TEST BANK Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6 (Complete Questions and Solution

TEST BANK Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6 (Complete Questions and Solutions 2021)

Primary Professional Military Education

THE CULTURE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 2) ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM Military Formations Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies Fleet Response Plan Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader

CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS

5 5 5 6 7 8 9

10

Naval Customs

10

NAVY FLEETS

11

Second and Fourth Fleets Fifth Fleet Sixth Fleet Pacific Fleet

CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS Customs and Traditions Ships - Customs and Traditions Honors and Ceremonies

ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER Military Ethics Overview Ethics in the Profession of Arms Ethics and the Warfighter The Just War Tradition Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics Lawful and Unlawful Orders

GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 3)

11 12 13 14

15 15 16 17

18 18 19 21 23 24 25

27

ROLES, MISSIONS, AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY 27 Roles and functions

NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION NMO

STRATEGIC PLANNING AND GUIDANCE Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces Joint Vision for Future Warfighting Sea Power 21 Cooperative Maritime Strategy

27

28 28

29 29 30 31 32

HOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WAR (BLOCK 4) 33 THE AMERICAN WAY OF WAR The American Way of War

33 33

Primary Professional Military Education THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR The Naval Way of War

THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR 2 The Naval Way of War 2

35 35

37 37

DOCTRINE

39

Doctrine

39

NAVAL WARFARE JFMCC-CCW Command and Control (C2) Joint force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) Composite Warfare Commander Concept CWC Roles and Responsibilities JFMCC/CWC Challenges Strike Warfare Origins and Development Carrier Strike Groups The Aircraft Carrier Carrier Air Wing Tomahawk Land Attack Missile Expeditionary Warfare Intro to Expeditionary Warfare Operations Domains of Force Employment Surface Warfare (SUW) Air Defense Undersea Warfare Naval Special Warfare Naval Logistics Naval Logistics

JOINT WARFARE Fundamentals of Joint Warfare Fundamentals of Information Operations

40 40 40 41 42 43 44 45 45 47 48 49 50 51 51 52 52 53 55 57 58 58

59 59 60

FORCE CAPABILITIES

61

United States Army United States Air Force United States Marine Corps United States Coast Guard Special Operation Forces

61 63 64 65 66

RANGE OF MILITARY OPERATIONS Homeland Security Homeland Defense Irregular Warfare

HOW THE NAVY PLANS ITS OPERATIONS (BLOCK 5) REGIONAL AND CULTURAL AWARENESS Political Stuctures

67 67 68

69 69 69

Primary Professional Military Education GEOPOLITICAL CULTURE Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior Democracy and Nationalism The Future of Democracy and Democratization

REGIONAL Western Hemisphere Western Hemisphere Latin American Militaries Eurasia Eurasia European Union Africa Africa Religions of Africa African Security Asia Pacific Asia Pacific Overview Partition of the Indian Subcontinent China: Alone and Joining the World China Security Issues China Environment and Development China Ethnicity/Nationality and Development The Arctic The Arctic INDIAN OCEAN The Indian Ocean Great Middle East Greater Middle East Overview The Arab-Israeli Conflict U.S. Security, Strategy, and Policy Islam in the Greater Middle East

OPERATIONAL PLANNING Introduction to Planning The Role of Intelligence Navy Planning Process

MARITIME CYBERSPACE OPERATIONS Maritime Cyberspace Operations

OPERATIONAL LAW Law of the Sea and Airspace Law of the Sea and Airspace Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) Law of Armed Conflict, Scope Law of Armed Conflict, Principles Rules of Engagement Rules of Engagement, General Principles Standing Rules of Engagement Self-Defense

MISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT Rules for the Use of Force

71 71 73 74

75 75 75 78 79 79 81 82 82 83 84 85 85 86 88 89 90 91 92 92 94 94 96 96 97 98 99

100 100 101 103

104 104

105 105 105 106 106 108 109 109 110 112

113 115

Primary Professional Military Education

TECHNOLOGY IN THE MARITIME DOMAIN (BLOCK 6) 116 SENSORS Force Multiplication Sensors Sensor Fundamentals Understanding the Frequency Spectrum Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems Maintaining Technical Superiority Magnetic Sensors Sonar Radar Electro-optic Technology

SPACE FORCE ENHANCEMENT Military Space Mission Areas Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment Environmental Monitoring Satellite Communications Position, Time, Velocity, and Navigation

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND FORCENET Data and Information Command and Control (C2) Decision Making FORCEnet

COMMUNICATIONS FOR THE WARFIGHTER Communications for the warfighter

STEALTH TECHNOLOGY Stealth Technology

116 116 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125

126 126 127 128 129 130 132

133 133 134 135 136

138 138

139 139

EVALUATION OF NAVAL PLATFORMS

140

Evolution of the US Submarine Evolution of the US Navy Surface Combatants Evolution of Carrier Aviation

140 141 142

Primary Professional Military Education

The Culture of the Navy (Block 2)

2

Enlisted Professionalism 2.1.1

Military Formations

Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?

A: Precision and automatic response Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?

A: From most junior to senior Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection?

A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions?

A: Awards ceremony Q5: During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army.

A: Baron von Steuben Q6: Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails?

A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days Q7: Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”?

A: Baron von Steuben Q8: What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”?

A: Preparatory Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks.

A: fear Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element?

A: Flank Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?

A: Attention Q12: Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other?

A: File Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters?

A: Refueling evolution Q14: What is the distance between ranks?

A: 40 Q15: A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.

A: Element Q16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?

A: Inflection Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors?

A: OPEN RANKS Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?

A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system?

A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good morale

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.2

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies

1

When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute?

A: The right front passenger seat salutes Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?

A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on?

A: Left Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first?

A: The senior leaves first Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army?

A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?

A: Sergeant Major Q25: What is meant by “under arms”?

A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?

A: At six paces or closest point of approach Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of?

A: Chief Master Sergeant Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items?

A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed.

Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?

A: Staff Sergeant Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?

A: Salute Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ______” A: Individual ship captains Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers?

A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.3 1

Fleet Response Plan

Presence with a purpose” provides what?

A: routine, pulse Q33: Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? A: 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review Q34: Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?

A: Commander, Fleet Forces Command Q35: When is a CSG considered surge ready?

A: When they have completed integrated phase training Q36: The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?

A: Maintenance A: Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy A: Emergency surge, surge ready, routine Q37: The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what?

A: Fleet Readiness Plan Q38: What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle?

A: A 27-month cycle Q39: At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is?

A: a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan Q40: The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?

A: 6 Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable?

A: After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway …

Q42: Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?

A: Sea Basing Q43: What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?

A: 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days Q44: Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what?

A: Maintain its relevance Q45: Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months?

A: 16 Months Q46: The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as?

A: homeland defense Q47: When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status?

A: When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.4

Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities

Q48: The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the?

A: hat device Q49: Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?

A: U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 General Order Number 409 Q50: On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role?

A: The top technical authority and expert within a rating Q51: The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to?

A: Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues Q52: The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?

A: It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 Q53: What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?

A: The Retention Task Force of 1964 Q54: In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?

A: Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command Q55: During the early 1900’s, chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on?

A: Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer Q56: On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.

A: GMCM Delbert Black Q57: What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?

A: Report to CNP A: Travel extensively Q58: On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first?

A: Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy Q59: The duties and responsibilities of a Master Chief Petty Officer in 1978 were?

A: broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation Q60: The paygrades of Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer were established in what year?

A: 1958 Q61: The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to?

A: Strengthen chief petty officer standards Q62: According to the 1918 Bluejacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ______ A: Technical expert and example setter

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.5

Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader

1

TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?

A: resource sponsors Q63: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?

A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q64: Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?

A: Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform Q65: OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________.

A: national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors Q66: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?

A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q67: Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ____: A: warfare sponsor requirements Q68: Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations?

A: Activity Manning Document (AMD) Q69: Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?

A: Mission and warfare sponsors Q70: OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a?

A: methodical process Q71: In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?

A: Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements Q72: For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions?

A: Enlisted Q73: The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines ______________.

A: manpower management Q74: The AMD is a single source document that provides?

A: Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements Q75: How often is the EDVR published?

A: Monthly Q76: What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength?

A: Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS) Q77: Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution?

A: AMD Q78: Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity?

A: POE Q79: Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.

A: Sailors, Navy Q80: What allows commands to download their AMD? A: TMMCA Q81: Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?

A: EDVR

Primary Professional Military Education 1 Customs, Honors, and Traditions 2.1.6 1

Naval Customs

Proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage?

A: Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson Q82: Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written?

A: To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 Q83: What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?

A: The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.

Q84: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units?

A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet Q85: Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”?

A: It is played today at many athletic events and parades.

Q86: Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage.

These days are ____.

A: Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) Q87: Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q88: Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”?

A: Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events.

A: Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza.

Q89: A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was ____________________.

A: Franklin D. Roosevelt Q90: What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military?

A: George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships.

Q91: In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q92: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units?

A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters.

Q93: Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q94: What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy?

A: The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services Q95: Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?

A: All the answers are correct Q96: The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?

A: Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States.

Q97: The author of “Anchors Aweigh”, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q98: Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service?

Primary Professional Military Education A: It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British transports Q99: Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate?

A: It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa.

A: A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860.

Primary Professional Military Education Navy Fleets 2.1.7 1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Second and Fourth Fleets

Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second World War ______________.

A: All the answers are correct The U.S. Navy reorganized its forces in 1922, assigning most of its ships to the Pacific in response to ______________.

A: the growing threat that Japan represented Completed in 1914, what allowed the U.S. Navy to rapidly transfer ships between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?

A: The Panama Canal The AOR (area of responsibility) of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFFC) includes which of the following geographical areas?

A: The western portion of the Atlantic Ocean, from the North Pole to the Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico.

During World War II, ______________ numbered fleets were responsible for operations in the Atlantic Ocean.

A: Three During World War I, ______________ ships were assigned to the Atlantic Fleet.

A: nearly all The opening of the Panama Canal enabled U.S. warships to transfer between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans ______________.

A: In less than 1/3 the time What event prompted the United States to declare war on Spain in 1898?

A: The sinking of the USS MAINE The Atlantic Squadron was reorganized into the Atlantic in early 1941, because ______________.

A: Of the possibility of war breaking out in both the Atlantic and Pacific oceans U.S. warships enforced the blockade during the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis by sinking all Soviet-flagged vessels approaching the island.

A: False Which of the following squadrons has never operated in the area encompassed by the U.S. Navy’s Second Fleet?

A: North Africa Squadron Among the Navy’s roles during the First World War was ______________.

A: All the answers are correct Part of us fleet forces command’s mission set is to serve as the naval component of.

A: Do not know Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during WWII: A: All answers are correct The Fourth Fleet’s normal area of responsibility (AOR) is within which geographic combatant commander’s AOR? A: USSOUTHCOM

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.8 1 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31

Fifth Fleet

The past two decades have seen ______________ in Navy operations conducted in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR).

A: an increase What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint operations?

A: Operation EAGLE CLAW The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting ______________ operations.

A: Stability Over ______________ of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet.

A: 50% What role did the U.S. Navy NOT play during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM? A: rescuing hostages Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan during what operation?

A: Operation ENDURING FREEDOM When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)?

A: Late 1970’s Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes ______________.

A: the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq About ______________ of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz—a vital choke point.

A: 90% How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet?

A: 0 Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)?

A: Fifth Fleet The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of ______________.

A: USCENTCOM Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)?

A: Malacca Strait Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet AOR? A: Not soviet invasion of Afghanistan Fifth Fleets Headquarters is located in ______?

A: Bahrain Which Fleet has the smallest AOR? A: 5th Fleet Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation _______?

A: Iraqi Freedom

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.9 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

8 9 10 11 12 13 14

Sixth Fleet

Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included ______________.

A: convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean laying some 60,000 mines A: clearing minefields after the war The Sixth Fleet is assigned to ______________.

A: Commander, Naval Forces Europe NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as ______________.

A: Commander USEUCOM The Sixth Fleet received its designation in ______________.

A: 1950 A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World War I. A: True During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in ______________.

A: Sicily A: North Africa A: South Italy The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in ______________.

A: Naples, Italy The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in World War II. A: False NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-halted as ______.

A: Not sixth Fleet Six Fleets area of responsibility encompasses ________.

A: The geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM Following the Civil War, ships of Africa Squadron were tasked to suppress __________.

A: The Slave Trade The Navy’s first overseas installation was established at __________.

A: Port Mahon Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility? (Select all that apply).

A: All Answers

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.10

Pacific Fleet

Q100: Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations involved the Seventh Fleet?

A: All are correct Q101: During the Civil War, what was the greatest Threat in the Pacific?

A: Confederate Commerce Raiders Q102: Which of the following was NOT a result of the Spanish-American War in the Pacific?

A: Establishment of NATO Q103: The acquisition of the Philippines was important for the U.S. Navy because it allowed them to __________.

A: establish a major operating base and repair facility in the Pacific Q104: The U.S. Navy's presence in what is now the Pacific Fleet dates back to what time era?

A: Early 1800's Q105: During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy fourteen ships belonging to which country?

A: Britain Q106: Which of the following was NOT a squadron established after the Civil War? A: East Indies Squadron Q107: Which external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of American sea power to the pacific?

A: The rising Threat of Japan Q108: The AOR of today's Seventh Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas?

A: From the international date line to the 68th east meridian, and from the Kuril Islands to the Antarctic.

Q109: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Third Fleet located?

A: San Diego, CA. Q110: In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in the Pacific?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q111: Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II? A: Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur Q112: When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii?

A: 1940's.

Q113: When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the Pacific?

A: 1920's Q114: Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf?

A: General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa Q115: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet located?

A: Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.

Primary Professional Military Education Customs, Honors, and Traditions 2.1.11 1 2 3 4 5

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Customs and Traditions

Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude?

A: Golden The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is?

A: Mossback Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.

A: a violation of SECNAV Instructions Among those eligible for burial at sea are ____________________.

A: All the answers are correct Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?

A: Avoid walking on varnished areas.

A: Hands and arms are allowed outside the boat to enjoy the breeze A: A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor A: should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle A: Blue Nose Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony?

A: Three volleys are fired, followed by “Taps”.

Formal dinners promote A: All the answers are correct The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group?

A: Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette?

A: Juniors board the boat first.

If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation?

A: Surface Warfare Lieutenant Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.

A: Pollywogs What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?

A: Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.

The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.

A: the burial at sea The Tradition of manning the rails originated __________.

A: Not to demonstrate cannons manned Frocking was celebrated to have extra pay before actual promotion.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.12 1

Ships - Customs and Traditions

Before commissioning, a ship must A: Arrive at its first homeport Q116: Ship launching ceremonies A: began at the dawn of recorded history Q117: Hailing protocols A: are not published in any regulation Q118: The Navy’s battle streamers A: span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo Q119: The christening ceremony includes A: naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow Q120: The U.S. Navy A: was the last service to adopt battle streamers?

Q121: The sloop Concord is notable because A: it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman Q122: While a ship is at anchor or at a pier A: the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck Q123: What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?

A: All the answers are correct Q124: On modern ships, the quarterdeck A: is designated by the Commanding Officer Q125: The “Returning Home Pennant” A: is an extra-long commissioning pennant?

Q126: The “Returning Home Pennant” A: is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port Q127: You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is A: announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat Q128: All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT A: walking on the port side Q129: Ship christening in the U.S. Navy A: Was first conducted for frigates in the Revolutionary War Q130: All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT A: the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive Q131: Boat hailing protocols became necessary A: in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required Q132: While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) A: All the answers are correct Q133: Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________.

A: All the answers are correct.

Q134: Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.

A: are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance Q135: Stars on Navy streamers ____________________.

A: follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars Q136: Battle streamers ______________.

A: Commemorate the services of Sailors in the past

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.13 1

Honors and Ceremonies

The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is A: side honors are rendered to the official Q137: There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are A: Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day Q138: Morning and evening colors refers to A: ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered Q139: The tradition of the shadow box A: dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the person’s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour Q140: The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is A: passing honors Q141: Gun salutes are currently offered A: in five second intervals Q142: In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered?

A: A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit Q143: What is meant by “dressing ship”?

A: Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival Q144: At the end of their careers, all officers may A: All the answers are correct Q145: Half-masting the national ensign A: is a symbol of mourning and respect?

Q146: Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies?

A: All officers and crew face the ensign and salute Q147: Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in A: MILPERSMAN 1800-010 Q148: Commanding Officer’s orders A: ship’s history Q149: Passing honors are A: All the answers are correct.

Q150: The Change of Command Ceremony always includes A: all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir”, and “I stand relieved” Q151: Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.

A: in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable Q152: By custom, gun salutes are returned__________.

A: Not only a single gun Q153: Upon the death of a President, the ensign is flown at half-mast for __________ days.

A: 30 days

Primary Professional Military Education Ethics and Professionalism for the Warfighter 2.1.14 1

Military Ethics Overview

The Principle of Utility is A: All of the answers are correct Q154: The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom”. Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’ A: core values and heritage Q155: Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning”, “truth cannot be known”, and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following?

A: Nihilism Q156: The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty A: False Q157: Character-based ethics argues A: right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue Q158: Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: A: Freedom-based ethics Q159: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations A: True Q160: A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies A: a reason-based approach to truth and justice Q161: Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.

A: All the answers are correct Q162: Freedom-based ethics focus on A: decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses Q163: Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of A: character-based ethics Q164: Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system A: Freedom-based ethics Q165: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.

A: True Q166: Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based”, “rule-based”, or A: character-based Q167: An ethical person is A: someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live Q168: Relativism postulates A: All the answers are correct A: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number”.

A: False Q169: Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.

A: consequentialism Q170: Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want”, “no one can stop me”, and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following?

A: Criminality A: Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase: A: The greatest happiness for the greatest number

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.15 1 2 3 4 5 6

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13 14 15 16 17 18

19

Ethics in the Profession of Arms

Is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for me”; it does nothing to preclude evil.

A: Egoism Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral A: Effectiveness Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals?

A: All the answers are correct.

Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning.

What is the ideal toward which moral development leads?

A: It is the path to becoming a person of character.

Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development?

A: Moral relativism Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content.

A: Awareness Is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation?

A: corporatizes A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.

A: False Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?

A: True What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?

A: The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.

The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession A: responsibility Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the “right thing to do”, regardless of difficulty A: courage An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines A: a professional Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.

A: Reasoning Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally A: All the answers are correct The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are A: All the answers are correct An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT A: personal recognition and remuneration Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professionals?

A: A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences on material and resource management A key component of professional responsibility is A: accountability

Primary Professional Military Education 20 Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions?

A: Expertise, responsibility, and corporatizes 21 __________ permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective that serves the nation at large A: Expertise 22 Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of one’s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.

A: Effectiveness 23 Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily lead to moral behavior.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.16 1

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Ethics and the Warfighter

In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations?

A: A prisoner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape.

The Geneva Convention allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be punishable by death if a guard is killed.

A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa.

A: False ____________ is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty.

A: Honor Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy’s Core Values?

A: Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics” Is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances.

A: The Code of Conduct The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for A: Prisoners of War Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war?

A: The Uniform Code of Military Justice Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based?

A: Truth is relative The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service members to escape and due to their contributions to the enemy’s propaganda effort during which conflict?

A: The Korean War The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.

A: False A: I will bear true faith and allegiance”.

A: “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice”.

A: “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic”.

A: Honor, Commitment, Courage In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations?

A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape The Oath of Enlistment is significant in the Profession of Arms because it A: clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)?

A: Ship, shipmate, self In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal.

A: True Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment?

A: Loyalty

Primary Professional Military Education 17 When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important?

A: This is an ethical dilemma which cannot be resolved without amplifying information and/or context.

18 The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is A: characteristics develop from corresponding activities Q171: Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true?

A: The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war.

19 Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?

A: I will not try to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.

20 What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment?

A: Responsibility 21 Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention?

A: The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor 22 Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?

A: A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 23 Is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion?

A: Commitment 24 ____________________ is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to do what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or professional temptation or adversity.

A: Courage

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.17 1 2 3

4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

The Just War Tradition

The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included A: self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back __________.

A: more than 1600 years While the moral burden of jus in Bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.

A: True The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires ____________________.

A: that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force Key principles of the jus in Bello are proportionality and ____________________.

A: discrimination In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.

A: False The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.

A: False The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.

A: help to set the military professional apart Jus in Bello relates to ____________________.

A: the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________.

A: the justification for resorting to war The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.

A: False Jus ad bellum and jus in Bello govern all aspects of war.

A: True The jus in Bello principle of discrimination requires that ____________________.

A: non-combatants not be the direct object of attack The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: A: Chaplains and medical personnel The proportionality principle of jus in Bello requires ____________________.

A: That the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.

A: political leaders The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires A: reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.

A: True The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.

A: theology, philosophy, and law The two-key criteria jus in Bello criteria are ______________.

A: Discrimination and proportionality Jus ad Bellum permits a nation to conceal its real reasons for going to war in order to gain an advantage over its enemy.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.18 1

Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics

Which of the following actions is prohibited?

A: A ship’s CO is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (she ship’s communication’s officer) as a Christmas present…

A: Because of the large number of military dependents…

A: The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered 2,000.00 to write a magazine concerning maintenance Schedule A: A commander’s husband works for a defense contractor that supplies the commander’s unit…

Q172: A local church asked a Base CO if it could use the base softball field for their annual picnic. As part of the Church’s community outreach program, underprivileged children of the community were invited to the picnic. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: Holding church picnics on base are prohibited by the Standards of Conduct 22 Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.

