A CHILDS WORLD INFANCY THROUGH ADOLENSCENCE 12TH EDITION BY DIANE PAPALIA, RUTH DUSKIN, FELDMAN TEST

A CHILDS WORLD INFANCY THROUGH ADOLENSCENCE 12TH EDITION BY DIANE PAPALIA, RUTH DUSKIN, FELDMAN TEST BANK Chapter 01 Student:

1.

Child development is the scientific study of the processes that human beings undergo from the moment of conception through adolescence. The main focus of study is how children A. change.

B. develop physically.

C. develop social relationships.

D. learn language skills.

2.

Historically, the study of child development gained impetus from A. the discovery of vaccines.

B. the enactment of child labor laws.

C. scientific discoveries about the nature of conception.

D. all of the above

3.

Which of the following helped to pioneer the study of child development as a true science?

A. G. Stanley Hall's book Adolescence B. the establishment of research institutes at Berkeley and Yale C. Arnold Gesell's studies on motor development D. all of the above

4.

Five-year-old Tara does not make friends easily. She is shy and anxious in new situations. Since this behavior has persisted over time, it is a demonstration of developmental A. instability.

B. resilience.

C. constancy.

D. awkwardness.

5.

first emphasized the developmental nature of behavior by publishing a record of his son's sensory, motor, language, and emotional milestones during his first years of life.

A. Charles Darwin B. John B. Watson C. Jean-Marc-Gaspard Itard D. John Dewey

6.

Dietrich Tiedemann and Charles Darwin used the information obtained from early theories about child development.

A. baby biographies B. teachers C. doctors D. mothers' diaries

7.

Professor Hughes insists that his students study the origins of human beings in order to fully understand child development. Which of the following theorists would most agree with Professor Hughes's perspective?

A. John Locke B. Charles Darwin C. John Watson D. Alfred Binet

to support their

8.

Adolescence has been considered a separate stage of development since A. early in the fifteenth century.

B. the twentieth century.

C. Freud mentioned it in his writings on child development.

D. Bandura mentioned it in his theory on child development.

9.

Who was the first to identify adolescence as a separate stage of development?

A. John Watson B. G. Stanley Hall C. Arnold Gesell D. Lewis Terman

10. Marsha is taking a class in human development. This class addresses the study of humans A. from conception to adolescence.

B. throughout childhood.

C. from adolescence through older adulthood and death.

D. from conception through older adulthood and death.

11.

designed a longitudinal study that traced the development of unusually intelligent children.

A. G. Stanley Hall B. John Dewey C. Jean Piaget D. Lewis M. Terman

12. Human development studies are based on which of the following ideas?

A. There is little continuity over the life span.

B. Development occurs early in life, not during adulthood.

C. Every portion of the life span is influenced by earlier events and will in turn affect later events.

D. The domains of development are not interrelated.

13. Physical, cognitive, psychosocial development are what social scientists call the three self.

A. aspects B. domains C. both of the above D. none of the above

of the

14. Annette started crawling, then standing, and is now taking her first steps. This aspect of Annette's development is best categorized as A. physical development.

B. cognitive development.

C. psychosocial development.

D. none of the above 15. When she was one year old, Suzi had a vocabulary of 10 words. Now, at two years of age, she has a vocabulary of over 100 words. This reflects a(n) developmental change.

A. physical B. cognitive C. psychosocial D. neurological 16. Which of these characteristics describe psychosocial development occurring during the adolescent stage of development?

A. Altruism, aggression, and fearfulness are common B. Self-awareness develops C. Search for identity predominates D. Self-esteem is global

17. In order to acquire a thorough understanding of the nature of human development over time, scientists have divided the lifespan into five periods. These divisions A. are based on clear-cut development criteria.

B. are based on cognitive differences.

C. are arbitrary and approximate.

D. each cover 10-year periods.

18. Which of the following is not characteristic of physical developments that occur during early childhood?

A. Handedness appears B. Appetite diminishes C. Abstract thinking emerges D. Fine and gross motor skills improve 19. Dr. Ortiz is a pediatrician who charts the growth of the body and the brain, and motor skills. Dr. Ortiz appears to focus on A. cognitive development.

B. neurological development.

C. physical development.

D. psychosocial development.

20. One-year-old Tamara's height and weight, along with her newfound ability to walk, A. interact with her cognitive, personality, and social development.

B. occur independently of her cognitive development.

C. will become less important than personality and social development when she reaches adolescence.

D. are controlled entirely by her genetic makeup.

21. At 15 months of age, Lorraine is just beginning to walk independently. This is a milestone in development.

A. genetic B. intellectual C. psychosocial D. physical 22. Dr. Dunn studies the way that children of different ages organize information in memory. His research focus is primarily on development.

A. physical B. personality C. cognitive D. psychosocial 23. A preschool program that is designed to focus on the change and stability in a child's mental abilities constantly notes changes in the child's development.

A. physical B. cognitive C. psychosocial D. physiological 24. Donald is referred to as the "Mayor of the First Grade," a title given to him because he gets along with everyone and seems to know everything that is going on. These skills demonstrate Donald's level of development.

A. physical B. cognitive C. psychosocial D. psychosexual

25. Three-year-old Lydia is extremely athletic. Although her interpersonal skills were not strong when she entered preschool, her athletic prowess meant that she was always included in play activities. Due to her high level of participation in these activities, she gradually learned to interact with her peers at a higher level. Which of the following statements explains Lydia's progress?

A. Lydia's cognitive development was enabled by her psychosocial development.

B. Lydia's psychosocial development was enabled by her physical development.

C. Lydia's physical development was enabled by her cognitive development.

D. Lydia's cognitive development was enabled by her physical development.

26. Separation anxiety in infancy is an example of the effect of development.

A. psychosocial; physical B. cognitive; psychosocial C. psychosocial; cognitive D. physical; psychosocial

development on

27. Kari is very tall for her age. She has less friends than her average-sized classmates. This is an example of the interaction between which two types of development?

A. physical and cognitive B. cognitive and psychosocial C. physical and psychosocial D. personality and psychosocial 28. Carrie (age 22) and Chelsea (age 17) are sisters. Carrie is a focused student who thrives in academic settings. She is working on a graduate degree at a very selective university. Chelsea is much less concerned about school and more interested in socializing. She is considering bypassing college because she wants to go to work as soon as she graduates from high school. Their parents cannot figure out what they did to make their daughters turn out so differently. Which of the following concepts would you emphasize when trying to explain the sisters' differences to their parents?

A. social construction B. quantitative change C. individual differences D. physical development 29. Which of the following statements about social construction is correct?

A. Social construction is a theory that explains the sequence of children's play patterns.

B. Social construction is an idea about the nature of reality that is accepted by members of a particular society at a particular time.

C. As children reach adolescence, they socially construct their free time.

D. Social construction must be conditioned into children in order to avoid anti-social or deconstructive behaviors.

30. Which of the following is considered a social construction?

A. infancy B. adolescence C. early childhood D. all of the above 31. In some pre-industrialized countries, the concept of A. a prenatal period of development B. infancy and toddlerhood C. early childhood D. adolescence

does not exist.

32. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the major divisions of the lifespan?

A. prenatal period B. infancy and toddlerhood C. late adulthood D. senescence

33. During which developmental period do children develop speech and locomotion, and become somewhat more assertive and self-reliant, yet need considerable help in restraining their impulsive behavior?

A. infancy B. toddlerhood C. early childhood D. middle childhood 34. During , children begin to develop self-control and have more interest in others.

A. infancy B. toddlerhood C. early childhood D. middle childhood 35. Children become proficient in regulating their own behavior and are very interested in their peer group during A. infancy.

B. toddlerhood.

C. early childhood.

D. middle childhood.

36. Children search for their personal identity and make the transition from childhood to adulthood during A. middle childhood.

B. adolescence.

C. young adulthood.

D. middle adulthood.

37. Attachment is particularly important during which developmental stage?

A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Early childhood D. Middle childhood 38. The study of the ways children differ from one another is referred to as the study of A. individual differences.

B. reaction range.

C. co-regulation.

D. maturation.

39. Characteristics that are the result of inborn influences are generally attributed to A. heredity.

B. the environment.

C. maturation.

D. a natural sequence.

40. The totality of experiential influences on development is generally referred to as A. a natural sequence.

B. maturation.

C. the environment.

D. heredity.

41. William is a gifted baseball player. His father was a star player in the major leagues. They did not spend much time together while William was growing up because of his father's professional commitments.

William's talent for baseball would seem to demonstrate the influence of A. heredity.

B. environment.

C. maturation.

D. cohort differences.

42. Jenny is a very talented soccer player. Her mother was a star player in both college and in the women's professional leagues. They spent a great deal of time together while Jenny was growing up. Jenny has her mother's speed and height to go along with a superior understanding of the game. Jessica's abilities would seem to demonstrate the influence of A. heredity.

B. environment.

C. individual differences.

D. both heredity and environment.

43. Bob is determined that his daughter Dana will some day be an accomplished musician. From the time Dana is born, he exposes her to a small keyboard and attempts to place her fingers on the keys. Dana seems unable to grasp the concepts her father is trying to teach her. When she is three months old, he decides that she will never be the great musician he had hoped for. Which of the following would best explain Dana's inability to meet her father's expectations?

A. genetics B. lack of musical talent C. lack of maturation D. lack of environmental stimuli 44. The unfolding of a natural, genetically influenced sequence of physical and psychological patterns is the result of A. heredity.

B. environment.

C. maturation.

D. personality.

45. A two-generational kinship unit that shares household and economic resources and consists of one or two parents and their biological, adopted, or step children is called a(n) A. family.

B. nuclear family.

C. extended family.

D. blended family.

46. Shari belongs to a multigenerational kinship unit consisting of parents, children, grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins. This unit is referred to as a(n) A. family.

B. nuclear family.

C. extended family.

D. blended family.

47. The Ferkle family goes away each year to see such sights as the world's largest ball of string and the world's largest landfill. On each vacation, they make certain that both parents and children are included.

Their vacations are shared by the A. extended family.

B. nuclear family.

C. inclusive family.

D. derivative family.

48. Each summer, the Smith family hosts grandparents, aunts, uncles, cousins, and distant relatives for a wonderful two-day fest. The Smith family get-together involves the A. nuclear family.

B. general family.

C. extended family.

D. inclusive family.

49. In western societies, the dominant traditional family structure is the family, while in other societies such as Asian and Latin America, the family is more traditional.

A. nuclear; extended B. general; nuclear C. extended; general D. extended; nuclear 50. Which one of the following is NOT a factor that determines socioeconomic status?

A. ethnicity B. income C. education D. occupation 51. Which of the following is/are determined by socioeconomic status?

A. the neighborhood in which a family lives B. the school the children attend C. the quality of medical care available to a family D. all of the above 52. Charles is a child growing up in what is considered to be a low socioeconomic status family. Which of the following will likely have an affect on his development?

A. limited access to medical care B. lack of access to a computer C. poor housing/living conditions D. all of the above 53. Conditions that increase the likelihood of a negative outcome or result are called A. diversity B. developmental C. adaptive D. risk

factors.

54. The most powerful factors in a neighborhood that affect the way children develop are income and A. attitudes towards higher education.

B. the quality of schools.

C. access to resources.

D. the number of recreational facilities.

55. A society or group's total way of life, including customs, traditions, beliefs, values, language, and so on, is referred to as its A. subculture.

B. ethnicity.

C. culture.

D. origin.

56. The well-being of children from affluent families may be at risk due to A. a pressure to achieve.

B. the amount of time they are left alone by working parents.

C. high rates of substance abuse, depression, and anxiety.

D. all of the above 57. A group consisting of people united by ancestry, race, religion, language, or national origin is known as a(n) A. subculture.

B. ethnic group.

C. unique culture.

D. acculturated immigrant population.

58. Teachers in the classroom need to be aware that ethnic and cultural patterns may influence A. the way the children act toward each other.

B. the games children play.

C. the way children learn.

D. all of the above 59. The fact that 11-year-old Kim is interested in attracting boys' attention while her classmates are still focused on their same-sex friendships is an example of the phenomenon that A. developmental periods occur in different sequences for different people.

B. deviations from "average" development are a cause for concern.

C. rates of development may vary from the average or typical.

D. the sequence of development may be altered by experience but the timing is never altered.

60. Most immigrant children in the United States A. live with two parents.

B. are twice as likely as other children to live with an extended family.

C. live with parents who have high academic aspirations for them.

D. all of the above.

61. An overgeneralization that obscures cultural differences within an ethnic group is referred to as A. acculturation.

B. ancestry impairment.

C. ethnic group tampering.

D. ethnic gloss.

62. Katherine grew up attending private Catholic schools. Each year at Christmas she and her classmates decorated a tree in school and did the same at home. For Katherine's classmates and family, the tree decorating was a event.

A. non-normative B. normative C. cohort D. cultural 63. Events that occur at about the same age for people around the world, such as starting school, are called A. normative age-graded influences.

B. normative history-graded influences.

C. nonnormative life events.

D. cohort-determined influences.

64. Normative age-graded influences include all of the following EXCEPT A. puberty and menopause.

B. starting school.

C. retirement.

D. war and famine.

65. Events such as puberty and entry into formal education, which are highly similar for people in a particular age group, are considered A. normative age-graded influences.

B. normative history-graded influences.

C. cohort experiences.

D. nonnormative life events.

66. Normative history-graded influences include all of the following EXCEPT A. worldwide economic depression.

B. introduction of the contraceptive pill.

C. an AIDS epidemic.

D. the death of a spouse.

67. The impact of technological developments such as video games, computers, and the internet are considered A. nonnormative age-graded influences.

B. normative history-graded influences.

C. normative age-graded influences.

D. nonnormative history-graded influences.

68. Nonnormative life events are A. unusual events that influence a person's life.

B. events that generally happen to everyone.

C. typical for a given population.

D. traumatic or unhappy events.

69. All of the individuals who were elementary school students in New York City when the World Trade Center towers collapsed shared a common experience. This group is referred to as a(n) A. cohort.

B. historical generation.

C. culture.

D. encounter group.

70. Which of the following individuals are members of the same cohort?

A. a woman who raised children in Chicago during World War II and a woman who raised children in Chicago during the 1990s B. an urban child in the Soviet Union and a rural child in the United States C. a high school student in Cleveland and a high school student in Cincinnati D. all of the above 71.

Which of the following statements describes a fundamental point of childhood development?

A. Social, cognitive, and physical domains are distinct and have little bearing on one another.

B. Normal development is quite standard; children developing normally exhibit few differences.

C. Historical events influence development.

D. Development is a process that is over when childhood ends.

72. A is a specific time during development when a given event, or lack of an event, has the greatest impact.

A. cohort B. nonnormative event C. critical period D. developmental milestone 73. Rubella has a disastrous impact if it is contracted during the first trimester of a pregnancy, yet has hardly any impact if contracted later in a pregnancy. This is an example of A. fetal immune system maturation.

B. normative age-graded events.

C. maturational timing.

D. a critical period.

74. In the past, girls and young women were not encouraged to participate in sports. Because of this, many of today's adult women did not develop skills such as the throwing motion required for softball. They can throw, but not with the same fluid motion that women who were exposed to such a skill at an early age demonstrate. This is an example of A. genetics.

B. the inherent inability of females to play softball.

C. critical periods of development.

D. the inherent inability of females to learn highly physical skills.

75. Evidence for critical periods of physical development is undeniable. However, for other aspects of development there seems to be greater A. rigidity.

B. plasticity.

C. acceptability.

D. latency.

76. Research suggests a critical period and a sensitive period for language development. The sensitive period ends around the time of A. toddlerhood.

B. early childhood.

C. middle childhood.

D. puberty.

77. Which aspects of development show plasticity?

A. physical development B. cognitive development C. psychosocial development D. all of the above 78. Which of the following would be the best example of the bidirectionality of influences on child development?

A. High-income households are the best for children.

B. Children can attend to at least two things at once.

C. Children influence their environments and the environments influence children.

D. No two children are influenced in exactly the same ways.

79. In the case study involving "Genie," researchers found that A. there is a critical period for language development.

B. Genie's language acquisition provided support for the effectiveness of the "Hooked on Phonics" program.

C. Lenneberg was right in that the critical period for language ends in adolescence.

D. Genie's speech development provided support for the effectiveness of the "Whole Language Immersion" program.

80. Trace the evolution of the field of child development. To support your answer, include the contributions of such researchers as Dietrich Tiedemann, Charles Darwin, G. Stanley Hall, and Arnold Gesell.

81. Developmental scientists study development over the human lifespan. Explain the difference between psychosocial development, cognitive development, and physical development. Describe a specific example of each realm of development and give the developmental stage that a parent can expect to observe these developments in his or her child.

82. Those who work with children must keep in mind that there are three domains or dimensions of child development. List the three domains and give specific examples of how they are all interrelated in childhood.

83. Twelve-month-old Kara, born in Iraq, has just been adopted by an American couple and is moving to the U.S. Explain how Kara's heredity, environment, and maturation will play a role in determining her development.

84. Imagine that you are a developmental scientist and have been sent to a war-torn region to observe and make recommendations about the care and treatment of the children there. What is the current interpretation of the term "critical period" as it relates to childhood development? What are some of the normal tasks that must be mastered by children during a certain "critical" time period for normal developmental to occur? Explain how these principles would apply to children whose lives have been disrupted by war.

85. Mrs. Peters is a new seventh-grade teacher in an urban public school. List several normative events likely to occur amongst her students during the school year. What are some of the nonnormative events that may occur that she could prepare herself for in advance?

86. A child's development can be affected by many things. The socioeconomic status of a child's family, nonnormative influences and normative history-graded events all can play a role in a child's development.

Choose one of these influences and describe specifically how that influence contributes to child development. Give specific examples where possible and explain the effect of resiliency.

87. Researchers in the field of child development have come to a consensus on six fundamental points in the study of children. List the six fundamental points and describe how any three of these points are related to the study of child development.

Chapter 01 Key 1. (p. 6) A 2. (p. 7, 8) D 3. (p. 7) D 4. (p. 7) C 5. (p. 7) A 6. (p. 7) A 7. (p. 7) B 8. (p. 9) B 9. (p. 7) B 10. (p. 7) D 11. (p. 7) D 12. (p. 9) C 13. (p. 8) C 14. (p. 8) A 15. (p. 7) B 16. (p. 10) B 17. (p. 9) C 18. (p. 10) C 19. (p. 8) C 20. (p. 8) A 21. (p. 8) D 22. (p. 8) C 23. (p. 8) B 24. (p. 8) C 25. (p. 8) B 26. (p. 10) C 27. (p. 10) C 28. (p. 9) C 29. (p. 8) B 30. (p. 8, 9) D 31. (p. 9) D 32. (p. 11) D 33. (p. 10) B 34. (p. 10) C 35. (p. 10) D 36. (p. 10) B

37. (p. 12) A 38. (p. 10) A 39. (p. 10) A 40. (p. 10) C 41. (p. 10) A 42. (p. 10, 11) D 43. (p. 11) C 44. (p. 11) C 45. (p. 11) B 46. (p. 11) C 47. (p. 11) B 48. (p. 11, 12) C 49. (p. 12) A 50. (p. 14) A 51. (p. 14) D 52. (p. 14) D 53. (p. 15) D 54. (p. 14) C 55. (p. 12) C 56. (p. 15) D 57. (p. 12) B 58. (p. 12) D 59. (p. 9) C 60. (p. 13) D 61. (p. 14) D 62. (p. 15) D 63. (p. 16) A 64. (p. 16) D 65. (p. 16) A 66. (p. 16) D 67. (p. 16) B 68. (p. 18) A 69. (p. 18) B 70. (p. 18) C 71. (p. 18) C 72. (p. 18) C 73. (p. 18) D 74. (p. 18) C

75. (p. 18) B 76. (p. 19) D 77. (p. 18) D 78. (p. 20) C 79. (p. 19) A 80. Answer will vary 81. Answer will vary 82. Answer will vary 83. Answer will vary 84. Answer will vary 85. Answer will vary 86. Answer will vary 87. Answer will vary

Chapter 01 Summary Category Guidepost: What are six fundamental points on which consensus has emerged?

Guidepost: What do developmental scientists study?

# of Questions 3 27

Guidepost: What is child development and how has its study evolved?

Guidepost: What kinds of influences make one child different from another?

Papalia - Chapter 01 Question Type: A

15 42 87 12

Question Type: C Question Type: F

36 31

Chapter 02 Student:

1.

A theory is a set of A. logically related statements seeking to describe, explain, and predict human behavior.

B. facts derived from research.

C. predictions about future outcomes.

D. opinions presented by a well-known authority in a field.

2.

The statement, "If children learn aggression from models, then children who watch violent television shows should be more aggressive than children who watch nonviolent shows," is an example of a A. theory.

B. finding.

C. hypothesis.

D. conclusion.

3.

Before designing her research study, Dr. Bennett predicts that infants who have poor diets will have academic problems later in life. Dr. Bennett's prediction is an example of a(n) A. hypothesis.

B. theory.

C. interpretation.

D. opinion.

4.

Which of the following statements regarding current developmental research is least accurate?

A. Theories lead to hypotheses.

B. Hypotheses in the behavioral sciences need to be testable.

C. Theories explain all human behavior.

D. Testing hypotheses leads to theories.

5.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic issues that theorists address when explaining child development?

A. assessing the relative weight of heredity and environment B. determining whether children are active or passive in their own development C. observing whether development is continuous D. viewing all development as culturally determined

6.

When she was one year old, Suzi had a vocabulary of 10 words. Now, at two years of age, she has a vocabulary of over 100 words. This reflects a(n) developmental change.

A. autonomous B. bidirectional C. qualitative D. quantitative

7.

was concerned with unconscious forces that motivate human behavior.

A. Sigmund Freud B. Anna Freud C. Erik H. Erikson D. John B. Watson

8.

Freud theorized that people are motivated primarily by A. dreams.

B. unconscious forces.

C. anxiety.

D. their environment.

9.

Armond argues that unconscious forces motivate people to behave the way they do. Armond's position is similar to the perspective of development.

A. information-processing B. learning C. ethological D. psychoanalytic

10. Psychoanalytical theory describes a specific element of personality that governs our early development and is present at birth. This element is referred to as the A. libido.

B. id.

C. superego.

D. ego.

11. Young mothers who are up all night attending to the almost insatiable demands of their new babies are often frustrated by the infants' apparent tendency to operate on the "pleasure principle" (seeking the immediate gratification of desires). The pleasure principle is associated with the A. id.

B. ego.

C. superego.

D. ego ideal.

12. Freud maintained that children develop in an unvarying sequence of development.

A. psychosocial B. psychoanalytic C. unconscious D. psychosexual

stages of

13. Freud proposed the following sequence of psychosexual stages of development: A. anal; phallic; oral; latency; and, genital.

B. oral; anal; phallic; latency; and, genital.

C. anal; oral; genital; latency; and, phallic.

D. oral; latency; genital; anal; and, phallic.

14. According to Freud's theory, a 4-year-old child who has developed a sexual attachment for the oppositesex parent and regards the same-sex parent as a rival is considered to be in the stage of psychosexual development.

A. oral B. anal C. phallic D. latency 15. According to Freud, as the develops during the first year of life, the part of the personality that operates on the "reality principle" becomes more evident in the baby's behavior.

A. id B. ego C. superego D. conscience 16. Joseph hits his brother with a toy while playing and feels guilty about it afterwards. According to Freud, these feelings reflect the operation of the A. id.

B. ego.

C. superego.

D. defense mechanism.

17. Keesha is worried that her mother will find out that she accidentally broke her brother's truck. She is starting to develop a conscience. Which of the following psychosexual stages is most similar to what is called "conscience"?

A. id B. ego C. superego D. libido 18. Mrs. Dobber loves teaching the fourth grade. She believes that fourth graders are at a stage of psychosexual development characterized by relative calm. This stage is called the stage and occurs during middle childhood.

A. inactive B. childhood C. latency D. stable 19. Each of Erikson's stages of development involves a major issue that is important at a particular time.

Erikson initially referred to these issues as A. traumas.

B. crises.

C. maturational steps.

D. phases.

20. A major distinction between Freud's and Erikson's views of development is that Erikson A. emphasized female development, whereas Freud emphasized male development.

B. saw development as a life-long process, whereas Freud emphasized early experiences.

C. emphasized unconscious processes, whereas Freud focused on conscious processes.

D. emphasized biological factors, whereas Freud emphasized cultural factors.

21. Darius has a great deal of respect for his grandparents and the high level of activity that they maintain.

As an assignment for a developmental psychology class, he interviewed them to learn more about their life experiences. They indicated that while they had gone through a number of different stages of development, they had never stopped developing. Which of the following theoretical perspectives does this view reflect?

A. Freud's psychosexual theory B. Erikson's psychosocial theory C. Bandura's social learning theory D. Bowlby's ethological theory 22. In Erikson's theory of development, there are A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 12

stages of psychosocial development.

23. Erikson did not agree with Freud's emphasis on psychosexual development. In his own work, Erikson placed greater emphasis on A. physical development.

B. intellectual development.

C. the role of parents.

D. social and cultural influences.

24. A long-lasting change in behavior as a result of experience or adaptation to the environment is called A. modification.

B. cognition.

C. learning.

D. behaviorism.

25. Behaviorists look for events that will determine whether or not a particular behavior will be repeated.

This mental link is referred to as A. associative learning.

B. unconscious learning.

C. intelligence.

D. personality.

26. Every time Tanya leaves 2-year-old Timmy at day care, Timmy cries. Tanya always hands Timmy to the same teacher. She notices that Timmy now starts to cry when he sees this teacher from a distance. This is an example of A. classical conditioning.

B. operant conditioning.

C. rewarded behavior.

D. negative reinforcement.

27. Daniel was embarrassed by his coach for not making a basket during an important game. Since then, whenever he gets the ball and heads down the court, he gets an overwhelming feeling of anxiety that prevents him from thinking clearly when he tries to shoot the ball. This is an example of A. operant conditioning.

B. classical conditioning.

C. social learning.

D. intermittent reinforcement.

28. When John B. Watson trained "Little Albert" to be afraid of small furry animals, he used A. classical conditioning.

B. negative reinforcement.

C. shaping behavior.

D. intermittent reinforcement.

29. Mr. Whitford's fifth-grade students sit quietly and continue doing their work when Mr. Whitford leaves the room because he promises to reward them with more recess time if they do so. The principle that an organism will repeat behaviors when these behaviors are reinforced is called A. classical conditioning.

B. operant conditioning.

C. the pleasure principle.

D. the reality principle.

30. Marissa really wants to be in the school play but does not enjoy having to memorize lines. Two weeks before the play is scheduled, her father implements a reward system. As soon as Marissa learns her lines, she does not have to help with the dishes until the play is over. Marissa increases her efforts in practice and learns the lines thoroughly in two days. This is an example of A. classical conditioning.

B. operant conditioning.

C. social learning.

D. psychodynamic learning.

31. B. F. Skinner and other behaviorists maintain that human behavior is determined by A. defense mechanisms.

B. self-actualization.

C. unconscious conflicts.

D. conditioning.

32.

was the behavioral psychologist who formulated the principles of operant conditioning while working with rats and pigeons.

A. John B. Watson B. Sidney Pressey C. B. F. Skinner D. Ivan Pavlov

33. Larry wants his daughter to put her seat belt on when she gets in the car, so he smiles and gives her a hug each time she accomplishes the task. A consequence of any behavior that increases the likelihood of that behavior being repeated is called A. punishment.

B. reinforcement.

C. aversion.

D. classical conditioning.

34. An example of negative reinforcement is A. shouting, "No!" as a consequence of bad behavior.

B. spanking as a consequence of bad behavior.

C. increasing a child's allowance as a consequence of good behavior.

D. canceling a disliked household chore as a consequence of good behavior.

35. June's mother needs someone in the family to assume responsibility for the family's pet rat. June's current job, which she really dislikes, is taking the garbage out. Her mother says that if June will take care of the rat, she will assign another sibling to take out the garbage. June agrees immediately, because she will do anything to get out of emptying the garbage. From a behavioral viewpoint, June's decision is based on A. classical conditioning.

B. positive reinforcement.

C. negative reinforcement.

D. vicarious reinforcement.

36. The parents of 15-month-old Helen want to discourage her thumb sucking. When Helen takes her thumb out of her mouth, they give her a small cup of raisins, which she loves. The raisins represent A. a conditioned stimulus.

B. an unconditioned stimulus.

C. a neutral stimulus.

D. reinforcement.

37. Two-year-old Eric throws a tantrum whenever he is placed in his car seat. To calm him down, his mother has started giving him a lollipop. In effect, his mother is A. extinguishing tantrums.

B. reinforcing tantrums.

C. using classical conditioning.

D. using shaping.

38. Every time Billy tries to open the kitchen cupboard, he gets his fingers pinched in the door. Eventually, Billy no longer tries to open the cupboard door. This is an example of A. negative reinforcement.

B. intermittent reinforcement.

C. punishment.

D. conditioning.

39. To get Michelle to clean her room more often, her parents gave her a piece of candy each time she picked up her toys. This resulted in more frequent room cleaning. However, when her parents stopped giving her candy, Michelle's room-cleaning behavior gradually became less frequent. The weakening of the roomcleaning behavior is called A. intermittent reinforcement.

B. extinction.

C. punishment.

D. negative reinforcement.

40. Whenever Milo had a tantrum, his father would pick him up and comfort him. Now that he is in preschool, his teachers ignore his tantrums, and over time his tantrums have decreased in frequency. In the language of operant conditioning, we would say that Milo's tantrum behavior is being in preschool.

A. negatively reinforced B. punished C. extinguished D. aversively conditioned 41. When a principal in a school uses operant conditioning to eliminate students' undesirable behaviors, he is implementing A. classical conditioning.

B. punishment.

C. behavior modification.

D. reinforcement.

42. First, Jacob is praised when he points to his wet diaper. Then, Jacob is praised only if he speaks up before he is wet. Finally, Jacob is praised only when he uses the toilet. This is an example of A. extinction.

B. behavior modification.

C. negative reinforcement.

D. aversive conditioning.

43. The principles of social-learning theory were developed by A. B. F. Skinner.

B. Carl Rogers.

C. John B. Watson.

D. Albert Bandura.

44. Albert Bandura suggested that the most important element in how children learn a language, deal with aggression, develop a sense of morality, and learn gender-appropriate behavior is A. classical conditioning.

B. observation and imitation.

C. punishment of inappropriate behavior.

D. shaping of appropriate behavior.

45. Children have a tendency to imitate the adults they admire even if some of the observed behavior is not appropriate. This process is known as A. behavior modification.

B. assimilation.

C. adaptation.

D. social learning.

46. Roberto's favorite type of music is American Jazz. After seeing a classmate teased mercilessly after mentioning she loved to listen to classical music, Roberto decided that he would keep quiet about his musical preferences. Roberto's decision is a result of A. classical conditioning.

B. operant conditioning.

C. social learning.

D. psychodynamic learning.

47. By receiving feedback on their behavior, children gradually form standards for judging their own actions.

They begin to develop A. a sense of self-efficacy.

B. a psychoanalytic viewpoint.

C. social-learning skills.

D. a sense of self-esteem.

48. The perspective on human behavior that is concerned with thought processes and the behavior that reflects these processes is called the perspective.

A. cognitive B. feedback C. behavioral D. intellectual 49. Which theory portrays people as active in their own learning and emphasizes qualitative and quantitative changes?

A. behaviorist B. cognitive C. psychoanalytic D. social-learning 50. Neo-Piagetian theories combine both cognitive stage theories and A. social cognitive B. information-processing C. behavioral D. mechanistic

theories.

51. Which of the following are the two major points of Piaget's cognitive perspective?

A. People are controlled by their environment, and behavior develops in a specific order.

B. People are active in their development, and behavior is random at any developmental stage.

C. People are active in their development, and behavior develops in a specific order.

D. People are controlled by their environment, and behavior is random at any developmental stage.

52. Which of the following is NOT a general principle of Piaget's theory of cognitive development?

A. Children proceed through the same developmental stages in the same order.

B. Individuals reach each stage according to their own timetable.

C. If overgratification occurs at a particular stage, fixation may result.

D. Each stage represents a qualitative change from one type of thinking to another.

53. Anabelle knows that after she is fed her bottle, she is patted on the back and put down to sleep. This organized pattern of behavior is called A. equilibration.

B. accommodation.

C. assimilation.

D. a scheme.

54. According to Piaget, a child builds internal representations of the world called schemes, and develops these into an integrated network of cognitive structures through the process of A. assimilation.

B. accommodation.

C. organization.

D. equilibration.

55. When Ms. Drew teaches a new concept to her students, she always tries to make a connection to something that they already understand. According to Piaget, which of the following is she utilizing?

A. information processing B. accommodation C. equilibration D. assimilation 56. According to Piaget, the process of changing existing schemes to adjust to new information is called A. organization.

B. accommodation.

C. assimilation.

D. disequilibrium.

57. Four-year-old Adam sees cows in a field. His mother points to them and says, "Cows." Later, Adam sees goats for the first time and calls them cows. Adam is demonstrating Piaget's concept of A. equilibration.

B. accommodation.

C. adaptation.

D. assimilation.

58. Frederika is learning to play a musical instrument. She struggles at first because the experience is unlike anything she has been associated with previously. Slowly she begins to make progress. This best demonstrates Piaget's concept of A. assimilation.

B. accommodation.

C. vicarious reinforcement.

D. object permanence.

59. According to Piaget, children change their ways of thinking to adapt to new experiences because of the need for A. satisfaction of id impulses.

B. equilibrium.

C. a stable sense of identity.

D. approval from their parents.

60. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Piaget's theory of development?

A. It pays little attention to emotional development.

B. It pays little attention to the influence of education on intellectual development.

C. It overestimates the cognitive abilities of young children.

D. It does not say much about individual differences in ability.

61. Sociocultural theory, developed by environment.

A. Urie Bronfenbrenner B. Jean Piaget C. Lev Vygotsky D. Margaret Mead 62.

, stresses a child's active involvement with their

developed the concept of the "zone of proximal development" to explain the gap between what a child is already able to do and what he or she is not quite ready to do alone.

A. Sigmund Freud B. Neal Miller C. Konrad Lorenz D. Lev Vygotsky

63. Ray wants to learn to work on automobile engines but encounters problems when he begins his new class.

He has no knowledge of how engines work and does not know the names of the parts. His teacher sees that despite these problems, Ray is very motivated. Ray and the teacher spend time during and after class on improving his deficiencies. By the end of the semester, Ray does much better, and although he may not have a future in building high-performance engines, he is more than competent. Ray's improvement reflects the concept of A. zone of proximal development.

B. equilibration.

C. information processing.

D. social learning.

64. Paul's mother has been teaching him to bake bread. She tells him, "I will help you follow the recipe a few more times, but soon you will have to try it on your own." According to Vygotsky's sociocultural theory, Paul's mother is engaging in A. intermittent reinforcement.

B. imprinting.

C. scaffolding.

D. equilibration.

65. Tom volunteers to teach children how to play basketball. He finds that when he first tries to teach a skill, such as shooting the ball, he sometimes has to literally place the children's feet in the correct position.

Generally, the more he works with the children, and the more knowledge they acquire, the less support he has to provide. This is an example of A. classical conditioning.

B. information processing.

C. equilibration.

D. scaffolding.

66. A major distinction between Piaget's cognitive development theory and the information-processing approach is that Piaget A.saw development as continuous, whereas the information-processing approach views development as occurring in distinct stages.

B. saw development as an active process, whereas the information-processing approach views the organism as passive.

C. focused on perception, whereas the information-processing approach focuses on thinking and memory.

D. saw development as occurring in stages, whereas the information-processing approach sees development as continuous.

67. The information-processing approach to explaining cognitive development compares the brain to a A. calculator.

B. computer.

C. modem.

D. telephone.

68. Those who ascribe to the approach attempt to explain cognitive development by observing and analyzing mental processes involved in perceiving information.

A. social cognitive B. information-processing C. social learning D. behavioral 69. According to the perspective, development can be understood only when individual behavior is observed as it interacts with the environment.

A. environmental B. contextual C. interactive D. behavioral 70. University students are studying the subtle differences between mannerisms of students in a school in the deep South and a school in the Northeast. They begin to realize that in order to understand these differences they must consider the social settings in which the students live. This is an example of the perspective.

A. contextual B. cognitive C. information-processing D. psychodynamic

71.

developed the bioecological perspective of human development which includes five interlocking contextual systems.

A. Vygotsky B. Pavlov C. Bronfenbrenner D. Piaget

72. Bronfenbrenner's interact.

A. interactionist B. bioecological C. behaviorist D. cognitive

approach examines the layers of social systems and how these layers

73. Mr. and Mrs. Johnson were both laid off from their high-paying positions when the factory in their town shut down. Both found new jobs, but they are now working far more hours for much less money.

The stress is showing at home. A child's question that once brought a patient response now triggers a terse retort. The family's home is simply not the nurturing environment that it once was. Which of the following perspectives best explains this situation?

A. bioecological B. ethological C. information-processing D. cognitive 74. Piaget and his wife kept journals noting how their children developed and interacted with one another in the home. According to the bioecological approach, Piaget was studying the children in their A. microsystem.

B. mesosystem.

C. exosystem.

D. macrosystem.

75. Dr. Adams, who ascribes to the bioecological approach to human development, is studying the relationship between the quality of parent-child interactions in the home and the success of children in school. Dr. Adams is studying development at the level of environmental influence.

A. microsystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. macrosystem 76. The collapse of communism in Eastern Europe in the 1990s significantly altered most government institutions there. According to the bioecological approach, this fact reflects a change in people's A. microsystem.

B. mesosystem.

C. endosystem.

D. macrosystem.

77. Oliver traveled from city to city throughout the school year because his parents were circus performers.

Dr. Zsilak studied Oliver and many other children in traveling shows to see if frequent moves from one town to another influenced the children's emotional development. According to the bioecological approach, Dr. Zsilak studied the children's A. exosystem.

B. chronosystem.

C. macrosystem.

D. minisystem.

78. Over time, the relative importance of peers and parents to the developing child changes. Which level of the bioecological theory accounts for this?

A. microsystem B. chronosystem C. macrosystem D. exosystem 79. Which of the following perspectives emphasizes the idea that species-specific behaviors enhance the survival of that species?

A. behaviorist B. social-cognitive C. contextual D. ethological 80. Your psychology professor claims that attachment between an infant and a caregiver must occur during a critical period to ensure normal development. Which developmental perspective does your professor support?

A. behaviorist B. ethological C. psychoanalytic D. informative-processing 81. Individuals with traits better adapted to their environments survive; those less adapted do not. This statement demonstrates the process of A. survival of the fittest.

B. ethological development.

C. psychoanalytic development.

D. informative maturation.

82.

extended ethological principles to the study of human development, focusing attention on the mother-infant bond.

A. Mary Ainsworth B. John Bowlby C. Konrad Lorenz D. Niko Tinbergen

83. Ramona is walking in a mall when she notices a distressed-looking infant in a stroller. The infant's facial expression engrosses Ramona, and she immediately looks around to see if an adult is there to help the infant. The infant's mother is indeed right there, and Ramona moves on, but the image stays with her.

She begins to wonder if humans have some innate ability to communicate with facial expressions that provides an evolutionary advantage. Which of the following theoretical schools might support Ramona's idea?

A. evolutionary development B. bioecological C. sociocultural D. cognitive 84. Which of the following statements reflects a view expressed by Margaret Mead?

A. The study of children is dry and abstract.

B. A cross-cultural perspective is unlikely to reveal universal patterns.

C. Theories and research are best treated as distinct entities.

D. Observations are products of individuals who may be influenced by their own backgrounds.

85. The scientific method, as applied in any field of study, is based on which of the following elements?

A. observation and recording of data B. testing of alternative hypotheses C. widespread public dissemination of results D. all of the above

86. Dr. Gygorgy from Hungary has decided to study the effects of travel on the lives of Hungarian circus performers. The two key issues that he must first address are A. the importance of the study and where he will publish his findings.

B. his knowledge of circus performers and his knowledge of the effects of travel.

C. public opinion of this topic and his own bias.

D. how the participants will be chosen and how the data will be collected.

87. When conducting research, scientists typically study a .

A. sample; population B. nonnormative group; normative group C. population; sample D. cohort; sample

and generalize the results to a

88. One of the most reliable sampling methods is the use of A. assigned groups.

B. matched groups.

C. random selection.

D. population interest groups.

89. Dr. Slocum wants to conduct a study that analyzes teen addiction to smoking. All smoking-addicted teens represent the ; those teens who participate in the study represent the .

A. sample; population B. population; sample C. control group; experimental group D. experimental group; control group 90. Dolores works in a pediatrics ward and has decided to investigate whether or not the level of nurse friendliness influences children's perceptions of their hospital experiences. For her research, which of the following would be the best operational definition of nurse friendliness?

A. nice interactions with patients B. pleasant appearance C. concern for patients D. number of times that the nurse smiles per time spent with the patient 91. When Maggie wanted to find out how children were punished at home, she conducted separate interviews of individual children and their parents. An advantage of this research design is that A. Maggie needed to interview only a few people to get a valid research sample.

B. Maggie needed to interview each set of parents and children only once.

C. Maggie could assess whether parents and child gave conflicting reports.

D. it revealed causal relationships.

92. Which of the following is not an example of a self-report technique?

A. questionnaire B. diary or log C. interview D. observation 93. Jeremy has become interested in the interactions that children have with their parents in public places. He suspects that, when they are at the mall, children may interact differently with their fathers than they do with their mothers. He decides to watch the food court of a local mall and observe interaction patterns.

Jeremy is using a A. naturalistic observation method.

B. laboratory observation method.

C. control group.

D. participant observation method.

94. A psychology class participates in collecting data for a study by watching preschool teachers through a one-way mirror as they interact with children in a preschool classroom. This is an example of which research method?

A. laboratory observation B. case study C. naturalistic observation D. clinical study 95. Marcus works for a toy manufacturer and wants to determine if young boys and girls have different preferences for toys. His company is specific about what it is looking for and does not want to have the research disturbed by unplanned influences. Marcus should probably consider using the A. laboratory observation method.

B. participant observation method.

C. naturalistic observation method.

D. case study method.

96. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with observational studies?

A. They cannot determine cause-and-effect relationships.

B. The subjects may alter their behavior when they know they are being observed.

C. It is impossible to gain information regarding relationships between variables.

D. Laboratory studies may not generalize to real life.

97. Which of the following is the best operational definition of a difficult test?

A. a test that is constructed by a mean professor B. a test with challenging questions C. a test that covers materials that are in the text, but not covered in class D. a test with a class average of 70 or below 98. The cognitive neuroscience approach to the study of human cognition focuses on A. mind-altering drugs.

B. the brain.

C. the nervous system.

D. neurotransmitters.

99. Neuroscientists who use brain imaging and the actions of people with brain injuries to learn how neural pathways control behavior are part of an emerging interdisciplinary field that bridges both the brain and behavior. These researchers are referred to as A. behaviorists.

B. psychiatrists.

C. social cognitive neuroscientists.

D. ethological researchers.

100.Raphael, age 60, suffered an unexplained seizure and severe behavioral changes, as well as impairment of some of his motor abilities. To identify areas of the brain that were involved in this event, researchers had him undergo a series of brain-imaging studies. They also had Raphael complete several tests of memory, language, and attention. These researchers are known as A. behaviorists.

B. psychiatrists.

C. social cognitive neuroscientists.

D. ethological researchers.

101.A plan for conducting a scientific investigation is called a A. research design.

B. hypothetical outline.

C. scientific projection.

D. research outcome.

102.When scientists study the life of an unusual or newsworthy individual to develop theories about aberrant behavior, they are conducting a(n) A. naturalistic observation.

B. case study.

C. interview.

D. experiment.

103.What type of research design should a researcher use if she wishes to determine if a statistical relationship exists between variables?

A. qualitative B. correlational C. experimental D. case study 104.In a correlational study, A. cause-and-effect relationships can be proven.

B. researchers ask people to state their opinions.

C. researchers observe people in their natural environment.

D. the relationship between two variables is measured.

105.A researcher determines that children whose parents read to them for more than one hour each day have better grades than do children whose parents read to them for only a few minutes per day. What can you conclude from this pattern of data?

A. Reading by parents causes children to do better in school.

B. Parental reading time and grades are positively correlated.

C. Parental reading time and grades are not correlated.

D. Good students cause their parents to spend more time reading to them.

106.A controlled procedure in which a researcher manipulates variables to learn how one affects another is called a(n) A. theory.

B. experiment.

C. naturalistic study.

D. correlation.

107.In an experimental study, researchers manipulate a(n) variable.

A. control; independent B. dependent; independent C. independent; dependent D. dependent; control

variable to observe its effects on a(n)

108.In an experimental study, the subjects who receive the treatment are referred to as the A. experimental group.

B. control group.

C. dependent group.

D. independent group.

109.In an experimental study, the subjects who do NOT receive the treatment are referred to as the A. experimental group.

B. control group.

C. dependent group.

D. independent group.

110.A group of children is given special training on how to handle their anger. A second group is treated the same as the first group except they do not receive the special training. Those given the training comprise the , and those who receive no training comprise the .

A. experimental group; control group B. control group; experimental group C. dependent group; independent group D. independent group; dependent group 111.Children were asked to drink an extra glass of milk each day to see if their memories improved over time.

In this experiment, the milk is called the A. action variable.

B. control variable.

C. independent variable.

D. dependent variable.

112.In an experiment, a researcher manipulates the manipulation by measuring the .

A. dependent variable; independent variable B. control variable; experimental variable C. experimental variable; control variable D. independent variable; dependent variable

and then looks for an effect of that

113.In an experiment to assess the relationship between nutrition and intelligence, one group of campers is given a power bar containing a special vitamin supplement on a daily basis. A second group of children is given an identical-looking power bar but without the vitamins. Later, all children are given an IQ test. In this experiment, the children's scores on the IQ test are the A. independent variable.

B. cross-sequential variable.

C. dependent variable.

D. control variable.

114.A youth sports league is involved in a study in which one group of coaches is given instruction covering developmental considerations of teaching children and another group receives no such training. The coaches are assigned to different groups of children for two weeks. At the end of the two weeks, each group of children is interviewed to assess their level of satisfaction with their sport experience. In this study, the type of training the coaches received is considered the A. independent variable.

B. dependent variable.

C. extraneous variable.

D. control variable.

115.An advantage of experimental methods of research over nonexperimental methods is that experimental methods A. do not require a control group.

B. require less participants.

C. can establish cause-and-effect relationships.

D. are lifelike and intuitive.

116.The major difference between a laboratory experiment and a field experiment is the degree of A. control.

B. manipulation.

C. random assignment.

D. correlation.

117.The research team at University Hospital wants to ensure that their research results can be verified by others through replication. What research technique should they use?

A. natural experiment B. laboratory experiment C. case study D. cross-sectional naturalistic observation 118.A researcher who studies identical twins separated at birth and reared in different environments is using a A. laboratory experiment.

B. field experiment.

C. natural experiment.

D. correlational experiment.

119.Natural experiments compare people who have been divided into separate groups A. through random sampling.

B. through matching.

C. by the researcher.

D. due to accidental life circumstances.

120.Which of the following is a shortcoming of the laboratory experimental approach to understanding human development?

A. It is often difficult to randomly assign subjects to different treatment conditions.

B. Experiments rarely inform us about cause-and-effect relationships.

C. This technique does not work well for the study of aggression.

D. The results may not be applicable outside the experimental situation.

121.Over a 10-year period, a university professor followed the same group of school children, measuring their performance twice a year. Which method of data collection did he use?

A. cross-sectional B. longitudinal C. cross-sequential D. clinical 122.An experimenter measures the cognitive skills of 100 three-year-olds and compares the results with the skills exhibited by 100 seven-year-olds. This is an example of which research method?

A. cross-sectional B. longitudinal C. sequential D. clinical 123.Researchers realize that while it may provide invaluable information, a consuming and expensive, and it has problems associated with attrition.

A. longitudinal B. cross-sectional C. cross-sequential D. clinical

study is time-

124.An advantage of the cross-sectional research method is that it A. provides information about how the same person changes with age.

B. provides information about differences in behavior among people of different ages.

C. eliminates the effect of "cohort differences."

D. is more sensitive than the longitudinal method to individual behavioral change and stability.

125.Which of the following research methods was designed to deal with the disadvantages of both the longitudinal and the cross-sectional designs?

A. life-span B. clinical C. sequential study D. behavior sampling 126.A therapist is studying the behavior of children whose parents divorced six months before the children started school and children whose parents divorced two years before the children started school. Both groups of children will be followed and measured over the course of five years. This is an example of a design.

A. cross-sectional B. sequential C. longitudinal D. life-span sampling 127.Dr. Knowles wants to assess the effectiveness of Ritalin, a drug used to treat hyperactivity and inattention. At the beginning of the school year, he gives a test of cognitive skills to two groups of children who are on the medication: third-graders and fifth-graders. He retests both groups at the end of the first semester and at the end of the school year. Dr. Knowles is using a design.

A. sequential B. cross-sectional C. longitudinal D. time-sampling 128.Which of the following is NOT one of the ethical guidelines that a researcher must follow when conducting research with human subjects?

A. right to privacy and confidentiality B. right to informed consent C. right to financial remuneration D. right to self-esteem 129.A researcher is interested in the learning capabilities of children who are yelled at by an adult. She recruits a former drill sergeant to scream at a group of 7-year-olds while they learn a list of terms from a screen. What is the main problem with this study?

A. There is no control group.

B. The dependent variable is not operationally defined.

C. It is unethical.

D. The study should be done with both a list of terms and math calculations.

130.When performing psychological research with children, a researcher's primary consideration must be A. research ethics.

B. using the correct research design.

C. random sampling.

D. operationally defining variables.

131.In research ethics, beneficence refers to A. the inclusion of diverse groups in research studies.

B. the obligation to maximize positive influences and minimize harm for subjects.

C. a guarantee of privacy.

D. all of the above

132.A theory is a coherent set of logically related concepts that seeks to organize, explain, and predict data. Explain the relationship between a theory and a hypothesis. Using Piaget's cognitive stages of development, give an example of a hypothesis that could be derived from one stage of the theory.

133.Imagine you are a new student teacher in a fourth-grade classroom. You have been asked to "back up" your lesson plans with the appropriate developmental theories. Define Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, and describe how it was influenced by and differed from Freud's psychosexual theory. Give an example of how you would apply each theory in a fourth-grade classroom.

134.Explain the difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning. Give an example of how each form of conditioning might be utilized in a preschool social situation.

135.Explain Piaget's cognitive stage theory. In your explanation, include the following terms: organization; schemes; assimilation; accommodation; and, equilibration.

136.Bronfenbrenner's bioecological theory and Vygotsky's sociocultural theory are considered to be contextual theories. Describe the similarities and the differences between them.

137.Describe each of the following research designs, and give an advantage and a disadvantage of each: case study; ethnographic study; correlational study; and, experiment.

138.Create a hypothetical experiment. In the experiment, identify each of the following components: hypothesis; independent variable; dependent variable; experimental group; and, control group.

139.Give an example of each of the following research designs: longitudinal study; cross-sectional study; and, sequential study.

