TEST BANK for Neuroscience: Exploring the Brain. 4th Ed by Mark F. Bear, Barry Connors and Michael

1. Why are a broad perspective and an interdisciplinary approach required for understanding the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Understanding the brain is a focused area in natural science with the brain serving as the common point of focus.

B) Understanding the brain requires knowledge about many things, from the structure of the water molecule to the electrical and chemical properties of the brain.

C) Understanding the brain requires the study of the different species of the brain.

D) Understanding the brain requires the analysis of one approach at a time to yield a new synthesis.

2. Galen's study of sheep brains was the basis for a theory of brain function that prevailed for almost 1500 years. Which of the following represents this view? Choose the correct option.

A) The heart as the center of intellect and the brain as the cooling system B) Localization of brain function in the cerebrum and cerebellum C) Mind–brain duality D) Parceling the cerebrum into lobes

3. What is “mind–brain problem”? Choose the correct option.

A) Individually, human mental capacities exist in the mind that is outside the brain.

B) The mind is the same as the brain.

C) Both animals and people possess intellect and a God-given soul.

D) The pineal gland is a spiritual entity.

4. What notion was displaced by the concept of nerves being described as wires? Choose the correct option.

A) Nerves are channels that communicate with the brain by the movement of fluids.

B) Muscles can be twitched when nerves are stimulated electrically and the brain itself may generate electricity.

C) Signals to the muscles causing movement use the same wires as those that register sensations from the skin.

D) Nerves conduct electrical signals to and from the brain.

5. The combined work of Bell and Magendie revealed a fundamental fact about the spinal nerves. Choose the correct option.

A) Spinal nerves are myelinated.

B) Spinal nerves are bundles of sensory and motor nerves, and in each sensory and motor nerve fiber, transmission is strictly one-way.

C) Spinal nerves are not hollow tubes carrying fluid.

D) Both humans and animals have spinal nerves.

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6. For what purpose did Franz Joseph Gall study the dimensions of the human head?

Choose the correct option.

A) To understand the propensity for certain personality traits B) To demonstrate equal participation of all regions of the brain in all cerebral functions C) To show that nerves conduct electrical signals to and from the brain D) To show that unique human mental capabilities exist outside the brain

7. On what basis did Broca defend functional localization of the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the right frontal lobe B) By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the occipital lobe C) By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the left frontal lobe D) By establishing a relationship between the production of speech and the cerebellum

8. To whom can we attribute the theory that behavior is among the heritable traits that can develop? Choose the correct option.

A) Marie-Jean-Pierre Flourens B) Charles Darwin C) Gustav Fritsch and Edward Hitzig D) Franz Joseph Gall

9. Which of the following is a correct explanation of a disorder that affects the nervous system? Choose the correct option.

A) Cerebral palsy is a motor disorder caused by damage to the cerebrum before, during, or soon after birth.

B) Epilepsy is a progressive disease that affects nerve conduction, characterized by episodes of weakness, lack of coordination, and speech disturbance.

C) Stroke involves a loss of feeling and movement caused by traumatic damage to the spinal cord.

D) Alzheimer's disease is a severe psychotic illness characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior.

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10. A neuroscientist is investigating how different neural circuits in the brain analyze sensory information, form perceptions of the external world, make decisions, and execute movements. At what level of analysis is this research conducted? Choose the correct option.

A) Molecular neuroscience level B) Cellular neuroscience level C) Systems neuroscience level D) Cognitive neuroscience level

11. What is the rationale behind the use of animal models to understand the human brain?

Choose the correct option.

A) Animal brains are identical to human brains but only smaller in size.

B) Brain mechanisms that motivate any reaction are identical in animal and human brains.

C) The nervous systems of different species of animals and humans share many common mechanisms.

D) Animal brains are easier to obtain than human brains.

12. How do neuroscientists identify the parts of the brain that are specialized for different behavioral functions related to the niche a species normally occupies? Choose the correct option.

A) By studying the similarities in response pattern to fear in different species B) By studying neurons one at a time C) By comparing the specializations of the brains of different species D) By systematically destroying each part of the brain and studying its implication

13. At which level of analysis do neuroscientists study the different types of neurons and their functions? Choose the correct option.

A) Cellular neuroscience B) Cognitive neuroscience C) Molecular neuroscience D) Behavioral neuroscience

14. What is the difference between replication and verification? Choose the correct option.

A) Replication tests a hypothesis, whereas verification rechecks the hypothesis.

B) Replication can only be done once, whereas verification can be done many times.

C) Replication is repeating the experiment in other subjects to rule out the possibility of chance. In verification, the experiment is repeated and the same observations are obtained by any scientist following the same protocol as the original observer.

D) Replication and verification are not essentially different.

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15. Galen suggested that the cerebrum, which was soft, should be the recipient of sensations. He was of the view that to form memories, sensations should be imprinted onto the brain. Thus, this must occur in the doughy cerebrum. Although the conclusion is right, the reason suggested by Galen is incorrect. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Scientists during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries proposed the structure–function relationship between the white matter and gray matter in the brain.

According to this relationship, gray matter contained the fibers that bring information to and from the white matter. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Rats are considered valuable models for the effects of psychoactive drugs on the nervous system. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee is formed of the animal rights representatives. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Scientists use a _______________ approach to understand how the brain works. In this approach, neuroscientists break a complex problem into ___________ pieces for systematic experimental analysis.

20. The process of verification, if __________, establishes new scientific fact or, if __________, suggests new interpretations for the original observation.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. reductionist, smaller 20. affirmative, negative

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1. What does the “neuron doctrine” state? Choose the correct option.

A) Neurites of different cells fuse together to form a continuous reticulum.

B) Individual cells communicate by contact and not continuity.

C) The cell body of a neuron contains organelles.

D) The elementary functional unit of all tissues is the individual cell.

2. What is a primary function of MAPs? Choose the correct option.

A) Regulate the function and assembly of microtubules B) Regulate the function and assembly of microfilaments C) Regulate the function and assembly of neurofilaments D) Regulate the function and assembly of cytoskeleton

3. Neurons comprise two main structures: axons and dendrites. What is a major difference between the two? Choose the correct option.

A) Dendrites are of uniform diameter throughout, whereas axons taper to a point.

B) Dendrites receive incoming signals from other neurons, whereas axons carry the output of neurons.

C) A cell body gives rise to a single dendrite and multiple axons.

D) Dendrites travel long distances, whereas axons are always short.

4. A scientist looks through a microscope at the structure of a neuron. The scientist notices a layer of molecules separating the neuron's intracellular space from the extracellular space. What is this part of the neuron known as? Choose the correct option.

A) Organelle B) Soma C) Neuronal membrane D) Nuclear envelope

5. What do you understand by the term translation? Choose the correct option.

A) Assembling a piece of mRNA B) Assembling proteins from amino acids C) Removal of introns and specific exons D) The “reading” of DNA

6. What is the most important function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? Choose the correct option.

A) RNA splicing B) Post-translational protein processing C) Site of protein synthesis D) Cellular respiration

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7. What does the mitochondrion “inhale”? Choose the correct option.

A) Pyruvic acid B) Cytosol C) Adenosine triphosphate D) Amino acids

8. Identify an important difference between the cytoplasm of the axon and that of the axon terminal. Choose the correct option.

A) Axon terminals have more microtubules.

B) The axon has more synaptic vesicles than the axon terminal.

C) Ribosomes are present in the axon terminal.

D) There are large numbers of mitochondria in the axon terminal.

9. What is the function of a neurotransmitter receptor in the dendritic membrane? Choose the correct option.

A) Release synaptic vesicles B) Detect neurotransmitters C) Destroy extra neurotransmitter left in the synaptic cleft D) Form gap junctions

10. Identify the protein that helps anterograde transport move materials from the soma to the terminal. Choose the correct option.

A) Dynein B) Kinesin C) Pyruvic acid D) MAP

11. Which of the following is the largest of the cytoskeletal elements? Choose the correct option.

A) Microfilament B) Neurofilament C) Microtubule D) Tubulin

12. What is retrograde axoplasmic transport? Choose the correct option.

A) Movement of material from axon terminal to soma B) Movement of material from soma to axon terminal C) Movement of material within the synaptic terminal D) Movement of material among axon collaterals

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13. Some neurons have long axons that stretch from one part of the CNS to another. What are these called? Choose the correct option.

A) Interneurons B) Golgi type II neurons C) Golgi type I neurons D) Motor neurons

14. What is the region where the axon begins? Choose the correct option.

A) Soma B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Axon terminal

15. Molecular neurobiologists study the information contained in genes to determine the structure and functions of the neuronal proteins. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Dendritic spines are sensitive to the quality of the environment experienced during early development. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. During transcription, transcription factors regulate the process of binding RNA polymerase to the promoter to initiate RNA synthesis. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Ribosomes take raw material in the form of amino acids and manufacture proteins using the blueprint provided by the mRNA. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Free ribosomes that appear to be attached by a thread are called polyribosomes. The thread is a single strand of ______________.

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20. Pathological changes in axonal microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) are called tau.

This pathological change is implicated in the dementia that accompanies ____________.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. mRNA 20. Alzheimer's disease

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1. A simple reflex requires the nervous system to perform three functions. Two of these functions are to collect and distribute information. What is the third function? Choose the correct option.

A) Disintegrate information B) Integrate information C) Disperse information D) Translate information

2. What is resting membrane potential? Choose the correct option.

A) Difference in electrical charge across the membrane at rest B) Generation and conduction of action potential at rest C) Positive charge of the membrane at rest D) Isolation of the cytosol from extracellular fluid

3. What is capacitance? Choose the correct option.

A) Electrical potential difference B) Storage of electric charge C) Voltage across neuronal membrane D) Migration of electric charge

4. Which of the following are the major charge carriers involved in the conduction of electricity in neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) Polar bonds B) Phospholipid bilayers C) Ions D) Ionic bonds

5. How do the lipids of the neuronal membrane contribute to the neuronal membrane potential? Choose the correct option.

A) These lipids encourage chemical interactions with water.

B) These lipids catalyze chemical reactions.

C) These lipids integrate cytosol of neuron with extracellular fluid.

D) These lipids form a barrier to water-soluble ions and water.

6. Which factor other than the ionic concentration gradient determines the equilibrium potential for an ion? Choose the correct option.

A) Selective ionic permeability B) Sodium potassium pump C) Electrical resistance D) Electrical conductance

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7. How do action potentials differ from passively conducted electrical signals? Choose the correct option.

A) Action potentials diminish over distance; passively conducted signals do not diminish over distance.

B) Action potentials occur only in nerve cells; passively conducted signals occur only in muscle cells.

C) Action potentials are transmitted over short distances; passively conducted signals are conducted over long distances.

D) Action potentials are signals of fixed size and duration; passively conducted signals are not signals of fixed size and duration.

8. How does the sodium-potassium pump help maintain the resting membrane potential?

Choose the correct option.

A) Pumps potassium ions in and sodium ions out B) Pumps sodium ions in and potassium ions out C) Exchanges a sodium ion and a potassium ion for a calcium ion D) Uses calcium ions to pump sodium ions and potassium ions against their concentration gradients 9. Which of the following mechanisms decrease intracellular [Ca2+]? Choose the correct option.

A) The calcium pump B) Intracellular calcium-binding proteins C) Organelles that sequester cytosolic calcium ions D) All of the above

10. What is the meaning of an ion's equilibrium potential? Choose the correct option.

A) Net movement of ions from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration B) Electrical potential difference that exactly balances an ionic concentration gradient C) Difference between the real membrane potential and equilibrium potential for a particular ion D) Difference in concentration between a region with a high ionic concentration and a region with a low ionic concentration

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11. What is the term used to describe the mechanism for the regulation of [K+] o by astrocytes? Choose the correct option.

A) Depolarization B) Potassium spatial buffering C) Blood-brain barrier D) Goldman equation

12. Distinguish between the “head” and “tail” of phospholipids. Choose the correct option.

A) Phospholipids have a nonpolar “head” and polar “tail.”

B) The phospholipid's “head” contains hydrophilic phosphate and “tail” contains a hydrophobic hydrocarbon.

C) The phospholipid's “head” is hydrophobic and the hydrocarbon “tail” is hydrophilic.

D) The phospholipid's “heads” face each other, and their “tails” face the watery extracellular and intracellular environments.

13. In which condition do astrocytes take up extracellular K+? Choose the correct option.

A) When extracellular potassium concentrations rise B) When extracellular potassium concentrations fall C) When there is a potassium equilibrium potential D) All of the above

14. Which of the following factors determines the ion selectivity of specific ion channels?

Choose the correct option.

A) Number of protein molecules assembling to form a pore B) Number of ion channels in the membrane C) Nature of the R groups lining the ion channel D) Gating properties

15. Both neurons and muscle cells have excitable membranes. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Protein shape influences protein function. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Peptide bonds are a chain of a single amino acid. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The differences between amino acids result from the differences in the size and nature of the R groups. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. The subunits of different potassium channels have common structural features that bestow selectivity for K+ ions. A ______________ is one such structural feature.

20. All amino acids have a central (alpha) _________ atom.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. pore loop 20. carbon

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1. How long does an action potential last from the beginning of the rising phase to the end of the falling phase? Choose the correct option.

A) 2 nanoseconds B) 2 msec C) 2 seconds D) 2 microseconds

2. What is meant by the action potential threshold? Choose the correct option.

A) Critical level of depolarization required to trigger an action potential B) Critical level of hyperpolarization required to trigger an action potential C) The action potential threshold is the same as the generator potential.

D) Critical level at which electrical current is injected through a microelectrode

3. What is the absolute refractory period? Choose the correct option.

A) The period when the firing frequency is at about 1000 Hz B) The time period of about 1 msec after an action potential before another one can be initiated C) The time period of several milliseconds when it is difficult to initiate another action potential due to sodium channel inactivation D) The time period when the membrane potential stays hyperpolarized until the voltage-gated potassium channels close

4. The movement of what ion occurs in the rising phase of the action potential? Choose the correct option.

A) Inward Na+ B) Outward K+ C) Outward Na+ D) Inward K+ 5. How does the sodium channel selectivity filter differentiate between Na+ and K+ ions?

