ABNORMAL CHILD AND ADOLESCENT 8TH EDITION BY RITA WICKS NELSON, ALLEN C. ISRAEL TEST BANK

13.

Schizophrenia is a disorder that typically begins during childhood.

14.

Males are more vulnerable than females to neurodevelopmental disorders that occur early in life.

15.

One explanation for differing rates of behavioral disorder between boys and girls is gender differences in disruptive behavior, which can result in gender differences in referrals for clinical services.

16.

The conceptualization of adolescence as a distinct period of life began in the 17th and 18th centuries.

17.

Somatogenesis refers to the belief that behavioral disturbance results from a person’s being possessed or influenced by devils or some similar force.

18.

Kraepelin is credited with creating a system to classify mental disturbances that serve as the basis for modern classification systems.

19.

The belief that mental problems are caused by psychological variables is called psychogenesis.

20.

Freud contributed to the field of childhood behavioral disorder by positing that early, unresolved psychological conflict is the source of emotional problems.

21.

Behavior modification or behavior therapy is the explicit application of learning principles for the assessment and treatment of behavioral problems.

22.

Longitudinal studies, focusing on normal development, assisted in the understanding and study of child and adolescent disorders.

23.

Anna Freud, a mother and visionary, advocated establishing a Child Welfare Research Station at the University of Iowa.

24.

Psychiatrists earn an M.D. and psychologists earn a Ph.D.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 25.

Joe is in the second grade and cannot stay focused. He cannot read and tests below grade level in all subjects. He is rarely in trouble at school or at home. Joe a. b. c. d.

26.

is free from all behavior disorders. may have a behavioral disorder and should be evaluated. is a typical boy. is none of the above.

Which is least likely to be considered an indication of problem behavior in youth? a. A behavior is excessively intense. b. A behavior is qualitatively atypical.

c. A behavior is unusual but of no harm to anyone. d. A behavior is exhibited in inappropriate settings.

27.

Which of the following is a behavioral indicator of a disorder noted in Table 1.1? a. b. c. d.

28.

Serafica & Vargas (2006), found that: a. b. c. d.

29.

anxiety is evident across cultures.

Asian and Latino groups express fewer bodily symptoms of anxiety.

Asian, Latino and European Americans did not differ in regard to symptoms of anxiety. individuals living outside of the United States tend to deny symptoms of anxiety.

A study by Ly (2008) on parent perceptions of a child with intellectual disability found that compared to European American parents, Asian American parents: a. b. c. d.

30.

Parental intolerance of atypical behavior Bedwetting Gender Developmental delay

viewed their child as less successful on task performance. had higher expectations for future success. had more sympathy for their child with a disability. were no different in their views of their child.

Alicia’s mother is worried because although Alicia’s behavior seems much like that of her peers, Alicia misbehaves relative to the setting she is in. Alicia’s mother is concerned that her daughter is not meeting a. gender norms. b. situational norms.

31.

According to the book, which of the following is true regarding behavioral disorders of youth? a. b. c. d.

32.

Judgments about abnormality often change over time.

Cultural norms should have no impact on diagnosis.

Disorders are best viewed as located within individuals.

Overall, girls display higher rates of externalizing behavior than boys.

Which of the following is true regarding preschooler mental health? a. b. c. d.

33.

c. regression norms. d. developmental norms.

Preschoolers have fewer problems than older children.

Preschoolers have more problems, but tend to outgrow them.

The problems of preschoolers occur at the same rate as older children.

Secular trends indicate that the risks for young children and mental illness are decreasing.

Which of the following is true regarding the prevalence of behavioral disturbance of youth?

a. Collishaw (2010) found that the number of adolescents reporting emotional problems decreased from 1986 to 2006. b. Research indicates that a majority of youth (80% or more) with mental health issues receive adequate mental health care. c. Less than 10% of adults with mental illness report having symptoms in childhood or adolescence. d. Prevalence rates are can vary depending on who is reporting on the symptoms (e.g., youth, parents, teachers).

34.

With regard to childhood behavioral problems and age of youth, a. little relationship exists between age and the occurrence of problems. b. sometimes what seems to be a relationship between age and the occurrence of a specific disorder may actually reflect the time at which the disorder is first identified. c. almost all behavior problems of young people appear in some form by age 6. d. children cannot be diagnosed with a specific disorder until they are at least 8 years old.

35.

With regard to gender and the rates of behavioral disorders, a. b. c. d.

36.

Jake is a 9 year-old boy. What does the book say about his risk factors for psychopathology? a. b. c. d.

37.

Egogenesis Somatogenesis Demonology Operogenesis

When the term syndrome is used in reference to a behavioral disturbance, it suggests that the disorder a. b. c. d.

39.

They do not differ from a 9 year old female.

He is at lower risk for neurodevelopmental disorders.

He is at higher risk for experiencing a traumatic brain injury.

He is at higher risk to experiencing an inappropriate sexual encounter.

Which of the following terms refers to biological causation of behavioral disturbance? a. b. c. d.

38.

boys are more likely to be diagnosed with externalizing disorders. boys are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety. boys demonstrate higher levels of relational aggression. externalizing problems increase for females as they get older.

has a biological cause. has a psychological cause. occurs mostly in early childhood. is characterized by a group of symptoms.

Who is credited with publishing, in the 19th century, an important classification system for mental disorders?

a. Freud b. Myers 40.

According to Table 1.3 in the book, who established the first child clinic in the United States? a. b. c. d.

41.

desire to have a mustache and wear glasses like his father. wish for more attention from his father and his mother. desire to own a horse. sexual impulses toward his mother and fear of his father.

In Freudian theory, defense mechanisms are viewed as protecting the individual from a. b. c. d.

44.

Freud’s theory adhered to the concept of psychogenesis.

Defense mechanisms serve no purpose.

The ego houses our unacceptable impulses.

Freud believed the personality was not completely formed until age 18.

In the case of “Little Hans,” Freud proposed that Han’s fear and anxiety were based in his a. b. c. d.

43.

Alfred Binet Lightner Witmer Arnold Gesell Leo Kanner

Which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

42.

c. Hillis d. Kraepelin

overstimulation. understimulation. recognizing one’s own unacceptable impulses. seeking immediate sexual gratification.

In contrast to Sigmund Freud, John Watson argued for a. b. c. d.

an emphasis on internal psychological conflicts. the study of biological influences on behavior. an emphasis on learning experiences. a stage theory of development.

45.

The idea that behavior is shaped by its consequences is called _________ and was created by ______. a. law of effect; Thorndike b. psychoanalysis; Freud c. classical conditioning; Watson d. observational learning; Bandura

46.

Who wrote the influential book, A Mind That Found Itself ? a. Beers

c. Hillis

b. Bandura 47.

The child guidance movement in the United States a. b. c. d.

48.

was related to the establishment of the Orthopsychiatric Association. was an outgrowth of behaviorism. received its impetus from longitudinal studies of children begun around 1920. was based on the work of Hall at Clark University.

The theorist who linked the social context with cognition was a. b. c. d.

49.

Anna Freud.

Emil Kraepelin.

Skinner.

Bandura.

Which name does not belong with the others? a. Thorndike b. Binet

50.

c. Kraepelin d. Beers

Mrs. Cora Bussey Hills was instrumental in a. b. c. d.

53.

c. Hall d. Beers

Who is best known for early efforts to evaluate children's intellectual functioning? a. Binet and Simon b. Healy and Bronner

52.

c. Skinner d. Watson

Who was the first president of the American Psychological Association? a. Skinner b. Gesell

51.

d. Judge Baker

the establishment of the Juvenile Psychopathic Institute in Chicago. the establishment of the Judge Baker Guidance Center in Boston. the establishment of the Iowa Child Welfare Research Station. the establishment of the Fels Research Institute at Berkley.

A __________ is a trusting, personal bond formed between the therapist and the client. a. b. c. d.

confidentiality agreement therapeutic alliance treatment contract working relationship

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 54.

Discuss three indicators that influence whether a child or adolescent will be identified as experiencing a behavioral problem.

55.

Discuss how culture can influence the definition and understanding of disordered behavior of youth.

56.

List and describe the four variables that are important to note in regard to infant mental health.

57.

How can gender bias in clinic samples indirectly affect gender differences in the prevalence of behavioral disorders (what methodological issues can create the appearance of gender differences)?

58.

Discuss three aspects of Freud’s theory that framed his important view of psychological disturbances in youth and adults. How has psychoanalysis changed over the years?

59.

Briefly describe classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observational learning.

60.

Summarize the aims and early history of the mental hygiene and the child guidance movements.

61.

List five themes (premises) viewed by the text’s authors as central to the current study and practice of developmental psychopathology.

62.

Define informed consent and how it applies to child therapy.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

T, T, F, T, F, F, T, T, T, F, F, T, F, T, T, T, F, T, T, T, T, T, F, T,

p. 3, factual p. 3, factual p. 4, conceptual p. 4, factual p. 5, conceptual p. 5, factual p. 5, factual p. 6, conceptual p. 6, factual p. 6, factual p. 7, conceptual p. 8, factual p. 8 (Fig 1.4), factual p. 9, factual pp. 9-10, factual p. 10, factual p. 10, factual p. 11, applied pp. 11-12, factual p. 12, applied p. 14, factual p. 15, factual p. 15, applied p. 16, factual

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

B, p. 3, applied C, p. 3, conceptual D, p. 3 (Table 1.1), factual A, p. 3, applied A, p. 4, applied B, p. 5, conceptual A, pp. 3-6, conceptual C, p. 6, factual D, pp. 6-8 (Figure 1.3), applied B, p. 8 (Figure 1.4), factual A, p. 9, Table 1.2, & Figure 1.5, factual C, pp. 8-9, applied B, p. 10, factual D, p. 11, factual D, p. 11, applied B, p. 11, Table 1.3, applied A, pp. 11-12, applied D, p. 12 (accent), applied C, p. 12, conceptual C, p. 13, applied A, p. 13, applied A, p. 14, applied A, p. 14, factual D, p. 14, applied B, pp. 13-15, applied C, p. 15, applied A, p. 15, applied C, p. 15 (accent), applied B, p. 17, factual p. 3, factual pp. 3–5, conceptual p. 7 (accent), factual pp. 9-10, factual pp. 11-12, applied pp. 13-14, factual p. 14, factual p. 16, factual p. 17, factual

CHAPTER 2

THE DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOPATHOLOGY PERSPECTIVE TRUE OR FALSE 1.

The term paradigm refers to a shared perspective or cognitive set adopted, for example, by a group of investigators.

2.

The adoption of a paradigm typically results in a broadening of the kinds of questions asked, measures taken, and interpretations made.

3.

Another word for vulnerability is diathesis, as in the diathesis stress model.

4.

The biopsychosocial model is an example of the systems approach.

5.

Developmental theorists assume that human development proceeds in a coherent pattern.

6.

In the study conducted by Keller, Cumings and Davies (2005), parental problem drinking had a direct effect on child behavioral problems.

7.

If treatment X is more effective for girls than boys, then gender could be considered a moderating variable.

8.

If the effects of poverty operate through lack of health care to lower intellectual functioning, lack of health care mediates the relationship of poverty and intellectual functioning.

9.

Brain abnormality is a necessary cause of schizophrenia. This does not mean that it is a sufficient cause.

10.

According to the trajectories outlined by Compas, Hinden and Gerhardt (1995), adaptation level in childhood consistently predicts later functioning.

11.

Multifinality is the principle that the same outcome can be associated with different pathways or factors.

12.

In general, nonnormative events are considered more of a challenge to development than are normative events.

13.

Attachment is an example of a developmental task for infants and preschoolers.

14.

Resilience is defined as positive outcomes in the face of risk or threat.

.

9

15.

Risk factors reside in both the environment and the person, but resilience factors reside exclusively in the person.

16.

According to the model proposed by Ingram and Price (2010), resilience increases resistance to developing a disorder.

17.

Heterotypic continuity of behavior is demonstrated when the same behavior continues over time in an individual.

18.

Justine smiles and crawls to her mother. These behaviors facilitate attachment, according to Bowlby.

19.

Early attachment experiences can influence later relationships.

20.

Temperament is described as a person’s predisposition to irritability.

21.

According to Chess and Thomas, temperament is malleable.

22.

Inhibition is the one dimension of temperament that has been associated with academic adjustment.

23.

Emotion and temperament can be considered the same construct.

24.

Complex emotions such as shame or guilt are not evident until adolescence.

25.

Although emotional knowledge is important in relationships later in life, it is not linked to social problems in childhood.

26.

The area of study that examines how individuals take in, understand, and interpret social situations is called social cognitive processing.

27.

Research indicates that children with high levels of aggressive behavior usually view other youngsters as passive and trusting.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 28.

A(n) ________ is a formal integrated set of principles or propositions that explain phenomena. a. b. c. d.

29.

perspective opinion cognitive set theory

As a field of study, developmental psychopathology blends: a. b. c. d.

developmental and clinical psychology. cognitive psychology and statistics. medicine and neuroscience. education and development. .

10

30.

Human development is best viewed as a. b. c. d.

31.

________________is another term for cause. a. b. c. d.

32.

necessary but not sufficient sufficient but not necessary necessary and sufficient neither necessary nor sufficient

The Lansford et al. (2005) study found that African American children may respond differently to physical discipline than European American children. Therefore, which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

35.

Syphilis Pneumonia Encephalitis Polio

If a disorder occurs only in the presence of Factor X but only when Factor Y or Factor Z are present, we might suspect that Factor X is a _____ cause of the disorder. a. b. c. d.

34.

Effect Theory Paradigm Etiology

Which disease supported the medical model of mental illness in the early 1900s? a. b. c. d.

33.

always occurring in stages. changes in individuals due to environmental influences. change in persons over time due to the interactions of many variables. quantitative rather than qualitative growth.

Culture had a mediating effect.

Culture had a moderating effect.

Culture had no effect.

Culture is a sufficient cause.

Peter got along quite well as a child, but in adolescence he associated with a “bad” crowd, took drugs, and suffered academically. At 21 years of age, he appears to have put aside these behaviors and has successfully returned to college. Peter’s development is following which of the five adolescent developmental pathways described in the text? a. b. c. d.

Unstable adaptation Unstable maladaptation Decline of adaptation Temporal maladaptation

.

11

36.

It has been shown that child abuse can lead to several different kinds of behavioral problems.

This demonstrates the principle of a. equifinality. b. multifinality.

37.

c. cumulative continuity. d. excessive continuity.

Which term refers to the principle that different factors or developmental paths can result in the same developmental outcome? a. Indirect causation b. Mediation

38.

Risk factors a. b. c. d.

39.

Major life events Child characteristics Psychological processes Syndromes

Which is most likely to be a nonnormative influence on the development of the present generation of U.S. adolescents? a. b. c. d.

42.

The sensitive period model The developmental programming model The life course model The decline of adaptation model

In the Grant et al., (2003) model of the relationship between adversities and psychopathology, which of the following is a mediator? a. b. c. d.

41.

can be biological, psychological, or social. are best conceptualized as being mostly biological. are best conceptualized as characteristics of the individual. are best viewed as independent factors that do not affect each other.

In regard to the timing of risky experiences, the idea that early trauma may program a child’s biological reactivity to stressful events is linked to which of the following? a. b. c. d.

40.

c. Distal causation d. Equifinality

Starting elementary school at about age 6 Severe childhood illness Learning to drive an automobile during adolescence Living in a culture concerned about violence

Resilience is best defined as a. b. c. d.

a person’s characteristics that protect him or her from negative outcomes. characteristics of the environment that protect a person from negative outcomes. one or more factors that work with risk factors to produce a disorder. one or more factors that protect a person in the presence of risk factors for a disorder.

.

12

43.

According to Masten and Coatsworth (1998), which of the following is a developmental task of middle childhood? a. b. c. d.

44.

The study of resilience conducted on Kauai revealed that resilience a. b. c. d.

45.

virtually all behavior problems carry over into adulthood. it is impossible to link child and adult problems. developmental changes in behavior can make it difficult to trace continuity. if childhood behavior problems are not linked to adult problems, they should not be treated.

Heterotypic continuity refers to the continuance a. b. c. d.

48.

ordinary magic. multifinality. unstable, maladaptive development. nonnormative development.

Investigations of the continuity of childhood behavior problems into adulthood suggest that a. b. c. d.

47.

was common despite the youth having numerous risk factors. was impacted by personal attributes, family characteristics and support outside of the family. was predicted primarily by personal attributes. was predicted primarily by support outside of the family.

Billy and Kyle are both evaluated at a child assessment clinic at age 6. Billy comes from an affluent, loving and intact family. He is meeting all developmental tasks and is well adjusted.

Kyle is living in poverty with his maternal grandmother after being abandoned by his parents. He is scoring in the clinically significant range on measures that test for behavioral problems. Years later, both boys are re-evaluated and both are found to be well adjusted and developing normally.

Kyle reports that he became active in sports and was mentored by caring adults over the years.

This is an example of a. b. c. d.

46.

Developing an attachment to caregivers Forming a cohesive sense of self identity Differentiating self from environment Rule governed conduct

of risk factors across the lifespan. of resilience factors across the lifespan. of a problem in the same form over time. of a problem, with the problem changing in form over time.

When Jane was worried at nine years of age, she tended to develop stomachaches. At age thirty, this is still true. Thus, Jane exhibits _____ continuity of anxiety. a. interactional b. proximal

c. homotypic d. normative

.

13

49.

In the Strange Situation Kevin does not use his mother as a resource. He does not seem distressed when she leaves and ignores her when she returns. Which attachment style is Kevin exhibiting? a. Secure b. Insecure resistant

50.

c. Insecure avoidant d. Disorganized

Which pattern of infant-caretaker attachment is especially associated with infants who have been exposed to abusive, pathological caretaking? a. Avoidant b. Secure

51.

c. Ambivalent d. Disorganized/disoriented

Secure attachment between infants and their caretakers is positively correlated with childhood and adolescent a. aggressiveness. b. verbal ability.

52.

______________ refers to the processes that facilitate or hinder reactivity. a. b. c. d.

53.

Goodness of fit Self-regulation Inhibition Emotion

Sandy cries easily, has tantrums when facing novel situations, and is highly reactive to stress.

Which temperament type best describes Sandy? a. b. c. d.

54.

c. adaptive social behavior. d. dependency.

Easy Slow–to-warm-up Difficult Disorganized

The Chess and Thomas case study of Carl demonstrated that a. the relationship between difficult temperament and behavioral problems depends in part on the child’s academic achievement. b. the relationship between difficult temperament and behavioral problems depends in part on the child’s social environment. c. easy temperament in children can sometimes be associated with behavioral problems. d. slow-to-warm temperament in children can sometimes be associated with behavioral problems.

55.

A recent study of temperament and parenting types (good or poor) by Bradley and Corwyn (2008) found a. children with difficult temperaments had problems regardless of what type of parenting they received. b. children of all temperament types were impacted negatively by poor parenting.

.

14

c. children with difficult temperaments were more responsive to the type of parenting they received. d. children with slow-to-warm-up temperaments were immune to poor parenting.

56.

Which of the following includes three well-recognized components of emotion? a. b. c. d.

57.

Private feelings, bodily reactions, overt expressions Temperament, reactivity, outcome Genetics, modeling, regulation Development, expression, regulation

Youth who have been rejected by their peers or who exhibit high levels of aggression tend to see the world as more _____ than other youth. a. hostile b. envious

58.

c. secretive d. rational

According to models of social cognitive processing, which is central in mediating children’s experiences and their behavior? a. b. c. d.

Their interaction with their parents Their interpretation of their experiences Their earlier attachment to their parents Their temperamental tendencies

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 59.

Define the term paradigm and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of applying a paradigm to understanding behavioral disorders.

60.

Define development and comment on three widely agreed-upon characteristics of human development.

61.

Define and give an example of a mediator and a moderator.

62.

Discuss the idea that abnormal behavior develops over time as children transact with their environments. Include in your discussion the Compas et al. descriptions of developmental pathways as well as the principles of equifinality and multifinality.

63.

Give three examples of normative and nonnormative influences on development.

64.

Recreate the flow chart from Figure 2.3 in the text which depicts the Grant et al. (2003) model of how stressors are related to psychopathology.

65.

Define resilience and discuss known resilience correlates in young people.

66.

Describe the differences between heterotypic and homotypic continuity and give one example of each.

.

15

67.

List and give an example of 3 out of the 5 factors identified as carrying problems forward in time in Figure 2.5 of your text.

68.

Define infant-caretaker attachment and discuss factors that influence the development of attachment behaviors.

69.

Summarize four patterns of infant-caretaker attachment and their relationship to later adjustment.

Be specific.

70.

Explain Chess and Thomas’ “goodness-of-fit” model and how the example of Carl reinforces this approach.

71.

Describe the three-factor, widely recognized, dimensions of temperament (Sanson, Letcher, Smart et al., 2009).

72.

Discuss the early development of emotion as well as the process of understanding and regulating emotion.

73.

What is social cognitive processing and how does it relate to maladaptive behavior?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

T, p. 20, factual F, p. 20, conceptual T, p. 20, conceptual T, p. 21, factual T, p. 21, factual F, p. 22, applied T, p. 22, conceptual T, p. 22, conceptual T, p. 22, conceptual F, p. 24 (Fig. 2.1), factual F, p. 25, factual T, p. 25, conceptual T, p. 27 (Table 2.2), factual T, p. 27, factual F, p. 28 (Table 2.3), factual T, p. 28 (Fig. 2.4), applied F, p. 29, conceptual T, p. 30, applied T, p. 31, factual F, p. 31, factual T, p. 31, factual F, p. 32, factual F, p. 33, factual F, p. 33, factual F, p. 34, conceptual T, p. 35, factual

.

16

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

F, p. 35, conceptual D, p. 20, factual A, p. 21, factual C, p. 21, conceptual D, p. 22, factual A, p. 22, factual A, p. 22, conceptual B, p. 23 (Accent), applied D, p. 24 (Fig. 2.1), applied B, p. 25, factual D, p. 25 (Fig. 2.2), factual A, p. 25, factual B, pp. 25-26 (Accent), factual C, p. 26 (Fig. 2.3), applied B, p. 26 (Table 2.1), conceptual D, p. 27, factual D, p. 27 (Table 2.2), applied B, p. 27, factual A, p. 27 (Accent), applied C, pp. 28-29, conceptual D, p. 29, factual C, p. 29, applied C, p. 30, applied D, pp. 30-31, factual C, p. 31, factual B, p. 32 (Table 2.5), conceptual C, p. 32 (Carl case study), applied B, p. 32 (Carl case study), applied C, p. 33, applied A, p. 33, factual A, p. 35, factual B, p. 35, conceptual p. 20, conceptual pp. 21-22, factual p. 22, conceptual pp. 24-25 (Figures 2.1 and 2.2), conceptual p. 26 (Table 2.1), factual p. 26 (Figure 2.3), applied pp. 27-28 (Table 2.3), factual p. 29, conceptual p. 29 (Figure 2.5), conceptual p. 30, conceptual pp. 30-31, factual p. 32, conceptual p. 32 (Table 2.5), conceptual pp. 33-34, conceptual pp. 34-35, conceptual

.

17

CHAPTER 3

BIOLOGICAL AND ENVIRONMENTAL CONTEXTS OF PSYCHOPATHOLOGY TRUE OR FALSE 1.

The development of the brain and nervous system begins relatively late in the embryonic period.

2.

Together, the brain and spinal cord form the central nervous system (CNS).

3.

The two subsystems of the peripheral nervous system are the somatic system and the autonomic system.

4.

The medulla, located in the hindbrain, is involved in movement and cognitive processing.

5.

The small gap between neurons is called the axon.

6.

Neurotransmitters can excite or inhibit neurons.

7.

The term perinatal refers to the period of time during pregnancy.

8.

Research indicates that the fetus is surprisingly resistant to high levels of maternal stress.

9.

Timing of exposure to teratogens can have varying effects.

10.

From the moment of conception, development is influenced by constitutional, economic, social, and cultural factors.

11.

The overall rate of prematurity in the U.S. is 25%.

12.

The notion that a child's nervous system is “plastic” refers to the seeming artificial manner in which the child is behaving.

13.

A person's observable characteristics are referred to as his or her phenotype.

14.

Recent research indicates that the human genome can be modified by exposure to environmental toxins.

15.

In order for a dominant gene to be expressed, it has to be genetically transmitted by both parents.

16.

The intellectual stimulation offered in a family is an example of a shared environmental influence.

17.

Reinforcing a nonverbal child to first make sounds, then to say words, then to say sentences is an example of generalization.

.

18

18.

Negative reinforcement results in a decrease in the behavior it follows.

19.

The lack of forethought and planning exhibited by an impulsive child is an example of a cognitive distortion.

20.

Two dimensions of parenting styles that have been identified are acceptance/warmth and degree of control.

21.

Research indicates that parental psychopathology is only influential when the child inherits vulnerability genes.

22.

The only major forms of maltreatment are physical, sexual, and emotional abuse.

23.

Over one million youth a year experience divorce.

24.

Multiple divorces increase the child’s risk for adjustment problems.

25.

Research on the effects of divorce on children indicates that the effects are clearly greater on boys.

26.

Authoritarian/restrictive parenting is associated with positive social behavior and peer acceptance.

27.

Young people experience higher rates of poverty than any other age group.

28.

Hanson and colleagues (2011) found a direct association between poverty and the volume of gray matter of the hippocampus.

29.

According to Tienda and Haskins (2011), in 2008 almost 25% of youth age 17 and under lived with an immigrant parent.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 30.

Which of the following is true regarding brain development? a. Neurons chemically transmit impulses within the nervous system and to other parts of the body. b. Myelin is a neurotransmitter associated with inducing sleep. c. The human brain is fully developed by adolescence. d. The various areas of the brain develop simultaneously.

31.

The __________ has two branches, the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, and is the part of the nervous system that helps regulate arousal and emotions. a. b. c. d.

peripheral nervous system somatic nervous system autonomic nervous system voluntary nervous system .

19

32.

The brain has three major divisions: a. b. c. d.

33.

forebrain, thalamus, cerebellum. cerebellum, cortex, limbic system. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain. hippocampus, amygdale, forebrain.

The ___________, which includes the hippocampus, amygdala, and parts of the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, and hypothalamus, plays a central role in memory and the regulation of emotions and biological urges. a. limbic system b. libido system

34.

c. hindbrain system d. autonomic system

The part of the brain that is involved in higher mental functioning, including information processing, learning, and memory is the a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus.

35.

c. cerebellum. d. cerebral hemispheres.

___________receive chemical messages from other neurons. a. Axons b. Dendrites

36.

c. Synaptic vesicles d. Nuclei

Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine are all examples of a. bodily humors. b. synaptic clefts.

37.

c. neurotransmitters. d. growth hormones.

A toxic substance that may cause damage to the developing fetus is known as a a. placenta. b. barrier.

38.

c. teratogen. d. diathesis.

The exposure of the developing fetus to alcohol consumed by the mother is an example of a a. prenatal influence. b. perinatal influence.

39.

c. postnatal influence. d. genetic influence.

Mr. and Mrs. Smith have recently adopted Jimmy, age 9. They do not know much about his birth history. They are concerned because Jimmy exhibits slow growth and poor motor skills. He also has small eyes and a thin upper lip. Finally, Jimmy seems to have difficulty learning and is quite hyperactive. His pediatrician suspects that a. Jimmy was exposed to lead early in life. b. Jimmy’s mother had Rubella while pregnant with Jimmy. c. Jimmy’s mother drank while pregnant with Jimmy.

.

20

d. Jimmy was born breech.

40.

Anoxia at the time of birth is an example of a a. prenatal influence. b. perinatal influence.

41.

The genetic code is the basis for the ____________ or synthesis of messenger RNA. a. b. c. d.

42.

proband or index case concordant or the genetic base proband monozygote or dyzygote first degree relative

In twin studies, genetic influence is suggested when a. b. c. d.

46.

a single gene. a single gene in combination with environmental influences. multiple genes. multiple genes in combination with environmental influences.

Tom has been diagnosed with a particular disorder as a result of behavior genetic research. Tom’s relatives are examined to determine if they resemble Tom with respect to this disorder. In this research, Tom is described as the _______. a. b. c. d.

45.

Guanine Glycolic acid Glucose Glutamate

Many complex human characteristics, such as intelligence and behaviors implicated in behavior disorders, are believed to be associated with a. b. c. d.

44.

translocation transmission transference transcription

The genetic code on DNA is made up of which of the following nucleotides? a. b. c. d.

43.

c. postnatal influence. d. genetic influence.

monozygotic twins are more concordant than dyzygotic twins. dyzygotic twins are more concordant than monozygotic twins. there is no difference between monozygotic and dyzygotic twins. the twins are more concordant with non twin siblings than each other.

Children who have disorder X and were adopted at birth are studied to determine the degree of genetic contribution to disorder X. Which of the following results is most likely to support the hypothesis of genetic influence in the etiology of disorder X?

.

21

a. The rate of the disorder in these adopted children is the same as in the general population. b. The rate of the disorder is greater in the biological siblings of these children than in adoptive siblings. c. The rate of the disorder is greater in the adoptive siblings of these children than in their biological siblings. d. The rate of the disorder is the same in the biological and adoptive siblings of these children.

47.

Results from behavior genetic research suggest that heritability estimates for behavioral disorders a. rarely exceed 10 percent. b. rarely exceed 50 percent.

48.

Which of the following are two major molecular genetic research methods? a. b. c. d.

49.

linkage analysis and association analysis linkage analysis and adoption studies linkage analysis and twin designs association analysis and adoption studies

The term _________ refers to differential sensitivity to experience due to differences in genotype. a. gene-environment interaction b. gene-environment correlation

50.

c. quantitative genetics d. molecular genetics

Michael inherits a genetic propensity for high-activity level from his parents and the parents have created a family environment that is highly active. This is an example of a _______ geneenvironment correlation. a. active b. passive

53.

c. linkage analysis. d. association analysis.

The term __________ refers to genetic differences in exposure to environments. a. gene-environment interaction b. gene-environment correlation

52.

c. linkage analysis d. association analysis

Adopted children are more likely to have criminal records when the adoptive parent has a criminal record, but only when they also have a biological parent with a criminal record. This is an example of a. gene-environment interaction. b. gene-environment correlation.

51.

c. frequently exceed 50 percent. d. frequently exceed 75 percent.

c. reactive d. redundant

In Mary Cover Jones’ (1924) study of Peter, she used ___________ to treat his fear of furry objects. a. punishment .

22

b. counterconditioning c. extinction d. cognitive behavioral therapy 54.

In Watson and Rayner's study of Little Albert the conditioned stimulus was a. a white rat. b. the fear.

55.

c. a loud noise. d. anxiety.

Operant conditioning emphasizes the __________ of behavior. a. unconscious aspects b. consequences

56.

A particular child develops a fear of all men with mustaches similar that of his uncle, who is stern. This is an example of the operant conditioning process of a. negative reinforcement. b. shaping.

57.

c. interpretation d. symbolism

c. generalization. d. discrimination.

The phenomenon of disinhibition in observational learning is illustrated by a. a child observes another child being punished for talking to a peer during a lesson and becomes quieter in other ways. b. a child observes another child push a peer and thereby get to the head of the line. The first child then uses physical force to get what he wants. c. a shy child is nervous in his new class. He doesn’t participate in learning a new art project. d. a child in a class learns how to do a new kind of art project by observing her “buddy” do that same art project.

58.

Attention, memory, concept formation, strategies to mentally manipulate information, and problem solving are examples of a. instrumental processes. b. observational processes.

59.

________________ are schema for representing information stored in memory. a. b. c. d.

60.

c. cognitive processes. d. unconscious processes.

Cognitive processes Cognitive structures Cognitive content Cognitive products

A depressed child views herself as less capable than her peers, whereas others do not view her this way. This is an example of a. cognitive deficiency. b. cognitive distortion.

c. thought disorder. d. protective cognition.

.

23

61.

A depressed youngster has come to view negative events in his life as due to his lack of intelligence. According to Kendall (2006), this is an example of a. cognitive structure. b. cognitive content.

62.

In an ecological model of development, _______ contexts would be expected to have relatively more direct impact. a. cultural b. distal

63.

c. cognitive process. d. cognitive product.

c. proximal d. pathological

Which of the following is true regarding the research of Livingston and Parker, Pew Research Center (2011), depicted in Figure 3.5 of the text? a. In 2010, 27% of fathers lived apart from their children. b. White fathers are more likely to live apart from their children than Black or Hispanic fathers. c. Families with incomes exceeding $50,000 were more likely to have fathers that lived apart from their children. d. Fathers with higher education were more likely to live apart from their children.

