TEST BANK for The Developing Person Through the Life Span 12th Edition By Kathleen Stassen Berger

The Developing Person Through the Life Span, 12e Kathleen Stassen Berger (Macmillan) (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay 1. Describe each of the five steps of the scientific method.

ANSWER: Step 1: Begin with curiosity. Pose a question based on a theory, prior research, or personal observation. Step 2: Develop a hypothesis, which is a specific prediction that can be tested through research. Step 3: Test the hypothesis. Design and conduct research to gather empirical evidence (data). Step 4: Analyze the evidence gathered in the research. Draw conclusions. Using the evidence gathered in the research, conclude whether the hypothesis is supported or refuted. Step 5: Report the results by sharing the data, conclusions, and alternative explanations with other scientists.

Good (5 pts) Fair (3 pts) Lists steps of States five of the steps States three of the scientific method in in order steps in order order Explains each step Describes the five Describes three steps steps

Weak (1–0 pts) States fewer than three steps or does not state the steps in order Describes fewer than three steps or does not describe steps accurately

2. Explain the nature–nurture debate within developmental psychology and provide an example of both nature and nurture.

ANSWER: Nature refers to the influence of genes on a person, and nurture refers to environmental influences on a person. Environmental influences include the health and diet of the embryo's mother and continue lifelong, including experiences in the family, school, community, and society. An example of nature would be inheriting a gene that predisposes one to addiction. An example of nurture would be having a predisposition to addiction but being raised in a warm, stimulating environment in which parents do not abuse drugs or alcohol, reducing the individual's risk for addiction as a result of not being exposed to abuse or parental addictions. The debate concerns how many of any person's characteristics, behaviors, or emotions are the result of genes and how many are the result of the person's experiences.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Accurately defines Accurately defines Does not accurately both terms and gives one term and gives at define both terms or an example of both least one accurate supply accurate example examples Describes the debate Accurately describes Accurately describes Does not accurately both sides of the one side of the debate describe the debate debate Defines nature and nurture

3. Explain differential susceptibility and provide an example.

ANSWER: Differential susceptibility refers to the idea that people vary in how sensitive they are to particular experiences. These differences are often genetic. Examples provided may vary. One may be asthma.

Some people begin wheezing when they are near a cat, but others never do. Asthma is also an example of differential susceptibility because of past experience. Because of their parents' reactions in their early years, some older children are terrified at the first signs of an attack; others aren't.

Another example involves dogs as well as cats. If a person lives in a rural area, fur-bearing pets Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay reduce the rate of asthma; but in urban areas, such animals increase the incidence. That is differential susceptibility.

Defines differential susceptibility Provides an example

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Accurately defines the Partially defines the Does not accurately term term define the term Provides an example

Provides a partial example

Does not provide an example

4. Define what intersectionality means and how it can impact development.

ANSWER: Intersectionality is the idea that the various identities that we have need to be combined.

Developmental psychologists highlight that this idea is important in determining if discrimination has occurred. Intersectionality focuses attention on power differences between groups and can highlight discrimination in many institutions. For instance, research has found that multiple identities are related to the prison sentences that are given to those convicted of committing crimes, such as age, gender, and race, placing young African American males at risk of receiving harsher sentences compared to others.

Good (5 pts.)

Intersectionality Provides a clear defined definition Developmental Provides a clear impact example of how this impacts development

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provides a vague Provides an incorrect definition definition Provides a vague Does not provide an example of how this example of how this impacts impacts development development

5. Define a critical period and a sensitive period. Explain the difference between the two, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: A critical period is a time when something must occur to ensure normal development, and a sensitive period is a time when a specific developmental task occurs most easily. An example of a critical period would be the fetus growing arms and legs and hands and feet—this can occur only at a specific time in utero. Language development is an example of a sensitive period. It occurs most easily at a young age but can still develop at a later age as well.

Defines and differentiates Gives examples

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines both periods Defines just one Fails to define both and differentiates period or is vague periods or fails to between them about differentiation differentiate Gives a correct example Gives a correct Does not give any for both periods example of either examples period

6. Explain Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach. Make sure to include all six systems, including the last one he added to the model before his death.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay ANSWER: Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach is a perspective on human development that considers all the influences from the various contexts of development. This approach recognizes three nested levels as well as two systems that affect these levels. Bronfenbrenner believed that each person is affected by their social context. Over the course of his career, he identified five systems.

The first is the microsystem (e.g., one's family and peer group), the second is the exosystem (school, clubs, and church), and the third is the macrosystem (larger social setting, such as cultural values and economic policies). The fourth system, called the chronosystem, is the role of historical context, and the fifth system, called the mesosystem, is the interaction that occurs between all the other systems. Before he died, Bronfenbrenner added a sixth system, the bioecological system, which is the internal biology of the person.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains ecological- Clearly states what the Gives a vague Is unable to describe systems approach approach is explanation of the the approach approach Identifies the systems Identifies the six Identifies three of the Identifies fewer than systems and gives an systems or gives three of the systems or example of each examples of three of gives fewer than three the systems examples

7. Define cohort, explain its effects, and give an example of one.

ANSWER: A cohort is a group of people born within a few years of each other who move through time together. Cohorts travel through life affected by the interaction of their chronological age with the values, events, technologies, and culture of the historical period. Cohort examples will vary but should show an understanding of a cohort. Examples include the names that parents give their babies, "Occupy Wall Street," "Black Lives Matter," the 9/11 terrorist attacks, the assassination of John F. Kennedy, and attitudes about marijuana. The baby-boom generation is the example given in the text. Other common examples include the Greatest Generation (people who lived through the Depression and WWII) and the Millennials (Generation Y, born between the early 1980s and the early 2000s). Another example would be Generation X, born between the early 1960s and the early 1980s.

Explains cohort

Gives an example

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Correctly defines Defines cohort Does not define cohort cohort and explains its without explaining its correctly impact on members effect on members Gives an example of a Gives a vague Gives an incorrect cohort example of cohort example or does not give an example

8. Explain the term SES, including four components of SES. ANSWER: SES, or socioeconomic status, is a person's position in society and is determined by education, occupation, neighborhood, and income.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay Explains the term Provides the four components

Correctly explains the Partially explains the term term Includes the four Includes two components components of SES

Does not explain the term Does not include the four components or includes incorrect components

9. Describe culture, and explain why researchers interested in human development study different cultures.

ANSWER: Culture is the system of shared beliefs, conventions, norms, behaviors, expectations, and symbolic representations that persist over time and prescribe social rules of conduct. Culture is a powerful social construction, or a concept created by a society. Such social constructions affect how people think and act—what they value, praise, ignore, and punish. Different cultures may view the same behaviors or phenomena as either assets or deficits. Therefore, by studying different cultures, researchers can identify which patterns are universal among humans and which occur only in certain cultures. This information provides insights into the effects of different environments.

Describes culture

Explains why researchers study different cultures

Good (5 pts.)

Clearly describes culture

Fair (3 pts.)

Gives a definition of culture without describing it Clearly explains why Is vague about why researchers study researchers study different cultures different cultures

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define culture Does not explain why researchers study different cultures

10. Irma is under the impression that culture, ethnicity, and race mean the same thing and are interchangeable.

Explain why Irma is mistaken and outline the differences between these terms.

ANSWER: Ethnic groups often share a culture, but not necessarily. There are multiple intersecting and interacting dimensions to ethnic identity. People may share ethnicity but differ culturally. For example, people of Irish descent in Ireland, Australia, and North America may come from several ethnic groups. In another example, African-born people in North America typically consider themselves African, but African people in Africa identify with more specific ethnic groups. Race refers to people who are regarded by themselves or by others on the basis of their physical appearance, typically skin color. However, social scientists are convinced that race is a social construction and that color terms exaggerate minor differences. For instance, dark-skinned people with African ancestors have high levels of within-population genetic diversity, and many darkskinned people whose ancestors were not African share neither culture nor ethnicity with Africans.

Differentiates the three terms Provides examples

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains how culture, Differentiates between Does not differentiate ethnicity, and race two of the terms the three terms differ Illustrates by example Partially illustrates by Does not provide how the three terms example differences examples or provides differ between the three incorrect examples terms

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay

11. Define and discuss the term plasticity as it relates to human development. What factors influence plasticity in development? Offer at least one example of plasticity that has operated or is operating in your own life.

ANSWER: Plasticity is the molding of human traits while simultaneously maintaining some durability of identity. The concept of plasticity reminds us that human development is an ongoing, ever-changing interaction between the body and mind and between the individual and every aspect of their environment. Influences that affect plasticity include culture, upbringing, and genes. Students' examples should relate to some aspect of growth in their individual lives, such as how they—or someone they know—have overcome adversity. For example, they could discuss how a highfunctioning person on the autism spectrum can eventually earn a college degree. (The autism remains [durability], but with school and other societal interventions, the person can still achieve traditional milestones.)

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines and discusses Defines the concept of Defines or discusses plasticity plasticity and plasticity discusses it Lists factors that Lists three factors that Lists two factors that influence plasticity influence plasticity influence plasticity Gives a plasticity example

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define or discuss plasticity

Lists one or no factors that influence plasticity Gives an example of Gives an example of Does not give an plasticity and relates it plasticity but does not example of plasticity to a personal relate it to a personal experience experience

12. Imagine that you are interested in the relationship between age and reading ability for children ages 8 to 12 years old. Briefly define the cross-sectional design, and summarize how you could test this relationship using that design.

ANSWER: A cross-sectional design compares groups of people of one age with at least one other group of people of another age at a specific point in time. Although the people differ in age, they should be similar in other important characteristics. It is faster than a longitudinal study, because all the data are immediately available.

To implement a cross-sectional design that examines age and reading ability, first identify two groups of children: 8-year-olds and 12-year-olds. Second, evaluate each individual child's reading ability. Finally, compare the children from each group, and look for differences in reading ability.

Defines crosssectional design

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Describes crossDescribes crosssectional design and sectional design but identifies that does not elaborate participants should be about having similar of a similar socioeconomic socioeconomic status statuses for participants

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives a vague or incorrect description of cross-sectional design

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay Summarizes how to Identifies the three do the research parts of the research design

Identifies two parts of Identifies one part or the research design cannot identify the research design

13. What practices must be built into a research study to protect participants?

ANSWER: Researchers must ensure that people's participation is (1) voluntary, (2) confidential, and (3) harmless. They must obtain the informed consent of all the participants. Informed consent means that participants must understand and agree to the procedures after being told of any risks involved.

If children are involved, consent must be obtained from the children as well as their parents.

Participants must also be allowed to end their participation at any time.

Summarizes practices to protect participants

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

States all three conditions; States two conditions; States one condition; describes informed explains informed fails to explain consent and that consent or that informed consent participants can end participants can end participation participation

14. Define correlation, and give an example. Can one determine cause and effect from correlations? Explain why or why not.

ANSWER: A correlation exists between two variables when one variable changes (increases or decreases) as the other variable changes. Examples will vary but should illustrate this concept, such as the relationship between increased ice cream sales and higher murder rates. It is impossible to determine cause and effect from correlations, because even though correlations indicate a connection between two variables, they cannot determine the reason for the connection, since no other variables are controlled. In the example above, both ice cream sales and violent crime increase during hot weather. Therefore, a third variable—heat—may explain this relationship.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines correlation Gives an accurate Gives an adequate Gives an inaccurate or definition of definition of no definition of correlation correlation correlation Gives an example of Offers a good example Offers a vague or Offers an incorrect or a correlation of a correlation weak example of a no example of a correlation correlation Explains the States that causation Implies that causation States that causation relationship between cannot be determined can be determined can be determined causation and from a correlation from a correlation from a correlation correlation

15. Differentiate quantitative research from qualitative research. What are the benefits of using qualitative research in developmental psychology?

ANSWER: Quantitative research provides data that can be expressed with numbers, such as ranks or scales.

Qualitative research, in contrast, relies on open-ended questions, and information is presented in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Essay narrative rather than numerical form. Many developmental researchers rely on quantitative research, as it reflects cultural and contextual diversity.

Good (5 pts.)

Differentiates Explains the quantitative differences between and qualitative the two types of research research Explains the Includes the benefits benefits of of using qualitative using research qualitative research in developmental psychology

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provides partial definitions Does not differentiate of the two types of research the two types of research Only includes one benefit Does not include the associated with qualitative benefits of qualitative research research

16. What are ethics, and why are ethical standards so important to scientific research?

ANSWER: Ethics are a set of moral principles and specific practices that protect both participants and the integrity of research. Ethical standards provide study participants with the assurance of informed consent; the knowledge that their participation is voluntary and confidential; and the promise that they will not be harmed.

Ethics are also a vital part of the reporting process after the research has been conducted. Reports of findings should be accurate, and the study should be able to be replicated under the same conditions.

Collaboration, replication, and transparency are essential ethical safeguards for all scientists.

Good (5 pts.)

Defines ethics Defines ethics

Explains the Explains why ethics importance of are important, ethics including the three ethical safeguards— collaboration, replication, and transparency; states several ways in which ethics protect participants and how ethics protect findings and replication

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines ethics only as they Does not define ethics apply to participants or the reporting process Identifies only how ethics Does not explain why are important for ethics are important participants or their importance to the reporting process and replication

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 1. The science of human development seeks to understand _____. a. the meaning of life b. the accuracy of new theories c. the works of Freud, Piaget, and Erikson d. how and why people change over time ANSWER: d 2. Dr. Banes wants to know if children who have experienced stunting will increase in height if given large doses of vitamin D. Dr. Banes has just demonstrated which step of the scientific method? a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: a 3. Dr. Brantley believes that early parent–child attachments will impact future parent–child relationships, particularly during adolescence. What is this prediction called? a. a "conclusion" b. "empirical evidence" c. a "hypothesis" d. an "observation" ANSWER: c 4. Dr. Kadar conducted an experiment to determine whether playing violent video games caused increased aggression in children. By conducting this experiment, Dr. Kadar was able to do what? a. establish a positive correlation b. demonstrate proof c. test the hypothesis d. confirm the results ANSWER: c 5. Dr. Maina is curious to know more about how children's relationships with their parents develop and change over time. To gain an understanding of this subject that is not based on opinion or personal bias, Dr. Maina should _____. a. use the scientific method to collect data and establish facts b. have the children undergo psychoanalysis c. interview parents and children d. read Dr. Spock's book Baby and Child Care ANSWER: a 6. What is the first step of the scientific method? a. posing a question Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. conducting research c. analyzing evidence d. developing a hypothesis ANSWER: a 7. What is the second step of the scientific method? a. posing a question b. conducting research c. developing a hypothesis d. sharing the results ANSWER: c 8. The third step in the scientific method involves _____. a. posing a question b. conducting research c. sharing the results d. developing a hypothesis ANSWER: b 9. The fourth step in the scientific method involves _____. a. posing a question b. conducting research c. developing a hypothesis d. supporting or refuting a hypothesis ANSWER: d 10. What is empirical evidence based on? a. theories and speculation b. observation, experience, or experiment c. inferences based on personal biases d. opinions generated by focus groups ANSWER: b 11. After posing a question, a researcher using the scientific method _____. a. draws conclusions b. runs an experiment c. selects a group of participants d. develops a hypothesis ANSWER: d 12. Which of these is the last step in the scientific method?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. testing a hypothesis b. posing a question c. conducting research d. reporting the results ANSWER: d 13. Dr. Huynh is interested in conducting a study that will examine children's language acquisition. What is the first step that should be taken based on the scientific method? a. Recruit children and their parents as participants in the study. b. Develop a hypothesis regarding language acquisition. c. Pose a research question about language acquisition. d. Draw conclusions on the way children acquire language.

ANSWER: c 14. A hypothesis is a(n) _____. a. experiment b. prediction that can be tested c. conclusion drawn from research d. replication of a scientific study ANSWER: b 15. Replication involves _____. a. the repetition of a study using different participants b. the repetition of a study using the same participants c. designing a new study based on information from a previous study d. designing a new study using new ideas and information ANSWER: a 16. Dr. Yahya conducts a study in which they find that smoking is related to an increased risk of high blood pressure. They then publish their findings. Then Dr. Corradino conducts the same study using different participants in another city. Dr. Corradino's work is an example of _____. a. scientific controversy b. replication c. ethics d. data analyses ANSWER: b 17. Blas experienced the divorce of their parents, lived in an impoverished neighborhood while growing up, and experienced verbal abuse from extended family as a child. How many adverse childhood experiences did Blas endure? a. two b. three Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. four d. six ANSWER: b 18. How many adverse childhood experiences have been shown to have a destructive effect on development through adulthood? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: d 19. One scholar noted that "human development is fundamentally contextual." In this sense, context includes all of these EXCEPT: a. what we inherit from our parents. b. the physical environment. c. social values. d. those around us.

ANSWER: a 20. Parents who spend a great deal of time and money trying to find the best school for their children believe in the importance of _____ as it relates to development. a. nurture b. replication c. nature d. classical conditioning ANSWER: a 21. All environmental influences that impact development after the moment of conception can be considered aspects of _____ on development. a. replication b. nurture c. nature d. differential susceptibility ANSWER: b 22. In the science of human development, nature refers to _____. a. the influence of the genes that people inherit b. environmental influences c. patterns of development d. developmental differences Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. In the science of human development, nurture refers to _____ traits. a. hereditary b. genetic c. environmental d. unique ANSWER: c 24. Dr. Zlatko believes that heredity is primarily responsible for personality traits. Dr. Valeriy believes that environmental influences are primarily responsible for personality traits. They are on different sides of the _____ debate. a. nature–nurture b. intelligent design–evolution c. genes–development d. traits–conditioning ANSWER: a 25. Most developmental psychologists believe that development is the result of _____. a. nature and nurture acting separately b. genetic traits c. nature and nurture acting together d. environmental influences ANSWER: c 26. Which of these illustrates the influence of nature in development? a. having a mother who smoked during pregnancy b. having the gene for epilepsy c. eating a healthy diet d. living in a loud neighborhood ANSWER: b 27. Rangi and Marcellus are close friends who grew up in the same neighborhood. Both were exposed to chronic stressors during childhood, such as poverty and family dysfunction. By the time they were in high school, Rangi was failing most of their classes, had a child, and had already been arrested several times.

Marcellus, however, was passing all of their classes, played football and had aspirations to attend college. These different developmental trajectories, despite similar environmental influences, illustrate the concept of _____ a. "nature versus nurture." b. a "critical period." c. a "sensitive period." d. "differential susceptibility."

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 28. In one study that looked at the effects of maternal depression during pregnancy and child outcomes, researchers found that children who had a particular type of the serotonin transporter gene were likely to be emotionally immature if their mothers were depressed. However, children with this gene were more mature than average if their mothers were not depressed. These findings illustrate the concept of _____ a. "nature versus nurture." b. a "critical period." c. a "sensitive period." d. "differential susceptibility."

ANSWER: d 29. Differential sensitivity means that certain people have genes that _____. a. make them more vulnerable to particular experiences b. interact and coordinate to influence developmental outcomes c. determine their social interactions and intellectual outcomes d. have an unknown impact on their long-term development ANSWER: a 30. The life-span perspective takes into account development from _____. a. birth to death b. childhood to middle age c. birth to adolescence d. conception to death ANSWER: d 31. Late adulthood begins at age _____. a. 45 b. 55 c. 65 d. 75 ANSWER: c 32. A developmental perspective requires consideration of _____. a. time b. one's birthday c. observer bias d. scientific conclusions ANSWER: a 33. With respect to the concept of multidirectional development, when change is rapid and dramatic, such as when a larva becomes a mosquito, it is an example of _____. a. continuity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. discontinuity c. genetics d. nurture ANSWER: b 34. The concept of multidirectional development suggests that when change is gradual, as when a tortoise grows larger over its 150-year lifespan, it is an example of _____. a. continuity b. discontinuity c. genetics d. nurture ANSWER: a 35. Which example BEST illustrates a critical period? a. a child learning to walk b. a child learning a second language before age 4 c. a human fetus developing fingers and toes between 28 and 54 days in utero d. a child learning to ride a bike between 5 and 6 years of age ANSWER: c 36. Which example BEST illustrates a sensitive period? a. a child who is born blind b. an egg being fertilized c. a fetus developing fingers and toes d. a child learning to speak a second language ANSWER: d 37. Between 1957 and 1961, many pregnant women took thalidomide to alleviate morning sickness; this drug disrupted a(n) _____ period of prenatal development. a. sensitive b. critical c. early d. late ANSWER: b 38. A woman in Honduras worked in a field treated with pesticides during pregnancy. Their child was subsequently born with no arms or legs. The woman's pesticide exposure likely occurred during a(n) _____ period of prenatal development. a. critical b. early c. late Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. sensitive ANSWER: a 39. Reiner did not learn to read until they were a teenager. When they learned to read, it was much harder for them than it was for their peers. If Reiner had learned to read during the early and middle childhood years, they would have acquired literacy skills much more efficiently. Reiner's difficulty learning to read as a teenager demonstrates the concept of a(n) "_____ period." a. critical b. early c. late d. sensitive ANSWER: d 40. The effects of climate, noise, population density, family size, and multiethnic communities illustrate that development is _____. a. linear b. multidirectional c. multicontextual d. multicultural ANSWER: c 41. The ecological-systems approach was proposed by _____. a. Maslow b. Freud c. Bronfenbrenner d. Skinner ANSWER: c 42. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach, the _____ refers to the interactions among systems. a. macrosystem b. exosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem ANSWER: d 43. Which term did Bronfenbrenner use to describe the impact of the specific time in history on a person's development? a. macrosystem b. exosystem c. microsystem d. chronosystem ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 44. Irmina was born during the Great Depression. Based on the ecological-systems approach, Irmina's experience of growing up during this time period falls within the _____. a. chronosystem b. exosystem c. microsystem d. macrosystem ANSWER: a 45. Sarika grew up in a reconstituted family in Wisconsin. According to the ecological-systems approach, Sarika's 'experience in this social context is an example of the _____. a. chronosystem b. exosystem c. microsystem d. macrosystem ANSWER: c 46. Dr. Kolbe is studying the impact of exosystems on human development. Which of these would Dr. Kolbe be MOST interested in examining? a. cultural values and economic processes b. family and peer groups c. medical centers and religious institutions d. the development of the skeletal structure in children ANSWER: c 47. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems model, a hospital in the community is an example of the _____. a. ecosystem b. microsystem c. chronosystem d. exosystem ANSWER: d 48. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems model, family and peers are part of one's _____. a. microsystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem d. social system ANSWER: a 49. A person's macrosystem includes _____. a. political processes b. the peer group Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. school and church d. the historical setting ANSWER: a 50. According to Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach, the historical context that affects other systems is called the "_____." a. ecosystem b. chronosystem c. mesosystem d. macrosystem ANSWER: b 51. Delta grew up in the Great Depression, while their grandson is part of the millennial generation. Delta and their grandson belong to different _____. a. socioeconomic groups b. microsystems c. cohorts d. cultural groups ANSWER: c 52. Moira and Esteve are both currently in middle school. They are part of the same _____. a. social construction b. network c. socioeconomic status d. cohort ANSWER: d 53. Socioeconomic status refers to an individual's _____. a. culture b. ethnicity c. social class d. race ANSWER: c 54. An individual's socioeconomic status includes, among other things, their _____. a. ethnicity b. education level c. political beliefs d. religion ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 55. An individual's socioeconomic status includes, among other things, their _____. a. ethnicity b. political beliefs c. neighborhood d. religion ANSWER: c 56. Zachary is a part-time construction worker. Noah is an attorney. These occupations reflect Zachary and Noah's _____. a. SES b. political values c. cohorts d. family values ANSWER: a 57. Jameel has a college degree, lives in a nice neighborhood, and earns more than $50,000 a year. This information defines their _____. a. economic potential b. socioeconomic status c. cohort d. microsystem ANSWER: b 58. A system of shared beliefs, conventions, norms, behaviors, expectations, and symbolic representations is the definition of _____. a. a cohort b. culture c. nature d. nurture ANSWER: b 59. The general term for a concept that is created by society is _____. a. culture b. a cohort c. a social construction d. SES ANSWER: c 60. Li, age 11, is a recent Chinese immigrant. Li's new teachers have noticed that they rarely talk, do not make eye contact, and seem very shy. When they speak to Li's parents, they are surprised, as these characteristics are valued in Li's culture. The perception of Li's behavior reflects the concept of a(n) "_____." a. microsystem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. exosystem c. social construction d. social phobia ANSWER: c 61. One historical example of the "difference-equals-deficit" error is _____. a. men perceiving women as intellectually inferior b. European immigrants crossing the ocean to settle in America c. how people's IQ scores have been steadily rising for more than 100 years d. women taking factory jobs during World War II ANSWER: a 62. An example of the "difference-equals-deficit" error is _____. a. assuming that children who are hearing impaired cannot communicate as well as children who can hear b. failing to compare typical and atypical behavior c. ignoring inconsistencies in a child's language development d. identifying flaws within the scientific method ANSWER: a 63. A careful multicultural approach is needed based on the _____. a. social construction of equality b. replication crisis c. multicontextual aspect of human development d. difference-equals-deficit error ANSWER: d 64. The idea that the various identities need to be combined is referred to as _____. a. intersectionality b. social construction c. the microsystem d. a sensitive period ANSWER: a 65. Our different identities can be used to discriminate by dividing people. This idea is recognized by _____. a. intersectionality b. social construction c. the microsystem d. a sensitive period ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 66. _____ focuses attention on power differences that exist between groups and highlights discrimination that occurs in many institutions. a. Intersectionality b. Social construction c. The microsystem d. A sensitive period ANSWER: a 67. Ugur is a young African American man who has recently been arrested. They are likely to receive a harsher sentence for the crime compared to an older White man, due to the intersectionality of all of these EXCEPT: a. race. b. age. c. gender. d. religion.

ANSWER: d 68. The multifaceted relationship between an organism and their environment is referred to as: a. ecology. b. context. c. continuity. d. differential susceptibility.

ANSWER: a 69. People whose ancestors were born in the same region and who usually share the same language and religion are called a(n) "_____." a. racial group b. ethnic group c. SES group d. exosystem ANSWER: b 70. According to the text, race is _____. a. part of the microsystem b. a social construction c. defined by heritage d. multidirectional ANSWER: b 71. Some social scientists believe that _____ terms exaggerate minor differences between people. a. color b. diversity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. genetic analysis d. culture ANSWER: a 72. The fact that race is a social construction _____. a. reflects inconsistencies in ethnic categories b. does not make the term meaningless c. means that it should be replaced with the term "culture" d. shows how powerful genetic influences are on development ANSWER: b 73. The three domains of development are _____. a. genetic, environmental, and cultural b. nature, nurture, and SES c. biosocial, cognitive, and psychosocial d. physical, social, and emotional ANSWER: c 74. When thinking about development, economics, history, and sociology make up which domain? a. biological b. social c. cognitive d. psychosocial ANSWER: d 75. Plasticity refers to the _____. a. fact that many academic fields contribute data to the science of development b. universals and specifics of human development in many cultural settings c. vast array of contexts in which development occurs d. potential for human traits to be modeled during development but also to remain durable ANSWER: d 76. The term plasticity reminds us that _____. a. human development is linear b. critical and sensitive periods predict developmental outcomes c. developmental change is possible d. human traits are mostly inborn ANSWER: c 77. The idea that human development is an ongoing, ever-changing interaction between the body, mind, and every aspect of the environment reflects the _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. dynamic-systems approach b. theory of evolution c. concept of universality d. domino effect ANSWER: a 78. Which of these is the BEST example of plasticity? a. a child who experiences a traumatic brain injury and relearns how to walk and talk b. a teenager who spends a summer in Mexico as part of their youth group c. a woman who leaves their job to stay home with their child d. a man who is in a serious car wreck and remains in a coma five years later ANSWER: a 79. In the case study of David, they were exposed to _____ during their mother's pregnancy. a. HIV b. cancer-causing pesticides c. rubella d. pneumonia ANSWER: c 80. In the case study of David, their IQ changed from about 40 to about 130, and their physical disabilities improved with age. These changes reflect which characteristic of development? a. multidirectional b. multidisciplinary c. multicontextual d. plasticity ANSWER: d 81. Scientific observation allows for the _____. a. study of individuals' behaviors in a systematic and objective manner b. determination of cause-and-effect relationships c. observation of participants without their knowledge d. systematic manipulation of variables ANSWER: a 82. Which statement about scientific observation is TRUE? a. It requires a large number of participants. b. It requires specialized equipment, such as video recorders. c. It involves recording behavior systematically and objectively. d. It must take place in a lab setting.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 83. Experiments allow researchers to _____. a. study the natural environment b. study the complexity of an individual c. use the scientific method in a cost-effective way d. determine a cause-and-effect relationship ANSWER: d 84. When a researcher wants to determine the cause of a particular behavior, the appropriate research method to use is a(n) _____. a. case study b. meta-analysis c. experiment d. survey ANSWER: c 85. A dependent variable is _____. a. the measured variable that may change depending on manipulation of an independent variable b. any unmeasured variable that is uncontrolled within the context of the experiment c. the variable that is intentionally manipulated by the researcher d. an external variable that cannot be controlled by the researcher ANSWER: a 86. An independent variable is _____. a. the measured variable that may change depending upon manipulation of a dependent variable b. any unmeasured variable that is uncontrolled within the context of the experiment c. the variable that is intentionally manipulated by the researcher d. an external variable that cannot be controlled by the researcher ANSWER: c 87. An example of a dependent variable in an experiment might be _____. a. sex b. blood type c. eye color d. level of depression ANSWER: d 88. In an experiment, the group of participants who receive the imposed treatment or special condition is referred to as the "_____ group." a. independent b. dependent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. experimental d. comparison ANSWER: c 89. The purpose of an experiment is to find out whether _____. a. an independent variable affects the dependent variable b. a positive correlation can be established c. the dependent variable can be manipulated d. the hypothesis is flawed or influenced by researcher bias ANSWER: a 90. "_____ research" is a quick way to study the development of a large group of people. a. Experimental b. Survey c. Cohort-sequential d. Longitudinal ANSWER: b 91. Which of these is a limitation of survey research? a. Participants often drop out of the research. b. It is expensive and time-consuming. c. It requires experimental control. d. Participants may be dishonest in their answers.

ANSWER: d 92. Combining the results of many studies to reach a general conclusion is called a(n) _____. a. meta-analysis b. correlational study c. experimental design d. longitudinal study ANSWER: a 93. The quickest and least expensive way to study development over time is with _____ research. a. survey b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. experimental ANSWER: b 94. Dr. Adomas wanted to learn how peer relationships change at different stages of development. For their study, they conducted a one-time assessment in which they asked a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 15-yearCopyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice olds, and a group of 30-year-olds to describe their current peer relationships. Dr. Adomas conducted what type of study? a. a case study b. a cross-sectional study c. a longitudinal study d. a cross-sequential study ANSWER: b 95. _____ research involves studying the same individuals over time, as their development is repeatedly assessed. a. Survey b. Cross-sectional c. Longitudinal d. Observational ANSWER: c 96. Which is NOT a limitation associated with longitudinal research? a. the aging of the participants in the study b. attrition, or losing participants over time c. changing historical context during the study d. participants knowing the purpose of the study and altering their behaviors ANSWER: a 97. Which type of research design combines the cross-sectional design with the longitudinal research design? a. cross-sequential b. cross-sectional c. meta-sequential d. quasi-experimental ANSWER: a 98. A correlation indicates that there is _____ between two variables. a. a causal link b. validity c. reliability d. a relationship ANSWER: d 99. A correlation is considered to be negative if _____. a. both variables decrease b. both variables increase c. one variable increases while the other variable decreases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. change in one variable is unrelated to change in the other variable ANSWER: c 100. A correlation is considered to be zero if _____. a. one variable increases while the other decreases b. both variables decrease c. both variables increase d. there is no relationship between the variables ANSWER: d 101. The more Merten eats, the less hungry they feel. The correlation that exists between Merten's food intake and their hunger is _____. a. positive b. negative c. zero d. causal ANSWER: b 102. The more parents read to their children, the higher their children score on achievement tests. This relationship between parents reading to their children and child achievement represents a(n) _____. a. causal relationship b. inverse correlational c. positive correlation d. negative correlation ANSWER: c 103. If a researcher finds that there is a correlation between secondhand smoke and children's asthma, they know for SURE that _____. a. secondhand smoke causes children's asthma b. secondhand smoke does not cause children's asthma c. prenatal exposure to smoking leads to asthma d. asthma and secondhand smoke have some connection ANSWER: d 104. _____ research can be categorized, ranked, or numbered. a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. Correlational d. Observational ANSWER: a 105. _____ research involves asking open-ended questions and reporting answers in narrative, not numerical, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice form. a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. Correlational d. Observational ANSWER: b 106. _____ research reflects cultural and contextual diversity but is also more vulnerable to bias and harder to replicate. a. Experimental b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. Longitudinal ANSWER: c 107. IRB stands for _____. a. Institutional Review Board b. International Research Board c. Internal Review Board d. Intelligence Research Board ANSWER: a 108. The most important caution for all scientists, particularly those studying human development, is to _____. a. have an advanced degree b. only conduct experimental research c. uphold ethical standards d. avoid using vulnerable populations ANSWER: c 109. _____ are essential ethical safeguards. a. Promotion, social awareness, and publication b. Independence, privacy, and funding c. Political correctness, scientific advancement, and medical treatment d. Collaboration, replication, and transparency ANSWER: d 110. From an ethical stance, researchers should choose destinationtopics of study that _____. a. may be researched quickly b. may be researched inexpensively c. can help all people live better lives d. are politically correct Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 20

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 111. According to Bronfenbrenner, the sixth system of the model is the internal biology of the person. This is referred to as the: a. microsystem. b. mesosystem. c. exosystem. d. bioecological system.

ANSWER: d 112. The study of autism demonstrates the _____ of developmental psychology. a. multidisciplinary nature b. intersectionality c. multicultural aspect d. multicontextual nature ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 21

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay 1. What is a developmental theory? Identify three things discussed in the text that a theory can do.

ANSWER: A developmental theory is a comprehensive statement of general principles that provides a framework for understanding how and why people change as they grow older. Theories can produce hypotheses, generate discoveries, and offer practical guidance.

Defines developmental theory Identifies the three things a theory can do

Good (5 pts.)

Defines developmental theory Tells the three things a theory can do

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives a vague Does not define a definition of developmental theory developmental theory Tells two things a Tells one thing or theory can do nothing that a theory can do

2. Compare and contrast Freud's theory and Erikson's theory. Make sure you provide both similarities and differences between the two theoretical perspectives.

ANSWER: Both Freud and Erikson proposed stage theories based on the belief that adult problems echoed childhood conflicts. However, Erikson's psychosocial theory had eight stages, while Freud's psychosexual theory had just four. Erikson named two polarities at each stage, and his stages encompassed the entire life span, while Freud's ended at adolescence. Erikson's theory also emphasized the influence of family and culture, while Freud's theory emphasized unconscious sexual urges.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes similarities States that both men States that both Does not describe had stage theories theories had stages accurately how the based on the idea that theories were similar adult problems echoed childhood conflicts Describes differences States all four ways in States three of the four States two or fewer which the theories ways in which the ways in which the differed theories differed theories differed or does not accurately describe how the theories differed

3. Explain both classical and operant conditioning, highlighting the researchers who proposed each concept.

ANSWER: Classical conditioning is the learning process in which a meaningful stimulus is connected with a neutral stimulus that had no special meaning before conditioning. The person gradually reacts to the neutral stimulus with the same behavior as the meaningful one. Pavlov introduced the concept of classical conditioning. In operant conditioning, a person performs some action, and then a response occurs. If the response is pleasurable, the person is likely to repeat the action. If the response is unpleasant, the person is unlikely to repeat the action. Skinner is associated with operant conditioning.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay Describes classical Correctly and operant describes both conditioning types of conditioning Names the Correctly names researchers Pavlov and associated with Skinner each

Correctly describes one type of conditioning

Does not describe either type of conditioning or confuses the two types

Correctly names Pavlov or Skinner

Does not name either Pavlov or Skinner or confuses who belongs with each type of conditioning

4. Explain social learning theory. From where did this theory originate, and what does it emphasize?

ANSWER: Social learning theory is an extension of behaviorism that emphasizes the influence that other people have over a person's behavior. Even without specific reinforcement, every individual learns many things through observation and imitation of other people.

Explains social learning theory

Good (5 pts.)

States that the theory is an offshoot of behaviorism and how everyone learns by observation and imitation

Fair (3 pts.)

States that everyone learns through observation and imitation

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Is vague about the definition of social learning theory

5. List Piaget's four stages of cognitive development in order, and explain what Piaget believed facilitates intellectual advancement.

ANSWER: The four stages are sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational.

According to Piaget, cognitive equilibrium facilitates intellectual advancement because humans seek mental balance. Disequilibrium can cause cognitive growth if people change their thinking through assimilation or accommodation.

Lists the stages of cognitive development

Explains causes of intellectual advancement

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists the four stages in Lists three of the Lists two or fewer order stages in stages or has the order or confuses the stages out of order order of two of the stages Understands how Understands that Does not adequately people seek cognitive people seek cognitive explain Piaget's beliefs equilibrium and that equilibrium about intellectual disequilibrium can advancement cause assimilation or accommodation

6. Compare and contrast the information-processing theory and Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Make Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay sure to include a clear definition of each.

ANSWER: Piaget maintained that cognitive development occurs in four age-related periods, or stages. These include the sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational stages of development. Each period fosters certain cognitive processes: Infants think via their senses; preschoolers have language but not logic; school-age children have simple logic; adolescents and adults can use formal, abstract logic. Information-processing theory is a perspective that compares humans' thinking processes to a computer's analysis of data, including sensory input, connections, stored memories, and output. Instead of interpreting responses by infants and children, as Piaget did, information-processing theory focuses on the processes of thought—that is, when, why, and how neurons fire before a response.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines information- Gives the definition of Provides a definition Gives an incorrect or processing theory informationof either information- vague definition of and Piaget's theory processing theory and processing theory or informationPiaget's theory Piaget's theory but not processing theory or both theoretical views. Piaget's theory.

Explains how the Differentiates Piaget's Partially differentiates Does not differentiate theory differs from theory from Piaget's theory from between the two Piaget's informationinformationtheories processing theory processing theory

7. Your textbook describes seven techniques used by neuroscientists to understand brain function. List and describe two of these techniques. Despite advancements in brain imaging, why are theories still needed to understand human development?

ANSWER: Students can list and describe any two of the following techniques: EEG (electroencephalogram): This measures electrical activity in the cortex. It can differentiate active brains from sleeping brains and brain states that are half-awake, or dreaming.

ERP (event-related potential): The amplitude and frequency of brain electrical activity change when a particular stimulus occurs. First, the ERP establishes the usual patterns, and then researchers present a stimulus that causes a blip in electrical activity. ERP indicates how quickly and extensively people react.

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging): The water molecules in various parts of the brain each have a magnetic current, and measuring that current reveals the amount of myelin, neurons, and fluid in the brain. fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging): In advanced MRI, function is measured as more oxygen is added to the blood flow when specific neurons are activated. The presumption is that increased blood flow means that the person is using that part of the brain. fMRI has revealed that several parts of the brain are active at once.

PET (position emission tomography): This can reveal the volume of neurotransmitters; the rise or fall of brain oxygen, glucose, amino acids; and more. fNIRS (functional near infrared spectroscopy): This measures changes in blood flow. It depends on light rather than magnetic charge. By measuring how each area of the brain absorbs light, neuroscientists can infer activity of the brain.

DTI (diffusion tensor imaging): This is another technique that builds on the MRI. It measures the flow (diffusion) of water molecules within the brain, which shows connections between one area Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay and another.

Variations within and between people make it difficult to know what someone is thinking via brain scans. This confirms the need for theory. Without an idea of what to look for, or what it might mean, the millions of data points from all brain images might lead to the same trap as earlier measurements of the skull—human bias.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists and describes brain imaging techniques

Lists and describes two brain imaging techniques

Lists and describes one brain imaging technique

Explains why theories are needed

Explains why theories Partly explains why are still needed, theories are still despite evidence from needed brain imaging techniques

Does not list or describe any of the brain imaging techniques Does not explain why theories are still needed

8. Describe what Vygotsky meant by "apprenticeship in thinking" and "guided participation." Give an example of each.

ANSWER: Vygotsky stated that all adults teach children the skills expected by their society and culture.

Apprenticeship in thinking is how Vygotsky described the more skilled members of the society acting as tutors or mentors to help a person develop skills. For example, in earlier centuries, a young person wanting to repair shoes might become a cobbler's apprentice, learning the trade while assisting the teacher. Guided participation is the method used by parents, teachers, and entire societies to teach novices (apprentices) the skills and habits expected within their culture. An example of guided participation might be a tutor engaging students in joint activities.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives a definition for Gives a definition for Confuses the two each term either term terms

Defines apprenticeship in thinking and guided participation Gives an example of Offers an example for Offers an example for Confuses the two each each term either term examples

9. Define Vygotsky's "zone of proximal development," including how it relates to learning. Provide two examples.

ANSWER: The zone of proximal development is the set of skills, knowledge, and concepts that a learner is close to acquiring but cannot master without help. A mentor breaks a large task down into its parts and then motivates and assists the learner to achieve it, one step at a time. Some frustration is permitted, but the learner must be actively engaged and never passive or overwhelmed. Mentors continually push for more competence by urging the learner to try something just a little harder rather than make a large leap. Examples include a person helping another learn how to tie their shoes, swim, ride a bike, or ice skate.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay Defines zone of proximal development and how it relates to learning Provides examples

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines the term and Defines the term and explains clearly how it somewhat explains relates to learning how it relates to (describes mentor and learning (describes learner) mentor or learner) Provides two examples

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define the term or cannot explain how it relates to learning (fails to describe mentor or learner) Provides one example Does not provide an example

10. Yann is a teacher who works primarily with toddlers. Most of the children that Yann works with are not yet toilet-trained. Explain the advice a psychoanalyst, behaviorist, cognitive theorist, and a sociocultural theorist would give Yann regarding their approach to toilet training.

ANSWER: Psychoanalytic theory identifies the first year of life as the oral stage, which occurs before the anal stage (years 1–3). Thus, psychoanalytic theorists believe that toilet training should be postponed until the child is cognitive, emotionally, and biologically ready—around age 2 for daytime training and age 3 for nighttime dryness.

A behaviorist would argue that toilet training should occur whenever the parent (or adult) wishes to start, not at a particular age. Praise and reward should be used each time the child uses the toilet, as they will increase the likelihood that the child will successfully use the toilet in the future.

A cognitive theorist would suggest that a parent (or adult) wait until the child can understand reasons to urinate and defecate in the toilet.

A sociocultural theorist would emphasize the vast differences between one community and another.

That is, different communities set their own guidelines for when and how to begin toilet training.

Therefore, toilet training should reflect the values and expectations of the child's cultural environment.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains the advice Accurately explains Accurately explains Does not explain how that each therapist how each therapist how two therapists any therapist would would offer would advise Yann on would advise Yann on advise on toilet toilet training toilet training training or provides incorrect information

11. Describe the two biologically based drives associated with evolutionary theory and explain how selective adaptation relates to this theory. Be sure to explain the process of selective adaptation in your answer.

ANSWER: According to evolutionary theory, every species has two long-standing, biologically based drives: survival and reproduction. A basic idea from evolutionary theory is selective adaptation, which proposes that humans today react in ways that helped their ancestors' survival and reproduction long ago. Thus, some of the best qualities of people—cooperation, spirituality, and self-sacrifice—may have originated thousands of years ago, when groups of people survived because they took care of one another. The process of selective adaption works as follows: If one person happens to have a trait that makes survival more likely, the gene (or combination of genes) responsible for that trait is passed on to the next generation if that person lives long enough to reproduce. Anyone with such a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay fortunate genetic inheritance has a better chance than those without that gene to survive, mate, and bear many children—half of whom would inherit genes for the desirable trait.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies the drives States the two States either Cannot identify either associated with biologically based survival or survival or evolutionary theory drives reproduction reproduction Explains selective Explains both aspects Explains either aspect Does not adequately adaptation, including of selective of selective adaptation explain either aspect the process adaptation, including and process of selective adaptation the process or the process

12. Define eclectic perspective and provide an example of how a clinician might use this approach to explain a case of childhood aggression.

ANSWER: The approach taken by most developmentalists is to apply aspects of each of the various theories of development rather than adhering exclusively to one theory. Childhood aggression should be explained from at least two competing theories: psychoanalytic (e.g., inner drives), behaviorism (e.g., learned from observation), cognitive (e.g., beliefs that aggression is good or helpful), sociocultural (e.g., may need to be aggressive to be successful in one's culture), and evolutionary (e.g., aggression was an adaptive response among our ancestors or promoted survival).

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines eclectic Understands that most States that most perspective developmentalists apply developmentalists aspects of multiple apply aspects of two theories theories Describes its use to Explains childhood Explains childhood explain childhood aggression based on aggression based on aggression three or more theories two theories

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Cannot define the eclectic perspective

Explains childhood aggression based on one theory

13. List and describe the five theories that have contributed to our understanding of human development. Which of these theories do you believe best explains human development and why?

ANSWER: Psychoanalytic theory has made scientists aware of the importance of social and emotional experiences during early childhood. Behavioral theory (or behaviorism) has shown the effect that immediate responses and associations have on human learning. Cognitive theory helps scientists understand how intellectual processes and thinking affect people's actions. Sociocultural theories show how one's culture, social interaction, and environment influence one's behaviors. Evolutionary theory suggests that human impulses need to be recognized before they can be guided. Students' responses for their preferred theory will vary.

Lists theories

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists the five theories: Lists three of the psychoanalytic, theories behaviorism, cognitive,

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists one or two of the theories

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Essay

Describes how theories have contributed to understanding Explains their preferred theory

sociocultural, and evolutionary Describes how each of Describes how two of Describes how one of the five theories has the theories have the theories has added added to our added to our to our knowledge of knowledge of knowledge of development development development Explains which theory Partially explains Does not explain they believe best which theory they which theory they explains human believe best explains believe best explains development human development human development

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 1. A "_____" organizes scattered facts and confusing observations into patterns, weaving the details into a meaningful whole. a. hypothesis b. theory c. conclusion d. development ANSWER: b 2. A comprehensive statement of principles and generalizations that provides a framework for understanding how and why people change over time is called a "_____." a. hypothesis b. developmental theory c. conclusion d. stage ANSWER: b 3. Theories can do all these EXCEPT _____. a. produce hypotheses b. solve developmental problems c. generate discoveries d. offer practical guidance ANSWER: b 4. In class, Monika learned that some theorists link happiness to productivity. From this, Monika developed the idea that happy employees in a place of employment will be more productive each day. In this example, Monika's theory led them to do what? a. produce a hypothesis b. solve a developmental problem c. generate a discovery d. gain practical guidance ANSWER: a 5. Jean theorized that sleep helps people behave in safer ways. They tested their theory by conducting a study.

They manipulated the amount of sleep participants got and then tested their driving ability. Jean learned that the participants who got more sleep were safer drivers. In this example, Jean's theory led them to do what? a. replicate research b. solve a developmental problem c. generate a discovery d. change the behavior of many people ANSWER: c 6. Zora's 11-year-old child used to get out of bed easily and early on school days, but lately they have been hard Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice to wake. While reading a parenting book, Zora came across the theory of "delayed phase of preference," which states that sleep patterns shift when young people start to go through puberty. In this example, a theory helped Zora do what? a. design an experiment b. change their own behavior c. generate a discovery d. gain practical guidance ANSWER: d 7. Perikles is a nurse and wears colorful uniforms to work. They have noticed that most of the nurses that work in Perikles's unit also do the same. Nurses are doing this hoping to: a. increase anxiety among patients. b. reduce any association with pleasure and the hospital setting. c. receive positive feedback from their patients. d. prevent conditioned anxiety among patients.

ANSWER: d 8. Addiction is: a. biological. b. learned. c. both biological and learned. d. neither biological nor learned.

ANSWER: c 9. Hari was always teased in elementary, middle, and high school and did not do well in their courses. They are now in college and are taking a comprehensive final exam in their psychology class. They are extremely stressed and are having a difficult time remembering what they have learned this semester. This could be best explained by: a. psychosocial development. b. the white coat syndrome. c. classical conditioning. d. Freudian psychology.

ANSWER: c 10. Which of these is a TRUE statement regarding reinforcements and punishers? a. What is a reinforcer for one person will also work as a reinforcer for another person. b. What is a punisher for one person will also serve as a punisher for another person. c. What works as a reinforcer or a punisher may vary, depending on the person. d. Both reinforcers and punishers are always predictable in that they work for every person.

ANSWER: c 11. Which of these is a key difference between Erikson's theory and Freud's theory?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. Freud believed that development was a lifelong process. b. Erikson theorized that development was complete by adolescence. c. Erikson emphasized the role of family and culture. d. Erikson emphasized sexual urges on developmental outcomes.

ANSWER: c 12. In the first half of the twentieth century, which two opposing theories dominated the discipline of psychology? a. humanism and cognitive theory b. behaviorism and sociocultural theory c. psychodynamic theory and behaviorism d. cognitive theory and sociocultural theory ANSWER: c 13. Psychodynamic theory, behaviorism, and cognitive theory are considered "grand" because they are _____. a. comprehensive, enduring, and far reaching b. comprehensive, well developed, and universally correct c. enduring, far reaching, and universally correct d. comprehensive, far reaching, and unchallenged ANSWER: a 14. The foundation of psychodynamic theory is _____. a. observable behaviors b. inner drives, motives, and unconscious needs c. an individual's ideas and beliefs d. self-awareness and willingness to change ANSWER: b 15. Psychodynamic theory originated with _____. a. Piaget b. Freud c. Watson d. Erikson ANSWER: b 16. _____ emphasizes unconscious drives and early experiences with respect to development, whereas _____ emphasizes learning by association, reinforcement, or observation with respect to development. a. Psychodynamic theory; behaviorism b. Psychodynamic theory; cognitive theory c. Behaviorism; psychodynamic theory d. Cognitive theory; psychodynamic theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 17. _____ emphasizes unconscious drives and early experiences with respect to development, whereas _____ emphasizes learning by understanding how a person thinks. a. Psychodynamic theory; behaviorism b. Psychodynamic theory; cognitive theory c. Behaviorism; psychodynamic theory d. Cognitive theory; psychodynamic theory ANSWER: b 18. Which is the correct order of the stages of Freud's psychosexual theory, beginning with infancy and ending with adolescence? a. oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency b. anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital d. latency, phallic, oral, anal, genital ANSWER: c 19. Each stage of Freud's psychosexual theory of development is characterized by a conflict associated with different parts of the body. According to Freud, how people experience and resolve each conflict influences personality _____. a. throughout life, because early years provide the foundation of adult behavior b. throughout life, only if some of the conflicts are successfully resolved c. only in childhood, with new conflicts emerging later that shape adult identity d. at a particular stage of development, also called a sensitive period ANSWER: a 20. According to Freud's psychosexual theory, the _____ stage centers around breastfeeding and weaning. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital ANSWER: a 21. Freud argued that the goal of a healthy life is to _____. a. connect spiritually with another person b. follow moral codes set by society c. avoid conflict and promote social harmony d. love and to work ANSWER: d 22. Although many of the theorists who follow Freud's psychodynamic theory have modified and expanded his Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ideas, they agree on the importance of _____. a. early childhood experiences and psychosexual conflicts b. psychosexual conflicts and the unconscious mind c. early childhood experiences and the unconscious mind d. psychosexual conflicts and stages of psychosexual development ANSWER: c 23. Unlike Freud, Erikson _____. a. only described development in childhood b. believed that adult problems reflect childhood conflicts c. emphasized family and culture in his stages d. leaned toward the behaviorist perspective ANSWER: c 24. Which theorist was the first to identify unique stages of development from birth through death? a. Freud b. Piaget c. Skinner d. Erikson ANSWER: d 25. Within Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, each of the developmental stages is characterized by a particular challenge, or a _____. a. conflict negotiation b. developmental conflict c. developmental crisis d. resolution ANSWER: c 26. Which of Erikson's stages was regarded as particularly crucial for later development? a. integrity versus despair b. intimacy versus isolation c. trust versus mistrust d. identity versus role confusion ANSWER: c 27. Behaviorists believe that psychologists should focus on _____. a. observable behaviors b. inner drives and motives c. a person's ideas and beliefs d. a person's sexual conflict Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 28. Behaviorism is also known as a(n) _____ theory. a. conditioning b. learning c. modeling d. operant ANSWER: b 29. The process by which a response becomes linked to a particular stimulus is called "_____." a. psychoanalysis b. cognition c. observational learning d. conditioning ANSWER: d 30. Pavlov's experiments with dogs that salivated when they heard a specific noise without the presence of food provide an example of _____. a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. reinforcement ANSWER: a 31. When a person or animal learns to associate a neutral stimulus with a meaningful stimulus, gradually responding to the neutral stimulus in the same way as to the meaningful one, they are exhibiting _____. a. classical conditioning b. observational learning c. operant conditioning d. modeling ANSWER: a 32. A balloon popped and made Mathias cry. It happened again when they were at a friend's party. Now when Mathias sees a balloon, they start to cry. According to the behaviorist perspective, Mathias cries in response to the balloon because of _____. a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. modeling ANSWER: c 33. The type of conditioning that Skinner identified is referred to as "_____ conditioning."

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. classical b. observational c. operant d. cognitive ANSWER: c 34. Operant conditioning is also referred to as "_____ conditioning." a. classical b. instrumental c. observational d. reinforcement ANSWER: b 35. Sofia, age 15, dislikes school. Their parents were recently informed that Sofia has missed 12 days of school this quarter and has left school early on at least four occasions. Sofia's father has decided to drop Sofia off every morning and pick them up every afternoon to make sure they are attending school. Sofia is now attending school, but they have gotten into serious trouble on multiple occasions, leading to a school suspension. Since Sofia dislikes school and prefers to skip rather than attend, the school suspension represents a _____. a. reinforcement b. punishment c. conditioner d. norm ANSWER: a 36. Mr. Marin praises their hourly employees for their good work. They hope that this encouragement and praise help the employees to continue to work hard. In this example, the reinforcement is _____. a. the boss's praise b. worker productivity c. the boss d. an hourly wage ANSWER: a 37. Any consequence that follows a behavior and makes a person likely to repeat that behavior is called a(n) "_____." a. punishment b. condition c. reinforcement d. observation ANSWER: c 38. Theorists who promote classical conditioning believe that learned behavior is the result of _____, whereas theorists who promote operant conditioning believe that learned behavior is the result of _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. the association between one stimulus and another; past reinforcement b. past reinforcement; the association between one stimulus and another c. observing another person's actions; past reinforcement d. the association between one stimulus and another; observing another person's actions ANSWER: a 39. Social learning theory indicates that learning occurs from _____. a. the association between one stimulus and another b. past reinforcement c. observing and imitating others d. responding to a particular stimulus ANSWER: c 40. A person observes the actions of others and then copies them. This is an example of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. social learning. d. cognition.

ANSWER: c 41. What is another term for observational learning? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. social learning d. cognition ANSWER: c 42. Marcianus watches their friend kick a soccer ball into the goal. Later that day, Marcianus finds a soccer ball and proceeds to kick it into the goal. Marcianus most likely engaged in the same behavior as their friend due to _____. a. classical conditioning b. social learning c. operant conditioning d. reinforcement ANSWER: b 43. What is another term for classical conditioning? a. operant conditioning b. respondent conditioning c. instrumental conditioning d. social learning Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 44. Which of these is NOT associated with increasing the likelihood of social learning taking place? a. The observer is uncertain or inexperienced. b. The model is admirable. c. The model is similar to the observer. d. The observation is followed by a reinforcer.

ANSWER: d 45. The foundation of cognitive theory is _____. a. observable behaviors b. inner drives and motives c. a person's thoughts and expectations d. cultural influence ANSWER: c 46. _____ was a cognitive theorist. a. Freud b. Watson c. Piaget d. Vygotsky ANSWER: c 47. With regard to cognitive development, Piaget argued that _____ is more revealing than _____. a. what children know; how they think b. how children think; what they know c. the cultural context; what children know d. what children know; their cultural context ANSWER: b 48. Which of these outlines the order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, and sensorimotor b. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, and concrete operational c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, and concrete operational ANSWER: c 49. According to Piaget, intellectual advancement occurs because of cognitive _____. a. learning b. resolution c. equilibrium Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. modeling ANSWER: c 50. A state of mental balance in which people are not confused because they can use their existing thought processes to understand current experiences and ideas is called "_____." a. social learning b. conflict resolution c. cognitive equilibrium d. information processing ANSWER: c 51. Jalal has never seen a pear before today. As their parent hands it to them, they say that it is a fruit. Jalal knows that apples and bananas are fruits and that they like eating them, so they have a reference for this new experience. Jalal is experiencing _____. a. social learning b. operant conditioning c. guided participation d. cognitive equilibrium ANSWER: d 52. According to Piaget, when new experiences are reinterpreted to fit into old ideas, it is called "_____." a. learning b. assimilation c. equilibrium d. accommodation ANSWER: b 53. Liraz has a small dog at home, so they know about dogs. They are walking down the street and see an animal walking toward them. The animal is very large; has four legs, fur, and a tail; and is barking. Liraz knows that these are characteristics of a dog, given their knowledge of dogs. They quickly conclude that this animal is a dog. This example illustrates Piaget's concept of "_____." a. operations b. assimilation c. equilibrium d. accommodation ANSWER: b 54. According to Piaget, when old ideas are restructured to include new experiences, it is called "_____." a. learning b. assimilation c. equilibrium d. accommodation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 55. Carina has a dog at home, so they know about dogs. They are walking down the street and see an animal walking toward them. The animal has four legs, fur, and a tail. Carina knows that these are characteristics of dogs. But the animal coming toward them is meowing instead of barking. Carina's mother tells them that the animal is a cat. Now when Carina sees an animal with four legs, a tail, and fur, they will conclude it is a dog if it barks and a cat if it meows, illustrating Piaget's concept of "_____." a. operations b. assimilation c. equilibrium d. accommodation ANSWER: d 56. With respect to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the more difficult cognitive adaptation is _____. a. assimilation b. accommodation c. sensorimotor behavior d. equilibrium ANSWER: b 57. _____ is a perspective that compares a human's thinking processes, by analogy, to a computer's analysis of data. a. Social learning theory b. Information-processing theory c. Behaviorism d. Psychodynamic theory ANSWER: b 58. Within the information-processing perspective, which is the correct sequential order for producing cognition? a. The brain produces an output; input is picked up by the five senses; the brain reacts, connects, and stores memories. b. The brain reacts, connects, and stores memories; input is picked up by the five senses; the brain produces an output. c. Input is picked up by the five senses; the brain produces an output; the brain reacts, connects, and stores memories. d. Input is picked up by the five senses; the brain reacts, connects, and stores memories; the brain produces an output.

ANSWER: d 59. Antonia has always had a difficult time remembering things. They visited a psychologist and underwent tests that concluded that the way they sense input and then store the information is interfering with their ability to recall the information. This explanation for Antonia's memory difficulties is consistent with _____ theory.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. psychodynamic b. evolutionary c. social learning d. information-processing ANSWER: d 60. In the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, many scientists believed that bumps on the head reflected intelligence and character, a theory known as _____. a. neurology b. phrenology c. anthropology d. ethology ANSWER: b 61. The _____ measures electrical activity in the cortex. a. EEG b. ERP c. MRI d. fMRI ANSWER: a 62. Dr. Augusta is a neurologist who evaluates individuals who have experienced brain injuries or have suspected brain damage. Dr. Augusta often has their patients undergo testing that allows measurement of myelin, neurons, and fluid in the brain. Dr. Augusta utilizes which brain imaging technique with their patients? a. PET b. DTI c. EEG d. MRI ANSWER: d 63. Which of these neuroimaging techniques is almost impossible to use with children? a. fMRI b. EEG c. PET d. fNIRS ANSWER: c 64. Baby Elijah is participating in a study in which scientists are examining areas of the brain that are activated when they are exposed to music, speech, and random noise. This test, called _____, requires the individual to be fitted with a special cap connected to electrodes. a. fNIRS b. DTI Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. fMRI d. PET ANSWER: a 65. _____ is a test that is used by clinicians who want to individualize treatment and monitor progress. a. PET b. DTI c. fNIRS d. ERP ANSWER: b 66. Neuroscientists have discovered that the _____ thins with maturation and that the thinning suggests more advanced thinking in that area. a. hippocampus b. cortex c. amygdala d. brain stem ANSWER: b 67. When humans understand the circumstances of each other's lives, that might lead to more caring behavior because according to _____, thoughts guide actions. a. cognitive theory b. psychodynamic theory c. evolutionary theory d. behaviorism ANSWER: a 68. According to Piaget, social perspective thinking should be evident in: a. sensorimotor children. b. concrete operational children. c. formal operational children. d. preoperational children.

ANSWER: b 69. Which of these is the term for the branch of developmental science that is devoted to the study of aging? a. gerontology b. plasticity c. phrenology d. social learning ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 70. _____ has evolved to enable humans to adjust to their environment. a. Plasticity b. Theory of mind c. Eugenics d. Accommodation ANSWER: a 71. _____ theory is a newer theory in psychology that benefits from anthropology. a. Psychodynamic b. Information-processing c. Evolutionary d. Sociocultural ANSWER: d 72. The idea that human development results from the dynamic interaction between developing persons and their surrounding society is the central thesis of _____ theory. a. information-processing b. sociocultural c. evolutionary d. cognitive ANSWER: b 73. Which cognitive theorist emphasized the cultural context? a. Piaget b. Vygotsky c. Maslow d. Erikson ANSWER: b 74. Vygotsky used the term _____ to describe how cognition is stimulated and developed in people by more skilled members of society. a. zone of proximal development b. guided participation c. apprenticeship in thinking d. selective adaptation ANSWER: c 75. Vygotsky used the term _____ to describe the method used by parents, teachers, and entire societies to teach novices the skills and habits expected within their culture. a. zone of proximal development b. guided participation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. apprenticeship in thinking d. selective adaptation ANSWER: b 76. Alcide is helping their parent make a cake. Their parent helps them pick out the right ingredients, measure them, and mix them together. According to Vygotsky, Alcide is engaging in _____. a. social learning b. guided participation c. operant conditioning d. selective adaptation ANSWER: b 77. According to Vygotsky, the skills, knowledge, and concepts that the learner is close to acquiring but cannot yet master without help is referred to as "_____." a. the zone of proximal development b. guided participation c. operant conditioning d. selective adaptation ANSWER: a 78. According to Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development, a mentor must avoid two opposite dangers: _____. a. fear and anger b. boredom and failure c. shame and doubt d. competition and punishment ANSWER: b 79. According to the sociocultural theory, the environment is _____. a. active b. passive c. unidirectional d. outdated ANSWER: a 80. Approaches to toilet training have changed over time. At one point, it was suggested to parents to postpone toilet training until the child was at least a year old to avoid serious personality problems later on. This view is most consistent with _____. a. psychodynamic theory b. cognitive theory c. behaviorism d. information-processing theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 81. Approaches to toilet training have changed over time. At one point, it was suggested that parents toilet-train whenever they wished, using reinforcement as part of the training. This view is most consistent with _____. a. psychodynamic theory b. cognitive theory c. behaviorism d. information-processing theory ANSWER: c 82. Different theories and diverse parental practices are associated with toilet training. According to the text, which is the BEST method for toilet training? a. It is best to start to toilet-train children before they turn 1 year old. b. Using reinforcements for toilet training works for all children. c. Children should decide when they want to be toilet-trained. d. There is no single best strategy for toilet training all children.

ANSWER: d 83. In order to understand the emotions, impulses, and habits of humans over the life span, it is important to understand how those same emotions, impulses, and habits developed within Homo sapiens over the past 200,000 years. This concept is consistent with _____ theory. a. psychodynamic b. sociocultural c. information-processing d. evolutionary ANSWER: d 84. Which of these questions would be addressed by an evolutionary theorist? a. At what age do adolescents initiate sexual activity? b. How does social media affect self-esteem in young people? c. Why do pregnant women have morning sickness? d. What risk factors are associated with the development of Alzheimer's disease in late adulthood?

ANSWER: c 85. According to evolutionary theory, people are afraid of snakes because: a. of daily life-threatening experiences. b. of unconscious memories of childhood experiences with snakes. c. they have learned by watching others react with fear to snakes. d. a fear of snakes helped our ancient ancestors survive.

ANSWER: d 86. According to evolutionary theory, every species has two long-standing, biologically based drives: _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. survival and reproduction b. aggression and sex c. hunger satiation and shelter d. fear and aggression ANSWER: a 87. Which developmental theory focuses on social control, expressed through people, language, and customs? a. sociocultural theory b. evolutionary theory c. behaviorism d. cognitive theory ANSWER: a 88. The process by which living organisms adjust to the environment is referred to as which of these? a. reinforcement b. conditioning c. selective adaptation d. cognitive equilibrium ANSWER: c 89. _____ is when genes for traits that aid survival and reproduction are selected over time to allow the species to thrive. a. Reinforcement b. Conditioning c. Selective adaptation d. Cognitive equilibrium ANSWER: c 90. Tawny is helpful and cooperative and takes care of their family and friends. Oliver is selfish and arrogant and puts their needs before those of their family and friends. Whose traits are likely to be selected for future generations in order to meet the evolutionary goals of humans? a. Tawny's b. Oliver's c. Both Tawny's and Oliver's d. Neither Tawny's nor Oliver's ANSWER: a 91. For centuries, men have needed women to be sexually faithful to ensure that the children were also their offspring. Which theory is MOST consistent with this explanation for faithfulness among romantic partners? a. eclectic theory b. evolutionary theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. behaviorism d. sociocultural theory ANSWER: b 92. Alycia believes that breast-feeding their infant is crucial for developing a close bond with the baby and facilitating favorable development. Alycia's belief is consistent with the _____ perspective. a. psychodynamic b. cognitive c. sociocultural d. universal ANSWER: a 93. Beatrice believes that it is their choice whether or not to breastfeed their infant. Beatrice has decided that breast-feeding will be too difficult once they return to work full-time, so they plan to use formula instead.

Beatrice's beliefs are consistent with the _____ perspective. a. psychodynamic b. cognitive c. sociocultural d. universal ANSWER: b 94. _____ theories have made us aware of the impact of early-childhood experiences, remembered or not, on development. a. Psychodynamic b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural d. Eclectic ANSWER: a 95. _____ has/have shown the effect that immediate response, associations, and examples have on learning, moment by moment and over time. a. Psychodynamic theories b. Cognitive theories c. Sociocultural theories d. Behaviorism ANSWER: d 96. _____ theories have brought an understanding of intellectual processes and how our thoughts and beliefs affect every aspect of our development. a. Psychodynamic b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. Eclectic ANSWER: b 97. _____ theories have reminded us that development is embedded in a rich and multifaceted cultural context that is evident in every social interaction. a. Psychodynamic b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural d. Evolutionary ANSWER: c 98. Critics of sociocultural theory argue that it is _____. a. too subjective b. too mechanistic c. neglectful of individual choices d. culturally biased ANSWER: c 99. Critics of behaviorism argue that the theory _____. a. is too subjective b. is too mechanistic c. neglects individuals d. undervalues emotions ANSWER: b 100. The approach taken by most developmentalists, in which they apply aspects of each of the various theories of development rather than adhering exclusively to one theory, is referred to as the _____ perspective. a. eclectic b. multidisciplinary c. self-selected d. multicontextual ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay 1. Explain how cells, proteins, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules, chromosomes, and genes are related to each other.

ANSWER: All living things are composed of cells. The work of cells is done by proteins. Each cell manufactures certain proteins according to the instructions stored by molecules of DNA at the heart of each cell. These coding DNA molecules are on a chromosome. The instructions in the chromosomes are organized into genes. Genes direct the formation of specific proteins.

Explains how five components are related

Good (5 pts.)

Explains how all five components are related

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains how three or Explains how two or four components are fewer components are related related

2. Define genotype and phenotype, explain the impact of both on an individual's traits, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: Genotype refers to the collection of genes a person carries in their DNA. For example, a person may carry a gene for red hair without having red hair. Phenotype is a person's actual appearance and behavior. In addition to the genes a person inherits, epigenetic factors and the interaction among genes determine the actual traits that are expressed in each person. For example, a person may carry a gene for depression that only gets expressed if that person experiences a harsh childhood environment.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines genotype and Defines genotype and Defines either Does not define either phenotype phenotype genotype or phenotype term or confuses the terms Explains the impact Explains the impact of Explains the impact of Does not explain the of both both terms either term impact of either term or confuses the terms Gives an example for Gives an example for Gives an example for Does not give an each term both terms either term example for either term or gives incorrect examples

3. Explain the role of the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

ANSWER: A person's biological sex is determined by the 23rd pair of chromosomes. If the set contains two X chromosomes, then the fetus is considered female. If it contains an X and a Y, then the fetus is considered male. The mother's egg cell is always an X. Therefore, the father's sperm determines the sex of the fetus, since the sperm can carry either an X or a Y chromosome.

Good (5 pts.)

Explains how the sex Gives the answer is determined listed above

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives the answer States that a father's listed above using just sperm determines the X and Y instead of sex without offering mentioning further explanation chromosomes Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay

4. Define autosomes, and differentiate the terms homozygous and heterozygous.

ANSWER: In 22 of the 23 pairs of chromosomes, both members of the pair are closely matched. Some of the specific genes have alternate alleles, but each chromosome finds its comparable chromosome, making it a pair. Those 44 chromosomes are called autosomes, which means that they are independent of the sex chromosomes. Each autosome, from number 1 to number 22, contains hundreds of genes in the same positions and sequence. If the code of a gene from one parent is exactly like the code on the same gene from the other parent, the gene pair is homozygous.

However, the match is not always letter-perfect, because the mother might have a different allele of a particular gene than the father has. If a gene's code differs from that of its counterpart, the two genes still pair up, but the zygote is heterozygous.

Defines autosomes

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Provides a definition Provides a partial of autosomes definition of autosomes

Differentiates the Explains the terms "homozygous" difference between and "heterozygous" homozygous and heterozygous

Is vague about the distinction between homozygous and heterozygous

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provides an incorrect definition of autosomes or does not define the term Does not describe the difference between homozygous and heterozygous

5. List three unanticipated consequences of China's one-child policy. In which year did China rescind this policy?

ANSWER: The unanticipated consequences of China's one-child policy include the following: (1) since 1980, an estimated 9 million abortions of female fetuses; (2) adoption of thousands of newborn Chinese girls by Western families; and (3) by 2010, far more unmarried young men than women. In 2013, China rescinded the one-child policy.

Lists three unanticipated consequences of China's one-child policy Provides the year when China rescinded the onechild policy

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists three Lists two unintended Does not list any unanticipated consequences unanticipated consequences of consequences China's one-child policy Identifies the year in Identifies a year that is Identifies a year that is which China rescinded close to the actual date considerably different the one-child policy than the actual date

6. Briefly describe differentiation and when it begins. Give at least two examples of cell differentiation.

ANSWER: Monozygotic twins result when one ovum is fertilized by one sperm, and the zygote splits into two separate zygotes. This results in two identical zygotes that are eventually born as identical twins.

Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins result when two ova are fertilized by two separate sperm at roughly the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay same time.

Describes differentiation

Tells when it begins

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines differentiation Defines differentiation Does not define and gives at least two and gives one example differentiation or does examples not give at least one example Knows that it begins Knows that it occurs Does not state when it around the eight-cell during the zygote stage occurs or gives the stage of a zygote wrong stage

7. One set of twins is identical or monozygotic twins. Another set of twins is fraternal or dizygotic twins.

Describe the difference between these types of twins and explain how each is conceived.

ANSWER: Monozygotic twins result when one ovum is fertilized by one sperm, and the zygote splits into two separate zygotes. This results in two identical zygotes that are eventually born as identical twins.

Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins result when two ova are fertilized by two separate sperm at roughly the same time.

Describes the difference

Explains how each type is conceived

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

States that Uses the terms Does not describe the monozygotic twins are "identical" and difference or confuses identical and that "fraternal" instead of the two twin types dizygotic are fraternal the scientific terms Explains the Explains the Does not explain the conception process for conception process for conception process for both twin types either twin type either twin type

8. Explain how color blindness is inherited and why it is much more common in one sex than the other.

ANSWER: Color blindness is an X-linked recessive gene. This means that, for males, it is always passed on from a mother on the X chromosome. Since boys have one X and one Y chromosome, they inherit one recessive gene on the X chromosome and have no dominant chromosome to overpower it on the Y chromosome. This makes them much more apt to be color-blind. Girls have two X chromosomes.

This means that they will usually have a dominant gene on the other X chromosome. Thus, they may carry the trait but will not experience it themselves.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains color Explains how color Explains that color Cannot explain sexblindness inheritance blindness is carried on blindness comes from linked color blindness the X chromosome, a parent without inheritance making males identifying the mother vulnerable or without identifying which gender is vulnerable Describes why males Describes why males Describes why males Does not describe why are more apt to be are apt to have it by are apt to have it males are apt to have color-blind discussing without discussing this trait or that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay chromosomes and why females are how females carry the carriers gene

females are carriers

9. Explain how nature and nurture can interact to result in alcoholism.

ANSWER: Nature and nurture can both contribute to a person developing alcoholism. In some individuals, genes (nature) can create the addictive desire to drink to excess. In addition, each human body metabolizes alcohol differently. Inherited personality traits may make alcoholism more likely, too.

The environment and social factors (nurture) are important because some environments (such as growing up with an alcoholic parent or being friends with an alcoholic) encourage a person's alcohol use.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains how nature Explains how both Explains how either and nurture can result nature and nurture can nature or nurture can in alcoholism contribute to contribute to alcoholism alcoholism

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain how either nature or nurture contributes to alcoholism or confuses the terms

10. Explain why genetic variations are particularly apparent in African Americans in the United States.

ANSWER: Genetic variations are apparent in every family, particularly among African Americans in the United States. Historically, the continent of Africa was—genetically—the most diverse. Added to that, current North Americans who identify as Black are not only the product of African diversity but also carry genes from many parts of Europe and from many tribes of indigenous Americans.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains why genetic Explains why genetic Partially explains why Does not explain why variations exist variations exist among genetic variations genetic variations among African African Americans in exist among African exist among African Americans in the the United States Americans in the Americans in the United States United States United States 11. What makes Down syndrome a chromosomal condition? There are eight characteristics that are often associated with Down syndrome. List four of these characteristics.

ANSWER: Down syndrome occurs when a person has three copies of chromosome 21. Some 300 distinct characteristics can result from that third chromosome 21. No individual with Down syndrome is identical to another, but the syndrome usually produces (1) a thick tongue, (2) a round face, (3) slanted eyes, (4) distinctive hands, (5) distinctive feet, and (6) distinctive fingerprints. Many people with Down syndrome also have (7) heart abnormalities and are (8) slower to develop intellectually, especially in language.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Identifies how Down Explains that it is Is vague about how syndrome is a caused by three copies Down syndrome Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain how Down syndrome Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay chromosomal condition

of chromosome 21

Lists four characteristics associated with Down syndrome

Lists four characteristics from the list above

occurs or fails to mention the chromosome number Lists three characteristics from the list above

occurs

Lists two or fewer characteristics from the list above

12. Identify three recessive conditions that are X-linked. Which condition results in cognitive deficits?

ANSWER: Three recessive conditions that are X-linked are (1) hemophilia, (2) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and (3) fragile X syndrome. The cognitive deficits caused by fragile X syndrome are the most common form of inherited intellectual disability.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies three Identifies three Identifies two of three Does not identify any recessive conditions recessive conditions recessive conditions recessive conditions that are X-linked that are X-linked that are X-linked that are X-linked Identifies fragile X Identifies fragile X Identifies fragile X Does not identify syndrome as the most syndrome as the most syndrome but does not fragile X syndrome as common form of common form of explain that the the most common inherited intellectual inherited intellectual cognitive deficits are form of inherited disability disability the most common intellectual disability form of intellectual disability 13. A couple has been married for two years and is talking about starting a family. Both partners have some health conditions in their extended family, including autism and dementia for one partner and Huntington's disease and schizophrenia for the other partner. The couple wants to determine their risk of passing on one or more of these disorders to their children if they decide to conceive. What type of professional would help answer their questions? Explain what they can expect to learn, noting the two ethical rules that these professionals must follow.

ANSWER: The couple would likely visit a genetic counselor. Genetic counseling involves consultation and testing by trained experts that enables individuals to learn about their genetic heritage, including harmful conditions that they could pass along to any children they might conceive. Genetic counselors follow two ethical rules: (1) Tests are confidential, beyond the reach of insurance companies and public records; and (2) decisions are made by the clients, not by the counselors.

Identifies and explains genetic counseling Lists two ethical rules that genetic counselors follow

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies and explains Identifies genetic Does not identify or genetic counseling counseling and explain genetic provides a partial counseling explanation Lists two ethical rules Lists one ethnical rule Does not list either that genetic counselors that genetic counselors ethnical rule that follow follow genetic counselors

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Essay follow

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 1. Each human body cell contains _____ chromosomes. a. 46 pairs of b. 46 c. 23 d. 20 pairs of ANSWER: b 2. A small section of a chromosome that is the basic unit for the transmission of heredity is a _____. a. chromosome b. gene c. genotype d. zygote ANSWER: b 3. The name of the full set of genes that provides the instructions for making living organisms is the _____. a. phenotype b. chromosome c. genome d. allele ANSWER: c 4. How many genes do humans have? a. 15,000 b. 21,000 c. 32,000 d. 45,000 ANSWER: b 5. What affects the likelihood of many inherited diseases, such as cancers and schizophrenia? a. gametes b. copy number variations c. the microbiome d. autosomes ANSWER: b 6. All living things are composed of cells. The work of cells is done by _____. a. proteins b. zygotes c. genotypes d. phenotypes ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 7. Each molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is stored on a(n) _____. a. chromosome b. RNA c. gene d. zygote ANSWER: a 8. One aspect of both nature and nurture that profoundly affects each person is the _____, which refers to all microbes that live within every part of the body. a. genome b. allele c. microbiome d. zygote ANSWER: c 9. A variation that makes a gene different in some way from other genes for the same characteristics is a(n) _____. a. chromosome b. zygote c. genotype d. allele ANSWER: d 10. What literally means "same-zygote"? a. heterozygous b. monozygotic c. dizygotic d. homozygous ANSWER: d 11. Some genes are _____, which means "many forms." a. polymorphic b. multimorphic c. allelemorphic d. transmorphic ANSWER: a 12. Dr. Otto studies how environmental factors affect gene expression. Dr. Otto's research focuses on: a. atypical longevity. b. sociobiology.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. human pathogenesis. d. epigenetics.

ANSWER: d 13. The single cell formed from the union of two gametes, a sperm and an ovum, is called a "_____." a. chromosome b. phenotype c. genotype d. zygote ANSWER: d 14. Every human begins life as a single cell, which is called a _____. a. chromosome b. zygote c. genotype d. genome ANSWER: b 15. Humans have 23 pairs of _____, which contain the instructions to make the proteins needed for life and growth. a. chromosomes b. alleles c. genotypes d. zygotes ANSWER: a 16. The instructions for making amino acids are on about 3 billion pairs of chemicals called "_____ pairs." a. couple b. foundation c. base d. copy ANSWER: c 17. Human language may have originated in our _____ ancestors. a. Neanderthal b. Homo sapien c. Homo erectus d. Homo habilis ANSWER: a 18. Which of these is NOT a clear application of uncovering the functions of noncoding genetic material?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. treating diseases b. genetically modified crops c. vaccine development d. IVF ANSWER: d 19. When can epigenetic interactions impact development? a. only during prenatal development b. primarily during infancy c. during pubertal development d. during the entire lifespan ANSWER: d 20. If a harmful allele on chromosome 15 came from the father, the child will develop: a. Prader-Willi syndrome. b. Angelman syndrome. c. Down syndrome. d. Huntington's disease.

ANSWER: a 21. If a harmful allele on chromosome 15 came from the mother, the child will develop: a. Prader-Willi syndrome. b. Angelman syndrome. c. Down syndrome. d. Huntington's disease.

ANSWER: b 22. The fact that Laila is an engineering major and that their brain reflects their chosen major demonstrates _____. a. epigenetics b. hatching c. the impact of nature on brain development d. autosomal development ANSWER: a 23. Biological material that provides energy for the cell is called "_____." a. hatching b. autosomes c. genomes d. mitochondria ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 24. Problems with the heart can be predisposed from maternal _____. a. hatching b. autosomes c. genomes d. mitochondria ANSWER: d 25. A study of more than 2 million ninth-grade students in Sweden found that _____ academic achievement. a. children conceived naturally had higher b. children conceived via IVF had higher c. how a child was conceived did not impact d. how a child was conceived was strongly associated with ANSWER: c 26. An individual's genetic inheritance is called a(n) "_____." a. phenotype b. allele c. genotype d. gamete ANSWER: c 27. In 22 of the 23 pairs of chromosomes, both members of the pair are closely matched. Each of these 44 chromosomes is called a(n) "_____." a. allele b. gamete c. autosome d. blastocyst ANSWER: c 28. People who identify as _____ may have had varying hormonal influences on their development before they were born. a. male b. female c. transgender or intersex d. heterozygous ANSWER: c 29. The first 22 chromosomes contain hundreds of genes in the same positions and sequence. If the code of the gene from one parent is exactly like the code on the same gene from the other parent, the gene pair is _____. a. homozygous b. heterozygous Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. monozygotic d. dizygotic ANSWER: a 30. The first 22 chromosomes contain hundreds of genes in the same positions and sequence. If the code of the gene from one parent differs from the code on the same gene from the other parent, the gene pair is _____. a. homozygous b. heterozygous c. monozygotic d. dizygotic ANSWER: b 31. Which of these is TRUE regarding neural tube abnormalities? a. They are more common in female fetuses. b. They are more common in male fetuses. c. They are less common in female fetuses. d. They are equally common in male and female fetuses.

ANSWER: a 32. In China, deaths resulting from COVID-19 were _____ percent higher for males than for females. a. 20 b. 32 c. 65 d. 80 ANSWER: c 33. Individual A's 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX. Individual A is born _____. a. male b. female c. neither male nor female d. both male and female ANSWER: b 34. Individual A's 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY. Individual A is born _____. a. male b. female c. neither male nor female d. both male and female ANSWER: a 35. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, males have _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. two X chromosomes b. two Y chromosomes c. an X chromosome and a Y chromosome d. just a Y chromosome ANSWER: c 36. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, females have _____. a. two X chromosomes b. two Y chromosomes c. an X chromosome and a Y chromosome d. just a Y chromosome ANSWER: a 37. Males have one X and one Y that make up _____. a. each sperm b. on the 43rd chromosome c. the 23rd pair of chromosomes d. each stem cell ANSWER: c 38. A mother and a father are having a baby and are hoping for a boy. Who is responsible for determining the sex of the baby? a. the mother b. the father c. both parents d. neither parent ANSWER: b 39. Yusuf learned in a college level biology class that, with respect to the sex chromosomes, the _____. a. Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome and has more genes b. X chromosome is larger than the Y chromosome and has more genes c. X and Y chromosomes are the same size, but the X chromosome has more genes d. X and Y chromosomes are the same size and have the same number of genes ANSWER: b 40. Couples can select the sex of an embryo by all these methods EXCEPT _____. a. inactivating X or Y sperm before conception b. selecting only X eggs for fertilization c. aborting XX or XY fetuses d. undergoing in vitro fertilization and then inserting only male or female embryos ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 41. In China, a "one-child" policy implemented around 1979 cut the birth rate in half. Although the intended goal of reducing poverty was achieved, several unintended consequences were identified. All these were unintended consequences EXCEPT for _____. a. far more unmarried men in China than women b. thousands of newborn girls being placed up for adoption c. males living longer than females d. increased abortions of female fetuses ANSWER: c 42. Within hours after conception, the first 23 pairs of chromosomes within the zygote _____, forming two complete sets of the genome. a. atrophy b. duplicate c. differentiate d. detach ANSWER: b 43. Nine months after conception, a newborn has about _____ billion cells. a. 5 b. 26 c. 55 d. 80 ANSWER: b 44. _____ cells are able to produce any other cells. a. Polymorphic b. Foundation c. Stem d. Allele ANSWER: c 45. Mr. Belvins is a high school biology teacher. They ask their students which cells could be used to produce any other cell in the body. If the students answer correctly, their answer will be _____ cells. a. polymorphic b. foundation c. stem d. allele ANSWER: c 46. After about the eight-cell stage within the zygote, cells start to _____, meaning that they take different forms and reproduce at various rates, depending on where they are located.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. divide b. duplicate c. differentiate d. detach ANSWER: c 47. Rogelio loves to share information that they have learned from school with their parents. They come home one day and, at dinner, tell their family they have learned about cell differentiation in science class. The information Rogelio tells them is correct, so over dinner, they tell them that once cells differentiate, _____ cells. a. they can still transform into different b. only cells in the brain can still transform into different c. they can transform into stem d. they are specialized and are no longer stem ANSWER: d 48. Identical twins are also called _____ twins. a. monozygotic b. dizygotic c. zygotic d. gamete ANSWER: a 49. Colt and Kenderick are identical twins, which is the result of: a. one ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes. b. two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperm. c. one ovum that was fertilized by two sperm. d. two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.