Choose the correct option.

A) The sodium channel identifies K+ ions as having the wrong charge.

B) The K+ ions are stripped of all their water molecules, but the Na+ ions are not.

C) The sodium channel admits a Na+ water complex, with the water serving as a molecular chaperone through the channel.

D) K+ ions are excluded by voltage gating.

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6. How does tetrodotoxin (TTX) affect channels? Choose the correct option.

A) TTX blocks K+ channels.

B) TTX blocks Na+ channels.

C) TTX blocks Cl– channels.

D) TTX sensitizes voltage-gated Na+ channels.

7. How have toxins been used as a research tool? Choose the correct option.

A) As an experimental treatment for epilepsy B) To deliver foreign genes within a test animal C) To study the consequences of enhancing action potentials D) To study the consequences of blocking action potentials

8. How long does it take for a voltage-gated potassium channel to open? Choose the correct option.

A) Voltage-gated potassium channels open about 3 msec after depolarization.

B) Voltage-gated potassium channels open as soon as the membrane is depolarized beyond threshold.

C) Voltage-gated potassium channels open about 1 msec after the membrane is depolarized.

D) Voltage-gated potassium channels open when action potentials fire at maximal frequency.

9. What role do voltage-gated potassium channels play in the action potential? Choose the correct option.

A) Voltage-gated potassium channels maintain the resting membrane potential.

B) Voltage-gated potassium channels help depolarize the membrane toward the threshold for an action potential.

C) Voltage-gated potassium channels interfere with sodium conductance.

D) Voltage-gated potassium channels restore negative membrane potential after the spike.

10. How does myelin help increase conduction velocity? Choose the correct option.

A) It provides electrical insulation.

B) It makes the membrane more excitable.

C) It contains voltage-gated sodium channels.

D) It increases axonal diameter.

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11. Why do action potentials travel in only one direction? Choose the correct option.

A) The membrane just behind the action potential is refractory due to inactivated potassium channels.

B) The membrane just behind the action potential is refractory due to inactivated sodium channels.

C) Membrane proteins are destroyed when an action potential fires and it takes time to replace them.

D) There is not enough sodium in the extracellular space after an action potential has just fired.

12. Where is the spike-initiation zone in a typical neuron? Choose the correct option.

A) The axon hillock B) The axon terminal C) The cell body D) The part of the neuron where the dendrites originate from the soma 13. What property of the voltage-gated potassium channels allows K+ ions to pass? Choose the correct option.

A) Two polypeptide subunits are synthesized when the membrane is depolarized, allowing K+ ions to pass.

B) Depolarization causes the subunits to temporarily disintegrate so that K+ ions can pass through the membrane.

C) The voltage-gated potassium channels open when the polypeptide subunits are disinhibited.

D) Depolarization causes the four polypeptide subunits specific to the voltage-gated K+ channel to twist into a shape that allows K+ ions to pass.

14. Optogenetic techniques have been developed allowing researchers to do which of the following by introducing foreign genes into test animals? Choose the correct option.

A) Cause selected neurons to glow in response to blue light B) Dramatically reduce the rate of neuronal firing in response to blue light C) Open ion channels in response to blue light D) Close ion channels in response to blue light

15. The spike-initiation zone in most peripheral sensory neurons occurs near the sensory nerve ending. True or false?

A) True B) False

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16. The size of the giant axon of the squid illustrates that neural pathways that are important for survival have unusually large axons. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. The firing frequency of action potentials reflects the magnitude of the depolarizing current. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. In myelinated axons, action potentials are conducted slowly. This type of action potential propagation is called saltatory conduction. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Saxitoxin is a channel-blocking toxin produced by the dinoflagellates of the genus Gonyaulax.

A) True B) False

20. Neurons vary in shape, size, gene expression, and connections, but all have identical electrical properties. True or false?

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B

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1. Identify the neuroscientists who first proved the existence of electrical synapses. Choose the correct option.

A) Edwin Furshpan and David Potter B) Bernard Katz and John Eccles C) Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley D) Toshio Narahashi and Otto Loewi

2. What types of cells can a neuron communicate with at a synapse? Choose the correct option.

A) Only another neuron B) Only a muscle cell C) Only a glandular cell D) Another neuron, muscle cell, or glandular cell

3. What is the function of a gap junction between neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) Chemical synapse between the neurons B) Electrical synapse between the neurons C) To join the cytoplasm of two neurons D) To provide a conduit for mRNA between the neurons

4. What is the other name for dense-core vesicles? Choose the correct option.

A) Secretory granules B) Synaptic cleft C) Any presynaptic element D) Postsynaptic vesicles

5. Why are neuromuscular junctions such reliable synapses? Choose the correct option.

A) Because the axon terminal is relatively small B) Because the presynaptic terminal contains a small number of active zones C) Because the motor end-plate narrows to a single point D) Because the axon terminal is large and the presynaptic terminal contains a large number of active zones

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6. What are transporters? What is their role? Choose the correct option.

A) Enzymes that synthesize neurotransmitters from metabolic precursors; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft B) Synthesizing enzymes for both amino acid and amine neurotransmitters; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters inside the vesicle C) Special proteins embedded in the vesicle membrane; responsible for synthesizing neurotransmitters D) Special proteins embedded in the vesicle membrane; responsible for concentrating neurotransmitters inside the vesicle

7. Which of the following channels in the active zones of the synaptic terminal open when the membrane depolarizes and causes the release of synaptic vesicles? Choose the correct option.

A) Sodium channels B) Potassium channels C) Voltage-gated calcium channels D) Voltage-gated sodium channels

8. Under what conditions are peptide neurotransmitters generally released from the synaptic terminal? Choose the correct option.

A) With every action potential B) Only within 1 in 100 action potentials C) Only with high-frequency trains of action potentials D) Only with low-frequency trains of action potentials

9. What are second messengers? Choose the correct option.

A) Molecules that activate additional enzymes in the cytosol B) Voltage-gated ion channels C) Peptide neurotransmitters D) Special proteins that span a 3 nm gap between two cell membranes

10. How are released neurotransmitters cleared from the synaptic cleft? Choose the correct option.

A) Enzymatic destruction and diffusion B) Exocytosis C) Endocytosis D) Both exocytosis and endocytosis

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11. How do nerve gases interfere with synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction?

Choose the correct option.

A) By blocking transmitter-gated ion channels at the neuromuscular junction B) By inhibiting the enzyme AChE C) By increasing the availability of AChE D) By exhausting the number of synaptic vesicles in the synaptic terminal

12. What is synaptic integration? Choose the correct option.

A) A method of comparing the amplitudes of miniature postsynaptic potentials B) Adding together all IPSPs generated by a single neuron C) Adding together all EPSPs generated by a single neuron D) A process by which multiple synaptic potentials combine within one postsynaptic neuron

13. Quantal analysis shows that a single action potential at the neuromuscular junction causes an EPSP of 40 mV or more, compared to only a few tenths of a millivolt at many CNS synapses. What accounts for this difference? Choose the correct option.

A) A larger number of synaptic vesicles releasing neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses B) A larger number of transmitter molecules within the synaptic vesicles of a motor neuron compared with CNS synapses C) Larger receptors at the neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses D) A larger synaptic cleft at neuromuscular junction compared with CNS synapses

14. What is the effect of activating G-protein-coupled neurotransmitter receptors? Choose the correct option.

A) No effect unless multiple EPSPs occur B) Activate enzymes only at the neuromuscular junction C) Activate effector proteins such as ion channels or those that synthesize second messengers D) Inhibit depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron

15. Protein phosphorylation can change the conformation of a protein, thereby changing its activity. True or false?

A) True B) False

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16. If the postsynaptic cell is an interneuron that uses GABA as a neurotransmitter, the excitation of the cell will result in an action potential in its synaptic targets. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. The effectiveness of an excitatory synapse in triggering an action potential depends on how near the synapse is to the spike-initiation zone and the properties of the dendritic membrane. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Second messengers can alter cellular metabolism by activating additional enzymes in the cytosol. True or false?

A) True B) False 19. Opening of the chloride channel allows Cl– ions to cross the membrane, bringing the membrane potential toward the ___________ equilibrium potential, E Cl , about –65 mV. If the membrane potential was less negative than –65 mV when the transmitter was released, the activation of these channels would cause a ___________________ IPSP.

20. Most neurotransmitters fall into one of the three chemical categories: _____________, ___________, and _____________.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. chloride, hyperpolarizing 20. amino acids, amines, peptides

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1. What is microiontophoresis? Choose the correct option.

A) Method of miniaturizing the brain for more efficient study B) Method of removing small amounts of neurotransmitter from the synaptic terminal C) Method of applying small amounts of neurotransmitter candidates to the surface of neurons D) Movement of ions over extremely small distances 2. Brain slices can be bathed in a concentrated K+ solution to stimulate neurotransmitter release. Why must Ca2+ ions also be present in the bathing solution? Choose the correct option.

A) Ca2+ causes a large membrane depolarization.

B) Ca2+ helps keep the brain slices alive.

C) Transmitter release requires the entry of Ca2+ into the axon terminal.

D) Ca2+ stimulates many synapses in a region of the brain.

3. Which of the following describes immunocytochemistry? Choose the correct option.

A) A method of localizing specific mRNA transcripts for proteins B) The use of antibodies to visualize specific molecules within the brain cells C) The use of radioactivity to localize neurotransmitters and their synthesizing enzymes D) A method used to assess the postsynaptic actions of a transmitter candidate

4. Which chemical structure is present in all catecholaminergic neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) Adrenaline B) Dopamine C) Catechol D) Norepinephrine

5. What is unusual about endocannabinoids or endogenous cannabinoids? Choose the correct option.

A) They are retrograde messengers by which postsynaptic neurons act on presynaptic terminals.

B) They play an important role in the brain systems that regulate vital functions such as breathing.

C) They contain a chemical structure called catechol.

D) They float in the membrane-like adenylyl cyclase.

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6. Why does ACh slow the heart rate? Choose the correct option.

A) It stimulates muscarinic receptors that open potassium channels.

B) It stimulates muscarinic receptors that close potassium channels.

C) It stimulates nicotinic receptors that open potassium channels.

D) It stimulates nicotinic receptors that close potassium channels.

7. Why are G-protein-gated ion channels called “the shortcut pathway”? Choose the correct option.

A) Because they are faster than neurotransmitter-gated ion channels B) Because they do not involve any other chemical intermediaries C) Because of their effects on the second messenger cascade D) Because they activate downstream enzymes that alter neuronal function

8. Which of the following statements about the nicotinic and muscarinic receptor subtypes is correct? Choose the correct option.

A) Nicotinic receptors are found in the skeletal muscle, whereas muscarinic receptors are found in the cardiac muscle.

B) Muscarinic receptors are found in the skeletal muscle, whereas nicotinic receptors are found in the cardiac muscle.

C) Nicotinic receptors are antagonized by atropine.

D) Muscarinic receptors are antagonized by curare.

9. Where is ChAT produced? Choose the correct option.

A) Axon terminal B) Soma C) Synaptic vesicles D) Postsynaptic membrane

10. Which of the following could serve as the ligand in the ligand-binding methods of studying neurotransmitter receptors? Choose the correct option.

A) Only an agonist B) Only an antagonist C) Only a neurotransmitter D) An agonist, antagonist, or neurotransmitter

11. Which of the following is a glutamate receptor subtype? Choose the correct option.

A) NMDA receptor B) Nicotinic receptor C) Muscarinic receptor D) Opioid receptor

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12. Which of the following is a difference in AMPA and NMDA glutamate-gated channels?

Choose the correct option.

A) NMDA-gated channels are not permeable to Ca2+.

B) The inward current through AMPA-gated channels is voltage-dependent.

C) The activation of NMDA receptors can cause widespread and lasting changes in the postsynaptic neuron.

D) NMDA-gated channels are permeable to both Na+ and Ca2+.

13. Which of the following mediate most of the synaptic inhibition in the CNS? Choose the correct option.

A) GABA and glycine B) Glutamate and glycine C) GABA and glutamate D) Glycine and glycerine

14. With in situ hybridization, a synthetic probe is constructed containing a sequence of complementary nucleotides that will allow it to stick to the mRNA. True or false?

A) True B) False

15. The transmission of G-protein-coupled receptors involves only two steps: binding to the receptor protein and activation of G-proteins. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Dale's principle states that a neuron has at least two different neurotransmitters. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. GABAergic neurons are the major source of synaptic inhibition in the nervous system.

True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. The amino acid tyrosine is the precursor for three different amine neurotransmitters: dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. All catecholaminergic neurons contain the enzyme _____________ that catalyzes the first step in catecholamine synthesis, the conversion to _______.

20. The choline transporter is a neuronal membrane transporter that shuttles ____________ from the extracellular space into the cytosol of the axon terminal. On the other hand, the ACh transporter concentrates the neurotransmitter in the _______________. Both move the transmitter molecules against their ________________.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. tyrosine hydroxylase (TH), dopa 20. choline, synaptic vesicles, concentration gradients

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1. Which side of the cerebellum is concerned with movements of the right hand? Choose the correct option.

A) Right B) Left C) Frontal D) Dorsal

2. Which of the following regulates vital bodily functions such as breathing? Choose the correct option.

A) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum C) Brain stem D) Meninges

3. Axons of the nervous system are described as afferent and efferent according to the direction in which they carry information. Which of the following represents an efferent projection? Choose the correct option.

