC: Remembering

7. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex plays a strong role in forming impressions about the internal states of other people.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 8. False-belief tasks require participants to direct their attention away from invalid information to answer questions about another person’s mental states.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 9. Research suggests that the brain regions that are active during mentalizing tasks and during attentional cuing are functionally distinct from one another.

ANS: F DIF: Easy REF: 13.7 Neural Correlates of Mental State Attribution Theory (Theory Theory) OBJ: 13.4 MSC: Remembering 10. Neuroeconomics is the field of philosophy that discusses the rights and wrongs of the treatment or enhancement of the human brain.

ANS: F OBJ: 13.3

DIF: Easy REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER 1. What evidence supports the notion that autistic people are “mindblind?” What are some alternative hypotheses?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium REF: 13.3 Social Behavioral Deficits in Acquired and Neurodevelopmental Disorders OBJ: 13.2 MSC: Evaluating

2. Describe the role of the medial prefrontal cortex in the perception of the self and of others. How might the two be related?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 13.3

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

3. What is the self-referent effect? Describe a neuropsychological study—real or hypothetical—that would support or disprove the self-referent effect.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Easy OBJ: 13.3

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

4. Do patients with retrograde and anterograde amnesia have difficulty with their self-representation?

Please explain why this is.

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 13.3

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Understanding

5. People with orbitofrontal damage show difficulty with which types of tasks? Describe their symptoms.

How are they different from children with autism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 13.3

REF: 13.4 Socrates’s Imperative: Know Thyself MSC: Analyzing

6. The Sally–Anne task is used to test whether someone can understand how others’ thoughts differ from our own. Describe two populations that have difficulty with this task. What is similar or different about these populations?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult OBJ: 13.4

REF: 13.5 Understanding the Mental States of Others MSC: Applying

7. Joint attention is an important aspect of social interaction. How do children with autism differ in joint attention from children who do not have autism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium OBJ: 13.4

REF: 13.8 Autism Spectrum Disorder and the Mental States of Others MSC: Understanding

8. Experimental economics research has often assumed that humans behave as rational agents, always making choices that will maximize gains and minimize losses. What is problematic about this assumption from a psychological or neuroscientific perspective?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

OBJ: 13.3

9. The trolley problem described in your text has many variations. One of them goes as follows: “You are a surgeon and have five patients who each need a different organ transplant. No acceptable donor for any of them can be found, until one day a healthy traveler comes to your office and is the perfect donor for all five patients. Are there any circumstances under which it would be morally acceptable to kill this person to save the lives of five others?” Based on the study of Greene and colleagues, which areas of your brain did you likely use when thinking about this ethical dilemma?

ANS: Answers will vary.

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 13.9 Social Knowledge

OBJ: 13.3

Chapter 14: The Consciousness Problem LEARNING OBJECTIVES 14.1 Describe the brain structures that underlie aspects of consciousness.

14.2 Define and distinguish between consciousness, blindsight, subliminal processing, preconscious processing, and conscious processing.

14.3 Understand the “scaffolding to storage” framework.

14.4 Describe the human interpretive system and the role of beliefs.

14.5 Compare and contrast the theory of mind capabilities of nonhuman primates and humans.

14.6 Understand how chaos theory, quantum mechanics, emergence, and multiple realizability impact questions surrounding determinism and free will.

14.7 Understand how neural architecture and activity supports consciousness and behavior.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which psychologist would be most likely to agree with the statement, “I attend, therefore I am conscious.” a. Steven Pinker b. Stuart Sutherland c. Christof Koch d. Stanislas Dehaene ANS: D OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Medium REF: 14.1 The Mind-Brain Problem MSC: Understanding

2. Which of the following is NOT a form of unconscious processing? a. autonomic responses c. language processing b. motor control d. short-term memory ANS: D OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Medium REF: 14.1 The Mind-Brain Problem MSC: Understanding

3. How would theorists who follow Pinker’s perspective label your subjective experience of viewing the colors of your textbook? a. qualia c. self-knowledge b. sentience d. access to information ANS: B OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

REF: 14.1 The Mind-Brain Problem

4. Which aspect of conscious experience is NOT well understood from a cognitive neuroscience perspective? a. representing contents of conscious experience b. accessing the contents of conscious experience c. the subjective conscious experience itself d. All of the answer options are well understood.

