TEST BANK for Sports and Exercise Nutrition 5th Edition by William D. McArdle PhD

1. The four categories of carbohydrates include all of the following except: A) monosaccharides B) disaccharides C) trisaccharides D) oligosaccharides

2. Glucose may be produced by gluconeogenesis, synthesizing it from all of the following except: A) pyruvate B) fatty acids C) glycerol D) carbon skeletons of specific amino acids

3. The term complex carbohydrate commonly refers to: A) milk sugar B) fruit sugar C) table sugar D) dietary starch

4. All of the following are nutritious dietary carbohydrate sources except: A) fruits B) grains C) vegetables D) high-fructose corn syrup

5. The water-insoluble fibers include all of the following except: A) pectin B) lignin C) hemicellulose D) cellulose

6. Glycogen reserves readily deplete during the following conditions except: A) carbohydrate loading B) starvation C) prolonged strenuous exercise D) low-carbohydrate diet

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7. Glycogen is synthesized from glucose during a process called __________.

A) gluconeogenesis B) glycolysis C) glycogenolysis D) glucogenesis

8. __________ serves as the major source of carbohydrate energy for active muscles during exercise.

A) Muscle glycogen B) Blood glucose C) Glycerol D) Fatty acid

9. __________ is a process that provides a rapid extramuscular glucose supply.

A) Gluconeogenesis B) Glycolysis C) Glycogenolysis D) Glucogenesis

10. Elevated blood glucose levels cause the beta cells of the pancreas to secrete the hormone __________.

A) glucagon B) somatostatin C) epinephrine D) insulin

11. When blood glucose falls below the normal range, the pancreas' alpha cells immediately secrete the hormone __________.

A) glucagon B) somatostatin C) epinephrine D) insulin

12. An amino group shifts from a donor amino acid to an acceptor acid and the acceptor becomes a new amino acid in a process called __________.

A) deamination B) glucose-alanine cycle C) transamination D) Cori cycle synthesis

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13. Amino acid molecules lose their nitrogen (amine group) in the liver via a process called __________.

A) deamination B) glucose-alanine cycle C) transamination D) crossamination

14. The __________ for protein, vitamins, and minerals represents a standard for nutrient intake expressed as a daily average.

A) Estimated Safe and Adequate Daily Dietary Intakes (ESADDI) B) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) C) Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) D) Recommended Daily Dietary Intakes (RDDI)

15. The disaccharide sucrose forms from the union of: A) glucose and glucose B) fructose and galactose C) fructose and fructose D) glucose and fructose

16. Lipid constitutes the ideal cellular fuel because each molecule carries large quantities of __________.

A) water B) hydrogen C) ATP D) energy per unit weight

17. The type of fatty acid that contains two or more double bonds along the main carbon chain is called __________.

A) polyunsaturated B) monounsaturated C) trans D) saturated

18. Blood lipids must bind to __________, or they will not dissolve in the blood plasma.

A) protein B) fatty acids C) phosphorous-containing groups D) glucose

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19. What type of lipoprotein forms when emulsified lipid droplets leave the small intestine and enter the lymphatic system?

A) Glycolipids B) Chylomicrons C) Low-density lipoproteins D) Phospholipids

20. The lipoprotein that normally carries between 60% and 80% of the total serum cholesterol and has the greatest affinity for arterial wall cells is called __________.

A) HDL B) LDL C) IDL D) VLDL

21. One of the important functions of glucose in the body is its ability to be __________.

A) used directly by the cells for energy B) stored as lipoproteins in muscles and the brain C) converted to protein for energy storage D) absorbed by the large intestine

22. Synthesis of glucose from other nutrients' structural components is called __________.

A) gluconeogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) glucogenesis

23. A key point from the 2015 Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee concluded that drinking a reasonable amount of this beverage is associated with minimal health risk __________.

A) fruit juice B) coffee C) beer D) liquor

24. Lipid molecules __________.

A) have a basic formula of C6H12O6 B) always contain six fatty acids C) occur in plants and animals D) are soluble in water

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25. Which of the following is a rich dietary source of saturated fatty acids?

A) Safflower oil B) Sunflower oil C) Palm oil D) Corn oil

26. Not a benefit of dietary fiber.

A) Delays gastric emptying B) Facilitates red blood synthesis C) Interferes with digestive enzymes D) Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

27. Four grams of lipid contain approximately __________ kcal.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 36

28. The building blocks of protein are known as __________.

A) amino acids B) glucose molecules C) lipids D) peptides

29. The RDA represents __________.

A) the maximum quantity of a nutrient required for good health B) a method for evaluating nutrient quality C) the average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of 97% of healthy individuals in a particular life stage group D) the average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of 50% of healthy individuals in a particular life stage group

30. A healthy human requires how many essential amino acids?

A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10

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31. During prolonged exercise, the alanine-glucose cycle generates between __________ and __________ of the total exercise energy requirement.