140.Dr. Kain is preparing to study the effects of television viewing on middle-school-age children. List and explain three ethical principles that she must follow when performing research that uses young children as subjects.

Chapter 02 Key 1. (p. 24) A 2. (p. 24) C 3. (p. 24) A 4. (p. 24) C 5. (p. 24-26) D 6. (p. 26) D 7. (p. 27) A 8. (p. 27) B 9. (p. 27) D 10. (p. 27) B 11. (p. 27) A 12. (p. 27) D 13. (p. 27) B 14. (p. 27) C 15. (p. 27) B 16. (p. 27) C 17. (p. 27) C 18. (p. 28) C 19. (p. 28) B 20. (p. 28) B 21. (p. 28) B 22. (p. 28) C 23. (p. 28) D 24. (p. 29) C 25. (p. 30) A 26. (p. 30) A 27. (p. 30) B 28. (p. 31) A 29. (p. 31) B 30. (p. 31) B 31. (p. 31) D 32. (p. 31) C 33. (p. 31) B 34. (p. 32) D 35. (p. 31) C 36. (p. 31) D

37. (p. 31) B 38. (p. 31) C 39. (p. 31) B 40. (p. 31) C 41. (p. 31) C 42. (p. 31) B 43. (p. 31) D 44. (p. 32) B 45. (p. 32) D 46. (p. 33) C 47. (p. 32) A 48. (p. 32) A 49. (p. 33) B 50. (p. 32) B 51. (p. 32-33) C 52. (p. 32-33) C 53. (p. 33) D 54. (p. 33) C 55. (p. 33) D 56. (p. 33) B 57. (p. 33) D 58. (p. 33) B 59. (p. 33) B 60. (p. 33) C 61. (p. 33) C 62. (p. 34) D 63. (p. 34) A 64. (p. 34) C 65. (p. 34) D 66. (p. 34) D 67. (p. 34) B 68. (p. 34) B 69. (p. 35) B 70. (p. 35) A 71. (p. 35) C 72. (p. 35) B 73. (p. 36) A 74. (p. 36) A

75. (p. 36) B 76. (p. 36) D 77. (p. 36) C 78. (p. 36) B 79. (p. 36) D 80. (p. 36-37) B 81. (p. 37) A 82. (p. 37) B 83. (p. 38) A 84. (p. 39) D 85. (p. 39) D 86. (p. 39-40) D 87. (p. 39) A 88. (p. 39) C 89. (p. 39) B 90. (p. 42) D 91. (p. 41) C 92. (p. 41) D 93. (p. 41) A 94. (p. 41) C 95. (p. 41) A 96. (p. 41) C 97. (p. 42) D 98. (p. 42) B 99. (p. 42) C 100. (p. 42) C 101. (p. 43) A 102. (p. 43-44) B 103. (p. 44) B 104. (p. 44-45) D 105. (p. 44) B 106. (p. 46) B 107. (p. 46-47) C 108. (p. 46) A 109. (p. 46) B 110. (p. 46) A 111. (p. 46-47) C 112. (p. 46-47) D

113. (p. 46-47) C 114. (p. 46-47) A 115. (p. 46) C 116. (p. 47) A 117. (p. 47) B 118. (p. 47-48) C 119. (p. 47-48) D 120. (p. 48) D 121. (p. 48) B 122. (p. 49) C 123. (p. 48) A 124. (p. 48) B 125. (p. 49) C 126. (p. 49) B 127. (p. 49) A 128. (p. 50) C 129. (p. 50) C 130. (p. 50) A 131. (p. 50) B 132. Answer will vary 133. Answer will vary 134. Answer will vary 135. Answer will vary 136. Answer will vary 137. Answer will vary 138. Answer will vary 139. Answer will vary 140. Answer will vary

Chapter 02 Summary Category Guidepost: How do developmental scientists study children, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of each research meth od?

Guidepost: What are five theoretical perspectives on child development, and what are some theories representative of each?

# of Questions 47 81

Guidepost: What ethical problems may arise in research on children?

Guidepost: What purposes do theories serve and what are two basic issues on which developmental theorists differ?

Papalia - Chapter 02 Question Type: A Question Type: C

5 7 140 27 50

Question Type: F

54

Chapter 03 Student:

1.

What event initiated the specialized branch of medicine called assisted reproductive technology?

A. discovery of the birth control pill B. Supreme Court decision concerning Roe v. Wade C. birth of Louise Brown through in vitro fertilization D. all of the above

2.

Which of the following factors can have vast consequences on a child's development?

A. whether the birth was planned or accidental B. whether the birth is welcome or unwanted C. how old the parents are when the child is conceived or adopted D. all of the above

3.

The concept that the production of male babies was the natural order of things and that a female came about only if development was disturbed had its origin with A. Bronfenbrenner.

B. Aristotle.

C. Skinner.

D. Mendel.

4.

The union of sperm and ovum to produce a zygote is known as A. the two-seed theory.

B. ovulation.

C. attachment.

D. fertilization.

5.

In fertilization, the male and the female gametes combine to create a single cell called a(n) which then duplicates itself again and again to become a baby.

A. zygote B. ovum C. sperm D. follicle

6.

Ovulation refers to the A. fertilization of an ovum by a sperm.

B. expulsion of an ovum from the ovary.

C. passage of an ovum through the vagina and out of the woman's body.

D. absorption of an ovum by the woman's white blood cells.

7.

Fertilization usually takes place in the uterus.

A. womb B. fallopian tube C. ovaries D. cervix

8.

Sperm are produced by the the semen during sexual climax.

A. ovary B. cervix C. testes D. uterus

as the ovum make the trip from the ovary to the

at a rate of several hundred million a day and are ejaculated in

,

9.

Daniel and Nellie are hoping to maximize Nellie's chances of becoming pregnant. When should they have intercourse?

A. on the day of ovulation or during the five days before B. 5 days after the onset of ovulation C. 14 days after the onset of menstruation D. 28 days after the onset of menstruation

10. Infertility is the inability to conceive after A. 3 to 6 B. 6 to 9 C. 9 to 12 D. 12 or more

months of trying to have a baby.

11. A common female cause of infertility is A. underproduction of ova.

B. abnormal ova.

C. blockage of the fallopian tube.

D. disease of the uterine lining, which prevents implantation of the fertilized ovum.

12. The most common cause of infertility in men is A. low sperm production.

B. impotence.

C. the use of the drug Allegra.

D. premature ejaculation.

13. Which of the following is NOT true about infertile couples?

A. A common cause in females is blockage of the fallopian tubes.

B. Drug therapy can sometimes correct the problem.

C. Hormone treatment may raise a man's sperm count.

D. Surgical treatments are ineffective.

14. Dan and Fiona have decided to utilize technology to overcome their infertility problems. They opt to use a procedure in which a mature ovum is surgically removed, fertilized in a laboratory dish, and then implanted in the mother's uterus. This technique is called A. artificial insemination.

B. in vitro fertilization.

C. gamete intrafallopian transfer.

D. zygote intrafallopian transfer.

15. Fred and Wilma have discovered that their infertility is due to Fred's extremely low sperm count. In an attempt to get pregnant, Wilma has a doctor inject a collection of her husband's sperm directly into her cervix. This procedure is called A. in vitro fertilization.

B. sperm transfer.

C. artificial insemination.

D. ovum transfer.

16. Medical technology is now able to offer couples several methods of bypassing the normal process of conception. These methods include A. ovum transfer.

B. artificial insemination.

C. in vitro fertilization.

D. all of the above 17. The science of genetics focuses on the A. inherited factors that affect development.

B. effects of environmental influences on phenotypic development.

C. interactions of the environment with nurturing factors.

D. factors responsible for all differences between people.

18. Stacy wants to learn more about the sequence of base parts within DNA that determine inherited characteristics. She will be studying A. autosomes.

B. multifactorial transmission.

C. genome imprinting.

D. the genetic code.

19. The chemical that carries inherited instructions for the development of all cellular forms of life is A. a teratogenic substance.

B. adenosine monophosphate.

C. arachidonic acid.

D. deoxyribonucleic acid.

20. The A. zygote B. gene C. follicle D. gamete

is the basic unit that determines inherited characteristics.

21. Which of the following are made up of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)?

A. gametes B. gymnosperm C. androsperm D. genes 22. How many pairs of chromosomes does a normal human being have?

A. 22 B. 23 C. 44 D. 46 23. A cell that has divided through mitosis possesses possesses .

A. 23 pairs of chromosomes; 23 chromosomes B. 46 pairs of chromosomes; 46 chromosomes C. 23 chromosomes; 46 chromosomes D. 23 chromosomes; 23 autosomes

, whereas a cell that has undergone meiosis

24. The process of cell division that produces copies of cells with 46 chromosomes is called A. diffusion.

B. meiosis.

C. translocation.

D. mitosis.

25. Meiosis A. results in two cells, each with 46 chromosomes.

B. reduces the number of chromosomes by half.

C. refers to the addition of an extra 21st chromosome.

D. is the process by which the egg and sperm combine.

26. Each ovum possesses , and each sperm possesses A. 23 chromosomes; 46 chromosomes B. 46 chromosomes; 23 chromosomes C. 23 pairs of chromosomes; 23 pairs of autosomes D. 23 chromosomes; 23 chromosomes

.

27. The normal complement of sex chromosomes for a woman is A. Y; X B. X; Y C. XX; XO D. XX; XY

, and for a man it is

.

28. Harry is father to three beautiful daughters. His wife is pregnant with their fourth child, and as much as he loves his daughters, he would be very happy to have a son. He recently watched a talk show that demonstrated the power of visualization. An individual allegedly brought himself good luck by visualizing his own initials to himself over and over until something good happened. Harry is going to try repeating combinations of sex chromosomes in order to influence the sex of his new child. If this far-fetched plan has any hope of working, which of the following letter combinations should he be concentrating on?

A. XX B. YY C. XY D. XXY 29. The chromosomes that do NOT determine sex are called A. zygotes.

B. genes.

C. gametes.

D. autosomes.

30. Lewis has wanted a son for as long as he can remember. He has put a great deal of pressure on his pregnant wife. She constantly reminds him that that the sex of the child was determined at conception by the A. genotype of the autosomes of the ovum.

B. genotype of the sex chromosomes of the ovum.

C. genotype of the sperm that fertilized the ovum.

D. phenotype of the sperm that fertilized the ovum.

31. The sex of a child is determined by the sex chromosomes of A. the mother.

B. the father.

C. both the mother and the father.

D. neither the mother nor the father.

32. The X and Y chromosomes are referred to as the A. sex chromosomes.

B. autosomes.

C. monosomes.

D. meiotic autosomes.

33. During the 1860s, Gregor Mendel conducted experiments that laid the foundation for understanding A. patterns of inheritance.

B. intelligence.

C. meiosis and mitosis.

D. prenatal development.

34. According to Mendel's findings, A. genes occur singly, never in pairs.

B. genes do not have fixed positions on chromosomes.

C. individual traits blend into one another.

D. hereditary traits are transmitted separately.

35. Genes that produce alternative expressions of a trait are called A. gametes.

B. alleles.

C. autosomes.

D. karyotypes.

36. If Katerina is homozygous for a particular trait, what will she pass on to her offspring?

A. only one kind of gene for that trait B. either of two kinds of genes for that trait C. a sex-linked gene for that trait D. no gene for that trait 37. Matu received identical genes for hair color from each of his parents. We would say that Matu is for that trait.

A. homozygous B. monozygous C. heterozygous D. dizygous 38. If Carol and Robert both pass on the gene for red hair, their child will have red hair. This is an example of inheritance.

A. dominant B. recessive C. sex-linked D. multiple-allele 39. If Darla has albinism but neither of her parents exhibit this inherited condition, the trait must be and Darla's genotype for this trait is .

A. dominant; homozygous B. recessive; homozygous C. dominant; heterozygous D. recessive; heterozygous 40. Ulrich is heterozygous for a trait therefore he displays the A. recessive B. dominant C. allelic D. genotypic

trait in his phenotype.

41. Suzann has brown eyes but carries a gene for blue eyes. Suzann must be color.

A. homozygous B. unizygous C. monozygous D. heterozygous

for the trait of eye

42. Permanent genetic alterations that may produce harmful characteristics are called A. transmissions.

B. mutations.

C. alterations.

D. selective alterations.

43. Melvin grew up only miles from the Three Mile Island nuclear plant when the meltdown occurred. An analysis of his genetic material indicates changes that are consistent with radiation exposure. The term that describes such genetic or chromosomal alteration is A. mutation.

B. transmission.

C. transduction.

D. selective alteration.

44. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of multifactorial transmission?

A. Many obvious psychological characteristics, such as intelligence, are determined by one or two genes.

B. Offspring with too many recessive genes often do not survive to transmit those genes.

C. The environment and many different genes interact to determine most psychological traits.

DThe expression of dominant genes is not influenced by the environment, whereas the expression of . recessive genes is strongly influenced by environmental factors.

45. An individual's consists of that individual's observable traits; an individual's his/her underlying genetic pattern.

A. dominant inheritance; heterozygosis B. dominant inheritance; homozygosis C. genotype; phenotype D. phenotype; genotype

is

46. Petra would like to replicate herself. However, she needs to realize that, although cloning can produce identical , it cannot produce identical .

A. phenotypes; genotypes B. heredity; environments C. genotypes; phenotypes D. genotypes; alleles 47. Louise's blue eyes and petite frame are observable characteristics and are part of her A. alleles.

B. genetic imprint.

C. phenotype.

D. genotype.

48. Brooklyn has curly hair but carries a gene for straight hair. Her phenotype is A. curly hair.

B. the gene for straight hair.

C. her genetic pattern for all hair characteristics.

D. her total genetic makeup.

49. When the police ask you to give a description of an assailant and you say that she is tall with black, curly hair, you are describing the assailant's A. incomplete dominance.

B. genetic pattern.

C. phenotype.

D. genotype.

50. The differential expression of certain genetic traits is identified as A. genome imprinting.

B. genome splitting.

C. chromosome imprinting.

D. chromosome splitting.

51. Which of the following is not true about epigenetics?

A. it is a mechanism that turns genes on or off B. it refers to chemical molecules attached to a gene that "reads" the gene's DNA C. it's name is derived from the prefix meaning "on or above" the genome D. epigenetic changes are hereditary not environmental 52. When both parents carry an abnormal recessive gene, such as the gene for cystic fibrosis, each of their children has 1 chance in A. 2 of being a carrier.

B. 4 of being a carrier.

C. 2 of receiving two abnormal recessive genes.

D. 2 of receiving two normal genes.

53. A pattern of inheritance in which certain characteristics carried on the X chromosome inherited from the mother are transmitted differently to her male and female offspring is called A. recessive inheritance.

B. dominant inheritance.

C. multifactorial inheritance.

D. sex-linked inheritance.

54. Gerald suffers from hemophilia, a blood-clotting disorder. He understands that the gene responsible for this disorder is carried by females but usually affects only males. This is an example of A. multifactorial inheritance.

B. dominant inheritance.

C. sex-linked inheritance.

D. independent segregation.

55. Baby Shanna has been diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. However, neither of her parents have shown symptoms of this disease. What can we conclude from this information?

A. Shanna is heterozygous for the Tay-Sachs gene.

B. Shanna's parents are homozygous for the Tay-Sachs gene.

C. Shanna is homozygous for the Tay-Sachs gene.

D. One of Shanna's parents is a carrier of Tay-Sachs, the other is not.

56. Krystal was ill as a baby, and before she was a year old she was diagnosed with defect that causes thick mucus to clog the breathing passages and the digestive system.

A. cystic fibrosis B. Down syndrome C. neural tube defect D. Huntington's disease

, a genetic

57. Which birth defect afflicts African-Americans more than it does other ethnic groups?

A. Tay-Sachs disease B. sickle-cell anemia C. cystic fibrosis D. Cooley's anemia 58. Arnold underwent genetic testing to determine whether he has the gene for Huntington's disease. The test confirmed that he does have it. This is an example of transmission by inheritance.

A. recessive B. dominant C. sex-linked D. multifactorial 59. Sex-linked traits A. are usually passed from father to son.

B. are never manifested in females.

C. can be carried by females who do not display them.

D. are carried by dominant genes.

60. John has hemophilia, a sex-linked, blood-clotting disorder transmitted by a recessive gene. Neither his mother nor his father has symptoms of this disease. What can we conclude about the genetic makeup of John's parents?

A. Both of his parents have the faulty gene.

B. The mother is a carrier of hemophilia, but the father does not have the gene.

C. The mother is homozygous for the faulty gene, whereas the father is heterozygous.

D. The father has the faulty gene, whereas the mother does not.

61. Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome are caused by abnormalities of the A. autosomes.

B. sex chromosomes.

C. teratogens.

D. gonads.

62. A chromosomal disorder characterized by moderate-to-severe mental retardation and a downward sloping skin fold at the inner corners of the eyes is called A. cystic fibrosis.

B. Tay-Sachs disease.

C. Down syndrome.

D. sickle cell anemia.

63. Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false?

A. The vast majority of genetic abnormalities are associated with the mother's ovum.

B. There is no connection to paternal genetic abnormalities.

C. Down syndrome is also called trisomy-21.

D. The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases with parental age.

64. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a genetic counselor?

A. taking a family history of prospective parents B. making clients aware of the statistical probabilities of certain genetic conditions C. presenting options of alternative courses of action D. advising clients on which course of action to take 65. A karyotype is a(n) A. abnormal genotype.

B. abnormal phenotype.

C. photographic chart of chromosomal abnormalities.

D. test of developing fetal cells.

66. The quantitative study of relative hereditary and environmental influences is called A. genetic testing.

B. qualitative genetic research.

C. cognitive genetics.

D. behavioral genetics.

67. A statistical estimate of how much heredity influences individual differences in a specific trait at a certain time within a given population is referred to as A. inheritance.

B. heritability.

C. heredity.

D. genetics.

68. In attempting to study the degree to which genetics influences activity levels in newborns, a researcher compares monozygotic and dizygotic twins for their level of similarity on that trait. This research is attempting to determine the of the trait activity levels.

A. teratogenesis B. genotype C. karyotype D. heritability 69. Doug has been asked by his professor to participate in a family study. Who else will most likely be included in the study?

A. Doug's brother or sister B. Doug's spouse C. Doug's closest friends D. unrelated individuals who grew up in Doug's neighborhood

70. Although Roberto's adoptive parents are short in stature, he is growing to be tall like his biological mother. What might we conclude about Roberto's height?

A. It is influenced primarily by environment.

B. It is influenced primarily by heredity.

C. Nutrition did not influence his height.

D. It is primarily a result of independent segregation.

71. Which of the following most clearly demonstrates the influence of environment?

A. Georgio, who was adopted at birth, and died at the same age as his biological father did B. Sally, who was adopted at the age of 2, and walks like her adoptive mother C. Bill and Jim, identical twins who were separated at birth, and are both overweight D. Ann and Jennie, fraternal twins who were reared apart, only Ann has high blood pressure 72. The Project mapped all the genes in the human body.

A. Gene Mapping B. Human Genome C. Genetic Engineering D. Genetic Determinism 73. It eventually may be possible to treat inherited diseases by repairing or replacing abnormal genes through A. genetic counseling.

B. gene therapy.

C. genome replication.

D. phenome therapy.

74. A major concern regarding genetic testing is the misconception that a person with a gene for a disease is bound to get the disease. This concept is known as A. genetic variability.

B. genetic determinism.

C. biological destiny.

D. genetic discrimination.

75. Susan and Betty are monozygotic twins, whereas Ming and Li are dizygotic twins. If a particular trait is determined primarily by hereditary factors, what would be the relative degree of concordance in these two twin pairs?

A. Ming and Li are more concordant than are Susan and Betty.

B. Susan and Betty are more concordant than are Ming and Li. C. Given similar environments, the two sets of twins are equally concordant.

D. It is not possible to determine concordance from studying twins.

76. Scientists generally accept that A. human development is determined almost entirely by heredity.

B. human development is determined almost entirely by environment.

C. heredity and environment constantly interact to shape human development.

D. hereditary and environmental influences on human development are impossible to identify.

77. Which of the following statements about the influences of heredity and environment is correct?

A. A person's height is determined by his or her genes.

B. A person's potential range of height is genetically determined, but actual height may be influenced by nutrition.

C. The genetic upper limit or range of height can be increased by improved nutrition.

D. Nutrition is more important than are genetic limits or range.

78. Depending on environmental conditions, the potential variability in the expression of a hereditary trait is called A. canalization.

B. genetics.

C. reaction range.

D. environmental interaction.

79. Which child is likely to exhibit the smallest reaction range for the trait of intelligence?

A. a child born with severe brain damage B. a child born to parents with low intelligence C. a child born to parents with normal intelligence D. a child born to parents with extremely high intelligence 80. Despite many variations in environmental conditions and rearing practices, most children learn to walk at about the same time and in the same sequence. We would say that walking as a trait is A. unaffected by reaction range.

B. phenotypical.

C. monozygotic.

D. canalized.

81. Traits that exhibit a A. low; narrow B. high; wide C. high; narrow D. low; nonexistent

degree of canalization will have a

reaction range.

82. A strongly canalized trait is one that A. is easily influenced by environmental conditions.

B. is affected little by environmental conditions.

C. appears only in certain situations.

D. has a large reaction range.

83. The technical term that refers to the effects of similar environmental conditions on genetically different individuals is A. reaction range.

B. genotype-environment interaction.

C. nature-nurture interaction.

D. genotype-phenotype connection.

84. The environment often reflects or reinforces genetic differences. In other words, certain genetic and environmental influences tend to reinforce each other. This tendency is called A. environment-genotype covariance.

B. genotype-environment correlation.

C. niche-picking.

D. shared environmental effects.

85. William came from a disadvantaged background, with abusive parents. In high school, he turned his exceptional ability to win arguments into a positive characteristic by participating on the school debate team. When the debate team visited the nation's capital, William was so inspired by what he saw there that he decided to pursue a career in government. Which of the following terms best explains William's development?

A. genotype-environment interaction B. canalization C. chorion control D. shared environmental effects

86. In university, Chandra tried a number of different majors until she found one that was right for her. She was originally interested in a career in research and was very successful academically. She later decided that she missed social interaction, so she decided to try teaching high school biology. The first time that she stood in front of the classroom, she knew that this was where she belonged. Which of the following terms best explains Chandra's development?

A. passive genotype-environment correlation B. accommodating genotype-environment correlation C. evocative genotype-environment correlation D. active (niche-picking) genotype-environment correlation 87. The idea that each child in a family grows up in a unique environment is referred to as A. nonshared environmental effects.

B. familial environmental effects.

C. shared environmental effects.

D. parent-child effects.

88. Although brothers Jono and Roman bear a striking physical resemblance to each other, they differ greatly in intellect and personality. One reason for this difference may be A. normative events.

B. age-graded normative events.

C. nonshared environmental effects.

D. shared environmental effects.

89. Which of the following statements about environmental influences is false?

A. Children growing up in the same family experience the same environment.

B. Some individual experiences, such as illness and injury, become environmental influences.

C. Siblings are usually more different than they are alike.

D. The home is the primary environment in the early years of life.

90. Which of the following statements regarding obesity is false?

A. Twin studies indicate that 40 - 70% of the risk of obesity is genetic.

B. Twin studies indicate that up to 80% of the risk of obesity is environmental.

C. Obesity is on the rise in western countries.

D. A predisposition toward obesity does not necessarily mean that a person will become obese.

91. Intelligence is a trait that is A. Polygenetic.

B. determined by a relatively small number of recessive genes.

C. the karyotype of both parents.

D. the phenotype of both parents.

92. More complex traits, such as intelligence, seem to be the result of A. heredity, or nature.

B. the environment, or nurture.

C. an interaction between nature and nurture.

D. maturation.

93. Data on the heritability of intelligence indicates that when two people are very closely related, their A. similarity in intelligence is low.

B. intelligence scores are much more similar than are those of unrelated people.

C. intelligence scores are similar only if they have been reared together.

D. intelligence scores are no more similar than would be expected for any two randomly selected individuals.

94. Sophia was adopted when she was one year of age. If she is given an IQ test at age 16, her intelligence level is likely to be similar to that of her A. adoptive mother.

B. adoptive father.

C. biological mother.

D. all of the above 95.

Which of the following statements about heredity and personality traits is correct?

A. Most personality traits seem to be inherited and unalterably imprinted at birth.

B. Although many personality traits seem to be inherited, they are not unalterably imprinted at birth.

C. Personality traits, unlike many physical traits, do not seem to be inherited.

D Because of the limitations of research methodology, researchers have not been able to identify any . personality traits that are genetically based.

96. Temperament seems largely determined by A. the age of your parents when you were conceived.

B. the number of siblings you have.

C. your genotype.

D. your karyotype.

97. A psychological disorder that is marked by a loss of contact with reality, includes such symptoms as hallucinations and delusions, and seems to have a strong genetic component is A. neuroticism.

B. depression.

C. schizophrenia.

D. mental retardation.

98. Many studies suggest that schizophrenia A. has a strong genetic component.

B. is seldom seen in family clusters.

C. is a result of environmental stress.

D. is caused by a single gene.

99. Several members of the Theroz family suffer from schizophrenia. Concordance rates for schizophrenia are highest between A. mothers and biological sons or daughters.

B. grandparents and grandchildren.

C. members of monozygotic twin pairs.

D. members of dizygotic twin pairs.

100.A cause of schizophrenia may be A. advanced paternal age.

B. the mother's loss of a close relative in the first trimester of pregnancy.

C. maternal rubella infection during pregnancy.

D. all of the above 101. Describe how and when human conception normally occurs. In your answer, include the following terms:

fertilization; gamete; ovulation; and, zygote.

102. Define what scientists mean by the term infertility. List the causes of infertility for both males and

females, and describe three alternate ways that couples can become pregnant.

103. The study of inherited factors that affect development is referred to as heredity. Define the function

of each of the following terms, and explain their relationship to the mechanisms of heredity: DNA; chromosomes; and, genes.

104. Using the following terms, describe the factors involved in dominant and recessive inheritance: alleles;

homozygous; heterozygous; genotype; and, phenotype.

105. Define multifactorial transmission. Provide several examples of how multifactorial transmission plays a

role in the expression of most traits.

106. When a couple decides to conceive a baby, one of their greatest concerns is that the baby be healthy.

Describe at least three birth defects described in your textbook, and explain how each of them is transmitted. For each problem, describe possible treatment options.

107. Many birth defects are transmitted by dominant or recessive genes. Others are transmitted by sex-linked

inheritance. Define the terms dominant, recessive, and sex-linked genes. Give an example of each, and describe a defect transmitted in each of these three ways.

108. What is Down syndrome? Explain how often it occurs. Who is at risk of giving birth to a child with this

disorder? What challenges does a Down syndrome person face?

109. Give five examples of the influences of heredity and environment on a pre-school age child.

110. Describe the role of heredity and environment in obesity, schizophrenia, autism, and intelligence.

Chapter 03 Key 1. (p. 60) C 2. (p. 58) D 3. (p. 58-59) B 4. (p. 59) D 5. (p. 59) A 6. (p. 59) B 7. (p. 59) B 8. (p. 59) C 9. (p. 59) A 10. (p. 69) D 11. (p. 60) C 12. (p. 60) A 13. (p. 60) D 14. (p. 63) B 15. (p. 63) C 16. (p. 61-63) D 17. (p. 64) A 18. (p. 64) D 19. (p. 64) D 20. (p. 64) B 21. (p. 64) D 22. (p. 64) B 23. (p. 64) A 24. (p. 64) D 25. (p. 64) B 26. (p. 64) D 27. (p. 65) D 28. (p. 65) C 29. (p. 65) D 30. (p. 65) C 31. (p. 65) B 32. (p. 65) A 33. (p. 66) A 34. (p. 66) D 35. (p. 66) B 36. (p. 66) A

37. (p. 66) A 38. (p. 66) B 39. (p. 66) B 40. (p. 67) B 41. (p. 66) D 42. (p. 67) B 43. (p. 67) A 44. (p. 69) C 45. (p. 7168) D 46. (p. 68) C 47. (p. 68) C 48. (p. 68) A 49. (p. 68) C 50. (p. 69) A 51. (p. 68) D 52. (p. 71) A 53. (p. 71) D 54. (p. 71) C 55. (p. 71) C 56. (p. 70) A 57. (p. 70) B 58. (p. 71) B 59. (p. 71) C 60. (p. 73) B 61. (p. 71-72) B 62. (p. 72) C 63. (p. 72) B 64. (p. 74) D 65. (p. 74) C 66. (p. 76) D 67. (p. 76) B 68. (p. 76) D 69. (p. 76) A 70. (p. 76) B 71. (p. 76) B 72. (p. 77) B 73. (p. 75) B 74. (p. 75) B

75. (p. 76) B 76. (p. 76-77) C 77. (p. 77-78) B 78. (p. 77) C 79. (p. 77-78) A 80. (p. 78) D 81. (p. 77-78) C 82. (p. 78) B 83. (p. 79) B 84. (p. 79) B 85. (p. 79) A 86. (p. 79) D 87. (p. 82) A 88. (p. 80) C 89. (p. 80) A 90. (p. 81) B 91. (p. 81) A 92. (p. 81) C 93. (p. 81) B 94. (p. 81) C 95. (p. 81-82) B 96. (p. 82) C 97. (p. 82) C 98. (p. 82) A 99. (p. 82) C 100. (p. 82) D 101. Answer will vary 102. Answer will vary 103. Answer will vary 104. Answer will vary 105. Answer will vary 106. Answer will vary 107. Answer will vary 108. Answer will vary 109. Answer will vary 110. Answer will vary

Chapter 03 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: How are birth defects and disorders transmitted?

17 Guidepost: How do scientists study the relative influences of heredity and environment, and how do heredity and environment wor 25 k together?

Guidepost: How does conception normally occur, and how have beliefs about conception changed?

Guidepost: What causes infertility, and what are alternative ways of becoming parents?

Guidepost: What genetic mechanisms determine sex, physical appearance, and other characteristics?

Guidepost: What roles do heredity and environment play in physical health, intelligence, and personality?

Papalia - Chapter 03 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

11 7 38 12 110 9 38 53

Chapter 04 Student:

1.

The human gestational period is approximately A. 34 B. 36 C. 38 D. 40

weeks in length.

2.

The doctor told Ellie and Tom to compute the gestational age of their fetus by determining the time of A. implantation.

B. quickening.

C. conception.

D. gestation.

3.

The molecules that are "switched on" after fertilization and begin sculpting arms, fingers, vertabrae, ribs, a brain, and other body parts are called A. teratogens.

B. hydrogens.

C. cephalocods.

D. morphogens.

4.

A fertilized ovum is also called a(n) A. embryo.

B. zygote.

C. fetus.

D. morphogen.

5.

The correct order for the three prenatal stages is: A. fetal; embryonic; and, germinal.

B. embryonic; fetal; and, germinal.

C. germinal; fetal; and, embryonic.

D. germinal; embryonic; and, fetal.

6.

Which term describes the principle of prenatal development in which the sequence of growth is from the head to the feet?

A. proximodistal B. cephalocaudal C. cephagestation D. top to bottom

7.

The fertilized ovum divides and implants in the wall of the uterus during which stage of gestation?

A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal

8.

In which stage of prenatal development does the fertilized ovum become implanted in the wall of the uterus?

A. germinal B. seminal C. fetal D. embryonic

9.

The zygote begins rapid cell division (mitosis) and forms into a blastocyst during the stage.

A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. zygotic

10. The fluid-filled sphere that floats freely in the uterus for a day or two and then implants itself into the wall of the uterus is called the A. germ.

B. blastocyst.

C. chorion.

D. Hoxa10.

11. The portion of the blastocyst from which the baby develops is called the A. embryonic disk.

B. trophoblast.

C. placenta.

D. ectoderm.

12. Which of the following cell groups becomes the outer layer of skin, hair, nails, sensory organs, and nervous system?

A. ectoderm B. endoderm C. mesoderm D. epiderm 13. Dr. McGuire is studying the cells in the blastocyst that eventually become the brain and the spinal cord.

Where are these cells located?

A. mesoderm B. ectoderm C. endoderm D. neuroderm 14. The portion of the embryonic disk that eventually becomes the digestive system and the respiratory system is the A. ectoderm.

B. endoderm.

C. mesoderm.

D. trophoblast.

15. Laurence and Kristina have read about their baby's development and learned that their baby will grow more rapidly during the than at any other time.

A. first month after conception B. second trimester C. third trimester D. first month after birth 16. At the end of the first month of gestation A. blood is flowing through very small veins and arteries in the embryo.

B. the facial parts of the embryo have fully developed.

C. the mother can feel the baby's movements.

D. the embryo looks like a small-scale baby.

17. When Dr. Keane checks prenatal development with a sonagram at the end of the second month of gestation, the embryo is less than one inch long and has the shape of a A. disk.

B. cylinder.

C. slightly irregular ball.

D. miniature baby.

18. A pregnant woman feels the movement known as quickening at about the A. first B. second C. fourth D. ninth 19. An 8-month-old fetus is A. 14-16; 2-4 B. 15-17; 3-6 C. 18-20; 5-7 D. 21-23; 8-9

inches long and weighs approximately

month.

pounds.

20. The doctor told Rosa at her last prenatal visit that her baby now weighs over 9 pounds. When will the fetus stop growing?

A. about 1 month before birth B. about 2 weeks before birth C. about 1 week before birth D. None of these; the fetus keeps growing until birth.

21. During pregnancy, the A. blastocyst B. embryo C. fetus D. zygote

is formed when the cell mass is fully implanted in the uterus.

22. Which of the following is NOT one of the organs that develops to nurture and protect the unborn child?

A. amniotic sac B. embryonic disk C. umbilical cord D. placenta 23. Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?

A. It encases the baby with a fluid-filled membrane.

B. It removes body wastes from the baby.

C. It fights infections.

D. It produces hormones that stimulate lactation.

24. The fluid-filled sac surrounding the developing human organism is the A. placenta.

B. amniotic sac.

C. trophoblast.

D. blastocyst.

25. Which of the following statements regarding the early development of the human embryo is false?

A. Four to five days after fertilization, an inner cell mass begins to form.

B. After six to seven days, the blastocyst begins to attach to the uterine wall.

C. After eleven to twelve days, the blastocyst is joined to the uterine wall.

D. The embryonic stage begins at six to seven days after fertilization.

26. Luanne's doctor told her that her baby's major body systems and organs were rapidly developing.

Luanne's baby is in the stage of development.

A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal 27. An unborn baby is often most vulnerable to prenatal environmental influences before a woman even realizes that she is pregnant. This vulnerability occurs during the stage.

A. fetal B. embryonic C. germinal D. terminal 28. At which stage of gestation is exposure of the fetus to alcohol the most damaging?

A. embryonic B. germinal C. fetal D. terminal 29. Melissa has had two miscarriages and is understandably anxious about her thrid pregnancy. She realizes that a miscarriage, or spontaneous abortion, is most likely to occur in which trimester of the pregnancy?

A. first B. second C. third D. There is equal risk throughout pregnancy.

30. Miscarriages are most commonly caused by A. sudden movements or jolts.

B. fear.

C. stress.

D. chromosomal abnormalities.

31. Of the following, which is least likely to be a cause of spontaneous abortion?

A. defective ovum or sperm B. implantation of ovum in an unfavorable location C. abnormal development of the umbilical cord D. a frightening event experienced by the mother 32. One difference between the sexes during pregnancy is that A. more males are conceived than females.

B. males develop more rapidly than females.

C. females are more likely to have birth defects than males.

D. female fetuses are more likely to be spontaneously aborted than male fetuses.

33. Which of the following is true in regards to spontaneous abortions and stillbirth?

A. Males are less likely than females to be affected.

B. Males are more likely than females to be affected.

C. No difference exists between the rates of spontaneous abortion or stillbirth in males and females.

D. The Y chromosome appears to carry protection against spontaneous abortion and stillbirth.

34. The appearance of development.

A. toenails B. bone C. eyelids D. fingernails

results in the transition from the embryonic to the fetal stage of prenatal

35. The fetal stage of development is reached A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 6 months

after conception.

36. Christie's baby is in the third and final stage of gestation. The major characteristic of this fetal stage of development is the A. formation of the systems of the body.

B. implantation of the organism in the uterine wall.

C. growth and refinement of the organism's structures.

D. differentiation of the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.

37. Which prenatal stage of development lasts the longest?

A. germinal stage B. fetal stage C. embryonic stage D. Each stage lasts for the same amount of time—one trimester.

38. Tehra's obstetrician is using a medical procedure that employs high-frequency sound waves to detect the outline of the fetus and to observe its movements. This is called a(n) A. amniocentesis.

B. chorionic villus sampling.

C. ultrasound.

D. karyotypiny.

39. Which of the following statements regarding the fetal stage of development is false?

A. Fetuses may kick and suck their thumbs.

B. A fetus grows about 20 times larger during this period.

C. Boys develop more rapidly than girls during this stage.

D. Learning and remembering are possible during this stage.

40. Which of the following statements regarding the fetal period of development is false?

A. Boys tend to be more active than girls.

B. Boys move less vigorously than girls.

C. Heart rates vary in regularity and speed.

D. Fetuses who are more active during this period also tend to be more active after they are born.

41. Research on fetal hearing indicates that fetuses A. cannot feel vibrations.

B. can feel vibrations but cannot hear.

C. can hear but cannot distinguish between different tones.

D. can differentiate between different tones.

42. Which of the following behaviors has lead researchers to conclude that fetuses develop preferences for the kinds of sounds they hear while in the womb?

A. Newborns prefer male voices to females voices.

B. Newborns prefer female voices to male voices.

C. Newborns usually turn their head's toward the sound of their mother's voice.

D. Fetuses blink in response to sound.

43. "Mourning a Miscarriage or Stillbirth" suggests which of the following?

A. The way in which these situations are handled is culturally constructed B. It's best not to talk about the incident C. Typically men and women grieve similarly following a miscarriage D. None of the above

44. Environmental factors that may produce birth defects are called A. blastocysts.

B. allergens.

C. teratogens.

D. toxinogens.

45. Most obstetricians are concerned about monitoring the weight gain of mothers-to-be for the sake of the mother and the baby. How many extra calories should a woman consume each day during pregnancy?

A. 50-200 B. 300-500 C. 700-900 D. over 1,000 46. Women who gain less than 15 pounds during pregnancy are A. more likely to have healthy babies.

B. less likely to have late miscarriages.

C. less likely to have complications.

D. more likely to have low-birth-weight babies.

47. A woman who becomes obese during pregnancy runs the risk of all the following pregnancy complications except A. miscarriage.

B. stillbirth.

C. neonatal death.

D. spina bifida.

48. Insufficient intake of folic acid during pregnancy increases the risk of having a baby with A. autism.

B. leukemia.

C. spina bifida.

D. sudden infant death syndrome.

49. Doctors have found that increasing a woman's folic acid consumption by just 5 milligrams each day reduces the incidence of by 85 percent.

A. cleft palate B. cerebral palsy C. Down syndrome D. neural tube defects 50. Priscilla, a former ballet dancer and stingent dieter, was warned that maternal malnourishment during pregnancy is related to all of the following except A. miscarriages.

B. length of gestation.

C. stillbirth.

D. low birth weight.

51. Which of the following statements about prenatal nourishment is false?

A. Proper nutrition during pregnancy is the most effective way to ensure healthy prenatal development.

B. Giving malnourished mothers dietary supplements during pregnancy can increase their babies' alertness.

C. Damage due to maternal malnutrition during pregnancy is irreversible.

D. The effects of maternal malnutrition may be aggravated by a deprived family environment.

52. Carl and Eleanor have been going for a morning run for the past three years. They are concerned about whether or not they can continue now that Eleanor is pregnant. Which of the following statements best describes the appropriate level of exercise for pregnant women?

A. Pregnant women should exercise strenuously to promote circulation.

B. Pregnant women do not need to take any more precautions in exercising than nonpregnant women.

C. Pregnant women should reduce their exercise during the second trimester.

D. Pregnant women should exercise moderately throughout their pregnancy.

53. Which of the following statements regarding physical activity during pregnancy is false?

A. Moderate exercise may make delivery easier.

B. Moderate exercise may prevent constipation.

C. Long working hours and excessive fatigue increase the risk of premature birth.

D. Exercising to the point of exhaustion may produce permanent heart damage in the fetus.

54. Drugs known to be potentially harmful when taken during pregnancy include A. synthetic estrogen.

B. ibuprofen.

C. Accutane, an acne medicine.

D. all of the above 55. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy is associated with A. neural-tube defects.

B. fetal alcohol syndrome.

C. Down syndrome.

D. all of the above 56. Suppose you are a health care worker who is examining a child with the following symptoms: facial and bodily malformations, short attention span, hyperactivity, and motor impairments. Which drug would you suspect that the child's mother used during pregnancy?

A. cocaine B. marijuana C. heroin D. alcohol 57. Mothers who drink alcohol (even moderately) should be made aware that fetal alcohol syndrome A. affects about 5 infants in 1,000 born in the United States.

B. is a leading cause of mental retardation and birth defects.

C. can cause cognitive disorders that subsequent environmental enrichment does not seem to improve.

D. all of the above.

58. How much alcohol can a pregnant woman safely drink?

A. 1 drink a day B. 2 drinks a day C. 1 or 2 glasses of wine a day, but no "hard liquor" D. None of these; there is no known "safe" level of drinking during pregnancy.

59. Which of the following statements regarding fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is false?

A. About 1 infant in 100 suffers from FAS or other alcohol-related conditions.

B. Hyperactivity is a common symptom in FAS children.

C. Facial malformations often occur with FAS. D. An enriched environment can dramatically improve cognitive function in FAS children.

60. Children of mothers who smoked during their pregnancy are at a higher than normal risk for all of the following except A. hyperactivity.

B. face and limb malformations.

C. social maladjustment.

D. sudden infant death syndrome.

61. Doctors warn that smoking during pregnancy contributes to which of the following?

A. miscarriage B. sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) C. low birth weight D. all of the above 62. Children born to women who smoke during pregnancy tend to show A. retardation of growth.

B. social maladjustment.

C. learning problems in school.

D. all of the above 63. Which of the followng may be a problem associated with caffeine consumption during pregnancy?

A. leukemia B. sudden infant death syndrome C. hyperactivity D. all of the above 64. Research has linked the use of marijuana during pregnancy with A. premature births.

B. neurological disturbances in the infant.

C. leukemia (childhood cancer).

D. all of the above 65. Most research dealing with drug use during pregnancy has shown that the use of marijuana during pregnancy A. produces no detectable birth defects.

B. is much more damaging to a fetus than is alcohol.

C. may produce neurological disturbances.

D. may lead to babies who are themselves addicted.

66. Rubella has the potential of damaging an unborn child during which period of pregnancy?

A. first 11 weeks B. 13 to 16 weeks C. 18 to 22 weeks D. after 24 weeks 67. Jane is 8 weeks pregnant and has just contracted rubella. If you were Jane's physician, what information would you give her regarding the health of her unborn baby?

A. The child will almost certainly be deaf.

B. The child has a 1 in 3 chance of being born with Down syndrome.

C. The child will likely be hyperactive.

D. No serious effects will occur.

68. Taxoplasmosis is A. a parasite harbored in livestock.

B. a cause of fetal brain damage.

C. a cause of death in babies.

D. all of the above 69. Maternal stress and/or anxiety during pregnancy A. if experienced in low levels (i.e. moderate tension and worry) is normal.

B. elevates the risk of intellectual disability.

C. increases fetal activity.

D. elevates the risk of cleft palate and heart malformations.

70. An example of a history-graded influence is the current increase in the age at which women become pregnant. This in turn increases the likelihood that these women will have A. inadequate prenatal care.

B. miscarriages.

C. low blood pressure during pregnancy.

D. postmature infants.

71. Age influences childbirth. Pregnant women over 40 and pregnant adolescents have children who A. at a heightened risk for chromosomal abnormalities.

B. are less likely to be premature.

C. are less likely to be underweight.

D. none of the above 72. Marcella works in a manufacturing plant that produces semiconductor chips, and she is pregnant with her first child. As a consequence of Marcella's exposure to heavy metals, A. her baby is more likely to have an Rh-factor incompatibility.

B. her baby may perform at a low level on intelligence tests.

C. she is more likely to have twins.

D. all of the above 73. Prenatal exposure to radiation is most dangerous during A. fertilization.

B. the germinal stage.

C. 3 to 6 weeks of gestation.

D. 8 to 15 weeks of gestation.

74. Japanese infants born shortly after the atomic explosions in Hiroshima were A. not noticeably affected.

B. most affected if exposure occurred during the germinal stage.

C. most affected if exposure occurred during the eighth to fifteenth weeks of gestation.

D. likely to die during infancy.

75. Which of the following statements about the father's role in transmitting birth defects is correct?

A. So far, little research has been conducted on the father's role.

B. According to research, the father's role is virtually nonexistent; birth defects almost always transmitted by the mother.

CExtreme youth of the father is associated with certain rare conditions such as dwarfism and Marfan's . syndrome, and it may be a factor in Down syndrome.

D. Advanced age of the father at conception may be associated with fetal defects.

76. Studies suggest that the likelihood of genetic defects caused by abnormal sperm increases when the father is before conception.

A. malnourished B. under great stress C. overweight D. exposed to environmental hazards 77. Which of the following paternal factors can have deleterious affects on a child's development?

A. Advancing age of the father.

B. Exposure to harmful substances like chemicals and/or illicit drugs.

C. Cocaine use which can be carried into the ovum by the father's sperm.

D. All of the above.

78. Which of the following is NOT an intrusive technique for detecting birth defects?

A. ultrasound B. amniocentesis C. umbilical cord assessment D. chorionic villus sampling

79. If a mother wanted to have a clear image of the fetus in her womb, which procedure would she most likely undergo?

A. amniocentesis B. ultrasound C. fetal biopsy D. chorionic villus sampling 80. Because of the rapid weight gain experienced by Marilyn early in her pregnancy, the doctor ordered a(n) to see if she was having twins.

A. chorionic villus sampling B. maternal blood test C. ultrasound D. amniocentesis 81. In which of the following procedures is a sample of fluid taken from around the fetus and analyzed for possible defects?

A. amniocentesis B. chorionic villus sampling C. ultrasound D. electronic fetal monitoring 82. Corella is 37 years old and pregnant. She has a brother who was born with Down syndrome. Which of the following tests will most likely be recommended during Corella's pregnancy?

A. ultrasound B. embryoscope C. umbilical cord sampling D. amniocentesis 83. In which prenatal assessment procedure is tissue taken from the membrane around the embryo?

A. chorionic villus sampling B. amniocentesis C. maternal blood test D. ultrasound 84. A procedure that tests for birth defects during the first trimester of pregnancy is called a(n) A. amniocentesis.

B. chorionic villus sampling.

C. maternal blood test.

D. all of the above 85. Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, ultrasound, and umbilical cord assessment A. are risk-free.

B. should be used routinely in every pregnancy.

C. reduce the likelihood of cesarean delivery.

D. provide valuable information in high-risk pregnancies.

86. In the United States, which of the following pregnant women is likely to get the least amount of prenatal care?

A. Angela, an unmarried teenager B. Bea, a married woman C. Delia, who has a college education D. Sandra, who just turned 45 years of age 87. Which of the following statements is correct in regards to prenatal care?

A. Experts believe that more emphasis should be placed on proper prenatal care even before women get pregnant.

B. Prenatal care is intended exclusively to screen for treatable defects and diseases.

C. The United States has uniform national standards for prenatal care.

D. It is not possible to address the causes of low birth weight through prenatal care.

88. Outline the three distinct stages of prenatal development, and explain the characteristics of each stage.

89. Severely defective embryos usually do not survive. During which trimester do most spontaneous abortions take place? Explain why is this is such a critical period for miscarriage risk. In your answer include two factors that could contribute to a spontaneous abortion during this period.

90. Some cognitive and physical abilities are developed by fetal learning. Provide some examples and indicate how researchers can monitor fetal learning.

91. It is important that mothers understand the role that the environment plays in the development of the embryo/fetus. Define and give several examples of teratogenic activity in regards to the developing fetus.

During which stage of prenatal development is the embryo/fetus most susceptive to teratogenic influence?

Why?

92. Karen and Mark just discovered that they are going to have a baby. They want to give their baby the best possible start. Explain how environmental influences such as maternal nutrition, physical activity, and drug intake can have both positive and negative effects on prenatal development.

93. Define fetal alcohol syndrome. Describe the devastating effects that high concentrations of alcohol can have on the physical, intellectual, and psychosocial development of the fetus.

94. Exposure to certain drugs during pregnancy can affect the developing fetus. Choose three drugs that are mentioned in your textbook, and explain the effects that they have on child development during the prenatal period.

95. Doctors have several assessment techniques to help prospective parents monitor their pregnancy.

Describe each of the following means of prenatal assessment, giving the advantages and disadvantages of each: ultrasound; amniocentesis; chorionic villas sampling; and, maternal blood test.

96. Experts maintain that high-quality prenatal care is essential and that the earlier in the pregnancy it is obtained the better. Based on the research described in your textbook, provide some information that supports this statement. What are some of the disparities in prenatal care? How might these be address by public health workers and the medical profession?

Chapter 04 Key 1. (p. 86) C 2. (p. 86) C 3. (p. 88) D 4. (p. 88) B 5. (p. 89-91) D 6. (p. 89) B 7. (p. 89) C 8. (p. 89) A 9. (p. 89) A 10. (p. 89) B 11. (p. 89) A 12. (p. 89) A 13. (p. 89-90) B 14. (p. 89-90) B 15. (p. 87) A 16. (p. 87) A 17. (p. 87) D 18. (p. 87) C 19. (p. 88) C 20. (p. 88) C 21. (p. 87) B 22. (p. 90) B 23. (p. 90) A 24. (p. 90) B 25. (p. 90) D 26. (p. 90) B 27. (p. 90) B 28. (p. 90) A 29. (p. 90) A 30. (p. 91) D 31. (p. 91) D 32. (p. 91) A 33. (p. 91) B 34. (p. 91) B 35. (p. 91) C 36. (p. 91) C

37. (p. 91) B 38. (p. 91) C 39. (p. 91-92) C 40. (p. 91) B 41. (p. 92) D 42. (p. 93) B 43. (p. 92) A 44. (p. 93) C 45. (p. 94) B 46. (p. 94) D 47. (p. 94) D 48. (p. 94-95) C 49. (p. 94-95) D 50. (p. 94) B 51. (p. 95) C 52. (p. 95) D 53. (p. 95) D 54. (p. 96) D 55. (p. 96) B 56. (p. 97) D 57. (p. 97) D 58. (p. 96-97) D 59. (p. 97) D 60. (p. 97) B 61. (p. 97) D 62. (p. 97) D 63. (p. 97) B 64. (p. 97) D 65. (p. 99) C 66. (p. 99) A 67. (p. 99) A 68. (p. 99) D 69. (p. 106) A 70. (p. 100-101) B 71. (p. 100) A 72. (p. 101) B 73. (p. 101) D 74. (p. 101) C

75. (p. 102) D 76. (p. 102) D 77. (p. 102) D 78. (p. 102) A 79. (p. 102) B 80. (p. 102) C 81. (p. 102) A 82. (p. 102) D 83. (p. 102) A 84. (p. 102) B 85. (p. 102) D 86. (p. 102) A 87. (p. 102) A 88. Answer will vary 89. Answer will vary 90. Answer will vary 91. Answer will vary 92. Answer will vary 93. Answer will vary 94. Answer will vary 95. Answer will vary 96. Answer will vary

Chapter 04 Summary Category Guidepost: What are the three stages of prenatal development, and what happens during each stage?