A) Sensory input to the spinal cord B) Motor output from the spinal cord C) Interneurons in the spinal cord D) Sensory input to the spinal cord, motor output from the spinal cord, and interneurons in the spinal cord

4. At what point do the somatic sensory axons enter the spinal cord? Choose the correct option.

A) Dorsal roots B) Ventral roots C) Dorsal root ganglia D) Ventral root ganglia

5. Which of the following is a “functional” imaging technique capable of detecting changes in blood flow or metabolism? Choose the correct option.

A) X-rays B) Computed tomography C) Diffusion tensor imaging D) Positron emission tomography

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6. Which membrane lies closest to the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Meninges B) Dura mater C) Arachnoid D) Pia mater

7. Where is CSF produced? Choose the correct option.

A) Choroid plexus in the cerebral ventricles B) Subarachnoid space C) Diencephalon D) Arachnoid villi

8. What is one of the advantages of MRI over CT scanning? Choose the correct option.

A) MRI is faster than CT scanning.

B) MRI yields more shades of gray in an image than CT scanning.

C) MRI produces images of brain slices.

D) MRI yields a more detailed map of the brain.

9. The central nervous system develops from which embryonic tissue? Choose the correct option.

A) Neural crest B) Ectoderm C) Mesoderm D) Endoderm

10. Which major white matter system forms an axonal bridge linking the cerebral hemispheres? Choose the correct option.

A) Dorsal columns B) Corpus callosum C) Internal capsule D) Posterior capsule

11. What is neurulation? Choose the correct option.

A) Neuron genesis B) Synaptogenesis C) The process by which the neural plate becomes the neural tube D) The process by which the neural crest becomes the neural tube

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12. The retinas of the eyes develop from which of the following embryonic zones? Choose the correct option.

A) Telencephalon B) Prosencephalon C) Mesencephalon D) Neural crest

13. Which of the following is derived from “telencephalon”? Choose the correct option.

A) Eyes B) Thalamus C) Cerebral hemispheres D) Hypothalamus

14. Which of the following is the most posterior cerebral lobe in the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Occipital lobe B) Temporal lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Frontal lobe

15. The retina is part of the peripheral nervous system. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Neurons in the olfactory bulbs are often referred to as the gateway to the cerebral cortex.

True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Damage to the corticospinal tract in the midbrain on one side produces a loss of voluntary control of movement on the opposite side of the body. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Brodmann constructed a cytoarchitectural map of the neocortex based on each area with a common cytoarchitecture. True or false?

A) True B) False

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19. The three primary embryonic vesicles are the prosencephalon or the ____________, the mesencephalon or the ____________, and the rhombencephalon or the _____________.

20. The crossing of axons of each pyramidal tract from one side of the midline to the other where the medulla joins the spinal cord is called the ____________.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain 20. pyramidal decussation

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1. What are chemoreceptors? Choose the correct option.

A) Cells releasing hormones into the extracellular environment B) Chemically sensitive cells that serve as sensory receptors C) Chemically sensitive cells that mediate synapses at the neuromuscular junction D) Special types of muscle cells sensitive to chemical changes in the extracellular milieu

2. What changes occur in taste receptors when the membrane is depolarized during receptor potential? Choose the correct option.

A) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open, triggering the release of neurotransmitter.

B) Voltage-gated K+ channels open, triggering the release of neurotransmitter.

C) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open, inhibiting the release of neurotransmitter.

D) Voltage-gated K+ channels open, inhibiting the release of neurotransmitter.

3. Identify the causative agent for acidity and sourness. Choose the correct option.

A) High pH B) Na+ C) Anions D) Protons (H+)

4. Identify the difference between sweet receptors and bitter receptors. Choose the correct option.

A) G-protein-coupled receptors are present in bitter receptors.

B) Bitter receptors have only T2R, whereas sweet receptors have T1R2 and T1R3.

C) The second messenger pathway activation is different.

D) The transduction mechanisms are different.

5. How does the brain distinguish between alternative tastes? Choose the correct option.

A) Only by precisely labeled lines B) Only by population coding C) By frequency distribution D) By roughly labeled lines and population coding

6. What is the function of odorant-binding proteins in the mucus? Choose the correct option.

A) May concentrate odorants B) May bind to viruses and bacteria C) Generate new receptor cells D) Produce the mucus

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7. What is the consequence of knocking out critical proteins of the olfactory cAMP pathway in mice? Choose the correct option.

A) Odorants diffuse away.

B) Anosmia occurs.

C) Channels in cilia are sensitized.

D) Receptor cells degenerate.

8. What mechanism(s) does the brain use to distinguish between smells? Choose the correct option.

A) Only olfactory maps B) Only temporal code C) Only population code D) Olfactory map, temporal code, and population code

9. What is meant by the threshold concentration for taste stimuli? Choose the correct option.

A) The concentration that evokes bitter versus sweet taste B) The concentration that excites the glomerulus C) The concentration that evokes perception of taste D) The concentration at which selectivity decreases

10. Which of the following occurs during sour taste transduction? Choose the correct option.

A) K+ influx depolarizes the cell.

B) Ca2+ influx depolarizes the cell.

C) Na+ influx depolarizes the cell.

D) H+ influx depolarizes the cell.

11. Why do we not confuse the tastes of bitter chemicals with sweet ones? Choose the correct option.

A) The receptor proteins are expressed in different cells.

B) The chemicals activate different second messenger systems.

C) There are 30 types of bitter receptors.

D) The tastes are differentiated by the olfactory cortex.

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12. Which cranial nerve(s) carry taste information from the taste buds to the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Trigeminal nerve, trochlear nerve, and facial nerve B) Abducens nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and hypoglossal nerve C) Vagus nerve, olfactory nerve, and hypoglossal nerve D) Facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and vagus nerve

13. Which is true of population coding? Choose the correct option.

A) A large number of neurons specify the properties of a stimulus.

B) There is an orderly spatial arrangement of neurons.

C) Temporal patterns of spiking codes determine the quality of an odor.

D) Receptor cells are each responsive to only a single taste.

14. Most bitter organic compounds can be tasted only at high concentrations. True or false?

A) True B) False

15. The taste of amino acids is not confused with the taste of sweet or bitter chemicals because the taste cells express specific receptor proteins. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Virtually every cell in every organism is responsive to many chemicals. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. The arrangement of olfactory connections produces direct influence on the parts of the forebrain that have roles in odor discrimination, emotion, motivation, and certain kinds of memory. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Each papilla has multiple types of taste receptor cells, and each receptor type is specialized for a different category of taste. True or false?

A) True B) False

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19. Each olfactory receptor gene has a unique structure, which allows the receptor proteins encoded by these genes to bind to different odorants. True or false?

A) True B) False 20. Salt-sensitive taste cells have a special Na+-selective channel, which is blocked by _______________.

21. Lesions within the gustatory cortex or VPM thalamus can cause __________.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. amiloride 21. ageusia

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1. What is absorption? Choose the correct option.

A) The bouncing of light rays off a surface B) The bending of light rays from one transparent medium to another C) The transfer of light energy to a particle or surface D) The bouncing of light rays from one transparent medium to another

2. Why there is no sensation of light at the optic disk? Choose the correct option.

A) Because the optic disk is a theoretical construct B) Because there are no photoreceptors in the optic disk C) Because optic nerve fibers exit the retina at this point D) Because of the presence of the vitreous humor

3. How is the aqueous humor different from the vitreous humor? Choose the correct option.

A) Aqueous humor is a viscous jelly-like fluid, whereas the vitreous humor is a thin watery fluid.

B) Aqueous humor lies behind the cornea, whereas the vitreous humor lies between the lens and the retina.

C) The aqueous humor serves to keep the eyeball spherical, whereas the vitreous humor helps in nourishing the cornea.

D) The pigmentation of aqueous humor provides the eye's color, whereas the vitreous humor has no pigment.

4. If the cornea has a refractive power of about 42 diopters, at what distance behind the corneal surface will parallel light rays be focused on the retina? Choose the correct option.

A) 0.024 m B) 2.4 mm C) 0.024 cm D) 0.24 cm

5. Which layer in the retina contains the cell bodies of the bipolar cells, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells? Choose the correct option.

A) Outer nuclear layer B) Ganglion cell layer C) Inner nuclear layer D) Photoreceptor outer segment layer

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6. Which cells in the retina have axons that leave the retina? Choose the correct option.

A) Photoreceptors B) Bipolar cells C) Ganglion cells D) Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells

7. Most of the eyes refractive power is accomplished by what structure? Choose the correct option.

A) Lens B) Cornea C) Aqueous humor D) Vitreous humor

8. Why does the fovea appear like a pit in a cross-sectional view of the retinal? Choose the correct option.

A) Because of the lateral displacement of cells above the photoreceptors in the fovea B) Because of a low ratio of photoreceptors to ganglion cells in the fovea C) Because photoreceptors are smaller in the fovea D) Because of the presence of other cells in the fovea that might scatter light

9. What is meant by the term duplex retina? Choose the correct option.

A) The cones are sensitive to two different wavelengths.

B) The retina is capable of both scotopic and photopic vision.

C) Cones, not rods, are wavelength-sensitive.

D) The transition from all-cone daytime to all-rod nighttime vision is instantaneous.

10. Which of the following corresponds to the photoreceptor “dark current”? Choose the correct option.

A) The movement of positive current across the photoreceptor membrane in the dark B) Some retinal current is light and some is dark because of photoreceptor pigmentation.

C) The resting membrane potential of a rod's outer segment is –65 mV. D) The movement of negative current across the photoreceptor membrane in the dark

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11. What is a difference between ON-center ganglion cells and OFF-center ganglion cells?

Choose the correct option.

A) ON-center ganglion cells constitute about 90% of the ganglion cell population, whereas OFF-center ganglion cells constitute about 5% of the ganglion population.

B) ON-center ganglion cells respond to stimulation of their receptive field centers with a transient burst of action potentials, whereas OFF-center ganglion cells respond with a sustained discharge.

C) ON-center ganglion cells receive input from ON bipolar cells, whereas OFF-center ganglion cells receive input from OFF bipolar cells.

D) In an ON-center ganglion cell, the response to stimulation of the center is canceled by the response to stimulation of the surround, but this response cancellation does occur in an OFF-center ganglion cells.

12. Which of the following is an example of parallel processing in the central visual system? Choose the correct option.

A) Simultaneous input from two eyes provides the central visual system with information about depth, the distance of an object from the observer.

B) Streams of information from the ON-center ganglion cells depend on the information from the OFF-center ganglion cells in each retina.

C) M- and P-type retinal ganglion cells have different receptive field properties, and their information becomes unified in the lateral geniculate.

D) Regardless of any brain structure that might be destroyed, other structures will always ensure the continuity of vision.

13. How does the eye focus on objects located at a distance less than about 9 m? Choose the correct option.

A) Refraction only by the cornea B) A change in the shape of the lens in addition to refraction by the cornea C) A change in the length of the eye ball in addition to refraction by the cornea D) Combined changes in the shape of the cornea, lens, and length of the eye ball

14. Which layer contains the light-sensitive elements of the retina? Choose the correct option.

A) Inner nuclear layer B) Outer plexiform layer C) Ganglion cell layer D) Photoreceptor layer

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15. The range of wavelengths in the visible electromagnetic spectrum is 100–1000 nm. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. In the process of signal amplification, a single G-protein is activated by each photopigment molecule, and each PDE enzyme breaks down a single cGMP molecule.

True or false?

A) True B) False

17. A center-surround receptive field consists of two areas with antagonistic responses to the presence or absence of light. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The sclera is the glossy transparent external surface of the eye that covers the pupil and the iris. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. The pupillary light reflex is _______________, which means that shining a light into only one eye causes the constriction of pupils of both eyes. The absence of this response suggests serious neurological trouble involving the _______________.

20. In the outer plexiform layer, each photoreceptor is in synaptic contact with two types of retinal neurons: the __________ cells and the _____________ cells.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. consensual, brain stem 20. bipolar, horizontal

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1. Which part of the brain is the major target of the retinofugal projection in nonmammalian vertebrates? Choose the correct option.

A) Tectum of the midbrain B) Pretectum C) Part of the hypothalamus D) Optic nerve

2. Which of the following is the function of direction-selective striate cortex neurons?

Choose the correct option.

A) Analysis of object shape B) Analysis of object motion C) Analysis of object color D) Analysis of object meaning

3. James, age 22 years, was riding a motorbike when he had an accident. A neuropsychological test revealed that James suffered extensive damage to area V4 in the ventral stream. What is the most likely deficit resulting from a V4 lesion? Select the correct option.

A) Peripheral vision deficit B) Total vision deficit C) Motion perception deficit D) Color perception deficit

4. Which of the following is a role proposed for movement-sensitive neurons in the parietal area called MST? Choose the correct option.

A) Navigation B) Shape perception C) Color perception D) Peripheral vision

5. Which of the following is the common characteristic in the receptive fields in the ganglion cells of the retina, the LGN, and striate cortex neurons in layer IVC? Choose the correct option.

A) Center surround B) Elongated bar of light moving across the receptive field C) Optimal orientation of a bar of light D) Radial column of cells from pia to white matter

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6. Where are the first binocular neurons encountered in the retinofugal projection? Choose the correct option.

A) LGN B) Striate cortex layers superficial to layer IVC C) Ganglion cells D) Retinal cells

7. Mr. Stewart underwent a surgery to remove a tumor in his brain. During the surgery, lesions developed in the optic radiations. What is the potential impact of these lesions?

Choose the correct option.

A) Blindness in part or all of the visual field B) Color loss in part or all of the visual field C) Shape perception loss D) Peripheral vision loss

8. Susan fell down the staircase and injured her head, causing a transection of the left optic nerve. What is the consequence of this lesion? Choose the correct option.

A) Blindness in the left visual field B) Blindness in the left eye C) Blindness in the right visual field D) Blindness in the right eye

9. What is a primary similarity in the visual receptive fields of LGN neurons and the ganglion cells that feed them? Choose the correct option.

A) Both have center-surround receptive fields.

B) Both display orientation selectivity.

C) Both are insensitive to wavelength.

D) Both are binocular.