ANS: C

DIF:

Medium

REF: 14.1 The Mind-Brain Problem

OBJ: 14.7

MSC: Understanding

5. Which of the following of Damasio’s categories is most associated with the brainstem? a. core consciousness c. extended consciousness b. core awareness d. extended awareness ANS: A OBJ: 14.1

DIF: Medium REF: 14.2 The Anatomy of Consciousness MSC: Understanding

6. Which structure is responsible for extended consciousness? a. thalamus c. cerebral cortex b. brainstem d. cerebellum ANS: C OBJ: 14.1

DIF: Easy REF: 14.2 The Anatomy of Consciousness MSC: Remembering

7. Core consciousness is turned off by lesioning which intralaminar nuclei (ILN) of the thalamus? a. left c. both left and right b. right d. neither left nor right ANS: C OBJ: 14.1 8.

DIF: Easy REF: 14.2 The Anatomy of Consciousness MSC: Remembering

Which of the following would NOT result from damage to the pons? a. blindsight c. vegetative state b. locked-in syndrome d. death ANS: A OBJ: 14.1

DIF: Difficult REF: 14.2 The Anatomy of Consciousness MSC: Understanding

9. Patients in a vegetative state are evidence for which of the following statements? a. Wakefulness depends on consciousness. b. Wakefulness does not depend on consciousness. c. Consciousness depends on wakefulness. d. Consciousness is the same as wakefulness.

ANS: B OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Difficult REF: 14.3 Levels of Arousal and Consciousness MSC: Understanding

10. Which of the following pieces of neuroimaging evidence would best support the conclusion that a patient was experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS), as opposed to a vegetative state (UWS)? a. The patient’s fusiform face area was activated when the patient was shown a face, but not when he was shown a house. b. There was activation in the patient’s visual cortex when he was shown a picture of the Eiffel Tower, but not when he was asked to imagine the Eiffel Tower. c. The patient’s auditory cortex was activated in response to music suddenly playing. d. There was activation in the patient’s visual cortex when he was asked to imagine the Eiffel Tower, but not when he was asked to imagine music playing.

ANS: D OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.3 Levels of Arousal and Consciousness

11. Which of the following comparisons between someone experiencing somnambulism (sleepwalking) and someone experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS) is true? a. Both are similar in terms of their automatic behaviors and conscious awareness. b. Both are opposite in terms of their automatic behaviors and conscious awareness.

c. Both are similar in terms of their automatic behaviors and opposite in terms of their conscious awareness. d. Both are opposite in terms of their automatic behaviors and similar in terms of their conscious awareness.

ANS: B OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Medium MSC: Analyzing

REF: 14.3 Levels of Arousal and Consciousness

12. Which of the following properties is NOT true of layered architecture systems? a. Each layer has its own specific protocol for processing information. b. Each layer processes information received from the previous layer. c. Each layer must be privy to the protocol of the previous layer. d. Each layer can be a single module or group of modules.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 14.4 The Organizational Architecture of Complex Systems OBJ: 14.7 MSC: Understanding 13. Which of the following findings would violate the principle of multiple realizability? a. A creature that had only one architectural layer of information processing. b. A creature that contained the same number of neurons as observable behaviors. c. A creature that had only one combination of neuronal activity for each behavior. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 14.4 The Organizational Architecture of Complex Systems OBJ: 14.7 MSC: Understanding 14. For people with blindsight, “blind” can be considered , with “sight” reflecting a. perception; sensation c. visual field; neglect b. sensation; perception d. neglect; visual field ANS: A OBJ: 14.2

.

DIF: Medium REF: 14.5 Access to Information MSC: Understanding

15. Employing subliminal perception by quickly flashing an angry face before an image of someone could the participant's attitude about the person. a. improve b. not change c. worsen d. remove ANS: C OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Easy REF: 14.5 Access to Information MSC: Understanding

16. Which of the following is NOT thought to be an evolutionary pressure that gave rise to accessconsciousness? a. cost of space c. cost of resources b. cost of time d. cost of prey ANS: D OBJ: 14.2