Guidepost: What environmental influences can affect prenatal development?

Guidepost: What techniques can assess a fetuss health and well-being, and what is the importance of prenatal care?

Papalia - Chapter 04 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 46 38 12 96 1 23 63

Chapter 05 Student:

1.

Jason remarks to Darleen, who is 6 months pregnant, that it would be nice if they could go back to a time when it was easier to bring a child into the world. Darleen has read the literature about how childbirth procedures have changed over the years and is a little less enthused. Which of the following statements about childbirth in the past is false?

A. The prospective father assisted the midwife in the delivery.

B. Women were urged to go up and down stairs screaming at the top of their lungs to help the process.

C. Cracks in walls were plugged to keep out evil spirits.

D. A local doctor was always present.

2.

The science that specializes in the birth of babies is called A. pediatrics.

B. gynecology.

C. obstetrics.

D. birthing.

3.

Women who have given birth during the past fifty years have benefited from a dramatic reduction in risks surrounding pregnancy and childbirth. This is due to the A. use of antibiotics.

B. use of anesthesia.

C. implementation of prenatal care.

D. all of the above

4.

The series of uterine and cervical changes that occur two weeks before delivery are called A. contractions.

B. labor.

C. parturition.

D. quickening.

5.

Julie and Adam learned in their prenatal classes that the first stage of the birth process is the longest, and for Julie, who is having her first child, it will generally last about hours.

A. 3 - 5 B. 6 - 8 C. 10 - 12 D. 12 - 14

6.

Yvonne has begun to experience uterine contractions that are causing her cervix to dilate. She is in the stage of childbirth.

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

7.

During childbirth, dilation of the cervix occurs A. during the first stage.

B. during the second stage.

C. during the third stage.

D. shortly before the first contractions occur.

8.

Mary is in the delivery room giving birth to her first child. Her cervix has fully dilated, and the baby's head is just visible in the vaginal canal. Mary is in which stage of childbirth?

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

9.

Harriet's labor has gone on for quite a while, so her physician decides to grasp the baby's head with forceps to help with the birth. Harriet is in which stage of childbirth?

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

10. The end of the second stage of childbirth is indicated by A. the initial dilation of the cervix.

B. the emergence of the baby from the mother's body.

C. the expulsion of the placenta.

D. contractions that occur every 8 to 10 minutes.

11. The placenta is expelled from the mother's body during the A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

stage of childbirth.

12. An electronic fetal monitor is used to A. track the fetus's heartbeat.

B. detect any serious problems.

C. gather information in high-risk deliveries.

D. all of the above 13. The normal method of childbirth is a A. vaginal B. medicated C. cesarean D. forceps

delivery.

14. A surgical incision was made in Lana's abdomen in order for her to deliver her baby. This procedure is called a A. forceps birth.

B. natural birth.

C. cesarean section.

D. Lamaze birth.

15. Kathleen is in labor and is told by her physician that the baby's feet, rather than his head, are moving down the birth canal first. What sort of delivery is likely to be performed?

A. Lamaze delivery B. vaginal delivery C. cesarean delivery D. natural delivery

16. Ms. Feldman is a midwife attending to Louise who is in labor. Ms. Feldman determines that Louise's baby is not in the proper position and that the labor is progressing very slowly. She decides to take Louise to the hospital so that doctors can deliver the baby through abdominal surgery. This birth is an example of a A. natural delivery.

B. Lamaze birth.

C. cesarean delivery.

D. forceps delivery.

17. A fetus whose feet are below his or her head in the uterus is in a A. normal B. transverse C. breech D. cesarean

position.

18. Krystal's obstetrician has told her that the baby she is about to deliver has his or her feet or buttocks down in the uterus. Which of the following terms would be used to describe the baby's position?

A. normal B. breech C. transverse D. opposed 19. Cesarean deliveries A. are most common among low-income women.

B. are sometimes performed unnecessarily.

C. always lead to healthier babies.

D. generally result in shorter hospital stays.

20. A medicated delivery is one in which A. the baby receives injections of two stress hormones—adrenaline and noradrenaline.

B. the mother is given adrenaline and noradrenaline to help the baby withstand the stress of childbirth.

C. the mother receives anesthesia.

D. mother and baby are both given antibiotics to prevent infection.

21. Patrick and Lacey attend prepared childbirth classes where they are taught breathing and muscular responses designed to A. speed up the birth.

B. minimize the fear and pain associated with labor.

C. bring about a hypnotic state during delivery.

D. slow down contractions during labor.

22. A method of childbirth whereby mothers are trained to make breathing and muscular responses to sensations of uterine contractions is called A. prepared childbirth.

B. birth without violence.

C. sensitivity training.

D. cesarean response training.

23. Which of the following statements about the use of prepared childbirth is false?

A. It involves delivering babies in dimly lit, isolated rooms.

B. It allows the mother to participate actively in birth.

C. It allows the father to be involved in labor and delivery.

D. It uses breathing and muscular responses to overcome fear and pain.

24. If a pregnant woman learns to use certain breathing techniques and muscle relaxation in response to a "coach," she is using the childbirth method developed by A. Fernand Lamaze.

B. the American Academy of Pediatrics.

C. Benjamin Spock.

D. Jerome Kagan.

25. Jim and Heather are delivering their first child. Jim is coaching Heather in her breathing and encouraging her to practise her relaxation techniques. This is an example of A. a cesarean delivery.

B. using catecholamine to reduce stress on the baby.

C. stillbirth.

D. the Lamaze method.

26. If a woman decides to have her baby at home, the birth may be attended by a A. physician's assistant.

B. nursing assistant.

C. physician.

D. doula.

27. A criticism of the use of anesthesia during childbirth is that it A. does not relieve the mother's discomfort.

B. is too expensive and therefore only available to well-to-do women.

C. may slow infants' motor and physiological development.

D. contributes to the high rate of maternal death during childbirth.

28. Linda is in labor. If she is having a typical birth, which of the following is she most likely to receive to lessen her pain?

A. over-the-counter pain killers B. catecholamine C. a regional epidural D. a general anesthetic 29. A criticism of medicated births is that A. it reduces the pain that is essential to a normal delivery.

B. women who choose medicated births experience a longer recovery period.

C. babies' motor responsiveness and development may be slowed.

D. it leads to a risk of infection in the mother.

30. An experienced helper who provides emotional support to a woman during labor is referred to as a(n) A. maternity nurse.

B. doula.

C. labor facilitator.

D. adjunct.

31. A doula is a A. physician in South America who specializes in delivering babies.

B. nurse certified to assist at births.

C. woman who gives emotional support during childbirth.

D. home-like birth center.

32. Though Elaine has no formal medical training, she has given birth to five children and has exceptionally good interpersonal skills. She would like to receive training that would enable her to help other women emotionally during the birthing process. Which of the following roles should she look into?

A. midwife B. doula C. sherpa D. shaman

33. Which of the following is not necessarily one of the benefits of having a doula present at childbirth?

A. shorter labor B. less anesthesia C. less insurance premiums D. less use of forceps 34. The first four weeks after a baby is born is known as the A. prepartum B. neonatal C. prenatal D. neopartum 35. The neonatal period is the first A. 4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 6 months D. year

period.

of life.

36. A neonatal toxicologist's primary research interest is the first A. week B. month C. 3 months D. 6 months 37. The average newborn weighs A. 5 B. 7½ C. 8½ D. 9

of life.

pounds.

38. In the first few days of life, newborns typically A. have small heads in proportion to their bodies.

B. acquire lanugo.

C. lose weight.

D. appear very dark.

39. Places in the neonate's skull where the bones are not completely fused are called the A. fontanels.

B. vernix.

C. apex.

D. hyaline commissure.

40. When Billy's mother brings his new baby sister home from the hospital, the first thing that he asks her is if he can touch her. His mother says yes, but to be careful not to touch the soft spot on her head. Billy's mother is referring to the A. fontanel.

B. vernix.

C. apex.

D. corpus callosum.

41. Which of the following statements about the first few days of life is false?

A. Newborns intially have very little variance in their complexions.

B. Babies lose as much as 10% of their body weight.

C. The baby's nose is likely to look flattened.

D. The baby's head may be misshapen.

42. Fontanels are present in the neonate's skull A. to allow for rapid postnatal brain expansion.

B. to prevent calcium deposits from damaging cartilage.

C. to ease the passage of the skull through the birth canal.

D. until 6 months of age.

43. When Henna and Thomas first see their new granddaughter, they are surprised to find her body covered with dark hair. This fuzzy coat is called the A. vermis.

B. follicle caseosa.

C. meconium.

D. lanugo.

44. Upon seeing her newborn baby brother, Wanda exclaims, "He looks all oily and shiny!" Wanda has noticed the A. fontanels.

B. lanugo.

C. meconium.

D. vernix caseosa.

45. The oily covering on the skin of a newborn is called the A. witch's milk.

B. lanugo.

C. vernix caseosa.

D. fontanels.

46. Freda loves listening to her neonate daughter's night.

A. slow and steady B. slow and irregular C. fast and irregular D. fast and steady

heartbeat as she nurses her in the quiet of the

47. Most babies begin to breathe A. as soon as they leave the birth canal.

B. about 30 seconds after birth.

C. about 4 minutes after birth.

D. only after a sharp slap on the bottom.

48. The Costellos' baby daughter did not begin to breathe within 5 minutes after birth, and doctors are concerned that she may have suffered brain damage owing to A. hypothermia.

B. anoxia.

C. hyperphagia.

D. oxidation.

49. If breathing has not begun within 5 minutes after birth, the baby is at risk of developing A. PKU (phenylketonuria).

B. neonatal jaundice.

C. sickle-cell anemia.

D. brain damage.

50. The Petris, new parents of a healthy son John, were at first concerned about the newborn's stringy, greenish-black waste called A. physiologic jaundice.

B. meconium.

C. lanugo.

D. vernix caseosa.

51. Waste matter formed in the fetal intestional tract and secreted after birth is called A. meconium.

B. witch's milk.

C. lanugo.

D. vernix.

52. A few days after birth, a baby develops a yellowish tinge to the skin and the eyeballs. These symptoms indicate , which is due to immaturity of the .

A. anoxia; liver B. anoxia; kidneys C. neonatal jaundice; liver D. neonatal jaundice; kidneys 53. Neonatal jaundice is caused by A. incomplete development of the circulatory system.

B. immaturity of the liver.

C. incomplete development of the respiratory system.

D. an inability to regulate body temperature.

54. Anthony was born with neonatal jaundice which A. must be treated quickly with antibiotics.

B. is most common in postmature babies.

C. occurs in about 50% of neonates.

D. usually occurs about 10 to 14 days after birth.

55. The Apgar scale does not measure A. pulse.

B. temperature.

C. respiration.

D. activity.

56. The highest score on the Apgar scale is 10; more than 90% of normal infants receive a score of at least A. 8.

B. 7.

C. 6.

D. 5.

57. A healthy newborn can receive a maximum score of A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4

on the Apgar scale.

58. Which of the following newborns would have the highest Apgar score?

A. Ann who is listless and blue, with limp muscle tone B. Billy who is pink with blue extremities, a slow pulse, and slow breathing C. Carmela, who is coughing and crying, is pink, and has a rapid pulse D. David is blue, with a slow pulse, and irregular breathing 59. The condition of a baby whose Apgar score is 3 is A. very healthy.

B. within normal range.

C. slightly below normal.

D. dangerous; the baby needs immediate resuscitation.

60. The is a test that assesses five aspects of behavior in order to measure a newborn's response to the environment.

A. Apgar scale B. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C. Bayley scale D. PKU screen 61. Often a neonate is assessed using the the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale. It examines A. the oxygen content of the blood.

B. color, pulse, and breathing.

C. responses to the environment, such as alertness, reflexes, and control.

D. neurological maturity.

62. Gannon and his twin brother Garrett have just been evaluated for their responses to stress, ability to calm down, reflexes, hand-mouth coordination, alertness, and response to cuddling. Which test have they been given?

A. Apgar scale B. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C. Denver Development Screening Test D. PKU screen 63. PKU (phenylketonuria) is A. a form of neonatal jaundice.

B. rare and untreatable.

C. routinely screened for in all states.

D. found in about 1 in 100 newborns.

64. If an infant inherits the gene for PKU, and it is left untreated, the result will be A. neonatal jaundice.

B. a hormonal imbalance.

C. neurological damage.

D. mental retardation.

65. Periodic variations in an infant's cycle of wakefulness, sleep, and activity are known as the various of infancy.

A. temperaments B. states of arousal C. periods D. moods 66. Newborn babies sleep an average of A. 10 B. 15 C. 18 D. 20

hours per day.

67. Just moments ago, Anna was lying quietly with her eyes closed and she was breathing regularly. Now her breathing has become more irregular, and some slight muscle twitches are occuring. Anna has passed from a state of to a state of .

A. drowsiness; alert inactivity B. regular sleep; apnea C. regular sleep; irregular sleep D. irregular sleep; drowsiness

68. Cody is one week old. His eyes are open, and he is quietly looking around the room. Cody's state is probably one of A. alert inactivity.

B. active sleep.

C. waking activity.

D. drowsiness.

69. Dan and Diane are exhausted because 4-week-old Jake wakes three to four times each night. What is the most probable explanation for Jake's behavior?

A. He is not eating enough and wakes when he is hungry.

B. He is not getting enough attention from his parents when he is awake.

C. He lacks a sense of security.

D. His sleep pattern is typical of newborn babies.

70. Baby Joey is in the state of active sleep. This state of arousal corresponds most closely to adults.

A. quiet sleep B. drowsiness C. rapid eye movement sleep D. interactive sleep 71. By A. 1 week B. 1 month C. 3 months D. 6 months

in

of age, more than half the baby's sleep takes place at night.

72. Betty was born after a 30-week gestation period. She is called a A. postterm B. preterm C. PKU D. prefunctional

infant.

73. Jaedyn was born five days before her due date. She weighed 5 pounds at birth. Jaedyn is most accurately classified as a infant.

A. normal full-term B. premature C. preterm D. small-for-date 74. Troy was born 38 weeks after conception and weighs 4 1/2 pounds. He is A. premature.

B. preterm.

C. postterm.

D. small-for-date.

75. The most serious risk for low-birth-weight babies is that they may A. be stillborn.

B. die in infancy.

C. be very sick during the first year of life.

D. be severely retarded.

76. Who is most likely to have a low-birth-weight baby?

A. Adele, who is 25, in good health, and has had one normal delivery B. Bianca, who is 40, in generally good health but has high blood pressure, and has had no previous pregnancies C. Carol, who is 17, pregnant for the first time, and in good health D. Dana, who is 37, underweight, smokes, and has had five previous pregnancies

77. The major cause of high infant mortality rates among African Americans is A. higher rates of postmature babies.

B. higher rates of cerebral palsy in newborns.

C. higher rates of low-birth-weight babies.

D. all of the above 78. Dr. Smith informs a mother that her newborn suffers from hyaline membrane disease. The baby is having problems with A. the membranes that cover the fontanels.

B. the control of eye muscles.

C. urination.

D. respiration.

79. A newborn's air sacs keep collapsing, making it very difficult for her to breathe. A likely diagnosis for this infant's problem is A. hyaline membrane disease.

B. respiratory dystrophy.

C. postmaturity syndrome.

D. pulmonary incompetence.

80. Low-birth-weight newborns are usually placed in a warmed crib called a(n) A. warming crib.

B. isolette.

C. heat bed.

D. oxygen tent.

81. Which of the following is most beneficial for a low-birth-weight baby?

A. being placed in isolation to avoid human contact B. being touched and massaged frequently C. being in a simple sensory environment to avoid overstimulation D. being in a cool environment to reduce fluid loss from sweating 82. Which of the following statements about the prognosis for low-birth-weight babies is correct?

A. Those weighing less than 2 pounds have almost no chance of survival past two years.

B. Most survivors are left with disabling conditions.

C. Their social development tends to be poor.

D. Some low-birth-weight babies are at a risk for learning disabilities.

83. A baby is defined as postmature if it A. has had a gestation of less than 30 weeks.

B. weighs over 8 1/2 pounds at birth.

C. is born after 40 weeks of gestation and weighs at least 9 1/2 pounds.

D. is still in the womb 2 weeks past the due date.

84. Christa is now in her 43rd week of pregnancy. Her unborn baby is considered to be A. postmature.

B. preterm.

C. postfetal.

D. postdifferentiated.

85. Postmature babies are at risk for A. brain damage.

B. hyaline membrane disease.

C. respiratory distress syndrome.

D. high volume of amniotic fluid, which puts pressure on the brain.

86. Postmature babies tend to be A. very plump, because they have had a longer time to receive nourishment in the womb.

B. long and thin, because their food supply has been insufficient at the end of gestation.

C. at a much lower risk of brain damage than babies delivered on time, because the brain has had a longer time to mature.

D. kept in isolettes after delivery.

87. Which of the following statements about postmature babies is false?

A. They tend to have more fat owing to a longer period in the womb.

B. They are at a higher risk for brain damage.

C. The placenta provides a reduced blood supply during the later stages of gestation.

D. They tend to be longer than babies who are delivered on time.

88. Which of the following is NOT considered a protective factor to help reduce potentially negative influences of early life stressors?

A. individual attributes B. socio-economic status C. affectionate ties with one or more family members D. rewards for accomplishments in school, work, or home 89. An ongoing longitudinal study in Kauai suggests that the effects of low birth weight, birth injuries, and other birth complications can be counteracted by A. a favorable home environment.

B. drug therapy.

C. large doses of mega-vitamins.

D. surgical intervention.

90. A longitudinal study of children in Kauai found that difficult births, illness at the time of birth, and low birth weight A. had much less effect than children's environment on their development.

B.resulted in serious adverse effects—physical, cognitive, and emotional—on most of the children in the study, even into adulthood.

C. had no long-lasting physical effects but were strongly correlated with poor grades and emotional problems during childhood.

D. were not correlated with cognitive or emotional problems during childhood but almost always left permanent physical damage.

91. According to the Kauai longitudinal study, which of the following factors seems to protect some individuals from the harmful effects of birth complications?

A. a sense of personal control over one's life B. close ties to a family member C. a high inborn level of sociability D. all of the above 92. Which of the following statements about the father's presence during childbirth is correct?

A. Most fathers are not interested in being present.

B. The father's attachment to his children seems to depend on it.

C. Evidence suggests that it will make a man a better father.

D. Fathers who are present at the birth of a child often see the event as a "peak emotional experience."

93. According to the most recent research cited in the text, a strong mother-infant bond can develop A. only during the first few hours after birth.

B. through a process that appears similar to imprinting.

C. most effectively when a midwife and doula are present at birth.

D. even if the newborn and mother do not have contact during the first few hours after birth.

94. Patterns of parent-infant interaction may be based on A. culture.

B. environment.

C. society.

D. genetics.

95. Describe the changes that have occurred in childbirth practices during the twentieth century. How do these practices differ from those of previous centuries?

96. Lorraine and Michael are about to have their first child. If you were their birthing coach, what signs would you tell them to look for as they near the time of delivery? Describe the signs of the onset of labor and, after listing each stage of labor, describe what they should expect at each stage.

97. Long before her due date, doctors can often anticipate problems that a pregnant woman might have.

Thus they might inform her that she should deliver by cesarean section. In other cases, doctors make the decision about a cesarean delivery as the labor progresses. Explain the differences between a vaginal delivery and a cesarean delivery. Also explain why a doctor may recommend one procedure over the other.

98. Women today can select one of several alternative childbirth methods and settings. List and describe some of the options that women may consider. Be sure to include the terms midwife and doula.

99. Hospital personnel and new parents should know certain terms so that childbirth events are understandable to everyone. Explain each of the following terms: neonate; fontanels; lanugo; anoxia; and, neonatal jaundice.

100.The Apgar scale assesses newborns. Describe this assessment scale, and explain how it is used. What do each of the letters stand for?

101.While most babies are born without complications, some childbirth complications can endanger mothers and their newborn babies. Explain some of these complications, and describe what can be done to minimize the risk of complications.

102.Ken and Kristie have a low-birth-weight baby. What babies are included in this category? What factors contribute to low birth weight?

103.Describe Harry and Margaret Harlow's experiment with rhesus monkeys. What do you think these researchers might have hypothesized about mother-infant bonding prior to conducting their research?

What were the methods and results of this research? What does this study suggest about early bonding between infants and their mothers?

104.List some parental behaviors that can maximize parent/child bonding.

Chapter 05 Key 1. (p. 108) D 2. (p. 109) C 3. (p. 109) D 4. (p. 110) C 5. (p. 111) D 6. (p. 111) A 7. (p. 111) A 8. (p. 111) B 9. (p. 111) B 10. (p. 111) B 11. (p. 111) C 12. (p. 111) D 13. (p. 112) A 14. (p. 112) C 15. (p. 112) C 16. (p. 112) C 17. (p. 112) C 18. (p. 112) B 19. (p. 112) B 20. (p. 112) C 21. (p. 112) B 22. (p. 112) A 23. (p. 113) A 24. (p. 112) A 25. (p. 112) D 26. (p. 113) D 27. (p. 113) C 28. (p. 113) C 29. (p. 113) C 30. (p. 113) B 31. (p. 113) C 32. (p. 113) B 33. (p. 113) C 34. (p. 114) B 35. (p. 114) A 36. (p. 114) B

37. (p. 114) B 38. (p. 114) C 39. (p. 115) A 40. (p. 115) A 41. (p. 120, 122) A 42. (p. 115) C 43. (p. 116) D 44. (p. 116) D 45. (p. 122) C 46. (p. 117) C 47. (p. 116) A 48. (p. 116) B 49. (p. 116) D 50. (p. 117) B 51. (p. 117) A 52. (p. 118) C 53. (p. 118) B 54. (p. 118) C 55. (p. 117) B 56. (p. 117) B 57. (p. 117) A 58. (p. 117) C 59. (p. 117) D 60. (p. 117) B 61. (p. 118) C 62. (p. 118) B 63. (p. 118) C 64. (p. 118) D 65. (p. 125-126) B 66. (p. 119) C 67. (p. 119) C 68. (p. 119) A 69. (p. 119) D 70. (p. 126) C 71. (p. 119) D 72. (p. 121) B 73. (p. 121) D 74. (p. 121) D

75. (p. 121) B 76. (p. 121) D 77. (p. 122-123) C 78. (p. 123) D 79. (p. 123) A 80. (p. 123) B 81. (p. 123) B 82. (p. 123) D 83. (p. 125-126) D 84. (p. 125-126) A 85. (p. 125-126) A 86. (p. 126) B 87. (p. 126) A 88. (p. 126) B 89. (p. 126) A 90. (p. 126) A 91. (p. 126) D 92. (p. 127) D 93. (p. 127) D 94. (p. 127-128) A 95. Answer will vary 96. Answer will vary 97. Answer will vary 98. Answer will vary 99. Answer will vary 100. Answer will vary 101. Answer will vary 102. Answer will vary 103. Answer will vary 104. Answer will vary

Chapter 05 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: How do customs that surround birth reflect culture, and how has childbirth changed in developed countries?

4 Guidepost: How do newborn infants adjust to life outside the womb and how can we tell whether a new baby is healthy and is deve 40 loping normally?

Guidepost: How do parents bond with and care for their baby?

Guidepost: How does labor begin, and what happens during each of the three stages of childbirth and what alternative methods of d elivery are available?

Guidepost: What complications of childbirth can endanger newborn babies, and what are the longterm prospects for infants with complicated births?

Papalia - Chapter 05 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

5 33 22 104 10 28 56

Chapter 06 Student:

1.

Children's most rapid physical growth takes place during the A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

year of life.

2.

As Ralph and Loretta watch their daughter walk to the stage to pick up her high school diploma, Loretta remarks, "I can't believe how quickly she grew up. It seems like it all went by in a flash." Ralph, who has been reading about physical development, corrects his wife by telling her, "technically, her most rapid physical growth took place during her year."

A. first B. third C. sixth D. ninth

3.

A child's rate of growth is most rapid during A. infancy.

B. early childhood.

C. late childhood.

D. adolescence.

4.

Paula and Jason are so excited about the arrival of their first child that they are keeping a daily journal to record the events of Pavel's first year. They have noted that Pavel's growth closely matches the expected growth guidelines, which state that babies typically double their birth weight at of age and triple it at .

A. 3 months; 9 months B. 5 months; 12 months C. 7 months; 21 months D. 1 year; 2 years

5.

At the end of the average child's first year, his/her weight has A. increased by 25% B. doubled C. tripled D. quadrupled

6.

Mothers can expect their babies' first tooth to erupt A. during the third month.

B. between 5 and 9 months.

C. during the fourth month.

D. after the tenth month.

7.

Samantha is chubby, pot-bellied, and has a large head relative to her body size. She is approximately year(s) old.

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

since birth.

8.

According to the cephalocaudal principle, A. upper body parts develop before lower parts.

B. lower body parts develop before upper parts.

C. upper and lower body parts develop simultaneously.

D. the order of development depends on environmental influences.

9.

The principle states that development proceeds from the central part of the body to the outer parts.

A. centrifugal B. cephalocaudal C. neurological D. proximodistal

10. Kevin can accurately reach for a toy bat and grasp it in his hands, although he cannot yet stand on his feet. Only when he is older will he be able to control his legs well enough to stand. This pattern of development illustrates the principle.

A. proximodistal B. cephalocaudal C. centrifugal D. longitudinal 11. Arnold first learns to hold up his head, then to raise his shoulders, and then to push with his feet. This sequence demonstrates which principle of development?

A. proximodistal B. simple-to-complex C. maturational D. cephalocaudal 12. Why are babies' heads so large in proportion to their body size?

A. The head widens the birth canal so the rest of the body can pass easily.

B. The baby's brain and head are more developed than are other parts of the body.

C. The brain is surrounded by a large volume of fluid that gradually subsides after birth.

D. The head has excess fat at birth to protect it during passage through the birth canal.

13. A baby's brain during the first year reaches A. 25 B. 50 C. 70 D. 80

% of the weight of an adult's brain.

14. Babies first wave their arms, then move their hands towards objects, and finally use their fingers. This sequence exemplifies which principle of development?

A. general-to-specific B. cephalocaudal C. proximodistal D. central-to-peripheral 15. Luci can control her shoulder muscles well enough to move her arms in the general direction of a toy, but she has trouble using her hands to grasp it. When she is older, she will be able to control her hands and grasp the toy. This sequence of development illustrates the principle.

A. proximodistal B. cephalocaudal C. Piagetian D. information-processing

16. Which of the following statements about obesity is NOT true?

A. The age of an overweight child is a good indicator for obesity in adulthood.

B. Obesity in infancy is decreasing in the United States.

C. An overweight child with at least one obese parent is more likely to become obese later in life.

D. Infants in the United States eat an average of 20% above normal daily food intake requirements.

17. Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is correct?

A. Breast milk is the only food most babies need until they are 8 to 10 months of age.

B. In the United States, about 70% of new mothers breastfeed their infants.

C. In the United States, the proportion of new mothers who breastfeed their infants has declined in recent years.

D. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop problems with their teeth and jaws than bottle-fed babies.

18. Breast milk is almost always the best food for newborns and is recommended for at least the first months.

A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 19. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants be given A. cow's milk at 4 months of age.

B. skim milk rather than whole milk, to prevent obesity.

C. breast milk exclusively for six months.

D. strained baby food at 2 months of age to help them sleep through the night.

20. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants receive breast milk or formula rather than cow's milk until they are over months old.

A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18 21. Research has suggested that breast-feeding A. has benefits for visual acuity.

B. helps to prevent obesity.

C. affects long-term cardiovascular development.

D. all of the above 22. Both Yvonne's pediatrician and her mother have been trying to encourage her to breast-feed Andrew for the first few months of infancy. They have pointed out that the advantages of breast-feeding over bottlefeeding include all of the following except A. economy.

B. greater digestibility.

C. greater ability to monitor the amount of feeding.

D. smaller likelihood of allergic reactions.

23. All of the following illnesses are prevented or minimized by breast-feeding except A. diarrhea.

B. pneumonia.

C. bacterial infections.

D. measles.

24. Which of the following women would be advised NOT to breast-feed?

A. Carol, who is overweight B. Ellen, who drinks 3 cups of coffee per day C. Cindy, who has a three-week maternity leave and then must return to work D. Alison, who has AIDS

25. Pediatric experts recommend solid foods like cereal when the baby is A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 26. The brain and the spinal cord are both part of the A. autonomic B. peripheral C. primary D. central

months old.

nervous system.

27. Together, the brain and the spinal cord comprise the A. central nervous system.

B. peripheral nervous system.

C. neuroleptic circuit.

D. neurogenetic matrix.

28. Periods of rapid brain growth and development are called A. cognitive bursts.

B. neurological regressions.

C. brain growth spurts.

D. cognitive regressions.

29. Which of the following brain structures has its major growth period before birth and is responsible for basic bodily functions such as breathing and heart rate?

A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. frontal lobes 30. Scientists have concluded that the cerebellum grows most rapidly A. during gestation and the first few months of life.

B. between 3 and 5 years of age.

C. during middle childhood.

D. during late childhood.

31. Which brain region grows the most during the first year of life?

A. cerebellum B. brain stem C. spinal cord D. cerebrum 32. Which region of the brain is the largest and is divided into two halves or hemispheres?

A. cerebellum B. brain stem C. spinal cord D. cerebrum 33. Which of the following is a primary function of the left hemisphere of the brain?

A. visual and spatial functions B. language and logical thinking C. motor skills and locomotion D. vision and hearing

34. The tendency for the brain's hemispheres to have specialized functions is called A. compartmentalization.

B. specialization.

C. lateralization.

D. hemisphere functionality.

35. The function of the corpus callosum is to A. join the two hemispheres of the brain together.

B. control breathing in newborns.

C. maintain balance and motor coordination.

D. maintain body temperature in infants.

36. The cerebral cortex is responsible for A. vision.

B. hearing.

C. sensory information.

D. all of the above.

37. Which of the following statements regarding the cerebral cortex is false?

A. The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the cerebrum.

B. The parts of the cerebral cortex that govern vision and hearing are mature by 6 months of age.

C. The parts of the cerebral cortex that are responsible for mental associations and memory are mature by 6 months of age.

D The parts of the cerebral cortex that are responsible for producing deliberate motor responses remain . immature for several years after birth.

38. The process of coating neurons with a substance to enable faster communication is called A. integration.

B. differentiation.

C. neuron lubrication.

D. myelination.

39. The two main kinds of brain cells are A. white and gray cells.

B. neurons and protoneurons.

C. neurons and glial cells.

D. positive and negative cells.

40.

cells form the "glue" of the brain; they nourish and protect the neurons.

A. Glial B. Nerve C. Synaptic D. Axonometric

41.

are cells in the brain that send and receive information.

A. Axons B. Dendrites C. Nuerons D. Accessory cells

42. Which statement about the brain's development is false?

A. Approximately 250,000 brain cells form every minute prenatally, beginning in the second month of gestation.

B. At birth, about half of the 100 billion nerve cells that are present in a mature brain are already formed.

C. At birth, the brain is only 25% of its adult weight.

D. The brain reaches about 90% of its adult weight by the end of the second year.

43. The tiny gaps that are the communication links in the nervous system are called A. axons.

B. neurons.

C. dendrites.

D. synapses.

44.

bridge the gaps between synapses.

A. Axons B. Dendrites C. Neurotransmitters D. Neurons

45.

describes the process by which neurons coordinate the activities of muscle groups.

A. Integration B. Differentiation C. Consolidation D. Diversification

46. During brain development, a process called structure and function.

A. integration B. differentiation C. consolidation D. diversification

occurs. It allows neurons to acquire specialized

47. Which of the following statements regarding cell death is false?

A. Unused neurons die out.

B. The process of cell death begins during the prenatal period and continues after birth.

C. Cell death helps to create an efficient nervous system.

D. Cell death begins during middle childhood.

48. An automatic, involuntarily reaction to stimulation is a(n) A. unconditioned response.

B. reflex.

C. neutral response.

D. conditioned response.

49. Involuntary, automatic, innate responses to stimuli are called A. automatic B. reflex C. learned D. response

behaviors.

50. Although many of an infant's reflexes drop out during the first year, three reflexes that remain are the reflexes.

A. blinking, gagging, and sneezing B. swimming, blinking, and Moro C. grasping, rooting, and Babinski D. walking, swimming, and placing 51. Reflex behaviors that gradually disappear during the early months of infancy are called reflexes.

A. response B. primitive C. motor D. neurological

52. By examining an infant's reflex behaviors, we can assess A. neurological development.

B. intelligence.

C. handedness.

D. growth rate.

53.

is a term that explains how humans who grow up in a high-quality environment generally thrive better than those who grow up in deprived environments.

A. Flexibility B. Malleability C. Neurological sensitivity D. Plasticity

54. Based on experiments done with animals, which of the following statements about environmental influences on brain development is correct?

A. Early experiences can result in actual physical changes in brain functioning.

B. Early experiences can affect cognitive and social functioning but cannot bring about actual physical changes.

C. Early experiences have been shown to have little or no effect on brain development.

D. Early experiences are less influential than later experiences.

55. A generalization about brain development that has emerged from animal research is that plasticity A. is evident only during the first trimester of gestation.

B. is evident only during the period immediately after birth.

C. is greater in female brains than in male brains.

D. may be evident throughout life.

56. Which of the following was NOT an observation made about the children discovered in Romanian orphanages?

A. Many of the children were passive and emotionless.

B. Most 2- and 3-year-olds did not talk C. PET scans showed regular brain activity/development but little socialization.

D. Many of the children did not walk.

57. Toy manufacturers know that during the early years of life, a child's brain can be "molded" by experience.

This capacity, known as , encourages companies to develop new and more enriching types of toys.

A. plasticity B. programmability C. functionality D. flexibility 58. The first sense to develop is the sense of A. smell.

B. touch.

C. sight.

D. hearing.

59. The most mature sensory system is A. taste.

B. smell.

C. touch.

D. sight.

60. Jenna's doctor recommends that her newborn son receive lots of sensory stimulation. The doctor tells her to stimulate the sense that is the most developed. Which of the following techniques should Jenna use?

A. play classical music softly B. rub the infant's back C. turn the lights on and off D. show the infant complex pictures 61. The American Academy of Pediatrics now maintains that anesthesia is circumcision.

A. preferred B. essential C. not required D. ineffective 62. Newborns have an innate preference for A. bitter B. sour C. sweet D. salty

during

tastes.

63. Which of the following tastes would a newborn most likely prefer?

A. water B. a sugar solution C. unsweetened lemonade D. a salty solution 64. A study of infants' hearing suggests that infants identify new speech sounds from those they've heard before A. as early as 3 days after birth.

B. at about 2 weeks after birth.

C. at about 4 weeks after birth.

D. only when they are hungry.

65. A baby's visual powers during the first two months of life include all of the following except A. blinking at bright lights.

B. 20/20 visual acuity.

C. focusing on the mother's face.

D. rapidly developing peripheral vision.

66. Vision becomes more acute during the first year, reaching the 20/20 level by about the month.

A. second B. fourth C. sixth D. eighth 67. Binocular vision usually does not develop until A. 2 or 3 B. 4 or 5 C. 6 or 7 D. 8 or 9

months of age.

68. The Denver Developmental Screening Test assesses all the following except A. gross motor development.

B. social skills.

C. temperament.

D. language skills.

69. When interpreting the Denver Developmental Screening Test, "average" refers to skills exhibited by % of all children at a given age.

A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 90 70. Physical skills that involve the large muscles are called involve the small muscles and eye-hand coordination are called A. gross; fine B. large; gross C. fine; large D. fine; gross

motor skills, and physical skills that motor skills.

71. To observe the development of a child's fine motor skills, a psychologist asks the child to A. draw with a crayon.

B. read a children's book.

C. throw a baseball.

D. kick a football.

72. Increasingly complex combinations of skills, which permit a wider or more precise range of movement and more control of the environment, are called A. cephalocaudal skills.

B. systems of action.

C. proximodistal skills.

D. centrifugal movements.

73. Motor development in infancy follows which principle?

A. cephalocaudal B. proximodistal C. simple-to-complex D. all of the above 74. During development, which muscles would a baby first gain voluntary control over?

A. muscles in the neck B. muscles in the arms and hands C. muscles in the lower back D. muscles in the legs and feet 75. Which of the following motor skills is present at birth?

A. the ability to lift the head while lying on the stomach B. the ability to hold the head erect while being held C. the ability to grasp with the thumb and index finger D. the ability to roll over purposefully 76. Barbara is delighted that her 4-month-old son Matt is developing normally. He is now able to A. roll over.

B. sit unsupported.

C. pick up small objects.

D. stand while holding on.

77. At about months, Bobby could assume a sitting position and remain in that position without help while a photographer took his picture.

A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10

78. Babies begin using a variety of forms of locomotion (wriggling, scooting, walking, crawling) at about the age of months.

A. between 3 and 5 B. between 6 and 10 C. 9 D. 11 months and beyond 79. Tina has just begun to walk regularly and steadily without assistance. If Tina is an "average" child, she is approximately months old.

A. 8 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24 80. Which of the following milestones of motor development seems to have the most profound implications for a baby's physical, intellectual, and emotional development?

A. ability to hold the head erect B. sitting without support C. the emergence of self-locomotion D. development of the precision grip 81. Piaget suggested that reaching depended on , the use of the eyes to guide the movement of the hands. However, research now suggests that infants can use other sensory cues.

A. binocular coordination B. haptic perception C. motor control D. visual guidance 82. The visual cliff is a device for testing infants' A. peripheral vision.

B. depth perception.

C. visual preferences.

D. all of the above 83. Which of the following is necessary for proper depth perception?

A. binocular coordination B. both eyes working together C. motor control D. all of the above 84. When toy designers develop toys for infants, it is helpful for them to be aware that haptic perception is A. an accidental process that leads to learning.

B. the ability to accurately see items that are far away.

C. the ability to accurately see items that are in close proximity.

D. the ability to acquire information by handling objects rather than by just looking at them.

85. According to the Gibsons' ecological theory of perception, A. sensory activity and motor activity are more or less coordinated from birth.

B. sensory activity and motor activity are independent of each other, and operant conditioning links them.

C. affordances are not used until the child reaches adolescence.

D. affordances are not linked to sensory activity.

86. Which of the following statements best describes the role of culture in an infants' motor development?

A. Motor development is genetically programmed, and culture has no effect.

B Researchers have found no instances in which culture affects motor development, although they have . not ruled out the possibility of cultural influences.

C.Although motor development is largely predetermined, cultural norms and specific child-rearing practices can have some effect.

D. Culture has a major influence on motor development.

87. The infant mortality rate is defined as the proportion of babies who die A. at birth.

B. within the first year of life.

C. during toddlerhood.

D. during the first 3 years of life.

88. A major factor in infant mortality that can cause long-term physical or cognitive problems and is largely preventable is A. birth trauma.

B. anoxia.

C. low birth-weight.

D. post-mature birth.

89.

is the leading cause of neonatal death worldwide with 86% of all neonatal deaths occurring as a result of A. respiratory distress.

B. cancer.

C. automobile accidents.

D. Severe infections.

90. Which of the following is NOT one of the major causes of infant mortality?

A. birth defects B. low-birth-weight C. sudden infant death syndrome D. birth trauma 91. Which of the following groups is least likely to have babies that die in infancy?

A. African Americans B. Hispanics C. American Indians D. Asian Americans 92. Certain behavioral factors can help account for racial and ethnic disparities in infant mortality rates.

Which of the following is NOT a factor?

A. mother's obesity during pregnancy B. smoking C. alcohol consumption D. neuroticism 93. The infant mortality rate for African-American babies in the United States is white babies.

A. about the same B. about 2.5 times as high C. about four times as high D. increasing twice as fast

as the rate for

94. If a normal, healthy infant dies in his sleep, he most likely suffered from A. sudden infant death syndrome.

B. respiratory distress syndrome.

C. hyaline membrane disease.

D. trauma.

95. The leading cause of death in infants aged 1 month to 1 year in the United States is A. accidents related to infant walkers.

B. sudden infant death syndrome.

C. neglect.

D. car accidents.

96. Which of the following children is at the greatest risk of SIDS? A. Alexander, who is 10 months old and has frequent colds and other respiratory ailments B. Barry, who is 2 weeks old and has irregular sleep patterns and an overweight mother C. Curt, who is 3 months old and has a teenage unmarried mother who smokes D. Samantha, who is 6 months old and had a difficult birth 97. Which of the following groups has the highest risk of dying from SIDS? A. babies of average birth weights B. babies weighing more than 9 pounds at birth C. black babies of low birth weight D. white babies of low birth weight 98. Dr. Lewis is giving young parents advice on how they can reduce the likelihood of SIDS. What is she likely telling them?

A. Babies should be encouraged to sleep on their backs.

B. Do not give babies solid food until they are 12 months of age.

C. Do not feed babies just before sleep.

D. Use very soft bedding in the crib.

99. Unintentional injuries are the A. third B. fourth C. fifth D. sixth

leading cause of infant death in the United States.

100.Which of the following statements regarding immunizations and young children is false?

A Since 1993, the number of cases of mumps, measles, rubella, and pertussis in the United States has . been in a general downward trend.

B. Today's children routinely receive eleven vaccines by the time they are 2 years old.

C. Immunization rates are lower among minority groups and poor families.

D. Socioeconomic status affects the likelihood parents will immunize their child.

101.An estimated A. 1/3 B. half C. 2/3 D. 9/10

of adults who were maltreated during childhood will victimize their own children.

102.When authorities remove a child from his/her home, the usual alternative placement is A. foster care.

B. with neighbors.

C. with relatives.

D. a group home.

103.Explain how genetics and the environment interact to influence the physical development of an infant.

104.What patterns of growth take place during the first three years of life? Provide examples of factors that can affect this growth.

105.Describe how infant health and survival has improved throughout history due to changes in feeding practices.

106.Pediatricians encourage new mothers to consider breast-feeding their babies. Explain the physiological and the psychological advantages of breast-feeding.

107.Technological advances have allowed researchers to observe brain activity in infants at the cell level.

Describe how the development of neurological synaptic networks and cell death contribute to the optimization of development.

108.The discovery of thousands of infants and children who spent virtually their whole lives in Romanian orphanages has offered us the opportunity to study the effects of deprivation on children. What observations were made about these children? What happened to the children who were adopted from the Romanian orphanages?

109.List the senses that are the most and least functional at birth, and describe how these senses continue to develop during infancy and toddlerhood.

110.Describe some of the early milestones in motor development and factors that can influence that development.

111.Explain how the development of self-locomotion affects cognitive, psychosocial, and physical attributes.

112.What is SIDS, and what can be done to minimize its occurrence?

113.Describe each of the following forms of childhood maltreatment: physical abuse; neglect; sexual abuse; and, emotional maltreatment. What are some possible long-term effects of maltreatment? What are some of the systems for helping families suspected of maltreating children?

Chapter 06 Key 1. (p. 136) A 2. (p. 136) A 3. (p. 136) A 4. (p. 137) B 5. (p. 137) C 6. (p. 137) B 7. (p. 137) A 8. (p. 136) A 9. (p. 136) D 10. (p. 136-137) B 11. (p. 136-137) D 12. (p. 136) B 13. (p. 136) C 14. (p. 136-137) C 15. (p. 136-137) A 16. (p. 139-140) B 17. (p. 138-139) B 18. (p. 137-138) D 19. (p. 138-139) C 20. (p. 138) C 21. (p. 138) D 22. (p. 138) C 23. (p. 138) D 24. (p. 138) D 25. (p. 139-140) B 26. (p. 140) D 27. (p. 140) A 28. (p. 140) C 29. (p. 141) A 30. (p. 141) A 31. (p. 141) A 32. (p. 142) D 33. (p. 142) B 34. (p. 142) C 35. (p. 142) A 36. (p. 143) D

37. (p. 142) C 38. (p. 142) D 39. (p. 142) C 40. (p. 151) A 41. (p. 142) C 42. (p. 143) B 43. (p. 143) D 44. (p. 143) C 45. (p. 145) A 46. (p. 145) B 47. (p. 145) D 48. (p. 146-147) B 49. (p. 146-147) B 50. (p. 147) A 51. (p. 147) B 52. (p. 147) A 53. (p. 147) D 54. (p. 147) A 55. (p. 149) D 56. (p. 149) C 57. (p. 149) A 58. (p. 150) B 59. (p. 150) C 60. (p. 150) B 61. (p. 150) B 62. (p. 150) C 63. (p. 150) B 64. (p. 151) A 65. (p. 151) B 66. (p. 151) D 67. (p. 152) B 68. (p. 152) C 69. (p. 152) B 70. (p. 152) A 71. (p. 152) A 72. (p. 151) B 73. (p. 151) D 74. (p. 151) A

75. (p. 152-153) A 76. (p. 152) A 77. (p. 153) C 78. (p. 153) B 79. (p. 153) B 80. (p. 161) C 81. (p. 153) D 82. (p. 154) B 83. (p. 154) D 84. (p. 154) D 85. (p. 154) A 86. (p. 154-155) C 87. (p. 157) B 88. (p. 157) C 89. (p. 156) D 90. (p. 158) D 91. (p. 158) D 92. (p. 158-160) D 93. (p. 157-158) B 94. (p. 158-160) A 95. (p. 158-160) B 96. (p. 158-160) C 97. (p. 158-160) C 98. (p. 159-160) A 99. (p. 168) D 100. (p. 168-169) D 101. (p. 170) A 102. (p. 163) A 103. Answer will vary 104. Answer will vary 105. Answer will vary 106. Answer will vary 107. Answer will vary 108. Answer will vary 109. Answer will vary 110. Answer will vary 111. Answer will vary 112. Answer will vary

113. Answer will vary

Chapter 06 Summary Category Guidepost: How and what should babies be fed?

Guidepost: How can we enhance babies chances of survival and health?

Guidepost: How do the senses develop during infancy?

Guidepost: How does the brain develop, and how do environmental factors affect its early growth?

Guidepost: What are some early milestones in motor development, and what are some influences on it?

Guidepost: What are the causes and consequences of child abuse and neglect, and what can be done about them Guidepost: What principles govern early growth and physical development?

Papalia - Chapter 06 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 12 15 13 33 21 3 16 113 2 27 73

Chapter 07 Student:

1.

The approach to cognitive development attempts to measure intelligence quantitatively.

A. psychometric B. Piagetian C. information-processing D. behavorist

2.

Researchers use the approach to cognitive development when they focus on the quality of cognitive functioning at different stages of life.

A. psychometric B. Piagetian C. information-processing D. behaviorist

3.

Lucas is trying to find a graduate placement where he can study the basic mechanics of learning, especially how behavior changes in response to experience. He is looking for a program that would support the approach.

A. Piagetian B. behaviorist C. psychometric D. dialectical

4.

Fred is involved in a heated argument with Gene. Gene believes that the stages of a child's cognitive development are worthy of study. Fred sarcastically comments that this field of study is nothing more than speculation about the mind and that all that really matters is what you observe individuals doing.

It appears that while Gene is taking a approach, Fred is a proponent of the approach.

A. behaviorist; psychometric B. Piagetian; behaviorist C. psychometric; Piagetian D. Piagetian; information-processing

5.

Alfred has a mathematics background and believes strongly in quantitative measures of variables. Jeanne insists that many important developmental outcomes are more qualitative than numerical. It would appear that Alfred supports the approach to studying cognitive development, whereas Jeanne believes in the approach.

A. Piagetian; psychometric B. psychometric; Piagetian C. behaviorist; psychometric D. Piagetian; behaviorist

6.

The approach to cognitive development focuses on perception, learning, memory, and problem solving.

A. information-processing B. behavorist C. neuroscience D. social-contextual

7.

The approach to cognitive development examines the impact of the environment on learning processes.

A. information-processing B. psychometric C. neuroscience D. social-contextual

8.

Learning is a result of A. experience.

B. ability.

C. maturation.

D. all of the above

9.

In classical conditioning, the subject exhibits a(n) stimuli.

A. automatic; neutral B. voluntary; neutral C. automatic; biological D. programmed; biological

response to what at one time was a

10. Two-year-old Monica was playing with a balloon when it popped in her face and frightened her. Now when she sees a balloon, she starts to cry. This type of learning is called A. habituation.

B. operant conditioning.

C. classical conditioning.

D. latent learning.

11. Two-year-old Rhonda received an injection from a doctor who had a beard and wore glasses. Now she fears any man who has a beard and wears glasses. Rhonda's fear is a result of A. operant conditioning.

B. classical conditioning.

C. maturation.

D. habituation.

12. Juan had a difficult childhood. His parents drank a great deal and were abusive. One experience he always enjoyed was Sunday outings with his grandparents. Juan rarely felt happier than when he got into his grandparents' car and pulled away from his house. At the time, his grandmother loved to listen to one particular singer on the radio. Although this all happened more than twenty years ago, whenever Juan hears a song by that musician, he gets a warm feeling as he is reminded of those Sundays. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?

A. classical conditioning B. habituation C. operant conditioning D. maturation 13. Amy knows that when she runs over and stands quietly by her grandfather's chair, he will reach over and tickle her under her chin. When a child learns to behave in a specific way to obtain a specific result, what is occurring?

A. habituation B. classical conditioning C. operant conditioning D. social learning 14. In operant conditioning A. the learner acts on the environment.

B. the learner is passive.

C. the learner does not respond to a stimulus.

D. parents scaffolding is an important learning feature.

15. Linda has learned that if she sits on the floor and cries, sooner or later an adult will give her a piece of candy. This is an example of A. habituation.

B. classical conditioning.

C. operant conditioning.

D. social learning.

16. Whenever 1-year-old Greg says "Da-Da," his father comes over and picks him up. Soon, Greg is saying "Da-Da" constantly. This example illustrates , and Greg being picked up serves as the .

A. classical conditioning; conditioned stimulus B. habituation; reinforcer C. classical conditioning; unconditioned response D. operant conditioning; desired effect 17. Infants can remember information best when A. they are in a relaxed state, such as just before falling asleep.

B. memory retrieval occurs in the same context as memory storage.

C. the mother is present during the storage of the memory.

D. food is used to reinforce learning.

18. Developmental scientists have proposed several explanations for why most people cannot remember anything that happened to them before about 2 years of age. Which of the following has not been suggested as a theory proposing to explain this phenomenon?

A. Early events are not retained because the brain is not developed enough to store those memories.

B. Early memories are stored but then repressed because they are emotionally troubling.

C. Children cannot store memories until they have words to talk about them.

D. The introduction of television too early prevents retention of memories until after two years old.

19. The intelligence test developed in the early 1900s by for use with schoolchildren is generally recognized as the beginning of intelligence testing as we know it.