10. Which of the following describes spiny stellate cells in striate cortex? Choose the correct option.

A) Spiny stellate cells are found in layer IVC. B) Spiny stellate cells are characterized by a single thick apical dendrite.

C) Spiny stellate cells are triangular in shape and have multiple basal dendrites.

D) Spiny stellate cells project to subcortical structures.

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11. Which of the following is the most likely basis of visual perception? Choose the correct option.

A) Hierarchical organization of visual receptive fields culminating in highly specialized cells such as grandmother cells B) Concerted activity of many neurons throughout the visual pathways C) Decussation at the optic chiasm, projecting the left visual field to the right brain and the right field to the left brain D) Binocular neurons in striate cortex

12. The optic radiation is the projection from the LGN to the optic tract. True or false?

A) True B) False

13. Ocular dominance columns are bands of cells extending through the thickness of the striate cortex. True or false?

A) True B) False

14. Magnocellular LGN neurons project primarily to layer IVCα, and parvocellular LGN neurons project to layer IVCβ. True or false?

A) True B) False

15. Striate cortex blobs receive koniocellular input from layer IVC of the striate cortex.

True or false?

A) True B) False

16. The binocular visual field is the entire region of space that can be seen with both eyes fixated straight ahead. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Axons that remain on the same side of the brain as they project centrally are called _______________, whereas fibers that cross to the opposite side are called __________________.

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18. ______________ is a rare clinical syndrome that results in a partial or complete loss of color vision despite the presence of normal functional cones in the retina.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. ipsilateral, contralateral 18. Achromatopsia

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1. Which of the following is perceived as having a higher pitch? Choose the correct option.

A) Low-frequency sound waves B) High-frequency sound waves C) Low-intensity sound waves D) High-intensity sound waves

2. Identify the two structures that are separated by the tympanic membrane. Choose the correct option.

A) The middle ear and inner ear B) The oval window and the cochlea C) The auditory canal and the ossicles D) The auditory canal and the inner ear

3. Which of the following triggers movement of the ossicles in the auditory pathway?

Choose the correct option.

A) Oval window B) Tympanic membrane C) Cochlea D) The scalae

4. Which of the following contributes to the pressure at the oval window being 20 times greater than that at the tympanic membrane? Choose the correct option.

A) Ossicles act like levers.

B) The area of the oval window is larger than the tympanic membrane.

C) Air has more inertia than fluid.

D) Sound pressure waves press directly on the oval window.

5. Why is movement at the oval window accompanied by a complementary motion at the round window? Choose the correct option.

A) Ossicles moving like tiny pistons B) Flexible basilar membrane C) Incompressible fluid in cochlea D) Rigid membranes inside cochlea

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6. What is the auditory attenuation reflex? Choose the correct option.

A) Contraction of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles to make the chain of ossicles more rigid and diminish sound conduction B) Contraction of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles to make the chain of ossicles more rigid and amplify sound conduction C) The damage of inner hair cells caused by loud sounds D) Unilateral loss of A1 signaling caused by loud sounds

7. Which localization process is used mostly for sounds in the range of 20–2000 Hz? Choose the correct option.

A) Tonotopy B) Phase locking C) Interaural intensity difference D) Interaural time delay

8. Which of the following is crucial for the tilt sensitivity of the macula? Choose the correct option.

A) Ampulla B) Macula C) Otoconia D) Saccule

9. Which of the following is the function of vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)? Choose the correct option.

A) Fixes sight on visual target during body movement by adjusting head, eye, and body positions B) Responds to changes in eye movement by adjusting the body position C) Suppresses activity in the extraocular muscles in the dark D) Increases sensitivity to vertical movements when riding a bike or a horse

10. What role do primary somatosensory and primary motor areas of cortex play in maintaining our perception of equilibrium and the execution of complex, coordinated movements? Choose the correct option.

A) Focusing on one aspect of head position, body position, or eye position in relation to the visual scene B) Interpreting the visual scene C) Maintaining a representation of body position and orientation in space D) Screening out irrelevant sensory stimuli

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11. What is a footplate? Choose the correct option.

A) Hole in membranes at the apex of cochlea B) Membrane hanging over the organ of Corti C) Flat bottom portion of stapes that moves like a piston D) Structure that separates the scala vestibule from the scala media

12. What is an important development in the superior olive? Choose the correct option.

A) Cells receive inputs from both ears.

B) Cells receive inputs from a single hair cell on the basilar membrane.

C) Cells receive inputs just from the ear on the ipsilateral side.

D) Cells receive inputs just from the ear on the contralateral side.

13. Which of the following is a brain mechanism for encoding sound intensity? Choose the correct option.

A) Only the number of active neurons B) Only the firing rates of auditory neurons C) Both the number of active neurons and the firing rates of auditory neurons D) Neither the number of active neurons nor the firing rates of auditory neurons

14. Which of the following contains auditory receptor neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) Tectorial membrane B) Reissner's membrane C) Helicotrema D) Organ of Corti

15. A neural response triggered by a loud sound causes the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles to contract. This response is called the attenuation reflex. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. A unilateral lesion in the auditory cortex will cause complete deafness. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. One organizational principle of auditory cortex is the presence of columns of cells with binaural interaction in the auditory cortex. True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. Inner ear structures provide selectivity for three types of mechanical energy: periodic waves of air pressure, rotational forces, and linear forces. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Phase locking is used to represent very low frequencies, and ___________ is used for high frequencies.

20. The organs of balance and hearing in mammals evolved from the _______ ______ organs of aquatic vertebrates.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. tonotopy 20. lateral line

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1. Identify a type of hairless skin. Choose the correct option.

A) Glabrous B) Epidermis C) Dermis D) Follicles

2. Which of the following has large receptive fields that may cover an entire finger or half of the palm? Choose the correct option.

A) Merkel's disks B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Meissner's corpuscles D) Krause end bulbs

3. What are mechanoreceptors? Choose the correct option.

A) Sensitive to high-frequency vibrations B) Sensitive to smooth, mechanical surfaces C) Sensitive to physical distortion D) Sensitive to temperature changes

4. What is meant by the notion “the output of the cortex can influence the input of the cortex”? Choose the correct option.

A) Neurons of the thalamus and dorsal column are also controlled by cortical input.

B) Information is transferred unchanged through the brain stem and the thalamus.

C) Information synapses at the thalamus before proceeding to the neocortex.

D) Somatic sensory system of one side of the brain is related to the other side of the body.

5. What is two-point discrimination? Choose the correct option.

A) The average distance between two points that can be differentiated by the somatic sensory system B) The greatest distance between two points that can be differentiated by the somatic sensory system C) The smallest distance between two points that can be differentiated by the somatic sensory system D) The distance between two points that cannot be differentiated by the somatic sensory system

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6. Identify the disorder that causes inability to recognize common objects by feeling them even though they can be recognized by sight or sound. Choose the correct option.

A) Astereognosia B) Agnosia C) Analgesia D) Anosmia

7. Primary sensory afferent axons have widely varying diameters, and their size correlates with the type of receptor to which they are attached. Which of these axons are the smallest and the slowest? Choose the correct option.

A) Proprioceptors of the skeletal muscles B) Mechanoreceptors of the skin C) Pain and temperature D) Temperature, pain, and itch

8. What type of information does the dorsal column–medial lemniscal pathway carry?

Choose the correct option.

A) Pain and temperature B) Touch and temperature C) Pain and proprioception D) Touch and vibration

9. At what point do the axons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscal pathway cross to the opposite side of the CNS? Choose the correct option.

A) The ascending axons in the dorsal columns cross immediately in the spinal cord and ascend to the brain stem contralaterally.

B) The ascending axons in the dorsal columns cross at the level of the thalamus.

C) The axons from the cells of the dorsal column nuclei decussate in the medulla.

D) The ascending axons in the dorsal columns do not cross.

10. At what point do the axons of the spinothalamic pathway cross to the opposite side of the CNS? Choose the correct option.

A) Axons of the spinothalamic pathway cross immediately in the spinal cord and ascend contralaterally.

B) Axons of the spinothalamic pathway cross at the level of the medulla.

C) Axons of the spinothalamic pathway cross at the level of the thalamus.

D) Axons of the spinothalamic pathway do not cross.

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11. Which of the following are somatic sensory areas of the parietal lobe? Choose the correct option.

A) Areas 1 and 2 B) Areas 3a and 3b C) Areas 5 and 7 D) Areas 1, 2, 3a, 3b, 5, and 7

12. Which quality of the somatic sensory cortical organization does the distortion of the sensory homunculus reflect? Choose the correct option.

A) The relative size of the cortex that is devoted to each body part is correlated with the density of the sensory input received from that part.

B) It is a primitive representation of the earlier stages of evolution.

C) The uneven surface of the cortex disrupts the representation of the body surface.

D) The relative size of the cortex that is devoted to each body part varies widely among different individuals.

13. Which of the following primary afferent axons is the largest and fastest? Choose the correct option.

A) Aα B) Aβ C) Aδ D) C

14. To which stimuli do the majority of nociceptors respond? Choose the correct option.

A) Mechanical B) Thermal C) Mechanical, thermal, and chemical D) Chemical

15. Recent experiments have shown that synaptic transmission mediated by substance P is required to experience moderate to intense pain. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Information about pain and temperature is conducted more rapidly than information about touch and proprioception. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Damage to half of the spinal cord can result in a loss of pain and temperature sensation contralaterally and a loss of touch and proprioception ipsilaterally. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Each finger is represented by an adjacent area of somatic sensory cortex. Within the area of each finger, representations are alternating columns of cells with _______________ and _______________ adapting sensory responses.

19. A patient may ignore the food on one-half of his plate and draws only one-half of a clock. This is called ___________ syndrome.

20. Thirty spinal segments are divided into four groups: ___________, _____________, _______________, and ______________.

21. The area of skin innervated by the right and left dorsal roots of a single spinal segment is called a ________________.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. rapidly, slowly 19. neglect 20. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral 21. dermatome

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1. Which of the following is striated muscle? Choose the correct option.

A) Cardiac and skeletal muscle B) Only skeletal muscle C) Only cardiac muscle D) Smooth muscle

2. Which of the following is a flexor of the elbow joint? Choose the correct option.

A) Triceps brachii and brachialis B) Anconeus C) Triceps brachii D) Brachialis

3. Which muscles are specialized for the movement of the trunk? Choose the correct option.

A) Distal muscles B) Proximal muscles C) Smooth muscles D) Axial muscles

4. Why are lower motor neurons called the “final common pathway” for behavior control?

Choose the correct option.

A) They directly command muscle contraction.

B) They are the input of the motor system.

C) They integrate sensory and motor information.

D) They constitute the largest of the four main output pathways of the motor system.

5. Which muscles are innervated by the motor neurons, situated in the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord? Choose the correct option.

A) Arm muscles B) Thoracic muscles C) Leg muscles D) Neck muscles

6. What is sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)? Choose the correct option.

A) Excitable cell membrane that encloses the muscle fiber B) Extensive intracellular sac containing calcium ions C) System of tubules that bring the action potential deep inside the muscle fiber D) Voltage-sensitive channels

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7. Which is the first step in the contraction phase of the excitation–contraction coupling?

Choose the correct option.

A) Action potential occurs at the neuromuscular junction.

B) Ca2+ binds to troponin.

C) Nicotinic receptor channels in the sarcolemma open.

D) Myosin heads pivot.

8. Why does neuromuscular transmission fail in myasthenia gravis? Choose the correct option.

A) Antibodies interfere with the synthesis of acetylcholine.

B) Antibodies interfere with the function of nicotinic ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

C) Antibodies interfere with the amount of acetylcholine esterase at the neuromuscular junction.

D) Antibodies interfere with the release of synaptic vesicles at the neuromuscular junction.

9. What type of motor neurons ensures that the spindle continues to provide information about muscle length during muscle contraction? Choose the correct option.

A) Upper motor neurons B) Spinal interneurons C) Gamma motor neurons D) Alpha motor neurons

10. Which reflex prevents you from falling when you suddenly lift one foot off the ground in response to pain? Choose the correct option.

A) Stretch reflex B) Ib reflex arc C) Knee-jerk reflex D) Crossed-extensor reflex

11. What happens to the sarcolemma in the relaxation phase of the excitation–contraction coupling? Choose the correct option.

A) The sarcolemma returns to resting potential.

B) The sarcolemma depolarizes.

C) Channels in sarcolemma open D) An action potential sweeps down.

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12. Which of the following describes the function and location of Golgi tendon organs?

Choose the correct answer.

A) Monitor muscle length, situated in series with muscle fibers B) Monitor muscle length, situated in parallel with muscle fibers C) Monitor muscle tension, situated in series with muscle fibers D) Monitor muscle tension, situated in parallel with muscle fibers

13. What is reciprocal inhibition? Choose the correct option.

A) The contraction of one set of muscles is accompanied by the contraction of the same muscles on the opposite side of the body.

B) The contraction of one set of muscles is accompanied by the relaxation of the antagonist muscles.

C) Spinal interneurons have recurrent collaterals enabling them to synapse on themselves, thereby turning off their own inhibition.

D) Spinal interneurons integrate inhibitor input from both sides of the body.

14. What are central pattern generators? Choose the correct option.

A) Motor programs established in upper motor neurons to control walking B) The motor units for a given muscle C) Spinal circuits that give rise to rhythmic motor activity D) An artifact of spinal circuitry

15. An alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibers innervated by it make up the elementary component of motor control called the motor unit. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Grillner and his colleagues showed that the activation of NMDA receptors on spinal interneurons is sufficient to generate alternating rhythmic activity in the lamprey spinal cord. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Dorsal root ganglion cells are the largest source of input to alpha motor neurons. True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. Name two ways in which the CNS grades muscle contraction: (1) varying ________ _______ of motor neurons and recruiting additional _________ __________.