64.

Children who are allowed much self-regulation and whose parents make few demands for mature behavior are said to have parents with which parenting style? a. indulgent/permissive b. authoritative

65.

Which parental style is associated with the tendency of children to be independent, socially responsible, and self-confident? a. authoritative b. permissive

66.

c. indulgent d. authoritarian

In defining child maltreatment, an act of omission by a parent or caregiver that involves failure or delay in providing care or supervision would be considered a. physical abuse. b. sexual abuse.

67.

c. neglect. d. emotional abuse.

The most common form of child maltreatment is a. emotional maltreatment. b. neglect.

68.

c. secure d. neglectful

c. physical abuse. d. sexual abuse.

According to the book, the definition of _________ is probably the most difficult and controversial.

.

24

a. emotional maltreatment b. neglect 69.

Which of the following statements regarding abuse is correct? a. b. c. d.

70.

Maltreatment occurs equally across socioeconomic classes.

Parents are rarely the perpetrators of abuse.

Parents who have children later in life are at higher risk for perpetrating abuse.

Social isolation of the parent from family and friends contributes to abuse.

Which of the following children is at the highest risk for abuse? a. b. c. d.

72.

Physical abuse is harder to detect than other forms of maltreatment.

Sexual abuse of boys is more common than that of girls.

Refusing special education when needed can be considered neglect.

According to the book, in 2009 there were less than 200,000 cases of maltreatment reported in the U.S.

Which of the following is true about child maltreatment? a. b. c. d.

71.

A one year-old with physical disabilities A 12 year-old from a large family A 17 year-old with failing grades A 13 year-old Black male living in an impoverished neighborhood

Single-parent families make up ______ percent of all families with children. a. 5 b. 19

73.

The youngster’s prior level of adjustment Individual characteristics of parents The youngster’s prior level of adjustment and individual characteristics of parents The youngster’s prior level of adjustment, individual characteristics of parents, and ethnic differences

Which of the following is an example of molecular family stability? a. b. c. d.

75.

c. 30 d. 48

Which of the following variables is thought to contribute to a youngster’s adjustment to divorce? a. b. c. d.

74.

c. physical abuse d. sexual abuse

Living in a family with no divorce history Living in the same home and never moving Consistency in who lives in the home Having a regular bed time

In 2010, the percentage of U.S. youth under 18 living in poverty was about a. 2 percent.

c. 15 percent.

.

25

b. 10 percent.

76.

Which of the following statements regarding the impact of poverty on youth is accurate? a. b. c. d.

77.

Rates of poverty are equal across racial groups.

Single female-headed households are at higher risk for poverty than married households.

Childrearing practices do not vary by social class.

Poverty is most damaging to middleschoolers.

Leventhal and Brooks-Gunn have suggested three potential mechanisms or pathways whereby communities might affect youngsters’ development. They are a. b. c. d.

78.

d. 22 percent.

genetics, family environment, and neighborhood socioeconomic status, school structure, and crime community resources, relationships, and community norms/collective efficacy individual, intrafamilial, and cultural

The term acculturation refers to a. b. c. d.

the elimination of cultural influences so as to understand the effect of individual variables. changes in culture resulting from different cultures coming in contact with each other. the attempt to provide cultural experiences, such as music and art to at-risk children. interventions to overcome the negative impact of a youngster’s cultural background.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 79.

Describe the parts of the neuron and how electrical messages are transmitted between neurons.

80.

Briefly describe a prenatal, a perinatal, and a postnatal biological influence thought to affect the functioning/behavior of the developing child.

81.

Discuss the reasons why research involving harmful influences on the fetus must be interpreted with caution.

82.

Briefly describe two different behavior genetic research methods that might be employed to study heritability of childhood behavior disorders.

83.

Define the terms shared and nonshared environmental influences. Give an example of each.

84.

Describe the purpose of linkage analysis, association analysis, and genome wide linkage/association analysis.

85.

What are the three types of gene-environment correlation? Give an example of each.

86.

Use examples to describe classical conditioning and operant learning.

87.

What variables influence whether or not a child imitates a model in observational learning? What cognitive processes are needed for observational learning to occur?

.

26

88.

Using children, give an example of a cognitive deficiency and of a cognitive distortion.

89.

What is meant by an ecological model for understanding the development of maladaptive behavior in a young person? What are the domains described in the model? Give an example of each.

90.

Contrast the authoritative, authoritarian, neglectful, and indulgent/permissive styles of parenting and the child characteristics associated with each style.

91.

What are the four types of child maltreatment described in the literature? Give an example of each type.

92.

Discuss the consequences of maltreatment including neurobiological outcomes and the factors that can influence outcomes.

93.

Choose and describe (give examples) of 3 predictors of children’s adjustment following divorce and remarriage. (Hint: think of Figure 3.10 in your book).

94.

Why are peer relationships important? What is an example of a protective factor and a risk factor for having a close friend?

95.

Describe the variables that contribute to dropping out of school or repeating a grade.

96.

Discuss several ways in which poverty puts children at developmental risk, including how parents may mediate the effects of poverty.

97.

What are the three pathways or mechanisms that Leventhal and Brooks-Gunn suggest may explain the effect of the community on youngsters’ development? Give an example of each.

98.

How might prejudice and discrimination impact young people? Discuss the research noted in the textbook.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

F, T, T, F, F, T,

F, F, T, T, F, F, T, T, F, T,

p. 37, factual p. 38, factual p. 38, factual p. 39, factual p. 39, factual p. 40, factual p. 40, factual p. 40, factual p. 40, factual pp. 40–41, conceptual p. 41, factual p. 41, conceptual p. 42, factual p. 42 (Accent), conceptual pp. 42-43, factual p. 43, factual .

27

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

F, p. 46 (Table 3.3), conceptual F, p. 46 (Table 3.3), conceptual F, p. 48, conceptual T, p. 49, factual F, p. 50, factual F. p. 51 (Table 3.4), factual T, p. 54, factual T, p. 55, factual F, p. 56, factual F, p. 58, conceptual T, p. 60, factual T, pp. 60-61, applied T, p. 63, applied A, pp. 37-38, factual C, p. 38, factual C, pp. 38-39, factual A, p. 39, factual D, p. 39, factual B, p. 39, factual C, p. 39, factual C, p. 40, factual A, p. 40, conceptual C, p. 40, applied B, p. 41, factual D, p. 42, factual A, p. 42, factual D, p. 43, conceptual A, p. 43, applied A, p. 43 (Table 3.1), conceptual B, p. 43 (Table 3.1), conceptual B, p. 43, factual A, p. 44, factual A, p. 44, factual A, p. 44, applied B, p. 44, factual B, p. 45 (Table 3.2), applied B, p. 46 (Accent), applied A, p. 46 (Accent), applied B, p. 45, factual C, p. 46, factual B, p. 47, applied C, p. 47, factual B, p. 47, factual B, p. 48, applied D, p. 48 (Accent), applied C, p. 48, conceptual A, p. 49 (Figure 3.5), applied A, p. 50 (Figure 3.6), factual A, p. 50, factual

.

28

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

C, p. 51 (Table 3.4), factual B, p. 51 (Figure 3.7), factual A, p. 52, factual C, pp. 51-52, factual D, pp. 52-53, factual A, p. 53, applied C, p. 54, factual D, p. 55, factual D, p. 57 (Accent), conceptual D, p. 60 (Table 3.5), factual B, p. 60, factual C, p. 62 (Figure 3.12), applied B, p. 62, factual pp. 39-40 (Figure 3.2), factual pp. 40-41, conceptual p. 41, conceptual pp. 43-44, conceptual p. 43, conceptual p. 44, conceptual p. 45 (Table 3.2), conceptual pp. 45-46, conceptual pp. 47, conceptual pp. 47-48, applied p. 48 (Figure 3.4), conceptual pp. 49-50, conceptual pp. 51–52 (Table 3.4), factual pp. 53–54 (Figure 3.8), conceptual pp. 56-57, conceptual pp. 58-59, conceptual p. 59, factual pp. 59-61, conceptual pp. 61-62, conceptual p. 63, factual

.

29

CHAPTER 4

RESEARCH: ITS ROLE AND METHODS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

Science comes from the Latin word for “seeker”.

2.

Random selection enhances the representativeness of a sample.

3.

An operational definition of a behavior refers to the procedures or operations employed to define the behavior.

4.

Interobserver reliability of a measured behavior refers to the degree to which observers believe that the measure is a true and accurate indicator of the behavior.

5.

The term external validity refers to the degree to which a research result can be generalized to populations and situations different from those with which the research was conducted.

6.

The general purpose of a descriptive study is to portray a phenomenon of interest.

7.

Randomized experiments come the closest to establishing cause and effect relationships.

8.

If a researcher obtained a Pearson r value of –.02, it is evident that some error has been made in measurement or calculation.

9.

A Pearson r correlation coefficient of +.44 is stronger than a coefficient of –.86.

10.

In the experiment, the purpose of random assignment of participants into groups is to ensure that the characteristics of the participants in one group are about the same as the characteristics of the participants in other groups.

11.

Efforts to increase internal validity may decrease external validity because more stringent control may result in research settings that are dissimilar to the "real world."

12.

A weakness of single-subject reversal designs is that ethical considerations may preclude the reversal phase in intervention studies in which the treatment was effective.

13.

In retrospective research designs, data are collected about past attributes or experiences of participants.

14.

The prevalence of a disorder in a population concerns the number of new cases diagnosed in a specific time period.

15.

An advantage of non-accelerated longitudinal research is that investigators do not need to be concerned about possible cohort effects in interpreting findings.

.

30

16.

Although quantitative and qualitative research strategies differ in many aims and methods, both place high value on objectivity.

17.

The sole function of Institutional Review Boards in the research process is to determine the scientific soundness of the proposed research.

18.

When conducting research on children, informed consent is obtained from the child.

19.

The ethical concept of beneficence requires that benefits to the research participant be maximized.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 20.

When research findings fail to support the hypothesis being tested, a. b. c. d.

21.

Why is it valuable to randomly select persons from the population of interest to participate in a research study? a. b. c. d.

22.

is unacceptable because anxiety must be defined by a measure of heart rate or sweating. is referred to as the independent variable. is referred to as an operational definition of the anxiety. is unacceptable because adolescents are unable to provide accurate assessments of their feelings.

Regarding research studies, validity is to reliability as ______ is to _____. a. b. c. d.

24.

Participants will feel they have been treated fairly, which can positively affect the study.

It increases the chance that the participants will represent the population.

It ensures that the participants will be of the same age.

It ensures reliability of measurement.

In a research study of anxiety in adolescents, anxiety was defined as a cut-off score on a questionnaire completed by each adolescent. This definition of anxiety a. b. c. d.

23.

the study was a waste of time and effort. the hypothesis is proven incorrect. the theory on which the hypothesis was based may be changed in some way. the study must have been poorly designed.

cohort effects; correctness generalizability; cohort effects repeatability; generalizability accuracy; consistency

___________refers to examining individuals in their “real world” environment. a. Naturalistic observation b. Direct observation c. Observational learning .

31

d. Reality testing 25.

In the Dadds et al. study where researchers compared videotaped family interactions, efforts were made to decrease observer bias by a. b. c. d.

26.

ensuring the observers had a thorough understanding of the hypothesis. having each category of the videotapes coded by only one observer. the observers being “blind” to the clinical status of the children. inclusion of a nonclinic group of children.

Dr. Smalley's research study showed that girls had less self-confidence at age 13 than at age 17. Dr. Smalley was not willing to conclude that the finding would be true for boys.

Dr. Smalley thus appeared sensitive to the issue of a. internal validity. b. external validity.

27.

______________ refers to whether the scores on a measure correlate with scores on another acceptable measure of the attribute of interest. a. b. c. d.

28.

Its ability to describe rare occurrences.

Its reliance on retrospective data.

Its high internal validity.

Its high reliability.

In the case study on Max reported in the textbook, Max was exhibiting early signs of a. b. c. d.

31.

only experimental studies include manipulation of an independent variable. only quasi-experimental studies have researcher control of procedures and extraneous factors. participants are not randomly assigned in quasi-experimental studies. quasi-experimental studies are not conducted on human participants.

Which of the following is a strength of the case study method? a. b. c. d.

30.

Content validity Construct validity Face validity Concurrent validity

One difference between experimental and quasi-experimental studies is a. b. c. d.

29.

c. statistical significance. d. naturalistic observation

autism. childhood schizophrenia. school phobia. depression.

In the correlational study of infant attachment and later childhood adjustment noted in your text, the hypothetical data point to a positive correlation between the two variables. Based on the data reported in the text, it can be concluded that

.

32

a. b. c. d.

32.

The research about the effects of institutionalization on children reported in the textbook is an example of a. b. c. d.

33.

to ensure that all participants are treated in the same way to ensure that participants represent the population of interest to increase internal validity to increase external validity

In the Abecedarian Project (Ramey & Campbell), the authors examine an intervention on at-risk youth. The independent variable in that study was a. b. c. d.

36.

It is the factor manipulated by the researcher.

It is given to the experimental group but not to the control group.

It is some kind of measure.

It is responsible for changes in the independent variable.

In an experiment, what is the purpose of the control group? a. b. c. d.

35.

an experiment of nature. an experiment of nurture. a quasi-experimental design. a case study.

Which is true of the dependent variable in an experiment? a. b. c. d.

34.

secure infant attachment causes later childhood adjustment. secure infant attachment is not significantly related to later childhood adjustment. secure infant attachment predicts later childhood adjustment. one cannot tell if attachment impacts later childhood adjustment or not.

an educational program. food stamps and other instrumentals provided to the family. nutritional supplements given to the children. measures of intelligence.

In the Abecedarian Project (Ramey & Campbell), statistically significant differences were found between children in the experimental group and children in the control group. Which of the following is true? a. These differences were likely due to chance. b. These differences will likely be found again if the study is repeated. c. The differences indicate a cause and effect relationship between the independent and dependent variables. d. The differences must have been due to the intervention.

37.

The goal of translational research is a. to translate research finding into multiple languages.

.

33

b. to move evidence-based care into the community. c. to examine the dynamic effect of relationships in a child’s environment. d. to improve the internal validity of studies that examine interventions.

38.

In the single-case ABA design, B refers to the a. b. c. d.

39.

In the single-case ABAB design, what is the main purpose of the first A period? a. b. c. d.

40.

Experimental design research Correlational analyses Multiple baseline research Epidemiology

The proportion of persons in a population diagnosed with a disorder during a specific time period is referred to as the _____ of the disorder. a. b. c. d.

43.

Social skills are higher in the B period than in the first A period.

Social skills are lowest in the first A period and equally high in the B and second A period.

Social skills are higher in the B period than in either of the A periods.

Social skills are higher in the first A period than in any other period.

______________ provides information on frequency of disorders in the population and helps the pubic understand the need for treatment and who is at risk for a disorder. a. b. c. d.

42.

to test the effectiveness of the manipulation with another subject to test the effectiveness of the manipulation for a second time to measure behavior before any manipulation is introduced to reintroduce the successful intervention

Assume that the ABA design has been used to evaluate the effectiveness of a treatment for social skills. Which of the following would be the clearest indicator of the effectiveness of the treatment? a. b. c. d.

41.

baseline period. intervention period. reversal period. reinstatement of the intervention.

lifetime prevalence prevalence incidence none of the above

Which of the following statements about cross-sectional studies is true? a. b. c. d.

They trace developmental change with certainty.

They are especially costly.

They can reveal differences associated with persons of different ages.

The same participants are examined at multiple points in time.

.

34

44.

A researcher is investigating motor ability by simultaneously studying three groups of youngsters: ages 6, 10, and 14 years. Which research strategy is the researcher using? a. qualitative b. retrospective

45.

A psychologist is investigating the growth of language by studying a group of children from the time they are two years of age to their sixteenth birthdays. Which statement is true about his approach? a. b. c. d.

46.

c. sequential d. cross-sectional

He is using a prospective approach.

His data may be unreliable due to old records and poor memories.

He will be unable to chart developmental change.

He will not need to be concerned about the impact of societal changes while these children mature.

Assume that on average, 60-year-olds, 40-year-olds, and 20-year-olds perform differently on a psychological test. Assume also that the group differences are due to the different social and educational life experiences available to each generation. The group differences are thus due to a. an experimental effect. b. a developmental effect.

47.

Research designs that combine longitudinal and cross-sectional strategies are called a. prospective designs. b. retrospective designs.

48.

a longitudinal research strategy. a sequential research strategy. epidemiological research. mixed design research.

Which of the following is true for the qualitative research approach? a. b. c. d.

50.

c. accelerated longitudinal. d. high risk designs.

Dr. Foster plans to collect data on the prevalence of learning disabilities in all children in New York City during the current school year. She will also collect data on many characteristics of the children, their families, and their environments in order to determine which variables are associated with the occurrence of learning disabilities. This kind of research is referred to as a. b. c. d.

49.

c. a triangulation effect. d. a cohort effect.

Participant observation is often valued.

More than one variable is usually manipulated during the course of a research study.

The sample sizes are typically quite large.

There is a commitment to conducting research in the laboratory rather than in the field because the laboratory more readily lends itself to control.

In the evaluation of the Parent-to-Parent support program, the qualitative analysis

.

35

a. b. c. d.

51.

The qualitative approach to research, in contrast to the quantitative approach, is more likely to a. b. c. d.

52.

served as the only method to assess the program. involved thematic categories constructed from telephone interviews. ultimately was judged inferior to the quantitative analysis. showed that parents of adolescent drug users are extremely stressed.

employ the experiment as its basic method. assume that the personal view of the research participants is of critical importance. transform data into numbers and involve statistical analyses. depend on well-established procedures to evaluate validity of the findings.

______________ assumes that participants have the right to control the degree to which personal information can be disclosed. a. b. c. d.

Informed consent Beneficence Non maleficence Confidentiality

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 53.

The book noted 8 major research questions in the field of developmental psychopathology. List and describe 4 of these questions.

54.

What is selection bias? What issues exist when study participants are chosen from clinics and other facilities serving youth with problems?

55.

What are the different types of measurement validity?

56.

Contrast the concepts of internal and external validity with regard to research findings.

57.

For each of the following research designs, discuss major benefits and weaknesses: case study, correlational, experimental.

58.

Why is it problematic to assume causality from correlational studies?

59.

Construct a hypothetical randomized experiment, making clear the hypothesis, independent and dependent variables, procedures, and conclusions that could be drawn from the data.

60.

In what situations might the ABA design be inappropriate and what other kinds of single-subject experiments might be more appropriately employed?

61.

Suppose that you wanted to use a multiple baseline research study to test the idea that positive reinforcement can increase children’s interaction with other children on the playground. Describe your design to test this hypothesis. How would you know if the intervention was effective?

62.

What are the goals of epidemiological research and how is such research conducted?

.

36

63.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the cross-sectional and longitudinal research strategies, especially with regard to tracing development?

64.

Define and compare retrospective and prospective research designs.

65.

Use an example to explain why one would combine quantitative and qualitative research strategies.

66.

What common elements of a study are communicated or shared with children and their parents before they participate?

67.

Give examples of 3 common ethical issues raised when conducting research on children.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

F, p. 65, factual T, p. 76, factual T, p. 67, factual F, p. 67, factual T, p. 68, factual T, pp. 68-69, factual T, p. 69, factual F, pp. 70-71, conceptual F, pp. 70-71, conceptual T, p. 72, conceptual T, p. 73, conceptual T, p. 74, factual T, p. 76, factual F, p. 76, factual F, p. 77, conceptual F, pp. 77-78, conceptual F, p. 79, factual F, p. 79, factual T, p. 81, factual C, p. 66, conceptual B, p. 66, conceptual C, p. 67, applied D, p. 67, conceptual A, p. 67, factual C, p. 67-68, applied B, p. 68, applied D, p. 68 (Table 4.1), factual C, p. 69, factual A, pp. 69-70, factual B, p. 70, applied C, p. 71 (Table 4.2), conceptual A, p. 72 (Accent), factual

.

37

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

C, p. 72, conceptual C, pp. 72-73, conceptual A, p. 72, applied B, pp. 72-73, applied B, p. 73 (Accent), factual B, p.74 (Figure 4.3), factual C, p. 74, factual C, p. 74, conceptual D, p. 76 (accent), factual B, p. 76 (accent), factual C, p. 76, factual D, p. 76, applied A, p. 77, applied D, p. 77, applied C, p. 77, factual C, p. 76-78, applied A, p. 78, conceptual B, p. 78, factual B, p. 78, conceptual D, p. 79, factual p. 66 (Figure 4.1), factual p. 67, factual p. 68 (Table 4.1), factual p. 68, conceptual pp. 69-73, conceptual p. 71, factual pp. 72–73, applied pp. 74-75, factual pp. 74-75, applied p. 76 (Accent), factual pp. 76-77, conceptual pp. 76-77, conceptual pp. 78-79, applied p. 79, factual pp. 79-81, applied

.

38

CHAPTER 5

CLASSIFICATION, ASSESSMENT, AND TREATMENT TRUE OR FALSE 1.

The agreement by a group of experts that certain characteristics or symptoms occur together is the basis for clinically derived classification systems.

2.

The formal classification of children's disorders has a long history. It dates back to the inclusion of numerous categories of childhood disorders in Kraepelin's original taxonomy.

3.

The clinicians at a particular agency find a certain diagnostic system easy to use with the clients.

Diagnoses are also available for all the cases they see. This suggests that the diagnostic system has good clinical utility.

4.

An indication of the validity of a diagnostic system is whether or not it provides information we did not have when we defined a category.

5.

The DSM-5 utilizes a dimensional approach to classification.

6.

It is unusual for a child to have more than one DSM-5 diagnosis.

7.

There is controversy regarding the categorical nature of the DSM-5.

8.

Cross cutting is used to assess areas of clinical importance that are not necessarily part of the diagnostic criteria of the client’s particular diagnosis.

9.

The empirical approach to classification uses a panel of clinical experts to determine clusters of behavior.

10.

Normative data for the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL), the Teacher Report Form (TRF), and the Youth Self Report (YSR) can compare a child’s scores with a nonreferred youngster’s score.

11.

Kateri often complains of headaches and stomachaches. She is also characteristically shy and fearful in most situations. She could be described as displaying an internalizing syndrome.

12.

Kyle gets in fights and is often mean to others. He appears to lack guilt and has aggressive friends. He could be described as displaying an internalizing syndrome.

13.

Labeling can lead to stigmatization and social difficulties.

14.

On the Child Behavior Checklist, the average correlation between teacher and parent ratings on the same child is .35.

15.

Based on the case study of Alicia reported in the textbook, assessments are useful only for discovering weaknesses or problems.

.

39

16.

In the assessment of a child who is referred to a clinic, it is best to rely on information from one source so as not to get conflicting information.

17.

Clinicians rarely interview very young children because children are unable to provide valuable information.

18.

The first step in any behavioral observation system involves explicitly pinpointing and defining behaviors.

19.

The concept upon which projective tests are based derives from the social learning notion that children learn to project their impulses.

20.

A child with an IQ of 100 on a standard test of intelligence would probably be considered of average intelligence.

21.

Developmental scales like the Bayley Scales of Infant Development are insightful because they are highly correlated with later intellectual functioning.

22.

Evaluation of heart rate, muscle tension, and respiration rates are examples of psychophysiological assessments.

23.

In neuropsychological assessment no direct examination of physiological functioning is made.

Rather, possible neurological deficits are inferred from performance on various tasks.

24.

Intervention includes prevention and treatment.

25.

Universal prevention strategies are targeted to high risk individuals who show minimal symptoms.

26.

Treatment often involves not only the child but also family members, peers, and school personnel.

27.

Melanie Klein’s approach is the dominant view in play therapy.

28.

Cherise has just been diagnosed with an eating disorder. It is unlikely that her family will be involved in her treatment.

29.

In working with a youngster, a therapist is likely to rely on a single mode of treatment.

30.

Psychotropic drugs produce therapeutic effects by their influence on the process of neurotransmission.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 31. of

By the terms classification and _______ we mean delineating major categories or dimensions behavior disorders for either scientific or clinical purposes. .

40

a. taxonomy b. assessment 32.

In considering systems of classification, the terms category and dimension are distinguished by a. b. c. d.

33.

c. validity d. tomography

a category is continuous whereas a dimension is a discrete grouping. a dimension is continuous whereas a category is a discrete grouping. categories are for scientific classification whereas dimensions are for clinical classification. dimensions are for scientific classification whereas categories are for clinical classification.

After assessing Billy, three different clinicians all agree on his diagnosis. This suggests that the diagnostic system the clinicians used has good a. etiological validity. b. predictive validity.

34.

A measure of the stability of a diagnosis over time is called a. concurrent validity. b. predictive validity.

35.

c. interrater reliability. d. test-retest reliability.

The ____________ of a classification system is judged by how complete and useful it is. a. b. c. d.

36.

c. interrater reliability. d. test-retest reliability.

reliability taxonomy validity clinical utility

A categorical approach to classification assumes that the difference between normal and pathological is a. one of kind rather than degree and that distinctions are made between quantitatively different types of disorders. b. one of kind rather than degree and that distinctions are made between qualitatively different types of disorders. c. one of degree rather than kind and that distinctions are made between quantitatively different types of disorders. d. one of degree rather than kind and that distinctions are made between qualitatively different types of disorders.

37.

If an individual is given a global assessment of functioning score of 30, which of the following is likely true? a. b. c. d.

The individual is exhibiting superior functioning.

The individual has some impairment in almost all areas.

The individual has generally good functioning with difficulty in only a couple of areas.

The individual is uncooperative and functioning cannot be determined.

.

41

38.

The term comorbidity refers to a. b. c. d.

38.

Comorbidity or co-occurrence of disorders in children and adolescents is a. b. c. d.

40.

diagnosis syndrome dimension spectrum

Two broad syndromes of childhood disorders (referred to as X and Y) have been identified by empirical approaches. Which pairs of terms have been employed to label these two broad syndromes? a. b. c. d.

44.

Dimension Classification Spectrum Syndrome

A ________________ describes behaviors that tend to occur together. a. b. c. d.

43.

There are not enough diagnoses to adequately assess children.

The emphasis on validity and reliability has been detrimental.

The cultural context has been overemphasized.

The classification system used by the DSM can be misleading.

________________ refers to groups of disorders that are thought to share certain psychological and biological qualities. a. b. c. d.

42.

quite common. very rare. not possible using the DSM system. common for females but not for males.

Which of the following has been expressed as a concern regarding the DSM classification system? a. b. c. d.

41.

a child meeting the criteria for more than one disorder. two children in a family having the same disorder. a child and parent having the same disorder. two disorders having some of the same cause.

X: internalizing or overcontrolled versus Y: externalizing or conduct disorder X: internalizing or undercontrolled versus Y: externalizing or conduct disorder X: undercontrolled or anxiety-withdrawal versus Y: overcontrolled or internalizing X: internalizing or anxiety-withdrawal versus Y: overcontrolled or conduct disorder

Which of the following is one of the narrowband syndromes identified for the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL)?

.

42

a. Assertive b. Thought problems 45.

c. Phobias d. Suicidal

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding empirical approaches to classification? a. Norms do not exist for different age and gender groups. b. Agreement between different kinds of raters (e.g., teachers and parents) on a child's scores is very high. c. The validity of the broad-band distinctions is questionable since different broad-band syndromes emerge when different types of people complete the instruments. d. The finding that scores from clinic samples differ from nonclinic samples supports the validity of this approach.

46.

Which of the following statements regarding diagnostic labels is part of the concern with the impact of such labeling? a. Diagnostic labels have a social impact as well as a clinical and scientific purpose. b. Diagnostic labels do not influence observer expectations regarding the child who is labeled. c. Diagnostic labels do not help to provide adults with an explanation or understanding of the child’s behavior. d. Diagnostic labels do not lead to generalizations about the characteristics of all children receiving a particular label.

47.

According to the textbook, stigmatization has three components. These include: a. b. c. d.

48.

_______________ relies on empirical evidence and theory to guide an evaluation and selected instruments. a. b. c. d.

49.

Classification approach assessment Multidimensional assessment Evidence based assessment Judgment based assessment

The most common form of assessment is a. b. c. d.

50.

branding, dismissing, and rejecting suspending, suspicion, and social isolation deducing, compiling, and illusion stereotyping, devaluing, and discriminating

the projective test. the general clinical interview. the structured interview. structured observations.

Structured interviews have been developed to a. create more open-ended interviews.

.

43

b. create more reliable interviews. c. avoid diagnoses based on the DSM-5. d. be useful for individuals rather than for large populations.

51.

The Diagnostic Interview for Children and the Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia for School-Aged Children are examples of a. b. c. d.

52.

schedules of how to time assessments for children. schedules of when in the therapeutic process the young child should be seen. general clinical interviews. structured interviews.

The greatest impediment to the utility of direct observational assessment is probably a. reactivity. b. test-retest reliability.

53.

Which of the following is an example of a projective test? a. Rorschach b. Stanford Binet

54.

group administered intelligence tests. individually administered intelligence tests. achievement tests. neuropsychological tests.

Developmental scales emphasize a. b. c. d.

57.

the test is trying to project into the future. the test is looking for positive attributes in the child. the test is derived from ideas related to a particular psychoanalytic defense mechanism. the test makes use of visual aids (e.g., slides) that the child is asked to respond to.

The Stanford-Binet, the Wechsler tests, and the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children are all examples of a. b. c. d.

56.

c. Child Behavior Checklist d. Bayley Scales

In projective tests the term "projective" refers to the fact that a. b. c. d.

55.

c. observer bias. d. interrater reliability.

language and communication. sensorimotor and simple social skills. abstract reasoning abilities. number and relational concepts.

Which of the following is an example of an academic achievement test? a. Stanford Binet b. The Wechsler scales c. Roberts Apperception Test for Children

.

44

d. Iowa Test of Basic Skills 58.

_________________ examine the rate of activity of different parts of the brain by assessing the use of oxygen and glucose. a. b. c. d.

59.

Which of the following is likely to be employed as part of a neuropsychological assessment? a. b. c. d.

60.

MRI methods Electroencephalographs PET scans CAT scans

the Halstead-Reitan the Rorschach Bellak's CAT PET scan

Which of the following statements regarding direct neurological assessment and neuropsychological assessment is correct? a. Neurological assessment indirectly evaluates neurological functioning, whereas neuropsychological assessment directly evaluates it. b. Neurological assessment directly evaluates neurological functioning, whereas neuropsychological assessment indirectly evaluates it. c. Neuropsychological assessment would not be used to differentiate learning disabled youngsters from normal learners. d. The use of neurological assessment with children has decreased with the development of the computer.

61.

___________ refers to interventions targeting individuals who are not yet experiencing symptoms of a disorder. a. b. c. d.

62.

Which of the following is described as a “nipping in the bud” strategy in the textbook? a. b. c. d.

63.

Indirect assessment Prevention Treatment Evaluation

Primary prevention Secondary prevention Tertiary prevention Universal prevention

Play therapy a. is most likely to be used with children in the upper elementary school grades or older who are able to play the role of another person.

.

45

b. often uses play as a way to adapt more verbal psychotherapeutic approaches to children in order to facilitate communication. c. is used primarily with children who experience play difficulties with their peers. d. is used to allow treatment to approximate the mother-child relationship.

64.

Which of the following used play as the basis for psychoanalytic interpretation (e.g., a child opening a purse during play represents a desire to explore the womb)? a. Melanie Klein b. Anna Freud

65.

The term psychopharmacological treatment refers to a. b. c. d.

66.

medications used to treat psychosis. treatments used to treat drug-induced psychosis. medications that are thought to affect mood, thought, or behavior. treatment of psychologically based substance abuse.

Which of the following is true regarding the pharmacological treatment of children? a. b. c. d.

67.

c. Grace Fernald d. Virginia Axline

Research indicates a higher usage of medications for African American and Latino children.

The rate of medication usage in children and adolescents has decreased.

Medications are rarely prescribed for children until they are proven to be safe and useful.

High income and private insurance are associated with a greater likelihood of medication use.

The term empirically supported treatments refers to a. b. c. d.

treatments that are paid for by research funds. treatments for which there is adequate research support regarding effectiveness. treatments that are used to collect research data. treatments based on a particular theoretical position.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 68.