DIF: Medium REF: 14.5 Access to Information MSC: Understanding

17. The scaffolding to storage framework was proposed to account for the movement from . a. conscious; unconscious c. conscious; awareness

to

b. unconscious; conscious ANS: A OBJ: 14.3

d. awareness; conscious

DIF: Easy REF: 14.5 Access to Information MSC: Remembering

18. Which system processes novel task demands under the scaffolding to storage framework? a. scaffolding c. both scaffolding and storage b. storage d. neither scaffolding nor storage ANS: A OBJ: 14.3

DIF: Easy REF: 14.5 Access to Information MSC: Remembering

19. Compared to a novice, a chess grandmaster is more likely to be using their chess. a. left cortical hemisphere c. left cerebellum b. right cortical hemisphere d. right cerebellum ANS: B OBJ: 14.3

DIF: Medium MSC: Applying

when playing

REF: 14.5 Access to Information

20. Without the brain’s “interpreter” system, a. it would be impossible for us to act on incoming stimuli. b. we would not have our own personal set of beliefs about the world. c. most of our conscious processing would be subcortical. d. we would not have any conscious awareness.

ANS: B OBJ: 14.4

DIF: Difficult REF: 14.6 The Contents of Conscious Experience MSC: Understanding

21. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the interpreter system? a. It is cortically based. c. It creates a running narrative. b. It works largely outside of awareness. d. It processes emotion.

ANS: D OBJ: 14.4

DIF: Medium REF: 14.6 The Contents of Conscious Experience MSC: Understanding

22. A neural event occurs at 1:00 p.m. Libet’s backward referral hypothesis suggests that awareness is assigned to what time? a. 500 milliseconds before 1:00 p.m. c. 500 milliseconds after 1:00 p.m. b. Exactly 1:00 p.m. d. 10 seconds before 1:00 p.m.

ANS: B OBJ: 14.4

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.7 Can Mental States Affect Brain Processing?

23. Which statement below is both true and suggestive that chimpanzees and bonobos might have a conscious state? a. They share a common ancestor with humans. b. Their brains are split into hemispheres. c. They can develop Capgras syndrome. d. The scaffolding to storage framework proposes these species have a conscious state.

ANS: A OBJ: 14.5

DIF: Medium REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Understanding

24. What is the earliest age at which humans can typically succeed at mirror self-recognition (MSR)? a. from birth c. 5 years

b. 2 years ANS: B OBJ: 14.5

d. 10 years DIF: Easy REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Remembering

25. A research participant fails the MSR test. Which of the following questions should be asked before concluding that this person lacks self-awareness? a. Have you ever been imitated? b. Do you understand the concept of self-awareness? c. Are you under the age of sixteen? d. Do you have prosopagnosia?

ANS: D OBJ: 14.5

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness

26. Which of the following abilities do chimpanzees NOT possess? a. gaze-following c. deceiving others b. sharing intentionality d. learning from others ANS: B OBJ: 14.5

DIF: Easy REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Remembering

27. The work of biologist Andrew Barron and neuroscience philosopher Colin Klein suggests that subjective experience may be present in animals as evolutionarily primitive as a. nonhuman primates. b. non-primate mammals. c. non-mammal vertebrates. d. invertebrates.

ANS: D OBJ: 14.6

DIF: Medium REF: 14.9 Sentience MSC: Understanding

28. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would suggest that the cortex is required for sentience in humans? a. Human levels of sentience increase as the cortex develops. b. People with Alzheimer’s disease lose degrees of sentience as their neurodegeneration progresses. c. The extent and characteristics of sentience in people with hydranencephaly can be predicted by cortex mapping. d. People can suffer damage to subcortical areas without a noticeable impact on sentience.

ANS: C OBJ: 14.7

DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.9 Sentience

29. You meet a Capgras syndrome patient who insists their spouse is an imposter. Why do they think this? a. They recognize their spouse but feel no emotion toward them. b. They feel emotion toward their spouse but do not recognize them. c. Their face identification module is providing false information. d. Their face identification module is not providing any information.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience OBJ: 14.4 MSC: Applying 30. Which of the following hypothetical experimental results would support the idea that the two hemispheres have different conscious experiences?