ANSWER: a 50. If an individual needed an organ donation, which organ donor would be the BEST match for this individual? a. a grandparent b. a younger sibling c. a dizygotic twin d. a monozygotic twin ANSWER: d 51. When an ovum is surgically removed from an ovary, inseminated in a glass lab dish, and then inserted into the uterus, this process is referred to as "_____." a. in vitro fertilization (IVF) b. unassisted reproductive technology (URT) c. intra-cytoplasmic injection (ICSI) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. multifactorial conception (MC) ANSWER: a 52. In _____, the first IVF baby was born. a. 1964 b. 1978 c. 1986 d. 2001 ANSWER: b 53. Preterm births and congenital malformation _____ with in vitro fertilization (IVF). a. increase slightly b. increase greatly c. decrease slightly d. decrease greatly ANSWER: a 54. Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins. a. monozygotic b. dizygotic c. zygotic d. gamete ANSWER: b 55. A set of twins are dizygotic twins, which are the result of _____. a. one ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes b. two separate ova that were fertilized by two separate sperm c. one ovum that was fertilized by two sperm d. two ova that were fertilized by one sperm ANSWER: b 56. Which of these women is MOST likely to have dizygotic twins? a. Pallavi, who is Korean b. Oluchi, who is Nigerian c. Wei, who is Chinese d. Ember, who is American ANSWER: b 57. Which of these women is MOST likely to conceive dizygotic twins? a. Ashleigh, who is 20 b. Brenda, who is 27 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. Paige, who is 30 d. Nora, who is 35 ANSWER: d 58. Dizygotic twins have _____ percent of their genes in common. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 ANSWER: b 59. The _____ is the person's appearance, behavior, and brain and body functions. a. phenotype b. allele c. genotype d. gamete ANSWER: a 60. Timur and Juan are playing basketball. Timur shoots the ball, and Juan blocks the shot. Timur says, "Wow, I didn't realize how tall you were until you did that!" Timur's comment refers to Juan's "_____." a. phenotype b. allele c. genotype d. gamete ANSWER: a 61. An individual's phenotype describes all these EXCEPT an individual's _____. a. genetic inheritance b. appearance c. personality d. intelligence ANSWER: a 62. Almost every trait is _____, which means it is affected by many genes. a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. X-linked d. monozygotic ANSWER: a 63. Zara rushed into the house after school and yelled to their parents, "My personality is _____! So many genes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice make me who I am!" a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. dizygotic d. monozygotic ANSWER: a 64. _____ refers to a trait that is affected by many factors, both genetic and environmental, that enhance, halt, shape, or alter the expression of genes. a. Polygenic b. Nonadditive c. Multifactorial d. Monozygotic ANSWER: c 65. Makai was born with genes to be a professional athlete, but the environmental experiences they had never supported the development of their potential athletic ability, so they never became a professional athlete. This example illustrates the concept of a trait being _____. a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. multifactorial d. monozygotic ANSWER: c 66. Epigenetics is the study of how traits are determined by _____. a. genes alone b. the environment alone c. genes and the environment d. genes more than the environment ANSWER: c 67. Brylee has inherited genes that put them at risk for developing alcoholism in adulthood. However, they never develop alcoholism due to high self-control and only drinking in moderation. This example demonstrates that human characteristics, including alcoholism, are influenced by the environment, known as_____. a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. multifactorial d. epigenesis ANSWER: d 68. The _____ was a worldwide effort to map the complete human genetic code. a. HapMap Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. Apgar scale c. Human Genome Project d. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale ANSWER: c 69. Upon the completion of the Human Genome Project, several surprise findings were made, including all these EXCEPT that _____. a. humans have far fewer genes than had previously been thought b. humans are extremely genetically different from each other c. humans share 98 percent of their genes with other animals d. it is not always easy to predict exactly how genes from one parent will interact with the genes from the other ANSWER: b 70. When the effects of genes combine to create the phenotype, they are called "_____ genes." a. dominant b. recessive c. additive d. nonadditive ANSWER: c 71. Which of these is associated with higher incidences of congenital malformations and preterm births? a. adoption b. natural childbirth c. IVF d. genetic counseling ANSWER: c 72. Leonel learned from their biology teacher that height resulted from about 180 genes, each contributing a tiny amount of genetic information. Leonel learned that their height was due to _____ genes. a. additive b. dominant c. recessive d. nonadditive ANSWER: a 73. What is the interaction of a heterozygous pair of alleles in such a way that the phenotype reflects one allele more than the other? a. additive heredity b. multifactorial heredity c. dominant–recessive heredity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. polygenic heredity ANSWER: c 74. Brown-eyed Alma has a blue-eyed mother and a brown-eyed father. In this case, their brown eyes were determined by a _____ allele. a. dominant b. recessive c. dominant–recessive d. dizygotic ANSWER: a 75. Alonso has a recessive gene in their genotype that is not expressed in their phenotype. They are a(n) _____ of that gene. a. recipient b. carrier c. expressor d. reactor ANSWER: b 76. _____ refers to a gene carried on the X chromosome. a. X-linked b. Polygenic c. Multifactorial d. Recessive ANSWER: a 77. Malaki is red-green color-blind. Their gene for color blindness is MOST likely a _____ chromosome. a. dominant gene on their X b. dominant gene on their Y c. recessive gene on their X d. recessive gene on their Y ANSWER: c 78. _____ are MORE likely to be carriers of X-linked traits, and _____ are MORE likely to express them. a. Females; males b. Females; females c. Males; females d. Males; males ANSWER: a 79. Genes with various repeats or deletions of base pairs are referred to as "_____."

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. polymorphic b. autosomes c. polygenic d. copy number variations ANSWER: d 80. _____ is when genes have different effects, depending on whether they come from the mother or the father. a. Additive pattern b. Dominant–recessive pattern c. Parental imprinting d. Copy number variations ANSWER: c 81. Which of these means influenced by many factors? a. polygenic b. multifactorial c. bifactorial d. differential susceptibility ANSWER: b 82. Genetic variations are most apparent for who of these? a. Shelby, who is from Sweden b. Tyrel, who is African American c. Ami, who is from China d. Margaret, who is from England ANSWER: b 83. An individual's inherited biochemistry reacts to alcohol in different ways, causing various reactions in humans, including all these EXCEPT _____. a. sleepiness b. nausea c. hunger d. relaxation ANSWER: c 84. Research indicates that alcoholism is caused by _____. a. nature only b. nurture only c. a combination of nature and nurture d. poor moral character ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 85. Which of these statements is TRUE about alcoholism? a. Alcoholism is polygenic, and culture is a pivotal factor. b. Alcoholism is polygenic, and genes are a pivotal factor. c. Alcoholism is X-linked, and culture is a pivotal factor. d. Alcoholism is X-linked, and genes are a pivotal factor.

ANSWER: a 86. For biological reasons, women become drunk on _____ than men. a. more alcohol b. less alcohol c. the same amount of alcohol d. more alcohol in the summer and less alcohol in the winter ANSWER: b 87. All these affect vision EXCEPT _____. a. genes b. age c. culture d. gender ANSWER: d 88. Eyeballs change shape at typical stages of development, including puberty and middle adulthood. This makes it more likely that _____ will increase at puberty, and _____ will decrease during middle adulthood. a. nearsightedness; farsightedness b. farsightedness; nearsightedness c. nearsightedness; nearsightedness d. farsightedness; farsightedness ANSWER: c 89. The statistic that indicates how much of the variation in a particular trait within a particular population, in a particular context and era, can be traced to genes is called "_____." a. a correlation b. heritability c. the mean d. probability ANSWER: b 90. The heritability for human traits, such as nearsightedness, _____. a. is the same in every culture b. can differ between cultures Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. is not influenced by cultural factors d. will always be different between cultures ANSWER: b 91. Nine-year-old Vibeke has no difficulty seeing things near them but sometimes struggles to see things in the distance. Vibeke gets their eyes checked and is told that they do not yet need corrective lenses for nearsightedness. Instead, drawing on current research, the ophthalmologist advises that Vibeke_____. a. do homework in a very brightly lit room b. watch television on a larger screen c. play outside more d. avoid reading small print ANSWER: c 92. Knowing that nature and nurture affect every human trait and disorder means all these EXCEPT _____. a. no one should be blamed or punished for inherited problems b. prevention efforts may decrease the occurrence of the trait or disorder c. ignoring the nature–nurture influence on human traits and disorders can be lethal d. nurture can always override the potential influence of nature ANSWER: d 93. One in 10,000 newborns has three chromosomes at the 13th site, called _____. a. Patau syndrome b. Huntington's disease c. Down syndrome d. Edwards syndrome ANSWER: a 94. Blai was born with Down syndrome. They are likely to develop _____ in middle adulthood. a. Patau syndrome b. Alzheimer's disease c. Huntington's disease d. Edwards syndrome ANSWER: b 95. Ways in which chromosomal and genetic problems are relevant to human development include all these EXCEPT _____. a. they provide insight into the complexities of nature and nurture b. information combats prejudice: Difference is not always deficit c. knowing that nature influences means that nurture can be ignored d. knowing the origins helps limit their effects ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 96. Which mother is at greatest risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality? a. a 15-year-old mother b. a 25-year-old mother c. a 30-year-old mother d. a 45-year-old mother ANSWER: d 97. The MOST common extra-chromosome condition is _____. a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Tourette syndrome ANSWER: a 98. Down syndrome is also called "_____." a. trisomy-12 b. trisomy-13 c. trisomy-21 d. trisomy-31 ANSWER: c 99. An individual with an extra chromosome on the 21st pair of chromosomes has _____. a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Tourette syndrome ANSWER: a 100. About one in every _____ infants is born with only one sex chromosome or with three or more, which creates a chromosomal abnormality. a. 100 b. 300 c. 500 d. 700 ANSWER: b 101. Many of the known single-gene disorders are _____. a. recessive b. dominant c. difficult to identify d. additive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 102. Which of these is an example of a single-gene disorder that is dominant? a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: d 103. A fatal central nervous system disorder caused by a copy number variation—more than 35 repetitions of a particular set of three base pairs—is _____. a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: d 104. A genetic disorder in which part of the X chromosome seems to be attached to the rest of it by a very thin string of molecules is referred to as _____. a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: c 105. MOST recessive genetic disorders are _____. a. on the autosomes b. X-linked c. additive d. polygenic ANSWER: a 106. Consultation and testing by trained experts that enable individuals to learn about their genetic heritage, including harmful conditions they could pass along to any children they might conceive, is referred to as "_____ counseling." a. couples b. marriage c. genetic d. individual ANSWER: c 107. Individuals who may especially benefit from preconception, prenatal, or even prenuptial (before marriage) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice genetic counseling include all these EXCEPT _____. a. women over age 35 and men over age 40 b. couples who are infertile c. couples who have had several spontaneous abortions or stillbirths d. women who are younger than 25 and men who are younger than 30 ANSWER: d

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 20

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Essay 1. Describe the germinal period, embryonic period, and fetal period of prenatal development. Identify the length of each period, including the major developmental milestones that occur during each.

ANSWER: The first two weeks (14 days) of prenatal development are the germinal period. During this time, the zygote undergoes cell duplication and differentiation. The major milestone is the transformation of the zygote into a blastocyst, which forms the embryo and placenta, enabling implantation in the uterus. The embryonic period lasts from the third through the eighth prenatal week (day 14 to 56).

The major developmental milestones are body structure and system formation, including a rudimentary central nervous system and circulatory system. The fetal period starts at the ninth prenatal week and ends at birth. Fetal growth, sex organs, and refinement of all the body structures and systems are the major developmental accomplishments.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes the three Describes the three Describes just two of Describes one or none prenatal prenatal periods, the prenatal periods or of the periods or their developmental including the length of does not accurately lengths accurately or periods, including each one describe the length of confuses the periods their lengths all three Details the Details the major Details the milestones Details the milestones milestones that occur milestones for each for two of the periods for one or none of the during each period period periods or confuses them

2. Newborn Jorie received an Apgar rating following their birth. Explain what the Apgar scale is, including the five vital signs that it measures. Jorie received a 4 at one minute and five minutes after birth. What does this score indicate?

ANSWER: The Apgar scale is a quick assessment of a newborn's health, from 0–10. The five vital signs are color, heartbeat, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and respiratory effort. (Students may instead list the acronym for Apgar: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Full credit should be given for either answer.) Jorie's score indicates an emergency. A neonatal pediatrician will be summoned immediately to help save Jorie's life.

Good (5 pts.)

Explains what the Apgar scale is and what it measures Explains what Jorie's Explains what the score means Apgar score means Explains what the Apgar scale is

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains the Apgar Does not explain what scale but lists fewer the Apgar scale is or than 4 vital signs what it measures Partially explains what Does not explain what the Apgar score means the Apgar score means or provides an incorrect response

3. Explain the procedure known as a cesarean section, and discuss at least two benefits and two risks associated with this kind of delivery.

ANSWER: A cesarean section (c-section) is also known as a surgical birth. Incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, instead of being delivered through the vagina. Generally, cesareans are implemented for 1) advanced planning, 2) quick births, and 3) can Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Essay save a baby's life when the infant experiences distress during a vaginal delivery. Advantages for hospitals include 4) ease in scheduling, 5) quicker than vaginal deliveries, and 6) increased costs.

Drawbacks include 1) a longer recovery period for the mother, 2) complications after birth, and 3) a reduction in breast-feeding.

Explains the procedure

Discusses the risks and benefits

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains the Explains the procedure, stating that procedure without it is also called a cextra details section or surgical birth Discusses two or more Discusses two risks and two or more risks or two benefits benefits or one risk and one benefit

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain the procedure

Does not discuss at least one risk and one benefit

4. Define behavioral teratogens, and name at least two common ones. State two potential consequences of exposure to them.

ANSWER: Behavioral teratogens are substances and conditions that do not cause physical defects in a developing fetus but increase the risk of harm to the child's brain. For example, if a pregnant mother 1) smokes, 2) drinks alcohol, 3) uses marijuana or other drugs, or 4) has a virus (such as the flu), the fetus's brain could be damaged. Consequences of exposure to behavioral teratogens include 1) hyperactivity, 2) antisocial behavior, and 3) intellectual disabilities.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines behavioral Defines the term and Defines the term such Does not accurately teratogens expresses that these that it could also define the term cause brain damage, include physical not physical defects defects Names at least two Names at least two Names one behavioral Does not name a behavioral teratogens behavioral teratogens teratogen common behavioral teratogen or give an example of one that causes physical defects States two potential States two potential States one potential Does not state a consequences consequences consequence potential consequence or a physical defect

5. Fabia and their partner are newlyweds and are beginning to talk about expanding their family. What are five things that Fabia needs to do, prior to becoming pregnant, to set the stage for a healthy pregnancy for themselves and the future baby?

ANSWER: Prospective mothers like "Fabia" should do the following: 1) plan the pregnancy, 2) avoid using drugs, 3) supplement a balanced diet with folic acid and iron, 4) update their immunizations, and 5) gain or lose weight if needed before the pregnancy.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Identifies what Identifies five prospective mothers suggestions for should do before ensuring a healthy pregnancy pregnancy

Fair (3 pts.)

Identifies three suggestions for ensuring a healthy pregnancy

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies two or fewer suggestions or identifies incorrect suggestions

6. According to recent studies, how many American women drink during pregnancy? What group of women are most likely to consume alcohol during pregnancy? Assume that a woman gives birth to a child with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Describe the characteristics of a child with this disorder.

ANSWER: Ten percent of pregnant women in the United States use alcohol, a rate that climbs to 19 percent for older pregnant women. Older, college-educated women are the most likely to drink during pregnancy. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a cluster of birth defects, including abnormal facial characteristics, slow physical growth, and reduced intellectual ability, that may occur in the fetus of a woman who drinks alcohol while pregnant.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies the number Identifies the Incorrectly identifies Does not identify the of women who drink percentage of women the number of number of pregnant during pregnancy who drink during pregnant women who women who drink pregnancy drink during during pregnancy or pregnancy, but are provides an incorrect within one to two percentage percentage points Identifies the group Identifies older, Identifies older or Does not identify of women who are college-educated college-educated older or collegemost likely to women women but not both educated women consume alcohol during pregnancy Describes Describes three Describes two Does not describe characteristics of a characteristics of FAS characteristics of FAS characteristics of FAS child with FAS

7. Name four factors that contribute to low birthweight.

ANSWER: Low birthweight can be caused by 1) stress, 2) maternal drug use, especially smoking, 3) low maternal body fat, 4) low total maternal weight gain, 5) inadequate vitamins in the mother's diet, 6) poor maternal nutrition, 7) IVF, and 8) environmental pollution.

Good (5 pts.)

Names four factors of Names four of the low birthweight factors from the list above

Fair (3 pts.)

Names three of the factors from the list above

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names two or fewer of the factors from the list above

8. List two of the hypotheses developed to explain the increase in low birthweight.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Essay ANSWER: The hypotheses that explain the increase in low birthweight in the United States include: 1) lack of adequate maternal nutrition, 2) increased food insecurity, 3) increased maternal drug use, and 4) increasing rates of assisted reproduction that lead to twins and triplets, because multiples tend to weigh less than singletons.

Good (5 pts.)

Lists two hypotheses Lists two of the hypotheses

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists one of the hypotheses

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not list a hypothesis

9. Define reflexes. Describe the three kinds of reflexes that are necessary for newborn survival, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: Reflexes are unlearned actions that are involuntary responses to particular stimuli. Those that are necessary for newborn survival are ones that 1) maintain oxygen supply (breathing, hiccupping, sneezing), 2) maintain constant body temperature (crying, shivering, kicking off blankets), and 3) manage feeding (sucking and rooting).

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines reflex and Defines reflex and Defines reflex and describes three types lists the three types lists two types Gives an example of Gives three examples, Gives two examples each kind one for each kind

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Cannot define reflex or lists one or no type Gives one or no examples or confuses examples

10. Eloi recently gave birth and now is experiencing postpartum depression. What symptomology are they likely to experience?

ANSWER: Symptoms of postpartum depression include a mother's 1) deep sadness and 2) feelings of inadequacy, 3) feeling burdened by baby care, 4) ignoring the baby's needs, and 5) thoughts of neglecting or hurting the infant. Possible outcomes for the baby include 1) inadequate food and care, 2) possible abuse or neglect, 3) lack of social stimulation, and 4) the likelihood of behavioral problems later on.

Good (5 pts.)

Describes the Describes two of the maternal symptoms symptoms of postpartum depression Names two possible Names two possible outcomes for the outcomes baby

Fair (3 pts.)

Describes one of the symptoms

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe a symptom

Names one possible outcome

Does not name a possible outcome

11. Describe kangaroo care and list two of its benefits.

ANSWER: In kangaroo care, mothers or fathers hold their infants to their chests skin-to-skin, allowing them to feel their body heat and listen to their heartbeats. Studies show that infants who receive kangaroo care 1) experience deeper sleep, 2) spend more time alert, and 3) gain weight more rapidly.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes kangaroo Describes kangaroo Describes kangaroo Cannot describe care care as an effective care as if only mothers kangaroo care means for both parents can do it Lists two benefits Lists two benefits Lists one benefit Does not list a benefit

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 1. Irene is doing a presentation on prenatal development. Irene's presentation will focus on these three periods, in the order of _____. a. embryonic, germinal, and fetal b. fetal, embryonic, and germinal c. germinal, embryonic, and fetal d. germinal, fetal, and embryonic ANSWER: c 2. During the _____ period of prenatal development, the cell mass must achieve implantation. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. conception ANSWER: a 3. The first task of the cell mass is _____, embedding into the nurturing lining of the uterus. a. differentiation b. duplication c. germination d. implantation ANSWER: d 4. A recent study from China concluded that infants born at or before 22 weeks gestation had a _____ percent survival rate. a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 12 ANSWER: b 5. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle, or shell, that will become the _____. a. placenta b. umbilical cord c. vernix d. infant ANSWER: a 6. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception. a. 2 days b. 3 months Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. 2 weeks d. 12 weeks ANSWER: c 7. Ylenia just learned that they are 7 weeks pregnant. Ylenia is in the _____ period of prenatal development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. third ANSWER: b 8. The _____ period lasts from the third week through the eighth week of pregnancy. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. viability ANSWER: b 9. Which of these structures develops first during the period of the embryo? a. the neural tube b. the primitive streak c. the upper arms d. the placenta ANSWER: b 10. During the embryonic period, the neural tube will become the _____. a. reproductive organs b. intestinal tract c. backbone, legs, and arms d. central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord ANSWER: d 11. The head appears in the _____ week after conception. a. fourth b. fifth c. sixth d. seventh ANSWER: a 12. In the fourth week after conception, a miniscule blood vessel that will become the _____ begins to pulsate. a. lungs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. stomach c. kidneys d. heart ANSWER: d 13. Growth occurs in a _____ pattern, which means "head-to-tail." a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. neurogenesis d. synaptogenesis ANSWER: b 14. Prenatally, development happens in a near-to-far pattern known as "_____." a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. neurogenesis d. synaptogenesis ANSWER: a 15. Research has found that _____ is genetically directed, as brain development adjusts to environmental stress. a. apoptosis b. viability c. cephalocaudal development d. proximodistal development ANSWER: a 16. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period. a. embryonic b. fetal c. proximodistal d. germinal ANSWER: b 17. The third period of gestation is the _____ period. a. zygotic b. embryonic c. germinal d. fetal ANSWER: d 18. What is the chief predictor of intellectual and emotional deficits among surviving preterm babies?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. maternal age b. exposure to teratogens c. length of labor d. gestational age ANSWER: d 19. The _____ is the age at which a fetus might survive outside the mother's uterus if specialized medical care is available. a. germinal period b. embryonic period c. fetal age indicator d. age of viability ANSWER: d 20. The age of viability occurs at about _____ weeks after conception. a. 16 b. 18 c. 22 d. 26 ANSWER: c 21. The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is _____. a. weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg) b. having a functioning central nervous system c. having functioning digestive and respiratory systems d. surviving at least 28 weeks past conception ANSWER: b 22. Which of these statements about prenatal neural development is TRUE? a. The central nervous system is the last body system to begin development. b. During the germinal period, neurogenesis contributes to short peaks in brain activity. c. The final three months of pregnancy are likely the best time for normal cell death. d. The human brain is fully connected during the fetal period.

ANSWER: c 23. On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, which brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds. a. 1.5 b. 2.5 c. 4.5 d. 6.5 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 24. In early prenatal development, the early embryo has both male and female potential. A male would develop via _____ and a female would develop via _____. a. the Wolffian ducts; the Müllerian ducts b. the Müllerian ducts; the Wolffian ducts c. cephalocaudal processes; proximodistal processes d. proximodistal processes; cephalocaudal processes ANSWER: a 25. Which of these does NOT occur during the fourth month of prenatal development? a. Teeth emerge. b. Fingernails form. c. Large body movements occur. d. Elimination develops.

ANSWER: a 26. Which area of the brain is associated with memory formation? a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. pons d. hippocampus ANSWER: d 27. Fewer connections between the left and right hemispheres of the brain have been associated with: a. advanced paternal age. b. duration of pregnancy. c. length of labor. d. maternal obesity.

ANSWER: d 28. Programmed cell death that occurs prenatally is called _____. a. anoxia b. plasticity c. apoptosis d. fontanels ANSWER: c 29. Which of these is the BEST indication of health after birth? a. weight b. length Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. reflexes d. color ANSWER: c 30. Hieu is pregnant with their first child and the baby is due on May 15. To be considered full term, the baby must be born _____. a. on May 15 b. between May 1 and May 15 c. between May 15 and May 30 d. two weeks before or one week after May 15 ANSWER: d 31. Midwife births have lower rates of complications compared to physician births. Which of these is NOT a reason for this? a. Midwives emphasize c-sections. b. Midwives emphasize breathing. c. Midwives emphasize massage. d. Midwives emphasize social support.

ANSWER: a 32. More than _____ births worldwide involve a c-section. a. one in five b. one in six c. two in five d. two in eight ANSWER: a 33. Francka is pregnant with their second child and has been told that they will need a c-section. Which of these is NOT a circumstance that could lead to this? a. breech birth b. prior c-section c. advanced maternal age d. small fetus ANSWER: d 34. Which of these is NOT an immediate advantage for hospitals regarding c-sections? a. easier to schedule b. quicker births c. more expensive than vaginal births d. advanced planning ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 35. Surya is pregnant with their first child and is concerned about how long it will take to deliver their child.

You can tell Surya that for first births, the average baby is born after _____ hours of active labor. a. 7 b. 10 c. 12 d. 20 ANSWER: c 36. At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor. a. fetal brain b. maternal brain c. placenta d. amniotic sac ANSWER: a 37. In most cases, newborns _____. a. are unable to breathe on their own b. do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut c. breathe and cry on their own immediately d. breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord is cut ANSWER: c 38. A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a _____. a. humanitarian b. doctor c. postpartum nurse d. doula ANSWER: d 39. Today, _____ are likely to arrive at a pregnant woman's home during early labor and later work alongside hospital staff. a. doulas b. birthing coaches c. physicians' assistants d. neonatal support teams ANSWER: a 40. Xhemal went into labor at home. Kinga arrived soon after and began to time the contractions and give gentle massages. Kinga assisted Xhemal and their partner when it was time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Kinga was Xhemal's _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. postpartum nurse b. doctor c. couvade d. doula ANSWER: d 41. A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as a(n) "_____." a. epidural b. cesarean section c. induced labor d. doula ANSWER: b 42. In the United States, roughly _____ of births occur via c-section. a. one-third b. one-half c. two-thirds d. three-fourths ANSWER: a 43. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to _____. a. evaluate the newborn's sensory abilities b. evaluate the health of the new mother c. help the mother recover from childbirth d. evaluate the health of the newborn ANSWER: d 44. Newborn Kendrell received an Apgar score of 4. This score indicates that Kendrell is _____. a. healthy and responsive b. in need of emergency care c. slightly lethargic but in good condition d. hungry, cold, and irritable ANSWER: b 45. A baby is assessed at one minute after birth using the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak. The vital sign the medical team is concerned about is likely all of these EXCEPT _____. a. heart rate b. cry c. reflexes d. breathing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 46. Children who were born via cesarean section are likely to _____. a. exhibit behavioral problems, such as hyperactivity b. have learning and motor difficulties c. be diagnosed with autism d. be obese ANSWER: d 47. Compared to vaginal births, c-section births _____. a. are less expensive b. increase the risk of complications after birth c. usually take longer d. are less safe for the baby ANSWER: b 48. Epidurals, often used in hospital births to manage pain during childbirth, have been shown to _____. a. help prevent unnecessary c-sections b. encourage breast-feeding from the beginning c. decrease the newborn's readiness to suck d. induce labor ANSWER: c 49. Amrita, in labor with their first child, is in a great deal of pain and has been experiencing strong contractions for nearly 13 hours with little progress toward birth. Although Amrita was hoping for a natural birth, the doctor has urged them to use an epidural. Which of these problems occurs most often following an epidural? a. Newborns are at high risk for birth complications like cerebral palsy. b. An epidural may increase the risk of a cesarean section. c. An epidural speeds up the labor process. d. The mother loses consciousness prior to delivery.

ANSWER: b 50. Karolina was three weeks over their due date. The doctor decided it was best for Karolina to _____ labor due to the increasing size of the fetus. a. postpone b. induce c. forego d. decrease ANSWER: b 51. Which of these is TRUE regarding rates for cesarean sections and epidurals? a. They have been relatively steady over the past three decades.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. They are the same in the United States as in most other developed nations. c. They vary by doctor and by hospital. d. They are higher for births attended by midwives.

ANSWER: c 52. In which of these countries are home births most common? a. the United States b. Canada c. England d. the Netherlands ANSWER: d 53. A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for _____. a. prenatal abnormalities b. damage to the placenta c. extra chromosomes d. male infertility ANSWER: a 54. Rita is one month pregnant and consults with their doctor about the different categories of teratogens. The doctor tells Rita that all of these are categories of teratogens EXCEPT _____. a. drugs b. pollutants c. immunizations d. viruses ANSWER: c 55. Predrag is 5 years old. They have been diagnosed with ADHD and shows signs of learning problems. The pediatrician suggests that Pedrag's problems could be the result of prenatal exposure to _____, though they stress that the link is not straightforward at this time. a. caffeine b. aspirin c. cell differentiation d. behavioral teratogens ANSWER: d 56. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____ prenatal abnormalities. a. increase the risk of b. decrease the risk of c. always cause d. do not cause Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 57. Drugs, viruses, pollutants, malnutrition, and stress during pregnancy are referred to as "_____." a. threshold effects b. risk factors c. teratogens d. vulnerability factors ANSWER: c 58. Anise and their partner are considering having a baby. Anise's obstetrician recommends that they stop using alcohol and update their immunizations _____. a. before they get pregnant b. as soon as they know they are pregnant c. anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy d. as soon as the baby is born ANSWER: a 59. The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are _____ for body formation, but health during the entire fetal period affects the _____. a. sensitive; heart b. critical; brain c. sensitive; brain d. critical; heart ANSWER: b 60. Some teratogens have a threshold effect, which means that they are _____. a. harmful no matter what the level of exposure b. rarely harmful c. harmless until exposure reaches a certain level d. always harmless ANSWER: c 61. What percentage of U.S. births are considered full term? a. 25 b. 60 c. 72 d. 90 ANSWER: d 62. Regarding exposure to teratogens, which of these affect when a threshold is crossed? a. age, weight, and health of the mother Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. dose, timing, and frequency c. prenatal care, fetal age, gestational age, and maternal health d. paternal age, maternal age, and neurological development in the fetus ANSWER: b 63. Seisyll is pregnant, yet they still have four alcoholic drinks each day. The baby may be at increased risk for the development of _____ syndrome. a. fetal alcohol b. embryonic alcohol c. Turner d. Reye ANSWER: a 64. A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins' blood alcohol levels are equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence the effects of teratogens. a. age of the embryo/fetus b. genes of the parent c. genes of the embryo/fetus d. doses of teratogen ANSWER: c 65. Low folic acid during pregnancy can result in _____. a. heart defects b. lung defects c. limb deformities d. neural-tube defects ANSWER: d 66. Viviana is pregnant and wants to ensure that they do everything they can to prevent the occurrence of a neural-tube defect in their child. They make sure that they have the proper amount of _____ in their diet. a. vitamin D b. zinc c. folic acid d. vitamin K ANSWER: c 67. Childbirth is the leading cause of death in: a. Belgium. b. Poland. c. Nigeria.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. the United States.

ANSWER: c 68. Which country has the highest rate of cesarean births? a. Belgium b. the United States c. Nigeria d. Brazil ANSWER: d 69. Analysis of umbilical cord blood confirms that fetuses exposed to _____ have lower intelligence test scores and more behavior problems than other children. a. folic acid b. chlorpyrifos c. vitamin D d. gluten ANSWER: b 70. What is the U.S. rate for VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)? a. 5 b. 14 c. 25 d. 32 ANSWER: b 71. When an infant is born where the tail of the spine is not enclosed properly, what has occurred? a. anencephaly b. folic acid deficiency c. fetal alcohol syndrome d. spina bifida ANSWER: d 72. Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds 3 ounces) are considered "_____." a. low birthweight b. very low birthweight c. extremely low birthweight d. small for gestational age ANSWER: c 73. Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered "_____ birthweight." a. low Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. very low c. extremely low d. average ANSWER: b 74. Baby Puja weighed 2 pounds, 8 ounces at birth. Puja would be considered to have: a. low birthweight. b. very low birthweight. c. extremely low birthweight. d. average birthweight.

ANSWER: b 75. Newborns born to immigrants are generally healthier in every way, including birthweight, than newborns of U.S.-born women of the same SES and ethnicity. This phenomenon is called the "_____." a. sociocultural paradox b. immigrant paradox c. ethnic anomaly d. cultural enigma ANSWER: b 76. A baby born two or more weeks before the full 38 weeks of the typical pregnancy is called "_____." a. premature b. preterm c. low-birthweight d. small for gestational age ANSWER: b 77. A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since conception is referred to as "_____." a. preterm b. premature c. low birthweight d. small for gestational age ANSWER: d 78. Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had their first baby.

Although Bruno and Juliana's SES is lower than that of their native-born peers, their baby was born at a healthy weight. This phenomenon is called the "_____ paradox." a. immigrant b. refugee c. native-born Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. SES ANSWER: a 79. Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____. a. diabetes b. malnutrition c. normal-range weight d. anxiety ANSWER: a 80. The frequency of low birthweight in the United States is _____. a. increasing b. stabilizing c. among the highest in the world d. decreasing ANSWER: a 81. Which of these statements about international rates of low birthweight is TRUE? a. The U.S. rate is higher than that of virtually every other developed nation. b. Japan has the lowest rate of low-birthweight babies in the world. c. Germany, Denmark, and Australia have higher rates of low birthweight than the United States. d. Canada, Sweden, and the United States have the lowest rate of low birthweight babies in the world.

ANSWER: a 82. Newborn Italo experienced a lack of oxygen during childbirth, which can harm the developing brain. This is called "_____." a. suffocation b. preeclampsia c. anoxia d. incomplete breech ANSWER: c 83. Statistically, which woman is at greatest risk for having a low-birthweight baby based on international comparisons? a. Zeno, who is 27 years old and middle class b. Briana, who has been diagnosed with diabetes c. Meera, who regularly misses meals d. Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant ANSWER: c 84. In the United States, which is NOT a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of low-birthweight babies?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. food insecurity b. drug use c. cigarette use d. genetic factors ANSWER: d 85. Brando, age 5, is assisted by an aid daily because they can't control any of their muscles. This is because Brando experienced a lack of oxygen during birth. However, they are extremely intelligent. Brando's condition has been evident since birth. Brando has _____. a. autism b. cerebral palsy c. Huntington disease d. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: b 86. Anoxia refers to _____. a. cerebral hemorrhaging b. signs of cerebral palsy c. a lack of oxygen d. toxic substances in the bloodstream ANSWER: c 87. When Vahid was born, they experienced a lack of oxygen for a small amount of time. Vahid experienced _____. a. cerebral hemorrhaging b. cerebral palsy c. couvade d. anoxia ANSWER: d 88. A fetus that is infected with ZIKV may appear typical but may be impaired _____. a. in their senses b. emotionally c. in their senses and emotionally d. neither in their senses nor emotionally ANSWER: c 89. Researchers who deliberately infected pregnant monkeys with ZIKV found all of these EXCEPT monkeys _____. a. appeared normal at birth b. demonstrated symptoms similar to schizophrenia Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. demonstrated symptoms similar to Alzheimer's disease d. had no symptoms develop after birth ANSWER: d 90. Exposure to pesticides while pregnant may be related to _____. a. increased c-sections b. preterm births c. low birth-weight infants d. brain-damaged babies ANSWER: d 91. Which of these is NOT an example of a newborn reflex? a. sneezing b. sucking c. sleeping d. stepping ANSWER: c 92. Aaminata just gave birth to their first child two weeks ago. Aaminata's husband has noticed that Aaminata is unable to sleep, talks excessively, and seems extremely concerned that something is wrong with the baby, despite being reassured by the doctor that everything is fine. Aaminata's behavior may indicate that they are experiencing _____. a. postpartum depression b. bipolar depression c. schizophrenia d. a dissociative episode ANSWER: a 93. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are demonstrating the _____ reflex. a. Moro b. rooting c. sucking d. thrashing ANSWER: b 94. Newborn babies do NOT have reflexes designed to _____. a. maintain oxygen supply b. maintain a constant body temperature c. adjust to the difference between day and night d. manage feeding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 95. Postpartum depression _____. a. is a normal development and no cause for concern b. has no treatment c. does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn d. can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding ANSWER: d 96. A father's presence at a child's birth _____. a. has no impact on birth complications b. only has an impact on birth complications if the mother and father are married c. reduces the likelihood of birth complications d. increases the likelihood of birth complications ANSWER: c 97. While Liam's wife was pregnant, Liam experienced weight gain and indigestion. When their wife gave birth, they felt sharp physical pain as well. Liam was experiencing _____. a. postpartum depression b. couvade c. false labor d. the Moro reflex ANSWER: b 98. Rika had a baby three weeks ago. They have been feeling sad and inadequate as a parent, which has made caring for the newborn difficult. Rika may be experiencing _____. a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. postpartum depression c. generalized anxiety disorder d. separation anxiety ANSWER: b 99. Aziza just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. They may be experiencing: a. couvade. b. separation anxiety. c. a psychotic episode. d. postpartum depression.

ANSWER: d 100. Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression. a. breast-feeding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. having a home birth c. couvade d. epidurals ANSWER: a 101. Paternal experiences of pregnancy and birth are called _____, expected in some cultures, a normal variation in many, and considered pathological in others. a. shenkui b. Saora disorder c. biological paradox d. couvade ANSWER: d 102. The strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their newborn is called "_____." a. couvade b. a doula c. kangaroo care d. the parent–infant bond ANSWER: d 103. Which of these statements about parent–infant bonding is TRUE? a. Early skin-to-skin contact is essential for human nurturance. b. Fathers report that bonding usually occurs in the second half of the first year. c. Mothers have a more difficult time bonding with their babies than fathers. d. Early skin-to-skin contact is not essential for human nurturance.

ANSWER: d 104. Beate is holding their newborn child for the first time and is overwhelmed by the love they feel. Beate is experiencing _____. a. couvade b. a doula c. kangaroo care d. the parent–infant bond ANSWER: d 105. A form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies on their naked chests is called "_____." a. couvade b. a doula c. kangaroo care Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. parent–infant bond ANSWER: c 106. Fiadh is the mother of newborn Hamon. For the majority of the day, Fiadh holds Hamon on their chest, skin-to-skin. This allows Hamon to listen to Fiadh's 'heartbeat, as well as feel their 'body heat. Fiadh is utilizing _____. a. swaddling b. neonatal care c. contact comfort d. kangaroo care ANSWER: d

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 20

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Essay 1. Describe parent/child sleeping practices from two different cultural perspectives. What is the reason for the particular practice in each culture?

ANSWER: Traditionally, most middle-class North American infants slept in cribs and in their own rooms; it was feared that they would be traumatized if their parents had sex in the same room. In contrast, infants in Asia, Africa, and Latin America slept with or near their parents, a practice called cosleeping or bed-sharing. In those cultures, nighttime parent-child separation was considered cruel.

This difference in practice may seem to be related to income, since low-SES families are less likely to have an extra room and more likely to sleep beside their baby. But even wealthy Japanese families often sleep together. By contrast, more poor North American families find a separate room for their children. Co-sleeping results primarily from culture and custom, not income.

Good (5 pts.)

Describes Describes Western parent/child sleeping and non-Western practices infant sleeping practices Explains why each Explains that culture has its Westerners want perspective privacy; nonWesterners see separation as cruel; reflects culture and custom, not income

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes Does not describe Western or nonWestern or nonWestern infant Western infant sleeping practices sleeping practices Explains either the Does not explain the Western or the non- Western or the nonWestern viewpoint on Western viewpoint on sleeping practices; sleeping practices may not mention culture and custom

2. Define pruning. Using the examples of fragile X syndrome and autism, explain why pruning is essential for healthy brain development.

ANSWER: Pruning is the process by which unused connections in the brain atrophy and die. A symptom of fragile X syndrome is a persistent failure of normal synapse pruning. Without pruning, the dendrites of children with fragile X are too dense and long, making thinking difficult. Similarly, the brains of children with autism spectrum disorder are unusually large and full, making communication between neurons less efficient and some sounds and sights overwhelming.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines pruning Provides an accurate Provides a partially Does not define definition of pruning accurate definition of pruning or provides an pruning incorrect definition Provides examples of Provides an example Provides an example Does not provide an how a lack of pruning of how lack of pruning of how lack of pruning example of either type affects children with relates to fragile X relates to either fragile fragile X syndrome syndrome; provides an X syndrome or autism and children with example of how lack autism of pruning relates to autism

3. Differentiate between experience-dependent and experience-expectant growth, and provide one example of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Essay each.

ANSWER: With experience-dependent growth, some brain functions depend on particular experiences.

However, these experiences are not essential. Examples include: which language babies hear, what faces they see, whether curiosity is encouraged, or how their mother reacts to frustration.

Experience-expectant growth must occur in order for development to proceed normally. For example, almost all babies have things to see, objects to manipulate, and people to love them.

Babies everywhere welcome such experiences: They look around, they grab for objects, and they smile at people. As a result, babies' brains develop.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Differentiates Differentiates between Defines one term between two terms the two terms correctly Provides example of Provides an example Provides an example each type of growth of each type of either type

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define either term or confuses them Does not provide an example of either type

4. Zorion and Aysenur are new parents. They have heard that stress can damage the developing brain of infants and have decided to try and limit stress for their new baby. For instance, they limit visits with family, reduce loud noises from the home, and avoid upsetting the baby. Are Zorion and Aysenur taking appropriate precautions or are they being overly protective? Explain your answer and include examples.

ANSWER: Research shows that too much of the wrong kind of stimulation may cause the brain to produce an overabundance of cortisol (a stress hormone) early in life. For example, an infant who is frequently terrified produces abnormal amounts of cortisol, leading to odd reactions to stress throughout the lifespan. However, infants should not be protected from every experience. Some stress, such as not getting an attractive object, being around noisy conversations, or being bathed or diapered when the baby does not want it, is part of normal infant life. Therefore, the parents are being overprotective of their new baby.

Good (5 pts.)

Explains whether or Explains whether or not the parents are not the parents are taking appropriate taking appropriate precautions or being precautions or being overly protective overly protective; provides examples

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Acknowledges that the Does not explain parents are being whether or not the overprotective but parents are taking does not provide appropriate examples precautions or being overprotective; does not provide examples

5. Describe the development of the five senses, beginning with birth and extending into the fourth month of life.

ANSWER: All of the senses function at birth. Some senses are much more developed than others. Hearing (which begins before the baby is born) is acute at birth; vision is the least-developed sense. An infant has reflexes that respond to touch (such as grasping a person's finger and turning toward and sucking when someone brushes the child's cheek). By 4 months, infants have developed perceptions of speech, expecting familiar rhythms and cadences of words. Vision improves rapidly after birth, with binocular vision in place by between 2 and 4 months, so that an infant can focus on a single item. Babies soon learn to prefer familiar touches. Similarly, babies quickly begin to recognize familiar smells—especially the smell of their caregivers—and come to appreciate familiar tastes as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Essay they are given spoonfuls of the family dinner.

Good (5 pts.)

States all five senses are present at birth; describes hearing as acute and vision as poor Describes the senses' Describes how each development after sense improves birth Describes senses at birth

Fair (3 pts.)

States all five senses are present at birth; does not detail how strong each one is Describes how three senses improve

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Is unclear regarding all senses being functional at birth or describes them as all equally acute Describes how one or two senses improve

6. Explain how biology and environment interact in the development of gross motor skills. What would you advise for parents who are worried that their 14-month-old baby hasn't begun walking independently yet?

ANSWER: The development and order of gross motor skills are largely due to biological factors, but that assumes that the environment provides adequate opportunity to practice the precursors for the skills.

Since a 14-month-old baby is within the average age range for the development of a skill, the parents should be encouraged to provide the opportunity for the skill to develop, and then relax and wait for the skill to emerge.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains how biology Explains how biology Is vague about how Does not explain how and environment and environment biology and biology and interact interact environment interact environment interact Gives advice Gives advice similar Gives vague advice or Does not give advice to above indicates that the or gives advice that is parents should be contradictory to the worried textbook

7. Zoie is a new parent and is concerned about vaccinating their child. Explain to Zoie the benefits of immunization for themselves and the baby, as well as the public in general. Also, outline the potential consequences associated with not immunizing their baby.

ANSWER: Diseases that could be deadly are now rare because of immunization, which primes the body's immune system to resist a particular disease. Immunizations have been instrumental in the sharp decrease and near eradication of many common childhood diseases—smallpox being the best example. Children who are not immunized against these illnesses are more susceptible to disease and death. Fortunately, each vaccinated child stops transmission of the disease, a phenomenon called herd immunity. Usually, if 90 percent of a population is immunized, no one dies of that disease.

Describes what immunizations do

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains what Explains what immunizations do and immunizations do how they have helped or how they have public health helped public health

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain what immunizations do or how they have helped public health Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Essay Tells what happens if Tells what happens if Tells what happens if Does not tell what child isn't immunized child isn't immunized, a child isn't happens if a child isn't including herd immunized but doesn't immunized immunity mention herd immunity

8. List three of the advantages of breast-feeding.

ANSWER: Breast-feeding 1) provides antibodies from the mother, 2) is more digestible than cow's milk, and 3) contains more vitamins and minerals than cow's milk. 4) Breast-fed babies have fewer allergies, asthma, and stomach aches, too. 5) Babies who are exclusively breast-fed become obese less often and 6) have lower rates of diabetes and heart disease.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists the advantages Lists three advantages Lists two advantages Lists one or no of breast-feeding advantages or lists something that is false

9. Name three ways in which malnutrition can affect a young child.

ANSWER: Children who are malnourished may suffer in multiple ways. 1) If the malnutrition occurs over a long enough period, stunting can occur, making them always short in stature. 2) Their brains may not develop normally. 3) They have no body reserves to help their immune system fight common diseases, resulting in disability, disfigurement, or death. 4) Malnutrition can directly cause some diseases such as marasmus, rickets, and kwashiorkor. 5) Malnutrition can cause children to lack energy, interest, and curiosity, slowing their intellectual and physical development. 6) In severe cases, malnutrition causes death.

Good (5 pts.)

Names three ways in Names three ways which malnutrition from the list above can affect a young child

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names two ways from Names one or no ways the list above from the list above

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 1. The average baby will grow _____ inches in the first year. a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 ANSWER: a 2. A typical child at 24 months weighs about _____ pounds. a. 14 b. 28 c. 42 d. 56 ANSWER: b 3. The average newborn triples their weight by _____. a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 1.5 years d. 2 years ANSWER: b 4. Children reach half their adult height by about the age of _____ years. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: a 5. Madlenka's weight is at the 30th percentile. This means that _____ percent of all babies their age weigh less than they do and _____ percent of all babies their age weigh more than they do. a. 30; 69 b. 25; 75 c. 70; 30 d. 81; 19 ANSWER: a 6. A _____ is a ranking between 0 and 100 that compares children of the same age in order to determine whether a particular baby is growing well. a. normal score b. standard deviation c. percentile Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. norm ANSWER: c 7. Jean brought their 6-month-old child to the doctor for a well-baby visit. The doctor says that their child is healthy and that their weight is at the 20th percentile. What does this mean? a. They are large for their age. b. They are not growing properly. c. They are malnourished. d. They fall within an acceptable range.

ANSWER: d 8. The pediatrician tells the parents of newborn Glen that Glen's height falls at the 92nd percentile. This means that Glen is _____. a. above average in height b. below average in height c. eating too often d. underweight ANSWER: a 9. What is a condition that may be caused by poor nutrition, allergies, the microbiome, or other medical conditions? a. dwarfism b. obesity c. failure to thrive d. head-sparing ANSWER: c 10. Twelve-month-old Reinhild has slept in their parents' bed since they were born. This custom is called "_____." a. co-bedding b. shared sleep c. sleep accommodation d. co-sleeping ANSWER: d 11. The average newborn sleeps approximately _____ hours a day. a. 12 to 14 b. 15 to 17 c. 18 to 20 d. 21 to 23 ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 12. The dozing, half-awake state often seen in newborns is called "_____ sleep." a. REM b. paradoxical c. transitional d. postnatal ANSWER: c 13. Slow-wave sleep _____ a. increases at about 3 or 4 months of age. b. is also known as "REM sleep." c. is also known as "paradoxical sleep." d. rarely occurs until 2 years of age.

ANSWER: a 14. The signs of REM sleep include flickering of the infant's _____ brain waves. a. open eyes and rapid b. closed eyes and rapid c. open eyes and slow, steady d. closed eyes and slow, steady ANSWER: b 15. Which baby is MOST likely to sleep beside their mother? a. Asher, who is from New Zealand b. Felipe, who is from Canada c. Dinh, who is from Switzerland d. Althea, who is from Latin America ANSWER: d 16. Co-sleeping may be harmful to the baby if the mother _____. a. is in a fetal position around the baby b. is a light sleeper c. has been drinking d. awakens frequently ANSWER: c 17. In addition to cultural influences, what is a compelling reason that causes parents to choose to co-sleep with their infant? a. Co-sleeping makes nighttime feedings easier. b. Co-sleeping allows the infant to sleep more deeply for longer periods. c. Co-sleeping helps the baby's digestion. d. Co-sleeping infants become more independent.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 18. The human body is equipped to protect the brain when malnutrition temporarily affects body growth. This protective feature is known as "_____." a. the blood–brain barrier b. brain-override c. head-sparing d. caudal protection ANSWER: c 19. A newborn's brain weight is _____ an adult's brain weight. a. greater than b. the same as c. 75 percent of d. 25 percent of ANSWER: d 20. A basic nerve cell in the central nervous system is called a(n) "_____." a. frontal cell b. axon c. dendrite d. neuron ANSWER: d 21. Neurons in the brain meet at "intersections" called _____. a. synapses b. cortexes c. axons d. dendrites ANSWER: a 22. Synapses are _____. a. intersections where the axons of one neuron meet the dendrites of another neuron b. where neurons make direct contact with one another c. chemical structures that allow dendrites to send their messages to axons d. the area where neurons determine whether a stimulus exceeds the absolute threshold or not ANSWER: a 23. Which statement describes the brain's cortex? a. It is found in the center of the brain and is responsible for primitive emotions and reflexes. b. It makes up a small percentage of the outer brain and is responsible for movement.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. It makes up the outer layers of the brain and is responsible for thinking, feeling, and sensing. d. It is the gray matter of the brain where the intersections of dendrites and axons form.

ANSWER: c 24. The outer layers of the brain are referred to as "_____." a. the cortex b. axons c. dendrites d. synapses ANSWER: a 25. The areas at the very front of the cortex _____. a. are responsible for visual functions b. help humans to understand spoken words c. assist with impulse control d. are well developed in newborns ANSWER: c 26. The _____ has two halves and four lobes. a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. forebrain ANSWER: d 27. When you experience pleasure or pain, you are likely activating your _____. a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. pituitary gland d. limbic system ANSWER: d 28. The last part of the brain to mature is the _____. a. axons b. dendrites c. synapses d. prefrontal cortex ANSWER: d 29. The area in the brain that plans, anticipates, and controls impulses is the _____ cortex. a. prefrontal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. parietal c. temporal d. striate ANSWER: a 30. From birth until age 2, dendrites in the cortex increase about _____. a. threefold b. fivefold c. sevenfold d. tenfold ANSWER: b 31. The brain develops extremely quickly in the first few years, but not all of this growth is permanent. Rapid and temporary dendrite growth is called "_____." a. dendritic proliferation b. pruning c. cortex multiplication d. transient exuberance ANSWER: d 32. Transient exuberance is the _____. a. rapid growth of dendrites during the first few years of life b. high energy that toddlers experience following a nap c. friendliness that infants display prior to the onset of stranger wariness d. rapid growth of axons during the first few years of life ANSWER: a 33. The process through which unused dendrites atrophy and die is called: a. pruning. b. degeneration. c. transitional exuberance. d. myelination.

ANSWER: a 34. Pruning is the process by which _____. a. brain centers are rewired following localized brain damage b. the left hemisphere specializes for language processing c. the frontal lobe disengages from the prefrontal cortex d. unused connections between neurons are eliminated ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 35. _____ is required for normal brain maturation to occur. a. Experience-expectant growth b. Experience-dependent growth c. Self-righting d. Head-sparing ANSWER: a 36. Learning how to play a musical instrument or how to paint on a canvas results from _____. a. experience-expectant growth b. experience-dependent growth c. self-righting d. head-sparing ANSWER: b 37. An abusive caregiver shakes an infant to get her to stop crying. The infant stops crying. Why? a. The infant is so startled by the shaking that she can't cry. b. Blood vessels in her brain rupture and neural connections break. c. Experience has taught her to stop crying. d. The infant's airway is damaged.

ANSWER: b 38. Which of these factors is NOT related to growth during infancy? a. co-sleeping b. genetics c. nutrition d. birthweight ANSWER: a 39. Even though co-sleeping has been associated with poverty, which wealthy nation commonly engages in this practice due to their culture? a. Poland b. Russia c. the United States d. Japan ANSWER: d 40. What is the master endocrine gland? a. pons b. amygdala c. pituitary d. thalamus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 41. Bed-sharing is more common among: a. bottle-fed babies. b. breast-fed babies. c. full-term babies. d. low-birthweight babies.

ANSWER: b 42. Which area of the limbic system is associated with experiencing emotion? a. corpus callosum b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. thalamus ANSWER: b 43. The brain produces many _____, which are chemicals that affect appetite, emotions, and sleep. a. synapses b. hormones c. dendrites d. axons ANSWER: b 44. Which hormone(s) in a mother's bloodstream is(are) crucial during infancy? a. cortisol b. oxytocin c. both cortisol and oxytocin d. neither cortisol nor oxytocin ANSWER: c 45. Increased levels of _____ can disrupt thinking and brain development lifelong. a. cortisol b. oxytocin c. both cortisol and oxytocin d. neither cortisol nor oxytocin ANSWER: a 46. Which hormone is crucial for social bonding? a. cortisol b. oxytocin c. both cortisol and oxytocin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. neither cortisol nor oxytocin ANSWER: b 47. Which of these coordinates movement and balance? a. cerebellum b. auditory cortex c. hippocampus d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: a 48. Which area of the brain is responsible for the conscious processing of sounds? a. cerebellum b. auditory cortex c. hippocampus d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: b 49. Which structure in the limbic system is linked to memory? a. cerebellum b. auditory cortex c. hippocampus d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: c 50. The main information-processing center of the brain is called the: a. cerebellum. b. auditory cortex. c. hippocampus. d. cerebral cortex.

ANSWER: d 51. _____ occurs when a sensation reaches the brain and the person becomes aware of it. a. Perception b. Transduction c. Cognition d. Interpretation ANSWER: a 52. There is evidence that all of these can reduce pain in infancy EXCEPT: a. a drop of sugar. b. calming music.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. loud noises. d. listening to their mother's voice.

ANSWER: c 53. Levon's newborn tends to cry inconsolably for more than three hours each day. Digestive pain, also called _____, which is caused by the gut microbiome may be the best explanation. a. perception b. cluster feeding c. colic d. insecure attachment ANSWER: c 54. The process that first detects an external stimulus is _____. a. perception b. sensation c. interpretation d. cognition ANSWER: b 55. At what point in development is the sense of hearing already quite acute? a. at birth b. by 3 months of age c. by 14 weeks of age d. by 6 months of age ANSWER: a 56. Whenever the eyes, ears, tongue, skin, or mouth detect a stimulus, a(n) _____ has occurred. a. perception b. interpretation c. sensation d. response ANSWER: c 57. You see a beautiful yellow flower while walking through a meadow. Your eyes seeing the flower is a matter of _____. Your brain determining that the flower is yellow is a matter of _____. a. perception; knowing b. sensation; knowing c. perception; sensation d. sensation; perception ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 58. In terms of visual acuity, newborns _____. a. possess 20/20 vision b. are legally blind c. have binocular vision d. exhibit organized visual scanning ANSWER: b 59. The sense that is the least functional at birth is _____. a. hearing b. taste c. vision d. smell ANSWER: c 60. By 3 months of age, babies look closely at the eyes and mouth when studying faces. This change in focus is due to _____. a. increased interest in other humans b. increased awareness of caregivers' identities c. changes in willingness to interact with adults d. improvements in visual scanning ability ANSWER: d 61. Binocular vision refers to the ability to _____. a. focus on objects at a distance b. bring an object in and out of focus c. focus on an object with both eyes d. visually distinguish between similar colors ANSWER: c 62. Binocular vision appears between _____ months of age. a. 2 and 4 b. 6 and 8 c. 10 and 12 d. 14 and 16 ANSWER: a 63. Due to smell recognition, babies prefer to sleep _____. a. alone in a crib with freshly washed sheets b. nuzzled into their caregiver's chest c. near a kitchen while food is being prepared d. in the room in which they were born Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 64. Newborns' sense of touch allows them to _____. a. determine who is touching them b. be comforted by their caregiver c. feel no pain d. make up for their lack of hearing at birth ANSWER: b 65. The ability to move and control some parts of the body is referred to as "_____." a. instinct b. facilitation c. motor skill d. reflex ANSWER: c 66. Gross motor skills are _____. a. head motions b. small movements c. large movements d. feet motions ANSWER: c 67. Large movements that coordinate many parts of the body are known as "_____ motor skills." a. athletic b. fine c. primitive d. gross ANSWER: d 68. By _____ months of age, around 50 percent of babies can usually sit up unsupported. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: c 69. The _____ growth trend means "head-down." a. cephalocaudal b. proximodistal c. experience-dependent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. experience-expectant ANSWER: a 70. The _____ growth trend means "center-out." a. cephalocaudal b. proximodistal c. experience-dependent d. experience-expectant ANSWER: b 71. On average, which skill does an infant develop last? a. pulling up onto feet b. standing alone without holding on c. sitting without support d. standing while holding on ANSWER: b 72. On average, which skill does an infant develop first? a. running b. walking backward c. walking well d. jumping ANSWER: c 73. By _____ months of age, 90 percent of babies can crawl. a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANSWER: c 74. On average, children begin to walk well at approximately _____ of age. a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 2 years ANSWER: b 75. Between _____ months of age, most infants can lift their midsections and crawl on "all fours." a. 8 and 10 b. 10 and 12 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. 12 and 14 d. 14 and 16 ANSWER: a 76. Which of these are required for the ability to sit? a. muscle strength, parental teaching, practice b. brain maturation, parental teaching, muscle strength c. parental teaching, practice, brain maturation d. muscles steadying the torso, brain maturation, practice ANSWER: d 77. Ljubo's father has been helping them to walk by holding their hands and supporting them. Ljubo's legs are strong enough to hold them up, and they're able to move their legs in a coordinated way as long as their father supports them. What else does Ljubo need in order to walk independently? a. muscle strength b. brain maturation c. practice d. fine motor skills ANSWER: c 78. Mina started walking when they were 10 months old. Zoticus is just beginning to take their first steps at 13 months. Which conclusion is MOST likely true? a. Mina is more intelligent than Zoticus. b. Zoticus is malnourished. c. Zoticus is physically handicapped. d. Both children are developing normally.

ANSWER: d 79. Fine motor skills are _____. a. head motions b. small movements c. large movements d. foot motions ANSWER: b 80. Small movements made by fingers and toes are called _____ motor skills. a. athletic b. reflexive c. fine d. gross ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 81. Fine motor skills are those that _____. a. develop as a result of brain damage b. require practice c. require small body movements d. use three or more muscles ANSWER: c 82. Baby Melech can grab objects, but sometimes they close their hand too early or too late. Melech is probably around _____ months old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: b 83. Most babies learn to grasp and hold onto objects by about _____ months old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: c 84. In 2020, worldwide, one infant in _____ died before the age of 12 months. a. 14 b. 40 c. 56 d. 62 ANSWER: b 85. One effect of lower infant mortality rate is _____. a. an increase in teenage birthrates b. fewer babies per mother c. less maternal education d. weaker national economies ANSWER: b 86. Clean water, immunizations, and nourishing food have all had a dramatic impact on _____. a. infant and child mortality b. maternal education levels c. population control d. marriage rates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 87. Based on research about SIDS, caregivers are advised that babies should be _____. a. put to sleep on their backs b. put to sleep on their stomachs c. kept in a very warm bedroom d. fed right before being put to bed ANSWER: a 88. Susan Beal hypothesized that _____ played a role in SIDS deaths. a. birth order b. ethnicity c. sleeping position d. parents' genes ANSWER: c 89. When the immune system is primed to resist a particular disease, the process is called "_____." a. exuberance b. immunization c. pertussis d. head-sparing ANSWER: b 90. The most lethal disease for children in the past was _____. a. polio b. smallpox c. rubella d. anencephaly ANSWER: b 91. When children are immunized, they contribute to the protection of others. This is referred to as "_____." a. community immunity b. vaccinating c. herd immunity d. failure to thrive ANSWER: c 92. _____ is the thick, high-calorie fluid that is secreted by a new mother's breasts in the days immediately following birth. a. Collodion b. Colostrum Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. Breast milk d. Glucose ANSWER: b 93. Breast milk _____. a. is deficient in iron and vitamin C b. is more likely than formula to produce allergies c. provides antibodies to fight diseases d. upsets the baby's digestive system more than formula ANSWER: c 94. Why are breast-fed babies less likely to contract infectious diseases than bottle-fed babies? a. They are less likely to come in contact with viruses and bacteria. b. Breasts are more sterile than bottles. c. Breast milk contains antibodies. d. Most breast-fed babies don't leave the home often.

ANSWER: c 95. Studies comparing breast-feeding to bottle-feeding show that _____. a. breast-fed babies have fewer allergies and stomach aches b. breast-feeding is recommended for about half of all mothers c. recent improvements in formula make bottle-feeding more nutritious than breast milk d. breast-feeding should end as soon as a baby gets a tooth ANSWER: a 96. Chema returned to full-time employment six weeks after their baby's birth. Chema exclusively breast-fed during maternity leave, and then pumped breast milk when they returned to work. Now their baby is 3 months old and drinks some formula when at daycare. Chema wants to stop breast-feeding. If you were a pediatric nurse, what would you say to Chema? a. They can quit breast-feeding since all of its benefits are achieved within the first three months. b. They should quit breast-feeding since it is only beneficial if the baby doesn't drink any formula. c. They should keep breast-feeding until the baby begins to eat solid foods, which is the point at which breast milk loses its nutritional value. d. They should keep breast-feeding as long as possible since breast-fed babies are less likely to get sick.

ANSWER: d 97. A child who is too short for their age due to severe malnutrition is suffering from a condition called "_____." a. stunting b. marasmus c. wasting d. protein calorie malnutrition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 98. When a child is more than two standard deviations underweight for their age, the child is suffering from a condition called "_____." a. stunting b. wasting c. marasmus d. protein calorie malnutrition ANSWER: b 99. Phaidra is 2 years old and does not have enough food. As a result, they have unusual swelling in their face and abdomen, and thin, colorless hair. Phaidra is suffering from _____. a. kwashiorkor b. marasmus c. rickets d. hypoglycemia ANSWER: a 100. Asaph lives in Africa. They are 9 months old and do not weigh enough due to malnutrition. Their tissues are wasting away. Asaph suffers from _____. a. rickets b. hypoglycemia c. kwashiorkor d. marasmus ANSWER: d 101. The U.S. stillborn rate from March 2020 to September 2021 was _____ if the birthing parent did not have COVID-19 and 2 in 150 if they did. a. 1 in 50 b. 2 in 75 c. 1 in 150 d. 3 in 75 ANSWER: c 102. A condition in which a person does not consume sufficient food of any kind which can result in serious illness, severe weight loss, and even death is called: a. protein-calorie malnutrition. b. wasting. c. stunting. d. sudden infant death syndrome.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Essay 1. Explain gaze-following during infancy and provide an example.

ANSWER: Very young babies focus on their caregivers' attention via gaze-following, instinctively knowing that what caregivers look at might tell them something important. For example, following adults' lead, they look at the face of someone entering the room, ignoring the ceiling, the floor, or the person's feet.

Describes gazefollowing

Good (5 pts.)

Describes gazefollowing accurately

Provides an example Gives an example of of gaze-following gaze-following

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes gazeDoes not describe following but does not gaze-following do so accurately Provides an incorrect Does not include an example of gazeexample of gazefollowing following

2. Explain infant amnesia and its relation to implicit and explicit memory.

ANSWER: Piaget, Freud, and other early developmentalists described infant amnesia, the idea that people forget everything that happened to them before age 2. An insight regarding infant amnesia begins with the distinction between implicit and explicit memory. Adults have few, if any, explicit memories of their first years, but they have implicit memories. Implicit memories are not verbal; they are memories for movement, emotions, or impulses that were never put into words. Implicit memory comes from old parts of the brain—including the cerebellum and the amygdala. Those brain parts develop in the first months of life. Explicit memory takes longer to emerge, as it depends on language. It arises mainly from the cortex. Explicit memory improves dramatically throughout childhood. Verbal memory, especially vocabulary, continues to increase throughout adulthood.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains infant Clearly explains infant Partly explains infant amnesia amnesia amnesia Explains the Clearly explains the Partly explains the relationship between relationship between relationship between infant amnesia and infant amnesia and infant amnesia and implicit and explicit implicit and explicit implicit and explicit memory memory memory

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain infant amnesia Does not explain the relationship between infant amnesia and implicit and explicit memory

3. Briefly describe the first three stages of sensorimotor intelligence, including the length of each stage. For each stage, give an example of an infant's behavior.

ANSWER: Stage One: Reflexes. These include all of the reflex actions apparent at birth (such as staring, listening, sucking, and grasping) and lasts for the first month of life. Example: sucking anything that touches the lips or cheek.

Stage Two: The First Acquired Adaptations. This stage lasts from ages 1 to 4 months and includes behaviors such as thumb sucking, through which the infant learns the limits of their own body.

Stage Three: Making Interesting Sights Last. This stage covers 4 to 8 months of age. The behaviors include those through which the infant interacts with things in the environment, such as shaking a rattle, clapping hands, and kicking to make a crib mobile move.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes the first Names the first three Describes two of the Does not describe at three stages of stages, gives the first three stages and least two stages or sensorimotor length, and describes gives their lengths name them intelligence what occurs in each without including the stage name of each stage Gives an example of Gives an example of Gives an example of Gives an example of what an infant does what an infant does in what an infant does in what an infant does in in each stage (shown each stage two stages one or no stage in boldface above)

4. Briefly describe stages four through six of sensorimotor intelligence, including the length of each stage. For each stage, give an example of an infant's behavior.

ANSWER: Stage Four: New Adaptation and Anticipation. This stage lasts from 8 to 12 months of age and includes goal-directed behaviors. Infants become more deliberate and purposeful in responding to people and objects. An example is putting a mother's hands together in order to make her start playing patty-cake.

Stage Five: New Means Through Active Experimentation (Little Scientist). This stage lasts from 12 to 18 months of age. An example includes putting a teddy bear in the toilet and flushing it.

Stage Six: New Means Through Mental Combinations. In this stage, lasting from 18 to 24 months of age, toddlers are able to think about the consequences of various actions mentally without actually having to perform them (such as recalling that they got in trouble the last time they flushed Teddy down the toilet and thus refrain from flushing something else).

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes stages 4–6 Names the three Describes two of the Does not describe at of sensorimotor stages, gives the three stages and gives least two stages or intelligence length, and describes their lengths without name them what occurs in each including the name of stage each stage Gives an example of Gives an example of Gives an example of Gives an example of what an infant does what an infant does in what an infant does in what an infant does in in each stage (shown each stage two stages one or no stages in boldface above)

5. Define object permanence and when it begins. Describe how it is measured in laboratory settings and how it can be revealed in informal settings.

ANSWER: Object permanence is a child's awareness that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight. It begins around the age of 8 months. In a laboratory, it is tested by showing a baby an object, and then covering it with a cloth. Babies who have achieved object permanence will remove the cloth to reveal the object. In more casual settings, it is revealed by a baby looking for an object or person who is not in the room.

Defines object

Good (5 pts.)

Defines object

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines object

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define object Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Essay permanence and when it starts Describes how it is measured

permanence and when permanence or when permanence or when it starts it starts it starts Describes how it is Describes how it is Does not describe how measured in a lab and measured in a it is measured in a lab informal setting lab or informal setting or informal setting

6. Identify two ways in which memories are particularly evident in young babies. According to Carolyn RoveeCollier, under what circumstances can 3-month-olds remember a behavior after two weeks?

ANSWER: Memories are particularly evident if retrieval is strengthened by reminders and repetition. In an experiment conducted by Carolyn Rovee-Collier, 3-month-olds could remember after two weeks if they were given a reminder before being retested—that is, a perceptual experience that helps a person recollect an idea, a thing, or an experience.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Identifies two ways Identifies two ways in Identifies one way in in which memories which memories are which memories are are evident in young evident in young evident in young babies babies babies Explains how a Explains how a Indicates that a reminder session can reminder session can reminder session can help 3-month-olds help 3-month-olds help 3-month-olds remember after two remember after two remember after two weeks weeks weeks, but does not explain what it looks like

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not identify a way in which memories are evident in young babies Does not indicate or explain that a reminder session can help 3-month-olds remember after two weeks

7. Describe the five stages of spoken language development from birth until the first birthday.

ANSWER: Newborn: Reflexive—cries, movements, facial expressions.

2 months: Meaningful noises—cooing, fussing, crying, laughing.

3–6 months: New sounds—squeals, growls, croons, trills, vowel sounds.

6–10 months: Babbling—consonant and vowel sounds in repeated syllables.

10–12 months: Comprehension of simple words; speech-like intonations; specific vocalizations that have meaning to those who know the infant well. (Deaf babies express their first signs; hearing babies also use specific gestures [e.g., pointing] to communicate.)

Identifies the five stages of spoken language at 0–12 months Describes the five stages

Good (5 pts.)

Identifies the five stages

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies four stages Identifies three or fewer stages

Briefly describes each Briefly describes four Briefly describes three of the stages of the stages of the stages

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Essay 8. Describe the five stages of spoken language development from the first to second birthday.

ANSWER: 12 months: First spoken words that are recognizably part of the native language.

13–18 months: Slow growth of vocabulary, up to about 50 words.

18 months: Naming explosion—three or more words learned per day. Much variation: Some toddlers do not yet speak.

21 months: First two-word sentence.

24 months: Multiword sentences: Half of toddler's utterances are two or more words long.

Identifies the five stages of spoken language at 12–24 months Describes the five stages

Good (5 pts.)

Identifies the five stages

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies four stages Identifies three or fewer stages

Briefly describes each Briefly describes four Briefly describes three of the stages of the stages of the stages

9. How do the views of B. F. Skinner and Noam Chomsky differ in their explanations of infant language acquisition? Explain each view, and indicate which view seems more accurate to you.

ANSWER: Noticing that an infant's first babbles are reinforced with smiles, repetition of the sound, and other forms of attention, Skinner believed that parents' responses reinforce the development of speech in their babies. In Skinner's behavioral theory, parents and other caregivers are teachers of language. In contrast, Chomsky believed that infants are born with an innate language acquisition device (LAD) that equips them to learn language on their own. According to his view, language learning is the result of neurological maturity.

Contrasts views of Skinner and Chomsky Defends one of the viewpoints

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains both Explains one Cannot explain either researchers' researcher's viewpoint researcher's viewpoint viewpoints Defends one of the Defends one of the Does not choose a viewpoints and gives a viewpoints without viewpoint or fails to reason giving a reason give a reason for choosing a viewpoint

10. Aminata is the parent of 10-month-old Halim. They have heard that programs like Baby Einstein help advance cognitive development in infants and toddlers. Aminata has also downloaded several learning apps for the iPad. According to research on infant exposure to screen time, would you advise Aminata to buy Baby Einstein and have Halim interact with the learning apps? Why or why not? Give at least two reasons to support your answer.

ANSWER: Research indicates that videos, television programs, and applications fail to teach infants the skills they claim to teach. In fact, many scientists believe the opposite. One study actually found that infants exposed to Baby Einstein actually showed delays in language, when compared to other babies. Therefore, Aminata should avoid using these products with Halim.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Essay Offers advice to Offers two reasons Offers one reason why Offers no valid reason Aminata that reflects why the program and the program and apps why the software and current research apps shouldn't be used shouldn't be used apps shouldn't be purchased or indicates that the programs should be used

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 1. Babies are referred to as _____ because they hear the differences in any language. a. developmentalists b. cognitive maturists c. universalists d. primal ANSWER: c 2. By one year of age, babies' ability to distinguish sounds in never-heard languages: a. improves greatly. b. stays the same. c. enhances. d. deteriorates.

ANSWER: d 3. When Gaz was a baby, they attended to all linguistic sounds. Now as an adult, they cannot hear sound differences that are important in languages they have never learned. This is evidence for: a. universalism. b. entrainment. c. core knowledge. d. priming.

ANSWER: b 4. Researchers showed pictures of 17 common objects to babies from English-speaking families while the babies were listening to the names of the objects at the same time. The researchers found that by one year of age, the babies had learned the correct English pronunciation of the common objects. This study demonstrates that one-year-olds already know the accepted way to pronounce words and that: a. babies are primed to learn language. b. language learning has to be taught. c. learning more than one language is problematic for infants. d. bilingualism has multiple benefits for cognition.

ANSWER: a 5. Very young babies focus on their caregivers' attention. This is referred to as: a. gaze-following. b. core knowledge. c. cognitive maturation. d. natural pedagogy.

ANSWER: a 6. What is evident when caregivers direct the baby's gaze, calling their name, pointing to an object, and so on? a. universalism b. natural pedagogy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. cognitive maturation d. core knowledge ANSWER: b 7. Which of these is NOT a way in which caregivers demonstrate natural pedagogy with their infants? a. calling their name b. pointing to an object c. referencing another person d. focusing on reflexes ANSWER: d 8. Which of these does NOT demonstrate that babies have a basic understanding of physics? a. babies staring longer at a ball suspended in the air b. babies staring longer at a toy that then becomes two toys c. babies staring longer when a toy has disappeared d. babies staring longer when an adult calls their name ANSWER: d 9. The basic understanding of how the world works that infants are born with is called _____. a. universalism b. core knowledge c. cognitive maturation d. natural pedagogy ANSWER: b 10. What is prosopagnosia? a. face blindness b. the own-race effect c. the same-race effect d. face recognition ANSWER: a 11. Shanta is an infant and, compared to both children and adults, is quicker to recognize a face that they have seen just once. This is related to which section of the brain? a. somatosensory cortex b. parietal lobe c. somatomotor cortex d. fusiform face area ANSWER: d 12. Babies have been shown to distinguish among faces from their own ethnic group. This is known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. the same-race effect. b. innate racism. c. the own-race effect. d. implicit bias.

ANSWER: c 13. Persistent effort, also called _____, has been found to foster learning throughout life. a. core knowledge b. natural pedagogy c. GRIT d. motivation ANSWER: c 14. When infants get on the same train of thought and language of others in their community, what has occurred? a. universalism b. gaze-following c. entrainment d. bilingualism ANSWER: c 15. Which of these includes the understanding that gravity makes objects fall, moving objects are stopped by a solid wall, and adult gaze signals important information? a. prosopagnosia b. core knowledge c. universalism d. entrainment ANSWER: b 16. Memories for movement, emotions, or impulses are called: a. implicit memories. b. iconic memories. c. echoic memories. d. explicit memories.

ANSWER: a 17. Vairya is in the hospital just after giving birth to their first baby, and is hoping to be able to breast-feed.

Immediately after birth, Vairya put the baby to their breast but the baby was not interested in nursing. Later, while Vairya was sleeping, the baby began to cry and a nurse bottle-fed the newborn. What is likely to happen when Vairya tries to breast-feed their infant again? a. The baby will reject the breast. b. The baby will nurse easily.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. The baby will likely want to gaze at Vairya instead. d. The baby will cry, wanting the nurse that bottle-fed them earlier instead of Vairya.

ANSWER: a 18. Toivo is a 3-month-old infant participating in an experiment. They are lying in a crib with one end of a ribbon tied to their foot and the other end tied to a mobile dangling over the crib. Toivo quickly learns that they control the movement of the mobile with kicking. A few days later, the researchers return, tie the ribbon to their foot, and hang the mobile above the crib. Immediately, Toivo starts vigorously kicking their leg. What does this experiment demonstrate? a. Three-month-olds can remember actions for at least a week. b. Three-month-olds can relearn the kicking strategy very quickly at the second test. c. Kicking behavior is very easy to learn. d. Mobiles are very interesting to 3-month-olds.

ANSWER: a 19. Studies on infant memory have shown that infants can remember if the researchers _____. a. use situations that are different from real life b. do not let the baby move during the memory event c. use highly emotional events d. use special measures to aid memory retrieval, such as reminders ANSWER: d 20. The fact that 3-month-olds do not spontaneously remember a kicking strategy that they learned two weeks earlier suggests that _____. a. infant amnesia is a valid term b. infants cannot remember anything for a long period of time c. infant memory is fragile d. mobiles do not induce very durable memories ANSWER: c 21. Research has found that during the first month of life, the primary means of communication is _____. a. blinking b. reflexive c. babbling d. cooing ANSWER: b 22. The idea that we forget everything that happened to us before the age of three is known as: a. own-race effect. b. infant amnesia. c. cognitive maturation. d. implicit knowledge.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. _____ memory is nonverbal, whereas _____ memory depends on language. a. Implicit; explicit b. Explicit; implicit c. Short-term; long-term d. Long-term; short-term ANSWER: a 24. Infant amnesia applies to: a. all memory before the age of 3 years. b. only explicit memories before the age of 3 years. c. only implicit memories before the age of 3 years. d. only unconscious memories before the age of 3 years.

ANSWER: b 25. Piaget called an infant's first period of cognitive development "_____." a. sensorimotor intelligence b. adaptation c. object awareness d. imitative learning ANSWER: a 26. Infants in the sensorimotor stage _____. a. learn to use language to express sensations b. think of past and future events c. use senses and motor skills to understand the world d. think logically and critically ANSWER: c 27. Piaget believed children begin to develop cognitively at _____. a. birth b. 3 months c. 1 year d. 18 months ANSWER: a 28. Stage one in Piaget's sensorimotor period is defined as _____. a. the stage of reflexes b. making interesting sights last c. first acquired adaptations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. new adaptation and anticipation ANSWER: a 29. When 1-week-old Marinka feels too warm, they reflexively cry. According to Piaget, Marinka is in which stage of the sensorimotor period? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: a 30. In Piaget's terminology, sensorimotor stage two is described as _____. a. the stage of reflexes b. first acquired adaptations c. making interesting sights last d. new adaptation and anticipation ANSWER: b 31. Lina has been sucking their thumb for a few weeks. Their parents would prefer Lina to use a pacifier, so they begin to offer one, but Lina rejects it and continues to suck their thumb. Lina is at which stage of Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 32. In which of Piaget's sensorimotor stages do infants respond to people and objects and seek to make interesting events last? a. stage one b. stage two c. stage three d. stage four ANSWER: c 33. Deana asks their infant, "Do you want to play patty-cake?" The baby responds by clapping their hands. This demonstrates which stage of sensorimotor development? a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 34. In which of Piaget's sensorimotor stages do infants adapt, anticipate, and become more deliberate in responding to people and objects? a. stage one b. stage two c. stage three d. stage four ANSWER: d 35. Justyn and their father have been playing patty-cake, but their father is now trying to engage Justyn in a picture book. Justyn wants to play patty-cake again, so they grab their father's 'hands and puts them together as if in a clap. Justyn is clearly in stage _____ of sensorimotor development. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: d 36. The first of Piaget's sensorimotor stages that involves an infant's interaction with something else is stage _____. a. one b. two c. three d. five ANSWER: c 37. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might best be described as _____. a. deliberate b. experimental c. creative d. anxious ANSWER: a 38. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might best be described as _____. a. goal oriented b. redundant c. stubborn d. unintentional ANSWER: a 39. An example of stage-three sensorimotor behavior is _____. a. thumb sucking and self-soothing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. looking for a smile and smiling back c. searching for a teddy bear hidden under a blanket d. trying to dress like Mommy or Daddy ANSWER: b 40. Sensorimotor stage four is the stage of _____. a. making interesting sights last b. new means through active experimentation c. new means through mental combinations d. new adaptation and anticipation ANSWER: d 41. Stage _____ of sensorimotor development is characterized by trying to continue an experience, whereas stage _____ is characterized by initiating and anticipating events. a. one; two b. two; three c. three; four d. four; five ANSWER: c 42. Baby Zakaria enjoys playing with their mom's keys, but when their mom takes them away, Zakaria does not search for them. Piaget would say that is because Zakaria does not understand _____. a. conservation b. object permanence c. egocentrism d. affordances ANSWER: b 43. _____ is the understanding that objects continue to exist when they cannot be seen. a. Object permanence b. Acquired adaptation c. Mental representation d. Object continuity ANSWER: a 44. Which of these behaviors indicates that Drake has grasped the concept of "object permanence"? a. Drake laughs when a sibling makes faces. b. Drake grasps a rattle and bangs it on the floor. c. Drake willingly lets go of an object. d. Drake searches for a toy that has fallen from sight.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 45. Piaget referred to toddlers in sensorimotor stage five as _____. a. little heathens b. tertiary infants c. little scientists d. blank slates ANSWER: c 46. According to Piaget, a child in stage five of sensorimotor development is like a _____. a. child in the "terrible twos" b. childish teenager who wants their way all of the time c. perfectionist who must do everything right d. scientist who experiments to see what will happen ANSWER: d 47. Renat is fascinated with the toilet. So far, their parents have caught them trying to flush a stuffed animal, a toy cell phone, and a handful of dog food. Which sensorimotor stage is Renat MOST likely in, according to Piaget? a. stage three b. stage four c. stage five d. stage six ANSWER: c 48. Piaget's sixth stage of sensorimotor intelligence is known as the stage of "_____." a. mental combinations b. interesting observations c. primary reactions d. new adaptation and anticipation ANSWER: a 49. Research indicates that infants reach the stages of Piaget's sensorimotor intelligence _____ Piaget originally predicted. a. earlier than b. later than c. at the same time as d. in a different sequence than ANSWER: a 50. Sinann is a 4-month-old infant whose father uses a high-pitched voice, simple words or phrases, and lots of repetition when they speak. Sinann will likely react with: a. attention.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. emotion. c. both attention and emotion. d. neither attention nor emotion.

ANSWER: c 51. The usual order of the development of spoken language in an infant is _____. a. cooing, babbling, reflexes, and spoken words b. reflexes, cooing, babbling, and spoken words c. babbling, cooing, spoken words, and reflexes d. cooing, reflexes, babbling, and spoken words ANSWER: b 52. _____ is experience-expectant; all babies engage in it. a. Sign language b. Waving c. Babbling d. The use of holophrases ANSWER: c 53. Tyrik spontaneously says things such as "mamamamamama" and "dadadadadadada." About how old is Tyrik likely to be? a. 2 months b. 3–6 months c. 6–10 months d. 10–12 months ANSWER: c 54. Nasira is 8 months old, and they settle down quickly and listen raptly while their dad sings "The Itsy Bitsy Spider." What factor BEST accounts for Nasira's interest in this song? a. They remember the story and loves how it ends. b. They don't remember the story, so the end is always exciting. c. They love the rhymes and repetition. d. They love the simple plot line.