Define these terms: classification, taxonomy, diagnosis, and assessment. How are these concepts related?

69.

Explain the concepts of interrater reliability, test retest reliability, and validity in regard to classification.

70.

Briefly define what is meant by the term comorbidity and describe two different reasons that this phenomenon might occur.

71.

Describe the concerns that exist regarding DSM classification systems.

72.

What are the two broad-band syndromes identified by empirical approaches to classification?

Briefly describe the kinds of behaviors characteristic of each.

.

46

73.

The correlations of Achenbach scores obtained from different informants (regarding the same youngster) can be calculated. Describe two things, beyond issues of the reliability of the instruments, that may impact interrater reliability.

74.

Discuss the pros and cons of labeling.

75.

What are the differences between structured and unstructured clinical interviews?

76.

Describe the issue of reactivity with respect to behavioral observation. Briefly report on two procedures that might be employed to reduce reactivity.

77.

Review the pros and cons of including tests of intellectual functioning in clinical assessments.

78.

Describe the domains and assessment methods used in neurological assessment.

79.

Describe the Weisz, Sandler, Durlak & Anton (2005) model of intervention.

80.

Discuss the concerns and benefits regarding prevention.

81.

Describe the Institute of Medicine’s tripartite model of prevention. Create an example of each strategy.

82.

Briefly describe three reasons why one might employ a group rather than individual mode of treatment.

83.

Briefly describe three different modes of treatment employed to address the behavior disorders of children and/or adolescents.

84.

Briefly describe three ways in which pharmacological treatments might affect neurotransmission.

85.

List and describe the types of interventions typically involved in parent training.

86.

List 4 of the 8 alternative strategies for providing treatment content to youth and families reported

by Weisz & Kazdin (2010).

87.

According to the Society of Clinical Psychology, what are the criteria for considering a treatment to be evidence based?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

T, F, T, T, F, F, T,

p. 84, factual p. 84-85, factual p. 84, factual p. 84, conceptual p. 84, factual pp. 86-87, factual p. 88, factual

.

47

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

T, p. 89, conceptual F, p. 89, conceptual T, pp. 90-91, factual T, p. 90 (Table 5.2), applied F, p. 90 (Table 5.2), applied T, p. 90, factual T. p. 91, factual F, p. 93 (Accent), applied F, pp. 93 & 94, conceptual F, p. 94, factual T, p. 96, factual F, p. 97, factual T, p. 98, factual F, p. 98, factual T, pp. 98-99, factual T, p. 100, conceptual T, p. 100, factual F, p. 102, factual T, p. 103, factual F, p. 104, applied F, p. 104, applied F, p. 105, factual T, p. 106, factual A, p. 83, factual B, p. 84, conceptual C, p. 84, applied D, p. 84, factual D, p. 84, conceptual B, p. 84, conceptual B, p. 86, applied A, p. 86, factual A, p. 86-87 (Accent), factual D, pp. 86-88, conceptual C, p. 89 (Accent), factual B, p. 89, factual A, pp. 89-90, conceptual B, p. 90 (Table 5.2), factual D, p. 90-91, conceptual A, pp. 91-93, conceptual D, p. 92 (Accent), factual C, p. 94, conceptual B, p. 94, factual B, p. 94, factual D, pp. 94-95, applied A, p. 96, factual A, p. 97, factual C, p. 97, conceptual B, p. 98, factual B, p. 98, conceptual

.

48

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

D, p. 98, factual C, pp. 99-100, factual A, p. 100, conceptual B, pp. 99-100, conceptual B, p. 100, factual B, p. 102, factual B, p. 104, factual A, p. 104, applied C, p. 105, factual D, p. 105, factual B, p. 106, factual p. 84, conceptual p. 84, conceptual p. 86, conceptual pp. 86-89, conceptual pp. 89-90 (Table 5.2), conceptual p. 91, conceptual pp. 91-93, conceptual pp. 94-95, conceptual p. 96, conceptual pp. 97-98, conceptual p. 100 (Table 5.3), conceptual pp. 100-101 (Figure 5.3), conceptual p. 102, conceptual pp. 102-103, applied pp. 103-104, factual pp. 103-106, conceptual p. 106, factual p. 105, factual p. 106 (Table 5.4), applied p. 106, factual

.

49

CHAPTER 6

ANXIETY DISORDERS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

Research indicates that Hispanic American children have higher rates of separation anxiety disorder than European American children.

2.

Anxiety is future oriented, whereas fear is a reaction to an immediate threat.

3.

Worry is a behavioral response to anxiety.

4.

Several classic studies indicate that normal children do not exhibit a large number of fears.

5.

Surveys of normal children have revealed that parents may overestimate the prevalence of fears in their children.

6.

It is most commonly reported that both the number and intensity of fears experienced by children decreases with age.

7.

Within the internalizing syndrome of the empirical taxonomy based on Achenbach's instruments, there are separate subcategories for anxiety and depression.

8.

Phobia is the term often employed to describe fears that are quite intense, continue longer than expected, and interfere with functioning.

9.

An 8-year-old boy who is afraid of the water does not realize that his fear is excessive and unreasonable; therefore, he would not meet the DSM-5 criteria for specific phobia.

10.

Specific phobias are among the most commonly diagnosed anxiety disorders in children and adolescents.

11.

Concerns about being negatively evaluated are common among youngsters with social phobia.

12.

Becca, a high school freshman, must give an oral report in order to pass her social studies course.

She has been nervous and upset. On the day of the scheduled presentation, she does not come to school. Becca may be experiencing social anxiety disorder.

13.

Selective mutism is a separate DSM-5 disorder.

14.

Most youngsters with social phobia do not meet the criteria for other disorders.

15.

Based on the case study of Bruce reported in the textbook, the boy with selective mutism, selective mutism is an easily treated disorder.

16.

Separation anxiety is reportedly common in older adolescents.

.

51

17.

All youth who have separation anxiety exhibit school refusal.

18.

School refusal and truancy can be differentiated by fear, parental knowledge of the absence, and the existence of other conduct problems.

19.

In regard to youth who refuse school, it is best to recommend home schooling versus attempting to have them resume regular classroom attendance.

20.

Somatic (physical) complaints (e.g., stomachaches) are symptoms that occur among youngsters with separation anxiety disorder, but not among those with generalized anxiety disorder.

21.

Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the most common anxiety disorders among adolescents.

22.

According to the case study in the textbook of John who had Generalized Anxiety Disorder, having low self esteem is a common side effect of this disorder.

23.

Panic attacks are a DSM-5 diagnosis.

24.

Research on the children kidnapped from Chowchilla, CA, found that 73% of the children had moderate to severe reactions to the event.

25.

Acute stress disorder (ASD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are the same; however, one occurs in children and one occurs in adults.

26.

Many children who experience child abuse also meet the diagnostic criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

27.

LaGreca et al. studied children who experienced Hurricane Andrew in Florida. After 10 months, less than 10 percent of the children reported re-experiencing symptoms.

28.

The number of hours watching televised reports of the September 11, 2001 terrorism attacks was correlated with stress symptoms. That is, the more hours watched, the greater the symptoms reported.

29.

The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder requires that youngsters realize that these thoughts and behaviors are unreasonable.

30.

Based on the case study of Sergei (the 17 year old with OCD), it is evident that symptoms of OCD tend to remain fairly stable in young people, making the disorder easier to manage.

31.

Childhood obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is often recognized only when symptoms are very severe.

32.

Prior to adolescence, boys are more likely to be diagnosed with OCD than girls.

33.

OCD is often comorbid with tic disorders.

34.

There is clear evidence that developmental rituals are early manifestations of OCD.

.

52

35.

There is little evidence of a genetic contribution in anxiety disorders.

36.

Part of the basis for a biological explanation of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is research that indicates that both OCD and Tourette syndrome occur in the same individuals.

37.

Depression and anxiety are both characterized by low levels of positive affect.

38.

Effortful control is the ability to employ self-regulative processes.

39.

According the research reported in the textbook, ethnicity does not impact the reporting of anxiety symptoms.

40.

The most widely used measure to assess anxiety in children and adolescents is a heart rate monitor.

41.

The assessment of the subjective component of anxiety disorders may be more difficult for child clients than assessment in adults. This may be due, in part, to the difficulty parents and clinicians have in reliably identifying emotional discomfort in children.

42.

Exposure to anxiety provoking situations is a central element of successful fear reduction.

43.

The main difference between the FEAR program and the FRIENDS program is family involvement.

44.

Pharmacological treatment for anxiety in youth is probably the treatment of first choice.

45.

According to the FDA, Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may increase depression or suicidality in youth.

46.

To date, prevention programs for anxiety have not been very effective.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 47.

A general definition of anxiety as a complex pattern of three types of reactions to a perceived threat usually refers to which of the following responses? a. Physiological responses b. Unconscious responses

48.

Which of the following is true regarding fears, worries and anxiety in youth? a. b. c. d.

49.

c. Aggressive responses d. Covert responses

As children get older they are less likely to worry about threats to well-being.

Boys are more likely than girls to report fears and worries.

The most common fears do not vary across cultures.

There are no cultural differences in how anxiety is expressed (i.e., the prevalence rates of specific anxiety disorders).

In the DSM-5 system, which of the following is an anxiety disorder? .

53

a. Separation anxiety disorder b. Overanxious disorder 50.

Which of the following is true regarding the prevalence rate of anxiety disorders? a. b. c. d.

51.

Anxiety disorders are the least common disorders experienced by children and adolescents.

Young people are likely to meet the criteria for more than one anxiety disorder.

Young people typically outgrow their anxiety disorder.

Boys are more likely than girls to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.

Susan is 8 years old and exhibits an excessive and persistent fear of bearded men. She cries, clings to her mother, and is nauseous whenever she sees bearded men. She will not go to church since many members of the congregation have beards. She also does not want to go shopping or to restaurants for similar reasons. Susan would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. social phobia. b. specific phobia.

52.

c. Acute fear disorder d. Avoidant disorder

c. separation anxiety disorder. d. neurotic anxiety.

Based on the case study of Carlos presented in your book, which of the following is likely true regarding specific phobias? a. In order for phobias to develop, an individual must have a history numerous negative experiences with the feared object. b. If there has only been one bad experience with an object, the phobia is not severe. c. Phobias tend to resolve without treatment. d. Phobias can generalize to broad categories of objects (e.g., all buttons).

53.

Children and adolescents with social phobia a. b. c. d.

54.

Which of the following is accurate regarding the diagnosis of social phobia in an adolescent? a. b. c. d.

55.

often fear situations such as public speaking or performing in front of others. only exhibit fear or anxiety when interacting with adults. exhibit social fears all the time, even when interacting with familiar adults. develop selective mutism after having the diagnosis for 6-9 months.

The adolescent will not recognize that the fear is excessive or unreasonable.

The distinction between normal and abnormal social anxiety may be particularly difficult.

The disorder is likely overdiagnosed in adolescents diagnosed in this age group.

Young people with social anxiety are typically on anxious in one or two social situations (e.g., meeting new people or performing in front a group).

An 8-year-old boy, Ben, refuses to go to school, complains of stomachaches and nausea on school days, and experiences extreme anxiety in this and other situations requiring interactions with peers. Ben would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. separation anxiety disorder. b. specific phobia.

c. social phobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder.

.

54

56.

A youngster receiving a DSM-5 diagnosis of social phobia a. b. c. d.

57.

is likely to meet the criteria for another DSM diagnosis. is likely to have a general absence of appropriate social skills. is likely to have a problem with age-appropriate social relations with familiar people. may exhibit this problem only in interactions with adults.

Selective mutism might be conceptualized as an extreme form of: a. social anxiety. b. school anxiety.

58.

c. language disorder. d. depressive disorder.

Amy is a kindergarten girl who, since preschool, does not speak at all in school or with her peers.

She does easily speak with family members or when she is alone. Others describe her as fearful and clinging. Which of the following best fits Amy? a. Developmental language disorder b. School phobia

59.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of separation anxiety disorder requires a. b. c. d.

60.

refusal to go to school plus two out of seven other symptoms. refusal to go to school plus three of seven other symptoms. any three of eight listed symptoms. evidence of actual prolonged separation from the mother plus three of eight listed symptoms.

The most widespread explanation for cases of school refusal is a. b. c. d.

61.

psychological disturbance in the mother. anxiety concerning academic performance. separation anxiety. traumatic experiences at school.

An 8-year-old girl, Cindy, refuses to go to school, complains of stomachaches and nausea on school days, but readily goes to other children’s homes and to other activities away from home.

Cindy expresses anxiety regarding aspects of the school situation. She would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. school refusal disorder. b. specific phobia.

62.

c. Avoidant disorder d. Selective mutism

c. separation anxiety disorder. d. social anxiety disorder (social phobia).

Which of the following statements regarding school refusal is true? a. b. c. d.

School refusal only occurs during the elementary school years.

School refusal has a better prognosis in older youngsters.

School refusal in young children is likely to be related to conduct disorder.

School refusal in adolescents is likely to be associated with a mixed presentation of anxiety and depression.

.

55

63.

Heather is a 13-year-old who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. It is likely that Heather a. b. c. d.

64.

Which of the following pairs of symptoms is required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder? a. b. c. d.

65.

Excessive anxiety or worry and difficulty concentrating Excessive anxiety or worry and difficulty controlling worry Difficulty controlling worry and irritability Difficulty concentrating and disturbed sleep

Research on generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) indicates that a. b. c. d.

66.

exhibits anxiety concerning one particular kind of situation. has excessive concerns with her competence and performance. has symptoms that are likely to be transitory (short term). does not show other signs of significant impairment in her functioning.

GAD often co-occurs with other disorders. the intensity of the symptoms tends to decrease with age. separation anxiety is a common co-occurring disorder in adolescents with GAD. it is theorized to be under diagnosed.

A(n) __________ is a discrete period of intense fear or terror that has a sudden onset and reaches a peak quickly. a. anxiety attack b. compulsion

67.

c. panic attack d. parathesia

A panic attack that occurs "out of the blue" is described as a(n) a. cued panic attack. b. uncued panic attack.

68.

Severe cases of panic may lead to a youngster becoming terrified of leaving home for fear of being alone or of a situation where an uncontrollable or embarrassing attack may occur. This pattern is known as a. agoraphobia. b. separation anxiety.

69.

c. pseudo panic attack. d. depressive panic attack.

c. domestic panic. d. attachment panic.

Which of the following is true regarding panic disorder in children? a. Children report more cognitive symptoms than adults. b. Children experience only cued panic attacks. c. Children may report a general fear of becoming sick rather than specific physical symptoms. d. Panic disorder is more prevalent in children than adolescents .

.

56

70.

Which of the following regarding panic attacks and youth is true? a. b. c. d.

71.

Research suggests that ______ may serve as a precursor to panic disorder. a. b. c. d.

72.

Adolescents with panic attacks do not experience very much distress or impairment.

Adolescents with panic attacks are not likely to seek treatment.

Most youth with panic have no history of anxiety.

Many youth with panic disorder in clinical settings have a family history of panic attacks.

medical fears and specific phobias orderliness and obsessive-compulsive disorder shyness and social phobia separation concerns and separation anxiety disorder

A(n) _______ is usually defined as an event outside of everyday experience that would be distressing to almost anyone. a. panic attack b. obsession

73.

c. trauma d. parathesia

Mark experiences an event that poses a serious threat of injury or loss of his life. He subsequently experiences feelings of fear and helplessness that clearly interfere with his functioning. He also reports dissociative symptoms. The entire set of symptoms lasts for about three weeks. Mark is most likely to receive the DSM-5 diagnosis of a. specific phobia. b. acute stress disorder.

74.

Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. b. c. d.

75.

Re-experiencing, avoidance, and arousal Panic, depression, and dissociation Withdrawal, aggression, and delusions Fear, rejection of others, dissociation

______________ is an alteration in self-awareness that includes numbing, detachment or appearing to be in a daze. a. b. c. d.

76.

c. panic type stress disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder.

Trauma Derealization Dissociation Depersonalization

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to occur in a young child who has experienced a traumatic event during a train trip? a. Sleep difficulties b. Fears regarding other forms of transportation c. Fears related to small animals and other objects

.

57

d. Dependent, clinging behavior 77.

Which of the following is true regarding PTSD? a. b. c. d.

78.

Based on the work of LaGreca et al., following Hurricane Andrew, which of the following statements regarding the developmental course of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder is accurate? a. b. c. d.

79.

Avoidance is the most common symptom.

Children and adolescents tend to experience the same pattern of symptoms.

Symptoms can differ depending on the nature of the traumatic event.

The degree of exposure to the traumatic event is irrelevant.

All attempts to cope, both negative and positive, resulted in persistent symptoms.

Symptoms of avoidance and general numbing increased over time.

Symptoms of arousal increased over time.

Substantial numbers of children continued to report "re-experiencing" symptoms.

As a result of the Oklahoma City bombing, a. youngsters in the area experienced both immediate and continuing symptoms of posttraumatic stress. b. the majority of youngsters in the area no longer experienced symptoms after two months’ time. c. only those youngsters who had lost an immediate family member continued to experience symptoms two months after the bombing. d. youngsters showed no correlations between television exposure to the event and PTSD symptoms.

80.

Sam, age 6, experiences repeated and persistent thoughts concerning infection and illness, which he does not think are unusual or unreasonable. These thoughts a. b. c. d.

81.

In order to diagnose OCD: a. b. c. d.

82.

may be compulsions. are not compulsions since they are not viewed as unreasonable. may be obsessions. are not obsessions since they are not viewed as unreasonable.

obsessions must be related to dirt and germs. the obsessions and compulsions must be highly time consuming and interfere with life. a child must have both obsessions and compulsions. parents and children must agree that there is a problem.

Which of the following represent the common “themes” associated with OCD? a. Aggressive thoughts or images and being good b. Cleanliness, grooming, averting danger, and pervasive doubting c. Fear of not being prepared for disaster and hoarding or collecting

.

58

d. Aggressive thoughts or images and counting 83.

Which of the following statements regarding the epidemiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder is accurate? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder occurs in about 10 percent of the general population of adolescents. b. Onset for boys tends to be postpubertal. c. Onset for girls tends to be prepubertal. d. Mean age of onset is about 10 years of age.

84.

_____________________ is a chronic disorder characterized by vocal and motor tics and related urges. a. b. c. d.

85.

Regarding the etiology of anxiety disorders such as specific phobias, it is most likely that they are a. b. c. d.

86.

the influence of genetics is greatest for adolescents. serotonin has been linked to anxiety and panic.

GABA is elevated in the brains of anxious individuals. the influence of genetics is higher for anxiety than other psychological disorders.

Which brain structure has been linked to anxiety? a. b. c. d.

88.

largely genetically determined. due to direct experience. due to indirect experience. multiply determined.

In regard to biological influences of anxiety, a. b. c. d.

87.

Tourette’s Syndrome Obsessive Compulsive Spectrum Multimodal Tic Disorder Repetitive Movement Disorder

Amygdala Cerebellum Basal ganglia Thalamus

The evidence for a genetic influence is probably greatest for which anxiety disorder? a. Post traumatic stress disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

89.

c. Separation anxiety disorder d. Specific phobia

Brain imaging studies and other findings suggest that obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is linked to the anatomy of the a. basal ganglia.

c. frontal cortex.

.

59

b. cerebral cortex.

90.

d. thalamus.

Kagan's findings regarding children who are extreme on the dimension of behavioral inhibition to the unfamiliar indicate that a. inhibited children tend to have decreased autonomic system reactivity. b. fears in the inhibited children are usually associated with prior trauma, whereas fears in the noninhibited children are not. c. inhibited children were more likely than noninhibited children to meet the criteria for multiple anxiety disorders. d. inhibited children were particularly at risk for the development of depression.

91.

Which combination is most likely to result in anxiety? a. b. c. d.

92.

Research suggests that parents may influence the development of anxiety in several ways. Which of the following is a possible method of parental influence? a. b. c. d.

93.

Global self-ratings by the child A behavioral avoidance test The Revised Fear Survey Schedule for Children The Revised Children's Manifest Anxiety Scale

Systematic desensitization a. b. c. d.

95.

Parents ignore anxious behavior.

Parents reinforce active methods of coping.

Parents assume their children can handle anxiety-provoking situations.

Parents are overprotective and intrusive.

Which of the following would be the least likely to be used to assess the subjective component of a child's fear or anxiety? a. b. c. d.

94.

Low positive affect and high negative affect High effortful control and low positive affect Low effortful control and high negative affect High effortful control and high negative affect

is a combination of relaxation and exposure. is a form of contingency management. is a cognitive behavioral intervention. requires an in vivo experience to be effective.

__________________ involves observation followed by the fearful child joining the model in making gradual approaches to the feared objects. a. b. c. d.

In vivo exposure Imaginal exposure Participant modeling Symbolic modeling

.

60

96.

__________________ ensures positive consequences follow exposure to but not avoidance of the feared stimulus. The youth is rewarded for improvement. a. b. c. d.

97.

Which of the following is a correct indication of what the acronym FEAR stands for, as employed

by Kendall in his Coping Cat Workbook? a. b. c. d.

98.

F – Feeling frightened E – Exposure to feared stimulus A – Associate with brave people R – Repeat after me, “I am calm and relaxed”

In treating youngsters with obsessive-compulsive disorder, the treatments for which there are the best empirical support are a. b. c. d.

99.

Relaxation training Reinforced practice Rehearsal Repeat modeling

exposure with response prevention and antianxiety medications. exposure with response prevention and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). systematic desensitization and antianxiety medications. systematic desensitization and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

Most anxiety prevention programs have included a. b. c. d.

systematic desensitization. modeling. contingency management. cognitive behavioral methods.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 100.

Describe the tripartite model of anxiety, and give examples of each response.

101.

Explain the general prevalence of worries and fears. Include gender, age, and cultural information.

102.

Discuss the importance of understanding cultural influences when examining child and adolescent psychopathology. How might culture impact prevalence rates, development of a disorder, assessment, and treatment?

103.

Discuss the behavioral, cognitive, and somatic symptoms associated with social anxiety disorder.

What are common consequences of this disorder?

104.

Define school refusal. What are some reasons why a young person might refuse to go to school?

.

61

105.

What are the 3 criteria for diagnosing panic disorder? List 5 of the 13 possible symptoms for a panic attack.

106.

What are the three categories of symptoms required for the DSM-5 diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder? Give two examples for each category of symptoms.

107.

Discuss the factors that appear to influence a youth’s initial reactions to trauma as well as the severity and duration of the symptoms.

108.

Describe the brain circuits and neurotransmission linked to anxiety. Include the portion of the brain most often thought to be associated with anxiety.

109.

Describe three pathway theory of psychosocial influences proposed by Rachman. Give an example of each.

110.

Briefly explain how parenting practices and peer relationships can influence anxiety.

111.

Anxiety is described as a complex pattern of three types of reactions to a perceived threat. What are the three types of reactions? Give an example of how each might be assessed.

112.

Describe relaxation training and systematic desensitization.

113.

Name five treatment strategies that are often included in cognitive-behavioral treatments for anxiety disorders in children and adolescents.

114.

What is exposure with response prevention? How does one enhance generalization and prevent relapse? Give an example of an imaginal exposure that might be used.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

T, T, F, F, F, T, F, T, F, T, T, T, T, F, F, F, F, T,

p. 110, factual p. 110, factual p. 110, factual p. 111, factual p. 111, factual p. 111, factual p. 111-112 (Table 6.1), conceptual p. 113, factual p. 113, applied p. 113, factual pp. 114-115, factual pp. 114-115, applied pp. 115-116, factual p. 116, factual p. 116 (Accent), conceptual p, 119, factual p. 119, factual p. 120, conceptual

.

62

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

F, p. 120, conceptual F, p. 121, factual T, p. 121, factual T, p. 121, applied F, p. 122, factual T, p. 124, factual F, p. 124, conceptual T, p. 126, factual F, p. 129, factual T, p. 129 (Accent), applied F, p. 129, factual F, p. 130 (Accent), applied T, p. 130, factual T, pp. 130-131, factual T, p. 131, factual F, p. 131, conceptual F, p. 131, factual T, p. 132, factual F, p. 133, factual T, p. 133, factual F, p. 135, factual F, p. 135, factual T, pp. 135-136, conceptual T, p. 136, factual T, p. 138, conceptual F, p. 139, factual T, p. 139, factual F, p. 140, conceptual A, p. 110, factual C, p. 110-111, factual A, p. 111, factual B, p. 112, factual B, pp. 113-114, applied D, p. 114, applied A, pp. 114-115, conceptual A, pp. 115–116, factual C, pp. 115–116, applied A, pp. 115-116, factual A, p. 115, conceptual D, p. 116, applied C, p. 118, factual C, p. 119, conceptual B, p. 119, applied D, pp. 119-120, conceptual B, pp. 120-121, applied B, p. 120-121, conceptual A, p. 121-122, factual C, p. 122, factual B, p. 122, factual

.

63

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

A, p. 122, applied C, pp. 123-124, factual D, pp. 123-124, factual D, p. 124, factual C, p. 124, factual B, p. 124, applied A, p. 125 (Table 6.5), factual C, p. 126, conceptual C, p. 126, factual C, p. 127 (Table 6.6), factual D, pp. 128-129, applied A, p 128 (Accent), applied C, p 129, applied B, pp. 129-130, conceptual B, p. 130, factual D, pp. 130-131, factual A, p. 131, factual D, p. 132, conceptual B, p. 132, factual A, p. 132, factual B, p. 132, conceptual A, p. 132, factual C, p. 133, factual C, p. 133, factual D, p. 134, conceptual B, pp. 135-136, applied A, p. 137, factual C, p. 137, factual B, p. 137, factual A, p. 138, factual B, p. 139, factual D. p. 140, conceptual p. 110, factual pp. 110-111, factual p. 112 (Accent), conceptual p. 115, conceptual pp. 119-120, conceptual pp. 122-123, factual pp. 124-126, conceptual pp. 127-128, conceptual p. 132, factual pp. 133-134, applied pp. 134-135, conceptual pp. 135-136, applied pp. 136-137, conceptual Table 6.7, factual p. 139, applied

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CHAPTER 7

MOOD DISORDERS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

The classical, or orthodox, psychoanalytic perspective suggested that depression was a phenomenon where the superego acts as a “punisher” to the ego.

2.

Depression in childhood has long been viewed as similar to adult depression.

3.

The classical psychoanalytic perspective suggested that children could not experience depression.

4.

The concept of masked depression posits that sad mood is often not present in children and adolescents.

5.

In the DSM-5, depression and mania are described in the category of Mood Disorders.

6.

The term bipolar refers to depression where one pole is mild and the other pole is severe.

7.

In the DSM-5 description of mood episodes, a mixed episode refers to an episode containing a mixture of depression and anxiety symptoms.

8.

Mania is described as a period of abnormally elevated (or irritable) mood characterized by features such as inflated self-esteem, high rates of activity, speech, and thinking.

9.

Hypomania is a more severe form of mania.

10.

According to the research by Kazdin (1989), diagnosing depression in young people can be impacted by the criterion or assessment device used and the informant.

11.

When diagnosing a depressive episode, irritability can be substituted for depressed mood in children and adolescents.

12.

Double depression means that a person has dysthymia and major depression.

13.

Many youngsters who exhibit depressive symptoms, but fall short of meeting the diagnostic criteria for a depressive disorder, may still exhibit impairment in their everyday functioning.

14.

Bipolar disorder is the most frequently diagnosed mood disorder among children and adolescents.

15.

Reported prevalence rates probably over estimate depression in youth.

16.

Research indicates that 40 to 70% of youth diagnosed with major depressive disorder have a cooccurring disorder.

17.

Gender differences in major depressive disorders probably emerge between the ages of 12 and 14.

.

65

18.

Lower socioeconomic (SES) status is associated with lower rates of depression.

19.

Given cognitive, language, and other developmental differences, it is unlikely that depressive behavior in children will be similar to those of adults.

20.

Studies indicate that relapse or re-occurrence of depressive episodes is common in youth.

21.

Genetic influences are generally thought not to play a role in depression.

22.

A common psychological explanation of childhood depression is that depression derives from separation or loss.

23.

The term anaclitic depression refers to the cognitive components of depression.

24.

Youth with high negative affect and low positive affect who experience parental warmth will still develop depression.

25.

Numerous studies have found that youngsters from homes with a depressed parent are at no greater risk for developing a psychological disorder.

26.

Frank and Joe in the case study from the textbook both came from homes where a parent experienced depression. According to this case study, parental depression is debilitating to the child regardless of the environment.

27.

Peer status has been found to be associated with adjustment difficulties, including depression.

28.

Self-report instruments are the most common measures of depression.

29.

Research indicates that there are low levels of correlation between parent and child reports of measures of depression.

30.

Antidepressant medications have been principally developed and marketed for American youth.

31.

Tricyclic antidepressants such as imipramine are the medications most likely to be recommended for the treatment of depression in children.

32.

The Treatment of Adolescent Depression Study found that rates of remission for depression were high.

33.

The Treatment of Resistant Depression in Adolescents Study supports previous research findings that cognitive behavioral therapy plus medication is superior to medication alone.

34.

Current research indicates that universal prevention programs for depression are highly effective.

35.

Mania may be expressed as irritability in children and adolescents.

36.

Recent data indicates that the rate of bipolar disorder is increasing in young people.

.

66

37.

The heritability estimate of bipolar disorder hovers around 50 percent.

38.

The primary treatment for bipolar disorder is pharmacotherapy.

39.

The majority of depressed youngsters do not attempt or commit suicide.

40.

Suicide among younger children is occurring at a lower rate than two decades ago.

41.

Research indicates that as many as 25% of adolescents engage in non-suicidal self injury.

42.

A family history of suicidal behavior increases suicide risk.

43.

Suicide prevention programs have proven to be quite successful.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 44.

The distinction between depression as a symptom and as a syndrome is a. a distinction between a negative mood state compared to the negative mood state plus certain other problems that lead to impaired functioning. b. depression as a symptom of some other disorder compared to depression as a separate disorder. c. depression as a disorder that occurs by itself compared to depression as a disorder that occurs along with other disorders (e.g., anxiety disorders). d. a distinction between depression as manifested in young children compared to depression as manifested in adolescents.

45.

The book reports a study by Kazdin where youth were designated as depressed or non depressed using three methods (DSM interview, parent CDI or child CDI). On the self report CDI, how did the depressed and non-depressed groups differ? a. b. c. d.

46.

In diagnosing a major depressive episode in a child, DSM-5 requires that one of the symptoms present must be a. b. c. d.

47.

The depressed group was more hopeless.

The non depressed group had lower self esteem.

The depressed group made external attributions about negative events.

The non depressed group believed that change was controlled by external factors rather than themselves.

depressed (or irritable) mood or sleep problems. depressed (or irritable) mood or loss of interest/pleasure. sleep problems or feelings of worthlessness (or guilt). changes in weight (or appetite) or thoughts of death.

Tommy exhibits symptoms of irritable mood, poor appetite, disturbed sleep, low energy, difficulty concentrating, and feelings of worthlessness. These symptoms are fairly severe and

.

67

have been present for about one month. They are interfering with Tommy’s functioning at school and with his peers. Tommy would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. masked depression. b. bipolar disorder.

48.

Jada exhibits symptoms of irritable mood, poor appetite, disturbed sleep, low energy, difficulty concentrating, and low self-esteem. These symptoms are not very severe but have been present for about one year. They are interfering with Jada’s functioning at school and with her peers. Jada would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. immature depression. b. bipolar disorder.

49.

c. major depressive disorder. d. dysthymic disorder.

c. major depressive disorder. d. dysthymic disorder.

Which of the following statements regarding empirically derived syndromes and depression is accurate? a. None of the empirically defined syndromes of the Achenbach measures includes depressive symptoms (behaviors). b. A separate syndrome of depression has emerged in the Achenbach measures. c. A syndrome of mixed anxiety and depression symptoms (behaviors) has emerged in the Achenbach measures. d. The empirical approach has identified a separate category for childhood depression.

50.

The most prevalent form of affective disorder among children and adolescents is a. bipolar disorder. b. cyclothymia.

51.

c. dysthymia. d. major depressive disorder.