19. The collection of alpha motor neurons that innervates a single muscle is called a ______ ______ ___________.

20. Name three major sources of synaptic input to alpha motor neurons: ________ _________ ________, ___________________, and ____________ ________.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. firing rate, synergistic neurons 19. motor neuron pool 20. upper motor neurons, interneurons, muscle spindles

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1. In the hierarchy of motor control, which of the following is a function at the lowest level of control? Choose the correct option.

A) Activation of motor neurons that generate goal-directed movement B) Sequences of muscle contraction to accurately achieve the goal C) The goal of movement and the best method to achieve this goal D) Memory of sensory information from the past movements

2. What is the function of lateral pathways with regard to the descending motor pathways?

Choose the correct option.

A) Control the posture and locomotion B) Control the voluntary movement of distal musculature C) Control the sensory modification of motor control D) Control balance of head and shoulders

3. Which cortical area is referred to as the primary motor cortex? Choose the correct option.

A) Area 8 B) Area 5 C) Area 6 D) Area 4

4. Which of the following is true about how M1 commands voluntary movement? Choose the correct option.

A) The motor cortex is active only for complex voluntary movements.

B) The activity of each cell cast multiple votes for a particular direction of movement.

C) The direction of movement is determined by spinal reflex mechanisms.

D) The activity of each cell represents a single vote for a particular direction of movement and the direction of movement is determined by averaging the votes in the population.

5. Which of the following is a symptom of cerebellar damage? Choose the correct option.

A) Tremors of the hands and jaws B) Abnormal movements, dementia, and kinesia C) Sequential joint movement and dysmetria D) Difficulty in initiating willed movements

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6. What is the role of neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei? Choose the correct option.

A) Relay information from cortex to the cerebellum B) Relay information from the cerebellum to various brain stem structures C) Relay sensory information to the cerebellum D) Relay motor information to the cerebellum

7. Which of the following structures are included in the motor loop through the cerebellum? Choose the correct option.

A) Sensory input through pontine nuclei to cerebellum to motor cortex through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus B) Sensory input through the rubrospinal tract and cerebellar output through the pontine nuclei C) Sensory input through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus and motor output through the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus D) Sensory input through the vestibulospinal tract and motor output through the rubrospinal tract

8. Which of the following is the function of tectospinal tract? Choose the correct option.

A) Liberates antigravity muscles B) Maintains an upright posture C) Enhances the antigravity reflexes D) Orienting head and eyes toward new stimuli

9. Which of the following is the target of cortical input to the basal ganglia? Choose the correct option.

A) Striatum B) Substantia nigra C) Subthalamic nucleus D) Globus pallidus

10. When making tactical decisions, which part of the motor hierarchy controls the sequence of muscle contractions? Choose the correct option.

A) Neocortex and basal ganglia of forebrain B) Brain stem and the spinal cord C) Motor cortex and the cerebellum D) Posterior parietal and prefrontal cortex

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11. What is the function of the vestibulospinal and tectospinal tracts? Choose the correct option.

A) Balance the head as the body moves and turn the head in the direction of stimuli B) Regulate the flow of somatosensory information to the brain C) Enhance the antigravity reflexes of spinal cord and help in standing posture D) Liberate the antigravity muscles from the reflex control of the spinal cord

12. Consider the motor loop through the basal ganglia. Which of the following is the functional consequence of cortical activation of the putamen? Choose the correct option.

A) Excitation of the subthalamic nucleus B) Excitation of the globus pallidus C) Inhibition of the SMA by VL D) Excitation of the SMA by VL

13. Which part of the brain participates in implementing the “go” in the phrase “Ready, set, go”? Choose the correct option.

A) Parietal and frontal lobes B) Major subcortical input to area 6 C) Supplementary and premotor areas D) Area 7

14. What is hemiballismus? Choose the correct option.

A) Selective inability to perform simple tasks B) Violent flinging movements on one side of the body C) Dramatic and painful increase of muscle tone D) Inaccurate and uncoordinated movements

15. Lesions of the corticospinal tracts cause complete and permanent paralysis on the contralateral side. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. In monkeys, the rubrospinal tract can partly compensate for deficits caused by lesions of the corticospinal tract. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Hyperkinesia is excess movement caused by decreased basal ganglia output. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Cortical area 6 lies at the junction where signals encoding what actions are desired are converted into signals that specify how the actions will be carried out. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. In humans, the selective inability to perform complex motor acts is called _________, whereas uncoordinated, inaccurate movements are called _____________.

20. Hyperkinesia, dyskinesias, dementia, and a disorder of personality are the symptoms of ___________ _________.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. apraxia, ataxia 20. Huntington's disease

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1. Which of the following structures is known as the “true master gland of the endocrine system”? Choose the correct option.

A) Anterior pituitary B) Hypothalamus C) Adrenal glands D) Thyroid glands

2. Where are the lower motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system located? Choose the correct option.

A) Autonomic ganglia B) Brain stem C) Ventral horn D) Ventricular zone

3. Which of the following are the targets of the ANS? Choose the correct option.

A) Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands B) Skeletal muscle fibers C) Periventricular zone of the hypothalamus D) The pituitary gland

4. How does the locus coeruleus (LC) make the neurons of the cerebral cortex more responsive to salient sensory stimuli? Choose the correct option.

A) Increasing sensitivity at the neuromuscular junction B) Recruiting more LC neurons C) Inhibiting neurons of the raphe nuclei D) Speeding information processing by the point-to-point sensory and motor systems

5. Which two neurohormones are released into the bloodstream by the magnocellular neurosecretory cells? Choose the correct option.

A) Angiotensin I and angiotensin II B) Cortisol and adrenalin C) Oxytocin and vasopressin D) Renin and ADH

6. By what means does the hypothalamus control the posterior pituitary gland? Choose the correct option.

A) Parvocellular neurosecretory cells B) Hypo-thalamo-pituitary portal circulation C) Magnocellular neurosecretory cells D) Hypophysiotropic hormones

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7. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter used by postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? Choose the correct option.

A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Glycine D) GABA

8. Why is the enteric nervous system known as the “little brain?” Choose the correct option.

A) It has sulci and gyri that look like the cerebral cortex.

B) It is capable of operating independently.

C) It stimulates activity of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

D) It has little influence on body functions.

9. Why is propranolol used to treat stage fright? Choose the correct option.

A) Slows heart rate and reduces blood pressure B) Dilates the pupils C) Provides a sense of self-confidence D) Reduces the firing of raphe neurons

10. Which of the following is true of the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Each system originates with a large set of neurons.

B) Neurons arise from all parts of the brain except from the brain stem.

C) Neurons release transmitter only into the synaptic cleft.

D) Each neuron influences many others, contacting more than 100,000 postsynaptic neurons.

11. Which neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by the raphe nuclei? Choose the correct option.

A) Serotonin B) Acetylcholine C) Norepinephrine D) Adrenaline

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12. The dopaminergic system originates in the ventral tegmental area. This system innervates a circumscribed region of the telencephalon including the frontal cortex and parts of the limbic system. What term is used to refer to this dopaminergic projection?

Choose the correct option.

A) Reticular activating system B) Mesocorticolimbic dopamine system C) Pontomesencephalotegmental complex D) Medial lemniscus

13. Which of the following describes neurohormones? Choose the correct option.

A) Hormones that affect nerve cell activity B) Hormones that inhibit nerve cell activity C) Hormones released into the blood by neurons D) Hormones released into the synaptic cleft by presynaptic neurons

14. Identify the postganglionic neurotransmitter present in the parasympathetic division of the ANS. Choose the correct option.

A) Norepinephrine B) Serotonin C) Propranolol D) Acetylcholine

15. The secretory hypothalamus, autonomic nervous system, and diffuse modulatory systems of the brain operate in expanded space and time relative to the sensory and motor systems. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. A neuron in the human locus coeruleus can form more than 250,000 synapses. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. The parasympathetic division of the ANS causes you to sweat profusely in reaction to embarrassment. True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. The somatic motor system and the ANS constitute the total neural output of the CNS. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. The regulation and maintenance of levels of blood compositions and body temperatures in response to a changing external environment by the hypothalamus is called ______________.

20. The ________ _________ is like a modified sympathetic ganglion because the effect of adrenaline (epinephrine) released into the blood on the target tissues is similar to those caused by sympathetic activation.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. homeostasis 20. adrenal medulla

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1. Insulin levels are maximal during which of the following phases of the body's reaction to feeding behavior? Choose the correct option.

A) Cephalic B) Gastric C) Substrate D) Digestion

2. Hypothalamic neurons maintain homeostasis by responding to a sensory stimulus with humoral, visceromotor, and somatic motor responses. Which of the following describes the humoral response? Choose the correct option.

A) Adjusting the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic outputs of the ANS B) Inciting an appropriate somatic motor behavioral response C) Stimulating or inhibiting the release of pituitary hormones D) Regulating feedback to the central nervous system

3. Anorexia can result from damage to which of the following parts of the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Dorsal thalamus B) Ventromedial hypothalamus C) Vascular organ of lamina terminalis D) Lateral hypothalamus

4. Which of the following is the process of breaking down complex macromolecules?

Choose the correct option.

A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Adiposity D) Prandial state

5. Which neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus respond to an increase in blood leptin levels? Choose the correct option.

A) NPY/AgRP neurons B) αMSH/CART neurons C) Adipocytes D) TSH/ACTH neurons

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6. Which of the following represents the humoral response to a drop in leptin levels?

Choose the correct option.

A) Decreased secretion of TSH and ACTH from the pituitary gland B) Increased secretion of TSH and ACTH from the pituitary gland C) Activate the parasympathetic division of the ANS. D) Activate the sympathetic division of the ANS.

7. Which of the following describes the ventromedial hypothalamic syndrome? Choose the correct option.

A) Reproductive incompetence with leptin deficiency B) Hypothalamic lesions that cause anorexia C) Hypothalamic lesions that cause overeating and obesity D) Condition characterized by a decrease in adiposity

8. Neurons in the lateral hypothalamus that receive a direct projection from leptin-sensitive cells in the arcuate nucleus contain which of the following peptide neurotransmitters?

Choose the correct option.

A) NPY and AgRP B) αMSH and CART C) MCH and orexin D) NPY and CART

9. How do neurons of the vascular organ of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) respond when the blood becomes hypertonic? Choose the correct option.

A) Inhibit magnocellular neurosecretory cells that secrete vasopressin and inhibit osmotic thirst B) Excite magnocellular neurosecretory cells that secrete vasopressin and stimulate osmometric thirst C) Stimulate rise in blood levels of angiotensin II and inhibit thirst D) Stimulate rise in blood levels of angiotensin II and stimulate thirst

10. Which of the following describes ghrelin? Choose the correct option.

A) A peptide highly concentrated in the intestines that is released into the bloodstream when the intestines are empty B) A peptide released by the magnocellular cells of the hypothalamus when the stomach is full C) A peptide released by the magnocellular cells of the hypothalamus when the stomach is empty D) A peptide highly concentrated in the stomach that is released into the bloodstream when the stomach is empty

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11. Which of the following is a symptom of diabetes insipidus? Choose the correct option.

A) Glucose in urine B) Large volumes of pale, watery urine C) No urine production D) Hyperglycemia

12. When your stomach is full, mechanosensory neurons in the stomach wall sense the distension and transmit the sensation to the nucleus of the solitary tract in the medulla via which nerve? Choose the correct option.

A) Trigeminal B) Hypoglossal C) Glossopharyngeal D) Vagus

13. Which of the following describes satiety signals responsible for short-term regulation of feeding behavior? Choose the correct option.

A) Initiate a meal and maintain hunger during a meal.

B) Terminate a meal and inhibit feeding for some time afterward.

C) Initiate a meal when leptin levels are low.

D) Initiate a meal when leptin levels are high.

14. Which is a consequence of leptin deficiency? Choose the correct option.

A) Decreased NPY and AgRP in the arcuate nucleus B) Decreased MCH in the lateral hypothalamic area C) Increased metabolism D) Increased NPY and AgRP in the arcuate nucleus

15. Warm- and cold-sensitive neurons are located in what part of the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) OVLT B) Anterior hypothalamus C) Ventromedial hypothalamus D) Motor cortex

16. CCK is a gastrointestinal satiety peptide released by cells of the intestines in response to the presence of fatty food. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Dopamine-depleted animals appear to lack the motivation to seek food even though they seem to enjoy it when it is available. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Serotonin levels in the hypothalamus spike during a meal, especially in response to carbohydrates. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Glycogen reserves are found in adipose tissue. True or false?

A) True B) False

20. The most effective sites for self-stimulation for reward are along the trajectory of the ______________ axons arising in the ventral __________ area and projecting to the forebrain.

21. The assembly of macromolecules such as glycogen and triglycerides from simple precursors is called ____________.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. dopaminergic, tegmental 21. anabolism

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1. At what point in development is a person's sex usually determined? Choose the correct option.

A) When the gonads differentiate B) At the time of fertilization C) Midgestation D) Puberty

2. What is the basis of X-linked disorders? Choose the correct option.

A) Defect in the single X chromosome in males B) Defects that occur only in females C) Defects related to a normal SRY gene on the X chromosome D) Defects related to the paternal origin of the X chromosome in males

3. During what developmental period are the gonads undifferentiated? Choose the correct option.

A) Throughout fetal development B) Until puberty C) The first 6 weeks of gestation D) The gonads are never undifferentiated.

4. From which structure are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) released? Choose the correct option.

A) Gonads B) Hypothalamus C) Anterior pituitary gland D) Posterior pituitary gland

5. Which of the following is the result of sympathetic activation during the male sexual response? Choose the correct option.

A) Engorgement and erection B) Emission C) Secretion of lubricating fluids D) Relaxation of smooth muscle cells in the arteries penis

6. When prairie voles copulate, which of the following is observed in males? Choose the correct option.

A) Levels of vasopressin rise sharply.

B) Levels of vasopressin drop sharply.

C) Levels of oxytocin rise sharply.