ANSWER: c 55. Which of these is a development that requires understanding another person's perspective? a. babbling b. cooing c. naming d. pointing ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 56. Infants' repetition of certain syllables at the age of about 6 or 7 months is called _____. a. cooing b. holophrasing c. gurgling d. babbling ANSWER: d 57. Britta has begun repeating syllables such as "da-da-da-da" and "me-me-me-me-me." Britta is in the _____ stage of language development. a. cooing b. holophrasing c. gurgling d. babbling ANSWER: d 58. On average, children begin saying recognizable words at around _____ months of age. a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 ANSWER: c 59. Margie just started saying single words such as "mama" and "doggie." About how old is Margie likely to be? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 24 months ANSWER: c 60. Ranj has begun uttering one-word holophrases (e.g., "Dada!"). About how old is Ranj likely to be? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years ANSWER: c 61. The term holophrase is used to denote _____. a. a word that is empty of meaning b. the infant's use of one word to express a whole thought Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. the relationship of object permanence to language development d. the use of two words to take the place of one ANSWER: b 62. Amarante uses the word "more" to mean "I want another cookie." In this case, "more" is a(n) _____. a. holophrase b. preverbal communication c. overextension d. reflexive communication ANSWER: a 63. Babies understand about _____ times more words than they can say. a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: c 64. Spoken vocabulary builds rapidly once the first _____ words are mastered. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 ANSWER: b 65. Darius is learning the terms of two or three new objects or events every day. This rapid increase in language is referred to as the _____ explosion. a. naming b. vocabulary c. object d. cognitive ANSWER: a 66. At approximately what age will a child begin to combine three words? a. 10 months b. 12 months c. 16 months d. 24 months ANSWER: d 67. Sasa is a typically developing toddler. By age _____ months, Sasa should be able to combine two words, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice such as, "Daddy bye-bye." a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 ANSWER: d 68. The methods that languages use to communicate meaning are collectively known as _____. a. grammar b. sentence structure c. speech patterns d. syntax ANSWER: a 69. Brigid is a speech and language therapist. When conducting an assessment on a child with speech or language concerns, Brigid first records the average number of words in the child's typical sentence. They also use this technique to monitor a child's language progress over time. Brigid is relying on _____. a. subjective data b. biofeedback c. mean length of utterance d. the language acquisition device ANSWER: c 70. By 10 months of age, Josselin has a vocabulary of a dozen words. Behaviorist Skinner would have attributed Josselin's rapid speech development mainly to _____. a. exposure to child-directed speech b. an unusual language-acquisition talent c. the amount their parents talk to them d. rapid physical development ANSWER: c 71. Heinz uses incorrect word forms such as "ain't" and incorrect grammar such as "I don't got none." What would behaviorist B. F. Skinner say was the source of Heinz's poor language development? a. delayed cognitive development b. lack of innate language ability c. parents rewarded incorrect language use d. parents ignored incorrect language use ANSWER: c 72. Which statement supports the sociocultural perspective of language learning? a. Toddlers learn new words best by hearing an adult say a new word as they play with an unrelated object.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. Toddlers learn new words best when they are taught in person. c. Toddlers learn new words best in a group setting. d. Toddlers learn new words best by watching others talk.

ANSWER: b 73. Leofric's father often lets their 6-month-old baby watch Baby Einstein videos. According to research on language and video exposure, what is Leofric likely learning from this program? a. how to count b. how to read c. new vocabulary words d. very little ANSWER: d 74. When does it first become obvious that a person has discerned the rules of their native language? a. when the person learns a second language b. when the person is able to read and write c. when the person starts using two-word sentences d. once the person's sentences contain a subject, verb, and object ANSWER: c 75. According to Chomsky's theory of language acquisition, _____. a. children learn language through a complex process of imitation and reinforcement b. children have an inborn ability to learn language c. children learn language through a series of social interactions d. language learning utilizes one particular structure in the brain ANSWER: b 76. The language acquisition device (LAD) was proposed by Chomsky to explain _____. a. children's vocabulary spurts b. the difference between surface structure and deep structure c. the systematic differences among languages d. children's ability to derive the rules of grammar quickly and effectively ANSWER: d 77. Zlota is a 21-month-old who has just begun to make two-word sentences. Their sentences already reveal the grammar of their native language, as they order their nouns and verbs in the order that mature speakers of their language use. Chomsky would attribute Zlota's quick acquisition of grammatical rules to their_____. a. intelligence b. parents' correct use of grammar c. language acquisition device d. receiving reinforcement for proper language use Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 78. According to Noam Chomsky's theory, _____ is deaf infants' particular expression of the universal language acquisition device. a. avoidance of a speaker's gaze b. signing c. the holophrase d. cooing ANSWER: b 79. A toddler's ability to see an action and repeat it later themselves is called _____, according to Piaget. a. deferred imitation b. infant amnesia c. object permanence d. acquired adaptation ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Essay 1. List and define two types of social fear most commonly seen in infants and toddlers.

ANSWER: Two types of social fear include 1) separation anxiety—an infant's distress when a familiar caregiver leaves; most obvious between 9 and 14 months; and 2) stranger wariness—an infant's expression of concern (e.g., a look of fear or a quiet stare while clinging to a familiar person) when a stranger appears.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists and defines two Lists and defines two Lists and defines one Does not list or define types of social fear types of social fear type of social fear either type of social most commonly seen fear in infants and toddlers 2. Identify four emotions that require social awareness. From where does social awareness typically emerge?

What role does culture play in the development of self-awareness?

ANSWER: Common toddler emotions that require social awareness include 1) pride, 2) shame, 3) jealousy, 4) embarrassment, 5) disgust, and 6) guilt. Such awareness typically emerges from family interactions.

Culture is also crucial in the development of self-awareness, with independence considered a value in some families but not in others.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify four Identifies four Identifies two Does not identify any emotions that require emotions that require emotions that require emotions or indicate social awareness, social awareness, social awareness, that family noting that family noting that family noting that family interactions contribute interactions interactions contribute interactions contribute contribute Explain the role of Explains the role of Partially explains the Does not explain the culture in selfculture in selfrole of culture in self- role of culture in selfawareness awareness awareness awareness

3. Describe synchrony and examine its role in infant development. Give three outcomes that may occur if little or no synchrony is established between the infant and their caregiver.

ANSWER: Synchrony is a coordinated interaction between infant and caregiver that develops through ongoing experiences. Infant and caregiver learn to read each other's signals, expressions, and gestures.

Synchrony is 1) the root of attachment and 2) helps infants learn to take turns and 3) pay attention.

Infants need responsive caregivers to develop normally; little or no synchrony makes it 4) difficult for infants to connect to people and 5) struggle to form attachments.

Describe synchrony and its role in development Give three potential outcomes without

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes synchrony Describes Does not describe and its role in synchrony or its role synchrony or its role development in development in development Tells three negative Tells two negative Does not tell at least outcomes caused by a outcomes caused by a two negative

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Essay synchrony

lack of synchrony

lack of synchrony

outcomes caused by a lack of synchrony

4. Briefly discuss three predictors of secure attachment in infants.

ANSWER: Predictors of secure attachment include: 1) the parent's sensitivity and responsiveness to the infant's needs; 2) a high level of infant–caregiver synchrony; 3) the temperament of the infant; 4) low household stress; and 5) the caregiver's secure attachment to their own parents.

Good (5 pts.)

Discuss three Discusses three predictors of secure predictors from the attachment list above

Fair (3 pts.)

Discusses two predictors from the list above

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discusses one or no predictors from the list above

5. One-year-old Laios is playing in the living room with their parent. Suddenly, loud music blares from the apartment next door. Using the concept of "social referencing," explain how Laios will respond. Be sure to include what will determine if Laios reacts negatively or positively to the sudden noise.

ANSWER: Laios will immediately look to their parent to see how they respond, which is called social referencing. If the parent looks scared or angry, Laios will likely cry and become angry as well.

However, if the parent remains calm and reassuring, Laios will likely resume their play.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explain how Laios Predicts Laios's Predicts Laios's will respond, using response and explains response without the concept of social what will determine a relating it to the referencing positive versus a father's response negative reaction

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not predict the child's response or relate it to the father's response

6. Compare and contrast Freud's view and the behaviorist view on early childhood personality development.

ANSWER: From the perspective of behaviorism, emotions and personality are molded as parents reinforce or punish a child. Behaviorists also acknowledge that children's personalities are influenced by social learning from other significant people in the environment. Freud, however, believed that unconscious processes are the sole factors that influence personality. These are shaped through the child's early interactions, especially with parents.

Compare the two perspectives

Good (5 pts.)

Details each perspective

Fair (3 pts.)

Details one perspective or the other

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Details neither perspective or confuses the two

7. Define proximal and distal parenting practices. What are the outcomes of each type? What motivates parents to engage in one type over the other?

ANSWER: Proximal parenting involves close body contact with the child while distal parenting focuses more on the child's intellect. Proximal parenting results in compliance and interdependence. Distal parenting results in greater self-awareness and independence. Parenting styles are most motivated by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Essay cultural expectations and parents' perceptions of what their children need in order to be successful in their society.

Good (5 pts.)

Define parenting Defines both practices and outcomes parenting practices and their outcomes

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines either parenting practice and its outcome

Know the motivation underlying parenting practices

Is vague about the motivation

Knows the cultural/societal motivation

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define either parenting practice and its outcome or confuses them Does not know the motivation

8. What is a working model, and how does a 1-year-old child develop one? Give an example of how a working model could change from negative to positive over time.

ANSWER: A working model is a set of assumptions a child makes that becomes a frame of reference for later life. It is called "working" because although it is used as the lens through which the child views the world, it can be modified based on one's life experiences. A 1-year-old child will develop a working model based on responses from parents and other significant people in their life. They will apply this model to other situations. For example, if a child initially developed a model that is negative— such as that people are unpredictable—based on parents with inconsistent responses, the model can later be reorganized based on subsequent, more positive, experiences.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define a working Defines a working Defines a working model and tell how it model and tells how it model or tells how it is developed develops develops Give an example of Gives an example that Gives a vague how it can change clearly shows how a example or doesn't from negative to negative working clearly show the positive model can become transition from positive negative to positive

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define working model or tell how it develops Does not give an example or gives an example that goes from positive to negative

9. Explain the evolutionary approach to understanding how infants' early emotions are essential to their survival.

ANSWER: Infants are dependent for a long period of time and therefore must attract adult attention just to survive. For example, infant smiles and laughter engage adults—especially parents. Infants also strive to maintain proximity to their caregivers by fussing and crying when their parent leaves the room or doesn't pay attention, and by clapping and cooing during interactions with parents.

Evolutionary theory says that children do all these things in order to create the parent–child bond necessary for them to survive and thrive.

Good (5 pts.)

Describe Describes evolutionary theory evolutionary theory regarding infant regarding infant emotions emotions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Is vague about the fact Does not state that that infants strive to infants strive to engage adults for engage adults for survival purposes survival purposes Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Essay

10. Chel and Refik are the parents of 8-week-old Ciro. Both parents work and Chel is planning to return to their job full-time next month. Chel and Refik are visiting day-care centers to see what works best for their family.

Describe five characteristics that Chel and Refik should look for to determine if a center is high quality and a good fit for Ciro.

ANSWER: High-quality care during infancy has five essential characteristics: 1) adequate attention to each infant A small community of infants needs two reliable, familiar, loving caregivers. Continuity of care is crucial.

2) encouragement of language and sensorimotor development Infants need language, including songs, conversations, and positive talk, and easily manipulated toys.

3) attention to health and safety Cleanliness routines, accident prevention, and safe areas to explore are essential.

4) professional caregivers Caregivers should have experience and degrees/certificates in early-childhood education. Turnover should be low, morale high, and enthusiasm evident.

5) warm and responsive caregivers Providers should engage the children in active play and guide them in problem solving. Quiet, obedient children may indicate unresponsive care.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe five Describes five Describes three Describes two or characteristics of characteristics of high- characteristics of high- fewer characteristics high-quality day care quality day care quality day care of high-quality day care

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 1. About _____ percent of babies are said to have colic, which is crying inconsolably for several hours, on several later afternoons each week. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 35 ANSWER: c 2. Tang is a 3-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors has probably just appeared? a. distress b. laughter c. social smile d. fear ANSWER: b 3. Which of these emotions is the last to develop in an infant? a. fear of strangers b. anger c. pride d. curiosity ANSWER: c 4. Heng has recently begun to display the emotion of anger. Heng is most likely what age? a. 3 weeks old b. 3 months old c. 6 months old d. 9 months old ANSWER: c 5. Asdis is 8 hours old. Which of these emotions does Asdis already express? a. social smile b. reaction to pain c. embarrassed crying d. fear of strangers ANSWER: b 6. Which behavior develops around 6 weeks of age? a. anger b. laughter c. fear of unexpected sounds d. the social smile Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. At 6 weeks of age, baby Oskar's newest emotional reaction is MOST likely to be _____. a. fear of strangers b. a wide-eyed look of surprise c. a social smile d. a squeal of delight at her favorite toy ANSWER: c 8. An infant's anger is usually triggered by _____. a. sadness b. fear c. frustration d. shame ANSWER: c 9. Baby Chang participated in a research study in which the researcher restrained Chang's arms for two minutes.

Which emotion did Chang likely experience? a. sadness b. fear c. anger d. shame ANSWER: c 10. Increased levels of cortisol are associated with an infant experiencing _____. a. sadness b. anger c. well-being d. secure attachment ANSWER: a 11. Separation anxiety and stranger wariness are two kinds of _____ in infancy and toddlerhood. a. sadness b. anger c. fear d. regulatory strategies ANSWER: c 12. When a baby acts upset because a caregiver is leaving, the baby is exhibiting _____. a. general anxiety b. separation anxiety Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. solitary fear d. fear of isolation ANSWER: b 13. An infant's distress at seeing an unfamiliar person is called "_____." a. stranger wariness b. extrafamilial fear c. fear of the unknown d. separation anxiety ANSWER: a 14. Which statement about infants' emotional development is accurate? a. The social smile in response to another person first appears at about 15 weeks old. b. Very young infants seem incapable of expressing distress and contentment. c. A 5-month-old baby is likely to display fear of strangers and separation anxiety. d. An 11-month-old baby may show separation anxiety when their parent goes into another room.

ANSWER: d 15. If separation anxiety remains intense after age 3, impairing a child's ability to leave home, go to school, or play with other children, it is considered a(n) _____. a. red flag for maltreatment b. normative, as anxiety is common up until the age of 7 c. emotional disorder d. indication of severe cognitive impairment ANSWER: c 16. Four-month-old Petros and 13-month-old Cipriano are left with a babysitter. How will they react? a. Petros will be more upset than Cipriano. b. Cipriano will probably show more distress than Petros. c. Both children will experience separation anxiety. d. Neither child will show distress.

ANSWER: b 17. Which emotion requires social awareness? a. fear of strangers b. anger c. pride d. curiosity ANSWER: c 18. Which characteristic must be present before an infant can experience pride, shame, or guilt?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. social awareness b. social skills c. stranger anxiety d. embarrassment ANSWER: a 19. The new emotions that appear toward the end of a child's second year are _____. a. joy, distress, fear, and anger b. pride, shame, embarrassment, and guilt c. joy, fear, shame, and guilt d. pride, shame, joy, and anger ANSWER: b 20. Which statement about emotional development in toddlers is TRUE? a. Toddlers will universally feel proud of themselves. b. Emotions like pride and humility are dependent on cultural values. c. Toddlers are naturally humble. d. Toddlers are no longer distressed when separated from their parents.

ANSWER: b 21. If we place a dot of rouge on a 20-month-old child's nose and stand the child in front of a mirror, they may then touch their own nose. This indicates that the child has developed some level of _____. a. dynamic perception b. perceptual constancy c. social referencing d. self-awareness ANSWER: d 22. Researchers placed a dot of rouge on babies' noses and then had them look into a mirror. On average, at what age did most babies touch their own noses when they saw their reflection? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 18 months ANSWER: d 23. Tremal, 20 months, recently started using first-person pronouns. Their father is somewhat concerned that Tremal constantly asserts their rights to objects, shouting, "Mine!" Even when playing with their sister, Tremal doesn't want to share toys, instead insisting that everything is "mine." What does Tremal's behavior show about their emotional development? a. Tremal has developed a sense of self-awareness. b. Tremal's anxiety has become a source of anger.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. Tremal is being selfish and their father needs to discipline them. d. Tremal is trying to establish that they are the "boss" at home.

ANSWER: a 24. What is the biologically based core of individual differences in style of approach and response to the environment that is stable across time and situations? a. personality b. self-awareness c. social referencing d. temperament ANSWER: d 25. Research has found that a person's temperament is _____. a. highly variable from one country to the next b. determined almost entirely by parenting c. linked to biological patterns that appear in infancy d. created during early social interactions ANSWER: c 26. Cry variations in early infancy correlate with later _____. a. attachment b. intelligence c. temperament d. language skills ANSWER: c 27. Which of these statements about temperament and personality is TRUE? a. They are different terms for the same concept. b. Personality is biologically based, while temperament is shaped by the environment. c. Both temperament and personality are present at birth. d. Temperament is not the same as personality.

ANSWER: d 28. If an infant is able to self-regulate, they have: a. exuberance. b. negative mood. c. positive mood. d. effortful control.

ANSWER: d 29. Yasu is generally fussy, moody, and is easily upset. They are also not good at self-soothing. Yasu's Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice temperament would be considered: a. easy. b. challenging. c. difficult. d. hard-to-classify.

ANSWER: c 30. Contemporary researchers believe that there are three dimensions of temperament, each of which affects later personality development and school performance: a. easy, slow-to-warm-up, unclassified. b. secure, insecure, disorganized. c. easy, secure, difficult. d. effortful control, negative mood, exuberance.

ANSWER: d 31. According to a longitudinal study on temperament, which followed participants into adulthood, which infant is most likely to change from infancy to age 4? a. Yolanda, who is exuberant and easygoing b. Michaela, who is inhibited and fearful c. Nellie, who is fussy and unpredictable d. Paulette, who is sometimes positive and sometimes fearful ANSWER: b 32. Research has found that preterm infants smile later because the social smile is affected by: a. age since conception. b. age since birth. c. birth complications. d. maternal prenatal diet.

ANSWER: a 33. Stranger wariness may continue and develop into: a. a social phobia. b. generalized anxiety. c. a social phobia or generalized anxiety. d. neither a social phobia nor generalized anxiety.

ANSWER: c 34. Temper tantrums are common at: a. less than one year of age. b. between 1 and 2 years of age. c. three years of age.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. five years of age.

ANSWER: b 35. The statement that the relationship between parents and children goes both ways means which of these? a. Children have a large impact on the adulthood development of their parents. b. Children and parents influence the grandparents in the family. c. Children are largely affected by their siblings, as compared with their parents. d. Children are impacted by their parents, and parents are impacted by their children.

ANSWER: d 36. Which trait is genetic? a. honesty b. shyness c. humility d. pride ANSWER: b 37. Which area of the brain has been found to signal safety? a. the frontal lobes b. the amygdala c. the anterior cingulate cortex d. the limbic system ANSWER: c 38. Professor Leutwin is conducting a study on parent–infant attachment. Before beginning, they need to define how they will measure attachment. What is this called? a. a hypothesis b. an operational definition c. the theory d. a meta-analysis ANSWER: b 39. A laboratory procedure for measuring attachment by evoking infants' reactions to the stress of various adults' comings and goings in an unfamiliar playroom is called the: a. strange situation. b. still-face technique. c. operational definition. d. hypothesis.

ANSWER: a 40. A new method intended to aid parent–infant attachment, although not based on research by Bowlby or Ainsworth, is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. nonparental care. b. attachment parenting. c. allocare. d. secure attachment.

ANSWER: b 41. The separation of children from their parents at the border between Mexico and the United States can be expected to: a. negatively impact attachment and lead to potential lifelong harm for the children. b. improve parent–child relationships and acculturation. c. improve parent–child attachment and later relationships. d. negatively impact attachment and improve acculturative stress.

ANSWER: a 42. The coordinated interaction between caregiver and infant is called "_____." a. scaffolding b. synchrony c. symbiosis d. interplay ANSWER: b 43. The crucial aspect of synchrony is _____. a. infants observing adults b. infants imitating adults c. mutual interaction d. unilateral imitation ANSWER: c 44. Victor and Gislin want to enhance their synchrony with their 6-month-old baby. They can best do this by _____. a. imitating their vocal and facial expressions b. watching their baby imitate their mouth movements and smiles c. listening to their baby's vocalizations d. including their baby in their conversations ANSWER: a 45. Betje's dad comes home from grocery shopping, sees Betje sitting on the sofa, and says, "Where's that boy of mine?" Betje gives their dad a smile that spreads across their entire face, and their dad responds with an exaggerated surprised look. This is an example of _____. a. psychosocial scaffolding b. symbiosis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. polarization d. synchrony ANSWER: d 46. Synchrony depends on _____. a. attention span b. stable mood c. responsiveness and timing d. breast-feeding ANSWER: c 47. In one study, mothers were instructed to interact with their infants by copying their babies' facial expressions, and then, on cue, to show no emotional reaction at all. This procedure is called the "_____ technique." a. facial mimicking b. emotional expression c. still-face d. social response ANSWER: c 48. Kaj is playing with their 6-month-old child Caoileann. Kaj responds to Caoileann's facial expressions by mimicking and exaggerating the same expressions. All of a sudden, Kaj's face becomes blank and they do not show any emotion. How is Caoileann likely to respond? a. Caoileann will probably frown, fuss, drool, or look away from their parent. b. Caoileann will be glad for the break and will probably fall asleep. c. Caoileann will exaggerate their parent's facial expression. d. Caoileann will smile and coo even more to try to get their parent to respond.

ANSWER: a 49. The lasting emotional bond that an infant forms with a caregiver is called "_____." a. temperament b. attachment c. unionization d. synchrony ANSWER: b 50. "Proximity-seeking" and "contact-maintaining" behaviors are displays of _____. a. love b. fear c. attachment d. friendliness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 51. Based on many decades of research, attachment appears to be _____. a. based on cognitive theory b. stronger in mother–son pairs than father–son pairs c. universal around the world d. limited to Western cultures ANSWER: c 52. Which of these children is illustrating characteristics of a secure attachment? a. Laci is willing to explore a new environment in the presence of the caregiver. b. Goksu refuses to let other children play with their toys. c. Lucilius clings to their parent in a new environment. d. Jelica mimics their parent's expressions in a familiar environment.

ANSWER: a 53. Secure attachment makes a toddler _____. a. willing to explore b. self-centered c. cling to the mother d. want to talk a lot ANSWER: a 54. Baby Ishani's parent is holding them. Ishani is smiling at them one minute and then, unexpectedly, Ishani slaps their face, which is typical for her. Ishani frequently engages in other odd behaviors, such as freezing in place and pinching themself so hard it leaves bruises. Ishani is demonstrating characteristics of _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. disorganized c. secure-detached d. insecure-resistant/ambivalent ANSWER: b 55. Kalyana clings to their parent and refuses to leave their lap. When their parent walks into another room, Kalyana throws a huge temper tantrum. However, when their parent returns, they are not relieved. Instead, they cry and hit their parent. When their parent puts them down, they throw another fit and puts their arms up to be held. Kalyana is exhibiting characteristics of _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. secure d. disoriented ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 56. Nine-month-old Dharma explores new environments when their parent is present but shows distress when their parent leaves the room. However, when they return, Dharma stops crying and greets them with a hug.

Dharma is exhibiting characteristics of _____ attachment. a. secure b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. insecure-avoidant d. disorganized ANSWER: a 57. A sign of secure attachment is when a child _____. a. refuses to let go of the caregiver's arm b. plays aimlessly without interacting with the caregiver c. shows extreme fear and anger d. maintains contact with the caregiver while exploring ANSWER: d 58. Which child is demonstrating characteristics of secure attachment? a. Samanta, who ignores their parent while sitting in a corner b. Venuse, who expresses fear at the sight of their parent c. Borivoj, who hugs their parent after they re-enter the room d. Emily, who refuses to let go of their parent when they attempt to place them on the floor ANSWER: c 59. Eugen does not notice when their parent leaves the day-care center and ignores their parent when they return. Eugen's behavior is characteristic of _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. secure d. disorganized ANSWER: a 60. _____ developed the now-classic laboratory procedure called the Strange Situation. a. Erikson b. Freud c. Skinner d. Ainsworth ANSWER: d 61. The Strange Situation measures how a child _____. a. responds to a stranger b. plays with a parent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. responds to separations and reunions with a caregiver d. plays with toys they have never seen before ANSWER: c 62. In the Strange Situation, a sign of insecure attachment might be _____. a. smiling at the parent when they return to the room b. crying and unable to be comforted when the parent returns c. seeking contact with the parent when reunited d. playing happily as long as the parent is present ANSWER: b 63. In the Strange Situation, a sign of secure attachment is _____. a. smiling at the parent when they return to the room b. crying and not being comforted when the parent comes back c. ignoring the parent when they return to the room d. being reluctant to leave the parent to play with new toys ANSWER: a 64. Isidore's parent left them for a few minutes. When the parent returned, Isidore climbed into their lap and then resumed playing. Isidore is probably a(n) _____ attached child. a. insecurely b. securely c. timidly d. disorganized ANSWER: b 65. Alease is 14 months old. Their parents are happy in their marriage and financially stable. Most likely, Alease's attachment type will be _____. a. insecure-resistant/ambivalent b. insecure-avoidant c. disorganized d. secure ANSWER: d 66. According to research on Romanian orphanages, children who were adopted before _____ months of age fared best. a. 6 b. 30 c. 36 d. 41 ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 67. According to research on Romanian orphanages, children who were adopted after 18 months tended to score _____ points lower on intelligence tests than the statistical norm. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: c 68. A baby searches the faces of their parents to see how to respond in unfamiliar situations. The baby is illustrating the concept of "_____." a. separation anxiety b. social referencing c. stranger anxiety d. uncertainty checking ANSWER: b 69. A parent and a toddler meet someone who makes the parent nervous. If the toddler observes the parent's face, they will probably _____. a. act anxious b. smile and reach for the person c. start crying and hit the person d. not show any reaction ANSWER: a 70. Abed is 12 months old, and their uncle Handan is visiting for the first time in 6 months. Handan is delighted to see their nephew, so as they enter the room, they boom, "There's my little man!" Abed looks to their mother, who is smiling broadly at their brother Handan. Abed is demonstrating _____. a. attachment disorder b. social referencing c. a difficult temperament d. insecure attachment ANSWER: b 71. Cili was raised on a farm in Mississippi and enjoys the taste of beef liver cooked with onions. Jabr was raised in New York City and would never think of eating beef liver, but very much enjoys sushi. What explains their differences in food preference? a. differences in attachment styles b. biological differences in their taste buds c. behavioral reinforcement d. social referencing ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 72. Compared to mothers, fathers are more likely to make their infants _____. a. stop crying b. laugh c. go to sleep d. say "please" ANSWER: b 73. When playing with their children, mothers are more likely than fathers to _____. a. engage in physical play b. help children to become less fearful c. engage in noisy play d. play peek-a-boo and patty-cake ANSWER: d 74. Geoffrey enjoys spending time with his 1-year-old son. Compared to their wife, Geoffrey's interaction with their son is likely to be _____. a. more actively playful b. less noisy and boisterous c. more involved with basic care d. less active and energetic ANSWER: a 75. When playing with their children, fathers are more likely than mothers to _____. a. read stories b. engage in physical play c. show them how to play with their toys d. give them food rewards ANSWER: b 76. A child's typical activity during the oral stage is _____. a. sucking on a pacifier b. toilet training c. feeling a blanket using the fingers d. playing peek-a-boo ANSWER: a 77. According to psychoanalytic theory, the child's prime focus of pleasure in the first year of life is the _____. a. anus b. stomach c. hands and feet d. mouth Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 78. According to Freud, the second stage of psychosexual development is called the "_____ stage." a. phallic b. anal c. trust versus mistrust d. oral ANSWER: b 79. Freud claimed that during the anal stage, _____. a. infants often find urinating and defecating to be painful b. toilet training leads to positive mother–child interactions c. infants find pleasure in stimulating and controlling the bowels d. infants strive to develop a sense of trust in the parents ANSWER: c 80. How do people become "fixated" in a Freudian stage? a. They experience excessive emotions. b. Their normal developmental urges are frustrated. c. Their mother is not their primary caregiver. d. They fail to undergo a normal cognitive metamorphosis.

ANSWER: b 81. A child fixated in the oral stage may become an adult who_____. a. eats too much b. is excessively neat c. tends to be introverted d. has intense fears ANSWER: a 82. Freud would attribute an adult's fingernail biting and overeating to problems during which childhood developmental stage? a. sensorimotor b. oral c. anal d. phallic ANSWER: b 83. Annalise is an adult who requires predictability and regularity in all aspects of life. They eat the same breakfast every day, organize their clothes by color in their closet, and get distressed when the milk is put on the wrong shelf in the refrigerator. Annalise appears to be fixated at the _____ stage. a. sensorimotor Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. oral c. anal d. phallic ANSWER: c 84. According to Erikson, the first crisis of life is _____. a. obtaining oral gratification b. controlling bodily functions c. learning pain and pleasure d. learning to trust or mistrust ANSWER: d 85. Erikson's second stage of psychosocial development is called "_____." a. attachment versus self-awareness b. pride versus shame c. trust versus mistrust d. autonomy versus shame and doubt ANSWER: d 86. According to Erikson, if a child develops a sense of trust, they will _____ as an adult. a. explore the social world b. become dependent on others c. overcome a difficult temperament d. not experience any mental health problems ANSWER: a 87. A toddler in Freud's anal stage would also be at Erikson's _____ stage. a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. oral c. trust versus mistrust d. object permanence ANSWER: a 88. According to Erikson's theory, what holds TRUE for most toddlers? a. They want to depend on their caregivers to meet all of their needs. b. They want to gain a sense of control over their own bodies. c. Toilet training is only a minor step in learning a sense of autonomy. d. They need to have guilt and shame in order to strengthen their sense of autonomy.

ANSWER: b 89. Another term for self-rule is _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. governed b. synchrony c. autonomy d. controlled ANSWER: c 90. According to Erikson, failure to develop autonomy over one's own actions is most closely identified with _____. a. mistrust b. synchrony c. the oral stage d. shame and doubt ANSWER: d 91. The autonomy versus shame and doubt crisis involves the child _____. a. exhibiting a sense of trust b. asserting control over their own actions c. developing a sense of worthiness d. getting along with other children ANSWER: b 92. The Western value of independence is clearly exhibited in _____. a. Erikson's stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt b. Freud's oral stage c. Piaget's sensorimotor stage d. Bandura's social-learning theory ANSWER: a 93. Huan is 20 months old, and their parent is in a hurry. They want to put Huan's shoes on, but Huan rejects that by squirming and declaring, "No! Me!" It takes them five minutes, and their shoes end up on the wrong feet, but they proudly skip out to the car when they're done. Huan is in Erikson's _____ stage. a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. anal d. oral ANSWER: b 94. According to traditional behaviorism, personality is _____. a. molded by one's parents b. due to nature c. in the unconscious mind Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. unchangeable ANSWER: a 95. Which theorist stated, "Failure to bring up a happy child, a well-adjusted child—assuming bodily health— falls squarely upon the parents' shoulders"? a. Erikson b. Skinner c. Freud d. Watson ANSWER: d 96. _____ learning takes place by observing others. a. Cognitive b. Psychoanalytic c. Social d. Developmental ANSWER: c 97. Developmentalists have found that social learning takes place throughout _____. a. early childhood b. middle childhood c. adolescence d. life ANSWER: d 98. Valeria and Ghyslain are warm, nurturing parents who hold their baby often. They are exhibiting _____ parenting. a. proximal b. distal c. authoritarian d. autonomous ANSWER: a 99. When Paola falls and hurts themselves, they cry and run to their parent. Rather than comforting Paola, their parent offers them a toy to distract them. Their parent is probably a(n) _____ parent. a. proximal b. distal c. authoritative d. slow-to-warm-up ANSWER: b 100. Distal parenting tends to produce children who are _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. compliant b. cooperative c. clingy d. self-aware ANSWER: d 101. Proximal parenting tends to produce children who are _____. a. self-aware b. compliant c. competitive d. independent ANSWER: b 102. According to cognitive theory, infants use their early relationships to develop a set of assumptions that become a frame of reference that may be used later in life. Such a set of assumptions is called a "_____." a. referential hypothesis b. working model c. schematic plan d. work-in-progress ANSWER: b 103. A working model, according to cognitive theory, _____. a. can never change b. is final c. can be reorganized d. is irrational ANSWER: c 104. Evolutionary theory stresses two needs: a. survival and reproduction. b. food and socialization. c. food and shelter. d. familial and social.

ANSWER: a 105. Allocare refers to the care of children by _____. a. their biological parents b. foster parents c. siblings d. people other than their biological parents ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 106. When Birgitta gave birth, their mother moved in with the young family to help care for the newborn. This sort of caregiving by someone other than the baby's parent is called _____. a. kangaroo care b. allocare c. kinship d. humanism ANSWER: b 107. In the United States, about 20 percent of infants are cared for _____ throughout their first year of life. a. exclusively by their mothers b. by a grandparent c. by professionals at a day-care center d. by a professional in a family day care ANSWER: a 108. Which is NOT an essential characteristic of high-quality day care? a. encouragement of language development b. experienced, professional caregivers c. cleanliness routines and accident prevention d. a ratio of one adult to three infants ANSWER: d 109. The care of children by people other than the biological parents is called "_____." a. center day care b. allocare c. decentralized day care d. extrafamilial day care ANSWER: b 110. Day care in which several paid, trained providers care for many children in a space designed especially for the purpose of day care is a type of _____. a. allocare b. decentralized day care c. non-familial day care d. extrafamilial day care ANSWER: a 111. Which of these is NOT a consensus among developmental psychologists in terms of infant care? a. Mutual attachment to one or several familiar caregivers is pivotal. b. Quality of care is highly important.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 20

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. Infants benefit from warm and responsive caregivers. d. Frequent changes and instability in care is a normal aspect of development.

ANSWER: d 112. By the age of _____, children with unstable care are more aggressive than those with stable care. a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 9 years ANSWER: c 113. In the United States, _____ percent of infants are cared for exclusively by their mothers throughout their first year. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 ANSWER: c 114. Which of these is NOT a concern regarding mothers not providing exclusive care for their infants? a. Infants will be insecurely attached. b. Children will develop behavioral problems. c. Children will be dependent on their parents. d. Children will be more anxious in novel situations.

ANSWER: c 115. Which of these statements accurately summarizes the results of the NICHD? a. Nonparental care environments sometimes pose risks to young children and sometimes provide benefits. b. Nonparental care environments are never detrimental to child development. c. Nonparental care environments almost always provide unique benefits to children. d. Nonparental care should never be promoted to parents due to the negative consequences for families.

ANSWER: a 116. Nikita is a teenager who began attending a day-care facility when they were an infant. They now have high academic achievement and do not generally get into trouble. They are rarely impulsive and are well mannered.

Which of these is TRUE regarding Nikita? a. They likely experienced sensitive parenting when they were in middle childhood. b. They likely attended a day-care facility that provided low-quality care. c. The day-care facility they attended likely had a high child–caregiver ratio. d. They likely experienced neglectful parenting when they were an infant.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 21

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 117. Center-based day care is common in countries like France, Israel, China, Chile, Norway, and Sweden where _____. a. parental policies are highly variable by location and employer b. there is no maternity leave c. it is heavily subsidized by the government d. most people are opposed to allocare ANSWER: c 118. All of these are true about Norway EXCEPT: a. new mothers are paid full salary to stay home with their babies for 47 weeks. b. high-quality, center-based day care is heavily subsidized by the government from age 1 on. c. maternal care is not prioritized in the country. d. 93 percent of 3-year-olds attend center-based care.

ANSWER: c 119. Which country offers paid infant care as an incentive to increase the birth rate? a. Canada b. United States c. Germany d. China ANSWER: c

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 22

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Essay 1. Discuss how growth rate affects the eating habits of preschool children, and name at least three of the most common nutritional problems of preschoolers.

ANSWER: Since children grow more slowly between the ages of 2 and 6 than they did in the first two years of life, their appetites decrease. The most common nutritional problems of preschoolers are an insufficient intake of 1) iron, 2) zinc, and 3) calcium, all of which can be avoided with a proper diet.

Good (5 pts.)

Discuss growth rate's Discusses why effect on eating appetite decreases habits Name the most Names all three common nutritional nutritional problems problems

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

States that appetite Does not state that decreases without appetite decreases explaining why Names two nutritional Names one or no problems nutritional problems

2. Keti is the parent of 3-year-old Flann. Flann generally has a varied appetite, eating more on some days than others. They are also about eight pounds overweight. Keti frequently worries about Flann's eating habits and urges them to clean their plate at every meal, offering dessert as a reward for eating. Explain why Keti's approach is problematic.

ANSWER: One reason that parents like Keti urge children to eat is that they underestimate their children's weight. Studies show that parents of overweight children tend to believe that their children are thinner than they actually are. Using snacks as rewards actually encourages Flann to overeat.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain why Keti's Notes that parents of Indicates that parents Provides an incorrect approach to their overweight children of overweight children response or does not child's eating is often urge children to often urge children to explain response problematic overeat using snacks and overeat or that these they tend to believe that parents tend to believe their children are thinner that their children are than they are thinner than they are 3. Discuss the role of the corpus callosum in children's brain development. What is it, what does it do, and what happens if it does not develop correctly?

ANSWER: The corpus callosum is a long, thick band of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. It is essential to the communication between the two sides of the brain, which results in children being able to coordinate both sides of their bodies. Serious disorders result when the corpus callosum fails to develop, almost always including intellectual disability. Abnormal growth of the corpus callosum is one symptom of autism spectrum disorders, as well as dozens of other disorders.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explain what Explains what Explains what the corpus callosum the corpus callosum the corpus callosum is and what it does is and what it does is or what it does Explain what Knows that this could Knows that a serious happens if it develops be a potential cause of disorder can result Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain what the corpus callosum is or what it does Does not state that a serious disorder can Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Essay incorrectly

autism or some other without naming it type of intellectual disability

result

4. Ksenia and Leonel are the parents of 22-month-old Havva. They are very interested in Havva's brain development and wonder how they will change over the next four years or so. Explain four ways in which maturation of the prefrontal cortex is evident between the ages of 2 and 6.

ANSWER: Maturation of the prefrontal cortex contributes to the following changes: 1) Sleep becomes more regular; 2) emotions become more nuanced and responsive; 3) temper tantrums subside; and 4) uncontrollable laughter and tears are less common.

Good (5 pts.)

List four ways in Lists four ways in which maturation of which maturation of the prefrontal cortex the prefrontal cortex contributes to contributes to behavioral changes behavioral changes

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists two ways in which maturation of the prefrontal cortex contributes to behavioral changes

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not list any ways in which maturation of the prefrontal cortex contributes to behavioral changes

5. Three-year-old Maud has difficulty being quiet during story time at their preschool. When walking with Maud's peers to the bathroom or to the gym for recess, Maud tends to walk next to or ahead of their classmates, despite being asked to walk in a straight line. They often touch things on the wall, such as posters, classroom art, or announcements. Maud especially has trouble focusing on tasks organized by adults. Both at home and at school, Maud tends to play with one toy—a doll that you can feed and change. They always request that toy and is hesitant to try playing with something else. Maud's parents call them "Silly Sue" because once they start laughing, they can't stop. Sometimes Maud will giggle off and on for thirty minutes straight. Based on the examples given, which two terms best describe Maud's behavior? Should their parents and teacher be concerned? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Maud is demonstrating poor impulse control, which is evident in their inability to remain quiet during story time, their difficulty walking in a line, and their interest in constantly touching things on the wall. Maud's intense interest in the doll, as well as their "silly" laughing episodes, are examples of perseveration. No, Maud's parents and teacher should not be concerned, as this behavior is normal for a 3-year-old child. Many children of this age are notably unbalanced neurologically. As their brain develops, they can expect Maud's behavior to mature.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify poor impulse Identifies poor Identifies poor Does not identify control and impulse control and impulse control or either term to describe perseveration as the perseveration as the perseveration to Maud's behavior two terms to describe two terms to describe describe Maud's Maud's behavior Maud's behavior behavior Explain that Maud's Explains that Maud's Explains that Maud's Does not indicate that behavior is typical behavior is typical for behavior is typical for Maud's behavior is for their age their age—it reflects their age but does not typical for their age or neurological mention that it reflects that it's atypical Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Essay immaturity

neurological immaturity

6. Provide a clear definition of and at least two examples of both gross and fine motor skills.

ANSWER: Gross motor skills use large muscles and big movements. Gross motor skills include hopping, throwing, climbing, running, spinning, etc. Fine motor skills use small muscles and small movements. Fine motor skills include writing, manipulating small objects, using a keyboard, pouring milk, buttoning a shirt, tying shoes, etc.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define gross and fine Defines gross and fine Defines gross or fine Does not define either motor skills motor skills motor skills type of motor skill Provide examples of Provides two or more Provides one example Fails to provide at each examples for both for both gross and fine least one example for gross and fine motor motor skills either gross or fine skills motor skills

7. Why are preschoolers most prone to various types of injuries? Explain the three levels of injury prevention and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: They are at risk because of their poor impulse control and their inability to assess risk due to their immature prefrontal cortex.

Primary prevention makes a situation safer to reduce the likelihood of injury, such as using streetlights instead of stop signs.

Secondary prevention reduces risk in high-risk situations, such as adding flashing lights at crosswalks.

Tertiary prevention provides a remedy after an injury has occurred, such as quick triage in the emergency room.

Good (5 pts.)

Explain the three Explains the three types of injury types of injury prevention prevention Give an example of Gives an example of each type of injury all three prevention

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains two types of Explains one or no injury prevention types of injury prevention Gives an example of Gives one or no two examples

8. Define child maltreatment and explain why there are discrepancies between reported and substantiated child maltreatment.

ANSWER: Child maltreatment refers to intentional harm to, or avoidable endangerment of, anyone less than 18 years of age. It includes both child abuse and child neglect. There is wide variation in reports of maltreatment among areas in the United States. Many factors impact reports, including 1) duplicate reports; 2) underreporting; 3) wide variability among professionals noticing abuse; 4) the availability of community resources for investigation of abuse; and 5) difficulty verifying that abuse has occurred.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Essay

Define child maltreatment

Mention why there are discrepancies

Good (5 pts.)

Defines child maltreatment, noting that it includes both child abuse and child neglect

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Is vague about the Does not define child definition of child maltreatment maltreatment; indicates that it includes child abuse or neglect but not both Mentions at least three Mentions at least two Mentions one or none of the five problems of the five problems of the problems above above above

9. Name three immediate problems and three long-term consequences that can result from child maltreatment.

ANSWER: Immediate problems resulting from maltreatment include 1) physical symptoms (such as bruises or hunger), 2) academic impairment, 3) a lack of trust in others, 4) hostility/aggression, and 5) social isolation.

Long-term consequences can include 1) substance abuse, 2) unhealthy relationships, 3) employment and career struggles, 4) issues with food, 5) emotional disorders, 6) an increased chance of living in poverty, and 7) suicide.

Good (5 pts.)

Name three Names three immediate problems immediate problems that can result from child maltreatment Name three longNames three longterm consequences term consequences

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names two immediate Names one or no problems immediate problems

Names two long-term Names one or no longconsequences term consequences

10. Dr. Puja is designing a comprehensive intervention program that addresses child maltreatment. You have been asked to consult with Dr. Puja on this project. Explain how the program could be designed to intervene at each level of prevention. Provide an example of each level and describe the difficulties that Dr. Puja might encounter in the implementation of these interventions.

ANSWER: Primary prevention of child maltreatment might include working to eliminate financial instability and teenage parenthood, and/or creating stable, safe neighborhoods. While primary interventions can create cultures that foster stronger families and societies, they require broad support and significant resources.

Secondary prevention involves noticing warning signs and intervening before the situation escalates. Regular checkups by medical professionals and quality child care can provide this, but not every family has access to these resources. In the case of maltreatment, relatively few reports come from neighbors or relatives.

Tertiary prevention intervenes when there is already a problem. This may include providing a parent with parenting support or finding a safe place for a child in danger. By this point, intervention is challenging and expensive, and harm has already occurred.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Identify the three Identifies the three levels of prevention levels of prevention Provide an example Provides an example of each level of of each level of prevention prevention Describe difficulties Describes a potential for each level difficulty for each level

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Identifies two of the levels of prevention Provides an example for two levels of prevention Describes a potential difficulty for two levels

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies one or none of the levels Does not provide an example for two levels of prevention Describes a potential difficulty for one or no levels

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 1. A person's average body mass index (BMI) is the lowest at the ages of _____. a. 1 to 2 b. 5 to 6 c. 9 to 10 d. 13 to 14 ANSWER: b 2. Between the ages of 2 and 6, a well-nourished child will gain about _____ pounds and grow about _____ inches per year. a. 5; 6 b. 2; 3 c. 4.5; 3 d. 5.5; 4.5 ANSWER: c 3. The average 6-year-old child from an affluent nation weighs between _____ pounds. a. 20 and 30 b. 30 and 40 c. 40 and 50 d. 50 and 60 ANSWER: c 4. _____ is a major problem that contributes to obesity and tooth decay. a. Sugar b. Carbohydrates c. Low protein consumption d. Higher SES ANSWER: a 5. Artemy and Kalyan are parents of a 5-year-old child. If they are typical parents, they are MOST likely to say _____. a. "They don't eat enough" b. "They eat too much" c. "They have no control over their appetite" d. "They are suffering from malnutrition" ANSWER: a 6. A child's appetite _____ between the ages of 2 and 6. a. increases slightly b. increases dramatically c. stays the same Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. decreases ANSWER: d 7. In industrialized nations like the United States and Canada, which nutrients are MOST often lacking in a child's diet? a. calcium, iron, and zinc b. B vitamins c. magnesium, vitamin A, and vitamin D d. vitamin C and vitamin E ANSWER: a 8. Which of these is NOT one way in which the COVID-19 pandemic lockdown lead to an increase in childhood obesity? a. There was less exercise. b. Children watched more television. c. Children snacked less. d. Children ate fewer vegetables.

ANSWER: c 9. It has been estimated that _____ to _____ percent of children are allergic to a specific food. Most of the time this is a common, healthy one. a. 2; 3 b. 6; 8 c. 10; 12 d. 15; 20 ANSWER: b 10. A common food allergy for young children is _____. a. soy b. rice c. oats d. bananas ANSWER: a 11. Many children have cavities and decaying teeth before age _____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 ANSWER: d 12. What is the current obesity rate among preschool children, ages 2 to 5 years, in the United States?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. 10 percent b. 12 percent c. 13 percent d. 23 percent ANSWER: c 13. Which of these is NOT a factor that is associated with body fat? a. gender b. hair color c. ethnicity d. income ANSWER: b 14. Poor oral health during childhood can lead to all of these EXCEPT: a. jaw malformation. b. chewing difficulties. c. speech problems. d. heart attacks.

ANSWER: d 15. Prateek is pregnant and currently has a tooth infection. This can lead to which of these problems? a. reduced weight gain b. allergies c. preterm birth d. childhood obesity ANSWER: c 16. Children who eat few fast foods are less likely to experience all of these EXCEPT: a. food allergies. b. asthma. c. watery eyes. d. nasal congestion.

ANSWER: a 17. A 2-year-old human's brain is _____ percent of the adult brain's weight. a. 55 b. 65 c. 75 d. 80 ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 18. Which of these statements accurately explains the difference between the brains of Tarik, a 2-year-old, and Jim, their father? a. Tarik's brain weighs about 75 percent of the weight of Jim's. b. Jim's brain has more activity in the angular gyrus than Tarik's. c. Tarik's brain is the same weight as Jim's. d. Jim's brain is less lateralized than Tarik's.

ANSWER: a 19. What is gray matter in the brain? a. the prefrontal cortex b. the neurons themselves c. myelin d. the brain stem ANSWER: b 20. The ability to play "Simon Says" successfully appears to be directly related to the development of the _____ cortex. a. parietal b. prefrontal c. striate d. posterior ANSWER: b 21. The process through which axons become coated with a fatty substance that speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses is called "_____." a. myelination b. action potential c. transmission d. lateralization ANSWER: a 22. Myelination is important because it _____. a. connects the two halves of the brain b. compensates for loss of brain function due to injury c. promotes regular childhood sleep patterns d. speeds up the transmission of neural impulses ANSWER: d 23. Braiden, a 6-year-old, can correctly name objects, catch a ball and throw it, and write the alphabet in proper sequence. Their younger sibling Prateek is much less speedy and skillful in all of these areas. What is the BEST explanation for Braiden's superior performance? a. Braiden most likely eats healthier foods than Prateek.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. Braiden's brain has experienced greater myelination than Prateek's. c. Braiden's frontal cortex is less mature than Prateek's. d. Braiden has fewer dendrites than Prateek.

ANSWER: b 24. The ability to generate several thoughts in rapid succession is most specifically related to _____. a. eating healthy foods b. myelination c. frontal cortex maturation d. development of new axons ANSWER: b 25. Ivka is able to play "Uno," a card game that requires quick thinking. What brain change MOST directly supports this ability to think quickly? a. hypothalamic functioning b. myelination c. frontal cortex maturation d. development of new axons ANSWER: b 26. The long band of nerve fibers that connects the brain's hemispheres is _____. a. myelination b. the corpus callosum c. the prefrontal cortex d. the axon cord ANSWER: b 27. Davit is beginning to learn how to write. They can hold a pencil in one hand and steady the paper with the other hand. This new ability to coordinate the duties of their right and left hands is likely due to _____. a. the growth of the corpus callosum b. their arms and legs growing longer c. the brain's lateralization d. adequate calcium in their diet ANSWER: a 28. Zlate, age 4, has recently begun coordinating the two sides of their body more efficiently. This improvement can be attributed to _____. a. the growth of the corpus callosum b. their arms and legs growing longer c. the brain's lateralization d. adequate calcium in their diet Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 29. According to your text, some researchers believe that autism spectrum disorder may be due to _____. a. rigid myelination b. abnormal development of the corpus callosum c. lesions in the prefrontal cortex d. incomplete axon cords ANSWER: b 30. Lateralization is also called "_____." a. myelination b. white matter c. sidedness d. reverse specialization ANSWER: c 31. To stay stuck in one thought or action for a long time is referred to as: a. perseveration. b. impulse control. c. inhibition. d. lateralization.

ANSWER: a 32. A disorder that research has suggested may result from abnormal development of the corpus callosum is _____. a. hearing impairment b. nearsightedness c. oppositional defiant disorder d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: d 33. The specialization of the functioning of the two halves of the brain is called "_____." a. lateralization b. linearization c. equalization d. disequilibrium ANSWER: a 34. The left side of the brain notices _____, while the right side grasps _____. a. the big picture; the details b. the details; emotions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. emotions; language d. creative impulses; detailed analysis ANSWER: b 35. About 10 percent of adults in Great Britain and the United States are _____. a. left-handed b. right-handed c. left hemisphere dominant d. right hemisphere dominant ANSWER: a 36. The rates of left-handedness in the United States and Great Britain have _____ since 1900. a. increased b. decreased c. remained the same d. become equal to rates of right-handedness ANSWER: a 37. Which statement about left-handed people is TRUE? a. Myelination takes longer for them than it does for right-handed people. b. They are less likely to succeed in sports. c. Their corpus callosa tend to be thicker than those of right-handed people. d. The language areas of their brains are on the right side of the brain.

ANSWER: c 38. Yefim suffered a brain injury as a result of an automobile accident. Their ability to speak and process language was severely affected. Their injury was to the _____. a. right side of the brain b. left side of the brain c. amygdala d. prefrontal cortex ANSWER: b 39. During a long car trip, Nathalie and Evelina asked "Are we there yet?" so many times that their parent began covering their ears. The children were exhibiting _____. a. impulsiveness b. emotional regulation c. perseveration d. habituation ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 40. Flick is a 3-year-old who is working on a craft project at preschool. They have to be repeatedly reminded to sit still, to continue working on the craft, and to stop grabbing their peers' supplies. What is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior? a. Flick is not artistically inclined. b. Flick is displaying normal lack of impulse control. c. Flick is not yet mature enough to be in preschool. d. Flick has ADHD. ANSWER: b 41. In neuroscience terms, neurons have two types of impulses: _____. a. in–out b. activate–inhibit c. myelinate–lateralize d. right–left ANSWER: b 42. The amygdala is a brain structure that registers _____. a. body temperature b. emotions c. speech perception d. memories ANSWER: b 43. Based on what you know about the immaturity of the amygdala in early childhood, what is a likely consequence that many young children may experience? a. a language delay b. extreme, violent tantrums c. frightening nightmares d. increased susceptibility to disease ANSWER: c 44. Which of these statements about exposure to stress is TRUE? a. Stress, in any form, is damaging to children's cognitive and social development. b. Even low to moderate forms of stress interfere with children's day-to-day functioning. c. High levels of stress activate hormones that are necessary in helping young children to cope. d. Some stress, but not too much, aids cognition.

ANSWER: d 45. Studies of maltreated children suggest that excessive stress-hormone levels in early childhood _____. a. return to normal levels once the source of the stressor is gone b. permanently damage brain pathways Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. reduce emotional reactivity in adulthood d. activate important cognitive networks throughout the brain ANSWER: b 46. In terms of injury control, actions that avert harm in high-risk situations are referred to as: a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. harm reduction.

ANSWER: b 47. An example of a gross motor skill is _____. a. painting a picture b. dialing a phone c. picking up a bug d. hopping on one foot ANSWER: d 48. Younger children tend to be better at playing kickball than they are at playing baseball. That's because all aspects of kickball rely more heavily on _____. a. fine motor skills b. gross motor skills c. lateralization d. limbic system development ANSWER: b 49. Gross motor skills such as riding a tricycle are acquired _____. a. through practice only b. due to brain maturation only c. through brain maturation and practice d. only if the parents teach the skills ANSWER: c 50. Harm or endangerment that has been reported, investigated, and verified is referred to as: a. substantiated maltreatment. b. child maltreatment. c. reported maltreatment. d. unverified maltreatment.

ANSWER: a 51. Natalia is four years old. If Natalia is like other typically developing children of this age, they should be Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice able to _____. a. write simple words b. hop on either foot c. skip and gallop in rhythm d. tie their shoes ANSWER: b 52. Marco can wash their own face and comb their hair. They can copy difficult shapes and letters. Marco also loves climbing trees and jumping over simple obstacles. Marco is probably _____ years old. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: d 53. The development of motor skills is unique and depends on _____. a. culture, practice, and maturity b. age, ethnicity, and gender c. parents' athletic skills, socialization, and access to peers d. preschool quality, age of parents, and ethnic composition of the neighborhood ANSWER: a 54. Writing your name is a _____ skill, whereas kicking a ball is a(n) _____ skill. a. sensorimotor; preoperational b. physical; cognitive c. coordination; inter-coordination d. fine motor; gross motor ANSWER: d 55. An example of a fine motor skill is _____. a. using scissors to cut paper b. swimming across a pool c. roller-skating around the block d. playing catch with a football ANSWER: a 56. An activity that requires fine motor skills is _____. a. buttoning a coat b. kicking a ball c. climbing a tree d. playing tag Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 57. Preschoolers often have trouble tying their shoelaces because they have inadequate _____. a. finger strength b. fine motor skills c. coordination and balance d. gross motor skills ANSWER: b 58. Preschoolers use extra thick crayons and pencils to help compensate for their developing _____. a. fine motor skills b. gross motor skills c. lateralization d. limbic system ANSWER: a 59. If a parent does not feed their child several times a day, what is occurring? a. child neglect b. substantiated maltreatment c. reported maltreatment d. child abuse ANSWER: a 60. Which of these is (was) NOT left-handed? a. Babe Ruth b. Bill Gates c. Hillary Clinton d. Lady Gaga ANSWER: c 61. Myelination between the ages of 3 and 6 years of age is associated with: a. increased processing speed. b. emotional stability. c. attachment formation. d. temperament regulation.

ANSWER: a 62. Which area of the brain is involved in both procrastination and impulsivity? a. left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. right hemisphere ANSWER: a 63. Child maltreatment has been associated with: a. brain shrinkage. b. decreased gray matter. c. increased white matter. d. reduced functioning of the amygdala.

ANSWER: a 64. Play during childhood aids all of these types of growth EXCEPT: a. cognitive. b. social. c. physical. d. pubertal.

ANSWER: d 65. What is the leading cause of disease death between the ages of 1 and 4 years? a. cancer b. diabetes c. heart disease d. obesity ANSWER: a 66. Which type of prevention is the MOST effective? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. advanced ANSWER: a 67. Which type of prevention is the MOST visible? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. advanced ANSWER: c 68. The rate of accidental firearm death among children ages 1 to 14 was _____ per million in 2015. a. 25 b. 15 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. 10 d. 5 ANSWER: d 69. Which of these is NOT a sign of child maltreatment? a. slow physical growth b. frequent change of address c. repeated injuries d. numerous friendships ANSWER: d 70. In the past 20 years, the incidence of plumbism has declined due to _____. a. an increase in the amount of calcium in children's vitamins b. improved sensitivity in the blood tests used for diagnosis c. children having better nutrition at an earlier age d. the removal of lead from paint and gasoline ANSWER: d 71. Which environmental substance has been shown to reduce intelligence and increase behavioral problems in young children? a. PVC b. lead c. latex paint d. asbestos ANSWER: b 72. Why are children drawn toward eating lead-based paint chips? a. The children are hungry. b. The paint chips taste sweet. c. Children like paint chips of all types. d. Children often have a lead deficiency.

ANSWER: b 73. Many researchers believe that teenagers who suffered brain damage as a result of consuming lead are at risk for _____. a. Huntington's disease b. becoming obese c. committing violent crimes d. having children born with brain defects ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 74. Far more children die from _____ than from any specific disease. a. obesity b. violence c. lead poisoning d. medical errors ANSWER: b 75. Instead of accident prevention, health workers prefer the term "_____." a. injury control b. perceptual oversight c. federal laws d. CPR ANSWER: a 76. Immaturity of the _____ makes young children impulsive. a. amygdala b. cerebellum c. prefrontal cortex d. orbital cortex ANSWER: c 77. Aida hired an expert to help "baby-proof" the house for their increasingly mobile toddler. The expert emphasized that when striving to protect toddlers from injury, it is important to think about _____ instead of _____. a. injury control; accident prevention b. injury control; harm reduction c. accident prevention; injury control d. harm reduction; injury control ANSWER: a 78. Which of these strategies is MOST effective in preventing injury in young children? a. parent education classes b. laws mandating primary prevention c. 911 and other hotlines d. tertiary prevention ANSWER: b 79. Which type of injury prevention begins after an injury and is done to limit the damage caused by the injury? a. primary b. tertiary c. quaternary Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. secondary ANSWER: b 80. School buses have flashing lights on them as a form of _____ prevention. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary ANSWER: b 81. Which of these is an example of "secondary prevention"? a. immunizing a child against measles b. rushing a child to the emergency department c. passing a law to make bike helmets necessary for children d. pushing a child out of the way of a falling ladder ANSWER: d 82. In _____ percent of child maltreatment cases, the perpetrators are one or both of the child's parents. a. 10 b. 38 c. 66 d. 90 ANSWER: d 83. Which of these acts would be considered child maltreatment? a. a caregiver leaving a child alone while going to the store b. a parent yelling at a child c. a stranger following a child d. a teacher withholding a snack after the child threw a toy ANSWER: a 84. Child abuse is defined as _____. a. anything that hurts a child's feelings b. anything that a child considers aversive c. a deliberate act that is harmful to the child's physical, emotional, or sexual well-being d. a failure to meet essential physical or emotional needs ANSWER: c 85. The idea that child maltreatment is rare and perpetuated by disturbed strangers _____. a. is representative of most child maltreatment cases b. has been disproved by research Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. is true for abuse, but not neglect d. is called "battered child syndrome" ANSWER: b 86. What is the MOST probable reason child abuse is underreported? a. variation in outsiders noticing abuse b. an increase in child neglect c. increased fear of retaliation from the legal system d. a decrease in the number of small children in households ANSWER: a 87. How do abused children come to view other people? a. as kind and nurturing, in contrast to their abuser's behavior b. as hostile and ready to take advantage of them c. as uninteresting and difficult to understand d. as amusing and appealing ANSWER: b 88. Which illustrates tertiary prevention for child maltreatment? a. identifying a parent in a stressful situation and providing resources to assist them b. offering free parenting classes to high-risk populations c. providing psychotherapy to a child who has been abused d. building Boys and Girls Clubs in low-income neighborhoods ANSWER: c 89. With respect to child maltreatment, permanency planning is a _____ level of prevention. a. tertiary b. primary c. secondary d. supplemental ANSWER: a 90. Golzar's parents neglected them, and the court determined that Golzar needed to be removed from their care while their parents dealt with the issues that led to the neglect. Golzar was placed with their aunt, who provided _____ care. a. foster b. kinship c. day d. adoptive ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay 1. Kwaku believes that their favorite teddy bear is their best friend and wants to go everywhere they go. They are demonstrating animism. Explain Piaget's concept of "animism" and provide two examples of how children demonstrate this concept.

ANSWER: Animism is a child's belief that inanimate objects are alive, and that nonhuman objects or animals have the same human characteristics as the child. For example, a child may believe that a doll has emotions, or that their pet cat thinks like they do, or that the chair on which they stubbed their toe did it to them on purpose.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain the concept Explains the concept Is vague about the Does not explain the of animism of animism concept of animism concept of animism Give examples of Gives two examples of Gives one example of Does not give an animism animism animism example of animism

2. According to Piaget, what are four limitations that make logic difficult until about age 6? Be sure to include definitions for each.

ANSWER: 1) Centration is the tendency to focus on one aspect of a situation to the exclusion of all others. 2) Focus on appearance: Young children ignore all attributes that are not apparent. 3) Static reasoning is the child's belief that nothing changes. That is, whatever is now has always been and always will be. 4) Irreversibility is when a child thinks that nothing can be undone. A thing cannot be restored to the way it was before a change occurred.

List four limitations that make logic difficult for young children Define each limitation

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists four limitations Lists three limitations Does not list four that make logic limitations or lists difficult for young incorrect terms children Defines each Defines only three Does not define limitation limitations limitations

3. What is conservation? Describe an example of a conservation task, noting the initial presentation of the material, the transformation of the material, and the questions that children are asked. What is a preoperational child's response?

ANSWER: Conservation is the notion that the amount of something remains the same (is conserved) despite changes in its appearance. For example, a child will be presented with two identical things (e.g., two glasses of water), followed by the question, "Does this one have more, does this one have more, or are they both the same?" One of the things will then be transformed (e.g., one glass of water will be poured into a different container that causes a different water level), and the child will be asked, "Does this one have more, does this one have more, or are they both the same?" Preoperational children will say that the transformation causes a change in the amount of the things (e.g., the taller glass now holds "more" water).

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define conservation Defines conservation Is vague about what conservation is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define conservation Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay Describe a Describes a Describes a Does not describe a conservation task and conservation task and conservation task or conservation task or questions asked the questions asked the questions asked the questions asked Tell preoperational Tells a preoperational Tells a preoperational Does not tell a child's response child's response to the child's response to the preoperational child's questions questions response to the questions or gives the wrong response 4. Vijay is frustrated trying to learn to tie their shoelaces. According to Vygotsky, should the parents get involved, or should they let them try to master this task on their own? If they decide to get involved, what should their parents do?

ANSWER: Vygotsky would say that the parents definitely should get involved. The parents can serve as mentors and offer scaffolding by providing direct instruction, encouraging Vijay to try to do it, interacting with Vijay, gradually letting them do it more on their own, using directive comments, and helping them to see their progress. The parents should see what Vijay is currently capable of and then offer the next step (the zone of proximal development) to achieve the task. For example, once Vijay can make the first tie in the shoelaces, they can show them how to make the first bow.

Once Vijay can do that, they can show them how to go around that bow with the other shoestring (or make a second bow with the other shoestring and cross it if teaching the "bunny ears" method).

Helping Vijay to master each step in succession is called "scaffolding."

State whether Vygotsky would want parents to be involved Tell what parents should do

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

States that Vygotsky Is vague about Does not state that would want parents to whether Vygotsky Vygotsky would want be involved would want parents to parents to be involved be involved Mentions the zone of Mentions the zone of Does not mention the proximal development proximal zone of proximal and guided development or artic development or participation guided pipation guided participation

5. Ms. Asdis is a preschool teacher. They notice that many of their students talk to themselves while working on various classroom activities—for example, writing their letters, adding small numbers, and painting pictures.

According to Vygotsky, what is the term for this type of "self-talk"? Be sure to define the term. Should it be discouraged? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Ms. Asdis's students are using private speech, the internal dialogue that occurs when people talk to themselves (either silently or out loud). No, private speech should not be discouraged. Research shows that audible or not, private speech aids in cognition and self-reflection. In fact, young children should be encouraged to use it.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify and define Identifies and defines Identifies private Does not identify or private speech as the private speech as the speech as the correct define private speech correct term correct term term; does not define Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay it Indicate that private Indicates that private Does not adequately Does not explain speech should be speech should be explain whether or not whether or not private encouraged encouraged private speech should speech should be be discouraged discouraged

6. Explain what "theory of mind" is and indicate at what age it generally begins to develop. Discuss two factors that affect its development.

ANSWER: Theory of mind is a person's theory of what other people might be thinking. In order to have a theory of mind, children must realize that other people are not necessarily thinking the same thoughts that they themselves are. Theory of mind also includes the realization that thoughts may not reflect reality. Theory of mind is an emergent ability, slow to develop.

1) The development of theory of mind is partly dependent on age-related maturation of the prefrontal cortex. 2) Children with older siblings develop a theory of mind at an earlier age than children without older siblings. 3) Conversations with adults facilitate the development of theory of mind.

Explain theory of mind and the age it develops Discuss two actors that affect its development

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains theory of Explains theory of mind and the age it mind or the age it develops develops Discusses two factors Discusses one factor that affect its that affects its development development

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain theory of mind or the age it develops Does not discuss a factor that affects its development

7. What is the current consensus about whether early childhood is a critical or a sensitive period for language learning? Have scientists changed their stance over the years?

ANSWER: Yes, the thinking has changed. Scientists once thought that early childhood was a critical period for language learning—the only time when a first language could be mastered and the best time for learning a second or third one. However, researchers now believe that early childhood is a sensitive period for language acquisition—the best time for rapidly and easily mastering vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation but certainly not the only time that these skills can be mastered.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Acknowledge Acknowledges that Is unclear about thinking has changed thinking has changed whether thinking has changed State whether it is a States consensus is Is vague about critical or sensitive that it is a sensitive whether there is period period consensus regarding the sensitive period

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not acknowledge that thinking has changed Does not state that the consensus is that it's a sensitive period

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay 8. Explain and discuss the process of "fast-mapping" and the related idea of "logical extension." Give an example of each concept.

ANSWER: Both fast-mapping and logical extension refer to a child's terrific surge of perceptual interrelationships among words. Fast-mapping refers to the phenomenon by which young children develop an interconnected set of categories for words, a kind of mental map, which makes speedy vocabulary acquisition possible. Fast-mapping speeds the development of learning new words because children immediately assign a new word to one of the categories in their mental language grid. Thus, the first time a child sees a pet ferret, they may assign it the status of a type of dog or a kind of cat, since they do not have a weasel concept. The child's understanding of the new word is not always precise. Children refine their understanding through use and experience.

Logical extension refers to a child applying a newly learned word to another related object. A young girl who just read a story about a Dalmatian dog may then refer to a black-and-white cow as a Dalmatian cow.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explain fast-mapping Explains fast-mapping Explains fastand logical extension and logical extension mapping or logical extension Give an example of Gives an example of Gives an example of each concept each concept either concept

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain fastmapping or logical extension Does not give an example of either concept

9. Axel, age 3, often makes errors in their speech. For example, they will tell their mother that their "foots" are tired when they want to be carried. While watching a cartoon, they exclaimed, "Ew! Those are mices!" And last week, they told their grandfather that they "goed to the swimming park" with their babysitter. Explain the type of speech errors that Axel is demonstrating.

ANSWER: Axel's speech errors are called "overregularization." Overregularization is the application of rules of grammar even when exceptions occur, making the language seem more "regular" than it actually is.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain Explains Vaguely explains Does not explain overregularization overregularization overregularization overregularization Explain how children Explains how children Explains how children Does not explain how exhibit it exhibit it and makes exhibit it without children exhibit it clear that children making clear that show preference for children show the second language preference for the second language

10. Discuss the concept of "language shift" in bilingualism. What is it, and how do young children exhibit it?

ANSWER: Language shift refers to the tendency of children to become more fluent in their new language than in the language spoken in their home. Some children exhibit a language shift by refusing to speak their first language, preferring the new language. This often occurs because young children are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay preoperational: They center on the immediate status of their language (not on future usefulness or past glory), on appearance more than substance.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define language shift Defines language shift Vaguely defines Does not define language shift language shift Explain how children Explains how children Explains how children Does not explain how exhibit it exhibit it, making exhibit it without children exhibit it clear that children making clear that show preference for children show the second language preference for the second language

11. Discuss the major differences between "child-centered" and "teacher-directed" early-childhood education programs. What does each type of program emphasize in its work with young children?

ANSWER: Child-centered programs are based on Piaget's theory that children will discover new ideas on their own, and Vygotsky's theory that children will learn best with guidance from other children and adults. These programs include a variety of opportunities for children to find their own interests and skills, including artistic, cognitive, and life-skills challenges. Montessori schools and Reggio schools are good examples of child-centered programs.

Teacher-directed programs are based on behaviorist theories, which emphasizes step-by-step learning and repetition, with reinforcement (praise, gold stars, prizes) for accomplishment. Teacherdirected programs tend to be behavioral in their approach, structured on a basis of reward and punishment, and focused on school readiness. These programs include basic academic activities such as writing letters, sounding out words, and counting. Good behavior and adherence to routine are rewarded. Most preschool teachers, whether they are aware of it or not, run their classrooms in a teacher-centered way.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discusses the major Discusses differences Does not adequately differences between between childdiscuss the major child-centered and centered and teacher- differences between teacher-directed directed education child-centered and education and without mentioning teacher-directed mentions Piaget, Piaget, Vygotsky, education Vygotsky, Reggio, Reggio, and and Montessori Montessori Tell what childTells what childTells what childDoes not tell what centered education centered education centered education child-centered emphasizes and what emphasizes and what emphasizes or what education emphasizes teacher-directed teacher-directed teacher-directed or what teachereducation emphasizes education emphasizes education emphasizes directed education emphasizes Discuss the major differences between child-centered and teacher-directed education

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Essay 12. Intensive early-childhood programs have been implemented in the United States. Give at least four examples of ways in which children benefit from early intervention.

ANSWER: The benefits are most apparent for children 1) with the lowest family incomes, 2) those living in rural areas, and 3) those with disabilities. Early education's long-term benefits become most apparent when the children are in the third grade or older. Children from these programs 1) scored higher on math and reading achievement tests at age 10 than did other children from the same backgrounds, schools, and neighborhoods. They are also 2) less likely to be placed in classes for children with special needs or 3) to repeat a year of school than their peers. In adolescence, the children who had intensive preschool education 4) had higher career aspirations, 5) possessed a greater sense of achievement, and 6) were less likely to have been abused. As young adults, they were 7) more likely to attend college, 8) less likely to go to jail, and 9) more often working and paying taxes rather than relying on government subsidies.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Give four examples Gives four examples Gives three examples Gives two or fewer of specific age of specific age groups of specific age groups examples of specific groups benefitting benefitting benefitting age groups benefitting from early intervention

13. Compare and contrast the child-centered educational programs that are discussed in the text.

ANSWER: The child-centered approaches discussed in the text include Montessori schools, Reggio Emilia, and Waldorf schools. Montessori schools provide structured, individualized projects to give students a sense of accomplishment. In today's Montessori schools children seek out learning tasks; they do not sit quietly in groups while a teacher instructs them. Another form of early-childhood education is Reggio Emilia. In Reggio Emilia, children are encouraged to master skills that are not usually taught in North American schools until age 7 or so, such as writing and using tools. Reggio schools do not provide large-group instruction. Instead, hands-on activities chosen by individual children are stressed. Child progress is documented via scrapbooks, photos, and daily notes rather than achievement tests. Art appreciation is also stressed, as well as group projects. A third type of childcentered program is called a Waldorf school. The emphasis again is on creativity and individuality—with no homework, no tests, no worksheets. As much as possible, children play outdoors; appreciation of nature is basic to Waldorf education. Children of various ages learn together, because older children serve as mentors for younger ones, and the curriculum follows the interests of the child, not the age of the child. There is a set schedule—usually circle time in the beginning and certain activities on certain days (always baking on Tuesdays, for instance)—but children are not expected to master specific knowledge at certain ages.

Compares and contrasts the three child-centered approaches

Good (5 pts.)

Compares and contrasts the three child-centered approaches

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Compares and Does not compare or contrasts two, but not contrast the three all three, of the child- child-centered centered approaches approaches

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 1. Preoperational intelligence _____. a. allows children to think in symbols b. includes logical reasoning c. is characterized by reversibility of thought d. relies primarily on children's motor skills and senses ANSWER: a 2. Piaget referred to the early childhood (ages 2 to 6) stage of cognitive development as "_____ intelligence." a. operational b. egocentric c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 3. Piaget called the stage of cognitive development between the ages of 2 and 6 "preoperational intelligence" because children do not yet _____. a. demonstrate intellectual behavior b. use logical operations c. understand language d. produce language ANSWER: b 4. Piaget believed that until about age 6, it is difficult for children to think _____. a. subjectively b. egocentrically c. logically d. about animism ANSWER: c 5. One of the milestones of preoperational thought is the ability to _____. a. use symbolic thought b. understand reversibility c. display conservation d. think logically ANSWER: a 6. Hong was playing under the kitchen table when they stood up suddenly and bumped their head. Hong pointed at the table and sternly said, "Mean table!" Hong is demonstrating Piaget's concept of "_____." a. egocentrism b. operational thinking c. centration Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. animism ANSWER: d 7. To focus on one aspect of a situation and simultaneously exclude all other aspects is called "_____." a. magical thinking b. static reasoning c. centration d. animism ANSWER: c 8. A magician's goal is to get the audience to focus on one aspect of the demonstration while they manipulate another. This is easy to do with preoperational children, as they are fooled by their tendency to _____. a. be logical thinkers b. reverse things in their minds c. demonstrate centration d. equilibrate ANSWER: c 9. Ten-year-old Ruslan has no problem understanding that the 20-year-old woman who sometimes stays with them is both a student and a babysitter. According to Piaget, this is because Ruslan's thinking has moved beyond _____. a. conservation b. object permanence c. overregularization d. centration ANSWER: d 10. _____ is the belief that natural objects and phenomena are alive, moving around, and having sensations and abilities that are human-like. a. Egocentrism b. Animism c. Centration d. Static reasoning ANSWER: b 11. "You are your mom's daughter, right?" Grandpa asked Beatriz. "Yes!" Beatriz eagerly answered. "Well, your mom is my daughter," Grandpa replied. "No! She's my Mommy!" Beatriz exclaimed. Beatriz is demonstrating which Piagetian limitation? a. conservation b. object permanence c. overregularization d. centration Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 12. The Piagetian term for when a child thinks about the world only from their personal perspective is called "_____." a. static reasoning b. egocentrism c. irreversibility d. conservatism ANSWER: b 13. Regine and their mother were shopping for a birthday gift for Regine's father. "How about this? Daddy would love it!" Regine exclaimed, showing their mother a pink and purple toy horse with flowing mane and tail.

Regine's belief that their father would enjoy a toy that Regine themselves would enjoy is an example of "_____." a. static reasoning b. egocentrism c. irreversibility d. conservatism ANSWER: b 14. Four-year-old Ela thinks a tall 20-year-old man is older than a short 40-year-old man. Which Piagetian limitation characterizes Ela's thinking? a. egocentrism b. static thinking c. a focus on appearance d. symbolic thinking ANSWER: c 15. After seeing their new haircut for the first time, Tania began crying inconsolably. They cried, "You turned me into a boy!" Tania's statement is an example of "_____." a. egocentrism b. static thinking c. a focus on appearance d. symbolic thinking ANSWER: c 16. When Jawahir sees their kindergarten teacher in the grocery store, they are amazed to see them outside of school. Jawahir's surprise is an example of "_____." a. static reasoning b. abstract reasoning c. concrete thinking d. irreversibility Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 17. When children assume that the world is unchanging, they engage in _____. a. magical thinking b. static reasoning c. centration d. a focus on appearance ANSWER: b 18. The characteristic of preoperational thought in which a young child thinks that nothing changes is called "_____." a. egocentrism b. conservation c. static reasoning d. centration ANSWER: c 19. Yishai dropped a tiny spot of ketchup on their pants during lunch. Even though their teacher was able to completely remove the spot, Yishai cries hysterically and says that they want to go home because the outfit is ruined. Yishai's reaction is an example of "_____." a. irreversibility b. centration c. egocentrism d. conservation ANSWER: a 20. Irreversibility refers to the preoperational child's tendency to _____. a. focus on something other than appearances b. use deductive reasoning to solve a problem c. believe that what has been done cannot be undone d. engage in centration when another solution is needed ANSWER: c 21. Arkady's mother takes them to the barber for their first real haircut. At first, Arkady is excited, but as soon as the barber makes the first cut in their hair, they become very upset and tell their mother to make the barber stop. In spite of their mother's efforts to assure Arkady that their hair will grow back, Arkady is exhibiting the Piagetian characteristic known as "_____." a. animism b. centration c. egocentrism d. irreversibility ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 22. A child's inability to understand that undoing a sequence of events will bring about the original situation is called "_____." a. concrete operations b. conservation c. irreversibility d. symbolic thought ANSWER: c 23. Four-year-old Irma is sitting at the lunch counter next to their sister Nandita. They are having hot dogs for lunch. When their mom cuts Irma's hot dog into five pieces and Nandita's into six pieces. Irma protests, "They have more than me!" Which of these does Irma NOT yet grasp? a. animism b. centration c. egocentrism d. conservation ANSWER: d 24. Marija has a ball of Silly Putty. Their 6-year-old child, Dobroslav, watches as Marija flattens the Silly Putty into a thin "pancake." When Marija asks Dobroslav if there is now more Silly Putty, Dobroslav replies "Yes" because they have _____. a. an understanding of scaffolding b. not mastered the concept of conservation c. an understanding of object permanence d. demonstrated fast-mapping ANSWER: b 25. Edweena is the parent of 3-year-old Decha. Edweena shows Decha two equal balls of Play-Doh and determines that they view them as both the same. They then roll one of the balls into a long "snake" and asks Decha if the amounts of clay are still the same or if one is different. Decha replies, "The snake has more PlayDoh now!" Decha's reply indicates that they do not yet understand _____. a. animism b. conservation c. centration d. symbolic language ANSWER: b 26. According to Vygotsky, guided participation requires that a child _____. a. interact with a mentor to accomplish a task b. is only provided with one set of directions for a task c. discover the solution to a task on their own d. learn new skills through observation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 27. According to Lev Vygotsky, a child's first guided participation is provided by a mentor who is MOST likely a _____. a. classmate b. zone of proximal development c. parent d. younger sibling ANSWER: c 28. As Juan and their father, Carlos, put together a puzzle for the first time, Carlos begins by showing Juan how to locate the outside pieces of the puzzle first. Once Juan starts to get the idea, Carlos gradually withdraws their support, allowing Juan to take more responsibility. Carlos is demonstrating Vygotsky's concept of "_____." a. sensorimotor support b. scaffolding c. optimal reinforcement d. overimitation ANSWER: b 29. According to Vygotsky's theory, skills that a child can accomplish with assistance but cannot yet perform independently are part of _____. a. preoperational thinking b. their theory of mind c. physical maturation d. the zone of proximal development ANSWER: d 30. One of Vygotsky's most influential concepts was the "zone of proximal development." According to this concept, _____. a. there is a certain place in a school where most learning occurs b. children can only reach a certain level of intelligence c. children can master challenging tasks with the help of others d. certain parts of the brain need to be activated during sensitive periods ANSWER: c 31. Matej helps their 2-year-old child make hot chocolate. Matej assists their child as they measure teaspoons of cocoa into a cup, add water, stir the contents, and then microwave the cup. Matej is demonstrating Vygotsky's concept of "_____." a. scaffolding b. experience-expectant growth c. conservation training d. modeling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 32. According to Vygotsky, a teacher who carefully plans each child's participation in the learning process within the zone of proximal development uses _____. a. reinforcements for good behavior b. scaffolding c. peer mentoring d. skill construction ANSWER: b 33. Which is an example of scaffolding? a. Loke helps their child build a model airplane by assembling it while their child watches. b. Dosifey and Anastazie buy an Xbox game system for their 5-year-old child. They set it up for them and then allow them to figure out how to turn it on and use it. c. Hatice buys a do-it-yourself kite kit for their 6-year-old child. They lay all of the pieces out for them and then allow them to read the instructions and follow them themselves. d. Fizza helps their child make cookies. They measure all of the ingredients out and place them on the counter in small bowls. They read the recipe aloud as their child places the ingredients in the bowl and mixes them together with a spoon.

ANSWER: d 34. According to Vygotsky, which capability is demonstrated when young children repeat adult actions that are irrelevant, time-consuming, and inefficient? a. observing b. scaffolding c. modeling d. overimitation ANSWER: d 35. Neela, 2½ years old, watches their father read the paper every morning at breakfast. Yesterday, Neela's mom observed them climbing into a chair and rapidly scrunching pages of the newspaper as they tried to turn pages. When they saw their mother looking, Neela exclaimed, "Like daddy!" Neela's behavior illustrates the concept of "_____." a. executive functioning b. scaffolding c. exaggerated expression d. overimitation ANSWER: d 36. While working on a coloring worksheet, 5-year-old Aaliyah can be heard whispering, "Color this one blue.

Stay in the lines. Oh, yellow would be pretty." According to Vygotsky, Aaliyah's utterances are _____. a. egocentric Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. indicative of emotional problems c. called private speech d. undermining her learning ANSWER: c 37. Although all of the objects of a culture guide children, _____ believed that language is pivotal. a. Vygotsky b. B. F. Skinner c. Ainsworth d. Erikson ANSWER: a 38. According to Vygotsky, the internal dialogue that people have with themselves either silently or aloud is referred to as "_____." a. theory of mind b. guided participation c. private speech d. apprenticeship ANSWER: c 39. Speech serves a _____ function, as mentors guide mentees in their zone of proximal development, learning numbers, recalling memories, and following routines. a. preoperational b. sociobiological c. bidirectional d. social mediation ANSWER: d 40. According to Vygotsky, within the context of cognition, language is a tool _____. a. to make oneself understood b. to regulate behavior c. to advance thought d. of self-expression ANSWER: c 41. Executive functioning involves three components: _____. a. working memory, cognitive flexibility, and inhibitory control b. short-term memory, habituation, and theory of mind c. information processing, emotional reactivity, and social awareness d. perspective-taking, concrete thinking, and cognitive flexibility ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 42. Preschoolers try to construct a reason for the things that they see and hear. This is known as "_____." a. reversibility b. focus on appearance c. theory-theory d. logical reasoning ANSWER: c 43. Humans seek reasons, causes, and underlying principles to explain the world around them. The research term for this is _____. a. deductive reasoning b. conservation c. scaffolding d. theory-theory ANSWER: d 44. A few days ago, Linh's parents disciplined them because they refused to eat the green beans. Today, when their parents announced that they were going to get a divorce, Linh cried, "Is it because I was bad? I'll be good!"