Among youngsters with unipolar disorders, about ______ experience major depressive disorder. a. 1 percent b. 10 percent

52.

c. 30 percent d. 80 percent

In the Oregon Adolescent Depression Project, Lewinsohn and his colleagues found that by age 19 approximately _____ of adolescents had experienced an episode of major depressive disorder. a. 2 percent b. 12 percent

53.

c. 28 percent d. 56 percent

Which of the following statements regarding the relationship of age and gender to the usual findings regarding the prevalence of depression is correct? a. There are no gender differences in children (ages 6-12) or in adolescents. b. There are no gender differences in children (ages 6-12), but in adolescence, depression is more common in boys. c. There are no gender differences in children (ages 6-12), but in adolescence, depression is more common in girls. d. Depression is more common in girls in both age groups.

.

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54.

In a study by Kistner et al. (2007), a. b. c. d.

55.

European American girls reported the highest rate of depressive symptoms.

African American girls reported the highest rate of depressive symptoms.

European American boys reported the highest rate of depressive symptoms.

African American boys reported the highest rate of depressive symptoms.

Depression with onset in ______ is most similar to adult forms of the disorder. a. preschool b. early school age

56.

In the text the case study of Amy, the preschooler with depression, highlights which of the following symptoms? a. b. c. d.

57.

c. preadolescence d. later adolescence

Somatic symptoms and regression in toilet training Aggression Statements about wanting to die Disorganized attachment

Regarding the duration of episodes of major depressive disorder among adolescents, it is probably the case that a. the median duration of an episode is 2 weeks among community samples, and about twice as long for clinical samples. b. the median duration of an episode is 2 weeks among community samples, and about the same length in clinical samples. c. the median duration of an episode is 8 weeks among community samples, and over three times as long in clinical samples. d. the median duration of an episode is 8 weeks among community samples, and about the same length in clinical samples.

58.

When the role of hormones in depression is discussed, the discussion concerns hormones such as a. prolactin. b. norepinephrine.

59.

_______________ includes qualities such as the tendency to experience negative emotions, to be sensitive to negative stimuli and to be wary and vigilant. a. b. c. d.

60.

c. imipramine. d. monoamine oxidase.

Paranoia Hypomania Dysthymia Negative Affectivity

Behavioral theorists such as Ferster and Lewinsohn have suggested that separation-loss may lead to depression because

.

69

a. b. c. d.

61.

of aggression turned inward. of the loss of a significant source of positive reinforcement. of objection to the loss. it may set in motion a chain of self-punishment.

The statement, "research suggests that the link between loss and depression is indirect" means that a. the loss leads to anxiety or some other disorder and that these disorders, in turn, lead to depression. b. the loss may set in motion a chain of adverse circumstances that increase the risk for depression. c. the research shows a link to sadness and this indirectly suggests a link to depression. d. research indicates negative correlations.

62.

The ____________ perspective attributes depression to low social competence, cognitive distortions, and low self-esteem. a. psychoanalytic b. cognitive behavioral

63.

An explanatory style that blames negative events on _______, _______, and _______ attributes is hypothesized to be characteristic of depressed individuals. a. external, stable, and specific b. external, stable, and global

64.

anaclitic depression learned helplessness hopelessness projection

The hopelessness theory of depression would predict that youngsters with a negative attributional style, as compared to youngsters with a positive attributional style, would a. b. c. d.

66.

c. internal, stable, and global d. internal, unstable, and global

Susie’s mother abandoned her when she was 5 years old. Now at age 8, Susie thinks that she has little control over her environment. This is an example of: a. b. c. d.

65.

c. biological d. family systems

be more depressed under low stress conditions, but not under high stress conditions. be more depressed under high stress conditions, but not under low stress conditions. be more depressed under both high and low stress conditions. be less depressed under both high and low stress conditions.

Depressed youth who catastrophize, overgeneralize, personalize, and selectively attend to negative events are exhibiting a. learned helplessness. b. cognitive distortions.

c. anaclitic depression. d. hopelessness.

.

70

67.

A patient who challenges and changes problematic cognitions is performing a. b. c. d.

68.

Which of the following have been associated with depression? a. b. c. d.

69.

cognitive refocusing. brain training. reparenting. cognitive restructuring.

Rumination and avoidance Problem solving and social support High levels of perceived competence and physical ability Distraction and talking to others

The results of the research by Hammen and her colleagues comparing the long-term effects of maternal depression (MD) and maternal chronic illness (MCI) on children found that a. rates of psychological disorder in both MD and MCI children were higher than in children of non-ill mothers, but MD and MCI children did not differ from each other. b. rates of psychological disorder in both MD and MCI children were higher than in children of non-ill mothers and MD children had higher rates of psychological disorders than MCI children. c. rates of psychological disorders were higher only for the MD children compared to the MCI children and children of non-ill mothers. d. neither MD or MCI children differed from children of non-ill mothers in rates of psychological disorders.

70.

Weissman and her colleagues compared offspring of parents, neither of whom had a psychological disorder (low risk) and offspring of parents, one or both of whom had a diagnosis of major depressive disorder (high risk). These researchers found which of the following? a. High-risk offspring had increased rates of major depressive disorder. b. High-risk offspring had increased rates of major depressive disorder, particularly after puberty. c. Low-risk offspring had increased rates of phobias and alcohol dependence. d. Depressed offspring of depressed parents were more likely to receive treatment.

71.

Beardslee and his colleagues examined the impact of parental depression in a nonclinically referred population by conducting two measurements four years apart. Which of the following risk factors affected the likelihood of a youngster experiencing serious affective disorder in the time between the two assessments? a. b. c. d.

72.

Parental major depressive disorder Parental major depressive disorder and parental nonaffective diagnoses (disorders) Parental major depressive disorder and the number of earlier child diagnoses (disorders) Parental major depressive disorder and parental nonaffective diagnoses (disorders) and the number of earlier child diagnoses (disorders)

Research on interactional patterns in families with a depressed parent or child suggest that

.

71

a. depressed behavior by a family member may be maintained because it serves to avoid conflictual behavior among family members. b. depressed behavior by a family member is reduced where there is marital conflict. c. no association exists between marital conflict and depression. d. a child is less likely to be depressed when he/she can mediate the conflict between the parents.

73.

The notion that the depressed mother may be emotionally unavailable and insensitive to her young child is important to which explanation of the maternal depression/child depression association? a. Cognitive modeling b. Ineffective parenting practices

74.

c. Attachment d. Social network

Research by Ivanova and Israel (2006) found a. family stability moderates the impact of parental depression in children’s internalizing problems. b. parental depression causes internalizing problems in children regardless of the family situation. c. inconsistency in family routines lead to internalizing problems in the child even if the parent was not depressed. d. family stability was not a statistically significant variable in regard to child adjustment.

75.

In the Kupersmidt and Patterson study of peer status and adjustment, a. b. c. d.

76.

peer status was not related to clinical difficulties for boys. rejected boys and girls had high rates of clinical difficulties. rejected boys, but not rejected girls, exhibited high rates of clinical level difficulties. rejected girls, but not rejected boys, exhibited high rates of clinical level difficulties.

In the Kupersmidt and Patterson study of peer status and adjustment, the group exhibiting the strongest relationships between peer status and depression in the clinical range was a. neglected boys. b. rejected boys.

c. neglected girls. d. rejected girls.

77.

Research on peer relation difficulties and depression indicates a. depression does not impact peer relationships until late adolescence. b. depressed youngsters still view peers positively. c. early disruptive behavior can affect peer relationships in childhood and lead to depression. d. depressed youngsters tend to be overconfident in their social skills.

78.

Self-report measures of depression in youngsters are particularly important because a. mothers frequently deny that their children are depressed. b. fathers frequently deny that their children are depressed. c. it is important that the child publicly acknowledges that he or she is depressed.

.

72

d. many of the key problems that characterize depression are subjective.

79.

The Children's Depression Inventory a. b. c. d.

80.

Measures of a youngster’s depression completed by both the youngster and the parent a. b. c. d.

81.

is a structured interview employed to obtain a DSM diagnosis. is probably the most commonly employed self-report measure of depression in youngsters. is used to primarily assess the affective component of depression. lacks substantial research evidence for its usefulness.

show low levels of correlation, and agreement is fairly constant across ages of youngsters. show low levels of correlation, and agreement may vary with the age of youngster. show high levels of correlation, and agreement is fairly constant across ages of youngsters. show high levels of correlation, and agreement may vary with the age of youngster.

Regarding pharmacotherapy for childhood depression, a. research supports the superiority of antidepressant medications in prepubertal children and adolescents. b. antidepressant medications have well-established guidelines for administration with youngsters. c. antidepressant medications are established as being safe for youngsters. d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the medications most likely to be recommended.

82.

The Treatment of Adolescent Depression Study (2007, 2009) found that initially a. b. c. d.

83.

using SSRIs alone was the best treatment for depression.

CBT alone was more effective than other types of treatment. the combined SSRI and CBT treatment worked best. the suicide risk was highest in the placebo (no treatment) group.

In the Stark et al., studies where 9-13 year old girls received a school based treatment for depression (Action Program), which of the following is true? a. The girls were taught to use coping skills if they were unhappy and did not know why. b. Behavioral activation referred to efforts made to identify behaviors that triggered depression. c. The cognitive behavioral program alone was not as effective as the program using parent training and cognitive behavioral therapy combined. d. Improvements were initially strong but were not maintained at a 1-year follow up.

84.

The findings of the study by Lewinsohn and his colleagues on the cognitive-behavioral treatment of depressed adolescents suggest that a. treatment is effective only if parents are included. b. treatment is effective only if parents are excluded. c. post-treatment, only about 55 percent of treated youngsters, but 95 percent of control youngsters still met diagnostic criteria for depression. d. treatment gains are not maintained at two years following treatment.

.

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85.

Research by Mufson and colleagues and by Rosselló and Bernal comparing the use of interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) with depressed Latino adolescents a. b. c. d.

86.

found that CBT was the most effective in treating depression. found that IPT, but not CBT, resulted in improvements in depression. found that both approaches were effective for depression, but IPT helped in additional ways. found that cultural influences were not relevant to the treatment of depression.

Research on CBT in adolescents indicates a. b. c. d.

the effectiveness rates are good immediately following the treatment, but diminish over time. the effectiveness rates are good immediately following treatment and at long term follow up. the severity of the depression appears unrelated to success. the treatment is more effective for teens with co-occurring disorders.

87 .

The term bipolar disorder refers to a. the experience of both high and low levels of depression. b. the presence of mania as well as depressive symptoms. c. the presence of depression in the context of confusion regarding sexual identity. d. depression that may result from extreme changes in seasonal weather conditions.

88.

Ana is 17 years old and experiencing a persistent elevated mood. She feels like her thoughts are racing. Ana reports that she needs less sleep than she did before. She has been buying an extensive new wardrobe and has been involved in sexual relations with several older men. She is doing poorly in school and is in conflict with her family and friends. Ana would most likely be diagnosed, according to DSM-5, as experiencing a a. major depressive episode. b. manic episode.

89.

Jake is 15 years old. Since about age 10, he has had periods of sadness, irritability and withdrawal. At times, he was so down that he could not get out of bed or make it to school.

Recently, he has begun to experience times where he felt energized and needed less sleep. He got caught up on his homework, joined three clubs at school and tried out for the basketball team. He asked “the best looking girl in the school,” a senior, to prom . His parents describe him as arrogant and irritable at times. He seems annoyed that people can’t keep up with him in conversation. Which of the following best describes Jake’s symptoms? a. b. c. d.

90.

c. dysthymic episode. d. masked depressive episode.

Bipolar I Bipolar II Cyclothmia Depression in remission

The presentation of bipolar disorder in youth differs from the adult presentation in which of the following ways? a. Youth have more distinct episodes.

.

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b. Mixed mood episodes are rare in youth. c. Youth have periods of relatively good functioning in between episodes. d. Youth tend to have a rapid cycling pattern of episodes.

91.

Reported rates of bipolar disorders in children and adolescents range from ____ to ____ in clinical samples. a. 0-6 percent c. 10-14 percent b. 3-9 percent d. 17-30 percent

92.

Based on the work of Lewinsohn et al., and others, which of the following statements regarding bipolar disorders is correct? a. The median duration of the most recent manic episode was 10.8 months. b. Youngsters with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder had a later age of onset for their affective disorder than youngsters with major depression. c. The total amount of time with an affective disorder was longer for the youngsters with depression than for those with bipolar disorders. d. Approximately 2% of the adolescents had a chronic course (nonstop symptoms until age 24).

93.

Regarding the prevalence of suicide among children and adolescents, a. the rate of completed suicides among 5 to 14-year-olds decreased between 1980 and 2007. b. the rate of completed suicides among 15- to 19-year-olds increased considerably from 1980 to 2007. c. among 15- to 19-year-olds, the rate of completed suicides is higher for white males than for black males. d. risk of completed suicide is greatest for white females.

94.

The term “suicidal behavior” includes a. b. c. d.

95.

Based on the longitudinal study by Lewinsohn and his colleagues, which of the following statements regarding suicidal ideation among adolescents is accurate? a. b. c. d.

96.

completed suicides. completed suicides and suicide attempts. completed suicides and suicidal ideation. completed suicides, suicide attempts, and suicidal ideation.

About 7 percent of adolescents had a history of suicidal ideation.

Suicidal ideation was more prevalent in adolescent men than in adolescent women.

The frequency of suicidal ideation was unrelated to future suicidal attempts.

Mild and relatively infrequent suicidal thoughts increased the risk for a suicide attempt.

Based on the longitudinal study by Lewinsohn and his colleagues, which of the following statements regarding suicide attempts by adolescents is accurate? a. The risk for a reattempt is significantly diminished weeks after the initial attempt. b. Attempts by females most often involved ingestion of harmful substances and cutting. c. Suicide attempts made before puberty were the most common.

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d. Approximately 2 percent of previous attempters reattempt suicide.

97.

Which of the following statements regarding suicide in youngsters is accurate? a. b. c. d.

98.

Which of the following statements regarding suicide risk is accurate? a. b. c. d.

99.

The rate of completed suicide in youngsters is low as compared to adults.

Depression is a necessary condition for suicidal behavior.

Diagnostic heterogeneity is not characteristic of suicide completers.

Antisocial behavior/conduct disorders are rare among male adolescent suicide completers.

A history of prior attempts is unrelated to risk for future suicide.

There is no evidence that suicide is “contagious” in youth.

There is no evidence for higher rates of completed suicides in gay and lesbian youth.

The period 3 months after hospitalization for a suicide attempt is a time when youth are the safest (i.e., least likely to reattempt).

According to the Add Health Survey, which of the following is true regarding youth with samesex orientation and suicide? a. b. c. d.

A vast majority of the youth reported no thoughts or attempts of suicide.

The youth were no more likely to attempt suicide than their peers.

The youth were no more likely to abuse alcohol or experience depression than their peers.

The youth were no more likely to be victimized or have a family history of suicide.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 100.

What is masked depression? Why has the concept been important to the study of depression in children?

101.

Briefly describe the 4 mood episodes outlined in the DSM-5.

102.

What are the issues regarding how to best define and classify depression in children and adolescents?

103.

Describe the experience of depression in children. What behaviors might adults report seeing in these children? What other disorders are often present?

104.

Briefly describe the developmental course of depression by describing features in three different developmental periods and how they compare to each other and to adult depression.

105.

Briefly describe the research findings on brain functioning and neurochemistry in relation to depression. How do these results apply to children and adolescents?

106.

Briefly compare the psychodynamic and cognitive behavioral conceptions of the relationship between separation/loss and the development of depression. .

76

107.

Briefly describe three different mechanisms that may account for the link between parental depression and depression in a child.

108.

List 5 of the 11 categories that may be used to rate behaviors when observing a social interaction task.

109.

Describe the core elements of the Action program used to treat 9-12 year old girls with depression.

110.

Describe the differences between Bipolar I, Bipolar II and cylothymia.

111.

Briefly describe four characteristics of manic episodes or bipolar disorder in prepubertal youngsters or adolescents that indicate how they may differ from the presentation in adults.

112.

Describe the symptoms that may be displayed by a youngster with bipolar disorder. What cooccurring problems are possible?

113.

What variables are involved in treating bipolar disorder?

114.

Review the risk factors associated with suicide.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

T, F, T, T T, F, F, T, F, T, T, T, T, F, F, T, T, F, T, T, F, T, F, F,

p. 144, factual p. 144, factual p. 144, factual p. 144, conceptual p. 144, factual p. 144, conceptual p. 144, factual p. 144, factual p. 144, factual p. 145 (Table 7.1), applied p. 146, factual p. 146, factual p. 146, factual p. 147, factual p. 148, factual p. 149, factual p. 149, factual p. 149, factual p. 149, conceptual p. 151, conceptual p. 151, factual p. 153, factual p. 153, conceptual p. 153, conceptual

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25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

F, p. 156, factual F, p. 158, applied T, p. 158, factual T, p. 159, factual T, p. 159, factual F, p. 160, factual F, p. 160, factual F, p. 161, factual T, p. 161, factual F p. 164, factual T, p. 165 (Scott case study), conceptual T, p. 167, factual F, p. 169, factual T, p. 170, factual T, p. 170, factual F, p. 171, factual T, p. 172 (Accent), factual T, p. 173, factual F, p. 174, conceptual A, p. 144, conceptual A, p. 145, applied B, p. 146, factual C, p. 146, applied D, p. 146, applied C, p. 146, conceptual D, p. 147, factual D, p. 147, factual C, p. 148, factual C, p. 148, factual D, p. 149, applied D, p. 150, factual A, p. 150 (Accent), applied C, p. 151, factual B, p. 152 factual D, p. 152, conceptual B, p. 153, factual B, p. 154, factual B, p. 154, conceptual C, p. 154, conceptual B, p. 154, applied B, pp. 154-155 (Figure 7.3), conceptual B, p. 155, conceptual D. p. 155, conceptual A, p. 155, factual B, p. 156, applied B, p. 156, factual D, p. 156, factual A, pp. 156-157 (Mary case study), conceptual C, p. 157, conceptual

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78

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

95.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

A, p. 157 (Figure 7.4), applied B, p. 158, applied C, p. 158, applied C, p. 159, conceptual D, p. 159, factual B, p. 159, factual B, p. 159, factual D, pp. 160-161, factual C, p. 161, factual A, p. 162, applied C, p. 162, applied C, p. 163, applied A, p. 164, conceptual B, p. 165, factual B, p. 165, applied B, p. 165, applied D. p. 165, factual D, p. 167, factual A, pp. 168-169, applied C, p. 171, factual D, p. 171, conceptual D, p. 171, applied B, p. 171, applied A, pp. 171-173, conceptual C, pp. 173-174, conceptual A, p. 174, conceptual p. 144, conceptual p. 144, conceptual p. 146, conceptual p. 147 (Accent), conceptual pp. 149-151, conceptual p. 152, conceptual pp. 153-155, conceptual pp. 156-157, conceptual p. 160 (Table 7.2), factual pp. 161-162, factual p. 165, conceptual p. 167, factual pp. 166-167 (Table 7.4), conceptual p. 170, factual pp. 173-174, factual

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CHAPTER 8

CONDUCT PROBLEMS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

Typical conduct problems in early childhood include noncompliance, temper tantrums, and oppositional behavior.

2.

Antisocial personality disorder is diagnosed at 15 when a long history of conduct disordered behavior is present.

3.

"Normal" nonclinic children do not exhibit oppositional and noncompliant behavior.

4.

Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is described as a pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior that is developmentally extreme.

5.

Youth diagnosed with conduct disorder tend to be similar in terms of the symptoms they have.

6.

Research indicates that there is a higher degree of heritability for aggressive rather than rule breaking behavior.

7.

Paul is 15 years old and engages in the following behaviors: drinks alcohol, lies, has friends who act out, swears, often skips school, and runs away. These behaviors are indicative of aggressive behavior noted by Achenbach and Rescorla (2001).

8.

Within the empirically derived broad externalizing/conduct disorder syndrome, two narrower syndromes, which might be designated as "aggressive behavior" and "rule-breaking behavior," have been suggested.

9.

The salient symptom approach to classify conduct disorder is based on the primary problem being displayed.

10.

Relational aggression is found more often in males than females.

11.

Violence is typically defined as an extreme form of physical aggression.

12.

Firesetting represents a behavior that would be described as a covert antisocial behavior.

13.

The frequency of bullying increases with age.

14.

Research indicates that there is a relationship between bullying behavior and later criminal behavior.

15.

Sugden et al., (2010) found that children with a variant on the serotonin transporter gene may have a greater risk of emotional disturbance after a bullying experience.

.

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16.

Recent research by Roberts and colleagues (2006) found no ethnic differences in the rates of behavioral disorders and ADHD.

17.

Research has found no meaningful impact of poverty on conduct problems.

18.

Conduct problems are one of the most frequent reasons for referral to child and adolescent treatment service.

19.

A youngster who receives a DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder may also get a DSM-5 diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder.

20.

Among children diagnosed with ADHD, between 30 and 50% develop conduct disorder.

21.

Research indicates that youth with conduct problems demonstrate deficits in language, information processing and problem solving.

22.

Early conduct-disordered behavior is predictive of later antisocial behavior, but not other socialemotional difficulties later in life.

23.

Callous and unemotional traits put a child at risk for long-term conduct problems.

24.

Many studies have found that there is no relationship between age onset of conduct problems and more serious persistent antisocial behavior.

25.

Childhood onset is to life-course-persistent as adolescent onset is to adolescent-limited.

26.

According to Loeber and Farrington (2000), rejection by peers is a risk factor for child aggression and later serious, violent juvenile offending.

27.

Typically, aggressive children do not have family histories of aggression or aggressive parents.

28.

Research by Costello and colleagues (2003) on American Indian youth found that moving out of poverty had no impact on oppositional or conduct problems.

29.

There is a negative correlation between parental monitoring and antisocial behavior.

30.

Parents who themselves have antisocial difficulties may do better than most in avoiding such behavior in their own children.

31.

Many researchers believe that the degree of conflict in a divorce is more predictive of child behavioral problems than the divorce itself.

32.

Youth who have experienced physical abuse have higher than expected rates of conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder.

33.

Gordis and colleagues (2010) found that autonomic nervous system functioning can influence the effects of childhood maltreatment on childhood aggression.

.

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34.

Lee (2011) found that the influence of deviant peer affiliation is stronger for youth with a low activity MAOA genotype, but only in regard to covert antisocial behaviors.

35.

Examining how youngsters think and feel about social situations is part of understanding conduct disorders (CD).

36.

Reactive and proactive aggression are each associated with specific social cognitive deficiencies.

37.

Research findings suggest a greater genetic component for adolescent delinquency than for adult criminal behavior.

38.

The study by Jaffee et al. (2005) found that pairing a genetic risk with maltreatment increased the probability of a conduct disorder diagnosis by 24 percent.

39.

According to the text, there is consensus among theories of conduct disorder etiology that the disorder is related to an over-activated behavioral activation system (BAS).

40.

The fightor-flight system is viewed as an emotional regulation system and theorized to have a low threshold in conduct disordered youth.

41.

According to the DSM, substance abuse and substance dependence are interchangeable terms.

42.

Tolerance is defined as the need to use increased amounts of a substance to achieve the same sensation.

43.

According to the Monitoring the Future Study, daily marijuana use has increased in 8th, 10th, and 12th graders.

44.

During adolescence, changes in dopaminergic systems in the brain outpace those of the prefrontal cortex, leading to an increased risk for substance abuse.

45.

Genetic influences for substance abuse appear to play a bigger role for those teens with heavier, clinical levels of abuse.

46.

In the assessment of conduct disorders (CD), a clinician would generally not be very interested in parental behaviors and parenting styles.

47.

Kazdin and colleagues found that combining problem solving skills training with parent management training was superior to either approach alone.

48.

The Teaching Family Model found that taking the adolescent into a therapeutic group home led to improvements in conduct disordered behavior that were maintained after the teen returned home.

49.

MST is based on Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model.

50.

MTFC programs have not proven to be cost effective.

51.

There is a plethora of well-controlled research regarding the favorable use of medication in treating oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and conduct disorder (CD).

.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE 52.

Within the broad category of externalizing/undercontrolled behavior problems, a distinction is often made between a. anxiety and depression on the one hand and aggression, oppositional, and more serious conduct problems on the other. b. inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity on the one hand and aggression, oppositional, and more serious conduct problems on the other. c. inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity on the one hand and anxiety and depression on the other. d. inattention and aggression on the one hand and hyperactivity and impulsivity on the other.

53.

The term delinquency is primarily employed to refer to a. a juvenile who has committed an act that would be illegal for adults as well. b. a juvenile who has committed an act that is illegal only for juveniles. c. a juvenile who has committed an act that would be illegal for adults as well or an act that is illegal only for juveniles. d. a psychological condition - it refers only to a juvenile who has committed an illegal act because of emotional problems.

54.

Henry (the case study reported in the text about the 3.5 year old with oppositional behavior) seemed inconsistent in his non-compliant behavior. According to the case study, what was the likely source of is problem? a. b. c. d.

55.

A genetic history of oppositional behavior Abuse Inconsistent parenting Learning problems

An 11-year-old youngster has, for about a period of one year, frequently exhibited the following behaviors: loses temper, refuses to follow requests or rules, deliberately annoys others, and easily annoyed. He would likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. attention-deficit disorder. b. oppositional-defiant disorder.

56.

c. overt conduct disorder. d. early-onset conduct disorder.

Which of the following statements regarding the DSM-5 diagnosis of Conduct Disorders is accurate? a. Conduct disorders and attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder are in separate larger categories. b. The essential feature of the diagnosis is a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and major age-appropriate societal norms. c. Conduct disorders are part of a larger DSM-5 category called “Externalizing Behavior Disorders.” d. Conduct disorders and oppositional-defiant disorder are in different, larger categories.

.

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57.

The DSM-5 approach to subtypes of conduct disorders has a. four subtypes defined by the presence or absence of aggression combined with a socialized/unsocialized distinction. b. three subtypes: aggressive, nonaggressive, and substance abuse. c. three subtypes: aggressive, group-delinquent, and other. d. two subtypes: childhood-onset and adolescent-onset.

58.

Which of the following is a grouping of behaviors included in the criteria for the DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder? a. Aggression to people and animals b. Attention problems

59.

Bobby, a 13-year-old boy is seen at a clinic. He displays the following behaviors: deliberate destruction of others’ property, lying to obtain favors, staying out at night without permission, and frequent truancy from school. These behaviors have all been present during the past year and are ongoing. His parents report that this pattern began when Bobby was 9 years old. Bobby would likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. oppositional-defiant disorder. b. conduct disorder, childhood-onset.

60.

aggressive behavior and rule-breaking behavior. aggressive behavior and anxious behavior. aggressive behavior and internalizing behavior. anxious behavior and rule-breaking behavior.

Distinguishing between antisocial youngsters whose primary problem is aggression and those whose primary problem is stealing is an example of the _______ approach to grouping problems within the broad externalizing/conduct disorder category. a. b. c. d.

62.

c. conduct disorder, adolescent-onset. d. oppositional-conduct disorder.

The two narrow-band syndromes suggested to exist within the empirically derived broadband externalizing syndrome of the Achenbach instruments are a. b. c. d.

61.

c. Mood problems d. Anxiety

Symptom violence Overcontrolled/undercontrolled Salient symptom Early vs. late onset

Distinguishing between confrontational antisocial behaviors and concealed antisocial behaviors is a distinction between a. b. c. d.

externalizing and internalizing antisocial behavior. overt and covert antisocial behavior. destructive and nondestructive antisocial behavior. attention deficit and conduct disordered antisocial behavior.

.

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63.

Distinguishing between antisocial youngsters whose primary problems are arguing, fighting, and temper tantrums and those whose problems are lying, stealing, and truancy is an example of the _______ distinction in grouping problems within the broad externalizing/conduct disorder category. a. Overcontrolled vs. undercontrolled b. Silent syndrome

64.

The term “relational aggression” refers to a. b. c. d.

65.

Fire setting is considered an overt destructive behavior.

A large percentage of conduct disordered youth engage in fire setting.

Youth account for approximately 5% of the arrests for arson.

Fire setters are more likely to come from homes with marital violence.

Which of the following is true regarding youth and violence? a. b. c. d.

69.

boys are more relationally aggressive than girls. relational aggression first emerges during the adolescent years. girls are essentially non-aggressive. relational aggression is associated with feelings of loneliness and depression.

Which of the following statements regarding fire setting is accurate? a. b. c. d.

68.

Purposefully leaving a child out of some activity Spitting on a another child Threatening to beat up another child Shoving a child into a locker

Research on relational aggression suggests that a. b. c. d.

67.

physical fighting between siblings. physical fighting between any family members. behaviors intended to damage another individual’s feelings or friendships. behaviors intended to hurt another individual’s relatives.

Which of the following is an example of relational aggression? a. b. c. d.

66.

c. Child vs. adult onset d. Overt vs. covert

Less than 2 percent of US arrests for murder involve juvenile offenders Youth are rarely victims of violence Exposure to violence increases the risk for aggression.

A majority of violence committed by youth occurs during the school day

Which of the following statements best describes the consequences of exposure to violence? a. Youngsters exposed to violence as victims are at risk for developing externalizing disorders. b. Youngsters witnessing violence are at risk for developing internalizing disorders. c. Youngsters witnessing violence are at risk for developing externalizing and internalizing disorders

.

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d. Youngsters exposed to violence as either victims or witnesses are at risk for developing externalizing and internalizing disorders 70.

Regarding bullying, a. b. c. d.

71.

Victims of bullying a. b. c. d.

72.

boys and girls are exposed to comparable rates of direct bullying attacks. boys and girls are exposed to comparable rates of indirect bullying. girls are exposed to higher rates of indirect bullying than boys. girls are exposed to direct bullying at rates equal to their exposure to indirect bullying.

if boys, are not typically physically weaker. often have some good friends in their class. have parents who may be relatively unaware of the problem. are not at higher risk for suicide than their peers.

Which of the following statements regarding the prevalence of conduct-disordered behaviors is accurate? a. Conduct-disordered behavior is not a common reason for referral to mental health clinics. b. The ratio of conduct disorder diagnosis in boys vs. girls is about 10:1. c. The lifetime prevalence rate of oppositional defiant disorder in children is approximately 10%. d. There is no difference in ranges of conduct disorder in urban versus rural settings.

73.

Regarding the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and conduct disorder (CD), the findings of the Developmental Trends study suggest that a. b. c. d.

74.

_____________ are higher order cognitive abilities that play a role in information processing and problem solving. a. b. c. d.

75.

the vast majority of boys who meet the criteria for CD also meet the criteria for ODD. the vast majority of boys with ODD progress to CD. only a small minority of boys with ODD meet the criteria for ODD two years later.

CD preceded ODD in most cases.

Covert functions Overt functions Proactive functions Executive functions

Regarding the co-occurrence of conduct disorder and depression, it would appear that a. b. c. d.

such co-occurrence is rare among adolescents in the community. such co-occurrence is rare among youngsters seen in clinics. such co-occurrence is more common in girls. a shared genetic liability may account, in part, for the co-occurrence.

.

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76.

Kaleb exhibits the following traits: lack of empathy, deceitfulness, arrogance, manipulative, impulsive and irresponsible. These characteristics are most indicative of a. b. c. d.

77.

The adolescent-onset pattern of conduct-disordered behavior a. b. c. d.

78.

is a less common developmental path than the childhood-onset pattern. is less likely to result in arrest than someone the same age with a childhood-onset pattern. is characterized by less aggressive behavior than the childhood-onset pattern. has a larger proportion of males than the childhood-onset pathway.

The childhood (early)-onset developmental pathway for conduct-disordered behavior a. b. c. d.

79.

Oppositional Defiant Disorder Psychopathy Conduct Disorder Depression

is a less stable pattern than later onset. is a less common pattern than adolescent-onset. is likely to be associated with difficulties such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. demonstrates little change in the types of problem behaviors seen over time.

Which of the following is characteristic of developmental paths of conduct disorders as described

by Loeber and others? a. Youngsters who complete one stage progress through all succeeding stages. b. Progression though stages is characterized by the individual displaying an increasing diversification of antisocial behaviors. c. Earlier behaviors (symptoms) are replaced by new ones so that the number of symptoms is stable. d. Early onset in a progression is associated with a better prognosis.

80.

Which of the following is one of Loeber’s developmental pathways for antisocial behavior? a. Early onset pathway b. Adolescent onset pathway

81.