D) Levels of oxytocin drop sharply.

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7. The most distinct sexual dimorphisms in the mammalian brain are clustered around the third ventricle in which structure? Choose the correct option.

A) Preoptic area of the anterior hypothalamus B) Optic chiasm C) Anterior commissure D) Lateral hypothalamic area

8. Which of the following is a caveat about studies of sexual dimorphisms of cognition in humans? Choose the correct option.

A) Men have conducted all such studies.

B) Huge variations result from differences among participants rather than being gender-specific.

C) Results vary depending on the participant's native language.

D) Results vary depending on the age of the participants.

9. Which of the following DNA manipulations has been used to change the gender of a mouse? Choose the correct option.

A) Incorporating an SRY gene B) Incorporating an X chromosome C) Incorporating X and Y chromosomes D) Incorporating a Y chromosome

10. Which androgen leads to the development of the male reproductive system? Choose the correct option.

A) Estradiol B) Testosterone C) Prostaglandins D) Progesterone

11. Steroid hormones have both organizational and activational effects. Which of the following is an example of an organizational effect of steroid hormones? Choose the correct option.

A) Wolffian duct develops into the male reproductive organs.

B) Testosterone increase during sexual arousal.

C) Testosterone surge in male songbirds in the spring.

D) Breast development

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12. What is the basis of sexual dimorphism in Onuf's nucleus in the sacral spinal cord?

Choose the correct option.

A) Bulbocavernosus muscles are larger in males than females.

B) The sexually dimorphic nucleus is larger in males than females.

C) Male birds produce songs in the spring but not females.

D) The corpus callosum is larger in males than females.

13. The testes produce androgens, which trigger the masculinization of the nervous system early in development by which of the following mechanisms? Choose the correct option.

A) Regulating the expression of a variety of sex-related genes B) Recirculating steroid hormones C) Stimulating the development of the sexually dimorphic nucleus in the hypothalamus D) Packaging testosterone in synaptic vesicles

14. Which of the following is a characteristic of androgen insensitivity? Choose the correct option.

A) Genetic male with testes but female body appearance B) Genetic female with testosterone overproduction C) Genetic male with overgrown adrenal glands D) Genetic female with masculine behavior

15. Female concentrations of testosterone are roughly 10% of those found in males. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) play key roles in male fertility. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Steroid hormones are fatty and can easily pass through the cell membranes and bind to receptors within the cytoplasm, giving them direct access to the nucleus and gene expression. True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. Testosterone is produced only in the testes. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. A full sexual response cycle consists of arousal followed by plateau, orgasm, and __________ phases.

20. A body that has both male and female tissues is called a ______________.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. resolution 20. gynandromorph

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1. Which is true of the Cannon–Bard theory of emotion? Choose the correct option.

A) Emotional experience is a response to physiological changes in the body.

B) Emotion is evoked by a situation, and the body changes in response to the emotion.

C) Emotional experience can be independent of emotional expression.

D) Sensory inputs have no influence on emotional experience.

2. What is the most common symptom of amygdala lesions in humans? Choose the correct option.

A) Klüver–Bucy syndrome B) Emotional disturbances such as spontaneous crying C) Placid demeanor D) Inability to recognize the facial expression of fear

3. What led to the belief that anterior thalamus plays an important role in emotion? Choose the correct option.

A) The observation that lesions in the anterior thalamus led to spontaneous laughing and crying B) The observation that tumors in the anterior thalamus led to fear, irritability, and depression C) The observation that the anterior thalamus is affected by the virus responsible for rabies D) The observation that the anterior thalamus governs the behavioral expression of emotion

4. What is the empirical evidence for the experience of unconscious emotions? Choose the correct option.

A) James Papez proposed a link between cingulate cortex (emotional experience) and the hypothalamus (emotional expression) in what is called the Papez circuit.

B) Experiments by Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy using temporal lobectomy in rhesus monkeys demonstrated the Klüver–Bucy syndrome.

C) Experiments by Arne Öhman, Ray Dolan, and their colleagues showed autonomic responses to angry faces that had not been consciously perceived.

D) Experiments by Joseph LeDoux showed the effects of fear conditioning and learned visceral responses.

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5. Which of the following statements reflects the argument against a discrete emotion system? Choose the correct option.

A) Structures involved in emotion are not involved in other functions.

B) There are clear one-to-one relationships between the structure and function of the elements of the Papez circuit.

C) Solid evidence indicates that some structures involved in emotion are also involved in other functions.

D) There are discrepancies between the elements of the Papez circuit and Broca's limbic lobe.

6. Which of the following is strong evidence linking the amygdala with fear? Choose the correct option.

A) Animals with the Klüver–Bucy syndrome exhibit flattened emotions.

B) Monkeys with bilateral amygdalectomy have diminished visual perception and poor visual recognition.

C) Monkeys with bilateral amygdalectomy show sham rage.

D) Bilateral amygdalectomy in animals profoundly reduces fear and aggression.

7. Information from the visual and auditory sensory systems feeds into which part of the amygdala? Choose the correct option.

A) Basolateral nuclei B) Corticomedial nuclei C) Central nucleus D) Stria terminalis

8. In the proposed neural circuit for learned fear, the state of the ANS is altered by what neural connection? Choose the correct option.

A) Sensory information is sent to the basolateral region of the amygdala.

B) Efferents from the central nucleus of the amygdala project to the hypothalamus.

C) Cells in the basolateral region of the amygdala project to the central nucleus of the amygdala.

D) Cells in the basolateral nucleus of the amygdala project to the cerebral cortex.

9. Vervet monkeys were injected with drugs that either increased or decreased serotonergic activity. These experiments showed which of the following about the relationship between serotonin and aggression? Choose the correct option.

A) More aggression is associated with less serotonergic activity.

B) More aggression is associated with more serotonergic activity.

C) Aggression is not affected by serotonergic activity.

D) Aggression is influenced by high but not low levels of serotonergic activity.

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10. Dimensional emotion theories propose what about emotions? Choose the correct option.

A) Sensory signals have direct emotional impact on the brain regardless of how they are perceived.

B) Each emotion results from a pattern of brain activation involving particular areas per emotion.

C) Each emotion has a one-to-one correspondence with a particular area of brain activation.

D) Emotions can be broken down into smaller fundamental elements combined in different ways.

11. Animals with removal of what part of the brain are likely to experience sham rage?

Choose the correct option.

A) The cerebral cortex B) The brain stem C) The motor cortex D) The telencephalon

12. Which of the following structures is associated with predatory aggression, as shown by stimulation experiments in cats? Choose the correct option.

A) Lateral hypothalamus B) Medial hypothalamus C) Lateral and medial hypothalamus D) Periaqueductal gray

13. Which of the following is a common side effect of frontal lobotomy in a human?

Choose the correct option.

A) Decreased IQ B) Profound memory loss C) Trouble concentrating D) Increased anxiety

14. Electrical stimulation of the amygdala elicits what response in humans? Choose the correct option.

A) Decreased vigilance or attention B) Increased recognition of fearful, happy, and neutral facial expressions C) Increased anxiety and fear D) Decreased fear and aggression

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15. The proposed circuit for learned fear suggests that the autonomic response to a fearful stimulus is mediated by the hypothalamus. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Empirical evidence shows a clear correlation between androgen levels and aggression in animals. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Affective aggression is an attack made against a member of a different species for obtaining food. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. When the drug parachlorophenylalanine (PCPA) was administered to experimental animals to block serotonin synthesis, the injected animals increased their attacks on others in their cage. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. The Klüver–Bucy syndrome results from what type of lesion? _____________________

20. What two brain structures appear to be important for several different emotions? ___________ and ___________.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. bilateral temporal lobectomy 20. amygdala, hypothalamus

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1. The EEG is primarily used to help diagnose certain neurological conditions, especially which of the following? Choose the correct option.

A) Abnormal heart rhythms B) Schizophrenia C) Brain tumors D) The seizures of epilepsy

2. What part of the nervous system generates the fluctuations and oscillations of an EEG? Choose the correct option.

A) Individual cortical neurons B) Dendrites of many pyramidal neurons in the cerebral cortex C) Individual thalamic neurons D) Axons of many thalamic neurons projecting to the cerebral cortex

3. Which of the following represents delta rhythms, the hallmark of deep sleep? Choose the correct option.

A) Greater than 14 Hz B) 8–13 Hz C) Less than 4 Hz D) 4–7 Hz

4. Which of the following represents Walter Freeman's idea that neural rhythms are used to coordinate activity between regions of the nervous system? Choose the correct option.

A) Most rhythms have no direct function but are by-products of neural connections.

B) Both sensory and motor systems of the awake brain are often synchronously active.

C) Feedback circuits are necessary for the cortex to function.

D) EEG rhythms provide a window on the functional states of the brain.

5. What brain structure is known to act as a powerful pacemaker for the cerebral cortex?

Choose the correct option.

A) Cerebellum B) Midbrain C) Brain stem D) Thalamus

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6. Which of the following examples correctly explains how benzodiazepines and barbiturates work to suppress seizures? Choose the correct option.

A) Block GABA receptors B) Mimic the withdrawal of chronic depressant drugs such as alcohol C) Increase the tendency to fire high-frequency action potentials D) Prolong the inhibitory actions of GABA

7. Which of the following abnormalities in EEG voltage patterns is recorded synchronously across the entire brain during absence seizures? Choose the correct option.

A) Very small B) Irregular C) Not rhythmic D) Very large

8. Why is REM sleep referred to as paradoxical sleep? Choose the correct option.

A) The EEG for REM sleep is almost indistinguishable from an active, waking brain.

B) The body (except for the eyes and respiratory muscles) is immobilized.

C) Vivid, detailed illusions called dreams are conjured during REM sleep.

D) Rapid eye movements occur during REM sleep.

9. How long may REM sleep periods last? Choose the correct option.

A) 5–10 minutes B) 15–20 minutes C) 30–50 minutes D) 60 minutes or longer

10. Which of the following statements represents the activation–synthesis hypothesis proposed by Hobson and McCarley? Choose the correct option.

A) Sleep is the best way to enforce isolation, so as to protect a smaller animal from bigger animals during the night.

B) Sleep is an adaptation for conservation of energy because during sleep, the body just does enough work to stay alive.

C) Dreams are an unconscious way for us to express our sexual and aggressive fantasies, which are forbidden while we are awake.

D) Dreams are the associations and memories of the cerebral cortex that are elicited by the random discharges of the pons during REM sleep.

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11. What brain regions and associated neurotransmitters are implicated in changes associated with awakening and states of arousal? Choose the correct option.

A) Raphe nuclei (serotonin) B) Locus coeruleus (norepinephrine) C) Brain stem and forebrain (acetylcholine) D) All choices are correct.

12. Which of the following describes REM sleep behavior disorder? Choose the correct option.

A) Sleepers who do not generate REM brain waves characteristic of REM sleep B) Dreamers have no REM atonia and therefore may act out their dreams.

C) Sleepers who have narcolepsy D) Dreamers with delta wave terrors

13. What are zeitgebers? Choose the correct option.

A) Cellular mechanisms that serve as internal biological clocks B) Free-running biological clocks C) Environmental cues that help biological clocks become entrained to the day–night cycle and the 24-hour day D) Fluctuations in physiological functions with circadian rhythms

14. Which of the following describes the basic scheme of the clock genes present in neurons of the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus? Choose the correct option.

A) An increased expression of immediate early genes plays a role in satisfying the higher metabolic demands of the awakened brain.

B) Some of the genes from mitochondria are related to changes in synaptic strength and affect the expression of other genes.

C) Clock genes perpetrate a cyclic negative feedback loop in which the clock gene expresses a protein whose presence decreases gene expression in a pattern consistent with circadian rhythms.

D) The genes from mitochondria may be associated with the absence of learning and memory formation.

15. EEG amplitude is high when the cortex is actively engaged in processing information.

True or false?

A) True B) False

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16. Each REM period is followed by about 30 minutes of non-REM sleep, the obligatory refractory period, before the next REM period can begin. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the thalamus requires input from the retina to maintain circadian rhythms that are in phase with the day–night cycle. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Areas of the brain that show heightened activity during REM sleep include extrastriate cortical areas and portions of the limbic system. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. A ____________ seizure involves the entire cerebral cortex of both hemispheres, whereas a ___________ seizure involves only a circumscribed area of the cortex.

20. During REM sleep, neurons of the ____________ fire rapidly and generate organized motor patterns that attempt to command the entire body but succeed only with a few muscles of the eye, the inner ear, and those essential for ______________.

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. generalized, partial 20. motor cortex, respiration.

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1. Where is the language area known as Wernicke's area located? Choose the correct option.

A) Left frontal cortex near the primary motor area B) Left superior surface of temporal lobe between the auditory cortex and the angular gyrus C) In the parietal occipital junction of the left hemisphere near the end of the Sylvian fissure D) In the left precentral gyrus

2. What are the characteristics of Wernicke's aphasia? Choose the correct option.

A) Good comprehension but poor language production B) Fluent speech and poor comprehension C) Poor comprehension and poor language production D) Agrammatical speech and unilateral deafness

3. What does the Wernicke–Geschwind model propose as the role Broca's area plays in language processing? Choose the correct option.

A) Broca's area processes sounds as meaningful words.

B) Word-based signals are passed to Wernicke's area via the arcuate fasciculus.

C) Words are converted to a code for the muscular movements required for speech.

D) Broca's area controls the movement of lips, tongue, and larynx.

4. What is the term for the inability to find words? Choose the correct option.

A) Agrammatism B) Anomia C) Paraphasic errors D) Aphasia

5. What did Gazzaniga and colleagues reveal about hemispheric dominance for language in his studies of humans in whom the corpus callosum had been severed? Choose the correct option.

A) If a split-brain person sees a word in the left visual field, he usually says he sees nothing.

B) If a split-brain person sees a word in the right visual field, he says he sees nothing.

C) The left hemisphere can read words, but the right hemisphere is necessary to speak the words.