A. Nancy Bayley B. Alfred Binet C. Jean Piaget D. J. B. Watson 20. The psychometric study of intelligence involves all the following except A. identifying the different abilities that make up intelligence.

B. measuring the relative amounts of different intellectual abilities that individuals possess.

C. predicting the future academic performance of individuals.

D. assessing qualitative differences in intellectual functioning over the life span.

21. Which is generally accepted to be true of IQ testing today?

A. the test consists of questions or tasks designed to show how much of the measured ability a person has B. the test is normative in its approach C. the precise nature of intelligence has been debated for many years D. all of the above 22. Dr. Wilson is using a standardized test to determine the reasoning and comprehension abilities of 4-yearolds compared to other test takers. Dr. Wilson is measuring the children's A. qualitative intelligence.

B. intelligence quotient.

C. literacy stage.

D. scheme level.

23. Dr. Leon, a college professor, is explaining to students why it is difficult to assess the intelligence of infants. Which key reason should he include in his lecture?

A. All infants seem to show the same level of ability.

B. If infants fail to give the "expected" response, the reasons for the "failed" response may be unclear.

C. Intelligence does not develop until after infancy.

D. There are no tests that will reveal an infant's intelligence.

24. For children between the ages of 1 month and 3 1/2 years, the Bayley Scales of Infant Development produces a(n) A. IQ score.

B. report of mental, motor, and behavioral development.

C. developmental assessment that correlates with adult abilities.

D. measure of reflex development.

25. The Mortons' pediatrician has asked them to have their son Donny assessed by a development psychologist using the Bayley Scales of Infant Development. Which of the following descriptions would likely fit Donny?

A. a 4 month old who seems to be very shy B. a 2-year-old who has not yet spoken any words C. a 3-year-old who developed language at an early age D. a newborn who suffered anoxia during delivery 26. Which is not a developmental area assessed by the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development?

A. language development B. cognitive development C. logic skills development D. motor skills development 27. Developmental Quotients (DQs) are most useful when used to describe which of the following?

A. neurological deficits B. learning problems C. emotional disturbances D. all of the above 28. Social workers are sometimes trained to administer the HOME, which assesses the effect of a child's home environment on A. physical development.

B. emotional health.

C. intellectual development.

D. future career success.

29. HOME is an instrument for evaluating the effect of a child's home environment on A. physical development.

B. emotional health.

C. cognitive development.

D. future career success.

30. Based on research using the HOME measure, which of the following has the greatest influence on children's cognitive development?

A. socioeconomic status B. ethnic group C. developmental problems in infancy D. parental responsiveness

31. HOME examiners rate parents on which of the following?

A. expressions of affection B. number of books in the home C. parents' involvement in children's play D. all of the above 32.

is a systematic process of providing therapeutic and educational services to families that need help in meeting young children's developmental needs.

A. Cognitive advancement B. Infant support C. Early intervention D. Developmental priming

33. The most effective early education interventions include those that A. start and continue throughout preschool.

B. are highly time-intensive.

C. are tailored to individual differences and needs.

D. all of the above 34. Dr. Kelly examines how children think and how their cognition changes in stages as they move from preschool to adolescence. She is using the approach.

A. behaviorist B. Piagetian C. psychometric D. information-processing 35.

The Piagetian approach focuses on A. qualitative changes in cognition.

B. quantitative differences in intelligence.

C. establishing norms for intelligence tests.

D. the relationship of brain development to sensorimotor function.

36. Kaitlyn spends her day discovering the world by putting almost everything she touches in her mouth. She is in Piaget's first cognitive stage which is referred to as the A. sensorimotor stage.

B. preoperational stage.

C. concrete operational stage.

D. formal operational stage.

37. The sensorimotor stage A. covers the period from birth to 6 months of age.

B. consists of the period from birth to about the age of 2 years.

C. occurs throughout the first four years of life.

D. lasts from birth until six years of age.

38. One-year-old Jonathan has a snack of cookies every afternoon. During snack time, whenever his dog Abby approaches, Jonathan quickly puts his cookie into his mouth. We may conclude that Jonathan has developed an organized pattern of behavior that Piaget referred to as a(n) A. operation.

B. scheme.

C. gestalt.

D. circular reaction.

39. In Piaget's theory, a A. schema B. circular reaction C. reflex D. conditioned response

is a simple behavior that is repeated often.

40. Emma loves to place her cheek on the window because it feels cool to the touch. She learns to repeat this action to get a pleasurable sensation. According to Piaget, she has acquired a(n) A. adaptation.

B. circular reaction.

C. unconditioned response.

D. symbolic representation.

41. Circular reactions A. are primitive reflexes.

B. consist of continuous cycles of waking and sleeping.

C. are based on operant conditioning.

D. are another form of habituation.

42. According to Piaget, a baby who habitually chews on the satin lining of her blanket is experiencing a A. primary circular reaction.

B. secondary circular reaction.

C. tertiary circular reaction.

D. coordination of secondary schemes.

43. Infants who repeat actions to get results beyond their own bodies are engaging in A. primary circular reactions.

B. secondary circular reactions.

C. deferred imitations.

D. sensorimotor conditioning.

44. Eight-month-old Gina finds that when she pulls on the cord at the side of her playpen, her jumping jack goes up and down. So she pulls it again. Gina is in the substage of A. primary circular reactions.

B. secondary circular reactions.

C. coordination of secondary schemes.

D. tertiary circular reactions.

45. Sandra has learned to squeeze her stuffed bear to make it squeak. When her father gives her a new stuffed giraffe, she squeezes it in just the same way as she did the bear. Sandra's behavior is an example of A. primary reflexes.

B. primary circular reactions.

C. secondary circular reactions.

D. coordination of secondary schemes.

46. Baby Lydia likes to squeeze her rubber duck because it makes a noise when she does so. She enjoys the sound, but her hand often gets tired after a short time. She suddenly puts the rubber duck in her mouth and starts squeezing the toy between her teeth. It is much easier and the noise is even louder. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

A. primary circular reactions B. secondary circular reactions C. tertiary circular reactions D. reflexive responses 47. Adam tries to get his bunny off the top of his toy box. After several failed attempts with his arm, he pushes it off with his foot. This example of a tertiary circular reaction involves A. doing three things at once.

B. varying an action to see what will happen.

C. repeating a behavior at least three times.

D. manipulating symbols.

48. The substage of sensorimotor development in which the child uses trial and error to find which one of his or her physical skills works best for a particular task is called A. primary circular reactions.

B. secondary circular reactions.

C. coordination of secondary schemes.

D. tertiary circular reactions.

49. Paulo causes a piano to make sounds by hitting the keys with his fists. Later, he tries to make the piano play by hitting the keys with a stuffed animal. According to Piaget, this behavior is representative of A. tertiary circular reactions.

B. the use of reflexes.

C. primary circular reactions.

D. secondary circular reactions.

50. The acquisition of A. adaptational ability B. use of causality C. representational ability D. use of schemes

is present in stage six of Piaget's sensorimotor stage.

51. Alex watches his mother play tennis in the morning. Later, when he is alone, Alex picks up a stick and swings it like a tennis racquet, copying his mother's actions from earlier in the day. According to Piaget, Alex is in the substage of the sensorimotor stage.

A. 3rd B. 4th C. 5th D. 6th 52. A newborn who smiles at a smiling adult is engaging in A. visible imitation.

B. invisible imitation.

C. deferred imitation.

D. a circular reaction.

53. Researchers Meltzoff and Moore reported that babies less than 72 hours old appeared to imitate adults by opening their mouths and sticking out their tongues. This is consistent with other research that claims that A. Piaget's developmental timetable sequence is right on target.

B. infants may develop earlier than Piaget proposed.

C. infants may develop later than Piaget stated.

D. all learning is the result of conditioning.

54. Researchers Meltzoff and Moore reported that babies as young as 6 weeks of age are capable of deferred imitation. This is consistent with other research that claims that A. Piaget's developmental timetable sequence is right on target.

B. infants may develop later than Piaget stated.

C. infants may develop earlier than Piaget proposed.

D. all learning is the result of conditioning.

55. When infants engage in imitation that involves parts of their body that they cannot see (such as their mouth), it is referred to as imitation.

A. invisible B. visible C. motor D. sensorimotor

56. According to research by Melzoff and Moore, children become capable of deferred imitation A. at an older age than Piaget suggested.

B. at a much younger age than Piaget suggested.

C. at the age Piaget suggested.

D. minutes after birth.

57. A researcher shows children little toy people, and then he places the people in a bus and "drives" the bus across the carpet. The researcher is trying to get the children to do the same. This is called A. object permanence.

B. sensory imitation.

C. elicited imitation.

D. deferred imitation.

58. Willie sees his mother put a tape into the VCR. When she leaves the room, Willie tries to reach up and put a tape in the same place. The form of behavior that involves imitation of actions babies no longer see in front of them is called A. invisible imitation.

B. visible imitation.

C. deferred imitation.

D. social learning.

59. A father talked on the telephone in front of his baby. The next day the baby picked up a toy telephone and repeated his father's actions. According to Piaget, this is an example of A. deferred imitation.

B. social learning.

C. invisible imitation.

D. reciprocal interaction.

60. Research on Piaget's cognitive concepts supports which of the following statements?

A. Several abilities first occur at an earlier age than Piaget noted.

B. Infants may know an object exists even if they do not search for it.

C. Children do not understand the concept of numbers before the age of 2.

D. both a and b 61. Penny loves to play peekaboo with her baby brother. The realization that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight is known as A. deferred representation.

B. object permanence.

C. deferred symbolism.

D. attachment.

62. Leo cries loudly every time his mother leaves the room. He seems to believe that she is never coming back. Leo has not yet developed A. anticipatory insight.

B. emotional attachment.

C. representational ability.

D. object permanence.

63. Research on object permanence suggests that A a baby's failure to search for hidden objects is a result of his/her inability to perform the sequence of . actions necessary for solving a problem.

B. the violation-of-expectations technique cannot be used to study object permanence.

C. infants as young as 4 months typically remember an object that they can no longer see.

D. babies gaze longer at "possible" events than at "impossible" events.

64. An 8- to 12-month-old infant searches for a hidden object in a place where she previously found it rather than in the place where she most recently saw someone hide it. This is an example of what Piaget referred to as A. sensorimotor thought.

B. the development of object permanence.

C. the A, not-B, error.

D. all of the above 65. In studies in the United States and Africa's Ivory Coast, DeLaoche and colleagues observed infants using their hands to pictures. What is true about their observations?

A. Children explored the pictures as though they were objects.

B. Children patted, rubbed and grasped the pictures in an attempt to lift the depicted object off the page.

C. Manual exploration of the pictures diminished by 15 months of age, hinting at the symbolic understanding of pictures.

D. All of the above.

66. Piaget's theory A. has continued to be accepted with modifications.

B. has been found to be deeply flawed.

C. has stimulated little recent research.

D. was influential only in the 1950s and 1960s.

67. Virginia has noticed that her baby no longer looks at the picture of the dinosaur on his bedroom wall. A baby's gradual loss of interest in a particular picture is evidence of A. habituation.

B. classical conditioning.

C. operant conditioning.

D. cognitive regression.

68. Baby Stephanie stops sucking her thumb to listen to a tone. She resumes sucking and stops again when the tone sounds again. Later, after the tone has been repeated a number of times, she ignores it. This is an example of A. operant conditioning.

B. classical conditioning.

C. habituation.

D. boredom.

69. Researchers study habituation in infants by A. pairing a neutral stimulus with a conditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response.

B. reinforcing infants' responses to stimuli so that the infants will continue to make these responses.

C. testing infants for development of object permanence.

D. repeatedly presenting the same stimulus to see if an infant loses interest in it.

70. A baby who experiences 100 presentations of a high-pitched tone no longer reacts to the sound by stopping the sucking response. When a low-pitched tone is presented, the baby does stop sucking. This cessation of sucking caused by the new tone is called A. dishabituation.

B. disinhibition.

C. nonadaptation.

D. a conditioned response.

71. Doris noticed that her infant son Alex had become bored with the mobile hanging above his crib. When Doris hung new pictures on the mobile, Alex's responsiveness increased. This is referred to as A. a circular reaction.

B. violation of expectations.

C. habituation.

D. dishabituation.

72. Research on visual-tasks memory demonstrates that very young infants A. pay more attention to familiar patterns than to new ones.

B. pay more attention to new patterns than to familiar ones.

C. cannot discriminate between new patterns and familiar patterns.

D. show no consistency in the attention they give to new and familiar patterns.

73. The length of time spent looking at a new stimulus compared with the length of time looking at familiar stimuli is called A. habituation.

B. visual-recognition.

C. visual preference.

D. attention recovery.

74. Research with babies less than 2 days old suggests that they seem to prefer all but which of the following?

A. curved lines B. complex patterns C. three-dimensional objects D. familiar sights 75. Derek is asked to reach into a box while blindfolded and hold a small rubber duck. Later, he is shown several pictures of different toys, including the duck, and is asked to choose the one that he handled earlier. If he chooses the duck picture, this action suggests that he is capable of A. polymodal attention.

B. habituation.

C. cross-modal transference.

D. novelty avoidance.

76. The capacity for joint attention develops by about A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24

months.

77. Which is true of the visual expectation paradigm?

A. Visual reaction time is measured B. Visual anticipation is measured C. Attentiveness and processing speed are measured D. All of the above 78. Researchers study infants' information processing by considering all the following except A. visual references.

B. habituation time.

C. cross-modal transference.

D. language development.

79. When a baby is first habituated to seeing an event as it would normally happen and then sees it in a way that conflicts with his/her beliefs, it is known as A. inhibitory control.

B. violation of expectations.

C. visual recognition.

D. cross-modal transfer.

80. The research method that is based on an infant's tendency to look longer at surprising phenomena rather than at familiar phenomena is known as A. deferred imitation.

B. violation of expectations.

C. counterintuitive perception.

D. conditioned head turning.

81. Baillargeon's studies of babies' understanding of physical phenomena suggest that A. infants may have innate learning mechanisms that help them make sense of the world.

B. infants in the sensorimotor period are unaware of causality.

C. the ability to reason about physical phenomena develops independently of the development of motor abilities and experience.

D. maternal responsiveness is unimportant as an influence on information processing and general cognitive development.

82. Baillargeon and DeVos showed babies possible and impossible events involving moving carrots, a track, and a screen. They found that A. babies looked longer at the possible events.

B. babies looked longer at the impossible events.

C. there was no difference between how much attention the babies' paid to different events.

D. babies became inconsolably upset when viewing the impossible event.

83. Wynn's study using Mickey Mouse dolls indicated that 5-month-old children A. looked longer at surprising solutions than at expected results.

B. have reached Piaget's sixth sensorimotor stage.

C. are unable to subtract small numbers of objects.

D. are able to add small numbers of objects.

84. Leah has been amusing her parents with her ability to remember new words, peoples' names, and the names of her dolls. This type of intentional memory that allows children to recall and declare facts, names, and events is known as memory.

A. explicit B. implicit C. expressive D. purposeful 85.

memory refers to remembering that occurs without effort or even conscious awareness.

A. Implicit B. Explicit C. Practiced D. Repressed

86. The short-term storage of information that the brain actively processes is referred to as memory.

A. episodic B. semantic C. implicit D. working 87. Which of the following statements about memory is likely to be true about 10-month-old Isabelle?

A. She is probably still utilizing a primitive form of memory known as pre-explicit memory.

B. She has not yet developed the capacity for implicit memory.

C. She has begun to develop the capacity for working memory.

D. Her brain is not yet capable of performing any memory functions.

88. The relatively late appearance of working memory in children seems to be largely responsible for the A. slow development of object permanence.

B. atrophy of the prefrontal cortex between 6 and 12 months of age.

C. development of long-term memory.

D. inability of children to walk until they are approximately a year old.

89.

considered guided participation important and thought of learning as a collaborative process.

A. Piaget B. Vygotsky C. Bronfenbrenner D. Chomsky

90. Amos is trying to teach his son Timothy to tie his shoes. He demonstrates the procedure and then talks his son through the steps until Tim can perform the task on his own. Vygotsky referred to these activities that help bridge the gap between the child's understanding and the adult's understanding as A. interference.

B. unresponsiveness.

C. guided participation.

D. reciprocal interaction.

91. Which of the following descriptions regarding the concept of guided participation is false?

A. Guided participation brings the child's understanding closer to that of the adult.

B. Guided participation requires reinforcement to work C. Guided participation decreases the range of the child's zone of proximal development on that particular task.

D. Guided participation varies from culture to culture.

92.

is a communication system based on words and grammar, and A. Psycholinguistics; language B. Literacy; psycholinguistics C. Language; cognitive ability D. Language; psycholinguistics

.

93. The communicative use of sounds by infants (no words or grammar) is called A. holophrase speech.

B. representational speech.

C. prelinguistic speech.

D. "motherese."

94. Helen spends all day listening to her baby babbling and cooing. She believes that she and her baby are having conversations. The baby is practicing A. "motherese."

B. prelinguistic speech.

C. linguistic speech.

D. nonsymbolic speech.

95. Seven-month-old Benjamin babbles and coos but has not spoken a single word. The sounds he makes constitute speech.

A. presyntactic B. holophrase C. circular D. prelinguistic 96. Jana knows that the conversations she and her cooing baby are having communicate A. ideas.

B. feelings.

C. symbols.

D. words.

97. Infants first communicate their emotions at A. birth, by crying.

B. 6 months of age, by babbling.

C. 12 months of age, by imitating sounds.

D. 18 months of age, by using words.

98. Francella is soon going to be 3 months old. She likely communicates happiness through A. holophrases.

B. cooing.

C. babbling.

D. imitation.

99. Viran is almost 4 months of age. Like a typical infant of his age, he seems to enjoy A. "trying out" sounds from all human languages.

B. producing sounds that match the ones he hears.

C. babbling strings of consonants.

D. deliberately imitating sounds with linguistic meaning.

100.Silvia spends hours saying "da-da-da-da." This is an example of A. babbling.

B. using telegraphic speech.

C. using a holophrase.

D. using a language acquisition device.

101.Charles is a child whose development has been quite normal. When Charles was about began to imitate sounds deliberately.

A. 3 to 4 months old B. 6 to 8 months old C. 9 to 10 months old D. 1 year old

, he

102.Babies become increasingly aware of the sounds of their language and its phonological rules at A. 3 to 4 months of age.

B. 6 to 8 months of age.

C. 1 year of age.

D. 2 years of age.

103.At approximately what age are babies first able to distinguish different speech sounds?

A. from birth B. 3 weeks after birth C. 6 weeks after birth D. 12 weeks after birth 104.The basic sounds of an infant's native language are called A. graphemes.

B. phonemes.

C. phonetics.

D. morphemes.

105.The first types of gestures to emerge in an infant's repertoire are A. conventional social B. representational C. presemantic D. symbolic

gestures.

106.Ozzy is celebrating his first birthday. After he blows out the candles, he blows a kiss to his grandmother.

Ozzy's attempt to communicate with his grandmother is called a A. conventional social gesture.

B. representational gesture.

C. symbolic gesture.

D. telegraphic gesture.

107.Wendy, who is 15 months old, is asked by her father if she is tired. Wendy lies down and acts as if she is sleeping to communicate her desire to be put to bed. This type of nonverbal message is referred to as a A. conventional social gesture.

B. symbolic gesture.

C. mediational gesture.

D. presymbolic gesture.

108.When does a child usually say his/her first word?

A. 3 to 5 months B. 6 to 8 months C. 10 to 14 months D. 16 to 18 months 109.Derek says, "Wa," meaning "I want some water." This is an example of A. a monophrase.

B. a holophrase.

C. a synonym.

D. "motherese."

110.Most children speak in two-word sentences by the age of A. 8 months.

B. 10 months.

C. 14 months.

D. 24 months.

111.Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech?

A. "Cookie."

B. "Want cookie."

C. "I want a cookie."

D. "I want a chocolate chip cookie."

112.Language that includes short sentences that omit many parts of speech, but still conveys meaning, is described as A. referential.

B. telegraphic.

C. expressive.

D. overgeneralized.

113."Mommy go now" is an example of A. syntactic speech.

B. overextended speech.

C. underextended speech.

D. telegraphic speech.

114.Mindy, who is 24 months old, is beginning to speak sentences using articles and prepositions. She is developing A. holophrases.

B. syntax.

C. overextensive speech.

D. telegraphic speech.

115.Characteristics of early speech include all of the following except A. simplification.

B. overextension.

C. understanding grammar without being able to express it.

D. use of "parentese."

116.Ginger, age 18 months, calls all four-legged animals "kitty." This is an example of which characteristic of children's early speech?

A. use of holophrases B. simplification C. overextending D. overregularization 117.A child who calls a dog a "bow-wow" and also calls a cat a "bow-wow" is A. overextending.

B. overregularizing.

C. using a monophrase.

D. using syntax.

118. Kelly, age 2 years, says "Brrr! My feets are cold!" This is an example of

A. simplification.

B. overextension.

C. underextension.

D. overregularization.

119. Fran says, "Yesterday, I sitted on the floor." This is an example of

grammatical rules.

A. underextending B. hyperextending C. overregularizing D. paraphrasing 120. According to

theory, language is acquired by imitation and reinforcement of specific

sounds.

A. Piagetian B. psychometric C. nativism D. learning 121. Learning theorists maintain that language is learned through

A. classical conditioning.

B. habituation.

C. nativism.

D. reinforcement.

122. Chomsky's proposal that humans possess a language-acquisition device is most consistent with a(n)

view of language acquisition.

A. learning theory B. nativist C. empiricist D. prelinguistic 123. Noam Chomsky defined a language-acquisition device as a(n)

A. perceptual mechanism that allows reinforcement to strengthen commonly used words.

B. mechanism that enables the brain to infer linguistic rules from the language it hears.

C. inborn mechanism that helps children to understand the meanings of words.

D. teaching method that helps children to become literate.

124.

suggests that human beings have an inborn capacity or mechanism for acquiring language.

A. Learning theory B. Nativism C. Behavorist theory D. Social-learning theory

125. Which of the following statements would NOT be cited as evidence that supports the theory of nativism?

A. Children learn the grammar of their own language by repeating sounds their parents praise them for making.

B. Almost all children master their native language without formal teaching.

C. Linguistic advances, such as the onset of babbling, occur in similar ways for hearing and deaf babies.

D. Newborns are born with perceptual mechanisms that match the requirements of language.

126. Nativists would cite which of the following to support their view of language development?

A. The human brain is larger on the left side than on the right.

B. Children learn their own language without formal teaching.

C. Deaf children make up their own sign language without models.

D. all of the above 127. The concept of a language acquisition device in the human brain is part of which theory of language

development?

A. behavorist theory B. social-learning theory C. Piagetian theory D. nativism 128. In about 98% of the population, the

is/are dominant for language.

A. left hemisphere B. right hemisphere C. medulla oblongata D. brain stem and pons 129. In terms of language development, the game of "Peekaboo!" helps stimulate an infant's sensitivity to

A. loud noises.

B. sibling's feelings.

C. social exchange.

D. memory repression.

130. When children grow up in a bilingual home, they develop the ability to switch from one language to

another, which is called code A. differentiation.

B. interchange.

C. mixing.

D. switching.

131. "Parentese" includes all the following characteristics except

A. the use of short words and simple sentences.

B. high-pitched speech.

C. rapid speech.

D. repetition.

132. Characteristics of child-directed speech, or "parentese," include all of the following except

A. speaking in a low-pitched voice.

B. speaking slowly.

C. repeating words.

D. speaking "baby talk."

133. Which of the following would be most effective in helping a child to develop language?

A. Encourage the child to watch television.

B. Ignore the child's babbling in order to encourage the use of words.

C. Provide the child with clear, simple directions regarding how to use language.

D. Repeat or paraphrase what the child says and expand on it.

134. Babies learn speech best from

A. television.

B. recordings.

C. practice in overextension.

D. communication with someone.

135. Which of the following is NOT one of the reading styles that adults use with children?

A. describer style B. authoritarian style C. comprehender style D. performance-oriented style 136. Tanya tells her mother a story before going to bed. She is the "storyteller," while her mother is the active

listener. This is similar to what reading style?

A. describer B. authoritarian C. comprehender D. performance-oriented 137. Compare and contrast classical conditioning and operant conditioning, and give an example of each as

applied to infant learning.

138. Describe the methods used to measure the intelligence of infants and toddlers. What effect does early

intervention have on intelligence?

139. Explain infant development in the context of circular reactions. In your explanation, include primary,

secondary, and tertiary circular reactions, and give an example of each.

140. Define Piaget's concept of object permanence, and describe the connection between object permanence

and deferred imitation.

141. Explain the connection between infants' information processing, speed of habituation, and future

intelligence scores.

142. Discuss the research pertaining to violation-of-expectations. How is it related to babies' thinking about

characteristics of the real world?

143. Explain how social interaction with adults contributes to advanced cognitive competence. In your

explanation, address both guided participation and the cultural context in which families interact with their children.

144. Describe similarities and differences in the ways that deaf children and hearing children acquire language

skills (be sure to mention differences in deaf children of deaf families and deaf children of hearing families). How have aspects of learning theory and nativism been used to explain how deaf babies learn sign language?

145. Describe the role that technology plays in the development of children's language. What are the positive

and the negative effects of television viewing on young children's language acquisition?

146. Describe the differences between the nativist approach to language acquisition and the learning

theorist approach. Explain why many theorists maintain that our language abilities are a result of both approaches.

147. What the major milestones of language development during the first three years? What can influence

linguistic progress?

Chapter 07 Key 1. (p. 168) A 2. (p. 168) B 3. (p. 168) B 4. (p. 168) B 5. (p. 168) B 6. (p. 168) A 7. (p. 168) D 8. (p. 168) D 9. (p. 169) A 10. (p. 169) C 11. (p. 169) B 12. (p. 168) A 13. (p. 168) C 14. (p. 169) A 15. (p. 169) C 16. (p. 169) D 17. (p. 169-170) B 18. (p. 169) D 19. (p. 170) B 20. (p. 170-171) D 21. (p. 170-171) D 22. (p. 171) B 23. (p. 171) B 24. (p. 171) B 25. (p. 171) C 26. (p. 171) C 27. (p. 171) D 28. (p. 171) C 29. (p. 171) C 30. (p. 171) D 31. (p. 171) D 32. (p. 172-173) C 33. (p. 172-173) D 34. (p. 173) B 35. (p. 173) A 36. (p. 173-174) A

37. (p. 173) B 38. (p. 173) B 39. (p. 174) B 40. (p. 174) B 41. (p. 174) C 42. (p. 174) A 43. (p. 175) B 44. (p. 175) B 45. (p. 175) C 46. (p. 176) C 47. (p. 176) B 48. (p. 176) D 49. (p. 176) A 50. (p. 176) C 51. (p. 176) D 52. (p. 177) A 53. (p. 177) B 54. (p. 177) C 55. (p. 177) A 56. (p. 177) B 57. (p. 177) C 58. (p. 177) C 59. (p. 177) A 60. (p. 177) D 61. (p. 177) B 62. (p. 178) D 63. (p. 178) C 64. (p. 178) D 65. (p. 179) D 66. (p. 179-180) A 67. (p. 180) A 68. (p. 180) C 69. (p. 180) D 70. (p. 180) A 71. (p. 180) D 72. (p. 180) B 73. (p. 181) C 74. (p. 181) D

75. (p. 182) C 76. (p. 182) B 77. (p. 182-183) D 78. (p. 102-103) D 79. (p. 185) B 80. (p. 185) B 81. (p. 185) A 82. (p. 185) B 83. (p. 185-186) D 84. (p. 188) A 85. (p. 187-188) A 86. (p. 188) D 87. (p. 188) C 88. (p. 188) A 89. (p. 188) B 90. (p. 188) C 91. (p. 188-189) B 92. (p. 189) C 93. (p. 189) C 94. (p. 189) B 95. (p. 189) D 96. (p. 189) B 97. (p. 189-190) A 98. (p. 189-190) B 99. (p. 189-190) B 100. (p. 189) A 101. (p. 189-190) C 102. (p. 190-191) C 103. (p. 190) A 104. (p. 190) B 105. (p. 191) A 106. (p. 191) A 107. (p. 191) B 108. (p. 192) C 109. (p. 192) B 110. (p. 193) D 111. (p. 193) B 112. (p. 193) B

113. (p. 193) D 114. (p. 193) B 115. (p. 193) D 116. (p. 193) C 117. (p. 193) A 118. (p. 193) D 119. (p. 193) C 120. (p. 194) D 121. (p. 194) D 122. (p. 194) B 123. (p. 194) B 124. (p. 194) B 125. (p. 194) A 126. (p. 194) D 127. (p. 194) D 128. (p. 196) A 129. (p. 197) C 130. (p. 197) D 131. (p. 197-198) C 132. (p. 197) A 133. (p. 196) D 134. (p. 196) D 135. (p. 198-199) B 136. (p. 198-199) A 137. Answer will vary 138. Answer will vary 139. Answer will vary 140. Answer will vary 141. Answer will vary 142. Answer will vary 143. Answer will vary 144. Answer will vary 145. Answer will vary 146. Answer will vary 147. Answer will vary

Chapter 07 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: Can infants and toddlers intelligence be measured, and how can it be improved?

16 Guidepost: How can we measure infants ability to process information, and when do babies begin to think about characteristics of t 19 he physical world?

Guidepost: How did Piaget describe infants and toddlers cognitive development, and how have his claims stood up?

Guidepost: How do babies develop language and what influences contribute to linguistic progress?

Guidepost: How do infants learn, and how long can they remember?

Guidepost: How does social interaction with adults advance cognitive competence?

Guidepost: What are six approaches to the study of cognitive development?

Guidepost: What can brain research reveal about the development of cognitive skills?

Papalia - Chapter 07 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

36 48 11 4 8 5 147 12 49 75

Chapter 08 Student:

1.

Which of the following is NOT one of the foundations of psychosocial development?

A. early human interactions B. temperament C. brain growth D. fine motor skills

2.

Emotions are reactions to experiences that are associated with physiological and behavioral changes.

A. operantly conditioned B. gentically dictated C. set D. subjective

3.

Which of the following statements regarding infant emotions is false?

A. When babies want or need something, they cry.

B. When babies feel sociable, they smile.

C. At first, crying signifies physical discomfort; later, it expresses psychological distress.

D. Babies have emotions that can lead to a smile within minutes of birth.

4.

The most developmentally sound approach to comforting a distressed baby is to A. ignore the baby if possible.

B. let the baby cry for a considerable time before responding.

C. prevent distress, so there will be less need for soothing.

D. respond immediately each time the infant cries.

5.

Two-week-old Jamie is lying quietly in her bassinet. Suddenly she utters a loud, piercing cry and holds her breath. She is probably A. hungry.

B. angry.

C. in pain.

D. frustrated.

6.

The best way to respond to an infant who is crying is to A. ignore the cries to avoid spoiling the baby.

B. let the baby cry for a considerable time before responding.

C. respond regularly with tender, soothing care.

D. respond immediately each time the infant cries.

7.

Connor, a 3-week-old infant, is crying. His cry began suddenly, is very loud, and was not preceded by moaning. According to Wolff, Conner is exhibiting a(n) A. angry cry.

B. cry of pain.

C. hunger cry.

D. cry of anxiety.

8.

The earliest smile, a reflex smile, appears A. shortly after birth.

B. when a baby is about 2 weeks old.

C. when a baby is about 4 weeks old.

D. when a baby is about 6 weeks old.

9.

Kendrick has been awake in his crib for a long time. He produces two or three drawn-out cries with no prolonged breath-holding. He is probably A. hungry.

B. frustrated.

C. angry.

D. in pain.

10. Margo and her husband Frank love watching little Tina smile when they come into the room. Which of the following statements about infants' smiles is correct?

A. Smiles appear soon after birth, generally when the infant is wide awake.

B. The "social smile" is seen by 1 week of age.

C. Smiles become social at around 8 months of age.

D. During the second month of life, infants begin to smile selectively at people they recognize.

11. Infants generally begin to laugh out loud at about the A. first B. second C. fourth D. sixth

month of life.

12. The Powers are new parents who want to do everything just right. In reading up on ways to limit the distress in their new baby's life, they are likely to encounter which of the following statements about infants' emotions?

A. It is easy to tell when newborns are happy.

B. Normal, healthy newborns use facial expressions rather than crying to communicate their needs.

C. Researchers agree that a baby's facial expressions indicate the feelings that the baby experiences.

D. The meaning of infants' emotional signals remains constant over the first two years of life.

13. Smiling is an important social behavior in infants because it A. is one of the ways that babies can encourage adults to respond to them.

B. represents important cognitive development.

C. relieves the infant's distress more effectively than crying does.

D. signifies happiness as early as the first week of infancy.

14. Sometimes laughter helps babies discharge tension, such as A. sadness.

B. fear.

C. anger.

D. disgust.

15. Which of the following statements about infants and emotions is false?

A. Infants cannot express emotions for about the first month.

B. Infants show facial expressions that are similar to adults'.

C. One of the earliest emotional expressions shown by infants is unhappiness.

D. Infants and adults both share the same basic emotions.

16. Soon after birth, an infant can show all the following emotions except A. contentment.

B. anger.

C. interest.

D. distress.

17. Which of the following emotions is NOT yet present in an 8-month-old infant?

A. anger B. shame C. sadness D. disgust

18. The cognitive understanding by infants that they are functioning beings, separate from the rest of their world, is referred to as A. self-recognition.

B. self-awareness.

C. self-conceptualization.

D. self-evaluation.

19. Self-awareness usually emerges by about what age?

A. 6 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months 20. When they develop , children can evaluate their own thoughts, plans, and desires according to what is considered socially appropriate.

A. self-recognition B. self-awareness C. self-conceptualization D. self-evaluation 21. The emergence of evaluative emotions takes place around the age of A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

year(s).

22. Which of the following is NOT a self-evaluative emotion?

A. love B. pride C. shame D. guilt 23. Emotions such as empathy and pride A. are often present at birth.

B. are not present until age 3.

C. develop soon after the primary emotions.

D. are related to the development of self-awareness.

24. Marcus started crying because his friend Timothy was crying. This is a sign that he is developing empathy. Empathy depends on A. self-consciousness.

B. self-awareness.

C. social cognition.

D. self-evaluation.

25. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between the four shifts in brain development and emotional development is false?

A. In the first three months, the cerebral cortex becomes functional, and cognitive perceptions come into play.

B Around 9 or 10 months, the connections between the frontal cortex and the limbic system may facilitate . the relationship between cognition and emotion.

C. In the second year, infants develop self-awareness and self-conscious emotions and a greater capacity for self-regulation.

DIn the third year, maturation of the sympathetic system provides the mechanisms to control the . parasympathetic system, which prepares the body for action.

26. Temperament is A. an innate, nonlinguistic form of communication.

B. another term for self-awareness.

C. the learning of behaviors deemed appropriate by one's culture.

D. one's style of approaching people and situations.

27. According to the New York Longitudinal Study, 40% of children exhibit a temperamental pattern described as A. difficult.

B. slow-to-warm-up.

C. easy.

D. mixed temperament.

28. Which of the following statements about temperament is correct?

A. Temperament appears to be largely determined by genetics.

B. Temperament is learned.

C. Temperament, once set, rarely changes.

D. Second-born children are likely to have easier temperaments than firstborns.

29. According to the New York Longitudinal Study, all the following are components of temperament except A. adaptability.

B. attention span.

C. level of aggression.

D. distractibility.

30. The New York Longitudinal Study of Temperament found that A. all children fit into a clear temperamental category.

B. about one in every three children has a mixed temperament pattern.

C. children are evenly distributed among the basic temperamental categories.

D. the largest temperamental group was slow-to-warm up.

31. Which of the following statements about the temperament categories identified in the New York Longitudinal Study is correct?

A. Approximately 90% of the children in the study sample fell into one of three categories.

B. Nearly 40% of the children in the sample fell into the difficult category.

C. Roughly 35% of the children in the sample did not fit neatly into any of the three categories.

D. Situational variation in the nine components of temperament is unusual.

32. Baby Elise is irritable, does not follow regular patterns of eating and sleeping, and has intense reactions to what goes on in her environment. These are characteristics of which kind of temperament?

A. easy B. difficult C. slow-to-warm-up D. artistic 33. Lucy is a quiet infant who is mild in her responses, both positive and negative. She shows a distinct dislike for new situations, but eventually adjusts and enjoys new things. Thomas and Chess would classify Lucy as a(n) child.

A. slow-to-warm-up B. difficult C. easy D. ambivalent

34. Baby Ellen is suspicious of strangers, has frequent tantrums, has an irregular pattern of waking and sleeping, and laughs and cries loudly. Which kind of temperament does she have?

A. easy B. hyperactive C. difficult D. slow-to-warm-up 35. Baby Benjamin sleeps and eats irregularly, adjusts slowly to new routines, and is suspicious of strangers.

He fits which of the temperamental patterns described by Thomas and Chess in the classic New York Longitudinal Study?

A. easy B. difficult C. low reactive D. uninhibited to novelty 36. Mrs. Pilky's new son Danny is quiet, adjusts only gradually to new situations, and has moderately predictable biological cycles. Which kind of temperament does he have?

A. easy B. slow-to-warm-up C. timid D. difficult 37. Baby Eddy's schedules are predictable, he adapts easily, he is pleasant, and he responds well to change.

Which kind of temperament does he have?

A. easy B. difficult C. slow-to-warm-up D. placid 38. Ratings of infants' temperament are A. typically based on objective observations in laboratory settings.

B. often based on parents' reports.

C. unaffected by mothers' psychological characteristics.

D. predictive of later behavior only when the initial ratings are positive.

39. Which of the following was NOT used as an indicator of temperament according to the Rothbart Infant Behavior Questionnaire?

A. eating habits B. activitiy level C. fear and frusteration D. positive emotion 40. "Goodness of fit" implies that parents should deal with problems of temperament by A. trying to change their child's temperament to match their own.

B. letting their child's temperament create the family atmosphere and patterns.

C. helping a difficult child fit into the enviroment.

D. helping their child make some adaptions but essentially accepting their child's temperament.

41. Pedro is quiet and extremely shy. He does not warm up to new people for quite a while. Pedro's temperament A. might be substantially modified by environmental factors.

B. cannot be modified.

C. is strongly affected by birth order.

D. is not affected by cultural differences.

42. Which of the following children is probably NOT experiencing a problem of "fit" between temperament and environment?

A. Aaron is a quiet and fairly inactive child. He lives in a small apartment with his older parents.

B. Brian likes to sit quietly and play alone. He spends most days with ten other children at a day care center.

C Carolyn enjoys trying out musical instruments and experimenting with arts and crafts materials. Her . mother likes the house to be quiet and neat.

D. Debby is hesitant and quiet. Her father pushes her to experience new situations.

43. The best synonym for Keagan's "inhibition to the unfamiliar" is A. fear.

B. resentment.

C. shyness.

D. laziness.

44. Studies of "inhibition to the unfamiliar" suggest that this aspect of temperament A. is largely the result of a child's prenatal experience.

B. cannot be evaluated until infants are 6 months of age.

C. is associated with differences in physical features and brain functioning.

D. is the direct result of experiences after birth.

45. Erikson's first developmental crisis is A. autonomy versus shame and doubt.

B. initiative versus guilt.

C. basic trust versus basic mistrust.

D. generativity verus stagnation.

46. Two-year-old Hanna believes that her needs in life will be fulfilled and that she can obtain what she desires. According to Erikson, Hanna has successfully resolved the crisis of A. basic trust versus basic mistrust.

B. autonomy versus shame and doubt.

C. industry versus inferiority.

D. generativity versus guilt.

47. During what Erikson calls the crisis of basic trust versus basic mistrust, children A. determine whether or not the world can be relied on.

B. strive for independence.

C. object to their mothers leaving the room.

D. are often filled with doubt.

48. According to Erikson, a child who develops a predominance of basic trust will have the characteristic of A. hope.

B. caring.

C. intimacy.

D. love.

49. Jessica's parents work hard to make sure that she has everything that she needs to be healthy and happy.

They consistently work to give her quality care and love. From Erikson's perspective, she will resolve her first crisis in favor of A. mistrust.

B. trust.

C. autonomy.

D. industry.

50. Kora did not learn sufficient trust during the first stage of development. In her adult years, one might expect her to display A. excessive anger.

B. a lack of self-regulation.

C. difficulty forming close relationships.

D. a tendency toward negativism.

51. The establishment of basic trust verus basic mistrust in a child's personality occurs between of age.

A. birth and 3 months B. 1 and 6 months C. birth and 18 months D. 1 and 2 years 52. The development of basic trust versus basic mistrust occurs through the infant's interactions with A. strangers encountered during infancy.

B. the child's immediate social circle.

C. the physical environment.

D. other infants of a similar age.

53. Gretta and her mother have a reciprocal, enduring emotional tie. This emotional tie between an infant and a caregiver is called A. bonding.

B. trust.

C. attachment.

D. mistrust.

54. Who devised the laboratory technique known as the "Strange Situation" that is commonly used to study attachment in children?

A. John Bowlby B. Harry and Margaret Harlow C. Mary Ainsworth D. Stella Chess 55. Which of the following is NOT a pattern of attachment during infancy identified by Ainsworth?

A. ambivalence B. autonomy C. avoidance D. security 56. Dr. Lakivani is doing research on childhood attachment using Ainsworth's "Strange Situation," whereby a baby is observed in a room with A. the mother and a stranger in different combinations.

B. only a stranger.

C. only the mother.

D. the father and the mother.

57. Peter, age 1, rarely cries when his mother leaves him with a baby-sitter. When his mother returns, he seems angry and refuses to let her hold him. Peter's pattern of attachment would best be classified as A. ambivalent.

B. avoidant.

C. disorganized-disoriented.

D. secure.

58. Roberto and his mother are at the house of a cousin whom they rarely visit. Roberto stays with his mother when they first arrive but then begins to explore his new surroundings and discovers a playroom. Even though he appears to be comfortable, he still checks back with his mother periodically and then returns to his play. What type of attachment would this reflect?

A. ambivalant B. avoidant C. disorganized-disoriented D. secure 59. Beth readily leaves her mother to explore her surroundings, occasionally looking toward or touching her mother. Beth appears to be A. securely attached.

B. disorganized-disoriented.

C. ambivalent.

D. avoidant.

60. In the "Strange Situation" test, Tony rarely cries when his mother leaves and is not eager to greet her when she returns. He appears to be A. securely attached.

B. disorganized-disoriented.

C. ambivalent.

D. avoidant.

61. Daniel begins crying before his mother leaves during the "Strange Situation" test. When she returns, he leans toward her but kicks and squirms when she picks him up. He appears to be A. securely attached.

B. disorganized-disoriented.

C. ambivalent.

D. avoidant.

62. According to your textbook, which form of attachment between a caregiver and a baby seems to be the least secure?

A. disorganized-disoriented B. passive-aggressive C. avoidant D. ambivalent 63. Marcella smiles and greets her mother when she returns from a shopping trip but then looks away fearfully. She also seems afraid much of the time. Marcella's attachment pattern suggests that she is A. securely attached.

B. disorganized-disoriented.

C. ambivalent.

D. avoidant.

64. According to Ainsworth, attachment forms primarily as a result of A. the total time spent with the mother.

B. consistency of responsiveness by the mother.

C. the mother speaking frequently to the child.

D. the mother's socioeconomic level.

65. According to the attachment theory, A. early caregiving has a negligible influence on the development of attachment.

B. babies build a "working model" based on their interactions with caregivers.

C. attachment patterns cannot be changed after the age of 12 months.

D. a baby's attachment is distinct from Erikson's concept of trust.

66. Which of the following has NOT been a criticism of the "Strange Situation" test?

A. It asks mothers to refrain from initiating interaction with their babies.

BIt provides a measure of mother-infant interaction in nonstressful situations, but it sheds little light on . how well mothers and infants function under stress.

CIt may be especially inappropriate for children of employed mothers who are used to routine separations . from their mothers and the presence of other caregivers.

D. It may not be valid in all cultures.

67. Which of the following research tools measures attachment by asking raters to sort descriptive words or phrases into categories ranging from most to least characteristic of the child?

A. Bayley Scales of Infant Development B. Attachment Q-set (AQS) C. Dyadic Quality Measure (DQM) D. Preschool Assessment of Attachment (PAA) 68. A mother is going through a list of descriptive statements such as "likes to be held" and "cries a lot."

She classifies the statements from most to least descriptive of her child. This mother is performing the task.

A. gender-typing B. situational compliance C. attachment Q-set D. karyotyping 69. A recent cross-cultural study of attachment in China, Colombia, Germany, Israel, Japan, Norway, and the United States found that A. the tendency to use the mother as a secure base is universal, although it may take somewhat varied forms.

B. children in some countries used their mother as a secure base, but others avoided her.

C. ratings across cultures were more similar than ratings within cultures.

D. mothers' preferences for "ideal" attachment behavior varied greatly.

70. Which of the following best describes young infants' contribution to the mother-child attachment?

A. In the first few months, infants can influence attachment only in the breastfeeding situation.

B. Infants' attachment behaviors in the first few months are limited to a few expressions of emotion, such as smiling and crying.

C. Virtually any activity on the part of an infant that leads to a response from adults is an attachment behavior.

DUntil they can communicate through a variety of sounds and gestures, infants are passive recipients of . adults' initiatives and cannot directly influence attachment.

71. Based on her research on attachment patterns in infants, Ainsworth concluded that A. an infant's characteristic attachment pattern seems to be inborn and is affected very little by what the mother does.

B. infants' patterns of attachment are related to differences in the quality of mothering.

C. infants' patterns of attachment are related more to differences in what the father does than to anything the mother does.

D. the "Strange Situation" is too artificial to yield any valid information about attachment patterns.

72. The Parkers have an 8-month-old infant, Tara, who cries when her mother's cousin comes to visit. Tara is exhibiting A. anxious attachment.

B. poor socialization.

C. stranger anxiety.

D. separation anxiety.

73. A 9-month-old infant who cries when her mother leaves is exhibiting A. separation anxiety.

B. stranger anxiety.

C. anxious attachment.

D. overdependence.

74. When 1-year-old Tommy's grandmother comes to his house to take care of him while his parents go out, Tommy starts to fuss and cry as his mother gets ready to leave. Tommy is demonstrating A. imprinting.

B. separation anxiety.

C. stranger anxiety.

D. anxious attachment.

75. A baby's reaction to a stranger is least likely to be influenced by the baby's A. memory for faces.

B. recollection of previous situations in which he has been left with strangers.

C. temperament.

D. gender.

76. Leah cries every time her mother leaves the house. It is so disturbing that her mother is thinking of giving up her part-time job. Leah's distress when a familiar caregiver leaves is called A. attachment.

B. separation anxiety.

C. stranger anxiety.

D. basic mistrust.

77. Infants who show wariness of unfamiliar people from about age 6 months to one year are A. anxiously attached.

B. showing stranger anxiety.

C. showing basic mistrust.

D. using social referencing.

78. Which of the following is a good way to measure attachment between a mother and a baby?

A. the strength of separation anxiety when the mother leaves B. the strength of stranger anxiety in the absence of the mother C. the reaction of the baby when the mother returns D. the strength of the baby's reaction when she is taken from the mother 79. The more secure a child's attachment to a nurturing adult the A. more dependent the child will be.

B. more anxious the child will be.

C. less interest the child will have in exploring his surroundings.

D. more freedom the child feels to leave and to explore.

80. Securely attached infants, when studied again at age 2, tend to be infants.

A. more dependent B. more cooperative C. less curious D. less persistent

than insecurely attached

81. Joey and Jake were part of a research study at the university when they were infants. They were labeled as securely attached. When they became preschoolers, they were A. sociable.

B. loners.

C. dependent on the teacher.

D. less curious than other children.

82. Marina is a 3-year-old who is securely attached to her parents. Which of the following characteristics would she likely exhibit?

A. psychopathology B. strong trust in other people as well as her parents C. heightened aggressiveness D. helplessness when her parents are absent 83. A very securely attached child generally grows up to be A. dependent on parents.

B. dependent on a mate.

C. independent.

D. a controlling person.

84. Research on intergenerational transmission of attachment patterns has shown that A. the way adults recall their early experiences with their own parents affects the way they treat their own children.

B mothers who grow up with a working model of themselves as unlovable are especially attuned and . sensitive to their babies' attachment behaviors.

Cthe attachment relationship that forms between a woman and her baby cannot be predicted until after . birth, when the woman and her baby have begun to interact and influence each other.

D.the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) is not valid for women whose own attachment relationship in infancy was not secure.

85. According to the mutual-regulation model, infants whose mothers are depressed are likely to become sad because A. they see that their mothers are sad.

B. their mothers do not feed them enough.

C. they have inherited a sad temperament.

D. they feel powerless to elicit a response.

86. According to the mutual-regulation model regarding emotional states, A. parental actions determine an infant's emotional state until about 9 months of age.

B. babies as young as 3 months regulate their own emotional state to some degree.

C. low-birth-weight babies require extra stimulation for proper emotional development.

D. emotional states of the mother do not affect the infant.

87. Which of the following statements regarding the studies of mutual regulation and emotional communication is false?

A. Infants as young as 3 months of age take an active part in regulating their emotional state.

B. The ability to decipher other people's emotions and adjust one's own behavior accordingly develops after the first year of life.

C. The still-face paradigm is used to measure mutual regulation.

D. Infants feel emotional distress when their mothers do not use facial expressions to respond to them.

88. The mutual regulation model refers to A. babies' active participation in controlling their emotional states.

B. babies becoming less dependent on caregivers' emotional states.

C. babies becoming self-regulated rather than other-regulated.

D. the absence of a "still-face" effect.

89. When a baby "reads" the expression of a caregiver for a clue as to how to act in an ambiguous situation, it is referred to as A. social facilitation.

B. separation anxiety.

C. situational compliance.

D. social referencing.

90. James is playing with his toys when a stranger comes into the house. He feels uneasy about this stranger until he notices that his mother is smiling and talking to her. James then offers the stranger one of his toys. This process is called A. socializing.

B. social learning.

C. social referencing.

D. imprinting.

91. When an unfamiliar child takes away 1-year-old Marla's toy, she looks questionably at her mother. This is an example of A. stranger anxiety.

B. attachment.

C. mutual regulation model.

D. social referencing.

92. A study of 1-year-olds who were presented with new, strange objects (like jiggling toys, for example) found that A. babies almost always reached for the new objects.

B. babies almost never reached for the new objects.

C. the mothers' facial expressions influenced whether or not the babies touched the objects.

D unless they were accompanied by spoken encouragement or warnings, mothers' facial expressions had . no influence on the babies' behavior.

93. Josephina is 18 months old. Which of the following would NOT be an aspect of her personality that is emerging at this time?

A. sense of self B. growth of autonomy C. internalization of behavioral standards D. understanding of reciprocal friendship 94. Our image of ourselves is called our A. self-efficacy.

B. self-concept.

C. id.

D. ideal self.

95. A child's sense of being a physical whole within boundaries is called A. self-efficacy.

B. self-esteem.

C. self-confidence.

D. self-coherence.

96. Dabbing children's noses with rouge to see how they react when placed in front of a mirror is a test of A. self-recognition.