Linh's conclusion that their failure to eat the green beans is the reason their parents are getting divorced reflects the concept of "_____." a. deductive reasoning b. conservation c. scaffolding d. theory-theory ANSWER: d 45. According to theory-theory, children imitate irrelevant adult behaviors because they _____. a. mindlessly copy everything adults do b. theorize that the irrelevant behavior must be important c. theorize that the adult will reward them for correct imitation d. derive pleasure from correctly imitating behaviors of all sorts ANSWER: b 46. A person's understanding of the thoughts of other people is called "_____." a. intuitive psychology b. psychological schemata c. theory of mind d. self-schemes ANSWER: c 47. When do MOST children without older siblings develop theory of mind? a. 1 year Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years ANSWER: d 48. Only after a child has developed theory of mind can they _____. a. offer comfort to a crying playmate b. tell a lie c. feel anger d. take turns sharing ANSWER: b 49. Tashi understands that their parent is crying because their friend died. This shows that Tashi has developed _____. a. egocentrism b. a script for crying c. theory of mind d. conservation ANSWER: c 50. Research indicates that _____ are also more advanced in theory of mind and executive functioning. a. only children b. more truthful preschoolers c. more logical liars d. younger children ANSWER: c 51. Maturation of the _____ is crucial to the development of theory of mind. a. hypothalamus b. prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. limbic system ANSWER: b 52. Which child is MOST likely to have the best-developed theory of mind? a. Gio, age 3, who is the oldest of three children b. Javion, age 2, who is an only child c. Silvano, age 3½, who has a twin sister d. Colbert, age 3½, who has two older siblings ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 53. Executive functioning has been associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. protecting adolescents from destructive emotional outbursts. b. reduced academic achievement in middle childhood. c. promoting coping skills in adulthood. d. forestalling death in late adulthood.

ANSWER: b 54. Which type of memory is emphasized in executive functioning? a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. temporary ANSWER: b 55. Viraj is 5 years old and is on a field trip with their preschool. When they have a question, they can't help but blurt it out, often interrupting others. While this may come across as rude, it is likely related to: a. a lack of inhibition. b. diminished working memory. c. limited flexibility. d. poor socialization.

ANSWER: a 56. Shifting in the context of executive function is another term for _____. a. memory b. inhibition c. flexibility d. adaptability ANSWER: c 57. Oliver and Onesiphoros are playing at the park and Marcella wants to play with the ball that Oliver has.

Oliver decides to share the ball with Marcella. This is associated with which aspect of executive functioning? a. memory b. inhibition c. flexibility d. adaptability ANSWER: c 58. Granville is participating in a research study that is examining executing functioning among preschool children. They are asked to press a button when they see a cat but not a frog. This study is assessing which aspect of executive functioning? a. memory b. inhibition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. flexibility d. adaptability ANSWER: b 59. When is an important time to develop executive function skills? a. infancy b. early childhood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: b 60. Which of these is the BETTER predictor of later success resulting from learning in kindergarten? a. language skills b. reading comprehension c. executive functioning d. math skills ANSWER: c 61. Conservation and other forms of logical ideas have been demonstrated in children as young as: a. 4 years. b. 6 years. c. 8 years. d. 10 years.

ANSWER: b 62. Danica loves to play video games, like many other children. While these can be fun, one of the main issues with video games is that they impede the development of executive function skills by: a. encouraging rapid responses. b. discouraging social skills. c. promoting antisocial behaviors. d. encouraging aggression.

ANSWER: a 63. Developmentalists believe that a first language is a(n) _____ for learning a second language. a. scaffold b. prerequisite c. facilitator d. inhibitor ANSWER: a 64. The number of root words the average 5-year-old knows ranges from: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. 500 to 1,000. b. 1,000 to 3,000. c. 2,000 to 6,000. d. 4,000 to 8,000.

ANSWER: c 65. When Cuan was 11 months old, they were injured in a car crash. They were in a coma for almost a year and then spent many months of recovery from a brain injury. By their third birthday, although they are making good progress, they have not yet spoken, and their parents are fearful that they will never speak. The doctors, however, feel confident that Cuan will learn to speak. This is because early childhood is NOT a(n) _____ for language learning. a. sensitive period b. critical period c. developmental task d. executive function ANSWER: b 66. By the age of 2, a child will typically have a vocabulary of _____ words; by the age of 6, a child will typically have a vocabulary of _____ words. a. 500; 10,000 b. 5,000; 10,000 c. 200; 40,000 d. 100; 2,000 ANSWER: a 67. Azeneth is a young child. They have a vocabulary of roughly 700 words. Recently, Azeneth has started asking "What's that?" questions. For example, at the zoo, they pointed to every animal, asking, "What's that?"

While reading books with their parents, Azeneth continually asks, "What's that?" even when they are familiar with the pictures. Based on this information, Azeneth is probably _____ years old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANSWER: a 68. A child's ability to add new vocabulary words very quickly by placing them in mental categories according to their perceived meaning is called "_____." a. fast-mapping b. word mapping c. mental language d. word charting ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 69. When children hear a new word in a familiar context, they can simply add the word to the general category without fully understanding the word. This is called "_____." a. lexical addition b. categorical embellishment c. vocabulary expansion d. fast-mapping ANSWER: d 70. Logical extension involves _____. a. linking a newly learned word to other objects in the same category b. mentally charting new words c. applying a new concept to a preexisting category d. equilibration ANSWER: a 71. Idris, age 4, visited the city zoo, pointed to a zebra, and exclaimed, "Look at the horse with stripes!" In describing the zebra, Idris used _____. a. logical extension b. fast-mapping c. overregularization d. theory of mind ANSWER: a 72. For an English-speaking child, which word pair is especially difficult to understand? a. mine/yours b. mommy/daddy c. teacher/friend d. here/there ANSWER: d 73. The structures, rules, and techniques used to communicate meaning in language are called "_____." a. inflections b. logical extensions c. grammar d. theory-theory ANSWER: c 74. Knowledge of _____ is essential for learning how to speak, read, and write. a. pragmatics b. code-switching Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. social gestures d. grammar ANSWER: d 75. Chaim, age 4, speaks differently to their baby brother than to their teacher. This indicates that Chaim understands some of the practical uses of language. Chaim is developing an understanding of: a. pragmatics. b. code-switching. c. social gestures. d. grammar.

ANSWER: a 76. Overregularization in a child's speech patterns indicates that _____. a. the child is entering a sensitive period of language development b. the child can apply grammatical rules to vocalizations c. logical extension is underway d. fast-mapping has occurred ANSWER: b 77. Jobe told their grandma, "I catched two mouses in a trap." Jobe's speech errors are an example of _____. a. egocentric speech b. overregularization c. literal translation d. past imperfect tense ANSWER: b 78. Overregularization occurs because children _____. a. tend to regress briefly before progressing to new forms of language b. have no understanding of past, present, and future verb tenses c. assume that the language is less regular than it actually is d. assume their language always follows the rules they already know ANSWER: d 79. When shown a novel object and told that it is called a "wug," preschoolers know that two of those objects would be two "wugs." This ability to correctly add an –s when pluralizing is evidence of their proper use of _____. a. inflections b. logical extensions c. grammar d. theory-theory ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 80. Knowing which words, tones, and grammatical forms to use with whom is called "_____." a. pragmatics b. code-switching c. imitative speech d. grammar ANSWER: a 81. The bilingual brain may provide some resistance to _____. a. learning disabilities like dyslexia b. autism spectrum disorders c. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease d. depression and anxiety ANSWER: c 82. Rajesh's family recently immigrated to the United States from the Ukraine. After they attended kindergarten, their parents noticed that their English was more fluent than their Ukrainian. Rajesh was exhibiting _____. a. a language shift b. accelerated bilingualism c. a vocabulary explosion d. linguistic egocentrism ANSWER: a 83. Language shift occurs everywhere when _____ leads children to conclude that their first language is inferior to another one. a. a differentiated self-concept b. adult scaffolding c. theory-theory d. pragmatic development ANSWER: c 84. In terms of early childhood learning, research has found that if the home educational quality is poor, then _____. a. Head Start is especially beneficial b. attendance at preschool is detrimental c. day care will be more beneficial than preschool d. a child-centered program will be more beneficial than another approach ANSWER: a 85. Child-centered programs are often influenced by the theories of _____ and _____. a. Piaget; Freud b. Piaget; Vygotsky Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. Vygotsky; Skinner d. Skinner; Freud ANSWER: b 86. Sunnymont Preschool has plenty of opportunities for the children to play dress-up, dance, build with blocks, finger-paint, and be creative. Sunnymont is MOST likely a _____ program. a. Vygotsky-based b. child-centered c. teacher-directed d. bilingual ANSWER: b 87. Learning Circle Preschool emphasizes individual pride and achievement while focusing on teaching young children literacy-related tasks. Learning Circle's approach seems to most closely resemble a(n) _____ program. a. intervention b. Montessori c. Reggio Emilia d. bilingual ANSWER: b 88. What was Maria Montessori's objective when she created her preschool? a. individual achievement b. the development of math skills c. creative expression d. obedience to a teacher ANSWER: a 89. The Reggio Emilia early-childhood program originated in _____. a. the United States b. Norway c. France d. Italy ANSWER: d 90. The Reggio Emilia early-childhood program focuses on _____. a. reinforcement for academic accomplishments b. assimilation and accommodation skills c. children's creativity and artistic talent d. self-esteem and self-concept ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 91. Micah attends a preschool where there is not large-group instruction but there is ample opportunity for creative expression. They are engaged in a long-term art project that they chose in which they are making dinosaurs out of clay. Which child-centered approach does Micah's preschool MOST closely reflect? a. Reggio Emilia b. Montessori c. Head Start d. teacher-directed ANSWER: a 92. Most teacher-directed preschool programs stress _____. a. academics b. arts and music c. social skills d. dual-language learning ANSWER: a 93. The goal of most teacher-directed preschools is _____. a. promoting individual achievement b. encouraging informal social interaction c. shaping student behavior d. teaching children to read by the end of the year ANSWER: c 94. Salim is in a teacher-directed preschool. Which activity would their parents NOT expect them to be doing? a. listening to a story read aloud during circle time b. forming the letter M in a tray filled with shaving cream c. gluing pieces of macaroni on a paper plate to form a number d. working on a long-term individual project about birds ANSWER: d 95. Which preschool programs stress each child's development and growth? a. private b. public c. child-centered d. teacher-directed ANSWER: c 96. In the United States, children of parents with low income are offered a free preschool education through _____. a. the War on Poverty b. the Public Broadcasting System Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. the Women, Infants, and Children Program d. Head Start ANSWER: d 97. An evaluation of Head Start found that benefits were MOST apparent for children _____. a. without disabilities b. with the lowest family income c. living in urban areas d. living in suburban areas ANSWER: b 98. Compared to children who did not attend an intensive early-intervention program, longitudinal studies showed that the children who did participate _____. a. were less likely to need special education and more likely to attend college b. had higher IQ scores in high school and were more likely to attend college c. had higher IQ scores in high school but were less likely to attend college d. had higher math and reading achievement at age 10 and higher IQ scores in high school ANSWER: a 99. Early intervention programs are quite expensive annually per child. Why are these programs considered a "wise investment"? a. Children who attend these programs score 15 to 30 points higher in IQ than their peers. b. Preschoolers who attend these programs show significantly greater achievement in all academic areas when compared to national averages. c. Most researchers actually disagree with the investment, arguing that the cost is too high. d. The investment leads to decreased need for special education and other social services later on.

ANSWER: d 100. Which type of early childhood education was developed by Rudolf Steiner in Germany in 1919? a. Reggio Emilia b. Montessori schools c. Waldorf schools d. Head Start ANSWER: c 101. Appreciation of nature is a basic component of: a. Reggio Emilia. b. Montessori schools. c. Waldorf schools. d. Head Start.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 102. Roughly what percentage of U.S. children between 3 and 4 years of age attend Head Start? a. 5 percent b. 12 percent c. 23 percent d. 45 percent ANSWER: b 103. Which of these is NOT a requirement that was implemented in 2016 for Head Start programs? a. They must be open at least 6 hours a day. b. They must be open 180 days a year. c. They must be open only half-days d. They must give special support to students who are homeless.

ANSWER: c 104. Which of these is TRUE regarding executive function? a. They are foundational. b. They are not involved in reading. c. They are developed during adolescence. d. They are determined at conception.

ANSWER: a 105. Piaget called the self-centeredness of childhood: a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. centration. d. static reasoning.

ANSWER: b 106. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a good mentor, according to Vygotsky? a. They present challenges. b. They take over. c. They add crucial information. d. They encourage motivation.

ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 20

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Essay 1. Discuss the development of emotional regulation in early childhood, including the concept of "effortful control." How do culture and family contribute to its development?

ANSWER: Emotional regulation, which is the ability to know how and when to express emotions, helps the child control impulsive behavior and appropriately display emotions. In the process of emotional regulation, children develop their self-concept, which is their idea of who they are. In early childhood, they begin to understand some of their characteristics, which include what emotions they feel and how they express them. Emotional regulation is also called "effortful control," a term which emphasizes that controlling outbursts is not easy. Effortful control is more difficult when people of any age are in pain, or tired, or hungry. For all aspects of emotional regulation, culture and family matter. Children may be encouraged to express or hide their emotions. Some adults guffaw, slap their knees, and stomp their feet for joy; others cover their mouths if a smile spontaneously appears.

Anger is regulated in almost every culture but the expression of it varies a great deal. No matter what the specifics, parents teach emotional regulation.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss the Discusses the Discusses the development of development of development of emotional regulation, emotional regulation, emotional regulation including effortful including effortful but does not explain control control effortful control Explain how culture Explains how culture Explains how and family contribute and family contribute culture or family contributes

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not discuss the role of emotional regulation or effortful control Does not explain how culture or family contributes

2. Briefly describe what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage.

ANSWER: During Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage, children undertake new skills and activities. They attempt to master tasks by themselves, expressing pride in their successes and guilt about their failures. Their self-esteem is blossoming. They tend to overestimate their abilities and try to emulate what adults are doing.

Describe what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage

Good (5 pts.)

Describes what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage

Fair (3 pts.)

Is vague about what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage

3. Define intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. How might parents and teachers help children become intrinsically motivated?

ANSWER: Intrinsic motivation comes from within a person who does something for the joy of doing it without the need for payment, praise, or other external reward. Extrinsic motivation comes from outside a person, and entices the person to behave in a certain way in order to earn praise, money, or rewards, or to avoid punishment.

Parents and teachers can help children become intrinsically motivated by acknowledging their effort when engaged in activities, instead of the product or outcome of their effort.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define both types of Defines both types of Defines either type of Does not define either motivation motivation motivation type of motivation Explain how adults Explains how adults Is vague about how Does not explain how can promote intrinsic can promote intrinsic adults can promote adults can promote motivation motivation intrinsic motivation intrinsic motivation

4. Ms. Shekhar is a kindergarten teacher. What are the different types of play that they are likely to observe in their students based on the observations of Mildred Parten.

ANSWER: Parten identified the following types of play: 1) Solitary: A child plays alone, unaware of other children playing nearby.

2) Onlooker: A child watches other children play.

3) Parallel: Children play in similar ways but not together.

4) Associative: Children interact, sharing toys, but not taking turns.

5) Cooperative: Children play together, creating dramas or taking turns.

List and define five types of play

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists and defines five Lists and defines three Lists and defines two types of play types of play or fewer types of play

5. What is social play and why is it important? Describe two types of social play, explaining why each type is important for a child's psychosocial development.

ANSWER: Social play includes running, jumping, and throwing. Social play is important for the development of motor skills and muscles. In addition, when playing with peers, children learn turn-taking, planning, and self-control.

Rough-and-tumble play includes activities such as wrestling, pushing, and climbing. It is engaged in most often by boys. This type of play is essential for the development of empathy, self-control, and recognition of others' emotions (through facial expressions and body language).

Sociodramatic play is pretend play and role playing. It is important for advancing the child's theory of mind, empathy, and creativity.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define and explain Defines and explains Defines but does not Does not define or active play active play explain active play explain active play Identify two types of Identifies two types of Identifies two types of Does not identify or active play, and active play and active play but does explain the two types explain their explains their not explain their of active play importance importance importance

6. List and define four forms of aggression. Indicate which form(s) increase(s) over the years and which form(s) decrease(s).

ANSWER: Instrumental aggression is hurtful behavior that is aimed at gaining something (such as a toy, a place in line, or a turn on the swing) that someone else has.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Essay Reactive aggression is an impulsive retaliation for a hurt (intentional or accidental) that can be verbal or physical.

Relational aggression refers to nonphysical acts, such as insults or social rejection, aimed at harming the social connections between the victim and others.

Bullying aggression refers to unprovoked, repeated physical or verbal attack, especially on victims who are unlikely to defend themselves.

Instrumental and reactive aggression tend to decline with age. Relational aggression increases with age and bullying aggression can either increase or decrease with age.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

List and define four Lists and defines four Lists and defines two Does not list or define forms of aggression forms of aggression or fewer forms of any forms of aggression aggression Indicate which forms Indicates which forms Indicates which forms Does not accurately increase and which increase and which increase or which indicate which forms forms decrease forms decrease forms decrease increase or decrease

7. Describe the three parenting styles identified by Baumrind.

ANSWER: Baumrind identified the following styles: - Authoritarian, which is characterized by lack of warmth; strict, rigid rules; allows no input from the child; and strict, often physical, discipline. These parents have high expectations for maturity.

- Authoritative, which is warm and nurturing; uses reinforcement over punishment; understands that children are not cognitively as mature as adults; and encourages communication between the parent and child. These parents have realistic expectations for maturity.

- Permissive, which may be warm and loving but does not establish rules and often does not have consequences even for overt misbehaviors. These parents have low expectations for maturity.

Note: The neglectful/uninvolved parenting style was not identified by Baumrind and should not be included in the answer.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe Baumrind's Describes all three of Describes two of Describes one or none parenting styles Baumrind's parenting Baumrind's parenting of Baumrind's styles styles parenting styles

8. Describe neglectful/uninvolved parenting and compare it to the permissive parenting style.

ANSWER: Neglectful/uninvolved parents do not seem to care what or how their children are doing. Permissive parents care about their children's activities and are involved in their children's lives; however, they are indulgent. With both styles, the parents do not use physical punishment for misbehavior.

Good (5 pts.)

Describe the Clearly describes the neglectful/uninvolved neglectful/uninvolved parenting style parenting style Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Gives a vague description of the neglectful/uninvolved parenting style

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe the neglectful/uninvolved parenting style Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Essay Compare it to the permissive parenting style

Compares neglectful/ uninvolved parenting to permissive parenting

Describes permissive parenting without making a comparison

Does not compare the two parenting styles

9. Discuss the long-term outcomes associated with the four parenting styles.

ANSWER: Children who are raised by authoritative parents tend to be popular with their peers, confident, and exploratory. Their behavior seems more mature than their peers, as they are less likely to act out or to rebel. As adults, they tend to be successful, articulate, happy with themselves, and generous with others.

Children who have authoritarian parents tend to be well-behaved when adults are present but may act out when alone or with peers. Rebellion is common, and these children tend to be less selfconfident than their peers. As adults, they are conscientious, obedient, and quiet but not especially happy.

Children who have permissive parents tend to be less mature than their peers. They display poorer self-regulation and often act out in an attempt to solicit parental or adult control. They continue to display dependent behaviors into adulthood. As adults, they lack emotional regulation and selfcontrol. This immaturity impedes relationships, which is the main reason for their unhappiness.

Children with neglectful/uninvolved parents tend to be immature, sad, lonely, and at risk of injury and abuse not only during childhood but throughout their life span.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss the long-term Discusses the long- Discusses the longoutcomes for each of term outcomes for all term outcomes for the parenting styles four parenting styles three of the four parenting styles

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discusses the longterm outcomes for two or fewer of the four parenting styles

10. Explain the difference between sex and gender as described in the text. Give three examples of gender schema.

ANSWER: Sex is defined by biology and includes the anatomical differences between boys and girls. Gender is a cultural construct and includes everything from toy preferences to dress to which emotions may be expressed and how they are to be expressed. Examples of gender schema include cultural constructs such as 1) boys shouldn't cry; 2) girls play with dolls instead of soldiers; 3) boys don't do ballet; 4) girls don't play football. (Allow for other acceptable answers.)

Explain the difference between sex and gender Offer examples of gender schema

Good (5 pts.)

Gives definitions of sex and gender

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives the definition of Does not give the sex or gender definition of sex or gender Offers three examples Offers two examples Offers one or no of gender schema of gender schema example of gender schema

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Essay 11. Evolutionary theory proposes that sexual passion is a basic human drive because all creatures must reproduce. Explain this idea and how it is related to development.

ANSWER: Evolutionary theory holds that sexual passion is a basic human drive because all creatures must reproduce. Since conception requires an ovum and a sperm, males and females follow their evolutionary mandate by seeking to attract the other sex. That awakens sexual impulses in the other sex, assuring that the species will continue. This evolutionary drive may explain why, already in early childhood, boys have a powerful urge to become like men, and girls like women. These impulses prepare them, later on, to mate and conceive a new generation. Evolutionary theory also emphasizes the urge to reproduce. Over millennia of human history, genes, chromosomes, and hormones dictate that young boys are more active (rough-and-tumble play) and girls more domestic (playing house), which prepared them for adulthood.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains the Explains the Partly explains the Does not explain the evolutionary theory evolutionary theory evolutionary theory. evolutionary theory Explains how Explains how Partly explains how Does not explain how evolutionary theory is evolutionary theory is evolutionary theory is evolutionary theory is related to related to development related to development related to development development

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 1. The preeminent psychosocial accomplishment between the ages of 2 and 6 is learning when and how to _____. a. make friends b. know right from wrong c. regulate emotions d. make choices ANSWER: c 2. Iodocus is an angry 5-year-old girl. They might stop themselves from hitting the other child they are angry with because they have developed _____. a. social referencing b. self-esteem c. identification d. emotion regulation ANSWER: d 3. Emotion regulation is also referred to as "_____." a. intentional behavior b. motivation c. effortful control d. demanding control ANSWER: c 4. Erikson called the psychosocial developmental stage that occurs between 3 and 6 years of age _____. a. initiative versus guilt b. industry versus inferiority c. the preoperational stage d. autonomy versus inferiority ANSWER: a 5. Children with a parent who does not have an optimal balance between expression and control of feelings may be likely to _____. a. struggle with emotion regulation b. develop a sense of shame c. experience high levels of pride d. demonstrate characteristics of autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: a 6. Wyot is at the toy store and sees a construction set. They ask their parent if they can have it for their birthday.

Their parent asks Wyot if they think they would be able to use it. Wyot reminds their parent that they are good at building with blocks. What does this example demonstrate? a. Wyot's parent is undermining their initiative.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. Wyot's need to prove themselves worthy to their parent. c. Wyot's positive self-concept. d. Wyot's sense of shame and doubt.

ANSWER: c 7. Curran, age 5, describes themself as a good soccer player with black hair who laughs a lot. Curran's description demonstrates their developing _____. a. self-esteem b. self-concept c. self-deprecation d. self-criticism ANSWER: b 8. Two-year-old Andrei repeatedly exclaims "Me do it!" when their parent tries to help them. Although this behavior is frustrating, their parent understands that doing things independently will develop Andrei's sense of _____. a. initiative b. trust c. integrity d. emotion regulation ANSWER: a 9. Kallias frequently remind their child of their positive accomplishments. As a result, their child may develop _____. a. protective optimism b. trust c. integrity d. emotion regulation ANSWER: a 10. _____ makes children believe that they will be good at anything they try to do. a. Overwhelming pride b. Protective optimism c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 11. According to Erikson, children have _____, and thus believe that they can achieve any goal. a. a sense of self-doubt b. a weak self-concept c. strong feelings of guilt Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. an optimistic self-concept ANSWER: d 12. Feelings of dislike are referred to as: a. empathy. b. antipathy. c. hostility. d. aggression.

ANSWER: b 13. Of these statements, which does NOT contribute to emotion regulation? a. Maturation matters. b. Learning matters. c. Culture matters. d. Timing of birth matters.

ANSWER: d 14. The desire to pursue a goal that comes from within a person is called "_____." a. emotion regulation b. extrinsic motivation c. intrinsic motivation d. effortful control ANSWER: c 15. Draco spends hours at a time playing with their doll. They give the doll a bath, dress it, feed it, and pretend to change its diaper. Draco is _____ to play with the doll. a. extensively motivated b. extrinsically motivated c. intrinsically motivated d. intensively driven ANSWER: c 16. A child having an imaginary friend is an example of _____. a. self-control b. intrinsic motivation c. extrinsic motivation d. protective optimism ANSWER: b 17. Hector frequently plays the piano whenever their family has guests because they enjoy the praise and attention that they receive. When alone, however, Hector rarely plays the piano. Hector's motivation _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. needs to be punished by their parents b. brings them great pleasure c. is mostly extrinsic d. will persist through adulthood ANSWER: c 18. Mr. and Mrs. Ambroos want to instill a sense of intrinsic motivation in their 5-year-old child Hursit. Hursit brings home a drawing of their school and classroom. How should the Ambroos' respond? a. "Wow! You are the best artist at school!" b. "You really should have worked harder on this." c. "Why didn't you color your picture?" d. "You really worked hard on this drawing!"

ANSWER: d 19. Which of these statements is TRUE? a. Effortful control, executive function, and emotion regulation are related constructs. b. Executive function emphasizes temperament. c. Effortful control emphasizes cognition and intelligence. d. Emotion regulation and effortful control undergird executive function.

ANSWER: a 20. Helle is 5 years old and often brags about their soccer playing skills. At what age will they likely stop bragging? a. now b. in about a year c. when they are about 7 years old d. at the age of 10 years ANSWER: c 21. Oktawian received a toy doll for a gift. They did not like the doll and quickly told this to the person who gave them the gift. It was also evident based on their facial expression. Their reaction is related to _____. a. emotion regulation b. effortful control c. executive function d. cognition and temperament ANSWER: a 22. Which type of play advances social skills? a. sociodramatic play with peers b. onlooker play c. solitary play Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. parallel play ANSWER: a 23. A recent study has found that the average 3-year-old spends more than _____ hour(s) a day viewing a screen. a. one b. two c. four d. five ANSWER: b 24. Excessive screen time is related to all of these EXCEPT: a. increased risk for obesity. b. increased risk for the flu. c. emotional immaturity. d. reduced cognition.

ANSWER: b 25. Pediatricians, psychologists, and educators all report that screen time reduces all of these EXCEPT: a. response time. b. conversation. c. imagination. d. outdoor play.

ANSWER: a 26. Many developmentalists believe that _____ is the most productive as well as the most enjoyable activity that children undertake. a. preschool b. drawing c. play d. watching digital media ANSWER: c 27. At preschool, 4-year-old Finnian rarely joins their peers in play. Instead, Finnian tends to carefully observe their classmates as they transition from one play center to the next. According to Mildred Parten, Finnian is engaged in _____ play. a. solitary b. onlooker c. parallel d. associative ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 28. Mildred Parten described _____ stages of play. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: d 29. Play can be divided into two kinds: _____ play, when a child is alone, and _____ play, which occurs with playmates. a. onlooker; parallel b. parallel; cooperative c. parallel; prosocial d. solitary; social ANSWER: d 30. Young children usually play best with _____. a. their peers b. their parents c. older children d. their younger siblings ANSWER: a 31. Yoash was assigned male at birth but identifies as a female. Yoash is: a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. binary. d. non-binary.

ANSWER: b 32. Which is NOT one of the types of play identified by Mildred Parten? a. personal play b. associative play c. onlooker play d. parallel play ANSWER: a 33. Elias and Manley are both building with construction bricks. They are sitting apart, each with their own set of bricks. They are engaged in _____ play. a. cooperative b. parallel c. onlooker Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. solitary ANSWER: b 34. Many developmentalists are concerned that modern children spend too little time _____. a. playing alone b. in rough-and-tumble play c. imitating adults d. engaged in social play ANSWER: d 35. Children who have peers to actively play with tend to _____. a. fight with them b. develop social skills c. get overwhelmed d. tattle on their playmates ANSWER: b 36. What is one of the functions peers provide in social play? a. social interaction b. criticism c. reluctant cooperation d. a quiet environment ANSWER: a 37. Play that mimics aggression through wrestling, chasing, or grabbing, but is not intended to harm, is called "_____ play." a. bullying b. sociodramatic c. parallel d. rough-and-tumble ANSWER: d 38. Just as monkeys do in their rough-and-tumble play, human children _____. a. look angry b. use a play face c. play hide and seek d. determine a social hierarchy ANSWER: b 39. Rough-and-tumble play has been associated with the development of the _____ area of the brain since it helps children to regulate their emotions, practice social skills, and strengthen their bodies.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. hippocampus b. frontal lobe c. prefrontal cortex d. brain stem ANSWER: c 40. Rough-and-tumble play between boys and parents is associated with: a. the development of the prefrontal cortex. b. the development of imagination. c. the development of compassion. d. emotion regulation.

ANSWER: c 41. Parnel, Olja, and Chan are playing dress-up. They are all princesses and have built a castle out of cardboard boxes and colored paper. What type of play are the three children engaging in? a. bullying play b. sociodramatic play c. parallel play d. rough-and-tumble play ANSWER: b 42. Narendra sees their friends Emel and Yelena playing a quiet game of blocks. Narendra wants to engage in some rough-and-tumble play, so they grab one of the blocks and run a few feet away, looking over their shoulder and displaying a play face. How are Emel and Yelena likely to respond? a. They will tell an adult that Narendra disrupted their game. b. They will chase Narendra and play wrestle. c. They will cry and demand their block back. d. They will ignore Narendra and continue playing with their blocks.

ANSWER: b 43. When Straton's parent gets home from work, Straton runs to them shouting, "Daddy!" Their parent sweeps them up in a bear hug, gives them a gentle knuckle rub on top of the head, then lowers them to the ground in a pretend choke hold. Straton screams with delight, escapes the hold, and climbs on their parent's back to ride them like a horse. Inadvertently, Straton hurt their parent while climbing, and their parent said sternly, "That really hurt. Be nice!" What kind of lesson is Straton's parent teaching them with this rough-and-tumble play bout? a. dominance b. gender roles c. private speech d. emotion regulation ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 44. Sociodramatic play helps children to develop _____ when they act out fear, bravery, and fury. a. self-control b. gender roles c. private speech d. emotion regulation ANSWER: d 45. According to the text, sociodramatic play may help children to develop _____. a. theory of mind b. gross motor skills c. aggressive tendencies d. antisocial behavior ANSWER: a 46. Kaydence and Xulia are 3 year olds at free play in their preschool. Kaydence has a lacy apron tied around their head like a wedding veil, and Xulia has a sheer curtain tied over their shoulders like a cape. Each is holding a wand—one is a stick with a star on the end, and the other is a long Tinker Toy stick with one wheel connector at the end. When asked what they're doing, Kaydence says, "We're playing fairy. We're both fairies."

What kind of play are they engaging in? a. bullying play b. sociodramatic play c. parallel play d. rough-and-tumble play ANSWER: b 47. By the preschool years, unlike in infancy, children _____. a. can learn from videos b. can regulate emotions at an adultlike level c. primarily learn through interactions with siblings d. are unaffected by the content of violent media ANSWER: a 48. Today's children, especially those living in urban areas, spend more time _____ than playing outdoors. a. engaged in indoor sociodramatic play b. participating in solitary play c. using electronic media d. reading books ANSWER: c 49. _____ is the understanding of other people's feelings and concerns. a. Prosocial behavior b. Introspection Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. Empathy d. Effortful control ANSWER: c 50. Which of these statements about prosocial and antisocial behavior is TRUE? a. Both prosocial and antisocial behavior are innate and universal. b. Neither prosocial nor antisocial behavior is innate. c. Prosocial behavior is innate, while antisocial behavior is socially constructed. d. Antisocial behavior is innate, while prosocial behavior is socially constructed.

ANSWER: a 51. What is the hallmark of prosocial behavior? a. It is done to help another without any benefit for oneself. b. It is done to promote one's social standing within a group. c. It is done to hurt another in order to benefit oneself. d. It is a neutral action that does not hurt or benefit anyone.

ANSWER: a 52. When Maia, age 3, sees a little child fall and hurt themself, a look of concern appears on their face. They are probably experiencing _____. a. fear b. sadness c. empathy d. frustration ANSWER: c 53. Which scenario BEST illustrates prosocial behavior? a. Damion takes out the garbage for a quarter. b. Mould helps their mother clean so that their mother will take them to the park. c. Nilo says "please" when asking their parent for a dollar. d. Lizzie feeds their baby brother because their mother is sick.

ANSWER: d 54. Which scenario is an example of antisocial behavior? a. Thato offers to share their toys with Euaristos. b. Gage intentionally knocks over Umut's blocks. c. Mariette watches while other children jump rope. d. Ibsen helps their mom rake leaves in the yard.

ANSWER: b 55. Which of these is an example of an externalizing problem?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. Trinh, who is fearful and withdrawn b. Froya, who lashes out uncontrollably c. Ime, who has frequent headaches or stomachaches d. Kshitija, who refuses to talk to new people ANSWER: b 56. Which type of aggression tends to be MOST characteristic of 2-year-old children? a. reactive b. adaptive c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: a 57. Aggression used to obtain a toy or other object is _____. a. bullying b. instrumental c. reactive d. personal ANSWER: b 58. Which is an example of reactive aggression? a. Dayton tells Aleksandra that they're a sissy and everyone knows it. b. Ness hits Keiran after Keiran bumps into them during a game of catch. c. Basileios wrestles Ignac for fun. d. Thais punches Chandana for no apparent reason.

ANSWER: b 59. Three girls spread a rumor that 7-year-old Ragna is a bed-wetter who still uses a pacifier. This is an example of _____ aggression. a. instrumental b. reactive c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: d 60. The idea that gender comes in only two forms is known as: a. sex differences. b. gender binary. c. transgender. d. gender non-binary.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 61. Diana Baumrind is known for her work on _____. a. gender roles b. types of play c. parenting styles d. cognitive stages ANSWER: c 62. The four dimensions of a parenting style are warmth, discipline, communication, and _____. a. physical contact b. expectations for maturity c. trust d. supportiveness ANSWER: b 63. When parents expect unquestioning obedience from their children, their parenting style is labeled "_____." a. tyrannical b. authoritative c. dictatorial d. authoritarian ANSWER: d 64. A parenting style characterized by high parent-to-child communication, low warmth, and high expectations of maturity is _____. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. neglectful ANSWER: a 65. Tanner demonstrates warmth and nurturance toward their children. They do not believe in punishment of any sort and do not have any rules for their children. Their parenting style is _____. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. neglecting d. permissive ANSWER: d 66. As a parent, Dipa rates low on nurturance and communication and high on obedience. They exhibit the _____ style of parenting. a. authoritarian b. permissive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. authoritative d. neglecting ANSWER: a 67. Authoritarian parents often _____. a. offer their children a lot of praise b. allow children to question their decisions c. seem stern to their children d. make few maturity demands on their children ANSWER: c 68. Sachia is a nurturing parent and has good communication with their children, whom they never discipline.

Their parenting style is _____. a. authoritative b. permissive c. neglectful d. authoritarian ANSWER: b 69. Parents who set limits, enforce rules, and listen receptively to their children are exhibiting the _____ pattern of parenting. a. permissive b. authoritarian c. authoritative d. democratic ANSWER: c 70. Barta's usual bedtime is 8:30 P.M., and their parents enforce this rule. One evening, Barta is watching an educational program that ends at 9 P.M. They ask their parents if they can stay up to watch the end of the show.

Their parents agree to let them stay up as long as they get up in time for school in the morning. Which parenting style is Barta's parents demonstrating? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. uninvolved ANSWER: b 71. Children who lack self-control are most likely to have parents who are _____. a. abusive b. overcontrolling c. authoritarian d. permissive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 72. The individual most likely to have grown up with permissive parents is _____. a. Aamina, who is obedient but not very happy b. Michaela, who is happy and successful c. Fulco, who is unhappy and lacks self-control d. Zbynek, who is a gang member and a drug user ANSWER: c 73. The individual most likely to have grown up with authoritative parents is _____. a. Kailash, who is obedient but not very happy b. Maximilian, who is happy and successful c. Ganizani, who is unhappy and lacks self-control d. Mahmud, who is homeless and a drug user ANSWER: b 74. Evelina hits or kicks Sharma on the playground nearly every day. They also encourage other children to laugh at Sharma's attempts to kick a ball. Evelina is using _____ aggression against Sharma. a. reactive b. instrumental c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: c 75. Of the different types of aggression, the MOST worrisome is _____. a. instrumental b. reactive c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: c 76. Spanking is more frequent _____. a. by mothers compared to fathers b. by fathers compared to mothers c. in New England than in southern states d. in high-SES than in low-SES families ANSWER: a 77. When would a time-out be the MOST effective discipline strategy? a. when the child is less than 2 b. once the child can use words to express emotions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. if the child enjoys being with other people d. if the child is over the age of 8 ANSWER: c 78. Psychological control as a means of discipline relies on a child's _____. a. sense of belonging to the family unit b. sense of pride in themselves c. feelings of shame, guilt, and gratitude d. sense of fear toward the parents ANSWER: c 79. The MOST common discipline technique for a child's misbehavior that North American parents use with preschool children is _____. a. blaming themselves b. reasoning and disappointment c. time-outs d. removing children's playthings ANSWER: c 80. Arni has just required their 4-year-old child to sit quietly, without toys or any form of play, for a few minutes after their child deliberately poured juice on the floor. This is an example of _____. a. time-out b. induction c. child maltreatment d. physical punishment ANSWER: a 81. _____ is a discipline technique that involves the parent talking to the child and helping the child to understand what they did wrong. a. Time-out b. Induction c. Psychoanalysis d. Behaviorism ANSWER: b 82. At which age are children first convinced that certain toys are appropriate for one gender but not the other? a. 1 year old b. 2 years old c. 4 years old d. 7 years old ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 83. _____ differences are physiological and _____ differences are both social and cultural. a. Gender; sex b. Sex; gender c. Sibling; parental d. Parental; sibling ANSWER: b 84. Freud would say that a typical 5-year-old child is in the _____ stage of development. a. phallic b. oral c. genital d. superego ANSWER: a 85. In Freudian theory, a little boy who develops sexual feelings toward their mother and becomes jealous of their father is experiencing _____. a. the Electra complex b. penis envy c. the Oedipus complex d. identification ANSWER: c 86. According to Freud, boys in the third psychoanalytic stage of development _____. a. are openly angry with their fathers b. secretly want to replace their fathers c. disrespect their mothers d. believe their fathers are perfect ANSWER: b 87. Freud's term for the formation of a conscience that internalizes parental morals is _____. a. the superego b. the ego c. schema d. identification ANSWER: a 88. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, little boys cope with the guilt of wanting to kill their fathers by _____. a. identifying with their fathers b. wanting to kill themselves c. becoming angry with their fathers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. becoming envious of their father's penis ANSWER: a 89. To understand a child's development of gender attitudes and roles, behaviorists stress _____. a. biological mechanisms b. reinforcement and punishment c. reasoning ability d. unconscious motivations ANSWER: b 90. Which scenario BEST demonstrates the behaviorist theory regarding gender development? a. Elis has some hostility toward their father. b. Iarlaith is a 6-year-old girl who is trying to act like their father. c. Vandale realizes that they are male and that they will always be male. d. Shayne wears a dress, and their parents tell them how pretty they look.

ANSWER: d 91. A child's cognitive understanding of sex differences would be their _____. a. Oedipal complex b. Electra complex c. superego d. gender schema ANSWER: d 92. Developmentalists who focus on children's thinking about sex roles as opposed to the children's observable behaviors are _____ theorists. a. sociocultural b. psychoanalytic c. behavioral d. cognitive ANSWER: d 93. Which theory focuses on how children learn acceptable actions related to their gender? a. cognitive theory b. behavioral theory c. epigenetic theory d. evolutionary theory ANSWER: b 94. Which theory states that gender role differences are rooted in a basic urge to reproduce? a. cognitive theory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. behavioral theory c. evolutionary theory d. sociocultural theory ANSWER: c 95. Four-year-old Alina wants to play with their brother Ewoud's trucks. Ewoud is 6, and they tell Alina they can't play with them because they're a girl. Ewoud's refusal is based on their____. a. humanism b. gender schema c. Oedipus complex d. androgyny ANSWER: b 96. Which type of parenting style is considered to be the BEST everywhere? a. permissive b. authoritative c. authoritarian d. neglectful ANSWER: b 97. In America, teachers may use corporal punishment in _____ states. a. 12 b. 29 c. 30 d. all of the ANSWER: b 98. Children who are physically punished during the school day are more likely to be all of these EXCEPT: a. African American. b. male. c. having an intellectual disorder. d. middle class.

ANSWER: d 99. The rate of physical punishment is _____ in schools, while the rate of suspensions is _____. a. decreasing, increasing b. increasing; decreasing c. increasing; increasing d. decreasing; decreasing ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Essay 1. Discuss the "hygiene hypothesis" as it relates to childhood illness. State two facts that support this hypothesis.

ANSWER: The hygiene hypothesis states that modern children are overprotected from dirt and bacteria, and thus are prevented from experiencing infections and childhood diseases that would strengthen their immune systems. Support for this hypothesis comes from research indicating that 1) first-born children are more likely to develop asthma, 2) farm children are less likely to develop asthma, and 3) children born by C-section (a very sterile procedure) have a greater incidence of asthma.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss the hygiene Discusses the hygiene Gives a vague hypothesis hypothesis explanation of the hygiene hypothesis State facts that States two facts that States one fact that support the hygiene support the hygiene supports the hygiene hypothesis hypothesis hypothesis

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not discuss the hygiene hypothesis Does not state a single fact that supports the hygiene hypothesis

2. Differentiate between aptitude and achievement tests, and identify two criticisms of testing.

ANSWER: Aptitude tests are designed to assess the potential a person has to master a specific skill or to learn a certain body of knowledge. Achievement tests are assessments of what had already been learned.

There are several criticisms of testing. One issue is 1) whether any single text can measure the complexities of the human brain. Another problem is that 2) sometimes an aptitude test score—such as IQ—that should theoretically be stable can change over time. A major criticism is that 3) test takers are influenced by their culture. 4) Test questions may be culturally biased.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Differentiate between Differentiates between Defines either Does not define either aptitude and aptitude and aptitude or achievement type of test achievement tests achievement tests tests Identify two Identifies two Identifies one criticism Does not identify any criticisms of testing criticisms of testing of testing criticisms of testing

3. Define developmental psychopathology. List four general principles associated with developmental psychopathology.

ANSWER: Developmental psychopathology is a field that uses insights into typical development to understand and remediate developmental disorders. Four principles include: 1) Abnormality is normal; 2) Disability changes year by year; 3) Plasticity and compensation are widespread; and 4) Diagnosis and treatment reflect the social context.

Define developmental psychopathology

Good (5 pts.)

Defines developmental psychopathology

List four general

Lists four general

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Gives a vague definition of developmental psychopathology Lists two general

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not accurately define developmental psychopathology Lists one or no general Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Essay principles

principles

principles

principles

4. Seven-year-old Lottie has been diagnosed with ADHD. Describe some of the behaviors that Lottie may demonstrate and identify treatments that may be effective in treating ADHD. ANSWER: Lottie is more easily distracted and more often in motion than the average child. When sitting down to do schoolwork, they might look around, ask questions, think about playing, get a drink, fidget, squirm, tap the table, jiggle their legs, and go to the bathroom—and then start the whole sequence again. Medication is an effective treatment for ADHD. Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Describe behaviors Describes at least Describes two three behaviors behaviors associated associated with with ADHD ADHD Identifies treatments Identifies two or more Identifies one treatments treatment

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes one or no behaviors associated with ADHD Does not identify any treatment

5. What is a specific learning disorder? Describe three common learning disorders.

ANSWER: A specific learning disorder is a marked deficit in a particular area of learning that is not caused by an apparent physical disability, by an intellectual disability, or by an unusually stressful home environment. The most commonly diagnosed learning disorder is dyslexia, which is unusual difficulty with reading. Dyscalculia refers to unusual difficulty with math, and dysgraphia is difficulty in writing.

Define specific learning disorder

Good (5 pts.)

Defines specific learning disorder

Describe three common types

Describes three common types

Fair (3 pts.)

Is vague about the definition of specific learning disorder Describes one or two common types

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define specific learning disorder Does not describe any of the three types

6. Nela has recently been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Identify two common symptoms of ASD that Nela may demonstrate.

ANSWER: Two symptoms of ASD are: 1) difficulty with social communication and interaction, and 2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify two signs of Identifies two signs of Identifies one sign of Does not identify any autism spectrum autism spectrum autism spectrum signs of autism disorder disorder disorder spectrum disorder

7. Differentiate between mainstreaming and inclusion in educating children with special needs. Include the definition and purpose of an IEP in your answer.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Essay ANSWER: Mainstreaming and inclusion both involve educating children with special needs within the general classroom. Mainstreaming means a student is in a general education classroom. With inclusion, special education delivered by a specialist is incorporated into the general classroom for the children with special needs. This may take the form of a consulting teacher who helps the general education teacher with ideas and modifications, or it may take the form of team teaching, in which two teachers are in the classroom, one a general education teacher and the other a special education teacher. A student with special needs must have an individual education plan (IEP) that outlines the goals, activities, and expected outcomes for the child.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Differentiate between Thoroughly Differentiates between Does not adequately mainstreaming and differentiates between mainstreaming and differentiate between inclusion mainstreaming and inclusion mainstreaming and inclusion inclusion Include the definition Includes the definition Includes the Does not define or and purpose of an and purpose of an IEP definition or the explain the purpose of IEP purpose of an IEP an IEP

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 1. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 are within the developmental stage referred to as "_____." a. infancy b. early childhood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: c 2. When comparing the growth of children from ages 6 to 11 to infants or adolescents, one notices that children _____. a. grow slowly and steadily b. grow faster than they did in early childhood c. grow at the same rate from ages 2 to 12 d. have a tremendous growth spurt during the school years ANSWER: a 3. During _____ children gain about 2 inches and 5 pounds a year. a. infancy b. early childhood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: c 4. Children from which family background are less likely to be included in after school activities? a. newly immigrant families b. second generation immigrant families c. high-SES families d. low-SES families ANSWER: d 5. The health habits that children develop during the middle childhood years are _____ adulthood. a. unrelated to their health in adolescence and b. related to their health in adolescence, but unrelated to their health in c. unrelated to their health in adolescence, but related to their health in d. related to their health in adolescence and ANSWER: d 6. Physical activity can benefit children in all of these ways EXCEPT by improving _____. a. overall physical health b. academic achievement c. problem solving ability d. oral health practices Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. The death rate for those in _____ is the lowest of any age group. a. infancy b. early childhood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: c 8. Fine motor skills mature about: a. five months earlier in boys than in girls. b. three months earlier in boys than in girls. c. two months earlier in girls than in boys. d. six months earlier in girls than in boys.

ANSWER: d 9. Physical activity within schools has _____ over the years. a. increased b. decreased c. hindered academic achievement d. remained stable ANSWER: b 10. Childhood rates of obesity are generally measured in terms of _____. a. HWP b. BMW c. APGAR d. BMI ANSWER: d 11. Children are considered overweight when they have BMIs above the _____th percentile. a. 65 b. 75 c. 85 d. 95 ANSWER: c 12. Zakaria's BMI is in the 79th percentile, which is associated with being _____. a. underweight b. normal weight c. overweight Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. obese ANSWER: b 13. Childhood obesity is usually defined as a BMI above the _____th percentile. a. 65 b. 75 c. 85 d. 95 ANSWER: d 14. At Matej's recent checkup, their doctor told them that they are obese. Matej's BMI is MOST likely above the _____ percentile. a. 17th b. 37th c. 71st d. 97th ANSWER: d 15. What type of injuries during middle childhood have resulted in preventative guidelines? a. exercise b. sports and recreational c. automobile accidents d. medical ANSWER: b 16. Leevi is 10 years old and considered obese. Which of these is NOT likely a contributing factor to their weight? a. genetics b. preterm delivery c. formula fed as a baby d. playing outside frequently ANSWER: d 17. Obesity has increased because it is common for _____. a. preschoolers to attend preschool b. preschoolers to watch TV and drink soda c. babies to be breast-fed d. children to walk to school ANSWER: b 18. Which of these is an example of a fine motor skills?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. playing a musical instrument b. playing soccer c. running d. playing dodge ball ANSWER: a 19. The ability to see shapes and objects and to remember what you have seen is referred to as: a. visual-spatial memory. b. echoic memory. c. short-term memory. d. procedural memory.

ANSWER: a 20. Asthma is a disorder caused by _____ the airways. a. inflammation of b. enlargement of c. destruction of d. holes in ANSWER: a 21. Leyla brought their 10-year-old child to see the doctor because they were having problems breathing. The doctor informed Leyla that their child had inflammation of the airways. Leyla's child was diagnosed with _____. a. asthma b. obesity c. sleep apnea d. diabetes ANSWER: a 22. In the United States, childhood asthma rates have more than _____ from 1980 to 2000. a. doubled b. tripled c. decreased d. stayed the same ANSWER: a 23. Maximilian was doing a class report on asthma and learned that several factors may contribute to its development, including all of these EXCEPT _____. a. alleles b. airtight windows c. sunlight Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. carpets ANSWER: c 24. The belief that children's immune systems need to be exposed to viruses and bacteria in order to strengthen them, but that children are overprotected from this exposure, is called the "_____." a. sterile environment theory b. hygiene hypothesis c. spore theory d. immunity hypothesis ANSWER: b 25. With respect to asthma, the hygiene hypothesis is supported by data showing all of these EXCEPT _____. a. children born by cesarean delivery (very sterile) have a greater incidence of asthma b. farm children have less asthma and other allergies c. first-born children develop asthma more often than later-born children d. city children have less asthma and fewer allergies ANSWER: d 26. Which child is MORE likely to develop asthma? a. a child who lives in a city b. a child who lives on a farm c. a child who experienced a vaginal delivery d. a child who is second-born in the family ANSWER: a 27. The Japanese believe that physical activity promotes all of these EXCEPT: a. learning. b. character development. c. life expectancy. d. physical disabilities.

ANSWER: d 28. A study of all elementary schools in Illinois found that schools with the least time scheduled for physical activity tend to be those with: a. predominately low-SES students. b. the highest reading scores. c. the highest mathematics scores. d. predominately middle-class students.

ANSWER: a 29. As student income _____, school time for physical exercise _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. decreases; increases b. increases; decreases c. increases; increases d. decreases; decreases ANSWER: d 30. Which of these does not mature about six months earlier in girls than in boys? a. fine motor skills b. teeth c. brains d. gross motor skills ANSWER: d 31. Which of these is NOT a fine motor skill? a. playing a musical instrument b. cutting in a straight line c. writing in cursive d. participating in a relay race ANSWER: d 32. Suraj is in middle school and is obese. They are not alone as more than _____ percent of middle school students in the United States are currently obese. a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: d 33. Which theoretical approach would focus on individual differences, parenting practices, school lunches, fastfood restaurants, advertisements, and community norms when combating obesity rates in middle childhood? a. dynamic-systems b. behaviorist c. biopsychosocial d. epigenetic ANSWER: a 34. The rate of asthma tends to _____ in children as income _____. a. increase; decreases b. decrease; increases c. increase; increases d. decrease; decreases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 35. One study found that the _____ was associated with memory. a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. pons d. limbic system ANSWER: a 36. Janko is learning how to read. Which of these tasks might aid their ability to read? a. drawing pictures b. riding a bicycle c. handwriting d. solving math problems ANSWER: c 37. The "g" implies: a. one general aptitude. b. multiple intelligences. c. emotional intelligence. d. achievement.

ANSWER: a 38. The original IQ tests were developed by _____. a. Binet b. Adler c. Wechsler d. Piaget ANSWER: a 39. Who developed the first intelligence tests for young children? a. Binet b. Adler c. Wechsler d. Piaget ANSWER: c 40. Which of these is NOT an indicator of verbal intelligence on the WISC? a. vocabulary b. puzzles c. math problems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. logic ANSWER: b 41. How long it takes to respond to a stimulus is referred to as "_____." a. stimulus response b. waiting period c. reaction time d. response period ANSWER: c 42. A 3-year-old has a harder time catching a ball, whereas a 9-year-old has an easier time catching a ball. One contributing factor for why the 9-year-old has an easier time catching the ball in contrast to the 3-year-old is _____. a. increased reaction time b. decreased reaction time c. increased stimulus response d. decreased stimulus response ANSWER: b 43. The ability to concentrate on some stimuli while ignoring others is referred to as "_____." a. selective attention b. divided attention c. automatization d. reaction time ANSWER: a 44. Nine-year-old Sine is able to listen to their teacher and concentrate on what they are saying even when their friends are talking around them. Sine can do this because of an improvement in _____. a. selective attention b. divided attention c. automatization d. reaction time ANSWER: a 45. Aptitude tests are designed to measure one's _____. a. potential for learning a skill or body of knowledge b. achievement in a particular subject c. capacity for divergent thinking d. verbal abilities only ANSWER: a 46. Originally, a person's mental age and chronological age were factors used to determine their _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. achievement on the WAIS b. intelligence quotient c. multiple intelligences d. achievement on the WPPSI ANSWER: b 47. One's mental age divided by one's chronological age and multiplied by 100 results in one's _____. a. measure of mastery b. proficiency score c. achievement quotient d. intelligence quotient ANSWER: d 48. The average IQ is a score of _____. a. 70 b. 85 c. 100 d. 115 ANSWER: c 49. Zaneta has an IQ score of 90. According to the distribution of IQ scores, Zaneta's IQ falls into what category? a. average b. slow learner c. superior d. gifted ANSWER: a 50. Dominicus has an IQ score of 135. According to the distribution of IQ scores, Dominicus's IQ falls into what category? a. average b. slow learner c. superior d. gifted ANSWER: d 51. Guro is tested on their mastery of college biology. They are taking a(n) _____ test. a. achievement b. IQ c. field d. aptitude Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 52. Achievement tests are designed to measure one's _____. a. knowledge about a subject b. potential for accomplishment c. capacity for divergent thinking d. verbal abilities ANSWER: a 53. Achievement tests are to aptitude tests as _____ is to _____. a. long; short b. intelligence; creativity c. knowledge; potential d. fruit; apple ANSWER: c 54. Most nations have exhibited substantial increases in IQ scores during the past century. This phenomenon is called the "_____." a. Stanford Swell b. Brain Leap c. Intelligence Surge d. Flynn Effect ANSWER: d 55. Howard Gardner proposed that _____. a. there is only one intelligence b. everyone is equal in all types of intelligence c. IQ tests are the best way to measure intelligence d. there are multiple intelligences ANSWER: d 56. With respect to Gardner's multiple intelligences, a successful professional athlete is likely to excel in _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. interpersonal c. naturalistic d. bodily-kinesthetic ANSWER: d 57. With respect to Gardner's multiple intelligences, a successful farmer is likely to excel in _____ intelligence. a. linguistic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. interpersonal c. naturalistic d. bodily-kinesthetic ANSWER: c 58. IQ tests _____. a. reflect multicultural understanding b. are influenced by culture c. do not accurately reflect aptitude d. do not accurately reflect achievement ANSWER: b 59. Scientists agree that brain development _____. a. is complete by age 6 b. depends on experience c. is the same in all children, gifted and not gifted d. reflects typical patterns in children with various disorders ANSWER: b 60. The field that uses insights into typical development to understand and remediate developmental disorders is developmental _____. a. psychology b. psychopathology c. practice d. abnormality ANSWER: b 61. Each of these is a general principle of developmental psychopathology EXCEPT _____. a. abnormality is normal b. disability does not change year by year c. plasticity and compensation are widespread d. diagnosis and treatment reflect the social context ANSWER: b 62. Iver was diagnosed with ADHD at an early age. Throughout school, they had extreme academic difficulties, though they excelled at art. When they graduated from high school, they started a career as an artist and quickly began to sell their work and achieved critical acclaim. As an adult, they were experiencing life success even though they still had symptoms of ADHD. Which of the four general principles of developmental psychopathology does this example BEST illustrate? a. Abnormality is normal. b. Disability never changes. c. Plasticity and compensation are widespread.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. Diagnosis and treatment reflect the social context.

ANSWER: c 63. The presence of two or more unrelated disease conditions at the same time in the same person is referred to as "_____." a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality ANSWER: b 64. A cause can have many final manifestations. This is referred to as "_____." a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality ANSWER: c 65. Emil experienced neglect as an infant while their father suffered from severe depression. The outcome on Emil's development could manifest itself in many different ways. This reflects the developmental principle of _____. a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality ANSWER: c 66. Often a symptom can have multiple causes. This is known as _____. a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality ANSWER: d 67. Jachym's aggressive behavior could be due to genetic inheritance, exposure to violent media, or living in a violent neighborhood. This reflects the developmental principle of _____. a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 68. According to the DSM-5, in order for ADHD to be diagnosed, _____. a. several symptoms have to begin before age 12 b. there must be signs of other disorders, such as bipolar disorder, present c. symptoms must occur for at least 6 weeks d. symptoms must occur in only one context, such as at school or at home ANSWER: a 69. Gunda runs around the classroom, can't seem to sit still or concentrate, and is easily excited. Which of these might Gunda be diagnosed with? a. mental retardation b. a sensory deficit c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. childhood schizophrenia ANSWER: c 70. Louiza is excitable, impulsive, and very active. They also experience great difficulty concentrating. They MOST likely have _____. a. mental retardation b. a sensory deficit c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. childhood schizophrenia ANSWER: c 71. All of these have been identified as problems with diagnosing ADHD EXCEPT it _____. a. has no biological marker b. can be comorbid with other biological problems c. has symptoms that are only apparent in severe cases d. can be comorbid with other psychological disorders ANSWER: c 72. Seven-year-old Abdulla has been diagnosed with both ADHD and bipolar disorder. Which term applies to Abdulla having both conditions? a. conflicting diagnoses b. complex diagnosis c. comorbidity d. coexistence ANSWER: c 73. Eleven-year-old Saar experiences extreme mood swings that do not seem to be influenced by life circumstances. At times, they cannot sit still, and are constantly fidgeting. Saar may be diagnosed with _____. a. autism spectrum disorder b. learning disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. childhood schizophrenia d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder ANSWER: d 74. Over the past few decades, the rates of diagnosis of ADHD have _____ in the United States. a. decreased b. increased c. remained stable d. have not been measured ANSWER: b 75. The use of medication to treat ADHD (and many other disorders) in children _____. a. is widely accepted as the best option b. is not considered off-label c. is controversial d. has not increased in the previous decades ANSWER: c 76. A marked delay in a particular area of knowledge that is not caused by an apparent physical disability, by mental retardation, or by an unusually stressful home environment is referred to as "_____." a. a specific learning disorder b. ADHD c. autism spectrum disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 77. Carolien has struggled with reading throughout their school experience, and has fallen far behind their peers. Based on this, their teacher recommends that Carolien be evaluated for which of these? a. a specific learning disorder b. ADHD c. autism spectrum disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 78. The MOST commonly diagnosed learning disorder is _____. a. dyslexia b. dyscalculia c. ADHD d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 79. Which learning disorder is characterized by unusual difficulty with reading? a. dyslexia b. ADHD c. autism d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 80. Yrian is in the second grade but reads at the level of a preschooler. Yrian's teacher thinks that they reverse letters and may have _____. a. dyslexia b. dyscalculia c. ADHD d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: a 81. Which of these is a learning disorder related to math? a. dyslexia b. dyscalculia c. ADHD d. autism ANSWER: b 82. The three signs of an autism spectrum disorder are _____. a. inadequate social skills, impaired communication, and impaired social play b. inadequate social skills, low intelligence, and impaired communication c. impaired communication, unusual play, and low intelligence d. unusual play, low intelligence, and inadequate social skills ANSWER: a 83. Rowena is 3 years old. They ignore people when they are in the room, and if people speak to them, they do not make eye contact. They also will not initiate communication, but rather just repeat what someone has said.

Finally, Rowena plays with a spinning top for hours. They just spin it, watch it, and when it stops they spin it again. Rowena may be showing signs of _____. a. a learning disability b. ADHD c. autism d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: c 84. What is a sign of autism spectrum disorder? a. impaired social responses b. cooperative play Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. low intelligence d. early proficiency in language ANSWER: a 85. Children who are diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder can vary in the type and range of symptoms they display, but all children with an autism spectrum disorder have _____. a. difficulty speaking b. a lack of eye contact c. difficulty understanding others' speech d. difficulty understanding emotions ANSWER: d 86. Kseniya is very talented at drawing and obsessive about details when drawing pictures. Their speech is close to normal, but they tend to shy away from other children and are awkward when trying to relate to others. They often don't pick up on sarcasm, body language, or facial expressions. Which diagnosis would BEST fit Kseniya's behavior? a. compulsive disorder b. autism spectrum disorder c. dyslexia d. ADHD ANSWER: b 87. _____ is considered to be a specific type of autism spectrum disorder. a. Dyscalculia b. Mental retardation c. Asperger syndrome d. Comorbid ANSWER: c 88. Many children with autism spectrum disorder show early signs of the disorder in _____. a. infancy b. middle childhood c. adolescence d. adulthood ANSWER: a 89. A child can have autistic symptoms for many reasons. This reflects the developmental principle of _____. a. psychopathology b. comorbidity c. multifinality d. equifinality Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 90. Which statement about treatment for autism is TRUE? a. Hyperbaric treatments have been found to be harmful to children with autism spectrum disorders. b. Risperidone has been found to cure autism. c. Some vaccinations can cause autism. d. No biochemical treatment has been found to be completely successful for treating autism.

ANSWER: d 91. In 1975, the Education of All Handicapped Children Act stipulated that children with special needs must be educated in the _____. a. resource room b. least restrictive environment c. inclusion classroom d. mainstreamed classroom ANSWER: b 92. Zahir has dyslexia. Zahir is taught in the regular classroom, where they have their own reading tutor for part of the day. This is an example of _____. a. autism spectrum disorder b. a resource room c. inclusion d. indoctrination ANSWER: c 93. What is the latest educational strategy in the United States for children who are below average in achievement in early grades to receive special help? a. mainstreaming b. inclusion c. resource rooms d. response to intervention ANSWER: d 94. A document for children with special needs that specifies their educational goals is known as a(n) _____. a. IEP b. IFSP c. LRE d. RTI ANSWER: a 95. Aditya seemed to be struggling academically in their fifth-grade class. After a battery of tests, it was determined that Aditya had special needs. School professionals met with Aditya's parents to discuss specific Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice educational goals for Aditya. What the school professionals and Aditya's parents created was Aditya's _____. a. IEP b. IFSP c. LRE d. RTI ANSWER: a 96. In 2018, about _____ percent of young children are diagnosed with ADHD in the United States. a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 12 ANSWER: c 97. Retha is a young girl that has been recently diagnosed with ADHD. Which of these is NOT likely a symptom of ADHD? a. inattentiveness b. hyperactivity c. impulsiveness d. low intelligence ANSWER: d 98. Gastone's child has recently been diagnosed with autism. This is not uncommon, as about _____ children in the United States are diagnosed with autism. a. 1 in 10 b. 1 in 22 c. 1 in 36 d. 1 in 45 ANSWER: c 99. Which of these new hypotheses related to the increased rates of autism has been proven false? a. Environmental agents may be related to autism, such as new chemicals in food, air, or water. b. Unaffectionate or unavailable mothers during infancy may be related to the development of autism. c. Prenatal influences may be related to autism, such as maternal drug use or maternal viruses. d. The diagnosis of autism has increased, not the actual prevalence of the disorder.

ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Essay 1. Summarize changes in children's cognition that occur during Jean Piaget's stage of concrete operational thought.

ANSWER: Piaget emphasized that concrete operational children 1) engage in productive thinking. Most importantly, the school-age child can 2) perform logical operations. This means that children can 3) apply reasoning skills to concrete situations that are visible, tangible, and real (not abstract). During this stage, children become 4) scientific in their thinking.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explain Piaget's stage Explains changes in Explains changes in of concrete children's cognition, children's cognition operational thought including at least three using two of the six of the six factors listed factors listed above above

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains changes in children's cognition using one or none of the factors listed above

2. Define classification and seriation, and provide an example for each.

ANSWER: Classification is the understanding that things can be organized into groups (or categories or classes) according to some characteristic they share in common. Seriation is the understanding that things can be arranged in a logical series (such as numbers or the alphabet). An example of classification is organizing things by shape, color, or size. It can be identifying which animals belong in a group (such as mammals). Seriation examples include putting numbers or decimals in numerical order, alphabetizing a series of words, or organizing things in order of ascending (or descending) height or length. Understanding that the letters in a word must be in a specific order to spell that word is another seriation example.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define classification and Defines both terms Defines either term seriation correctly correctly Provide an example of Provides an appropriate Provides an each example for classification appropriate example and seriation for classification or seriation

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define either term correctly Does not provide an appropriate example for either classification or seriation

3. Compare and contrast Jean Piaget's and Lev Vygotsky's views about how to best educate children.

ANSWER: Similar to Piaget, Vygotsky felt that educators should consider children's thought processes, not just the outcomes. He appreciated the fact that children are curious, creative learners. However, unlike Piaget, who thought children would discover most concepts themselves, Vygotsky stressed direct instruction from teachers and other mentors who provided the needed scaffold between potential and knowledge by engaging each child in their zone of proximal development.

Good (5 pts.)

Compare and contrast Provides at least one Piaget's and similarity and one Vygotsky's views difference about education Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Provides at least one similarity or difference.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not provide an accurate similarity or difference Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Essay 4. Leszek is a reading specialist at a school for students in grades 6–8. They primarily work with children who have reading difficulties. One of their goals is to get their students to read fluently. List the requirements for fluent reading.

ANSWER: Fluent reading requires 1) seeing a long sequence of letters, 2) segmenting them as words, 3) differentiating words spelled alike, 4) considering context to grasp unfamiliar words, 5) recognizing oddities and sarcasm, and 6) understanding meaning related to the previous sentences.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists the skills Lists all six skills Lists three to five of necessary for fluency necessary for fluency the skills necessary for fluency

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists one or none of the skills necessary for fluency

5. What is the knowledge base, and how does it contribute to children's cognitive development? List three factors that facilitate increases in the knowledge base.

ANSWER: The knowledge base is a broad body of knowledge in a particular subject that makes it easier to master new information in that area. As children gain knowledge during the school years, they become better able to judge what is true and what is false, what is worth remembering, and what is insignificant. Three factors facilitate increases in the knowledge base: past experience, current opportunity, and personal motivation.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define knowledge Defines knowledge Defines knowledge base; explain how it base; explains how it base or explains how contributes to contributes to memory it contributes to memory memory List three factors that Lists three factors that Lists two factors that facilitate increases in facilitate increases in facilitate increases in the knowledge base the knowledge base the knowledge base

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define knowledge base or explain how it contributes to memory Does not list any factors that facilitate increases in the knowledge base

6. Rambert attends a bilingual school. Compare and contrast the immersion and bilingual education approaches to teaching a second language at the school that Rambert attends in the United States.

ANSWER: With immersion, the child's instruction in school occurs entirely in the second language. With bilingual education, students are instructed in two languages.

Good (5 pts.)

Describe immersion Describes both and bilingual immersion and education bilingual education

Fair (3 pts.)

Describes either immersion or bilingual education

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe either immersion or bilingual education

7. Explain the process of switching codes in speech. Identify the two codes and offer a real-life example of each, including the circumstances under which each code would typically be used.

ANSWER: Switching codes refers to the process of changing from proper, formal speech to a colloquial or Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Essay more informal form of the same language. The codes are dependent upon the social context.

Children use the formal code in the classroom and with most adults; they use the informal code with friends and on the street. For example, Addison uses formal, correct English when speaking during a class, but uses slang when speaking with their girlfriend. Another example is that formal language is used during a speech or other presentation but slang may be used when joking.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains what is Is vague about what Does not explain what meant by switching is meant by switching is meant by switching codes codes codes Identify the codes Identifies both codes, Identifies one code, Does not identify and offer an example offers an example of offers an example, either code of each each, and tells when and tells when it each would be used would be used Explain switching codes

8. Identify the three ways in which children from low-SES families differ in language compared to children from high-SES families. Then identify and explain the most important factor shown to affect language learning.

ANSWER: Children from low-SES families usually have 1) smaller vocabularies than those from higher-SES families. 2) Their grammar is also simpler (fewer compound sentences, dependent clauses, and conditional verbs). The most important factor shown to affect language learning is early exposure to words. Children from lower-SES families often are exposed to fewer words than those from higherSES families. Many less-educated parents do not provide varied and extensive language exposure to their infants and young children, nor do they read to them on a daily basis.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Identify the three Identifies the three Identifies two of the ways children differ ways listed above ways listed above in language by SES Identify and explain Identifies and explains Identifies or explains the most important early exposure to early exposure to factor words as the most words as the most important factor important factor

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies one or none of the ways listed above Does not identify or explain that early exposure to words is the most important factor

9. In the United States, there are four types of educational environments for children that parents can generally choose from: public schools, charter schools, private schools, and home education. Define each of these methods of education and identify which type of school the majority of children in the United States attend.

ANSWER: A public school is one that is free to all children because it is funded by taxpayers; it must educate all students. A charter school is a public school with its own set of standards that is funded and licensed by the state or local district in which it is located; it has control over admissions and expulsions. A private school is one funded by tuition, endowments, and often religious or other nonprofit sponsors. Home schooling is education in which children are taught at home, usually by a parent. The majority of the children in the United States attend public schools.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Essay Define each Defines all four educational educational environment environments Identify the type most Identifies public children attend school

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Defines three educational environments Identifies public school

Defines two or fewer educational environments Does not identify public school

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 1. According to Jean Piaget, middle childhood is a time for _____ thought. a. formal operational b. preoperational c. metacognitive d. concrete operational ANSWER: d 2. According to Jean Piaget, children gain the ability to use _____ during middle childhood. a. static reasoning b. abstract reasoning c. logic d. egocentrism ANSWER: c 3. According to Jean Piaget, a child between the ages of 6 and 11 can apply logical principles to _____. a. abstractions, such as truth and liberty b. chemistry and physics c. concrete situations d. questions of social justice and equality ANSWER: c 4. Deacon is shown both a large box and a small box. The large box contains a 5-pound weight and the small box contains a 10-pound weight. Deacon picks up each box, one at a time, and examines them closely. They are asked which weighs more. Deacon says that the small box weighs more. Jean Piaget would say that Deacon is in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. metacognitive d. concrete operational ANSWER: d 5. When capable of concrete operational thought, children _____. a. are limited to intuitive, perceptual focusing b. can apply their reasoning to real, tangible situations c. can reason about abstractions d. are likely to be misled by appearances ANSWER: b 6. Dr. Gunther is conducting a research study to determine how 9-year-olds think. They hypothesize that the 9year-olds should be able to reason logically about concrete situations, situations that are real, tangible, and visible. Dr. Gunther's hypothesis is based on _____. a. the information processing perspective Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development c. Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development d. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development ANSWER: b 7. The logical principle that allows objects to be grouped according to some characteristic that they share is called "_____." a. concrete thought b. transitive inference c. classification d. reversibility ANSWER: c 8. Nine-year-old Eman sorted screws, bolts, and nails into three piles by type. According to Piaget's theory, they are able to correctly sort the objects into separate piles because of the logical principle of _____. a. conservation b. seriation c. classification d. reversibility ANSWER: c 9. The knowledge that things can be arranged in a logical order is the logical principle of _____. a. conservation b. seriation c. classification d. reversibility ANSWER: b 10. Eight-year-old Misa can arrange 10 buttons in order from smallest to largest. Their understanding of _____ allows them to accomplish this. a. conservation b. transitive inference c. seriation d. abstract reasoning ANSWER: c 11. Which statement about the difference between a 4-year-old and an 11-year-old is TRUE? a. The 4-year-old can separate the relevant from the irrelevant, but the 11-year-old is unable to do so. b. The 11-year-old can apply abstract thought to the classification process, whereas the 4-year-old is unable to do so. c. The 4-year-old will be able to think logically about concrete situations, whereas the 11-year-old is unable to do so.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. The 11-year-old can use mental categories more flexibly, inductively, and simultaneously, whereas the 4-year-old is unable to do so.

ANSWER: d 12. Lev Vygotsky viewed _____ as being crucial to children's development of skills and knowledge. a. instruction b. independence c. exploration d. passive learning ANSWER: a 13. Dr. Jacobse is conducting a research study to determine the cognitive abilities of 9-year-olds. They hypothesize that 9-year-olds will advance in knowledge based on instructions. Dr. Jacobse's belief is based on _____. a. the information processing perspective b. Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development c. Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development d. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development ANSWER: c 14. Lev Vygotsky might argue that all of these could be an instructor to Petula, a 6-year-old girl, EXCEPT _____. a. Nagendra, their 4-year-old sibling b. Ms. Tomic who is an art teacher c. their grandmother d. Gusti, their 10-year-old friend ANSWER: a 15. According to Lev Vygotsky's sociocultural framework, every experience after _____ teaches individuals something. a. birth b. childhood c. adolescence d. adulthood ANSWER: a 16. Which theorist emphasized the cultural impact on development? a. Vygotsky b. Piaget c. Erikson d. Freud ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 17. Which statement is TRUE? a. School-age children are able to understand complex, abstract concepts. b. School-age children are as rigid in their thinking as preschoolers. c. School-age children are slightly less advanced thinkers than preschoolers. d. There is no sudden shift between preoperational and concrete operational thought.

ANSWER: d 18. Knowing about memory is to _____ as thinking about thinking is to _____. a. knowledge base; metamemory b. knowledge base; control processes c. metacognition; control processes d. metamemory; metacognition ANSWER: d 19. Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky differed over the most important factors in a child's cognitive development.

In general, Piaget described _____; Vygotsky noted _____. a. cultural impact; social instruction b. information processing; brain maturation c. brain maturation; universal changes d. universal changes; cultural impact ANSWER: d 20. _____ is one of the leading theorists who studied the connection between learning math concepts and the brain during childhood. a. Lev Vygotsky b. Jean Piaget c. Robert Siegler d. P. A. Silva ANSWER: c 21. Robert Siegler has studied the day-by-day details of children's cognition in math. He has found that children _____. a. suddenly grasp the logic of the number system b. gradually acquire math knowledge and strategies c. already understand all they need to know about math by 3 years of age d. do not understand math knowledge and strategies until they are in adolescence ANSWER: b 22. A body of knowledge in a particular area that makes it easier to master new information in that area is known as "knowledge _____." a. base Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. immersion c. automatization d. start ANSWER: a 23. Ten-year-old Partholon loves baseball and has studied baseball statistics since they were 5 years old.

Partholon is currently reading this year's statistics for some of their favorite players. They will easily remember the new statistics because of the knowledge _____ they have for baseball statistics. a. base b. automatization c. immersion d. start ANSWER: a 24. Which factor contributes to increases in a child's knowledge base? a. scoring high on an IQ test b. educated parents c. personal motivation d. well-developed fine motor skills ANSWER: c 25. Which of these factors does NOT facilitate increases in the knowledge base? a. high intelligence b. past experience c. current opportunity d. personal motivation ANSWER: a 26. New concepts are best learned when they are connected to _____. a. what is already known about a subject b. current events c. a teacher-directed curriculum d. a child-centered curriculum ANSWER: a 27. Mechanisms that combine memory, processing speed, and knowledge to regulate the analysis and flow of information within the information-processing system are referred to as "_____." a. preoperational thought b. reciprocity c. the limbic system d. control processes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 28. Which of these is NOT an example of a control process? a. emotional regulation b. selective attention c. metacognition d. pragmatics ANSWER: d 29. Metacognition is _____. a. the process of putting information into long-term memory b. the process of recalling information c. thinking about thinking d. the ability to process multiple stimuli ANSWER: c 30. Metacognition refers to _____. a. improving one's problem-solving strategies b. memorizing detailed information c. thinking about one's thinking processes d. considering multiple alternatives ANSWER: c 31. Doris has weekly spelling tests. On Monday, they get the list of 10 words and realize they know how to spell four of the words. Rather than studying these four words, they spend Tuesday and Wednesday studying the six new words. On Wednesday evening, they quiz themselves on the six words and learn they now know how to spell three more. Thursday, they study the three words they still did not know how to spell. Friday morning before the spelling test they quiz themselves on all 10 words and correctly spell all 10 words. Their ability to evaluate the task of learning words and monitor and adjust their performance throughout the learning process is a product of _____. a. metacognition b. automatization c. immersion seriation d. abstract reasoning ANSWER: a 32. Control processes improve with _____. a. fame and wealth b. income and status c. age and experience d. personal motivation and belief ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 33. The ability to remember a sequence of events has been shown to develop gradually during _____. a. toddlerhood b. early childhood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: c 34. Partha is learning multiplication and division and understands that if 2 × 3 = 6 then 6 ÷ 2 = 3. This is an example of _____. a. conservation b. reversibility c. seriation d. classification ANSWER: b 35. The process by which a sequence of thoughts and actions is repeated until no conscious thought is required is referred to as _____. a. automatization b. concrete operational thought c. classification d. seriation ANSWER: a 36. Aleyna is 8 years old and loves math. Which of these math skills are they likely NOT yet ready for? a. addition b. subtraction c. fractions d. counting ANSWER: c 37. The ongoing development of _____ is closely related to the development of control processes. a. theory of mind b. concrete operational thought c. seriation d. automatization ANSWER: a 38. Which of these aids 6- to 11-year-olds in understanding the scientific process and mathematics? a. theory of mind b. concrete operational thought Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. seriation d. automatization ANSWER: a 39. About _____ percent of the children in middle childhood are designated as ELLs. a. 3 b. 9 c. 12 d. 16 ANSWER: c 40. Justus is bilingual. Their ability to speak two languages has been associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. more rational. b. less emotional. c. advanced cognitive control. d. impaired cognitive skills.

ANSWER: d 41. A study of 16,000 11-year-olds in England found that language proficiency was influenced by: a. how much their parents read to them. b. exposure to a second language. c. social exposure to varying cultures. d. socioeconomic status.

ANSWER: a 42. According to the text, children in middle childhood understand all of these aspects of language EXCEPT _____. a. prefixes b. compound words c. phrases d. sarcasm ANSWER: d 43. Nine-year-old Beste writes, "My brother eats like a cow." This statement demonstrates an understanding of _____. a. syntax b. a second language c. simile d. logic ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 44. Mastery of pragmatics allows children to change styles of speech, or "codes," depending on the audience.

What code are children likely to use with their teachers? a. informal code b. formal code c. moderate code d. extreme code ANSWER: b 45. Which of these is an example of code use? a. "They're watching!" b. "Is it A or B?" c. "LOL" d. "Yeah!"

ANSWER: c 46. Mastery of pragmatics allows children to change styles of speech, or "codes," depending on the audience.

What code are children likely to use with their peers? a. informal code b. formal code c. moderate code d. extreme code ANSWER: a 47. Kacie shouts, "Yo dude! Did you see that bad shooting star?" Kacie is likely speaking to a(n) _____. a. teacher b. parent c. grandparent d. friend ANSWER: d 48. Abbreviations (such as LOL, BTW, and RU) in text messages and e-mails is an example of _____. a. metaphors b. similes c. grammar d. codes ANSWER: d 49. When Bolanle wants their teacher to repeat a question, they ask, "Would you please repeat the question?" but when they need a classmate to repeat themselves, Bolanle says, "Huh?" This example shows that Bolanle understands _____. a. the pragmatics of language b. metaphors and similes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. metacognitive processes d. the control processes in speech ANSWER: a 50. Teofil has the ability to talk informally with their friends and more formally to their teachers during class.

Clearly, Teofil understands which of these? a. metacognitive aspects of intellect b. pragmatics of language c. automatized view of social interaction d. control processes of regulation ANSWER: b 51. Some children in the United States are classified as _____ based on their proficiency in English. a. ELL b. NAEP c. TIMSS d. PIRLS ANSWER: a 52. The approach to teaching a second language in which children spend the entire day instructed in that second language is referred to as the _____ approach. a. ELL b. immersion c. heritage language d. additive bilingual ANSWER: b 53. Laios, who speaks only English, has moved to Spain with their family. They attend a public school. All of their school subjects are taught in Spanish. Laios is learning Spanish through _____. a. a Spanish-as-a-second-language program b. an ESL program c. bilingual education d. immersion ANSWER: d 54. A strategy in which school subjects are taught in both the learner's original language and the second (majority) language is _____. a. ELL program b. an ESL program c. bilingual education d. immersion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 55. Dardana is in the fourth grade. Part of the instruction in their classroom is conducted in English and part is conducted in Spanish. This classroom uses _____. a. immersion b. heritage language education c. bilingual education d. mainstreaming ANSWER: c 56. According to the text, the research on methods for teaching a second language reveals that _____. a. immersion is the best approach b. mainstreaming is the best approach c. bilingual education is the best approach d. the best approach is not clear ANSWER: d 57. Decades of research throughout the world have found a _____ correlation between academic achievement and socioeconomic status, largely due to language. a. zero b. weak c. moderate d. strong ANSWER: d 58. Children from low-SES families usually have all of these compared to children from higher-SES families EXCEPT _____. a. smaller vocabularies b. simpler grammar c. shorter sentences d. fewer ELL classifications ANSWER: d 59. Anima, age 7, comes from a low-SES family. Compared to their peers from higher-SES families, they have difficulty with language learning in school. According to current research, one factor that could be contributing to their language learning difficulty is their lack of _____. a. early exposure to words b. personal motivation c. media exposure d. education ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 60. Research indicates that achievement in middle childhood is _____ teacher and parent expectations. a. entirely dependent on b. forced by c. influenced by d. contrary to ANSWER: c 61. Approximately what percent of the world's 7-year-olds are in school? a. 45 b. 60 c. 75 d. almost all ANSWER: d 62. Everywhere in the world, children are taught to read, _____. a. write, and create b. conduct science experiments, and do arithmetic c. tell stories, and make art d. write, and do arithmetic ANSWER: d 63. While literacy and numeracy are valued in every school, curriculum specifics _____. a. should not be discussed b. do not change over time c. vary by place and culture d. are largely the same across countries ANSWER: c 64. The unspoken and often unrecognized lessons that children learn in school, which are the unofficial, unstated, or implicit rules and priorities that influence the academic curriculum and every other aspect of learning in school, are called the "_____." a. territorial imperative b. whole language theory c. socioeconomic divide d. hidden curriculum ANSWER: d 65. Jefferson High School has a student council to guarantee student representation in school affairs. Valter, a senior, has learned that the administration of this high school wants obedience. Obedience at Valter's school is an example of a hidden _____. a. agenda b. curriculum Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. value d. assumption ANSWER: b 66. Over the past two decades, more than 50 nations have participated in at least one massive international test of educational achievement. Longitudinal data finds that _____. a. if achievement rises, the national economy declines b. if achievement declines, the national economy advances c. if achievement rises, the national economy advances d. there is no relation between achievement and the national economy ANSWER: c 67. What is the primary international test of science and math? a. PIRLS b. IATS c. TIMSS d. SAT ANSWER: c 68. Klara is taking the TIMSS, which is the international test of _____. a. science and math b. IQ c. creative problem solving d. reading ANSWER: a 69. What is the main international test of reading given to students? a. TIMSS b. PIRLS c. WJ III d. Stanford-Binet ANSWER: b 70. Miguelito is taking the PIRLS, which is the main international test of _____. a. science and math b. IQ c. creative problem solving d. reading ANSWER: d 71. In recent years, Finland has gained a great deal of attention for its very successful educational system.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice Which statement about Finland's educational reform is FALSE? a. Students are given a series of high-stakes tests at each level. b. Only the top 3 percent of high school students gain admittance to teachers' colleges. c. There are strict requirements for becoming a teacher. d. Teachers are encouraged to work collaboratively.