23 Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as door prizes at events such as MWR fund raisers A: NOT none 24 The standards of conduct apply only to DOD civilian employees. Military personnel are governed solely by the UCMJ A: NOT Standards of conduct were promulgated by the Office of government Ethics.

25 Criminal laws pertaining to former DOD employees seeking post-government employment can be found in __________.

A: United States Code, Title 18 26 The primary source of guidance and information on standards of conduct for military personnel is __________.

A: Not navy regs.

27 While on official travel, a commander was involuntarily bumped from her flight. The airline booked her on the next flight and gave her a free round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A: All are correct 28 DOD civilian employees who violate the Standards of Conduct may face __________.

A: Fines and termination 29 In Response to an appeal by a local charity attempting to raise money to assist the victims of a natural disaster that had destroyed several hundred homes in the local community, a command desires to officially support and hold a “fun run.” The event will be part of the charity’s fundraising effort and monies raised will be turned over to that charity. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A: Not non-department of defense must run event 30 The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to __________.

A: Ensure federal employees serve the public good 31 The CO of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s) is/are the CO permitted to accept?

A: One of the carriers divisions pitches in $2.00 per sailor…

32 A commander is concerned that her husband’s employment may cause a conflict of interest with her role as base supply Officer. To avoid possible disciplinary action, she should __________.

A: Seek advice from a designated ethics counselor and disclose all relevant facts.

33 A command is taking part in the annual combined Federal Campaign fund raising drive.

Which of the following actions is permitted?

A: Co hoped each sailor would think about it.

34 Which of the following activities is permitted?

A: In order to fund its annual summer picnic…

Primary Professional Military Education 2.1.19 1

Lawful and Unlawful Orders

A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?

A: The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Q173: A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a member of the base police force. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the Seaman Recruit orders the LT to exit the automobile, in order to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT refuses to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman Recruit’s supervisor, a LCDR arrives and orders the LT to exit the car and take the test. The LT complies and is found not to be impaired. Which of the following statements is true?

A: The LT may be found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Q174: A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?

A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish.

Q175: A Service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?

A: It must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the general order was in effect and that the service member either violated or failed to obey the general order Q176: The general order needs to have been issued by a service member senior to the service member accused of having violated it A: It is not necessary to show that the service member had knowledge of the order or had a duty to obey it Q177: In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wear United Nations beret and armband as part of his uniform as he believed that the order to do so was not a lawful order. Which of the following statements is true?

A: A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful and he was convicted of failure to obey a lawful order.

Q178: What should a service member do when given an order that is unclear, but appears to be an unlawful order?

A: Select all answers which make the above statement true: Q179: Determine if the order is in contradiction to previously issued orders.

A: Ask for clarification of the order, in writing if necessary Q180: Provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.

A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039 Q181: Which of the following statements is true?

A: An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order.

A: All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful.

Q182: A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before; the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true?

A: The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major Q183: A Third-Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating ________________.

A: Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

Primary Professional Military Education Q184: The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer is ______________.

A: Death during time of war Q185: Which of the following is NOT true?

A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.

Q186: Which of the following is NOT true?

A: A lawful order must relate to military duties.

A: A service member may only receive a lawful order from a service member who is senior to him or her in rank.

Q187: The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is A: Discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for two years Q188: A Navy Reserve medical detachment headed by a Navy Reserve Medical Corps Captain is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the following is true?

A: The Commander may issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, and paragraph 1039.

Q189: A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except A: Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice Q190: What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?

A: Refuse the order and report to higher authority.

Q191: What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an unlawful order?

A: Refuse to obey the order and report the incident to higher authority.

Primary Professional Military Education

Governance of the Navy (Block 3)

3

Roles, Missions, and Functions of the Department of the Navy 3.1.1 1

Roles and functions

__________ Functions pertain to a Service’s activities in support of other services.

A: Primary Q192: The mission of the U.S. Armed Forces is: A: To complete tasks assigned to combatant commanders by the President or Secretary of Defense.

Q193: Since 1958, the primary task of the Services has been to__________.

A: Provide trained and ready forces to the combatant commanders.

Q194: Strategic deterrence is convincing a potential adversary that __________.

A: All are correct Q195: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: Congress assigns specific tasks, or missions, directly to the combatant commanders.

Q196: Amphibious operations is a Department of the Navy (DON) function primarily associated with: A: Congress Q197: Sea control is an important function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: A: It provides the ability to conduct operations in a specific area, while preventing and adversary, to use the same common area.

Q198: From the beginning, Congress intended the U.S. Marine Corps to serve as a “second land army” in the event the U.S. Army required additional ground combat forces.

A: False Q199: __________ direct(s) that naval aviation shall be an integral part of the naval service and grant(s) it authority to develop aircraft, weapons, tactics, technique, organization, and equipment of naval combat and service elements.

A: NOT CNO Q200: Which of the following is a role of the United States Marine Corps?

A: All are correct Q201: Which of the following does NOT fall under the Department of the Navy?

A: The Commandant of the Coast Guard A: D Q202: __________ Functions authorize a Service to develop its force structure.

A: Primary Q203: Maritime power projection can be displayed in the form of __________.

A: All answers correct Q204: Service specific functions were initially outlined by President Truman in Executive Order 9877, during the late __________.

A: Not 1970’s Q205: The role of the individual Armed Services is: A: To establish the lead in its respective form or domain of war: land, sea or air.

Q206: Strategic sealift is a vital function of the Department of the Navy (DON) because: A: Deployed Navy and Marine Corps forces need periodic resupply of consumable goods to sustain operations.

Q207: The primary role of the U.S. Navy is to __________.

A: Conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea.

Q208: What statement is TRUE? A: NOT Combatant commanders Q209: The Marine Corps is tasked with which Department of the Navy (DON) functions?

A: Land operations and amphibious operations

Primary Professional Military Education

Primary Professional Military Education National Military Organization 3.1.2 1

NMO

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A: Operational command of military units not involved in combat Q210: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A: The Chief of Naval Operations, as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, may submit advice to the President that is in disagreement with the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

A: Each military unit has one chain of command …that provides the necessary support functions A: U.S. Special Operations Command is the lead Combatant Command in the U.S. Global War on Terrorism.

A: The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is senior to the service chiefs.

Q211: The two types of Combatant Commands are __________.

A: Geographical and Functional Q212: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A: The Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is subordinate to the Service Chiefs.

A: The Chief of Naval Operations, as a Service Chief, has operational control of Navy special operations forces.

A: The President has the authority to determine the members of the NSC A: The CoJCS is the op chain of command Q213: Which combatant commander is also the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)?

A: U.S. Northern Command Q214: The statutory members of the National Security Council are the __________.

A: President, Vice Pres, SecDef, Sec. of State Q215: Which of the following Combatant Commands has the support of NATO as one of its missions?

A: U.S. European Command Q216: Which Combatant Commands have their headquarters outside of the United States?

A: U.S. European Command (Germany) and U.S. Africa Command (Germany) Q217: Combatant commanders are responsible directly to the __________.

A: SecDef, Pres Q218: Which of the following is NOT a Combatant Command?

A: U.S. Military Sealift Command Q219: Which of the following would make this statement FALSE? The Commandant of the Coast Guard ______.

A: As a military Service Chief, is a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

Q220: Which of the following statements concerning the Unified Command Plan (UCP) is FALSE? A: NOT prepared by SecDef, not set forth basic guidance Q221: Which statement concerning the National Security Council is TRUE? A: The Secretary of State is a member of the National Security Council.

Primary Professional Military Education Strategic Planning and Guidance 3.1.3 1

Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces

The primary purpose of the National Military Strategy (NMS) is to implement the National _____ Strategy.

A: Defense Q222: Possessing a credible threat of military force tends to undermine the effectiveness of diplomacy.

A: False Q223: The __________ instrument of national power is the primary means through which the U.S. Engages with foreign nations of groups.

A: Diplomatic Q224: Which organization coordinates the employment of America’s instruments of national power?

A: National Security Council Q225: All other national strategies are subordinate to the ______________.

A: NOT Defense Q226: The National ______________ Strategy discusses the ways and means the Department of Defense will achieve its strategic objectives.

A: NOT Military Q227: The ______________ provides a framework for establishing national priorities, choosing a strategic approach, and allocating resources necessary to achieve national goals.

A: NOT Defense Q228: The ______________ is the law that requires the President to prepare the National Security Strategy for Congress.

A: Goldwater-Nichols Act Q229: The ______________ is top-level strategic guidance that is prepared by the executive branch of government and signed by the President.

A: Not NSS Q230: The National ______________ Strategies comprise the two capstone documents for the Department of Defense.

A: Defense and Military Q231: The ______________ instrument of national power has no single center of control.

A: Informational

Primary Professional Military Education 3.1.4 1

Joint Vision for Future Warfighting

In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires ________________.

A: A transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community Q232: A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.

A: A description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective Q233: Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.

A: Joint Functional Concepts Q234: Joint Operating Concepts are concerned with what level of war?

A: Operational Q235: Which of the following is NOT true?

A: All are TRUE. Q236: A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________.

A: NOT 10-30 years in the future Q237: The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________.

A: Describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow Q238: A joint concept is __________________.

A: A visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives Q239: Joint Functional Concepts ________________.

A: Receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept Q240: A joint concept __________________.

A: Describes a particular military problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by logic and investigated through experimentation Q241: Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.

A: Experimentation Q242: The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.

A: Capstone Concept for Joint Operations Q243: At the Joint level, the ______ synchronizes the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities.

A: NOT joint integration Q244: Joint Functional Concepts support _______________.

A: The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations and Joint Operating Concepts Q245: A Joint Operating Concept __________________.

A: Identifies broad principles and essential capabilities Q246: Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?

A: Joint Integrating Concept Q247: Full Spectrum Dominance is __________________.

A: The ability to control any situation or defeat any adversary across the range of military operation Q248: __________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.

A: NOT JUC

Primary Professional Military Education 3.1.5 1 2 3 4

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Sea Power 21

What is the main idea outlined in the guidance presented in Sea Power 21?

A: It is the Navy’s vision for 21st century operations. ______________ Operations are how the 21st century Navy will exert direct, decisive, and sustained influence in joint campaigns?

A: NOT Sea Basing, NOT Sea Force While “vision” establishes the Navy’s goals, ______________ is/are the way the Navy goes about achieving those goals.

A: Strategy.

Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters, especially as adversary areadenial efforts become more capable, is the focus of which fundamental concept of Sea Power 21?

A: NOT Sea Advantage Sea Trial will be fleet-led, with Commander, ______________ serving as Executive Agent?.

A: U.S. Fleet Forces Command Which of the following is NOT a fundamental concept key to the Navy’s continued operational effectiveness as described in Sea Power 21?

A: Not Sea Shield The need to implement a continual process of rapid concept and technology development that will deliver enhanced capabilities to our Sailors as swiftly as possible, is the idea behind which initiative of Sea Power 21?

A: NOT Sea Development The Sea Power 21 initiative ______________ provides guidance to improve organizational alignment, refine requirements, and reinvest savings to buy the platforms and systems needed to transform our Navy A: NOT SEA Strike, NOT Sea Response An example of a past document that outlines the strategy used by the Navy in achieving its vision is ______________.

A: All answers The Navy values ______________ as its highest priority.

A: NOT operational excellence, NOT quality of life ______________ is an overarching effort to integrate warriors, sensors, networks, command and control, platforms, and weapons into a fully netted combat force.

A: FORCEnet.

Which document helps guide key financial planners in developing the Navy’s annual budget?

A: The Navy Strategic Plan ______________ is a fundamental concept of Sea Power 21 that accelerates expeditionary deployment and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater.

A: Sea Basing The ______________ program is designed to develop naval professionals who are highly skilled, powerfully motivated, and optimally employed for mission success.

A: Sea Warrior The Naval Operating Concept for Joint Operations outlines the _____________ used by the warfighter.

A: Tactics In the October 2002 issue of the U.S. Naval Institute’s journal Proceedings, then-CNO Admiral Vern Clark introduced ________________ which outlined the Navy’s vision for the 21st century.

A: Sea Power 21 ______________ is the “glue” that binds Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing together, serving as the architectural framework for naval warfare in the information age.

A: NOT SEAnet

Primary Professional Military Education 3.1.6 1

Cooperative Maritime Strategy

The security and prosperity of the United States is inextricably linked to the security and prosperity of other nations.

A: True Q249: Which of the following are threats to national and world security and prosperity?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q250: Is a core capability of U.S. maritime power?

A: None the answers are correct Q251: Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizens.

A: False Q252: Is a strategic imperative that can be accomplished through sea power?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q253: Speed” is a characteristic of maritime forces.

A: True Q254: One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is ______________.

A: Increased competition for scarce resources Q255: The maritime domain supports what percentage of the world’s trade?

A: 50% A: 90% Q256: The United States will employ ______________ to accomplish its strategic imperatives.

A: All the answers are correct Q257: Which of the following is a theme used to develop the Cooperative Maritime Strategy?

A: Work with our partners around the world to prevent war.

Q258: Is one of the six key tasks of naval forces?

A: Deter major power war Q259: Maritime forces lack the capability to approach deterrence with conventional, unconventional, and nuclear forces.

A: False Q260: The Cooperative Maritime Strategy seeks to ______________.

A: Integrate sea power with other elements of national power A: Maximize naval power projection at all costs Q261: Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________.

A: All the answers are correct.

Q262: U.S. homeland defense efforts provide the highest level of security by integrating ______________.

A: All the answers are correct.

Q263: One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________.

A: Disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S. Q264: ______________ is one of the most potentially disruptive forces to global stability.

A: NOT Religious

Primary Professional Military Education

How the Navy Thinks About War (Block 4)

4

The American Way of War 4.1.1 1 2 3 4

5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

15 16 17

The American Way of War

Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaws in America’s ability to fight small, low intensity conflicts?

A: The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in Grenada During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.

A: Was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation The Second Seminole War _______________.

A: Became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (“volunteer”) forces and proof that the United States didn’t need to maintain a large standing army.

A: True Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics.

A: False Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to _______________.

A: Avoid a protracted guerilla war waged by disgruntled Confederate soldiers General Winfield Scott’s capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________.

A: An example of conventional 19th century warfare One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________.

A: The absence of an immediate threat to the new nation Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.

A: Quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States ____________________.

A: Formed militias for protection In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving west, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. A: False The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________.

A: The perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? A: All of the answers are correct The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.

A: False In the United States, the Battle of New Orleans was seen as ____________________.

A: The defeat of the best army in the world by an American militia force One of the reasons Congress unwilling to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________.

A: The absence of an immediate threat to the new nation.

Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19th century because ______________.

A: It did not see any threat to the existence of the nation.

Primary Professional Military Education 18 Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________.

A: The idea that the acquisition of colonies was incompatible with American values.

19 During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through _________.

A: A combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the Continental Army, the militia and irregular forces 20 During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in ________________.

A: A series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemisphere 21 Today’s Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendants of the militias established by the early European colonists.

A: True 22

Primary Professional Military Education The Naval Way of War 4.1.2 1 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

39 40 41

The Naval Way of War

In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, it’s important to know ___________________.

A: The U.S. Navy’s organizational culture What is the best example of Independence of Action?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

An organization’s culture ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.

A: Ensure the ship is safe In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?

A: GPS Why does the Navy still fear technological advances?

A: It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the Navy.

Navigation is ____________________.

A: An art of approximation The part of Astronomy that teaches how to pinpoint your location at sea in relation to the stars A: How to get from point A to point B using the shortest amount of time Due to increase in jointers in Naval operations there will be all of the following changes in the future, except, with respect to ____________________.

A: The U.S. fleet composition Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.

A: True What do all Navy’s do?

A: All The contemporary maritime strategy of the U.S. Navy ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.

A: Have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.

A: False Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform” is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.

A: Navy All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is _________________.

A: Fire The Navy’s organizational culture comes from ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct The Navy’s intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to ______________.

A: Limit the enemy’s freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating environment?

A: Typhoons

Primary Professional Military Education 42 NPME and JPME are related to formal education for the younger generation of officers.

A: True 43 By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ______________.

A: Have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication.

44 The Watch Officer Guide of 1941 is ______________.

A: A publication about the responsibilities of a naval officer.

45 One of the things that initiated the NPME program was an interest ______________.

A: An interest in reducing the degree of separation across individual officer communities.

Primary Professional Military Education Theory of War 4.1.3 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Theory of War

The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.

A: By Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives Carrier strike group and expeditionary strike group commanders generally operate at what level of war?

A: Tactical Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________.

A: The level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war?

A: The level of war varies, depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.

A: In order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives The principles of war ____________________.

A: Summarize the characteristics of a successful military operation The principles of war include ____________________.

A: Surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplicity, and offensive The three components of military art are ____________________.

A: Strategy, tactics, and operational art The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.

A: May change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.

A: Concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness Operational art was “born” during the ____________________.

A: Period following World War I Operational art ____________________.

A: Deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectives In current joint and navy doctrine, centers of gravity ____________________.

A: Are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________.

A: Is most likely to change at the strategic level In the military chain of command, the President, ____________________, functions at the strategic level of war.

A: The Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war?

A: It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action The “operational level of War” concept was developed ____________________.

A: In order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives Which of the following is correct?

A: The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.

The most significant preparation a commander can make is ____________________.

A: To express clearly the objective of the operation to subordinate commanders The geographic areas of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders are established at what level(s)?

A: Strategic Which of the following is NOT true? Select one or more of the following: A: None of the answers are correct An enemy’s critical vulnerability ____________________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: Is synonymous with the enemy’s center of gravity 23 Is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemy’s ability to resist us?

A: Need not be determined if one has already determined the enemy’s center of gravity Q265: The enemy’s center of gravity ______________.

A: Not(is unlikely to change…)

A:

Primary Professional Military Education Doctrine 4.1.4 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

17 18 19 20 21

Doctrine

The UNTL is ____________________.

A: A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.

A: NOT(Current capabilities) The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabling functions, and the organization and support of forces for sustained operations, is called __________________.

A: NWPs All doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________.

A: Continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision The joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________.

A: Initiation, development, approval, maintenance Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which ____________________.

A: Link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine?

A: Detailed threat profiles Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________.

A: CNO and Commandant, USMC Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ____________________.

A: Commander, NWDC Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs? A: They are not related to NWPs. Joint doctrine and TTPs in joint publications are ____________________.

A: Authoritative and approved by the Chairman, JCS Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.

A: True Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception.

A: False Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.

A: False Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. A: True Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs? A: They are not necessarily related to NWPs. A: They are not descriptive in nature.

A: They are not reviewed by NWDC. The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.

A: All publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.

A: True Commanders of U.S. forces operating as part of a multinational command should follow _____.

A: Multinational doctrine/procedures which have been ratified by the U.S. Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ______________.

A: Commander, NWDC The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through _________ A: NWDC SIPRNET site

Primary Professional Military Education Naval Warfare 4.1.5

JFMCC-CCW

Command and Control (C2) 1

Control is the ___________________.

A: Commander’s means of guiding a military operation A: Commander’s means of accounting for expenditures by the military A: NOT(Authority that commanders lawfully exercise over subordinates) Q266: Which of the following is not an example of OPCON? A: Detailed direction in the application of force Q267: Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON? A: Organization, logistics and training Q268: OPCON would be delegated to ___________________.

A: JTF commanders A: Ship commanders Q269: Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through _____________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q270: The principal element of command and control is: A: Q271: The process of command control includes which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q272: The C² organization is defined to include ___________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q273: Feedback is most important to control because ___________________.

A: It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances.

Q274: Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system?

A: All of the answers are correct Q275: Why is C² considered the single most important activity in war?

A: Without it, military forces can lose organization and direction and fail to achieve their mission.

Q276: Command and control is ___________________.

A: A system and a process Q277: OPCON and TACON: A: All of the answers are correct Q278: Which of the following are considered command and control support?

A: The people, facilities, and equipment that provide information to commanders Q279: U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are ___________________.

A: May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution Q280: Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q281: The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ___________________.

A: Its doctrine for tactical command and control Q282: C² enables the commander to ______________.

A: ALL are correct Q283: Which of the following is the definition of Command and Control in Joint Doctrine?

A: The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission Q284: Naval commanders exercise TACON over ______________.

A: All are correct

Primary Professional Military Education Joint force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) 1

Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training would: A: Remain the responsibility of the service component commander.

Q285: Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________.

A: Both OPCON and TACON Q286: The Joint Force Commander has ___________________.

A: Wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force Q287: The JFMCC’s subordinate commanders include: A: Both CSG and ESG commanders.

Q288: The Joint Force Commander _____________________.

A: may retain control of any function Q289: The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to: A: Integrate all naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commander’s campaign plan.

Q290: Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC? A: All of the answers are correct Q291: The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to: A: All of the answers are correct.

Q292: During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the Soviet navy, it would be: A: Fighting virtually independently of other U.S. and allied forces.

Q293: The MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________.

A: enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional components to request JFMCC assets Q294: The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of: A: A service or component staff, augmented by service staff.

Q295: What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?

A: Sea control Q296: The JFMCC concept is _______________________.

A: Still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized.

Q297: The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes?

A: Better integrate military assets during operations.

Q298: The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ___________________.

A: request specific support to execute assigned missions Q299: The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.

A: Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service component.

Q300: The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders’ ______________.

A: The JFLCC and JFACC Q301: According to the concept, the JFMCC ______________.

A: All are correct Q302: Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions?

A: The JFMCC

Primary Professional Military Education Composite Warfare Commander Concept 1 2 3

4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________.