D) The right hemisphere knows nothing about language.

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6. What do cases of aphasia in deaf people using American Sign Language reveal about language processing in the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Broca's but not Wernicke's aphasia can occur in deaf people.

B) Both Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia can occur in deaf people.

C) Wernicke's but not Broca's aphasia can occur in deaf people.

D) Neither Broca's nor Wernicke's aphasia occurs in deaf people.

7. In which areas did Penfield find that strong electrical stimulation resulted in arrested speech? Choose the correct option.

A) Only the motor cortex and Broca's area B) Only Broca's area and Wernicke's area C) Only Wernicke's area and the angular gyrus D) Wernicke's area, the motor cortex, Broca's area, and the angular gyrus

8. Which of the following is true about the ability of infants and children to acquire language? Choose the correct option.

A) Three-month-old infants show brain activity in response to spoken words that is similar to that of adults.

B) “Motherese” hinders children from learning correct speech sounds.

C) Children tend to be confused about word boundaries.

D) Babbling occurs around 2 months of age and leads to full sentences by 6 months.

9. How is the Wada procedure used to demonstrate hemispheric lateralization for speech?

Choose the correct option.

A) Broca's area is anesthetized to see the impact on speech.

B) Wernicke's area is anesthetized to see the impact on speech.

C) Each hemisphere is anesthetized in turn to see the impact on speech.

D) The corpus callosum is severed to see the impact on speech.

10. The Wernicke–Geschwind model of language processing predicted a form of aphasia that would result from a lesion that disconnects Wernicke's area from Broca's area while leaving both areas intact. What type of aphasia is this? Choose the correct option.

A) Transcortical motor aphasia B) Conduction aphasia C) Transcortical sensory aphasia D) Anomic aphasia

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11. What role does the output of the angular gyrus play in the process of reading text aloud, according to the Wernicke–Geschwind model? Choose the correct option.

A) Transforms written language into motor output for Broca's area B) Converts auditory signals into visual signals C) Converts spoken words into written words D) Evokes the same pattern of activity in Wernicke's area as does the spoken word

12. Why are chimpanzees unable to speak human language? Choose the correct option.

A) Chimpanzees are solitary creatures and do not communicate at all.

B) The chimpanzee brain lacks an area analogous to Broca's area.

C) The chimpanzee brain lacks an area analogous to Wernicke's area.

D) Chimpanzee vocal tracts are not structured to make language sounds.

13. The FOXP2 gene is critical for normal human language. What are the known differences between the human version of this gene and the corresponding gene in other primates? Choose the correct option.

A) Other primates do not possess this gene.

B) There is a difference of only two amino acids.

C) The gene is present in only a small subset of chimpanzees.

D) The gene is identical in humans and other primates.

14. Which of the following statements reflects a weakness in the Wernicke–Geschwind model of language processing? Choose the correct option.

A) The model understates the importance of a given cortical area for a particular function.

B) Words must be transformed into a pseudo-auditory response during a reading task; visual information cannot reach Broca's area from visual cortex without stopping at the angular gyrus.

C) Aphasia is influenced by damage to brain stem structures that are not in the model.

D) Most aphasias involve both comprehension and speech deficits.

15. Language processing is exclusively a function of the cerebral cortex. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. The effects of a cortical lesion in a bilingual person depend on the order in which the languages were learned, the fluency achieved in each language, and how recently the language was learned. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. The cerebral hemispheres communicate exclusively through the corpus callosum. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. In most right-handed people, the Sylvian fissure in the left hemisphere is longer and runs at a shallower angle than the fissure in the right hemisphere. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. More than _____% of humans are right handed; hand preference in other animal species is _________________.

20. When reading written text aloud, the visual signals are passed to the angular gyrus at the junction of the ___________, _________, and ___________ lobes.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. 90, 50/50 (or equal) 20. occipital, parietal, temporal

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1. What is the evidence that it is possible to shift attention to objects that are imaged on parts of the retina outside the fovea? Choose the correct option.

A) A cue that directs attention to an image that is about to appear to the right or the left of the fovea improves visual detection and reaction time B) Individual neurons in the frontal eye fields fire during a saccade to a specific target C) Invalid, neutral, and valid cues all have the same impact on visual detection and reaction time.

D) Attention has a direct effect on visual transduction and motor coding.

2. Which of the following describes the neglect syndrome observed after right posterior parietal lesions? Choose the correct option.

A) Specific types of objects are completely ignored.

B) Specific individuals are completely ignored.

C) Everything to one side of the center of gaze is completely ignored.

D) Specific body parts on both sides are completely ignored.

3. If a person with a neglect syndrome affecting the right hemisphere of the brain is asked to close her eyes and point toward the midline of her body, where will she point?

Choose the correct option.

A) The midline of her body B) Too far to the right of her body C) Too far to the left of her body D) To a part of her body on her dominant side

4. What happens to brain activity in the visual cortex when subjects are forced to attend to parts of the visual field outside the fovea? Choose the correct option.

A) The pattern of brain activity shifts retinotopically.

B) The whole retinotopic map becomes active in the visual cortex.

C) Activity in the primary visual cortex ceases and the extrastriate cortex takes over.

D) Visual areas outside the occipital cortex participate in this type of task.

5. PET imaging during an experiment studying the effect of attending to specific features of a visual stimulus showed the greatest brain activity for moving stimuli occurred in which area of cortex? Choose the correct option.

A) Area 17 B) IT C) MT D) V4

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6. Which of the following is a result of pulvinar lesions in the visual fields? Choose the correct option.

A) Slow response to stimuli on the contralateral side B) Slow response to stimuli on the ipsilateral side C) Inability to focus attention in general D) Scotoma on the contralateral side

7. What happens to attention when muscimol, a GABA agonist, is injected into the pulvinar nucleus on one side of the brain? Choose the correct option.

A) Abnormally slow responses to visual stimuli B) Impaired attention shifts to stimuli presented in the contralateral visual field C) Facilitated attention shifts to stimuli presented in the contralateral visual field D) Scotoma in the contralateral visual field

8. Wurtz, Goldberg, and Robinson showed that the firing rates of neurons in the parietal cortex are enhanced when an animal subsequently makes a saccade to a target within that neuron's receptive field. What is the explanation for this finding? Choose the correct option.

A) The increased activity prior to the saccade reflects a shift in attention to the stimulus inside that neuron's receptive field.

B) The stimulus represents the preferred stimulus features for that neuron.

C) The brain is more excitable in this paradigm.

D) Such neurons are responsible for saccadic eye movements.

9. Experiments by Moore and colleagues showed that electrical stimulation delivered to neurons in the frontal eye fields affect an animal's ability to detect a dimming stimulus in what way? Choose the correct option.

A) Electrical stimulation boosts the ability to detect the dimming of a target spot.

B) Electrical stimulation diminishes the ability to detect the dimming of a target spot.

C) Electrical stimulation has no effect on the ability to detect the dimming of a target spot.

D) Electrical stimulation boosts and diminishes the ability to detect the dimming of a target spot depending on the state of arousal.

10. Moore and colleagues showed that stimulating neurons in the frontal eye fields mimics the physiological and behavioral effects of attention. What do these findings suggest about how attention is guided? Choose the correct option.

A) Frontal eye field neurons direct attention.

B) Attention mechanisms are located in the frontal lobes.

C) Eye movements are not important for guiding attention.

D) Attention guidance is integrated with the neural system used to move the eyes.

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11. How does electrical stimulation of neurons in the frontal eye fields affect detection threshold? Choose the correct option.

A) FEF stimulation has no effect on stimulus detection.

B) FEF stimulation improves detection.

C) FEF neurons initiate saccades.

D) FEF stimulation impairs detection.

12. Can all the sensory information reaching the brain be processed simultaneously? Choose the correct option.

A) No, all the sensory information from sensory systems cannot be processed simultaneously.

B) Yes, all sensory information from sensory systems can be processed simultaneously by parallel pathways.

C) No, only one lobe of the brain can be active at any time.

D) Yes, different lobes of the brain operate independently.

13. Define attention. Choose the correct option.

A) A state of hyperactivity and impulsiveness B) An increased detection threshold C) The ability to focus on one aspect of sensory input D) An increased reaction time

14. Binocular rivalry experiments in humans using alternating images of a house and a face have demonstrated fMRI alternating changes in brain activity in what areas of the brain?

Choose the correct option.

A) V1 and V2 B) FFA and PPA C) LIP and V4 D) FEF and IT

15. Visual target detection is enhanced when the target appears in an expected location.

True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Neglect syndrome is usually a consequence of lesions in the prefrontal cortex of the right hemisphere. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. According to the internal mentation hypothesis about the default network, even when we are at rest, we must broadly monitor our environment. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The cortical areas involved in attention are widespread. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. If a person with a neglect syndrome is asked to close her eyes and point toward the midline of her body, she typically points too far to the __________.

20. Binocular rivalry experiments have been performed in order to study the ___________________________ of consciousness.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. right 20. neural correlates

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1. How would a behaviorist treat maladaptive behavior disorders? Choose the correct option.

A) Extinction B) Reinforcing new behaviors C) Medication D) Psychoanalysis

2. Which of the following statements describes the disorder called panic attacks? Choose the correct option.

A) Sudden feelings of intense terror that occur without warning B) Compulsions that neutralize anxiety C) Anxiety provoked by exposure to certain performance situations D) Reexperiencing an extremely traumatic event

3. What characterizes agoraphobia? Choose the correct option.

A) Sudden feelings of intense terror B) Compulsions that neutralize anxiety C) Anxiety provoked by exposure to certain performance situations D) Anxiety about the difficulty of escaping a situation

4. Which of following are the common symptoms of OCD? Choose the correct option.

A) Avoidance of situations irrationally perceived as threatening, such as being alone outside the house, in a crowd, or on a bridge B) Palpitations, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, tingling sensations, and chills C) Overwhelming fear of dying or “going crazy,” with a tendency to flee from the place where the attack begins D) Recurrent, intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses perceived as inappropriate, grotesque, or forbidden

5. What is the role of the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis in anxiety disorders? Choose the correct option.

A) Inhibits the stress response B) Activates the amygdala during the stress response C) Activates the hippocampus during the stress responses D) Activates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and the stress response

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6. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released by the anterior pituitary gland when what neurochemical is released by parvocellular neurosecretory neurons of the hypothalamus? Choose the correct option.

A) Serotonin B) Norepinephrine (NE) C) GABA D) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

7. Anxiety disorders have been related to which of the following? Choose the correct option.

A) Hyperactivity of the amygdala B) Diminished activity of the hippocampus C) Elevated activity of the prefrontal cortex D) All choices are correct.

8. Injecting corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) into experimental animals can produce which of the following behavioral effects? Choose the correct option.

A) Hyperactivity B) Psychotic behaviors C) Decreased fear response D) Increased behavioral expression of anxiety

9. Which of the following is a disadvantage of ECT? Choose the correct option.

A) ECT permanently impairs the storage of new information.

B) ECT disrupts memories of events occurring about 6 months before treatment.

C) Relief typically requires many sessions.

D) Patients experience violent movements during the therapy.

10. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of a tricyclic antidepressant drug? Choose the correct option.

A) Block serotonin reuptake only at serotonin terminals B) Interfere with the actions of adenylyl cyclase C) Block the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin by transporters D) Reduce the enzymatic degradation of serotonin and norepinephrine.

11. What is the role of the hippocampus in the stress response? Choose the correct option.

A) Suppresses the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus B) Stimulates the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus C) Releases corticotropin-releasing hormone into the portal circulation D) Releases adrenocorticotropic hormone into the bloodstream

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12. What is the role of the central nucleus of the amygdala in the stress response? Choose the correct option.

A) Activates hypothalamic stimulation of the HPA axis and the sympathetic nervous system B) Activates periaqueductal gray matter to produce avoidance behavior C) Activates the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain to increase vigilance D) All choices are correct.

13. Which of the following describes schizophrenia? Choose the correct option.

A) Loss of contact with reality and disruption of thought B) Repeated episodes of mania or mixed episodes of mania and depression C) Lowered mood and decreased interest or pleasure in all activities D) Diminished ability to concentrate

14. Which are two major classes of anxiolytic drugs? Choose the correct option.

A) Tricyclic compounds and MAO inhibitors B) MAO inhibitors and lithium C) Benzodiazepines and serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitors D) Lithium and tricyclic compounds

15. Type II bipolar disorder is characterized by hypomania and marked impairments in judgment or performance, whereas type I bipolar disorder is characterized by manic episodes always occurring with major depression. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Mood is closely tied to the levels of released “monoamine” neurotransmitters—norepinephrine and serotonin—in the brain. According to the monoamine hypothesis of mood disorders, depression is a consequence of overexpression in one of these diffuse modulatory systems. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. Schizophrenia is associated with enlarged lateral ventricles, reflecting the shrinkage of brain tissue. True or false?

A) True B) False

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18. According to the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, the disorder reflects diminished activation of NMDA receptors in the brain. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Neuroleptic drugs are potent blockers of _____________ receptors, specifically the ________ receptor.

20. _________________ is the drug that is commonly known as “angel dust.” Intoxication with this drug produces symptoms similar to those of ___________________.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. dopamine, D 2 20. Phencyclidine (PCP), schizophrenia

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1. Multiple cell types, including neurons and glia, can arise from the same precursor cells.

Because of this potential to give rise to many different types of tissue, these precursor cells are also called which of the following? Choose the correct option.

A) Neural regenerator cells B) Newly generated neurons C) Daughter cells D) Multipotent stem cells

2. According to Schlaggar and O'Leary, what happens to the cytoarchitectonic differentiation when parietal cortex is replaced with occipital cortex in newborn rats before the arrival of thalamic afferents? Choose the correct option.

A) The transplanted occipital cortex takes on the cytoarchitectonic appearance of somatosensory cortex rather than occipital cortex after thalamic afferents arrive.