ANSWER: a 72. A child's achievement seems more influenced by _____ in the United States than in other nations. a. income and ethnicity b. income and neighborhood c. neighborhood and ethnicity d. income and parental education ANSWER: a 73. A federally sponsored test in the United States is the _____. a. TIMSS b. NAEP c. NCLB d. PIRLS ANSWER: b 74. In the United States, public schools that set their own standards, are licensed by the state, but are exempt from some state regulations, are known as _____ schools. a. voucher b. private c. religious d. charter ANSWER: d 75. Public subsidy for tuition payment at a nonpublic school is referred to as a "_____." a. voucher b. private school c. religious school d. charter school ANSWER: a 76. Critics say that _____ weaken public schools, while advocates argue that they make private school more affordable. a. standardized tests b. vouchers c. parents Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. charter schools ANSWER: b 77. About _____ percent of children in the United States were home-schooled in 2019. a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: b 78. According to the text, children who are home-schooled may struggle in which of these areas? a. academic b. social c. physical d. cognitive ANSWER: b 79. About _____ percent of students in the United States attend private schools. a. 7 b. 11 c. 14 d. 19 ANSWER: b 80. One problem with smaller school class sizes is that _____. a. parents do not support them b. they are too costly c. the research supporting their advantages is mixed d. evidence supporting their benefits is correlational ANSWER: c 81. A strategy in which school subjects are taught in both the learner's original language and the majority language is called: a. bilingual education. b. immersion. c. pathology. d. therapy.

ANSWER: a 82. In most nations other than the United States, _____ make(s) decisions regarding public education. a. the central government Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. parents c. local jurisdictions d. religious institutions ANSWER: a 83. In one study, _____ children asked questions and requested help from their teachers more often than _____ students did. a. upper-class; middle-class b. middle-class; low-SES c. middle-class; upper-class d. low-SES; upper-class ANSWER: b 84. The _____ is designed to measure the ability to apply learning to everyday issues. a. TIMSS b. PIRLS c. PISA d. NAEP ANSWER: c 85. Which test finds fourth-grade girls ahead of boys in reading in every nation? a. TIMSS b. PIRLS c. PISA d. NAEP ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Essay 1. Identify and describe Erik Erikson's fourth psychosocial crisis. How does a child's resolution to this crisis relate to self-development?

ANSWER: During the industry versus inferiority stage, children attempt to master many skills, especially the skills that their culture values. Based on their ability to achieve these skills, children judge themselves as either industrious or inferior. They decide whether they are competent or incompetent, productive or useless, winners or losers. Self-pride depends not necessarily on actual accomplishments, but on how others, especially peers, view one's accomplishments. Social rejection is both a cause and a consequence of feeling inferior.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Name and define the Names and defines the Names or defines the crisis crisis crisis Note how resolution Notes how the Is vague about how of the crisis resolution of the crisis the resolution of the influences the influences the crisis influences the development of the development of the development of the self self self

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not name or define the crisis Does not note how the resolution of the crisis influences the development of the self

2. Juan is considered by some to be resilient. Explain what this means and identify two factors in Juan's life that can support resilience.

ANSWER: Resilience is the capacity to adapt favorably in the face of significant adversity and to overcome serious stress. Resilience is any positive adaptation to significant stress. Resilience is dynamic, which means a given person may be resilient after certain crises but not others. Repeated or sustained stresses make resilience more difficult to achieve.

Factors that support resilience in children include traits in the child (especially problem-solving ability), in the family (consistency and caring), and in the community (good schools and welcoming religious institutions). In addition, a child's interpretation of a family situation (poverty, divorce, and so on) determines how that situation affects them.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define resilience Thoroughly defines Vaguely defines resilience resilience Identify factors that Identifies two factors Identifies one factor support resilience that support resilience that supports resilience

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define resilience Does not identify any factors that support resilience

3. Define and provide an example of shared and nonshared environments.

ANSWER: Shared environmental influences are those that arise from being in the same environment. An example is two siblings living in one home, raised by both parents.

Nonshared environmental influences are those that differ from one child to another. For example, despite living in the same home, two siblings are likely to have different experiences at school and within their neighborhood.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Define shared and Defines shared and nonshared nonshared environments environments Provide an example Provides an example of shared and of shared and nonshared nonshared environments environments

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines shared or nonshared environments Provides an example of shared or nonshared environments

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define either term Does not provide an example for either term

4. Name the five ways that a functional family nurtures its school-age children. Which area was the strongest in your family? How did your family nurture this area? Which area was the weakest in your family? Explain only to the degree that you feel comfortable.

ANSWER: The five ways a family nurtures school-age children are (1) meeting physical necessities (for food, clothing, and shelter), (2) encouraging learning, (3) developing each individual's self-respect, (4) nurturing peer relationships, and (5) providing harmony and stability.

Students should articulate their own family's areas of strength and weakness, evaluating why those areas were strong and weak.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Name five ways that Names the five ways Names four ways that Names three or fewer families nurture that families nurture families nurture ways that families children children children nurture children Identify strongest Identifies strongest Identifies strongest Does not identify area in own family area in own family area in own family strongest area in own and how it was and tell how it was without telling how it family nurtured nurtured was nurtured Identify weakest area Identifies weakest area Identifies weakest area Does not identify in own family and in own family and in own family without weakest area in own explain why explains why it was clarifying why it was family weak weak

5. How is family function connected to family structure? Offer three examples of different family structures.

ANSWER: Family function refers to how a family works to meet the needs of and cares for its members.

Function is more important than structure since everyone needs family love and encouragement.

Family structure is the legal and genetic connections among people living in the same household.

Function and structure are connected because the structure of the family often influences the success (or lack thereof) of family function.

Common family structures are (1) the single-parent family and (2) the nuclear family. Other twoparent families include (3) adoptive, (4) same-sex parents, (5) stepparent, and (6) grandparents raising grandchildren. Each family structure may function well for raising children.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Essay Define and compare family function to family structure Offer examples of different family structures

Defines and compares Defines terms without Does not define or family function to comparing the terms compare the terms family structure Offers three examples Offers two examples Offers one or no of different family of different family example of family structures structures structure

6. Summarize the relationship among family income, conflict, and family function. Include a discussion of the family-stress model in predicting the impact of low versus high income on children.

ANSWER: Family income strongly contributes to family function by influencing how well the family's needs get met. The two factors that negatively interfere with family function in every structure, ethnic group, and nation are low income and high conflict. Low conflict usually results in a harmonious family that functions well.

The family-stress model states that the crucial question about any risk factor (such as low income, divorce, single parenthood, unemployment) is whether it increases stress. It predicts that lowincome families experience stress created not only by economic hardship but also because of the parents' negative reaction to that hardship. The adults' reaction to poverty is crucial and some of the effects can be alleviated by a positive attitude (e.g., the adults don't seem distressed by the lack of money).

High income may also create stress in that parents can exert pressure on their children to excel, which can result in troubled behavior such as emotional problems, poor academic performance, drug abuse, and delinquency.

Good (5 pts.)

Explores the relationship among family income, conflict, and family function

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explore the Explores the Discusses income, relationship among relationship between conflict, or family family income, any two of the function without conflict, and family relationships (income, establishing a function conflict, family relationship among function) factors State the familyStates the familyStates the familyDoes not state the stress model's stress model's stress model's family-stress model's predictions of income predictions of income predictions of income predictions of income affecting children affecting children for affecting children for affecting children for both low and high either low or high either low or high incomes income incomes

7. Jehona is considered popular, while Gull is generally unpopular. Describe characteristics of children who are popular and well liked, such as Jehona. Next, list and summarize traits associated with children who are generally unpopular, like Gull.

ANSWER: At every age, children who are outgoing, friendly, and cooperative are well liked. In the United States, by the end of middle childhood, a second set of traits also predicts popularity: being Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Essay dominant and somewhat aggressive. There are three types of unpopular children: Some are (1) neglected, not rejected. They are ignored but not shunned. The other two types are actively rejected: (2) aggressive-rejected, disliked because they are antagonistic and confrontational; and (3) withdrawn-rejected, disliked because they are timid and anxious.

Good (5 pts.)

Describe children Describes children who are popular and who are popular and well liked well liked

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provides a vague Provides an incorrect description of children description of children who are popular and who are popular and well liked well liked List and summarize Lists and summarizes Lists but does not Does not list or traits associated with traits associated with summarize traits summarize traits unpopular children unpopular children associated with associated with unpopular children unpopular children

8. Friderik's child is being bullied at school, and this has been going on for quite some time. Should Friderik be concerned? Explain your answer, citing research from the textbook.

ANSWER: Friderik should be concerned, as victims of bullying can be anxious, depressed, and underachieving.

The results can be long-lasting, too, and may result in low self-esteem and painful memories years later. Friderik should get involved by teaching his child problem-solving skills, supporting his child's academic progress, and helping to change his son's negative assumptions. Furthermore, Friderik can make teachers and administrators aware of this situation. Teachers can aim to successfully mediate peer conflicts and encourage empathy in the classroom, and schools as a whole can work to change their culture.

Good (5 pts.)

Discuss if Friderik States that Friderik should be concerned should be concerned Discuss actions Discusses actions Friderik should take Friderik should take

Fair (3 pts.)

Is not adamant that Friderik should be concerned Is not adamant that Friderik should get involved

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not state that Friderik should be concerned Does not discuss actions Friderik should take

9. Name and describe the first two levels of Lawrence Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning. How does a preschool child's morality differ from that of a school-age child?

ANSWER: The first two levels of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning are the preconventional level and the conventional level. Preschool children typically display preconventional moral thinking. For them, right and wrong is based on avoiding pain and seeking pleasure. If they are likely to be punished for something, they are less apt to do it. If they can get away with a desired behavior, they will likely engage in that behavior regardless of whether it is morally correct in the eyes of society.

A school-age child is more likely to use conventional moral thinking. This type of thinking is based on respect for authority and following behaviors labeled as correct by parents, teachers, and peers.

At this stage, children will do what is right or wrong based on what they are told. They tend to be rule followers.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Name and describe Names and describes the first two levels of the first two levels of Kohlberg's stages of Kohlberg's stages of moral development moral development

Fair (3 pts..)

Names and describes one of the first two levels of Kohlberg's stages of moral development State how a States how a Is vague about how a preschool child's preschool child's preschool child's morality differs from morality differs from morality differs from that of a school-age that of a school-age that of a school-age child child child

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not name and describe at least one of the first two levels of Kohlberg's stages Does not state how a preschool child's morality differs from that of a school-age child

10. In what way is the conflict between the morality of children and that of adults evident? What are three common imperatives among 6- to 11-year-old children?

ANSWER: Three common imperatives among school-age children are: (1) Protect your friends; (2) Don't tell adults about children's misbehavior; and (3) Conform to peer standards of dress, talk, and behavior.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provide an example Provides an example Provides a vague Does not provide an of how conflict of how conflict example of how example of how between the morality between the morality conflict between the conflict between the of children and that of children and that of morality of children morality of children of adults is evident adults is evident and that of adults is and that of adults is evident evident List three imperatives Lists three imperatives Lists two imperatives List one or no among school-age among school-age among school-age imperatives children children children

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these is crucial during middle childhood? a. abstract thinking b. social comparison c. academic achievement d. the development of conservation ANSWER: b 2. Erik Erikson's fourth stage of psychosocial development is called _____. a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. trust versus mistrust d. integrity versus incompetence ANSWER: b 3. More than people of any other age, children between the ages of 6 and 11 are _____. a. in need of punishment b. trying to stand out from their peers c. using electronic media with adult supervision d. industrious, practicing the skills valued by their culture ANSWER: d 4. Avi is in the fourth grade. They spend many hours practicing tumbling, playing a musical instrument, and reading their favorite books. According to Erik Erikson, they are developing a healthy sense of _____ through these tasks. a. industry b. self-control c. autonomy d. egocentrism ANSWER: a 5. Children's ideas about their intelligence, personality, abilities, gender, and ethnic background form their _____. a. industry b. egocentrism c. latency d. self-concept ANSWER: d 6. Ten-year-old Stella announces to their parent, "I am smart, nice, and friendly, and I am so good at painting that one day I am going to sell lots of pictures." Stella is demonstrating _____. a. industry b. egocentrism Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. latency d. self-concept ANSWER: d 7. Assessing one's abilities, achievements, status, and other attributes by measuring them against one's peers is called "_____." a. peer evaluation b. cultural normalization c. social comparison d. parental assessment ANSWER: c 8. During the school years, self-esteem typically _____. a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. fluctuates up and down ANSWER: d 9. Which scenario is typical of the industry versus inferiority stage? a. Theophanes is having difficulty in learning math, but continues to practice. b. Kira says, "My parents never let me do anything!" c. Frieda says that their partner doesn't understand them. d. Eustachio decides to stop taking piano lessons.

ANSWER: a 10. According to Erik Erikson's theory, children in middle childhood tend to judge themselves as either _____. a. suppressed or superior b. industrious or inferior c. competent or awkward d. intelligent or stupid ANSWER: b 11. According to Erikson, if 10-year-old Adhamh is successful in solving their psychosocial conflict, they should be developing a(n) _____ view of themselves. a. emotionally mature b. industrious c. inept d. latent ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 12. Davit is a typical 11-year-old whose growing self-consciousness and self-criticism drive them to frequently compare themselves to their classmates. If Davit is like most children, such comparisons will _____. a. confirm their self-concept b. not affect their self-esteem c. decrease their self-esteem d. increase their self-esteem ANSWER: d 13. _____ is both a cause and consequence of feeling inferior. a. Self-concept b. Effortful control c. Social rejection d. Social comparison ANSWER: c 14. Unrealistically high self-esteem _____ effortful control, which leads to _____ academic achievement. a. reduces; lower b. reduces; higher c. increases; lower d. increases; higher ANSWER: a 15. The child who weathers severe family problems, even abuse, and yet emerges from those experiences unscathed is said to be "_____." a. buoyant b. resilient c. parasympathetic d. reliable ANSWER: b 16. Samouel and Letitia, siblings born three years apart, grew up in an impoverished neighborhood. As adults, Letitia is chronically jobless and struggles financially. Samouel is a computer programmer at a local business.

What might explain their different life outcomes? a. differential susceptibility b. shared environmental influences c. cohort differences d. different school experiences ANSWER: a 17. The quality of resilience is dynamic, which means that it _____. a. is usually present in the same way b. may change over time Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. can be either a positive or negative adaptation d. reflects successful coping with minor adversities ANSWER: b 18. Research indicates that a child who demonstrates positive adaptation in the face of stressors such as poverty and neglect is showing resilience and _____. a. will always show resilience no matter how the child's life changes b. will only show resilience if the child's current experiences remain the same c. will only show resilience if the child's current experiences get worse d. may or may not show resilience in the future ANSWER: d 19. In _____, the dominant idea about resilience was that communities are responsible for child resilience. a. 2000 b. 2008 c. 2010 d. 2020 ANSWER: d 20. In 1980, the dominant idea about resilience was that _____. a. differential susceptibility means identical stressors can benefit one child and harm another b. all children have the same needs for healthy development c. nothing inevitably causes harm d. strengths vary by cultural and national values ANSWER: c 21. In childhood, how children react to a serious stressor depends primarily on _____. a. what the stressor is b. accumulated stressors c. whether the stressor is economic d. whether the stressor affects other siblings too ANSWER: b 22. Since Sanni's mother suffers from depression and their father has an autoimmune disease, Sanni does not always get what they need. Sanni has a supportive group of peers and extended family members. Despite these circumstances, Sanni maintains a positive outlook. What may be helping Sanni to maintain their positive attitude? a. low intelligence b. their circle of friends c. low problem-solving ability d. a high cortisol level Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. Yusuf's family is experiencing multiple problems, including their mother's illness, their father's loss of employment, and two relatives moving into their home. Despite the stress of home life, Yusuf does attend weekly church and feels welcomed by the congregation. Overall, Yusuf seems to be doing fairly well despite the struggles in their home life. Yusuf may be _____. a. indifferent to their family's problems b. relying on egocentric tendencies c. using religion as a source of support d. hoping to go to college after high school ANSWER: c 24. One important factor with respect to children coping with adversity is a child's _____. a. interpretation of the events b. ethnicity c. gender d. cooperation with others ANSWER: a 25. Which of these is NOT associated with increased independence during middle childhood? a. steady growth b. brain maturation c. reduced school performance d. intellectual advances ANSWER: c 26. Sense of self during middle childhood is associated with _____. a. academic accomplishments b. how peers view their accomplishments c. participating on a winning team d. many factors ANSWER: d 27. Research has found that, on average, 12-year-olds in the United States spent roughly _____ with their mother each day. a. an hour and a half b. two hours c. four hours d. six hours ANSWER: a 28. A child's idea about themselves, including their intelligence, personality, abilities, gender, and ethnic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice background, is referred to as: a. their self-concept. b. industry. c. social comparison. d. resilience.

ANSWER: a 29. Which of these is associated with reduced effortful control? a. high self-esteem b. moderate self-esteem c. diminished self-concept d. unrealistically high self-esteem ANSWER: d 30. Dawi has poor grades and high levels of aggression during middle childhood. Both of these may be associated with _____. a. reduced effortful control b. poor social comparisons c. increased self-concept d. decreased self-esteem ANSWER: a 31. When a child decides that they are incompetent at a task they consider themselves to be: a. industrious. b. process-oriented. c. inferior. d. resilient.

ANSWER: c 32. School achievement is important for the development of self-esteem during: a. early childhood. b. middle childhood. c. early adolescence. d. late adolescence.

ANSWER: b 33. In many cultures, self-esteem tends to _____ during middle childhood. a. demonstrate stability b. decrease c. fluctuate d. be dependent on genetics Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 34. Research has found that _____ in early and middle childhood led to both internalizing and externalizing problems in both boys and girls. a. instability b. low SES c. parental divorce d. residing in a stepparent family ANSWER: a 35. Courts are increasingly recommending _____ of children after a divorce. a. joint physical custody b. full physical custody to fathers c. full physical custody to mothers d. shared custody with paternal grandparents ANSWER: a 36. Pitter comes from an upper-middle-class family and their parents want to make sure that their family maintains their reputation, often pressuring Pitter to excel in their academics. Research has found that parental pressure to excel may be related to all of these problems EXCEPT: a. drug abuse. b. delinquency. c. poor school performance. d. expanded social circle.

ANSWER: d 37. Many parents believe that they mold their children's personalities. However, research has found that _____. a. half of all personality traits may be genetic b. half of all personality traits may be environmental c. genes and the shared and nonshared environment have the most impact on personality d. temperament defines personality ANSWER: c 38. Nicolasa is an adopted child who lives with three siblings, all biological children of their adoptive parents.

Nicolasa's science skills are far better than those of their adoptive parents or adoptive siblings. This provides evidence that _____. a. shared familial influences play a stronger role than was previously believed b. genes may have a strong impact on ability c. few environmental effects on personality come from outside the family d. Nicolasa's own initiative to excel is greater than that of their adoptive family ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 39. An expert team of scientists compared 1,000 sets of monozygotic twins reared by their biological parents.

The researchers asked the mothers to describe each twin. Descriptions ranged from very positive to very negative. The researchers measured personality at age 5 (including antisocial behavior as reported by kindergarten teachers) and then measured each twin's personality two years later. The results revealed _____. a. if mothers were more negative toward one of their twins, that twin became more antisocial at age 7 than at age 5 b. if mothers were less negative toward one of their twins, that twin became more antisocial at age 7 than at age 5 c. if mothers were more negative toward one of their twins, that twin became less antisocial at age 7 than at age 5 d. that there was no relation between maternal negativity and child antisocial behavior ANSWER: a 40. Family structure refers to _____. a. the way in which a family raises its children b. the legal and genetic relationships of people in a household c. how the family's house is constructed d. how the various generations interact ANSWER: b 41. Wapasha is asked to list all of the people in their immediate family. Wapasha is being asked to report their family _____. a. structure b. harmony c. function d. resilience ANSWER: a 42. Family function refers to _____. a. how a family cares for its members b. the legal and genetic relationships of people in a household c. how the family's house is constructed d. how the various generations interact ANSWER: a 43. Developing self-respect, nurturing friendships with peers, and encouraging learning are three of the _____. a. family structures b. measurements of family harmony c. functions of a family d. suggestions for stress resilience ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 44. Which family function is especially crucial in middle childhood? a. harmony and stability b. physical necessities c. peer relationships d. self-respect ANSWER: a 45. The need for _____ is evident in U.S. children in military families. a. siblings b. public school c. consistency d. popularity ANSWER: c 46. The most common type of family for children in the United States is the _____ family. a. extended b. single-parent c. nuclear d. blended ANSWER: c 47. Helmo and Ljubisa are siblings who live with their biological parents. They live in a(n) _____ family. a. extended b. blended c. foster d. nuclear ANSWER: d 48. Some observers think that _____ of U.S. children live in a single-parent household. a. 10 percent b. a third c. 50 percent d. two-thirds ANSWER: b 49. A family that consists of one man, several wives, and the biological children of the man and the women is a(n) _____ family. a. blended b. adoptive c. extended d. polygamous Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 50. Compared with nuclear families, extended families typically _____. a. are more chaotic b. include grandparents c. feature less structure d. are worse for children ANSWER: b 51. Rosangela has been married before and has two biological children. They have just married Indy, who has also been married before and has a biological child. Their family is an example of a _____ family. a. polygamous b. nuclear c. stepparent d. traditional ANSWER: c 52. About 1 father in _____ has physical custody of their children and raises them without their mother or a new wife. a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50 ANSWER: c 53. Who is MOST likely to experience few psychological problems during middle childhood? a. Ikaros, who is being raised by their single mom b. Ellinor, who is being raised by their single dad c. Emmerich, who is being raised by their married biological parents d. Irene, who is being raised by their biological mother and their romantic partner ANSWER: c 54. Compared with single-parent homes, two-parent homes usually have _____. a. stronger moral values b. higher income c. fewer parent-child interactions d. less stability ANSWER: b 55. To reduce the impact of divorce on children, which of these should take place? a. Only one parent should stay in the children's lives for the first few years.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. Both parents should quickly remarry and move to new communities to allow children to start fresh. c. Transitions should be minimized. d. Parents should stay in their marriages regardless of the circumstances, avoiding divorce at all costs.

ANSWER: c 56. About what percentage of households are considered stepparent families? a. 1 b. 5 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: c 57. Two factors that universally interfere with family function in every nation are _____. a. ethnic differences and low income b. low income and high conflict c. high stress and high income d. religious differences and low income ANSWER: b 58. The family stress model illustrates that _____. a. poverty itself is quite harmful to children b. a high income can overcome the effects of stress c. the reaction to family poverty is crucial d. even a middle-class income cannot overcome the effects of stress ANSWER: c 59. The family structure of "grandparents without parent" is known as: a. skipped generation families. b. extended families. c. adoptive families. d. single parent families.

ANSWER: a 60. The particular rules and behaviors that are passed down to younger children from older children are what define _____. a. child culture b. peer values c. the lives of childhood d. the legends of childhood ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 61. School-age children would most admire _____. a. Prabhakar, whose mother kisses them good-bye at school b. Menander, who was punished for not telling the teacher who threw a paper airplane c. Hansjorg, who is the third-grade teacher's favorite d. Suman, who spends most of their free time with adults ANSWER: b 62. Ten-year-old Dorofei caught Linnea, their best friend, lying to their own mom. Linnea asked Dorofei not to tell their mother. Dorofei will probably _____. a. tell Linnea's mother about the lie b. keep quiet about it c. no longer be friends with Linnea d. tell their own mother about the lie ANSWER: b 63. When a teen uses electronics and technology to harm another teen, they are engaging in which type of bullying? a. physical b. verbal c. relational d. cyber ANSWER: d 64. What factors generally determine whether a child is well liked by their peers? a. age and gender b. culture and race c. cohort and SES d. culture and cohort ANSWER: d 65. Bira is always friendly. When someone tells them a secret they do not tell other friends. They also are helpful and cooperate with others to get class projects done. Other students like working with Bira. Bira could be defined as a(n) _____ child. a. aggressive-rejected b. popular c. moral d. spoiled ANSWER: b 66. Some unpopular children are _____ rather than rejected. a. neglected b. aggressive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. withdrawn d. arrogant ANSWER: a 67. The BEST example of an aggressive-rejected child is _____. a. Wenzel, who is disliked because they tell others that they are stupid b. Arnorr, who is popular but disliked by many children c. Bion, who is ignored by most children d. Clotho, who changes friends often ANSWER: a 68. Clotho is an extremely timid and anxious 9-year-old child. Other children seem to dislike them. They appear to be a(n) _____. a. aggressive-rejected child b. controversial child c. neglected child d. withdrawn-rejected child ANSWER: d 69. Repeated, systematic attacks on those who are unable to defend themselves is the definition of _____. a. aggression b. harm c. arrogance d. bullying ANSWER: d 70. Yasmina has repeatedly been calling Dary names. Yasmina also teases Dary about their haircut and clothes.

The type of bullying that Yasmina is displaying is _____. a. physical b. verbal c. relational d. cyberbullying ANSWER: b 71. Bullying attacks _____. a. mainly occur in the United States b. are repeated c. are harmful d. depend, on some level, on the tacit consent of the person who is bullied ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 72. Research shows that a child is likely to be a victim of bullying if the child is _____. a. withdrawn-rejected b. intelligent c. "under the radar" d. liked by peers ANSWER: a 73. The kind of bully who is the MOST strongly disliked by peers is called a "_____"; They rarely have friends or sympathizers. a. modeled bully b. rejected bully c. bully-victim d. familial bully ANSWER: c 74. Girls who bully typically _____. a. use threats of force b. use words to attack c. are larger than average in size d. have older sisters who are aggressive ANSWER: b 75. Most bullies pick on _____. a. members of the other sex b. members of their own sex c. people they barely know d. their little brothers and sisters ANSWER: b 76. Over time, the consequences of bullying _____. a. may lead to problems primarily for the bullies themselves b. may lead to problems for the bullies and their victims c. may lead to problems primarily for the victims d. typically vanish by the time children enter high school ANSWER: b 77. There are many approaches to addressing the issue of bullying. Research indicates the one effective approach is _____. a. to have a zero-tolerance policy at school b. talking to parents and teachers, but not to students, about bullying c. grouping bullies together in the same classroom to isolate the problem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. changing the school culture as a whole ANSWER: d 78. According to the text, what method has been effective in stopping bullying in schools? a. focusing on children in higher grades b. focusing on children in lower grades c. instituting a zero-tolerance policy d. using a whole-school strategy ANSWER: d 79. What period is the prime time for moral development? a. early childhood b. late childhood c. middle childhood d. early adulthood ANSWER: c 80. All of these factors drive children's growing interest in moral issues EXCEPT _____. a. peer culture b. empathy c. antipathy d. education ANSWER: c 81. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development was strongly influenced by _____. a. Sigmund Freud b. Jean Piaget c. Erik Erikson d. Carol Gilligan ANSWER: b 82. _____ moral reasoning is not usually present until adolescence or adulthood, if then. a. Preconventional b. Unconventional c. Conventional d. Postconventional ANSWER: d 83. What is the first stage of moral reasoning in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: a 84. Lawrence Kohlberg's concept of preconventional morality involves _____. a. the careful consideration of all options b. an emphasis on laws and social order c. seeking pleasure and avoiding punishment d. trying to gain the approval of others ANSWER: c 85. The Piagetian stage of development that is similar to Lawrence Kohlberg's stage of preconventional morality is _____. a. the sensorimotor period b. the preoperational stage c. concrete operations d. formal operations ANSWER: b 86. Jelena is usually good because they are afraid that they will be punished if they aren't well-behaved. Jelena is at which level of Lawrence Kohlberg's view of moral development? a. conventional b. preconventional c. premoral d. postconventional ANSWER: b 87. The statement that BEST reflects moral reasoning at the preconventional level is "_____." a. I obey a higher power b. Every citizen should obey the rules c. I want everyone to like me d. I don't want to get caught and punished ANSWER: d 88. What is the second stage of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 89. Conventional morality involves _____. a. the careful consideration of all options b. following what parents, teachers, and peers do c. seeking pleasure and avoiding pain d. trying to take care of one's own needs ANSWER: b 90. Lien is asked whether a person should steal food if they are hungry. Lien says no because it is illegal. Lien is in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ moral reasoning level, in the stage called "_____." a. preconventional; might makes right b. postconventional; social contract c. conventional; law and order d. conventional; good girl and nice boy ANSWER: c 91. Iacob decides not to tell the teacher that their classmate Jelena is cheating on the science exam because they are afraid the other kids will call them a snitch. This is an example of Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development. a. conventional b. preconventional c. premoral d. postconventional ANSWER: a 92. Vibianus steals food to feed themselves and their little sister because they are hungry. If another child hears about this and states, "Vibianus shouldn't steal because stealing is against the law," that child is MOST likely in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. premoral c. postconventional d. conventional ANSWER: d 93. What is the third stage of moral reasoning in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: d 94. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, _____ is what advances a person's morality. a. age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. social development c. intellectual maturation d. ethnicity ANSWER: c 95. The crucial element in Lawrence Kohlberg's assessment of moral stages is _____. a. the age of the respondent b. what the person answers c. why the person chooses to participate d. the reasons given ANSWER: d 96. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory has been criticized because his _____. a. stages do not reflect liberal, Western values b. theory doesn't emphasize stages strongly enough c. theory does not take into account cultural differences d. theory emphasizes Eastern values ANSWER: c 97. Sapir has begun to participate in arguments on issues of right and wrong. They are developing their own moral thinking, guided by _____. a. their religion alone b. their peers, parents, and culture c. advanced reading material at school d. the urge to internalize their society's rules ANSWER: b 98. When child culture conflicts with adult morality, children are MOST likely to _____. a. align themselves with their peers b. listen to what the adults say c. make their own decisions d. be unable to make decisions ANSWER: a 99. Which is NOT a common value among 6- to 11-year-old children? a. dressing like adults b. protecting friends c. keeping secrets from adults d. blending in with peers ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 100. Restitution as a punishment for a transgression involves _____. a. hurting the transgressor b. praising the transgressor c. restoring what was lost d. defining what was lost ANSWER: c 101. When 9-year-old children were asked to choose between retribution and restitution for a punishment, _____. a. almost all chose restitution b. almost all chose retribution c. about half chose restitution and half chose retribution d. they were unable to decide ANSWER: c 102. Mr. Thorpe had a conversation about the fairness of restitution and retribution with 10-year-old Pranay.

The next day, Pranay still thought retribution was the fairest. Scientific study shows us that this MOST likely means that talking about moral values with children _____. a. is a waste of time b. must be done after age 10 c. will not bring about immediate change d. makes them more stubborn ANSWER: c 103. Bullies during middle childhood are _____. a. low on social comparisons b. high on social comparisons c. low on empathy d. high on empathy ANSWER: c

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 19

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Essay 1. Name the two kinds of sex hormones. State four kinds of changes that occur as the result of sex hormone production.

ANSWER: Estrogens (including estradiol and progesterone) are female hormones, and androgens (including testosterone) are male hormones, although both genders have some of both hormones. These hormones 1) awaken an interest in sex and 2) make reproduction possible. The hormones of puberty regulate 3) stress and immunity and make young adolescents 4) quick to become angry, upset, or tearful. They also 5) increase psychopathology, such as schizophrenia in males and depression in females.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Name the two kinds Names the two kinds Names one of the two Does not correctly of sex hormones of sex hormones kinds of sex hormones name either kind of (or names estrogen sex hormone and testosterone) State changes that States four or more States three changes States two or fewer occur from the changes that occur that occur from the changes that occur production of sex from the production of production of sex from the production of hormones sex hormones hormones sex hormones

2. Describe two factors that contribute to changes in sleep patterns during puberty. What are at least three risks associated with sleep deprivation and irregular sleep schedules among adolescents?

ANSWER: First, puberty interacts with biorhythms—seasonal changes or those on a 24-hour cycle, like the circadian rhythm. For most people, daylight awakes the brain. But at puberty, night may be more energizing, making some teens wide awake and hungry at midnight and half asleep, with no energy, all morning. Second, the blue spectrum light from TV, computer, and personal-device screens may have particularly strong effects on the human circadian system. Risks associated with sleep deprivation and irregular sleep schedules include: 1) insomnia, 2) nightmares, 3) mood disorders, 4) falling asleep while driving, and 5) learning difficulties.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Describe two factors Describes two factors Describes one factor that contribute to that contribute to that contributes to changes in sleep changes in sleep changes in sleep patterns patterns patterns Identify three risks Identifies three risks Identifies two risks associated with sleep associated with sleep associated with sleep deprivation deprivation deprivation

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe any factors that contribute to changes in sleep patterns Does not identify risks associated with sleep deprivation

3. Describe the secular trend in puberty.

ANSWER: In recent centuries, puberty has begun at younger and younger ages. This is an example of what is called the "secular trend," which is earlier or greater growth as nutrition and medicine improve.

Increased food availability has led to increased weight gain in childhood, which has resulted in earlier puberty and taller average height. For centuries every generation has reached puberty sooner than the previous one.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe the secular Describes the secular Vaguely describes the Does not describe the trend in puberty trend in puberty secular trend in puberty secular trend in puberty

4. Discuss the relationship between stress and pubertal timing. Mention at least three stress factors, as well as research findings on why this link may exist.

ANSWER: There is a positive correlation between stress levels and puberty. Individuals who experience higher levels of stress begin puberty earlier than their peers, especially if the children's parents are 1) sick, 2) drug addicted, or 3) divorced, or if 4) the neighborhood is violent and impoverished. One study found that 5) sexually abused girls began puberty as much as a year earlier than their nonabused peers.

Not only does high stress increase the production of sex hormones, but there also seems to be a genetic predisposition to early-onset puberty. This means that a child living in a dysfunctional family may have parents who also experienced early-onset puberty.

Evolutionary theory states that when harsh conditions threatened human survival, it was crucial that adolescents reproduce early. Today's teens' bodies react to stress in the same way, as if the survival of the species were in peril.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss the Discusses the Discusses the relationship between relationship between relationship between stress and puberty stress and early stress and early onset and mention puberty onset and puberty onset and three stress factors mentions three stress mentions two stress factors factors Explain research Explains that parents Explains that parents findings about the in a dysfunctional in a dysfunctional link family may have family may have experienced earlyexperienced earlyonset puberty and also onset puberty or explains the explains the evolutionary theory evolutionary theory

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not understand that stress causes early-onset puberty or mentions two or fewer stress factors Does not explain either that parents in a dysfunctional family may have experienced early-onset puberty or explain the evolutionary theory

5. Riina is concerned about their son's diet. They worry about vitamin deficiencies. Their concerns, however, are not isolated as there are several problems with the dietary habits of today's teens. List four of those and then provide two reasons for problematic eating patterns in adolescence.

ANSWER: Many adolescents do not eat well. Teenagers often 1) skip breakfast, 2) binge at midnight, 3) guzzle down unhealthy energy drinks, and 4) eat salty, processed snacks. One reason for their eating patterns is that their hormones affect the circadian rhythm of their appetites. Another reason is that their drive for independence makes them avoid family dinners, refusing to eat what their mothers say they should.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Lists four problems with adolescents' eating patterns

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists two problems with adolescents' eating patterns

Weak (1–0 pts.)

List four problems Lists one or no with adolescents' problems with eating patterns adolescents' eating patterns Provide two reasons Provides two reasons Provides one reason Provides no reasons for problematic for problematic eating for problematic eating for problematic eating eating patterns patterns patterns patterns

6. Gyoa is a school psychologist and has been asked to talk to a group of high school teachers about body dissatisfaction and disordered eating among adolescents. What are factors that correlate with body satisfaction that Gyoa should include in the discussion? Also, how could Gyoa explain how social media contributes to body dissatisfaction?

ANSWER: Gyoa should explain to the teachers that body dissatisfaction correlates with unfavorable media comparisons, weight criticisms from parents, unfavorable peer comparisons, and low self-esteem.

Research on social media and body dissatisfaction shows that the more time teenage girls spend on social media, the higher their body dissatisfaction.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

List factors that Lists four factors that Lists two factors that Does not list a factor correlate with body correlate with body correlate with body that correlates with dissatisfaction dissatisfaction dissatisfaction body dissatisfaction Explain how social Explains how social Explains how social Does not discuss media contributes to media contributes, media contributes, but research on body body dissatisfaction including time on does not include time dissatisfaction social media and the on social media or the percentage of teens percentage of teens who report problems who report problems

7. What is the difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics when it comes to sexual maturation? Name at least three of each type of characteristic for either biological males or females.

ANSWER: Primary sex characteristics are those that are directly involved in conception and pregnancy.

Specific primary changes in the female are 1) growth of the uterus, 2) growth of the vagina, and 3) mature ova produced by the ovaries. Specific primary changes in the male are 4) growth of the testes, 5) growth of the penis, and 6) production of sperm.

Secondary sex characteristics are bodily features that do not directly affect fertility but that signify masculinity or femininity. Secondary changes that occur in both males and females are 1) the growth of body hair as well as 2) changes to the voice, 3) growth of breasts, 4) increased muscle mass, and 5) skeletal structure. 6) Males widen at the shoulders and 7) grow about 5 inches taller than females, while girls 8) develop breasts and 9) grow wider hips.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Differentiate between Differentiates between Does not clearly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not differentiate Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Essay primary and secondary sex characteristics Name primary sex characteristics

primary and secondary differentiate between between primary and sex characteristics primary and secondary secondary sex sex characteristics characteristics Names three primary Names two primary Names one or no sex characteristics for sex characteristics for primary sex either gender either gender characteristics for either gender Name secondary sex Names three Names two secondary Names one or no characteristics secondary sex sex characteristics for secondary sex characteristics for either gender characteristics for either gender either gender

8. Compared to a century ago, adolescent sexual activity is now more hazardous because several things have changed. Explain some of these factors and how they have changed over time.

ANSWER: Change 1: Earlier puberty means teens have sexual experiences at younger ages. Early sexual experiences correlate with depression and drug use. Change 2: A century ago, teenage mothers were married; now, in the United States, most are unwed. Most teenage mothers have no husbands to help them. Change 3: Raising a child has become more complex and expensive, and most mothers of teen mothers are employed, so fewer of them can help out. Change 4: Sexually transmitted infections are more common and more dangerous.

Good (5 pts.)

Explain some of the Explains two of the factors factors

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains one of the factors

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains none of the factors

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 1. The period when children's bodies become adult in terms of size, shape, and sexuality is called "_____." a. puberty b. youth c. the growth spurt d. secondary sex development ANSWER: a 2. For both girls and boys, puberty typically begins as young as _____ years of age or as late as _____ years of age. a. 5; 18 b. 7; 16 c. 8; 14 d. 10; 13 ANSWER: c 3. For girls, the usual sequence of physical changes in puberty is _____. a. menarche, the growth spurt, and the beginning of breast development b. the beginning of breast development, the growth spurt, and menarche c. the growth spurt, menarche, and the beginning of breast development d. the growth spurt, the beginning of breast development, and menarche ANSWER: b 4. For girls, menarche is the _____. a. beginning of growth of the uterus b. first ovulation of a mature egg c. first menstrual period d. first year of menstruation ANSWER: c 5. The first outward sign of puberty in a typical girl is _____. a. an increase in weight b. the development of muscular strength c. a spurt in height d. the onset of nipple growth ANSWER: d 6. Andraste, who is a 12-year-old girl, has just experienced a sudden growth spurt. They are likely to next notice _____. a. initial pubic hair growth b. breast development c. their hips growing wider Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. an increase in her shoe size ANSWER: c 7. During a boy's puberty, the growth spurt sequence typically occurs in which order? a. weight, height, muscles b. weight, muscles, height c. height, weight, muscles d. muscles, height, weight ANSWER: a 8. For boys, the usual sequence of physical changes in puberty is _____. a. growth of the testes, initial pubic hair growth, growth of the penis, spermarche b. growth of the testes, growth of the penis, initial pubic hair growth, spermarche c. spermarche, growth of the testes, growth of the penis, initial pubic hair growth d. initial pubic hair growth, growth of the testes, spermarche, growth of the penis ANSWER: a 9. For boys, the first ejaculation of seminal fluid is _____. a. penis growth b. spermarche c. first intercourse d. pubic hair ANSWER: b 10. For boys, the first ejaculation generally occurs _____. a. when facial hair first appears b. after the peak growth spurt c. following growth of the penis d. when the final pubic hair pattern is established ANSWER: c 11. Raghu, who is an 11-year-old boy, has just noticed that they have some pubic hair growth. Their next pubertal event will probably be _____. a. beard development b. penis growth c. spermarche d. voice change ANSWER: b 12. National differences in the timing of menarche are due to: a. genetic reasons.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. nutritional reasons. c. genetic and nutritional reasons. d. neither genetic nor nutritional reasons.

ANSWER: c 13. Adolescent males are _____ likely as females to develop schizophrenia. a. similarly b. almost twice as c. three times as d. five times as ANSWER: b 14. _____ direct(s) adolescents toward _____, perhaps a product of ancient evolutionary patterns for the human species. a. Hormones; typical sexual roles b. The hypothalamus; sexual orientation c. The pituitary gland; sexual identity d. Hormones; gender identity ANSWER: a 15. Body chemicals that regulate sleep, moods, hunger, and stress are called "_____." a. the HPA axis b. the brain stem c. hormones d. adrenal glands ANSWER: c 16. The first hormones to begin the process of puberty are triggered in the child's _____. a. gonads b. penis or uterus c. adrenal glands d. hypothalamus ANSWER: d 17. The biological events that begin puberty involve a hormonal signal from the _____. a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. hippocampus d. ovaries or testes ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 18. Which gland(s) receive(s) signals directly from the hypothalamus? a. adrenals b. testes c. pituitary d. gonads ANSWER: c 19. The organ that produces the hormones that stimulate the adrenal glands is the _____. a. pituitary b. gonad c. hypothalamus d. thyroid ANSWER: a 20. The sequence of puberty hormone production that originates in the brain and ends with glands located atop the kidneys is known by the acronym _____. a. HAG pathway b. HAP pathway c. HPG axis d. HPA axis ANSWER: d 21. The correct sequence of puberty hormone production that starts in the brain and ends with glands located atop the kidneys is the _____. a. hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenal axis b. pituitary, adrenal, hypothalamus axis c. adrenal, hypothalamus, pituitary axis d. pituitary, hypothalamus, adrenal axis ANSWER: a 22. At adolescence, the pituitary activates the _____, which are the ovaries in females and testicles in males. a. gonads b. hippocampus c. adrenal glands d. circadian rhythm ANSWER: a 23. What substance(s) cause(s) the ovaries and testes to greatly increase their production of estradiol and testosterone? a. human growth hormones b. follicle-stimulating hormones Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone d. cortisol ANSWER: c 24. _____ are the sex hormones secreted in greater amounts by males than females. a. Progesterones b. Androgens c. Estrogens d. Adrenalines ANSWER: b 25. Peak fertility occurs _____ to _____ years after activated gonads produce mature ova and sperm. a. 2; 4 b. 4; 6 c. 6; 8 d. 8; 10 ANSWER: b 26. _____ rise at puberty, and that makes adolescents quicker to become angry or upset. a. Cortisol levels b. Psychotic episodes c. Externalizing disorders d. Identity conflicts ANSWER: a 27. The day–night cycle that occurs approximately every 24 hours is the _____. a. biorhythm b. night–day cycle c. sleep cycle d. circadian rhythm ANSWER: d 28. Since they entered puberty, Nirmal, a biological male, has had a hard time going to bed on time, is hungry in the middle of the night, and has little energy in the morning. Nirmal's behavior: a. means that they need professional help. b. means that they are trying to avoid their parents. c. is due to changes in their brain. d. is due to hormonal shifts.

ANSWER: d 29. Statistically, based on pubertal development, which student is MOST likely to fall asleep during class?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. Cevahir, age 5 b. Ali, age 8 c. Drupada, age 11 d. Editha, age 14 ANSWER: d 30. Ezra is an adolescent male who experiences sleep deprivation, which makes them more likely to experience all of these EXCEPT _____. a. insomnia b. epilepsy c. mood disorders d. nightmares ANSWER: b 31. Based on the sleep needs of adolescents and changes related to pubertal development, later high school start times can be expected to associate with all of these EXCEPT _____. a. less adolescent depression b. higher grades c. less student absenteeism d. decreased college attendance ANSWER: d 32. During adolescence, the _____ matures before the _____ in the brain. a. prefrontal cortex; limbic system b. limbic system; prefrontal cortex c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala d. cerebellum; amygdala ANSWER: b 33. Which hormones affect body fat and the onset of puberty? a. cortisol b. androgen c. estradiol d. leptin ANSWER: d 34. Which of these individuals is MOST likely going to take dramatic risks in order to gain peer approval? a. 5-year-old Ravi b. 10-year-old Archie c. 15-year-old Ramesh d. 20-year-old Andelo Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 35. Many adolescents think carefully and answer correctly when responding to paper-and-pencil questions about hypothetical risk-taking situations, yet in the real world they engage in risky behavior. This is due in part to their _____. a. genes b. peers c. formal operational thinking d. intuitive thinking ANSWER: b 36. Rune, a 16-year-old biological male, invites a group of high school friends to swim in a neighbor's pool late at night while that neighbor is away. They climb the fence and jump in, playing wildly and loudly in the water.

A few minutes later, the police arrive. How does adolescent brain development help explain this poor decisionmaking? a. The limbic system is underdeveloped. b. The prefrontal cortex is underdeveloped. c. The amygdala is underdeveloped. d. The regions regulating the emotions are underdeveloped.

ANSWER: b 37. Adolescents are more likely than adults to choose to stay up all night, go through a day without eating, exercise in pain, or text while driving because of an immature _____. a. limbic system b. prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. pituitary gland ANSWER: b 38. About _____ of the variation in age of puberty is determined by genes. a. one-half b. two-thirds c. one-fourth d. three-fourths ANSWER: b 39. Statistically, which adolescent is MOST apt to experience menarche first? a. Liza, who is European American b. Yedidah, who is Hispanic American c. Fumnanya, who is African American d. Dobrila, who is Chinese American ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 40. Which statement about the correlation between body fat and onset of puberty among females is correct? a. There is no correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty among females. b. There is a positive correlation between body fat and onset of puberty among females. c. There is a negative correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty among females. d. There is a correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty only among female adolescents who are Native American.

ANSWER: b 41. Over the last two centuries, children have reached their adult height earlier than their ancestors. What is the official name of this phenomenon? a. secular trend b. evolution c. genetic predisposition d. generational trend ANSWER: a 42. While visiting an exhibit on seventeenth-century life, Shamika noticed that the adult clothing and shoes seemed to be quite small. The curator explained that current generations are taller than past generations due to _____. a. secular trend b. obesity c. genetic predisposition d. more exercise ANSWER: a 43. The average age of the onset of puberty has changed over time. Which of these individuals is MOST likely to have started puberty at the latest age? a. Priam, born in 1910 b. Cusmaan, born in 1950 c. Cason, born in 1975 d. LaShawn, born in 1990 ANSWER: a 44. Eilwen is a 10-year-old biological female and is well into puberty. Because they are a little early, they will likely experience _____. a. unwelcome attention from boys their age b. pride that they are ahead of their friends c. teasing from boys their age d. a better body image than their peers ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 45. Jaffe, a biological female, experienced menarche before they were 8 years old. They experienced _____. a. precocious puberty b. abnormal hormonal fluctuations c. preterm menarche d. excessively high levels of androgens ANSWER: a 46. Stress, especially when prolonged, _____. a. may contribute to an early onset of puberty b. may contribute to a late onset of puberty c. typically increases after the onset of puberty d. typically decreases after the onset of puberty ANSWER: a 47. Research indicates that female children who experienced a great deal of _____ while very young also experienced early puberty. a. attention b. stress c. exercise d. starvation ANSWER: b 48. Evolutionary theory suggests that the relationship between childhood stress and onset of puberty exists to _____. a. delay childbearing in strife-filled environments b. encourage stressed youth to take more risks c. ensure that reproduction occurs early in stress-filled environments d. ease the transition to adulthood for individuals who need to grow up fast ANSWER: c 49. Which of these has NOT been associated with early maturation among girls? a. heightened depression b. low self-esteem c. less alcohol use d. poor body image ANSWER: c 50. Alexander was an early-maturing biological boy in the 1940s. Alexander would have been predicted to _____. a. be aggressive as an adolescent b. be a school leader as an adolescent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. use alcohol as an adolescent d. have an older romantic relationship partner ANSWER: b 51. In the twenty-first century, early puberty positively correlates with _____. a. girls choosing to date younger boys b. girls entering into early, nurturing relationships c. aggression and antisocial behavior in boys d. boys becoming leaders in their schools ANSWER: c 52. Based on ethnic differences, which of these healthy teenagers will likely experience puberty at the earliest age? a. Dina, who is Asian b. Zarko, who is European American c. Honorinus, who is African American d. Abbe, who is Latina ANSWER: c 53. In a recent survey (2020) of U.S. high school seniors who had driven a car in the past month, _____ percent reported texting while driving. a. 15 b. 26 c. 39 d. 62 ANSWER: c 54. Being _____ can accelerate pubertal development but being _____ slows it down. a. overweight; obese b. obese; underweight c. underweight; overweight d. obese; overweight ANSWER: a 55. Hormones in the food supply are thought to impact all of these EXCEPT _____. a. puberty b. appetite c. gender development d. sex hormones ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 56. Which of these is associated with depressive symptoms that appear during the winter months? a. major depressive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. schizophrenia d. seasonal affective disorder ANSWER: d 57. A study of _____ found that male pubertal changes were related to thinking less of themselves in most areas, except their relationship with girls. a. African American b. Asian American c. European American d. Mexican American ANSWER: d 58. Achaikos, a senior in high school who is a biological male, is very athletic and loves to play sports. They are physically active almost daily. They are not alone as about _____ percent of adolescent male seniors are physically active five days a week. a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50 ANSWER: d 59. One of the first signs of the growth spurt is _____. a. lengthening of the torso b. increased muscle mass c. growth of arms and legs d. growth of fingers and toes ANSWER: d 60. During the adolescent growth spurt, what is/are the last part(s) of the body to grow? a. limbs b. torso c. ears d. feet ANSWER: b 61. Haldor is an adolescent biological male who is going through their growth spurt. Which of these are they likely to outgrow first? a. shirt b. pants Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. belt d. shoes ANSWER: d 62. Igraine, a biological female, and Pekka, a biological male, are both experiencing a growth spurt. If they are typical adolescents, Igraine will have _____ than Pekka. a. a lower proportion of body fat b. a higher proportion of body fat c. more upper body muscle d. narrower hips ANSWER: b 63. One physical change that typically occurs during adolescence is that the _____. a. lungs increase in weight by a factor of five b. heart doubles in size c. tonsils increase in size d. skin becomes darker ANSWER: b 64. Some teenagers seem able to skate, play basketball, or dance for hours without rest. This increased endurance is BEST explained by _____. a. increased hormone output b. increased weight c. better digestive processes d. the growth of the heart and lungs ANSWER: d 65. _____ are the MOST common school accidents, and they increase at puberty. a. Sports injuries b. Falls c. Physical fights d. Overdoses ANSWER: a 66. Which change contributes to an adolescent's lessening susceptibility toward respiratory infections? a. greater exposure to germs from increased social activity b. the shrinkage of the lymphoid system c. the increase in sex hormones d. the growth spurt ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 67. Adolescent acne is usually caused by _____. a. changes in diet b. changes in the lymphoid system c. sexual frustration d. an increase in skin oils and sweat ANSWER: d 68. Which two factors are crucial to the issue of diet deficiencies? a. age and gender b. age and cohort c. gender and cohort d. gender and ethnicity ANSWER: a 69. Which biological male would be at the greatest risk for diet deficiencies in the United States? a. Lhamo, who was born in 1950 and is 10 years old b. Wil, who was born in 1960 and is 18 years old c. Aston, who was born in 1990 and is 10 years old d. Guiscard, who was born in 1990 and is 18 years old ANSWER: d 70. In a recent study, only _____ percent of U.S. high school female seniors consumed the recommended three or more servings of vegetables daily. a. 10 b. 13 c. 22 d. 31 ANSWER: b 71. Statistically, which person is MOST likely to have the greatest health problems due to iron deficiency? a. a biological female who is 16 years old and is menstruating b. a biological female who is 12 years old and has not yet experienced menarche c. a biological male who is 15 years old that exercises very little d. a biological male who is 25 years old and has three children ANSWER: a 72. Leba is a little concerned about their daughter's diet. They are concerned about it being deficient. If their teen daughter is a typical teen, Leba should probably feed them _____. a. potatoes to increase their starch b. carrots to increase their vitamin A c. orange juice to increase their vitamin C Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. spinach to increase their iron ANSWER: d 73. Which pair of nutrients is MOST likely to be lacking in the adolescent diet? a. magnesium and B vitamins b. iron and calcium c. sodium and potassium d. vitamins A and C ANSWER: b 74. The recommended daily dose of calcium is _____ milligrams; most teens consume less than _____ milligrams per day. a. 1,000; 300 b. 1,000; 500 c. 1,300; 800 d. 1,300; 500 ANSWER: d 75. One reason adolescents' nutritional habits may be poor is _____. a. lack of media attention to the importance of good nutrition b. misunderstanding about what is and is not healthy food c. altered taste buds due to hormonal surges d. anxiety about their body image ANSWER: d 76. Research indicates that a majority of adolescent girls in the United States are trying to _____. a. gain weight b. lose weight c. lift weights d. not focus on their appearance ANSWER: b 77. Unhappiness with one's physical appearance is a _____ phenomenon. a. city b. county c. national d. worldwide ANSWER: d 78. Brunhilde, an adolescent biological female, told a friend that they don't like the way their legs look in their new volleyball uniform. They said they hate their body and expressed a desire to lose a lot of weight.

Brunhilde's concerns likely reflect _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. poor body image b. dislike of sports c. a competitive nature d. poor social comparisons ANSWER: a 79. Zackary is naturally more alert in the evening than in the morning. This is a trait called: a. eveningness. b. circadian rhythm. c. impulsiveness. d. openness.

ANSWER: a 80. A person's idea of how their body looks is their: a. growth spurt. b. self-concept. c. self-esteem. d. body image.

ANSWER: d 81. Changes in primary sex characteristics include _____. a. growth of pubic hair and underarm hair b. rapid increase in height c. growth of the uterus or the testes d. deeper voice ANSWER: c 82. Once the primary sexual organs begin to function, adolescents are biologically capable of _____. a. reproduction b. weight loss c. giving blood d. sleeping fewer hours ANSWER: a 83. Secondary sex characteristics are traits that _____. a. occur later in development b. are not visible c. occur for only some people d. are not directly related to fertility ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 84. Dezba, who is a 13-year-old biological female, has noticed that their hips are getting wider and that their breasts are developing. They are noticing changes in their _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. puberty d. prefrontal ANSWER: b 85. Yuri has noticed swelling around their nipples during puberty. This is likely due to: a. the normal fluctuation of sex hormones. b. late-onset puberty. c. abnormally high levels of estrogen. d. drug abuse.

ANSWER: a 86. Which of these has the greatest impact on whether sexual discovery and exploration is healthy and enjoyable, or shameful and frightening? a. sex hormones b. brain function c. social context d. gender ANSWER: c 87. Which statement about teen sexual activity is FALSE? a. Teen births have decreased in every nation. b. Teen use of contraception has risen. c. Teen abortions are less common than they were 20 years ago. d. Youth continue to report sexual activity at younger and younger ages.

ANSWER: d 88. Data indicate a marked decline in _____ rates in most countries for the past few decades. a. teenage sexual activity b. teen birth c. romantic relationship d. contraception use ANSWER: b 89. In many nations, including the United States, rates of sexual activity among boys and girls _____. a. are almost even b. significantly favor boys c. significantly favor girls Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. are unclear ANSWER: a 90. Which nation has the highest reported rate of teenage sexual activity? a. Canada b. Sweden c. the United States d. Holland ANSWER: c 91. Ofra just gave birth. Their baby was preterm and is of low birthweight. Ofra also experienced high blood pressure throughout the pregnancy. Ofra is MOST likely _____ years old. a. 15 b. 19 c. 21 d. 25 ANSWER: a 92. A study of adult women in the United States found that those who voluntarily had sex before the age of 16 were _____. a. likely to have a successful marriage as an adult b. likely to use birth control c. not likely to use birth control d. likely to get a divorce as an adult ANSWER: d 93. Child sexual abuse _____. a. most often is instigated by strangers b. is quite rare in all cultures and countries c. includes only activities that involve genital contact d. is most common when the first signs of puberty occur ANSWER: d 94. Young people who are sexually exploited/abused _____. a. usually forget about the abuse b. tend to devalue themselves throughout life c. do not usually know their abuser d. are not likely to be aggressive ANSWER: b 95. A young boy experienced ongoing sexual abuse until they were 14. Now that they are an adult, it is likely that they _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. have forgotten the experiences over time b. suffer from biological harm resulting from the abuse c. are depressed and have difficulty with sex or psychosocial issues d. have outgrown the biological and psychosocial effects of the abuse ANSWER: c 96. In the United States, _____ of all new STIs occur in people ages 15 to 25. a. one-third b. half c. two-thirds d. three-fourths ANSWER: b 97. Teenagers have _____ rate of gonorrhea, genital herpes, and chlamydia when compared to sexually active people of other age groups. a. a lower b. the same c. a higher d. an unknown ANSWER: c 98. _____ is the MOST frequently reported STI. a. HIV b. Syphilis c. HPV d. Chlamydia ANSWER: d

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Essay 1. Define adolescent egocentrism and give two examples of it. Next, provide an example of a time when you exhibited adolescent egocentrism in your own life, and identify the type of egocentrism it was.

ANSWER: Adolescent egocentrism is how adolescents think intensely about themselves and about what others think of them. Two examples of egocentrism are adolescents' belief in the invincibility fable and the imaginary audience. The invincibility fable is the belief that nothing bad can happen to them because they are unique and immortal. This can lead to dangerous risk taking. The imaginary audience is the idea that the whole world is watching them and is concerned about what they do.

Answers for the second part will vary, but the example must clearly demonstrate the invincibility fable or the imaginary audience.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define adolescent Defines adolescent Defines adolescent Does not define egocentrism and give egocentrism and egocentrism and adolescent universal examples explains both the explains either the egocentrism or give a invincibility fable and invincibility fable or universal example the imaginary the imaginary audience audience Give example that Gives an example that Gives an example that Does not give an clearly demonstrates clearly demonstrates vaguely demonstrates example that the invincibility fable the invincibility the invincibility demonstrates either or the imaginary fable or the imaginary fable or the imaginary the invincibility audience audience audience or gives a fable or the imaginary clear example but fails audience to explain which it demonstrates

2. State two risks associated with the invincibility fable and two risks associated with the imaginary audience.

ANSWER: The invincibility fable is the notion that adolescents feel immune to harm or defeat. Since they feel they cannot be harmed, they may engage in 1) dangerous, thrill-seeking acts. Potential risks include 2) physical injury, 3) death, 4) pregnancy, and 5) a criminal record.

Adolescents play to the imaginary audience, believing they are the center of attention and everyone is watching them. A risk associated with this is the reluctance to engage in social situations unless everything is perfect—such as when an adolescent refuses to go to school with the "wrong" clothes, shoes, or hairstyle.

Good (5 pts.)

State risks associated States two risks with the invincibility associated with the fable invincibility fable State the risks States two risks associated with the associated with the imaginary audience imaginary audience

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

States one risk associated with the invincibility fable States one risk associated with the imaginary audience

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not state a risk associated with the invincibility fable Does not state a risk associated with the imaginary audience

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Essay 3. You are learning about inductive and deductive reasoning. Differentiate between the two and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Inductive reasoning (also called bottom-up reasoning) starts with specific facts or experiences and ends with a general conclusion. An example of inductive reasoning would be: "This new creature waddles and quacks. Ducks waddle and quack. Therefore, it must be a type of duck." The concrete operations of childhood are based on inductive reasoning.

Adolescents move into deductive reasoning. Deductive reasoning (also called top-down reasoning) starts with a general idea and then uses logic to draw specific conclusions. An example of deductive reasoning would be "If it's a duck, it will waddle and quack."

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Differentiate between Differentiates between Gives a vague inductive and inductive and explanation of how deductive reasoning deductive reasoning inductive and deductive reasoning differ Offer an example of Offers an example of Offers an example of inductive and inductive and inductiveordeductive deductive reasoning deductive reasoning reasoning

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not differentiate between inductive and deductive reasoning or confuses the two Does not offer an example of either type of reasoning or confuses the types

4. Define analytic thinking and intuitive thinking. Which form of thinking is more frequent among adolescents, and why?

ANSWER: Analytic thought is formal, logical, rational, hypothetical, and deductive. It is the thinking described

by Piaget and involves the rational analysis of many factors whose interactions must be calculated.

Intuitive thought starts with a prior belief, assumption, or general rule (called a "heuristic") rather than logic. Intuition is quick and powerful; it feels "right." It also involves applying memories or feelings. Intuitive thought is more emotional than analytic thought.

Adolescents use intuitive thinking more frequently because it is fast and powerful. Additionally, increased hormonal production brings emotion to the forefront of adolescents' thought processes.

Define analytic and intuitive thinking Explain which form of thinking is more frequent among adolescents

Good (5 pts.)

Defines analytic and intuitive thinking

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines analytic or intuitive thinking

Explains that adolescents use intuitive thinking more frequently, and why

Explains that adolescents use intuitive thinking more frequently, without telling why

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not thoroughly define either analytic or intuitive thinking Does not explain that adolescents use intuitive thinking more frequently

5. What are some consequences of differing neurological maturation and connectivity between adolescents and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Essay adults? Explain, citing research to support your answer. Be sure to mention differences in the brain activity of adolescents versus adults.

ANSWER: Differences in neurological maturation and connectivity between adolescents and adults may help explain why teens readily follow impulses that promise social approval from friends. In experiments in which adults and adolescents, alone or with peers, play video games in which taking risks might lead to crashes or gaining points, adolescents are much more likely than adults to risk crashing, especially when they are with peers. There are notable differences in brain activity (specifically in the ventral striatum) between adolescents and adults. When they are with other adults, the adults' brains give more signals of caution (inhibition)—opposite to adolescents' brains when they are with peers.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain Explains Explains Does not explain consequences of consequences of consequences of consequences of differences in differences in differences in differences in neurological neurological neurological neurological maturation and maturation and maturation and maturation and connectivity between connectivity between connectivity between connectivity between adolescents and adolescents and adults adolescents and adults adolescents and adults, adults and include and cites research but does not cite nor research to support research conclusions research answer Mention differences Mentions differences Partially explains Does not differentiate in the brain activity in the brain activity of differences in brain between adolescents of adolescents versus adolescents versus activity of adolescents and adults adults adults versus adults

6. Define secondary education and explain the importance of secondary education for both individual students and nations.

ANSWER: Secondary education encompasses grades 7 through 12. It denotes the school years after elementary or grade school and before college or university. Data on almost every health ailment, from every nation and every ethnic group, confirm that high school graduation correlates with better health, wealth, and family life. Educated adults also advance national wealth and health. Partly because political leaders recognize that educated adults advance national wealth and health, every nation is increasing the number of students in secondary schools. Education is compulsory until at least age 12 almost everywhere, and new high schools and colleges open almost daily in developing nations.

Good (5 pts.)

Defines secondary education

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define secondary Gives a vague Does not define education definition of secondary education secondary education Indicate how it helps Indicates how it helps Indicates how it helps Does not indicate how individuals and individuals and individuals or nations it helps individuals or nations nations nations

7. Tatum is starting middle school next year. What is the likely trajectory of their academic achievement and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Essay behavior during the middle school years? What are two factors that contribute to this pattern?

ANSWER: For many middle school students, academic achievement declines and behavioral problems rise.

There are many factors that contribute to this pattern. 1) Puberty is part of the problem. 2) Middle schools undermine student–teacher relationships. 3) Unlike earlier school years, when each classroom has one primary teacher all year, middle school teachers have hundreds of students. This makes them impersonal and distant, and 4) their students learn less and 5) may be at increased risks.

Also, 6) middle schools typically require students to change rooms, teachers, and classmates every 40 minutes or so. That 7) makes public acclaim and new friendships difficult. 8) Recognition for academic excellence is especially elusive, because middle school teachers mark more harshly. 9) Many middle school students seek acceptance from their peers rather than their teachers.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

State what happens to States what happens to States what happens to Does not state what student achievement student achievement student achievement happens to student and behavior in and behavior in and behavior in achievement and middle school middle school middle school behavior in middle school Name factors that Names two factors Names one factor that Names no factors that contribute to this that contribute to this contributes to this contribute to this pattern pattern pattern pattern

8. Explain what the PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment) is and describe how U.S. students perform on this assessment compared to their international peers.

ANSWER: The PISA is an international test taken by 15-year-olds in 50 nations. It is designed to measure problem solving and cognition in daily life. Therefore, the questions are written to be practical, measuring knowledge that a person would apply at home or on the job. On the PISA, the United States scored near average when compared to other nations.

Explain what the PISA is Describe U.S. students' performance on the PISA

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives a detailed Explains what the Does not explain what explanation of what PISA is the PISA is the PISA is Describes U.S. Describes U.S. Does not describe U.S. students' performance students' performance students' performance on the PISA on the PISA or its on the PISA or comparison to the describes it PIRLS or the TIMSS inaccurately

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 1. Lydos, a biological male, is currently going through puberty. This means that their thoughts likely center on _____. a. friends b. society c. family d. themself ANSWER: d 2. During puberty, young people center on themselves, in part because brain maturation heightens _____. a. self-esteem b. self-consciousness c. self-concept d. self-identity ANSWER: b 3. Thinking intensely about themselves and about what others think about them is called "_____." a. individualism b. deductive thinking c. inductive thinking d. egocentrism ANSWER: d 4. Who coined the term adolescent egocentrism? a. Erik Erikson b. B. F. Skinner c. David Elkind d. Lawrence Kohlberg ANSWER: c 5. Havel believes that they are more unique and admired than other teens their age and is certain that everyone is paying attention to their every action. It appears that they have started to experience adolescent _____. a. modesty b. moral reasoning c. egocentrism d. logic ANSWER: c 6. Lou, who is a 15-year-old biological female, is attending their first soccer team practice. They are very sensitive to the facial expressions, body language, communication styles, and other social cues given to them by their new teammates. Their sensitivity to these social cues is aided by their adolescent _____. a. hypothetical thinking b. deductive thinking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. inductive thinking d. egocentrism ANSWER: d 7. Many adolescents feel that their own thoughts and experiences are far more extraordinary than those of other people. This is part of their _____. a. personal fable b. postoperational thought c. moral reasoning d. invincibility fable ANSWER: a 8. The belief that one cannot be harmed by things that would hurt someone else is referred to as "_____." a. the invincibility fable b. the personal fable c. the imaginary audience d. deductive reasoning ANSWER: a 9. Seventeen-year-old Runar drinks heavily and drives dangerously fast, believing that they cannot be hurt.

Runar is demonstrating _____. a. the personal fable b. deductive reasoning c. self-awareness d. the invincibility fable ANSWER: d 10. The power of the invincibility fable may be observed in a(n) _____. a. 17-year-old teen who drives cautiously b. 18-year-old teen who insists that their romantic partner use a condom c. young military recruit who hopes to be sent into combat d. teen who sings, thinking that the neighbors must be listening ANSWER: c 11. The term imaginary audience refers to adolescents' _____. a. ability to understand how others perceive them b. belief that everyone is watching their behavior and appearance c. constant posing and posturing before mirrors d. belief that others are spying on them ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 12. Sabina says, "There is no way I am going to school today with this pimple on my face. Everybody is going to see it and laugh at me." Sabina is demonstrating _____. a. a volatile mismatch b. an implicit judgment c. the imaginary audience d. the invincibility fable ANSWER: c 13. When adolescents fantasize about how others will react to their new hairstyle, they are creating a(n) _____. a. personal fable b. abstract audience c. personal identity d. imaginary audience ANSWER: d 14. Jean Piaget called the reasoning that characterizes adolescence "_____." a. formal operational thought b. invincibility thinking c. metacognition d. concrete operational thinking ANSWER: a 15. Tisha just solved this math problem: (35xy2)(6zy3). Their ability to do so puts them in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: d 16. When Piaget and his colleagues asked children of different ages to balance a scale using several different weights, they found that by age _____. a. 4, children tended to use logical deduction b. 7, children used spatial relationships c. 10, trial-and-error strategies based on logic are used to balance the scale d. 13 or 14, logic is used to understand a reciprocal relationship ANSWER: d 17. Azad, age 7, has been asked to balance a scale with weights that can be hooked to the arms of the scale.

Azad will probably _____. a. solve the problem through a trial-and-error strategy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. put weights on both sides without considering distance from the center of the scale c. understand the inverse relationship between distance and weight d. put all the weights on one side of the scale ANSWER: b 18. In Piaget's experiments with balancing a scale, trial-and-error problem solving was most characteristic of those of the age defined by _____ thought. a. unrealistic b. concrete operational c. logical d. formal operational ANSWER: b 19. In Piaget and his colleagues' experiments with balancing a scale, a child who systematically tests the idea that the relationship between weight and distance is reciprocal is probably age _____. a. 4 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 ANSWER: d 20. One of the MOST prominent aspects of formal operational thought is the ability to _____. a. reject adult thoughts and values b. think in terms of possibilities c. take another person's point of view d. use creative impulse as a problem-solving skill ANSWER: b 21. Reasoning that includes propositions and possibilities that may not reflect reality defines _____. a. inductive reasoning b. perceptual thought c. hypothetical thought d. preoperational reasoning ANSWER: c 22. Which statement is TRUE? a. Hypothetical thought is tied to the everyday world as the individual knows it. b. Hypothetical thought is emotionally based. c. Hypothetical thought involves imagined possibilities. d. Hypothetical thought is an aspect of concrete operational thinking.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 23. If–then propositions require _____ thought. a. concrete b. operational c. preoperational d. hypothetical ANSWER: d 24. Devdas is 15 years old. Their parents are frequently annoyed because Devdas tends to ask critical questions such as, "Why can't I have wine with dinner? You do," or "I don't understand why I'll be able to vote when I'm 18, but I have to wait until I'm 21 to buy alcohol!" This demonstrates Devdas' _____. a. inductive reasoning b. perceptual thinking c. hypothetical thinking d. deductive reasoning ANSWER: c 25. Which term refers to reasoning from a general statement, premise, or principle, through logical steps, to figure out specifics? a. hypothetical reasoning b. inductive reasoning c. deductive reasoning d. adolescent egocentrism ANSWER: c 26. Which of these is another term for deductive reasoning? a. top-down reasoning b. theoretical reasoning c. concrete thinking d. bottom-up reasoning ANSWER: a 27. Which term refers to the ability to begin with specifics, such as accumulated facts, and then make general conclusions? a. hypothetical reasoning b. inductive reasoning c. deductive reasoning d. adolescent egocentrism ANSWER: b 28. Another term for bottom-up reasoning is: a. top-down reasoning.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. theoretical reasoning. c. concrete thinking. d. inductive reasoning.

ANSWER: d 29. All Christians believe in the Bible, and Isa is a Christian; therefore, Isa believes in the Bible. This is an example of _____ reasoning. a. deductive b. theoretical c. concrete d. formal ANSWER: a 30. Azalea, an adolescent, believes that the government should pay for all citizens' health care. From this premise, they reason about the particulars of how and why government-funded health care would work. This is an example of _____. a. adolescent egocentrism b. intuitive thinking c. inductive reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 31. Using _____ thinking, a person might think, "If it barks like a dog and wags its tail like a dog, it must be a dog." a. deductive b. preoperational c. reductive d. inductive ANSWER: d 32. Four different cisgender girls tell Lanzo that The Notebook is their all-time favorite movie. Lanzo concludes that all cisgender girls love that movie. Lanzo has just used _____. a. hypothetical reasoning b. inductive reasoning c. deductive reasoning d. adolescent egocentrism ANSWER: b 33. Repeatedly thinking and talking about past experiences, which can contribute to depression, is referred to as: a. rumination. b. egocentrism.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. deductive reasoning. d. inductive reasoning.

ANSWER: a 34. _____ in early adolescent girls is likely to lead to depression later on. a. Rumination b. Egocentrism c. Deductive reasoning d. Inductive reasoning ANSWER: a 35. Emotions are governed by the underdeveloped _____ during adolescence. a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. limbic system d. parietal lobe ANSWER: c 36. The tendency of people of all ages to seek immediate rewards rather than gaining larger rewards after a delay is referred to as: a. delay discounting. b. intuitive thought. c. analytic thought. d. dual processing.

ANSWER: a 37. The fact that emotional development and analytical thought develop unevenly during adolescence can be demonstrated in the phenomenon of: a. delay discounting. b. intuitive thought. c. analytic thought. d. preoperational thought.

ANSWER: a 38. The notion that two networks exist within the human brain, one for emotional and one for analytical processing of stimuli, is called "the _____ model." a. dual-thinking b. dual-processing c. dual-reasoning d. emotional-analytic ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 39. Both intuitive thinking and analytical thought reflect _____. a. inborn temperament b. indirect teaching methods c. activity preferences d. cooperative learning opportunities ANSWER: a 40. When asked what they see in their new dating partner, whom they just met, Rohan responds, "I don't know.

It just feels right." Rohan's response is an example of _____ thought. a. concrete operational b. analytic c. intuitive d. abstract ANSWER: c 41. Piaget's scale-balancing problem requires _____ thought. a. concrete operational b. analytic c. intuitive d. conventional ANSWER: b 42. Thinking or drawing conclusions based on past personal experience, emotions, or a hunch is referred to as "_____." a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: b 43. A thought that arises through a "feeling" that the thought is right is referred to as a(n) "_____ thought." a. intuitive b. factual c. experimental d. logical ANSWER: a 44. Fifteen-year-old Varnava wants to be allowed to drive the family car, even though they do not yet have a driver's license. When their parents ask them why they think they should have driving privileges, they answer, "I know other kids who do it, and it's just stupid that I have to wait another three months until I turn 16." This is an example of what kind of thinking? a. reasoning Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. intuitive c. logical d. analytic ANSWER: b 45. Shiori and their friends come up with several options of things to do on Saturday night, and they ultimately decide to go to a new movie because it received positive reviews. In making this decision, Shiori and their friends are using what type of thought? a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 46. Formal, logical, hypothetical-deductive thinking described by Piaget is referred to as "_____." a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 47. Sixteen-year-old Graeme has a 10 P.M. curfew. They ask their parents to extend the curfew to 11 P.M. on weekends. When their parents ask them why, Graeme replies, "I've never been late for my 10 P.M. curfew. You can trust me. Can we at least give it a try?" This is an example of what kind of thinking? a. concrete operational b. intuitive thought c. emotional thought d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 48. Erlendr has a busy week of school ahead. They have a report due in geography, an English paper due, a test in chemistry, a concert for music, and two basketball games. In order to effectively manage all of these activities, Erlendr will need to engage what type of thought? a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 49. Paul Klaczynski's studies of younger and older adolescents' analytical thinking indicated that _____. a. younger adolescents were rarely logical, whereas older adolescents were nearly always logical b. individuals who were analytical on some problems were analytical on all problems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. most adolescents do not think as analytically as their capabilities allow d. younger adolescents tended to dismiss research that was contrary to their own beliefs ANSWER: c 50. Klaczynski's research showed that age nor _____ alone necessarily increased logical thinking among adolescents. a. life experiences b. practice of formal thinking c. intelligence (IQ) d. parent involvement ANSWER: c 51. Adolescents are capable of analytic thought, yet they do not consistently use it. All of these are possible reasons for the inconsistent use of analytic thought by adolescents EXCEPT _____. a. their lack of experience making decisions and thinking things through b. thinking logically is more difficult than thinking intuitively for adolescents c. thinking logically may require that adolescents confront comforting, familiar prejudices d. their active resistance to logical thinking ANSWER: d 52. Faunus has heard repeatedly from their parents about the potential dangers of drinking alcohol, yet at a party they gladly accept a beer from a classmate. Faunus thinks that this classmate is one of the most popular students at school. In this situation, what type of thinking is MOST likely dominating Faunus' decision to accept the alcoholic drink? a. inductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: b 53. Marcellus has heard repeatedly from their parents about the potential dangers of smoking and they agree with their parents about the potential dangers. At a party Marcellus is offered a cigarette but declines it even though the person who offered the cigarette is one of the most popular students at school. In this situation, what type of thinking is MOST likely dominating Marcellus' decision to decline the cigarette? a. inductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 54. During adolescence, impulsivity declines and analytic thinking _____. a. also declines Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. increases c. maintains at the preadolescent level d. is still not developed ANSWER: b 55. Adolescents tend to rely more on _____ thinking than adults do. a. intuitive b. analytic c. abstract d. preconventional ANSWER: a 56. In a longitudinal study that traced the development of sensation seeking (which can lead to intuitive thinking) from early adolescence to the mid-20s, it was revealed that increases in sensation seeking were notable from ages _____. a. 12 to 14 b. 15 to 17 c. 18 to 20 d. 21 to 23 ANSWER: a 57. It may be that the fundamental task of adolescence is to _____. a. move from secondary to tertiary education b. avoid risky behaviors c. mature into an independent adult in a changing world d. graduate school and find a life partner ANSWER: c 58. An evaluation that is critical in determining success or failure is called a(n): a. critical assessment. b. aptitude test. c. high-stakes test. d. college entrance exam.

ANSWER: c 59. The period after primary education and before tertiary education is called: a. puberty. b. college. c. secondary education. d. higher education.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 60. What is the graduation rate from secondary school in the United States? a. 7 percent b. 15 percent c. 52 percent d. 84 percent ANSWER: d 61. What is the percentage of female teens not enrolled in secondary school in the North America and Western Europe? a. 2 percent b. 7 percent c. 15 percent d. 25 percent ANSWER: b 62. The thought a person has that one's appearance or behavior will be misread to confirm another person's oversimplified, prejudiced attitudes is called: a. growth mindset. b. fixed mindset. c. stereotype threat. d. entity theory.

ANSWER: c 63. An approach to understanding intelligence that holds that intelligence grows incrementally and can be increased by effort is called: a. growth mindset. b. fixed mindset. c. stereotype threat. d. entity theory.

ANSWER: a 64. An approach to understanding intelligence that sees ability as an innate entity is called: a. growth mindset. b. fixed mindset. c. stereotype threat. d. entity theory.

ANSWER: b 65. Which of these is TRUE about the best curricula and school structures style for adolescents? a. Coeducation and high-stakes testing produce the best results. b. Coeducation and practical skills-focused instruction produce the best results.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. Single-sex education allows for higher academic achievement. d. No school structure or pedagogy is best for every student.

ANSWER: d 66. The school years after elementary or grade school and before college or university are referred to as "_____ education." a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary ANSWER: b 67. Amram is in eleventh grade. Amram is enrolled in _____ education. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. higher ANSWER: b 68. Which statement is FALSE? a. Secondary education refers to schooling completed after high school graduation, such as college or vocational training. b. No matter where they live, individuals who complete secondary education are healthier. c. Every nation is increasing the number of students in secondary education. d. As the age of puberty has decreased, some schools of secondary education now start with grade 5.

ANSWER: a 69. Middle school typically includes grades _____. a. 4 to 6 b. 5 to 7 c. 6 to 8 d. 7 to 9 ANSWER: c 70. Many developmentalists find middle schools to be "developmentally regressive," which means _____. a. teachers do not allow students to be independent b. learning goes backward c. the curriculum is not high quality d. students do not desire autonomy ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 71. Swithin and Maina are in their first year of middle school. Statistically, one would expect their academic achievement to _____. a. improve b. decline c. remain the same as in elementary school d. exhibit an erratic pattern of rising and falling ANSWER: b 72. Remigius has just started middle school. According to research, Remigius will _____. a. likely experience more behavior problems b. likely experience fewer behavior problems c. continue to show high achievement d. experience a sharp decline in self-esteem, achievement, and social status ANSWER: a 73. Which student is MOST likely to be admired during middle school? a. Shemaiah, who is a straight-A student b. Dareios, who attends school regularly but fails most of their classes c. Mainchin, who uses marijuana and frequently finds themself in physical fights d. Asketill, who is conscientious and friendly ANSWER: c 74. Research has shown that adolescents who drop out of high school may show early signs of high school dropout by _____. a. preschool b. elementary school c. middle school d. high school ANSWER: c 75. Donal spends one hour getting ready for school. They insist on only wearing brand-name clothes. Donal also wears specific sunglasses to demonstrate that they are a member of the popular crowd, and they participate in verbal bullying of other students. Donal is MOST likely to be at what level of the education system? a. preschool b. elementary school c. middle school d. high school ANSWER: c 76. The common middle-school schedule that involves students changing rooms, teachers, and classmates every 40 minutes _____. a. creates a developmental mismatch between students' needs and the school context Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. supports children's development due to increased independence and autonomy c. improves student grades, since they are motivated by new teachers every 40 minutes d. increases student collaboration because they get to work with new students ANSWER: a 77. An approach to understanding intelligence that sees ability as innate, a fixed quantity present at birth, is referred to as the "_____ theory of intelligence." a. entity b. incremental c. dual-process d. intrinsic-extrinsic ANSWER: a 78. An approach to understanding intelligence that holds that intelligence can be directly increased by effort is referred to as the "_____ theory of intelligence." a. entity b. incremental c. dual-process d. intrinsic-extrinsic ANSWER: b 79. A strategy to increase student motivation in middle schools is to encourage a belief in _____. a. their ability to master whatever they seek to learn b. doing homework c. the entity approach to learning d. studying for tests ANSWER: a 80. In schools structured so that individuals compete rather than work cooperatively, low-scoring students may _____. a. be highly motivated b. achieve higher scores as the school year moves on c. cope by endorsing the entity theory of intelligence d. believe in incremental mastery of a subject area ANSWER: c 81. Most U.S. high schools emphasize learning based on _____, which is developmentally appropriate. a. formal thinking b. memorization c. practical cognition d. international standards Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 82. One type of high school class that is assessed by externally scored exams that may satisfy college requirements is _____. a. IB (International Baccalaureate) b. PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment) c. TIMSS (Trends in International Mathematics and Science Study) d. PIRLS (Progress in International Reading Literacy Study) ANSWER: a 83. Cuimin and their classmates are taking a test today that will determine whether they graduate from high school. Cuimin and their classmates are taking a(n) _____ test. a. Advanced Placement b. International Baccalaureate c. high-stakes d. college entrance ANSWER: c 84. As the United States moves increasingly toward high-stakes testing, many East Asian nations are: a. following suit. b. moving away from it. c. following suit and others are moving away from it. d. following suit only if they have high-performing students.

ANSWER: c 85. According to the results of the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), the countries with the highest overall test scores are _____. a. Greece, Iceland, and China b. Japan, the United States, and Finland c. Austria, Italy, and South Korea d. China, Singapore, and South Korea ANSWER: d 86. The nations with the best PISA results do NOT _____. a. focus on memorization of math formulas b. have a culture that strongly values education c. show respect for the teaching profession d. place the best teachers with the students who need them most ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Essay 1. James Marcia identifies three specific ways in which young people cope with the identity crisis before they reach identity achievement. Name and describe all three.

ANSWER: Role confusion (also called "identity diffusion") is a state in which the young person does not know or seem to care what their identity is. Identity foreclosure is a state in which a young person accepts without question the values of the culture around them; this is comfortable but often temporary.

Moratorium is a "time-out" that includes opportunity for exploration without committing to a particular path. For many young people, college provides moratorium.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Name and describe Names and describes Names and describes Names and describes Marcia's three ways Marcia's three ways in two of Marcia's ways one or none of in which young which young people in which young people Marcia's ways in people cope with the cope with the identity cope with the identity which young people identity crisis crisis crisis cope with the identity crisis

2. Define and give an example of gender identity.

ANSWER: Gender identity is a relatively broad term that indicates a person's acceptance of being a male or a female. During adolescence, many teens identify with their biological genders and come to feel at ease with being male or female. However, some experience confusion about whether they are heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual. A transgender individual struggles to identify with their biological gender, feeling trapped in the "wrong" body.

Define gender identity Give an example of gender identity

Good (5 pts.)