A) 1%, 2% B) 6%, 7% C) 10%, 15% D) 20%, 25% 32. A meta-analysis of research trials indicated that for every 10 mg  dL–1 increase in __________, cancer risk declined by 36%.

A) blood sugar B) LDL cholesterol C) plasma amino acids D) HDL cholesterol

33. Starches with a relatively large amount of amylose __________.

A) contain a long, straight chain of glucose units B) contain a highly branched linkage of glucose units C) are digested and absorbed rapidly D) are digested rapidly and absorbed slowly

34. A well-nourished 80-kg person stores approximately __________ g of carbohydrates.

A) 90 B) 300 C) 500 D) 1600

35. The American Heart Association recommends a cholesterol intake of no more than __________ mg daily.

A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

36. Two common forms of plant polysaccharide are __________.

A) fiber and maltodextrin B) oligosaccharides and protease C) fiber and lignin D) starch and fiber

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37. Glucose may be synthesized from __________.

A) glycerol in glycogenolysis B) glycogen in glycolysis C) amino acids in gluconeogenesis D) lactic acid in glycolysis

38. When there is greater nitrogen output than intake, the nitrogen balance becomes: A) positive B) negative C) neutral D) below normal

39. The term lipid represents a heterogeneous group of compounds including all of the following except: A) oils B) waxes C) fats D) meats

40. Cholesterol is a __________.

A) component of bile B) compound that contains nitrogen C) component of all hormones D) compound that contains fatty acids

41. An example of a mono-, di-, and polysaccharide (in the appropriate order) is __________.

A) lactose, sucrose, and glycogen B) glucose, fructose, and fibrose C) glucose, maltose, and cellulose D) fructose, starch, and sucrose

42. Lipoproteins __________.

A) constitute the main form of blood lipid transport B) are comprised primarily of unsaturated fatty acids C) are either water soluble or fat soluble D) are the main form of lipid in the body

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43. Gluconeogenesis takes place primarily in the __________.

A) spleen B) kidneys C) liver D) small intestine

44. Shifting an amino group from a donor amino acid to a keto acid is called __________.

A) gluconeogenesis B) translocation C) transamination D) deamination

45. When nitrogen intake equals nitrogen excretion, __________ has been achieved.

A) negative nitrogen balance B) nitrogen balance C) isocaloric balance D) positive nitrogen balance

46. Dietary fibers that show a cholesterol-lowering effect are __________.

A) classified as water insoluble B) classified as water soluble C) found primarily in wheat D) contained only in fruits

47. Amino acids that are synthesized by the body are classified as __________.

A) nonessential B) critical C) important D) essential

48. Consuming excessive carbohydrates can lead to: A) kidney failure B) obesity C) liver damage D) gum disease

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49. Consuming a high-fiber diet has been shown to lower occurrence of the following conditions except __________.

A) type 2 diabetes B) migraine headaches C) blood cholesterol D) systemic inflammation

50. To reduce the risk of cancer, the American Cancer Society suggests that no more than __________ of total calories should come from lipids.

A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40%

51. __________ makes margarine solid at room temperature.

A) Oxidation B) Esterification C) Hydrogenation D) Unsaturation

52. __________ contain(s) the largest reserves of glycogen.

A) Cardiac tissue B) Liver C) Muscle D) Kidneys

53. Rapidly absorbed forms of carbohydrates impose a high __________ on the body.

A) rate of glycolysis B) glucagon synthesis rate C) glycemic load D) rate of gluconeogenesis

54. Excessive ketone formation can result in a harmful condition called __________.

A) ketosis B) ketogenic shock C) ketolysis D) catabolic shock

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55. The most plentiful lipids in the body are __________.

A) glycolipids B) triacylglycerols C) monoacylglycerols D) chylomicrons

56. __________ is classified as a derived lipid.

A) Glycerol B) Cholesterol C) Fatty acid D) Phospholipid

57. Consumption of sugary beverages increases the risk of the following diseases except __________.

A) obesity B) heart disease C) type 2 diabetes D) contact dermatitis

58. An example of a monosaccharide: A) sucrose B) lactose C) glucose D) maltose

59. __________ reconverts glycogen to glucose.