A: that is where the needed C2 assets will be The littorals are: A: Areas near the shore and inland from the shore.

The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept ______________________.

A: must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN) Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carrier Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability?

A: Increased vulnerability Decentralization and command by negation are: A: NOT(Not central features of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC).)

After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission: A: Shifted in orientation to the littorals.

The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is: A: Determined by the OTC based on each individual situation The common operating picture, or COP, includes: A: All of the answers are correct Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?

A: To attempt to manage the complexity on the emnvironment.

Admiral Raleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because: A: In battle, there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.

Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation: A: Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.

The common operating picture, or COP, includes: A: All of the answers are correct.

The CWC is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to: A: Manage information overload Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different weapon systems on a single ship ___________________.

A: may be delegated to different warfare commanders The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept are: A: Deep precision strikes on land targets.

The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against: A: All the answers are correct.

Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tactical Command’s (OTC’s) primary focus should be on: A: Fighting his or her ship What is the cornerstone tenet of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?

A: Command by negotiation The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate: A: All of the answers are correct.

Tactical Control (TACON): A: May be retained by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) The chain of command under the CWC concept ______________.

A: Must be established by the OTC in an OPGEN TACON __________.

A: May be retained by the CWC. A:

Primary Professional Military Education CWC Roles and Responsibilities 1

Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?

A: Interagency Working Group Coordinator Q303: What is the role of preplanning of responses in the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q304: The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) will have _____________________.

A: Tactical Control Q305: Which of the following functions are the responsibilities of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?

A: Developing plans in support of assigned missions.

Q306: If an alternate Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________.

A: All of the answers are correct Q307: Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?

A: Secure Telecommunications Group Commander Q308: Which of the following functions are not the responsibilities of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?

A: Establishing mission objectives.

Q309: What did Admiral Muston say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?

A: The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their roles in it.

Q310: Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment?

A: Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) Q311: Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________.

A: immediately subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Q312: CWC’s relationship to OTC is ______________________.

A: always subordinate, even if Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) and Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) are filled by the same commander Q313: Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to: A: Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.

Q314: Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by: A: Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) Q315: The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to ___________________.

A: the most capable and experienced air defense ship Q316: The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q317: The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________.

A: a carrier Q318: Which of the following is not part of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) structure?

A: Joint Task Force (JTF) commanders Q319: Decentralized command is an effective approach because?

A: It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives.

A: It helps to prevent the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) from being overwhelmed by information overload.

Q320: Which of the following is not a principal warfare commander?

A: Marine expeditionary unit commander

Primary Professional Military Education JFMCC/CWC Challenges 1

The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q321: What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?

A: super high frequency radios Q322: Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.

A: developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications Q323: According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________.

A: 20 NM Q324: What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive?

A: Improved C4 architecture Q325: A downside of CWC’s dependency on communications is ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q326: Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q327: According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.

A: CWC creates broad war fighting specialists Q328: What are the challenges to the CWC concept?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q329: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.

A: False Q330: Early on, the CWC concept was deemed by many to be __________.

A: Too communications intensive Q331: Detractors of the CWC concept pointed out that combatants in SAGs, CSG, and ESGs were organized according to their __________ instead of according to tasks involving their multi-mission capability.

A: NOT(embarked senior officers rank) Q332: Which technology enables afloat forces to communicate more securely and to operate in a more dispersed manner?

A: NOT(UHF,HF) Q333: Which of the choices below do NOT describe arguments against the CWC concept?

A: It created broad war fighting specialist Q334: Over time, the CWC concept has remained surprisingly immune from the criticism normally leveled against doctrinal approaches to warfare.

A: False Q335: As a defensive measure, forces afloat would typically operate in highly dispersed formations, sometimes covering an area of more than 40 square miles.

A: False Q336: One of the CWC concept's many positive attributes is its contribution to increasing the number of "big picture" commanders in the battlegroup.

A: False Q337: The formerly closed defensive posture of forces afloat required Principle Warfare Commanders, Functional Warfare Commanders, and Coordinators to rely on high frequency (HF) communications to issue commands and to communicate with each other.

A: False 4.1.6

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.7

Strike Warfare

Origins and Development 1

Strike warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations.

A: False Q338: Strike operations are a component of which Navy mission?

A: Projecting power ashore Q339: Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare?

A: amphibious assault Q340: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.

A: False Q341: Difficulties encountered by the Navy in integrating into the joint air operations planned and directed by the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) during Operation DESERT STORM were due to __________.Select all correct answers.

A: -/ -the JFACC's refusal to let the Navy direct over-water operations A: -/ -the Navy’s long time practice of decentralized command of air power A: -/ the lack of compatible communications equipment Q342: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.

A: False Q343: The two principal missions of the United States Navy are: A: Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore Q344: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period.

A: False Q345: The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is the Air Force equivalent of the Navy Air Tasking Order (NATO).

A: False Q346: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-1991 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.

A: False Q347: The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990’s Gulf War were tested _______________.

A: in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990’s Q348: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.

A: False Q349: Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore.

A: ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles A: the decentralized handling of air power A: NOT(the use of Navy aircraft in the close air support role) Q350: Submarines have no role in strike warfare.

A: False Q351: During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________.

A: caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces Q352: During Operation DESERT STORM, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure.

Q353: False

Primary Professional Military Education Q354: During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Marine Corps aircraft ___________________.

A: flew approximately one third of the total sorties flown by U.S. aircraft – an amount in direct proportion to their numbers in the U.S. air inventory Q355: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no “dumb” bombs were utilized.

A: False Q356: How do the Navy’s two principal missions influence events on land?

A: Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly influences those events Q357: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Carrier Strike Groups 1

The “Summer Pulse 04” exercise ___________________.

A: utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world Q358: Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________.

A: All of the answers are correct Q359: The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to ______________.

A: sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order Q360: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.

A: False Q361: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling.

A: False Q362: The Flexible Deployment Concept ________________.Select one or more of the following: A: Allows units that have attained…, provides more options to national leaders…

Q363: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.

A: False Q364: The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.

A: always a CV/CVN Q365: The Virginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf-class.

A: False Q366: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile.

A: False Q367: Which of the following is not able to conduct long range strike missions?

A: FFG Q368: Carrier Strike Groups are dependent on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them.

A: False Q369: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.

A: False Q370: Which submarine class(s) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q371: The Navy’s Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades.

A: False Q372: Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enrooted to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be provided by ____________.

A: a Carrier Strike Group Q373: Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships.

Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander.

A: False Q374: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) are employed ______________.

A: All are correct

Primary Professional Military Education Q375: Guided missile destroyers provide the Carrier Strike Group with Antisubmarine Warfare (ASW) capability.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education The Aircraft Carrier 1

Successful strike warfare depends upon: A: All of the answers are correct.

2 CV/CVN strike capability can be increased by which of the following: Select all correct answers A: All 3 What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?

A: Reduce the number of aircraft required 4 What types of redundancy are necessary for reliable alternatives in an environment of danger which could cause serious losses in case of operational failure?

A: Personnel 5 Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?

A: Training A: Ordnance and aircraft handling A: Maintenance 6 Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: A: None of the answers are correct.

7 Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?

A: Improved ship design 8 Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?

A: In-flight refueling 9 Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by: A: Aircraft Carrier Wing 10 Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.

A: True 11 Which of the following correctly describe carrier organization and operations A: Carrier is organized in a steep hierarchy by rank with clear chain of command.

A: Flight operations…relatively flat…

12 What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?

A: Aircraft carrier 13 Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers: A: -Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support A: -Bargain for optimum strike assignments 14 Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?

A: Permit 24-hour strike warfare 15 _____________converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.

A: Human organization 16 The Carrier Air Department is responsible for: A: Flight deck control 17 The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for: A: Electronic equipment maintenance and repair 18 What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar antennas, etc.?

A: Technical Q376: The danger inherent to flight deck operations can be eliminated by: A: None are correct Q377: Which effect(s) did PGMs have on aircraft sortie rates? (Select all that apply.)

A: NOT(reduce, limit), (red,limit,complicate) Q378: IRAQI FREEDOM strike operations illustrated the CVN’s unique capability to conduct air operations during: A: Sandstorms

Primary Professional Military Education Q379: Which of the following is the lowest ranking person authorized to suspend flight operations?

A: Enlisted flight crew

Primary Professional Military Education Carrier Air Wing 1 2 3 4

5 6 7

8 9 10 11

12 13 14 15 16 17

Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by: A: All answers correct Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a warning to friendly units” is the mission of: A: Airborne early warning Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following: A: National Command Authority Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.

A: Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing.

A: The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system.

A: Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?

A: All of the answers are correct.

What is the principal limitation of PGMs? A: Cost Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?

A: Combat air patrol Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions (JDAM) are: A: -Operates in adverse weather A: Converts “dumb” bomb into precision guided weapon Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War? A: Laser guided bombs What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy?

A: PGMs Which of the following statements are true concerning the size and composition of CVs and CAWs? A: Greater uniformity will follow phase-out of conventional carriers.

A: Great variation in both Cc size and CAW composition since WWII. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?

A: All of the answers are correct The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following missions?

A: ASW “Circular Error Probability” refers to: A: Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit.

Concept of Operations (CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include: A: battle damage assessment What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?

A: The embarked air wing Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through “punctuated stability”; this refers to?

A: Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.

Primary Professional Military Education Tomahawk Land Attack Missile 1

The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.

A: Is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination, and reporting strikes.

2 Programmed Warhead Detonation (PWD) _____________.

A: allows the missile to be detonated while flying directly over a target 3 Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?

A: survivability in a high threat environment 4 Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched Tomahawk missile?

A: the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway 5 The Block IV or TLAM-E _____________.

A: substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile while cutting the cost in half 6 In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed with all the following except _________________.

A: the Joint Interface Control Officer 7 Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path?

A: Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit 8 Which of the following is true?

A: Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface combatants.

9 The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch.

A: Launch Sequence Plan (LSP) 10 Which of the following is NOT true?

A: The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator is the Launch Area Coordinator's principal agent, responsible for leading the execution of TLAM strike operations.

11 Which of the following is true?

A: The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the Tomahawk Executive Agent.

12 Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ______________.

A: while submerged to avoid damage to the system 13 The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ______________.

A: reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets A: redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 14 The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.

A: either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube 15 Which of the following is NOT true?

A: Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern.

16 The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ______________. Select one or more of the following: A: redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 17 Submarines can communicate with surface unit’s _____________.

A: when operating at periscope depth 18 Terrain masking ___________________.

A: involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target 19 Is the method of continuously matching altitude information from a radar altimeter to a preprogrammed radar map of the area below the missile so that it can accurately follow a detailed predetermined flight path?

A: is the ability to detonate the missiles warhead while the missile is flying directly over a target, thus preventing the enemy from masking itself behind a hill or similar terrain feature Q380: Which of the following is FALSE?

Primary Professional Military Education A: NOT(commander) Q381: Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.

A: NOT(24 T-hawks)

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.8

Expeditionary Warfare

Intro to Expeditionary Warfare Operations 1

Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________.

A: increases the complexity for the enemy in defending a coastline 2 A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is known as a ______________.

A: Demonstration 3 The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

4 Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navy’s concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

5 The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a senior Marine Corps officer, is responsible for which of the following?

A: Conduct of the assault.

6 The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

7 An amphibious force might include which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

8 Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?

A: All of the answers are correct.

9 The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct 10 The amphibious planning process ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

11 The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________.

A: Battalion 12 The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces?

A: All of the answers are correct.

13 Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects?

A: Uncomplicated logistic support.

14 A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore” is the definition for what term?

A: An amphibious operation 15 An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organization?

A: An Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF).

16 Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?

A: All are correct Q382: Why did the Navy adopt the Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) concept?

A: All Q383: Key aspects of Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) include which of the following?

A: All

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.9

Domains of Force Employment Surface Warfare (SUW)

1

Pair the following missiles with their primary missions: A: B1. Anti-radiation A. Harpoon A: D2. Air-to-surface close air support B. SLAM-ER A: C3. Land-attack C. Maverick A: A4. Low-level anti-ship D. HARM 2 The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets: A: All of the answers are correct.

3 Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by: A: Embarked helicopters and surface vessels 4 Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following?

A: Mark 45, 5” 54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile 5 What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander?

A: Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position.

6 “Combat boats” present great problems for conventional naval forces because they are: A: All of the answers are correct.

7 Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of “combat boats” has which of the following effects: A: Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces 8 Surface warfare includes coordination of surface, subsurface, land, and sea assets.

A: True 9 Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include: A: Chemical weapons 10 Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to: A: All the answers are correct.

11 Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?

A: All the answers are correct.

12 Match the following missiles with their primary delivery craft: A: 1. SH-60 Seahawk A: A. Harpoon, HARM, SLAM-ER, Maverick A: 2. EA-6B Prowler A: B. Hellfire, Penguin A: 3. S-3B Viking A: C. Harpoon, SLAM-ER, Maverick A: 4. F/18 Hornet A: D. HARM 13 Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are: A: All the answers are correct.

14 A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of hostile contact; he is also required to ____________________.

A: gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations 15 The Surface Warfare Commander is: A: Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to support the surface warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land Attack Missile command 16 Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?

A: Maverick 17 “Asymmetric threat” refers to: A: Threat from unconventional naval forces 18 Principal sources of threat to the task force includes A: Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines.

Q384: The Surface Warfare Commander is: A: NOT(always carrier

Primary Professional Military Education Air Defense 1

The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from: A: An AEGIS cruiser 2 Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include: A: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.

3 Match each air defense principle with the appropriate definition.

A: 1. Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy forces A: A. Defense in Depth A: 2. Establishing positions to absorb and weaken A: B. EMCON attacks A: 3. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats A: C. OPDEC A: 4. Denying or altering enemy use of electronics A: D. Early Warning systems.

4 The principal weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CVN) is a: A: Missile 5 Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats: A: Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings 6 Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group?

A: E-2C Hawkeye 7 ________is the primary mission of air defense.

A: Defense in Depth 8 Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases.

A: True 9 Select the platforms with long range capabilities.

A: Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers 10 Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?

A: Point defense ships and patrol craft 11 Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates: A: Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and security for departing and landing aircraft.

12 Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility.

A: The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.

13 Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations.

A: False 14 The Air Defense Commander must be: A: None of the answers are correct 15 Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the use of certain electromagnetic systems during force operations?

A: EMCON 16 Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment?

A: Surveillance Q385: Non-organic air defense support refers to: A: All Q386: To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ______________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons.

A: All Q387: In the current environment, air defense is made difficult by: A: Q388: The absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations.

Primary Professional Military Education A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Undersea Warfare 1

The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.

A: is a highly accurate active sonar system which locates mines for later detonation A: features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle Q389: Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission?

A: MH-53E helicopter Q390: Area ASW operations ___________________.

A: are often conducted to provide ASW protection for strike groups A: are usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility A: are usually commanded and controlled by an element of a strike group Q391: Which of the following is NOT true?

A: Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the search for submarines.

A: Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable.

A: U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.

A: At the end of its preset battery life, son buoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be downloaded for analysis.

A: Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.

A: Mine sweeping procedures may include the detonation of mines.

A: The terms “mine hunting” and “mine sweeping” are synonymous.

A: The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine operations.

A: Passive sonar is more affected by noises in the water than active sonar.

A: Submarines are the platform of choice for the replenishment of large minefields due to the larger number of mines they can carry.

Q392: Coordinated ASW operations ___________________.

A: are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units Q393: Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of mines?

A: ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships Q394: Magnetic ranging ___________________.

A: provides measurements to allow a ship to fine tune its degaussing Q395: Is a method of determining the range to a contact by measuring changes in the earth’s magnetic field caused by the contact?

A: uses an electrical current passed through coils wrapped around a ship to decrease the ship’s magnetic signature Q396: The ASW warfare commander’s call sign under the Navy’s Composite Warfare Commander Concept is ___________________.

A: AX Q397: The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.

A: Acoustic and non-acoustic A: Sonar and radar A: Airborne and waterborne Q398: Which of the following is true?

A: Towed passive solar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise generated by the ship A: Pressure influence mines are normally moored type mines.

A: U.S. submarine development has shifted towards developing capabilities against diesel powered submarines operating in shallow water A: Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic mine.

Q399: Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during ___________________.

A: World War II Q400: The most effective means of countering a mine threat is ___________________.

A: the prevention of mine laying

Primary Professional Military Education Q401: Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using radar in ASW operations?

A: Radar is not able to detect targets as small as a periscope or snorkel exposed above the surface.

Q402: The current submarine threat ___________________.

A: is more likely to be a diesel-powered submarine Q403: In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be detected.

A: Using passive sonar, a submarine typically will detect a surface ship before it is detected by that ship.

Q404: Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.

A: detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth’s magnetic field caused by the submarine’ Q405: During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________.

A: Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted Q406: A ship’s degaussing system consists of one coil built into the ship to counter both vertical and horizontal magnetic fields.

A: DE perming is the use of electrical coils built into a ship to counter the induced magnetism created as the ship passes through the earth’s magnetic field.

Q407: The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.

A: prevention of mutual interference and water space management Q408: Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with ______________.

A: Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines Q409: Which of the following species of marine mammals are used for mine detection and marking?

A: NOT(Dolphins and Seals) Q410: The Prairie Air System reduces a ship’s radiated noise by ______________.

A: Supplying air along the leading edge of the propeller blades Q411: When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle ______________.

A: (can be used to both counter…)

Q412:

Primary Professional Military Education Naval Special Warfare 1

The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.

A: is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders Q413: A clandestine operation ____________________.

A: is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself Q414: A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.

A: is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements Q415: The MK-V Special Operations Craft ____________________.

A: is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon Q416: The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.

A: low to medium threat environments Q417: The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.

A: delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines Q418: MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.

A: Special Boat Teams Q419: The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the ____________________.

A: Army Special Operations Command (USASOC) Q420: Select the statement that is NOT true.

A: Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their actions.

Q421: Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________.

A: are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander Q422: The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.

A: is an 11-meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew Q423: Select the statement that is NOT true.

A: Information Operations are generally directed at strategic or operational intelligence requirements.

Q424: The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.

A: Counterterrorism Q425: Direct Action missions ____________________.

A: involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions Q426: A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains ____________________.

A: six SEAL platoons A: four SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) Q427: A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.

A: a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons Q428: Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q429: Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the ____________________ mission.

A: CP Q430: Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as ____________________.

A: an NSW Squadron Q431: The Naval Special Warfare long-range dry submersible is the ______________.

A: NOT(ADDSV)

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.10

Naval Logistics

Naval Logistics 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

The sustainment element of the logistics process is _______________.

A: the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is _______________.

A: the Military Sealift Command (MSC) The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process?

A: Distribution The Military Sealift Command’s Combat Prepositioning Force _______________.

A: supports Army prepositioning requirements Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.

A: are under Military Sealift Command control when activated The bulk of the Navy’s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by _______________.

A: the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force Operational logistics _______________.

A: encompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater Prepositioned equipment—both afloat and ashore—is considered logistics support at the ______________.

A: strategic level The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process?

A: Distribution The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies?

A: Class V For Navy transportation matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the _______________.

A: Chief of Naval Operations The Navy’s two hospital ships ______________.

A: contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each MSC’s Kilauea Class ammunition ships _______________.

A: have no armament The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered _______________.

A: organizational-level maintenance Which of the following is NOT true?

A: Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ship’s company.

Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area?

A: NOT(Health Services) The Military Sealift Command’s largest combat logistics ships are the _______________.

A: Supply class T-AOEs The Dry Cargo Office _______________.

A: handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled ocean liner service The Military Sealift Command’s eight fast sealift ships _______________.

A: can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division Repair parts are considered _______________.

A: Class IX supplies Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups?

A: NOT(Sirius Class T-AFSs)

Primary Professional Military Education Joint Warfare 4.1.11 1

Fundamentals of Joint Warfare

Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?

A: U.S. Southern Command Q432: Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?

A: U.S. Forces Korea Q433: The Combatant Commander’s campaign is based on which of the following?

A: All the answers are correct Q434: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies.

A: True Q435: Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished?

A: By assigning a mission or objective to the Joint Force Commander A: By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Q436: The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command.

A: True Q437: Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and correct performance?

A: Control Q438: Overwhelming force would fall under which fundamental of joint warfare?

A: Concentration Q439: A unified command will always contain which of the following?

A: Service components.

Q440: The term joint forces include which of the following commands?

A: All the answers are correct.

Q441: On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)

A: Geographic or functional Q442: Which of the following document(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders?

A: National Security Strategy and National Military Strategy Q443: Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; “Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?”

A: Unity of Effort Q444: Which statement best reflects the concept of command?

A: Command includes both the authority and responsibility for effectively using available resources to accomplish assigned missions.

Q445: Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?

A: Budget and procure service-specific equipment.

Q446: Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?

A: A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or more military departments.

Q447: What level of authority is normally exercised by the functional component commanders of a combatant command?

A: Tactical Control (TACON) A: Combatant Command (COCOM) command authority A: Administrative Control (ADCON) Q448: Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?

A: Administrative Control (ADCON)’

Primary Professional Military Education Q449: The Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander is an example of a ______________.

A: Functional component commander

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.12

Fundamentals of Information Operations

Q450: Department of Defense (DOD) policy describes “information superiority” as ______________.

A: the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same Q451: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.

A: Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations.

A: Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary.

A: Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations.

A: Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and foreign audiences.

A: Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security actions.

Q452: Which of the following statements is true?

A: Civil-Military Operations only take place in friendly or neutral operational areas.

A: Civil-Military Operations only include those operations that occur subsequent to armed conflict.