According to Loeber, entry into the ______ pathway typically begins earlier than entry into other antisocial behavior developmental pathways. a. authority conflict pathway b. covert pathway

82.

c. Comorbid pathway d. Overt pathway

c. comorbid pathway d. overt pathway

Which of the following factors is thought to account for a greater rate of child noncompliance in some families? a. the use of negative consequences for noncompliant behavior by these parents b. the low number of commands these parents give c. the manner in which commands are delivered by these parents

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d. the high rates of positive consequences given by these parents for compliant behavior 83.

Patterson's explanations of how problematic behavior develops in aggressive children is labeled "coercion theory" because a. b. c. d.

84.

problem behaviors are seen as developing as a way of controlling family members. these families need to be coerced into coming into the clinic. information is available only through coercing family members. the child is labeled as problematic since he is the family member who uses coercion against his prosocial family members.

A negative reinforcement trap a. occurs when a mother is reinforced for giving in to a child's tantrum by the child stopping the tantrum. b. refers to a parent being trapped by circumstances into frequent use of punishment. c. refers to a parent being forced to use negative reinforcement due to the unavailability of positive reinforcement. d. results in both immediate and long-term negative consequences for a parent.

85.

Which of the following are constructs in Patterson’s basic parent training model? a. b. c. d.

86.

parental punishment and parental reward parental discipline and parental monitoring parental discipline and parental coercion parental monitoring and parental coercion

According to Patterson, which of the following contributes to poor parental monitoring in problem families? a. Rigid control over the child b. Rarely avoiding confrontations with the child c. Low expectations of positive consequences from their child or social agencies for their involvement d. Fatigue due to the large amounts of supervised time parents spend with their children.

87.

According to Patterson, parents of problem children a. b. c. d.

88.

do not classify as many child behaviors as deviant as compared to other parents. nag or scold in response to behaviors other parents consider neutral. ignore low-level coercive behaviors more than other parents. overreward compliant behavior compared to other parents.

Which of the following statements regarding peer relations and aggression is correct? a. b. c. d.

Aggressive children frequently experience rejection by their peers.

Rejected, aggressive children, by definition, have no friends.

All aggressive children are rejected.

Having friends who are well adjusted has no impact on outcome for delinquent youth.

.

88

89.

Research by Brody and colleagues on a sample of African American children found that a. affiliation with deviant peers was less likely if parents were nurturing and involved. b. affiliation with deviant peers was more likely in neighborhoods with collective socialization practices. c. the effects of parenting and neighborhood collective socialization were minimal for youngsters from the most disadvantaged neighborhoods. d. harsh parenting practices were necessary in certain neighborhoods.

90.

Research, such as that by Dodge and his colleagues, on the role of cognitive/interpersonal influences on aggression in children suggests which of the following? a. b. c. d.

91.

Aggressive children rely heavily on social cues compared to their non aggressive peers.

Aggressive children misattribute hostile intent to their peer’s actions.

Aggressive children have no expectation that aggression will produce positive outcomes.

Aggressive children generate more responses to social problems than their non aggressive peers.

According to Dodge and his colleagues, ______ is a “hot-blooded” retaliatory form of aggression. a. emotional aggression b. reactive aggression

92.

c. relational aggression d. proactive aggression

According to studies on reactive and proactive aggression, a. reactively aggressive youngsters display deficiencies in early stages of the social-cognitive process. b. proactively aggressive youngsters display deficiencies in early stages of the social-cognitive process. c. reactive aggression is associated with delinquency related violence. d. proactive aggression is related to dating violence, but only when there are low levels of maternal warmth.

93.

Research regarding a genetic contribution to conduct disorders a. suggests little genetic influence on conduct disorder in children. b. suggests that estimates of genetic influence for conduct-disordered behavior are consistent across different sources of information and different informants. c. suggests that childhood-onset antisocial behavior is more likely to be genetically determined than is the adolescent onset type. d. rules out environmental influences in some types of conduct disorder.

94.

The ______ tends to activate behavior in the presence of reinforcement and is the reward-seeking component of behavior. a. skin conductance response b. neuropsychological system

c. behavioral activation system d. behavioral inhibition system

.

89

95.

The research of van Lier and colleagues (2007) indicated that aggression was highest for children a. b. c. d.

96.

with a genetic predisposition to aggression. with aggressive friends. with family discord. with both a genetic predisposition and aggressive friends.

Quay suggests that youngsters with life-course persistent antisocial behavior may have a. an overactive behavioral inhibition system (BIS) combined with an underactive behavioral activation system (BAS). b. an overactive BAS combined with an underactive BIS. c. overactive BAS and BIS systems. d. moderate and equal BAS and BIS systems.

97.

___________ is the most widely used substance among young people. a. Alcohol b. Marijuana

98.

The case study in the text on Rodney, the 17 year-old who woke up in the hospital with a hangover and injuries from a motorcycle accident, highlighted which of the following? a. b. c. d.

99.

peer factors are believed to be among the strongest influences. choice in friends is unaffected by substance use. adolescents who think peers are using substances are rarely incorrect. peer approval of use has little impact on the adolescent’s choice to use a substance.

Which of the following statements regarding substance use and abuse by youths is correct? a. b. c. d.

101.

Parental drinking serves as a model for drinking behavior in children.

Substance use/abuse is more likely in low achieving youth.

Cigarettes are highly addictive.

Social pressures are easier to overcome once one leaves high school.

In regard to peer factors and substance use, a. b. c. d.

100.

c. Amphetamines d. Inhalants

Parental disapproval has no impact on youth substance use.

Adolescents tend to use more than one substance.

Expectations that drinking would facilitate social interactions resulted in less drinking.

Early conduct problems are not a risk factor for later substance abuse.

The Eyberg Child Behavior Inventory is an example of a ______ that can be used to assess youngsters with disruptive behavior problems. a. general clinical interview b. structured interview

c. behavioral observation system d. behavioral rating scale

.

90

102.

The ______ is a youth self-report measure of conduct problems with items derived from the Uniform Crime Reports. a. b. c. d.

103.

Eyberg Child Behavior Inventory Sutter-Eyberg Student Behavior Inventory Self-Report Delinquency Scale Youth Self-Report Form

The Interpersonal Process Code is an example of a ______ that can be used to assess youngsters with disruptive behavior problems. a. general clinical interview b. structured interview

104.

Investigations of Forehand and his colleagues' treatment program for noncompliant behavior suggest that a. b. c. d.

105.

c. behavioral observation system d. behavioral rating scale

decreasing the parents' use of direct concise commands is the central goal of treatment. at follow-up, treatment children still differed from nontreated community children. treatment was successful at reducing noncompliance but did not affect other behaviors. increased compliance was also evident in the untreated siblings of the treated children.

The program developed by Webster-Stratton and her colleagues to work with parents of young children with conduct problems a. made use of videotapes that depicted parents interacting with children in only an appropriate manner. b. resulted in parents having better attitudes and more confidence in their parenting. c. resulted in parents displaying better parenting skills during clinic sessions, but not at home. d. resulted in initial improvements, but treatment gains were not maintained at follow up.

106.

Problem-solving training approaches to the treatment of conduct-disordered behavior focus on a. b. c. d.

107.

The Teaching Family Model used a __________________ in which points and praise were gained for appropriate behavior and lost for inappropriate behavior. a. b. c. d.

108.

the family interactions of these youngsters. the youngsters' interpersonal and social-cognitive deficiencies and distortions. societal problems that contribute to conduct problems. professionals who work with conduct-disordered youth.

Token Economy Corrective Model Feedback Loop Behavioral Scale

The multidimensional treatment foster care intervention (Chamberlain & Smith, 2003) for conduct-disordered youth

.

91

a. b. c. d.

109.

places youth in family-like settings. intervenes in a tightly controlled therapeutic setting. creates a large family atmosphere by placing several youngsters in the same home. excludes parents in order to focus more intensely on the teens.

The family-systems-based approach to the treatment of juvenile offenders developed by Henggeler and his colleagues is known as a. The Diversion Project. b. Multisystemic Therapy.

110.

The Henggeler et al., model a. b. c. d.

111.

focuses completely on the family system. removes troubled youth from their homes to therapeutic foster homes. emphasizes the importance of medication to reduce aggressive behaviors. provides 24/7 coverage by clinicians.

Research on the Henggeler et al., model indicates that when compared to typical juvenile services, those who completed his program a. b. c. d.

112.

c. The Teaching Family Model. d. Cohesion Therapy.

had fewer arrests. had more out of home placements. had no change in self-reported delinquency. had decreased family cohesion.

The BASIC program by Webster-Stratton et al. (2005), which was provided to Head Start families, resulted in: a. b. c. d.

no change in parent involvement. only short-term improvement (less than 1 year). less misbehavior in children. positive changes only for low income families, but not for families with a history of child abuse and neglect.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 113.

Define the term delinquency. What is the difference between an index offense and a status offense?

114.

What are the four groupings of conduct-disordered behavior (symptoms) listed as criteria for a DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder?

115.

Discuss the issues related to the DSM diagnosis of conduct disorder (i.e., what concerns or problems have been raised about this diagnosis)?

116.

Briefly describe the concept of relational aggression. How might it help explain reported gender differences in aggression?

.

92

117.

Give an example (at least one of each) of overt/destructive, overt non-destructive, covert/constructive and covert non-destructive behavior.

118.

Briefly describe the patterns of co-occurrence among ADHD, CD, and ODD and their likely developmental relationship.

119.

Indicate three ways (other than age of onset) in which the childhood-onset and adolescent-onset developmental pathways of conduct-disordered behavior differ.

120.

What are the three developmental pathways for conduct disorder described by Loeber? Name a behavior characteristic of each pathway.

121.

Give an example of how negative reinforcement and the reinforcement trap (as described by Patterson) can lead to the development of conduct-disordered behavior.

122.

Identify and briefly describe the three skills that define Patterson's construct of parental discipline.

123.

What variables contribute to poor parenting strategies?

124.

Discuss the ways that marital discord can facilitate conduct disorders in children.

125.

List and describe the three brain systems Gray (1987) believed to be related to conduct disordered behavior. How are they proposed to be operating in conduct disordered youth?

126.

Discuss the various models or theories of adolescent substance abuse (there are essentially three noted in the text).

127.

List and explain five of the ten variables in the Mayes & Suchman (2006) model of substance use in adolescence.

128.

What are the common elements of a parent training program?

129.

Summarize the findings from conduct disorder treatment program studies. What types of interventions appear to be most effective? What is needed to maintain change?

130.

List and give examples of four (out of eight) rules for effective commands from parent-child interaction therapy programs.

131.

What are the levels of service provided in the Adolescent Transition Program and what is offered?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

T, F, F, T, F,

p. 179 (Figure 8.1), factual p. 179, conceptual p. 179, conceptual p. 180, conceptual p. 182, conceptual

.

93

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

T, F, T, T, F, T, T, F, T, T. T, F. T, F, T, T, F, T, F, T, T, F, F, T, F, T, T, T, F, T, T, F, T, F, T, F, T, T, T, T, F, T, F, T, F, F, B, C, C,

p. 184, factual pp. 184-185, applied p. 184, conceptual p. 185, factual pp. 185-187, factual p. 187, factual p. 187 (Accent), factual p. 188, factual p. 189, factual p. 189, applied p. 191, factual p. 191, conceptual p. 191, factual p. 191, conceptual p. 192, factual p. 192, factual p. 193, conceptual p. 193 (Accent), factual p. 194, factual p. 194, conceptual p. 196 (Table 8.4), applied p. 196-197 (Jack case study), conceptual p. 197 (Accent), applied p. 199, conceptual p. 199, conceptual p. 200, conceptual p. 201, factual pp. 201-202, applied p. 202, applied p. 203, conceptual p. 203, conceptual p. 204, factual p. 204, applied p. 205, conceptual p. 205, conceptual pp. 205-206, conceptual p. 206, factual p. 206, factual p. 209, factual p. 209-210, factual p. 210, conceptual p. 213, factual p. 214, factual p. 214, factual p. 214, factual p. 215, factual p. 178, conceptual p. 179, conceptual p. 180, applied

.

94

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

B, p. 181 (Table 8.1), applied B, p. 182, conceptual D, p. 182, conceptual A, p. 183 (Table 8.2), factual B, p. 183 (Table 8.2), applied A, p. 184, conceptual C, p. 185, conceptual B, p. 185, conceptual D, p. 185, conceptual C, p. 186, conceptual A, p. 186, applied D, pp. 186-187, conceptual D, p. 187 (Accent), factual C, p. 188, factual D, p. 188, factual B, p. 189, factual C, pp. 189-190 (Accent), factual C, p. 191, factual A, pp. 191-192, factual D, p. 192, conceptual D, p. 192, factual B, p. 193 (Accent), applied C, p. 194, factual C, p. 194, factual B, p. 195, conceptual D, p. 195 (Figure 8.5), factual A, p. 195 (Figure 8.5), factual C, pp. 197-198, factual A, p. 198, factual A, p. 198, conceptual B, p. 199, factual C, p. 199, conceptual B, p. 199, factual A, p. 202, factual A, p. 202, applied B, p. 203, factual B, p. 203, factual A, pp. 203-204, conceptual C, p. 204, factual C, p. 204, factual D, p. 204, applied B, p. 205, applied A, p. 206, factual C, p. 206 (Rodney case study), applied A, pp. 207-208, factual C, pp. 207-209, factual A, p. 210, factual C, p. 209, factual C, p. 210, factual

.

95

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

117.

118.

119.

120.

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

126.

127.

128.

129.

130.

131.

D, p. 211, factual B, p. 212, factual B, pp. 212-213, factual A, p. 214, factual A, p. 214, factual B, p. 214, factual D, pp. 214-215, factual A, p. 214, factual C, p. 216, factual p. 179, factual p. 183 (Table 8.2), factual pp. 183-184 (Accent), factual pp. 185-187, conceptual p. 187 (Figure 8.3), factual p. 192, conceptual p. 194, conceptual p. 195 (Figure 8.5), factual p. 198, applied p. 199, factual p. 199 (Figure 8.6), factual p. 200, factual pp. 204-205, conceptual pp. 205-209, conceptual p. 209 (Figure 8.9), factual p. 211 (Table 8.5), factual pp. 211-215, conceptual p. 212 (Table 8.6), applied p. 216, factual

.

96

CHAPTER 9

ATTENTION-DEFICIT HYPERACTIVITY DISORDER TRUE OR FALSE 1.

There is cross cultural agreement on a two factor model of ADHD.

2.

The DSM-5 permits diagnosticians to assign people with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder to three subgroups based on two behavioral factors.

3.

Children with ADHD are unable to pay attention even when a task is interesting and they are motivated.

4.

Selective attention is the ability to continue to focus on a task over time.

5.

Dane, Schacher and Tannock (2000) found that in school, children with ADHD were as active as their peers in the morning but became significantly more active and fidgety in the afternoon.

6.

The stop-signal task has been used to assess deficits in inhibition.

7.

Children with ADHD are more likely to experience motor incoordination.

8.

Kent and colleagues (2011) found that adolescents with ADHD were 8 times more likely to drop out of high school than teens without ADHD.

9.

Approximately 10-35 percent of students with ADHD fail to graduate high school.

10.

Barkley et al., 2002 notes that ADHD is often a disorder where children fail to perform a task even though they have learned how to do it.

11.

Children with ADHD-combined type often underestimate their social competence.

12.

Research indicates that parents and teachers tend to be more controlling and directive with ADHD children than with normal children.

13.

Children with ADHD are at higher risk for accidents and injuries.

14.

It is unusual for parents to report sleep problems in children with ADHD.

15.

Older youth with ADHD are at greater risk for automobile accidents.

16.

Maternal smoking is correlated to ADHD-C but not ADHD-I.

17.

The case study of Tim (the young male with ADHD-I) reported in the textbook indicates that academic problems appear to worsen as these children move to higher grades.

.

97

18.

Research indicates that the presence of ADHD can lead to the development of a reading disability in a child.

19.

ADHD often co-occurs with oppositional and conduct-disordered behavior, but it appears to protect children from anxiety and depression.

20.

ADHD co-occurs with bipolar disorder in 50-75 percent of cases.

21.

Research by Miller, Nigg and Miller (2009) indicates that African American youth have fewer ADHD symptoms than Caucasian youth which is why they are less likely to receive treatment.

22.

Most cases of ADHD are diagnosed during the elementary school years.

23.

Follow-up studies of ADHD indicate that a sizable percent of children exhibit heterotypic continuity of symptoms.

24.

Barkley believes that the basic deficit in the predominantly inattentive type of ADHD is an inability to inhibit behavior.

25.

Children with ADHD often underestimate the passage of time.

26.

The part of the brain most strongly implicated in the etiology of ADHD is the frontal-striatal area.

27.

Research indicates that the brains of children diagnosed with ADHD are overaroused.

28.

Stimulant medications often work by blocking the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine.

29.

Shaw and colleagues (2011) demonstrated that the rate of cortical thinning, a sign of brain maturation, was delayed for children with ADHD, particularly when the symptoms were severe.

30.

Research into the genetic etiology of ADHD has revealed that heritability rates are in the .25 to .35 range.

31.

Recent genome research by Williams et al., (2010) found no difference in the frequency of copy number variations between ADHD samples and healthy controls.

32.

Most researchers believe that psychosocial influences are the primary cause of ADHD.

33.

Prenatal influences and birth complications are certain causes of ADHD.

34.

From the research evidence it can be concluded that sugar and other components of diet, along with exposure to environmental lead, account for a large percent of cases of ADHD.

35.

When a parent suspects that a child might have ADHD, it has been found that home and/or school observations are ineffective assessment tools.

36.

Tutoring, parent training and social skills training are all noted as possible methods of prevention of the impairment associated with ADHD.

.

98

37.

Once medication for ADHD is discontinued, improvements generally continue.

38.

As many as 45% of children with ADHD do not take their medication as prescribed.

39.

Approximately 10-20 percent of children medicated for ADHD show no improvement when they are on medication.

40.

Among children medicated for ADHD, there is evidence that stimulant use causes later drug abuse .

41.

Medication use increased in adolescent and young adult ADHD populations between 2000 and 2007.

42.

Reich and colleagues found that 35% of their sample received stimulant medication even though they did not meet the diagnostic criteria for ADHD.

43.

Token economies, daily report cards and written contracts are all classroom management techniques that are effective and recommended in ADHD interventions.

44.

One result of the MTA study was that children in the combined medication and treatment group took lower doses of medication than children in the medication only group.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 45.

Which of the following terms have historically been used to refer to ADHD? a. b. c. d.

46.

DSM-5 subtyping of ADHD is based on evidence that the major behavioral manifestations of ADHD fall into which two factors? a. b. c. d.

47.

Hyperactivity and inattention Impulsivity and hyperactivity Hyperactivity-impulsivity and inattention Inattention-hyperactivity and impulsivity

According to the DSM-5, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis of attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder? a. b. c. d.

48.

Cognitive Impairment Hyperkinetic Syndrome Diffuse Morality Deficit Impulsivity Disorder

Occurrence of symptoms before age 18 Occurrence of symptoms in at least two settings Deficits on the stop-signal task Clear family history of the disorder

With regard to attention processes and ADHD,

.

99

a. b. c. d.

49.

The motor activity problems displayed by children diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder a. b. c. d.

50.

Nicky talks incessantly.

John is unable to concentrate on school lessons.

Sarah often cuts into others’ conversations.

Leah easily forgets what she has just learned in school.

With regard to intellectual/academic performance, youngsters with ADHD a. b. c. d.

52.

are excessive but goal-directed. are highly consistent across settings. are best measured with the Matching Familiar Figures Test. are most likely to be displayed in highly structured situations.

Which is the clearest example of impulsive behavior? a. b. c. d.

51.

evidence for deficits in sustained attention is stronger than for selective attention. children with ADHD perform as well as non-ADHD children on tests of attention. deficits in attention are most obvious on tasks that appear exciting and stimulating. executive attention is impaired in children with ADHD.

usually progress in school similarly to typical children, despite behavioral problems. are at risk for specific learning disabilities. as a group, perform higher than average on tests of general intelligence. as a group, perform much lower than average on tests of general intelligence.

The stop-signal task is used primarily to evaluate a. impulsivity. b. sustained attention.

53.

When children are presented with the stop-signal task, they are instructed to a. b. c. d.

54.

select a letter that matches a standard letter. press a button to identify a stimulus on a screen, but sometimes, to inhibit this response. signal the researcher when they feel restless. signal the researcher when they feel anxious.

Executive functions include a. b. c. d.

55.

c. selective attention. d. hyperactivity.

planning and organizing. respiration. heart rate. hunger and thirst.

Which of the following is true concerning the social behavior of youngsters with ADHD? a. Children with combined type ADHD may overestimate their social acceptance.

.

100

b. The youngsters who display only inattention do not have social difficulties c. There is evidence suggesting children with ADHD have more conflict with their fathers than their mothers. d. ADHD behavior does not appear to have much impact the child-teacher relationship.

56.

Based on the case study of Jimmy reported in the textbook, children with ADHD-C a. will excel in sports. b. will more than likely achieve their potential without intervention, particularly if they are bright. c. will likely be ignored by their parents and teachers. d. will likely be disliked by peers and experience peer rejection.

57.

Which subtype of ADHD is characterized by lethargic, daydreamy behavior? a. b. c. d.

58.

Which is true of ADHD-I compared to ADHD-C? a. b. c. d.

59.

Predominantly inattentive Predominantly hyperactive Predominantly impulsive Combined type

ADHD-I has earlier onset.

ADHD-I is more associated with conduct disorder.

ADHD-I is more prevalent in females.

ADHD-I may be more strongly associated with externalizing problems.

Compared to conduct disorder, ADHD is more strongly linked to a. psychosocial disadvantage. b. adverse family variables.

60.

Youth with co-occurring ADHD and conduct/oppositional symptoms, compared to youth with only ADHD, a. b. c. d.

61.

c. child maltreatment. d. cognitive deficits.

display less severe ADHD symptoms. have earlier onset of symptoms. have experienced more positive parenting. have families of higher social class.

Which is true with regard to the co-occurrence of ADHD and internalizing disorders? a. Having comorbid depression actually improves outcomes in children with ADHD. b. Children with ADHD and anxiety may show less hyperactivity and impulsivity than children with only ADHD. c. Children with ADHD and anxiety tend to have families with poor supervision. d. There is little evidence that children with ADHD are at higher risk for internalizing disorders.

62.

The prevalence of ADHD

.

101

a. b. c. d.

63.

According to the trajectories of children with ADHD as calculated by Shaw, Lacourse & Nagin (2005), what percentage of children have a chronic course? a. b. c. d.

64.

is estimated to be between 3 and 7 percent of the school-age children in the U.S. is higher in girls than boys. increases with age from childhood to adolescence. is remarkably consistent across cultures.

5-7 20 27 47

About what percent of children with ADHD have symptoms that persist into adolescence and/or adulthood? a. 5-25 b. 25-50

65.

c. 40-80 d. 75-100

Which is true with regard to the continuity of childhood ADHD into adolescence/adulthood? a. Childhood ADHD does not always continue into adolescence/adulthood. b. For those teens who do not meet criteria any longer, adjustment is indistinguishable from peers with no history of ADHD. c. Female teens with a history of ADHD who no longer meet criteria are as well adjusted as peers with no history of an ADHD diagnosis. d. Young men with a history of ADHD were more likely than young women with a history of ADHD to exhibit major depression in adulthood.

66.

Brad, age 17, has difficulty refraining from swearing in front of his grandparents. He enjoys swearing in everyday life where he gets a positive response from his peers when he swears.

According to Barkley’s model this is an example of a. b. c. d.

67.

Some investigators suggest that deficits in motivation are central in ADHD. Relevant to this position is evidence suggesting that children with ADHD a. b. c. d.

68.

an inability to inhibit competing stimuli. an inability to interrupt a behavior that is already underway. an inability to inhibit a prepotent response. an inability to exert motor control.

are not very interested in rewards. require strong incentives for behavioral control. perform well under partial schedules of reinforcement. prefer delayed over immediate reinforcement.

The triple pathway model of ADHD includes which of the following constructs?

.

102

a. b. c. d.

69.

Which of the following has been shown regarding brain structure/functioning in ADHD? a. b. c. d.

70.

Delay aversion Reward focus Underarousal Hyperactivity

Reduction in total volume estimated at 5-10% Larger than average size of the frontal area High levels of metabolism in the frontal-striatal area Rapid brain waves

In the research by Shaw and colleagues (2007) which part of the brain demonstrates the most delayed maturation in children with ADHD? a. Corpus callosum b. Prefrontal region

71.

c. Occipital lobes d. Brain stem

The DRD4 and DAT1 genes that have been linked to ADHD are known to be involved with which neurotransmitter? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine

72.

c. Serotonin d. Dopamine

Investigations into the causes of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder have revealed a. a strong association with a high-sugar diet. b. evidence that cigarette smoking and drinking while pregnant increases the risk of ADHD in offspring. c. no evidence of gene-environment interaction. d. no link to low birth weight or prematurity.

73.

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of psychosocial factors on ADHD? a. b. c. d.

74.

Which of the following is a Conner’s Third Edition scale? a. b. c. d.

75.

Psychosocial factors play no role in etiology.

Psychosocial factors influence the nature and severity of ADHD. Psychosocial school factors are more important than family factors.

Psychosocial factors play a strong role in etiology.

Depression Anxiety Executive Functions Obsessions

The continuous performance task measures

.

103

a. b. c. d.

76.

inattention. problem solving. intellectual abilities. motivation.

Which class of medications is most commonly used in treating attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder? a. Antidepressants b. Antipsychotics

77.

c. Tranquilizers d. Stimulants

About what percentage of children with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder benefit from treatment with stimulant medications? a. 35 b. 55

78.

c. 75 d. 90

Which of the following is a reported side effect of stimulant medications prescribed for ADHD? a. Sleepiness b. Increased appetite

79.

The goals of the Summer Treatment Program include a. b. c. d.

80.

improving executive functions. finding the correct combination of medications. intensive parent training. improving peer relationships.

The MTA study was designed to evaluate the effectiveness of a. b. c. d.

81.

c. Jitteriness and irritability d. Weight gain

combined stimulant and behavioral intervention. assessment techniques for identifying ADHD. treatments for ADHD-C compared to ADHD-I. parental management of ADHD children in single-parent versus two-parent families.

Findings from the MTA include which of the following? a. The combined treatment was more effective than the medication only treatment on all outcome measures. b. Families with the least education benefitted the most from the combined treatment. c. The results were not maintained at follow up. d. The medication and combined treatments were not more effective than other treatments for addressing the core problems of ADHD.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 82.

What are some of the issues or concerns reported for the DSM conceptualization of ADHD? .

104

83.

What are the DSM-5 criteria for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

84.

List the component of executive functions.

85.

Describe the clinical features displayed by children diagnosed with ADHD, Predominantly Inattentive Type; ADHD, Predominately Hyperactive-Impulsive Type; and ADHD, Combined Type. Be sure to include a definition/description of sluggish cognitive tempo.

86.

Summarize findings about the developmental course of ADHD.

87.

List at least five of the variables that may predict outcome for adolescents and adults with ADHD.

88.

Describe the concept of behavioral inhibition and executive functions relevant to Barkley’s model of ADHD.

89.

Describe two of the five proposed explanations of ADHD presented in the textbook: arousal level, sensitivity to reward, Barkley’s model of inhibitory deficits, temporal processing and delay aversion, or multiple pathway.

90.

Summarize the major findings concerning neurobiological causation of ADHD.

91.

What role, if any, do psychosocial variables play in the etiology of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder? It may help to include the gene-environment model of multiple pathways to ADHD (Taylor, Sonuga-Barke, 2008) in your discussion.

92.

Give 3 examples of questions one might ask a child when evaluating him/her for ADHD (per Barkley and Edwards, 2006).

93.

Review the pros and cons of using medication as a treatment for ADHD.

94.

Describe behavioral interventions for ADHD that include parents and teachers.

95.

Describe the steps used in parent training for ADHD intervention.

96.

Describe the MTA study of treatment. Be sure to describe the participants, design, procedures, and results. What can be concluded from that study?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

T, T, F, F, T, T, T, T,

p. 220, conceptual p. 220, conceptual p. 222, factual p. 222, factual p. 222 (Figure 9.1), factual p. 222-223, applied p. 223, factual p. 223, factual .

105

9.

10.

11.

12.

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18.

19.

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23.

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31, 32.

33.

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39.

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43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

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T, p. 223, factual T, p. 224, factual F, p. 225, conceptual T, p. 225, factual T, p. 226, factual F, p. 226, factual T, p. 226 (Accent), factual F, p. 227, factual T, p. 228 (Tim Case Study), applied T, p. 229, factual F, p. 229, factual F, p. 230, factual F, p. 231 (Accent), applied T, p. 232, factual T, p. 233, factual F, p. 234, (Figure 9.5), factual T, p. 235, factual T, p. 236, factual F, p. 236, factual T, p. 236, factual T, p. 237 (Accent), factual F, p. 237, factual F, p. 237, factual F, p. 238, factual F, p. 238, factual F, p. 238, factual F, p. 240, factual T, p. 241, factual F, p. 242, factual T, p. 242 (Accent), conceptual T, p. 242 (Accent), factual F, p. 243, factual T, p. 243, factual T, p. 243, factual T, pp., 244-246, factual F, pp. 247-248, factual B, p. 220, factual C, p. 220, factual B, pp. 220-221, factual D, p. 222, conceptual D, p. 222, factual C, p. 222, applied B, p. 223, factual A, p. 223, applied B, p. 224, applied A, p. 224, conceptual A, p. 225, factual D, p. 227 (Case study), applied A, p. 227, conceptual

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C, p. 227, factual D, p. 229, factual B, p. 229, factual B, pp. 229-230, factual A, pp. 230-231, factual B, p. 232 (Figure 9.3), factual C, p. 233, factual A, p. 233, factual C, p. 234, applied B, p. 235, factual A, p. 235, factual A, p. 236, factual B, pp. 236-237, factual D, p. 237, factual B, p. 238, factual B, pp., 238-239, factual C, p. 241 (Table 9.4), factual A, p. 241, factual D, p. 241, factual C, p. 242, factual C, p. 242, factual D, p. 246 (Accent), factual A, p. 247, factual C, pp. 247-248, factual p. 200, factual p. 221 (Table 9.1), factual p. 224, factual pp. 226-228, conceptual pp. 232-234, factual p. 234 (Table 9.2), factual pp. 234-235, factual pp. 234-237, conceptual pp. 235-237, factual pp. 238-239 (Figure 9.7), conceptual p. 240 (Table 9.3), applied pp. 241-243, factual pp. 243-247, factual p. 244 (Table 9.6), factual pp. 247-248, conceptual

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CHAPTER 10

LANGUAGE AND LEARNING DISORDERS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

One major theme underlying the modern field of language and learning disorders is an interest in how well individuals function in some intellectual/communication areas relative to other areas.

2.

Although learning problems have long been recognized, it was not until the 1960s that a field of study grew around the concept of specific learning disabilities.

3.

The Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975 was renamed the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act.

4.

The definition of learning disability used by the federal government includes youngsters whose disability appears to be caused by economic disadvantage.

5.

The most common way to identify a learning disability is to compare general intellectual functioning and functioning in a specific achievement area.

6.

There is little variability in how states implement Response to Intervention programs.

7.

Semantics of a language refers to meanings in the language.

8.

By 2 years of age, most children speak in phrases or sentences of two or more words.

9.

Prevalence of language disorder is higher in girls than in boys, but the opposite is true for reading disorder.

10.

It is generally thought that receptive-expressive language disorder is a less severe disorder than expressive disorder.

11.

Language disorders and reading disabilities appear to be unrelated.

12.

Reading disabilities are differentiated by deficits in word level reading versus comprehension.

13.

Samuel Orton emphasized perceptual rather than language deficits as underlying reading problems.

14.

Recognizing that the word “mad” has three sounds is an example of phonological decoding.

15.

Phonological deficits are evident in all cases of reading disability.

16.

The male to female ratio for reading disability diagnosis in clinic samples is 3 or 4 to 1.

17.

Males with comorbid reading disability and ADHD are more likely to exhibit ODD and CD than males with only reading disability. .

108

18.

Transcription involves putting ideas into written form.

19.

When adding 2 + 3, children will start with counting all (1- 2- 3- 4- 5) and develop into counting on (start with 2 and then add 3- 4- 5).

20.

Research indicates that males are more likely to have math disabilities than girls.

21.