A) Deamination B) Gluconeogenesis C) Glycogenolysis D) Transamination

60. During intense exercise, __________ serve as the primary fuel source.

A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) lipoproteins

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61. Which of the following is also known as the “good” cholesterol?

A) MDL B) VLDL C) LDL D) HDL

62. Which one of the following criteria is present in metabolic syndrome?

A) Low body weight B) Poor kidney function C) Low blood cholesterol D) Hypertension

63. Glycogen reserves may be depleted by all of the following except: A) starvation B) high-carbohydrate diet C) reduced energy intake D) strenuous exercise

64. The protein RDA for adults is __________.

A) 2.5 g per kg body mass B) 0.5 g per kg body mass C) 4 oz. regardless of body mass D) 0.8 g per kg body mass

65. Which of the following foods is considered a higher quality protein: A) cereals B) beans C) meat D) nuts

66. Scientific evidence indicates that only about __________% of an individual's blood cholesterol level comes from dietary intake. The liver produces the rest of the body's cholesterol.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

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67. Frequent and excessive intake of __________ may increase the risk for adult-onset (type 2) diabetes mellitus.

A) animal protein B) polyunsaturated fatty acids C) highly refined starch D) hydrogenated fatty acids

68. True or false? All nutrients contain carbon except water and vitamins.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? Fructose and lactose are two simple sugars that have the same chemical formula as glucose.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Fructose is the sweetest of the most common simple sugars.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Eating a diversity of plant foods (grains, fruits, and vegetables) supplies all of the essential amino acids.

A) True B) False 72. True or false? Simple lipids or “neutral fats” consist primarily of triacylglycerols, the most plentiful lipid in the body.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? Glucose, a hexose sugar, contains five carbon atoms in its molecular structure.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Galactose is the sweetest monosaccharide.

A) True B) False

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75. True or false? Pescovegetarians are at a lower colorectal cancer risk than strict vegetarians.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Older adults are typically at risk for the gradual loss of muscle mass, strength, and muscle function, a condition known as sarcopenia.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Carbohydrates contain more energy per unit weight than lipids.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? If energy intake falls below total energy expended during intense training, even protein intake above recommended values may fail to maintain nitrogen balance.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Consume more red meat for a more healthful diet.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Athletes who train heavily generally have greater difficulty obtaining adequate calories on a vegetarian diet compared to a nonvegetarian diet.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? The number of near-vegetarian athletes has increased considerably over the last decade.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Well-balanced vegetarian diets generally provide abundant carbohydrates.

A) True B) False

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83. True or false? Proteins play a role in regulating the acid-base quality of body fluids.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? In muscle, enzymes facilitate nitrogen removal from certain amino acids and subsequently pass this nitrogen to other compounds in the biochemical reactions of transamination.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Only animals manufacture proteins that contain essential amino acids.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The body can obtain more energy from protein than it can from an equal amount of lipids.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Excessive protein intake can place added strain on liver and kidney function.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Incomplete proteins are higher quality proteins and contain all essential amino acids.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? Symptoms of hypoglycemia include weakness, hunger, and dizziness.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Exogenous cholesterol refers to cholesterol produced by the body.

A) True B) False

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91. True or false? The American Heart Association suggests an intake of no more than 500 mg of cholesterol per day.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Cholesterol synthesis occurs only in animals.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? An amino acid's characteristics are determined by its biologic value.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? Cholesterol synthesized by the body is called endogenous cholesterol.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Maltose is another term for milk sugar.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Deamination describes the transfer of an amino group to a non–nitrogen-containing carbon compound.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? The main source of dietary cholesterol is plant food.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Adequate carbohydrate intake provides a sparing effect on the body's lean tissue.

A) True B) False

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99. True or false? The body cannot synthesize cholesterol.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Structural proteins of collagen compose the hair, skin, nails, bones, tendons, and ligaments.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Lipoproteins are primarily made up of unsaturated fatty acids.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? Amylopectin represents a form of lipid in which individual fatty acids link together in highly branched form.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? Most vegetable oils contain relatively large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Regular fish consumption can help prevent obesity-related chronic diseases such as diabetes and heart disease.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? Saturated fatty acids contain only single bonds between carbon atoms.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Of the three macronutrients, an amino group occurs only in protein.

A) True B) False

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107. True or false? Lignin is an example of a water-soluble dietary fiber.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? One of the benefits of a high-fiber diet is that these foods typically replace other high-glycemic foods.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? A cis unsaturated fatty acid forms in margarine when one of the hydrogen atoms moves to the opposite side of the double bond.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? On a worldwide basis, proteins represent the most prevalent source of calories.