A: Civil-Military Operations may include military personnel performing functions that are normally the responsibility of a national government.

A: Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations authorized to influence foreign target audiences directly.

A: The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic warfare support.

A: Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks.

Q453: Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.

A: the J-3 (Operations) Q454: The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.

A: the physical, the informational, and the cognitive Q455: The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are: A: Computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation.

Q456: The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by individuals or groups…

A: Cognitive Q457: Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations’ ability to affect and defend decision making?

A: Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by things such as language, culture and religion.

Q458: Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________.

A: prisoner of war interrogation Q459: Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence the ______ dimension of…

A: cognitive Q460: The combatant commanders’ plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________.

A: the Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) Q461: Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of ___________________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: computer network exploitation (CNE) Q462: Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the combatant commanders?

A: Commander, U.S. Strategic Command

Primary Professional Military Education Force Capabilities 4.1.13 1

United States Army

The two basic types of Army divisions, in terms of their fighting power, are _________?

A: Heavy and light Q463: Which of the following are tenants of ARMY operations? Select all that apply: A: Synchronization, Initiative, Agility Q464: An air assault division is well suited for the following types of operations. Select all that apply.

A: Night fighting, Stability and support, Helicopter firepower Q465: One of the greatest challenges routinely faced by Army leaders and planners is how to get the right forece to the battlefield in a timely manner.

A: True Q466: __________ unifies all of the elements of the Army’s battlefield organization.

A: Purpose 2 The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.

A: True Q467: _________are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant colonels.

A: Battalions Q468: Heavy divisions offer exceptional: A: Tactical mobility.

Q469: Is the U.S. Army force that can rapidly respond to contingency operations?

A: XVIII Corps Q470: The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.

A: Mechanized Infantry Division Q471: Challenges facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include: Select all correct answers.

A: More demand for peacekeeping.

A: A less stable global environment Q472: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?

A: The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary U.S. Army mission area.

Q473: A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire.

A: Platoon Q474: The Air Assault Division is considered: A: All of the answers are correct Q475: Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army’s transformation?

A: Increased Joint interdependency necessitates increased logistics and combat formations.

Q476: Which of the following are light forces ideally suited for: Select all correct answers.

A: -/Exploitation or pursuit.

A: -/-Defensive missions requiring economy of force.

A: -/-Attack key enemy armor forces.

A: -/-Operating in restricted terrain.

A: //MOUT Q477: Army divisions are classified depending on: Select all correct answers.

A: /The “footprint” occupied by equipment for airlift.

A: -The relative combat power they possess.

A: -The speed in which they can be deployed.

A: -The gross tonnage of all equipment.

Q478: The U.S. Army’s ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape the security environment.

A: strategic responsiveness

Primary Professional Military Education Q479: Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?

A: The Air Assault Division’ A: The Mechanized Infantry Division A: The Airborne Division Q480: Light infantry divisions: Select all correct answers.

A: -/-Can be rapidly deployed.

A: -/-Perform well in urban operations.

A: //Are deployable entirely by air.

Q481: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.

A: False Q482: What are the “hidden” transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?

A: Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.

A: Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.

A: Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Light Infantry Division.

Q483: Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations?

A: UH-60L Blackhawk Q484: Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?

A: Sea-based operations Q485: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.

A: True Q486: What is the primary mission of a brigade?

A: To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and shock effect Q487: In 2006, the army reorganized into three __________and ten __________ A: army commands, army service components Q488: The most efficient way to deploy the army is using a__________ A: combination of strategic airlift and sea lift Q489: Given their similarities, the concepts of battle space and area of operations are often used interchangeably by army commanders.

A: False Q490: The army is comprised of _________ divisions A: ten Q491: Heavy maneuver forces can maneuver strategically with ease and are ideally suited for operation in urban terrain.

A: False Q492: Mechanized, armored, and air assault divisions require a significant amount of A: Logistic sustainment A: Strategic lift A: Time to assemble Q493: Mechanized infantry and armor are best suited for the A: open plains Q494: What is the lowest level of an army command at the operational level of war?

A: Corps A: The army has 600,000 soldiers serving on active duty Q495: For the Army, its doctrine ______________.

A: Reflects the army’s approach to combat Q496: The Army’s only airborne division is the ______________ Airborne Division.

A: 82nd Airborne Q497: As part of the Army’s redesign, it moved away from being a ______________-centric force and transformed into a more flexible ______________-centric modular combat team.

A: NOT(regiment,battalion) Q498: The Army’s critical combat support capabilities are embedded almost entirely in the ______________. Select all that apply.

Primary Professional Military Education A:

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.14

United States Air Force

1

The Air Force employs __________ tenents of airpower that are central to their doctrine and compliment the principles of way.

A: 7 Q499: The Air Force airpower tenet of ______________ explains that a single commander, focused on the broader aspects of an operation, can best mediate the competing demands for air and space support against the strategic and operational requirements of a conflict.

A: Q500: Which of the following are Air Force core competencies? Select all that apply A: Developing Airmen, Leveraging technology to Warfighting.

Q501: The sovereign options the Air Force delivers for the defense of the U.S. and its global interests depend upon the approval of America’s friends and allies.

A: False Q502: Which of the following Air Force core strategic capabilities strengthen joint warfighting capabilities and implement total force integration? Select all that apply.

A: all Q503: The ______________ is an Air Force expeditionary organization tailored to the needs of a combatant commander.

A: Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) Q504: Joint Force Commanders will normally assign a(n) _____________ officer the responsibilities of Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) to coordinate air operations in a Joint Operation Area.

A: Air Force Q505: How many Air Expeditionary Force modules are normally on call at any one time to support the needs of combatant commanders?

A: Two Q506: The type of Air Force command immediately junior to a “Numbered Air Force” is called a ______________.

A: Wing Q507: The “officer to enlisted” ratio in the Air Force is approximately ______________ to 1.

A: 4 Q508: Each warfighting headquarters in a combatant commander’s area of responsibility (AOR) is supported by an Air Force weapon system called a(n) ______________ Air Operations Center (AOC).

A: Falconer Q509: The “officer to enlisted” ratio in the Air Force is approximately ______________ to 1.

A: NOT 6 Q510: Which of the following are air and space power functions? Select all that apply.

Q511: The Air Force’s “Total Force” numbers approximately ______________ personnel.

A: 658,000 Q512: If the operation is relatively small in scale, a Joint Force Commander may assign a naval officer as the Joint Force Air Component Commander.

A: True Q513: The Air Force believes that air and space power will eventually render land and naval forces obsolete.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.15 1

United States Marine Corps

The largest type of Marine Air-Ground Task Force that deploys for combat is called a _________.

A: Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) Q514: The Marine Corps’ standing operational organizations are called ________.

A: Marine Expeditionary Forces (MEFs) Q515: All Marine Corps components reinforce and support the __________.

A: Marine Corps Operating Forces\ Q516: Due to the Marines’ rigid task force construct, they are usually assigned to operate independently of joint forces.

A: False Q517: In order to deploy rapidly without the delays inherent to mobilizing reserves, the Marine Corps maintains its active force at about ______________ percent of its total force.

A: 80% Q518: Historically, the Marine Corps has conducted operations ______________ of the ROMO. A: At the lower end Q519: The highly tailored nature of Marine Air-Ground Task Forces makes them unsuitable for service as the core around which a Joint Task Force headquarters may be formed.

A: False Q520: The Marine Special Operations Command is under the operational control of ______________.

A: U.S. Special Operations Command Q521: The general functions and composition of the Marine Corps are described in ______________. Select all that apply.

A: Title 10, U.S. Code A: DoD Directive 5100.1 Q522: The Marine Corps utilizes ______________ Maritime Prepositioning Squadron(s) that contain a total of 16 ships to provide its strategic lift capability.

A: Three Q523: The Marine Corps fields specialized forces that may be deployed outside of the MAGTF, these forces are: Select all that apply.

A: Chemical Biological Incident Response Force A: Anti-Terrorism Battalion A: NOT(Just first 2) Q524: The personnel, bases, and activities that support the Marine Corps’ operating forces comprise the Marine Corps ______________.

A: Supporting Establishment Q525: Marine Air-Ground Task Forces are capable of being deployed to areas with no preexisting infrastructure (roads, electrical power, etc.).

A: True Q526: There are ______________ types of Marine Air Ground Task Forces.

A: Four Q527: Marines are prepared to deploy into ______________ environments. Select all that apply.

A: Austere Q528: The Marine Corps is organized into ______________ broad components.

A: Four Q529: Which forces comprise the Marine Corps’ combatant command-level service components? Select all that apply.

A: MARFORCOM A: MARFORPAC Q530: The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to ______________.

A: SECNAV Q531: The largest Marine Air-Ground Task Force is called a ______________, which can contain as many 100,000 Marines.

A: Marine Expeditionary Force

Primary Professional Military Education Q532: Marines fight as an integrated air-ground-logistics task force under a single commander called a ______________ Commander.

A: NOT(MARAG) Q533: Marines seek to avoid attrition by employing ______________ warfare against an adversary’s critical vulnerabilities.

A: maneuver Q534: The “Three Block War” concept means that Marines must be able to ______________.

Select all that apply.

A: Wage Convent…, perform stability…, engage in human…

Q535: Approximately how many Marines are 25-years old or younger?

A: ¾ Q536: Which of the items listed below are elements of a Marine Air-Ground Task force?

Select all that apply.

A: NOT(Ground,Aviation)

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.16 1

United States Coast Guard

The Coast Guard offers which of the following specific national defense activities to a combatant commander?

A: Maritime intercept operations A: Port operations 2 Coast Guard Sector Commanders maintain operation centers to facilitate command and control functions at the _________ level.

A: Tactical 3 Coast Guard ______________ are capable of operating from Navy platforms during counterdrug and maritime interdiction operations in compliant boarding environments.

A: Tactical Law Enforcement Teams Q537: Which of the following are part of the Coast Guard’s strategic trident of forces?

A: Maritime patrol and interdiction forces A: Deployable specialized forces A: Multi-mission shore-based forces Q538: The Coast Guard divides its Area Commands into ______________ for regional focus.

A: Districts Q539: The Coast Guard is prohibited by law (Titles 10 and 14) from performing military and law enforcement services simultaneously.

A: False Q540: When it was created, the Coast Guard was envisioned to “…be a military service and a branch of the Armed Forces of the United States at all times.”

A: True Q541: The Coast Guard’s headquarters is located in ______________.

A: Washington DC Q542: The objective of the _________ is to prevent and reduce the risk of maritime mishaps.

A: Marine Safety Q543: The senior active duty Coast Guard commander’s title is ____________ A: Commandant Q544: Only the Secretary of Defense can initiate planning directly with the Secretary of Homeland Security for the tasking of Coast Guard forces.

A: False Q545: The Coast Guard’s mission is to protect the public ______________.

A: In the Nation’s ports A: On the Nations waterways A: Along the Nation’s coasts Q546: The modern Coast Guard was created in ______________ and celebrates its anniversary on August 4th A: 1915 Q547: Which of the following are Coast Guard Area Commands?

A: Atlantic Area A: Pacific Area Q548: The Coast Guard’s ______________ conducts military and domestic environmental response operations and serves as advisors to combatant commanders.

A: National Strike Force Q549: A Coast Guard Port Security Unit (PSU) is capable of deploying via airlift within ______________ hours of notification.

A: 96 Q550: The Coast Guard’s legislative mandate under Title 14 of the U.S. Code is to enforce–or to assist in the enforcement of–applicable state and local laws on, under, and over the high seas.

A: False Q551: The Coast Guard’s eleven specific mission programs are grouped into which of the following categories?

A: Non-DHS Missions A: DHS Mission

Primary Professional Military Education

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.17 1

Special Operation Forces

A geographic combatant commander exercises control over all assigned special operations forces through a ______________.

A: Sub-unified theater special operations command Q552: USSOCOM’s origins can be traced to the aftermath of Operation ______________.

A: EAGLE CLAW Q553: USSOCOM is comprised principally of service members from the ______________.

A: ALL Q554: The Naval Special Warfare Command is located at ______________.

A: Naval Amphibious Base Coronado Q555: ______________ is charged with the responsibility of studying special operations requirements and techniques to ensure interoperability and equipment standardization among special operations forces.

A: JSOC Q556: One of the four SOF truths is, “______________."

A: Humans are more important than hardware Q557: The Army’s premier forced entry unit is the ______________.

A: 75th Ranger Regiment Q558: USSOCOM’s responsibilities are ______________ in nature.

A: Global Q559: Which special operations aviation asset is used for both observation, and escort and attack missions?

A: OH-6 Q560: USSOCOM is a Geographic Combatant Command (GCC).

A: False Q561: ______________ is the only sub-unified command under USSOCOM A: JSOC Q562: The Army component of USSOCOM is located at ______________.

A: Fort Bragg Q563: There are ______________ active SEAL teams.

A: Eight Q564: The Navy’s ______________ operate and maintain rigid-hull inflatable boats and special operations craft.

A: Special Boat Teams Q565: ______________ are some of the missions performed by USSOCOM’s Special Tactics Group. Select all that apply.

A: Combat rescue A: Combat weathermen A: Personnel recovery Q566: Extensive operational testing in mountainous and other harsh terrain has resulted in the CV-22 Osprey tilt-rotor aircraft being determined unfit for use by special operations forces.

A: False Q567: USSOCOM is located at ______________.

A: MacDill Air Force Base, Florida Q568: In traditional warfare, relatively small levels of resources are required to find the enemy, while large amounts of resources are required to achieve a decisive victory.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education Range of Military operations 4.1.18 1

Homeland Security Homeland Defense

Which command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission?

A: Northern Command (NORTHCOM) 2 Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called ___________________ and have been formally raised to an equal status with major combat operations.

A: Nation Building 3 The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.

A: True 4 Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?

A: NOT(Land) 5 The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to guide, organize, and unify our Nation’s homeland security efforts.

A: True 6 The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities.

A: U.S. Constitution 7 Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as “NEO”.

A: False 8 A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.

A: True 9 In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?

A: Local police and fire departments 10 Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the “National Strategy for Homeland Security”?

A: Maritime Interception.

11 What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?

A: Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 12 Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.

A: True Q569: National Security can be considered a subset of Homeland Security.

A: False Q570: The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called ______________?

A: The National Strategy for Maritime Security Q571: The responsibility for homeland security lies strictly with the Federal government.

A: False Q572: Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?

A: Force Protection Q573: What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States?

A: Unified Command Plan Q574: Which of the following will the military do in pursuit of its counterterrorism strategic framework?

A: All Are Correct

Primary Professional Military Education Q575: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.

A: True Q576: Which of the following is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?

A: Prevent and Disrupt Q577: The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by ______________.

A: Blending public and private maritime security measures Q578: Terrorist organizations are characterized by ______________.

A: NOT(All) Q579: Which act of legislation strictly limits U.S. Armed Forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?

A: Goldwater-Nichols DOD Reorganization Act of 1986 Q580: Which act of legislation strictly limits U.s. Armed Forces in volvement in law enforcement activities in the United States.

A: Constitution Q581: Which of these is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?

A: All Q582: Which of the documents below established USNORTHCOM as the combatant command assigned to defend the United States?

A: Unified command Plan

Primary Professional Military Education 4.1.19 1

Irregular Warfare

Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following?

A: The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area Q583: Our national counterterrorism strategy included which of the following: A: Shift focus away from ungoverned spaces+???

2 Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.

A: measures taken to preempt terrorism Q584: Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q585: Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s): A: All of the answers are correct.

Q586: History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________.

A: isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group Q587: Terrorism ___________________.

A: became a more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001 Q588: Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________.

A: All answers Q589: securing ventilation to enclosed spaces A: All of the answers are correct.

Q590: Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)?

A: NOT(sarin) Q591: Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q592: By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .

A: a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy Q593: The effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction ___________________.

A: demand that troops devote resources preparing for their potential use Q594: In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that ___________________.

A: promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism Q595: The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by ___________________.

A: destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups Q596: Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations?

A: Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses.

Q597: Enhanced force protection ___________________.

A: can cause frustration for affected personnel if left in place for extended periods Q598: Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations?

A: They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes.

Q599: The “4D Strategy” to combat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of terms?

A: Defeat, Deny, Diminish and Defend.

Q600: The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q601: Common actions to address an insurgency would include which of the following?

A: Social, political or economic reforms.Civic action or amnesty programs.

Primary Professional Military Education Q602: Military guerillas tend to prefer which of the following?

A: Modest engagements followed by withdrawal

Primary Professional Military Education

5

How the Navy Plans Its Operations (Block 5) Regional and Cultural Awareness 5.1.1

1

Political Stuctures

Neo-realist scholars, such as John Mearsheimer, argue that ______________.

A: NOT(ALL) Q603: Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness required by the democratic format.

A: True Q604: A bi-polar international system is more conducive to peace than a multi-polar system.

A: NOT(False,False) Q605: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.

A: True Q606: In a Uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system.

A: True Q607: In a multi-polar international system ______________.

A: There is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international system A: The capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system Q608: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure.

A: True Q609: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracy’s foreign policy toward other democracies.

A: False Q610: Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.

A: multi-polar Q611: During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part defined by ______________.

A: aligned with either of the two superpowers, shifting alliances in order to realize economic gain A: aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with A: made impotent, what was dictated to them by the superpowers Q612: Joanne Gowa argues that ______________.

A: prior to 1914, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another as they were with non-democratic states A: prior to World War I, democracies were less likely to align with other democracies than with non-democratic states Q613: During the Cold War, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.

A: bi-polar Q614: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn into office.

A: False Q615: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education Q616: According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q617: The international system of state-actors is ______________ by definition because each state-actor is sovereign and can make its own decisions.

A: Anarchic Q618: The international system is generally defined by functions of differentiated units.

A: False, because there is an unequal distribution of power which allows one nation to influence others.

False, because the international system is a hierarchic system composed of like units (sovereign states).

A: False, because the international system is an anarchic system composed of like units (sovereign units).

Q619: Which statement is not used to support the theory that a world populated by democracies would be a peaceful world?

A: Peaceful relations between democracies act as a moral foundation for international relations.

Democratic economies are capable of rapidly reducing interrelated societal problems.

Democratic regimes seem to find alternative methods to war when resolving disputes among each other.

Q620: The fact that the world’s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.

A: Not true under all circumstances Q621: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that its member states believe there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education Geopolitical Culture 5.1.2 1

Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior

Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and in…

A: True Q622: Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political behavior _______________.

A: only after the examination of structural and institutional causal factors has been exhausted Q623: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality.

A: True Q624: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.

A: False Q625: Political culture _______________.

A: Represents a disposition in favor of one range of alternatives while giving another range of alternatives little or no attention.

Q626: Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because: A: All of the answers are correct.

Q627: By understanding a collectivity’s political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person belonging to that collectivity.

A: False Q628: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful.

A: True Q629: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types.

A: True Q630: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader.

A: True Q631: If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that ___________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q632: The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.

A: is shaped by the totality of all life’s influences on multiple generations Q633: Select True or False: In selecting individuals best suited to fill certain social roles, personality and culture may become blended as political culture biases.

A: True Q634: According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impact on political action.

A: Whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state Q635: Because a culture is a collective attribute of society, knowledge of that society’s political culture will allow one to predict the response of an individual from that society to a given situation quite accurately.

A: False Q636: The danger of using political culture to explain all political actions __________.

A: is that it ignores structural and institutional causes Q637: Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.

A: None of the answers are correct.

Primary Professional Military Education Q638: Elkins and Simeon’s position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.

A: True Q639: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.3 1

Democracy and Nationalism

The political system which aims to protect a nation’s distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of ______________.

A: Nationalism Q640: During the early stages of democratization, ______________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the society.

A: National elites Q641: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.

A: True Q642: As in ______________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could promote international conflict.

A: Argentina Q643: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.

A: False Q644: In the beginning of the democratization process, in order to secure political and economic interests, nationalism is the right tool in the hands of the ______________.

A: National elites Q645: At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in ______________.

A: Chechnya Q646: The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to ______________.

A: Reach the point when democracy and democratic values are ingrained in the political culture of society.

Q647: In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because ______________.

A: Of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influence of the Soviet Union Q648: According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.

A: Civic Nationalism Q649: Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q650: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.

A: True Q651: After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct Q652: The main reason for nationalistic violence is ______________.

A: Age old rivalries among people with different ethnic and cultural backgrounds Q653: What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts?

A: Inclusion Q654: The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, except ______________.

A: Ethno nationalism Q655: After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on European soil, since the end of WW II, took place in the former ______________.

A: Yugoslavia Q656: In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________.

A: Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutionalized along ethnic lines Q657: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Q658: Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires.

A: True Q659: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires.

A: True Q660: After World War II, the Emperor of Japan escaped prosecution and remained on the throne as a constitutional monarch ________________.

A: All are correct Q661: A political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history, and traditions expresses the doctrine of ______________.

A: Nationalism

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.4

The Future of Democracy and Democratization

1

According to ______________ “The liberal democracy will triumph in the future”.

A: None of the answers are correct.

Q662: George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing ______________.

A: A Balanced Perspective Q663: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy’s future, the twenty first century may be the century of “collectivism”.

A: False Q664: According to the Optimistic Scenario, the __________ will abandon its military dictatorships and progress toward democracy as a means of gaining acceptance into the international community.

A: South Q665: As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and importance.

A: False Q666: ______________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.

A: Samuel Huntington Q667: The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, except that ______________.

A: Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community Q668: Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except ______________.

A: Low debt Q669: Benito Mussolini’s prediction about the future Fascist Century ______________.