Defines gender identity Gives an example of gender identity

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines gender identity Gives an example of gender identity

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define gender identity Does not give an example of gender identity

3. Berenice and their parents occasionally have disagreements and argue. Is this normal? Describe the type of conflict that is most common between parents and their teens and when it peaks and dissipates. Discuss what this type of conflict might indicate about the family.

ANSWER: Disputes are common because of adolescents' drive for independence, which clashes with parents' desire to maintain control. Normally, conflict peaks in early adolescence, especially between mothers and daughters, usually in the form of "bickering"—repeated, petty arguments about routines and daily concerns, such as cleanliness, clothes, chores, and schedules. Each generation tends to misjudge the other. Parents think their offspring resent them, and adolescents imagine their parents want to dominate them, more than either generation actually does. Some bickering indicates a healthy family, because close relationships almost always include conflict. If communication is good, conflict is not necessarily problematic.

Describe the most common conflict

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes the type of Describes the type of Does not describe any conflict that is most conflict that is most type of conflict that is

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Essay between parents and common between teens as well as when parents and teens, it peaks and noting when it peaks dissipates and dissipates Discuss what this Discusses what this type of conflict conflict indicates indicates about the about the family family

common between parents and teens or when it peaks and dissipates Is vague about what this conflict indicates about the family

common between parents and teens

Does not discuss what any conflict indicates about the family

4. Your new roommate claims that he "fell in with the wrong crowd" in adolescence and, as a result, engaged in many delinquent activities they wouldn't have otherwise. Evaluate this claim based on what you learned about selecting friends in adolescence.

ANSWER: Peers are often beneficial, but they can also lead one another into trouble. For example, peers sometimes provide deviancy training, whereby one person shows another how to rebel against social norms; gangs are a perfect example of deviancy training. Peer facilitation helps adolescents act in ways in which they are unlikely to act on their own. Peer facilitation includes negative behaviors (such as spray-painting graffiti or shoplifting) and positive behaviors (such as trying out for a team or studying).

Innocent teens are not corrupted by deviant friends. Adolescents choose their friends and models— not always wisely, but never randomly. Teenagers select friends whose values and interests they share, abandoning former friends who follow other paths. These friends then promote destructive or constructive behaviors.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Evaluate the Mentions deviancy Mentions deviancy Does not mention acquaintance's claim training and peer training or peer deviancy training or facilitation facilitation peer facilitation Note that adolescents Notes that adolescents Notes that adolescents Does not note that have a choice select their own select their own adolescents select friends and therefore friends without their own friends are responsible for the explaining their types of people chosen responsibility for those chosen

5. Identify three of the four sources for information about sex during adolescence. What kind of information does each source provide?

ANSWER: Adolescents can learn about sex from (1) the media, (2) parents, (3) peers, and (4) educators. The media tend to portray many sexual encounters as being free from potential consequences and without much real information.

Parents, on the other hand, do play a major role in educating about sexuality, although the kind of information provided and its impact vary by family. Adolescents whose parents give information followed by stern warnings to simply avoid sex tend to be the most likely to contract STIs. Most Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Essay effective are parents who maintain loving relationships that encourage open communication.

Sexual behavior is strongly influenced by peers, especially when parental communication about sex is absent or incomplete. Peers tend to discuss details of sexual encounters, and partners may give each other instructions on techniques, but rarely is protection from pregnancy or disease a topic of conversation among peers.

School curriculum provides some information, although the information presented varies by place and according to the culture and politics of a given community. Studies of European nations that have comprehensive sex-education curricula suggest that teen pregnancy and disease may be influenced by the presence of such information in schools.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify three sources Identifies three Identifies two sources Identifies one or no for information about sources for for information about sources for sex information about sex sex information about sex Describe information Accurately describes Accurately describes Accurately describes provided by each information provided information provided information provided source by three sources by two sources by one or no sources

6. Define parasuicide. How do the rates of parasuicide and completed suicide compare for adolescent males and females in the United States?

ANSWER: Parasuicide is an attempted suicide (also called "failed") but can include any deliberate self-harm that could have been lethal, such as jumping in front of a moving vehicle. The difference between parasuicide and completed suicide may be luck and prompt treatment rather than intent. Although the rates of parasuicide are higher for females, the rate of completed suicide is higher for males.

Among U.S. high school students in 2015, 11.6 percent of girls and 5.5 percent of boys had attempted suicide in the previous year. Although suicidal ideation during adolescence is common, completed suicides are not.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define suicidal Defines suicidal Defines suicidal ideation and ideation and ideation or parasuicide parasuicide parasuicide Describe how the Thoroughly describes Vaguely describes rates of suicidal how the rates of how the rates of ideation, parasuicide, suicidal ideation, suicidal ideation, and completed parasuicide, and parasuicide, and suicide compare for completed suicide completed suicide adolescent males and compare for compare for females adolescent males and adolescent males and females females

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define suicidal ideation or parasuicide Does not describe how the rates of suicidal ideation, parasuicide, and completed suicide compare for adolescent males and females

7. Discuss at least two problems caused by alcohol, two problems caused by tobacco, and two problems caused by marijuana use in adolescents.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Essay ANSWER: Drug use causes many problems for adolescents, often leading to anxiety disorders, depression, rebellion, academic failure, and crime. Alcohol (1) impairs memory and (2) self-control by (3) damaging the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex, (4) perhaps permanently distorting the reward circuits for the brain.

Tobacco (1) impairs digestion and (2) nutrition, (3) slowing growth and damaging the developing (4) hearts, (5) lungs, and possibly (6) brains and (7) reproductive systems of adolescents.

Marijuana users are more likely to (1) drop out of school, (2) become teenage parents, (3) be depressed, and (4) later be unemployed.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss problems Discusses at least two Discusses one caused by alcohol problems caused by problem caused by use alcohol use alcohol use Discuss problems Discusses at least two Discusses one caused by tobacco problems caused by problem caused by use tobacco use tobacco use Discuss problems Discusses at least two Discusses one caused by marijuana problems caused by problem caused by use marijuana use marijuana use

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not discuss any problems caused by alcohol use Does not discuss any problems caused by tobacco use Does not discuss any problems caused by marijuana use

8. Based on what you have learned in the text, outline a drug abuse prevention method that may be effective.

ANSWER: An effective drug abuse prevention method should remember that teens are not realistic and do not think that negative consequences associated with drug use would impact them. Instead, they are likely to fall prey to generational forgetting. This phenomenon occurs when each new cohort forgets what the previous cohort learned. Teens may mistrust their parents. When adults forbid something, that is a reason to try it, especially if adults exaggerate the dangers. Some antidrug curricula and advertisements make drugs seem exciting. And some antidrug advertising and advertisements may actually increase use, rather than decrease it. More effective methods may include appealing to teenagers, using graphic images, parental examples, and social changes in general.

Explains a drug abuse prevention method that may work based on the text

Good (5 pts.)

Explains a drug abuse prevention method that may work based on the text

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Partly explains a drug abuse prevention method that may work based on the text

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain a drug abuse prevention method that may work based on the text

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 1. Psychosocial development during adolescence involves the search for a(n) _____. a. romantic partner b. career c. set of behaviors to please others d. understanding of oneself ANSWER: d 2. Psychosocial development during adolescence is often seen as a quest to answer the question "_____." a. What am I going to do with my life? b. Will I ever find someone to love? c. Who am I? d. Why don't my parents understand me?

ANSWER: c 3. According to Erikson, adolescents are in the stage of _____. a. identity versus role confusion b. intimacy versus isolation c. independence versus neediness d. integration versus separation ANSWER: a 4. According to Erikson, the goal of adolescence is to _____. a. abandon parental goals b. find one's own identity c. attain independence from one's peer group d. form an intimate relationship with a member of the opposite sex ANSWER: b 5. According to Erikson, the ultimate adolescent psychosocial goal is identity _____. a. diffusion b. achievement c. foreclosure d. moratorium ANSWER: b 6. Mona is an adolescent. According to Erikson, their new identity will be established by choosing _____. a. an appropriate adult "hero figure" b. values and goals opposite to the destructive identities of media stars c. to embrace some parental and societal values while abandoning others d. one sexual role and sticking with it, regardless of the consequences ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 7. Following Erikson's lead, _____ distinguished four specific ways young people cope with the identity crisis. a. Baumrind b. Freud c. Marcia d. Skinner ANSWER: c 8. The identity status characterized by a lack of commitment to any goals or values is identity _____. a. achievement b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. moratorium ANSWER: c 9. Identity diffusion refers to the identity status in which adolescents _____. a. pause during their identity formation to explore alternatives b. form their identity prematurely c. do not commit to goals and fail to take on any role d. understand who they are as connected to everything they have learned ANSWER: c 10. Identity diffusion is typically characterized by _____. a. no focus on or concern about the future b. foreclosure c. following one's heart d. commitment to a cause ANSWER: a 11. Which adolescent appears to be experiencing identity diffusion? a. Davion, who runs away from a pressured home environment and joins a commune b. Nkruma, who is pressured by their parents to become a doctor c. Matej, a college student who wants to be a business woman, just like their mother d. Aksana, who spends most of their time watching TV, drinking, and avoiding responsibility ANSWER: d 12. Seventeen-year-old Kavi failed several classes, lost their job, and spends most of their time sleeping on the couch. When their parents voice their disapproval, they reply, "Whatever." Kavi's response indicates _____. a. role confusion b. identity achievement c. identity foreclosure Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice d. moratorium ANSWER: a 13. When a person adopts parents' or society's roles and values without questioning and exploring a personal identity, it is referred to as "identity _____." a. moratorium b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. achievement ANSWER: b 14. Which of these is an example of "identity foreclosure"? a. dropping out of high school b. choosing a different career path than what parents wanted c. eagerness to vote in a national election d. working in the family business because it is expected ANSWER: d 15. Steinn readily adopted their parents' political beliefs without question. Happy and secure, they enjoy participating in political events with their parents. Their identity status reflects _____. a. diffusion b. achievement c. foreclosure d. moratorium ANSWER: c 16. Without any thoughtful consideration, Gwillym took on an identity that is the opposite of what their parents want for them. Gwillym has adopted a(n) _____. a. negative identity b. positive identity c. nonidentity d. over identity ANSWER: a 17. Of the various identity statuses, _____ is comfortable. a. diffusion b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. achievement ANSWER: c 18. The term for a pause in identity formation, when alternatives are explored before final choices are made, is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice _____. a. identity diffusion b. role confusion c. negative identity d. moratorium ANSWER: d 19. During an identity moratorium, adolescents typically _____. a. ignore their future roles and responsibilities b. take on temporary roles and postpone identity-achievement decisions c. change their identities from that of their youth d. adopt their parents' views after having tested them on their own ANSWER: b 20. Xien is serving a two-year mission for their church at the age of 18. When they return home from their mission assignment, they will decide whether to attend college and will make decisions about career and family.

Xien's current status is identity _____. a. foreclosure b. moratorium c. diffusion d. achievement ANSWER: b 21. According to Erikson, _____ identity is an arena of identity formation. a. physical b. political c. familial d. economic ANSWER: b 22. _____ adolescents totally reject the religions in which they've grown up. a. Few b. About half of all c. About three-fourths of all d. Almost all ANSWER: a 23. Compared to adults, adolescents may express their _____ identities more devoutly. a. sexual b. achievement c. religious Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice d. vocational ANSWER: c 24. According to researchers, which individual will probably be the MOST liberal? a. Yun, who just turned 10 b. Aditya, who just turned 19 c. Pax, the mother of a teenager d. Jahanara, the father of a teenager ANSWER: b 25. Related to political identity is _____. a. foreclosure b. vocational identity c. diffusion d. ethnic identity ANSWER: d 26. Gender refers to _____. a. the cultural or social attributes of being male or female b. the biological characteristics of being male or female c. the categories that boys and girls are sorted into at birth d. one's sexual orientation ANSWER: a 27. People's acceptance of the roles and behaviors that they define as male or female is referred to as their "_____ identity." a. gender b. ethnic c. heterosexual d. foreclosed ANSWER: a 28. Andela believes that males should always be the ones to ask females out on dates. They think that if a man accepts an invitation for a date from a woman, it makes the man a wimp. This is an example of Andela's _____. a. sex b. gender identity c. sexual orientation d. gender ANSWER: b 29. The DSM-IV labeled individuals who had a strong and persistent cross-gender identification as having "gender identity disorder." The DSM-5 instead describes people who are distressed at their biological genders Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice as having "_____." a. gender atypicality b. sexual fetishism c. sexual atypicality d. gender dysphoria ANSWER: d 30. Which aspect of identity development was NOT discussed by Erikson? a. ethnic b. political c. religious d. vocational ANSWER: a 31. People whose gender identity is the same as their natal sex are referred to as: a. transgender. b. homosexual. c. heterosexual. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: d 32. The use of the new term _____ demonstrates the complexity of sex and gender. a. heterosexual b. homosexual c. transgender d. cisgender ANSWER: d 33. _____ means that a problem is in distress, not an underlying issue with the individual. a. Dysphoria b. Disorder c. Depression d. Comorbid ANSWER: a 34. Julie engages in some conflict with their parents during the teen years. This may indicate _____. a. a disturbed parent–child relationship b. poor parenting skills c. teenage depression d. a healthy family ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 35. _____ refers to the belief that family members should support one another, sacrificing individual freedom and success to care for one another. a. Familism b. Authoritarianism c. Extended-family cohesion d. Ethnic connectedness ANSWER: a 36. Two aspects of family closeness during adolescence include _____. a. communication and autonomy b. support and connectedness c. connectedness and authority d. openness and control ANSWER: b 37. A parent says to their teen, "I want you home by 11:00 P.M." This best represents which aspect of family closeness? a. control b. support c. communication d. connectedness ANSWER: a 38. Nikitha is about to become an adolescent mother. Based on recent research, Nikitha and their child will better handle the situation if their parents _____. a. assume care for Nikitha and their child b. adopt Nikitha's child and raise the child as their own c. encourage Nikitha to move out of the house to raise their baby alone d. are supportive ANSWER: d 39. Parents' awareness of where their adolescents are, what they are doing, and with whom they are doing it is referred to as "_____." a. parental monitoring b. generational stake c. psychological control d. connectedness ANSWER: a 40. Yveta is aware of where their son is whenever they go out, and they require them to call if there is any change in plans. This is an example of _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice a. generational stake b. foreclosure for her son c. parental monitoring d. negative control ANSWER: c 41. Parental monitoring is MOST likely to be effective and healthy when it is _____. a. rigid and controlling b. part of a warm, supportive relationship c. relaxed and permissive d. part of authoritarian parenting ANSWER: b 42. Healthy communication and support from parents make _____ peer relationships more likely. a. constructive b. destructive c. other-sex d. romantic ANSWER: a 43. The urge to conform to one's peers in behavior, dress, and attitude is referred to as "_____." a. conformation b. adolescent burden c. generation gap d. peer pressure ANSWER: d 44. Xanthe called their friend Sylva on Saturday to see whether Sylva wanted to go to the movies. Sylva told Xanthe that they were staying home to study for their upcoming history test. After the call, Xanthe decided to study instead of going to the movies. Xanthe was experiencing _____. a. conformation b. adolescent burden c. generation gap d. peer pressure ANSWER: d 45. _____ and _____ are especially important for understanding the impact of peers. a. Selection; facilitation b. Age; maturity c. Vocational identity; political identity d. Moratorium; diffusion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 46. At age 17, Apurva aspired to become a serious musician. Their group of friends began to change as they grew closer to students with deep musical interests, and they drifted away from other friends who were more engaged in sports. This illustrates peer _____. a. exclusion b. facilitation c. selection d. focus ANSWER: c 47. Several of Bran's friends agree to gather Friday evening and study for their chemistry exam, and they invite Bran to come along. Bran's friends are _____. a. selecting destructive behaviors b. facilitating constructive behaviors c. providing deviancy training d. being monitored by parents ANSWER: b 48. Mr. and Mrs. Sechnall have discovered that their son has been skipping classes and cutting school with a group of boys. Which conclusion is MOST likely TRUE? a. The group has led their innocent son astray. b. The behavior is nothing to worry about. c. Their son is more rebellious than the group as a whole. d. Their son chose this group because he shares their interests.

ANSWER: d 49. Many adolescent romances _____. a. are stable and long-term b. do not include sexual intercourse c. are exclusive commitments between partners d. do not generate strong emotional reactions ANSWER: b 50. The term that describes one's having erotic desires about the same sex, the opposite sex, or both sexes is _____. a. sexual identity b. sexual orientation c. sexuality d. gender identity ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 51. Current popular media portrayals of sexual activity frequently _____. a. mention the possibility of developing an STI b. discuss the consequences of an unwanted pregnancy c. show the use of a condom or birth control d. ignores the potential negative consequences associated with sexual activity ANSWER: d 52. One reason that the teenage pregnancy rate in most European nations is less than half of that in the United States may be because _____. a. of the European sex-education curriculum b. European adolescents live at home longer c. American parents are too permissive d. European teens reach puberty later ANSWER: a 53. Abstinence-only sex-education programs have had _____ impact in teenagers' sexual activity. a. a significant, negative b. no c. little d. a strong, positive ANSWER: c 54. Effective sex education must engage _____ more than _____. a. morality; logic b. emotions; logic c. logic; emotions d. logic; morality ANSWER: b 55. Mental health difficulties plague about _____ percent of those aged 12 to 17 years. a. 16 b. 20 c. 31 d. 40 ANSWER: a 56. In general, as children experience puberty, their self-esteem _____. a. rises b. declines c. rises and then declines d. remains stable Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 57. The cultural norm of familism often _____. a. demands that individual family members take care of themselves at a very early age b. fails to provide family members with a cushion during stressful life experiences c. requires family members to make sacrifices for the good of the whole d. undermines familial solidarity ANSWER: c 58. Suicidal ideation refers to _____. a. a deliberate act of self-destruction that does not end in death b. thinking about suicide c. the belief that suicide is an effective way of getting back at one's parents or peers d. feelings of sadness or hopelessness ANSWER: b 59. Suicidal ideation is MOST common around age _____. a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 ANSWER: c 60. Klah finds that they often think about killing themselves. This is called "_____." a. parasuicide b. self-destructive behavior c. deliberate suicide d. suicidal ideation ANSWER: d 61. Parasuicide refers to _____. a. a suicide attempt that does not end in death b. helping someone else commit suicide c. several people in a group committing suicide d. the serious consideration of suicide ANSWER: a 62. Nereus took an overdose of prescription pills, but before they lost consciousness, they called their mom for help. Nereus was rushed to the hospital for medical attention. Nereus' behavior is defined as "_____." a. parasuicide b. self-destructive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice c. deliberate suicide d. suicide ideation ANSWER: a 63. Several suicides within the same group of people in a brief period are called "_____ suicides." a. cult b. pact c. planned d. cluster ANSWER: d 64. With respect to suicide, what is more common in adolescent boys than in adolescent girls? a. serious consideration of suicide b. parasuicide c. completed suicide d. cluster suicide ANSWER: c 65. Evgeni has been shoplifting for the past year. Unless they experience an intervention, their shoplifting behavior is MOST likely to lead to _____. a. defiance, which can lead to running away b. assault, rape, and murder c. burglary d. aggression ANSWER: c 66. According to the text, which is NOT a possible reason for the decrease in juvenile criminal behavior? a. fewer school dropouts b. lenient drug laws c. smaller families d. less lead poisoning ANSWER: b 67. Life-course-persistent offenders _____. a. may show signs of neurological impairment b. have after-school jobs they dislike c. tend to be involved in school activities d. are unlikely to end up in prison ANSWER: a 68. Ty started to behave aggressively at age 5 and by age 8 was caught shoplifting several times. Ty is now age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 25 and has committed armed robbery. Ty would be considered a(n) _____ offender. a. hostile b. dual c. life-course-persistent d. adolescence-limited ANSWER: c 69. Adolescence-limited offender refers to someone who _____. a. attacks only other adolescents b. stops committing crimes by age 21 c. is never arrested d. is a juvenile delinquent ANSWER: b 70. An individual who commits crimes during adolescence but stops by the age of 21 is considered a(n) _____. a. repeat offender b. career criminal c. life-course-persistent offender d. adolescence-limited offender ANSWER: d 71. Recent research has found a correlation between teen _____. a. media use and depression b. cell phone use and anxiety c. social media use and happiness d. video game playing and school performance ANSWER: a 72. After the release of a Netflix program "Thirteen Reasons Why," teen _____. a. depression rates decreased by half b. depression rates increased by 10 percent c. suicide rates decreased by 5 percent d. suicide rates increased by one-third ANSWER: d 73. Most teens try _____, which are drugs that activate the brain. a. psychoactive drugs b. alcohol c. marijuana d. tobacco ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice 74. Which of these is NOT associated with early substance use? a. depression b. bullying c. sexual abuse d. increased happiness ANSWER: d 75. _____ is/are the MOST frequently abused drug in North America. a. Alcohol b. Tobacco c. Marijuana d. Inhalants ANSWER: a 76. Drug use before the age of 18 _____. a. is rare because it is illegal b. is statistically lower than drug use at age 15 c. is the best predictor of later drug abuse d. usually only involves experimentation with alcohol ANSWER: c 77. The two MOST common drugs used by adolescents are _____. a. inhalants and alcohol b. tobacco and alcohol c. marijuana and alcohol d. prescription drugs and tobacco ANSWER: b 78. Heavy drinking impairs memory and self-control by _____. a. damaging the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex b. damaging the heart and lungs c. increasing blood pressure d. causing strokes in the brain ANSWER: a 79. Which factor has NOT contributed to a decline in the number of young adolescent smokers in the United States? a. higher cigarette prices b. the legal smoking age c. warnings printed on tobacco products Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice d. better law enforcement of tobacco sales ANSWER: b 80. How many teens, ages 12 to 18 years, sexted during the pandemic lockdowns? a. 10 percent b. 40 percent c. 60 percent d. 75 percent ANSWER: b 81. Spreading insults and rumors by means of e-mails, text messages, or Web postings is called "_____." a. spamming b. cyberbullying c. electronic harassment d. hacking ANSWER: b 82. Adolescent victims of cyberbullying are MOST likely to _____. a. find easy ways to escape the situation b. not let it bother them c. report the incident to a teacher or another adult d. experience depression ANSWER: d

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Essay 1. Alanna just celebrated their 21st birthday, and they are concerned that "it is all downhill from here." Explain to Alanna why this statement is incorrect by stating at least five positive facts about aging.

ANSWER: Positive facts include that (1) physical strength increases; (2) every body system—including the digestive, respiratory, circulatory, musculoskeletal, and sexual-reproductive systems—functions optimally at the beginning of adulthood; (3) emerging adults are less likely to be sick, fatigued, or obese than older adults; (4) many childhood ailments, such as asthma, are outgrown; (5) organ reserve is at its peak; (6) young adults rarely experience serious diseases, such as cancer, because organ reserve, homeostasis, and allostasis all work in harmony; and (7) emerging adults are more capable than people of any other age of racing up a flight of stairs, lifting a heavy load, or gripping an object with maximum force.

Give five positive facts

Good (5 pts.)

Gives five positive facts

Fair (3 pts.)

Gives three positive facts

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Gives one or no positive facts

2. Define homeostasis, and indicate two factors that contribute to it.

ANSWER: Homeostasis is a balance between various parts of the body systems that keeps every physical function in sync. Homeostasis works most quickly and efficiently during emerging adulthood. Each person's homeostatic systems are affected by (1) age; (2) genes; (3) current behaviors, such as getting enough sleep and good nutrition; and (4) past experiences (for example, reaction to weather depends partly on childhood climate).

Define homeostasis

Indicate factors that contribute to homeostasis

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines homeostasis Gives a vague definition of homeostasis Indicates two factors Indicates one factor that contribute to that contributes to homeostasis homeostasis

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define homeostasis Does not indicate a factor that contributes to homeostasis

3. Nigora, a cisgendered female, returned home for their college winter break. Although Nigora has always been concerned about their appearance, Nigora's parents are alarmed at how much time they now take to get ready and how much time they spend at the gym. Explain why emerging adults like Nigora are so concerned with "looking good."

ANSWER: Emerging adults spend more money on clothes and shoes than adults of any other age. When they exercise, their main reason is to maintain—or attain—fit, slender, and attractive bodies. Concern about appearance (1) may be connected to sexual drives, because appearance encourages sexual interest and (2) young adults hope to attract partners. The emerging adulthood years are when many people seek employment. Attractiveness (in clothes as well as body and face) correlates with (3) better jobs and (4) higher pay. Women particularly focus on appearance, especially body weight, because when they are dating and seeking employment, (5) society judges them on how they look.

Good (5 pts.)

Identify reasons for Identifies three concern about reasons for concern Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies two reasons Identifies one or no for concern about reasons for concern Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Essay appearance

about appearance

appearance

about appearance

4. Identify at least two benefits of exercise and indicate the degree to which emerging adults exercise.

ANSWER: Exercise (1) reduces blood pressure; (2) strengthens the heart and lungs; and (3) reduces the likelihood of diseases, including depression, osteoporosis, heart disease, arthritis, and even some cancers. Most emerging adults are quite active, getting plenty of aerobic exercise. In the United States, emerging adults walk more and drive less than older adults, and 62 percent of them met the standard for aerobic exercise—a percentage that is higher than in any other age group.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify the benefits Identifies at least two Identifies one benefit Does not identify any of exercise benefits of exercise of exercise benefits of exercise Indicate the degree to Indicates that more Indicates that more Does not indicate that which emerging than half of emerging than half of emerging more than half of adults exercise adults exercise and adults exercise or that emerging adults that it's a higher it's a higher exercise or that it's a percentage than other percentage than other higher percentage than age groups age groups other age groups

5. Define set point and body mass index (BMI) and identify what the BMI is used to indicate. State the BMI ranges for low, normal, overweight, and obese adults.

ANSWER: For body weight, there is a homeostatic set point, or settling point, which makes people eat when hungry and stop eating when full. Set point is a particular body weight that an individual's homeostatic processes strive to maintain. BMI is the ratio between one's weight and height, and it is used to determine whether a person is below, at, or above normal weight.

A BMI below 18 is too low (and a symptom of anorexia). A BMI between 20 and 25 indicates a normal weight. About half of all emerging adults are within the normal range. A BMI above 25 is considered overweight, and 30 or higher is considered obese.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define set point and Defines set point and Defines set point and Defines set point and BMI BMI BMI BMI Explain BMI ranges Explains all four BMI Explains three BMI Explains two or fewer ranges ranges BMI ranges

6. Explain why the lack of prevention and early treatment for STIs is problematic for emerging adults.

ANSWER: The lack of prevention and early treatment for STIs is problematic for emerging adults for four reasons: (1) Sexual infections spread when the carriers are unaware of them. (2) If a person with an STI has sex with several people, spread is rapid and the attempt to trace back to partners may miss someone. (3) Untreated STIs increase infertility, disease, and death later in life, including for diseases that may seem unrelated, such as cancer and tuberculosis. (4) STIs infect people who never Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Essay imagined that they would be harmed. The best-known example comes from South Africa, where customs have resulted in millions of wives, sexually faithful to their husbands, with STIs. Because of inadequate care, and the man's unwillingness to acknowledge his own infection, women transmitted HIV to their newborns, causing another generation of deaths (United Nations, 2004).

Good (5 pts.)

Explains why the lack States four reasons of prevention and why the lack of early treatment for prevention and early STIs is problematic treatment for STIs is for emerging adults problematic for emerging adults

Fair (3 pts.)

States two or three reasons why the lack of prevention and early treatment for STIs is problematic for emerging adults

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not state why the lack of prevention and early treatment for STIs is problematic for emerging adults

7. Explain the risk for sexually transmitted diseases during emerging adulthood and current trends related to STIs. ANSWER: The rate of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is rising among unmarried people in their 20s.

Globally, improvements in transportation and the adventure seeking of emerging adults have led to the spread of STIs. Most emerging adults voluntarily engage in sex; the more sexual partners a person has, the more STIs spread.

This proliferation is particularly tragic with HIV/AIDS. Within the past 50 years, primarily because of air travel and the sexual activities of young adults, HIV has become a worldwide epidemic, with victims in every nation.

Young adults are the prime STI vectors (those who spread disease) as well as the most common new victims. Many STIs are symptomless at first, and many people try to treat symptoms on their own— passing the infection along. New problems associated with STIs have emerged. Congenital syphilis, which results in a newborn with lifelong disabilities and sometimes an early death, has increased every year in the United States since 2012. In 2020, the U.S. rate of congenital syphilis was three times the rate in 2015. Another problem is human papilloma virus (HPV). Most sexually active emerging adults are already infected, but they do not know it until they begin to show symptoms or are diagnosed with cervical, anal, oral, or other cancers.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Fully explains the risk Partly explains the of STIs risk of STIs

Explain the risk of STIs in emerging adulthood Explain current trends Fully explains the risk Partly explains the in STIs of STIs risk of STIs

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not explain the risk of STIs Does not explain current trends in STIs

8. Gargi is a counselor at the university health services. They are planning a presentation on risk-taking behavior and drug abuse among college-age students and need your assistance to prepare. Define drug abuse and explain how it is related to drug addiction. Which factor increases drug abuse in college students? Which group of emerging adults is LEAST likely to abuse drugs?

ANSWER: Drug abuse occurs whenever a person uses a drug that is harmful to their physical, cognitive, or Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Essay psychosocial well-being. Drug abuse can cause harm not only to one's mind and body but also to relationships and day-to-day functioning. Drug abuse can lead to addiction, which is difficult to conquer. Men tend to take more risks and use more drugs, but especially in the United States, young women are also vulnerable. Additionally, college aged students are more likely to binge drink, which increases alongside family income levels. Students at residential colleges use alcohol and drugs far more than young adults the same age who live with their parents or who are married and living with their spouse.

Good (5 pts.)

Defines drug abuse and drug addiction

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define drug abuse Defines drug abuse or Does not define drug and drug addiction drug addiction abuse or drug addiction Note that peers Notes that peers Notes that peers Does not note gender encourage drug abuse encourage drug abuse encourage drug abuse differences in drug in college men, while in college men, while in college men or abuse those least likely to those least likely to that those least likely abuse are women abuse are women to abuse are women living with their living with their living with their parents parents parents

9. How might risk taking by emerging adults be both destructive and beneficial? Include two specific examples of destructive and beneficial risk taking.

ANSWER: Depending on the activity, risk taking can lead to new areas of growth and opportunity or can cause physical, emotional, or financial harm. Destructive risk taking may include having sex without a condom, driving without a seat belt, carrying a loaded gun, or experimenting with drugs. Beneficial risk taking may include enrolling in college, befriending strangers, trying new foods, traveling abroad, moving to a new place, getting married, having a baby, starting a business, undertaking an artistic endeavor, or enlisting in the Peace Corps. Society would suffer if young adults were always timid, traditional, and afraid of innovation.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Tell how risk taking Tells how risk taking Tells how risk taking Does not tell how risk can be both can be both can be destructive or taking can be destructive and destructive and beneficial destructive or beneficial beneficial beneficial Give examples of Gives two examples Gives one example of Does not give destructive and of destructive and two destructive and one examples for both beneficial risk taking examples of beneficial example of beneficial destructive and risk taking risk taking beneficial risk taking

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice 1. A person between the ages of 18 and 25 is considered to be in the developmental stage of _____. a. adulthood b. emerging adulthood c. postadolescence d. young adulthood ANSWER: b 2. Vasil is a 19-year-old American college student. According to the text, Vasil is in which developmental period? a. late adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. early adulthood d. young adulthood ANSWER: b 3. Petar has recently finished high school and is now attending college. After earning their bachelor's degree, they plan to continue to graduate school. In addition, Petar is not seriously dating anyone and thinks marriage and parenthood are years away. Petar is at which developmental stage? a. late adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. extended adolescence d. young adulthood ANSWER: b 4. Most girls reach their maximum height around age _____. a. 16 b. 18 c. 21 d. 30 ANSWER: a 5. Most boys reach their maximum height around age _____. a. 16 b. 18 c. 21 d. 30 ANSWER: b 6. Maximum strength potential typically peaks at about age _____. a. 15 b. 25 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice c. 35 d. 45 ANSWER: b 7. Sultan is a biological male in emerging adulthood. They can expect to notice all of these physical changes EXCEPT for increased _____. a. muscle growth b. body fat c. bone strength d. arm strength ANSWER: b 8. Which task would be easier for a 21-year-old than for a 51-year-old? a. writing a letter by hand b. carrying a bag of groceries from the store to the car c. watching two hours of television d. walking up four flights of stairs ANSWER: d 9. A study of biological aging found that some people age _____ times faster than others, with about half of the difference between fast and slow aging evident by age 26. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: a 10. During emerging adulthood, all body systems _____. a. begin to develop b. function optimally c. cease developing d. age rapidly ANSWER: b 11. Generally, emerging adulthood is characterized by _____ health. a. good to excellent b. failing c. slowly improving d. fair to poor ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice 12. In a large study, very few 18- to 24-year-olds reported activity limitations because of _____, a rate far better than that of any other age group. a. pregnancy b. increased psychological stress c. work commitments d. chronic health conditions ANSWER: d 13. Emerging adults tend to do which of these regarding medical care? a. overuse the system, frequently seeing doctors for even small complaints b. need significant care by doctors and other medical professionals c. avoid medical professionals, unless they are injured or pregnant d. receive ongoing medical care but report significant activity limitations due to chronic health conditions ANSWER: c 14. Which of these statements is NOT true about emerging adulthood? a. It is a time between full body growth and full adult roles. b. Many of today's college students fall within the period of emerging adulthood. c. Universal trends, including longer educational tracks and later first-time parenthood, have "created" this stage. d. All individuals between the ages of 18 and 30 are now considered to be in this stage.

ANSWER: d 15. Conclusions based on U.S. college students may apply only to those who are WEIRD, which refers to _____. a. the idea that they are chronic risk takers with little responsibility b. "Western, Educated, Industrialized, and Rich Democracies" c. "Witty, Educated, Intelligent, Risk-Taking, and Daring" d. their deviation from the social norms of their parents' generations ANSWER: b 16. Three body functions protect emerging adults: _____. a. lymph tissue, strong muscles, and a developing brain b. organ reserve, homeostasis, and allostasis c. metabolism, neurotransmitter production, and lymph tissue d. the circulatory system, the metabolic system, and the neurological system ANSWER: b 17. The capacity of organs to allow the body to cope with stress via extra, unused functioning ability is referred to as "_____." a. senescence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice b. homeostasis c. organ reserve d. diathesis ANSWER: c 18. Organ reserve power decreases each _____, but it usually does not matter, because people rarely need to draw on it. a. day b. month c. year d. decade ANSWER: c 19. Homeostasis is quickest in _____. a. middle childhood b. adolescence c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood ANSWER: c 20. Due to a job loss and divorce, 24-year-old Alen has been under an enormous amount of stress, yet they still feel good physically. The fact that Alen's body can continue to function well under this stress is likely due to _____. a. organ reserve b. homeostasis c. senescence d. diathesis ANSWER: a 21. A dynamic longer-term body adjustment that affects overall physiology is referred to as "_____." a. organ reserve b. homeostasis c. senescence d. allostasis ANSWER: d 22. Berwyn has been skipping meals and eating very little for months. One night they go out with friends and eat a full, heavy meal. Within hours, they are vomiting and have diarrhea. Berwyn's symptoms are likely the result of a(n) _____ load. a. organ reserve b. homeostatic c. senescence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice d. allostatic ANSWER: d 23. _____ refers to the stresses of basic body systems that burden overall functioning, eventually causing hypertension, obesity, and diabetes. a. Reserve b. Homeostasis c. Organ reserve d. Allostatic load ANSWER: d 24. Marishka, age 24, started an extreme diet last month. They have already lost 20 pounds, and due to restricting their food intake, Marishka rarely feels hungry. Marishka's eating behavior has triggered new _____, allowing them to function with fewer daily calories. a. homeostatic reactions b. metabolic syndrome c. organ reserves d. caloric reactions ANSWER: a 25. Faster heartbeats and heavier breathing, which accompany exercise, are _____. a. homeostatic responses b. metabolic indicators c. organ reserves d. allostatic loads ANSWER: a 26. Although Akos has a closet full of clothes and shoes, they are shopping for a new outfit to wear on Saturday night. Akos wants to look good, and thinks a new outfit will help them accomplish this goal. Statistically, Akos is MOST likely to be which age? a. 15 b. 23 c. 31 d. 40 ANSWER: b 27. Angelo exercises five days a week to have a fit, muscular, and attractive body. How old is Angelo MOST likely to be? a. 12 b. 16 c. 20 d. 40 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 28. _____ correlates with almost every chronic illness. a. Age b. Gender c. Sitting for long periods d. Overeating ANSWER: c 29. What is considered the deadliest eating disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. purging disorder ANSWER: c 30. What is an eating disorder that is characterized by binge eating and subsequent purging? a. bulimia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. purging disorder ANSWER: a 31. Helmfried is in their early 20s and exercises regularly. As they get older, which is likely going to encourage them to continue to exercise regularly? a. becoming a parent b. having an active friend c. getting married d. working 50+ hours each week ANSWER: b 32. What is an eating disorder that is common during adolescence that involves compulsive overeating? a. bulimia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. purging disorder ANSWER: b 33. A particular body weight that an individual's homeostatic processes strive to maintain is referred to as the "_____." a. organ reserve Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice b. body mass index c. set point d. optimal weight ANSWER: c 34. Prakash is just leaving their 11:00 A.M. college class, and they are extremely hungry. They head over to the cafeteria and order a meal. After eating for about 10 minutes, Prakash is feeling full and decides not to finish the entire meal. Prakash's behavior is likely under the influence of their _____. a. organ reserve b. body mass index c. set point d. optimal weight ANSWER: c 35. The CARDIA (Coronary Artery Risk Development in Adulthood) study began with more than 4,000 healthy 18- to 30-year-olds; many were reexamined decades later. The study found that _____. a. those who were the most fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age b. those who were the least fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age c. those who were the least and most fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age d. there was no relation between fitness level at the first assessment and later health conditions ANSWER: b 36. The ratio between weight and height that is used to determine whether a person is below, at, or above normal weight is referred to as the "_____." a. organ reserve b. body mass index c. set point d. optimal weight ANSWER: b 37. The use of any drug in a harmful way, damaging a person's physical, cognitive, and psychosocial well-being is known as: a. substance addiction. b. drug addiction. c. drug abuse. d. drug use.

ANSWER: d 38. Which of these is NOT true about the sexual-reproductive system of emerging adults?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice a. Miscarriage is less common. b. Conception is quicker. c. Orgasms are more frequent. d. Serious birth complications are usual.

ANSWER: d 39. Many emerging adults want to engage in sexual activity but know that they are not emotionally ready to be parents. Their solution is _____. a. abstinence b. monogamy c. contraception d. early marriage ANSWER: c 40. In the United States and worldwide, women above age 30 are having _____ children than they did twenty years earlier, and emerging adults are having _____ children than they did then. a. more; fewer b. fewer; fewer c. fewer; more d. more; more ANSWER: a 41. _____ emerging adults believe that premarital sex is acceptable. a. Almost all b. About one-third of c. Less than half of d. Few ANSWER: a 42. Niketa is currently a 21-year-old college student. Like most of their peers, they believe that premarital sex is _____. a. okay if you plan to get married b. wrong c. acceptable d. very risky ANSWER: c 43. Which phenomenon has contributed to the worldwide spread of sexually transmitted infections? a. serial monogamy b. international travel c. localized prostitution Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice d. modern contraception ANSWER: b 44. Largely due to the sexual activities of young adults, _____ has become a worldwide epidemic. a. premarital sex b. HIV c. teenage pregnancy d. contraception ANSWER: b 45. When the body adjusts to a drug, requiring more to experience an effect and causing withdrawal when the drug is absent, what has occurred? a. substance abuse b. drug abuse c. drug use d. drug addiction ANSWER: d 46. Which individual is MOST likely to be the carrier of an STI? a. Conor, who is a biological male and is age 15 b. Saleem, who is a biological male and is age 23 c. Luan, who is a biological male and is age 39 d. Wilhelm, who is a biological male and is age 55 ANSWER: b 47. Merely consuming a drug is known as: a. drug abuse. b. substance abuse. c. drug use. d. drug addiction.

ANSWER: c 48. Adults tend to condone more sexual activity among young men than among young women. This is referred to as _____. a. homeostasis b. the sexual double standard c. set point d. allostasis ANSWER: b 49. Women tend to _____ and men tend to _____ their amount of casual sexual activity.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice a. underreport; overreport b. refuse to report; ask to report c. ask to report; refuse to report d. overreport; underreport ANSWER: a 50. Kali is a cisgendered woman and is in college. They have been asked to participate in a research study.

Several of the questions in the study ask about their casual sexual activity. How are they likely to respond? a. They will refuse to answer questions related to their casual sexual activity. b. They will overreport their level of casual sexual activity. c. They will unwillingly report information about their casual sexual activity. d. They will underreport their level of casual sexual activity.

ANSWER: d 51. Julius, a cisgendered male, and their friends are talking about their sexual experiences. Julius is likely to _____ casual sexual activity. a. refuse to report their level of b. unwillingly report their c. overreport their level of d. underreport their level of ANSWER: c 52. Which STI can result in a newborn with lifelong disabilities and sometimes early death? a. HPV b. congenital syphilis c. HIV d. herpes ANSWER: b 53. The rate of _____ STI tripled between 2015 and 2020. a. HPV b. congenital syphilis c. HIV d. herpes ANSWER: b 54. Which of these is NOT caused by HPV? a. cervical cancer b. oral cancer c. anal cancer d. unplanned pregnancy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 55. Who is MORE likely to engage in risky behaviors? a. Avelina, who is a cisgendered female in middle adulthood b. Laird, who is a cisgendered male in college c. Lex, who is a cisgendered male in late adulthood d. Cynthia, who is a cisgendered female in college ANSWER: b 56. Research has found that every year past the age of _____ increased the likelihood that a person would consider various behaviors as risky, whether or not they had previously done them. a. 15 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20 ANSWER: d 57. Which injury, common in football, can increase the risk of severe brain damage and disease? a. concussion b. broken ankle c. dislocated shoulder d. hookup ANSWER: a 58. The low rate of disease among those in emerging adulthood is counterbalanced by _____. a. increases in HPV rates b. decreases in HIV rates c. a high rate of violent death d. an increase in crime ANSWER: c 59. The peak age for engaging in serious crime in the United States is _____. a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 32 ANSWER: c 60. Payne is a cisgendered woman in emerging adulthood. If they were to experience an unplanned pregnancy, at what age would they MOST likely have that experience? a. 16 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice b. 17 c. 18 d. 22 ANSWER: c 61. Which of these causes of death is NOT common during emerging adulthood? a. fatal accidents b. homicides c. suicides d. disease ANSWER: d 62. A condition of substance dependence in which the absence of the given substance in the individual's system produces a drive to ingest more of the substance is called _____. a. set point b. homeostasis c. STI d. drug abuse ANSWER: d 63. When does illegal drug use peak? a. 15 b. 17 c. 18 d. 20 ANSWER: d 64. Talha spends the weekends engaged in freestyle motocross. Talha is participating in a(n) _____ sport. a. spiritual b. extreme c. illegal d. college ANSWER: b 65. Risk taking during emerging adulthood _____ society. a. is beneficial to b. is harmful to c. rarely has an effect on d. may benefit or harm ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice 66. Which college student is the LEAST likely to abuse drugs or alcohol? a. Zaur, who is in an academic fraternity b. Eleonora, who lives with their best friend c. Joele, who lives with their parents d. Kodjo, who is on academic probation ANSWER: c 67. The use of illegal drugs peaks from ages _____ and declines more sharply than the use of cigarettes and alcohol. a. 15 to 22 b. 18 to 25 c. 21 to 28 d. 24 to 31 ANSWER: b 68. Ravi is a 21-year-old college student. Statistically, they are MOST likely to do which of these? a. smoke cigarettes b. binge drink c. use illegal drugs d. be an addict ANSWER: b 69. Statistically, which of these 21-year-olds is the MOST likely to engage in extreme drinking? a. Grigorii, who did not go to college and works full-time b. Jengo, who is a college junior c. Patricia, who graduated from college 10 years ago d. Blaire, who did not go to college and works part-time ANSWER: b 70. Forms of recreation that include apparent risk of injury or death and that are attractive and thrilling as a result are referred to as "_____ sports." a. thrilling b. extreme c. injury-inducing d. mundane ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Essay 1. Imagine that you are a developmentalist. Summarize three ways that you could analyze adult cognition.

ANSWER: Developmentalists use many approaches to analyze adult cognition, including (1) the "stage approach," describes a new stage after formal operational intelligence; (2) the "psychometric approach," measures changes in aspects of intelligence, as revealed by scores on tests; and (3) the "information-processing approach," which studies neurological encoding, storage, and retrieval.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Summarize three Summarizes three Summarizes two ways Summarizes one or no ways to analyze adult ways to analyze adult to analyze adult ways to analyze adult cognition cognition cognition cognition

2. Describe four ways in which adult thinking differs from adolescent thinking.

ANSWER: Adult and adolescent thinking differ in multiple ways. Adult thinking is more (1) flexible, (2) practical, (3) creative, and (4) dialectical (which means more capable of combining contradictory elements into a comprehensive whole). This means that adults are (5) less likely to take unreasonable risks, and they are (6) more likely to make decisions based on objective reasoning and subjective feelings.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Describe four ways Describes four ways in Describes three ways in which adult which adult thinking in which adult thinking differs from differs from thinking differs from adolescent thinking adolescent thinking adolescent thinking

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes two or fewer ways in which adult thinking differs from adolescent thinking

3. Describe four ways in which adult thinking differs from adolescent thinking.

ANSWER: "Postformal thought" is the proposed fifth stage of cognitive development. Postformal thinkers take a (1) more flexible and (2) comprehensive approach, considering various aspects of a situation to (3) anticipate problems and (4) deal with difficulties in a timely manner rather than denying, avoiding, or procrastinating. As a result, postformal thought is (5) more practical, creative, and imaginative than earlier thinking is. In addition, it is (6) more dialectical (which means more capable of combining contradictory elements into a comprehensive whole).

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Name and describe Names and describes Names and describes the characteristics of three or more two characteristics of postformal thought characteristics of postformal thought postformal thought

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names and describes one or no characteristics of postformal thought

4. Describe how thesis, antithesis, and synthesis are related with respect to dialectical thought. Indicate how a nondialectical thinker and a dialectical thinker would explain the dissolution of a romantic relationship.

ANSWER: Each idea, or thesis, implies an opposing idea, or antithesis. Dialectical thought involves considering both of these poles of an idea simultaneously and then forging them into a synthesis—that is, a new idea that integrates the original and its opposite. Note that the synthesis is not a compromise; it is a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Essay new concept that incorporates both original ones in some transformative way.

With respect to the dissolution of a romantic relationship, a nondialectical thinker might believe that each person has stable, independent traits and thus would conclude that one partner (or the other) was at fault or that perhaps the relationship was a mistake from the beginning because the two were a bad match. By contrast, a dialectical thinker sees people and relationships as constantly evolving.

Accordingly, this thinker would posit that a romance ends because the partners have changed without adapting to each other.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe Describes how thesis, Describes how two of Describes how one of how thesis,antithesis, antithesis, and the ideas are related to the ideas is related to and synthesisare synthesis are related to dialectical thought dialectical thought related to dialectical dialectical thought thought Indicate how a Indicates how a Indicates how a Does not indicate how nondialectical thinker nondialectical thinker nondialectical a nondialectical and a dialectical and a dialectical thinker or a dialectical thinker and a thinker would explain thinker would explain thinker would explain dialectical thinker a broken romance a broken romance a broken romance would explain a broken romance

5. Jonathan Haidt, a prominent theorist in moral development, contends that five distinct clusters of moral values can be discerned across various cultures. List these clusters.

ANSWER: The five clusters include: 1) care for others; harm no one.

2) promote freedom; avoid oppression.

3) be fair; do not cheat.

4) seek purity; avoid contamination.

5) respect authority; do not break religious rules.

List five clusters of moral values

Good (5 pts.)

Lists five clusters of moral values

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists two or three clusters of moral values

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists one or no clusters

6. Outline the six stages of religious development.

ANSWER: James Fowler described six stages of religious faith development. Stage one is intuitive-projective faith (ages 3–7). In this stage, faith is magical, illogical, imaginative, and filled with fantasy. Stage two is mythic-literal faith (ages 7–11). In this stage, individuals take the myths and stories of religion literally, believing simplistically in the power of symbols. Stage three is called syntheticconventional faith. This is a conformist stage. Faith is conventional, reflecting concern about other people and favoring "what feels right" over what makes intellectual sense. Stage four is called individual-reflective faith where faith is characterized by intellectual detachment from the values of the culture and from the approval of other people. Stage five is conjunctive faith which incorporates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Essay both powerful emotional ideas and rational conscious values. People are willing to accept contradictions, obviously a postformal manner of thinking. Stage six is universalizing faith. People at this stage have a powerful vision of universal compassion, justice, and love that compels them to live their lives in a way that others may think is either saintly or foolish.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Outlines six stages of Outlines all six stages Outlines 2–5 stages of Outlines 0–1 stage of religious of religious religious development religions development development development

7. Define massification, and name at least three factors underlying it.

ANSWER: Massification is the idea that everyone (the masses) can benefit from a college education. College graduates worldwide (1) eat better, (2) exercise more, and (3) live longer. They are also more likely to be (4) happily married, (5) homeowners, and (6) parents of healthy children. The average 25- to 34-year-old makes more with a bachelor's degree compared to peers with a high school diploma.

This improves health.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define massification Defines massification Is vague about the meaning of the term massification Name factors Names three factors Names two factors underlying underlying underlying massification massification massification

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define massification Names one or no factors underlying massification

8. Explain the benefits of diversity in higher education.

ANSWER: Expanding diversity among college students helps students from economic and ethnic minorities and advances cognition for everyone. One catalyst for learning is honest conversations with people from other backgrounds and perspectives. Among the current problems of the United States is the political divide between those who identify as liberals and those who identify as conservatives.

Those groups not only vote for opposite policies, they listen to opposite radio and television programs, read different books and newspapers, are targeted by filtered social media, and so on. To combat this, colleges can include diverse perspectives and mutual respect. The diversity within colleges affects the cognition of today's emerging adults, who are much more accepting of differences than earlier generations were. Many studies have found that diversity of every kind can lead to intellectual challenge and deeper thought, with benefits lasting for years after graduation.

Current U.S. college students have raised many issues that adults did not recognize, such as the #MeToo movement (women's exploitation), Black Lives Matter (unjust policing), and the Dreamers (immigration policies). The result is often student protests against college policies set decades ago and clashes among student groups, faculty, and administrators. Nonetheless, the fact that people with divergent views might hear each other, and reflect on views other than their own, is a benefit of diversity.

Explains benefits

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains three or more Explains 1–2 benefits Does not explain

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Essay related to diversity in benefits of higher higher education education

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

of diversity in higher benefits related to education diversity in higher education

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice 1. The psychometric approach to studying cognitive development analyzes uses _____. a. intelligence tests b. observation c. narratives d. physiological measures ANSWER: a 2. The approach to studying cognitive development that explores how the brain encodes, stores, and retrieves information is the "_____ approach." a. stage b. psychometric c. information-processing d. physiological ANSWER: c 3. Dr. Marquette is a researcher who studies neurological encoding, storage, and retrieval. Which approach to cognitive development do they take? a. psychometric b. multidirectional c. postformal d. information-processing ANSWER: d 4. The _____ approach analyzes intelligence longitudinally via various tests. a. psychometric b. multidirectional c. postformal d. information-processing ANSWER: a 5. When compared with earlier cognition, thinking in adulthood is all of these EXCEPT more _____. a. practical b. concrete c. flexible d. dialectical ANSWER: b 6. A possible fifth stage of cognitive development that characterizes adult thinking is "_____ thought." a. preformal b. semiformal c. informal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice d. postformal ANSWER: d 7. Vikram grew up in a family that took pride in White nationalism and tended to espouse prejudiced views against underrepresented groups in the United States. Now that Vikram is in college, they have concluded that many of the stereotypes they were taught are incorrect. This demonstrates _____ thinking. a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. postformal ANSWER: d 8. After Nennius finished college, began working in their chosen field, and started a family, their thinking became _____. a. more exciting b. more practical c. more playful d. less routine ANSWER: b 9. As more is understood about brain development after adolescence, it seems that the characteristics of postformal thought are evident as the brain—in particular, the _____— matures. a. prefrontal cortex b. cerebellum c. corpus callosum d. thalamus ANSWER: a 10. In a longitudinal study of 18-year-old students at the beginning and end of their first year in college, researchers found increases in the brain areas that integrate _____ and _____. a. intelligence; conscientiousness b. reasoning; reality c. emotion; cognition d. intelligence; problem solving ANSWER: c 11. Which of these illustrates expectations about an emerging adult's ability to engage in postformal thinking? a. Ryder's mother gives them a calendar to take to college. b. Veerke is preparing a creative work as part of a class assignment in their sociology course. c. Uthyr's residential adviser reviews curfew limits for entering college students. d. Chibueze's father calls every night to make sure they have completed their homework.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice 12. Cognitively, what is needed to counter stereotypes? a. flexibility b. subjectivity c. objectivity d. dialect ANSWER: a 13. Ife is an African American man who is experiencing stereotype threat while taking a political science exam.

Research suggests that the effects of stereotype threat can be reduced by _____. a. convincing Ife that their grades are at the discretion of the professor b. raising Ife's self-esteem through positive feedback c. showing Ife that other groups perform worse d. giving Ife additional tutoring in material they find challenging ANSWER: b 14. The worry that one's appearance or behavior will be misused to confirm another person's oversimplified, prejudiced attitude is referred to as "_____." a. overcompensation b. dialectical thought c. stereotype threat d. reverse discrimination ANSWER: c 15. Although Dr. Afolayan believes that women and men can perform equally well on a science test, Dr. Afolayan is exploring whether women perform worse on a science test when they are asked to indicate their sex prior to taking the test. Dr. Afolayan is exploring the concept of "_____." a. cognitive flexibility b. stereotype threat c. postconventional thinking d. effortful control ANSWER: b 16. Mokhtar is a fun-loving, intelligent, responsible teenager who likes to color their hair different colors.

However, they are concerned that other people might construe their hair color as a reflection of poor academic achievement. Their concern is an example of "_____." a. cognitive flexibility b. effortful control c. postconventional thinking d. stereotype threat ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice 17. Which statement made by a teacher is MOST likely to activate stereotype threat? a. "This exam will show what you have learned in this chapter." b. "This exam counts 30 percent toward your final grade." c. "Your grade on this exam will show the amount of effort you've put into the class." d. "This exam will show which gender has better grammatical skills."

ANSWER: d 18. A possible reaction to stereotype threat might be _____. a. an increase in the high-school dropout rate for African American men b. young girls' preferences for playing with dolls over trucks c. romantic relationship partners living together without being married d. women's high performance on the math portion of the SAT ANSWER: a 19. Blaire thinks that their performance may be negatively compared to the performances of people in another group. According to the theory of stereotype threat, their thinking is MOST likely to _____. a. initially cause them to stop trying but then inspire them to work harder b. have no effect on their actual life c. cause them to underperform d. cause them to dislike the people in the group to whom they are being compared ANSWER: c 20. The worst part of stereotype threat is that it _____. a. is particularly harmful to women b. originates in school c. is self-imposed d. cannot be overcome ANSWER: c 21. In 2017, _____ percent of all newlyweds were from different racial or ethnic groups. a. 5 b. 12 c. 18 d. 26 ANSWER: c 22. Those LEAST likely to approve of intermarriage are _____ educated adults. a. older, less b. younger, less c. younger, more d. older, more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. Those who marry when older are less likely to divorce. This may be associated with _____. a. more economic stability b. career establishment c. advancements in postformal thought d. reduced agreement with stereotypes ANSWER: c 24. Researchers who have studied adult cognition have recognized that a conflict between opposing ideas is a catalyst for cognitive growth. Which of these does NOT represent this? a. Piaget thought that conflict between new and old schemas caused disequilibrium that led to new thinking. b. Erikson described two opposites at each stage of development, causing a psychological crisis that required a synthesis to allow forward movement. c. Baltes noted that "the occurrence and effective mastery of crises and conflicts represent not only risks, but also opportunities for new development." d. Watson stated "give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified world to bring them up in and I'll guarantee to take any one at random and train them to become any type of specialist I might select."

ANSWER: d 25. Mature thought reflects all of these EXCEPT: a. abstract thinking. b. objective forms of processing and expressing. c. subjective forms of thinking. d. impulsive thinking.

ANSWER: d 26. A proposition or statement of belief is a(n) _____, the first stage of the process of dialectical thinking. a. synthesis b. thesis c. antithesis d. theory ANSWER: b 27. Archana stated, "I believe that I should be able to drive as fast as I want." Archana just stated a(n) _____. a. synthesis b. thesis c. antithesis d. theory ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice 28. Dr. Abrahams tells their student Kai that they should pursue a career that will make them happy. They respond, "Not all careers that will make me happy will provide me with enough income to live." Kai's response was a(n) _____. a. synthesis b. thesis c. antithesis d. theory ANSWER: c 29. Raban and Semiha, two friends, are discussing logos on T-shirts. Raban says that everyone should be able to wear whatever logos they want on their T-shirts. Semiha suggests that some logos may be offensive and thus should not be worn. If Raban is able to integrate those two ideas, they will have created a(n) _____. a. synthesis b. thesis c. antithesis d. theory ANSWER: a 30. In dialectical thought, a(n) _____ implies a(n) _____, and the integration of these occurs within the synthesis. a. thesis; synthesis b. synthesis; theory c. thesis; antithesis d. antithesis; synthesis ANSWER: c 31. Dalisay begins an essay for their composition class by writing that knowing the truth sets people free. In the next paragraph, they explain that knowing the truth often involves learning about the limitations and constraints on freedom. In the third paragraph, Dalisay integrates these two perspectives. Dalisay's essay demonstrates _____ thinking. a. inconsistent b. moral c. dialectical d. subjective ANSWER: c 32. Kyran is a medical intern who believes that all people deserve access to medical care. However, they also know that throughout their career, they will have to make decisions about which patients will receive a scarce, life-saving medication. Reconciling these two thoughts requires _____. a. intuitive-projective faith b. dialectical thinking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice c. relativism d. ideological reasoning ANSWER: b 33. Eudora broke up with Suman after dating for two years. Heartbroken, Suman asked why. Eudora replied, "It's me, not you. I'm to blame." Eudora's response is an example of _____ thought. a. preformal operational b. dialectical c. nondialectical d. flexible ANSWER: c 34. Dragomir's marriage is troubled. They and their partner find very little joy in being with each other, in part because they have both changed as individuals. If Dragomir and their partner are capable of dialectical thinking, they will _____. a. adjust their relationship to accommodate the changes in themselves b. realize that divorce is the only solution c. try to find out which one of them is to blame d. try to reinstate their relationship as it was when they were first married ANSWER: a 35. Following the breakup with their partner, Lucia texts: "I have always cared for you. I believe we can work this out." Lucia's statement is an example of a(n) _____. a. theory b. thesis c. antithesis d. synthesis ANSWER: c 36. Truly mature thought involves an interaction between abstract, objective forms of processing and expressive _____ forms. a. subjective b. hypothetical c. objective d. personal ANSWER: a 37. Purely _____ thought is maladaptive when navigating adult life, where _____ thought involves an interaction between abstract, objective forms of processing and expression. a. subjective; hypothetical b. hypothetical; psychometric c. objective; subjective Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice d. objective; psychometric ANSWER: c 38. Negar is going to buy their friend a present. They remember that their friend wanted to go to a concert; tickets for the concert are $150 each. Negar has only $300 in the bank and was going to use $250 of it to pay for car insurance next month. However, they want to make their friend happy, so they purchase the two concert tickets. Negar's thinking is MOST likely influenced by _____. a. emotions b. logic c. metacognition d. abstraction ANSWER: a 39. After auditioning for a play, Agniya hears Veikko say, "Agniya was the worst actor at the auditions! I can't believe that they got the lead!" Agniya thinks, "I know I am a fine actor. Veikko is just upset right now because they did not get a part in the play." Agniya is using _____ thought. a. subjective b. objective c. subjective and objective d. hypothetical ANSWER: c 40. During emerging adulthood, people can use both emotion (subjective) and logic (objective) when grappling with personal and social problems; such thinking demonstrates _____ thought. a. postformal b. informal c. preformal d. nonformal ANSWER: a 41. Regarding culture and dialectics, _____ adults tend to think holistically (about the whole rather than the parts). a. African American b. European c. Asian d. Latino ANSWER: c 42. When college students are asked to solve a puzzle problem independently, only about 10 percent solve it correctly. Then, when students who did not solve the problem are allowed to discuss the problem together, 75 percent get it right. This illustrates the participants' _____. a. emotional flexibility Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice b. emotional inflexibility c. cognitive flexibility d. cognitive inflexibility ANSWER: c 43. All of these beliefs reflect cognitive flexibility EXCEPT that _____. a. a person's perspective is only one of many possible perspectives b. a problem has many potential solutions c. life plans are static d. knowledge is dynamic ANSWER: c 44. Villads was raised in a home where men did not help with housework or cooking, because those chores were deemed "women's work." At age 20, they do not agree with that view. Villads is demonstrating _____ flexibility. a. social b. emotional c. cognitive d. dynamic ANSWER: c 45. One way to deepen ethical and religious thought is to _____. a. focus on the self b. change religions c. learn the perspectives of others d. question religious teachings ANSWER: c 46. Which college student is MOST likely to experience shifts in moral reasoning? a. Garvan, who is taking a philosophy course b. Bosede, who is taking a calculus course c. Valerie, who is taking a pottery course d. Amporn, who is taking an accounting course ANSWER: a 47. A series of questions designed to assess respondents' levels of moral development by having them rank possible solutions to moral dilemmas is the _____ Test. a. Moral Dilemma b. Thematic Apperception c. Defining Issues d. Peabody Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 48. Guarin is participating in a study in which they have to decide whether they should cheat on a test. They are asked to rank-order possible solutions to cheating on the test. Guarin is participating in a study that is using a _____ Test. a. Moral Dilemma b. Thematic Apperception c. Defining Issues d. Peabody ANSWER: c 49. In general, DIT scores that assess moral thinking _____. a. correlate with professional functioning b. decline with age c. remain stable with age d. rise and then decline with age ANSWER: a 50. Who developed the Defining Issues Test? a. James Rest b. James Fowler c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg ANSWER: a 51. Who developed a sequence of six stages of religious faith? a. James Rest b. James Fowler c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg ANSWER: b 52. Which stage of faith is magical, illogical, imaginative, and filled with fantasy? a. intuitive-projective b. universalizing c. synthetic-conventional d. individual-reflective ANSWER: a 53. Which stage of religious faith is typical of children between the ages of 3 and 7 years? a. intuitive-projective Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice b. universalizing c. synthetic-conventional d. individual-reflective ANSWER: a 54. Which stage of religious faith incorporates powerful emotional ideas and rational conscious values? a. intuitive-projective b. conjunctive c. synthetic-conventional d. individual-reflective ANSWER: b 55. Haidt believes that adults have five moral foundations. Which of these is NOT one of these? a. care for others b. promote freedom c. be fair d. disobey authority ANSWER: d 56. Which of Haidt's moral foundations is MOST prominent in the United States? a. care for others b. promote freedom c. be fair d. seek purity ANSWER: b 57. Five-year-old Ellil believes that God gave their little brother to their mother because they stayed overnight at the hospital. Ellil is at the _____ stage of religious faith. a. intuitive-projective b. universalizing c. synthetic-conventional d. individual-reflective ANSWER: a 58. Every night, Xulia says extra prayers to God so that they have prayers "in the bank." Due to their extra prayers, Xulia believes that God will reward them in life rather than punish them. Xulia is in which stage of faith? a. universalizing b. synthetic-conventional c. conjunctive d. mythic-literal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 59. The stage in which faith becomes an active commitment, detached from the expectations of culture and others, is referred to as the stage of "_____ faith." a. individual-reflective b. intuitive-projective c. universalizing d. mythic-literal ANSWER: a 60. According to James Fowler, which stage of faith is the MOST mature? a. synthetic-conventional b. conjunctive c. universalizing d. individual-reflective ANSWER: c 61. According to James Fowler's religious stages, faith, like other aspects of cognition, progresses from a(n) _____ view of life to a(n) _____ view. a. simple, self-centered; complex, unselfish b. complex, unselfish; altruistic c. unselfish; selfish d. adversity; acceptance ANSWER: a 62. Research suggests that the process of moral thinking _____ with age. a. deteriorates b. varies c. remains the same d. becomes erratic ANSWER: b 63. Compared to individuals without a college education, those with a college education tend to be _____. a. healthier and wealthier b. more intelligent c. married d. more likely to smoke ANSWER: a 64. If Ea is like a typical U.S. college student, they would indicate that they are in college primarily for all of these reasons EXCEPT to _____. a. get a better job Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice b. gain a general education c. be well off financially d. make more money ANSWER: b 65. William Perry found that over the four years of their college careers, students typically _____. a. move from a relativistic to a dualistic approach b. change their viewpoints very little c. stick to their own views when faced with conflicts d. move through nine levels of complexity in their thinking ANSWER: d 66. Adele is a high school junior who has wanted to attend college since they were in fifth grade. According to recent research, what will MOST significantly influence whether Adele will attend college and, if they do, whether they graduate? a. family income b. grades and SAT scores c. letters of recommendation and volunteer work d. a special talent, such as athletics, music, or art ANSWER: a 67. Which student is MOST likely to leave college without a degree? a. Samira, who is earning a minimal wage, working full-time, and has two children b. Saga, whose family income is $100,000 a year, and who attends a college with 1,000 students c. Ali, who just had a baby, works part-time, and attends a college with 800 students d. Cy, whose family income is $60,000 year, who goes to school full-time, and who attends a college with 2,000 students ANSWER: a 68. Which of these does NOT demonstrate how conflict can lead to cognitive growth? a. Maslow theorized that we all experience a hierarchy of needs through the lifespan. b. Piaget believes that conflict that leads to disequilibrium can lead to new thinking. c. Erikson believed that each stage of development included overcoming a crisis. d. Baltes states that crises and conflicts represented risks and opportunities for development.

ANSWER: a 69. Haidt believed that adults have five moral foundations. Which is NOT one of them? a. care for others b. avoid oppression c. be fair d. resist authority Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 70. Which of these is NOT currently a hypothesis regarding why women earn more college degrees compared to men currently? a. reduced sexism b. brain differences c. college requirements d. female stress ANSWER: d 71. Which statement is TRUE? a. The increased diversity of the college atmosphere encourages cognitive development. b. A college education has more positive effects on cognitive development now compared to previous generations. c. Because many students drop out of college, estimating the effect of college education on cognitive development is complicated. d. Diversity has decreased the long-term effects of a college education.

ANSWER: a 72. The term massification means that _____. a. college gives people better long-term health b. mass practice can defeat stereotype threat c. obesity increases for every year of education a person has d. college could benefit everyone ANSWER: d 73. The recent effort by countries around the world to increase the number of young people attending college was prompted by national governments' belief in _____. a. stereotype threat b. moratorium c. massification d. linked lives ANSWER: c 74. Navin, age 28, is a college graduate. Statistically, they are LEAST likely to be a citizen of which country? a. the United States b. Canada c. Korea d. Russia ANSWER: a 75. In the United States today, _____ are college students.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice a. more females than males b. more males than females c. an equal number of males and females d. more middle-aged adults than emerging adults ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Essay 1. Professor Burg is reviewing Erik Erikson's eight stages of development, including the virtue or pathology that supposedly corresponds to each stage. List Erikson's stages, noting the virtue/pathology that is associated with each.

ANSWER: Stage Virtue/Pathology 1. Trust vs. mistrust Hope/withdrawal 2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt Will/compulsion 3. Initiative vs. guilt Purpose/inhibition 4. Industry vs. inferiority Competence/inertia 5. Identity vs. role confusion Fidelity/repudiation 6. Intimacy vs. isolation Love/exclusivity 7. Generativity vs. stagnation Care/rejection 8. Integrity vs. despair Wisdom/disdain Identify Erikson's eight stages

Good (5 pts.)

Identifies Erikson's eight stages

Provide virtue and pathology for each stage

Provides virtue and pathology for each stage

Fair (3 pts.)

Identifies four to seven of Erikson's eight stages Provides virtue and pathology for four to seven stages

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies three or fewer of Erikson's eight stages Provides virtue or pathology for three or fewer stages

2. Identify three of the problems experienced by emerging adults in achieving vocational identity and describe the typical employment pattern during the emerging adulthood years.

ANSWER: Vocational identity is particularly difficult for emerging adults. For many emerging adults, achieving one's vocational identity will continue into adulthood. (1) Emerging adults may not know what they want to do. Even if they do know and earn the appropriate degrees, (2) many cannot find the jobs they want. This has been (3) particularly true during the recent economic downturn, and they may still be affected even when the nation's economy improves. (4) Emerging adults are the age group with the highest rate of unemployment.

Many emerging adults hold a series of temporary jobs. According to 2015 statistics, the average U.S. worker between ages 18 and 25 has held seven jobs. College-educated workers change jobs even more often than those without college degrees.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify emerging Identifies three Identifies two Identifies one or no adults' problems in problems in achieving problems in achieving problems in achieving achieving vocational vocational identity vocational identity vocational identity identity Describe the typical Describes the typical Describes the typical Does not describe the employment pattern employment pattern, employment pattern typical employment including the statistic without including the pattern listed above statistic listed above

3. Describe Erik Erikson's stage of "intimacy versus isolation," noting the crisis that young people must Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Essay overcome.

ANSWER: In Erikson's theory, after achieving identity, people experience the "intimacy versus isolation" crisis.

This crisis arises from the powerful desire to share one's personal life with someone else. Without such intimacy, adults suffer from loneliness. The urge for social connection is a powerful human impulse. Therefore, adults seek to become friends, lovers, companions, and partners.

Describe the crisis behind Erikson's stage of "intimacy versus isolation"

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes the crisis Is vague about the Does not describe the behind Erikson's stage crisis behind Erikson's crisis behind Erikson's of "intimacy versus stage of "intimacy stage of "intimacy isolation" versus isolation" versus isolation"

4. Many emerging adults receive substantial support from their parents. Identify three ways in which parents support their emerging adult children and tell how the support contributes to their success or lack thereof.

ANSWER: About one-half of all emerging adults (1) receive cash from their parents in addition to (2) college tuition, (3) medical care, (4) food, and (5) other financial support. Most are also given (6) substantial gifts of time, such as help with laundry, moving, household repairs, and, if the young adult becomes a parent, (7) free child care.

Parental assistance makes possible the achievement of various goals. Lack of family financial support reduces emerging adults' achievement; one of the reasons low-SES young adults are apt to remain in a lower SES is that their parents could not give them the assistance during emerging adulthood that their more affluent peers received.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify ways in Identifies at least three Identifies two ways in Identifies one or no which parents support ways in which parents which parents support ways in which parents their emerging adult support their emerging their emerging adult support their emerging children and how that adult children and children and how that adult children and support contributes to how that support support contributes to how that support their success contributes to their their success contributes to their success success

5. Identify gender differences in friendship formation and maintenance.

ANSWER: Regarding gender differences in friendship, men tend to share activities and interests. Male friends talk about external matters—sports, work, politics, cars—and are unlikely to tell other men their failures, emotional problems, and relationship dilemmas. When they do bring up emotional and relationship difficulties, they expect practical advice rather than sympathy.

Women's friendships are more intimate and emotional. They tend to share secrets more than men do.

Female friends are quicker to engage in self-disclosing talk, discussing at length difficulties with their health, romances, sex life, and relatives. Women expect friends to respond with an attentive and sympathetic ear and, if necessary, a shoulder on which to cry or a reassuring hug.

Good (5 pts.)

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Essay Detail the differences between men's and women's friendships

Details the differences between men's and women's friendships, including expectations of friends

Details the differences Does not detail the between men's and differences between women's friendships men's and women's without including friendships expectations of friends

6. Outline and explain the different aspects of love, according to Robert Sternberg.

ANSWER: According to Sternberg, there are three distinct aspects of love. (1) Passion occurs early in a relationship as a couple falls in love. It includes an intense physical, cognitive, and emotional onslaught characterized by excitement, ecstasy, and euphoria. (2) Intimacy is knowing someone well, sharing secrets as well as sex. This aspect of a romance is reciprocal. (3) Commitment takes time and effort. It grows through decisions to be together, mutual caregiving, shared possessions, and forgiveness. Social forces strengthen or undermine commitment.

List and define three aspects of love

Good (5 pts.)

Lists and defines three aspects of love

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists and defines two aspects of love

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists and defines one or no aspects of love

7. Define cohabitation, provide two reasons people decide to cohabit, and identify two potential outcomes of the living arrangement.

ANSWER: Cohabitation describes a couple living together in a committed romantic relationship without being married. People cohabitate (1) as a prelude to marriage (which will occur when the couple has the emotional or financial means), or (2) because they prefer to live together without being married. In the United States, cohabiters are less likely to pool their money, less likely to have close relationships with their parents or their partners' parents, less likely to take care of their partners' health, more likely to be criminals, and more likely to break up. However, more recent research finds fewer negative outcomes of cohabitation.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define cohabitation Defines cohabitation Defines cohabitation Defines cohabitation and give reasons why and gives both reasons and gives one reason but does not offer any people do it why people do it why people do it reasons why people do it Identify potential Identifies two Identifies one Does not identify a outcomes of potential outcomes of potential outcome of potential outcome of cohabitation cohabitation cohabitation cohabitation

8. Describe situational couple violence and intimate terrorism. Identify the underlying cause and who is likely to be the abuser and victim for each form of violence.

ANSWER: Situational couple violence occurs when both partners fight with words, slaps, and exclusion (leaving home, refusing to speak, refusing to have sex, etc.), and yet both partners are sometimes caring and affectionate. A situation brings out the anger, and then the partners abuse each other.

This is the most common form of violence, and women are as active in situational violence as men.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Essay Situational couple violence can be reduced with maturation and counseling; both partners need to learn how to interact without violence.

Intimate terrorism is violent, demeaning, and likely to lead to serious harm. There may be no clear cause for the abuse, but the terrorist gets some satisfaction from it. The victim usually cowers and apologizes and is kept socially isolated. Intimate terrorism usually involves a male abuser and female victim, but the sex roles can be reversed. It is dangerous to the victim and to anyone who tries to intervene as well as more difficult to treat. Immediate separation and relocation to a place safe from the abuser are essential, as the victim needs to regain confidence and independence.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe situational Describes situational Describes situational Does not describe couple violence, its couple violence, its couple violence and situational couple underlying cause, and underlying cause, and its underlying violence, its who is apt to be the who is apt to be the cause or who is apt to underlying cause, or victim victim be the victim who is apt to be the victim Describe intimate Describes intimate Describes intimate Does not describe terrorism, its terrorism, its terrorism, and its intimate terrorism, its underlying cause, and underlying cause, and underlying underlying cause, or who is apt to be the who is apt to be the cause or who is apt to who is apt to be the victim victim be the victim victim

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice 1. Nadja's grandparents and parents always vote Democrat. Since going to college Nadja has identified a set of issues that is very important to them at election time, even if they are not the same as those of their family.

Nadja has developed their own _____ identity. a. religious b. political c. gender d. vocational ANSWER: b 2. When young adults seek close friendships and partners, they are demonstrating which of Erikson's stages of development? a. trust versus mistrust b. intimacy versus isolation c. integrity versus despair d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: b 3. Compulsion would be considered a pathological outcome of which state of development, according to Erikson? a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. integrity versus despair d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: b 4. Fiona is 21 years old and is not sure what kind of work they would like to do after they graduate from college. Like many Americans this age, Fiona has not yet developed a(n) _____ identity. a. true b. political c. educational d. vocational ANSWER: d 5. A defining feature of _____ is postponing commitment. a. adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: b 6. Postponing identity achievement and avoiding marriage and parenthood while exploring possibilities is associated with _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice a. moratorium b. identity achievement c. an identity crisis d. rebellious behavior ANSWER: a 7. About how many people under the age of 30 believe that more diversity is needed in every sphere of the United States? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 75 percent ANSWER: d 8. Jeptha is an emerging adult in the United States. If Jeptha is like most emerging adults, they will report that _____ is the MOST important objective in life. a. getting married b. helping others c. being well off financially d. obtaining career recognition ANSWER: c 9. In the United States, which tends to be MOST difficult to achieve during emerging adulthood? a. gender identity b. sexual identity c. vocational identity d. religious identity ANSWER: c 10. Vocational identity may be elusive for: a. adolescents. b. emerging adults. c. young adults. d. middle-aged adults.

ANSWER: b 11. Eemi likes to think about how the physical world works. They believe there are advanced civilizations on other planets. According to John Holland's six categories of people, Eemi is MOST likely in the "_____" category. a. enterprising b. investigative Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice c. realistic d. artistic ANSWER: b 12. Vijay, age 24, is studying to take the exam in order to become a certified public accountant. According to John Holland's six categories of people, Vijay is MOST likely in the "_____" category. a. enterprising b. investigative c. realistic d. conventional ANSWER: d 13. Eadburg attends a local college, working on a degree in automotive technology. They plan to take a series of rigorous national exams in order to become a master technician. According to John Holland's six categories of people, Eadburg is MOST likely in the "_____" category. a. enterprising b. investigative c. realistic d. conventional ANSWER: c 14. Between the ages of 18 and 25, the average adult in the United States _____. a. buys a first house b. has held seven jobs c. has had two or three children d. has a 20 percent chance of divorce ANSWER: b 15. Talal is 23 years old and works in an entry-level sales position at a local company. If they are a typical American adult, in the next few years, they will _____. a. change jobs, perhaps several times b. stay with their current company for decades c. think about changing jobs but never actually do it d. remain in their entry-level position long-term ANSWER: a 16. What percentage of jobs are in the service sector? a. 1 b. 5 c. 20 d. 80 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 17. Which of these is NOT a reason why career counseling is an important vocation for today? a. Most current vocations existed a generation ago. b. Adult lives change so new work is better. c. The economy is shifting. d. Adults who enjoy their work achieve a fulfilling, productive life.

ANSWER: a 18. Which of these is NOT an example of identity moratorium? a. attending college b. joining the military c. taking an internship d. becoming a parent ANSWER: d 19. According to research, who is MOST likely to experience the greatest gain in well-being during emerging adulthood? a. Tuathflaith, who lives with their parents b. Anastasija, who just started college and lives in a dormitory on campus c. Aindriu, who just had a baby and is a single parent d. Tinkara, who recently quit a job ANSWER: b 20. What percentage of jobs are in the secondary sector? a. 1 b. 5 c. 20 d. 80 ANSWER: c 21. Those who are _____ prefer direct service or helping opportunities involving advising, counseling, coaching, mentoring, teaching, or group discussion. a. conventional b. social c. realistic d. artistic ANSWER: b 22. In regard to personality during emerging adulthood, emerging adults become all of these EXCEPT: a. more agreeable.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice b. more conscientious. c. less neurotic. d. less independent.