B) The transplanted occipital cortex takes on the cytoarchitectonic appearance of occipital cortex after thalamic afferents arrive.

C) Thalamic afferents refuse to innervate the transplanted cortex, and it does not differentiate cytoarchitectonically.

D) Several types of migration defects occur.

3. Which of the following describes the subplate layer? Choose the correct option.

A) An immature cortical layer just below the marginal zone containing the cells that sequentially form each layer of the cortex beginning with layer VI B) Transient layer below the cortical plate that contains the first neural precursor cells to migrate from the ventricular zone C) Layer where precursor cells duplicate their DNA and divide into daughter cells D) Layer containing radial glial guides and migrating neurons

4. What is the function of subplate neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) They differentiate into inhibitory interneurons.

B) They differentiate into oligodendrocytes.

C) They attract the appropriate thalamic axons to the different parts of the developing cortex.

D) They serve as an anchor for radial glial end feet.

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5. What is the function of the proteins secreted by cells of the ventral midline of the spinal cord? Choose the correct option.

A) Attract (netrin) and then repel (slit) growing axons to help them cross the midline B) Cause axons to stick together with cell adhesion molecules as they travel down molecular highways C) Guide later developing neighbor axons to the same targets D) Facilitate the mechanism of fasciculation by the expression of specific surface molecules

6. Which of the following describes the chemoaffinity hypothesis as applied to target selection and establishing topographic maps? Choose the correct option.

A) Chemical markers on growing axons are matched with complementary chemical markers on their targets.

B) Cells in the midline secrete specific proteins that attract and repel growing axons.

C) When a growth cone comes in contact with its target, a synapse is formed.

D) Fasciculation of neurons following a pioneer neuron

7. What is the role of agrin in synapse formation at the neuromuscular junction? Choose the correct option.

A) Binds to a MuSK receptor in the muscle cell membrane B) Secretes a protein into the basal lamina C) Repels postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors from the synapse D) Stimulates receptor gene expression in the muscle cell

8. Which of the following processes help balance the number of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons? Choose the correct option.

A) Cell proliferation B) Cell migration C) Cell death (apoptosis) D) Cell differentiation

9. Which of the following is central to the process of programmed cell death or apoptosis?

Choose the correct option.

A) Chemoattractants and chemorepellents B) Competition for trophic factors C) Match between molecules on growing axons and those on their target cells D) Accidental cell death resulting from injury

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10. Which of the following defines synaptic capacity? Choose the correct option.

A) A finite number of synapses received on a neuron's dendrites and soma B) The number of synapses a single axon can make C) The capacity of a neuron to both receive and transmit information at synapses D) The storage of electrical charge at the synapse

11. Which of the following statements explains why neurons that fire together wire together? Choose the correct option.

A) A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is weakened when the presynaptic axon is active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is weakly activated by other inputs.

B) A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is strengthened when the presynaptic axon is active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is weakly activated by other inputs.

C) A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is strengthened when the presynaptic axon is active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is strongly activated by other inputs.

D) A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is weakened when the presynaptic axon is active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is strongly activated by other inputs.

12. What happens to developing cortical connections in a tissue culture when NMDA receptors are blocked with an antagonist? Choose the correct option.

A) The synapses become inhibitory.

B) Electrically active synapses are prevented from gaining AMPA receptors over the course of development.

C) Presynaptic and postsynaptic connections are strengthened.

D) The synapses are unusually small in size.

13. Which of the following best describes activity-dependent synaptic rearrangement?

Choose the correct option.

A) When retinal activity inhibits a postsynaptic LGN neuron, the synapses between them are lost.

B) Almost all activity-dependent synaptic rearrangement occurs before birth as a consequence of spontaneous electrical activity in developing neurons.

C) Significant activity-dependent shaping of neuron connections occurs after birth and is influenced profoundly by sensory experience.

D) Actively migrating neural precursor cells are precisely guided to the cortical plate by the network of radial glial fibers.

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14. Hebbian modification refers to synaptic rearrangements that occur in response to simultaneous presynaptic and postsynaptic activity. True or false?

A) True B) False

15. A natural example of synaptic competition is provided by loss of binocular receptive fields and stereoscopic depth perception as a consequence of strabismus, a condition in which the eyes are not perfectly aligned. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. Segregation of retinal inputs to the LGN is thought to depend on a process of synaptic stabilization whereby only retinal terminals that are active at the same time as their postsynaptic LGN target neurons are retained. True or false?

A) True B) False

17. One hypothesis that explains why critical periods end suggests that plasticity increases when cortical activation is constrained. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The first cells to arrive in the cortical plate are those that become layer __________ neurons. Each new wave of neural precursor cells migrates right past those in the existing cortical plate. In this way, the cortex is said to be assembled _________________.

19. Cell fate is regulated by differences in __________________, and cellular proteins called ________________________ regulate gene expression.

20. Both AMPA and NMDA receptors conduct sodium ions, but only NMDA receptor channels conduct ____________ ions. The magnitude of the ______________ flux through the NMDA receptor channel specifically signals the level of pre- and postsynaptic ___________________.

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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. VI , inside-out 19. gene expression, transcription factors 20. calcium (Ca2+), calcium (Ca2+), coactivation

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1. Which type of memory can be accessed for conscious recollection? Choose the correct option.

A) Nondeclarative memory B) Procedural memory C) Declarative memory D) Classical conditioning

2. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the idea of memory consolidation?

Choose the correct option.

A) Memory consolidation is a mechanism used by declarative but not procedural memory.

B) Memory consolidation converts short-term memories or sensory information into long-term memory.

C) Memories can be consolidated for permanent storage in short-term memory.

D) All short-term memories are eventually converted into a permanent form.

3. Which type of amnesia does not cause other cognitive defects? Choose the correct option.

A) Retrograde amnesia B) Anterograde amnesia C) Transient global amnesia D) Dissociated amnesia

4. What term best describes the process by which reactivating a memory makes it sensitive just as it had been immediately after the memory was first formed? Choose the correct option.

A) Consolidation B) Reconsolidation C) Deconsolidation D) Differentiation

5. A patient with brain trauma cannot remember events prior to the trauma. Which type of amnesia does this symptom indicate? Choose the correct option.

A) Transient global amnesia B) Dissociated amnesia C) Anterograde amnesia D) Retrograde amnesia

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6. Karl Lashley studied the effects of various-sized cortical lesions on maze performance in rats. He concluded that the memory deficits were correlated with the size of the lesion but not the location and hypothesized that all cortical areas contribute equally to learning and memory. What is the current interpretation of these experiments? Choose the correct option.

A) Lashley's conclusions remain unchallenged.

B) Nothing about Lashley's studies has stood the test of time.

C) All cortical areas contribute equally to memory in rats but not in other species.

D) All cortical areas do not contribute equally to memory, but memories are widely distributed.

7. How did Hebb define the cell assembly? Choose the correct option.

A) All the cortical cells that are activated by any one of the senses B) All the cortical cells that are activated by the process of memory reconsolidation C) Neurons simultaneously activated by an external stimulus that are reciprocally interconnected D) Those cells being used at any given moment for working memory

8. What are hippocampal place cells? Choose the correct option.

A) Neurons that fire when the subject remembers being in a specific place B) Neurons that fire when the animal successfully completes the Morris water maze C) Neurons that fire when the animal is in a specific location D) Neurons that are located in a specific location in the hippocampus

9. Bilateral temporal lobectomy such as that sustained by H.M. is characterized by which of the following? Choose the correct option.

A) Permanent anterograde amnesia but intact procedural memory B) Permanent retrograde amnesia as well as procedural memory deficits C) Permanent anterograde amnesia as well as procedural memory deficits D) Permanent procedural memory deficits and transient anterograde amnesia

10. Which of the following medial temporal lobe structures is important for declarative memory consolidation? Choose the correct option.

A) Hippocampus B) Parahippocampal and rhinal cortical areas C) Fornix D) All choices are correct.

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11. Memory required for animals to behave successfully in the delayed non-match to sample (DNMS) task is which of the following? Choose the correct option.

A) Recognition memory B) Procedural memory C) Cognitive memory D) Long-term memory

12. Which kind of learning involves a change in behavioral response that occurs over time in response to a single type of stimulus? Choose the correct option.

A) Classical conditioning B) Instrumental conditioning C) Associative learning D) Nonassociative learning

13. Efficient performance in the standard radial arm maze (never going down the same arm twice) appears to depend on which type of memory? Choose the correct option.

A) Long-term memory B) Working memory C) Procedural memory D) All choices are correct.

14. Which of the following structures is necessary for procedural memory? Choose the correct option.

A) Inferotemporal cortex B) Striatum C) Hippocampus D) Pararhinal cortex

15. People with Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease show procedural memory deficits. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. The prefrontal cortex receives afferents from the striatum and cerebellum, implicating this area of cortex in procedural memory. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Some neurons in the prefrontal cortex fire exclusively during the delay period in the delayed non-match to sample task, implicating these neurons in working memory. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. Neurons in area LIP, buried in the intraparietal sulcus, fire when an animal remembers the position of a target stimulus to which it will subsequently make a saccade. These neurons are implicated in working memory. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. Brain structures damaged in Korsakoff's syndrome are variable but usually include the ____________________________ and the ____________________________.

20. The prefrontal cortex is thought to be involved in learning and memory because it is interconnected with the ______________________ of the thalamus.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. dorsomedial thalamus, mammillary bodies 20. medial dorsal nucleus

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1. Which is the process by which some experiences, held temporarily by transient modifications of neurons, are selected for permanent storage in long-term memory?

Choose the correct option.

A) Stimulus selectivity B) Memory consolidation C) Distributed memory storage D) Autophosphorylation

2. What happens to a memory if some neurons in the neural network storing that memory begin dying? Choose the correct option.

A) Catastrophic loss B) Retrograde amnesia C) Graceful degradation D) Anterograde amnesia

3. At what synapse does habituation to gill-withdrawal reflex occur in Aplysia? Choose the correct option.

A) Synapse at the sensory nerve endings in the skin B) Synapse on the abdominal muscle C) Synapse joining the sensory neuron and motor neuron D) Synapse between L29 from the head and the sensory neuron

4. Which of the following provide synaptic input to the Purkinje cell dendrites of the cerebellum? Choose the correct option.

A) Climbing fibers from the superior olive B) Parallel fibers from neocortical pyramidal neurons C) Climbing fibers from the inferior olive and parallel fibers from cerebellar granule cells D) Mossy fibers from the pontine nuclei

5. Which term refers to the concept that the rules of synaptic plasticity change depending on the history of synaptic or cellular activity? Choose the correct option.

A) Synaptic stability B) Homeostasis C) Metaplasticity D) Denervation supersensitivity

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6. What mechanism contributes to synaptic scaling? Choose the correct option.

A) Deactivation of CaMKIV to halt gene expression B) Activation of CaMKIV to regulate gene expression C) The ratio of NR2A to NR2B subunits D) Ca2+ exiting the soma through voltage-gated channels

7. What is the main input to the hippocampus? Choose the correct option.

A) Entorhinal cortex B) Fornix C) Schaffer collateral D) Ammon's horn

8. The BCM theory proposed by Bienenstock, Cooper, and Munro suggested which of the following about the bidirectional nature of LTP and LTD? Choose the correct option.

A) LTD occurs when synaptic stimulation coincides with strong postsynaptic depolarization.

B) A single powerful synapse can provide the critical depolarization in the hippocampus.

C) LTD and LTP are input-specific.

D) Synapses that are active when the postsynaptic cell is only weakly depolarized by other inputs undergo LTD instead of LTP.

9. LTP and LTD in CA1 of the hippocampus may reflect the bidirectional regulation of which two processes? Choose the correct option.

A) Phosphorylation and the number of GABA receptors B) Phosphorylation and the number of open sodium channels C) Phosphorylation and the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors D) Phosphorylation and the number of protein kinases

10. Which of the following is a special feature of the NMDA glutamate receptor? Choose the correct option.

A) NMDA have a very high affinity for glutamate so transmitter remains bound a relatively long time.

B) Bound glutamate does nothing if the postsynaptic membrane is not depolarized enough.

C) The NMDA receptor is clogged with Mg2+ that can only be dislodged by strong postsynaptic depolarization.

D) All choices are correct.

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11. What problem does the molecular switch hypothesis solve? Choose the correct option.

A) Provides a mechanism to replenish synaptic proteins B) Provides a mechanism to keep postsynaptic AMPA receptors phosphorylated C) Provides a mechanism to account for forgetting D) Provides a mechanism for increased calcium influx

12. Which of the following hippocampal techniques enhanced the study of LTP and LTD? Choose the correct option.

A) Fine recording electrodes in invertebrates B) Studying the simplified hippocampus of the mouse C) Brain slice preparations D) Dissection of the dentate gyrus

13. Which of the following is a requirement for long-term memory? Choose the correct option.

A) Sodium influx B) Repeated phosphorylation C) Synthesis of new protein D) Adenylyl cyclase

14. Normally the kinases are tightly regulated and are “on” only in the presence of what?

Choose the correct option.

A) A second messenger B) CA2+ C) Two NR1 subunits and two NR2 subunits D) NR2B

15. Autophosphorylation is a mechanism to keep synaptic proteins involved in memory “on” for a prolonged period. True or false?

A) True B) False

16. The production of excess NMDA receptors boosts learning ability. True or false?

A) True B) False

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17. Long-term potentiation can be induced with a brief, high-frequency electrical stimulation of an excitatory pathway in the hippocampus. True or false?

A) True B) False

18. The formation of new dendritic spines is unaffected by altering a test animal's visual or tactile environment. True or false?

A) True B) False

19. ___________ represses gene expression when it binds to the CRE; _____________ activates transcription when it is phosphorylated by protein kinase A. 20. The rise in [Ca2+] i during LTP induction activates two protein kinases. These are _____________ and ___________.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. CREB-2, CREB-1 20. protein kinase C, calcium-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II (CaMKII)

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