A: May come to pass in this century Q670: The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is ______________.

A: Islam Q671: To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level, all efforts in the future should be focused on?

A: Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor Q672: Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?

A: Over eighty Q673: Francis Fukuyama believes that ______________.

A: The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure future Q674: Which of the following contradict Fukuyama's contention that the world is marching steadily toward liberal democracy? Select all that apply.

A: NOT(All)

Primary Professional Military Education Regional 5.1.5

Western Hemisphere

Western Hemisphere 1

For national security purposes, the area known as Latin America encompasses the ______________ A: Western Hemisphere south of the Unites States, including islands of the Caribbean.

2 The U.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the ______________.

A: Monroe Doctrine Q675: Which of the following Latin American cities is smaller than New York City?

A: None are correct Q676: When did the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?

A: Early 1900’s Q677: ______________ have NOT significantly influenced the ethnic makeup of Latin A: Chinese 3 ______________ has/have impacted the nations of Latin America.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q678: By 1825, all of Spain’s Latin American colonies had gained their independence except ______________and ______________.

A: Puerto Rico; Cuba Q679: When did the U.S. issue the Monroe Doctrine?

A: Early 1800’s Q680: Canada’s history is similar to the United States and includes: Select all that apply.

A: British seized control in 1763 Q681: The population in Canada is now approximately ______________.

A: 32 million Q682: ______________ conducted the only successful slave rebellion in history in 180 A: Haiti Q683: ______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.

A: Australia Q684: While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is ______________ to world commerce.

A: vital Q685: What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America?

A: Spanish and Portuguese Q686: Which country has the most members in its lower house of legislature?

A: Mexico A: Canada Q687: According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), ______________ of heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin America.

A: 82% Q688: The U.S. is a major trade partner of Latin American countries.

A: True Q689: The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is the predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America.

A: Roman Catholic Q690: Latin America is ______________.

A: one and one half times the size of the U.S. Q691: Colombia alone produces ______________ of the world’s cocaine supply.

A: 75% Q692: The Panama Canal is ______________.

A: a critical economic path for commerce between the east and west coasts of the U.S.

Primary Professional Military Education Q693: The U.S. used the Monroe Doctrine for what purpose?

A: To legitimize U.S. military interventions in Mexico, Central America, and the Caribbean Q694: The longest river system in North America is the ______________.

A: Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio Q695: Latin American culture has NOT been significantly influenced by ______________.

A: China Q696: ______________ was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th and 16th centuries.

A: The Monroe Doctrine Q697: The ______________, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world.

A: Amazon River Basin Q698: ______________ was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela.

A: Spain Q699: ______________ is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru.

A: The U.S. Q700: The ______________ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt is credited with most of the nations in Latin America giving unified support to the allies during World War II. A: Good Neighbor Policy Q701: Latin America has been home to which of the following indigenous peoples and civilizations? Select all that apply.

A: All Q702: The ______________ links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.

A: Panama Canal Q703: What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America?

A: Spanish and French A: Portuguese and English A: Spanish and Portuguese Q704: ______________ was the primary focus of U.S. policy in Latin America during the Cold War. A: Countering the Soviet Union and its allies Q705: Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved?

A: Spanish-American War (1898) Q706: Which of the following statements about U.S. population is/are true? Select all that apply.

A: ?

Primary Professional Military Education Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20

In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ______________.

A: Chile Since its independence, Argentina has been a major rival of ______________.

A: Chile In 1980, Argentina and Brazil put aside their rivalries in ______________.

A: the nuclear and ballistic missile spheres Geopolitics is ______________.

A: the study of the relationship between geography and power politics In 1984, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation?

A: Beagle Channel islands In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.

A: False Historically, one of the biggest rivalries in Latin America has been between Brazil and ______________.

A: Argentina In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ______________.

A: the EU The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between ______________.

A: Argentina and Brazil The Southern Cone of Latin America includes the following countries, except ______________.

A: Columbia The Common Market of the South was founded by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and ______________.

A: Uruguay The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and ______________.

A: Chile Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.

A: True The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are ______________.

A: Chile and Bolivia Which of the statements are true with regards to the dispute between Ecuador and Peru in the mid-1990s?

A: The efforts of Argentina and Chile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being signed between Ecuador and Peru.

The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.

A: False The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.

A: Democracies do not wage wars against other democracies Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except ______________.

A: Venezuela and Peru What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies?

A: Democratic Peace In 2004, UN peacekeeping efforts in Haiti ______________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: were led by Brazilian military forces

Primary Professional Military Education Latin American Militaries 1

Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?

A: Brazil Q707: Which of the following, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an extended period of time?

A: No one single country Q708: Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q709: Some view ______________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.

A: Costa Rica Q710: The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ______________.

A: Colombia Q711: According to most observers, South America has been ______________ since at least the mid-1990’s.

A: a Zone of Peace Q712: What region of the world has been considered a “Zone of Peace”?

A: South America Q713: The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________.

A: defense Q714: Which of the following statements is true?

A: Argentina is able to participate in many United Nations’ peacekeeping missions due to its large military budget.

A: Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify its seeking a permanent seat on the UN Security Council Q715: The Latin American militaries generally face a crisis over their role and missions due to ______________.

A: lack of external threats Q716: Latin American militaries __________.

A: All are Correct Q717: In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States and Europe.

A: high technology jet fighters Q718: The United States ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q719: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.

A: False Q720: The United States is especially involved in ______________, assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents.

A: Colombia Q721: The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are ______________.

A: Argentina and Uruguay Q722: Which of the following statements is true?

A: The military is widely respected in Chile.

Q723: Which of the following roles is not generally associated with militaries in Latin America?

A: Warfighter Q724: In the last 15 years, which of the following countries in South America had the most dramatic reduction in military expenditures?

A: NOT(Columbia)

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.6

Eurasia

Eurasia Q725: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: The decreasing capabilities of Russia’s military have resulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council in favor of China.

A: Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers.

Q726: Which of the following statements is true?

A: The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.

A: The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet economy.

A: The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small portion located in Europe.

A: Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17th century.

A: Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced those two countries to sue for peace and strengthened the Russian Tsar’s position as ruler of his country.

A: The Russo-Japanese War (1904–1905) was the first A: Finland fought much of World War II on the side of Germany.

A: In a parliamentary democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the national legislature.

Q727: ______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russia during the Russian Civil War and were able to maintain their independence until the early years of World War II. A: Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania Q728: At its peak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________.

A: All of modern Turkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe Q729: Mustafa Kemal (Atatürk) ______________.

A: established a democratic, secular form of government that continues to form the political foundation of modern Turkey Q730: Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilization.

A: the various Greek city-states that began to rise in the 9th century BC Q731: Yugoslavia ______________.

A: came into existence in the years between the two World Wars Q732: Russia’s natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with the West.

A: True Q733: Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II ______________.

A: included over 20 million deaths Q734: Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO? A: Switzerland Q735: One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from ______________.

A: north Africa Q736: During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait.

A: False Q737: During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?

A: Great Britain, Russia, and Bulgaria Q738: Russia is the world’s second largest oil exporter.

A: True Q739: The European Union ______________.

A: is the largest economy in the world Q740: The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: has been credited with the establishment of the modern nation-state system Q741: When did the creation of a single German state occur?

A: After the Napoleonic Wars Q742: The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the A: Byzantine Empire Q743: Dependence on Russia’s vast natural resources have influenced its former allies and satellites to avoid closer ties to the West.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education European Union 1

______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.

A: Eurocorps Q744: European leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and economies of ______________ needed closer alignment.

A: France and Germany Q745: In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________.

A: economic strength and geopolitical ambitions Q746: A precursor to the formation of the European Union (EU) was the establishment of the ______________.

A: European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) Q747: The European Union (EU) faces internal challenges due to ______________.

A: Great differences in per capita income Q748: The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________.

A: Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France) Q749: The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________.

A: an economic agreement among six nations Q750: High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q751: The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations, including: A: All of the answers are correct.

Q752: The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of ______________ in 199 A: Amsterdam Q753: The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q754: The European Union (EU) is a construct very similar to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA).

A: False Q755: The Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to ______________.

A: Amend existing treaties Q756: Today’s European Union (EU) is a supranational organization consisting of ______________ countries.

A: NOT 32 Q757: The Treaty of ______________ laid the foundation for further forms of cooperation in foreign and defense policy among European nations, including a common currency.

A: NOT(Paris) Q758: The EU’s Court of Justice meets in _________.

A: Luxembourg

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.7

Africa

Africa 1

Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fault lines include the following, EXCEPT: A: Desert vs. tropical economies Q759: Between 1956 and 2001: A: There were over 185 coups d’etat throughout Africa.

Q760: In general, African countries ______________.

A: have two or more official languages—one indigenous and the other Arabic or European Q761: The size of Africa is approximately ______________.

A: three times the size of the United States Q762: Indigenous African peoples do NOT include the ______________.

A: Ottomans Q763: Which is the best description regarding the East Africa Region?

A: Rwanda has just emerged from a time of widespread ethnic violence.

Q764: Muslim domination of North Africa arose from: A: Arab immigration along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empires Q765: Which statement is NOT true regarding the Horn of Africa?

A: Christian dominance prevents spread of Islamic extremism despite unstable, corrupt governments.

A: Islamic extremists see the area as a safe haven.

Q766: Which of the following was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African governments following colonial rule?

A: Local workers did not have sufficient technical expertise to extract raw materials.

Q767: The following are NOT challenges affecting African governments: A: Scarcity of natural resources and available labor pool Q768: The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focused on: A: Nigerian oil Q769: Africa comprises ______________.

A: 46 continental nations and 7 island nations Q770: The Central African Region is important to U.S. national interests, because: A: It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power.

Q771: Most of today’s African nations became independent ______________.

A: during the 1950’s and 1960’s Q772: Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa?

A: Islamic fundamentalism is concentrated in this region of Africa, making it the primary source of worldwide jihad.

Q773: The following climates can be found in Africa: A: Desert, rain forest, savanna, and subarctic Q774: Which is NOT true regarding Somalia?

A: The United States withdrew troops from Somalia after Operation UNITED SHIELD successfully captured warlord Mohamed Siad Barre.

Q775: An estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition.

A: one-third Q776: Which was not a general problem facing African nations upon gaining independence from European colonial rule?

A: Lack of Natural resources.

Q777: The U.S. population is approximately 320 million; Africa's population is approximately ______________ by 2020.

A: NOT 152 Q778: In the Horn of Africa region, the ______________.

A: Sudanese governments fight against rebel groups has spilled over into Chad and the Central African Republic, displacing an estimated six million people.

Q779: Which of the following is a true statement about the languages spoken in Africa?

Primary Professional Military Education A: NOT(African)

Primary Professional Military Education Religions of Africa 1

Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one god rules over them all.

A: True 2 ______________ has its roots in Africa, as demonstrated by Moses’ flight from Egypt.

A: Judaism 3 ______________ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower Muslim communities.

A: Jihad 4 A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of governance within an African country.

A: False 5 Which continent has links to some of the world’s earliest religions?

A: Africa 6 ______________ is often used as a tool of mobilization to achieve political or military ends.

A: Religion 7 Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict.

A: False 8 In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of social mobilization.

A: religion 9 The majority of African Muslims consider themselves ______________.

A: Sunni 10 Which continent has links to some of the world’s earliest religions?

A: Africa 11 In Africa, ______________ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted Christians.

A: Islam 12 Shi’a Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU).

A: False 13 The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam.

A: Sunni 14 One of the most significant impacts of Christianity of Africans was improvements to ______________.

A: health and education A: infrastructure 15 ______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable wit…

A: Religion 16 ______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one god.

A: Animism 17 It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain the natural world.

A: False 18 Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa.

A: False 19 It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to exercise social control.

A: True Q780: ______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worship of more than one god.

A: Animism Q781: Islam arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries.

A: 3rd and 4th

Primary Professional Military Education African Security 1

Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.

A: 1960’s Q782: Addressing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sources of conflict in Africa.

A: pre-conflict circumstances Q783: human trafficking concerns A: organized crime Q784: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest villages in Africa.

A: True Q785: The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire African continent by depriving its nations of legitimate revenue.

A: child labor Q786: ______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.

A: Multiparty democracy Q787: ______________ is one of the root causes of armed conflict in Africa.

A: Environmental degradation Q788: The motive for most African conflicts is purely military.

A: False Q789: ______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability operations.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q790: ______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q791: Africa’s economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline.

A: population growth Q792: The largest number of African deaths each year is caused by ______________.

A: disease and famine Q793: The elites in Africa, that assumed power when European colonial nations departed, greatly improved the process of the peaceful transfer of power between successive governments.

A: False Q794: Coordination of ______________ are essential for the continued development of African nations.

A: agriculture, health, and food delivery systems Q795: Many of the security issues in Africa can be traced to ______________.

A: the challenges many Africans face in supporting themselves Q796: Africa has made the most of its vast hydroelectric power potential.

A: False Q797: Risks to Africa’s internal security could be reduced through ______________.

A: the availability of regular and adequate employment Q798: ______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute greatly to instability on the continent.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q799: Unpopular governments in Africa have found their positions strengthened by the availability of mass communication.

A: False Q800: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the suspension of civil rights has brought peace and stability to wide areas of Africa.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.8

Asia Pacific

Asia Pacific Overview 1

______________ has the largest economy in terms of gross domestic product (GDP) in Asia Pacific.

A: Japan 2 America’s number two trading partner is ______________.

A: China 3 The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall population.

A: twice 4 Approximately 90 percent of the world’s Hindus live in ______________.

A: India and Nepal 5 The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earth’s surface.

A: one-half 6 ______________ is the official language of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

A: English 7 In which country is Christianity the majority religion?

A: Philippines 8 In many Asian countries, the majority of the population ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

9 The combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of the world’s people.

A: 40 10 The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the ______________.

A: Strait of Malacca 11 ______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific.

A: Chinese 12 Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the world’s population.

A: 60 13 The largest Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________.

A: Indonesia 14 Which of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons?

A: Japan 15 The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones.

A: 16 16 Which of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina?

A: Cambodia A: Laos A: Thailand 17 Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?

A: Burma Q801: The power of monarchs throughout the Asia-Pacific region is relatively constant.

A: False Q802: Much of modern Asia-Pacific resulted from __________. Select all that apply.

A: NOT(19th, The decolonization, the economic)(decolonization) Q803: Where are Asia-Pacific's highest population densities located?

A: NOT(in Cities) Q804: __________ occupy more land in Asia than any other physical feature.

A: NOT(rain forest)

Primary Professional Military Education Partition of the Indian Subcontinent 1

Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ______________.

A: Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups.

2 Pakistan controlled Kashmir is known as: A: Azad Kashmir Q805: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus, and Sikhs.

A: False Q806: The Northwestern Frontier Province is an unsettled boundary dispute between ______________.

A: Pakistan and Afghanistan Q807: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.

A: False Q808: The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to ______________.

A: Observe Q809: In order to stop the violence among Muslims, Hindus, and Sikhs in British India ______________.

A: The Indian nationalist leadership accepted Muslims demand for partition.

Q810: Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.

A: False Q811: Under the partition plan, colonial India’s military assets ______________.

A: were to be divided between India and Pakistan in a 60:40 ratio Q812: Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.

A: False Q813: Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own?

A: Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full rights.

Q814: The Mohair’s were ______________.

A: The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders Q815: ______________ presided over the partitioning of British India which ended colonial rule in India.

A: British Lord Mountbatten Q816: Kashmir is a mountainous region known for it’s ______________.

A: Climate, beauty, and natural environment Q817: ______________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims.

A: A colation of influential Sihk and Hindu leaders A: The Muslim League A: Mohandas Gandhi Q818: The partition of South Asia was driven by ______________.

A: South Asian Sihks’ fear of being underrepresented A: South Asian Muslims’ fear of being underrepresented A: British desire to maintain influence in the region Q819: The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of ______________.

A: The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities Q820: Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.

A: Shia and Sunni Muslims Q821: Today, as a result of the partition of British India, there are three sovereign countries ______________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: Pakistan, Bangladesh and India Q822: The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ______________ issues.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q823: The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as “Direct Action day,” were provoked by ______________.

A: Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations Q824: Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.

A: Shia and Sunni Muslims Q825: The Northwestern Frontier Province is an unsettled boundary dispute between ______________.

A: Pakistan and Afghanistan Q826: The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July 1972) between Pakistan and India ______________.

A: All Q827: The partition of British India resulted in the creation of three sovereign countries: Pakistan, India, and ______________.

A: NOT(Nepal)

Primary Professional Military Education China: Alone and Joining the World 1

In the 1960’s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.

A: turned into outright hostility Q828: The Sino-Soviet split ______________.

A: grew out of diverging strategic interests over Krushchev’s policy of "peaceful coexistence" with the West Q829: Deng Xiaoping’s reforms ______________.

A: legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade Q830: The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________.

A: reassert Mao’s power and his supreme authority in the country Q831: China adopted a defense posture of the “people’s war” in the 1960’s because ______________.

A: it’s huge population and territory were its best assets for resisting foreign attack at the time Q832: The primary beneficiary of the Cultural Revolution ______________.

A: was the People’s Liberation Army Q833: The struggle for power among the leadership of the PRC in the early 1970’s was between ______________.

A: moderate leaders and Cultural Revolution radicals within the CCP Q834: President Nixon went to China because ______________.

A: he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam Q835: China’s break from the USSR meant that ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q836: By the end of the 1960’s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.

A: False Q837: In the 1960’s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below mentioned factors, except __.

A: China’s technological superiority Q838: The Tiananmen demonstrations ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q839: Deng Xiaoping’s reforms stressed ______________.

A: the expending the role of international trade and investment in China’s development Q840: In the 1950 and 60’s, the U.S. policy of “containing” China included ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q841: China’s transformation into an emerging world power was the result of ______________.

A: Deng Xiaoping’s reform policies A: Mao’s successfully launched Cultural Revolution in 1966 Q842: Under the leadership of Deng Xiaoping, China normalized relations with ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q843: At the end of the 1950’s and in the beginning of 1960’s, the hallmark of Chinese policies was ______________.

A: to promote self-reliance Q844: In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________.

A: Japan Q845: The main reason for serious disagreements between Moscow and Beijing in the early 1960’s was ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q846: By the end of the 1960’s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.

A: False Q847: Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960’s ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q848: Why is China increasingly important today?

A: China’s economic, political, and military power is rising Q849: In the 1960’s, China pursued policies of “self-reliance” because ______________.

A: in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice

Primary Professional Military Education Q850: The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after the failure of ________. policy.

A: the Great Leap Forward Q851: Which of the following caused serious disagreement between Moscow and Beijing in the early 1960’s?

A: NOT(All)

Primary Professional Military Education China Security Issues 1

Universal indicators of human development are ______________. Select all that apply.

A: A life expectancy A: Literacy A: Standard of living 1 Many economists attribute China’s high domestic savings investment levels to the vitreous cycle of growth.

A: TRUE Q852: The Chinese government has recognized in recent years, spectacular economic growth and rapid modernization guarantees human development.

A: FALSE Q853: Since 1993, China has embarked on a reform process of fiscal decentralization that has continued to grow to the present day.

A: True Q854: Deng Xiaoping’s model of national development required ______________.

A: A long, experimental course reform Q855: The urban-rural income and development gap ______________.

A: NOT(has not changed,decreasing) Q856: This region of China constitutes less than one-third of the total Chinese landmass, but has the richest soils, three major river systems, the best natural transport routes, and great ease of access to the Pacific Ocean.

A: Western-coastal China Q857: The State maintains control over some sectors of the economy, but allows freemarket principles to regulate other sectors of the economy to help build socialism.”

A: Building China’s “socialist market economy” Q858: High levels of national saving and investment are dependent on the “virtuous cycle of growth.”

A: True Q859: China’s fiscal decentralization policies have helped to close the income gap between different regions and provinces of China.

A: False Q860: The Chinese government has recognized in recent years, spectacular economic growth and rapid modernization guarantees human development.

A: False Q861: Which region of China is arid and includes high plateaus, mountain ranges, and desert basins with rich mineral and energy resources.

A: Western China Q862: Giving individual rural households the freedom to lease farm-land and generate household income by selling part of their produce on the open market was the purpose of the establishment of ______________.

A: “the household responsibility system” Q863: Which of the following defines a group of workers who relocate to the city often to generate additional income to support their families in rural areas?

A: The floating population Q864: Foreign direct investment (FDI) accounts for nearly ______________.

A: 20% of all industrial output and 50% of all exports Q865: State support and basic social services is given to ______________.

A: Only to those with local household registration Q866: Throughout the 1980’s and early 1990’s, “the household responsibility system” ______________. Select all that apply.

A: All 3 of them Q867: The first Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China were created in the southeastern coastal cities of ______________. Select all that apply.

A: NOT(Xiamen) Q868: Households resist land-use buyouts because ______________. Select all that apply.

A: NOT(many,perceptions,lack)

Primary Professional Military Education Q869: In recent years, the Chinese government has recognized that spectacular economic growth and rapid modernization guarantees human development.

A: False Q870: The critical functions of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China’s economic development strategy are to ______________. Select all that apply.

A: NOT(attract,develp,export)(bring,attract,develop) Q871: In Deng Xiaoping’s view, the meaning of reform was the ______________. Select all that apply A: All

Primary Professional Military Education China Environment and Development 1

China’s greatest natural resource problem is ______________.

A: Water Q872: The first Environmental Protection Law, passed in 1979, directed the Environmental Protection Agency to ______________.