Conti-Ramsden and Botting, 2004, found that 11 year-olds with language impairments were 3 times as likely to experience victimization more than once a week than typical 11 year-olds.

22.

It is unlikely that motivation plays a role in learning disabilities because children’s beliefs and attitudes are unrelated to academic success.

23.

The right and left planum temporal areas of the brain are usually equal in size in persons in the general population but are asymmetrical in size in the presence of language and learning disorders.

24.

Research indicates that interventions have little impact on brain functioning.

25.

A twin study on language disorders found a concordance rate of 75% in MZ pairs.

26.

The heritability rate of reading disorders has been estimated at .60.

27.

The concordance rate for a math disability is higher in MZ vs. DZ twins.

28.

Data from behavior genetic studies indicate that environmental influences on language and learning disorders are unlikely.

29.

Study habits, motivation, and self-esteem are important factors when evaluating a student for language or learning disorders.

30.

Response to intervention is often conceptualized as a prevention effort with universal, secondary, and tertiary prevention components,

31.

Articulation and expressive skills are more easily remediated than receptive skills.

32.

The Fast ForWord program, designed to improve the speed of auditory processing, has proven to be highly effective in recent meta analytic studies.

33.

According to the meta-analysis conducted by Swanson and Hoskyn, a combination of direct instruction and strategy instruction is the most effective approach for treating learning problems.

34.

Although direct instruction has been shown to be effective in treating learning disorders, cognitive approaches have been shown to be surprisingly ineffective.

35.

According to data from the U.S. Department of Education (2007), approximately 41% of persons aged 3 to 21 years who received services had specific learning disabilities.

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36.

A majority of youth with learning disabilities (70%) are in full time special education classes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 37.

The Education for All Handicapped Children Act (PL 94-142) has been amended several times over the years and is now retitled the a. b. c. d.

38.

Which condition is excluded from the federal government’s definition of specific learning disabilities? a. b. c. d.

39.

Education for All Disabled Children Act. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. Individualized Education for those with Disabilities Act. Education for Individuals with Disabilities Act.

Learning problems due to emotional disturbance Learning problems due to brain dysfunction Learning problems due to perceptual handicaps Learning problems due to dyslexia

A major criticism of excluding children from being diagnosed with learning disabilities on the basis of primary emotional disturbance or economic disadvantage is that a. these children may create problems for students in the general education classroom. b. it is clearly a way that the government avoids paying more for special education. c. it is often difficult to determine whether these other factors lead to learning disabilities or vice versa. d. these children need the label in order to receive benefits or services.

40.

When learning disabilities are identified by a child’s performing below expected grade or age, a. b. c. d.

41.

Which of the following is true regarding the Response to Intervention (RTI) approach? a. b. c. d.

42.

the child must be at least two grades or years behind what is expected. the child must be at least three grades or years behind what is expected. a large discrepancy with peers appears more serious for younger than older children. a large discrepancy with peers appears more serious for older than younger children.

Children are exposed to interventions before they are diagnosed.

The 2004 reauthorization of IDEA discouraged the use of the RTI approach.

The impact of poor instruction cannot be eliminated.

Professionals agree on how the approach should be conceptualized.

Overall, children with learning disabilities tend to perform ____ on tests of general intelligence. a. Markedly below average b. In the low average range

c. In the high average range d. Markedly above average

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43.

Phonemes are to _____ as graphemes are to _____. a. b. c. d.

44.

The pragmatics of a language refers to a. b. c. d.

45.

expression develops earlier than reception. expression and reception develop at about the same time. children with expressive problems necessarily have receptive problems. children with receptive problems usually have expressive problems.

Which of the following is an example of a receptive language skill? a. b. c. d.

49.

to have problems in understanding what others say to him. to speak in simplified, sometimes incorrect, sentences. to have age-appropriate vocabulary. to respond atypically to the speech of others, almost as if he were deaf.

With regard to language expression and reception, a. b. c. d.

48.

morphological disorder. expressive language disorder. receptive language disorder. phonological disorder.

Jimmy has been diagnosed with expressive language disorder. We would thus expect Jimmy a. b. c. d.

47.

meanings of the language. the sounds of the language and rules for combining them. the use of the language in a social context. the organization of words into phrases and sentences.

Carlos makes incorrect sounds and at times omits sounds when speaking. When given a choice between “boat” or “bowl,” he does not know which word rhymes with “coat”. His most likely diagnosis would be a. b. c. d.

46.

meanings; form form; meanings sound; letters letters; sound

Babbling Combining vowel sounds Using pronouns Following commands

Risk for continuing language problems increases across which order of language disorders? a. Simple phonological, receptive-expressive, expressive b. Expressive, receptive-expressive, simple phonological c. Expressive, simple phonological, receptive-expressive

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111

d. Simple phonological, expressive, receptive-expressive 50.

Which is true with regard to the prevalence of language disorders? a. b. c. d.

51.

With regard to the psychological deficits underlying specific language disabilities, a. b. c. d.

52.

Prevalence for specific language impairments ranges from 3 to 7 percent.

Prevalence is equal across socioeconomic groups.

Language disorders usually appear around age 8 or 9.

Phonological problems are rare and typically persist into adulthood.

executive functions have been most investigated. auditory processing and memory for sound are implicated. it is likely that one deficit is responsible for all the different types of language problems. most language disorders appear to be caused by underlying motivational deficits.

Which term refers to a specific mathematics disability? a. Dysnumeria b. Dysgraphia

53.

Which of the following is a DSM-5 criterion for a learning disability? a. b. c. d.

54.

c. Aphasia d. Dyscalculia

A discrepancy between a standardized measure of language and of reading skills A discrepancy between a standardized measure of intelligence and a specific achievement A deficit in executive functions and attention is clearly evident A discrepancy that is caused by a sensory deficit

Early explanations of dyslexia emphasized __________ deficits; current explanations emphasize _________ deficits. a. hearing; visual b. visual; hearing

55.

c. visual; language d. language; visual

Investigations of reading, especially of learning to read, emphasize the critical role of a. syntax. b. phonological processing.

56.

Gina has difficulties in recognizing that words can be broken into sound segments. Gina appears to have a problem in a. semantic processing. b. phonological awareness.

57.

c. pragmatics. d. semantic processing.

c. short-term memory for sound. d. pragmatic intentions.

Jill can decode and recognize single words. She can read aloud an entire passage of text; however, she is unable to accurately answer questions about what she has just read. Jill is likely experiencing

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a. b. c. d.

58.

In the Lipka, Lesaux and Sieqel (2006) study, youth with late emerging learning problems a. b. c. d.

59.

dyslexia. deficits in phonological decoding. expressive language disorder. problems with comprehension.

had mastered early phonological processing skills, but lost the ability as they aged. had masked early deficits by learning to sight read words. made up a small percentage (less than 10%) of the sample. demonstrated motivational deficits.

The prevalence of reading disorders in the school population is estimated as a. 1 to 5 percent. b. 10 to 15 percent.

60.

With regard to the developmental outcome for specific childhood reading disabilities, a. b. c. d.

61.

Writing disorder, text generation Dyslexia Writing disorder, transcription Aphasia

The most appropriate time for identifying writing disorder probably is a. b. c. d.

63.

most all cases of reading problems are remediated by adolescence. phonological problems are usually remediated by adolescence. reading problems tend to persist into later years but there is individual variation. the “Mathew Effect” indicates that weak readers tend to catch up to strong readers over time.

Karen has difficulty understanding the goal of her classroom writing assignments. She cannot seem to develop a plan or organize her written assignments. She does not seem to see her mistakes so she turns in work that needs significant revision even after several drafts. Her sentence structure is poor and she rarely divides her work into paragraphs. What is her likely diagnosis? a. b. c. d.

62.

c. 15 to 20 percent. d. 20 to 25 percent.

when the child begins to try to draw and color. when the child enters school, that is, about five years of age. about 8 years of age. about 14 years of age.

Which of the following is true regarding math disabilities? a. Children with math disabilities are well researched. b. Math disabilities co-occur with reading disabilities about 10% of the time. c. The acquisition of arithmetic skills is highly sensitive to the quality of instruction in the classroom. d. Math disabilities are the least likely of all disabilities to persist into adulthood

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64.

Which is true of peer evaluations of learning disabled (LD) children relative to evaluations of non-learning disabled children? a. b. c. d.

65.

Jack believes that he will fail at most academic tasks. He tends to give up easily on tasks and considers himself “stupid”. He repeatedly states, “School is just not my thing. What is the point of trying?” This is evidence for a. b. c. d.

66.

the hypothalamus the temporal and parietal lobes the temporal lobes and cerebellum the thalamus

Which of the following is true regarding language and reading and brain function? a. b. c. d.

68.

a mastery orientation. hopelessness. conduct disorder. a helplessness orientation.

The planum temporale is located in which part of the brain? a. b. c. d.

67.

LD children are rejected or neglected LD children are rated as more popular Research finding have been inconsistent LD children are evaluated almost identically to non-LD children

Broca’s area is related to phonological processing.

Wernicke’s plays a central role in rapid word recognition.

Strong readers rely more on the back areas of the brain when reading.

In individuals with reading disabilities, the posterior left side of the brain appears to be overactive when engaging in reading tasks.

With regard to genetic influence, a. both single-gene and multiple-gene effects may be involved in the transmission of language and reading disabilities. b. most cases of reading disability are known to be caused by chromosome 21 abnormalities. c. reading but not language disabilities run in families. d. language but not reading disabilities run in families.

69.

Which of the following is true regarding the FOXP2 story? a. The family members with the mutation all exhibited verbal dyspraxia. b. The family members with the mutation had higher nonverbal IQ scores than family members without the mutation. c. The mutation was on chromosome 2. d. FOXP2 has since been found to be related to other speech and language disorders.

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70.

Assessment of learning disabilities a. usually occurs in mental health clinics and hospitals. b. usually occurs by preschool age. c. requires a battery of tests to evaluate general intelligence and specific academic skills and achievements. d. typically has placed the most emphasis on evaluating the child’s motivation and social environment.

71.

Which of the following is true regarding the prevention of language and learning disabilities? a. b. c. d.

72.

The psychoeducational treatment approach to LD a. b. c. d.

73.

The medical model that recommends stimulant medication The medical model that recommends a combination of stimulant medication and vitamins Direct instruction and cognitive approaches The perceptual-motor model

Swanson and Hoskyn’s meta-analysis of the effectiveness of interventions for learning disabilities found that a. b. c. d.

75.

aimed to improve the child's social behavior so that classroom learning was facilitated. emphasized direct practice on academic tasks. focused on relieving perceptual and cognitive deficits thought to underlie LD. was proven to be the most effective treatment for LD.

Which treatment model has been the most successful in remediating learning disabilities? a. b. c. d.

74.

It is of minor concern since most of America’s youth acquire the necessary learning skills.

Earlier treatment is more successful than later treatment.

Currently most disabilities are identified by age 4.

Children who are late talkers or exhibit other problems early on are unable to develop normal language skills.

direct instruction was the most effective. strategy instruction was the most effective. the combination of direct instruction and strategy instruction was the most effective. adding direct instruction to strategy instruction did not increase effectiveness.

The Education for All Handicapped Children Act was enacted in what year? a. 1975 b. 1985

76.

c. 1960 d. 1965

Which of the following is not mandated by IDEA for the education of students with handicaps? a. All children should receive the most appropriate education. b. Parents have rights to participate in decisions regarding their children’s education. c. Educational plans must be constructed for all students.

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d. All children must be educated in general education classrooms.

77.

The concept of inclusion as applied to youngsters with disabilities argues that children are best educated in a. b. c. d.

78.

Currently, most students with learning disabilities receive their educational experiences in a. b. c. d.

79.

educational settings best matched to their specific needs. resource rooms. general education classrooms. educational settings that have special education teachers.

general education classes and resource classes. separate classes. classes in special schools. after school instruction facilities.

Which is true with regard to the education of students with learning disabilities? a. Included students with disabilities do not do as well on standardized achievement tests as students in special education classrooms. b. Students with disabilities have lower self-esteem than students without disabilities, and that can be exacerbated by inclusion. c. It has been documented that non-disabled students have poorer outcomes when they share the classroom with learning disabled students. d. General education teachers are often well prepared for inclusion practices.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 80.

Discuss criticisms of the definition of specific learning disabilities that is employed by the federal government.

81.

Review the methods for identifying learning problems (IQ-Achievement Discrepancy, Below Average Achievement, and RTI). What are the problems with each approach?

82.

Define the terms used for the basic components of language: Phonology, Morphology, Syntax, Semantics, and Pragmatics.

83.

Describe the clinical manifestations of phonological, expressive, and receptive-expressive language disorders as they are defined by the DSM-5.

84.

Describe the theories underlying language impairments (information-processing model, auditory processing, verbal, short, and working memory).

85.

What criteria are used in the DSM-5 to define specific disabilities in reading, written expression, and mathematics?

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116

86.

Although many skills are required for competent reading, phonological processing skills appear to play a central role. Summarize findings that implicate such skills in dyslexia.

87.

Describe the three pathways to reading disability noted by Lipka et al. (2006).

88.

What is the typical developmental course for individuals with reading disabilities? What is the Mathew Effect? What does the research tell us about the impact of having both reading disability and ADHD?

89.

Describe deficits displayed by youngsters with specific learning disorder with impairment in written expression.

90.

Describe deficits displayed by youngsters with specific learning disorder with impairment in mathematics, as well as the skills needed for acquiring basic mathematics skills.

91.

Youngsters with language and learning disorders are at risk for social problems. Discuss three possible causes of these problems.

92.

Diagram the cycle of academic failure and low motivation often seen in children with learning disabilities. What factors impact motivation?

93.

Describe the possible psychosocial variables that can impact learning. Include both family and educational variables.

94.

Shaywitz (2003) outlined clues that parents can use to determine if their child needs further assessment for a reading disorder. Name and explain one clue from each time period (preschool, kindergarten and first grade, second grade and beyond).

95.

What are the concerns regarding prevention outlined in the text?

96.

Describe direct instruction and cognitive (or strategy) approaches to the remediation of learning disabilities.

97.

List and describe the areas of assessment proposed by Taylor (1989).

98.

Describe federal mandates for the education of students with handicaps, especially those of IDEA, and how students with learning disabilities have been affected.

99.

How are learning disabilities being handled in the educational system? Consider controversies about special education, appropriate educational settings, and inclusion.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

T, T, T, F, T,

p. 252, conceptual p. 252 (Table 10.1), factual p. 253, factual p. 253, conceptual p. 253, factual

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6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

F, p. 254 (Accent), factual T, p. 255 (Table 10.2), factual T, pp. 256 (Table 10.3), factual F, p. 258, factual F, p. 259, conceptual F, p. 259 (Table 10.4), factual T, p. 261, factual T, p. 261, factual F, p. 261, factual F, p. 261, factual T, p. 263, factual T, pp. 263-264 (Figure 10.3), factual T, p. 263, factual T, p. 266, factual F, p. 267, factual T, p. 267, factual F, p. 267-268, conceptual F, p. 268, factual F. pp. 269-270 (Accent), factual T, p. 270, factual T, p. 270, factual T, p. 271, factual F, p. 271, factual T, p. 273, factual T, p. 273, factual T, p. 273, factual F, p. 274, factual T, p. 275, factual F, p. 275, factual T, p. 276, factual F, p. 277, factual B, p. 253, factual A, p. 253, conceptual C, p. 253, factual C, p. 254, factual A, p. 254 (Accent), conceptual B, p. 255, conceptual C, p. 255, factual C, p. 255 (Table 10.1), factual D, p. 257, applied B, p. 257, applied D, pp. 257-258, conceptual D, p. 258, conceptual D, p. 259, factual A, pp. 258-259, factual B, p. 260, conceptual D, p. 260, factual B, p. 261, factual C, p. 261, factual

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55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

B, pp. 261, conceptual B, pp. 261, applied D, p. 261, applied B, p. 262 (Figure 10.2), factual B, p. 263, factual C, p. 263, factual A, pp. 263-265, applied C, pp. 265-266, conceptual C, pp. 266-267, conceptual A, p. 267, factual D, pp. 267-268, applied B, p. 268, factual C, p. 269, factual A, pp. 270-271, factual A, p. 271, factual C, pp. 272-273, conceptual B, p. 273, factual C, p. 274, conceptual C, p. 275, factual C, p. 275, factual A, p. 275, factual D, p. 276, factual C, p. 277, factual A, p. 277, factual B, pp. 277-278, conceptual p. 253, conceptual pp. 253-255, conceptual p. 255 (Table 10.2), factual pp. 257-258, factual p. 260, conceptual p. 261, factual p. 261, conceptual p. 262, factual pp., 263-264 (Figure 10.3), conceptual pp. 263–265, factual p. 266, factual p. 267, factual pp. 267-268, factual pp. 271-272, factual p. 272 Accent, (factual) p. 273, factual p. 275, factual p. 289-290, factual pp. 290–292, factual pp. 290–292, applied

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CHAPTER 11

INTELLECTUAL DISABILITIES TRUE OR FALSE 1.

In 2010, President Obama signed Rosa’s Law. This law changed the terminology in federal law from mental retardation to intellectual disability.

2.

The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) defines subaverage intellectual functioning as having intelligence test scores that fall about two or more standard deviations below the mean on standardized tests of intelligence.

3.

According to the DSM-5 classification of intellectual disability, about 85 percent of cases of MR fall into the mild level of retardation.

4.

Historically, intellectual functioning was considered low enough for intellectual disability when the intelligence test score fell only one standard deviation below the mean.

5.

Alfred Binet viewed intelligence as a stable, biologically predetermined attribute of the individual.

6.

Scores from intelligence tests such as the Stanford-Binet and the Wechsler tests are moderately stable, with test-retest correlations averaging .77.

7.

The everyday behaviors of people, which are measured by adaptive behavior scales, are unrelated to their intelligence as measured by general tests of intelligence.

8.

Abnormalities in physical appearance and function are especially associated with more severe levels of intellectual disability.

9.

Children with moderate or high levels of disability are able to learn through operant conditioning but youngsters of lower levels of intellectual disability lack this disability.

10.

The kinds of behavioral problems shown by youth with intellectual disability are notably different than those shown by the general population of youth.

11.

When children below school age are identified with intellectual disability, they tend to display mild delay.

12.

A person who is diagnosed with intellectual disability might only meet that criteria for a certain portion of his or her lifetime. It is possible to develop adequate intellectual or adaptive skills so that the criteria for the disorder are no longer met.

13.

The rate of development in intellectual disability is slower than typical development, but often steady.

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120

14.

Research has proven that children with intellectual disability do not follow the Piagetian model of cognition.

15.

Biological or organic risk is more strongly related to severe intellectual disability than to mild intellectual disability.

16.

The Kallikak family study conducted by Goddard was designed to prove that intellectual disability is an inherited trait that runs in families.

17.

Research indicates that the IQ scores of siblings of individuals with intellectual disability are more consistent (similar to the person with ID) when the level of impairment is mild.

18.

Parenting is not a strong predictor of cognitive and academic performance.

19.

Most cases by far of Down syndrome are caused by the presence of three, instead of two, copies of chromosome 21.

20.

Research by Bailey et al., (2009) found that individuals with Fragile X tend to have strong daily living skills and weak communication skills.

21.

Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have IQs in the severe range of intellectual disability.

22.

Williams syndrome is associated with musical aptitude and an outgoing personality.

23.

Prader-Willi syndrome is the most common cause of intellectual disability.

24.

Reconstructive facial surgery for children with Down syndrome is a widely accepted practice.

25.

Research clearly indicates that facial reconstruction surgery for children with Down syndrome decreases the stigmatization they may encounter.

26.

When comorbid with behavioral problems, intellectual disability in children is often correlated with parental stress, depression and anxiety.

27.

The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scales of Intelligence III (WPPSI-III) is a comprehensive cognitive measure for children birth to age 4.

28.

Communication, daily living skills, motor skills, and socialization are areas evaluated by the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales.

29.

The case of the “Wild Boy of Aveyron” did much to delay progress and discussion in the treatment of intellectual disability.

30.

The concept of normalization contends that each individual has the right to life experiences that are as normal and least restrictive as possible.

31.

Detection of PKU has aided in efforts to prevent intellectual disabilities.

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32.

Recent research concludes that premature newborns receiving body massage and exercise gain weight and leave the hospital faster than preemies receiving no intervention.

33.

Research on Head Start found that children in the program did not differ from children who did not receive services in regard to cognitive and social benefits.

34.

As a result of IDEA, most young people diagnosed with ID are solely placed into regular education classrooms, spending 60% or more of their day with general education students.

35.

The case study on Jim, the young man with multiple disabilities at birth, demonstrates the importance of parents advocating for their children.

36.

Research on parents of children with severe intellectual disability indicates that 90% believe full inclusion for their child is a good idea.

37.

Being in the presence of normally developing peers has been shown to facilitate social interaction for intellectually disabled children.

38.

There is no evidence that participation in the Special Olympics has a significant impact on selfesteem.

39.

Positive Behavioral Support (PBS) relies heavily on functional assessment.

40.

When Jimmy bites himself, his teacher withdraws her request that he complete an in-class assignment. This is an example of a positive reinforcer.

41.

Jimmy’s teacher decides to begin reinforcing Jimmy’s on-task behavior and ignoring him when he bites himself. She is monitoring his reactions to these interventions. This is called functional analysis.

42.

The aim of Functional Communication Training is to teach children to replace a maladaptive behavior with an adaptive behavior.

43.

There is a great deal of research to support the use of psychotherapy with individuals who have intellectual disability.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 44.

In their study on the term “retard”, Siperstein, Pociask and Collins (2010) found a. 10 percent of study participants had heard a person call someone a “retard”. b. None of the study participants had ever heard a person call someone with intellectual disabilities a “retard”. c. 20 percent of the participants reported they had used to term to refer to a person with intellectual disabilities. d. Males were more likely to oppose the term than females.

45.

The AAIDD diagnosis of intellectual disability requires .

122

a. b. c. d.

46.

the onset of symptoms prior to age 12. a score of 80 or less on a standardized test of intelligence. neurological findings suggesting retardation. adaptive skill deficits in at least two areas.

The relatively recent paradigm shift taken by the AAIDD argues that a. ID must be understood as interactions between a person with limited intelligence and his or her environment. b. ID must be understood as a problem in motivation by a person with limited intelligence. c. most cases of intellectual disability are attributable to organic variables. d. most cases of intellectual disability are attributable to family variables.

47.

The AAIDD no longer categorizes individuals with cognitive impairment by levels of delay but rather by a. b. c. d.

48.

Most present definitions of ID suggest which approximate criterion on tests of general intelligence? a. b. c. d.

49.

age groups. social class. levels of needed environmental supports. levels of brain dysfunction.

One or more standard deviations below the mean Two or more standard deviations below the mean A score of about 85 A score of about 65

Which of the following is a level of intellectual disability set by the DSM-5 on the basis of intelligence test scores? a. Medium intellectual disability b. Significant intellectual disability

50.

The DSM-5 category of moderate ID is equivalent to which category in the education system? a. Trainable b. Profoundly handicapped

51.

c. Trainable intellectual disability d. Moderate intellectual disability

c. Educable d. Severely handicapped

Alfred Binet a. b. c. d.

believed that intelligence was somewhat malleable. focused on the biological causes of mental deficiency. adopted the idea of the intelligence quotient as an indicator of intelligence test performance. argued for the usefulness of eugenics.

.

123

52.

The __________________ approach focuses more on the products of intellectual and cognitive abilities and views intelligence as consisting of a general ability and numerous specific abilities. a. b. c. d.

53.

The term eugenics refers to a. b. c. d.

54.

AAIDD educational psychometric information processing

the origins of individual differences. improvement of a species through control of inheritance. the effort to normalize the experiences of youth with ID. the effort to create ideal environments for youth with ID.

Who was responsible for construction of the first Stanford-Binet test of intelligence? a. Binet b. Simon

55.

c. Stanford d. Terman

Nina is an 8-year-old who has an IQ of 75. What is her mental age? a. 6 b. 7

56.

Which case resulted in restrictions on the use of intelligence tests for placing black children in special education in California? a. b. c. d.

57.

Buck v. Bell Brown v. Board of Education Collins v. Delano Larry P. v. Riles

Which of the following is true of intelligence tests? a. b. c. d.

58.

c. 8 d. 9

The tests are criticized for being culturally biased.

Tests scores do not predict academic achievement.

Tests scores are not related to later employment and income.

Test scores in the population remain stable over time.

Intelligence test performance is _____ stable for persons with intellectual disability than for nondisabled persons, especially for _____. a. more; the mildly disabled b. more; the severely disabled

59.

c. less; the mildly disabled d. less; the severely disabled

Intelligence tests are to _____ as adaptive behavior scales are to _____. a. Binet; Doll

c. Terman; Stanford

.

124

b. Doll; Terman 60.

What is the relationship between measures of adaptive behavior and intelligence? a. b. c. d.

61.

There is no relationship at all.

There is some overlap, but adaptive behavior and intelligence are not identical.

There is a strong relationship, which implies that these measures tap the same abilities.

There is no evidence about this relationship.

Danny displays mild intellectual disability. Thus, Danny a. b. c. d.

62.

d. Stanford; Binet

has an IQ in the 35-40 to 50-55 range. will probably achieve no more than second grade academic skills. will probably attend a residential school. will probably achieve adult vocational and social skills for self support.

The case study on Annalise who exhibited profound intellectual delay, demonstrated which of the following? a. The fact that profound intellectual delay is not typically recognized until the child enters school. b. The fact that profound intellectual delay is often most attributed to socio-cultural factors. c. The fact that individuals with profound intellectual delay often perform fairly well socially. d. The fact that individuals with profound intellectual delay often have significant medical problems.

63.

Which is true of individuals with intellectual delay? a. b. c. d.

64.

Cognitive processing has been studied primarily in individuals with severe disability.

Of the many processing abilities examined, attention is one for which there are few deficits.

Their lifespan is typically shorter than the average lifespan.

Social skills are significantly delayed for all individuals with intellectual disability.

The rate of behavioral problems for youth with intellectual disability is _____ the rate found in the general population. a. half b. 2 to 4 times

65.

Behavioral and emotional disorders in youngsters with intellectual disability a. b. c. d.

66.

c. 6-8 times d. 10-12 times

may be difficult to identify due to overshadowing. follow a different developmental trajectory. are consistent across levels of intellectual disability. are easy to identify due to the severe nature of the problems.

Research indicates that the prevalence of ID is a. no different for boys and girls.

.

125

b. no different across socioeconomic groups. c. higher for school-age youth than for other age groups. d. consistent across geographic areas in the U.S. 67.

Etiology is unknown for what percentage of the more severe cases of intellectual disability? a. 75 b. 45 to 50

68.

c. 5 to 10 d. 10 to 20

Which level of ID has been associated with the terms garden variety or undifferentiated delay? a. Mild b. Moderate

69.

c. Severe d. Profound

About what percentage of the variation in intelligence test scores in the general population is due to inheritance? a. 25 b. 50

70.

Which of the following is a bio-medical cause or risk for intellectual disability? a. b. c. d.

71.

c. 65 d. 75

Poverty Maternal malnutrition Parental drug use Prematurity

Research has documented the association of certain genetic syndromes with specific sets of behaviors. Which term has been applied to this finding? a. Behavioral genotype b. Behavioral phenotype

72.

Which of the following is true regarding Down syndrome? a. b. c. d.

73.

These individuals tend to have enlarged brains.

There is evidence that synaptic pruning does not occur.

Abnormal plaques and tangles are common in these individuals by age 40.

Additional heath problems are rare .

Research on Down syndrome has established that a. b. c. d.

74.

c. Genetic variance d. Genetic mutuality

cognitive impairment is usually in the moderate to severe range. the prevalence of cases decreases with maternal age. life expectancy is about 40 years. pragmatic language and social skills are especially impaired.

Which is of the following is true of fragile X syndrome?

.

126

a. b. c. d.

75.

Males inherit the disorder from their fathers.

The range of impairment id dependent on the number of repeats on the FMR1 gene.

It is the number one known cause of intellectual disability.

Females tend to have a more severe form of the syndrome.

“The Down Syndrome Advantage” pertains to a. the idea that individuals with Down Syndrome tend to grow out of the cognitive impairment. b. the idea that individuals with Down Syndrome tend to have a longer life span than the average person. c. the idea that individuals with Down Syndrome collect more from social security/disability than those with other syndromes. d. the idea that individuals with Down Syndrome are easier to parent than children with other syndromes.

76.

Which genetic syndrome is especially associated with striking deficits in visual-spatial skills and fluent language skills? a. Fragile X syndrome b. Down syndrome

77.

c. Polygene syndrome d. Williams syndrome

Which is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome? a. The intellectual deficits are in the severe range. b. Hyperphagia is often present. c. Most cases are caused by both chromosome 15s being inherited from the mother. d. Cases due to paternal deletion on chromosome 15 demonstrate higher intellectual functioning.

78.

Developmental (infant) tests of intelligence a. b. c. d.

79.

may substitute for intelligence tests when the impairment is severe. correlate strongly with later performance on intelligence tests. rely heavily on language skills. rely heavily on abstract thinking skills.

On which intelligence test does the examinee achieve scores in Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual –Spatial Processing, and Working Memory? a. Wechsler b. Bayley

80.

c. Stanford-Binet d. Vineland

Which two basic information-processing skills does the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children evaluate? a. Language and motor b. Motor and perceptual

81.

c. Perceptual and sequential d. Sequential and simultaneous

The case of Victor, the Wild Boy of Aveyron, is important because

.

127

a. b. c. d.

82.

The middle to late 1800s witnessed optimistic views about intellectual disability. Which of the following was detrimental to these attitudes? a. b. c. d.

83.

Itard showed that the deficits were caused by genetic abnormalities.

Itard showed that the deficits were caused by environmental deprivation. it stimulated interest in intellectual disability. it was among the earliest successful interventions for ID.

The development of behaviorism The belief that intellectual disability was caused by lack of stimulation The misuse of intelligence tests The development of residential schools designed to educate children with ID

In regard to the living arrangements of youth with intellectual disability, a. most live with their families. b. approximately 47 percent live in out of home placements. c. most live with families in the early years and then move to institutions in their late teens or early 20s. d. there has been little change in living arrangements since the early 1900s.

84.

Project Head Start is an example of a(n) a. b. c. d.

85.

direct instruction program. genetic mapping project. early intervention program. job placement program.

Which is true concerning the education of youngsters with ID? a. Full inclusion into general education classrooms is now occurring for most children with ID. b. IDEA was designed to exclude children with ID. c. Classroom variables (e.g., quality of instruction) may be more important to student outcome than actual placement into types of classrooms. d. Controversy over educational placement has dwindled because evidence for academic and social benefits of full inclusion is now indisputable .

86.

Which characterizes discrete trial learning with youngsters with intellectual disability? a. Learning trials are initiated by the child. b. Learning is designed to occur in natural situations, such as during at-home parent-child interactions. c. It is believed to be particularly useful for enhancing generalization of skills. d. Learning is structured with the trainer strongly directing the tasks and consequences to the child.

87.

Behavioral treatment for intellectual disability

.

128

a. b. c. d.

88.

has focused almost exclusively on academic training. has relied most heavily on classical conditioning. has often involved the training of caregivers in various settings. has been unsuccessful in the training of social skills.

Which of the following is true regarding self injurious behavior in individuals with intellectual disability? a. Approximately 50% of individuals with intellectual disability exhibit self injurious behaviors. b. There is evidence that self injurious behavior can be difficult to change. c. Medication and aversive techniques have been the most effective for treating self injurious behaviors. d. There is little evidence that self injurious behaviors are influenced by environmental variables.

89.

In Newsom’s approach to comprehensive analysis of maladaptive behavior, what term is applied to the most distal variables that might influence behavior, such as a child’s fatigue or prior unpleasant social interaction? a. setting events b. negative consequences

90.

c. antecedent stimuli d. escape or avoidance events

A basic premise of Functional Communication Training is that a child’s maladaptive behavior a. serves a function for the child and can be reduced by teaching the child an adaptive behavior that serves the same function. b. originates from some biological disturbance that can be reduced either through medication or classical conditioning. c. functions in some way that is positive to caretakers and thus is unlikely to be reduced without dealing with caretakers’ needs. d. usually develops over a long period of time and its reduction thus requires lengthy intervention.

91.