ANSWER: d 23. Which of these is NOT a related term used by psychologists to describe Erikson's stage of intimacy versus isolation? a. independence b. affiliation c. love d. communion ANSWER: a 24. According to Erik Erikson, once an emerging adult has established a sense of identity, they need to resolve which crisis? a. trust versus mistrust b. generativity versus stagnation c. identity versus role confusion d. intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: d 25. Erik Erikson's fifth stage of development involves a continuum between _____. a. integrity and despair b. initiative and guilt c. identity and role diffusion d. industry and inferiority ANSWER: c 26. Now that they are in their 20s, Sipho wants to find someone to share their life and experiences with. Erik Erikson would say that Sipho is in the stage of "_____." a. trust versus mistrust b. generativity versus stagnation c. identity versus role confusion d. intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: d 27. All members of a family have _____; that is, the experiences and needs of family members at every stage of life are affected by everyone else. a. linked lives b. family discord c. generation gap Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice d. social convoy ANSWER: a 28. According to Erik Erikson, the stage of "intimacy versus isolation" _____. a. is followed by the search for identity b. is characterized by a need for generativity c. reflects the desire to share one's life with someone else d. occurs only if one avoids stagnation ANSWER: c 29. Intimacy is the desire for _____. a. social connection b. generativity c. sexual intercourse d. self-esteem ANSWER: a 30. Rosheen was a sophomore thriving in college when their parent lost their job. Even with financial aid, the family could no longer afford to send Rosheen to college, so they left to get a full-time job at a restaurant near the family home. This situation illustrates the _____ of families. a. linked lives b. discord c. generation gap d. social convoy ANSWER: a 31. According to Erikson, after achieving identity, people experience which crisis? a. intimacy versus isolation b. trust versus mistrust c. integrity versus despair d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: a 32. Parents who hover over their emerging adult children are to _____ parents as parents who try to remove any impediments in the way of their children are to _____ parents. a. hoover; authoritarian b. helicopter; snowplow c. authoritarian; hoover d. snowplow; helicopter ANSWER: b 33. Friends that enlarge a person's understanding as they empathize with each other and absorb each other's Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice experiences and ideas are experiencing a. self-absorption b. self-expansion c. narcissism d. egoism ANSWER: b 34. Caesar, age 22, believes that same-sex marriage should be legal. Given what is known about emerging adults and their parents, it is likely that Caesar and their parents _____ about that issue. a. have different attitudes b. have similar attitudes c. argue and yell d. avoid conversations ANSWER: b 35. About _____ of all emerging adults in the United States receive cash from their parents in addition to tuition, medical care, food, and other material support. a. one-fourth b. one-third c. one-half d. three-fourths ANSWER: c 36. Parents who try to remove any impediments in the way of their children are referred to as _____ parents. a. snowplow b. helicopter c. unrestrictive d. permissive ANSWER: a 37. A mother offers an unsolicited comment about their 23-year-old daughter's clothing choices. Which emerging adult would be MOST likely to see such a comment as hostile and intrusive? a. a daughter who is strongly assimilated into American culture b. a daughter who identifies strongly with their family's non-American heritage c. a daughter who chooses family loyalty before personal autonomy d. a daughter who expects to receive the unsolicited comment ANSWER: a 38. A popular term for parents who hover over their emerging adults, ready to swoop down if any problem arises, is "_____ parents." a. hovering b. vigilant Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice c. helicopter d. supportive ANSWER: c 39. Damian just learned their final grade in their biology class. They were upset because they thought they were going to do better, and they called their mother to tell them about it. After the call, Damian's mother contacted the professor (without Damian's permission or knowledge) to ask that Damian's grade be changed because they had worked really hard in the class or at least that they be given a chance to retake the final test. In this example, Damian's mother is a "_____ parent." a. hovering b. vigilant c. helicopter d. supportive ANSWER: c 40. Which type of parenting may not allow children to learn to overcome obstacles on their own? a. snowplow parents b. helicopter parents c. unrestrictive parents d. permissive parents ANSWER: a 41. Friendships during emerging adulthood can _____ feelings of depression. a. strengthen b. increase c. decrease d. heighten ANSWER: c 42. Friendships reach their peak of functional significance during _____. a. adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: b 43. An emerging adult is MOST likely to spend time with a _____ on a Friday night. a. spouse b. parent c. child d. friend Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 44. Emerging adult Santo is a heavy social media user. They tend to have _____ face-to-face friends than do nonusers. a. more b. less c. the same amount of d. variable ANSWER: a 45. Within the context of a male–male friendship, men tend to _____. a. engage in self-disclosing conversation b. expect practical advice c. hug as a greeting d. share information about relationship problems ANSWER: b 46. Dr. Sitti is studying the frequency of male–female friendships and has found that they are _____. a. common b. rare c. absent d. atypical ANSWER: a 47. When heterosexual couples are romantically committed to each other, they tend to have _____ male–female friendships. a. more b. extra c. fewer d. no ANSWER: c 48. Robert Sternberg describes three distinct aspects of love. These include all of these EXCEPT _____. a. passion b. challenge c. intimacy d. commitment ANSWER: b 49. An intense physical, cognitive, and emotional experience characterized by excitement, ecstasy, and euphoria is associated with _____. a. passion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice b. friendship c. introversion d. commitment ANSWER: a 50. Andreas has just started to date Yasmina. He cannot stop thinking about her, and his thoughts of her fill him with excitement and happiness. Andreas is MOST likely to be experiencing which aspect of love? a. passion b. friendship c. vulnerability d. commitment ANSWER: a 51. Knowing someone well, and sharing secrets as well as physical attention in a reciprocal nature, is consistent with which aspect of love? a. passion b. liking c. intimacy d. commitment ANSWER: c 52. All of these influence commitment in a romantic relationship EXCEPT _____. a. mutual caregiving b. shared possessions c. forgiveness d. common backgrounds ANSWER: d 53. Marco and Alayna have a romantic relationship, and although they are committed to one another, they are no longer connected in an intimate way. According to Robert Sternberg, which form of love do Marco and Alayna have? a. young love b. infatuation c. empty love d. companionship love ANSWER: c 54. Karola just started dating Uttar. Karola feels happy and excited when she thinks about Uttar and feels confident that Uttar feels the same about her. However, she is not sure where the relationship will lead, because they both continue to live independent lives. According to Robert Sternberg, which form of love does Karola appear MOST likely to be experiencing? a. infatuation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice b. romantic love c. companionate love d. consummate love ANSWER: b 55. The Western ideal is _____ love. a. infatuated b. romantic c. companionate d. consummate ANSWER: d 56. Camille and Waldomar are long-time friends who have just transitioned to a "friends with benefits" relationship. If their friendship truly comes first, Robert Sternberg's triadic theory would suggest that their relationship is _____ but not _____. a. passionate; intimate b. intimate; passionate c. consummate; romantic d. romantic; intimate ANSWER: b 57. "Hooking up" involves a sexual encounter _____. a. in a romantic or committed relationship b. between friends who are not dating c. without a romantic relationship d. between people who are in the same class together ANSWER: c 58. Of the college students below, who is MOST likely to "hook up"? a. Noor, a cisgender female, who is eager to graduate in one month because they never really fit into the social scene b. Ardal, a cisgender male, who just started college and is lonely because they have not yet made many good friends c. Yngvildr, a cisgender female, who is in their last semester of college and has made many connections through activities and classes d. Bogdan, a cisgender male, who graduates in a few months and already feels sad about leaving the close circles of friends they formed in college ANSWER: b 59. _____ of U.S. emerging adults between the ages of 18 and 25 are married. a. Almost half b. Slightly more than 10 percent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice c. About 30 percent d. Less than 5 percent ANSWER: d 60. Social networking may lead to "_____," which occurs when there are too many people available to meet and evaluate as potential life partners. a. hookups b. choice overload c. romance d. matchmaking ANSWER: b 61. For most people, social networking has _____ social isolation in emerging adulthood. a. increased b. decreased c. had no impact on d. created ANSWER: b 62. How many couples in the United States live together before getting married? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 75 percent d. 80 percent ANSWER: c 63. Dorka is 25 years old and lives in the United States. Statistically, they are MOST likely to be _____. a. married b. never married c. married and then separated d. married and then divorced ANSWER: b 64. In which proportion of families around the world does arranged marriage occur? a. one-half b. one-third c. two-thirds d. three-fourths ANSWER: b 65. For most Western emerging adults, what is considered the primary prerequisite for marriage?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice a. love b. commitment c. passion d. earning potential ANSWER: a 66. An arrangement in which a couple lives together in a committed romantic relationship but is not formally married is referred to as "_____." a. a hookup b. infatuation c. romance d. cohabitation ANSWER: d 67. Nazar and Kemp live together in a romantic relationship. However, they are not married. Their living arrangement is called "_____." a. a dual relationship b. a hookup c. romance d. cohabitation ANSWER: d 68. Which aspect of love is LEAST present during emerging adulthood? a. passion b. intimacy c. commitment d. infatuation ANSWER: c 69. Which age group is MOST likely to be victims and perpetrators of intimate partner violence? a. adolescents b. emerging adults c. middle-aged adults d. older adults ANSWER: b 70. Fighting between romantic partners that is brought on more by the environmental context than by the deep personality problems of the individuals is referred to as "_____." a. relational aggression b. intimate terrorism c. situational couple violence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice d. a demand/withdraw interaction ANSWER: c 71. Vianne is paying the monthly bills and realizes there is not enough money to cover all of them. They find their partner and yell at them for not making enough money. Vianne's partner then yells back that Vianne wastes the money they have. Vianne slaps their partner and their partner shoves them away. Later, they both apologize for their behavior. This scenario illustrates _____. a. a demand/withdraw interaction b. intimate terrorism c. situational couple violence d. rational aggression ANSWER: c 72. A violent and demeaning form of abuse in a romantic relationship, in which the victim is frightened to fight back, seek help, or withdraw, is referred to as "_____." a. relational aggression b. intimate terrorism c. situational couple violence d. a demand/withdraw interaction ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Essay 1. Mara is growing older and is beginning to notice physical changes with their body. Describe at least two physical changes each in skin, in hair, in body shape, and in physical agility that Mara may be noticing as they get older.

ANSWER: The skin becomes (1) drier, (2) rougher, and (3) less regular in color. (4) Collagen decreases starting at age 20. (5) By age 30, the skin is thinner and less flexible, the cells just beneath the surface are more variable, and (6) wrinkles are more visible, particularly around the eyes. (7) Age spots, tiny blood vessels, and other imperfections appear around age 40.

Hair usually becomes (1) thinner and (2) gray. (3) Body hair becomes less dense. (4) An occasional thick, unwanted hair may appear on the chin, inside the nose, or in some other place.

In the body, (1) "middle-age spread" increases waist circumference; (2) all the muscles weaken; and (3) pockets of fat settle on the abdomen, the upper arms, the buttocks, and the chin. (4) People stoop slightly when they stand. By late middle age, adults are (5) shorter than they were earlier in life.

Agility declines due to (1) shrinking muscles, (2) less-flexible joints, (3) increasing stiffness, and (4) difficulty in bending.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe physical Describes two Describes one physical Does not describe at changes in skin, hair, physical changes in change in skin, hair, least one physical body shape, and skin, hair, body shape, body shape, and change for each: skin, physical agility and physical agility physical agility (four hair, body shape, and (eight total) total) physical agility

2. Summarize three age-related changes in hearing and three age-related changes in vision.

ANSWER: Every sense becomes less acute with each decade of age. With respect to vision, (1) peripheral vision decreases, (2) color perception fades, (3) farsightedness increases, (4) nearsightedness decreases, and (5) night vision worsens. (6) Motion perception and (7) contrast sensitivity both slow down. (8) Brighter lights are needed in order to see things.

Hearing loss also occurs throughout adulthood, with (1) high frequencies being the hardest to hear.

(2) Presbycusis ("aging hearing") is rarely diagnosed before age 60, even if whispers were inaudible years before. In middle age, many people experience occasional signs of future hearing problems: (3) ringing in the ears, (4) muffled sounds, and (5) temporary deafness.

Explain how senescence affects vision Explain how senescence affects hearing

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains three ways in Explains two ways in Explains one or no which senescence which senescence ways in which affects vision affects vision senescence affects vision Explains three ways in Explains two ways in Explains one or no which senescence which senescence ways in which affects hearing affects hearing senescence affects hearing

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Essay 3. Describe what happens to sexual responsiveness as individuals age and indicate the degree to which individuals are sexually active during adulthood.

ANSWER: Most people are sexually active throughout adulthood, although for both genders, (1) sexual arousal occurs more slowly with age, (2) orgasm takes longer to achieve, and (3) the length of recovery after orgasm increases.

(1) A study of women aged 40 and older found that although sexual activity decreased each decade, satisfaction did not. (2) A British study of more than 2,000 adults in their 50s found that almost all of them were sexually active (94 percent of the men and 76 percent of the women) and that most were satisfied with their sex lives. (3) A study of 38,207 adults in the United States who had been in committed relationships for more than three years found that about half were highly satisfied with their sex lives, but about a third were not.

Describe sexual responsiveness as individuals age

Indicate degree of sexual activity in adulthood

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes sexual Describes sexual Does not give either responsiveness as responsiveness as fact about sexual individuals age— individuals age— responsiveness listed states both facts listed states one of the facts in paragraph one in paragraph one listed in paragraph one Indicates general Indicates general Does not indicate degree of sexual degree of sexual degree of sexual activity in adulthood activity in adulthood activity in adulthood by stating two of the by stating one of the (states none of the facts in paragraph two facts in paragraph two facts from paragraph two)

4. Violetta, age 50, is going through menopause. Recently, they have been experiencing hot flashes, cold sweats, and increased irritability. They want to talk to their doctor about hormone replacement therapy (HRT), but they are not sure whether it is right for them. Explain research findings on the concerns over and the benefits of HRT. ANSWER: Initial research correlated hormone replacement therapy with positive health outcomes, such as (1) reduced risk of dementia, (2) stroke, (3) heart disease, and (4) osteoporosis (fragile bones), but further research demonstrated that a third variable affecting these outcomes was likely. The higher SES of HRT-takers was actually the underlying reason for the reduced incidence of these diseases.

In addition, studies indicated that prolonged use of estrogen and progesterone could actually (4) increase the risk of disease.

According to current research on HRT, benefits include (1) decreased osteoporosis and (2) decreased symptoms of menopause, although its use is associated with an (3) increased risk for breast cancer, (4) stroke, and (5) heart disease.

Discuss concerns

Good (5 pts.)

Discusses three concerns associated with HRT

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discusses two concerns Discusses one or associated with HRT no concerns Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Essay associated with HRT Identify benefits Identifies three benefits of of HRT HRT

associated with HRT Identifies two benefits of Identifies one or no HRT benefits of HRT

5. Identify three consequences of obesity and three ways in which nutrition relates to obesity rates.

ANSWER: Excess body fat (1) increases the risk of almost every chronic disease. One example is (2) diabetes, which is rapidly becoming more common and causes eye, heart, and foot problems as well as early death. The consequences of obesity are psychological as well, because overweight adults are targets of scorn and prejudice, being (3) less likely to be chosen as marriage partners, (4) employees, and (5) even friends. The stigma endured by people who are obese may lead them to engage in unhealthy habits, such as avoiding medical checkups, eating more, and exercising less.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify consequences Identifies three Identifies two Identifies one or no of obesity consequences of consequences of consequences of obesity obesity obesity Identify ways in Identifies three ways Identifies two ways in Identifies one or no which nutrition relates in which nutrition which nutrition relates ways in which to obesity rates relates to obesity rates to obesity rates nutrition relates to obesity rates

6. Explain how income is related to health in adulthood.

ANSWER: Worldwide, high-SES adults live longer, avoiding morbidity and disability more than their fellow citizens. Even in nations with universal health care, the poorest people have shorter lives on average.

SES protects health between nations as well as within them. For example, a baby born in 2015 in a high-income nation can expect to live to age 80; but if that baby happens to be born in a low-income nation; life expectancy is only 61. Within the United States, the overall risk of dying between ages 25 and 65 is about 15 percent, but for the poorest groups it is as high as 50 percent and for the richest less than 2 percent. Overall, the 10 million U.S. residents with the highest SES outlive the 10 million with the lowest SES by about 30 years on average. Every health risk in the United States is more prevalent among those below the poverty line than among those above it. Without doubt, low SES harms human development in every way, evident in statistics on mortality, morbidity, disability, and vitality.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains the Explains more than 2 Explains 1–2 Does not explain the relationship between associations between associations between relationship between income and health income and health income and health income and health

7. There are four metrics for measuring health. Identify two of these and provide an explanation.

ANSWER: The four metrics are mortality, morbidity, disability, and well-being or vitality. Mortality is another word for a person's susceptibility to death. Morbidity is illness or disease, which can be acute or chronic. Disability refers to difficulty or inability to do something because of a "physical, mental, or Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Essay emotional condition." Vitality is how alive and energetic a person feels.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains two metrics Explains two metrics Explains one metric Does not explain any for measuring health for measuring health for measuring health metrics for measuring health

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice 1. Adulthood covers the four decades of life between ages _____ and _____. a. 15; 55 b. 25; 65 c. 35; 75 d. 45; 85 ANSWER: b 2. Yanira, who is 55 years old, did not realize how much their physical appearance had changed until they saw a picture of their self-taken 30 years ago. Yanira's gradual change in physical appearance was due to _____. a. senescence b. homeostasis c. organ reserve d. allostasis ANSWER: a 3. Chandan is 45 years old. If they are typical of their age, they will state that they feel _____ their chronological age. a. significantly older than b. exactly c. half d. 5 to 10 years younger than ANSWER: d 4. Most adults are not aware of senescence until about age 60 or so due to _____. a. denial b. homeostasis c. increasing neurons d. dementia ANSWER: b 5. Once a person has reached adulthood, oxygen dispersal into the bloodstream from the lungs drops about 4 percent _____. a. each year b. every 5 years c. each decade d. each day ANSWER: c 6. Testosterone levels are directly associated with: a. vision changes. b. audition.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice c. hair loss. d. skin changes.

ANSWER: c 7. Jerrik is a biological male who is now losing hair on the top of their head and less on the sides. This is known as: a. andropause. b. senescence. c. menopause. d. male pattern baldness.

ANSWER: d 8. Which of these is a common sign of skin senescence? a. nearsightedness b. hair loss c. wrinkles d. peripheral vision changes ANSWER: c 9. The rate of skin aging is associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. exposure to ultraviolet light. b. drug use. c. diet. d. daily exercise.

ANSWER: d 10. Arunas goes on a jog daily. This is likely to do which of these? a. decrease immune system functioning b. increase their lung capacity c. increase senescence d. dull the senses ANSWER: b 11. What happens to peripheral vision with age? a. It widens. b. It gets brighter. c. It narrows. d. It gets fuzzy.

ANSWER: c 12. The first visible signs of senescence are usually observed in a person's _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice a. gait b. posture c. skin d. eyes ANSWER: c 13. A group of friends, all about 60 years of age, are playing cards. Which characteristic of senescence do they MOST likely have in common? a. They are unable to drive. b. Their faces have wrinkles. c. They wear hearing aids. d. They are nearsighted.

ANSWER: b 14. In middle adulthood, a person is MOST likely to lose _____. a. a significant amount of weight b. nearly an inch in height c. the ability to run more than a mile d. the ability to experience orgasm ANSWER: b 15. At a recent physical exam, Ebner was told that they are an inch shorter than they were five years ago at age 65. What caused this decrease in height? a. hereditary height shrinkage b. lack of calcium in their diet c. age-related compression of the spine d. effects of medication ANSWER: c 16. Zakhar is 50 years old. Which activity is likely MOST difficult for them to do? a. read a book b. cook dinner c. talk to a friend d. dance a waltz ANSWER: d 17. Which physical change does NOT typically occur in middle adulthood? a. Hair thins and some gray hairs start to show. b. Skin—especially on the face—has lines or wrinkles. c. Muscles weaken, and the waistline widens. d. The spaces between the spinal disks widen.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 18. Which vision change is NOT associated with aging? a. longer adjustment time to darkness b. decreasing farsightedness c. slowed motion perception d. peripheral vision decreases ANSWER: b 19. Middle-aged Rehema and their adolescent daughter are sitting at the table reading the newspaper. Rehema is holding their section of the newspaper rather far from their eyes. Their daughter asks, "Dad, why are you holding the paper so far away? If I held it that far away, I could not read anything!" Rehema replies, "I think it is because I am developing _____." a. nearsightedness b. farsightedness c. presbycusis d. macular degeneration ANSWER: b 20. Hearing is most acute at about age _____. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 35 ANSWER: b 21. Natalie, age 67, is experiencing some symptoms of age-related hearing loss. If they are typical for their age, which sound would be the LEAST audible for them? a. a low, bass beat b. music on headphones c. ringing in the ears d. the voice of a small child ANSWER: d 22. Which experience is LEAST likely to be associated with hearing loss? a. working a job in construction b. attending a rock concert c. watching television d. listening to music through headphones ANSWER: c 23. After age 65, _____ is the third MOST common cause of death.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice a. obesity b. hypertension c. inability to breathe d. poor circulation ANSWER: c 24. At which age is an individual likely to experience the slowest sexual arousal? a. 18 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 ANSWER: d 25. Generally, middle-aged adults in committed relationships are MOST likely to report being _____ with their sex lives. a. extremely satisfied b. satisfied c. dissatisfied d. extremely dissatisfied ANSWER: a 26. A study of women in the United States aged 40 and older found that sexual activity _____. a. and satisfaction increased each decade b. and satisfaction decreased each decade c. increased each decade, but satisfaction did not d. decreased each decade, but satisfaction did not ANSWER: d 27. In the United States, sterilization is common after age _____. a. 25 b. 30 c. 33 d. 35 ANSWER: d 28. Most couples in _____ rely on sterilization to control family size. a. the United States b. Canada c. Brazil d. India ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice 29. For both men and women, as they age, _____. a. sexual responses come quicker b. sex-hormone levels increase c. reproduction becomes less likely d. fertility increases ANSWER: c 30. Infertility is often defined as being unable to conceive after _____ months of trying to get pregnant. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: d 31. When a person has already had a child but is now unable to conceive another, what has occurred? a. primary infertility b. menopause c. andropause d. secondary infertility ANSWER: d 32. Which of these pregnant persons is MOST likely to experience birth complications? a. Rama, age 19 b. Deja, age 28 c. Hulda, age 36 d. Gertruda, age 44 ANSWER: d 33. Luana and Erminio are both in their 40s. They spent their previous adult years focusing on their education and careers. Now that they feel that they are financially secure and successful, they want to have a baby. Luana and Erminio should know that couples in their 40s have a _____ percent infertility rate. a. 25 b. 40 c. 50 d. 65 ANSWER: c 34. Which woman is at her peak fertility? a. Priti, who is 20 b. Drea, who is 30 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice c. Ginette, who is 35 d. Sonia, who is 40 ANSWER: a 35. After about a year of trying for a baby, a couple sees their physician. The couple finds out that the man has a low sperm count, which may explain the difficulty they are having. What should the man avoid in order to improve their sperm count? a. sitting for more than 20 minutes at a time b. carbohydrates c. alcohol d. outside exercise ANSWER: c 36. Women are LEAST likely to know they have _____, a disease that is specifically linked to infertility. a. HIV b. Huntington's c. chlamydia d. PID ANSWER: d 37. During the past 50 years, advances in medicine have solved about half of all _____. a. age-related diseases b. fertility problems c. sexually transmitted infections d. birth control side effects ANSWER: b 38. A couple has been trying to conceive a child for 12 months. They decide to consult a doctor about their inability to conceive. After several tests, the doctor suggests that perhaps they will need to use _____ because of a low sperm count. a. natural methods b. arranged reproductive technology c. assisted reproductive technology d. alternative medical technology ANSWER: c 39. Myra is currently going through menopause. How old are they likely to be? a. 35 b. 45 c. 51 d. 60 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 40. A drop in sex hormones in a woman's bloodstream along with cessation of ovulation and menstruation signal _____. a. menopause b. andropause c. cancer d. a need for assisted reproductive technology ANSWER: a 41. Mimmi is a 50-year-old cisgender female and is experiencing vaginal dryness, hot flashes, and cold sweats.

They are MOST likely entering _____. a. menopause b. andropause c. depression d. IVF ANSWER: a 42. Which statement about hormone replacement therapy is TRUE? a. It involves replacing testosterone that naturally declines with age. b. Research on its use has yielded consistent findings. c. Some findings may have been affected by SES. d. It increases the risk of osteoporosis.

ANSWER: c 43. In controlled longitudinal studies, the U.S. Women's Health Initiative found that taking estrogen and progesterone _____ the risk of heart disease, stroke, and breast cancer. a. increased b. decreased c. eliminated d. had no impact on ANSWER: a 44. Biological women experience menopause; biological men experience _____. a. testeropause b. menarche c. andropause d. spermatopause ANSWER: c 45. The term "andropause," or "male menopause," is sometimes used to refer to _____. a. the sudden loss in fertility in a middle-aged man Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice b. the sudden drop in testosterone that generally occurs at about age 50 c. the age-related reduction in testosterone d. impotence as a reaction to a wife's menopause ANSWER: c 46. At a recent visit, Murad's doctor informed them that they are at an age when they are likely to experience lower testosterone levels. Murad was informed that, due to lower testosterone levels, they could experience a reduction in all of these EXCEPT _____. a. sexual desire b. muscle mass c. erections d. hair loss ANSWER: d 47. Thousands of scientists have found that _____ helps virtually every age-related condition that people encounter. a. weight-loss surgery b. exercise c. low-fat diets d. moderate alcohol consumption ANSWER: b 48. Phokas wants to be more physically active. Their friend knows the research on what helps adults be more active and suggests that Phokas _____. a. move to a neighborhood with walking paths and sidewalks b. reduce the number of hours they work c. join a gym with an expensive membership fee so they will feel guilty if they do not go to the gym d. donate $10 to a local charity for each day that they do not exercise ANSWER: a 49. The leading risk factor for many diseases is _____. a. tobacco use b. a high carbohydrate diet c. radiation exposure d. divorce ANSWER: a 50. In the United States, about one in two adults consume: a. alcohol. b. aspirin. c. caffeine.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice d. opiate medication.

ANSWER: a 51. Research studies on alcohol use have shown that _____. a. alcohol use of any kind is dangerous to health b. alcohol raises levels of "bad" cholesterol in the blood c. moderate use of alcohol may increase longevity d. alcohol abuse is most common during adolescence ANSWER: c 52. As Burhan grabbed a fourth beer, they announced to everyone at the party that alcohol is healthy in moderation. How does the text define "moderation"? a. one drink per day b. two drinks per day c. three drinks per day d. three drinks per week ANSWER: b 53. Which global trend is evident with regard to alcohol? a. Affluent nations have more abstainers and abusers than low-income nations. b. Affluent nations have more heavy drinkers than low-income nations. c. Low-income nations have more abstainers and abusers than affluent nations. d. Low-income nations have more moderate drinkers than affluent nations.

ANSWER: c 54. Which of these psychoactive substances may be associated with increased use during adulthood? a. marijuana b. prescription medications c. heroine d. methamphetamine ANSWER: b 55. _____ is/are thought to be one cause of an epidemic of heroin deaths, which have more than tripled from 2010 to 2014. a. Prescription opioids b. Benzodiazepines (for treating anxiety) c. Chronic pain disorders d. Increased alcoholism ANSWER: a 56. The World Health Organization calls _____ "the single largest preventable cause of death and chronic disease in the world today."

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice a. opiate use b. HIV c. tobacco d. alcohol ANSWER: c 57. In countries with very low average income, smoking rates tend to increase with _____. a. degree of poverty b. age c. rates of pregnancy d. income ANSWER: d 58. Research has found that between the ages of 20 and 60, _____. a. every extra pound is a health hazard b. it is okay to be overweight, as long as one is not obese c. metabolism slows down by about a third d. adults need to consume more calories ANSWER: c 59. Osvald, who is 60, could not understand why they kept slowly gaining weight. They were eating the same amount of food that they had each day since they were 20, and they got regular exercise. What could explain their weight gain? a. Their metabolism had slowed down. b. They are likely very ill; this situation is very unusual. c. They really were not gaining weight; their height was decreasing. d. They overate due to regular exercise.

ANSWER: a 60. Based on demographic trends, which of these middle-aged adults is MOST likely to be obese? a. Ottmar, who is Caucasian b. Hayato, who is Asian c. Amadi, who is African American d. Samuel, who is Latina ANSWER: c 61. Currently in the United States, _____ of adults are overweight. a. one-third b. one-half c. two-thirds d. three-quarters Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 62. Basu is considered obese. This is because they _____. a. snack several times a day b. have a BMI of 30 or more c. consume foods that are high in cholesterol d. diet often but always gain back the weight ANSWER: b 63. Regular exercise helps adults in all of these ways EXCEPT _____. a. eliminating the impact of tobacco use b. reducing the risk of depression c. protecting against many diseases d. strengthening the heart ANSWER: a 64. Which statement about weight-loss surgery in obese adults is FALSE? a. Death rates without it are higher for morbidly obese adults. b. About 10 percent of patients will require additional surgery. c. Such surgery decreases the need for life-changing habits. d. The surgery causes dramatic weight loss.

ANSWER: c 65. According to the text, which of these factors can protect health? a. income b. attitudes c. grit d. expectations ANSWER: a 66. Which statement does NOT describe the effect of SES on people's life spans? a. Those with higher levels of education tend to live longer than those with less. b. In the United States, the difference in life span between those with the lowest and with the highest SES is about 30 years. c. The impact of SES on life span is decreasing in the United States. d. Better income may result in better medical care.

ANSWER: c 67. Which of these individuals is MOST likely to live the longest with the least amount of disability? a. Serdar, who has a high school diploma b. Riika, who has a two-year postsecondary degree Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice c. Nilus, who has a four-year postsecondary degree d. Vlad, who has a law degree ANSWER: d 68. _____ harms human development in every way, evident in statistics on mortality, morbidity, disability, and vitality. a. Early childbearing b. Overweight c. Divorce d. Low SES ANSWER: d 69. Moderation in alcohol consumption is generally defined as _____ day. a. no more than one drink per b. no more than two drinks a c. a minimum of three drinks per d. no more than three drinks a ANSWER: b 70. Neith drinks alcohol in moderation. This means that they drink _____day. a. no more than one drink per b. no more than two drinks a c. a minimum of three drinks per d. no more than four drinks a ANSWER: b 71. Alcohol use disorder is associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. liver damage. b. osteoporosis. c. increased fertility. d. suicide.

ANSWER: c 72. A diet that is high in fruits, vegetables, nuts, and olive oil is called: a. the cabbage diet. b. the paleo diet. c. the Dukan diet. d. the Mediterranean diet.

ANSWER: d 73. A person's susceptibility to death is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice a. morbidity. b. disability. c. well-being. d. mortality.

ANSWER: d 74. What indicates how long a baby born in a particular place and time is expected to live? a. mortality b. morbidity c. average life expectancy d. expected lifespan ANSWER: c 75. Illnesses and impairments of all kinds are called: a. morbidity. b. disability. c. well-being. d. mortality.

ANSWER: a 76. The fact that women have lower rates of mortality but higher rates of morbidity indicates a: a. gender paradox. b. sex bias. c. mortality bias. d. sexist system.

ANSWER: a 77. How alive and energetic a person feels is called: a. mortality. b. vitality. c. morbidity. d. disability.

ANSWER: b 78. A number that indicates how many years of total well-being are lost because of a disability is called: a. ADLs. b. QALYs. c. IADLs. d. DALYs. ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 20 - Multiple Choice 79. A number that indicates quality years added because of a full life is called: a. ADLs. b. QALYs. c. IADLs. d. DALYs. ANSWER: b 80. What was the worldwide average life expectancy in 2020? a. 45 b. 60 c. 72 d. 85 ANSWER: c 81. Both breast and prostate cancer affects _____ women or men. a. 1 in 10 b. 1 in 7 c. 2 in 8 d. 3 in 10 ANSWER: b 82. ADLs are associated with _____ where IADLs are associated with _____. a. mortality; morbidity b. morbidity; mortality c. physical disabilities; cognitive disabilities d. cognitive disabilities; physical disabilities ANSWER: c

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Essay 1. Who introduced the concept of "general intelligence," or g? What does g stand for, and how can it be measured?

ANSWER: Charles Spearman proposed that there is a single entity, "general intelligence," which he called g.

Spearman contended that although g cannot be measured directly, it can be inferred from various abilities, such as vocabulary, memory, and reasoning.

Answer three questions posed about g

Good (5 pts.)

Answers all three questions correctly

Fair (3 pts.)

Answers two of the questions correctly

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Answers one or none of the questions correctly

2. Compare and contrast cross-sectional and longitudinal research that has examined IQ. Explain why results may differ. Which research design is scientifically valid in assessing age-related changes in IQ? ANSWER: Cross-sectional studies find that younger adults outscore older adults on IQ tests. Yet longitudinal studies find that intelligence increases across the adulthood years. The difference in results is due to cohort effects. Each cohort has unique life experiences that influence intellectual development. In particular, more education and better health may explain why younger generations score higher than older generations on intelligence tests. The longitudinal and cross-sequential research designs are scientifically valid in assessing age-related changes in IQ. Good (5 pts.)

Answer four Answers all four questions relating to questions research on IQ

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Answers three of the Answers two or fewer four questions of the four questions

3. Briefly outline the Seattle Longitudinal Study and identify the specific research design. State the five mental abilities assessed by the study and communicate at least three facts discovered about mental abilities across adulthood.

ANSWER: At the University of Washington in 1956, K. Warner Schaie tested a cross section of 500 adults, ages 20 to 50, on five standard primary mental abilities considered to be the foundation of intelligence: (1) verbal meaning (vocabulary), (2) spatial orientation, (3) inductive reasoning, (4) number abilities, and (5) word fluency (rapid verbal association). The study used a cross-sequential research design.

Schaie confirmed that (1) people improve in most mental abilities during adulthood. (2) Each ability has a distinct pattern at each age and for each gender. There is a gradual rise and (3) then eventual decline of all abilities, with (4) men initially better at number skills and (5) women at verbal skills, and (6) gender convergence over time. Schaie found that (7) everyone declines by age 60 in at least one of the basic abilities, but (8) declines in all five skills are not apparent in everyone until age 88.

Good (5 pts.)

Briefly outline the Briefly outlines the Seattle Longitudinal Seattle Longitudinal Study and identify the Study and identifies specific research the specific research Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Briefly outlines the Seattle Longitudinal Study or identifies the specific research

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not outline the Seattle Longitudinal Study or identify the specific research Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Essay design State the mental abilities assessed State what was discovered about intelligence during adulthood

design design design States the five mental States four of the five States three or fewer abilities assessed mental abilities of the five mental assessed abilities assessed States three or more States two facts States one or no facts facts discovered about discovered about discovered about intelligence during intelligence during intelligence during adulthood adulthood adulthood

4. How did Sternberg describe intelligence? What are the three forms of intelligence, according to Sternberg?

Identify when each might be most valued with respect to development.

ANSWER: Analytic intelligence involves such mental processes as abstract planning, strategy selection, focused attention, and information processing as well as verbal and logical skills. Analytic intelligence fosters academic proficiency by making possible efficient learning, remembering, and thinking. Analytic intelligence is usually valued during high school and college.

Creative intelligence involves the capacity to be intellectually flexible and innovative. It is useful if one needs to write a new novel or song, restructure local government, create an advertising display, or invent a new gadget. Creative intelligence is valued when life circumstances change and new challenges arise or if one "builds a better mousetrap" that results in a financial windfall.

Practical intelligence involves the capacity to adapt one's behavior to the demands of a given situation. This capacity includes an accurate grasp of the expectations and needs of the people involved and an awareness of the particular skills that are called for, along with the ability to use these insights effectively. Practical intelligence is sometimes called "tacit intelligence" or "street smarts," because it is not obvious on tests. Practical intelligence is the most highly valued throughout adulthood, because every adult needs to solve real-world challenges.

Good (5 pts.)

Name and describe Names and describes Sternberg's forms Sternberg's three forms of intelligence of intelligence Identify when each form of intelligence is most valued

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names and describes Names and describes two of Sternberg's one or none of three forms of Sternberg's three intelligence forms of intelligence Identifies when all three Identifies when two of Identifies when one or forms of intelligence are the forms of none of the forms of most valued intelligence are most intelligence is most valued valued

5. Define fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. Describe age-related changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence, including how each type of intelligence relates to overall IQ scores.

ANSWER: Fluid intelligence is the type of basic intelligence that makes new learning of all sorts quick and thorough and includes such abilities as short-term memory, abstract thought, and speed of thinking.

Crystallized intelligence reflects accumulated learning, such as vocabulary and general knowledge of facts.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Essay Fluid intelligence decreases with age, while crystallized intelligence increases. A person's IQ, which is composed of scores from fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence subtests, is fairly steady from ages 30 to 70. Although brain slowdown begins approximately at age 20, it is rarely apparent until massive declines in fluid intelligence affect crystallized intelligence, causing overall IQ scores to drop.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define fluid Defines fluid Defines fluid Does not define fluid intelligence intelligence and intelligence or intelligence or and crystallized crystallized crystallized crystallized intelligence intelligence intelligence intelligence Indicate what Indicates what Indicates what Does not indicate what happens to both types happens to both types happens to both types happens to both types of intelligence as of intelligence as of intelligence as of intelligence as people age and how people age and how people age or how people age or how each relates to overall each relates to overall each relates to overall each relates to overall IQ scores IQ scores IQ scores IQ scores

6. What is selective optimization with compensation? Provide two examples outlining how actions, related to this theory, can aid adults who may be experiencing physical or cognitive declines.

ANSWER: Paul and Margret Baltes developed the theory of selective optimization with compensation to explain the way in which people maintain a balance in their lives by looking for the best way to compensate for physical and cognitive losses and to become more proficient in activities they do well. Such choices are critical, because every ability can be enhanced or diminished, depending on how, when, and why a person uses it. As such, selective optimization means that each person selects certain aspects of their intelligence to optimize and neglects the rest. If those aspects that are ignored happen to be the ones measured by IQ tests, then intelligence scores will fall, even if a person's selection results in improvement (optimization) in other areas of intellect. Examples of selective optimization with compensation include (1) using reading glasses, (2) enlarging the font on a computer screen, (3) wearing hearing aids, and (4) reducing multitasking. Sometimes older adults (5) write everything down—using their own shorthand and symbols—to compensate for their failing memories.

Good (5 pts.)

Define selective Defines selective optimization with optimization with compensation and tell compensation and how it relates to adult tells how it relates to intelligence adult intelligence Give an example of Gives two examples selective optimization of selective with compensation optimization with compensation

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines selective Does not define optimization with selective optimization compensation or tells with compensation or how it relates to tell how it relates to intelligence adult intelligence Gives one example of Does not give an selective optimization example of selective with compensation optimization with compensation

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Essay 7. Identify and describe the four ways in which experts think.

ANSWER: Expert thought is (1) intuitive, (2) automatic, (3) strategic, and (4) flexible. Intuitive means that experts rely more on their past experiences and on the immediate context when thinking than on formal procedures and rules. Automatic means that the complex action and thought required by most people facing a problem have become routine for experts, making it appear that most aspects of a task are performed instinctively by the expert. Strategic means that experts have more and better strategies to solve problems, especially when problems are unexpected or unusual. Flexible means that experts do not need to follow one pattern of thought but can adapt their thinking to situations and even enjoy doing so.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identify and describe Identifies and Identifies and Identifies and the ways in which describes the four describes three of the describes two or fewer experts think ways in which experts ways in which experts ways in which experts think think think

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice 1. Which psychologist proposed the existence of g? a. Charles Spearman b. Louis Thurstone c. Howard Gardner d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: a 2. The term g refers to "_____ intelligence." a. grand b. general c. great d. gross ANSWER: b 3. Professor Rosario is assessing the g, or general intelligence, of college students. They will likely assess abilities in all of these areas EXCEPT _____. a. memory b. vocabulary c. reasoning d. agility ANSWER: d 4. Based on the results of cross-sectional intelligence testing, _____ for the first half of the twentieth century. a. younger generations were considered to be smarter than older ones b. older generations were considered to be smarter than younger ones c. older generations were considered to know entirely different things than younger ones d. younger and older generations were considered equally smart ANSWER: a 5. Tadg, a tenth grade high school student, tells the school counselor that they believe they are at the peak of their intellectual ability. The counselor responds that _____, based on research evidence from longitudinal studies on intelligence. a. they are correct b. their intellectual abilities will actually peak during college and then start to decline c. their intellectual abilities will increase throughout adulthood d. there is no way to know whether they are or not ANSWER: c 6. A problem with cross-sectional research is that _____. a. there could be cohort effects, as each has unique life experiences b. retesting leads older subjects to do better Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice c. the most intelligent people are most likely to drop out of the study d. the results tend not to be worth the large investment ANSWER: a 7. A psychologist who is studying the mathematical abilities of adults finds significant differences between the scores of adults born 50 years ago, when rote learning was stressed, and those born 25 years ago, when more progressive approaches to education were popular. This is an example of a(n) _____. a. failure of longitudinal research b. advantage of cross-sectional research c. cohort difference d. intellectual decline in middle adulthood ANSWER: c 8. The "Flynn effect" refers to the _____. a. rise in an individual's IQ over the years b. decrease in an individual's IQ over the years c. rise in average IQ over the generations d. decrease in average IQ over the generations ANSWER: c 9. The Flynn effect is MOST likely due to changes in _____. a. test-taking strategies b. electronic media c. people's reaction times d. education and health ANSWER: d 10. The Wilson family is having a big reunion, with four generations planning to attend. Applying the Flynn effect to this family, we would expect that _____ on a standard IQ test. a. the first generation of Wilsons would score the highest b. the fourth generation of Wilsons would score the highest c. the second and third generations of Wilsons would score similarly d. all four generations would score similarly ANSWER: b 11. Lena, who is in good health, scores lower on an intelligence test compared to their grandchild Karma. This could be for all of these reasons EXCEPT Lena _____. a. and Karma having different educational experiences b. and Karma having different health issues c. and Karma having different health care experiences d. losing intellectual power as they age Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 12. Longitudinal research on measuring intelligence is more accurate than cross-sectional research. However, there are three drawbacks to this research design. Which of these is NOT one of the drawbacks? a. an inability to determine continuity and discontinuity of intellectual development b. unusual events affecting each cohort, and more mundane changes making the data on one cohort less relevant to later cohorts c. the loss of some participants across time, which could skew the results d. repeated testing provides practice, which could improve scores ANSWER: a 13. Professor Colton is studying intellectual development in adulthood. In order to generate the MOST accurate view of intellectual development, they will likely use which research design? a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal c. cross-sequential d. case study ANSWER: c 14. The _____ Study was the first cross-sequential study of adult intelligence. a. Wisconsin Longitudinal b. Oxford c. Midlife in the United States d. Seattle Longitudinal ANSWER: d 15. K. Warner Schaie's cross-sequential research on intellectual development studies _____. a. verbal meaning, spatial orientation, inductive reasoning, number ability, and word fluency b. verbal meaning, deductive reasoning, inductive reasoning, number ability, and word fluency c. deductive reasoning, spatial orientation, inductive reasoning, number ability, and word fluency d. verbal meaning, spatial orientation, inductive reasoning, number ability, and deductive reasoning ANSWER: a 16. K. Warner Schaie's cross-sequential research on intellectual development demonstrates that _____. a. there is a decline in most abilities after age 30 b. individuals improve in most mental abilities during adulthood c. cohort differences make it appear that older people are more intelligent than younger people d. women outperform men on most cognitive tasks ANSWER: b 17. In K. Warner Schaie's study, each successive cohort scored higher in adulthood than did the previous generations in _____ and _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice a. spatial orientation; inductive reasoning b. verbal memory; inductive reasoning c. verbal memory; spatial orientation d. inductive reasoning; number ability ANSWER: b 18. According to the results of K. Warner Schaie's study, which individual would have performed BEST on an assessment of number ability? a. Emil, born in 1912 b. Delano, born in 1924 c. Xavier, born in 1936 d. Frank, born in 1948 ANSWER: b 19. Results from K. Warner Schaie's study reveal that more recent generations of women have intelligence test scores that have _____. a. declined b. increased c. maintained stability d. barely changed ANSWER: b 20. From about age 20 to age 70, _____ seem(s) to have the LEAST influence on intelligence test scores. a. chronological age b. specific genes c. national values d. education ANSWER: a 21. Research has identified that the _____ correlated with adult IQ. a. caudate nuclei b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus ANSWER: a 22. More recent research has confirmed the findings of the famous _____. a. Knowledge of Infant Development Test b. Seattle Longitudinal Study c. cross-sectional study conducted by the U.S. Army d. research on sensory memory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. Which of these may be associated with math skills declining between cohorts? a. changes to the education system b. increased literacy scores c. advances in technology d. adults not using math frequently ANSWER: b 24. Between the ages of 20 and 70 years, which of these does NOT impact intelligence? a. national values b. personal experiences c. years of education d. IQ of their own children ANSWER: d 25. Research on adult intelligence has demonstrated that intelligence is all of these EXCEPT _____. a. multidirectional b. multicultural c. plastic d. cross-sequential ANSWER: d 26. The direction of the relationship between the following has not yet been determined. a. working memory and fluid intelligence b. analytic intelligence and working memory c. short-term memory and crystallized intelligence d. fluid and crystallized intelligence ANSWER: a 27. Jolanta is taking a timed exam for their biology class. This exam is testing their _____. a. working memory b. general intelligence c. creative intelligence d. practical intelligence ANSWER: a 28. Alon has long-term memory for most of world history events. This is an example of _____. a. working memory b. fluid intelligence c. crystallized intelligence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice d. short-term memory ANSWER: c 29. Neurological research has found that network connections in the brain underlie _____. a. fluid intelligence b. crystallized intelligence c. both fluid and crystallized intelligence d. working memory ANSWER: c 30. Erik is high in fluid intelligence. This means that they are likely to be _____. a. high in sensory memory b. low in fluid intelligence c. low in crystallized intelligence d. high in crystallized intelligence ANSWER: d 31. Which type of intelligence is NOT always obvious on tests? a. fluid intelligence b. analytic intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. practical intelligence ANSWER: d 32. Strategizing is to _____ intelligence as originality is to _____ intelligence. a. practical; analytic b. creative; practical c. analytic; practical d. analytic; creative ANSWER: d 33. Verbal skills are to _____ intelligence as adaptive actions are to _____ intelligence. a. practical; analytic b. creative; practical c. analytic; practical d. analytic; creative ANSWER: c 34. Analytic intelligence is valued for all of these EXCEPT _____. a. analyzing b. thinking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice c. remembering d. originality ANSWER: d 35. Practical intelligence is valued for all of these EXCEPT _____. a. intellectual flexibility b. adaptability c. concrete knowledge d. real-world experience ANSWER: a 36. Creative intelligence is valued for all of these EXCEPT _____. a. future hopes b. originality c. intellectual flexibility d. analyzing ANSWER: d 37. Analytic information can be assessed via all of these EXCEPT _____. a. innovation b. brief essays c. recall of information d. multiple-choice tests ANSWER: a 38. Creative intelligence can be assessed via all of these EXCEPT _____. a. innovation b. inventiveness c. resourcefulness d. recall of information ANSWER: d 39. The two researchers who concluded that fluid and crystallized intelligence are the most crucial aspects of intelligence are _____. a. Nancy Bayley and Melita Oden b. Raymond Cattell and John Horn c. Harold Jones and Herbert Conrad d. Robert Sternberg and Howard Gardner ANSWER: b 40. The basic intelligence that makes learning quick and thorough is referred to as "_____ intelligence."

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice a. fluid b. crystallized c. practical d. creative ANSWER: a 41. Merita is a participant in a research study. They need to decide how Figure A relates to Figures B and C. Merita will need to use _____ intelligence in order to solve this problem. a. creative b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: c 42. Intelligence that reflects accumulated learning is referred to as "_____ intelligence." a. creative b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: d 43. Which example relies MOST heavily on crystallized intelligence? a. putting together a puzzle b. knowing the chemical symbols for various elements c. exhibiting creativity with words d. analyzing relationships between concepts ANSWER: b 44. Yair is asked by their child to help with making a list of all the presidents of the United States for a school project. In order for Yair to help their child, they will need to rely on which type of intelligence? a. creative b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: d 45. With respect to intelligence testing in adulthood, scores on items measuring fluid intelligence _____ with age, and scores on items measuring crystallized intelligence _____ with age. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. decrease; increase Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice d. increase; decrease ANSWER: c 46. The older Beatrice gets, the more difficult it is going to be for them to _____. a. define the word "homemade" b. answer what comes next in the series "4916253" c. recall the seventh president of the United States d. learn the meaning of a new word ANSWER: b 47. Robert Sternberg has proposed _____ fundamental forms of intelligence. a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 11 ANSWER: a 48. According to Robert Sternberg, "analytic intelligence" involves _____. a. the skills used in everyday problem solving b. abstract planning, focused attention, and verbal and logical skills c. the accumulation of facts and knowledge as a result of experience d. the capacity to be intellectually flexible and innovative ANSWER: b 49. When students take multiple-choice exams, they are using the form of intelligence that Robert Sternberg calls "_____." a. academic b. creative c. practical d. analytic ANSWER: d 50. According to Robert Sternberg, a college student who does well on multiple-choice and essay exams likely is high in _____ intelligence. a. analytic b. creative c. practical d. academic ANSWER: a 51. According to Robert Sternberg, creative intelligence requires _____ thinking.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice a. divergent b. convergent c. adaptive d. practical ANSWER: a 52. When Maj is assigned to host a work party for 100 employees with a modest $500 budget, they need to be innovative and imaginative. In order for Maj to host a successful work party, they will need to utilize which type of intelligence? a. creative b. fluid c. immersive d. crystallized ANSWER: a 53. According to Robert Sternberg, intelligence used in everyday problem solving is considered to be _____ intelligence. a. creative b. practical c. analytic d. crystallized ANSWER: b 54. Which of Robert Sternberg's three forms of intelligence is sometimes called "street smarts"? a. creative b. practical c. analytic d. general ANSWER: b 55. Practical intelligence is sometimes called "_____ intelligence," because it is not obvious on tests. a. analytical b. tacit c. intrapersonal d. creative ANSWER: b 56. Practical intelligence, one form of Robert Sternberg's intelligences, would be needed to _____. a. study vocabulary for a foreign language test b. take a standard intelligence test c. improve reading speed Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice d. understand the needs of family members ANSWER: d 57. Abel is a registered nurse who fills in at the local hospital when the staff is in need of nurses. They are frequently called in without advance notice and must take over without any time to get oriented. Abel must rely on what Robert Sternberg calls "_____ intelligence" in order to grasp the expectations and needs of the situation. a. practical b. creative c. flexible d. analytic ANSWER: a 58. The benefits of _____ intelligence in adult life are obvious, as adults need to solve real-world challenges. a. practical b. creative c. flexible d. analytic ANSWER: a 59. Practical intelligence is supported by _____. a. experience and flexibility b. education and wealth c. health and nutrition d. GPA and advanced degrees ANSWER: a 60. Which type of intelligence is usually MOST valued during high school and college? a. creative b. practical c. behavioral d. analytic ANSWER: d 61. Over the long run, _____ intelligence is prized whenever life circumstances change or new challenges arise. a. creative b. crystallized c. analytic d. practical ANSWER: a 62. The Mullers just had their first child. Both parents must now adapt to the new demands of caring for an Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice infant. This will require the form of intelligence that Robert Sternberg calls "_____." a. formal b. creative c. analytic d. practical ANSWER: d 63. What is considered the "silent epidemic" because every year an estimated 69 million people worldwide are affected? a. traumatic brain injury b. PTSD c. OCD d. anxiety ANSWER: a 64. Which of these is a test to measure intelligent parenting? a. Dr. Spock's Assessment of Parent Competence b. Knowledge of Infant Development c. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development d. Creative Child-Rearing Assessment ANSWER: b 65. Which statement about fluid intelligence is TRUE? a. It is the accumulation of facts. b. It is quick and flexible. c. It includes long-term memory for dates in history. d. It includes the size of one's vocabulary.

ANSWER: b 66. Fluid intelligence includes _____. a. a knowledge of geographical facts b. the speed of processing mathematical information c. the size of one's science vocabulary d. the ability to recognize and name famous paintings ANSWER: b 67. Which is the BEST example of fluid intelligence? a. knowing the names of the British monarchs in chronological order b. the ability to quickly recognize relationships between words c. extensive knowledge of computer programming d. the ability to read and interpret an electrocardiogram Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 68. Paul and Margret Baltes have found that adults use their intellectual strengths to offset their age-related declining abilities through the process of "_____." a. compensatory thinking b. selective optimization with compensation c. maturation of compensation d. optimization of maturation and wisdom ANSWER: b 69. Zitkala is 60 years old and realizes that their reading speed and eyesight are not as robust as they were when they were younger. They still enjoy participating in a book club, which requires that a new book be read every week. In order to participate, Zitkala now listens to the books on tape. Zitkala is using _____ in order to participate in the book club. a. compensatory thinking b. selective optimization with compensation c. maturation of compensation d. optimization of maturation and wisdom ANSWER: b 70. Who BEST demonstrates an adult's use of selective optimization with compensation? a. Caetana, who always buys and drives a standard transmission vehicle so they will not forget how to do so b. Daniel, who is learning to play the piano in retirement c. Tamra, who uses sticky-note reminders in their home, office, and car d. Gwythyr, who wears reading glasses due to astigmatism ANSWER: c 71. Who will likely find multitasking to be challenging? a. Reginald, who is 10 years old b. Phaedrus, who is 25 years old c. Samuel, who is 40 years old d. Myrgjol, who is 55 years old ANSWER: d 72. When developmentalists use the term "expert," they usually mean a person who _____. a. is extraordinarily gifted in one area b. has earned advanced credentials in their special area c. is innately skilled d. specializes in activities that are personally meaningful ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice 73. All of these contribute to the development of expertise EXCEPT _____. a. gender b. experience c. accumulated knowledge d. practice ANSWER: a 74. Expert thought is _____. a. intuitive, automatic, practical, and flexible b. intuitive, automatic, strategic, and flexible c. practical, automatic, strategic, and flexible d. intuitive, automatic, strategic, and practical ANSWER: b 75. Experts tend to be intuitive, automatic, _____, and _____ in their thinking. a. strategic; inflexible b. strategic; flexible c. flexible; analytical d. analytical; inflexible ANSWER: b 76. The use of a cell phone while sitting in a class lecture is an example of attempted: a. prioritizing. b. compensation. c. optimization. d. multitasking.

ANSWER: d 77. To solve a problem in their special area, the expert is more likely than the novice to _____. a. rely on past experiences b. give conscious attention to all aspects of the problem c. rely on formal procedures d. verbalize exactly how they achieve results ANSWER: a 78. Alma needs to have surgery, and wants to make sure that the surgeon they choose is the most skilled.

According to the text, which question should Alma ask potential surgeons? a. "Where did you go to medical school?" b. "How often have you performed this operation?" c. "How many years have you been a surgeon?" d. "What was your undergraduate GPA (grade point average)?"

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 79. Compared to novices, experts typically _____. a. work more slowly b. are less flexible c. are more intuitive d. exhibit more arrogance ANSWER: c 80. When the thought required for an action has become routine, and it appears that most aspects of the task are performed instinctively, the performance of the task is _____. a. automatic b. optimized c. compensated d. modified ANSWER: a 81. Thinking that occurs without deliberate, conscious thought is _____ processing. a. strategic b. flexible c. automatic d. intuitive ANSWER: c 82. Manuel's is a highly skilled electrician, and Kerry is their new apprentice. When unexpected problems occur as they work on complex wiring projects, the MOST critical difference between their approaches in successfully completing the job is _____. a. Manuel's automatic processing b. Kerry's trial and error c. Manuel's innate ability d. Kerry's use of trade manuals ANSWER: a 83. The MOST crucial cognitive difference between a skilled person and an unskilled person may be _____. a. strategy b. automatic processing c. intuition d. flexibility ANSWER: a 84. Who is more likely to have the greatest number of strategies? a. Madge, who has been playing chess for 6 months Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice b. Theobald, who has been playing chess for 5 years c. Frode, who has been playing chess for 30 years d. Yanka, who is new to the game of chess but excels at math ANSWER: c 85. The superior strategies of the expert permit selective optimization with compensation. In a study, trained pilots were given directions by air traffic controllers in a flight simulation. The study found that _____ used their own shorthand to illustrate and emphasize ideas. a. experienced pilots took more accurate and complete notes and b. inexperienced pilots took more accurate and complete notes and c. experienced and inexperienced pilots took equally accurate and complete notes and each d. experienced pilots took more accurate and complete notes and inexperienced pilots ANSWER: a 86. The expert artist, musician, or scientist is creative and curious, deliberately experimenting and enjoying the challenge when things do not go according to plan. This suggests that their thinking is more _____. a. automatic b. intuitive c. strategic d. flexible ANSWER: d 87. According to the text, an expert internal medicine doctor may prefer a patient who _____. a. has a clearly diagnosable condition b. is in perfect health c. has symptoms that do not match any diagnosable condition d. does not come in for medical care until their home remedies fail ANSWER: c 88. Which statement about age and expertise is TRUE? a. Expertise can overcome some of the detrimental effects of age, but not all. b. Expertise can compensate for the deterioration that comes with age. c. Female experts are better than male experts at keeping their levels of expertise stable as they age. d. The effects of age apply equally to experts and novices.

ANSWER: a 89. Dr. Fairchild is a middle-aged doctor who is an expert at laser eye surgery for the correction of myopia (nearsightedness). They graduated from medical school 35 years ago. Dr. Pesaresi is a young doctor who also does the surgery; they graduated from medical school five years ago. According to the text, who would likely be the better choice for operating on your eyes? a. Dr. Fairchild; they will probably complete the operation more quickly than Dr. Pesaresi. b. Dr. Fairchild; they have done the operation so often that they are more strategic and flexible.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice c. Dr. Pesaresi; they graduated more recently and know the most recent techniques. d. Dr. Pesaresi; because they are younger, they think faster and can adjust to problems that arise.

ANSWER: b 90. According to the text, who might be the BEST employee at a workplace? a. a 20-year-old who has worked for the company for 1 year and is motivated to do their best b. a 35-year-old who has worked for the company for 10 years but does not have a lot of motivation c. a 45-year-old who has worked for the company for 2 years and is motivated to do their best d. a 50-year-old who has worked for the company for 15 years and is motivated to do their best ANSWER: d 91. Research on taxi drivers in London indicates that drivers with more experience _____. a. develop higher intelligence test scores through their work b. have brains that adjust to the need for a particular kind of knowledge c. become less effective over time as they tune out details d. have slower processing skills than younger drivers ANSWER: b 92. The skill, flexibility, and strategies needed to raise a family are a manifestation of _____. a. expertise b. intelligence c. coping d. weathering ANSWER: a 93. Reindert uses their cell phone extensively. Research has demonstrated that they may be _____. a. vulnerable to depression and anxiety b. at an increased chance of academic intelligence c. outstanding in terms of working memory d. happier compared to those that do not use cell phones ANSWER: a 94. Ongoing disease and destruction of the brain that is caused by repeated trauma is called: a. CTE. b. PTSD. c. ADLs. d. TBI. ANSWER: a 95. What is a psychological disorder characterized by hallucinations, nightmares, anxiety, and terror, that occurs due to past extreme fear and distress?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 17

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 21 - Multiple Choice a. OCD b. PTSD c. bipolar disorder d. depression ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 18

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Essay 1. Describe Erik Erikson's psychosocial stage, generativity versus stagnation. Indicate the three most common ways adults satisfy their need to be generative.

ANSWER: Generativity versus stagnation is the stage associated with adulthood and the need to care for the next generation. Generativity is unselfish caring for others—often of the younger generation—and is a central goal of adulthood. Without generativity, adults experience stagnation and personal impoverishment. Adults satisfy their need to be generative in many ways, especially through (1) parenthood, (2) caregiving (taking care of the needs of others or pets), and (3) employment.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe generativity Describes generativity Gives a vague Does not describe versus stagnation versus stagnation description of generativity versus generativity versus stagnation stagnation Indicate the ways in Indicates three ways Indicates two ways in Indicates one or no which adults are in which adults are which adults are ways in which adults generative generative generative are generative

2. Abraham Maslow is credited for developing the theory of humanism. Describe the five hierarchical needs that he proposed.

ANSWER: Abraham Maslow proposed the theory of humanism, which consists of a series of needs, arranged in a pyramid or hierarchy. The five needs are: (1) Physiological, or needing food, water, warmth, and air.

(2) Safety, or feeling protected from injury and death.

(3) Love and belonging, or having friends, family, and a community (often religious).

(4) Esteem, or being respected by the wider community as well as by oneself.

(5) Self-actualization, or becoming truly oneself, fulfilling one's unique potential while appreciating life.

Describe the five hierarchical needs

Good (5 pts.)

Describes the five hierarchical needs

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes three of the Describes two or hierarchical needs fewer of the hierarchical needs

3. Define and explain how the Big Five personality traits are important. Name and describe each of these traits.

ANSWER: The Big Five traits are five basic clusters of personality traits that remain quite stable through adulthood. Each person is somewhere between extremely high and extremely low on each of these five personality traits. Adults choose their vocations, hobbies, health habits, friends, and neighborhoods at least in part because of the following personality traits: Agreeableness, being kind, helpful, easygoing, generous Extroversion, being outgoing, assertive, active Openness, being imaginative, curious, artistic, creative, open to new experiences Conscientiousness, being organized, deliberate, conforming, self-disciplined Neuroticism, being anxious, moody, self-punishing, critical Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Essay Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define and explain Defines and explains Defines or explains Does not define or the importance of the the importance of the the importance of the explain the Big Five Big Five Big Five importance of the Big Five Name and describe Names and describes Names and describes Names and describes each personality trait five personality traits four personality traits three or fewer personality traits

4. Mr. and Mrs. Janvier, happily married, have two adult children. Basant, their youngest, just left for college.

Their older child has been on their own for a few years already. Which term is used to describe when parents are alone again after the children have left? Is this a stressful time for the majority of middle-aged adults?

Explain.

ANSWER: The Janviers are experiencing the empty nest. No, this is not necessarily a stressful time. For many couples, this is a time for improved relationships. Simply having time for each other, without crying babies, demanding children, or rebellious teenagers, improves intimacy. Parents can focus on their mates, doing together whatever they both enjoy.

Identify the term empty nest

Good (5 pts.)

Identifies the term empty nest

Explain that this is Explains that this is a a time for time for improved improved relationships relationships

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes but does not Does not describe or identity the term identify empty nest empty nest Vaguely explains that Does not mention that this is a time for this is a time for improved improved relationships relationships

5. When adult children live apart from their parents, what usually happens to the parent–child relationship?

How might parents support their adult children, and how might such support affect the mental health of adult children?

ANSWER: When adult children live apart from their parents, the parent–child relationship seems to become stronger, not weaker. However, parents support their adult children in numerous ways. Parents may provide adult children with a place to live. In addition, parents may provide financial and emotional support to their adult children. Although such support is often needed and welcome, financial subsidies to adult children who are no longer in college correlate with symptoms of depression in the adult children.

Good (5 pts.)

Answer three Answers all three questions about adult questions children and their parents

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Answers two of the questions

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Answers one or none of the questions

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Essay 6. Indicate how being a parent could satisfy generativity. Identify the four different kinds of parents.

ANSWER: The chief form of generativity is establishing and guiding the next generation, which is accomplished through parenthood. Many adults pass along their values as they respond to the hundreds of requests and unspoken needs of their children each day, thus being generative. The four different kinds of parents are (1) biological parents, (2) adoptive parents, (3) stepparents, and (4) foster parents.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Indicate how being a Indicates how being a Is vague about how parent could satisfy parent could satisfy being a parent could generativity generativity satisfy generativity Identify the different Identifies the four Identifies three kinds of parents different kinds of different kinds of parents parents

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not indicate how being a parent could satisfy generativity Identifies two or fewer different kinds of parents

7. Cirilo and Swarna have recently adopted a child. Explain how being an adoptive parent can be challenging.

ANSWER: Every form of nonbiological parenting poses special challenges. The easier form may be adoption, since those adults are legally connected to their children for life. Moreover, adoptive children are much wanted, so the parents are willing to provide the intensive care that children need.

Current adoptions are usually "open," which means that the birth parents decided that someone else would be a better parent, but they still want some connection to the child. The child knows about this arrangement, which makes it easier for everyone than the former "closed" adoption, when children and birth parents felt abandoned.

Strong parent–child attachments are often evident, especially when children are adopted as infants.

Sadly, some adopted children have spent their early years in an institution, never attached to anyone.

DSM-5 recognizes reactive attachment disorder, when a young child cannot seem to form any attachments.

Adolescence is particularly problematic for adoptive families because normal conflicts can cut deep.

Tensions increase if outsiders hold the mistaken notion that only biological parents are the "real" parents. Of course, no matter what the genetic or ethnic connection between parents and children, the real parents are those who provide generative care. Many adoptive parents who adopt either internationally or inter-ethnically seek multiethnic family friends and teach their children about their heritage.

Explains the challenges of being an adoptive parent

Good (5 pts.)

Fully explains how being an adoptive parent can be challenging

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains a few Does not explain how aspects of how being being an adoptive an adoptive parent can parent can be be challenging challenging

8. Define the extrinsic rewards of work and the intrinsic rewards of work. How do most people's perspectives on the extrinsic and intrinsic rewards of employment change with age and maturity?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Essay ANSWER: The extrinsic rewards of work are the tangible benefits, usually in the form of compensation (e.g., salary, health insurance, pension) that one receives for doing a job. The intrinsic rewards of work are the intangible gratifications (e.g., job satisfaction, self-esteem, pride) that come from within oneself as a result of doing a job.

With age and maturity, adults want more than extrinsic rewards from their work; the importance of intrinsic rewards increases. Extrinsic rewards like salary, employee benefits, and pension plans remain important, but adults tend to find that the more intangible intrinsic rewards, such as friendships with coworkers, pride in a job well done, and the opportunity to make an impact in a field or on the community, are actually more significant to them.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define the extrinsic Defines the extrinsic Defines the extrinsic Does not define the rewards and intrinsic rewards and intrinsic rewards or intrinsic extrinsic rewards or rewards of work rewards of work rewards of work intrinsic rewards of work Describe how most Describes how most Describes how most Does not describe people's perspectives people's perspectives people's perspectives how most people's on extrinsic and on the extrinsic and on the extrinsic perspectives on the intrinsic rewards of intrinsic rewards of or intrinsic rewards extrinsic or intrinsic employment change employment change of employment rewards of with age with age change with age employment change with age

9. Explain three ways in which employment can fulfill generativity needs in adulthood.

ANSWER: Work provides an income, a structure for daily life, a setting for human interaction, and a source of social status and fulfillment. Employment provides opportunities for developing and using personal skills, mentoring and creativity, for supporting one's family financially, and for contributing to the community.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain three ways in Explains three ways in Explains two ways in Explains one or no which employment which employment which employment ways in which can fulfill generativity can fulfill generativity can fulfill generativity employment can needs needs needs fulfill generativity needs

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice 1. _____ theorized that adulthood was composed of three stages of development. a. Sigmund Freud b. Erik Erikson c. B. F. Skinner d. Lev Vygotsky ANSWER: b 2. Although Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development are sequential, the search for identity that begins in the stage of identity versus role confusion _____. a. is ongoing throughout adulthood b. ends with the stage of intimacy versus isolation c. ends with the stage of generativity versus stagnation d. comes to fruition only after the stage of integrity versus despair ANSWER: a 3. Which is one of Erik Erikson's stages of adulthood? a. trust versus mistrust b. initiative versus guilt c. generativity versus stagnation d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: c 4. Nagi's grandparent, at age 80, is engaged in the personal journey of connecting their life with the historical and cultural purpose of human society. The grandparent is in which of Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages? a. identity versus role confusion b. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus stagnation d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: d 5. Based on Erikson's psychosocial stages of development, which crisis occurs immediately after intimacy versus isolation? a. initiative versus guilt b. identity versus role confusion c. generativity versus stagnation d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: c 6. According to Erik Erikson, when individuals are productive in an unselfish and caring way, they are demonstrating _____. a. autonomy b. generativity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice c. diffusion d. altruism ANSWER: b 7. According to Erik Erikson, an adult's failure to achieve generativity results in _____. a. feelings of happiness b. stagnation and personal impoverishment c. parenthood and depression d. ease in mate selection ANSWER: b 8. Common ways to be generative include caregiving, employment, and _____. a. goal-setting exercises b. financial security c. parenthood d. travel ANSWER: c 9. Who is credited for the theory of humanism? a. Erik Erikson b. Albert Bandura c. Sigmund Freud d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: d 10. How many stages of development does Abraham Maslow describe? a. three b. five c. seven d. nine ANSWER: b 11. People in Abraham Maslow's third level on the hierarchy of needs seek _____. a. self-actualization b. safety c. generativity d. love and belonging ANSWER: d 12. Dubgall is a retired stockbroker who enjoys tutoring children at the local YMCA after school. They are demonstrating which psychosocial stage?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice a. generativity versus stagnation b. integrity versus despair c. identity versus role confusion d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: a 13. The primary form that generativity takes is _____. a. being guided by the younger generation b. establishing and guiding the next generation c. belonging to a religious organization d. volunteering in the community ANSWER: b 14. Which of these statements about Abraham Maslow's theory is TRUE? a. He believes that everyone, universally, has the same needs. b. His theory overemphasizes the flaws of human behavior. c. His theory is primarily developed for Western adults. d. He believes that children have different basic needs than adults.

ANSWER: a 15. The concept of the Big Five reflects which type of theory? a. trait b. humanism c. psychoanalytic d. information processing ANSWER: a 16. Which is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? a. selflessness b. openness c. extraversion d. agreeableness ANSWER: a 17. Aditi is moody, anxious, and self-punishing. They are high in which aspect of personality? a. openness b. extroversion c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice 18. A person who has many of the personality traits associated with extroversion would be described as _____. a. depressed and anxious b. active and outgoing c. open and receptive d. creative and intelligent ANSWER: b 19. Yunus seems to thrive on changing jobs, is artistic, and likes to try new things. They would be rated high on which personality dimension? a. extroversion b. openness c. neuroticism d. sociability ANSWER: b 20. Those who know them describe Andeolus as a kind, helpful, and easygoing person. They are high on which of the Big Five traits? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. openness d. conscientiousness ANSWER: a 21. Giorgino is very organized and self-disciplined. They conform easily to standards set for their performance at work. They would be considered high on which of the Big Five traits? a. agreeableness b. openness c. conscientiousness d. extroversion ANSWER: c 22. A person who changes jobs frequently, moves often, and always seems happier because of such changes is likely to be high in _____. a. extroversion b. openness c. agreeableness d. neuroticism ANSWER: b 23. With increasing age, the trait of neuroticism tends to _____. a. transform into extroversion b. increase Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice c. decrease d. remain stable ANSWER: c 24. Which of these is NOT an adult stage of development, according to Erikson? a. intimacy versus isolation b. generativity versus stagnation c. integrity versus despair d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: d 25. Deavn is high in extroversion and therefore will probably be _____. a. artistic b. self-disciplined c. generous d. outgoing ANSWER: d 26. Which statement about personality is accurate? a. There is only empirical evidence that personality is innate. b. Genes are the only influence on adult personality. c. Adult personality can be influenced by context. d. Geography does not influence adult personality.

ANSWER: c 27. Who is likely to have the MOST stable personality? a. a 5-year-old child b. a 14-year-old adolescent c. a 23-year-old adult d. a 35-year-old person ANSWER: d 28. A study of well-being and self-esteem in 28 nations has found that people are happiest if their personality traits _____. a. evolve over time b. change from one setting to the next c. are identified early in life d. match their social context ANSWER: d 29. Which of these has not been associated with adult personality?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice a. income b. age c. culture d. personal experiences ANSWER: a 30. Baldo is a nurse and recognizes that illness and pain are often connected to the psychological needs of patients. This demonstrates _____. a. esteem b. self-actualization c. generativity d. humanism ANSWER: d 31. Teo is very self-disciplined and organized. They would likely score high on which personality trait? a. openness b. conscientiousness c. extroversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: b 32. Kacper is very outgoing, assertive, and active. They would likely score high on which personality trait? a. openness b. conscientiousness c. extroversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: c 33. Parvati is rather moody and critical of others. They would likely score high on which personality trait? a. openness b. conscientiousness c. extroversion d. neuroticism ANSWER: d 34. Artistic is to _____ as helpful is to _____. a. openness; agreeableness b. neuroticism; agreeableness c. conscientiousness; extroversion d. extroversion; neuroticism ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice 35. Placid is to _____ as careless is to _____. a. openness; agreeableness b. neuroticism; conscientiousness c. conscientiousness; extroversion d. extroversion; neuroticism ANSWER: b 36. Change in personality is MOST likely to occur during _____. a. adolescence and middle adulthood b. emerging and late adulthood c. middle and late adulthood d. emerging and middle adulthood ANSWER: b 37. Olga and Lluc are a romantic couple. Each has their own home but they see each other regularly and are a monogamous couple. Their relationship would be classified as: a. living apart together. b. cohabitation. c. marriage. d. trial marriage.

ANSWER: a 38. Which of these is NOT a component of consummate love? a. connection b. passion c. commitment d. intimacy ANSWER: a 39. The first six months of a marriage are considered the: a. honeymoon period. b. least happy. c. most satisfying. d. most important.

ANSWER: a 40. Married couples are the happiest: a. during years 10 to 20 of marriage. b. during the first 6 months of marriage. c. after 5 years of marriage.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice d. after year 30 of marriage.

ANSWER: b 41. Of adults born before 1940, which percentage got married? a. 10 b. 33 c. 50 d. 96 ANSWER: d 42. Committed partners who maintain separate homes but function as a committed couple are said to be "_____." a. living apart together b. residing in an empty nest c. avoiding marriage d. consequential strangers ANSWER: a 43. A long-term partnership correlates with health and happiness throughout adulthood and late adulthood. For most people, then, _____ is the most crucial aspect of love in a partnership. a. intimacy b. infatuation c. commitment d. passion ANSWER: c 44. Shekhar and Brochmail are a couple who recently married. They wonder what their relationship will be like in 5 to 10 years. If they are like most married couples, their happiness will _____. a. decline sharply b. hold steady c. dip, with divorce likely d. be even stronger than during the honeymoon period ANSWER: b 45. All of Melania and Avinash's children have now moved out, have started families, and are working on their careers. According to the text, their home is now a(n) "_____." a. haven of quiet b. empty nest c. lonely cavern d. house of mirrors ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice 46. After children have grown and moved out of the family home, MOST couples find that _____. a. their financial strains are overwhelming b. their relationships improve c. there are more fights over equity in domestic work d. less time is spent in shared activities ANSWER: b 47. After the children are grown, most married couples _____. a. spend longer hours at work b. dislike being "empty-nesters" c. have adequate time for their relationship d. see little of each other ANSWER: c 48. Bolat and Frantziska have been married for nearly 30 years. Their youngest child left home six months ago.

If they are typical, the quality of their marriage should _____. a. remain constant, no different than earlier years b. worsen, because there are no children to act as buffers c. be tumultuous, because they have grown apart over the years d. improve, because they have more time to spend together ANSWER: d 49. Current objective research data from studies of same-sex partners _____. a. are not yet available b. are available for specific areas in the United States c. find that heterosexual couples are happier d. find that heterosexual and same-sex partnerships are relatively the same ANSWER: d 50. Research indicates that remarriage initially restores all of these EXCEPT _____. a. intimacy b. health c. previous friendships d. financial security ANSWER: c 51. At least initially, remarriage brings which condition? a. poorer health b. financial insecurity c. better health d. the same level of happiness as in the first marriage Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 52. A multinational study has found that the likelihood of separation of married and cohabitating couples is powerfully influenced by _____. a. national norms b. gender c. age d. sexual identity ANSWER: a 53. Research suggests that about _____ of the time, divorce ends an abusive, destructive relationship. a. one-eighth b. one-third c. two-thirds d. three-quarters ANSWER: b 54. The group of people who move through life with an individual while providing both protection and encouragement is called a "_____." a. familial collection b. social convoy c. fictive kin d. support network ANSWER: b 55. Ritika moved across the country to advance their career. Although they moved alone, they soon developed a group of coworkers and friends who became like a family to them. They served as their _____. a. kinkeeper b. extrinsic rewards c. social convoy d. clique ANSWER: c 56. As people age, their friendships tend to _____. a. dissipate b. fade c. stagnate d. improve ANSWER: d 57. _____ are a crucial part of the social convoy. a. Personality traits Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice b. Extended family c. Friends d. Younger adults and children ANSWER: c 58. A study of 7,578 adults in seven nations has found that physical separation between parents and adult children _____. a. weakens family ties b. creates conflict between parents and their adult children c. strengthens the relationships between parents and their adult children d. causes parents to spend more time and resources to support their adult children ANSWER: c 59. _____ are young adults who live with their parents for a while. a. Fictive kin networks b. Social convoys c. Boomerang children d. Helicopter offspring ANSWER: c 60. Individuals who are accepted into families that are not their legal or biological families are called "_____." a. fictive kin b. kinkeepers c. social convoys d. generative allies ANSWER: a 61. Viktoria was reared in several foster homes and never knew their parents. When they started working with Derdriu, they became close to Derdriu's family, to the point where they fondly referred to them as "our newfound child." The family "adopted" Viktoria as _____. a. a surrogate sibling b. a foster son c. a kindred brother d. fictive kin ANSWER: d 62. The youngest of Seamas and Ngaio's three children has just started kindergarten. Seamas and Ngaio have had to change their morning and bedtime routines, child-care arrangements, and discipline practices, and the family's income has suffered as a result of this shift, yet they are happy to make these changes for their children.

These changes reflect the fact that _____. a. Seamas and Ngaio do not know enough about parenting b. their children must be especially difficult Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice c. Seamas and Ngaio are trying too hard to please their children d. Seamas and Ngaio are demonstrating generativity ANSWER: d 63. According to the text, the easiest form of nonbiological parenting may be _____. a. grandparenthood b. foster parenting c. adoption d. kinkeeping ANSWER: c 64. Theophile spent the first four years of their life living with various family members and in various foster homes. Aureliusz, their second cousin, adopted Theophile about six months ago. Although Aureliusz provides them with love, support, and stimulation, Theophile does not seem attached to them. They resist any kind of affection and prefers to be alone rather than socialize with their new family. According to the DSM-5, Theophile probably has _____. a. reactive attachment disorder b. oppositional defiant disorder c. a severe cognitive impairment d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: a 65. The average new stepchild in a family is _____ years old. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: c 66. In foster parent families, which type of bond is BEST for both the parent and the child? a. replacement b. loving c. distant d. friendly ANSWER: b 67. In developed nations, grandparenthood begins on average at about age _____. a. 75 b. 67 c. 60 d. 50 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 68. Vit is their family's kinkeeper. This means that they assume responsibility for _____. a. the financial stability of the family b. caring for their grandchildren while their parents work c. gathering the family for holidays and disseminating information d. regularly visiting family members who live in care homes ANSWER: c 69. In a typical family, the kinkeeper is MOST likely to be _____. a. a young adult son b. a father in late adulthood c. the first grandchild d. a middle-aged mother ANSWER: d 70. Because they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the "_____." a. midlife generation b. family caregivers c. kinkeepers d. sandwich generation ANSWER: d 71. According to research, which statement about the "sandwich generation" is TRUE? a. Many adults do not feel burdened by their responsibilities. b. It describes the reality of most middle-aged adult women's lives. c. It conveys the financial strain that adults often experience when caring for elderly parents. d. It communicates the degree to which older adults care for their younger kin.

ANSWER: a 72. Employment is _____ adult psychosocial health. a. absolutely necessary for b. not a key part of c. one factor contributing to d. rarely a positive contributor to ANSWER: c 73. When young people are first entering the workforce and establishing themselves in their careers, which do they tend to consider to be the MOST important? a. intrinsic rewards Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice b. extrinsic rewards c. pride d. pension ANSWER: b 74. After nearly 20 years with the company, Sanyi's job was outsourced. They want their new job to offer job satisfaction and a sense of accomplishment. The Company is focused on the _____ of work. a. status b. extrinsic rewards c. secondary gains d. intrinsic rewards ANSWER: d 75. After a recent divorce, Flora is entering the workforce for the first time in more than a decade. As a single parent with two children, they need a livable wage, good benefits, and a retirement plan. They are focused on the _____ of work. a. intrinsic rewards b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. extrinsic rewards d. secondary gains ANSWER: c 76. With regard to paid work, older employees tend to have _____ compared to younger employees. a. less absenteeism b. more problems with lateness c. less job commitment d. more extrinsic motivation ANSWER: a 77. Immigrants make up about _____ percent of the U.S. adult workforce. a. 3 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 ANSWER: b 78. In the United States, about _____ of all workers have nonstandard schedules. a. one-fourth b. one-third c. one-half d. three-quarters Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 22 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 79. Which statement about employees who work overtime is TRUE? a. Working overtime always decreases job satisfaction. b. Workers who are paid extra for overtime are usually satisfied with their jobs. c. Workers who are required to work overtime feel less job satisfaction. d. Overtime work is part of a traditional work schedule.

ANSWER: c

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Essay 1. You have been hired by an organization that advocates for older adults. Explain why ageism is a concern, and why it is important to reduce it.

ANSWER: Ageism is comparable to racism and sexism—it creates unfair stereotypes of all members of a group. When applied to older persons, few people seem concerned about it, because it is institutionalized in American culture. Because ageist attitudes may seem kind or benevolent, they are insidious. Even older adults seem to accept stereotypes about the old and conclude that either they are different from the norm or that they will inevitably fulfill the stereotypes. Stereotype threat can reduce performance on tasks, further cementing ageist beliefs. Ageist attitudes affect older adults vitality and health. Multiple studies have proven that ageism undercuts ability.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain why ageism Explains why ageism Explains why ageism Does not explain why is a problem and why is a problem and why is a problem or why it ageism is a problem or it must be reduced it must be reduced must be reduced why it must be reduced

2. Agnesa is the head nurse of a gerontology unit in a hospital. They have been asked to prepare a workshop for new staff and clinicians about how to communicate effectively with older adult patients. Identify three specific age-related changes that might influence an older patient's ability to understand and follow medical advice.

ANSWER: It is essential that (1) the patient comprehend procedures. Therefore, make sure that the patient has the necessary assistance for sensory losses—that is, (2) make sure hearing aids are in during physician rounds, (3) ensure that the patient has their glasses on, and (4) have follow-up instructions printed in large print for the patient to take home and follow. In addition, staff should (5) avoid elderspeak, which may offend and actually reduce the speaker's understandability.

Good (5 pts.)

Identify specific age- Identifies three related changes that specific age-related might affect an changes that might elderly patient affect an elderly patient

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies two specific Identifies one or no age-related changes specific age-related that might affect an changes that might elderly patient affect an elderly patient

3. Summarize the demographic shift that has occurred in the population over the past century. Provide at least three factors that help account for this shift. What is the prediction for the future demographic pattern?

ANSWER: During the past two centuries, the ratio of people under age 15 to over age 64 has moved from 20:1 to the current level of 3:1. Reasons for the demographic shift include (1) the lower birth rate, (2) the improved ability to survive serious illnesses, (3) an increase in the food supply, (4) the higher likelihood of surviving early adulthood, and (5) improved health care and medications.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain the Explains the Explains the Does not explain the demographic shift demographic shift and demographic shift demographic shift or and predict the future predicts the future or predicts the future predict the future pattern pattern pattern pattern Provide reasons for Provides three reasons Provides two reasons Provides one or no Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Essay the demographic shift for the demographic shift

for the demographic shift

reasons for the demographic shift

4. Developmental psychologists have identified and described different types of aging adults. List and describe each type.

ANSWER: (1) The young-old is the largest group of older adults. They are healthy, active, financially secure, and independent. Few people in this group notice or recognize their age. (2) Adults in the old-old group suffer some losses in the body, mind, or social support, but they proudly care for themselves.

(3) Adults in the oldest-old group are dependent, and they are the most noticeably old.

List and describe three types of aging adults

Good (5 pts.)

Lists and describes three types of aging adults

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists or describes three types of aging adults

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not list or describe three types of aging adults

5. Dezso just turned 81. Dezso's adult children have become concerned about their driving and are pressuring them to sell their car and take public transportation. Referring to the biological process of aging, how have Dezso's driving skills likely changed with age? If they are like most aging adults, how have they compensated for these changes? Why is Dezso reluctant to take their adult children's advice?

ANSWER: With age, reading road signs takes longer, turning the head becomes harder, reaction time slows, and night vision worsens. Few older drivers notice the impact of these losses. Hearing and vision are not as acute, reaction time is slower, and grip strength is reduced. Another common problem is less accuracy in estimating the speed of oncoming cars.

Dezso has likely compensated by driving slowly and reducing her driving in the dark.

In the United States, driving is a source of pride, and cars are tools of independence; many elders, like Dezso, are reluctant to quit. They know that some critics are ageist and that some family members are overprotective. Consequently, many old people reject age-based advice and/or restrictions.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provide three ways in Provides three ways in Provides two ways in Does not provide which driving which driving changes which driving changes ways in which driving changes with age with age with age changes with age Identify two ways in Identifies two ways in Identifies one way in Does not identify a which Dezso has which Dezso has which Dezso has way in which Dezso compensated compensated compensated has compensated Explain why Dezso is Explains why Dezso is Provides a vague Does not explain why reluctant to accept her reluctant to accept her explanation as to why Dezso is reluctant to children's advice children's advice Dezso is reluctant to accept her children's accept her children's advice advice Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Essay 6. Define primary aging and secondary aging and offer an example of each.

ANSWER: Primary aging refers to the age-related changes that take place in every person as time goes by.

These include (1) hearing loss, (2) vision loss, (3) wrinkled and thinner skin, (4) loss of muscle mass, (5) slower healing, (6) joint degeneration and accompanying stiffness, and (7) slower reaction time.

Secondary aging refers to the age-related changes that take place as a consequence of a person's unhealthy behaviors, particular inherited weaknesses, and environmental conditions. These include (1) obesity, (2) alcohol consumption, (3) diet, (4) tobacco use, and (5) exposure to environmental toxins, such as pollution or secondhand smoke. The combination of primary and secondary aging causes morbidity and mortality.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define primary aging Defines primary aging Defines primary and offer an example and offers an example aging or offers an example Define secondary Defines secondary Defines secondary aging and offer an aging and offers an aging or offers an example example example

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define primary aging or offer an example Does not define secondary aging or offer an example

7. Explain the three theories of aging.

ANSWER: Three theories of aging explain why no one can live forever: (1) Wear-and-tear—The body wears out from use.

(2) Genetic adaptation—There is a genetically programmed time to begin aging that differs from person to person; evidence for genetic aging comes from premature aging experienced by children.

(3) Cellular aging—Cells stop replacing themselves, and the body is no longer able to fix every cellular error; even without specific infections or stresses, healthy cells stop replicating at a certain point referred to as the "Hayflick limit."

Good (5 pts.)

Explain the theories Thoroughly explains of aging the three theories of aging

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains two theories Explains one or none of aging of the theories of aging

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice 1. The term ageism refers to _____. a. the veneration of the elderly b. judging people on the basis of how old they are c. the view of society held by older people d. the demographics of the population pyramid ANSWER: b 2. Which of these is NOT a harmful consequence of self-fulfilling prophecies? a. If older people are treated as frail and confused, they become less independent. b. If the norms for younger adults are taken as universal, people try to make older adults fit them. c. If older people themselves think that their age makes them feeble, they may stop self-care, avoid social interactions, or ignore early treatable symptoms of disease. d. If older people believe that they can be independent and self-sustained, they are more likely to be so.