A: produce environmental impact statements for proposed heavy industry and infrastructural projects Q873: China's 1979 Environmental Protection Law promoted ______________. Select all that apply.

A: Q874: In 2005 the Ministry of Water Resources classified over half of the total length of China’s ______________ major river systems as unfit for any type of direct human contact.

A: Seven Q875: Which campaign primarily focused on ideological and political change?

A: “Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution” Q876: Due to widespread overexploitation and uncoordinated management of land, water, and natural resources during the “Great Leap Forward” approximately 34 to 40 million Chinese people died of ______________.

A: Starvation Q877: By 2007, the World Bank reported that over 60,000 premature deaths per year in China could be attributed to _____________.

A: 750,000, Poor water Quality Q878: What pollution problem in China causes over four billion dollars in crop damage per year?

A: Acid rain Q879: What campaign sought to rebuild a nation devastated by years of war, foreign occupation, civil war, and human displacement?

A: The 11th Five-Year Plan Q880: China’s 11th Five-Year Plan put priority on ______________ and ______________. Select all that apply.

A: economic growth, development Q881: In 1994, China adopted _____________ the United Nations’ guidelines for achieving sustainable economic development.

A: “Agenda 21” Q882: Since 1984, when the ______________ was passed, a series of laws and administrative decrees have expanded rights to include a comprehensive array of economic, cultural, social, educational, and linguistic rights and freedoms.

A: Regional Ethnic Autonomy Law (REAL) Q883: Members of officially recognized ethnic minorities are granted exemptions from the national One-Child Family Policy.

A: True Q884: In 1992, China attended the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro, ratifying international conventions on ______________.

Select all that apply.

A: Sustainable Development, biological diversity, climate change Q885: China’s standards for the control of vehicle emissions have completely counteracted the negative effects on its air quality.

A: False Q886: The new Environmental Protection Law, passed in 1989, promoted ______________ and ______________. Select all that apply.

A: Urban recycling programs, basic pollution control measures for industry and commerce Q887: China relies on coal for ______________ percent of its basic energy needs.

A: 70 Q888: Although economic growth remains a high priority for the Chinese government, there is also a fear that this growth will result in ______________.

A: All Answers

Primary Professional Military Education Q889: More than half of China’s cities suffer from chronic ______________.

A: Water Shortage Q890: China is the largest producer of ______________.

A: NOT(rice)

Primary Professional Military Education China Ethnicity/Nationality and Development 1

In October 1958, this group was established and officially recognized of the Chinesespeaking Muslim Hui as an “authentic” nationality minority.

A: Ningxia Hui Autonomous Region Q891: During the nationality classification project, Stalin’s criteria for the identification of authentic minority nationalities resulted in ______________ separate nationalities.

A: 56 Q892: Since 2000, however, the national ______________ has taken control of the development of natural resources and the disposition of land to further national-level goals.

A: Western Development Strategy Q893: What is the largest official minority in China with a population of 16 million people?

A: Zhuang Q894: Approximately 70 percent of China’s ethnic minorities, more than ______________ people, are claimed to enjoy regional autonomy.

A: 75 million Q895: In some areas of Tibet and Inner Mongolia national development policies have resulted in transforming the local cultural environment.

A: True Q896: What national integration factors have weakened autonomy in some of the minority areas?

A: Cultural, Political Q897: The Chinese Communist Party launched a program in the early 1950’s for the sole purpose of ______________.

A: Identifying “authentic” nationality groups for official recognition and a measure of autonomy within china.

Q898: Han Chinese contains approximately 60 percent of the population of ______________.

A: Guangxi, Inner Mongolia, Ningxia Q899: Which of the following nationalities played an important facilitating the Communist consolidation of power and in defeating both the Japanese during World War II and the Chinese Nationalist forces in northern China?

A: Mongol Q900: In Xinjiang, Tibet, and Inner Mongolia, specifically, some minority groups have claimed that current policies for integrating minority regions into the national economy disproportionately favor ______________.

A: Han Chinese Q901: Minority groups less impoverished, less literate, and less educated than when the People's Republic of China was founded.

A: False Q902: The Communists forged critical alliances with minority nationality groups by promising them autonomy and self-government as integral parts of the future Communist-led People's Republic of China (ROC).

A: True Q903: Approximately 85 percent of ethnic ______________ do not speak Chinese.

A: Tibetans Q904: Which of the following statements are true?

A: Dr. Sun Yat-sen overthrew the Qing emperor and established the Republic of China.

5.1.9

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.10

The Arctic

The Arctic 1

Despite the endorsements of several presidents and high ranking military officers, the U.S. has yet to ratify United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

A: True Q905: ______________ made the discovery of a Northwest Passage a priority for early explorers.

A: The possibility of shorter shipping routes between Europe and Asia Q906: The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a/an_______________-specialized agency.

A: EU Q907: _______________currently serve(s) as the overarching legal framework for Arctic governance.

A: United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) Q908: The Arctic's indigenous peoples ______________.

A: have survived and even thrived despite the challenges of living in the Far North Q909: On 6 April 1909, America's Robert Peary and Matthew Henson were the first to ______________.

A: reach the North Pole Q910: Approximately _______________ people live in the Arctic (as defined by the Arctic Human Development Report).

A: 580,000 Q911: As the highest level international forum on the Arctic, the Arctic Council's highest mandate is to settle military matters and to enforce cooperative security initiatives.

A: False Q912: To carry out its Arctic strategy, the U.S. must _______________.

A: build new basing infrastructure Q913: During the 20th century, Arctic exploration was carried out mainly for commercial reasons.

A: False Q914: The Arctic Council is a high-level forum of the eight Arctic nations that was NOT established to _______________.

A: resolve security issues Q915: The effects of climate change have NOT made Arctic waters safe for commercial shipping.

A: True Q916: ______________ appears to be the nation most heavily invested in Arctic research.

A: Russia Q917: The origin of native Americans can be traced to the ______________.

A: peoples who migrated from Siberia Q918: Arctic ______________ is a resource of high strategic value to the United States.

A: Oil Q919: Since 1982, _______________ has served as the principle international agreement that defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans.

A: United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) Q920: Which nation does not possess territory that lies within the geographic definition of the Arctic?

A: Iceland Q921: ______________ is a member of the Arctic Council.

A: ALL Q922: The Arctic's indigenous peoples have long been content to ______________.

A: Live a subsistence lifestyle Q923: The climatic Arctic is the region defined by the line where average temperature for the warmest month of the year does not exceed _______________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: 50 Q924: Until the mid-______________ century, virtually all of the Arctic's population was limited to settlements of indigenous people; today it is only around 10 percent.

A: 20th Q925: Which of the following is NOT a reason the IMO is proposing mandatory measures to reduce risks to Arctic shipping?

A: The increasing likelihood of terrorist infiltration Q926: Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing the Arctic's relative importance to U.S. national interests?

A: Dramatic increase in Russian military infrastructure Q927: The opening of the Northwest and Northeast passages have great economic potential because they ______________.

A: Reduce the distance of shipping routes by thousands of miles

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.11

INDIAN OCEAN

The Indian Ocean 1

As far back as 500 BC, it was not unusual to find ______________ coins mixed with caches of Indian coins.

A: Roman Q928: Which statement is TRUE regarding trade in the Indian Ocean region during the ancient era (3,000 years ago)?

A: It began long before agriculture was established Q929: Both India and China quote noted author ________________ in order to provide historic justification for their policies in the Indian Ocean region.

A: Alfred T. Mahan Q930: The ______________ were the first Europeans to round the Cape of Good Hope and enter into the Indian Ocean.

A: Portuguese Q931: Which is NOT true concerning the United States’ three overarching security interests A: They have been soundly rejected by key strategic partners.

Q932: Which nation was the trading hub in the Indian Ocean during the medieval period?

A: India Q933: The fact that approximately ________________ percent of petroleum from the Middle East moves through the Indian Ocean makes its open access important to all nations.

A: 70 Q934: The Bay of Bengal experiences more cyclones than the Arabian Sea. A: n/a Q935: The ______________ and their East India Company displaced the Portuguese as the dominant power in the Indian Ocean by 1641.

A: Dutch Q936: The Indian Ocean is the ______________ ocean in the world.

A: Third largest Q937: Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Indian Ocean? (Select all that apply.)

A: It is approximately five times the size of the U.S, It is bounded on the south by the Antarctic continent.

Q938: China is strengthening its position in the Indian Ocean region by pursuing a so-called “______________” strategy.

A: String of pearls Q939: Monsoons behave like a ______________.

A: Sea breeze Q940: The Indian Ocean, as a conduit of Middle East petroleum, is critical to China’s energy security because it expects its demand for imported oil to ______________ by 202.

A: Double Q941: Whose knowledge of navigation, maps, and engineering was made available to Europeans after Spain emerged from Muslim rule?

A: n/a Q942: Which Muslim empire attempted to control trade in the Indian Ocean region during the Middle Ages?

A: None of the answers are correct Q943: During the 1700’s and 1800’s, ______________ gained so much power that they took on aspects of sovereignty.

A: N/a Q944: The U.S. has ______________ overarching strategic interest(s) in the Indian Ocean region.

A: Three Q945: The ________________ is the most important factor in generating ocean currents.

A: Sun

Primary Professional Military Education Q946: The ______________ monsoon brings the most rain to India.

A: southwest Q947: The U.S. was able to counter Soviet plans in the Indian Ocean region by ______________.

A: A negotiating a U.S. military presence on Diego Garcia Q948: The principal actors in the Indian Ocean region are ______________. (Select all that apply.)\ A: The United States, India, China Q949: India recognizes ______________ as the dominant sea power in the Indian Ocean region.

A: The United States Q950: The principal role of oceans in human history has been to serve as a ______________.

A: Connector Q951: Over the long term, the most significant threat to U.S. interests in the Indian Ocean region is ______________.

A: Great Power Rivalry Q952: Which statement is NOT true regarding the impact of Christian missionaries in the Indian Ocean region?

A: It created large numbers of converts Q953: India’s policy in the Indian Ocean region is to achieve ______________.

A: Primacy Q954: Which strategic chokepoint does NOT access the Indian Ocean?

A: Straight of Gibraltar Q955: Sailors dreaded the monsoon because of its unpredictable and often destructive winds.

A: False Q956: During China’s Ming Dynasty (1368–1644), Admiral Zheng He conducted ______________ voyages with a fleet that included hundreds of “treasure ships.”

A: 7

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.12

Great Middle East

Greater Middle East Overview 1

Which of the following statements is true?

A: In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the United States.

A: Britain, France, Italy, and Russia divided up the Arab part of the Ottoman Empire after World War I. A: Israel and India are the most stable liberal democracies in the Southwest Asia region.

A: The Soviet Union was a firm supporter of Israel during the Cold War. A: A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from the British.

A: representation in the parliament (legislature) chooses the nation’s leader A: Turkey is considered the most “Westernized” state in its region.

2 Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: Oil wealth spurred significant social reforms in Middle Eastern nations.

A: India and Pakistan have recently shown greater willingness to resolve their differences bilaterally and peacefully.

A: India’s government is founded on religious law.

3 Kashmir ______________.

A: is a continuing source of tension between India and Pakistan 4 The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely Middle Eastern nations.

A: False 5 Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?

A: Mostly Christian 6 When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement?

A: The 1880’s 7 Which of the following are the major groups of Islam?

A: Sunni Islam, Shia Islam 8 Which of the following is NOT a result of the collapse of the Soviet Union?

A: Jewish emigration from the former Soviet Union to Israel slowed to a trickle 9 Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia?

A: Strait of Gibraltar 10 India’s collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States.

A: False 11 Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god?

A: Jews 12 The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.

A: Mesopotamia

Primary Professional Military Education The Arab-Israeli Conflict 1

Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal.

A: False Q957: The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ______________.

A: rejected the partition plan Q958: The borders of modern Israel were finally established in which of the following ways?

A: After being invaded the Israelis established their own borders in battle by pushing back the Armies of five Arab countries Q959: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.

A: False Q960: On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________.

A: Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict Q961: The Zionist underground Army called the Haganah was formed in the late 1930s in ______________.

A: Palestine Q962: In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________.

A: Israeli forces would unilaterally withdraw from four Israeli settlements in Gaza and from a small section of the northern West Bank Q963: Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War...

A: Jordanians Q964: The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948…

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q965: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 199 A: True Q966: The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ______________.

A: Oslo, in 1992 Q967: The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the ______________.

A: Six Day War in 1967 Q968: The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ______________.

A: the United States Q969: Following the Camp David Accords ______________.

A: Israeli withdrew from the Sinai Q970: Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q971: During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ______________.

A: occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank Q972: Reflecting the principle of “Land for Peace,” the Camp David Accords in 1978, provided for ______________.

A: None of the answers are correct.

Q973: What is the Bush administration’s attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank?

A: It acquiesced to construction of the wall Q974: In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem ______________.

A: to become an International Zone Q975: In June 2008, ______________ brokered a six-month ceasefire between Israel and the Palestinian militias.

A: Egypt

Primary Professional Military Education Q976: Israel’s Operation CAST LEAD (launched in December 2008) against Hamas resulted in a clear strategic victory and prevented both the terrorist organization's rocket attacks and rearming.

A: False Q977: In 2006, ______________, an internationally recognized terrorist organization, won the Palestinian parliamentary elections in the Gaza region and significantly complicated the peace process.

A: Hamas

Primary Professional Military Education U.S. Security, Strategy, and Policy 1

What was Operation EARNEST WILL? A: The U.S. escorting Kuwait’s oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 198 Q978: The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was ______________.

A: Great Britain Q979: The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________.

A: the importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest with the Soviet Union Q980: In 1933, Standard Oil of California received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia, as ______________.

A: Ibn Saud mistrusted Britain and therefore, began to cultivate a relationship with the United States Q981: During the 1990’s ______________, became the United States Navy’s busiest port of call in the world outside the continental United States.

A: Dubai Q982: In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.

A: the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel Q983: In August of 1945, the Saudi’s gave the United States permission to start building ______________.

A: an Air base A: military intelligence installations Q984: May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q985: In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________.

A: Britain, France and Israel seized it in a joint military operation Q986: During the 1990’s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q987: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.

A: False Q988: With the eruption of the Iran-Iraq war in 1980, the United States adopted its Gulf partners’ idea that included all of the below, except the following ______________.

A: Saddam’s aggressive military intentions in the Gulf region should be restrained by all means necessary Q989: In 1948, the formation of the State of Israel was a result of ______________.

A: Britain abandoning the mandate in Palestine and retreating from the region Q990: The main objective for U.S. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________.

A: enforce the southern no-fly and no-drive zones in Iraq A: monitor the Kuwaiti border with Iraq A: patrol the air space of Kuwait Q991: The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as ______________.

A: a defense alliance against the Soviet Union Q992: In 1953, after a coup d’Etat backed by Britain and the United States, ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q993: In the 1950’s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q994: What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945?

A: President Roosevelt met with the Saudi King to politically affirm the emerging U.S.-Saudi partnership Q995: The main objective for U.S.-led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________.

A: Enforce the southern no-fly and no-drive zones in Iraq

Primary Professional Military Education Islam in the Greater Middle East 1

The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely.

A: False Q996: Islam is a ______________ faith.

A: monotheistic (one god) Q997: Members of the Islamic faith ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q998: The Qur’an (the sacred book of Islam) frequently mentions ______________.

A: Mary (the mother of Jesus) Q999: The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________.

A: hajj Q1000: The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a lifetime.

A: once Q1001: Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to humanity through the Prophet Muhammad in the year ______________.

A: 610 AD Q1002: A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam.

A: Shi’a and Sunni Q1003: All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian.

A: False Q1004: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses.

A: True Q1005: ______________ or zakat is used primarily to support the Muslim community through the building and upkeep of hospitals, mosques, and schools.

A: Almsgiving Q1006: If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday.

A: five Q1007: The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.

A: 354 Q1008: The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________.

A: the early Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina Q1009: Islam allows for only finely crafted physical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad.

A: False Q1010: In Islam, women are the spiritual equals of men.

A: True Q1011: Islamic law is called ______________ law.

A: Sharia Q1012: No Muslim is exempt from the fast during the month of Ramadan.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Operational Planning 5.1.13 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11

12 13 14 15 16

17 18

Introduction to Planning

An Operation Order (OPORD) is ______________.

A: a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an operation Which of the following is correct?

A: In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.

Contingency planning focuses on ______________.

A: potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces Which of the following is correct?

A: A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for another.

The subsets of Joint Operation Planning are ______________.

A: contingency planning and crisis action planning A: contingency planning, crisis action planning and combat action planning Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________.

A: bilateral and multilateral defense activities conducted with foreign countries A concept plan (CONPLAN) ______________.

A: is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN Security Cooperation Planning goals are identified by the ______________.

A: Secretary of Defense Which of the following may be tasked to produce supporting plans by a combatant commander?

A: All the answers are correct.

A(n) ______________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.

A: Alert Order A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to be…

A: The Colonel commanding the MEU. Combatant commanders prepare their theater strategies and plans based on the guidance and directions given by the ______________.

A: President, Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with ______________.

A: creating and maintaining military capabilities The purpose of Joint Operation Planning is to ______________.

A: prepare and employ American military power in response to actual and potential contingencies Security Cooperation Planning goals are identified by the ______________.

A: President A: Secretary of Defense When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ______________ to implement the appr…

A: Execute Order Joint strategic planning ______________.

A: All the answers are correct The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.

A: security cooperation planning, joint operation planning and force planning

Primary Professional Military Education 19 Who is responsible for the development and production of joint operation plans?

A: The Combatant Commanders

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.14 1

The Role of Intelligence

Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the internet is a part of which intelligence discipline?

A: Open-source Intelligence Q1013: Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1014: The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.

A: nonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area Q1015: The primary focus of naval intelligence is ________________.

A: to provide tactical support to operating forces Q1016: Which of the following best describes Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) applicability within the range of military operations?

A: The basic IPB process remains the same across the range of military operations.

Q1017: What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information environments as well as other dimensions of the battlespace, and to determine an adversary’s capabilities to operate in each?

A: Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace Q1018: Who, on the Commander’s staff, has the primary responsibility for planning, coordinating and conducting the overall Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort?

A: The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence) Q1019: Which of the following statements is true as it describes the focus of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace in reference to conventional and asymmetric operations?

A: The steps remain the same but the focus is slightly different.

Q1020: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process is applicable to asymmetric operations.

A: True Q1021: The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.

A: support the commander’s planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary Q1022: In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process are overlays depicting the geography of the area of responsibility produced?

A: Describe the Battlespace’s Effects.

Q1023: Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war?

A: Strategic level Q1024: The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are both contained within the Commander’s designated operating area.

A: False Q1025: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to support the commander’s planning effort.

A: False Q1026: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.

A: False Q1027: Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?

A: Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue Q1028: Which step of the IPB process provides a disciplined method for analyzing the set of potential adversary Courses of Action in order to identify the most likely and the most dangerous COAs? A: Determine Adversary Courses of Action.

Q1029: The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area and thenonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area Q1030: What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?

A: The focus Q1031: Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace knowledge?

A: Determine adversary potential COAs. Q1032: Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1033: Surprise caused by an unexpected adversary capability.

A: Mission failure.

Q1034: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same across the spectrum of conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits.

A: True Q1035: The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ______________.

A: Support the commander’s planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary.

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.15 1

Navy Planning Process

The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a decision.

A: False 2 What will the staff normally use in comparing friendly Courses of Action and to aid in focusing on the advantages and disadvantages of each COA? A: Governing factors 3 A friendly Course of Action ____________________.

A: is any concept of operation open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the accomplishment of the mission 4 ____________________ is a written or oral communication that directs actions and focuses a subordinate’s tasks and activities toward mission accomplishment.

A: An order 5 The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?

A: All of the answers are correct.

6 The Course of Action selected during the NPP is the basis for what?

A: the development of plans and the issuing of combat orders.

7 Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?

A: All of the answers are correct.

8 Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks?

A: Specified tasks 9 Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?

A: A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff 10 During the comparison of the friendly Courses of Action step in the Navy planning Process, what does comparing the strengths and weaknesses of the Courses of Action provide?

A: It aids in identifying respective COA advantages and disadvantages.

11 Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task.

A: False 12 Like the Navy Planning Process, the process for deliberate and crisis planning is left up to the combatant commander.

A: False 13 What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basis of a future order?

A: A plan 14 The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and ____________________.

A: the battlespace environment; the adversary 15 Within the Navy Planning Process, at what point would the commander determine potential adversary Courses of Action?

A: During the JIPB process 16 During wargaming, the staff ____________________.

A: compares each friendly COA with each adversary COA A: compares the most likely adversary COA with the most favorable friendly COA A: compares the most dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA 17 The wargaming process relies heavily on ____________________.

A: a solid joint doctrinal foundation, tactical judgment, and operational experience Q1036: An “implied task” is a ______________.

A: Major task not specified by the higher commander

Primary Professional Military Education Maritime Cyberspace Operations 5.1.16 1

Maritime Cyberspace Operations

The principle cyber organizations under the Chief of Naval Operations are ______________.

A: Cyber Forces Command, Fleet Cyber Command (10th Fleet) Q1037: Which of the following are elements of identity management?

A: Authentication, Authorization, Audit/compliance Q1038: The continuing transformation of information as both a weapon and an enabler in combat drives a warfighting capability that the Navy calls __________.

A: Information Dominance Q1039: Techniques such as, adding “authorized” accounts to a targeted system, inserting “backdoors”, and adding listening services characterize activities usually performed during the ______________ phase of a cyber-attack.