With regard to intervention for intellectual disability, a. the consensus in the field is that talk therapy is useful for individuals with intellectual disability. b. there is evidence that individuals with intellectual disability may have more medication side effects than other individuals. c. medications are primarily used to reduce the intellectual deficits of ID. d. significant evidence exists for the effectiveness of medications.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 92.

Identify the AAIDD and the DSM criteria for intellectual disability and describe how the two approaches differ.

93.

Describe the stability over time of intelligence test scores of both the general population and those with intellectual disability. .

129

94.

Describe the Flynn effect. How do we control for this effect?

95.

What domains are evaluated for adaptive functioning? How are intelligence and adaptive functioning related?

96.

Pick a level of functioning (mild, moderate, severe, or profound) and describe the functioning common to that level.

97.

What is diagnostic overshadowing?

98.

Review the social-psychological factors that contribute to the psychological problems of individuals with intellectual disability. What predicts the continuance of externalizing disorders in young children who are developmentally delayed?

99.

What is the prevalence of intellectual disability? How is prevalence impacted by age, gender and socio-economic status?

100.

Describe the stability, rate and sequence of development for individuals with intellectual disability.

101.

Describe the two-group approach to intellectual disability. What are some common characteristics of each group?

102.

Discuss how psychosocial variables might play a role in the etiology of intellectual disability, especially mild intellectual disability.

103.

List and give examples of the four AAIDD categories of risk and etiology pertaining to intellectual disabilities.

104.

Describe the etiology and clinical manifestations of two of the following: Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, Williams syndrome, or Prader Willi syndrome.

105.

Report on the stressors that parents and siblings of individuals with intellectual disabilities often face. What factors can affect parent coping?

106.

List the common rewards often experienced by families with child who has intellectual disability.

107.

Discuss the changing views of intellectual disability from the late 1700s to present.

108.

Review the pros and cons of inclusion for students with intellectual disabilities.

109.

Review the following treatments and discuss the usefulness/effectiveness in regard to the ID population: Positive Behavioral Support (be sure and address functional assessment) and Behavioral Intervention to Enhance Adaptive Behavior or Reduce Maladaptive Behavior (be sure and mention discrete trial learning vs. naturalistic learning).

ANSWER KEY

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130

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

T, p. 282, factual T, p. 283, conceptual T, p. 284, factual T, p. 284, factual F, p. 285, factual T, p. 287, factual F, p. 288, factual T, p. 289, factual F, p. 289, factual F, p. 290, factual F, p. 291, factual T, p. 291, factual T, pp. 291-292, factual F, p. 292, factual T, p. 293, factual T, p. 293, conceptual T, p. 293, factual F, p. 294, factual T, p. 295, factual T, p. 298, factual F, p. 298, factual T, p. 299 (Robert case study), factual F, p. 299, conceptual F, p. 300 (Accent), conceptual F, p. 300 (Accent), factual T, p. 301, factual F, pp. 302-303, factual T, p. 303 (Table 11.8), factual F, p. 304, factual T, p. 304, factual T, p. 304, factual T, p. 305 (Accent), factual F, p. 305 (Accent), factual F, p. 306, conceptual T, p. 306 (Jim case study), applied F, p. 307, factual T, p. 308, factual F, p. 308, factual T, p. 308, factual F, p. 309, applied T, p. 309, applied T, p. 310 (Accent), factual F, p. 311, factual C, p. 282 (Accent), factual D, p. 283, factual A, p. 283, conceptual C, p. 283, factual B, pp. 283-284, conceptual

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131

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

D, p. 284 (Table 11.1), factual A, p. 284, factual A, p. 285, factual C, p. 285, factual B, p. 286, factual D, p. 286, factual A, p. 286, applied D, p. 286 (Accent), factual A, pp. 286-287, conceptual B, p. 287, factual A, pp. 285, 287, factual B, p. 288, factual D, p. 288, applied D, p. 289, applied C, pp. 289-290, conceptual B, p. 290, factual A, p. 290, factual C, p. 291, factual C, p. 292, factual A, p. 293, conceptual B, p. 293, factual D, p. 294 (Table 11.6), factual B, p. 295, factual C, p. 295, factual A, pp. 295-296, factual B, pp. 296-297, factual D, p. 297 (Accent), factual D, pp. 298-299, factual B. p. 299-300, factual A, p. 302, factual C, p. 302, factual D, p. 303, factual C, p. 304, factual C, p. 304, conceptual A, p. 304, factual C, p. 305 (Accent), factual C, pp. 305-307, factual D, p. 307, conceptual C, pp. 307-308, factual B, p. 308, factual A, p. 309 (Figure 11.6), conceptual A, p. 310 (Accent), conceptual B, pp. 309-311, factual pp. 282-284, conceptual p. 287, conceptual p. 287, conceptual pp. 287-288, conceptual p. 288 (Table 11.3), factual p. 290, factual

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132

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

pp. 290-291 (Table 11.4), factual p. 291, factual pp. 291-292, conceptual p. 292 (Table 11.5), factual pp. 293-294, conceptual p. 294 (Table 11.6), factual pp. 295-300, conceptual pp. 300-301, factual pp. 301-302, factual p. 304, conceptual pp. 306-307, conceptual pp. 307–309, conceptual

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CHAPTER 12

AUTISM SPECTRUM DISORDER AND SCHIZOPHRENIA TRUE OR FALSE 1.

Autism is classified by the DSM-5 as a pervasive psychotic disorder.

2.

Autism spectrum disorder includes autism, childhood disintegrative disorder, and childhood schizophrenia.

3.

According to Kanner, the fundamental disturbance in autism is the inability to relate to people.

4.

The three DSM-5 diagnostic features of autism are impaired communication, impaired social interaction, and restricted, stereotyped behaviors and interests.

5.

By definition, children with autism have insecure attachment.

6.

Although language deficits are common in youth with autism, those who acquire language are especially competent in the pragmatics of communication.

7.

Hyperlexia is when a child reads for hours on end in the form of an obsessive hobby.

8.

A youth who is disturbed by the sound of a vacuum cleaner may be displaying oversensitivity to stimuli.

9.

Jimmy is shown a toy car. He hyper-focuses on the wheels spinning them round and round. He does not use the car as a toy and ignores a role model trying to show him how to move the car around on the ground. This is an example of overselectivity.

10.

Approximately 70% of children with autism exhibit intellectual disability.

11.

Splinter skills are skills that are strikingly better than those seen in normally developing youth.

12.

On adaptive behavior scales, youth with autism and higher intelligence tend to have a mismatch between their intellectual abilities and their adaptive skills (adaptive skills lower than expected).

13.

Faux pas stories are designed to test adaptive behavior.

14.

Another term for theory of mind is mindblindness.

15.

There is evidence that youth with autism tend to process perceptual information in a more holistic, global way than do nonautistic children.

16.

Executive dysfunction is evident in toddlers and late preschool-age children with autism. .

134

17.

Research by Totsika et al., (2011) found no differences in hyperactivity, emotional symptoms, or conduct problems between youth with autism and typically developing youth.

18.

The theory that “refrigerator” parenting causes autism is no longer accepted.

19.

Genetic studies imply that autism should be considered on a continuum (varying levels of severity) rather than conceptualized as categorical (yes or no).

20.

Advanced paternal age can increase the risk of autism.

21.

Later born children (e.g., third or fourth in a family) are more likely to have autism.

22.

About 25% of those with autism have seizure disorder.

23.

Current research supports the idea that the MMR vaccine is a possible cause of autism.

24.

A “wait and see” approach to assessment of autism is recommended by the American Medical Association.

25.

The Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule (ADOS) is sensitive to the differences between autism and PDD-NOS.

26.

Research on the Early Start Denver Model (ESDM), an early intervention program for autism, found that toddlers in the program demonstrated better adaptive skills than children who did not have intervention, but did not improve on language performance.

27.

Risperidone is used to reduce irritability, aggression, self-injury and temper tantrums.

28.

Goals for the first 2 to 4 weeks of treatment in the Young Autism Project included imitating speech sounds, labeling objects, and expanding self-help skills.

29.

Schriebman’s (2000) summary of well established facts notes that intensive treatments for many hours a day and in many environments can be extremely effective.

30.

Nearly 40% of young adults with autism receive no services during the first few years after high school.

31.

A majority of schizophrenia cases are diagnosed before age 10.

32.

Hallucinations are false perceptions that occur in the absence of identifiable stimuli.

33.

Hearing a command such as “murder your mother” is an example of a delusion.

34.

When applied to schizophrenia, the term thought disorder refers to false beliefs such as the belief that someone intends to bring harm.

35.

With regard to the onset of childhood schizophrenia, nonpsychotic symptoms often occur prior to psychotic symptoms.

.

135

36.

A majority of children and adolescents with schizophrenia have good outcomes with only mild impairments.

37.

Schizophrenia is associated with risk for premature death.

38.

A relatively common finding is that the brain ventricles are larger than average in persons with schizophrenia.

39.

The COMT gene (chromosome 22) is implicated in dopamine regulation.

40.

Birth complications have been associated with enlarged ventricles.

41.

There is little evidence that psychosocial stress contributes to schizophrenia.

42.

Early identification and treatment has little impact on the outcome for schizophrenia.

43.

Clozapine, an anti-psychotic medication that is especially effective for children and adolescents with schizophrenia, carries a greater risk for serious side effects than other anti-psychotics.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 44.

Who is credited with first describing infantile autism as a disorder different from other childhood disorders? a. Kanner b. Kraepelin

45.

Which of the following is most likely for a very young child with autism? a. b. c. d.

46.

They are overly visually responsive.

They often fail to respond to their names.

They crave touch and will often cling to their mothers.

They have an expressive gaze, even if they are mute.

Autistic children have been found to show deficits in joint attention interactions. A clear example of a joint attention interaction is a. b. c. d.

47.

c. Lovaas d. Rett

expressing friendship by hugging a person. expressing a command verbally by saying "be quiet." showing especially high interest in a stimulus, for example, by visually attending to it. drawing someone’s attention to an object by pointing to it.

Kevin’s doctor is evaluating him for symptoms of autism. The doctor asks Kevin, “How are you today?” Kevin says, “How are you today?” This is possibly a sign of a. repetitive behavior. b. vocal tics. .

136

c. echolalia. d. low intelligence.

48.

Kyle’s doctor is evaluating him for symptoms of autism. The doctor asks Kyle, “How are you today?” Kyle says, “He is fine.” This might be a sign of a. b. c. d.

49.

morphological deficits. expressive language disorder. auditory processing disorder. pronoun reversal.

About what percent of children with autism do not develop spoken language? c. 65 d. 85

a. 30 b. 50 50.

Lower level repetitive sensorimotor behaviors include: a. b. c. d.

51.

With regard to the intelligence test performance of children with autism, a. b. c. d.

52.

there is relative strength in visual-spatial ability. there is relative strength in verbal ability. scores are remarkably even across the different kinds of tasks. most children with autism score somewhat above average.

_______________ is the ability to infer mental states in others and in one’s self. a. b. c. d.

53.

an obsession with numbers. toe walking. hoarding. over focus on hobbies.

Joint attention Pragmatic communication Central coherence Theory of mind

By what age do children typically have first-order theory of mind abilities? c. 1 to 2 years d. 3 to 4 years

a. 6 months b. 12 months 54.

Brent appears to understand that Jim can understand some of what Ted is thinking. Brent thus seems to have which ability? a. First-order theory of mind b. Second-order theory of mind

55.

c. First-order inhibition d. Second-order inhibition

Deficiencies in central coherence are demonstrated by children’s inability to .

137

a. b. c. d.

56.

On the Wechsler intelligence measure, Kendra, who has autism, performs in the superior range on block design and the impaired range on every other subtest. This is indicative of her being able to see parts of design. However, this means she make be weak in a. b. c. d.

57.

The CDC (2012) indicates that 1 in 88 U.S. children has been diagnosed with autism Males and females are equally likely to be diagnosed with autism Autism is more prevalent in upper social classes U.S. African American children are more likely to be diagnosed with autism

Research on the developmental course of autism has revealed that a. b. c. d.

61.

They are more likely to exhibit minor physical anomalies If they are clumsy (which is rare), they usually outgrow it my age 8 They are good eaters They are less likely than typically developing youth to exhibit sleep problems

Which of the following is true regarding the prevalence of autism? a. b. c. d.

60.

Intersubjectivity Empathy Sympathy Objectivity

Which of the following is true regarding children with autism? a. b. c. d.

59.

verbal abilities. theory of the mind. central coherence. splinter skills.

_____________ is a special awareness that persons have of each other that motivates them to communicate with the emotions and interests of others. a. b. c. d.

58.

plan ahead when problem solving. pay attention to the task at hand. integrate parts into wholes. become attached to their caretakers.

for most children the symptoms of autism are not evident until about age 6. regression occurs in less than 5% of cases. symptoms rarely persist into adulthood and most individuals with autism live independently. higher intellectual ability is associated with better outcomes.

Which of the following parts of the brain has been especially implicated in autism? a. Medulla b. Temporal lobe-limbic system

c. Pituitary gland d. Hypothalamus

.

138

62.

Which has been found with regard to autism? a. b. c. d.

63.

Low levels of serotonin in blood platelets Unusually large brain size in toddlers Reduced volume of gray and white tissue in the cerebellum Elevated activity in the amygdala

In regard to genetics, which of the following is true? a. The concordance rate is higher in dizygotic twin pairs. b. The rate of autism in the siblings of a child with autism is about the same as the rate in the general population. c. A higher than expected rate for all pervasive developmental disabilities is found in families of children with autism. d. Adoption studies have not supported a genetic relationship in autism.

64.

PDD-NOS is diagnosed when a. b. c. d.

65.

Treatment of autism with traditional antipsychotic medications a. b. c. d.

66.

may result in adverse motor side effects. is the primary treatment for this disorder. aims at reducing levels of the opiates. has proven to be effect for adolescents and adults with autism.

In regard to Pivotal Response Treatment (PRT), which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

67.

the child has impaired communication but strong social interaction skills. the child is female with early onset. the child shows a regressive pattern in development. the child has impaired social interaction and either impaired communication or stereotyped behavior.

Reducing aggression is the key component.

Intervention occurs in naturalistic settings and involves parents and teachers.

Activities are selected by the adult based on what the child needs to learn.

Treatment gains have occurred for targeted behaviors only.

The Young Autism Project a. found that participants receiving less than 10 hours a week of treatment performed as well as participants receiving 40 hours a week of treatment. b. found no differences in IQ between participants receiving treatment and those not receiving treatment. c. found that treatment gains were maintained for children who had received more intensive training. d. found that all of the participants benefited from the treatment.

68.

The TEACCH intervention program .

139

a. b. c. d.

69.

was initiated by professionals committed to psychoanalytic treatment. is designed primarily for preschool-age children. is widely recognized as having the strongest scientific design for evaluation research. is a comprehensive education, family, and community intervention for autistic children.

With regard to the education of children with autism, a. the TEACCH program is now mandated by the federal government. b. there is wide agreement that full school inclusion is the best setting. c. autism is not included in the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. d. peers can be active participants in intervention and model good social behavior.

70.

An example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia is c. disorganized, loose speech. d. a delusion.

a. a hallucination. b. lack of goal-directed activity.

71.

An example of a positive symptom of schizophrenia is a. b. c. d.

72.

lack of emotion. lack of goal-directed behavior. disorganized speech. language that contains little information.

Which kind of hallucination is most common in youth with schizophrenia? a. Auditory b. Touch

73.

Tory believes he has special powers that make him strong like the Incredible Hulk or the X-men.

This is an example of a. b. c. d.

74.

a complex hallucination. a command hallucination. a grandiose delusion. thought disorder.

Neologisms and loose associations are evidence of a. b. c. d.

75.

c. Visual d. Smell

language impairment. hallucinations. delusions. thought disorder.

Which of the following is true regarding the secondary features of childhood schizophrenia? a. Motor abnormalities are rare. b. Impaired communication is common. .

140

c. Intelligence scores tend to average to above average. d. Negative symptoms are less likely to occur compared to adult onset schizophrenia.

76.

In regard to epidemiology a. childhood onset schizophrenia is more common than adolescent or adult onset schizophrenia. b. childhood onset schizophrenia is more common in boys. c. research clearly demonstrates that childhood onset schizophrenia more common in less educated families. d. schizophrenia is evident only in westernized cultures.

77.

When schizophrenia occurs in childhood, a. b. c. d.

78.

Negative symptoms have been associated with: a. b. c. d.

79.

a 40 percent risk for youth with one schizophrenic parent. a concordance rate of 90 percent in identical twins. that inheritance does not fully account for the disorder. that single-gene inheritance rather than multiple genes are more likely involved in the disorder.

With regard to the assessment of schizophrenia in youth, a. b. c. d.

82.

Densely packed neurons with fewer synaptic connections Increased volume of several areas, such as the thalamus and frontal areas Accelerated growth during childhood in a front to back (of the brain) pattern There are no brain anomalies in children with schizophrenia

Genetic studies of adult schizophrenia indicate a. b. c. d.

81.

increased frontal lobe activity. enlarged ventricles. a highly reactive autonomic nervous system. cerebellum dysfunction.

Which structural brain anomaly is found in schizophrenia? a. b. c. d.

80.

it has more favorable prognosis than later-occurring cases. it usually occurs abruptly. hallucinations are identical to those found in adult schizophrenia. the severity of symptoms tends to be higher than in adult schizophrenia.

it is especially difficult to evaluate hallucinations and delusions in young children. medical evaluation has no reasonable place in assessment. the presence of distorted perceptions is a clear sign of schizophrenia in young children. assessment of adolescents for the disorder is more difficult than assessment of children.

Which is true with regard to the psychopharmacological treatment of youth with schizophrenia?

.

141

a. Medications are largely ineffective for youth with schizophrenia b. Typical antipsychotic medications tend to reduce negative but not positive symptoms. c. Atypical antipsychotic medications are promising but they have greater adverse motor effects than typical antipsychotic medications. d. The side effects associated with medications may lead patients to discontinue use.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 83.

According to the DSM-5, what are the three major behavioral manifestations of autistic disorder?

Describe these behaviors.

84.

Distinguish between splinter skills and savant skills.

85.

What is theory of mind? In what way is theory of mind considered important to the functioning of children with autism?

86.

What is weak central coherence? How does this impact an individual with autism?

87.

Discuss the issues surrounding autism and prevalence rate. What may account for the steadily increasing rates?

88.

What is the controversy associated with vaccines and autism? What does the current research indicate about these concerns?

89.

Discuss the Dawson and Faja (2008) developmental model of autism. What are the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to autism?

90.

Assume you are a clinical psychologist who suspects autistic disorder in a 6-year-old child. How would you proceed in assessment for this disorder?

91.

Describe the Early Start Denver Model. What does the outcome data tell us about the effectiveness of that program?

92.

Briefly describe the Young Autism Project, including treatment stages and outcome data.

93.

Briefly describe the TEACCH psychoeducational treatment of autism.

94.

What are the pros and cons of including children with autism in mainstream classrooms?

95.

Describe the secondary symptoms of schizophrenia. What motor, communication, cognitive and emotional impairments are evident?

96.

Trace the general developmental course of schizophrenia of childhood and adolescence, including its onset, nature of symptoms, and outcome.

97.

Discuss three findings that point to structural and physiological brain abnormalities in individuals with schizophrenia.

.

142

98.

What psychosocial factors have been investigated regarding the etiology of schizophrenia? What evidence or argument supports or questions their influence?

99.

Review the neurodevelopmental model of schizophrenia posited by Bearden et al., (2006). How is the vulnerability-stress model depicted in this theory?

100.

Why might it be particularly difficult to evaluate children with regard to the psychotic manifestations of schizophrenia?

101.

Describe both pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia, especially for children and adolescents.

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

F, F, T, T, F, F, F, T, T, F, F, T F, T, F, F, F, T, T, T, F, T, F, F, T, F, T, F, T, T, F, T, F, F, T,

p. 314, conceptual p. 314, factual p. 314, factual p. 315 (Table 12.1), factual p. 315, factual p. 316, factual p. 316, conceptual p. 316, factual p. 317, applied p. 317, factual p. 317, conceptual p. 318, factual p. 318, factual p. 319, factual p. 319, factual p. 319, factual p. 321 (Figure 12.4), factual p. 324, factual pp. 324-325, conceptual p. 325, factual p. 325, factual p. 325, factual p. 326, factual p. 330, conceptual p. 330, factual p. 331 (Accent), factual p. 332, factual p. 334 (Table 12.5), factual p. 334, factual p. 336, factual p. 336, factual p. 336, factual p. 337, applied p. 337, conceptual p. 338, factual .

143

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

F, p. 338, factual T, p. 338, factual T, p. 339, factual T, p. 341, factual T, p. 341, factual F, p. 341, factual F, p. 343, factual T, pp. 343-344, factual A, p. 314, factual B, p. 315, conceptual D, p. 315, applied C, p. 316, applied D, p. 316, applied A, p. 316, factual B, p. 316, factual A, p. 317, factual D, p. 318, factual D, p. 318, factual B, p. 318, applied C, p. 319, factual C, p. 319, applied A, p. 320, factual A, p. 320, factual A, pp. 321-322, factual D, pp. 322-323, factual B, p. 323, factual B, p. 323, factual C, p. 324, factual D, p. 328, factual A, pp. 331-332, factual B, p. 333, factual C, p. 334, conceptual D, p. 335, conceptual D, p. 335, factual B, p. 336, applied C, p. 336, applied A, p. 336, factual C. p. 337, applied D, p. 337, factual B, pp. 337-338, factual B, p. 338, conceptual D, p. 338 (Figure 12.9), factual B, p. 339, factual A, pp. 339-340, factual C, p. 341, factual A, pp. 342-343, conceptual D, pp. 343-344, factual p. 315 (Table 12.1), conceptual p. 317, conceptual .

144

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90 91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

pp. 318-319, conceptual p. 319, factual p. 322 (Accent), factual pp. 325-326 (Figure 12.5), factual p. 326 (Figure 12.6), conceptual pp. 330-331, applied pp. 331-332 (Accent), factual pp. 333-334, factual p. 335, factual p. 335, conceptual pp. 337-338, factual pp. 338-339, factual pp. 339-340, factual pp. 341-342, factual p. 342 (Figure 12.12), conceptual pp. 342-343, factual pp. 343-344, factual

.

145

CHAPTER 13

DISORDERS OF BASIC PHYSICAL FUNCTIONS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

It is common for children to exhibit some difficulty in acquiring appropriate habits of elimination, sleep, and eating.

2.

The view that enuresis is the result of emotional or psychiatric disturbance is well supported.

3.

Family histories of youngsters with enuresis rarely reveal a number of relatives with the same problem.

4.

Encopresis refers to the passage of feces into the clothing or other unacceptable area when this is not due to physical disorder.

5.

A majority of children with encopresis are constipated.

6.

Research indicates that after age 11, the hours a young person spends asleep decreases significantly, particularly during the week.

7.

Parasomnias involve difficulty with initiating and maintaining sleep.

8.

Research indicates that good sleepers do not wake up during the night.

9.

Obstructive sleep apnea can be diagnosed through a clinical interview.

10.

Research and clinical observations suggest that sleepwalking is due to nervous system immaturity and is therefore unaffected by psychological factors.

11.

A majority of children who sleepwalk exhibit an EEG pattern common to children during the first year of life and uncommon to children older than age 3.

12.

Sleep terrors occur during the rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep and at fairly random times during the child’s sleeping pattern.

13.

Research by Muris et al. (2001) indicates that parents tend to overestimate their children’s nighttime fears.

14.

Medications are the best treatment for sleep disorders.

15.

Children’s feeding behaviors are a common concern for at least 50 percent of parents.

16.

Rumination refers to a disorder of eating in which a child's concerns about eating certain foods result in anxiety and vomiting.

17.

Pica is frequently observed among developmentally delayed youngsters. .

147

18.

One feeding disorder associated with infancy or early childhood is sometimes referred to as “failure to thrive.”

19.

About 1 to 5 percent of pediatric hospital admissions are due to failure to thrive.

20.

Poor attachment, parental psychopathology, low birth weight, and developmental disability have all been correlated with failure to thrive.

21.

According to the Centers for Disease Control (2010), the rate of obesity in children and adolescents has steadily declined since the mid 1980s.

22.

Aside from health issues, children who are obese have few problems.

23.

Parents often model poor eating and exercise habits.

24.

Research indicates that in order to be successful, behavioral treatment for weight loss with youth must include a family or parental component.

25.

Subclinical concerns with weight and unusual eating behaviors are increasingly common in younger adolescents.

26.

Research suggests that African American and Hispanic females report less body satisfaction than European American females.

27.

Over 50 percent of cases of anorexia nervosa end in death.

28.

There is some evidence that eating conflicts, struggles with food, and unpleasant meals in childhood are associated with symptoms of anorexia in adolescence.

29.

Early sexual abuse puts a child at risk for psychopathology, including eating disorders.

30.

Our society's valuing of slim and young bodies likely contributes to the development and prevalence of eating disorders.

31.

Research indicates that body image in young men is seemingly uninfluenced by culture.

32.

Families of people with eating disorders are reported to have a higher incidence of weight problems, but are less likely to have physical illnesses, affective disorders, or alcoholism.

33.

Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) does not directly target eating symptoms, but addresses interpersonal deficits, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions and grief.

34.

Antidepressants have recently been found to be helpful in maintaining weight in anorexic patients.

35.

Prevention programs designed to help young girls to recognize and challenge cultural messages have been proven to increase body esteem.

.

148

MULTIPLE CHOICE 36.

The usual sequence of control over elimination is a. nighttime bowel control, nighttime bladder control, daytime bowel control, nighttime bladder control. b. nighttime bowel control, daytime bowel control, nighttime bladder control, daytime bladder control. c. nighttime bowel control, daytime bowel control, daytime bladder control, nighttime bladder control. d. daytime bowel control, daytime bladder control, nighttime bowel control, nighttime bladder control.

37.

The lack of urinary controls is usually not diagnosed as enuresis prior to the age of a. 18 months. b. 3 years.

38.

A 5-year-old boy is referred to a clinic for the treatment of enuresis. He wets his bed at night, but remains dry during the daytime. He does not exhibit any other behavior problems. His mother reports that her son slept through the night without wetting for about a year, or until his baby sister was born. The boy would probably be described as exhibiting a. b. c. d.

39.

Prevalence of enuresis increases with age.

Boys and girls are equally likely to have enuresis.

Elevated levels of antidiuretic hormones are associated with enuresis.

Reduced bladder capacity may be associated with enuresis.

The hypothesis that enuresis is a disorder of sleep arousal refers to the idea that a. b. c. d.

41.

nocturnal and secondary enuresis. diurnal and secondary enuresis. nocturnal and primary enuresis. aggressive enuresis.

Which of the following statements regarding enuresis is accurate? a. b. c. d.

40.

c. 5 years. d. 10 years.

the child's wetting causes arousal, thus interrupting sleep. the child with enuresis is an unusually deep sleeper. the child is sexually aroused by dreams and this results in wetting. repeated bed wetting leads to disruption of the sleep-wake cycle.

The medication most frequently employed in the treatment of enuresis is a. librium. b. diuretics.

42.

c. desmopressin acetate. d. imipramine.

Which of the following statements regarding the urine-alarm system is accurate? a. There is little research support for this approach. .

149

b. The system works by sounding an alarm at given periods during the night, thus waking the child before he or she urinates. c. The system is effective in a majority of cases. d. The system has been found to be more expensive than medication.

43.

The treatment program for enuresis developed by Houts and his colleagues is known as a. the Desmopressin Program. b. Full Bladder Training.

44.

Results of research, such as that by Houts and his colleagues, suggest that the prevention of relapses in treating enuresis is facilitated by a. overlearning. b. covert conditioning.

45.

c. treating younger children. d. the addition of verbal psychotherapy.

Most treatments of encopresis a. b. c. d.

46.

c. Full Spectrum Home Training. d. the Retention Control Program.

combine medical and psychodynamic management. combine medical and behavioral management. combine behavioral and psychodynamic management. avoid the use of enemas.

Current treatments for encopresis a. b. c. d.

are not very successful. try to avoid parental involvement. are likely to include positive reinforcement for appropriate toileting behavior and being clean. are initially successful, but relapse rates are high.

47.

Which of the following statements regarding normal sleep patterns is correct?

48.

a. There is considerable individual variation in what would be considered normal sleep. b. The amount of time spent in REM sleep increases as we age. c. The sequence (pattern) in which various sleep stages occur remains the same from birth through early adolescence. d. EEG waves are faster during the deepest part of sleep.

The two broad phases of sleep are a. b. c. d.

49.

childhood and adult. rapid eye movement and nonrapid eye movement.

EEG and non-EEG. nocturnal and diurnal.

Surveys suggest that approximately _______ percent of infants and younger children experience some form of sleep problem that is disturbing to the family. a. 5 b. 15

c. 25 d. 45

.

150

50.

Sleep disorders are usually classified into two major categories a. b. c. d.

51.

difficulties in initiation and maintenance and difficulties in arousal and transition. insomnias and hypersomnias. nightmares and dreams. nightmares and night terrors.

A child experiences difficulty regarding arousal from sleep and transitions between sleep stages.

These problems fall in the category of a. REM sleep. b. non-REM sleep.

52.

Obstructive sleep apnea is a. b. c. d.

53.

rare in children in adolescents. treated with stimulant medication. easily recognizable by parents and professionals. characterized by loud snoring, pauses and difficulty breathing, restlessness and sweating during sleep.

Sleepwalking a. b. c. d.

54.

c. dyssomnia. d. parasomnia.

is always followed by the child achieving full consciousness. is clearly not a physical danger since it occurs only among very agile children. is probably the acting out of a dream. occurs primarily in the first one to three hours of sleep.

Regarding sleepwalking, a. approximately 1 to 6 percent of children experience isolated episodes of walking in their sleep. b. sleepwalking disorder occurs in approximately 15 percent of children. c. it appears to be influenced by insufficient sleep, changes in sleep routines and settings and stress. d. no genetic component is evident.

55.

A sleeping child suddenly sits upright in bed and screams. The child still appears to be sleeping, but shows obvious physiological signs of distress and appears disoriented. Eventually, the child returns to sleep without fully awakening and has no memory of this event the next day. The child has experienced a. a nightmare. b. a sleep terror.

56.

c. insomnia. d. an anxiety attack.

Sleep terrors a. occur during REM sleep.

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

151

b. usually occur about 2 hours into sleep. c. are quite common. d. are remembered for their vivid dreams.

57.

Nightmares a. b. c. d.

58.

occur during REM sleep. occur during the first third of the night. are quite rare. are unrelated to daytime anxieties.

The differentiation between children's nightmares and sleep terrors includes which of the following? a. Nightmares occur during non-REM sleep, whereas sleep terrors occur during REM sleep. b. During nightmares the child is easy to arouse and responsive to the environment, whereas during sleep terrors the child is difficult to arouse and largely unresponsive to the environment. c. There is limited or no memory for nightmares, whereas the contents of sleep terrors may be remembered fairly clearly. d. There is intense physiological arousal during nightmares, whereas there is only moderate physiological arousal during sleep terrors.

59.

Which of the following interventions for the problems of bedtime refusal, difficulty falling asleep, and nighttime wakenings are supported by research? a. Punishment b. Bedtime routines.

60.

c. Scheduled awakenings d. Pharmacological treatments.

___________ appears to be successful in the treatment of sleep terrors. a. Scheduled awakenings b. Family education

61.

Rumination is an eating disorder in which the youngster a. b. c. d.

62.

c. Play therapy d. Pharmacological treatment

worries about what kinds of foods to eat. has concerns with weight and body image. experiences anxiety when eating occurs outside of the home. voluntarily regurgitates food or liquid.

The most common explanation of rumination is that a. b. c. d.

it is the infant's way of worrying. it is caused by an overindulgent mother. it is associated with self stimulation and sensory deprivation in the environment. the infant's immature nervous system doesn't experience the events as aversive.

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

152

63.

A child who habitually eats substances such as paint, dirt, and bugs would likely be described as displaying the disorder known as a. pica. b. rumination.

64.

c. bulimia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

The diagnosis of pica is made only after the child is 2 years old because a. observation of behavior must cover at least a several-year period. b. prior to this the symptoms associated with pica are characteristic of normally developing infants. c. children cannot be interviewed prior to this age. d. children do not feed themselves until they are 2.

65.

A young child exhibits a persistent failure to eat adequately that results in the child’s failure to gain weight. This child would likely receive a diagnosis of a. b. c. d.