ANSWER: d 3. Ageism affects the elderly by _____. a. empowering them to use their strengths and wisdom in their communities b. undermining their feelings of competence and self-esteem c. invoking rebellion d. creating special opportunities for older adults that would not otherwise exist ANSWER: b 4. In _____ 28 percent of the population is over age 64. a. the United States b. Bulgaria c. Sweden d. Japan ANSWER: d 5. _____ is a prediction that becomes true because people believe it. a. A self-fulfilling prophecy b. Ageism c. Prejudice d. Discrimination ANSWER: a 6. At age 75, Lukas is typical of people their age. They believe that when compared to others of the same age, _____. a. everyone is faring quite similarly b. they are doing better than they are; they have more problems c. they are doing well, but they have more problems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice d. everyone gets what they deserve, and they deserve more ANSWER: c 7. According to Barrett (2012), _____ is more strongly predictive of health than any other factor. a. chronological age b. gender c. feeling youthful d. residing with family ANSWER: c 8. Those in later adulthood may complain of _____, which is defined as being distressed with their sleep. a. hayflick effect b. osteoporosis c. cellular aging d. insomnia ANSWER: d 9. Which of these is NOT an aspect of good sleep hygiene? a. turning off electronic devices b. exercising c. avoiding substances that could interfere with sleep d. sporadic bedtimes ANSWER: d 10. Nelinho, age 76, believes they are independent and have personal autonomy. They are likely to be _____. a. wrong; no one their age can be autonomous b. mentally and physically healthier than people their age who do not share those beliefs c. more optimistic than other people their age, but no healthier than them d. overstating their sense of well-being ANSWER: b 11. Taras is 72, and their grandchild, Mirek, is 25. Which of these statements about sleep is accurate? a. Mirek will wake more frequently at night than Taras will. b. Mirek will complain more often of sleepiness than Taras will. c. Taras will take longer to fall asleep than Mirek will. d. Both will wake up four to six times to use the bathroom.

ANSWER: c 12. Using elderspeak when engaging in conversation with an older adult _____. a. is demeaning b. helps the individual comprehend the meaning of the conversation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice c. only makes sense if the individual has a hearing aid d. demonstrates respect and understanding ANSWER: a 13. Which of these vocal characteristics is a feature of elderspeak? a. higher pitch b. faster speech c. bigger words d. gestures ANSWER: a 14. Research has shown that the homicide rate for those over the age of 65 is _____ the rate for those in their 20s. a. less than one-tenth b. two-thirds c. nearly half d. at least three-fourths ANSWER: a 15. The science that describes populations is called "_____." a. gerontology b. psychology c. demography d. geography ANSWER: c 16. In 2020, what percentage of the United States population was over age 64? a. 2 b. 16 c. 29 d. 42 ANSWER: b 17. In the past, there were 20 times more children than older people. Then there were 7 times more people under age 15 than over age 64. Currently, there are 3 times as many children as there are elders. These changes in the age make-up of the population are referred to as a(n) "_____." a. population growth b. cyclical event c. demographic shift d. elder explosion ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice 18. Who is likely to exercise the MOST? a. Kaja, who is 65 years old b. Abbas, who is in their 20s c. Syntyche, who is 45 years old d. Ghalib, who is 72 years old.

ANSWER: b 19. Which age group in the United States is four times higher than it was 50 years ago? a. 0–15 b. 20–35 c. 35–65 d. 85 and up ANSWER: d 20. The proportion of older people who live _____ is about 5 percent. a. at home b. in nursing homes c. with an adult child d. independently ANSWER: b 21. Rahma and Mila, married 52 years, have been living in the same home for the past 30 years. They have a comfortable retirement, and when they need help with something, they can rely on their middle-aged adult children or young adult grandchildren. However, Rahma and Mila are very independent, providing much more care than they receive. This couple's experience is _____ among older people. a. very common b. somewhat common c. somewhat uncommon d. very uncommon ANSWER: a 22. Which of these is NOT true about most older adults? a. Most older adults rely on others for basic care. b. Most older adults are caregivers rather than receivers of care. c. Less than 10 percent of older adults are dependent on others for basic care. d. Ten percent of individuals age 80 or older are in nursing homes or hospitals.

ANSWER: a 23. When asked to think of "an older person," most people think of a feeble person who lives in a nursing home.

Statistics show that the vast majority of people over the age of 65 fall in the category of "_____." a. young-old b. old-old Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice c. youthfully old d. inactive old ANSWER: a 24. The main reason people may not notice the "young-old" is that _____. a. they do not fit society's stereotypes of older people b. there are relatively few of them c. they are a problem-prone minority d. they are not integrated into the community ANSWER: a 25. Which of these groups makes up the largest group of older adults? a. "young-old" b. "old-old" c. "oldest-old" d. centenarians ANSWER: a 26. Which distinguishes the "old-old" from the "young-old"? a. years of age b. race and gender c. degree of positive or negative attitude d. reductions in physical or mental ability ANSWER: d 27. Individuals classified as "oldest-old" are usually how old? a. 50–64 b. 95–75 c. 70–85 d. over 85 ANSWER: d 28. Older adults who are dependent and MOST likely to have age-related illnesses are "_____." a. young-old b. old-old c. oldest-old d. sickly old ANSWER: c 29. Constructing settings and equipment so that they can be used by everyone—able-bodied, sensory-acute, or not—is known as _____ Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice a. the Americans with Disability Act. b. "universal design." c. a "hearing loop." d. the "built environment."

ANSWER: b 30. What do demographers use to depict age structures in a population? a. a nominal scale b. a pie chart c. demographic pyramid d. a bar graph ANSWER: c 31. Statistically, _____ people over the age of 65 is/are deaf or almost deaf. a. 1 in 5 b. 1 in 7 c. 1 in 12 d. 2 in 6 ANSWER: c 32. How long an average newborn in a particular place is likely to live is referred to as the _____. a. average life expectancy b. maximum life span c. average life span d. maximum life expectancy ANSWER: a 33. In 2020, the world had _____ children under age 11 as older adults over the age of 64. a. the same amount of b. twice as many c. three times as many d. four times as many ANSWER: b 34. Researchers who study _____ find that many older adults are happy and require no special care from other people. a. centenarians b. cellular aging c. the wear and tear theory d. life expectancy ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice 35. In the United States, _____ of those who live past 100 show no cognitive impairment. a. one-third b. one-half c. more than half d. one-tenth ANSWER: c 36. Ahmad is an older adult who continues to drive. Which of these is NOT likely to be a characteristic of their driving behavior? a. driving slowly b. driving less often c. driving in less traffic d. driving at night ANSWER: d 37. The inability to access, process, or communicate information _____. a. hinders the ability to learn b. improves reaction time c. improves long-term memory retention d. delays short-term memory use ANSWER: a 38. Which of these is NOT true regarding sexuality in late adulthood? a. Intercourse becomes less frequent. b. Older women report less sexual desire than older men. c. Women stop intercourse earlier than men for biological reasons. d. Older men are more likely to have a sexual partner than older women.

ANSWER: c 39. Although they have sex less frequently than they used to, more elderly couples report that their sex life has _____ rather than _____. a. improved; deteriorated b. deteriorated; improved c. ceased; increased d. increased; ceased ANSWER: a 40. Now that Barna is 77, they use selective optimization with compensation while driving. For example, they _____. a. drive only at night, when fewer cars are on the road b. turn their neck to check the car behind them while driving Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice c. drive more slowly d. drive fast to get home as soon as possible to avoid accidents ANSWER: c 41. For older drivers, which of these variables is the strongest predictor of a car accident? a. age b. understanding of driving rules c. not being able to turn head quickly d. good peripheral vision ANSWER: c 42. Older adult drivers have fewer car accidents than young people do, because _____. a. their reaction time slows, preventing quick responses b. strict laws require retesting for drivers over age 65 c. younger drivers are impaired by poor peripheral and night vision d. older adult drivers compensate for deficiencies by driving more slowly and avoiding night driving ANSWER: d 43. Which of these strategies is crucial when older people have sensory loss? a. acceptance b. isolation c. compensation d. retirement ANSWER: c 44. Approximately _____ percent of people over age 65 can see well without glasses. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: c 45. Which of these sounds does an older adult lose the ability to detect first? a. a car horn b. the voice of a small child c. a voice on the telephone d. a train whistle ANSWER: b 46. Primary aging refers to age-related changes that _____. a. inevitably take place as time goes by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice b. occur prior to middle adulthood c. take place as a consequence of a person's unhealthy behaviors d. are entirely genetic in origin ANSWER: a 47. The irreversible changes that naturally occur with time are called "_____ aging." a. normal b. primary c. secondary d. geriatric ANSWER: b 48. The changes of primary aging are _____. a. caused by disease b. reversible c. preventable d. universal ANSWER: d 49. Because of _____ aging, Hana has had a very tough time recovering from a recent bout of pneumonia. a. normal b. primary c. subordinate d. geriatric ANSWER: b 50. The specific physical illnesses or conditions that become more common with aging but are caused by health habits, genes, and other influences that vary from person to person are features of _____. a. primary aging b. senescence c. secondary aging d. gerontology ANSWER: c 51. Nace, age 65, has developed heart disease from a lifetime of smoking cigarettes. In this case, their heart disease is an example of _____. a. secondary aging b. primary aging c. normal senescence d. compressed morbidity ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice 52. Seventy-six-year-old Waimarie tripped on a garden hose and broke their leg. Their 17-year-old grandson, Andreas, fell while skateboarding and broke their leg. Why is Waimarie's injury more of a concern than Andreas' injury? a. Waimarie is less likely to fully recover than Andreas is. b. Waimarie is in more pain than Andreas is. c. Waimarie's tripping may be the first sign of Parkinson's disease. d. It is not more of a concern. Andreas' break may impede normal development and is the more worrisome event.

ANSWER: a 53. Primary and secondary aging combine to make major body systems _____. a. less efficient b. more flexible c. more efficient d. function better under stress ANSWER: a 54. Limiting the time a person spends being ill or infirm is referred to as "_____." a. compression of morbidity b. progeria c. dependency ratio d. senescence ANSWER: a 55. As bones age, they _____. a. become more porous b. gain strength c. gain calcium d. become more elastic ANSWER: a 56. The condition known as fragile bones is called "_____." a. muscular dystrophy b. cerebral palsy c. dementia d. osteoporosis ANSWER: d 57. Which 70-year-old is MOST likely to be diagnosed with osteoporosis? a. Hollis, who has European ancestry b. Marthe, who has African ancestry Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice c. Asha, who has European and Asian ancestry d. Leandros, who has Asian ancestry ANSWER: a 58. Osteoporosis results not only from primary and secondary aging but also from too _____. a. much calcium b. much exercise c. little exercise d. few pregnancies ANSWER: c 59. Which of these does NOT compress morbidity from osteoporosis? a. early diagnosis via bone-density tests b. weight-bearing and muscle-strengthening exercise c. lifelong diet with sufficient calcium and vitamin D d. restricting movement to avoid falls ANSWER: d 60. Which theory of aging proposes that the body wears out, part by part, after years of use? a. wear-and-tear b. primary aging c. free-radical hypothesis d. cellular accident ANSWER: a 61. The wear-and-tear theory of aging is weakened by the fact that _____. a. the human body cannot repair itself b. many parts of the body wear out from use c. many body functions benefit from use d. machines cannot grow old ANSWER: c 62. The concept of aging as a result of cellular duplication errors is based on the fact that the body's ability to make new cells that are exact copies of the original ones _____. a. stops at about age 18 b. stops at about age 80 c. is altered by accumulation of minor copying errors d. continues unchanged throughout life ANSWER: c 63. Maximum life span is defined as the _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice a. number of years a newborn is likely to live b. risk of mortality c. average age at death d. upper limit to which members of a species can live ANSWER: d 64. In 2015 in the United States, the average life expectancy was _____ years for men and _____ years for women. a. 77; 82 b. 81; 76 c. 65; 84 d. 84; 65 ANSWER: a 65. Which of these statements about cellular aging is TRUE? a. Cells can replicate indefinitely, but errors do occur. b. Aging may be caused by the inevitable loss of the ability of cells to duplicate perfectly. c. Damage is caused by free radicals that slow down the cell-duplication process. d. Cells from adults are able to duplicate more quickly and more times than are cells from embryos.

ANSWER: b 66. The material at the end of each chromosome is known as "_____." a. B cells b. T cells c. alleles d. telomeres ANSWER: d 67. Calorie restriction may _____. a. slow down aging b. speed up aging c. increase the risk of diabetes d. increase the rate of death ANSWER: a 68. People who live to see their 100th birthday are referred to as "_____." a. centenarians b. young-old c. decadecadians d. oldest-old ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 23 - Multiple Choice 69. The maximum life span is _____ years for humans. a. 13 b. 55 c. 122 d. 180 ANSWER: c 70. _____ is the oldest possible age that members of a species can attain, whereas _____ is the number of years the average newborn in a population group is likely to live. a. Maximum life span; average life expectancy b. Average life span; maximum life expectancy c. Maximum life span; the Hayflick limit d. The Hayflick limit; average life expectancy ANSWER: a 71. A pattern of eating that includes periods of restricted eating interspersed with usual consumption is referred to as _____. a. intermittent fasting b. calorie restriction c. sporadic dieting d. dieting ANSWER: a 72. A view of aging as a process by which the human body wears out because of the passage of time and exposure to environmental stressors is called: a. calorie restriction. b. intermittent fasting. c. cellular aging. d. wear-and-tear theory.

ANSWER: d

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Essay 1. What is wisdom? Which characteristics make a person wise? Identify someone (living or dead) who you think has/had wisdom and discuss why you think that person is/was wise.

ANSWER: According to Baltes and Smith, wisdom is a combination of psychosocial characteristics and life history factors, including openness to experience, generativity, cognitive style, contact with excellent mentors, and some exposure to structured and crucial life experiences. Wisdom is often associated with age, although age does not always yield wisdom. Wise people are rare at any age.

Research shows that starting around age 25, some adults worldwide of every age are wise, but most, even at age 80, are not.

The elements of wisdom include (1) the ability to put aside one's personal needs (self-actualization), (2) self-reflective honesty (integrity), and (3) perspective on past living (the life review).

Students should articulate how the wise individuals they select demonstrate insight, perspective, and altruism.

Good (5 pts.)

Define wisdom and Defines wisdom and tell characteristics of tells a few the wise characteristics of the wise Identify someone Identifies someone who has/had wisdom who has/had wisdom and how that person and how that person shows/showed it shows/showed it

Fair (3 pts.)

Defines wisdom or tells at least one characteristic of the wise Identifies someone who has/had wisdom without telling how that person shows/showed it

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not define wisdom or tell any characteristics of the wise Does not identify someone who has/had wisdom and how that person shows/showed it

2. Explain the growth of new brain cells in the aging brain. How do new dendrites and neurons affect older adults' functioning?

ANSWER: New neurons form and dendrites grow throughout adulthood. The brain is particularly likely to gain cells in the hippocampus, the brain structure most prominent in memory. That allows new memories to form and endure throughout life. Another encouraging aspect of mature brains is that dendrites grow with new experiences as well as with antidepressants. Adults can shake the grip of depression and anxiety.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain the growth Explains the growth of Vaguely explains the Does not explain the of new brain cells in new brain cells in the growth of new brain growth of new brain the aging brain aging brain cells in the aging brain cells in the aging brain Explain how growth Explains how growth Is vague about how Does not explain how affects functioning affects functioning growth affects growth affects functioning functioning

3. Describe the brain shrinkage that occurs in late adulthood. Which brain structures are most affected, and how does the shrinkage affect cognition?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Essay ANSWER: In every part of the brain, the volume of gray matter is reduced, but especially in the prefrontal cortex. The hippocampus also shrinks. Because the prefrontal cortex is involved in planning and inhibition, control processes are reduced. Executive function also declines. White matter generally is reduced as well. The widespread reduction in gray matter results in a general slowdown of cognition and affects response times and access to information stored in memory. However, older adults compensate by using more parts of their brains, including both hemispheres, to solve problems.

Good (5 pts.)

Describe brain Describes brain shrinkage shrinkage, including which structures are most affected Tell how shrinkage Tells how shrinkage affects cognition affects cognition

Fair (3 pts.)

Describes brain shrinkage

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe brain shrinkage

Is vague about how shrinkage affects cognition

Does not tell how shrinkage affects cognition

4. Define control processes and explain how they change with age.

ANSWER: Control processes are part of the information-processing system that regulates the analysis and flow of information. Memory and retrieval strategies, selective attention, and rules or methods for problem solving are all useful control processes.

Inadequate control processes may also explain (1) why many older adults have extensive vocabularies (as measured by written tests) but limited fluency (when they write or speak), (2) why they are much better at recognition than recall, (3) why tip-of-the-tongue forgetfulness is common, and (4) why spelling is poorer than pronunciation. In addition, the elderly tend to (5) rely on preexisting knowledge and rules of thumb rather than logic and analysis.

Define control processes Explain ways in which control processes change with age

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines control Is vague about control Does not define processes processes control processes Explains three ways in Explains two ways Explains one or no which control in which control ways in which control processes change with processes change processes change with age with age age

5. Chetan's grandfather has begun to show signs of dementia. They often forget things and are disoriented, especially when riding in a car. What is the best way to determine whether Chetan's grandfather is suffering from Alzheimer's disease? Are there any other problems that could cause these symptoms?

ANSWER: The relative must be examined by a physician to rule out physical problems, such as (1) misdiagnosis, (2) polypharmacy, (3) malnutrition, and (4) dehydration. Psychological problems, such as (5) depression, should also be considered. The relative severity of the problem should be carefully evaluated, and the progression of cognitive deficits should be analyzed.

Stages of Alzheimer's Disease Stage 1. People in the first stage forget recent events or new information, particularly names and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Essay places. This first stage is similar to mild cognitive impairment—even experts cannot always tell the difference.

Stage 2. Generalized confusion develops, with deficits in concentration and short-term memory.

Speech becomes aimless and repetitious, vocabulary is limited, and words get mixed up. Personality traits are not curbed by rational thought.

Stage 3. Memory loss becomes dangerous.

Stage 4. At this stage, full-time care is needed. People cannot communicate well. They might not recognize their closest loved ones.

Stage 5. Finally, people with Alzheimer's disease become unresponsive. Identity and personality have disappeared.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explain that the States that the relative Is vague about Does not state that the relative needs to see needs to be evaluated needing to have the relative needs to be his doctor by a physician relative evaluated by a evaluated by a physician physician Name nonNames two nonNames one nonDoes not name a nonAlzheimer's Alzheimer's problems Alzheimer's problem Alzheimer's problem problems that could that could cause that could cause that could cause cause similar similar symptoms similar symptoms similar symptoms symptoms

6. Urska, age 62, started experiencing rigidity in their left leg and right hand about six months ago. More recently, they have noticed that their legs tremble sometimes when they stand up. On more than one occasion, Urska has spilled coffee on their shirt due to shaky hands. Which disorder does Urska likely have? Make sure to provide a definition. What causes this disorder?

ANSWER: Urska likely has Parkinson's disease, a progressive disease that is characterized by muscle tremors and rigidity and sometimes major neurocognitive disorder. Parkinson's disease is caused by reduced dopamine production in the brain.

Identify and define Parkinson's disease Explain the cause

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Identifies and defines Identifies and vaguely Does not identify or Parkinson's disease describes Parkinson's describe Parkinson's disease disease Explains the cause Vaguely explains the Does not explain or cause provides an incorrect explanation of the cause

7. Polypharmacy is often a problem in late adulthood. First, explain what polypharmacy is and then outline how it can be identified and what can be done about it.

ANSWER: Polypharmacy occurs when multiple prescription medications and even over-the-counter supplements interact with one another to produce dementia-like symptoms. If a person is displaying confusion and/or loss of memory, the first task should be to examine the medicine cabinet. Most doctors ask their patients whether they are taking any medications, but a patient may not respond Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Essay accurately or even recall all the drugs that they are taking. A list of all medications and their dosages should be presented to a physician so that they can determine whether polypharmacy is an issue.

Answer three questions about polypharmacy

Good (5 pts.)

Answers the three questions correctly

Fair (3 pts.)

Answers two of the three questions correctly

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Answers one or none of the three questions correctly

8. Jayna just turned 18 and is planning to attend their grandfather's upcoming birthday party next week. Jayna comments to their mother, "Wow, Grandpa is really old. I guess he's too old to learn anything new, huh?" Is Jayna's belief correct? Explain, citing research on new cognitive development in aging adults.

ANSWER: Jayna is not correct. In fact, cognitive development is possible in late adulthood. Research on adult cognition finds that older adults can learn and may maintain new skills. Research has shown that people younger than age 80 can learn almost any cognitive skill if the educational process is carefully targeted to the individual's motivation and ability. Erik Erikson has also found that the elderly are more interested in arts, children, and the whole of human experience than they were when they were younger. Therefore, the best may lie ahead, rather than behind, for Jayna's grandfather.

Explain why Marshall is incorrect, citing research findings on new cognitive development

Good (5 pts.)

Explains why Marshall is incorrect, citing research findings on new cognitive development

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains why Marshall is incorrect, vaguely citing research findings on new cognitive development

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not indicate or explain why Marshall is incorrect

9. Describe at least three ways in which creativity changes in late adulthood.

ANSWER: Many experts believe that pursuing creative activities—poetry and pottery, jewelry making and quilting, music and sculpture—can benefit all the elderly. Old age can be a time of emotional sensory awareness and enjoyment. They are (1) focused, (2) efficient, and (3) committed. Indeed, many great artists made their (4) biggest contributions in their later years. Best of all, expressing creativity in old age can aid in one's social skills, resilience, and brain health.

Describe how creativity changes in late adulthood

Good (5 pts.)

Describes three ways in which creativity changes in late adulthood

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Describes two ways in which creativity changes in late adulthood

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describes one or no ways in which creativity changes in late adulthood

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these brain changes in adulthood surprised scientists when it was discovered? a. Neural fluid decreases. b. Myelination thins. c. New neurons are formed. d. The corpus callosum increases.

ANSWER: c 2. When does the prefrontal cortex reach full maturation? a. 18 b. 20 c. at about age 25 d. 30 ANSWER: c 3. Which of these happens to the brain during senescence? a. Neural fluid increases. b. Myelination thickens. c. Neurotransmitter production decreases. d. The corpus callosum increases.

ANSWER: c 4. Overall brain slowdown is evident in which of these ways? a. faster reaction time b. slower reaction time c. faster thinking d. faster talking ANSWER: b 5. Which area of the brain is associated with smell? a. hippocampus b. pons c. limbic system d. olfactory area ANSWER: d 6. Which parts of the brain shrink the MOST in later life? a. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus and corpus callosum c. prefrontal cortex and thalamus d. prefrontal cortex and hypothalamus ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 7. White matter lesions start to appear on MRIs after age 50 or so. Which of these is NOT true about these lesions? a. They may result from tiny impairments in blood flow. b. They increase the time it takes to think. c. They may disrupt transmission from parts of the cortex and cerebellum. d. They encourage the processing of novel stimuli.

ANSWER: d 8. Which of these is associated with both depression and neurocognitive disorders? a. dendrite growth b. hindered plasticity c. decreased explicit memory d. improved executive functioning ANSWER: a 9. Those in _____ are LEAST likely to experience depression. a. childhood b. adolescence c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: d 10. Which of these is crucial for processing new experiences? a. prefrontal cortex b. gray matter c. amygdala d. white matter ANSWER: b 11. Brain plasticity occurs _____. a. in infancy b. during childhood c. during adulthood d. lifelong ANSWER: d 12. With age, which of these occurs in the brain? a. All growth ceases. b. Activity level always decreases. c. Using both hemispheres simultaneously becomes more likely.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice d. Plaque and tangles form.

ANSWER: c 13. Which of these is MOST affected by brain shrinkage? a. reading the newspaper b. selecting an outfit c. remembering bus routes d. multitasking ANSWER: d 14. Findings from PET and fMRI scans show that compared with younger adults, older adults _____. a. are more likely to rely on the right hemisphere of the brain b. experience greater decline in right hemisphere functioning rather than in left hemisphere functioning c. use more parts of their brains, including both hemispheres, to solve problems d. are less intellectually sharp but faster at information-processing tasks ANSWER: c 15. The brain reduces an older person's awareness of sensory losses by _____. a. amplifying the sights and sounds that are collected b. automatically filling in the missed sights and sounds c. generating multiple responses based on a variety of possible inputs d. exerting more effort to detect more details from sensory inputs ANSWER: b 16. The divide between what is sensed from the environment and what is not is referred to as _____. a. the sensory threshold b. control processing c. executive functions d. implicit memory ANSWER: a 17. Osip is in their late 70s and suffers from hearing loss. This is MOST likely associated with: a. increased control processing. b. improved executive functioning. c. reduced cognitive functioning. d. maintaining implicit memory.

ANSWER: c 18. Research has found that the more complex a memory task is, the more likely _____ will undercut ability. a. executive function b. control processes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice c. stereotype threat d. explicit memory ANSWER: c 19. The ability to recall something verbally without clues is referred to as _____. a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. source amnesia d. executive function ANSWER: a 20. The ability to recognize someone or something as familiar or to perform a habitual action is referred to as _____. a. explicit memory b. implicit memory c. source amnesia d. executive function ANSWER: b 21. Shanta believes that immigrants are invading the southern border but cannot recall where they learned this information. This BEST describes: a. explicit memory. b. implicit memory. c. source amnesia. d. executive function.

ANSWER: c 22. Which of these is NOT associated with executive functioning of the brain? a. selective attention b. source amnesia c. strategic judgment d. taking appropriate action ANSWER: b 23. Sable, age 75, believes their memory is fading with age, and the anxiety this causes them actually diminishes their memory. This describes which of these? a. sensory threshold b. source amnesia c. stereotype threat d. information processing ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 24. Vivien, age 81, just relayed a news story to their friends over lunch but cannot remember where they learned the information. Vivien is demonstrating: a. sensory threshold. b. source amnesia. c. stereotype threat. d. information processing.

ANSWER: b 25. According to the information-processing approach to cognition, which of these is another term for the "sensing" stage of cognition? a. input b. erasing c. reminding d. priming ANSWER: a 26. The primary reason older people receive less input into their brains is that _____. a. they are less interested in new things b. their senses decline, reducing the sensory input c. their thresholds increase, reducing sensory input d. they are not able to store information effectively ANSWER: b 27. The ability to recall a string of digits backward tends to _____ with age, while memory for vocabulary tends to _____ with age. a. increase; increase b. stay the same; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: d 28. Which of these is an example of prospective memory? a. Bayani remembers that they are meeting friends for lunch tomorrow. b. Quynh remembers that they had lunch with friends yesterday. c. Columb remembers that they used to bring their lunch to work every day. d. Ayuba remembers that they forgot to eat lunch at noon.

ANSWER: a 29. Stelian, age 75, has excellent pronunciation but poor spelling. They frequently forget the word or phrase they are trying to use, telling others that it is "on the tip of their tongue." These characteristics may be the result of _____. a. decreased inhibition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice b. poor muscular coordination c. inadequate control processes d. impaired vision ANSWER: c 30. A marked decrease in brain processing and memory in some older adults is MOST likely caused by _____. a. the use of both hemispheres of the brain b. inadequate control processes c. increased production of neurotransmitters d. more neural fluid that slows cerebral blood flow ANSWER: b 31. Selective attention, strategic judgment, and appropriate actions are all considered _____. a. implicit memories b. explicit memories c. control processes d. unconscious processes ANSWER: c 32. Older adults have _____ vocabularies but _____ fluency. a. extensive; limited b. extensive; extensive c. limited; limited d. limited; extensive ANSWER: a 33. Which of these statements is characteristic of the memory of older adults? a. The spelling of older adults is better than their speech. b. Older adults are better at recall than recognition. c. Older adults are less likely to have tip-of-the-tongue forgetfulness. d. Older adults benefit from learning control strategies.

ANSWER: d 34. As an individual ages, small sensory losses, such as a decreased ability to hear nuances of emotion in speech, _____. a. impair cognition b. are noticed immediately by the person experiencing them c. are unusual and usually a sign of a serious problem d. are sufficiently filled in by the brain ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 35. Small sensory losses impair cognition and _____ with age. a. start to decline in only one least-used area b. increase c. show no change d. begin to decrease ANSWER: b 36. The usual path of cognition in late adulthood as measured by psychological tests is gradual decline.

However, because _____ are the aspects of cognition that fade most with age, such tests may be culturally fair but age-unfair. a. practical thinking and processing speed b. abstract thinking and processing speed c. creative thinking and application of material d. autonomous thinking and creativity ANSWER: b 37. The idea that cognition should be measured in terms of everyday tasks and circumstances is _____. a. priming b. recall c. recognition d. ecological validity ANSWER: d 38. For the average individual in late adulthood, traditional tests of intelligence demonstrate that _____. a. cognitive abilities remain stable b. cognitive abilities continue to increase c. cognitive abilities decline d. some cognitive abilities increase, and others decline ANSWER: c 39. Which of these mental abilities demonstrates BEST the cognitive decline of late adulthood? a. fluid intelligence b. verbal meaning c. processing speed d. inductive reasoning ANSWER: c 40. Which of these terms would be ageist? a. neurocognitive disorder b. major neurocognitive disorder c. delirium Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice d. senility ANSWER: d 41. What is a neurocognitive disorder? a. benign forgetfulness b. a problem that affects most of the elderly c. a problem that affects only the elderly d. any number of brain diseases that affect a person's ability to remember, analyze, plan, or interact with others ANSWER: d 42. When a person is somewhat more confused and forgetful than they used to be but still able to function well, this person is experiencing _____. a. mild cognitive impairment b. vascular disease c. frontotemporal NCDs d. major cognitive impairment ANSWER: a 43. Compared to low-SES people, high-SES people tend to _____. a. enter late adulthood with less robust and flexible minds b. be more likely to be exposed to pollution and drugs c. have better medical care d. exercise less and have poorer nutrition ANSWER: c 44. Disorders that affect the frontal lobes are called _____. a. neurocognitive disorders b. major neurocognitive disorders c. delirium d. senility ANSWER: b 45. People who are diagnosed with mild neurological disorders will _____. a. always return to their previous cognitive functioning over time b. always display progressively worse cognitive functioning over time c. be more confused and forgetful than they were, but still able to function well d. usually develop major cognitive losses ANSWER: c 46. People who inherit one copy of _____ have about a 50/50 chance of developing Alzheimer's disease.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice a. ApoE4 b. daf-2 c. IGF-1 d. RNAI ANSWER: a 47. Autopsies show that the brains of Alzheimer's disease victims _____. a. have a proliferation of plaques and tangles b. exhibit damage from strokes c. have shrunk to half of normal size d. appear to be normal ANSWER: a 48. Brains of Alzheimer's disease victims display plaques, which are _____, and tangles, which are _____. a. a protein called tau; a protein called beta-amyloid b. a protein called beta-amyloid; a protein called tau c. presenilin 1; presenilin 2 d. amyloid precursor protein; presenilin ANSWER: b 49. Fritzi developed Alzheimer's disease well before the age of 60; early Alzheimer's disease is associated with a condition that Fritzi was born with called _____. a. Pick disease b. trisomy-21 c. cerebral palsy d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: b 50. Roland was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease while in middle age. Their doctor told their family that compared to the kind of Alzheimer's disease that develops in old age, this version _____. a. is much more benign b. progresses more rapidly c. progresses more slowly d. has many more symptoms ANSWER: b 51. Researchers believe that Alzheimer's disease is _____ genetic. a. not b. completely c. partly d. rarely Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 52. With each decade of life after age _____, more and more people experience severe cognitive decline. a. 50 b. 55 c. 60 d. 70 ANSWER: c 53. Vascular disease is caused by _____. a. Alzheimer's disease b. inadequate nutrition c. insufficient supply of blood to the brain d. environmental toxins ANSWER: c 54. Kaiser suffered a ministroke, but the symptoms disappeared shortly thereafter, and the event went unnoticed by friends and family. What is likely to happen next? a. They will continue to lead a full, active life, because ministrokes are isolated events that do not often happen again. b. They will likely develop Parkinson's disease. c. They will need physical therapy to prevent future problems. d. They will most likely have other strokes as this first one was a warning.

ANSWER: d 55. Aronne underwent major surgery that required general anesthesia. Which neurocognitive complication, although rare, is possible as a result? a. ministroke b. Alzheimer's disease c. Parkinson's disease d. mild neurocognitive disorder ANSWER: a 56. The MOST common form of frontotemporal NCD is _____. a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular disease c. Lewy body dementia d. Pick disease ANSWER: d 57. Which neurocognitive disorder is MOST likely to occur prior to age 70? a. Alzheimer's disease Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice b. vascular disease c. frontotemporal lobar degeneration d. Lewy body dementia ANSWER: c 58. The main symptom of frontotemporal NCD is _____. a. personality change b. memory loss c. seizures d. tremor ANSWER: a 59. The major cause of Parkinson's disease is _____. a. loss of dopamine-producing neurons b. overabundance of dopamine-producing neurons c. loss of serotonin-producing neurons d. overabundance of serotonin-producing neurons ANSWER: a 60. Parkinson's disease produces dementia as well as _____. a. flabbiness in the muscles b. rigidity in the muscles c. many little strokes d. high blood pressure ANSWER: b 61. Recently, Tatiana has had difficulty lifting their feet to climb steps. Sometimes their hands tremble when they are drinking water. Which neurocognitive disorder are they likely suffering from? a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Pick disease ANSWER: c 62. Some dementias, including _____ disease, begin with impaired motor control. a. Alzheimer's b. vascular c. Parkinson's d. Pick ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 63. Murray has neurocognitive disorder. Their motor control and memory have been affected, although their impairment is not the most significant symptom of their condition. The most significant symptom is their loss of inhibition, evident in their chronic gambling. Murray MOST likely has _____ disease. a. Lewy body b. vascular c. Parkinson's d. Pick ANSWER: a 64. A main symptom in Lewy body disease is loss of _____. a. inhibition b. memory c. speech d. small motor control ANSWER: a 65. Niclas, who played soccer in high school, college, and into their early 30s, received at least 12 head injuries in their athletic career, with 8 causing severe concussions. Now, at age 59, Niclas is experiencing memory loss and mood swings. They probably have _____. a. Pick disease b. chronic traumatic encephalopathy c. Huntington's disease d. Lewy body disease ANSWER: b 66. Which of these is the MOST important nongenetic factor in preventing the onset of cognitive impairment? a. good nutrition b. physical exercise c. mental exercise d. healthy diet ANSWER: b 67. Which of these behaviors is a characteristic of frontotemporal NCD? a. more careful planning b. personality changes c. pronounced emotional involvement d. memory loss ANSWER: b 68. One infectious disease that can cause neurocognitive disorders is _____. a. tuberculosis b. AIDS Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice c. sickle-cell anemia d. pneumonia ANSWER: b 69. The MOST common reversible condition that is mistaken for neurological disorder is _____. a. depression b. arteriosclerosis c. diabetes d. high blood pressure ANSWER: a 70. Since Lina's partner passed away, they have been eating the exact same thing—and a very small amount of it—for breakfast and lunch every day. Most nights, they skip dinner. Sometimes they seem confused when their grandchild calls to check on them. Based solely on this information, which diagnosis is MOST likely? a. Malnutrition is causing symptoms that mimic neurocognitive disorder. b. They must have had a ministroke. c. They are likely in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. d. Lewy body dementia is the most likely cause of their symptoms.

ANSWER: a 71. _____ is a common condition, because many elderly people take many different prescription drugs. a. Polypharmacy b. Undernourishment c. Reversible neurocognitive disorder d. Pick's disease ANSWER: a 72. Which of these is NOT a reason why prescription drugs may produce more severe side effects in the elderly? a. Recommended doses are based on younger adults. b. Clinical trials exclude people with multiple diseases. c. The elderly are less likely to miss a dose. d. Homeostasis slows down.

ANSWER: c 73. The fact that many elderly people take many different medications means that _____. a. they are less likely to have adverse reactions b. their dosages should be gradually increased c. the drugs can interact and produce adverse reactions d. they are especially aware of the possibility of drug overdose ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice 74. _____ can cause cognitive loss. a. Untreated diabetes b. Pregnancy c. Exercise d. Lipids ANSWER: a 75. Abraham Maslow maintains that older adults are _____ to reach self-actualization. a. more likely than younger people b. less likely than younger people c. just as likely as younger people d. too emotionally impaired ANSWER: a 76. Erik Erikson calls elders "_____," because he believes they are both aware of changes between generations and have a broad view of the human experience. a. the keepers of the flame b. self-actualized c. social witnesses d. cognitively superior ANSWER: c 77. According to Erik Erikson, which does NOT characterize self-actualization? a. spiritual understanding b. the longing for a secure and stable home c. an appreciation for or an engagement in artistic pursuits d. philosophical reflection ANSWER: b 78. According to the text, the fact that many older people begin to demonstrate an interest in painting, music, or woodworking supports the idea that older people _____. a. are generally very bored b. develop an appreciation for the aesthetic c. still have a drive for power and prestige d. become less interested in being with other people ANSWER: b 79. Research that examined creativity and aging has found that people in their 70s, 80s, and 90s: a. tend to lose their creativity. b. become more competitive and focused on their statuses in their chosen fields. c. remain as focused, efficient, and committed as they have been earlier in life.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 24 - Multiple Choice d. think that age impairs the quality of their work.

ANSWER: c 80. Jervis has begun keeping a detailed journal that includes stories of their childhood and early adulthood.

They plan to pass this journal down to their grandchildren as a family history so that they can know them in a more intimate way. This journal is known as "_____." a. an aesthetic summary b. a cathartic evaluation c. a life review d. confessional psychotherapy ANSWER: c 81. A challenge faced by researchers who want to see whether wisdom increases with age is that _____. a. most of the older people they want to study die b. there are no established ways to study change over time c. the definition of wisdom varies by culture d. it is difficult to find participants for a study that requires self-reflection ANSWER: c 82. Which of these factors is NOT associated with wisdom? a. putting aside one's personal needs b. quickly solving novel problems c. self-reflective honesty d. perspective on past living ANSWER: b

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Essay 1. Define the positivity effect and discuss how it benefits the lives of the elderly.

ANSWER: The positivity effect is the tendency for older people to perceive, prefer, and remember positive experiences over negative ones. It allows the elderly to maintain emotional health, as they are able to let go of or downplay difficult and negative events, and correlates with the belief that life has meaning. Elders with a positive worldview are likely to be healthier and happier.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define the positivity Defines the positivity Defines the positivity Does not define the effect and discuss its effect and discusses its effect or discusses its positivity effect or benefits benefits benefits discuss its benefits

2. Applying the various stratification theories discussed in the text, describe three difficulties that a low-income aging woman from an underrepresented group could face in U.S. culture.

ANSWER: An aging woman from a low-income background and underrepresented group could face many difficulties in U.S. culture. As a poor person, she could have had 1) decreased access to education and health care, and her current access to health care and 2) her financial resources could be strained. As an older person, she could 3) face ageism in many environments. As a member of a racial or ethnic minority, she could have faced 4) discrimination that would continue in her old age.

As a woman, she could be considered by many in the culture to 5) be weak and dependent. All of these factors would 6) negatively impact her health and well-being in old age.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discuss three Discusses three Discusses two Discusses one or no difficulties that a difficulties that a poor difficulties that a poor difficulties that a poor poor elderly minority elderly minority elderly minority elderly minority woman could face woman could face woman could face woman could face

3. Describe disengagement theory and activity theory, including how each relates to the quality of life in late adulthood.

ANSWER: Disengagement theory holds that as people age, their opportunities for social engagement shrink and people become more isolated; it says that elders voluntarily and progressively withdraw from society.

Activity theory contends that the elderly seek to maintain their relationships and activities, and that if they become isolated, they do so unwillingly. Research shows that elders who remain active are healthiest and happiest; those who become isolated are most often the sickest and poorest.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Describe Describes Describes disengagement disengagement theory disengagement theory and how it and how it affects theory or how it affects quality of life quality of life affects quality of life Describe activity Describes activity Describes activity theory and how it theory and how it theory or how it affects quality of life affects quality of life affects quality of life Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not describe disengagement theory or how it affects quality of life Does not describe activity theory or how it affects quality of life Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Essay

4. Discuss what double and triple jeopardy mean in terms of stratification.

ANSWER: Every form of stereotyping makes it more difficult for people to break free from social institutions that assign them to a particular path. The results are cumulative over the entire life span, severely harming those who suffer several forms of discrimination. Intersectionality may apply here. Others contend, however, that past stratification might buffer the problems of old age. Might those who were stratified in adulthood develop coping strategies that improve late adulthood? That would reverse the effect of stratification. Indeed, immigrant elders generally are happier with their lives than nonimmigrants, a phenomenon called the happiness paradox.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Discuss double and Discusses double and Partly discusses triple jeopardy triple jeopardy double and triple jeopardy

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Does not discuss double or triple jeopardy

5. What are two benefits of volunteer work among aging adults in the United States?

ANSWER: 1) Volunteering is related to positive well-being in later life. 2) A major reason volunteering is beneficial is that it fosters social connections. In addition, studies have found that 3) people who volunteer stay healthier than those who do not volunteer.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Describe benefits of Describes two benefits Describes one benefit Does not describe any volunteer work of volunteer work of volunteer work benefits of volunteer work

6. Explain three aspects of religious involvement that benefit the aging population.

ANSWER: 1) Religious prohibitions positively impact health (such as encouraging no drug use or alcohol abuse and other aspects of clean living); 2) involvement in a religious organization increases opportunities for social engagement and relationships; and 3) religious beliefs give meaning to life and death, reducing the stress associated with aging. 4) A nearby house of worship, where their volunteer efforts and their mere presence are valued, is one reason why American elders prefer to age in place.

Explain aspects of religious involvement that benefit the elderly

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Explains three aspects Explains two aspects of religious of religious involvement that involvement that benefit the elderly benefit the elderly

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains one or no aspects of religious involvement that benefit the elderly

7. Discuss the changes in marriage that occur in long-term partnerships.

ANSWER: Those in long-term marriages benefit from a lifetime of shared experiences, which often leads them to view their partner in very positive terms. While they may still disagree, 1) they have often learned how to do so with an attitude of mutual respect and 2) without serious fights or taking things too Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Essay seriously. While the division of labor may be unequal, they have often 3) settled into an established pattern based on strengths, tradition, and past experience and do not take issue with the disparities.

Couples use selective optimization with compensation together, with 4) each partner making up for the other's losses.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Discuss the changes Discusses the changes Is vague about the Does not discuss any in marriage that in marriage that occur changes in marriage changes in marriage occur in long-term in long-term that occur in long-term that occur in long-term partnerships partnerships partnerships partnerships

8. Mr. Mulryan directs a long-term care facility and oversees wellness checks of the residents. Mr. Mulryan wants to make sure that their nurses and mental health technicians know the risk factors for elder abuse to reduce its prevalence at the facility. List three risk factors for elder abuse.

ANSWER: Abuse of elders is most likely under the following circumstances: - The caregiver suffers from emotional problems or substance abuse.

- The care receiver is frail, confused, and demanding.

- The care location is isolated, where visitors are few.

Good (5 pts.)

List three Lists three circumstances when circumstances when elder abuse is likely elder abuse is likely

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Fair (3 pts.)

Lists two circumstances when elder abuse is likely

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Lists one or no circumstances when elder abuse is likely

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice 1. Self theories emphasize _____. a. social forces b. levels of discrimination c. perceptions of one's own identity d. circumscribed opportunities ANSWER: c 2. What is the final crisis of development, according to Erik Erikson? a. optimization versus compensation b. generativity versus stagnation c. integrity versus despair d. activity versus disengagement ANSWER: c 3. According to Erik Erikson, the dichotomy of integrity versus despair is the focus of _____. a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood ANSWER: d 4. Yvette looks back at their life with pride, even though some aspects of their personal history include errors on their part. Yvette is in the stage that Erik Erikson called _____. a. generativity versus stagnation b. optimization versus compensation c. activity versus disengagement d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: d 5. According to Erik Erikson, each new experience throughout life requires _____. a. both assimilation and accommodation b. integration of unique experiences with community concerns c. selective optimization d. stratification ANSWER: b 6. Chesed was asked to select a cherished object from their life. They chose a small tarnished picture frame with a photo of them with their father, taken when they were a child. Their selection demonstrates their attempt to _____. a. portray their object as a valued antique b. be young again Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice c. hold on to their identity d. be more like their mother ANSWER: c 7. Einars has accumulated such large piles of old papers and magazines that they can no longer use their table or desk, and they have held on to so much old furniture and clothing that many rooms in their home cannot be entered. In their attempt to hang on to various material items from their life, Einars developed _____. a. a positivity effect b. a good strategy for aging in place c. universal design d. compulsive hoarding ANSWER: d 8. Many older adults who are hoarders grew up _____. a. during the Great Depression b. in middle-class families c. during the turn of the century d. in western states ANSWER: a 9. Research has found that as people grow older, they feel that they are closer to their authentic self. This supports _____. a. socioemotional selectivity theory b. stratification theories of late adulthood c. Freud's psychosexual theory of development d. self theories of late adulthood ANSWER: d 10. The urge to accumulate and hold on to familiar objects and possessions is referred to as _____. a. compulsive hoarding b. stratification c. a hobby d. an activity ANSWER: a 11. Theories that describe the ways in which societies place people on a particular life path are called "_____ theories." a. self b. stratification c. continuity d. activity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 12. Gender-stratification theory recognizes that men and women are pushed into certain roles because of their sex, roles that may ultimately _____. a. limit women but not men b. harm them in late adulthood c. keep society intact d. make them better spouses ANSWER: b 13. _____ may harm males in that they are taught to be stoic, repressing their emotions, which may lead them to avoid medical attention later in life. a. Income discrepancies b. Gender stratification c. Prejudice d. Social disengagement ANSWER: b 14. Which of these claim that social forces limit individual choice and direct life in late adulthood? a. dynamic theories b. self theories c. stratification theories d. stage theories ANSWER: c 15. Age, gender, ethnicity, and income are the four major categories of _____; as such, they can limit choice at every stage of life. a. cognitive development b. socioeconomic status c. self theories d. stratification ANSWER: d 16. Each stereotype adds to stratification and thus adds to the risk of problems, perhaps putting those who are female, non-White, and poor in _____. a. an aging trifecta b. triple jeopardy c. a bidirectional loop d. reverse discrimination ANSWER: b 17. Older immigrants tend to be _____.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice a. happy and financially stable due to retirement savings b. well integrated into extended family life, as is the norm in the United States c. isolated but provided for by social welfare programs d. poor, without a long-lasting U.S. job that would qualify for Social Security benefits or pensions ANSWER: d 18. _____ may magnify stratification of gender, ethnicity, and immigration. a. Age b. Marriage c. Income d. Retirement ANSWER: c 19. The crucial stratification variable in the well-being of older adults is _____, which causes a lifetime of stresses including less education, less health care, and accumulating disadvantages of many kinds. a. the age of retirement b. low income c. age d. family size ANSWER: b 20. The idea that opportunities and roles are determined based on age is referred to as "_____." a. stratification by age b. selective optimization c. self-actualization d. social stagnation ANSWER: a 21. The view that aging makes a person's social sphere increasingly narrow is _____ theory. a. compensation b. disengagement c. optimization d. activity ANSWER: b 22. A person who is almost 65 years old withdraws from their connections with younger people, and their coworkers stop asking them for help. Which theory says this behavior is a natural part of aging? a. continuity b. self-actualization c. selective optimization d. disengagement Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 23. The theory that is contrary to disengagement theory is _____ theory. a. epigenetic b. identity c. activity d. feminist ANSWER: c 24. The view that elderly people need to remain energetic in a variety of social spheres is called "_____." a. stratification theories b. positivity effect c. activity theory d. disengagement theories ANSWER: c 25. Disengagement is more likely among _____. a. the sandwich generation b. professional women c. those low in SES d. affluent elders ANSWER: c 26. Lloyd has retired from their career as a city administrator, disengaging from their work life. This likely _____. a. means that Lloyd will begin to disengage from all other areas of life, too b. indicates that traditional roles are now available c. proves that disengagement theory is more accurate than activity theory d. is the start of Lloyd's decline ANSWER: a 27. The tendency for older people to perceive, prefer, and remember pleasant images and experiences rather than negative ones is referred to as _____. a. the immigrant paradox b. the positivity effect c. stratification d. disengagement ANSWER: b 28. Which of these is NOT an aspect of disengagement theory? a. Traditional roles become unavailable.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice b. The social circle expands. c. Coworkers stop relying on aging employees. d. Adult children turn away to focus on their own children.

ANSWER: b 29. Immigrant elders tend to be happier with their lives than nonimmigrants. This is referred to as _____. a. disengagement b. stratification c. the happiness paradox d. the positivity effect ANSWER: c 30. Based on large-scale research, who would be more socially engaged? a. Bergljot, who is in late adulthood b. Paula, who is in middle adulthood c. Isabella, who is a teenager d. Jana, who is in emerging adulthood ANSWER: a 31. Which of these enables older workers to transition from full employment? a. stratification b. activity theory c. retirement d. bridge jobs ANSWER: d 32. Retirement may decrease self-esteem among the population in which geographic area? a. the United States b. Asian nations c. Germany d. European nations ANSWER: b 33. Gardening is considered a productive activity in late adulthood, and it involves all of these EXCEPT _____. a. creativity b. exercise c. introspection d. social interaction ANSWER: c 34. Making a home livable for people who find it hard to reach the top shelves, to climb stairs, or to respond to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice the doorbell is known as _____. a. the happiness paradox b. universal design c. aging in place d. NORC ANSWER: b 35. The obligation of adult children to care for their aging parents is known as _____. a. stratification b. filial responsibility c. disengagement d. integrity ANSWER: b 36. Almost all grandparents provide some caregiving and gifts _____. a. unless the middle generation does not allow it b. if the spouse allows it c. but only when they want social interaction from the middle and younger generations d. unless the grandchildren are actively involved ANSWER: a 37. All of these workers are quite likely to remain in the paid labor force after age 60 EXCEPT a(n) _____. a. English professor b. unionized mechanic at a local factory c. independently employed cleaning lady d. judge in a state court ANSWER: b 38. Older adults who work part-time or become self-employed tend to be _____ than those who work full time or quit completely. a. happier b. more depressed c. more stressed d. sicker ANSWER: a 39. Which of these is a characteristic of a volunteer? a. weak commitment to the community b. few social contacts c. middle-aged d. poor health Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 40. Longitudinal as well as cross-sectional research finds a strong link between _____ and volunteering. a. age b. health c. political affiliation d. vocational identity ANSWER: b 41. Typically, who does more housework after retirement than before? a. men b. women c. hired caregivers d. both men and women ANSWER: d 42. Generally, where do the elderly prefer to live? a. in a planned retirement community b. with their children or other relatives c. in their own homes d. in nursing homes ANSWER: c 43. Xenia and Vaso have lived in the same house for over 50 years. They raised their children there and were actively involved in the neighborhood. As they age, their children want them to move to a nearby small apartment. Like many other older adults, Xenia and Vaso _____. a. look forward to moving to a new home b. prefer to age in place c. are divided on the decision, as women in general prefer to move during retirement d. would actually prefer to head to a warmer climate than stay local ANSWER: b 44. About _____ percent of older people prefer to age in place. a. 25 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 ANSWER: d 45. When many adults who moved into a neighborhood decades earlier never leave the area, the result is _____. a. assisted living Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice b. an empty nest c. a universal design d. a naturally occurring retirement community ANSWER: d 46. Which state has the highest proportion of people over the age of 65? a. Florida b. California c. Arizona d. Maine ANSWER: a 47. The fact that Maine, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia follow Florida as the states with the highest proportion of residents over age 65 illustrates that _____. a. most elderly people want to retire to warmer environments b. only a few states have an adequate number of planned retirement communities c. most people prefer to age where they have always lived d. the old tend to congregate in a few parts of the country ANSWER: c 48. Religious involvement correlates with _____ because it promotes social relationships and healthy habits. a. higher levels of stress b. better health c. more wealth d. earlier death ANSWER: b 49. Which of these statements about older people and religion is TRUE? a. Faith communities promote caring relationships. b. Belief in the afterlife may explain the high numbers of suicide among African American women. c. Faith decreases with age and experience. d. Religious identity is never as significant as ethnic identity in the lives of older adults.

ANSWER: a 50. Religious faith is associated with improved psychological health in old age due to _____. a. the belief that one's particular faith or ethnicity is superior to that of others b. beliefs that give meaning to life and death c. a focus on pleasure and immediate needs d. the regular attendance of religious services ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice 51. What percentage of older adults volunteer in political campaigns? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 ANSWER: b 52. In what way are older Americans the LEAST politically active? a. voting b. writing letters to elected officials c. staying informed on current events d. volunteering on political campaigns ANSWER: d 53. With regard to elections and public policy debates, the elderly tend to _____. a. always vote in support of their economic interests b. uniformly support the candidate or measure endorsed by AARP c. be divided d. look to their adult children for guidance ANSWER: c 54. Who of these are ideal social-convoy members for older adults? a. former spouses b. former teachers c. old friends d. retired bosses or supervisors ANSWER: c 55. Compared to single older adults, older spouses tend to be _____. a. happier and wealthier b. happier but poorer c. poorer and less happy d. wealthier but less happy ANSWER: a 56. Life satisfaction for the elderly correlates with _____. a. work b. companionship c. sexual activity d. income ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice 57. The most important buffer against the loss that comes from such stressors as retirement or widowhood is having _____. a. several grandchildren b. friendships c. paid caregivers d. a home of one's own ANSWER: b 58. Who is MOST likely to be the healthiest and happiest at age 70? a. Cornelia, who never married and lives alone b. Aslaug, who lives with their partner of 40 years c. Katey, who has been a widow for 14 years and did not remarry d. Nauja, who has been divorced for 23 years and lives with their adult child ANSWER: b 59. Most studies of marriages of long duration find that compared to younger adults, the elderly are _____. a. more open to the possibility of divorcing b. happier in their marriages c. no longer interested in sexual interaction d. more likely to dwell on areas of disagreement ANSWER: b 60. One crucial factor in the success of long-term marriages is _____. a. a sense of agreement on everything b. a strong sense of shared experiences c. a more active sex life d. the trend toward living apart together ANSWER: b 61. Ed and Janet have been married for 60 years. When asked to share their secret to a long marriage, Ed replied, "_____." a. We spend ample time apart b. We have learned how to disagree c. They depend on me for money d. We each have our own friends instead of a combined social circle ANSWER: b 62. A family of many generations but with only a few members of each generation is called a _____ family. a. beanpole b. nuclear Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice c. stratified d. collective ANSWER: a 63. Avani has added a room to their house in anticipation of their aging parents moving in with them. As their oldest child, they feel obligated to provide care for them out of a sense of _____. a. filial responsibility b. family ethics c. guilt d. surrogate parenting ANSWER: a 64. As a value, filial responsibility is especially strong in _____. a. Mexico b. Argentina c. Asia d. the Netherlands ANSWER: c 65. Older people's relationships with members of younger generations _____. a. are usually positive but can also include tension and conflict b. are usually negative but can also have some aspects that are mutually beneficial c. do not have a significant impact on their life and happiness d. are usually good with those much younger, such as grandchildren, but strained with those just one generation removed ANSWER: a 66. Which of these is the idea that older people select familiar social contacts who reinforce their generativity, pride, and joy? a. disengagement theory b. socioemotional selectivity theory c. stratification theory d. happiness paradox ANSWER: b 67. Older adults who are physically infirm, very ill, or cognitively impaired are referred to as "_____." a. distant grandparents b. frail c. dependent old d. isolated ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice 68. Care of frail older adults that combines the caregiving strengths of everyone is called _____. a. the happiness paradox b. filial responsibility c. integrated care d. familism ANSWER: c 69. Which of these begin by considering the overarching realities from outside of the individual, in terms of the aging process and their experience with it? a. disengagement theory b. socioemotional selectivity theory c. stratification theory d. wider-world theory ANSWER: d 70. ADLs are _____. a. aged developmental limitations b. activities of daily life c. Alzheimer disease lessons d. associations for disabled living ANSWER: b 71. Which of these is one of the ADLs? a. bathing b. shopping c. paying bills d. preparing a family meal ANSWER: a 72. In the United States, which of these is one of the IADLs? a. eating b. toileting c. preparing income tax forms d. growing vegetables in a garden ANSWER: c 73. The difference between ADLs and IADLs is that _____. a. ADLs are simple enough that even the frail elderly can do them independently b. IADLs are the same across cultures c. ADLs require professional training d. IADLs require some intellectual competence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 74. Which of these is NOT an instrumental activity of daily life? a. food preparation b. going to work c. maintaining a household d. managing personal finances ANSWER: b 75. The responsibility for preventing frailty among the elderly in a society falls to _____. a. adult children of aging parents b. governments, families, and individuals c. the youngest generation and public policy officials d. medical professionals ANSWER: b 76. Which of these responses to weakening leg muscles in an older person is the BEST response in terms of maintaining self-efficacy? a. using a walker and minimizing movement to decrease risks b. beginning a strength-training regimen c. continuing with daily life without change d. moving to an assisted-living facility ANSWER: b 77. Muscles weaken with age, a condition called "_____." a. Huntington's disease b. muscular dystrophy c. osteoporosis d. sarcopenia ANSWER: d 78. Which of these statements about family caregivers of frail older adults is TRUE? a. Daughters-in-law are often grateful that they can reciprocate for the nurturing they once received. b. Most caregivers have no prior experience taking care of frail older adults. c. Caregiving is universally a depressing and unrewarding task. d. Public agencies frequently provide services to compensate for needs the caregiver is unable to fulfill.

ANSWER: b 79. Miina lives next door to their childhood home and has become the caregiver for their father, a frail aging man who has dementia and other physical weaknesses. Which of these is NOT likely true of this case? a. Miina's siblings may fight over who provides care and how.

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice b. Public agencies will not be available to assist Miina unless there is an extreme issue. c. Miina will need support and breaks if they are to do their role well. d. Miina is most likely the caregiver because they have the training and personality to do the job better than others in the family.

ANSWER: d 80. Which of these conditions increases the likelihood of elder abuse? a. a demanding care receiver b. a well-paid caregiver c. residence in a state-licensed nursing home d. a caregiver who has only a small number of patients ANSWER: a 81. What is one of the reasons that elder abuse is sometimes difficult to identify? a. Most elders cannot speak for themselves. b. The definition of what constitutes abuse is not clearly defined. c. It is most common in institutions, where inspectors hide problems from view. d. Many elders make false claims, leading to a "boy who cried wolf" phenomenon.

ANSWER: b 82. Which of these is a sign of a humane setting for long-term care? a. few inspections b. limited privacy c. individual choice in activities d. frequent changes in staff ANSWER: c 83. In the United States, the trend has been toward _____ nursing home residents. a. more b. a stable number of c. fewer d. trying to increase the number of ANSWER: c 84. Which of these is NOT true of most front-line nursing home employees? a. They are most likely to be family members of the residents. b. Training on even very simple tasks is very important. c. Many staff members have many patients. d. Pay is often very low.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 25 - Multiple Choice 85. An intermediate form of care for older adults is _____. a. aging in place b. assisted living c. a nursing home d. spending time in the hospital ANSWER: b 86. Which of these does NOT increase the likelihood of elder abuse? a. The caregiver suffers from emotional problems or substance abuse. b. The care receiver is frail, confused, and demanding. c. The care location is isolated. d. The caregiver is in emerging adulthood.

ANSWER: d 87. Assisted living can be thought of as a combination of _____. a. hospital care and independent living b. nursing home care and independent living c. kinship care and hospital care d. independent living and aging in place ANSWER: b 88. What is the estimated prevalence of elder abuse? a. less than 5 percent b. around 12 percent c. 16 percent d. 25 percent ANSWER: c

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Essay 1. Cite at least three examples of how the process of death has changed over the past 100 years.

ANSWER: 1) People are now dying later due to longer life spans. 2) People are taking longer to die due to medical intervention (lingering). 3) Most people die in hospitals rather than at home. 4) People are now dying from different causes (e.g., age-related illnesses rather than typhoid).

Cite examples of how the process of death has changed

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (0–1 pts.)

Cites three examples Cites two examples of Cites one or no of how the process of how the process of examples of how the death has changed death has changed process of death has changed

2. Seven-year-old Marje's best friend, Barukh, died in a tragic car accident last month. Marje's parents are concerned because one day, they'll seem to be OK, talking and playing. The next, they may dissolve into tears, start screaming, or completely shut down. According to research on brain development, is Marje's response typical for a child their age? Explain.

ANSWER: Because the limbic system matures more rapidly than the prefrontal cortex, young children may seem happy one day and morbidly depressed the next. At this point, Josie's grief reaction is consistent with a young child's developmental level.

Explain that Josie's response is typical, citing development of the prefrontal cortex and limbic system

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Explains that Josie's Explains that Josie's Does not indicate that response is typical, response is typical, Josie's response is citing development of citing development of typical; does not cite the prefrontal cortex the prefrontal brain development and limbic system cortex or the limbic system

3. What are the five stages of dying according to Elizabeth Kübler-Ross? Provide an example for each stage.

ANSWER: Kübler-Ross proposed five sequential stages in the dying process: 1) Denial. "I am not really dying."

2) Anger. "This is my family's fault!"

3) Bargaining. "I will lead a much better life if only I can live."

4) Depression. "I don't care about anything. Nothing matters anymore."

5) Acceptance. "I accept my death as part of life."

Name the five stages in the dying process as proposed by Kübler-Ross Provide an example for each stage

Good (5 pts.)

Names the five stages proposed by KüblerRoss

Fair (3 pts.)

Names three or four stages proposed by Kübler-Ross

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names two or fewer stages proposed by Kübler-Ross

Provides an example for each stage

Provides an example for three or four stages

Provides an example for two or fewer stages

4. Arjun is terminally ill and knows that they will soon pass away as a result of the illness. They want to make Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Essay sure that they experience a good death. First explain what a good death is, and then outline three steps that medical professionals can take to help Arjun experience a good death.

ANSWER: A good death 1) is at the end of a long life, 2) is in the presence of loved ones, and 3) may be in familiar surroundings. A good death is one that is 4) peaceful, 5) quick, and 6) without pain, confusion, or discomfort.

Steps that medical professionals can take to ensure a good death include: 1) talking honestly about the pros and cons of life-prolonging interventions, 2) offering pain management without worry of addiction for the terminally ill, 3) allowing for family and friends to visit freely, and 4) letting the terminally ill leave the hospital and die at home or in a hospice when there is no chance of recovery.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Define a good Defines a good death Defines a good death Does not define a death and list at least and lists at least three and lists at least two good death or lists one three of the points of the points given of the points given or none of the points given above above above given above Explain steps Explains three steps Vaguely explains Explains one or no medical medical professionals steps medical steps medical professionals can can take to assist in a professionals can take professionals can take take to assist in a good death to assist in a good to assist in a good good death death death

5. What is the goal of hospice care? Who does it serve? What barriers can keep people from receiving this kind of care?

ANSWER: The goal of hospice care is to allow dying individuals to spend their last days in comfort outside of a hospital and to support the close friends and family of the dying individual.

Hospice serves dying people (who have less than six months to live) by respecting their wishes and providing a level of pain management that meets their needs. It serves loved ones by providing counseling and guidance.

Barriers to hospice care include: 1) its expense, which is not always covered by insurance; 2) it is not available everywhere; 3) admitted patients must be terminally ill and approaching death (within six months); and 4) both the patient and patient's loved ones must accept death to accept hospice services.

Good (5 pts.)

Answer three Adequately answers questions regarding all three questions hospice care

Fair (3 pts.)

Adequately answers two of the questions

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Adequately answers one or none of the questions

6. Name and describe the two controversial practices that assist a person in terminating their own life.

ANSWER: The two controversial practices are active euthanasia and physician-assisted suicide. Active euthanasia occurs when someone answers a dying person's request for assistance to end life, such as giving a fatal injection or unplugging life-support machines. Physician-assisted suicide occurs when Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Essay the doctor provides a prescription for a patient to end their own life. The person then chooses whether or not to take the lethal medication.

Name and describe the practices that assist a person in terminating their own life

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Names and describes Names and describes Does not name or both practices that one of the practices describe either of the assist a person in that assist a person in practices that assist a terminating their own terminating their own person in terminating life life their own life

7. Define physician-assisted suicide. Which U.S. states allow physician-assisted suicide as part of "death with dignity"? Do you agree or disagree with this practice? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Physician-assisted suicide is the taking of one's own life by using medication provided by a doctor.

In the United States, Washington, Vermont, California, and Oregon have joined together to allow physician-assisted "death with dignity." Students can indicate whether or not they support this answer. Credit should be given if they justify or explain their position.

Define physicianassisted suicide

Identify four states that allow this practice Explain support— agree or disagree and why

Good (5 pts.)

Defines physicianassisted suicide

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Provides a vague Does not define definition of physician-assisted physician-assisted suicide suicide Identifies four states Identifies two or three Identifies one or no that allow this practice states that allow this states that allow this practice practice Explains support— Explains support but Does not explain agrees or disagrees is vague on reasons support position and and states why why or why not offers no reason(s)

8. Define absent grief, disenfranchised grief, and incomplete grief. Provide examples of circumstances that can lead to each type of grief.

ANSWER: Absent grief is when mourners do not or cannot grieve. This may be a first reaction, when a mourner simply cannot face the fact that a loved one has died. Disenfranchised grief is experienced when some people, even though they are bereaved, are prevented from participating in mourning. This may be experienced by an ex-spouse or long-time but unmarried partner who is excluded by the immediate family from attending the mourning events (such as calling hours, funeral, or memorial service). Incomplete grief occurs when circumstances interfere with or delay the process of grieving.

This may occur when there is a delay in returning the body for burial, as with deaths that occurred in military action or as part of a crime scene.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Define kinds of grief Defines the three kinds Defines two of the of grief kinds of grief Identify the Identifies the Identifies the circumstances that circumstances that circumstances that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Defines one or none of the kinds of grief Identifies the circumstances that Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Essay cause each kind of grief

cause all three kinds of grief

cause two of the kinds cause one or none of of grief the kinds of grief

9. Apply the notion of "placing blame and seeking meaning" to a tragic death (or the tragic deaths of many people) that has been in the news recently. What actions did mourners take after the event?

ANSWER: For public deaths on a national scale, such as the killing of innocent civilians in a war-torn area, one nation will blame another, and often protests will ensue. Mourners may also 1) protest after deaths caused by a drunk driver, dangerous intersection, gun violence, or preventable violence. They often 2) seek to change laws and raise awareness. Mourners will often 3) create memorials—sometimes tied to the place of tragedy, or sometimes to share the news of their loss widely (as with online obituaries). Mourners will often also 4) find connection with others who have been through a similar tragedy, as when parents who lost children to violence join a support group to provide assistance to one another.

Good (5 pts.)

Fair (3 pts.)

Weak (1–0 pts.)

Apply placing blame Applies placing blame Applies placing blame Does not apply placing and seeking meaning and seeking meaning and seeking meaning blame and seeking to a tragic death in to a tragic death in the to a tragic death meaning to a tragic the news news without describing a death in the news death in the news Describe actions Describes two actions Describes one action Describes no actions taken by mourners taken by mourners taken by mourners taken by mourners

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these statements is a way that death today is different from 100 years ago? a. Death occurs earlier. b. Dying occurs faster. c. Death impacts more children. d. Death has become less familiar.

ANSWER: d 2. After experiencing the death of a loved one, some may be "stuck in a state of chronic mourning." This is known as: a. mourning. b. absent grief. c. incomplete grief. d. prolonged grief.

ANSWER: d 3. Which type of grief is a new diagnostic category that was recently added to the DSM? a. mourning b. absent grief c. incomplete grief d. prolonged grief ANSWER: d 4. Themes around death that occur in all of the known ancient cultures include all of these EXCEPT that _____. a. mourners respond to death with a set of rituals b. all dead bodies must be buried in the ground c. actions in life impact what happens after death d. an afterlife exists ANSWER: b 5. One hundred years ago, most people died _____, while today they most often die in a hospital. a. at home b. at birth c. while working d. in public spaces ANSWER: a 6. Which of these is NOT an aspect of death seen in most cultures? a. Actions during life were thought to affect destiny after death. b. Grief was taboo and forbidden to be expressed. c. An afterlife was assumed. d. Mourners said prayers and made offerings to prevent the spirit of the dead from haunting and hurting Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 1

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice them.

ANSWER: b 7. An international study found that most believed _____. a. in life after death b. that death was painless c. that death could be escaped d. that death was final ANSWER: a 8. When dealing with a child who has experienced the death of a loved one, adults should _____. a. tell the child that the dead person or animal is just sleeping b. tell the child that it is best not to talk about things that are upsetting c. listen to the child with full attention when the child talks about the death d. quickly change the subject when the child talks about the death ANSWER: c 9. Children who are terminally ill fear that death means they will be _____. a. abandoned b. in pain c. sad d. bored ANSWER: a 10. Sutekh's father has been reluctant to tell them that Grandma Yonghas passed away. After keeping Sutekh home with a babysitter during the funeral, their mother has said things like, "Grandma Yong had to go away."

But Sutekh, who has heard adults talking about the death, senses that their mother is avoiding the topic and has come to the conclusion that _____. a. adults just want to protect their children b. the conversations were probably false and Grandma Yong is just away for a while c. death is a terrifying topic that even adults can't discuss d. there are some things kids just shouldn't know ANSWER: c 11. Thracius is a preschooler. Which of these is something they might experience following the death of their grandmother? a. mixed emotions b. gladness c. uncertainty d. spirituality ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 2

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice 12. Adolescents' use of social media to write to the dead person or to vent their grief is _____. a. unhealthy denial b. unhealthy withdrawal from the family c. an effective way to express their identity concerns d. a sign of their self-absorption ANSWER: c 13. According to _____, adolescents and emerging adults engage in high-risk behaviors in order to cope with their fear of death. a. thanatology b. terror management theory c. reincarnation d. bereavement ANSWER: b 14. It has been estimated that _____ times more young adults die violently than die of all diseases combined. a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 10 ANSWER: b 15. In an effort to reduce binge drinking on campus, the university initiated an information campaign to raise awareness. Within weeks of the beginning of the campaign, binge drinking incidents had increased. What is the BEST explanation for this? a. thanatology b. terror management theory c. belief in reincarnation d. bereavement ANSWER: b 16. Poet Dylan Thomas didn't want his father to die or to go easily into death. Why do adults express this kind of sentiment about other people's deaths? a. It helps them to defend against the fear of death. b. They want to lose their loved ones to death. c. They aren't sure they will be able to get time off to attend the funeral. d. It helps keep them motivated to live healthily.

ANSWER: a 17. Helder is in their 60s and suffers from a terminal illness. They are likely focused on _____. a. their fear of death b. the pain they might suffer Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 3

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice c. a fear of leaving something undone d. planning their funeral ANSWER: c 18. The fact that more people fear flying than driving illustrates that attitudes about death tend to be _____. a. largely informed by statistics b. focused on the changes that individuals should make in order to live longer lives c. major factors in our selection of transit d. largely irrational ANSWER: d 19. In late adulthood, attitudes about death shift. Anxiety _____ while hope _____. a. decreases; increases b. increases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. increases; decreases ANSWER: a 20. Many developmentalists believe that one sign of mental health in older adults is _____. a. denying death b. feeling guilty for what is undone c. accepting mortality d. focusing on the limits of old age ANSWER: c 21. One way that older people cope with their own mortality is through _____. a. denying death b. feeling guilty for what is undone c. engaging in legacy work d. focusing on the limits of old age ANSWER: c 22. Which of these is TRUE about older adults who think they may die soon? a. They are more likely to want to spend time with a family member. b. They are unlikely to believe in some kind of afterlife. c. They give up on living. d. They are unlikely to accept death as a part of life.

ANSWER: a 23. Across cultures, a result of near-death experiences is _____. a. an increased fear of death Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 4

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice b. scientific data on what happens to the dead c. a loss of the will to live d. a sense of hopefulness ANSWER: d 24. Keijo was in critical condition when they arrived at the ER. Their heart stopped and they almost died, but thanks to quick intervention they survived. As they recovered, they discussed having the sense of floating in light and experiencing a sense of peace. Keijo seems to have had a _____. a. coma b. near-death experience c. terror management theory d. good death ANSWER: b 25. Across cultures, those who have a near-death experience often reach a worldview with all of these EXCEPT _____. a. the limitations of social status b. the insignificance of material possessions c. an increased focus on vocational goals d. the narrowness of self-centeredness ANSWER: c 26. Some adolescents in Florida who suffer from asthma are more likely to use tobacco products compared to teens that do not have asthma. This could be explained by _____. a. thanatology b. terror management theory c. belief in reincarnation d. bereavement ANSWER: b 27. In every culture, all varieties of the dying experience move people toward all of these realizations EXCEPT the _____. a. limitations of social status b. insignificance of material possessions c. narrowness of self-centeredness d. understanding that death is escapable ANSWER: d 28. One problem associated with obtaining a good death is _____, which is focused on lifesaving. a. medical care itself b. the terror management theory c. belief in reincarnation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 5

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice d. thanatology ANSWER: a 29. An order from a doctor regarding end-of-life care is referred to as _____. a. POLST b. do not resuscitate c. passive euthanasia d. active euthanasia ANSWER: a 30. Which of these is similar to a living will but is written for medical professionals and thus is more specific? a. physician-ordered life-sustaining treatment b. do not resuscitate c. passive euthanasia d. active euthanasia ANSWER: a 31. Which of these descriptions is NOT characteristic of a good death? a. peaceful b. quick c. in familiar surroundings d. being alone ANSWER: d 32. In what way has modern medicine made a good death more likely? a. by confining most deaths to hospitals and nursing homes b. by increasing the general levels of health so that most deaths occur in old age c. by not discussing the likelihood of death with patients, so as not to scare them d. by using whatever means necessary to prolong life at all times ANSWER: b 33. Which of these is NOT a way that medical advances have made a bad death more likely? a. Hospitals exclude visitors at the most critical point. b. People are encouraged to fight death with surgery and drugs. c. Death occurs at the end of a long life. d. Drugs are used to manage pain, which can cause delirium or confusion.

ANSWER: c 34. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross proposed _____ sequential stages that dying people go through. a. 2 b. 5 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 6

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: b 35. What is the first sequential stage of dying, according to Kübler-Ross? a. anger b. denial c. depression d. bargaining ANSWER: b 36. Mx. Noor has been diagnosed as terminally ill, but insists that they will recover and believes that their laboratory results were mixed up or misinterpreted. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross would say that Mx. Noor is in the stage of _____. a. acceptance b. bargaining c. denial d. depression ANSWER: c 37. "Why me? You're an incompetent doctor!" Shekhar wails when their doctor delivers the news that their cancer has returned, and that Shekhar has only six months to live. In which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Shekhar? a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. depression ANSWER: b 38. "Doctor, if you can find a new treatment that will cure me, I will buy the hospital a new cancer wing," Aylmer promises. Which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Aylmer in? a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. depression ANSWER: c 39. Zahir's mother has a terminal disease. "Mom, why don't we go for a walk? You can watch the kids play soccer at the park," Zahir says. Their mother replies, "What's the point? Nothing really matters anymore."

Which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Zahir's mother in? a. denial b. anger c. bargaining Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 7

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice d. depression ANSWER: d 40. The work of _____ has been used to describe dying as a movement from a focus on physical needs, through the needs for love, safety, respect, and self-actualization, and finally to the acceptance of death. a. Jean Piaget b. Abraham Maslow c. Sigmund Freud d. B. F. Skinner ANSWER: b 41. According to Abraham Maslow, which of these is a stage involved in the dying process? a. safety b. denial c. forgiveness d. depression ANSWER: a 42. Which of Maslow's stages emphasizes the acceptance of death and the hope for others to continue what the dying person values for them? a. peaceful reflection b. life review c. self-actualization d. self-transcendence ANSWER: d 43. Who opened the first modern hospice? a. Abraham Maslow b. Janet Anderson c. Cecily Saunders d. Addison Freely ANSWER: c 44. Which of these statements regarding hospice care is TRUE? a. People are only admitted when there is reasonable chance for recovery. b. Patients can only be admitted if death is likely within six months. c. No medications are available once a patient moves into hospice. d. Currently, no insurance companies cover hospice services.

ANSWER: b 45. Rasim is terminally ill and has just entered a hospice program. What can they expect?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 8

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice a. pain management b. being placed on an artificial life-support system c. restricted visiting hours for family and close friends d. to be resuscitated if they stops breathing on their own ANSWER: a 46. Which of these is a common barrier to hospice care? a. Patients and their families may not be accepting death. b. Patients must be within two weeks of death to be admitted. c. Most people prefer to die in a hospital. d. It is currently only available in England.

ANSWER: a 47. Where do MOST deaths in the United States occur? a. at home b. in hospitals c. in nursing homes d. at hospice ANSWER: b 48. Palliative care _____. a. is the legal term for a living will b. does not occur in a hospice setting c. is not acceptable to most religions d. provides relief from physical pain ANSWER: d 49. The goal of palliative care is to _____. a. relieve patients from pain and suffering b. treat terminal illnesses c. study the experience of the dying d. treat advanced-stage diseases by any means possible ANSWER: a 50. Medication that relieves pain and also slows respiration has _____. a. a double effect b. a DNR c. a good death d. hospice care ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 9

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice 51. Dr. Ericson specializes in the relief of pain and suffering. They frequently prescribe pain medicines like morphine for the terminally ill patients they see in the hospital. Dr. Ericson specializes in _____. a. pharmacy b. palliative care c. physician-assisted suicide d. thanatology ANSWER: b 52. Opiates have a double effect, meaning that they both _____. a. relieve pain and fight many infections b. reduce sedation and cause delirium c. relieve pain and slow respiration d. fight many infections and slow respiration ANSWER: c 53. Inga has just been evaluated by medical professionals. They cannot move any part of their body except for their eyes, but brain waves are still apparent. The doctor explains that Inga is not dead, but _____. a. has brain death b. is in a coma c. is in a vegetative state d. has locked-in syndrome ANSWER: d 54. A person who is in a state of deep unconsciousness from which they cannot be aroused _____. a. has brain death b. is in a coma c. has died d. has locked-in syndrome ANSWER: b 55. Historically, death was determined by _____. a. being in a coma b. low rates of brain activity c. no heartbeat d. no movement for more than a week ANSWER: c 56. Worldwide, death is determined when _____. a. the person enters locked-in syndrome b. the kidneys shut down c. noticeable respiration ceases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 10

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice d. brain waves cease ANSWER: d 57. In "locked-in syndrome," _____. a. the person is dead b. the heart has stopped c. the person is not dead d. normal brain waves have ceased ANSWER: c 58. A person in a state characterized by prolonged cessation of all brain activity, with a complete absence of voluntary movements, _____. a. has brain death b. is in a coma c. has slipped into a vegetative state d. has locked-in syndrome ANSWER: a 59. Lene entered a state of deep unconsciousness after a serious accident. Their cognitive functions have ceased though they are still breathing. Their family and friends notice that their eyes have occasionally opened and they have made a few irregular sounds. Lene _____. a. is in a coma b. has brain death c. is in a vegetative state d. has locked-in syndrome ANSWER: c 60. A person with which of these conditions is considered dead? a. a coma b. brain death c. a vegetative state d. locked-in syndrome ANSWER: b 61. In _____, a seriously ill person is allowed to die naturally, without any medical intervention. a. assisted suicide b. passive euthanasia c. a health care proxy d. active euthanasia ANSWER: b 62. Which of these is an example of passive euthanasia?

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 11

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice a. A doctor gives a patient a prescription for a lethal medication. b. A husband injects his wife with an overdose of her medication, without her requesting this of him. c. A patient asks his adult child to give him a lethal injection. d. A doctor does not resuscitate a man who stops breathing after seeing that he had a DNR order.

ANSWER: d 63. A DNR order _____. a. can be used only by hospice workers b. allows a natural death c. is not available to the terminally ill d. is illegal in most U.S. states ANSWER: b 64. An example of active euthanasia is when _____. a. a doctor does not restore breathing after reading the patient's DNR order b. health care professionals limit painkilling drugs c. someone turns off a patient's respirator d. a patient refuses to eat ANSWER: c 65. Olga is terminally ill and in constant pain. They have asked their doctor for a prescription they can use to end their life. If the doctor gives the prescription and Olga uses it to die, it is considered _____. a. hospice care b. physician-assisted suicide c. passive euthanasia d. palliative care ANSWER: b 66. Oregon's law regarding assisted suicide requires the _____. a. patient to enter hospice care b. patient's illness to be confirmed by at least four physicians c. dying person to request the lethal drugs twice orally and once in writing d. consent of the next of kin ANSWER: c 67. When Oregon residents' reasons for requesting physician-assisted suicide were assessed, which reason was identified as the LEAST common? a. loss of autonomy b. loss of dignity c. pain d. loss of ability to enjoy life Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 12

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 68. A major argument against legalizing euthanasia is a concern that it may lead society to condone the killing of those who are not ready to die, creating a _____. a. passive euthanasia b. health care proxy c. slippery slope d. death panel ANSWER: c 69. In Oregon, which group of people is MOST likely to use physician-assisted suicide? a. the oldest-old b. the poor c. European Americans d. those with only a high school education ANSWER: c 70. _____ can describe everything regarding end-of-life care. a. Legal proxies b. Advance directives c. Notarized decrees d. Terminal decrees ANSWER: b 71. Some people designate a _____, or another person who can make medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so. a. health care proxy b. living will c. palliative care specialist d. court ANSWER: a 72. A living will is written to indicate _____. a. that no attempt should be made to revive the person if they stop breathing b. the way property should be divided among heirs c. how to pass along important family stories d. what medical intervention should be used if the person is not conscious when a decision needs to be made ANSWER: d 73. A person whom a dying person designates to make their medical decisions is a(n) _____. a. adult child Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 13

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice b. health care proxy c. attorney d. hospice worker ANSWER: b 74. The deep sorrow that people feel after the death of another is called _____. a. grief b. mourning c. a near-death experience d. resilience ANSWER: a 75. The type of grief that impedes a person's future life is called _____ grief. a. complicated b. absent c. disenfranchised d. incomplete ANSWER: a 76. Older adults who were securely attached in childhood are more likely to experience _____ grief when a loved one dies. a. absent b. complicated c. normal d. very little ANSWER: c 77. Dilipa's mother just passed away. They were very close and Dilipa cannot face the reality of their death. To those around them, it appears that Dilipa is not grieving at all. Dilipa is experiencing _____ grief. a. complicated b. disenfranchised c. absent d. incomplete ANSWER: c 78. The type of grief in which people are not allowed to mourn publicly because of cultural customs or social restrictions is called _____ grief. a. incomplete b. disenfranchised c. complicated d. absent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 14

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 79. Nafisa's former partner died suddenly. Although their two children were included in the memorial service, Nafisa was intentionally excluded. Because they still cared about their former partner, Nafisa experienced _____. a. absent grief b. incomplete grief c. disenfranchised grief d. mourning ANSWER: c 80. Ruben's partner was flying a small plane when it disappeared above a wooded mountainside. Their body was never recovered. In this loss, it is likely that Ruben is experiencing _____. a. absent grief b. incomplete grief c. disenfranchised grief d. mourning ANSWER: b 81. Which of these conditions may hinder the healing and affirmation of the bereaved? a. experiencing a delay in recovering the body of the deceased b. holding a funeral a few days after the death c. having rosy recollections of the deceased person d. believing in life after death ANSWER: a 82. The public and ritualistic expression of bereavement is called _____. a. mourning b. sadness c. a near-death experience d. palliative care ANSWER: a 83. An important function of the mourning process is to _____. a. allow a private expression of pain following a death b. allow expression of grief publicly c. identify a point of blame for the death d. take one's mind off the loss of a loved one ANSWER: b 84. Which of these is TRUE about memorials to the dead? a. There is a consensus among religions that memorials are an important part of the grieving process in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 15

Name:

Class:

Date:

Chapter 26 - Multiple Choice every culture. b. It is a Western practice that is antithetical to most Eastern cultures. c. They are a relatively modern phenomenon. d. They are only used in Christian services.

ANSWER: b 85. Marine's father recently passed away after a long illness. Though Marine has not attended religious services since they were a child, it is likely that they will _____. a. become more spiritual after being confronted with this death b. refuse to attend the funeral c. not believe in any sort of life after death d. never move past their grief because they do not practice a religion ANSWER: a 86. In Western culture, memories and connections that link the living and the dead form _____. a. a continuing bond b. hallucinations c. denial d. the slippery slope ANSWER: a

Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Page 16