B. self-description.

C. self-negativism.

D. self-control.

97. Claire, age 4 months, does not yet recognize herself in mirrors or pictures. If she is like most babies, she will develop physical self-recognition and self-awareness by the age of months.

A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18

98. Brenda has accidentally marked her cheek with a crayon. When she later sees herself in a mirror, she touches the mark on her cheek. Approximately how old would you guess Brenda to be?

A. 18 months B. 12 months C. 9 months D. 6 months 99. When Billy is asked "What are you like?" he replies, "I am a good boy with brown hair." Two weeks earlier, Billy did not apply such labels to himself. Approximately how old would you guess Billy to be?

A. at least 13 months B. at least 20 months C. at least 4 years D. at least 6 years 100.According to Erikson, which crisis occurs during toddlerhood?

A. basic trust verus basic mistrust B. initiative versus guilt C. identity versus role confusion D. autonomy versus shame and doubt 101.A favorable resolution of the crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt leads to A. control by the superego.

B. the characteristic of hope.

C. the characteristic of will.

D. the acceptance of parent's authority.

102. At age 2, a healthy, normal child is likely to be

A. docile.

B. dependent.

C. willful.

D. passive.

103. According to Erikson, which characteristic develops during the crisis of autonomy versus shame and

doubt?

A. hope B. will C. caring D. love 104. According to Erikson, shame and doubt

A. fills toddlers with inhibitions and undermines self-esteem.

B. need to be balanced with autonomy.

C. can interfere with the learning of self-regulation and self-restraint.

D. should be replaced by unrestrained freedom.

105. Two-year-old Cameron rejects his parents' offers of assistance and shows high levels of negativism.

According to Erikson's theory, Cameron is A. a temperamentally difficult child.

B. an anxiously attached child.

C. expressing the need for autonomy.

D. developing the capacity for symbolic representation.

106. Sohi is 2 years old and insists on dressing herself even if her clothes are put on wrong. According to

Erikson, which of the following stages is she in?

A. basic trust versus basic mistrust B. identity versus role confusion C. autonomy versus shame and doubt D. initiative versus guilt

107. Leroy has settled into the habit of saying "no" even when he may mean "yes." His parents explain that he

has hit the "terrible twos," a normal manifestation of A. self-regulation.

B. basic mistrust.

C. shame and doubt.

D. the need for autonomy.

108. Negativism is typically a(n)

A. early sign of self-doubt.

B. sign of childhood depression.

C. sign of self-regulation.

D. expression of the need for autonomy.

109.

is the process by which children develop the habits, skills, values, and motives that make them responsible, productive members of a society.

A. Self-actualization B. Socialization C. Selective regulation D. Auto-didacticism

110. Socialization depends on the

of societal standards of conduct.

A. rejection B. reciprocation C. internalization D. replication 111. Development of self-regulation is fundamentally based on children's ability to

A. quiet themselves.

B. obey the caregiver.

C. form their own rules.

D. think and remember.

112. Self-regulation is

A. the control of a child's own behavior to conform to social expectations.

B. self-willed behavior.

C. usually fully developed by the age of 2.

D. rarely acquired before the age of 4.

113. Nancy, age 16 months, is about to touch an electric outlet, but then says, "No!" and pulls her finger back.

Nancy is demonstrating A. negativism.

B. shame and doubt.

C. basic mistrust.

D. the beginnings of self-regulation.

114. Which of the following is the foundation for socialization?

A. self-awareness B. self-description C. self-regulation D. self-recognition 115. To minimize conflict and increase a 2-year-old's sense of competence, parents should

A. never remove a child or themselves from a problematic situation until the conflict has been resolved.

B. make a point of interrupting the child's activities from time to time to help the child develop adaptability.

C. give the child choices.

D. try to minimize conflict by teasing the child.

116.A child who is by himself starts to get into his father's toolbox, even though his father has told him not to.

As he begins to reach into the toolbox, he begins to feel guilty and decides to leave the tools alone. The child has developed A. situational compliance.

B. negativism.

C. social referencing.

D. a conscience.

117. Which of the following is the most advanced form of socialization?

A. receptive cooperation B. committed compliance C. social referencing D. self-recognition 118. Phillipe is a model child as long as an adult oversees his activities. When no adult is present, he tends to

do inappropriate things. Which of the following terms would best explain this behavior?

A. committed compliance B. situational compliance C. self-regulation D. self-efficacy 119. Kochanska's studies of the origins of conscience in children ages 26 to 41 months indicated that

A.children whose mothers characterized them as having internalized the household rules showed the most committed compliance.

Bchildren whose compliance was only situational were just as likely as children with committed . compliance to have internalized the rules of their household.

C. internalization grows out of situational compliance.

D there was little continuity in committed compliance from the initial observation in toddlerhood to a . follow-up observation in early childhood.

120.A factor in the success of socialization that allows the child to be an active partner in socialization and promotes a willingness to cooperate is called A. regulation.

B. obedience.

C. reciprocity.

D. generalization.

121. Which of the following is a proven gender difference?

A. Boys are taller and heavier than girls.

B. Boys are physically more vulnerable than girls.

C. Boys brains are larger than girls at birth.

D. all of the above 122. Young boys choose different toys and play activities than young girls. These behaviors are known as

behavioral A. differences.

B. choices.

C. changes.

D. obligations.

123. In terms of gender differences, parents

A. have higher expectations of boys.

B. see boys and girls as equal.

C. want boys and girls to be more similar.

D. have higher expectations of girls.

124. The process by which children learn behavior that their culture considers appropriate for each sex is

called A. gender naming.

B. gender typing.

C. genetic typing.

D. genetic styles.

125. The longest-lasting relationship a person will likely have is with their

A. parents.

B. siblings.

C. children.

D. spouse.

126. Young children's relationships with their siblings are usually

A. characterized by rivalry.

B. characterized by affection and attachment.

C. stressful for later-borns.

D. important from birth.

127. Research on sibling relationships in infancy indicates that

A. babies do not generally begin to interact with their older siblings until they are at least 1 year old.

B. the quality of each child's attachment to the parents predicts the quality of the sibling relationship.

C. babies become attached to their adult caregivers but not to their siblings.

D. 1-year-olds spend more time with their older siblings than with their mothers.

128. Constructive conflict between siblings

A. can be an opportunity for growth.

B. becomes less common after the younger sibling turns 24 months old.

C. usually leads to an escalation of the original conflict.

D. interferes with children's ability to learn how to fight, disagree, and compromise.

129. Which of the following statements about babies' interest in other children is correct?

A. Their interest increases steadily throughout the first two years of life.

BTheir interest increases until about 1 year of age, then falls off (evidently because of preoccupation with . motor skills), and then increases again at about 18 months.

CTheir interest is low until about 1 year of age, then increases dramatically (evidently because of . growing communication skills), and then decreases again until the "terrible twos."

D Their interest is initially high but then decreases steadily throughout the first two years of life and tends . not to reappear again until about age 3.

130. Differences in sociability among very young children

A. appear to be entirely due to hereditary factors.

B. are associated with the amount of time babies spend with other babies.

C. tend to reflect the sociability of the fathers.

D. is unrelated to the amount of early contact with those outside of the family.

131. By nine months of age, about

arrangement.

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60

percent of U.S. infants are in some form of nonparental child care

132. Define emotion. Explain the concept of the self, and explain why emotions such as pride, shame, and

guilt develop late in infancy and toddlerhood.

133. Describe the Thomas and Chess New York Longitudinal Study. In your description, include the three

categories of temperament and the outcomes of the research.

134. Explain how the Erikson crisis of trust versus mistrust has an effect on the personality development of a

child.

135. Define attachment. Describe the Ainsworth "Strange Situation," and describe the different types of

attachment. What are the current critiques of this study?

136. How do infants and caregivers read each other's nonverbal signs? In your explanation, include the terms

mutual regulation, still-face paradigm, and social referencing.

137. When does the sense of self arise, and what contributes to its development?

138. How does Erikson's crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt influence a child's personality

development? In your explanation, include the terms negativism and self-regulation.

139. Describe sibling relationships during the period of infancy and toddlerhood. In your description, include

parental influences on sibling relationships.

140. What are some important factors that parents must keep in mind when choosing day care for their

children?

Chapter 08 Key 1. (p. 205-209) D 2. (p. 205) D 3. (p. 205-206) D 4. (p. 205) C 5. (p. 205) C 6. (p. 205) C 7. (p. 205) B 8. (p. 205) A 9. (p. 205) B 10. (p. 205-206) D 11. (p. 206) C 12. (p. 205-206) C 13. (p. 205-206) A 14. (p. 219) B 15. (p. 206) A 16. (p. 206) B 17. (p. 207) B 18. (p. 207) B 19. (p. 207) D 20. (p. 207) D 21. (p. 207) C 22. (p. 207) A 23. (p. 207) D 24. (p. 207) C 25. (p. 207) D 26. (p. 209) D 27. (p. 209) C 28. (p. 209) A 29. (p. 209) B 30. (p. 209) B 31. (p. 210) C 32. (p. 209-210) B 33. (p. 209-210) A 34. (p. 209-210) C 35. (p. 209-210) B 36. (p. 209-210) B

37. (p. 209-210) A 38. (p. 209) B 39. (p. 210) A 40. (p. 211) D 41. (p. 211-212) A 42. (p. 211) A 43. (p. 211) C 44. (p. 211-212) C 45. (p. 212) C 46. (p. 212) A 47. (p. 212) A 48. (p. 212) A 49. (p. 212) B 50. (p. 212) C 51. (p. 212) C 52. (p. 212) B 53. (p. 213) C 54. (p. 213) C 55. (p. 213-214) B 56. (p. 213) A 57. (p. 214) B 58. (p. 214) D 59. (p. 214) A 60. (p. 214) D 61. (p. 214) C 62. (p. 214) A 63. (p. 214) B 64. (p. 214) B 65. (p. 226) B 66. (p. 227) B 67. (p. 215) B 68. (p. 215) C 69. (p. 215) A 70. (p. 215) C 71. (p. 215) B 72. (p. 215) C 73. (p. 216) A 74. (p. 216) B

75. (p. 216) D 76. (p. 216) B 77. (p. 216) B 78. (p. 216) C 79. (p. 216) D 80. (p. 216-217) B 81. (p. 216-217) A 82. (p. 216-217) B 83. (p. 216-217) C 84. (p. 217) A 85. (p. 218) D 86. (p. 218) B 87. (p. 218) B 88. (p. 218) A 89. (p. 218-220) D 90. (p. 218-220) C 91. (p. 218-220) D 92. (p. 219-220) C 93. (p. 220-221) D 94. (p. 220) B 95. (p. 220) D 96. (p. 220-221) A 97. (p. 220-221) D 98. (p. 220-221) A 99. (p. 221) B 100. (p. 221) D 101. (p. 221) C 102. (p. 221) C 103. (p. 221) B 104. (p. 221) B 105. (p. 221) C 106. (p. 221) C 107. (p. 221) D 108. (p. 221) D 109. (p. 222) B 110. (p. 222) C 111. (p. 222-223) D 112. (p. 222-223) A

113. (p. 222-223) D 114. (p. 222) C 115. (p. 222) C 116. (p. 224) D 117. (p. 224) A 118. (p. 224) B 119. (p. 224) A 120. (p. 224) C 121. (p. 225) D 122. (p. 225) A 123. (p. 225-226) A 124. (p. 226) B 125. (p. 226) B 126. (p. 227) B 127. (p. 226-227) B 128. (p. 227) A 129. (p. 227) B 130. (p. 227) B 131. (p. 228) D 132. Answer will vary 133. Answer will vary 134. Answer will vary 135. Answer will vary 136. Answer will vary 137. Answer will vary 138. Answer will vary 139. Answer will vary 140. Answer will vary

Chapter 08 Summary Category Guidepost: How do infants and toddlers interact with siblings and other children?

Guidepost: How do infants gain trust in their world and form attachments and how do infants and caregivers "read" each others no nverbal signals?

# of Questions 7 51

Guidepost: How do infants show temperamental differences, and how enduring are those differences?

Guidepost: How do parental employment and early child care affect infants and toddlers development?

Guidepost: When and how do emotions develop, and how do babies show them?

Guidepost: When and how do gender differences appears?

Guidepost: When and how does the sense of self arise? How do toddlers exercise autonomy and develop standards for socially acc eptable behavior?

Papalia - Chapter 08 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

20 2 26 4 30 140 11 44 76

Chapter 09 Student:

1.

Jerome is outgrowing the "terrible twos" and approaching early childhood. His shell-shocked parents know that their niece Lydia has studied child development so they ask her what they should expect.

Which of the following is NOT something that Lydia will tell them?

A. Jerome will slim down and shoot up in height.

B. Jerome will soon show a preference for handedness.

C. Jerome will require more sleep.

D. Jerome will likely develop sleep problems.

2.

During early childhood, youngsters grow A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 3 to 4 D. 4 to 5

3.

Irving is a typical 4-year-old boy. He usually A. sleeps through the night without any daytime naps.

B. sleeps through the night and has one daytime nap.

C. sleeps fitfully, with frequent nightmares and other disturbances.

D. sleeps every four to six hours.

4.

Which of the following statements regarding sleep patterns across cultures is false?

A. Children across cultures get approximately the same amount of sleep each day.

B. In many traditional cultures, children have no set bedtime and go to sleep when they are tired.

C. All known cultures utilize some form of naptimes.

D. The timing of the sleep cycle varies from culture to culture.

5.

Compared to children in the United States, children in other cultures get timing of sleep is .

A. about the same amount of; often different B. more; often different C. more; about the same D. about the same amount of; also about the same

6.

Jane's "baby teddy" is kept in her mother's car to help calm her down when she has to go to daycare. "Baby teddy" is her object.

A. conversion B. separation C. educational D. transitional

7.

An example of a transitional object is A. a child's favorite blanket.

B. crackers between lunch and dinner.

C. a ritual of being rocked to sleep.

D. all of the above

inches per year.

sleep, and the

8.

Mollie, age 4, refused to go to sleep without her favorite rag doll. The family was up late because "Rag Doll Ruthie" had to finish in the wash cycle and spend a period of time in the dryer. "Ruthie" is an example of A. a transitional object.

B. regression.

C. infantilism.

D. a sleep inhibitor.

9.

Which of the following statements regarding early childhood sleep behaviors is false?

A. Walking and talking during sleep is unusual in early childhood.

B. Sleepwalkers may be in danger of hurting themselves.

C. Most sleep disturbances are caused by accidental activation of the brain's motor control system.

D. Most children outgrow sleep disturbances.

10. Which of the following statements regarding sleep terrors is false?

A. The child typically is unable to go back to sleep after awakening from sleep terrors.

B. Sleep terrors are simply an effect of very deep sleep.

C. Sleep terrors are not indicative of underlying emotional problems.

D. Sleep terrors usually go away or are outgrown.

11. Bonnie has apparently awakened from a deep sleep. She is staring ahead and breathing quickly. When asked if she has had a bad dream, she does not answer but promptly lies back down and falls asleep. The next morning, she has no recollection of the experience. Bonnie experienced A. a nightmare.

B. a bedtime struggle.

C. nighttime fears.

D. a sleep terror.

12. Jack has occasionally been quite upset when he awakens in the morning. He tells his parents that he dreamed he was being chased by the large dog that lives down the street. Jack is experiencing A. nightmares.

B. nighttime fears.

C. sleep terrors.

D. imaginative sleep.

13. Nightmares during early childhood A. are experienced by boys more than girls.

B. should be treated by a mental health professional.

C. generally indicate abuse.

D. are serious only if they occur frequently.

14. Sylvia is aware of your extensive background in sleep disturbances and disorders. She is not certain how to tell if her son is experiencing sleep terrors or nightmares. What could you tell her to help her determine the difference?

A. Sleep terrors take place in deep sleep, so they will not come until hours into the sleep cycle.

B. If the child can remember what she was dreaming, it is probably a nightmare.

C. Eating a heavy meal before bed can bring on sleep terrors.

D. Sleep terrors tend to affect girls, and nightmares tend to affect boys.

15. Shirley has a child who sleepwalks and has night terrors. Given the recommendations provided in your textbook, Shirley should do all of the following except A. childproof the house (e.g., stairs, windows, and doors).

B. walk or carry the child back to bed during sleepwalking episodes.

C. wake the child during sleepwalking and night terrors.

D. help her child get enough sleep on a regular schedule.

16. Enuresis is the medical term for A. bed-wetting.

B. sleep terrors.

C. bedtime struggles.

D. nightmares.

17. Which of the following is NOT typically a factor in enuresis?

A. family history B. emotional stress C. heredity D. sex of the child 18. Which is not true of early childhood brain growth and development?

A. A brain growth spurt continues until at least age 3.

B. Brain development is more dramatic in early childhood than during infancy.

C. By age 6 the brain is about 95% of its peak volume.

D. From ages 3 to 6, the most rapid growth occurs in the frontal areas of the brain.

19. Adam is getting pretty good with the joystick that guides his favorite computer game. This activity relies on his motor skills.

A. gross B. fine C. graded D. lateralized 20. Pedro has gotten proficient in kicking the soccer ball into the goal net. This ability relies on his motor skills.

A. gross B. fine C. graded D. subcortical 21. Most 3-year-olds can A. make a running jump of 36 inches or more.

B. walk in a straight line and jump a short distance.

C. hop four to six steps on one foot.

D. start, turn, and stop effectively in games.

22. As preschoolers develop gross and fine motor skills, they continually merge abilities they already have with those that they are acquiring in order to produce more complex abilities. Such combinations of skills are known as A. reciprocal feedback loops.

B. systems of action.

C. assimilation.

D. accommodation.

23. Given the increased concern about obesity, many parents want to start their young children in sports to get them moving. According to your textbook, what is the youngest age at which parents should encourage their children to participate in an organized sport such as soccer or baseball?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

24. When considering organized sports for children younger than 6 years old, parents and teachers should keep in mind that A. only 20% of children younger than 6 can throw a ball well.

B. only 30% of children younger than 6 can catch a ball well.

C. children under 6 years old are limited by lack of maturation.

D. all of the above 25. Alysha can dress herself with help, cut along a line, draw a fairly complete person, and fold paper into a double triangle. Given your knowledge of average fine-motor skill development in early childhood, how old is Alysha?

A. 2 1/2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7 26. According to Kellogg, 2-year-old Lucille's artwork that adorns the refrigerator is best characterized as A. scribbling.

B. shapes.

C. pictoria.

D. design.

27. Placement of markings on the paper is an important characteristic of the development.

A. design B. scribble C. pictorial D. shape

stage of artistic

28. In his drawings, Len no longer makes scribbles on the paper and has just started to make identifiable squares and circles. According to Kellogg, what stage of artistic development is Len displaying?

A. design B. shape C. pictorial D. post-scribble 29. In the designs.

A. design B. pictorial C. scribble D. shape

stage of artistic development, children combine basic shapes into more complex

30. Paulina and her husband, Gary, are having fun watching the progression of their daughter's art work through the four stages of artistic development. These four stages, in order, are A. scribble, design, shape, and pictorial.

B. scribble, shape, pictorial, and design.

C. shape, scribble, design, and pictorial.

D. scribble, shape, design, and pictorial.

31. Jacob's left-handedness sent his parents on a research mission to check out the facts. Which of the following regarding handedness is false?

A. Many cultures discourage left-handedness.

B. Roughly 80% of the population is right-handed.

C. Handedness is linked to genetics.

D. Handedness is a result of environmental influences.

32. A clear preference for handedness is usually evident by A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48

months of age.

33. Which statement about handedness is correct?

A. There appears to be a single gene for right-handedness.

B. Monozygotic twins always have the same hand preference.

C. The top-scoring children taking the SAT are right-handed.

D. Right-handed children are more likely to have accidents than left-handed children.

34. Which of the following statements regarding handedness is false?

A. Boys are more likely to be left-handed than girls.

B. Scientific evidence provides many reasons for favoring right-handedness.

C. The incidence of left-handedness in a population depends in part on cultural attitudes.

D. Prejudice against left-handed individuals has largely disappeared in western industrial countries.

35. Compared with infants, children in the early childhood stage A. require fewer calories per pound of body fat.

B. have an increased appetite.

C. have to be restrained from overeating.

D. have to be urged to eat the amount of food necessary to supply their energy needs.

36. Excessive weight gain during the early childhood period is a result of A. caloric intake.

B. a lack of exercise.

C. heredity.

D. all of the above 37. Which of the following is NOT recommended when trying to encourage healthy eating habits in early childhood?

A. Serve finger foods as often as possible.

B. Be tolerant of food rituals.

C. Encourage pleasant conversation at mealtimes.

D. Insist that the child clean his or her plate.

38. Diane is trying to find ways to encourage her 4-year-old to develop healthy eating habits. Which of the following would NOT be a good guideline for her to follow?

A. Keep mealtime pleasant with conversation about interesting topics.

B. Make nutritious snacks available.

C. Make certain that the child finishes what is on his plate.

D. Serve finger foods as often as possible.

39. The Worldwide Obesity Task Force reports that over 22 million children under the age of 5 are overweight. In some countries such as Egypt, Morocco, and Zambia the number of overweight children A. has caused a national crisis.

B. has forced schools to redesign their lunch programs.

C. has forced pediatricians to report families for family service interventions.

D. exceeds the number of children who are malnourished.

40. Which of the following statements regarding nutrition and obesity in early childhood is false?

A. Obese children, especially those with overweight parents, tend to become obese adults.

B. Obesity is on the rise in the United States.

C. Dairy foods should be cut from the diet because of the fat content.

D. Obesity is more common amongst preschool girls than preschool boys.

41. Four-year-old Sam loves high fat foods. Although Sam is not overweight, his parents want him to have a healthy diet. Which of the following statements about dietary fat and preschoolers is correct?

A. Research has shown that a moderately low-fat diet is harmful to children Sam's age.

B. Children over age 2 should obtain about 30% of their total calories from fat.

C. Children over age 2 should obtain about 30% of their total calories from saturated fat.

D. Children should not be given skim or low-fat milk until they are 6 years old.

42. Which of the following statements about malnutrition in early childhood is false?

A. Children are more likely to do poorly on tests if they are malnourished.

B. The effect of malnutrition on growth is irreversible.

C. Children are more apt to repeat a grade in school if they are malnourished.

D. Children have difficulty getting along with other children when they are malnourished.

43. By what age are all the primary, or deciduous, teeth in place?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 44. Chad has just gotten his first permanent tooth. If he is an average child, what age would you estimate Chad to be?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 45. Which of the following statements regarding oral health in early childhood is false?

A. Since the 1970s, there has been a dramatic reduction in tooth decay with a slight reverse in this trend since the 1990's.

B. Pain resulting from oral infection can slow growth by interfering with normal sleeping and eating patterns.

C. Middle-class children have more untreated cavities than other children.

D. Thumb-sucking past age 4 can affect the permanent teeth.

46. Parents find themselves inundated with information regarding the health and safety of their children.

Which of the following statements regarding early childhood is false?

A. Life is much safer for children in the United States today than during times past.

B. Immunization has helped to control many of the major diseases of childhood.

C. In the United States, children's death rates from all causes have come down in recent years.

D. Most childhood deaths are caused by illness rather than injury.

47. In the United States, the leading cause of death among children today is A. child abuse.

B. accidents.

C. cancer.

D. respiratory diseases.

48. Most deaths from injuries, especially among preschool aged children, in the United States A. occur in private day care centers.

B. occur at home.

C. are due to dangerous toys.

D. occur within walking distance from the home.

49. Children are required by law to ride in specially designed car seats or seatbelt restraints in A. over 50% of the states.

B. all states including the District of Columbia.

C. states that are heavily populated.

D. no states; it is merely a suggestion.

50. Jean-Paul has a young son and wants to make certain that he is as safe as possible in their automobile.

Which of the following concerns should he pay attention to?

A. where his son is seated in relation to the airbag systems in the vehicle B. the appropriateness of the car seat for the child C. whether or not the child is properly fastened in the car seat D. all of the above 51. Which of the following statements about children's accidental injuries is false?

A. Many injuries can be averted by making playgrounds safer.

B. Children are less likely to be injured in day care than in and around the home.

C. Safer storage of firearms, as required by law in several states, has done little to improve child safety.

D. Mandatory helmets for bicycle riders have improved child safety.

52. Which of the following statements regarding ingestion of toxic substances by children is false?

A. Over one million cases are reported to poison control each year in the United States.

B. Many poison deaths can be prevented by safe storage of medicines and supplements.

C. Child-proof caps have virtually eliminated ingestion of toxic substances by children.

D. Parents with a young child should attach the number for the local poison control to the telephone.

53. Research indicates that disparities associated with U.S. children's health persist, particularly with the nation's poor and near-poor families. Disparities affecting children in the United States include A. access to medical insurance.

B. access to vaccinations.

C. seeking dental and medical services.

D. all of the above 54. Although the United States is one of the richest countries in the world, in 2002, nearly in the United States lived in poverty.

A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 35

% of children

55. Which of the following statements regarding the health of poor children is false?

A. The health problems of poor children begin with poor prenatal nutrition and care.

B. Poor children are more likely than others to suffer from psychological and behavioral difficulties.

C. Because of free public health clinics, poor children are more likely than others to be protected by immunizations.

D. Poor children have a higher incidence of stress-related illness than other children.

56. Which of the following statements about children's exposure to smoking is correct?

A. Smoking is a preventable cause of childhood illness and death.

B Passive exposure to tobacco smoke increases the risk of contracting a number of medical problems, . including bronchitis, and asthma.

C. Passive exposure to smoke may lead to cancer in adulthood.

D. all of the above 57. Poor children are at a higher-than-average risk for which of the following health problems?

A. lead poisoning B. hearing loss and vision problems C. iron-deficiency anemia D. all of the above 58. A government program providing medical assistance to low income families is called A. Medicaid.

B. Medicare.

C. Medi-card.

D. Title IX.

59. Environmental contaminants may play a role in certain childhood issues such as A. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

B. mental retardation.

C. cancer.

D. all of the above 60. Children can get lead in their bloodstreams from lead-contaminated food and water, and from inhaling dust from lead-based paints in schools and homes. To reduce the effects of lead exposure parents can A. encourage hand washing before meals and trim children's fingernails.

B. encourage a well-balanced diet.

C. remove chipped or peeling paint.

D. all of the above 61. Which of the following statements about lead and children's health is false?

AElevated levels of lead in the blood have dropped since 1976-1980, but precautions should still be taken . to prevent contact with this dangerous substance.

B. Black children tend to have higher blood levels than white children.

C. Problems associated with poverty and maternal depression may compound the effects of low levels of lead exposure.

D. The effects of lead poisoning are usually reversible if caught early.

62. Which of the following statements regarding homelessness and children is correct?

A. An estimated 1.35 million children are homeless in the United States.

B. Families constitute 33% of the homeless population.

C. Many homeless families are headed by single mothers in their twenties.

D. all of the above 63. Compare and contrast physical development at ages 3 and 6. Your discussion should include a description of "average" development at each age in the following areas: body growth and change; and, motor skills.

64. Waking and talking during sleep are common in early childhood. However, nightmares and sleep terrors often give parents cause for concern. Explain the difference between sleep terrors and nightmares, and give an example of each. Offer suggestions about what parents can do to decrease the occurrence of these sleep disturbances.

65. With the mass media marketing campaign for "Pullup" pants, in which children discuss their anxiety over wetting the bed, new attention has been paid to this common early childhood problem. What is enuresis?

What causes it, and what can be done to help a child who has it?

66. Discuss how art production appears to reflect brain development and fine-motor coordination. Include the stages of art development.

67. As young children grow, development occurs at both the fine and gross motor levels. Explain the difference between fine motor skills and gross motor skills, and give an example of each.

68. Child obesity is a growing health problem in the United States. What are some of the factors related to this problem, and what can parents and schools do to control it?

69. People traveling with young children in automobiles must follow a number of safety rules. Explain the considerations related to car seats and airbags that are important for safe travel.

70. Describe four potential environmental influences on health in the early childhood period of development.

How do low SES and homelessness contribute? Describe some of the disparities in the United States and their effects on child health, safety and development.

71. What are some of the global differences in infant mortality worldwide? What might be done to produce more rapid, evenly distributed improvements in child mortality? What professional fields should be employed in this endeavor and how might interdisciplinary research be effective?

Chapter 09 Key 1. (p. 238) C 2. (p. 238) B 3. (p. 239) B 4. (p. 239) C 5. (p. 239) A 6. (p. 239-240) D 7. (p. 240) A 8. (p. 240) A 9. (p. 240) A 10. (p. 240) A 11. (p. 240) D 12. (p. 240) A 13. (p. 240) D 14. (p. 240) B 15. (p. 240) C 16. (p. 240) A 17. (p. 240) B 18. (p. 241) B 19. (p. 242) B 20. (p. 242) A 21. (p. 242) B 22. (p. 242) B 23. (p. 242) B 24. (p. 242) D 25. (p. 242) B 26. (p. 243) A 27. (p. 243) B 28. (p. 243) B 29. (p. 243) A 30. (p. 243) D 31. (p. 243) D 32. (p. 243) C 33. (p. 243) A 34. (p. 243) B 35. (p. 246) A 36. (p. 244-246) D

37. (p. 245) D 38. (p. 245) C 39. (p. 244) D 40. (p. 244-246) C 41. (p. 246) B 42. (p. 247-248) B 43. (p. 247-248) A 44. (p. 248) C 45. (p. 248) C 46. (p. 244) D 47. (p. 249) B 48. (p. 249) B 49. (p. 249) B 50. (p. 249) D 51. (p. 249) C 52. (p. 249) C 53. (p. 249-250) D 54. (p. 249) B 55. (p. 249) C 56. (p. 252) D 57. (p. 252) D 58. (p. 249) A 59. (p. 252) D 60. (p. 252) D 61. (p. 252) D 62. (p. 250) D 63. Answer will vary 64. Answer will vary 65. Answer will vary 66. Answer will vary 67. Answer will vary 68. Answer will vary 69. Answer will vary 70. Answer will vary 71. Answer will vary

Chapter 09 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: How do childrens bodies change between ages 3 and 6?

3 Guidepost: How do childrens brains develop between ages 3 and 6?

1 Guidepost: What are the main motor achievements of early childhood?

18 Guidepost: What are the nutritional needs of young children, and what risks are associated with undernutrition and obesity? What a 32 re the major health and safety risks for young children?

Guidepost: What sleep patterns and problems tend to develop during early childhood?

17 Papalia - Chapter 09 71 Question Type: A 5 Question Type: C 15 Question Type: F 42

Chapter 10 Student:

1.

Between the ages of 2 and 7, children enter Piaget's A. operational B. deferred imitation C. preoperational D. sensorimotor

stage of cognitive development.

2.

The preoperational stage of cognitive development marks a major qualitative leap in thinking because it ushers in A. object permanence.

B. logical reasoning.

C. the use of symbolic thought.

D. transductive reasoning.

3.

In Piaget's theory, a symbol refers to a(n) A. mental representation.

B. physical object.

C. inanimate object.

D. written word.

4.

Lenny, who is 4 years old, is playing outside in the snow when he suddenly asks his father for a cup of hot chocolate. According to Piaget, Lenny's ability to think about hot chocolate, even though there is none around, shows that he is capable of A. transductive reasoning.

B. symbolic function.

C. delayed gratification.

D. operational thought.

5.

In Piaget's terminology, a mental representation to which a person has attached meaning is called a(n) A. symbol.

B. operation.

C. function.

D. transformation.

6.

Which of the following involves the use of the symbolic function?

A. deferred imitation B. pretend play C. language D. all of the above

7.

Which of the following scenarios does NOT exemplify the symbolic function?

A. While Arthur's father is brushing his sister's hair, Arthur brushes his toy dog.

B. On Sunday morning, Betsy watched her father make pancakes. On Tuesday, she made pancakes with modeling clay.

C. Carmen uses an overturned pot as a drum and two wooden spoons as drumsticks.

D. Riding a bus with his mother, Darren suddenly announces, "I want some alphabet soup!"

8.

Gannon and Cole ride their bikes around the driveway making train sounds. They tell their parents that they are train conductors. They are engaging in what kind of play?

A. pretend play B. symbolic play C. fantasy play D. all of the above

9.

Tatiana's older sister, Jenny, wore a witch costume for Halloween. Even though Jenny looked like a witch, Tatiana understood that she was really her sister. This achievement of preoperational thought requires A. the use of symbols.

B. the understanding of identities.

C. the understanding of cause and effect.

D. empathy.

10. Children often do not use deductive or inductive reasoning; they just jump from one idea to another and see causes where none exist. This is referred to as A. egocentrism.

B. animism.

C. irreversibility.

D. transductive reasoning.

11. Sarah was mean to her brother, Adam. When Adam got sick, Sarah concluded that she made her brother sick. This is an example of A. irreversibility.

B. transductive reasoning.

C. egocentrism.

D. animism.

12.

is the preoperational child's tendency to mentally link particular experiences, with or without a logically causal relationship.

A. Theory of mind B. Egocentrism C. Transduction D. Animism

13. Three-year-old Austin is playing with his cars. He puts all the red cars in one area and the rest of the cars in another area. This is an example of A. classification.

B. conservation.

C. irreversibility.

D. theory of mind.

14. Piaget discussed the limitations of thought that are attributed to the preoperational stage. Which of the following is NOT a limitation?

A. centration B. induction C. focusing on states D. irreversibility 15. According to Piaget, which of the following characteristics is NOT part of preoperational thought?

A. egocentrism B. reversibility C. centration D. transductive reasoning 16. Preoperational children tend to focus on one aspect of a situation and neglect others, leading to illogical conclusions. Piaget called this tendency A. egocentrism.

B. classification.

C. centration.

D. transduction.

17. Many children can classify by two criteria, such as color and shape, by the age of A. 12 months.

B. 18 months.

C. 2 years.

D. 4 years.

18. Renee pours a glass of milk for her doll telling her mother that her doll is very thirsty. The attribution of life to a nonliving object is called A. conservation.

B. centration.

C. egocentrism.

D. animism.

19. Four-year-old Karl tells his father, "I told the wind to blow, so it made my kite fly." This is an example of A. animism.

B. irreversibility.

C. conservation.

D. centration.

20. Derek's parents are happy to be buying a new car, but he is not enthusiastic. He tells his parents that it is not fair that they are getting rid of the old car after all the car has done for them. Derek is demonstrating in his thinking.

A. centration B. conservation C. animism D. irreversibility 21. Around the ages of 12 to 18 months, children develop the concept of more or less and bigger and smaller.

This concept is called A. conservation.

B. centration.

C. transduction.

D. ordinality.

22. Ms. Wang is working with her first-grade students on a math problem. She asks them who has more crayons - Jamie who has five crayons or Juan who has seven. Ms. Wong assumes that her students have acquired A. ordinality.

B. conservation.

C. centration.

D. animism.

23. Callie does not realize that she needs to turn the book so that her father can see it. She can see it just fine.

This is an example of A. the theory of mind.

B. transductive reasoning.

C. egocentrism.

D. the dual-representation hypothesis.

24. Young children are unable to see things from another's point of view. Piaget describes this as A. transductive reasoning.

B. egocentrism.

C. decentration.

D. irreversibility.

25. Emma, age 3, runs into the room to show her parents a picture she has drawn. While holding the paper with the drawing facing her, she says, "See my picture?" Her parents, able to see only the back of the paper, ask to see the drawing. Emma just holds the paper closer to them without turning it around.

Emma's behavior demonstrates A. a focus on states.

B. transductive reasoning.

C. animism.

D. egocentrism.

26. Andrew is listening to some music through headphones, and no one else can hear it. When his mother walks into the room he says, "Mommy, do you like this song?" Andrew's question indicates thinking.

A. presymbolic B. egocentric C. animistic D. irreversible 27. Piaget tested children's egocentrism by using the A. clay B. parallel sticks of different lengths C. glasses of liquid D. three-mountain

task.

28. Ivan watches his mother take some clay from a small box. She rolls the clay into a long, thin shape. Ivan says, "But, Mommy, now the clay will not fit back in the box!" Ivan's statement illustrates A. decentration.

B. irreversibility.

C. egocentrism.

D. ordinality.

29. Timothy does not understand that transforming the shape of a liquid (by pouring it from one container into another) does not change the amount of liquid. This represents which limitation in preoperational thought?

A. transductive reasoning B. egocentrism C. animism D. conservation 30. Sheena knows what her mother will think when she comes into the room and sees the mess that she and her friends have made. Sheena's awareness of her mental processes and those of other people is called A. egocentrism.

B. decentering.

C. theory of mind.

D. conservation.

31. Recent studies on children's theory of mind suggest that A Piaget was right in concluding that children younger than 6 cannot distinguish between thoughts or . dreams and real physical entities.

Bmost 3-year-olds can tell the difference between a boy who has a cookie and a boy who is thinking . about a cookie; they know which boy can touch, share, and eat the cookie.

C. young children realize that the mind is continuously active.

D. the understanding that other people can have false beliefs does not develop for most children until middle childhood.

32. According to Piaget, children do not develop an understanding of their own mental processes until they are years old, though more recent research sets the average age lower.

A. 2 B. 6 C. 7 D. 11 33. Which of the following statements regarding theory of mind is false?

A. Children rated highly on social skills by their teachers are better able to recognize false beliefs.

B. Children with siblings are better able to recognize false beliefs.

C. Theory of mind is mostly influenced by environmental experiences.

D. Empathy usually arises earlier in children whose families talk a lot about feelings and emotions.

34.

is the ability to understand that others have mental states, and the ability to judge others' feelings and intentions.

A. Empathy B. Theory of mind C. Fast mapping D. Social cognition

35. Which of the following statements about empathy is correct?

A. Empathy emerges as social cognition replaces egocentrism.

B. Empathy is usually not exhibited until the end of the preoperational period, around age 6.

C. Empathy cannot be assessed in preverbal children.

D. Empathy is distinct from children's theory of mind.

36. According to Piaget, children first understand the distinction between appearance (what seems to be) and reality (what is) at about the age of years.

A. 1 to 2 B. 3 to 4 C. 5 to 6 D. 7 to 8 37. At preschool, Ms. Thomas often feels as though she has spent the morning with twice the number of students that she actually has. It seems that everyone has invited their imaginary friend to spend the morning. Which of the following statements regarding imaginary companions is false?

A. Imaginary companions are more common among first-born and only children.

B. Boys are more likely than girls to have imaginary companions.

C. Girls' imaginary playmates are usually other children, whereas boys' are more often animals.

D Children with imaginary companions are more likely to engage in pretend play than those who do not . have imaginary companions.

38. Compared to children who have no imaginary companions, children who do have imaginary companions A. are usually socially isolated.

B. have fewer friends at preschool.

C. are more fluent with language.

D. do not like playing with real friends.

39. Information-processing theorists refer to the process of putting information into memory as A. retrieval.

B. storage.

C. encoding.

D. recognition.

40. When information is needed, David searches his mind looking for the answer and then writes it down.

David's search is referred to as A. retrieval.

B. storage.

C. encoding.

D. recognition.

41. Information being encoded or retrieved is kept in a short-term "storehouse" which is referred to as A. working memory.

B. permanent storage.

C. sensory memory.

D. recognition.

42. Recognition memory is A. better developed than is recall memory in early childhood.

B. the ability to reproduce knowledge from memory.

C. more efficient in early childhood than in middle childhood, when recall memory takes over.

D. fully developed by the age of 3.

43.

is the ability to identify something encountered previously, and reproduce knowledge from memory.

A. Recall; recognition B. Recollection; recognition C. Recognition; recall D. Recognition; recollection

is the ability to

44. Jeremy has memorized the route that his bus takes to school. He can describe it in detail to his father.

This is an example of A. prospective memory.

B. generic memory.

C. recognition.

D. episodic memory.

45.

is memory that produces a script of familiar routines to guide behavior.

A. Generic memory B. Recall and recognition C. Autobiographical memory D. Episodic memory

46. Three-year-old Molly's family took her to the circus six months ago, and she still remembers meeting the clowns. Which type of memory is Molly demonstrating?

A. recognition B. episodic C. generic D. none of the above 47. Which type of childhood memory begins at about age 2 and involves the use of scripts?

A. autobiographical B. generic C. episodic D. implicit 48. Because of its lack of reliability, involving charges of child abuse.

A. episodic B. autobiographical C. generic D. implicit

memory has become an important issue in lawsuits

49. Autobiographical memory A. is the first type of memory to form.

B. is personal and best constructed alone.

C. is a type of episodic memory.

D. helps children recall insignificant events.

50. According to the social interaction model for memory retention, which of these statements is false?

A. A high elaborative style elicits more detailed information.

B. The social interaction model holds that children collaboratively construct autobiographical memories.

C. Low elaborative style allows children to embellish more and they are therefore better able to recall detailed memories.

D. Elaborative talk provides verbal labels for events, giving memories orderly structure for children.

51. Studies of autobiographical memory indicate that A. it typically begins before 3 years of age.

B. it is dependent on the development of language.

C. social interaction has little to do with its development.

D. firstborns develop autobiographical memory more slowly than their siblings.

52. Danielle is 7 years old and is beginning to develop memories that will form her personal life history.

These memories are specific and long lasting. They are memories.

A. episodic B. autobiographical C. implicit D. generic 53. The idea that children construct autobiographical memories through conversations with adults about shared events is called the model.

A. shared memory B. social interaction C. cognitive memory D. script 54. Which of the following is the best example of the social interaction model of memory?

A. Tommy remembers his experience on a roller coaster.

B. Tommy remembers riding with his mother on a roller coaster.

C. Because of a frightening ride, Tommy hates roller coasters.

D. After Tommy and his mother rode the roller coaster, they talked about the experience and now he remembers it well.

55. One of the differences that was identified when children of different cultures were asked to remember an experience was that A. American children were guided more with leading questions than Chinese children.

B. Chinese children's accounts were very long, detailed and self-guided accounts.

C. American and Chinese children left out many important facts.

D. Chinese mothers tended to ask more leading questions.

56. Parents show a great deal of concern about their children's level of intelligence very early on. Which of the following statements regarding early childhood and intelligence tests is false?

A. Because children at this stage are more proficient with language, a great number of verbal items appear on intelligence tests.

B. Verbal tests are more reliable than nonverbal tests.

C. A common misconception is that IQ scores represent a fixed quantity of inborn intelligence.

D. Culture has little influence on IQ scores and other tests designed to measure intelligence.

57. Compared with intelligence tests for infants and toddlers, tests for preschoolers take on a new dimension as emphasis is placed on assessing A. social skills.

B. verbal skills.

C. gross motor skills.

D. sensory and motor coordination.

58. Which of the following is NOT a test used to measure the intelligence of children?

A. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children B. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence D. Gardner-Denver Test of Multiple Intelligences 59. Which of the following statements is NOT true of socioeconomic status and IQ? A. Family income is associated with cognitive development.

B. The correlation between SES and IQ are not well documented.

C. Economic circumstances affect health, stress, parenting practices and home environment.

D. Regardless of income, genetic and environmental factors are both at play when it comes to intelligence.

60. Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development describes scaffolding as A. temporary parental support provided to a child as he/she attempts to complete a task.

B. support most needed by children of low ability.

C. a technique that reflects parental sensitivity to children's competence.

D. all of the above 61. Vygotsky's zone of proximal development could also be called the zone of A. potential development.

B. achievement.

C. achieved aptitude.

D. prescribed development.

62. Ena is an average 3-year-old. By this age we would expect her to be able to use about different words.

A. 100 to 500 B. 900 to 1,000 C. 3,000 to 6,000 D. 12,000 to 20,000 63. First-grade teachers have found that by the age of 6, their students typically have a spoken vocabulary of words.

A. 900 to 1,000 B. 2,600 C. 12,000 D. 20,000 64. Yesterday, 5-year-old Josh heard his father say, "Water accumulates on the roof when it rains." It was the first time he had ever heard the word "accumulate." Today, Josh told his mother, "My toys accumulate in my room." Josh is exhibiting A. egocentrism.

B. social speech.

C. fast mapping.

D. syntax.

65. A child's ability to understand what a new word means, despite hearing it only once or twice, is called A. transduction.

B. insight.

C. pragmatics.

D. fast mapping.

66. Which of the following statements regarding fast mapping is correct?

A. Names of actions seem to be easier to fast map than names of objects.

B. It takes several exposures to a word's use before a child absorbs its meaning.

C. Linguists are not sure how fast mapping works.

D. Fast mapping explains how children expand their vocabularies so quickly.

67. Jimena is a typical 3-year-old. Like most of her preschool playmates, she can correctly use A. complex, multi-clause sentences.

B. plurals, past tense, and pronouns such as "I," "you," and "me."

C. twenty or more words in a sentence.

D. and understand compound sentences.

68. At age , children's language first becomes more adult-like as they incorporate compound and complex sentences, employ all parts of speech, and use prepositions and articles.

A. 3 to 4 B. 5 to 7 C. 8 to 9 D. 10 to 12 69.

refers to the practical knowledge needed to use language for communicative purposes.

A. Pragmatics B. Social speech C. Grammar D. Private speech

70. Abdul is growing up in a family where humor is important. He always tries to participate by telling his own jokes. They invariably lack humor and timing, but the family laughs along with him regardless. One day at the dinner table, Abdul tells a joke successfully for the first time, using intonations, timing, and humor. It appears that Abdul is developing A. grammar.

B. private speech.

C. pragmatics.

D. syntax.

71. Speech intended to be understood by a listener is called A. inner B. one-on-one C. formative D. social

speech.

72. Vygotsky viewed private speech as A. a rare occurrence among normal preschool-age children.

B. speech that cannot be measured.

C. a critical component of language during the sensorimotor stage.

D. a tool important to the transition between early social speech and thinking in words.

73. When children talk aloud to themselves with no intent of communicating with anyone else, their speech is referred to as A. infantile.

B. private.

C. social.

D. abnormal.

74. Which of the following statements regarding private speech is correct?

A. Private speech occurs more frequently amongst girls.

B. Private speech peaks earliest in the brightest children.

C. Social children use private speech most often.

D. More mature forms of private speech are used by girls and children from middle-income families.

75. Language development is delayed in about A. 5 - 8 B. 10 - 15 C. 15 - 20 D. 20 - 22

% of preschool aged children.

76. Annie was delayed in acquiring language as a child. Which of the following factors could have played a role in this delay?

A. She may have had a hearing problem.

B. She may not have experienced much linguistic input at home.

C. She may have a cognitive limitation.

D. all of the above 77. Which of the following statements about delayed language development is false?

A. Many children who speak late eventually catch up with their peers.

B. It is often unclear why some children speak later than others.

C. Children with delayed language development almost always lack linguistic input at home.

D. Children with delayed language development may have problems with fast mapping.

78. Which of the following is NOT an effective way to help preschool children become literate?

A. Avoid using new and unfamiliar words.

B. Focus dinner-table talk on the day's activities.

C. Talk with children about books.

D. Read to children.

79. To understand what is on the printed page, children first need to master certain prereading skills. The development of these skills is called A. language acquisition.

B. emergent literacy.

C. phoneme-grapheme correspondence.

D. word transfer.

80. Which of the following statements regarding television and language development is correct?

A. All television delays the attainment of literacy skills.

B. Exposure to educational television is detrimental to the development of a child's vocabulary.

C. Children's language development is slower than it was a century ago.

D. none of the above 81. Preschools in China emphasize A. social development.

B. emotional growth.

C. physical development.

D. academic preparation for schooling.

more than preschools in the United States.

82. A local preschool is trying to incorporate a more child-centered approach to its curriculum. This approach emphasizes A. preparation for future academics.

B. preparation for a future role in society.

C. social and emotional growth.

D. academic achievement levels.

83. According to your textbook, which of the following is an example of a culture in which preschools are expected to provide academic preparation for schooling?

A. India B. China C. the United States D. none of the above

84. What is true of the Reggio Emilia Approach to early childhood education?

A. It originated in Italy post-World War II. B. It is a less formal model than Montessori.

C. The founding director was a social constructivist.

D. All of the above 85. Which of these statements is false regarding the Montessori Method to early childhood education?

A. Maria Montessori was influenced by philosphers like Rousseau who encouraged alternative teaching methods.

B. Montessori was Italy's first female physician and interested in methods for teaching children with special needs.

C.The Montessori method is based on the belief that children's natural intelligence involves rational, spiritual, and empirical aspects.

D. All of the above 86. Large-scale preschool programs have been developed nationwide because estimates indicate that children in poor urban areas enter school poorly prepared to learn.

A. 33 B. 50 C. 66 D. 90

% of

87. The best-known compensatory preschool program for children of low-income families in the United States is A. the Montessori Preschool.

B. the Perry Preschool Program.

C. Project Head Start.

D. the Chicago Child Parent Centers.

88. Which of the following statements about Project Head Start is false?

A. Head Start follows a "whole child" approach.

B. The program includes medical, dental, and mental health care.

C. Head Start children do better on IQ tests than non-Head-Start children from comparable backgrounds.

D. Long-term positive effects of compensatory preschool programs have not been documented.

89. The most successful Head Start programs have been those A. that last at least a year.

B. with the most parental involvement.

C. with the largest number of children.

D. with the highest staff-to-child ratio.

90. Which statement about The School of the Twenty-First Century School?

A. It is based on the idea of a universal preschool.

B. It was created by Edward Zigler.

C. It is comprehensive including both accessible preschool education and day care services.

D. It does not focus on parent involvement.

91. Compared to kindergartens in the past, today's kindergarten A. is longer in terms of number of instructional hours.

B. is more focused on academic preparation.

C. is more likely to include critical evaluation of student performance.

D. all of the above

92. Define symbolic function, and, using an example, demonstrate how it can be linked to deferred imitation, pretend play, and language.

93. In preoperational thinking, children become more sophisticated in their use of symbolic thought, but they are not yet ready to use logic. Discuss both the advances that this stage brings to a child's cognitive development as well as the immature aspects, or limitations, that children experience.

94. Describe what is meant by "theory of mind abilities." Explain how linguistic determinism, the ecological explanation, executive control, and bilingualism influence the development of theory of mind abilities.

95. Morgan seems to remember things and events that made a strong impression on him. However, memory of childhood events is rarely deliberate. Explain changes in memory during the period of early childhood.

In your explanation, describe each of the following types of memory: generic memory; episodic memory; autobiographical memory; and, the social-interaction model.

96. Discuss the problems involved with asking young children to give eyewitness accounts. What if anything can be done to ensure that their accounts are accurate?

97. Compare traditional psychometric approaches to intelligence, such as the Stanford Binet Intelligence Scale, the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, and Vygotsky's idea of the zone of proximal development.

98. What environmental factors can influence a child's intelligence test score?

99. Describe typical achievements in language development during early childhood. Discuss vocabulary, grammar and syntax, pragmatics, social speech, and private speech.

100.Vygotsky saw private speech as universal, however studies have indicated a wide range of individual differences. Define private speech and give examples. What are the three levels of private speech?

101.Citing research and issues discussed in your textbook, answer the following question: Should the primary purpose of preschool be to provide a strong academic foundation or to foster social and emotional development?

102.What are compensatory programs? Which of them have been the most successful, and why? What are some suggestions to further improve early-childhood education and why is it important?

103.What are some of the benefits of early childhood education? Define "universal preschool" and discuss the proposed benefits of a universal preschool system. Describe the goals of The School of the Twenty-First Century.