A: Sustain Q1040: The principle difference between cyber-attacks conducted by hackers and those conducted by nation-states is the ______________ of the attack.

A: Objective Q1041: The military capability for maneuvering in cyberspace is called ______________.

A: Information Operations Q1042: The accomplishment of military missions inextricably depends upon networks and information systems.

A: True Q1043: Computer networks are defended using a __________ concept.

A: “defense-indepth” Q1044: Cyberspace operations are an integral part of a Joint Force Commander’s synchronized effort.

A: True Q1045: In the event of network failure, a __________ plan enables an organization to continue its mission.

A: Continuity of Operations (COOP) Q1046: Because cyber attacks are conducted on and through computer networks, they are unable to achieve effects similar to those of physical warfare.

A: False Q1047: Cyber warfare is different because __________.

A: Attacks can be conducted with virtual anonymity Q1048: Insider threats are potent, mainly because __________ A: They already have trusted access to network resources Q1049: Network defense activities consist of __________.

A: All but infiltration Q1050: Given the immense resources at DOD’s disposal, it is now possible to deliver the highest possible level of protection against cyber attack across the entire DOD network.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Operational Law 5.1.17

Law of the Sea and Airspace

Law of the Sea and Airspace 1

Which of the following statements is true?

A: The U.S. is both a coastal state and a maritime state.

A: Permission from higher authority may be required to enter a specific body of water.

Q1051: National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1052: Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.

A: Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating non-innocent behavior.

Q1053: A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following?.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1054: Which of the following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?

A: It attempts to create a new legal order for ocean space.

Q1055: International waters include which of the following?

A: Contiguous Zones A: Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).

Q1056: Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are true?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1057: UNCLOS includes two major parts which are ____________.

A: Deep seabed mining rights and military rights for transiting inland waters.

A: Coastal nation and navigation/overflight rights & deep seabed mining provisions.

Q1058: References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct Q1059: Basic maritime zones are drawn from baselines which may include which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1060: Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which _______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1061: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.

A: True Q1062: Which of the following is true of Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs)?

A: They apply to all aircraft.

Q1063: Why does the “law of the sea and airspace” matter?

A: All are Correct

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.18

Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)

Law of Armed Conflict, Scope 1

Given that it has been determined that the Al-Qaeda and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants, which of the following statements is true?

A: The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy.

Q1064: Which statement is true?

A: The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military operations.

Q1065: U.S. domestic policy broadens the circumstances under which we apply the Law of Armed Conflict.

A: True Q1066: Which of the following will make the statement not true? The terms of treaties concerning the conduct of forces during armed conflict, such as the Geneva and Hague Conventions, ____________.

A: in some cases, have been narrowed by U.S. domestic policy as they pertain to U.S. military personnel Q1067: The applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the generally accepted terms of international law.

A: True Q1068: Law of Armed Conflict is a more accurate phrase than Law of War ____________________.

A: as Law of Armed Conflict conveys the message that some or all of the law will apply in all types of military operations Q1069: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.

A: False Q1070: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.

A: True Q1071: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will, unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit of the Law of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve armed conflict.

A: False Q1072: U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.

A: a minimum standard A: only applying to the United States when we are involved in armed conflict with another United Nations member Q1073: The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.

A: a generally accepted body of international law Q1074: The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) applies to ____________________.

A: the militaries of all nations Q1075: Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent with at least the minimum standards of international law.

A: True Q1076: The United States’ policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Q1077: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.

A: False Q1078: It is advantageous for a nation to become a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as not doing so will deny its military personnel the treatments required under that treaty should they be captured by the forces of a signatory nation.

A: False Q1079: If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation ____________________.

A: the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory nation Q1080: The applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the generally accepted terms of international law.

A: True Q1081: If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with non-signatory nations, and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention, the signatory nation is no longer bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Law of Armed Conflict, Principles 1

A combatant who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, but is still afforded POW status and treatment if captured by the enemy even if found guilty of the crime.

A: False Q1082: The wearing and use of camouflage by combatants is prohibited by LOAC because doing so would violate the “wearing of a fixed emblem recognizable at a distance” part of the test to determine combatant status.

A: False Q1083: A civilian that directly participates in hostile actions ____________________.

A: is classified as a unlawful combatant Q1084: The principles that have guided the development of LOAC are ____________________.

A: distinction, necessity, proportionality and humanity Q1085: Only members of a nation’s regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC. A: False Q1086: Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________.

A: may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured Q1087: Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.

A: are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical services to POWs Q1088: Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

A: True Q1089: If a subordinate commits a war crime, his or her superior ____________________.

A: can be held accountable if the superior reasonably should have known that a war crime was committed and failed to intervene or hold the subordinate accountable Q1090: A nation has a duty under LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military objectives.

A: True Q1091: Civilians in the battlespace are classified as ____________________.

A: civilians Q1092: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC. A: False Q1093: In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.

A: incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct military advantage to be gained from the attack A: the use of a weapon that will knowingly cause incidental consequences is prohibited under LOAC A: the use of any weapon which will destroy that target is allowable under LOAC Q1094: Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1095: A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military objective if ____________________.

A: it is currently being used by the enemy to launch and recover military aircraft Q1096: Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemy’s forces during an armed engagement, ____________________.

A: while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be continually verified to ensure it does not return to civilian object status Q1097: Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.

A: False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.

Primary Professional Military Education Q1098: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a combatant.

A: False Q1099: Junior officers who are not in a designated command billet are required to report violations of LOAC they have personally witnessed, but are not required to report suspected violations of LOAC that they have no direct knowledge of.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 5.1.19

Rules of Engagement

Rules of Engagement, General Principles 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

8 9 10

11 12 13 14 15

U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________.

A: directives, competent military authority Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and their property.

A: True The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Developers of U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) must ensure that the ROE comply with domestic law.

A: True Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nation’s political goals.

A: False German military analyst Carl von Clausewitz theorized that ____________________.

A: war is a continuation of political intercourse Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the nation’s civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.

A: False U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.

A: False U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.

A: shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC Judge advocates are ____________________.

A: used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to assist planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.

A: True The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.

A: allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.

A: political, military and legal Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education Standing Rules of Engagement 1 16 17 18 19 20

21

22

23

24

25 26 27 28

29

U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________________.

A: provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting permission to take certain actions The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment consistent with U.S. national interests.

A: True The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. A: False The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense.

A: False In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.

A: permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces operating within the United States when supporting law enforcement authorities conducting counterdrug operations against foreign nationals.

A: False The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.

A: False The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.

A: False A commander has an obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in defense of ____________________.

A: the commander's own unit and other U.S. forces in the vicinity A: other allied forces in the vicinity When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.

A: the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the United States.

A: True The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations ____________________.

A: occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate quick reference during crisis or deliberate planning.

A: by authorization level The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE. A: True The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.

A: are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in selfdefense; 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States A: are divided into two unclassified portions discussing the use of force in self-defense and the use of force for mission accomplishment

Primary Professional Military Education A: are divided into two portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in selfdefense; and 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment 30 U.S. national security interests guide global objectives of deterring, and, if necessary, defeating armed attacks or terrorist actions against designated non-U.S. forces.

A: True under certain circumstances 31 Supplemental measures are contained in which section of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)?

A: The classified section 32 The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is promulgated by the ____________________.

A: Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Primary Professional Military Education Self-Defense 1 2 3 4

5 6

7 8 9 10

11

12 13 14

15 16 17 18

Impeding U.S. forces from the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be considered a hostile act.

A: True Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or immediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, others.

A: False The authority to extend U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations may be exercised only by ____________________.

A: the President or the Secretary of Defense Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in one’s vicinity from a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent.

A: True, but an individual’s right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the appropriate commander.

The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.

A: is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent can be prevented or terminated When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ____________________.

A: should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permit Normally, a force is declared hostile by ____________________.

A: a ROE authorized by the President or the Secretary of Defense A: the promulgation of an updated CJCS Instruction 31201 Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?

A: All of the answers are correct.

Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________.

A: only if the enemy force remains an imminent threat The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an approaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent.

A: guidance on various indicators that might be considered Knowledge that a terrorist is preparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship ____________________.

A: may be sufficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of force in self-defense Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense.

A: True Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or immediate use of force against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, others.

A: False A commander’s inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commander’s own unit.

A: False Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can be considered ____________________.

A: a hostile act A force that has been declared hostile via an ROE authorized by the President _______________.

A: may be engaged immediately by a commander of U.S. forces The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.

A: True Force used in self-defense must be ____________________.

A: necessary and effective

Primary Professional Military Education Q1100: A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense.

A: If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.

Primary Professional Military Education Mission Accomplishment 1

2 3 4

5 6 7

8 9

10 11 12

13

14 15 16 17

When developing alternative courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff ____________________.

A: must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved but required in order to conduct the COA The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the following except ___________.

A: requests for supplemental measures The drafting of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to the various ____________________.

A: Combatant Commanders The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically withheld.

A: False In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.

A: the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.

A: but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement in effect, a commander given a mission within that theater is limited to those Rules of Engagement when executing an assigned mission.

A: False Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.

A: augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be constantly reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets.

A: True As part of the military command and control structure, the United States has divided its global responsibilities into geographic regions each commanded by a ________________.

A: Combatant Commander ____________________ all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).

A: Political, military and economic objectives A: Political, military and legal objectives A: Military, legal and international objectives In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.

A: Staff Judge Advocate Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) support ____________________.

A: the pre-conflict, conflict, and post-conflict phases of an operation Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in ____________________.

A: the developed mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________.

A: is the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.

A: is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination

Primary Professional Military Education 18 Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to ____________________.

A: constantly review them and modify as necessary Q1101: Guidance on how to request Rules of Engagement (ROE), including the proper formatting of ROE request messages are found in ______________.

A: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) Q1102: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. force could be assigned to perform.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Rules for the Use of Force 1

U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agency’s Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).

A: True 2 The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

A: True 3 The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict.

A: False 4 The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict.

A: False 5 Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters.

A: True 6 U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned.

A: True 7 The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) apply to all U.S. forces operating inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States conducting: counter-drug operations, special event security and response to military attack.

A: False 8 The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital government assets.

A: True Q1103: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response.

A: True Q1104: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education

6

Technology in the Maritime Domain (Block 6) Sensors 6.1.1

1

Force Multiplication Sensors

Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?

A: Sonar Q1105: Night vision goggles “see” in the dark by using ______________.

A: Ambient light Q1106: Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used ______________.

A: under extremely low levels of ambient light Q1107: Which of the following statements concerning the Global Positioning System (GPS) is true?

A: -The constellation consists of 28 satellites.

A: It cannot be used as a weapons guidance system.

A: -It consists of satellites and ground stations used for monitoring and control.

A: -Its most significant disadvantages for surface ship navigation purposes is the limited over -ocean coverage and the high cost of receivers.

Q1108: Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________.

A: gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves Q1109: GPS provides users with accurate information on ______________.

A: position, velocity and time Q1110: The first known sinking of a U-boat during World War I was aided by a(n) ______________.

A: passive sonar system Q1111: Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and used up until ______________.

A: the Cold War, the present time Q1112: Infrared systems are best used to detect ______________.

A: a warm object against a relatively cool background Q1113: Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?

A: AIM-9 Sidewinder missile Q1114: During World War II, the British developed ______________, the first ______________, which played a pivotal role in the British victory at the Battle of Britain.

A: the magnetron, higher power microwave source Q1115: Although first patented in 1904, radar wasn’t very militarily useful until ______________.

A: World War II Q1116: Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ______________.

A: defend against attack A: seize the initiative Q1117: During the 1990’s, increases in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to “own the night?”

A: Low-light imaging Q1118: Night vision goggles “see” in the dark by using ______________.

A: ambient light Q1119: Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World War I? A: Sonar Q1120: A GPS receiver determines its position by ______________.

Primary Professional Military Education A: Comparing the difference between received time signals from four or more different GPS satellites.

Q1121: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified its high cost.

A: False Q1122: The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ______________.

A: All the answers are correct.

Q1123: Global Positioning System (GPS) made possible the rescue of Captain Scott O’Grady after he was shot down over Serbia because ______________.

A: The GPS receiver he carried allowed him to precisely pinpoint his location and relay the information to rescuers.

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.2 1

Sensor Fundamentals

The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual value is used to determine a sensor’s ______________.

A: accuracy 2 Which statement is true?

A: Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being measured.

3 A monostatic sensor has ______________.

A: the detector and source collocated 4 Increasing the frequency of a signal wave (while maintaining a constant wave velocity) results in ______________.

A: a decrease of wavelength Q1124: Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an accurately known input is known as ______________.

A: calibration 5 Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signal’s power per unit area caused by ______________.

A: focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions 6 Which type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal risk of detection by enemy forces?

A: Passive sonar 7 Interference may be ______________.

A: constructive and destructive 8 Spectroscopy is used to determine ______________.

A: what wavelengths are coming off a target 9 Which statement is NOT true?

A: Dispersion does not affect a highly focused beam of energy.

A: None of the answers are correct.

A: Radio waves have a higher frequency than gamma rays 10 A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having ______________.

A: a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another 11 Sound travels ______________.

A: faster in water than in air 12 If system “A” has an antenna gain of 1 and system “B” has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is not true?

A: System B’s signal’s power per unit area is one fourth that of system A’s signal.

13 A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ______________.

A: has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range 14 Refraction refers to ______________.

A: the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling through 15 A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________.

A: Which statement is NOT true?

16 Radio waves have a higher frequency than gamma rays.

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.3 1

Understanding the Frequency Spectrum

A frequency of 1 GHz is how many times higher than 1 KHz? A: One million 17 While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we can employ sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum.

A: True 18 For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one.

A: False 19 What is the standard military band for a sensor operating at 5 x 108 Hz? A: B-band 20 The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms.

A: False 21 Gamma rays are a good example of ______________.

A: high frequency and low wavelength 22 Sensor size is proportional to frequency.

A: False 23 What is an alternative way of writing 4 x 108 Hz? A: 740 MHz 24 Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less.

A: False 25 A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in which standard military band?

A: A-band 26 What is an alternate way of writing .023 km?

A: 23 meters 27 The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations.

A: False 28 The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.

A: False 29 How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air?

A: Approx. 4 times faster in water than air 30 The speed of sound through water changes with ______________.

A: water temperature Q1125: What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20HZ. A: Surface ship

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.4

Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems

1

A diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by ______________.

A: operating on battery power 2 The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ______________.

A: multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target 3 Which of the following includes three propagation paths of sound in the ocean?

A: Direct path, bottom bounce and sound channel 4 A major limitation of airborne antisubmarine assets is that aircraft ______________.

A: have a relatively short on-station time 5 Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

6 Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?

A: Cover pulse jamming 7 The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target’s radar at unexpected times is used in ______________.

A: cover pulse jamming 8 In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a tense, stressful environment.

A: False 9 Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ______________.

A: None of the answers are correct.

10 A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is ______________.

A: that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar 11 Electronic warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because ______________.

A: many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification 12 Infrared sensors can be utilized to detect submarines under certain conditions.

A: True 13 Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include ______________.

A: unmanned aerial vehicles 14 Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ______________.

A: None of the answers are correct.

15 The sending out of electromagnetic energy at a power level significantly higher than that of an enemy’s radar and at the same frequency is used in ______________.

A: Barrage jamming Q1126: Which of the following includes three methods employed by the AN/SPY-1 series of radars that enable them to be less susceptible to jamming?

A: Information-dense wave packets, complex waveforms, phased array beam-forming Q1127: ______________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor.

A: How to increase a platform’s ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases Q1128: Which type of sonar is the most effective in detecting relatively close contacts and formulating a firing solution?

A: Active Sonar

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.5 1 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

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31

Maintaining Technical Superiority

______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircraft and air systems.

A: NAVAIR The ever increasing amount of data provided by current and future sensor systems, increases the potential of ______________.

A: subjecting the operators and decision makers to information overload Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is important to ______________.

A: anticipate future threats and develop systems with specific specifications to defeat them ______________, through its ______________ sifts through fleet requirements and decides which programs to support.

A: The Office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OPNAV), Resource Sponsors ______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and development funding.

A: ONR Expenditures for future threats must always take a back seat to current warfighter needs as it is useless to develop a weapon or system for tomorrow if we can’t win today.

A: False ______________ is the command responsible for the development of communications and computer systems.

A: SPAWAR Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for equipment – manpower.

A: False The program office that is in charge of the development a system must strive to ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is ______________.

A: the space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology The Navy’s development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy civilian personnel.

A: False All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.

A: False ______________ is the command responsible for the development of ships and shipboard systems.

A: NAVSEA ______________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.

A: Program Executive Offices A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is ______________.

A: the space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such increases will continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as information overload.

A: False Program Executive Offices are solely concerned with the technical aspects of bringing future systems on line and thus are not involved in determining warfighter requirements.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Q1129: Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ______________.

A: All Q1130: The Office of Naval Research uses ______________ and ______________ input to assist in guiding research and development funding.

A: Fleet, OPNAV Q1131: Unmanned autonomous sensors carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ________.

A: Increase personnel safety

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.6 1

Magnetic Sensors

Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects.

A: Undersea A: Concealed 32 The purpose of a magnetic sensor is to ______________.

A: detect changes in a magnetic field 33 A submarine’s magnetic intensity depends upon ______________.

A: All the answers are correct.

34 ______________ are devices that detect changes in a magnetic field.

A: Magnetometers 35 Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less.

A: 500 36 Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad categories of ______________ noise.

A: maneuver and DC circuit 37 Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects.

A: metallic 38 Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________.

A: increase the chances of detection 39 Objects that can’t be detected using sound, radio frequency, or light energy may be sensed using ______________ sensors.

A: Magnetic Q1132: Lines of magnetic force are ______________ as they pass between mediums such as air, earth, or water.

A: Unaffected Q1133: Increasing the sensitivity of a magnetic sensor by a factor of eight would result in ______________ the range of the sensor.

A: Doubling Q1134: The Greek letter ______________ is used to symbolize magnetic field intensity.

A: Gamma Q1135: One of the things that affect a magnetic sensor’s ability to detect changes in a magnetic field is the ______________.

A: Intensity of the charge

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21

22

Sonar

Sounds can usually be detected from the “direct path” method of propagation at long ranges.

A: False A ship’s sonar blind spot is commonly referred to as its ______________.

A: baffles The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density.

A: surface zone In the ______________, water density changes sharply with depth.

A: pycnocline A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.

A: speaker Sound normally propagates through the ocean via a single path.

A: False Seawater’s property of ______________ is what makes it an excellent conductor of sound.

A: elasticity The apparent change in a sound’s frequency due to relative motion between the sound’s receiver and its source is called the ______________.

A: Doppler effect Underwater sounds are classified as ______________.

A: natural or manmade The ocean’s acoustic characteristics are affected by ______________.

A: All the answers are correct.

Less than ______________ percent of the world’s total ocean area is shallow water.

A: eight Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy A: mechanical The average ocean depth is approximately ______________ feet.

A: 12,000 The ______________ contains 80 percent of the ocean’s vertical thickness.

A: deep zone Generally, ______________ frequency sounds are detectable at longer ranges in seawater.

A: lower A: mid-range A: higher As the relative motion between a sound’s source and its receiver increases, the corresponding Doppler shift ______________.

A: increases A bathythermograph measures ______________.

A: seawater temperature A hydrophone is a(n) ______________.

A: underwater microphone ______________ has the most impact on the speed of sound in seawater.

A: Temperature The two major types of sonar are ______________.

A: active and passive ______________ enables operators to make control inputs to the system.

A: transducer control programmer display A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.

A: speaker capacitor light emitting diode

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.8 1

Radar

Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected.

A: True 2 The two types of energy transmissions used by radar are ______________.

A: pulse and continuous wave 3 Pulse radar is effective at ______________.

A: determining a target’s relative velocity 4 A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted energy.

A: False 5 Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.

A: True 6 Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.

A: False 7 Blind speeds are a problem with ______________.

A: pulse Doppler 8 Radar is an acronym for ______________.

A: radio detection and ranging 9 ______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.

A: Pulse Doppler 10 ______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the radar’s platform.

A: Pulse Doppler 11 A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays.

A: True Q1136: Larger targets exhibit “up Doppler” while smaller targets have “down Doppler.”

A: False Q1137: The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ______________.

A: Power and range Q1138: Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous wave radar to determine ______________.

A: Range Q1139: A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ______________.

A: Mixer, amplifier, and discriminator Q1140: Which type of radar indicator uses a polar coordinate display to depict the range and bearing to targets?

A: PPI Q1141: The RF energy reflected by a moving target from a CW radar will be at the same frequency as the transmitted RF energy.

A: False

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.9 1

Electro-optic Technology

The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ______________.

A: placing the designating force at risk of detection 2 Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.

A: True 3 Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?

A: IR 4 Laser light has unique applications due to ______________.

A: low beam divergence 5 The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________.

A: a narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions 6 Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.

A: True 7 Laser light is available in both ______________.

A: continuous and pulsed form 8 ______________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.

A: Thermal imaging 9 The optical spectrum consists of ______________.

A: IR, visible and UV 10 Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.

A: False 11 A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from several in its field of view based upon a predetermined pulsing code, is ______________.

A: PIM coding 12 The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the ______________.

A: Transmitter Q1142: An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ______________.

A: AM radio waves Q1143: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the target is centered on the detector.

A: True

Primary Professional Military Education Space Force Enhancement 6.1.10 1

Military Space Mission Areas

Space control operations encompass all elements of the space defense mission and include offensive and defensive operations by friendly forces to gain and maintain space superiority and situational awareness if events impact space operations.