a. A split-brain patient’s right hemisphere accesses close lexical associates of “match” and “paper.” b. A split-brain patient’s left hemisphere can access close lexical associates of “match” and “paper.” c. A split-brain patient’s right hemisphere cannot infer that “match” and “paper” can lead to fire. d. A split-brain patient’s left hemisphere cannot infer that “match” and “paper” can lead to fire.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience OBJ: 14.4 MSC: Understanding 31. Imagine you develop a technique to introduce language processing into a split-brain patient’s right hemisphere. How would this likely change the right hemisphere’s ability to make inferences? a. Its inference abilities would improve. c. Its inference abilities would disappear. b. Its inference abilities would worsen. d. Its inferences abilities would not change.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience OBJ: 14.4 MSC: Applying TRUE/FALSE 1. Regarding layered architecture, “abstraction” refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each layer is hidden from the following layer.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 14.4 The Organizational Architecture of Complex Systems OBJ: 14.7 MSC: Remembering 2. Multiple realizability refers to the principle that multiple combinations of neuronal activity patterns can result in the same observable behavior.

ANS: T DIF: Medium REF: 14.4 The Organizational Architecture of Complex Systems OBJ: 14.7 MSC: Understanding 3. Regarding layered architecture, abstraction refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each layer is hidden from the following layer.

ANS: T DIF: Easy REF: 14.4 The Organizational Architecture of Complex Systems OBJ: 14.7 MSC: Remembering 4. The content of conscious experience for people with Alzheimer’s disease typically changes as the neurodegenerative process progresses through various brain regions.

ANS: T OBJ: 14.7

DIF: Medium REF: 14.6 The Contents of Conscious Experience MSC: Understanding

5. Neuroimaging studies of conversation indicate that a person’s brain activity is unchanged by interaction with another person.

ANS: F OBJ: 14.4

DIF: Easy REF: 14.7 Can Mental States Affect Brain Processing?

MSC: Remembering

6. Evidence suggests that chimpanzees are unable to understand false beliefs.

ANS: F OBJ: 14.5

DIF: Medium REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Understanding

7. A determinist would believe that free will does not exist and that the experience of free will is an illusion.

ANS: T OBJ: 14.6

DIF: Medium REF: 14.9 Sentience MSC: Understanding

8. The principle of complementarity suggests that we can understand our phenomenal experience if we understand the firing of neurons.

ANS: F OBJ: 14.7

DIF: Difficult REF: 14.9 Sentience MSC: Understanding

9. Typically, split-brain patients are initially very distressed when unable to verbally communicate what they are seeing in their left visual field.

ANS: F DIF: Medium REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience OBJ: 14.4 MSC: Remembering SHORT ANSWER 1. Compare and contrast the roles of the brain regions responsible for the conscious mind.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 14.1

REF: 14.2 The Anatomy of Consciousness MSC: Analyzing

2. Compare and contrast unresponsive wakefulness syndrome (UWS), minimally conscious state (MCS), and locked-in syndrome (LIS).

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 14.2

REF: 14.3 Levels of Arousal and Consciousness MSC: Analyzing

3. Describe neuroimaging findings suggesting that visual sensation in blindsight might be due to intact cortical tissue that was spared damage. What does this tell us about the neural basis for awareness?

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Difficult

REF: 14.5 Access to Information

OBJ: 14.2

MSC: Analyzing 4. How can mental states go on to affect brain processing? Include at least one experimental result in your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 14.6

REF: 14.7 Can Mental States Affect Brain Processing?

MSC: Analyzing

5. Argue in favor of, or against, the mirror self-recognition (MSR) test as being a valid assessment of self-awareness. Include the typical results recorded with human children and nonhuman primates.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Difficult OBJ: 14.5

REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Evaluating

6. Discuss, in the context of consciousness, Darwin’s statement, “The difference in mind between man and the higher animals, great as it is, is certainly one of degree and not of kind.”

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 14.5

REF: 14.8 The Contents of Animal Consciousness MSC: Understanding

7. Explain how quantum mechanics supports free will over determinism.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.9 Sentience

OBJ: 14.6

8. Describe how the ideas and perspective of Howard Pattee regarding differences between living and nonliving matter relate to bridging the gap between brain and mind.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Difficult MSC: Applying

REF: 14.9 Sentience

OBJ: 14.6

9. Why do we need an interpreter system?

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Medium OBJ: 14.4

REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience MSC: Analyzing

10. Discuss what the characteristics of split-brain patients can tell us about conscious experience.

ANS: Answers will vary DIF: Difficult OBJ: 14.4

REF: 14.10 Split-Brain Research as a Window Into Conscious Experience MSC: Analyzing