Chapter 10 Key 1. (p. 256) C 2. (p. 256) C 3. (p. 257) A 4. (p. 257) B 5. (p. 257) A 6. (p. 257) D 7. (p. 257) A 8. (p. 257) D 9. (p. 258) B 10. (p. 258) D 11. (p. 258) B 12. (p. 258) C 13. (p. 258) A 14. (p. 258-260) B 15. (p. 258-260) B 16. (p. 260) C 17. (p. 258) D 18. (p. 258) D 19. (p. 258) A 20. (p. 258) C 21. (p. 259) D 22. (p. 259) A 23. (p. 260) C 24. (p. 273) B 25. (p. 260) D 26. (p. 260) B 27. (p. 260) D 28. (p. 261) B 29. (p. 260) D 30. (p. 261-262) C 31. (p. 262) B 32. (p. 262) B 33. (p. 262-263) C 34. (p. 261-262) D 35. (p. 262) A 36. (p. 262-263) C

37. (p. 264) B 38. (p. 264) C 39. (p. 265) C 40. (p. 266) A 41. (p. 266) A 42. (p. 266) A 43. (p. 266) C 44. (p. 267) B 45. (p. 267) A 46. (p. 267) B 47. (p. 267) B 48. (p. 267) A 49. (p. 267) C 50. (p. 267) C 51. (p. 267) B 52. (p. 267) B 53. (p. 267) B 54. (p. 267) D 55. (p. 281) D 56. (p. 268-269) D 57. (p. 268) B 58. (p. 268) D 59. (p. 269) B 60. (p. 270) D 61. (p. 270) A 62. (p. 270) B 63. (p. 270) B 64. (p. 270-271) C 65. (p. 270-271) D 66. (p. 271) C 67. (p. 284) B 68. (p. 271) B 69. (p. 271-272) A 70. (p. 271-272) C 71. (p. 271-272) D 72. (p. 272) D 73. (p. 272) B 74. (p. 272) A

75. (p. 273) A 76. (p. 273) D 77. (p. 273) C 78. (p. 273) A 79. (p. 273) B 80. (p. 274) D 81. (p. 274) D 82. (p. 274) C 83. (p. 274) B 84. (p. 275) D 85. (p. 274-275) D 86. (p. 275) C 87. (p. 275) C 88. (p. 275-276) D 89. (p. 27) B 90. (p. 277) D 91. (p. 277-278) D 92. Answer will vary 93. Answer will vary 94. Answer will vary 95. Answer will vary 96. Answer will vary 97. Answer will vary 98. Answer will vary 99. Answer will vary 100. Answer will vary 101. Answer will vary 102. Answer will vary 103. Answer will vary

Chapter 10 Summary Category Guidepost: How does language improve, and what happens when its development is delayed?

Guidepost: How is preschoolers intelligence measured, and what factors influence it?

Guidepost: What are typical cognitive advances and immature aspects of preschool childrens thinking?

Guidepost: What memory abilities expand in early childhood?

Guidepost: What purposes does early childhood education serve, and how do children make the transition to kindergarten ?

Papalia - Chapter 10 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: CF Question Type: F

# of Questions 21 8 42 18 14 103 9 32 1 49

Chapter 11 Student:

1.

Our beliefs about who we are, what we are able to do, and the traits we engender are referred to as our A. self-esteem.

B. self-concept.

C. self-efficacy.

D. self-evaluation.

2.

Mrs. Hubbard tries to instill in her fourth-graders the idea that self-concept is a(n) construction.

A. cognitive B. emotional C. social D. physical

3.

Lucas is 4 years old. He is likely to describe himself according to A. generalized abilities, such as being "athletic" or "smart."

B. specific abilities, such as being a fast runner or a good climber.

C. global traits, such as being popular or outgoing.

D. internal traits, such as being thoughtful or worried.

4.

When Dora starts to list characteristics to describe herself, she is disclosing her A. self-esteem.

B. self-efficacy.

C. self-concept.

D. self-definition.

5.

Four-year-old Dana goes to her pediatrician for her annual checkup. She tells the nurse her name, address, phone number, and her doctor's name. She also tells the nurse about her sister Nancy. These terms represent Dana's A. self-esteem.

B. self-definition.

C. self-efficacy.

D. self-evaluation.

6.

Which of the following is NOT a typical aspect of self-definition in early childhood?

A. using concrete, observable behaviors to describe oneself B. focusing on physical features in self-descriptions C. having difficulty separating what one thinks of oneself from what one does D. being self-critical, while maintaining a positive overall self-concept

7.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the early childhood development of selfdefinition?

A. single representation, representational mappings, representational systems B. single representation, representational systems, representational mappings C. representational mappings, representational systems, single representation D. representational systems, representational mappings, single representation

8.

When Jacinta daydreams about the self she would like to be, she is thinking of her A. ideal self.

B. real self.

C. ultimate self.

D. representational system.

9.

The is how one perceives oneself, and the A. ideal self; imaginary self B. real self; ideal self C. real self; imaginary self D. ideal self; real self

is what one would like to be.

10. In the preschool years, a child typically makes logical connections between aspects of the self but still sees these characteristics in all-or-nothing terms. This way of thinking is called A. visions of the ideal self.

B. visions of the real self.

C. single representations.

D. representational mappings.

11. Shelton loves to draw and do art projects, and is very good at it. However, when he plays soccer, he gets frustrated because he is not as good as the other boys. Which of the following stages of self-definition is Shelton in?

A. single representations B. representational mappings C. representational systems D. none of the above 12. Leo thinks he is the smartest kid in his kindergarten class. The judgment a person makes about his or her self-worth is called A. self-esteem.

B. self-concept.

C. self-efficacy.

D. self-actualization.

13. Preschool children A. think; feel B. understand; think C. think; understand D. feel; think

self-esteem and

self-concept.

14. In early childhood, a person's sense of self-esteem is derived primarily from A. his own sense of competence.

B. parents' supportive behaviors.

C. the number of friends he has.

D. his level of maturity relative to similarly aged children.

15. Tasha's judgment about her worth and level of competence is called her A. self-definition.

B. ideal self.

C. real self.

D. self-esteem.

16. Peter has high self-esteem. He recently did poorly on a spelling test. To which of the following reasons would he be least likely to attribute his poor grade to?

A. He is not good at spelling.

B. He did not study.

C. The test was too difficult.

D. The teacher did not cover all of the materials.

17. Mary has low self-esteem and just did very poorly on her math test. To which of the following reasons would she most likely attribute her poor grade to?

A. She is not good at math.

B. She did not study.

C. The test was too difficult.

D. The teacher did not cover all of the materials.

18. The ability of Martha, a preschooler, to understand her own emotions helps Martha to A. guide her behavior in social situations.

B. talk about her feelings.

C. be sensitive to how others feel.

D. all of the above 19. Parents and teachers of preschoolers can avoid fostering the "helpless" pattern associated with low selfesteem by A. targeting their criticism at the child as a person rather than focusing on particular behaviors.

B. focusing on other children's good performance so that the child can have a goal to achieve.

C. giving specific strategy-focused feedback rather than criticizing the child as a person.

D. ignoring the child when he or she exhibits "helpless" behavior.

20. Jenny says, "I couldn't feel happy and scared at the same time; I would have to be two people at once!"

Malcolm, who is the same age as Jenny, can easily imagine feeling happy and scared simultaneously. At what age are individual differences in understanding conflicting emotions first evident?

A. 3 years of age B. 4 years of age C. 10 years of age D. 12 years of age 21. At what age do children begin to understand simultaneous emotions?

A. age 3-4 B. age 4-5 C. age 7-9 D. age 13-15 22. Marcus comments on how some children in his class pick up on the feelings of characters in books, whereas other children never seem to figure out how the characters are feeling. Individual differences in understanding conflicting emotions A. are rarely seen in preschool children.

B. do not typically appear until the age of 5.

C. may reflect differences among families in the amount and type of discussion of why people behave the way they do.

D. are primarily due to gender differences between girls and boys.

23. In terms of Erikson's concept of the "initiative versus guilt" developmental crisis, which of the following statements is false?

A. The concept is based largely on conflicting feelings about the self.

B. The concept involves preschoolers' reconciling their need to act with their need for approval.

C. Because this crisis is based on a behavioral theory, the conscience is irrelevant to it.

D. Successful outcome leads to the characteristic of "purpose."

24. Erikson's third developmental crisis describes a conflict between A. initiative and guilt.

B. attachment and detachment.

C. autonomy and shame.

D. detachment and identification.

25. In Erikson's theory, which of the following behaviors on the part of parents is least likely to help children achieve a healthy balance between initiative and guilt?

A. giving children opportunities to do things on their own B. providing guidance C. establishing firm limits D. emphasizing strict obedience

26. According to Erikson, the characteristic acquired through successful resolution of the initiative-versusguilt crisis is A. hope.

B. purpose.

C. trust.

D. will.

27. Which of the following statements describes the most preferable outcome of Erikson's crisis of initiative versus guilt?

A. The child is free of guilt.

B. The child finds an even balance of initiative and guilt.

C. The child finds a balance of initiative and guilt, with the greater emphasis on initiative.

D. The child finds a balance of initiative and guilt, with the greater emphasis on guilt.

28. Thomas is quick to remind his sister that he can hunt with his dad because he is a boy. A child's awareness of being male or female is termed A. gender constancy.

B. gender identity.

C. gender-typing.

D. identification of sex.

29. Abigail has become aware that she is a female and that females are different from males. Abigail has acquired A. gender identity.

B. gender.

C. a gender role.

D. gender-stereotyping.

30. Overall, intelligence tests show no gender differences. However, differences exist in specific abilities.

Which of the following statements regarding gender differences in males and females is false?

A. Females tend to do better at verbal tasks.

B. Females tend to do better at fine motor tasks.

C. Males tend to have superior motor performance.

D. Males tend to do better at solving mazes tests.

31. Behaviors, interests, attitudes, and skills considered appropriate for females and males in a given culture are A. called gender roles.

B. biologically determined.

C. fairly easy to change.

D. all of the above 32. The socialization process whereby children learn culturally accepted gender roles is called A. achieving gender identity.

B. gender conservation.

C. gender-typing.

D. gender-stereotyping.

33. Sam is 30 months old. He is becoming aware that he is a boy and that boys play with trucks but not dolls.

He is developing A. gender identity.

B. a gender role.

C. gender-typing.

D. all of the above

34. In the past, many preschool teachers encouraged children to play with both "boy" and "girl" toys. We know now that gender stereotypes A. are rarely found in children under the age of 5.

B. can restrict children's self-image, activities, and plans.

C. have been largely eliminated in the United States.

D. affect major life decisions but not everyday behavior.

35. Gender stereotypes appear to reach a peak at age A. 3.

B. 5.

C. 8.

D. 11.

36. Five-year-old Shawn is playing with his sister Cheryl's doll. She tells him to put it down because "boys don't play with dolls!" This is an example of a gender A. role.

B. stereotype.

C. identity.

D. acquisition.

37. Which of the following statements regarding biological differences between the brains of males and females is correct?

A. Females have more brain cells.

B. Males have more functional brain cells.

C. Female brains have a larger cerebral cortex.

D. Female brains have greater neuronal density.

38. The theory of sexual selection was developed by A. Sigmund Freud.

B. Albert Bandura.

C. Charles Darwin.

D. Jean Piaget.

39. The process by which a young child adopts characteristics, beliefs, attitudes, values, and behaviors of the same-sex parent is called A. socialization.

B. conditioning.

C. information processing.

D. identification.

40. Five-year-old Lakeem has been doing everything that his dad does. Lakeem's dad has a successful construction business, and Lakeem proudly wears his own company hat and tool belt everywhere his mother lets him. Freud would call Lakeem's dress preferences a sign of A. identification.

B. regression.

C. fixation.

D. none of the above 41. Gender identity is seen by A. psychoanalytic B. social-cognition C. cognitive-developmental D. gender-schema

theorists as a consequence of observing and imitating models.

42. Soon after they moved to the U.S. from Bombay, Indira and her brother Kumar went to school and started dressing like the other children. The process by which children adopt the characteristics, beliefs, attitudes, values, and behaviors of another person or group is termed A. socialization.

B. identification.

C. imitation.

D. internalization.

43. Which of the following perspectives on gender identity development is least favored by developmental psychologists?

A. social cognitive theory B. gender-schema theory C. cognitive developmental theory D. psychoanalytic theory 44. Albert Bandura is associated with which perspective of gender identity development?

A. biological B. psychoanalytic C. gender-schema D. social cognitive 45. According to social-cognitive theory, which of the following statements describes part of the process by which boys come to internalize identification with their fathers?

A. Boys pick models, such as their fathers, whom they see as powerful.

B. Boys imitate their fathers' behaviors.

C. Fathers and other adults reinforce gender-typing through praise and feedback.

D. all of the above 46. The theory, associated with Lawrence Kohlberg, holds that a child learns about gender by actively thinking about his or her experiences.

A. social-learning B. psychoanalytic C. psychosocial D. cognitive-developmental 47. According to the cognitive-developmental theory, which of the following statements about gender identity is false?

A. Before the age of 5, children do not usually know which gender they belong to.

B. Gender constancy is the realization that one's gender will never change.

C. Children usually acquire gender constancy between the ages of 3 and 7.

D. Gender differences in behavior develop after children achieve gender constancy.

48. Jennifer knows that she is a girl, and by watching what other girls do in her culture, she is learning how she is expected to behave. Which theory holds that gender-typing is acquired in this way?

A. psychoanalytic B. biological C. cognitive-developmental D. gender-schema 49. According to gender-schema theory, the key process of gender-identity development is A. self-categorization based on the processing of cultural information.

B. genetic, neurological, and hormonal activity.

C. the resolution of an unconscious, emotional conflict.

D. modeling, reinforcement, and teaching.

50. In the theory of gender-identity development, children socialize themselves in gender roles by developing a concept of what it means to be male or female in their culture.

A. social-cognitive B. gender-schema C. psychoanalytic D. biological 51. A major weakness of the cognitive-developmental theory when explaining gender differences is that A. children often identify with a parent of the opposite sex.

B. children often act in "gender-appropriate" ways before they achieve gender constancy.

C. many children pay little attention to sex when organizing their knowledge of their world.

D. all of the above 52. Tom's father is thrilled that his daughter is playing soccer again this summer, but he is not pleased that his son wants to take art classes. In socializing children, parents generally A. have more influence on children's gender behavior than on their gender knowledge.

B. show more discomfort if a boy plays with a doll than if a girl plays with a truck.

C. have little influence on gender role development.

D. give boys more latitude and flexibility than girls with regard to gender roles.

53. In a study of British and Hungarian 4-year-olds, children's gender-based play preferences.

A. peers B. the media C. parents D. teachers

were found to have the least influence on

54. Research has found that peers begin to reinforce gender-typed behavior by the age of A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 5.

D. 7.

55. Which of the following statements regarding current children's books is false?

A. Children's books continue to display many gender stereotypes.

B. Male characters predominate in children's books.

C. Females are more often portrayed as needing help in children's books.

D. all of the above 56. Play is an important part of child development, and, in our fast-paced world, many children do not have enough unscheduled time to just play with their friends. On which of the following areas of development does play have an influence?

A. physical B. intellectual C. psychosocial D. all of the above 57. Which of the following statements regarding play is correct?

A. A child's cognitive development has very little influence on her or his play behavior.

B. Recent research has supported Parten's 1932 conclusion that solitary play is less mature than group play.

C. Imaginative play typically does not emerge until 4 or 5 years of age.

D. Imaginative play tends to become more social as the child gets older.

58.

is the lowest cognitive level of play, involving repetitive muscular movements such as rolling or bouncing a ball.

A. A formal games with rules B. Constructive play C. Pretend play D. Functional play

59. Dakota is using blocks to make a house and a garage. According to Piaget's categorization, Dakota is engaged in A. a formal game with rules.

B. functional play.

C. parallel play.

D. constructive play.

60. You are a teacher in a preschool of 4-year-olds. Based on research discussed in your textbook, more than half the time your students will engage in play.

A. constructive B. functional C. pretend D. rough-and-tumble 61. Antonio and Anton want to play soccer after school, but they need to find more friends who want to play with them. Soccer is considered what kind of play?

A. a formal game with rules B. constructive play C. functional play D. pretend play 62. Going from simplest to most complex, which of the following sequences of types of play is correct?

A. pretend play, functional play, formal games with rules, constructive play B. functional play, constructive play, pretend play, formal games with rules C. constructive play, pretend play, functional play, formal games with rules D. constructive play, functional play, pretend play, formal games with rules 63. Which statement about imaginative play during the preschool years is false?

A. Imaginative play decreases during the preschool years.

B. This type of play changes during the preschool years, from solitary pretending to dramatic play with other children.

C. Imaginative play offers rich opportunities to practice interpersonal and language skills.

D. Children who play imaginatively tend to be more popular with their peers.

64. Parten identified A. three B. four C. five D. six 65.

types of play.

identified six types of play based on children's level of social involvement.

A. Jean Piaget B. Diana Baumrind C. Mildred Parten D. Sandra Bem

66. Despite the fact that Brenna is in a crowded classroom, she chooses to play by herself and makes no attempt to join the others. She is engaged in play.

A. onlooker B. solitary independent C. parallel D. associative

67. At Jason's birthday party, all of the children are playing with toy cars in the back yard. Although the children are sitting near one another, each child is playing separately with his or her selected cars. Parten would describe this as play.

A. dramatic B. parallel C. associative D. cooperative 68. During free play at preschool, Valerie spends her time playing with Seth and Tifara. Their favorite activity is building with blocks. As they share the blocks, they talk excitedly with one another about their various buildings. This describes A. associative play.

B. cooperative play.

C. parallel play.

D. onlooker behavior.

69. Regarding cultural differences in play styles, which of the following statements is false?

A. In nonliterate societies, children spend more time playing.

B. Compared to Korean American children, Anglo-American children are more aggressive in their play.

C. Chinese children are more likely to pretend play with their caregivers than with other children.

D. The frequency of different forms of play differs across cultures.

70. When one speaks of methods of molding children's character and teaching them self- control and acceptable behavior, one is referring to A. punishment.

B. discipline.

C. reinforcement.

D. shaping.

71. According to the definition in the textbook, the word discipline has the same general meaning as A. punishment.

B. teaching.

C. rewarding.

D. coercion.

72. If Sally's parents want her to stop misbehaving, research suggests that they should A. punish her soundly every time she misbehaves.

B. reinforce good behavior and focus less on misbehavior.

C. allow a longer amount of time to elapse between the misbehavior and the punishment.

D. administer punishment but offer no verbal explanation for their action.

73. Examples of external rewards include all the following except A. increased pride.

B. a special privilege.

C. praise.

D. money.

74. An internal reward for a child's good behavior is a reward that is A. given within the home.

B. given by a close family member.

C. intangible (such as praise or a smile) rather than tangible (such as a toy or sticker).

D. the child's own feeling of pleasure or accomplishment.

75. Children who are punished harshly may A. have trouble interpreting other people's actions and words.

B. later act aggressively.

C. become passive because they feel helpless.

D. all of the above

76. Punishment is sometimes necessary. Which of the following guidelines would NOT be effective for administering punishment?

A. It must be consistent.

B. It must be immediate.

C. The subject must have some time to think about what she has done before punishment is administered.

D. It must be clearly tied to the offense.

77. Compared to children who are not spanked, children who are spanked are more likely to A. be aggressive.

B. be cooperative and show prosocial behavior.

C. show accelerated cognitive development.

D. neither be aggressive nor show antisocial behavior.

78. Punishing a child tends to be most effective when A a considerable time elapses between a behavior and its punishment, so that the child will have time to . reflect on her or his misbehavior.

B. punishment is accompanied by a short, simple explanation.

Cthe person who punishes is not on good terms with the child, because children tend to ignore . punishment from people with whom they have very good relationships.

D. all of the above 79. Julian is explaining to his young daughter why she must not play in the neighbor's garden. He tells her that they work hard to grow flowers, and if she does play in the garden, she will not be allowed to go outdoors alone. As a method of socialization, Julian is employing A. inductive techniques.

B. persuasive techniques.

C. power assertion.

D. reward and punishment.

80. Roberto's parents often express their displeasure with his misbehavior by ignoring him when he is acting inappropriately and for a short time afterward. This is called A. power assertion.

B. withdrawal of love.

C. ignorance.

D. an inductiveness technique.

81. Madeline took Billy's toy boat away from him and made him cry. Madeline's parents talked to her about how sad Billy was and how badly he felt. Madeline felt sorry about what she had done and gave the boat back to Billy. Which form of discipline was used?

A. power assertion B. withdrawal of love C. an inductiveness technique D. punishment 82. Recent research on parents' disciplinary styles leads to which of the following conclusions?

A. Cultural factors might play a role in determining how accepted, expected, and effective various techniques are.

B Most parents choose and consistently use just one disciplinary practice, regardless of the situation or . nature of the child's misbehavior.

C. Parents are not reliable sources of information about the disciplinary practices they use.

D. Children internalize parental standards equally well regardless of which discipline strategy their parents use.

83. In her research on parenting styles, styles.

A. Jean Piaget B. Mildred Parten C. Eva Peron D. Diana Baumrind

identified the authoritarian, permissive, and authoritative

84.

parenting emphasizes control and obedience.

A. Authoritative B. Authoritarian C. Permissive D. Neglectful

85. According to Baumrind, parents value self-expression and self-regulation, allowing children to monitor their own activities as much as possible.

A. permissive B. authoritative C. authoritarian D. neglectful 86. Lana asks her mother if she can have a friend over on a school night to study. Her mother quickly reminds her that the rule is no visitors on school nights, and she is not going to break it. Lana's mother is demonstrating a(n) parenting style.

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. neglectful 87. Johnny brings a note home from school that states that he hit the school principal with a spitball. His mother is very upset, but his father simply says, "Relax, kids will be kids. No one got hurt, so what is the problem?" Which parenting style is Johnny's father demonstrating?

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. neglectful 88. A fourth style of parenting when parents focus on their own needs is called A. the authoritative parenting style.

B. the authoritarian parenting style.

C. psychological aggression.

D. neglectful parenting.

89. Research on parenting styles suggests that the most self-reliant, self-controlled, and contented children have parents who use a(n) style.

A. authoritarian B. permissive C. egalitarian D. authoritative 90. Joey came home from school and asked his parents if he could stay up later on school nights to watch television. As a family they came to a compromise on a new bed time, with the stipulation that Joey be ready for bed before he watched television. Joey and his parents also agreed on consequences in the event that he did not get to bed on time. Joey's parents are using a(n) style.

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. egalitarian 91. Since Baumrind's findings are based on research, they do not show that styles of child rearing cause children to be more or less competent.

A. experimental B. correlational C. preliminary D. longitudinal

92. Which of the following statements has NOT been raised as a criticism of Baumrind's research?

A. Her studies focus on correlations.

B. Her studies are artificial, because she adheres strictly to the experimental model.

C. It is impossible to know whether children were, in fact, consistently raised in a particular style.

D. Baumrind did not consider innate factors, such as children's temperament.

93. Studies of Chinese-American parents have shown that they usually A. use Baumrind's authoritarian style of parenting.

B combine warmth and support with an emphasis on training, firm control, and governance, a style not . easily placed in Baumrind's categories.

C. use Baumrind's authoritative style of parenting.

D. none of the above 94. Catherine has spent most of her life watching her aunts and her mother help the elderly at the church. She is observing prosocial behavior, or A. altruistic behavior.

B. social play.

C. induction.

D. socialization.

95. On the basis of research, which of the following factors is NOT significant in the development of prosocial behavior?

A. family socioeconomic status B. family modeling C. parenting style D. child's age 96. Which of the following statements about aggression in early childhood is false?

A. It usually centers on disputes about toys and control of space.

B. It surfaces most during social play.

C. It is more common among the least sociable and least competent children.

D. It is primarily instrumental in nature.

97. Ron takes Hogan's lunch money and makes him cry almost every morning when he arrives at school.

Behavior intended to cause pain or establish dominance is called aggression.

A. instrumental B. hostile C. overt D. relational 98. Hailey asks her friend Madeline if she can play with her "Astronaut Barbie." Madeline refuses to turn over the doll, because she is waiting for lift-off of the space shuttle. Hailey grabs the doll and runs from the room. Which type of aggression would this represent?

A. instrumental B. hostile C. relational D. covert 99. Research suggests that boys use A. overt; relational B. covert; overt C. overt; physical D. covert; relational

aggression and girls use

100.Which of the following behaviors does NOT belong with the others?

A. relational aggression B. covert aggression C. instrumental aggression D. social aggression

aggression.

101.Timmy is an aggressive child who spends time with friends who behave the same way. Timmy's parents are convinced that he is a good child who is aggressive only because of his friends. Which of the following statements regarding aggression is correct?

A. Aggression is linked to individual temperament.

B. Highly aggressive children tend to seek out friends like themselves.

CThrough negative socializing experiences, children growing up in a high-risk environment may adopt . undesirable behaviors despite their parents' best efforts.

D. all of the above 102.When Nila started swimming lessons this summer, her family was surprised to see that she was afraid of the water. The best way for Nila's family to deal with this situation is to A. allow Nila to discontinue swimming lessons and avoid going in the water.

B. give Nila reassurance and encourage her to openly express her feelings.

C. logically explain that Nila's fear is unfounded.

D. ignore Nila's fear, because she will grow out of it.

103.Bryce, age 3, is afraid of the family dog. His father helps him overcome the fear by gradual exposure— first having Buddy play in the same room with the dog, then touching the dog briefly, then patting the dog. This technique is called A. behavior modification.

B. shaping.

C. systematic desensitization.

D. induction.

104.The earliest, most frequent, and most intense disputes among siblings are about A. jealousy over parent's attention.

B. differences in self-efficacy.

C. moral issues.

D. property rights.

105.Regarding sibling play, which pair type plays least peacefully?

A. boys with boys B. girls with boys C. girls with girls D. None of these; no differences exist in the peacefulness of play in sibling pairs.

106.Observations of preschool-age siblings indicate that A. sibling rivalry is not the main pattern between siblings early in life.

B. rather than imitate their older siblings, younger siblings are typically more interested in asserting their individuality.

C. younger siblings initiate more behavior—both friendly and antagonistic—than do older siblings.

Das younger siblings reach the age of 5, the sibling relationship tends to become more physical and less . verbal, both in showing aggression and in showing care and affection.

107.Researchers who studied sibling relationships in young children over several years concluded that A. most sibling behavior is play-oriented and prosocial rather than competitive.

B. siblings' behavior toward one another tends to be most negative and competitive when the mother is not present.

C. sibling rivalry tends to be the dominant pattern whether or not the mother is present.

D. sibling rivalry does not exist.

108.China's policy of limiting families to one child has facilitated several observations. Which of the following observations is correct?

A. Many observed personality differences exist between only children and children who have siblings.

B. Only children have poor or inadequate language skills because of the lack of sibling interaction.

C. Only children appear to have a distinct psychological advantage with low levels of depression, fear, and anxiety.

D. Children with siblings have fewer overall behavioral problems because they have learned to take turns and share.

109.About A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

out of 4 preschoolers have mutual friendships.

110.Young children rate A. physical traits B. affection C. support D. empathy

as more important in friendship than do older children.

111.Research suggests that compared to those who are unpopular, well-liked preschoolers and kindergartners A. cope well with anger.

B. attempt to minimize conflict.

C. avoid insults and threats.

D. all of the above 112.Amanda is popular with her peers. Her parents most likely use a(n) A. authoritarian B. permissive C. neglectful D. authoritative

parenting style.

113.Describe the development of self-concept in early childhood. In your explanation, include a description of single representations and representational mappings.

114.Erikson's theory of psychosocial development lists several crises that people go through as a function of personality development. Identify Erikson's chief crisis that marks early childhood, and elaborate on its relevance to self-esteem.

115.A relationship exists between gender identity and self-concept. Describe this relationship, and include the following terms in your description: gender roles; gender typing; gender stereotypes; and, gender constancy.

116. Piaget and others identified increasing levels of cognitive complexity in play. List and describe the four

levels of play, and give an example for each of the four levels.

117. Describe Parten's research on the social development of play. Give examples of how this research can be

used by teachers in the classroom.

118. Based on research discussed in your textbook, describe Baumrind's parenting styles. Explain the effect

that these styles have on children's development.

119. Define the term discipline, and describe what methods have been shown to be successful in teaching

discipline to children.

120. Explain the development of aggression in early childhood.

121. Describe some of the facets of sibling and peer relationships in early childhood.

122. Describe how children choose playmates, and explain why some children are more popular than

others.

Chapter 11 Key 1. (p. 282) B 2. (p. 282) A 3. (p. 282-283) B 4. (p. 282) D 5. (p. 282) B 6. (p. 282) D 7. (p. 282-283) A 8. (p. 283) A 9. (p. 283) B 10. (p. 283) D 11. (p. 283) C 12. (p. 283) A 13. (p. 282-283) D 14. (p. 283-284) B 15. (p. 283) D 16. (p. 284) A 17. (p. 284) A 18. (p. 284) D 19. (p. 283-284) C 20. (p. 285) A 21. (p. 285) C 22. (p. 285) C 23. (p. 285-286) C 24. (p. 285) A 25. (p. 285) D 26. (p. 285) B 27. (p. 285) C 28. (p. 286) B 29. (p. 286) A 30. (p. 286) C 31. (p. 287) A 32. (p. 287) C 33. (p. 286-287) D 34. (p. 287) B 35. (p. 287) B 36. (p. 287) B

37. (p. 288) D 38. (p. 287-288) C 39. (p. 289) D 40. (p. 289) A 41. (p. 291) B 42. (p. 289) B 43. (p. 289) D 44. (p. 291) D 45. (p. 291) D 46. (p. 289) D 47. (p. 289-290) A 48. (p. 290) D 49. (p. 290) A 50. (p. 290) B 51. (p. 293) B 52. (p. 292) B 53. (p. 292) C 54. (p. 292) B 55. (p. 292-293) D 56. (p. 293) D 57. (p. 293) D 58. (p. 295) D 59. (p. 295) D 60. (p. 295) A 61. (p. 295) A 62. (p. 295) B 63. (p. 295) A 64. (p. 295) D 65. (p. 295) C 66. (p. 295) B 67. (p. 295) B 68. (p. 296) A 69. (p. 298) A 70. (p. 298) B 71. (p. 298) B 72. (p. 298-299) B 73. (p. 298) A 74. (p. 298) D

75. (p. 298-299) D 76. (p. 298-299) C 77. (p. 299-300) A 78. (p. 298-299) B 79. (p. 299) A 80. (p. 299) B 81. (p. 299) C 82. (p. 302-303) A 83. (p. 301) D 84. (p. 301) B 85. (p. 301) A 86. (p. 301) B 87. (p. 301) C 88. (p. 301) D 89. (p. 302) D 90. (p. 301) A 91. (p. 302) B 92. (p. 302) B 93. (p. 302-303) B 94. (p. 303) A 95. (p. 303-304) A 96. (p. 304) C 97. (p. 304) A 98. (p. 304) A 99. (p. 304) A 100. (p. 304) B 101. (p. 305) D 102. (p. 306) B 103. (p. 306) C 104. (p. 307) D 105. (p. 3307) B 106. (p. 307) A 107. (p. 307) A 108. (p. 308) C 109. (p. 309) C 110. (p. 309) A 111. (p. 308-309) D 112. (p. 309) D

113. Answer will vary 114. Answer will vary 115. Answer will vary 116. Answer will vary 117. Answer will vary 118. Answer will vary 119. Answer will vary 120. Answer will vary 121. Answer will vary 122. Answer will vary

Chapter 11 Summary Category Guidepost: How do boys and girls become aware of the meaning of gender, and what explains differences in behavior between the sexes?

Guidepost: How do parenting practices influence development?

# of Questions 29 26

Guidepost: How do preschoolers play, and how does play contribute to and reflect development?

Guidepost: How do young children get along with—or without—siblings, playmates and friends?

Guidepost: How does self-concept develop during early childhood, and how do children show selfesteem, emotional growth, and initiative?

16 11 29

Guidepost: Why do young children help or hurt others, and why do they develop fears?

Papalia - Chapter 11 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

11 122 19 22 71

Chapter 12 Student:

1.

Although individual growth in middle childhood varies widely, one typical difference between school-age boys and school-age girls is that A. boys are nearly a head taller than girls.

B. girls are nearly a head taller than boys.

C. girls weigh less than boys throughout this period.

D. girls retain more fatty tissue than boys do.

2.

Christina is beginning to feel like a giant among her classmates and thinks that something is wrong with her. Which of the following best describes children's height gain during middle childhood?

A. Children's height typically increases about 6 inches a year until age 9, after which it remains stable until puberty.

B. Children generally grow about 3 inches from the age of 6 until the adolescent growth spurt begins.

C. School-age children grow an average of about 1 to 3 inches a year.

D. School-age children grow an average of about 4 to 5 inches a year.

3.

Which of the following statements about the range of school-age children's height is correct?

A. Children between the ages of 6 and 12 rarely differ by more than 1 inch from the average height for their age and sex.

B. Any deviation of 2 inches or more from the average height for one's age and sex is considered abnormal.

C. Children can vary widely in height without exceeding normal limits.

D. Children's height varies so widely and so unpredictably that averages and normal limits are meaningless.

4.

Judgments of normal weight and body composition in middle-school-age children should be made cautiously because A. each child is unique and developmental norms are of little use.

B. different ethnic groups and populations seem to differ in developmental rates.

C. existing norms are based on data collected in the 1920s and 1930s and may be inapplicable today.

D. averages and norms for children's height have not been firmly established.

5.

Today, the average 10-year-old weighs eleven pounds more than the average 10-year-old did ago.

A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50

6.

Elizabeth is receiving injections of growth hormone to increase her height. These hormones A. are recommended only for children whose bodies are naturally deficient in the hormone.

B. need to be administered for 6-12 months to achieve maximum benefit.

C. are a safe technique for parents who want to give their children an advantage in life.

D. are risky and not recommended, even for children with growth disorders.

7.

Which of the following statements regarding population differences in growth among school-age children is false?

A. By age 6, white girls have more muscle and bone mass than African American girls.

B. Hispanic girls have a higher percentage of body fat than do white girls who are of the same size.

C. African-American boys and girls tend to grow faster than white children do.

D. African-American girls have more muscle and bone mass than Hispanic girls do.

years

8.

Which of the following statements about growth hormone is not true?

A. Growth hormone has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for healthy children.

B. Growth hormone has been identified as effective treatment for obese children.

C. The use of growth hormone has been met with some controversy.

D. Growth hormone has been identified as effective treatment for children with short stature.

9.

The primary teeth begin to fall out at age A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

and are replaced by permanent teeth.

10. Children are first introduced to the magic of the tooth fairy when their primary teeth begin to fall out at about age A. 4.

B. 6.

C. 8.

D. 10.

11. Sally's primary teeth have been falling out at a rate of about four each year. This process will probably continue until she is about years old.

A. 15 B. 13 C. 11 D. 8 12. Which of the following seems to be the best explanation a reason for the marked decrease in children's tooth decay during the past twenty years?

A. more regular brushing and flossing B. increased use of sealants on the rough, chewing surfaces C. improved nutrition and eating habits D. None of these; tooth decay has not markedly decreased.

13. A technique designed to prevent decay on the rough, chewing surfaces of children's teeth involves the use of A. adhesive sealants.

B. fluoride treatments.

C. abrasive cleaning products.

D. tooth sanding.

14. Between 1971 and 1994, the number of children ages 6 to 18 with untreated cavities A. increased by 20%.

B. decreased by 20%.

C. increased by 80%.

D. decreased by 80%.

15. Brain development in middle childhood includes A. a loss in the density of gray matter.

B. an increase in white matter.

C. thickening of the cortex.

D. all of the above 16. During middle childhood, children need on average about activity levels.

A. 1,200 B. 1,600 C. 2,000 D. 2,400

calories a day to maintain growth and

17. All of the following are contributing factors to children's unhealthy eating habits except A. school vending machines.

B. changes in food labeling and daily allowance recommendations.

C. television and other advertisements for low-nutrition snacks.

D. family influences and eating habits at home.

18. Many children do not eat breakfast and get at least A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 19. Sleep needs decline from about nine.

A. 8;7 B. 9;8 C. 10;9 D. 11;10

of their calories from snacks.

hours a day at age five to a little more than

hours a day by age

20. Which of the following statements about children in middle childhood in nonliterate societies and in industrialized societies is correct?

A. Children in industrialized countries have more time for play.

B. More children in nonliterate countries go to work in middle childhood.

C. Children in nonliterate countries spend more time on household chores.

D. all of the above 21. Judy's motor abilities include the ability to walk a 2-inch-wide balance beam, hop and jump accurately into small squares, and perform jumping-jacks. Judy is at least years old.

A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 13 22. Jonathan and Priscilla are wrestling, hitting, and chasing each other. At the same time, they are laughing and screaming. This sort of behavior is called A. aggressive play.

B. evolutionary play.

C. dominance assertion.

D. rough-and-tumble play.

23. Most parents can probably tell you that rough-and-tumble play reaches its peak during A. infancy.

B. early childhood.

C. middle childhood.

D. None of the above; this type of play is found equally throughout childhood.

24. Rough-and-tumble play seems to be universal. Anthropologists suggest that rough-and-tumble play evolved to A. provide physical exercise.

B. help children jockey for dominance in their peer group.

C. assess an opponent's strength.

D. provide practice in skills used in fighting and hunting.

25. Boys spend twice as much time participating in team sports as girls do, and the disparity widens as children grow. Overall, 9 - 13 year olds' participation in organized sports is about %.

A. 26 B. 38 C. 17 D. 78

26. At age 6, girls are superior in , and boys are superior in .

A. movement accuracy; forceful, less complex acts B. forceful, less complex acts; movement accuracy C. skipping; throwing with proper weight shift and step D. None of the above; there are no gender differences in gross motor skills at this age.

27. Research has substantiated which of the following statements about childhood obesity?

A. Adoption studies suggest that heredity is not an important factor in obesity.

B. Children tend to adopt the eating habits of the people they live with.

C. A positive correlation exists between activity level and weight gain.

D. Television viewing has been shown to be unrelated to weight gain.

28. Research has demonstrated that obesity is caused by A. inherited tendencies, such as a defective appetite-control gene.

B. environmental factors such as poor diet role models.

C. inactivity owing to sedentary lifestyles.

D. all of the above 29. Compared to white children, African-American and Mexican-American children have pressure levels.

A. higher B. slightly lower C. significantly lower D. similar 30. Children who watch at watch 2 or less hours.

A. 3 B. 2.5 C. 4 D. 5

blood

hours of television a day are 4.6 times as likely to be overweight as those who

31. A common medical problem of overweight children is high A. cholesterol.

B. insulin levels.

C. blood pressure.

D. all of the above 32. Jason has a cold. His pediatrician tells his mother that the cold will probably last for two days. Given the short-term nature of Jason's illness, we would say that he suffers from a(n) medical condition.

A. chronic B. acute C. transitional D. age-related 33. Agnes, who is 8 years old, was diagnosed with asthma three years ago. Her condition is referred to as a(n) medical condition.

A. chronic B. acute C. degenerative D. longitudinal 34. An average child in middle childhood experiences viruses.

A. 1 to 2 B. 4 to 5 C. 6 to 7 D. 9 to 10

bouts a year with colds, the flue, or

35. According to a nationwide survey of 200,000 households, chronic medical conditions.

A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 25

% of children under the age of 18 have

36. Which child is most likely to stutter?

A. a 7-year-old girl B. a 6-year-old boy C. a 10-year-old boy D. a 12-year-old girl 37. Which of the following factors is least likely to be a cause of stuttering?

A. faulty training in articulation and breathing B. defective feedback about one's own speech C. pressure from parents to speak properly D. modeling of a playmate who stutters 38. Christopher has been having sudden attacks of coughing, wheezing, and breathing difficulties for the past seven months. A likely diagnosis for Christopher's condition is A. respiratory failure.

B. panic attacks.

C. asthma.

D. AIDS. 39. From 1980 to 1995, the incidence of asthma has A. decreased.

B. increased.

C. doubled.

D. stayed the same.

40. Variations in school-age children's health are the result of A. differences in families' knowledge of health habits and preventive care.

B. differences in families' income and the diets they eat.

C. differing beliefs and attitudes about health and healing among various cultural and ethnic groups.

D. all of the above 41. Poor children, a disproportionate number who are minorities, are more likely than other children to A. be in fair or poor health B. have chronic conditions C. experience delayed medical care D. all of the above 42.

is (are) the leading cause of death in middle childhood.

A. AIDS B. Illnesses C. Accidents D. Poisoning

43. To decrease childhood injuries, your textbook recommends that A. parents only allow children who are at least four years of age to use a trampoline.

B. parents never buy a trampoline for their children to use at home.

C. schools allow a maximum of three children to use a trampoline at the same time.

D. all of the above

44. Which is NOT a typical behavior of children with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)?

A. going beyond the bounds of normal childhood behavior.

B. popularity with peers.

C. frequent loss of temper.

D. fighting, snatching things, and hostility toward authority 45. Social phobia affects A. 15 B. 2 C. 5 D. 10

% of children.

46. Which is NOT a true of anxiety?

A. School phobia may be a type of separation anxiety disorder.

B. Anxiety disorders tend to run in families.

C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a manifestation of anxiety.

D. Anxiety is more common among boys than girls.

47. The physical development of boys and girls slows down considerably in middle childhood. Describe some of the gender differences that exist in physical development in middle childhood. List some of the ethnic variations that a teacher might see in a diverse classroom setting.

48. Mr. and Mrs. McCarthy are concerned about their son's short stature as he approaches middle childhood.

Up until now, their doctors have taken a "wait and see" attitude. What can be done for children with retarded growth in middle childhood? Describe some of the controversies associated with treating retarded growth.

49. Undernourished children suffer physical, cognitive, and psychosocial developmental problems during childhood. Describe the components of proper nutrition in middle childhood. Explain the effects of poor nutrition on a child's cognitive development.

50. Coaches and directors of after-school programs should keep several things in mind when overseeing a program for youth sports. List some of these concerns. Keep in mind that your answer should include both physical and emotional factors that apply to youth sports.

51. Obesity has become a national crisis in the United States. Describe the lifestyle that seems to be causing this crisis. List some of the treatment methods, for use both at home and at school, that can help stop the rise in childhood obesity.

52. Obesity tends to run in families. How can parents who have not been able to control their own weight help their children?

53. Define the meaning of both acute and chronic childhood medical conditions. Give several examples of each. In your answer, demonstrate how each condition affects the healthy development of children in middle childhood.

54. The Martins have become "regulars" in the local emergency room. The personnel know their children by name and have even established relationships with some of them. What factors lead psychologists to say that "injuries tend to run in families"?

55. Briefly describe three of the most common mental health conditions and their effect on childhood development. What kinds of psychological treatments are available to families who suffer with mental illness?

Chapter 12 Key 1. (p. 316) D 2. (p. 316) C 3. (p. 316) C 4. (p. 316) B 5. (p. 316) C 6. (p. 316-317) A 7. (p. 316) A 8. (p. 316-317) A 9. (p. 334) D 10. (p. 317) B 11. (p. 317) C 12. (p. 317) B 13. (p. 317) A 14. (p. 317) D 15. (p. 318-319) D 16. (p. 319) D 17. (p. 319-322) B 18. (p. 319) B 19. (p. 319) D 20. (p. 320) D 21. (p. 321) A 22. (p. 320-321) D 23. (p. 321) C 24. (p. 321) B 25. (p. 321) B 26. (p. 321) A 27. (p. 322-323) B 28. (p. 322-323) D 29. (p. 326-327) A 30. (p. 324) D 31. (p. 326-327) D 32. (p. 325-326) B 33. (p. 325-326) A 34. (p. 325-326) C 35. (p. 326) B 36. (p. 327) B

37. (p. 327) D 38. (p. 326) C 39. (p. 326) C 40. (p. 327-328) D 41. (p. 327) D 42. (p. 329) C 43. (p. 329) B 44. (p. 329) B 45. (p. 329) C 46. (p. 330) D 47. Answer will vary 48. Answer will vary 49. Answer will vary 50. Answer will vary 51. Answer will vary 52. Answer will vary 53. Answer will vary 54. Answer will vary 55. Answer will vary

Chapter 12 Summary Category Guidepost: How do school-age childrens bodies and brains grow and develop?

Guidepost: What are some common mental health problems of childhood?

Guidepost: What are the nutritional and sleep needs of middle childhood?

Guidepost: What are the principal health and fitness concerns in middle childhood?

Guidepost: What gains in motor skills typically occur at this age, and what kinds of physical play do boys and girls engage in ?

Papalia - Chapter 12 Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 17 4 5 21 8 55 7 39

Chapter 13 Student:

1.

In his cognitive theory of development, Piaget demonstrated that children ages 7 to 11 years are in the stage of development.

A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. preoperational D. concrete operational

2.

During middle childhood, children's A. growth occurs at precisely the same rate.

B. teachers encounter fewer discipline problems than do teachers of younger children.

C. behavior at home is typically very different from their behavior at school.

D. psychosocial and cognitive skills often develop in an interdependent fashion.

3.

For years Tommy and his younger brother Billy argued every night at dinner over who was to get the bigger glass, even though both glasses held 12 ounces of liquid. One glass was tall and thin, and the other was short and wide, and each boy always wanted to have the "bigger" glass for himself. One evening, to the delight of his parents, Tommy said to his mother, "Let Billy have the taller glass. I know they both hold the same amount." According to Piaget, this event is indicative of which stage of cognitive development?

A. sensorimotor B. solid operations C. preoperations D. concrete operations

4.

Lindsey is 8 years old and is in the concrete operations stage of development. Compared to her 5-year-old brother, Lindsey can better understand A. spatial relations.

B. numbers and mathematics.

C. conservation.

D. all of the above

5.

Mohammad has arranged a selection of blue paints from darkest to lightest. Piaget would say that Mohammad is demonstrating A. centration.

B. seriation.

C. transitive inference.

D. conservation.

6.

The ability to arrange items according to one or more relevant dimensions is called A. seriation.

B. centration.

C. decentration.

D. horizontal décalage.

7.

The ability to understand the relationship between two objects by knowing the relationship between each of them to a third is called A. centration.

B. transitive inference.

C. seriation.

D. conservation.

8.

Patty knows that Tysen, her friend from school, is taller than she is. She also knows that she is taller than her new friend Joseph, whom she met at summer camp. Without seeing the two of them together, Patty realizes that Tysen is taller than Joseph. Piaget would say that this demonstrates A. centration.

B. conservation.

C. seriation.

D. transitive inference.

9.

is an understanding of the relationship between a whole and its parts.

A. Class inclusion B. Transitive inference C. Seriation D. Conservation

10. Starting with observations about particular members of a class and then drawing general conclusions is called A. inductive reasoning.

B. deductive reasoning.

C. class inclusion.

D. transitive inference.

11. Catrina can arrange a group of sticks in order from the shortest to the longest and can insert an intermediate size stick into the proper place. This activity demonstrates Catrina's achievement in A. conservation.

B. seriation and transitive inference.

C. inductive and deductive reasoning.

D. number and mathematics.

12. Moira's mother told her that all the girls in the third-grade were very nice. So, when Moira sat down to eat with her classmate Henna, she believed that she would be nice. Moving from a general premise about a class to a conclusion about a particular member of the class is called A. transitive inference.

B. class inclusion.

C. deductive reasoning.

D. inductive reasoning.

13. Roberto says, "All dogs bark. Spot is a dog. Therefore, Spot barks." This is an example of A. conservation.

B. transitive inference.

C. inductive reasoning.

D. deductive reasoning.

14. By age , children can typically determine whether a ball and a sausage are the same weight.

This an example of a conservation of substance problem.

A. 5 or 6 years B. 7 or 8 years C. 9 or 10 years D. 11 or 12 years 15.

explains why children can master different types of conservation problems at different ages.

A. Inductive reasoning B. Deductive reasoning C. Transitive inference D. Horizontal décalage

16. Carmella knows that a given amount of spaghetti remains the same whether the spaghetti is in long strands or broken into short pieces. She has acquired the ability of A. conservation.

B. centration.

C. compensation.

D. horizontal décalage.

17. Molly, age 8, is shown a measuring cup full of cornmeal, which is then poured out onto a countertop and spread around. She is asked whether the spread-out cornmeal is the same as, or different from, the cornmeal when it was in the cup. Molly says, "It's just the same, because it's the same cornmeal." In Piaget's terminology, Molly understands the principle of A. identity.

B. reversibility.

C. horizontal décalage.

D. categorization.

18. Eight-year-old Lucas is shown a ball of brown clay, which is then rolled out into a large, flat disk. He is asked whether the disk contains the same amount of clay. "It's the same amount," Lucas says, "because I could just make it into a ball again." In Piaget's terminology, Lucas understands the principle of A. reversibility.

B. identity.

C. categorization.

D. horizontal décalage.

19.

is the ability to consider more than one relevant aspect of a situation at the same time.

A. Reversibility B. Horizontal décalage C. Elaboration D. Decentering

20. Jorge, age 7, can conserve substance but not weight or volume. According to Piaget, Jorge's conservation abilities demonstrate A. decentration.

B. horizontal décalage.

C. delayed development.

D. that he is still in the preoperational stage.

21. Liza and Franny, second-graders, are having trouble in their advanced math class. However, the teacher is not too concerned because she knows that few children before the age of can solve simple story problems involving addition in which the starting amount is unknown.

A. 4 to 5 years B. 6 to 7 years C. 8 to 9 years D. 10 to 11 years 22. Kevin, who has developed an understanding of numbers and mathematics consistent with the middle childhood level of development, should be able to A. count in his head.

B. add by counting up from the smaller number.

C. do simple story problems.

D. all of the above 23. When teachers develop classroom lessons that deal with the development of conservation, they must be aware that Piaget stressed the role of A. culture.

B. experience.

C. intelligence.

D. maturation.

24. The development of children's moral values A. is unrelated to cognitive growth.

B. occurs in stages.

C. seems to be primarily dependent on temperament.

D. is best described in terms of horizontal décalage.

25. Piaget divided the development of children's moral reasoning into A. two major stages roughly corresponding to preoperational and concrete operational thinking.

B. four major stages culminating in a morality of constraint.

C. three major stages culminating with the concept of equity.

D. none of the above 26. Martin is angry because his sister broke his toy. He does not accept that it could have been an accident, and he wants his sister severely punished. He appears to be in Piaget's stage of moral development.

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 27. In Piaget's first stage of moral development, a child A. respects opinions of peers.

B. understands that rules can be changed.

C. judges acts on the basis of intention.

D. sees an act as either totally right or totally wrong.

28. Gordon, while trying to sneak a forbidden cookie before supper, knocked over a glass and broke it.

Ramon, while helping set the table for supper, tripped and broke three glasses. Asked which child was naughtier, a child in Piaget's first stage of moral reasoning would probably reply that A. Gordon was naughtier.

B. Ramon was naughtier.

C. both were equally naughty, because both had destroyed property.

D. neither was naughty, because neither had intended to break anything.

29. According to Piaget's theory, which of the following statements about moral development is false?

A. The development of moral values is a process that coincides with cognitive development.

B. Moral development is related to outgrowing the egocentric thinking of childhood and being able to consider different viewpoints.