A: True 2 Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military space mission area of ______________.

A: Space Control 3 A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of space assets.

A: True 4 Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain, replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network configuration for space operations.

A: True 5 The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is ______________.

A: Environmental monitoring 6 SATCOM is: A: Satellite Communications 7 Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support structures that: A: -Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to transmit DOD data.

8 The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area ______________.

A: Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring 9 The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control is ______________.

A: Space Support 10 Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through space.

A: True 11 Support operations consist of spacelift, satellite operations, and deorbiting and recovering space vehicles, if required.

A: True 12 Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.

A: True 13 Currently, space force application assets are operating in space.

A: False 14 The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is ______________.

A: Intigrated tactical warning and attack assessment Q1144: The four military space mission areas are _______________.

A: Space control, space support force application, and force enhancement

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.11 1 2

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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance

Force enhancement - ISR mission ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.

A: True Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection over continuous periods of time is called ______________.

A: surveillance A: interdicting In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ______________.

A: None of the answers are correct.

A: was a central factor in assuring rapid military success A: was detrimental to the operation Intelligence is the product resulting from the collecting, processing, integrating, analyzing, evaluating, and interpreting available information concerning foreign countries or areas.

A: True A significant limiting factor regarding space-based ISR sensors is ______________.

A: a predictable overflight schedule A significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________.

A: the ability to cue terrestrial systems for more precise locations or targeting ISR systems enhance planning capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and adversary force dispositions.

A: True Satellite systems are not affected by atmospheric disturbances such as fog, smoke, electrical storms, precipitation, and clouds.

A: False ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is event driven or occurs on a one-time basis is called ______________.

A: reconnaissance Geosynchronous or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from space.

A: False ISR support ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Types of data and information collected from space include ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ______________.

A: was a central factor in assuring rapid military success The most significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________.

A: the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage Several satellites in low and medium earth orbits can provide coverage of targets on the order of ______________.

A: minutes The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the world.

A: geosynchronous Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or “system” must be continuously collecting.

A: False The next generation of satellites will offer ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Primary Professional Military Education 20 Space-based imagery supports the full range of military intelligence activities including ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.12

Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment

1

Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

2 Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with allies and coalition partners is the objective of ______________.

A: Shared Early Warning 3 A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground control element was ______________.

A: integrating warnings from multiple satellites and fusing data from other sources 4 Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the postcommunist era.

A: False 5 Satellite- and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversary’s use of ballistic missiles or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

6 Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS) is a deployable system that consists of deployable trailers and communications equipment.

A: True 7 In addition to sensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links carrying ______________ to warn the affected air, land, sea, space, and special operations forces.

A: raw data, processed data, and verbal command directions 8 Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.

A: True 9 The SBIRS ground architecture ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

10 U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners.

A: True 11 The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in IRAQI FREEDOM than they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War. A: True 12 Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as ______________.

A: a specific threat event that is occurring Q1145: The Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground architecture ______________.

A: All are correct Q1146: The constellation of satellites that provides notification of missile launch is the ______________.

A: Defense Support Program Q1147: Theater missile warning data is ______________.

A: Gathered by ground stations, then processed and disseminated over communications networks, including space assets.

Q1148:

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.13 1

Environmental Monitoring

Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from space.

A: True Q1149: Observation of the space environment ______________.

A: is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to battlespace awareness Q1150: Within the Space Force Enhancement functions, environmental monitoring provides forecast and conditions in the following environments ______________.

A: meteorological, oceanographic, and space Q1151: ______________ are used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed), ground moisture, rainfall rates, ice characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water vapor profiles.

A: Microwave sensors Q1152: Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as ______________ are critical for undersea warfare operations.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1153: Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. This enables U.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both adversary and friendly space and weapons systems.

A: True Q1154: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.

A: True Q1155: Thermal and visible images together provide the coverage and extent of ______________.

A: other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow Q1156: A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________.

A: multispectral capability of many space-based meteorological sensors higher revisit rates reduction in image quality due to distance Q1157: Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational support cannot currently be accurately determined from satellites, including heights of cloud bases and visibility restrictions.

A: True Q1158: A significant advantage of space-based environmental sensors is that the ______________.

A: Data can be gathered from remote or hostile areas when there are no surface reporting stations.

Q1159: Imagery capabilities can provide joint force planners with current information on surface conditions, such as vegetation and land use.

A: True Q1160: ______________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning.

A: Meteorological and Oceanographic

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.14 1 2

3 4

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6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Satellite Communications

Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and convey their intent to the operational commander.

A: near-global / strategic situational awareness Narrowband Satellite Communications supports ______________ data rates for both mobile and fixed users by providing access on a single dedicated channel or on a demand assigned multiple access channels.

A: secure voice and data transmission at relatively low Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM systems.

A: True Satellite Communications: A: Select all correct answers.

A: -Permit information transfer from the highest levels of government to the theater tactical level for all matters to include operations, logistics, intelligence, personnel, and diplomacy.

A: -Collectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (DOD) communications worldwide.

SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.

A: True Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ______________ the available bandwidth and the higher the data rate capacity.

A: higher / wider Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobile terminals.

A: True Satellite communications are often the only means of providing critical beyond line of sight communications.

A: True Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming.

A: False MILSTAR stands for: A: military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are ______________.

A: global coverage, security, flexibility It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military strategic and tactical relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network.

A: False Wideband satellite communications support ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

All radio receivers, including satellite systems, are susceptible to jamming and interference.

A: True The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________.

A: UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial Heavy solar activity ______________.

A: can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme cases Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming.

A: False Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:

Primary Professional Military Education A: All of the answers are correct.

19 Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the world which receives least coverage is the ______________ region.

A: polar 20 ______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess features not found on other systems.

A: Protected

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.15 1

Position, Time, Velocity, and Navigation

Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The …

A: local sunset / local midnight 2 The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS… A: True 3 The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in view from any position on Earth. Based upon this requirement, …

A: 28 4 Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure ______________ cause significant degradation of the system.

A: the altitude / will not A: the number and orbit location / will not 5 Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a ______________, where all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.

A: common grid 6 Benefits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include: A: -Ships and submarines can precisely plot their position allowing safe port operations and navigation through restricted waters.

A: -Rendezvous at sea (e.g., replenishment ships and the strike group), sea rescue, and other operations can be facilitated using space position, velocity, time, and navigation support.

A: -Mines can be laid and precisely plotted for friendly force avoidance and later retrieval.

A: -Coastlines can be accurately surveyed using a combination of laser range finding along with highly accurate position information.

7 Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system (GPS) receiver.

A: all 8 Global positioning system (GPS) ______________.

A: plays a key role in almost all military missions 9 The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites during combat operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were …

10 The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance.

A: True 11 Space based navigation systems (e.g., GPS) are ______________.

A: resistant to some types of jamming 12 The space based navigational system used by U.S. forces for position and timing reference is the global positioning system (GPS). This system relies upon the receipt of signals from at least ______________ satellites simultaneously.

A: 4 13 Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation occurs more often ______________.

A: in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (North or South)) 14 Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held global positioning system (GPS) receivers in areas of ______________ may have diminished GPS capabilities.

A: dense vegetation or steep terrain 15 NAVSTAR global positioning system (GPS) provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied: A: All of the answers are correct.

Q1161: Space-based position, velocity, time, and navigation systems support strategic, operational, and tactical missions by providing highly accurate: A: All correct

Primary Professional Military Education Q1162: Global positioning system (GPS) is extremely useful in air operations. Accurate position, …

A: All

Primary Professional Military Education Information Technology and FORCEnet 6.1.16 1

Data and Information

The purpose of an information system is to ______________.

A: support an organization’s operations 2 Decisions should be based on ______________.

A: information 3 Select the information criterion that is NOT one of the top six characteristics of quality information.

A: Veracity 4 New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to ______________.

A: validate the image or revise it 5 The technological impact C² must allow the warfighting commander to ______________.

A: have freedom to exercise individual initiative based upon assessments of the local situation A: direct operations from long distances 6 The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C² architecture for the following reason.

A: Situational awareness among subordinate commanders 7 Intuition and judgment are a product of our personal ______________.

A: Experiences, preconceptions, education 8 Information systems consist of ______________.

A: entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display, disseminate, and act on information 9 Naval, joint, and national information sources should "push" relevant, time-sensitive information to naval forces, based on planned information requirements and dissemination criteria.

A: True 10 FORCEnet is enabled by ______________.

A: information technology 11 The concept of operations and commander’s intent should convey only a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.

A: False 12 All are true statements about information EXCEPT ______________.

A: information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer Q1163: Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. This image-building information will contain ______________.

A: Status and disposition of our own forces Q1164: The higher you are in the chain of command, the more you rely on ______________.

A: Information Systems Q1165: Information is also used as a means for coordinating actions in the execution of the plan after the decision has been made. Select all types of execution information that apply.

A: Orders of guidance issued to sub., Requests of one unit…, Execution coordination

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.17 1

Command and Control (C2)

C² is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of a mission.

A: authority and direction 2 Information systems ______________.

A: make the right information available to the commander at the right time 3 Information is ______________.

A: the raw material from which knowledge is generated 4 In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for: Select all correct answers.

A: Morale, health & welfare, discipline 5 The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ______________.

A: a command and control system 6 Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to: Select all correct answers.

A: Monitor events, Adjust the allocation of resources, Adapt to changing circumstances 7 Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C² is ______________.

A: the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors) 8 Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.

A: True 9 While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain (______________) that monitors and regulates most actions.

A: subordinate commanders and forces 10 C² functions are performed through an arrangement of resource groups (system) including: A: All of the answers are correct.

11 The focus of naval C², as well as the driver of C² is ______________.

A: the commander 12 C² provides which of the following?

A: All of the answers are correct.

13 Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. This is control before the action, but nonetheless is still control.

A: True 14 Drives the command and control process.

A: Information 15 C² refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be done and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.

A: True 16 In the accomplishment of the mission (process) through C², a commander will employ the resource groups in: Select all correct answers.

A: Planning, Coordinating, Directing Q1166: Time, in the C² environment, is a precious commodity for three reasons.

A: It is perishable, It is indirectly related to op-tempo, It is a resource shared by both sides.

Q1167: Commanders use information to support decision-making and, through ______________ to extend their dominance over the forces of the adversary.

A: Subbordinate Commanders

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.18 1 2 3 4 5

6 7

8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Decision Making

Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in ______________.

A: situational awareness Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command.

A: True In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the decisionmaking threshold, the swifter our decision and execution cycle will become.

A: True Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge and understanding.

A: cognitive The commander’s orientation is rooted in what he believes to be the current "reality" of the battlespace. This image of reality is derived from his _________, __________, __________, and situation reports from subordinate commanders.

A: direct observation / sensors / intelligence systems After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ______________ on a course of action and develop a plan.

A: Decide ______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission.

A: C² The commander forms a mental picture of the situation converting sensor data and other information into ______________. Select all correct answers.

A: judgments Which of the following is the most important stage of the decision and execution cycle?

A: Orient During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is …

A: False Certainty is a function of ______________.

A: knowledge The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C².

A: squadron commander Our ______________, ______________, ______________, and the unfolding circumstances of war all influence our ability to orient ourselves.

A: experience / expectations / culture What is the key element of the command and control process?

A: Commander Knowledge is the result of ______________, ______________, and fusing data that have been processed and evaluated as to their reliability, relevance, and importance.

A: analyzing / correlating The first step toward understanding is gathering data. Data is gathered primarily from our ______________ in the form of ______________.

A: sensors / raw signals Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we ______________, ______________, and ______________.

A: observe / decide / act ______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle.

A: Orientation Processing raw signals so they may be understood by the people who must use the resulting information, may require ______________.

A: All of the answers are correct.

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.19 1

FORCEnet

______________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.

A: Sea Shield 2 FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________.

A: Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing 3 By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by: Select all correct answers.

A: Enhancing deterrence A: Sustaining warfighting superiority A: Controlling crises 4 The Navy shares data among platforms and other services through: Select all correct answers.

A: The Joint fires Network, Link 16”, The Cooperative Engagement Capability 5 FORCEnet is a necessity because today’s engagements are measured in ______________ and cover ______________.

A: seconds, hundreds of miles 6 ______________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.

A: Sea Basing 7 Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of limited technology in today’s battle space.

A: Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms 8 In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations.

A: True 9 FORCEnet is not an acquisition program; rather it is a/an ______________ and integration initiative to serve as a change agent and an engine for innovation, potentially touching every naval program.

A: enterprise alignment 10 By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by: Select all correct answers.

A: Controlling crises A: Sustaining warfighting superiority A: Enhancing deterrence 11 The Navy’s success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by: Select all correct answers.

A: -Precision-guided munitions…, Advanced sensing…, Coordination over…

Q1168: Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of limited technology in today’s battle space.

A: Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms 12 As we prepare for the future, we must build on our successes to acquire operational capabilities at the next level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguarding data streams and other information from the other services.

A: False 13 ______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks.

A: Sea Strike 14 As we prepare for the future, we must build on our successes to acquire operational capabilities at the next level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguarding data streams and other information from the other services.

A: False 15 Specific FORCEnet objectives include: Select all correct answers.

A: -Expand joint, interagency, and coalition interoperability A: -Experiment, innovate, integrate, and implement A: -Focus on the "warrior" in FORCEnet development

Primary Professional Military Education A: -Enhance sensing, connectivity, and decision making 16 Launched and maintained from forward-deployed ships and submarines, sensors will provide persistent and responsive networked sensor coverage to: Select all correct answers.

A: Increase battlespace, sharpen decisions, reduce operational cost Q1169: FORCEnet’s goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________.

A: Knowledge 17 Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.

A: True 18 Developing FORCEnet will be challenging, and require a comprehensive ______________, multi-agency, and international program that integrates systems, processes, and organizations.

A: Joint Q1170: ______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks.

A: Sea Strike Q1171: Some of FORCEnet's sensor may include: A: Unmanned aerial vehicles, Remote mine-hunting systems

Primary Professional Military Education Communications for the warfighter 6.1.20 1

Communications for the warfighter

The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both interfering waves.

A: False 2 A sinusoidal function has which three parameters?

A: Amplitude, frequency, and phase angle 3 What are the two types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves?

A: Free space and guided medium 4 Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal.

A: False 5 DAMA schemes grant user access based upon ______________.

A: reservations 6 The link margin is the ______________.

A: ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity 7 Which type of cable enables the longest transmission distances?

A: Fiber optic 8 Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal noise.

A: True 9 The term dBm refers to a power level ______________.

A: unit referenced to 1 milliwatt 10 UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires.

A: What type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for transmission through a channel?

A: Transmitter 11 ______________ is NOT one of the types of digital baseband modulation.

A: Pulse angle 12 Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________.

A: hugging the surface of the earth, especially over water 13 Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modulation?

A: Phase angle keying 14 What type of device converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal?

A: Transducer 15 There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________.

A: water vapor 16 antenna that radiates its power equally in all directions is called a/an ______________ radiator.

A: equilateral A: isotropic 17 ______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit.

A: Low earth A: High earth A: Medium earth 18 In link budget analysis, the important parameter is ______________.

A: received power 19 What is the power rating of the Flux Capacitor?

A: 21 GIGAWATTS Q1172: The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both interfering waves A: False

Primary Professional Military Education Stealth Technology 6.1.21 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Stealth Technology

Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ______________.

A: complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging?

A: Millimeter wave radar Radar cross section is the relation of ______________.

A: a radar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target RCS is measured in ______________.

A: square meters Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range of directions.

A: True Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information regarding movement.

A: False Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its RCS should be much larger.

A: False The success of stealth technology is leading to an increased emphasis on the development of capabilities to detect stealth platforms, such as ______________.

A: passive array and low frequency radars A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of ______________.

A: large RCS and IR signature Interference is the result when electromagnetic waves at differing frequencies interact with each other.

A: False A critical capability of sensor systems is to ______________.

A: distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging?

A: Millimeter wave radar Which type of electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive?

A: Passive electro-optic Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealth platform can easily be tracked and targeted.

A: False Methods used to reduce RCS include ______________.

A: avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material

Primary Professional Military Education Evaluation of Naval Platforms 6.1.22 1

Evolution of the US Submarine

Which two innovations, developed during the 1920’s and 1930’s did the United States submarine fleet enter World War II with?

A: Mk14 torpedoes and the Torpedo Data Computer (TDC) Q1173: The ______________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United States submarine force.

A: Tang Q1174: The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines.

A: USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeon Q1175: Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for submarines?

A: Coast defense and fleet operations Q1176: The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launched in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States.

A: nuclear powered submarine Q1177: What was the advantage of sail mounted vice bow mounted planes?

A: Increased bow mounted sonar efficiency Q1178: Improved submarine maneuverability A: Allowed submarine to stay submersed for longer periods of time Q1179: Identify the mission(s) of the Los Angeles-class submarines. Select all that apply.

A: All Q1180: Identify the key technological advancements of the 19th century that were instrumental to the further development of submarines in the United States.

A: Advances in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo Q1181: Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases in the far east?

A: Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty Q1182: What class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile submarines (SSGNs)?

A: Ohio Q1183: The Alligator was the first submarine to ______________.

A: employ an air purifying system and deploy a diver while submerged Q1184: What were some of the limitations of the first submarines?

A: Range, Speed Q1185: What was the name of the first submarine used by the military?

A: Turtle Q1186: During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific?

A: 2 Q1187: Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fullysubmerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days and 21 hours?

A: USS Triton Q1188: The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________.

A: attacking submerged submarines Q1189: Where did the first attempted attack of a warship by a submarine occur?

A: Boston Harbor Q1190: What was a primitive type of passive sonar system, first introduced aboard submarines in 1917?

A: Hydrophones

Primary Professional Military Education Q1191:

Which class of submarine has a mission of strategic deterrence?

A: Ohio

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.23

Evolution of the US Navy Surface Combatants

1

Compared to European battleships, the Navy’s battleships of the late 1890’s were ______________.

A: superior in all respects A: relatively smaller and slower, but more heavily armed and armored 2 Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________.

A: in the years immediately prior to World War II 3 Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back ______________.

A: through use of an auxiliary backing propulsion plant A: through use of controllable pitch propellers A: by using the reduction gear to reverse the direction the propeller is turning 4 Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________.

A: use an electric motor to turn the propeller shaft 5 Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______________.

A: Require that the launching platform’s fire control radar keep its beam pointed at the target 6 When constructed, USS Constitution was armed with ______________.

A: muzzle loaded smooth bore guns 7 The destroyer was initially designed to combat ______________.

A: torpedo boats 8 The so-called ABCD ships were significant in that they ______________.

A: were considered the beginning of the modern Navy 9 Aegis ______________.

A: sucks A: is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 20 missiles simultaneously 10 Which of the following is not a part of today’s Navy’s surface combatant inventory?

A: Raymond Spruance-class destroyers A: Arleigh Burke-class destroyers 11 Steam turbines were first used in Navy battleships constructed ______________.

A: during the early 20th century before World War I 12 The Navy’s Vertical Launch System ______________.

A: is capable of carrying a variety of surface to air missiles 13 The first wartime sinking of a warship by an anti-ship missile ______________.

A: occurred in the 1967 Arab-Israeli war 14 Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back ______________.

A: through use of controllable pitch propellers 15 The Navy took delivery of its first steam-powered warship ______________.

A: during the 1810’s A: Which of the following is not true?

16 Turrets had to be made larger to accommodate breech loading guns as opposed to muzzle loaded guns of similar size.

17 The widespread employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________.

A: represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships 18 Which advances were first incorporated into the Navy’s ships during the Civil War? A: Armor plating and turret mounted guns 19 A proximity fuse ______________.

A: contains a radio transmitter-receiver to detect its distance from a target 20 A closed loop fire control system, such as the one used by the Phalanx Close-In-Weapons System, ______________.

A: tracks both the target and outgoing projectiles Q1192: Which of the following is NOT true?

Primary Professional Military Education A: Turrets had to bade larger to accommodate breech loading guns as opposed to muzzle loaded guns of similar size.

Primary Professional Military Education 6.1.24 1

Evolution of Carrier Aviation

Which of the following statements is true?

A: The Navy’s first aircraft carrier was a converted collier.

A: The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft.

A: The Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construction battle cruisers to aircraft carriers.

A: During World War II, the fight deck catapults on the Navy’s front-line carriers were used very little.

A: Crash barriers eliminated the possibility of a landing aircraft colliding with aircraft parked on the flight deck.

A: Hanger deck catapults were widely used during World War II. A: Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II. A: The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian.

A: The Navy’s first aircraft carrier was a converted collier.

Q1193: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A: The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy.

Q1194: Which was the first U.S. ship built from the keel up as an aircraft carrier?

A: USS Ranger Q1195: The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950’s ______________.

A: led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks Q1196: The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________.

A: financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast Q1197: The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ______________.

A: the Essex-class A: the Yorktown-class Q1198: The Navy’s first experience with operating in the air domain occurred ______________.

A: during the Civil War Q1199: The Navy’s first nuclear-powered aircraft carrier was ______________.

A: USS Enterprise Q1200: Which of the following statements is true?

Q1201: The first catapults used by the Navy ______________.

A: used compressed air for power Q1202: Samuel Langley’s successful 1896 flight of an unmanned heavier than air vehicle prompted the Navy to appropriate funds to allow Langley to develop a manned version.

A: False Q1203: The Navy’s current fighter aircraft is an ______________.

A: F/A-18 Hornet