66.

Which of the following statements regarding childhood obesity is accurate? a. b. c. d.

67.

rumination disorder. pica. infantile anorexia. avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder.

There are no ethnic differences in regard to risk for childhood obesity.

Obesity is characterized by a body mass index at or above the 85th percentile.

The prevalence of childhood obesity has decreased.

The rates of obesity have only increased in girls.

Which of the following statements regarding childhood obesity is supported by research? a. In a sample of inner city students, overweight children were more likely to be absent than normal weight children. b. Children who are overweight are generally perceived as likeable and friendly. c. Negative attitudes about obesity begin around puberty. d. Any negative effects of obesity disappear after high school.

68.

In a study by Israel and Shapiro, parents of overweight children enrolled in a weight-loss program completed behavior problem checklists. In general, the results suggest that these overweight children have psychological difficulties to a ______ extent than do members of the general child population, but that the extent of their problems are ______ as those of children referred to clinics for psychological services. a. greater; as great b. greater; not as great

69.

c. lesser; as great d. lesser; not as great

Current knowledge regarding the etiology of obesity suggests that a. psychological factors are primary.

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153

b. biological factors are primary. c. social factors are primary. d. the causes are probably multiple and complex.

70.

The results of the Israel et al. study of parent training and the treatment of obese children suggest that a. parent training results in parents being overinvolved with their children and therefore the child is less successful. b. the knowledge of child management skills is not enhanced by the addition of this specific training to a standard behavioral weight-loss program. c. parent training results in superior maintenance of weight loss over a one-year follow-up period. d. parent training produces improvements over the weight maintenance achieved by the standard treatment group at the end of treatment, but not at one year following treatment.

71.

The Israel et al. study examining the inclusion of enhanced self-management skills in the treatment of obese youngsters found that self-management training a. resulted in poorer weight loss during treatment. b. resulted in superior weight loss during treatment. c. increased the likelihood of a youngster returning to pretreatment weight patterns following treatment. d. reduced the likelihood of a youngster returning to pretreatment weight patterns following treatment.

72.

A young person eats more during an hour period than most people would be expected to eat during that period. She also reports that she was unable to control her eating during this period.

This behavior is known as a. a binge. b. a purge.

73.

c. bulimia. d. anorexia.

In conceptualizing eating disorders such as anorexia and bulimia, an important distinction that has received some support is a. between restricting intake or purging. b. between individuals diagnosed as anorexia nervosa whose weight is near normal and those with the diagnosis whose weight is 15 percent or more below ideal weight. c. between individuals diagnosed with bulimia who binge and those who do not. d. between pre- and post-menarchal females with anorexia.

74.

An adolescent female. She repeatedly engages in self-induced vomiting and exhibits an intense fear of gaining weight. She claims she feels fat and is highly concerned with her body's shapeAccording to DSM-5 she would most likely receive the diagnosis of a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa.

c. phobia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

154

75.

DSM-5 distinguishes between two types of anorexia known as a. b. c. d.

76.

normal weight vs. underweight. binging vs. purging. binge-eating/purging vs. restricting. primary vs. secondary.

A young woman whose ideal weight is 105 pounds, weighs 110 pounds. She engages in recurrent episodes of binge eating and repeatedly fasts and engages in excessive exercise to prevent weight gain. The young woman's self-esteem is based primarily on how her body looks. She would most likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of a. anorexia nervosa. b. bulimia nervosa.

77.

Which of the following statements regarding the prevalence of eating disorders is accurate? a. b. c. d.

78.

c. restructuring anorexia. d. borderline obesity.

Youth with “partial syndrome” or subclinical symptoms do not experience much impairment.

EDNOS is less common than anorexia and bulimia.

Females represent about 90 percent of all cases.

Anorexia nervosa is more commonly diagnosed than bulimia nervosa.

Which of the following is true? a. By the 4th or 5th grade many girls are worried about becoming overweight or desire to be thinner. b. Young women in westernized culture are at no greater risk for eating disorders. c. Co-occurring problems are rare. d. The typical age of onset for eating disorders is 9-12 years of age.

79.

In regard to the impact of biological influences on eating disordered behavior a. b. c. d.

80.

exposure to higher testosterone is often implicated. increased hormonal changes at puberty are hypothesized to increase risk. increased serotonin activity has been observed in individuals with anorexia and bulimia. genetic influences are significant in preadolescents but fade through adolescence and adulthood.

The notion that anorexia begins as an attempt to control genuine obesity a. b. c. d.

is strongly supported. may apply to anorexia nervosa in females, but does not apply to males. is clearly not a factor in the development of anorexia. needs to explain why only some girls persist in the common social ritual of dieting beyond the point of socially desired slimness.

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155

81.

The classic image of a young anorexic girl as trapped by her family "like a sparrow in a golden cage" is attributable to a. Anna Freud. b. Hilda Bruch.

82.

In the Maudsley family approach: a. b. c. d.

83.

the family is seen as pathological. the treatment avoids focusing on the eating disorder, but rather address dynamics. families are encouraged to work out for themselves how to get the patient to gain weight. only works when the family is seen together.

The treatment approach for bulimia nervosa for which there is the best controlled research support is a. b. c. d.

84.

c. Christopher Fairburn. d. Karen Carpenter.

antidepressant medication. the family-systems approach of Minuchin. cognitive-behavioral treatment. hospitalization.

Treatment for bulimia nervosa from a cognitive-behavioral view a. assumes that hormonal imbalance is at the core of the disorder. b. assumes that cognitive distortions regarding shape and weight are the primary features of the disorder. c. has been found to be equal to pharmacotherapy in its effectiveness. d. hospitalizes the young person in the early stages of treatment.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 85.

Compare and contrast the various types of treatment used for enuresis.

86.

What is encopresis and what are some of the commonly held causes and treatments?

87.

Describe the symptoms and problems associated with sleep apnea. What treatments are commonly used?

88.

What are the hypothesized causes of sleepwalking disorder?

89.

Briefly describe four characteristics that differentiate nightmares and sleep terrors.

90.

Sleep problems are a common complaint among parents. What advice can be offered to diminish or eliminate sleep problems with children?

91.

Using the case study in the textbook on Matthew, the 11 year old with recurrent nightmares, how would you treat a child with recurrent nightmares?

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

156

92.

What are the differences and similarities between pica and rumination?

93.

Explain the role of psychosocial and cultural factors in promoting obesity in American children.

94.

Review the multifaceted program for treating childhood obesity reported in the textbook. What would you include to ensure long-term success?

95.

Briefly describe three considerations usually employed in making distinctions between eating disorders.

96.

How does DSM-5 suggest that bulimia nervosa be subtyped? Describe the ways these subtypes compensate for binge eating.

97.

Briefly describe the developmental course and prognosis of anorexia and bulimia.

98.

Describe some evidence that supports "cultural" influences in the development of eating disorders in young girls.

99.

How has the research by McCabe and Ricciardelli provided new insight into weight and shape concerns in young men?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

T, F, F, T, T, T, F, F, F, F, T, F, F. F. T, F, T, T, T, T, F, F, T, T, T, F,

p. 346, factual p. 348, factual p. 348, factual p. 349, factual p. 350, factual pp. 351-352 (Figure 13.3), factual p. 352, factual p. 353, factual p. 353 (Accent), factual p. 353, factual p. 354, factual p. 355, factual p. 355, conceptual p. 356, factual p. 357, factual p. 357, factual p. 358, factual p. 358, factual p. 358, factual pp. 358-359, factual p. 359 (Figure 13.5), factual p. 360, conceptual p. 360, factual p. 361, factual p. 365, factual p. 365, factual Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

157

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

F, p. 366, factual T, p. 368, factual T, p. 368, factual T, p. 368, factual F, p. 369 (Accent), factual F, p. 370, factual T, pp. 372-373, conceptual F, p. 373, factual T, p. 373, factual C, p. 347, factual C, p. 347, factual A, p. 347, applied D, p. 348, factual B, p. 348, factual C, p. 348, factual C, pp. 348-349, factual C, p. 349, factual A, p. 349, factual B, p. 350, factual C, p. 350, factual A, pp. 350-351, factual B, p. 351, factual C, p. 351, factual A, p. 351, factual D, p. 352, applied D, p. 353 (Accent), factual D, p. 354, factual C, p. 354, factual B, p. 354, applied B, p. 354 (Table 13.1), factual A, p. 354 (Table 13.1), factual B, p. 354 (Table 13.1), factual B, p. 355, factual B, p. 355, factual D, p. 357, factual C, p. 357, conceptual A, p. 358, applied B, p. 358, factual D, p. 358, applied B, p. 359, factual A, p. 360, conceptual B, p. 360, factual D, p. 360, factual C, p. 361, factual D, pp. 361-362 (Figure 13.6), factual A, pp. 363, applied A, p. 363, conceptual A, pp. 363-364, applied C, p. 364, factual

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

98.

99.

B, p. 364, applied C, p. 365, factual A, pp. 365-366, factual B, pp. 366-367, factual D, p. 368, factual B, p. 371, factual C, p. 371, factual C, p. 372, factual B, p. 372, factual pp. 348-349, conceptual pp. 349-350, factual p. 353 (Accent), factual p. 354, factual p. 355 (Table 13.1), factual pp. 355-356, factual p. 356 (Matthew case study), applied pp. 357-358, conceptual p. 360, factual pp. 360-361, applied pp. 362-363, factual p. 364, factual p. 366, factual pp. 368-370, conceptual p. 369, factual

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

159

CHAPTER 14

PSYCHOLOGICAL FACTORS AFFECTING MEDICAL CONDITIONS TRUE OR FALSE 1.

The earlier term Psychosomatic Disorders is an historical predecessor of the DSM-5 category Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Condition.

2.

Minority and poor children are overrepresented among youth with asthma.

3.

Psychological stimuli and emotional upset are often considered triggers of asthmatic attacks.

4.

Research suggests that negative family emotional climate is associated with asthma severity.

5.

The effects of any chronic illness on a family or the individual are likely to be small and inconsequential.

6.

Research indicates that there is little variability in adjustment in chronically ill youth.

7.

A functional limitation of a chronic illness is defined as a restriction the youth experiences as a result of the chronic condition.

8.

Research by Wagner and colleagues (2003) found that parental distress impacted young people with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis regardless of how they perceived their illness.

9.

Research on issues of conflict, organization and control in families of youth with diabetes found that low conflict and high organization were associated with better outcomes.

10.

The research on family cohesion in cancer survivors indicates that the level of cohesion is consistent from diagnosis through years after remission.

11.

The five-year survival rate for childhood cancer hovers around 40 percent.

12.

There is evidence that radiation and chemotherapy are associated with later impairment in cognitive and academic functioning.

13.

Youngsters with HIV are at risk for significant learning, language, and attention difficulties in addition to the impairments associated with the disease; however, improved antiviral therapy has slowed down the progression of the disease.

14.

Attempts to directly reduce the symptoms of actual physical illnesses through traditional psychotherapy have largely been successful.

15.

Hyperglycemia is the term used to describe excessively high levels of blood glucose.

.

160

16.

The concept of a "honeymoon period" for diabetes refers to the fact the onset of diabetes often occurs following the stress of a major life event.

17.

Knowledge about a disease, such as diabetes, is not always associated with compliance with treatment regimens to control the disease.

18.

Adherence to the diabetes regimen typically increases during adolescence.

19.

Health care providers have little influence on adherence to medical regimens in the adolescent population.

20.

The term biofeedback refers to a procedure in which a medical device gives immediate feedback to the person about a particular biological function.

21.

The three response systems that may be assessed in children’s pain during medical procedures are cognitive-affective, behavioral, and physiological.

22.

The perception of control during adverse treatment procedures seems to have positive outcomes.

23.

Emotive imagery is a technique where images are used to increase emotions.

24.

Research indicates that valium is as effective as cognitive behavioral strategies for pain management.

25.

Less than 10 percent of people are hospitalized during their youth.

26.

Presently, approximately 98% percent of hospitals in the U.S. and Canada allow unrestricted parental visitation during childhood hospitalizations.

27.

Injuries are the leading age of death for youth over the age of 1.

28.

The currently accepted psychological approach to children who are dying is to protect them from the truth and not burden them with the reality of their death.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 29.

Pediatric psychology a. b. c. d.

30.

examines the impact of social and psychological factors on medical conditions. is another term for child psychology. is practiced only by medical doctors or nurses. involves children under the age of 13 (when the patient is older it is considered adolescent medicine).

In regard to managing asthma, the Loren case study in the textbook highlighted which of the following? a. Separating the child from his/her parent to decrease attacks b. Increasing medication as children age .

161

c. Encouraging the parent to take more responsibility d. Teaching the child to control emotions more effectively 31.

A study by Purcell and his colleagues tested the hypothesis that asthmatic children would become symptom free soon after being sent away from their parents. The results of this study indicated that a. all asthmatic children improved dramatically when they were separated from their parents. b. the children whose symptoms had been classically conditioned improved during separation, whereas the other children did not improve. c. the children for whom emotions were important precipitants improved during the separation, whereas the other children did not improve. d. the children for whom emotions were important precipitants did not improve during the separation, whereas the other children did improve.

32.

The current view on whether changes in the psychological atmosphere are the basis for improvement in asthmatic symptoms suggests that a. separation from the parents produced changes because the parents were causing the asthma. b. separation may have been successful because the surrogate parents were able to achieve increased compliance with medical regimens. c. changes in the psychological/home environment cannot affect asthma symptoms. d. psychological factors play no role in the understanding of asthma management.

33.

Research on asthma suggests that a. asthma arises from an excessive, unresolved dependence on the mother and resultant fear of separation. b. psychological factors play an important role in the initial development of hypersensitivity of air passages in asthmatic children. c. psychological factors play an important role in triggering asthmatic attacks. d. genetic factors do not play a role.

34.

Which of the following is true regarding asthma? a. b. c. d.

35.

More recent research on the role of family functioning in asthma suggests that a. b. c. d.

36.

Asthma arises from excessive unresolved dependence on the mother.

Asthma is the result of a hypersensitivity of the air passages.

A “parentectomy” is currently a commonly suggest treatment.

Family emotional climate has little impact on asthma symptoms.

family functioning plays no role in asthma. family functioning is a major cause in the initial development of asthma. family functioning influences the frequency and severity of asthmatic symptoms. parents' management of the child’s asthma is not relevant for young children.

When one is discussing the impact on adjustment of type of illness, severity, or degree of impairment of functioning associated with illness, one is discussing the role of

.

162

a. psychosocial stress. b. illness parameters.

37.

Findings regarding the association between chronic illness and children's social/emotional adjustment suggest that a. b. c. d.

38.

c. functional impairments. d. adherence.

in general, children with chronic illnesses are better adjusted than a normal control sample. the impact of illness severity on adjustment is clear and consistent. the young person’s attitude toward the illness may impact the illness. there is no association between chronic illness and social/emotional problems in children.

Research by LeBovidge, Lavigne, & Miller (2005) on arthritis and depression found a. young people with arthritis are more depressed than those with other chronic illnesses. b. there was no difference in depressive symptoms for youth with high versus low stress. c. youth with a positive illness attitude had fewer depressive symptoms than youth with negative illness attitudes. d. negative illness attitudes created more depressive symptoms only when the stress was high.

39.

Timko and her colleagues' research on risk and resilience factors in the adjustment of youngsters with juvenile rheumatic disease suggests that the a. the adjustment of fathers, but not mothers, was a risk factor. b. the adjustment of mothers, but not fathers, was a risk factor. c. adjustment for both mothers and fathers were risk factors, and social relations for mothers, but not fathers, were protective factors. d. adjustment for both mothers and fathers were risk factors and social relations for both mothers and fathers were protective factors.

40.

Research by Berg and colleagues on young adolescents with diabetes found a. b. c. d.

41.

Adjustment to a chronic illness by a youngster and family is a. b. c. d.

42.

the child’s relationship with his/her father was unrelated to diabetes outcome. monitoring of the illness by the parents was associated with better diabetes outcome. monitoring of the illness by the parents led to decreased compliance with treatment regimens. parental involvement in managing the illness decreased the teen’s self efficacy.

an issue immediately following the diagnosis. of concern during periods of worsening symptoms. an ongoing process. an issue following relapse.

Which of the following statements regarding chemotherapy and related treatments for childhood cancer is accurate? a. These treatments have not improved the survival rates for childhood cancer. b. These treatments have immediate, but not long-term, negative side effects.

.

163

c. These treatments may result in impairment in areas such as attention and learning. d. Impairments from chemotherapy are of particular concern for adolescents.

43.

Which of the following is accurate with regard to the impact of HIV/AIDS in children and adolescents? a. The number of HIV babies born to HIV-positive women in the U.S. has increased over time. b. HIV is considered terminal and care is focused on keeping the patient comfortable until he/she dies. c. All HIV-infected youth have cognitive, emotional or behavioral problems. d. Youth with HIV have likely been exposed to other high risk factors such as parental loss, parental psychopathology or drug use.

44.

The term "adherence" describes a. b. c. d.

45.

how well a youngster or family follows recommended medical treatments. how following religious beliefs helps relieve stress and improves health. how a family’s discipline practices affect the health of the youngster. how closely individual family members are to each other.

Which of the following is true regarding diabetes? a. Type I diabetes is the result of the pancreas producing insufficient amounts of insulin. b. Type II diabetes is quite rare in childhood, making up less than 5 percent of new cases in youth. c. Type II diabetes occurs more frequently in Caucasian populations. d. Young people with type II diabetes do not need insulin injections.

46.

The first task in the treatment of juvenile diabetes is to a. b. c. d.

47.

Adolescence, compared to earlier development, is a period of problematic adherence to medical regimens because of which of the following? a. b. c. d.

48.

gain control of the diabetic condition. reduce the stress related to the illness. teach the child how to talk about the illness with friends. stop eating sugar.

Professionals often underestimate the adolescent’s knowledge of the disease.

Parents often refuse to give up control.

The adolescent may have low self-efficacy in regard to the ability to manage the illness.

These teens tend to have few friends so they have no one to help them monitor their illness.

Research on adherence to diabetes regimens, by Palmer and colleagues, suggests that a. b. c. d.

low self-reliance and low pubertal status results in poorer diabetic control. low self-reliance and low pubertal status results in greater diabetic control. maternal involvement is only influential when the teen is highly self reliant. maternal involvement is more influential when the teen is high in pubertal status.

.

164

49.

Regarding the case study on Cindy, the teen with chronic headaches reported in your textbook, which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

50.

Increasing her medication was crucial to her recovery.

She was able to produce dramatic changes on physiological responses using biofeedback.

The cognitive behavioral techniques were not very effective.

She experienced a complete remission in her pain symptoms .

Regarding the measurement of pain in young patients, a. it is difficult to differentiate the pain the youngster is suffering from the anxiety the youngster is experiencing while undergoing an aversive medical procedure. b. the physiological component is the aspect of pain that is most frequently assessed. c. the behavioral component is the aspect of pain that is most frequently assessed. d. it is important to assess pain in the same way for youngsters of all ages.

51.

Which of the following is accurate regarding helping a youngster cope with an aversive medical procedure? a. b. c. d.

52.

Reassurance from medical staff is often ineffective.

Unexpected stress is better than predictable stress.

Giving the child some sense of control over the procedure is believed to be helpful.

Parents are often more helpful if they reassure and apologize during the procedure.

The work of Jay and her colleagues (1987, 1991, 1995) on reducing children's distress during painful medical procedures included which of the following components in the intervention? a. filmed modeling b. negative reinforcement

53.

c. parent training d. muscle relaxers

Preparation of children for hospitalization a. is rarely done in most pediatric hospitals. b. should include having the child observe a model who is apprehensive, but copes with the stresses of hospitalization. c. is likely to involve the child undergoing a medical procedure and then later observing a model who experiences the same procedure. d. might recommend that the child avoid contact with parents and other family members.

54.

Efforts at preventing childhood injury are impeded by a. b. c. d.

55.

the knowledge that serious injuries are very infrequent. the perception that most injuries are chance events and therefore unavoidable. the absence of behavioral antecedents to injury. the impossibility of providing contingencies for injury-related behavior.

Professionals working in the area of childhood injury have suggested abandoning the term "accident" in favor of "unintentional injury" because

.

165

a. the term "accident" should be reserved for automobile accidents and similar events. b. "accidents" include purposeful attempts to injure the child. c. "unintentional injury" acknowledges that the event, though not deliberate, might have been avoided. d. "unintentional injury" indicates that there were no behavioral antecedents to the event.

56.

An understanding of death as final and inevitable, and of personal mortality, emerges at about a. age 5 or 6. b. age 9 or 10.

c. age 12 or 13. d. age 15 or 16.

BRIEF ESSAYS 57.

What is asthma? What is a trigger? Explain the difference between a physical and psychological trigger. Give examples.

58.

Describe the difficulties in measuring adjustment to a chronic illness. According to the model by Wallander and Varni (1998), what variables need to be considered? (There are seven; list and describe three categories.)

59.

Describe variables that might be investigated if one were interested in the impact of "illness parameters" on the psychological adjustment of youngsters with chronic illnesses.

60.

In the Lisa case study (the 14-year-old with diabetes) reported in the textbook, what variables were impacting her adjustment to and management of her diabetes? What variables may have motivated her to not manage her illness effectively?

61.

Briefly describe the research on family cohesion and cancer.

62.

What are the potential issues associated with cancer in adolescence? What is it about this particular developmental period that adds to the potential for risk in terms of adjustment?

63.

Briefly describe four factors that contribute to concern for youngsters born infected with HIV.

64.

List 7 common activities required of diabetic children and families.

65.

Briefly describe three different reasons adolescence appears to be a time of difficulty regarding adherence to medical regimens.

66.

Describe the methods use to assess pain and distress in youth undergoing medical procedures.

67.

Describe some skills taught to assist children in coping with medical procedures. Give an example of emotive imagery.

68.

What are the common antecedents to injury? Note those that are present in the youth, their peers, and their parents.

69.

What should a dying child and his/her family be told? What other needs do they have? .

166

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

T, pp. 376-377, factual T, p. 377, factual T, p. 378, factual T, p. 379, factual F, p. 380, factual F, p. 380, factual T, p. 382, factual F, p. 383, factual T, p. 383, factual F, p. 384, factual F, p. 384, factual T, p. 385, factual T, pp. 385-386, factual F, p. 386, factual T, p. 387, factual F, p. 387, factual T, p. 387, conceptual F, p. 388, factual F, p. 389, conceptual T, p. 389, factual T, p. 391, factual T, p. 392, factual F, p. 392, factual F, p. 393 factual F, p. 394, factual T, p. 393, factual T, p. 394 (Accent), factual F, p. 395, factual A, p. 377, conceptual D, p. 377, applied C, p. 378, factual B, p. 378, factual C, p. 378, factual B, pp. 378-379, factual C, pp. 378-379, factual B, p. 381, conceptual C, p. 382, factual C, p. 382 (Figure 14.3), factual D, p. 382, factual B, p. 383, factual C, p. 384, conceptual C, pp. 384-385, factual D, pp. 385-386, factual A, p. 386, factual A, p. 386, factual A, p. 387, factual

.

167

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

C, p. 388, factual A, p. 388 (Figure 14.4), factual B, p. 390, factual A, pp. 390-391, factual C, pp. 391-392, factual A, p. 392, factual B, p. 394, factual B, p. 393 (Accent), factual C, p. 393 (Accent), factual B, p. 393, factual p. 378, applied p. 381 (Figure 14.2), factual pp. 381-382, factual p. 383 (Lisa case study), applied p. 384, conceptual p. 384, conceptual pp. 385-386, conceptual p. 387 (Table 14.1), factual pp. 388-389, factual p. 391, applied pp. 391-392, applied p. 394, factual pp. 394-395, conceptual

.

168

CHAPTER 15

EVOLVING CONCERNS FOR YOUTH TRUE OR FALSE 1.

Professionals agree that family well-being relies heavily on family structure (who lives in the home) over family attributes (warmth, communication).

2.

Approximately 60 percent of married women with a preschool child work outside of the home.

3.

Research consistently indicates that early child care has little to no impact on the child.

4.

In 2010, center based care was the primary setting for 24% of children age 0-4 years.

5.

Several studies have found that young children from low-income homes benefit cognitively from day care center attendance.

6.

Latchkey children are those children who are responsible for self-care after school.

7.

The percentage of kids responsible for self-care after school rises after age 9 until age 12.

8.

“Double jeopardy” noted by Watamura and colleagues (2011) refers to children from disadvantaged families who experience low quality care at home and in other settings.

9.

After school programs are not particularly beneficial to low income youth.

10.

Younger age of the child and time spent hanging out with peers are two variables which are associated with poor outcomes for children who are in self-care during after-school hours.

11.

Data on the percentage of children adopted based on adoption type and age of adoption indicate that a majority of children adopted from foster care are under the age of 1.

12.

Two factors known to put adoptive children at risk for academic and behavioral problems are female gender and early age at adoption.

13.

Many researchers note the resilience of adoptive children, especially those who move from disadvantaged circumstances.

14.

The primary goal of the Adoption and Safe Family Act is to ensure a permanent home for adopted children as quickly as possible.

15.

Youth in foster care are at greater risk for psychological and behavioral problems.

16.

Parent training programs where foster parents and birth parents work together to bring the child home to the family of origin have been largely unsuccessful.

17.

Mental health parity means providing mental health services to all people equally. .

169

18.

Insufficient funding and fragmentation of services are well-recognized problems in providing mental health services to youth.

19.

The work of Spence and colleagues found that internet alone services for child anxiety disorders was effective compared to a waitlist control group (a group that did not immediately receive services), but not as effective as having the children come into the clinic for at least part of the services.

20.

The probability of death before age 5 is highest in Sub-Saharan Africa.

21.

International mortality rates for children under 5 decreased between 1990 and 2009.

22.

When the authors speak of a “shrinking world” they are referring to a decrease in diversity.

MULTIPLE CHOICE 23.

Research on the effects of maternal employment on children indicates that a. b. c. d.

24.

children are generally adversely affected. children are generally positively affected. effects depend on many different factors. effects depend on mothers’ attitudes toward their employment.

Among U.S. married women with school-aged children, the rate of employment is approximately _____ percent. c. 77 d. 90

a. 10 b. 40 25.

Which of the following statements regarding out-of-home care for young children is true? a. Research indicates that children’s development is influenced by the quality of care received. b. Research clearly indicates that the amount of time children spend in care is unrelated to child outcome. c. There are no economic and ethnic/racial differences in the proportions of children in various child care situations. d. Research indicates that for low income families, nonparental care is not recommended.

26.

Which of the following is true regarding the research by Geoffrey et al. (2007)? a. Children from all SES backgrounds in full-time non maternal care performed poorly on receptive language tests. b. Child care setting had no impact on the receptive language abilities of children from low SES backgrounds. c. The receptive language abilities of children from adequate SES backgrounds decreased in full-time non maternal care settings. d. The highest receptive language scores were from kids who were from a low SES background and in full time non maternal care. .

170

27.

Investigations of children who care for themselves after school ("latchkey" children) indicate that this situation a. b. c. d.

28.

Which of the following is true regarding adoption? a. b. c. d.

29.

probably has different effects on different children in different specific situations. is actually rare for elementary school children. causes emotional disturbance in most children. appears to have no effect at all on children.

Approximately 500,000 children lived with adoptive parents in 2007.

Statistics from 2011 indicate that most children are adopted after age 6.

Most children adopted in the U.S. are Caucasian.

About 20% of children adopted in 2008 were of a different race than their adoptive parents.

With regard to behavioral problems, adopted children are at _____ risk than nonadopted children. a. much greater b. somewhat greater

30.

The results of the meta-analyses on adoption studies indicate a. b. c. d.

31.

Kinship foster care is currently seen as unfavorable.

In 2009, 20% of children exiting the foster care system were reunited with their parents.

In 2009, there were almost 224,000 children in foster care.

The frequency of adoption from foster care as decreased.

What proportion of youth with diagnosable disorders do not receive mental health services? a. b. c. d.

33.

adoptees tend to have higher IQs and better school achievement than past peers. adoptees have better attachment to caregivers than current peers. adoptees have lower self-esteem than current peers. adoptees were no more likely to be referred to mental health settings than current peers.

Which is true about the foster care system and youth? a. b. c. d.

32.

c. somewhat less d. no greater or less risk

One-third to one-half Two-thirds to three-fourths One-half One-third

Which of the following is the correct historical sequence for setting of mental health services for children? a. b. c. d.

child guidance center, hospital based, mental health clinic/private practice institution, home based, community based hospital, residential treatment, child guidance center child guidance center, mental health clinic/private practice, school

.

171

34.

Which of the following best describes the history of mental health services for youth in the U.S.? a. b. c. d.

35.

With regard to mental health services in the U.S., there is some evidence that minority group families are especially a. b. c. d.

36.

more likely to seek professional help and more likely to remain in care. more likely to seek professional help but less likely to remain in care. less likely to seek professional help but more likely to remain in care. less likely to seek professional care and less likely to remain in care.

Worldwide statistical data on the mortality of children under 5 years of age indicate that a. b. c. d.

37.

adequate funding sensitivity to the needs of minority groups emphasis on prevention poor coordination among relevant agencies and professionals

globally, the rate of mortality increased by one-third from 1990 to 2009. about 40% of deaths occur within the first month of life. malnutrition is one of the largest killers.

AIDS related deaths in youth under 15 have increased.

Data on armed conflict or sociopolitical conflict and children indicates a. exposure to war and human tragedy is rare in children in countries with high sociopolitical conflict as they are protected or shielded from the horrors by adults. b. in Sierra Leone, children as young as 7 were in combat or were forced into other front line service. c. there are few, if any, gender differences in war related experiences. d. there is little evidence of resilience in these children as they have simply seen too much.

BRIEF ESSAY QUESTIONS 38.

Discuss non parental care of young children in the United States. How are these children being cared for, and what conclusions have been reached regarding the effects of non parental care on cognitive and social development in young children?

39.

Describe the potential benefits of an after school program on children. Which children are most likely to benefit and why?

40.

Discuss the developmental risks and benefits of adoption. What have recent meta-analytic studies told us about the outcome for adoptees? What are common risk factors?

41.

Review the changes in foster care due to the Adoption and Safe Families Act of 1977 (Figure 15.3 in the textbook). What are the goals of this piece of legislation?

42.

Discuss the efforts made to develop community based, interagency systems of care. What is meant by “wrap around” services and “point of entry”? .

172

43.

Mental health services for children are notoriously fragmented and underutilized. Discuss the vision for mental health services proposed by Huang et al. (2005). What changes are needed?

44.

What issues exist in regard to third world poverty and health? Have we made progress? What areas need attention?

45.

Discuss the issues associated with exposure to armed conflict. What is the experience like? What are the typical psychological outcomes for children exposed to this violence? What factors influence outcome?

46.

Describe Ehntholt & Yule’s (2006) model for intervention. How can this model be used to treat the effects of armed conflict?

47.

Why do we need to better understand diversity and enhance international cooperation? What role could psychology play in this endeavor?

ANSWER KEY 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

F, p. 398, factual T, p. 398, factual F, p. 399, conceptual T, p. 399, factual T, p. 399, factual T, p. 399, factual T, p. 400, factual T, pp. 399-400, factual F, p. 400, factual T, p. 400, factual F, p. 401 (Figure 15.2), factual F, p. 402, factual T, p. 402, conceptual (accent) T, p. 403 (Figure 15.3), factual T, p. 403, factual F, p. 403, conceptual F, p. 404, conceptual T, p. 405, factual T, p. 405, factual T, p. 406 (Figure 15.4), factual T, p. 406 (Figure 15.4), factual F, p. 409, conceptual B, p. 398, factual C, p. 398, factual A, p. 399, conceptual D. p. 399 (Figure 15.1), factual A, p. 400, factual D, pp. 400-401, factual B, p. 401, factual

.

173

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

A, p. 401, factual C, p. 403, factual B, p. 404, factual A, p. 404, factual D, pp. 404-405, conceptual D, p. 405, factual B, p. 407 (Table 15.2), factual D, pp. 407-408, factual pp. 399-400, conceptual p. 400, factual pp. 401-402, factual p. 403, factual pp. 405, conceptual p. 406 (Table 15.1), factual pp. 406-407, conceptual pp. 407-408, conceptual p.p 408-409 (Figure 15.5), applied p. 409, conceptual

.

174