C. Children move from flexible to rigid thinking in their moral development.

D. People go through distinct stages of moral development.

30. In evaluating misbehavior, children in Piaget's first stage of moral reasoning are very likely to A. see the intention behind an action rather than the physical consequences of an offense.

B. see the physical consequences of an offense rather than the intention behind the act.

C. favor mild punishment that helps the culprit understand why an act is wrong.

D. see that more than one point of view may exist.

31. When asking first-graders what the punishment should be for an infraction of the rules, teachers find that younger children are more likely than are older children to favor A. severe punishment.

B. punishment that fits the crime.

C. punishment that compensates the victim.

D. lenient punishment.

32.

refers to knowledge about the processes of memory.

A. Working memory B. Sensory memory C. Mnemonics D. Metamemory

33. All but which of the following are metamemory characteristics of kindergartners and first-graders?

A. knowing that people remember better if they study longer B. knowing that people forget things with time C. knowing that some things are easier to remember than others D. knowing that relearning something is easier than learning it the first time 34. Once Rita reached middle childhood, spelling tests became easier. She seemed to understand more about how her memory worked. In middle childhood, metamemory A. decreases.

B. increases.

C. is used only by the brightest children.

D. has not yet begun to develop.

35. Jimmy is trying to learn his phone number and address. He tells his mother, "Maybe if I say it to myself a hundred times, I will be able to remember it." Jimmy is demonstrating that he is beginning to appreciate A. protomemory.

B. metamemory.

C. sensory memory.

D. elaboration.

36. Mrs. Butler should use all but which of the following mnemonic strategies during her spelling lessons in the fourth grade?

A. megamemory B. rehearsal C. organization D. elaboration 37. Kendra keeps saying her poem over and over again. This rehearsal is a strategy for A. keeping something in working memory.

B. transferring information to long-term memory.

C. categorizing information.

D. retrieving information more effectively from long-term memory.

38. Bob is asked to remember to get a loaf of bread at the store, so he repeats over and over, "bread, bread, bread." His memory strategy is an example of the technique called A. retrieval.

B. elaboration.

C. encoding.

D. rehearsal.

39. Delia is going grocery shopping for her mother but has lost her shopping list. She tries to recall the items on the list by grouping them under fruits, vegetables, canned goods, and bakery goods. Delia is using A. external memory aids.

B. rehearsal.

C. elaboration.

D. organization.

40. Lucy is trying to remember all the things that she has to do after school. She develops a little story in her head that includes all of her after-school tasks. Which memory strategy links items together in a story or scene?

A. organization B. rehearsal C. elaboration D. retrieval

41. Freddie is trying to learn the names of the first five presidents of the United States. To help him, his mother makes up a story using the five names and then teaches the story to Freddie. She is using the mnemonic device of A. external memory aids.

B. elaboration.

C. rehearsal.

D. organization.

42. As children get older, they improve their memory by A. developing better strategies.

B. using strategies more effectively.

C. tailoring their strategies to meet specific needs.

D. all of the above 43. Which of the following statements regarding selective attention in middle childhood is false?

A. School-age children can concentrate longer than younger children can.

B. School-age children can focus on and screen out irrelevant information better than younger children can.

C. Attentional development is primarily enabled by learning.

D. Attentional development is primarily enabled by neurological maturation.

44. The is the most widely used intelligence test for school-age children today.

A. Otis-Lennon School Ability Test B. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children C. Otis-Wechsler Intelligence Scale D. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale 45. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children provides three scores. Which of the following is not one of these measures?

A. memory capacity B. verbal ability C. performance ability D. total intelligence score 46. By the time a child reaches the first grade, scores on IQ tests are A. good predictors of school achievement, especially for highly verbal children.

B. good predictors of school achievement for most children but not for highly verbal ones.

C. poor predictors of school achievement for most children, especially highly verbal children.

D. poor predictors of school achievement for all children.

47.

tests do not measure a child's native ability, they children already know.

A. Intelligence: infer B. Intelligence; assume C. Achievement; estimate D. Achievement; reassert

intelligence from what

48. The Nelsons were against having their son, Cayden, tested at school. The teacher told them that a significant advantage of taking an IQ test is that IQ tests A. help identify children who are especially bright and children who need special help.

B. assess ability directly rather than inferring it from how much a child has learned.

C evaluate not only academic ability but also many other aspects of intelligence, including social skills, . musical and artistic skills, and self-knowledge.

D. are timed and thus permit an assessment of the speed at which a child's brain functions.

49. One problem with administering IQ tests to school-age children is that A. these tests have not been standardized.

B. IQ scores seem unrelated to school performance.

C. these tests may be culturally biased.

D. all of the above 50. African Americans have a tendency to score lower than white Americans on IQ tests. Most modern educators maintain that these lower scores reflect A. differences in education, cultural traditions, and other circumstances that affect self-esteem and motivation.

B. hereditary differences.

C. educators' reliance on culture-free tests.

D. all of the above 51. According to most comparative studies of IQ scores, children, on average, score 15 points lower than do white children on IQ tests.

A. African-American B. Hispanic C. Asian-American D. None of these; there are no racial or ethnic differences in average IQ score.

52. Which of the following factors is an environmental influence that could have a negative effect on intelligence test scores?

A. improper nutrition B. lack of intellectual stimulation C. below-standard living conditions D. all of the above 53. According to your textbook, researchers and the school systems they serve have found that it is impossible to design a intelligence test, so they have encouraged developers to produce tests.

A. culture-fair; culture-free B. culture-free; culture-fair C. nonstandardized; culture-free D. standardized; culture-fair 54. Which of the following is not part of Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences?

A. spatial intelligence B. linguistic intelligence C. musical intelligence D. intuitive intelligence 55. Omar is a remarkable gymnast, hoping for a spot on the Olympic Team. According to Gardner, Omar would score high on intelligence.

A. bodily-kinesthetic B. intrapersonal C. interpersonal D. naturalist 56. Victor has good spatial intelligence. This thrills his father, who has been trying to get him to consider which of the following occupational areas?

A. hunting, fishing, farming, and cooking B. architecture, carpentry, and city planning C. science, business, and medicine D. writing, editing, and translating

57. Mrs. Howard has set up different stations in her classroom for the children's lesson on addition. Each station emphasizes a different way of learning such as music, discussion, body movements, floor layouts, and metacognitive exercises. This approach is based on which of the following principles?

A. Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence B. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences C. Kauffman's assessment battery D. Wechsler's intelligence scale 58. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence?

A. componential intelligence B. experiential intelligence C. contextual intelligence D. naturalist intelligence 59. The intelligence test that seeks to measure componential, experiential, and contextual elements of intelligence through multiple-choice and essay questions is the A. Gardner Multiple Intelligences Assessment.

B. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children.

C. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children.

D. Sternberg Triarchic Abilities Test.

60. With regard to the kinds of abilities evaluated by IQ tests, Robert Sternberg and other critics of these tests maintain that IQ tests A. place too little emphasis on verbal skills.

B. neglect nonacademic aspects of intelligence such as social skills and self-knowledge.

C. overemphasize the creative side of intelligence, such as musical or artistic talent.

D. place too much emphasis on practical shrewdness ("street smarts").

61. Mr. Roberts has decided to use a philosophical model when designing his social studies curriculum for the next semester. Each major topic area will be covered by having students utilize analysis, application, and insight. Which of the following theorists would support this approach the most?

A. Howard Gardner B. Robert Sternberg C. B. F. Skinner D. Alfred Binet 62. Which word best describes Sternberg's experiential element of intelligence?

A. analytical B. insightful C. practical D. all of the above 63.

is the proficiency of reading and writing in two different languages.

A. Bilingualism B. Biliteracy C. English-immersion D. Dyslexia

64. Sergio speaks Spanish but is learning English skills. While he is in the process of learning a new language, he is being taught the concepts of his lessons in Spanish so that he can understand them without getting too far behind. Which of the following terms would best describe this?

A. bilingual education B. dual-language learning C. English immersion D. Spanish immersion

65. Pablo, who speaks Spanish, is in a second-language education class where he interacts with Englishspeaking and Spanish-speaking students in both English and Spanish. This method of second-language education is best described as A. English-immersion.

B. two-way learning.

C. bilingual education.

D. biliteracy training.

66. The major area of linguistic growth in middle childhood is in A. vocabulary.

B. grammar.

C. syntax.

D. pragmatics.

67. The process of phonetic analysis, by which a printed word is converted to spoken form before retrieval from long-term memory, is called A. metacogniton.

B. decoding.

C. metamemory.

D. rehearsal.

68. Reading that emphasizes decoding of unfamiliar words is also called the A. whole-language B. phonetic C. word analysis D. metamemory

approach.

69. Mrs. Carruthers advocates the whole-language approach to reading. Which of the following statements is she least likely to make?

A. Children learn to read and write naturally, through their own discoveries.

B. Phonetic instruction hampers the natural process of learning language.

C. A child should learn to sound out and "decode" unfamiliar words.

D. A child should use contextual clues when figuring out unfamiliar words.

70. Regarding reading and comprehension in middle childhood, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The whole-language approach has been embraced by all educators as the solution for reading problems in children.

B. Metacognition interferes with a child's comprehension.

C. The developmental processes that improve reading comprehension are similar to those that improve memory.

D. Reading comprehension is best taught through systematic phonics instruction.

71. Chris is focusing on and reviewing his understanding of what he has been reading. He is using a strategy.

A. phonetic B. whole language C. metacognitive D. rehearsal 72. In research that was based on Vygotsky's social interaction model, which children were likely to write stories with fewer errors?

A. children working independently B. friends working in pairs C. children working in small groups of three or four D. children working in large groups of ten or more

73. Despite efforts to achieve educational parity worldwide, school today.

A. 1 B. 10 C. 57 D. 100

million primary-age children are not in

74. In studies of first-graders, which of the following factors was NOT positively associated with higher achievement test scores?

A. delaying entry into first grade by one year B. interest in being in school C. ability to pay attention D. consistently participating in music and dance lessons 75. Hanna is a student who is high in self-efficacy. Which of the following statements about her is false?

A. Hanna is likely to try hard in school.

B. Hanna believes that she regulates her learning.

C. Hanna learns, but it is mostly because of her teachers.

D. Hanna is successful in school.

76. Parents' perceived self-efficacy in relation to their child's education is their A. knowledge that their children are high achievers.

B. attitude towards educational opportunities for their children.

C. belief in their own ability to promote their child's academic growth.

D. good feelings about their own successes.

77. Comparing genders in relation to school performance, girls have been found to A. have better classroom behaviors.

B. have less confidence.

C. be less likely to repeat grades.

D. all of the above 78. Children who do well in school often have parents who are rewards for doing good work.

A. authoritative; extrinsic B. permissive; intrinsic C. authoritative; intrinsic D. authoritarian; extrinsic

and who stress

79. Mr. Denton wants to foster the development of intrinsic motivation in his son. Which of the following behaviors would most likely encourage this?

A. praise for effort B. praise for a good grade C. money for good grades D. punishment for poor grades 80. Children who do well in school generally have parents who A. help them with their homework every night.

B. become close friends with the child's teacher.

C. become actively involved in their education.

D. use extrinsic motivation.

81. How does socioeconomic status affect educational attainment?

A. It influences the family atmosphere.

B. It limits the choice of neighborhoods a child lives in.

C. It plays a part in the way that parents rear their children.

D. all of the above

82. A network of community resources that children and families can draw upon is called the capital.

A. antipoverty B. capital C. social D. wage 83. In 1997, first- through third-graders spent about A. half an hour B. one hour C. two hours D. three hours

a week on homework.

84. Research suggests that homework is most effective for A. high school students.

B. junior high school students.

C. elementary school students.

D. all of the above 85. Early teacher identification of children who exhibit social problems may improve children's A. skill and drill approach.

B. whole math approach.

C. academic outcome.

D. all of the above 86. The No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 emphasizes A. expanded flexibility.

B. accountability.

C. parental options.

D. all of the above 87.

is the automatic advancement of children from one grade to another even if they do not meet academic standards for the grade they are leaving.

A. Culture-fair advancement B. Two-way learning C. Social promotion D. Acceleration

88. If Mary does not start going to class and turning in her homework, the teacher has threatened to make her repeat the fourth grade. The process of holding students back rather than passing them to the next grade is called A. retention.

B. academic prevention.

C. social delay.

D. demotion.

89. Lisa is not doing well in the regular class environment and wants her parents to consider letting her enroll in a charter school. Compared to public schools, charter schools have A. larger classes.

B. a standard "do the work and receive the grade" philosophy.

C. little innovative programming.

D. student outcomes that are in dispute.

90. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of having computers in the classroom?

A. Computers open up new possibilities for individualized instruction.

B. Computers and the World Wide Web offer opportunities for developing independent research skills.

C Research demonstrates that children who use computers in the classroom score better in international . math and science competitions.

D.In addition to being able to access large amounts of information, students can learn to critically evaluate the information they find.

91. Studies of the abilities of American children and children from East Asian countries indicate that the superior performance of Asian children is a result of A. an overall cognitive superiority.

B. a greater opportunity for self-expression.

C. broader cultural experiences.

D. a different attitude toward education and academic practices.

92. What is the leading known cause of mental retardation?

A. poor nutrition B. environmental influences, such as the lack of nurturing by the mother C. problems in pregnancy and childbirth, such as birth trauma D. problems in embryonic development, such as those caused by a mother's use of drugs or alcohol 93.

According to research, dyslexia A. affects more boys than girls.

B. has no apparent genetic basis.

C. is a language processing disorder.

D. all of the above 94. The most commonly diagnosed learning disability is A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

B. dyslexia.

C. mental retardation.

D. autism.

95. Nick's third-grade teacher observes that he is impulsive, inattentive, unable to tolerate frustration, prone to temper tantrums, and unable to sit still during class. Which of the following is the most probable explanation?

A. dyslexia B. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder C. poor parenting D. mental retardation 96. The incidence of ADHD among school-age children worldwide is A. 1 to 3%.

B. 2 to 11%.

C. 3 to 7%.

D. 8 to 12%.

97. Recent research on ADHD suggests that A. the disorder has a substantial genetic basis.

B. children with ADHD have brain damage.

C. a link probably exists between ADHD and food additives.

D. all of the above 98. Which of the following characteristics is a definition of giftedness?

A. an IQ score of 130 or higher B. showing high potential or achievement in specific areas, such as mathematics or science C. creative or productive thinking D. all of the above

99. The mental ability that is essential to creativity is known as A. convergent thinking.

B. multidimensional thinking.

C. metacognition.

D. divergent thinking.

100.Leigh is a highly gifted child who has skipped third grade and is now taking advanced courses in specific subjects. In which educational approach to teaching gifted children is Leigh participating?

A. inclusion B. acceleration C. enrichment D. advancement 101.Compare and contrast the thinking of children in concrete operations with the thinking of preoperational children. In your response, give a specific example of each type of thinking.

102.Piaget proposed that moral reasoning develops in three stages. List each of the three stages, and note the corresponding age range of the children in each stage. Describe each stage by explaining how a child in that stage would solve a moral dilemma.

103.In the context of middle childhood, describe the role of each of the following terms in memory and development: mnemonic strategies; external memory aids; rehearsal; organization; and, elaboration.

104.Define the term metamemory. Explain its relationship to mnemonic strategies, rehearsal, organization, and elaboration.

105.Parents are very interested in knowing what their children's IQ is. Describe the traditional approach that schools use to measure intelligence in childhood. Compare this approach to those of Robert Sternberg and Howard Gardner.

106.Explain the influence of schooling and ethnicity on the development and measurement of intelligence.

107.Explain the concepts of decoding and virtually based retrieval.

108.Explain how schools meet the needs of students who are non-English-speaking. In your explanation, include the terms English-immersion, bilingual education, and two-way (dual-language) learning. What are the benefits of being bilingual?

109."No Child Left Behind" means that each child in school will be given the opportunity to learn, and the level of learning will be monitored and remediated when necessary. When children do not meet the objectives that have been set, school systems make difficult decisions about a student's future. Explain the apparent conflict between social promotion and retention.

110.Define the term learning disability. List and describe the types of disability that are included under this heading. In your answer, explain the following terms: mental retardation; dyslexia; and, attention-deficit/ hyperactivity disorder.

111.The Martins' daughter Jeannette seems to learn things quickly and to always be a few steps ahead of the other children her age. The Martins think that she may benefit from a more stimulating environment.

Define giftedness. How is giftedness assessed, and what can be done in schools to nurture it?

Chapter 13 Key 1. (p. 336) D 2. (p. 336-337) D 3. (p. 336) D 4. (p. 336-337) D 5. (p. 337) B 6. (p. 337) A 7. (p. 337) B 8. (p. 337) D 9. (p. 337) A 10. (p. 337) A 11. (p. 337) B 12. (p. 337) C 13. (p. 337) D 14. (p. 337) B 15. (p. 338) D 16. (p. 338) A 17. (p. 338) A 18. (p. 338) A 19. (p. 338) D 20. (p. 338) B 21. (p. 338-339) C 22. (p. 338-339) D 23. (p. 338) D 24. (p. 339-340) B 25. (p. 339-340) C 26. (p. 339-340) A 27. (p. 340) D 28. (p. 339-340) B 29. (p. 339-340) C 30. (p. 340) B 31. (p. 339-340) A 32. (p. 342) D 33. (p. 342) C 34. (p. 342) B 35. (p. 342) B 36. (p. 342-343) A

37. (p. 342-343) A 38. (p. 342-343) D 39. (p. 343) D 40. (p. 343) C 41. (p. 343) B 42. (p. 343) D 43. (p. 341) C 44. (p. 344) B 45. (p. 344) A 46. (p. 345) A 47. (p. 345) A 48. (p. 345-346) A 49. (p. 345-346) C 50. (p. 345-346) A 51. (p. 345-346) A 52. (p. 345-347) D 53. (p. 347) A 54. (p. 347-348) D 55. (p. 347) A 56. (p. 347-348) B 57. (p. 347-348) B 58. (p. 348) D 59. (p. 349) D 60. (p. 349) B 61. (p. 348-349) B 62. (p. 348) B 63. (p. 351) A 64. (p. 351) A 65. (p. 351) B 66. (p. 350) D 67. (p. 352) B 68. (p. 352) B 69. (p. 352) C 70. (p. 352) C 71. (p. 352) C 72. (p. 354) B 73. (p. 353) D 74. (p. 353) A

75. (p. 353) C 76. (p. 353) C 77. (p. 353-354) D 78. (p. 354) C 79. (p. 354) A 80. (p. 354) C 81. (p. 354) D 82. (p. 354) C 83. (p. 355) C 84. (p. 355) A 85. (p. 354-355) C 86. (p. 355-356) D 87. (p. 357) C 88. (p. 358) A 89. (p. 357) D 90. (p. 357) C 91. (p. 356) D 92. (p. 358) D 93. (p. 358) C 94. (p. 358) B 95. (p. 359-360) B 96. (p. 359) B 97. (p. 359-360) A 98. (p. 361) D 99. (p. 362) D 100. (p. 362) B 101. Answer will vary 102. Answer will vary 103. Answer will vary 104. Answer will vary 105. Answer will vary 106. Answer will vary 107. Answer will vary 108. Answer will vary 109. Answer will vary 110. Answer will vary 111. Answer will vary

Chapter 13 Summary Category Guidepost: How accurately can schoolchildrens intelligence be measured?

Guidepost: How do communicative abilities expand during middle childhood?

Guidepost: How do school-age childrens thinking and moral reasoning differ from those of younger children?

Guidepost: How do schools meet special needs?

Guidepost: What advances in information-processing skills occur during middle childhood?

Guidepost: What factors influence school achievement?

Papalia - Chapter 13 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 21 12 33 11 14 20 111 11 28 61

Chapter 14 Student:

1.

Broad, inclusive self-concepts that integrate various aspects of the self are called A. industry versus inferiority.

B. self-esteem.

C. ideal self.

D. representational systems.

2.

Self-esteem reflects a child's assessment of her or his A. ideal self.

B. real self.

C. global self-worth.

D. representational systems.

3.

Randolph says, "I am fast at getting my homework done, but I'm slow at doing chores around the house.

I guess I'm a sometimes speedy, sometimes slow person." Randolph's ability to think of himself in more than one dimension relies on the maturation of A. object permanence.

B. representational systems.

C. second-order thinking.

D. formal operational thinking.

4.

A major determinant of self-esteem is a child's view of his or her capacity to A. be liked.

B. not feeling guilty when initiating an action.

C. complete productive work.

D. form relationships.

5.

Lonny feels inferior to most of his friends, but he does feel he is well liked by younger children. Lonny's sentiments are best thought of as an example of his A. achievement motivation.

B. self-regulation.

C. self-awareness.

D. self-esteem.

6.

Children's self-concepts in middle childhood are development.

A. more repressed than B. simpler than C. more complex than D. the same as

7.

Marcy views herself as being generally capable and competent in most aspects of her life. Marcy has a high degree of A. purpose.

B. trust versus mistrust.

C. global self-worth.

D. personal identity.

8.

The developmental task of middle childhood is resolving the crisis of A. initiative versus shame and guilt.

B. productivity versus self-doubt.

C. industry versus inferiority.

D. industry versus passivity.

they are in earlier periods of

9.

Grace, 17, volunteers with her neighborhood after-school program and every year collects money to send to political refugees. She also participates in a tutoring program with her school to help children with learning and behavioral problems. What can be said about Grace's self-esteem?

A. None of these actions are indicators of self-esteem.

B. Her self-esteem is high, because helping those less fortunate helps to build it.

C. Her self-esteem is low, so she surrounds herself with people who are worse off than she is.

D. Her-self-esteem is average, since she is probably doing these things in order to get into a good college.

10. Tanya is 8 years old and has just learned to use a word-processing program that allows her to write papers for school on the computer. According to Erikson, Tanya's mastery of this skill should lead to feelings of A. competence.

B. hope.

C. will.

D. purpose.

11. The virtue that develops with successful resolution of Erikson's fourth crisis is A. work ethic.

B. industriousness.

C. competence.

D. confidence.

12. The ability to stifle the impulse to show negative emotion at inappropriate times is called A. internalized conflict.

B. effortful control.

C. situational behavior.

D. conflicting expression.

13. By what age do children typically show pride and shame?

A. 2 or 3 B. 4 or 5 C. 7 or 8 D. 10 or 11 14. In middle childhood, empathy A. decreases; decreases B. increases; increases C. increases; decreases D. decreases; increases

and prosocial behavior

.

15. Parents who wish to exert a positive influence on their children's emotional growth should A. encourage their children to express feelings constructively.

B. discourage their children from sharing their feelings too openly.

C. minimize the seriousness of negative situations.

D. show disapproval of negative emotions.

16. As discussed in your textbook, which of the following is NOT an African-American extended family tradition?

A. living near or with kin B. strong sense of family obligation C. little contact with relatives D. mutual aid 17. Coregulation is A. another word for discipline.

B. another term for authoritative parenting.

C. the virtue resulting from successful resolution of Erikson's crisis of middle childhood.

D. a transitional stage of middle childhood in which parent and child share control.

18. Which of the following coregulation attempts is an appeal to moral values?

A. "A big boy like you shouldn't sit on the train while an old person stands."

B. "If you go another day without bathing, we'll be able to smell you coming."

C. "What happened to the helpful boy who was here yesterday?"

D. "Aren't you glad your father loves you enough to remind you to wear your boots?"

19. Nine-year-old Stephanie is beginning to internalize the values of her parents and society. Although her parents exercise general supervision over her, when she is not with them she exercises her own form of self-supervision. This phenomenon is called A. coregulation.

B. virtue of competence.

C. self-regulation.

D. self-control.

20. Since the early 1960s mothers have been going out into the workforce in large numbers. Some have joined the job market for economic reasons, others for self-fulfillment. Today, over of mothers of school-age children in the United States are in the workforce.

A. 50% B. 25% C. 70% D. 90% 21. In general, the more satisfied a mother is with her employment status, the more effective she is likely to be as a parent. However, the effect of her work on her child can depend on the child's A. personality.

B. age.

C. temperament.

D. all of the above 22. What percentage of school-aged children regularly care for themselves at home without adult supervision for at least part of the day?

A. 2% B. 9% C. 25% D. 40% 23. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the poverty and children?

A In the United States, the population with the highest percentage of children living in poverty in 2008 is . the African American population.

B In the United States, the population with the highest percentage of children living in poverty in 2008 is . the Latin American population.

C. Poverty affects children's self-esteem, but it does not seem to affect their peer relations or conduct.

D. none of the above 24. According to McLoyd, parents who live in poverty are likely to use a(n) A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. distant

parenting style.

25. According to your textbook, a father's degree of involvement with his children tends to be related to his A. economic success.

B. religious beliefs.

C. relationship with his siblings.

D. career satisfaction.

26. Over the past few decades, what has been the trend regarding the percentage of children under 18 living with two parents in the United States?

A. The number is decreasing.

B. The number has stabilized.

C. The number is increasing.

D. The number is fluctuating; no significant trends are evident.

27. How many children under the age of 18 in the United States are involved in divorces each year?

A. fewer than 100,000 B. about 500,000 C. nearly 750,000 D. more than 1 million 28. Which of the following is an influence on a child's adjustment to divorce?

A. the manner in which parents handle issues like custody and visitation B. the child's age or maturity C. the child's relationship with a stepparent D. all of the above 29. The Johnsons are contemplating getting a divorce. They contacted a counselor to see what they could learn about potential effects on their children. Compared to older children of divorce, younger children A. are less anxious.

B. have less realistic perceptions of what caused the divorce.

C. are less likely to blame themselves.

D. all of the above 30. The number of single-parent families in the United States has more than doubled since 1970, because of rising rates of divorce and because of parenthood outside of marriage. Approximately how many children today live with only one parent?

A. 22% B. 28% C. 34% D. 16% 31. Studies have found that children in one-parent families tend to do less well socially and academically than do children of two-parent families. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to this trend?

A. popularity of children B. economic status of family C. children's household responsibilities D. support and discipline experienced by children 32. According to research, which of the following statements about stepfamilies, or blended families, is false?

A. Children's loyalty to the absent parent may interfere with the formation of ties to the stepparent.

B. Girls are more likely than boys to accept a stepfather as a parent.

C. Stepmothers are more involved with their stepchildren than stepfathers.

D. Many stepparents assume a "hands-off" attitude toward children of the custodial parent.

33. Approximately how many children in the United States live with at least one lesbian or gay parent?

A. 100,000 B. between 1 and 9 million C. 20 million D. 30 million

34. When he was a baby, Charlie was adopted by a homosexual couple in New York. Now 17, having lived throughout his development with gay parents, numerous studies show that he has a 1 in 3 likelihood of A. becoming homosexual.

B. having academic or behavioral problems.

C. experiencing an inability to form satisfying and lasting romantic relationships.

D None of these; there are no consistent differences between children raised by homosexual parents and . children raised by heterosexual parents.

35. Which of the following statements is correct regarding adopted and non-adopted children?

A. Adopted children have significantly more problems with adjustment than non-adopted children.

B. Most adjustment problems that adopted children have seem to surface around middle childhood.

C. Adopted children demonstrate less prosocial behavior than non-adopted children.

D. all of the above 36. Adoptions where parties share information or have direct contact are called A. non-secret B. open C. shared D. direct

adoptions.

37. Which of the following statements regarding the care of younger siblings by older ones in developing countries is correct?

A. Siblings often form weak bonds since the older children simply see themselves as babysitters.

B. Parents in developing countries treat their children equally.

C. Competition and fighting among siblings is virtually nonexistent in developing countries.

D. Older children, particularly girls, are expected to parent younger children.

38. Which of the following factors influences sibling relationships and roles?

A. birth order B. spacing C. gender D. all of the above 39. Which of the following pairs of siblings is most likely to squabble as children?

A. Alexander and his brother Anthony B. Bernadette and her sister Betty C. Clayton and his sister Christina D. All of these pairs of siblings are equally likely to squabble.

40. Longitudinal research suggests that changes in sibling relationships are most likely to occur when one sibling is between the ages of A. 4 and 5.

B. 6 and 7.

C. 7 and 9.

D. 11 and 14.

41. As an infant, Louie had what most people would describe as a "difficult" temperament. However, Louie is now 6 years old and his father has established a mutually affectionate, cooperative relationship with him. As their relationship has improved, Louie has also behaved more affectionately and cooperatively with his younger brother, who reciprocates. Which of the following is correct in regards to this situation?

A. Louie no longer has a "difficult" temperament.

B. Louie has indirect influence on his brother.

C. Sibling relationships are more important than parent-child relationships.

D. Older siblings tend to direct younger siblings' behavior.

42. The Titan twins are by all accounts the most popular girls in the third grade. Behaviors that influence popularity are derived from A. a child's individual abilities (for example, cognitive and social skills).

B. family relationships.

C. cultural values.

D. all of the above 43. Which of the following statements is false regarding peer influences on gender development?

A. In middle childhood, groups are usually all girls or all boys.

B. In middle childhood, groups are based on likes and dislikes rather than gender.

C. Girls and boys talk to each other differently.

D. Peer groups help children to learn gender appropriate behaviors.

44. In middle childhood, peer groups A. help children develop social skills.

B. allow children to test and adopt values independent of their parents.

C. may encourage conformity and prejudice.

D. all of the above 45. Which of the following statements regarding positive effects of peer groups in middle childhood is false?

A. Peer groups help youngsters develop a sense of identity.

B. The peer group provides an opportunity to learn leadership and communication skills.

C. The peer group encourages nonconformity.

D. The peer group helps children develop the skills needed for intimacy.

46. The Corcorans decided to put their son David in a private school because they were disappointed in the behavior of his friends. Which of the following is most likely to be a negative effect of peer groups during middle childhood?

A Because children compare themselves with their peers rather than with a broader range of people, they . gauge their own abilities unrealistically.

B. Because members of a peer group tend to be similar, the peer group narrows children's perspectives.

C. At a time when children are most susceptible to peer pressure, the peer group exerts pressure to conform.

D. The peer group creates emotional insecurity because it distances children from the comfort provided by adults.

47. In middle childhood, A. boys; boys B. girls; girls C. boys; girls D. girls; boys

have more friends, and

have closer friends.

48. With regard to the typical composition of peer groups in middle childhood, which of the following statements is correct?

A Peer groups are usually all boys or all girls, because children of the same sex have common interests . and girls are generally more mature than boys.

BPeer groups usually consist of both girls and boys, because at this age youngsters have not yet become . self-conscious about differences between the sexes, and girls and boys are still at about the same level of maturity.

C. Because peer groups are generally neighborhood-based, ages of members usually differ by three to four years.

D. Because peer groups are almost always school-based, members are almost always exactly the same age.

49. A negative aspect of peer relations occurs when peer groups become cliques. They may reinforce unfavorable attitudes toward "outsiders," which is known as A. an antisocial tendency.

B. prejudice.

C. popularity.

D. social order.

50. A recent cross-cultural study in China and Canada found that all of the following traits were evaluated similarly across cultures except A. cooperativeness.

B. aggressiveness.

C. shyness.

D. sociability.

51. Unpopular children tend to make friends with A. younger children.

B. other unpopular children.

C. children from other classrooms or schools.

D. all of the above 52. If you were to summarize Selman's work regarding friendships, which of the following statements would you use?

A. A child's perception of friendship develops in stages.

B. Friendship seems to be an innate byproduct of evolution.

C. Friendship develops along with psychosexual maturation.

D. all of the above 53. Selman's research on children's friendships indicated that most school-age children are in stage A. one.

B. two.

C. three.

D. four.

54. The small minority of children who do not learn to control their physical aggression tend to remain physically aggressive throughout childhood, and also have both social and psychological problems.

Studies have shown that their aggression these problems.

A. causes B. is a reaction to C. does not cause D. It is unclear what role aggression plays in these problems.

55. Children who engage in aggression frequently see other children as trying to hurt them, and they strike out angrily either in retaliation or in self-defense.

A. hostile B. proactive C. instrumental D. relational 56. Which of the following statements about hostile aggression in children is correct?

A. Adults have little effect on hostile aggression in children.

B. Hostile aggression in children tends to stop without adult intervention.

C. Hostile aggression does not affect a child's popularity with peers.

D. Hostile aggression can be curbed by helping children to recognize when they are getting angry.

57. During the school years, the nature of aggression changes as decreases.

A. instrumental; hostile B. instrumental; relational C. relational; hostile D. hostile; instrumental

aggression increases and

58. Gender differences in relational aggression peaks between the ages of A. 4 and 6.

B. 7 and 8.

C. 9 and 10.

D. 11 and 17.

59. The tendency for some individuals to perceive others as trying to hurt them and to strike out in retaliation or self-defense is A. normal in middle childhood.

B. passive.

C. not commonly seen in middle childhood.

D. hostile attribution bias.

60. According to classic research in social psychology, children are more likely to imitate aggressive movie role models if they A. believe the violence on the screen is real.

B. identify with the aggressive role model.

C. watch without parental supervision.

D. all of the above 61. In the United States, about glorified, or trivialized.

A. 6 B. 2 C. 3 D. 9

out of 10 television programs portray violence, usually glamorized,

62. Which statement is true about bullying in United States schools.

A. Cyberbullying is becoming increasingly common.

B. Many schools report student bullying at least once a week.

C. Bullying is more common in middle school than in primary or high school.

D. All of the above 63. Children who are victims of bullying tend to have A. little trouble adjusting to school.

B. lower than average athletic skills.

C. low self-esteem.

D. a large, supportive group of friends.

64. The correlation between victimization by a bully and self-esteem shows us that bullying victims tend to have low self-esteem. From this correlation we can conclude A. that low self-esteem leads to victimization.

B. that low self-esteem follows from victimization.

C. that low self-esteem leads to bullying.

D. None of the above; correlation does not prove causation.

65. Who proposed the concept of the "hurried" child?

A. Jean Piaget B. David Elkind C. Michael Rutter D. Erik Erikson

66. Children experienced which of the following reactions to the terrorist attack of September 11, 2001?

A. chronic nightmares B. shortened attention spans C. obsessive thinking about not thinking about the attack D. all of these 67. Karut is growing up in a home and a neighborhood with constant, pervasive violence. He often has trouble sleeping, he cannot concentrate on his homework, and he has been sent home three times already this year for fighting. According to your textbook, what else is Karut likely to experience?

A. a harsh awakening out of the violence through a single, life-changing event B. a focusing of this violent energy on his studies to escape his negative environment C. problems attaching to others for fear of more hurt and loss D. all of the above 68. Which of the following statements about resilient children is false?

A. Exposure to a number of stressful factors at the same time develops and strengthens their ability to cope.

B. They tend to have an emotionally supportive relationship with at least one adult.

C. They tend to be adaptable and have high self-esteem.

D. They often have successful experiences that compensate for their unfortunate circumstances.

69. Resilient children are those who A. "bounce back" from unfortunate circumstances that would impair most children's development.

B. have authoritative parents.

C. receive positive and effective treatment for emotional disorders.

D. have successfully resolved Erikson's crisis of middle childhood.

70. Compare and contrast Erikson's findings about self-concept and self-esteem with Harter's findings.

71. Describe some of the signs of school-age children's emotional growth.

72. Explain the development of co-regulation during middle childhood.

73. Explain the effects of poverty on family atmosphere and psychosocial development in middle childhood.

74. Explain the effects of divorce and various custody arrangements on a child's development. How is a father's roll important in child development?

75. How do siblings influence and get along with one another in middle childhood?

76. How do children's relationships with peers change in middle childhood, and how do they choose their friends during this period?

77. Explain the differences between hostile aggression, instrumental aggression, and relational aggression.

Give examples of each.

78. Bullying is an issue in many schools in the United States. Explain the various types of bullying, the typical characteristics of bullies and victims. What are some ideas on how to ameliorate bullying in schools?

79. Discuss the characteristics of Elkind's "hurried" child. In your answer, include contributing factors, and give an example of a hurried child.

Chapter 14 Key 1. (p. 366) D 2. (p. 366) C 3. (p. 366) B 4. (p. 366) C 5. (p. 366) D 6. (p. 366) C 7. (p. 366) C 8. (p. 366) C 9. (p. 367) B 10. (p. 366) A 11. (p. 366) C 12. (p. 367) B 13. (p. 367) C 14. (p. 367) B 15. (p. 367) A 16. (p. 371-372) C 17. (p. 368) D 18. (p. 368-369) A 19. (p. 368) A 20. (p. 369) C 21. (p. 369-370) D 22. (p. 370) B 23. (p. 370) A 24. (p. 370-371) B 25. (p. 372-373) A 26. (p. 371) A 27. (p. 373) D 28. (p. 373-374) D 29. (p. 373-374) B 30. (p. 374-375) B 31. (p. 371-372) A 32. (p. 375-376) B 33. (p. 376) B 34. (p. 376) D 35. (p. 376-377) B 36. (p. 376-377) B

37. (p. 378) D 38. (p. 378) D 39. (p. 378) A 40. (p. 378) C 41. (p. 378) B 42. (p. 380-381) D 43. (p. 379) B 44. (p. 79) D 45. (p. 379) C 46. (p. 379) C 47. (p. 379-380) C 48. (p. 379-380) A 49. (p. 379) B 50. (p. 381) C 51. (p. 381) D 52. (p. 381-382) A 53. (p. 381-382) B 54. (p. 381-382) D 55. (p. 381-382) A 56. (p. 382-383) D 57. (p. 381) D 58. (p. 381) D 59. (p. 383) D 60. (p. 383-384) D 61. (p. 383) A 62. (p. 385) D 63. (p. 385-386) C 64. (p. 385-386) D 65. (p. 386) B 66. (p. 387) D 67. (p. 386-387) C 68. (p. 388-389) A 69. (p. 388-389) A 70. Answer will vary 71. Answer will vary 72. Answer will vary 73. Answer will vary 74. Answer will vary

75. Answer will vary 76. Answer will vary 77. Answer will vary 78. Answer will vary 79. Answer will vary

Chapter 14 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: How do relationships with peers change in middle childhood, and what factors influence popularity and aggressive beh 26 avior?

Guidepost: How do self-concept and self-esteem change in middle childhood, and how do school18 age children show emotional growth?

Guidepost: What are some common mental health problems of childhood, and how do children respond to the stresses of modern li 6 fe?

Guidepost: What are the effects of family atmosphere and family structure, and what part do siblings play in childrens developmen 29 t?

Papalia - Chapter 14 79 Question Type: C 18 Question Type: F 51

Chapter 15 Student:

1.

Which of the following terms represents the social construction for the developmental transition between childhood and adulthood?

A. young adulthood B. adolescence C. puberty D. growth spurt

2.

The process by which a person attains sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce is called A. the adolescent growth spurt.

B. adrenarche.

C. puberty.

D. all of the above

3.

Shelley, age 12, is undergoing rapid physiological growth, and her reproductive functions and sex organs are maturing. This is referred to as A. maturation.

B. puberty.

C. coming-of-age.

D. menarche.

4.

Adolescence is generally considered to begin with the A. onset of puberty.

B. adolescent growth spurt.

C. first nocturnal emission for boys, and menarche for girls.

D. attainment of sexual maturity.

5.

Which of the following statements is NOT one of the reasons why, in modern industrial societies, it is unclear when adolescence ends?

A Complex industrial societies require a long period of education, which postpones adulthood beyond the . attainment of physical maturity.

B. Most of these societies have no definitive markers to establish adulthood.

C. Puberty in these societies is beginning much later than it used to, because young people are less active and less physically fit.

D. Vocational apprenticeships are rare or absent in these societies.

6.

Which of the following statements about adolescence in the United States today is false?

A. American adolescents face greater hazards to their physical well-being than did their counterparts in earlier years.

B. American adolescents face greater hazards to their mental health than did adolescents in earlier cohorts.

C. About three in five adolescents will deal with major problems in adolescence.

D. Physical hazards of adolescence include early pregnancy and high death rates from accidents, homicide, and suicide.

7.

When was adolescence first defined as a separate stage of life in the Western world?

A. the 19th century B. the 20th century C. the 1970's D. post World War II

8.

Most girls first begin to show growth of breasts and pubic hair between the ages of A. 6 and 14.

B. 8 and 15.

C. 10 and 14.

D. 15 and 16.

9.

Ana's breasts are just starting to develop, she is beginning to grow some pubic hair, and her body is growing rapidly. If she is an average American female, Ana is approximately how old?

A. 7 B. 9 C. 13 D. 15

10. Boys have higher levels of A. androgens; estrogen B. testes; estrogen.

C. estrogen; androgens D. estrogen; testosterone

and girls have higher levels of

.

11. The rush of hormonal activity associated with puberty seems to depend on reaching a critical amount of necessary for successful reproduction.

A. leptin B. sperm C. androgens D. body fat 12. The secretion of gradually increasing levels of androgens, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), influences A. the growth of body and pubic hair.

B. the development of body odor.

C. faster body growth.

D. all of the above 13. Studies have determined that a protein secreted by fatty tissue called the onset of puberty.

A. DHEA B. GnRH C. leptin D. GPR54

is necessary to trigger

14. At about what age does an average American boy reach puberty?

A. 8 B. 10 C. 9 D. 14 15. The onset of the hormonal changes that cause puberty is initially triggered by a signal from the gland.

A. pituitary B. adrenal C. thyroid D. lacrimal 16. The hormones that stimulate maturation are called A. estrogen; testosterone B. androgen; testosterone C. testosterone; estrogen D. androgen; estrogen

in girls and

in boys.

17. Jenna is experiencing an increased output of her oil- and sweat-producing glands. What other physiological changes is she probably experiencing at this time?

A. growth of pubic hair B. the beginning of body growth C. menarche D. the appearance of underarm hair 18. Which of the following is a primary sex characteristic?

A. underarm hair B. breasts C. pubic hair D. ovaries 19.

Pubic hair is one of the A. signs of menarche.

B. signs that a young person is capable of reproduction.

C. primary sex characteristics.

D. secondary sex characteristics.

20. Which of the following is NOT a secondary sex characteristic?

A. axillary hair B. pubic hair C. voice changes D. seminal vesicles 21. The sequence of pubertal events is A. extremely inconsistent in order and timing.

B. fairly consistent in order but not in timing.

C. consistent in both order and timing.

D. consistent in girls but inconsistent in boys.

22. Which of the following changes is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A. growth of the penis B. enlargement of the testes and scrotum C. axillary hair D. change in voice 23. Dresdon, who is going through puberty, is experiencing enlargement of his breasts. The authors of your textbook would probably recommend that Dresdon A. not worry, because this is normal and temporary.

B. seek psychotherapy.

C. have hormone tests right away.

D. prepare himself for a delay in sexual maturation.

24. Between the ages of 11 and 13, girls on average are A. taller B. heavier C. stronger D. all of the above

than boys.

25. Fourteen-year-old Warren has undergone a rapid increase in height and weight. The phase he has been going through is commonly referred to as A. coming-of-age.

B. the adolescent growth spurt.

C. menarche.

D. the secular trend.

26. Phillipe is 16 and has just begun his adolescent growth spurt. How old would you predict he will be when the growth spurt ends?

A. 17 B. 18 C. 19 D. 20 27.

An adolescent generally reaches sexual maturity A. when the primary sex characteristics appear.

B. at the onset of puberty.

C. at the onset of the adolescent growth spurt.

D. after the adolescent growth spurt ends.

28. After the period of rapid adolescent growth, females tend to have a more rounded appearance than males, which is mainly due to A. menstruation.

B. overeating.

C. layers of fat under the skin.

D. the difference in boys' and girls' athletic activities.

29. The trend toward earlier attainment of adult height and sexual maturity, which began a century ago, is an example of a trend.

A. behavioral B. psychosocial C. secular D. retrospective 30. The secular trend often referred to by developmentalists is the trend toward A. earlier sexual activity.

B. better nutrition and health care.

C. earlier physical and sexual maturity.

D. lengthening adolescence through education.

31. The secular trend involving increased adult height and weight in the United States is attributable to all of the following factors except A. increased diversity of the American population.

B. improved health care.

C. better nourishment.

D. higher standard of living.

32. Puberty began for Molly when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11, and her grandmother at 13. This is an example of a trend.

A. cross-sectional B. sexual C. physiological D. secular 33. In boys, the principal sign of sexual maturity is the A. ability to maintain an erection.

B. first nocturnal emission.

C. growth of the penis.

D. production of sperm.

34. A nocturnal emission is A. a sign of maladjustment.

B. always associated with erotic dreams.

C. associated with frequent masturbation.

D. a normal occurrence during adolescence.

35. A nocturnal emission A. is called a wet dream.

B. signals the onset of menarche.

C. can occur early in girls in stressful environments.

D. all of the above 36. Menstruation is the A. release of a mature ovum from the ovaries.

B. monthly shedding of tissue from the lining of the uterus.

C. onset of puberty in girls.

D. readiness for conception during ovulation.

37. Menarche is the A. first menstruation in girls.

B. period when primary sex characteristics mature.

C. period when secondary sex characteristics appear.

D. onset of puberty in girls.

38. Research suggests that family relationships might be related to the timing of sexual maturation. Based on this research, which girl would you predict to mature last?

A. Adrianna, who has an unaffectionate, uninvolved father B. Beth, who is being raised by a single mother C. Carol, who is exposed to many unrelated male adults D. DeeDee, who has a close, supportive relationship with her father 39. Jung tends to worry about being liked, is very cautious in his actions, and feels most comfortable following the rules. He is also popular with his peers and good-natured. According to research from the text, Jung is probably a(n) A. depressed teenager.

B. late-maturing boy.

C. early-maturing boy.

D. preadolescent.

40. Compared to late-maturing boys, early-maturing boys are A. likely to be more self-conscious and insecure.

B. often expected to act more mature than they are.

C. better prepared to deal with the changes of adolescence.

D. more likely to have poor social and coping skills.

41. Alice is an adolescent who tends to be shy and introverted, lacks poise, and feels unhappy about having menstrual periods. According to your textbook, Alice is probably A. sexually active.

B. underweight.

C. an early-maturing girl.

D. a late-maturing girl.

42. Early-maturing girls are at increased risk for A. behavioral problems.

B. mental health problems.

C. sexual activity.

D. all of the above 43.

maturation is associated with an increase of risky behavior in A. Early; boys and girls B. Early; girls only C. Late; boys and girls D. Late; boys only

.

44. Ethnicity affects the timing of puberty. other ethnic groups.

A. Asian-American B. Mexican-American C. African-American D. European-American 45. Adolescents between the ages of for emotional reactions.

A. 8 and 10 B. 11 and 13 C. 14 and 15 D. 16 and 17 46. The adolescence.

A. parietal B. frontal C. temporal D. occipital 47.

girls tend to enter puberty earlier than do girls from

tend to use the amygdale in the temporal lobe of the brain

lobe is in charge of the more accurate, reasoned choices associated with older

out of 10 early and mid-adolescents consider themselves healthy.

A. Five B. Seven C. Nine D. Ten

48. Compared to low-income adolescents, well-off adolescents are likely to possess all the following characteristics EXCEPT A. being better educated.

B. drinking and smoking less.

C. having healthier diets.

D. being more physically active.

49.

percent of U.S. adolescents do not engage in the recommended amounts of physical activity.

A. Ten B. Twenty C. Thirty D. Forty

50. Most young Americans need A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

minutes of exercise everyday.

51. Approximately how many hours of sleep does the average adolescent need?

A. 6 - 7 hours B. less than 7 hours C. at least 8 hours D. 10 hours 52. Sixteen-year-old Latasha does not get enough sleep. She could be at risk to A. become depressed.

B. do poorly in school.

C. come from a family with less educated and older parents.

D. all of the above

53. The brain's natural sleep cycle is controlled by the hormone A. melatonin B. ceratonin C. DHEA D. REM 54.

in calcium, zinc, and iron are common in adolescence.

A. over-doses B. diets rich in C. deficiencies D. discrepencies

55. About 34% of U.S. teens have a body mass index (BMI) at or above the A. 85th B. 11th C. 90th D. 60th 56. The number of overweight young people has increased A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

percentile.

% over the past two decades.

57. Which of the following is a lifestyle factor that influences adolescent obesity?

A. poverty B. faulty regulation of metabolism C. inability to recognize body cues about hunger D. development of an abnormally large number of fat cells 58. Obesity in adolescence A. affects about 25% of young people.

B. has declined in the past two decades owing to greater health consciousness among young people.

C. usually continues later in life.

D. is caused solely by too little physical activity and poor eating habits.

59. Which of the following statements regarding body image is false?

AGirls' increase in body fat at puberty leads to more dissatisfaction with their bodies, whereas boys . become more satisfied with their increasing muscularity.

B. Fashion magazines, which promote unrealistic ideals of thinness, contribute to girls' dissatisfaction with their bodies.

C. About one-quarter of girls are dieting or think they should be.

D. Relationships with parents may be a factor that influences adolescent body image.

60. Which statement is NOT true about changing body images during adolescence?

A. Boys and girls both grow increasingly dissatisfied by their appearances.

B Cultural influences emphasize women's appearances which may contribute to girls' increasing . dissatisfaction with their appearances.

C. Parental attitudes and media images play a greater part than peer influences in encouraging weight concerns.

D. Eating disorders among boys and young men are on the rise.

61. Ashley's parents were shocked to discover that she had an eating disorder. Her weight is normal and she appears to eat appropriate meals when her parents are present. Before their discovery of her problem, they most likely would have described Ashley as A. having low self-esteem.

B. being a perfectionist.

C. being a good student.

D. all of the above

62. Terri is 25% underweight, has stopped menstruating, is afraid of becoming fat, and is obsessed with food.

She is probably A. anorexic.

B. bulimic.

C. an underachiever in school.

D. schizophrenic.

63. Anorexia nervosa typically includes all of the following symptoms except A. a severe loss of body weight.

B. a distorted body image.

C. a preoccupation with food.

D. poor academic achievement.

64. An anorexic person typically A. an underachiever at school.

B. is a perfectionist.

C. avoids thinking about food or handling it.

D. realizes how abnormally thin she is but cannot help herself.

65. Theories surrounding anorexia claim that A. victims of this disorder have a complete disinterest in food.

B. people suffering with this disorder engage in early sexual activity.

C. there is evidence that anorexia can be traced back to medieval times.

D. all of the above 66. All of the following factors have been suggested as causes of anorexia nervosa except A. a disorder of the brain.

B. low intelligence.

C. fear of growing up and becoming sexual.

D. familial malfunctioning.

67. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder typically characterized by all of the following symptoms except A. regular eating binges followed by purging through laxatives or vomiting.

B. abnormal thinness.

C. shame, self-contempt, and depression.

D. a history of dieting and/or excessive exercise.

68. Which of the following statements regarding eating disorders is correct?

A. Bulimia is less common than anorexia.

B. The majority of anorexics are female, and the majority of individuals who have bulimia nervosa are male.

C. Approximately 3% of the population are binge eaters.

D. So much overlap exists between anorexia and bulimia that they are considered to be different aspects of a single disorder.

69. Which of these statements about bulimia are true?

A. Bulimia affects about 1-2% of international populations.

B. People with bulimia are usually within normal weight ranges.

C. A bulimic person's binges are usually short lived.

D. all of the above 70. According to your textbook, an effective treatment for bulimia might be A. isolation from family members with negative influences.

B. cognitive behavioral therapy.

C. a drug that decreases fat stores in the body.

D. force-feeding the patient so they gain weight immediately.

71. Substance involves repeated, harmful use of a substance, whereas substance a physical and/or psychological addiction.

A. deprivation; abuse B. abuse; dependence C. dependence; abuse D. deprivation; dependence

is

72. According to your textbook, after a general decreasing trend in drug use and abuse, an upsurge in drug use occurred in the early .

A. 1960s B. 1900s C. 1990s D. 2000s 73. The most widely used illegal drug in the United States is A. marijuana.

B. crack cocaine.

C. heroin.

D. LSD. 74. Heavy use of marijuana can A. damage the brain, heart, lungs, and immune system.

B. impede memory, learning, perception, and judgment.

C. lessen motivation and interfere with schoolwork and other activities.

D. all of the above 75. Randy, who is 13, regularly drinks beer with three friends of the same age. How much more likely are they to become dependent on alcohol than if they had waited seven or eight years before they started drinking?

A. three times B. four times C. five times D. six times 76. Adolescents exposed to alcohol and drugs before the age of to engage in risky behavior.

A. 11 B. 13 C. 15 D. 17

are twice as likely as other young people

77. Which of the following statements regarding tobacco smoking is false?

A. The rate of teen smoking has shown a recent decrease.

B. A strong relationship exists between adolescents who smoke and parents who smoke.

C. Early smoking may damage the DNA in the lungs.

D. Over half of high school students are smokers.

78. Depression in young people may be manifested by which of the following moods?

A. irritability B. boredom C. inability to experience pleasure D. all of the above 79. Adolescent girls and adult women are more likely to suffer from depression than are males. Which of the following explains this gender difference?

A. biological changes B. difference in socialization C. greater vulnerability to stress in social relationships D. all of the above

80. What percentage of people who experience depression in childhood or adolescence are at risk for developing bipolar disorder?

A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% 81. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major causes of death during adolescence?

A. accidents B. cancer C. homicide D. suicide 82. The leading cause of death among American adolescents is A. suicide.

B. sexually transmitted diseases.

C. cancer.

D. motor vehicle accidents.

83. Firearm-related deaths of 15- to 19-year-olds constitute more than group.

A. 65 B. 75 C. 85 D. 95

% of all homicides in that age

84. Which of the following statements regarding adolescent suicide is correct?

A. African-American girls have the highest suicide rate.

B. Native American boys have the highest rates in the United States.

C. A teenager who has previously attempted suicide is unlikely to try again.

D. Suicide rates are low among homosexual and bisexual adolescents.

85. Suicide is the A. 8th B. 10th C. 1st D. 4th

leading cause of death for U.S. adolescents ages 15-19.

86. Protective factors shown to reduce the risk of suicide include all but which of the following?

A. connectedness to family and school B. emotional well being C. attention to physical attractiveness D. academic achievement 87. Which of the following is NOT true of suicide?

A. Young people who attempt suicide tend to have histories of emotional illness.

B. Alcohol plays a part in half all teenage suicides.

C. The prefrontal cortex has not been identified in postmortem brain studies of suicide victims.

D. Protective factors include connectedness to family and school.

88. According to a recent survey of over 12,000 seventh- through twelfth-graders, which of the following factors was found to affect young people's health and well-being?

A. a sense that parents and teachers are warm and caring B. a sense that parents and teachers have high expectations for achievement C. restrictions of adolescents' access to tobacco, alcohol, and guns D. all of the above

89. Adolescence is a transition period. Describe the factors that mark the beginning and the end of adolescence.

90. The developmental period of adolescence is often considered to be a social construction. Describe what this expression means, and explain its historical significance.

91. What are some of the opportunities and risks of adolescence?

92. Explain the physical characteristics of puberty development in both boys and girls. In your explanation, include the following terms: primary sex characteristics; secondary sex characteristics; and, menarche.

93. Explain the differences in adjustment of girls who mature early and those who mature late.

94. How much physical activity do adolescents participate in? In your answer, discuss gender differences and possible solutions for the problems that exist.

95. Explain anorexia and bulimia. Describe the characteristics of adolescents who struggle with these eating disorders, as well as the interventions that have been successful in controlling the disorders.

96. What are some recent trends regarding adolescent drug abuse?

97. Explain the factors involved with adolescent suicide. What gender differences exist, and what can be done to prevent suicide?

Chapter 15 Key 1. (p. 396) B 2. (p. 396) C 3. (p. 396) B 4. (p. 396) A 5. (p. 396) C 6. (p. 396) C 7. (p. 396) B 8. (p. 399) A 9. (p. 399) B 10. (p. 398) A 11. (p. 398) D 12. (p. 398) D 13. (p. 398) C 14. (p. 399) C 15. (p. 398) B 16. (p. 398) A 17. (p. 398-399) D 18. (p. 399) D 19. (p. 399) D 20. (p. 399) D 21. (p. 399-400) B 22. (p. 399-400) B 23. (p. 400) A 24. (p. 400) D 25. (p. 400) B 26. (p. 400) B 27. (p. 400) D 28. (p. 400) C 29. (p. 401) C 30. (p. 401) C 31. (p. 401-402) A 32. (p. 401) D 33. (p. 401) D 34. (p. 401) D 35. (p. 401) A 36. (p. 401) B

37. (p. 401) A 38. (p. 402) D 39. (p. 402-403) C 40. (p. 402-403) B 41. (p. 402-403) C 42. (p. 402-403) D 43. (p. 402-403) A 44. (p. 402-403) C 45. (p. 403) B 46. (p. 403) B 47. (p. 404) C 48. (p. 404) B 49. (p. 404) C 50. (p. 404) B 51. (p. 405) C 52. (p. 405) D 53. (p. 405) A 54. (p. 405) C 55. (p. 405) A 56. (p. 405-406) C 57. (p. 405-406) A 58. (p. 406) C 59. (p. 406) C 60. (p. 406-407) A 61. (p. 407-408) D 62. (p. 407) A 63. (p. 407) D 64. (p. 407) B 65. (p. 408) C 66. (p. 407) B 67. (p. 408) B 68. (p. 408) C 69. (p. 408) D 70. (p. 408) B 71. (p. 409) B 72. (p. 409) C 73. (p. 410) A 74. (p. 410) D

75. (p. 411) B 76. (p. 411) C 77. (p. 411) D 78. (p. 412) D 79. (p. 412) D 80. (p. 412) D 81. (p. 413) B 82. (p. 413) D 83. (p. 413) C 84. (p. 413) B 85. (p. 413) D 86. (p. 414) C 87. (p. 414) C 88. (p. 414) D 89. Answer will vary 90. Answer will vary 91. Answer will vary 92. Answer will vary 93. Answer will vary 94. Answer will vary 95. Answer will vary 96. Answer will vary 97. Answer will vary

Chapter 15 Summary Category # of Questions Guidepost: What are some common health problems and health risks of adolescence, and how can they be prevented?

46 Guidepost: What brain developments occur during adolescence, and how do they affect adolescent behavior?

2 Guidepost: What is adolescence, and what opportunities and risks does it entail?

10 Guidepost: What physical changes do adolescents experience, and how do these changes affect them psychologically 39 ?

Papalia - Chapter 15 97 Question Type: A 7 Question Type: C 11 Question Type: F 70

Chapter 16 Student:

1.

Bethany solves a physics problem by developing and testing several hypotheses. According to Piaget, this is an example of the stage of cognitive development.

A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. formal operational D. concrete operational

2.

Morgan is reading Robert Frost's The Road Not Taken for the fourth time since elementary school, but she only now understands what the poem means in terms of her life and the decisions she will make.

Morgan is showing signs of A. centration.

B. formal operations.

C. egocentrism.

D. apparent hypocrisy.

3.

What distinguishes Piaget's stage of formal operations from his earlier stages?

A. the ability to decenter B. conservation abilities C. the ability to think abstractly D. all of the above

4.

People in the situations.

A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational

5.

A classic Piagetian test of formal reasoning is the A. pendulum problem.

B. mountain task.

C. conservation task.

D. moral dilemma.

6.

Stuart is 15 and likes "brain teaser" puzzles and word problems. He thinks out all possible alternatives and tries to eliminate them logically, one by one. This is an example of reasoning.

A. transductive-inductive B. hypothetical-deductive C. preconventional-deductive D. postconventional-inductive

7.

David's automotive teacher enters him in a troubleshooting competition. He will be given a car that will not start and then has to find the problem and repair the car as quickly as possible. The day of the competition, David goes right to the car and tries to start it. When the engine turns over, but does not start up, his mind lights up with a list of potential problems and the diagnostic procedures to verify them.

David is demonstrating A. transductive interference.

B. hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

C. centration.

D. situational fixation.

stage of cognitive development are able to deal effectively with hypothetical

8.

Mary Jane's question "What if . . . ?" when she approaches a task or a puzzle is a sign of A. egocentrism.

B. the personal fable.

C. imaginary audience.

D. hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

9.

Piaget's formal reasoning tasks are significant in assessing cognitive development because finding a solution requires A. varying one factor at a time while holding the rest constant.

B. seeing the situation from someone else's point of view.

C. internalizing standards established by others.

D. choosing from conflicting standards by exercising one's own judgment.

10. Which of the following is NOT a problem with Piaget's conception of formal operations?

A. It fails to consider growth in metacognition.

B. It overestimates older children's abilities.

C. It overemphasizes writing and language abilities.

D. It de-emphasizes the influence of the situation and culture.

11. Regarding Piaget's conception of cognitive development, many critics maintain that Piaget the abilities of younger children and the abilities of older children.

A. underestimated; overestimated B. overestimated; underestimated C. emphasized; ignored D. ignored; emphasized 12. Which of the following is considered a drawback of Piaget's studies?

A. Piaget overestimated some older children's abilities.

B. Piaget focused too heavily on individual differences.

C. Piaget focused too heavily on cultural and social influences.

D. Piaget focused too heavily on metacognition.

13. In many households with adolescents, the parent-child relationship is anything but harmonious.

According to Elkind, adolescents find fault with their parents because A. their cognitive development allows them to think about ideals, and they see how their parents fall short.

B. they need to separate emotionally from their parents in order to leave home.

C. they are too self-centered to recognize their parents' good qualities.

D. they feel the need to rebel against parental authority.

14. Dinnertime conversations at the Watts' house have not been peaceful since Bryden turned 15. Which of the following reflects Bryden's desire to try out, and show off, his newfound formal reasoning abilities?

A. argumentativeness B. the personal fable C. apparent hypocrisy D. conventional moral reasoning 15. With regard to adolescents' thinking, indecisiveness refers to A. the inability to make up one's mind even about simple matters.

B. the failure to decide what is interesting to oneself as opposed to what is interesting to others.

C. the inability to solve the pendulum problem, as a result of delayed attainment of formal operations.

D the inability to decide on a solution to a moral dilemma problem, as a result of being at the . preconventional level of moral reasoning.

16. Doug recently took part in a demonstration for homeless people. When his mother asked him to let her take some of his older clothing to the Salvation Army, Doug said "I haven't outgrown them! You're always picking on me anyway, and now you want to take the clothes off my back!" This is a clear reflection of A. idealism and criticalness.

B. argumentativeness.

C. indecisiveness.

D. apparent hypocrisy.

17. Delia, 14, often becomes self-conscious because she believes other people are watching and talking about her. This happens at church, school, and family gatherings. Delia is experiencing A. shyness.

B. paranoia.

C. an imaginary audience.

D. a personal fable.

18. When 13-year-old Andre comes out of the locker room in his gym shorts, he hears some girls laughing nearby and assumes they are laughing at the way his legs look. According to Elkind, Andre's thinking reflects the operation of A. an imaginary audience.

B. the personal fable.

C. paranoia.

D. argumentativeness.

19. Lana spends hours rewriting and perfecting English papers in case they are selected to be read in front of the class. Which of the following is the best explanation for the imaginary audience in adolescents' thought?

A. delayed attainment of formal operations B. delayed attainment of postconventional moral reasoning C. failure to realize that everyone is subject to the consequences of his or her actions D. inability to distinguish what interests oneself from what interests others 20. Roberto spends hours getting ready for school each morning. He spends a great deal of time choosing his clothes and fixing his hair. He is very concerned about fitting in with the other kids at school. His great concern with his appearance suggests that Roberto is dealing with A. a personal fable.

B. an imaginary audience.

C. apparent hypocrisy.

D. concrete-operations.

21. Jennifer recognizes that AIDS is a serious health risk, yet she sometimes engages in unprotected sex. She believes that bad things can happen to others but will never happen to her. Jennifer is exhibiting which of the following phenomena?

A. imaginary audience B. egocentric thought C. personal fable D. preoperational thought 22. Roland's belief that harm might come to others but not to himself is called A. the personal fable.

B. apparent hypocrisy.

C. conventional thinking.

D. the imaginary audience.

23. Eduardo is 17 and loves mountain biking. He pays no attention to warnings about closed trails and often comments "Nothing will happen to me." Eduardo exemplifies which aspect of adolescent thinking?

A. argumentativeness B. postconventional reasoning C. personal fable D. hypothetical-deductive reasoning 24. Elkind's notions of the imaginary audience and the personal fable A. are linked with the emergence of the ability to take an outsider's perspective.

B. are universal features of cognitive development in adolescence.

C. are unrelated to specific social experiences.

D. can be characteristic of youngsters who are experiencing difficulties in adjustment.

25. Jacob has begun to understand that the language he uses when he hangs out with his friends and the language he uses when he is at work needs to be different. Jacob is gaining an understanding of A. formal operations.

B. syntax.

C. social perspective taking.

D. symbols.

26. Thomas has started working at Kmart on a part-time basis. His managers often express how pleased they are that he is able to understand the customer's point of view. This is a result of Thomas' A. understanding of abstract vocabulary.

B. social perspective taking.

C. pubilect.

D. use of puns, irony, and metaphors.

27. Henri is asked which twentieth-century artist became famous for painting pictures of soup cans and celebrities. He correctly answers "Andy Warhol." This recall of information can best be described as knowledge.

A. conceptual B. declarative C. procedural D. structural 28. Frieda, age 16, is a boating enthusiast who can tie 56 different kinds of knots. This type of knowledge is most aptly described as knowledge.

A. conceptual B. declarative C. procedural D. functional 29.

studied moral development by presenting hypothetical dilemmas to subjects to determine what they would recommend as a course of action.

A. Fowler B. Erikson C. Marcia D. Kohlberg

30. Kohlberg's view of the relationship between cognitive development and moral development was that A. advances in cognitive development are necessary for advances in moral development.

B. advanced cognitive development guarantees advanced moral development.

C. advanced cognitive development impedes moral development because it suppresses intuitive, emotional responses.

D. moral development proceeds independently of cognitive development.

31. Kohlberg asked subjects to respond to moral dilemmas because he wanted to A. determine the prevailing values among different age groups.

B. determine the shortcomings in the moral education of Americans.

C. understand and measure the moral reasoning behind people's solutions of moral dilemmas.

D. demonstrate gender differences in moral reasoning.

32. The study on which Kohlberg based his theory of the levels of moral reasoning was a A. cross-sectional study of American males of all ages.

B. longitudinal study of a group of males, beginning at ages 10 to 16.

C. longitudinal cross-cultural study of males and females, beginning at ages 10 to 16.

D. longitudinal cross-cultural study of males of all ages.

33. Austin, age 6, is angry when his 2-year-old sister disturbs his toy trains. Asked why he should not hit her, he says, "Because Mommy will spank me." In Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, his response is typical of A. preconventional morality.

B. morality of autonomous moral principles.

C. conventional morality.

D. morality of conscience.

34. Kristin believes that a person should always tell the truth because that is what a good girl or boy does.

She seeks to please others. This type of moral reasoning is characteristic of Kohlberg's level of A. instrumental purpose and exchange.

B. morality of conventional role conformity.

C. morality of universal ethical principles.

D. autonomous moral principles.

35. Gene has just been paid cash for some small home repairs. Gene is displeased with the government's spending priorities and, therefore, is hesitant to report the income on his tax return. He eventually decides to report the money because he feels that obeying the law is essential to the well-being of society. This reflects which level of moral reasoning?

A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. transition to level II 36. Diane disagrees with the government's rules on voter registration. She realizes that the law is written with good intentions, but she disagrees with it and is working to get it changed. Diane falls within Kohlberg's stage of moral development.

A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. transition to level II 37. Preconventional morality is characteristic of A. young children.

B. some adolescents.

C. some adults.

D. all of the above 38. Kohlberg suggested that the majority of adolescents and adults are at which level of moral reasoning?

A. preconventional B. conventional role conformity C. autonomous moral principles D. None of the above; adolescents and adults are fairly evenly distributed at all levels.

39. What is the distinguishing feature of autonomous moral principles?

A. thinking of morality in terms of pleasing others or obeying the law B. internalizing the standards of others C. recognizing conflicts between moral standards and making one's own judgment based on principles of fairness and justice D. acting under external controls and influences 40. Three teenagers are talking about euthanasia and give the following responses. Which one demonstrates preconventional moral reasoning?

A. Andrea says, "I think it's right, because nothing justifies making people suffer when there is no hope of recovery."

B Christian says, "I'd never kill anyone, not even to end dreadful pain, because I would probably be . caught and sentenced to death or life imprisonment."

C. Caroline says, "It's absolutely wrong, obviously, because it's against the law."

D. All of the above demonstrate preconventional morality.

41. Ian, a high school junior, is studying day and night in the hope of being admitted to the prestigious university from which his mother graduated. When his friends ask him why he works so hard, Ian responds, "I'd just as soon go to a community college, but it will make my mother really happy if I go to her school." Ian is demonstrating moral reasoning.

A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. formal operational 42. Three teenagers are asked why they do not use drugs. Which statement demonstrates conventional moral reasoning?

A. "I couldn't let my parents down by getting into trouble because of drugs."

B. "I'm afraid of getting arrested or thrown out of school."

C"Actually, I think drugs should be legalized, but I don't take drugs because I think people have a . responsibility to keep their minds and bodies in good shape."

D. All of the above demonstrate conventional moral reasoning.

43. Georgia works part-time in an office where nearly all of the other workers take office supplies home with them. Georgia does not because, even though she is unlikely to get in trouble and no one else seems to think it is wrong, she feels she owes it to her employer and to herself not to cheat. "I'm better than that," Georgia reasons. Which level of morality best describes Georgia?

A. postconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. None of the above; Georgia's thinking does not fit into any of Kohlberg's categories.

44. Chandra is asked whether or not it is okay for a police officer to take the life of a man who is threatening the lives of many others. She responds by saying that it is the officer's duty to take the man's life because he was hired for the purpose of protecting innocent people. Chandra is most likely at which stage of Kohlberg's moral reasoning?

A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 5 45. Research on Kohlberg's theory indicates that a person's stage of moral development A. correlates positively with socioeconomic status.

B. does not correlate with age.

C. correlates negatively with IQ. D. does not correlate with education.

46. Which of the following is a motivator of moral activity?

A. empathy B. guilt C. internalization of prosocial norms D. all of the above 47. Carol Gilligan has criticized Kohlberg's description of moral development because his theory A. focuses on Western European moral values.

B. proposes too many stages of development.

C. emphasizes cognitive development rather than emotional development.

D. emphasizes values more important to males rather than to females.

48. According to Carol Gilligan, males emphasize on .

A. justice; responsibility to others B. responsibility to others; justice C. maintaining friendships; not getting into trouble D. the good of the few; the good of the many

in moral judgments, whereas females focus

49. Regarding Kohlberg's and Gilligan's perspectives on moral development, which of the following statements is false?

A. Kohlberg emphasized a justice perspective and Gilligan emphasized a care perspective.

B. Kohlberg's theory is accepted more among researchers.

C. Gilligan's theory was based more on female responses than on male responses.

D. Research has found no gender differences in moral reasoning.

50. Regarding research on the influence of psychosocial issues on adolescents' moral judgments, which of the following statements is false?

A. Ethnicity tends not to influence moral decisions but does seem to influence the reasons given for decisions.

B. Peer acceptance and need for autonomy are important factors in adolescent moral judgments.

C. Most adolescents agree that immoral, unconventional, and imprudent conduct in schools should be regulated.

D. None of the above; all the statements are true.

51. Which of the following statements regarding cross-cultural studies of Kohlberg's theories is correct?

A. Cross-cultural studies fully support Kohlberg's theory.

B. Cross-cultural studies have failed to support the beginning stages of Kohlberg's theory.

C. Cross-cultural studies support Kohlberg's sequence of stages, up to a point.

D. Cross-cultural studies have failed to support any aspect of Kohlberg's theory.

52. Which of the following factors influences school achievement?

A. socioeconomic status B. students' beliefs in their ability to succeed C. peer influence D. all of the above 53. A student with high self-efficacy would be expected to do all of the following except A. set challenging academic goals.

B. persist in the face of difficulties.

C. become easily frustrated.

D. seek help when necessary.

54. In a study examining students' perceived self-efficacy and their social studies grades, high self-efficacy was related to the grade A. the student hoped for.

B. expected.

C. actually achieved.

D. all of the above

55. The Paulings want their children to grow up with a strong sense of self-efficacy. Which of the following actions is most important for parents to take to build self-efficacy in their children?

A. Parents should give rewards to their children when they get good grades.

B. Parents should set high expectations for their children's level of accomplishment.

C. Parents should help children have learning experiences that build a belief in their ability to succeed.

D. all of the above 56. Joy's parents allow her to participate in family discussions, they listen to her viewpoints on issues, and encourage her to achieve. When Joy's grades are poor, they encourage her to try harder and make suggestions about how she can better manage her homework time. In Baumrind's terminology, Joy's parents use a(n) parenting style.

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. inconsistent 57. Nadine's parents tell her what is right and wrong and expect her to conform to their wishes. They encourage Nadine to do well in school and to obey all the rules. If she does not, she is grounded. Nadine's parents use a(n) parenting style.

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. inconsistent 58. Ron's parents feel that he should be responsible for his own behavior and his grades. They make few rules and allow Ron to solve his own problems. They care about their son but choose not to get involved in his school activities. Baumrind would describe this parenting style as A. authoritative.

B. authoritarian.

C. permissive.

D. inconsistent.

59. Other factors being equal, if you were a parent who wanted to increase the odds of having an academically achieving child, which parenting style should you choose?

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. inconsistent 60. Research suggests that, in the majority culture, children of authoritative parents children raised by authoritarian or permissive parents.

A. maintain better academic achievement B. demonstrate fewer behavioral problems C. are more socially competent D. all of the above

than

61. Asian-American students tend to do well in school and tend to have parents who employ a(n) parenting style.

A. authoritarian B. authoritative C. neglectful D. permissive 62. The Archers are looking at different high schools for their daughter Kendra. Good high schools have all but which of the following characteristics?

A. orderly atmosphere B. high expectations for achievement C. emphasis on extracurricular activities D. teacher involvement in decision-making

63. Family dynamics play a role in whether or not an adolescent stays in school until graduation. Which of the following family characteristics increases the probability of becoming a school dropout?

A. low income B. single-parent or remarried household C. being a member of a minority group D. all of the above 64. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why students drop out of high school?

A. overly involved parents who put too much pressure on the student B. overly high teacher expectations C. students' overconfidence, which causes them to study insufficiently D. students' lack of active engagement in schooling 65. The most important factor in whether or not a student finishes school is the student's A. familial socioeconomic status.

B. level of active engagement.

C. number of friends.

D. gender.

66. The factors that promote active engagement in school include all the following except A. family encouragement.

B. small class sizes.

C. a warm, supportive school environment.

D. working part-time.

67. Which of the following statements regarding gender differences in the sciences is false?

A. More boys than girls plan careers in math and the sciences.

B. More boys than girls take engineering courses.

C. More girls than boys take teaching courses.

D. More boys than girls take computer science.

68. With regard to research on parents' influence on adolescents' vocational plans, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Although parents' encouragement is important, social class is a much better predictor of high ambition.

B. Parents' encouragement is a better predictor of high ambition than is social class.

C.A greater level of agreement on goals seems to exist between students and their fathers than between students and their mothers.

D. Students' self-efficacy beliefs play little role in their educational and vocational prospects.

69. Some student's vocational aspirations may be hindered by the educational system itself because A. many schools value and cultivate only a narrow range of abilities.

Bstudents who are able to memorize and analyze tend to do best on intelligence and achievement tests, . and high scores on these tests give access to particular vocations.

C. students who perform well on tests tend to become high achievers.

D. all of the above 70. Which statement is true of adolescents in the workplace?

A. An estimated 80 to 90 percent of adolescents are employed at some time during high school.

B Students referred to as "accelerators" work over 20 hours and may use drugs or alcohol earlier as a . result of their exposure to adult life.

C. Research suggesting that taking a paid job during high school is detrimental is inconclusive.

D. All of the above 71. The most successful school-to-work programs offer instruction in all of the following EXCEPT: A. peer support and counseling B. basic skills and apprenticeship C. first aid and first response D. job placement and mentoring

72. According to your textbook, what is the major shortcoming of vocational counseling in high school?

A. Counselors are trained to help students primarily in male-dominated vocations.

B. Vocational counseling helps only those students who seek low-level, entry positions.

C. Most counseling is aimed at college-bound students.

D. Parents are not encouraged to take part in the vocational planning process.

73. Which of the following statements is a criticism of vocational training programs in the United States?

A. The programs are not comprehensive.

B. Few programs exist to teach students about the job market.

C. The programs are not tied to the needs of business and industry.

D. all of the above 74. Maria is 16 years old and has an after-school job clerking in a supermarket. She works an average of 25 hours per week. If she meets the typical criteria suggested by the textbook, she may find that A. her grades in school will improve.

B. she will learn many skills that translate well to skills needed in school.

C. this experience will help her plan her career.

D. none of the above 75. Which of the following has NOT been suggested as a factor that determines whether adolescents' work experiences are positive or negative?

A. advancement opportunities B. pay level C. chance to learn new skills D. type of responsibilities 76. High school English teachers know that assignments can be relatively complex because of the level of thinking that students develop during this time. Explain the relationship between formal operations, abstract thinking, and hypothetical-deductive reasoning. How might students' cognitive development affect their performance on writing assignments?

77. Create an example that demonstrates understanding of each of the following thought patterns from Elkind's work on adolescence: idealism and criticalness; apparent hypocrisy; self consciousness; and, an assumption of specialness and invulnerability. Do NOT use an example that was given in class or in the text.

78. Describe imaginary audiences and personal fables in the context of Elkind's work, and explain their connection to adolescent egocentrism.

79. Describe Kohlberg's three levels of moral reasoning, and explain how they are linked to intellectual development.

80. Kohlberg developed a theory of moral development that was followed by Gilligan's work in the same area of study. Explain the differences between the work of Kohlberg and Gilligan.

81. What factors can affect the level of success achieved in secondary school, and what are some of the factors associated with student dropout?

82. The community plays an important role in the education of its children. Explain how the neighborhood a child grows up in is related to his or her school success.

83. List some of the gender stereotypes that exist in educational and vocational planning.

84. Some students have to work both to help support their families and to provide themselves with needed materials and clothes. Others work so that they can have a better lifestyle that includes recreation opportunities, cars, and stereo and computer equipment. What effect does part-time work have on education?

Chapter 16 Key 1. (p. 418) C 2. (p. 418) B 3. (p. 418) C 4. (p. 418-419) D 5. (p. 418-419) A 6. (p. 419-420) B 7. (p. 419-420) B 8. (p. 419-420) D 9. (p. 419-420) A 10. (p. 420) C 11. (p. 420) A 12. (p. 420) A 13. (p. 421) A 14. (p. 421) A 15. (p. 421) A 16. (p. 421) D 17. (p. 421) C 18. (p. 421) A 19. (p. 421) D 20. (p. 421) B 21. (p. 421) C 22. (p. 421) A 23. (p. 421) C 24. (p. 421) D 25. (p. 422) C 26. (p. 422) B 27. (p. 423) B 28. (p. 423) C 29. (p. 423-424) D 30. (p. 424) A 31. (p. 423-424) C 32. (p. 424) B 33. (p. 424) A 34. (p. 425) B 35. (p. 425) B 36. (p. 425) C

37. (p. 425) D 38. (p. 425) B 39. (p. 425) C 40. (p. 424) B 41. (p. 425) B 42. (p. 425) A 43. (p. 425) A 44. (p. 425-425) B 45. (p. 436-427) A 46. (p. 426-427) D 47. (p. 428) D 48. (p. 428) A 49. (p. 428) D 50. (p. 428-429) D 51. (p. 428-429) C 52. (p. 430-431) D 53. (p. 430) C 54. (p. 430) D 55. (p. 430) C 56. (p. 431) A 57. (p. 431-432) B 58. (p. 432) C 59. (p. 431-432) A 60. (p. 431-432) D 61. (p. 432) A 62. (p. 433-434) C 63. (p. 434-435) D 64. (p. 434-435) D 65. (p. 434-435) B 66. (p. 434-435) D 67. (p. 435) A 68. (p. 435-436) B 69. (p. 436) D 70. (p. 436) D 71. (p. 436) C 72. (p. 436) C 73. (p. 436) D 74. (p. 436-437) D

75. (p. 436-437) B 76. Answer will vary 77. Answer will vary 78. Answer will vary 79. Answer will vary 80. Answer will vary 81. Answer will vary 82. Answer will vary 83. Answer will vary 84. Answer will vary

Chapter 16 Summary Category Guidepost: How do adolescents thinking and use of language differ from younger childrens?

Guidepost: On what basis do adolescents make moral judgments, and how does prosocial behavior vary?

Guidepost: What influences affect adolescents school success, and their educational and vocational planning and preparation ?

Papalia - Chapter 16 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 31 25 28 84 11 22 42

Chapter 17 Student:

1.

The search for identity begins in adolescence and ends when A. a theory of self has been achieved.

B. intimacy is achieved.

C. a person reaches adulthood.

D. None of the above; the search for identity is lifelong.

2.

According to Erik Erikson, the prime danger in adolescence is A. illness.

B. identity confusion.

C. cliquish behavior.

D. premature sexual activity.

3.

The crisis that needs to be resolved during adolescence is A. industry versus inferiority.

B. identity versus identity confusion.

C. identity versus inferiority.

D. industry versus identity confusion.

4.

Latrell is 13 years old and is pondering his own talents, interests, and needs, as well as his place in society. According to Erikson, this struggle represents the psychosocial crisis of A. autonomy versus shame and doubt.

B. industry versus inferiority.

C. identity versus identity confusion.

D. intimacy versus isolation.

5.

Teenagers' cliquish behavior and intolerance of differences represents what Erikson refers to as A. defenses against identity confusion.

B. forms of regression.

C. defensive behavior.

D. signs of the "virtue of fidelity."

6.

Mary is 28 years old. She has worked at the same bookstore since she was 19 and has now begun to question both her choice of occupation and the direction of her life. According to Erikson, this appears to be a manifestation of A. retrenchment.

B. identity confusion.

C. regression.

D. ego inferiority.

7.

The theoretical concept of the search for identity as a healthy part of normal human development can be attributed to A. Sigmund Freud.

B. Erik Erikson.

C. James Marcia.

D. David Elkind.

8.

Which of the following items is NOT one of the major issues to be resolved in forming an identity?

A. occupation B. values C. sexual identity D. physical health

9.

The psychological moratorium is how Erikson described A. a time-out period during which adolescents search for commitments.

B. a period comparable to Freud's latency period.

C. a cooling-off period in the generational conflict between adolescents and their parents.

D. a period during which adolescents develop mature intimacy.

10. Which of the following statements about adolescent males' development of identity and intimacy most closely reflects Erikson's theory?

A. Mature intimacy cannot occur until after the development of a stable identity.

B. Typically, identity development precedes mature intimacy, but the reverse also occurs fairly frequently.

C. Mature intimacy and identity development occur at the same time for males.

D The development of identity and mature intimacy are separate processes; the timing of one has no . relationship to the timing of the other.

11. Which of the following most closely matches Erikson's concept of fidelity?

A. trustworthiness B. acceptance of parental values C. mature intimacy D. courage and strength 12. In Erikson's theory, which virtue arises from the crisis of identity versus identity confusion?

A. purpose B. hope C. fidelity D. competence 13. James Marcia's research on identity in adolescence is based on the developmental theory of A. Sigmund Freud.

B. Carol Gilligan.

C. Lawrence Kohlberg.

D. Erik Erikson.

14. Which of the following is NOT one of Marcia's four identity statuses?

A. achievement B. foreclosure C. moratorium D. fidelity 15. The concept of "identity statuses" is associated with A. Sigmund Freud.

B. Carol Gilligan.

C. Erik Erikson.

D. James Marcia.

16. According to Marcia, adolescents who make commitments for their future based on plans that were made by others are in a state of A. moratorium.

B. foreclosure.

C. achievement.

D. commitment.

17. Shelly has always been told that she is good with children. Both of her parents are teachers, and Shelly has never questioned their expectation that she will also become a teacher. Shelly plans to be a teacher.

What is her identity status?

A. achievement B. diffusion C. moratorium D. foreclosure

18. Strong commitment after an active search of choices is known as A. individuation.

B. identity achievement.

C. autonomy.

D. moratorium resolution.

19. Research on identity formation in a number of cultures suggests that people in the category tend to be more mature and more competent in relationships than are people in the other three categories.

A. moratorium B. identity diffusion C. identity achievement D. foreclosure 20. Marcia defines A. identity status B. crisis C. commitment D. identity confusion

as a period of conscious decision making during adolescence.

21. Ronaldo is a high school student trying to decide which college to attend. If he goes to Alfred University, he will major in music and become a teacher. If he goes to Kent State, he will study architecture and become an urban planner. According to James Marcia, Ronaldo is in a period of A. commitment.

B. diffusion.

C. fidelity.

D. crisis.

22. Which of the following terms does Marcia use to describe a personal investment in an occupation or a system of beliefs?

A. fidelity B. crisis C. commitment D. identity 23. Russell, age 17, seems to have no real concern for his future. He knows that soon he must decide on college, but he has no sense of crisis in his life and is rather passive and vague about his goals for the future. Which of the following is Russell's identity status?

A. achievement B. foreclosure C. diffusion D. moratorium 24. Amanda's mother is a doctor who attended Yale University. Amanda's grandfather did the same thing.

It is expected that Amanda will follow in their footsteps, but she is struggling with making her decision.

She is no longer certain of what she wants to do and is progressively more troubled with the pressure that her family is exerting on her. According to James Marcia, which of the following terms best describes Amanda's identity status?

A. foreclosure B. achievement C. moratorium D. diffusion 25. An adolescent who is in crisis and is actively searching and considering alternatives is in which of Marcia's identity statuses?

A. moratorium B. foreclosure C. commitment D. diffusion

26. Michael, a high school senior, is going to college but he cannot decide on a major and a career. He has considered political science, education, and criminal justice but thinks there may be other possibilities he will discover once he is in college. Michael plans to keep his options open for a year or two in college before he makes a decision. According to Marcia, Michael's identity status is A. achievement.

B. diffusion.

C. foreclosure.

D. moratorium.

27. Unlike the research done on males, whereby identity was defined by achievement, Carol Gilligan found that females define their identity in terms of A. imagination.

B. personal relationships.

C. competition.

D. independence from parents.

28. Which of the following statements regarding gender differences in identity formation is correct?

A. Individual differences may be more important than gender differences.

B. Gilligan proposes that a large part of female identity achievement is based on the ability to achieve a separate identity.

C. Erikson states that women must achieve identity before they achieve intimacy.

D. all of the above 29. Which of the following statements regarding gender differences in self-esteem is false?

A. Overall, men and boys have higher self-esteem than women and girls.

B. Female self-esteem seems to be linked to striving for individual achievement.

C. Gender differences in self-esteem are small.

D. Both females and males tend to gain self-esteem as they age.

30. Elaine has begun to explore her ethnicity but is confused about what it means to her. According to research, Elaine is in which stage of ethnic identity?

A. diffuse B. foreclosed C. moratorium D. achieved 31. Diego has explored his identity and understands and accepts his ethnicity. Which ethnic identity status does Diego have?

A. diffuse B. foreclosed C. moratorium D. achieved 32. Juanita has done little or no exploration of her ethnicity and does not clearly understand the issues involved. Her ethnic identity status is A. diffuse.

B. foreclosed.

C. moratorium.

D. achieved.

33. Sexual orientation becomes a pressing issue during A. middle childhood.

B. the phallic stage.

C. adolescence.

D. young adulthood.

34. If an individual has a sexual orientation that focuses on others of the same sex, the individual is referred to as a A. heterosexual.

B. homosexual.

C. bisexual.

D. transsexual.

35. Which of the following is a difficulty of doing research on sexual expression?

A. A discrepancy often exists between what people say and what people do.

B. There is no way to corroborate the information that people give.

C People who are willing to answer questions about sex are generally liberal in their attitudes toward sex . and thus are not representative of the population.

D. all of the above 36. Recent research suggests that a homosexual orientation may be the result of which of the following?

A. disturbed family relationships B. environmental influences C. anatomical differences in the brain D. teratogens 37. Teenagers who are gay or lesbian A. are likely to be more accepted today than they were ten years ago.

B. often feel isolated in a hostile environment.

C. may be subject to prejudice and violence.

D. all of the above 38. According to a widely proposed model for the development of gay/lesbian sexual identity, the earliest awareness of same-sex attraction typically occurs between the ages of A. 12 and 15.

B. 8 and 11.

C. 7 and 8.

D. 5 and 6.

39. The faculty at a large urban high school are developing a program that will help students avoid "risky" sexual behavior. They have learned from research articles that adolescents who are most at risk for pregnancy and STDs. A. do not use contraceptives B. have multiple partners C. begin sexual activity early D. all of the above 40. In a recent survey of homosexual males, which group reported the earliest awareness of same-sex attraction?

A. Latino B. White C. African American D. Asian American 41. According to one study, sexual risk-taking can best be predicted by A. economic status.

B. parental relationships.

C. self-regulation.

D. age of first sexual activity.

42. Counselors who work with students at high school know that the most important predictor for early sexual activity is A. intense sexual desire.

B. love.

C. curiosity.

D. peer group norms supporting sexual activity.

43. What percentage of sexually active teenagers use some type of contraception most of the time?

A. 30% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90% 44. According to the Kaiser report, how many adolescents regularly use birth control pills?

A. 5 out of 10 B. 4 out of 10 C. 3 out of 10 D. 2 out of 10 45. Morgan is a sexually active teenager who does not use contraceptives. She has a becoming pregnant within a year.

A. 10 B. 40 C. 70 D. 90

% chance of

46. About 1 in 4 new cases of STDs in the United States occurs in people of what age?

A. 8-10 year olds B. 11-13 year olds C. 15-17 year olds D. 18-19 year olds 47. In the United States, more than A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50

% of pregnant teenagers have their babies and plan to raise them.

48. The decline in teenage pregnancy and birth rates during the 1990s is most likely due to A. the increased use of contraceptives.

B. an increase in the number of gay and lesbian teenagers.

C. a growing problem with infertility.

D. None of the above; the rates have not declined.

49. More than 40% of adolescent girls have been pregnant at least once before the age of A. 17.

B. 18.

C. 19.

D. 20.

50. Which of the following statements regarding teenage pregnancies is false?

A. About two thirds of the pregnancies end in abortions.

B. More than half of pregnant teens have their babies and plan to raise them themselves.

C. Teenage birthrates are the lowest in decades.

D. Most teenage pregnancies are unintended.

51. The pregnancy rate for girls ages 15 to 19 has fallen most sharply among A. Whites.

B. African Americans.

C. Hispanics.

D. Asians.

52. Unwed teenage mothers and their children are likely to suffer financial hardship because A. child support laws are spottily enforced.

B. adolescent fathers often have poor school performance and limited financial resources.

C. recent welfare reform limits public assistance to teenage mothers.

D. all of the above 53. Approximately what percentage of teenage pregnancies are unintended?

A. 90% B. 80% C. 70% D. 60% 54. A California study found that teenage mothers are likely to have been exposed to A. emotional abuse.

B. sexual abuse.

C. parental divorce.

D. all of the above 55. Which of the following statements regarding teenage mothers and their children is false?

A. Teenage mothers are likely to drop out of school and have repeated pregnancies.

B. Teenage unwed mothers and their families are likely to suffer financial hardship.

C. Teenage mothers are likely to give birth to low-birth-weight babies regardless of socioeconomic status.

D. Teenage mothers with proper prenatal care are not likely to give birth to low-birth-weight babies.

56. Larson's research on how adolescents spend their time indicates the increasing importance of A. parents.

B. teachers.

C. siblings.

D. peers.

57. A pattern of emotional turmoil that can involve conflict with family, alienation from adult society, reckless behavior, and rejection of adult values is called A. adolescence.

B. adolescent egocentrism.

C. adolescent rebellion.

D. identity formation.

58. Research suggests that A. virtually all B. approximately 75% of C. approximately 20% of D. approximately 5% of 59.

adolescents display classic adolescent rebellion.

developed a perspective that does not support the "storm and stress" model of adolescence.

A. Sigmund Freud B. Anna Freud C. G. Stanley Hall D. Margaret Mead

60. According to Margaret Mead, adolescence is relatively free of stress in societies that A. provide a gradual, serene transition from childhood to adulthood.

B. keep children dependent on their parents as long as possible.

C. provide a quick and clean break between childhood and adulthood.

D. None of the above; Mead found no society in which stress during adolescence is largely absent.

61. According to a study cited in the text, 18-year-olds spend about families.

A. 35 B. 29 C. 14 D. 6

% of their waking hours with their

62. Which of the following statements regarding adolescents and family relationships is false?

A. As adolescents age, their feelings about contact with parents becomes more positive.

B. Mexican-American girls tend to become closer to their parents during puberty.

C. African-American teenagers maintain more intimate family relationships than white teenagers do.

D. High school students spend more of their free time with friends than with family.

63.

American teenagers tend to maintain more intimate family relationships and less intense peer relations than do White teenagers.

A. Chinese B. African C. Mexican D. Arab

64. "Parents and teenagers do not like each other and do not get along well with each other." This statement expresses A. a prevalent but mistaken myth about personal relationships in adolescence.

B. a notion that is well supported by research.

C. research findings about adolescents' personal relationships that most parents would not agree with it.

D. James Marcia's concept of identity foreclosure.

65. Everyday living seems like a battle at the Davidson house. With three teenagers at home, what is likely to be at the root of the conflict between the Davidson adolescents and their parents?

A. contradictory values on major issues B. tension between dependency on parents and the need to be independent C. wide mood swings D. all of the above 66. According to research cited in your textbook, which of the following is 16-year-old Kevin and his father most likely to argue about?

A. religion B. chores C. politics D. values 67. Most arguments between young teenagers and their parents are about A. drugs.

B. sexual activity.

C. career choices.

D. chores and school work.

68. Family conflict is most frequent during adolescence.

A. early; late B. early; mid C. mid; late D. late; early

adolescence and most intense in

69. An adolescent struggle for personal identity is called A. independence.

B. dependence.

C. rebellion.

D. individuation.

70. Conflict is likely to escalate into major confrontation when A. parents view their teenager as having negative personality characteristics.

B. the teenager has a history of behavior problems.

C. parents use coercive discipline techniques.

D. all of the above 71. When parents demonstrate an authoritative parenting style, teenagers A. have lower self-esteem.

B. suffer declines in emotional health.

C. tend to become more self-confident and competent.

D. evaluate their own conduct negatively.

72. Children whose parents use a(n) parenting style are likely to reject parental influence in adolescence and seek peer support and approval at all costs.

A. authoritative B. authoritarian C. permissive D. egalitarian 73. Which of the following statements about the effect of economic stress on families is correct?

A Economic stress negatively affects children in single-parent families, but children in two-parent . families tend to be buffered from its effects.

B. Children of unemployed single mothers usually excel in school as a way of forgetting about their mother's problems.

C. Children of unemployed single parents are less negatively affected if their mothers have strong, supportive kinship networks.

D. all of the above 74. When children enter adolescence, their relationships with their siblings typically change in which of the following ways?

A. They spend more time together than before.

B. They become more distant.

C. They have more need for emotional gratification from the sibling bond.

D. They fight more.

75. The influence of peers is adolescence.

A. weakest; increases B. strongest; declines C. unimportant; essential D. strongest; increases

in early adolescence and

76. A structured group of friends is called a A. group.

B. clique.

C. crowd.

D. dyadic.

77. In adolescence, friendships tend to be A. intense.

B. casual.

C. competitive.

D. conflicted.

during middle and late

78. Adolescents tend to choose friends who are like A. themselves.

B. their parents.

C. their siblings.

D. their cousins.

79. Friendships in adolescence are likely to be more intimate, loyal, and supportive than those in middle childhood because teenagers A. spend so much time talking to one another on the telephone.

B. find in their friends the intimacy they lack at home.

C. are more egocentric and therefore better able to understand their friends' feelings and point of view.

D. are better able to express and share their feelings because of advances in cognitive and emotional development.

80. As young people get older and more experienced in romantic relationships, A. romantic interactions become more complex.

B. fulfillment of romantic roles becomes less important.

C. insecurity escalates.

D. they rely on a wider social network for emotional support.

81. Between 1994 and 1999, how many people in the United States died in a school shooting?

A. less than 60 B. between 120 and 130 C. between 190 and 200 D. over 250 82. Which of the following is NOT a potential warning sign for the likelihood that an adolescent will commit acts of violence?

A. refusal to listen to parents and teachers B. ignoring the feelings and the rights of others C. engagement in early sexual activity D. all of the above 83. In a community sample of adolescents and young adults, the amount of time spent watching television was related to the likelihood of aggression against others.

A. positively B. inversely C. in no way D. negatively 84. In terms of Bronfenbrenner's ecological model, effective early interventions and delinquency-prevention programs operate on the level and the level.

A. microsystem; macrosystem B. mesosystem; exosystem C. microsystem; exosystem D. mesosystem; macrosystem 85. Researchers analyzing the long-term effects of some early childhood intervention programs have found that adolescents who had taken part in these programs as children A. were just as likely to get in trouble with the law as were children who did not participate in such programs.

B. were less likely to get in trouble with the law.

C. had lower self-esteem.

D. had few aspirations for the future.

86. Which of the following criteria has NOT been repeatedly mentioned as a marker of emerging adulthood?

A. accepting responsibility for oneself B. learning to involve others in decision making C. becoming financially self-supporting D. making independent decisions 87. Collectivist cultures often have values that require specific "cultural" markers in identifying emerging adulthood. A good example of such a marker in a collectivist culture would be A. an Argentinian's lack of involvement with the family and more self-directed activity as adulthood emerges.

B. the Lutheran practice of having separate men's and women's church organizations.

C. Israel's expectation of universal military service.

D. the Latino discouragement of recognized role transitions such as marriage.

88. Explain the significance of Erikson's crisis of identity versus identity confusion.

89. Define Marcia's terms "crisis" and "commitment," and describe their relationship to each of the following identity statuses: identity achievement; foreclosure; moratorium; and, identity diffusion.

90. Explain Elkind's perspective of the "patchwork self." In your answer, connect the "patchwork self" to Elkind's "hurried adolescent."

91. Controversy remains as to whether sexual orientation is decisively shaped before birth or at an early age.

Discuss what is thought to determine sexual orientation.

92. Identify the sexual practices common among adolescents and the factors that lead some teens to engage in risky sexual behavior.

93. Discuss the usual outcomes of early sexual activity. Describe the issues that adolescents have to face in dealing with teenage pregnancy.

94. Describe adolescent rebellion. Give some examples, and discuss its frequency among today's teens.

95. During adolescence, change occurs in the relationships among adolescents, peers, and parents. Describe how these relationships change, and mention both the positive and negative effects of these changes.

96. Adolescents' families, schools, and communities are often witnesses to and victims of adolescent antisocial behavior. Describe the consequences of this behavior. Explain some of the root causes of antisocial behavior, and list what can be done to reduce these risks.

97. Describe the different characteristics of emerging adulthood for adolescents living in various westernized cultures and for adolescents living in cultures that embrace a collectivist style. Give examples of how adolescence varies across cultures.

Chapter 17 Key 1. (p. 469) D 2. (p. 469) B 3. (p. 469) B 4. (p. 469) C 5. (p. 470) A 6. (p. 469-470) B 7. (p. 469) B 8. (p. 469) D 9. (p. 469) A 10. (p. 470) A 11. (p. 469) A 12. (p. 469) C 13. (p. 470) D 14. (p. 470-471) D 15. (p. 470) D 16. (p. 471) B 17. (p. 471) D 18. (p. 470-471) B 19. (p. 471) C 20. (p. 470) B 21. (p. 470) D 22. (p. 470) C 23. (p. 472) C 24. (p. 471-472) C 25. (p. 471-472) A 26. (p. 471-472) D 27. (p. 472) B 28. (p. 472) A 29. (p. 472) B 30. (p. 472) C 31. (p. 472) D 32. (p. 472) A 33. (p. 474) C 34. (p. 474) B 35. (p. 474) D 36. (p. 474) C

37. (p. 475) D 38. (p. 475) B 39. (p. 476) D 40. (p. 476) D 41. (p. 476) B 42. (p. 476) D 43. (p. 477) D 44. (p. 477) C 45. (p. 477) D 46. (p. 478) D 47. (p. 480) C 48. (p. 480) A 49. (p. 480) D 50. (p. 480) A 51. (p. 480) B 52. (p. 482) D 53. (p. 480) A 54. (p. 480) D 55. (p. 480, 482) C 56. (p. 482) D 57. (p. 482) C 58. (p. 482) C 59. (p. 482) D 60. (p. 482) A 61. (p. 483) C 62. (p. 483) B 63. (p. 483) B 64. (p. 484) A 65. (p. 484) B 66. (p. 484) B 67. (p. 484) D 68. (p. 484) B 69. (p. 484) D 70. (p. 484) D 71. (p. 484) C 72. (p. 484) B 73. (p. 487) C 74. (p. 487) B

75. (p. 488) B 76. (p. 488) B 77. (p. 488) A 78. (p. 488) A 79. (p. 488) D 80. (p. 490) A 81. (p. 490) D 82. (p. 492) D 83. (p. 491) A 84. (p. 493-494) B 85. (p. 494) B 86. (p. 495) B 87. (p. 495) C 88. Answer will vary 89. Answer will vary 90. Answer will vary 91. Answer will vary 92. Answer will vary 93. Answer will vary 94. Answer will vary 95. Answer will vary 96. Answer will vary 97. Answer will vary

Chapter 17 Summary Category Guidepost: How do adolescents form an identity and what roles do gender and ethnicity play?

Guidepost: How do adolescents relate to parents, siblings, and peers?

Guidepost: How do various cultures define what it means to become an adult, and what markers confer that status?

Guidepost: What causes antisocial behavior and what can be done to reduce the risk of juvenile delinquency?

Guidepost: What determines sexual orientation and what sexual practices are common among adolescents, and what leads some to engage in risky sexual behavior?

Papalia - Chapter 17 Question Type: A Question Type: C Question Type: F

# of Questions 35 27 3 6 26 97 5 21 61