A) True B) False

111. True or false? Individuals who lack adequate quantities of the enzyme lactase, which splits lactose to glucose and galactose during digestion, have a condition called lactose intolerance.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? The storage polysaccharide found in mammalian muscle and liver is called glycogen.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? Depleting liver and muscle glycogen stimulates glucose synthesis from the structural components of other nutrients, principally amino acids, through gluconeogenic metabolic pathways.

A) True B) False

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114. True or false? The process of hydrolysis changes liquid oils to semisolid compounds.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? Greater nitrogen output compared to nitrogen intake is considered negative nitrogen balance.

A) True B) False

116. True or false? The body cannot synthesize the eight amino acids referred to as essential amino acids.

A) True B) False

117. True or false? Fat stored just below the skin is called subcutaneous fat.

A) True B) False

118. True or false? Simple lipids, or non-neutral fats, constitute the major storage form of fat in adipose cells.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? Lipids that contain one or more fatty acid molecules combined with a phosphorus-containing group and a nitrogenous base are called phospholipids.

A) True B) False

120. True or false? Catabolism refers to tissue-building processes in the body.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. C 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. A 43. C 44. C

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45. B 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. B 51. C 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. D 63. B 64. D 65. C 66. D 67. C 68. B 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. A 73. B 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. B 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. B

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1. Several vitamins become activated from their inactive precursor form called __________.

A) provitamins B) covitamins C) coenzymes D) enzymes

2. The fat-soluble vitamins include vitamins __________.

A) A, B, C, and D B) A, B, C, and K C) A, D, E, and K D) A, C, D, and K

3. Sedentary adults require about 3.785 L (1 gal) of water each day to maintain optimal body functions.

A) 2 pints B) 1 gallon C) 2 gallons D) 4 gallons

4. The bioavailability of minerals is largely affected by __________.

A) vitamin–water interaction B) type of exercise C) mineral–fiber interaction D) mineral–water interaction

5. Cells that synthesize bone are called __________.

A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) osteocams D) osteosynthetic

6. The Dietary References Intakes (DRI) encompass all of the following standards except: A) ESADDI B) RDA C) EAR D) AI

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7. When no RDA exists, the __________ values may be used to determine proper consumption levels.

A) UL B) AI C) EAR D) ESADDI

8. The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects: A) UL B) AI C) EAR D) ESADDI

9. A highly chemically reactive atom, molecule, or molecular fragment that contains at least one unpaired electron in its outer orbital or valence shell is a/an __________.

A) antioxidant B) coenzyme C) free radical D) hydroxyl

10. __________ comprises the yellow and yellow-orange pigment that give color to vegetables and fruits.

A) Chlorophyll B) Anthocyanin C) Carotene D) Purine

11. Which of the following is a factor that influences the amount of water lost through sweating?

A) Water intake B) Relative humidity C) Time of day D) Type of activity

12. Small amounts of water are lost directly from the skin's surface as __________.

A) urine B) sweat C) waterless vapor D) insensible perspiration

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13. Fluid located inside of the cells is known as __________.

A) intracellular fluid B) extracellular fluid C) plasma fluid D) interstitial fluid

14. Differences in the relative percentage of total body water among individuals result largely from variations in __________.

A) body composition B) race C) ethnicity D) age

15. The DASH diets is designed to __________.

A) help with weight loss B) help gain muscle mass C) reduce risk factors for renal disease D) reduce hypertension

16. Some vitamins act as __________ that combine with a protein compound to accelerate chemical reactions.

A) coenzymes B) cominerals C) proenzymes D) polypeptides

17. Which of the vitamins does the body readily excrete?

A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin A C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin C

18. Recommended daily calcium intake for adults age 51 and older is __________ mg.

A) 800 B) 1200 C) 1600 D) 2000

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19. As a result of exercise training, hemoglobin may become __________ in the blood.

A) deformed B) more concentrated C) larger D) less concentrated

20. As a result of exercise training, the percentage of water in the intracellular compartment ___________.

A) becomes reduced B) remains the same C) increases D) decreases

21. Risk factors for osteoporosis except: A) cigarette smoking B) sedentary lifestyle C) early menopause D) high carbohydrate diet

22. Compounds that give rigidity to bones and teeth are composed of __________.

A) potassium and calcium B) phosphorous and iron C) iron and calcium D) phosphorus and calcium

23. Vitamin __________ promotes growth and mineralization of bones and increases calcium absorption.

A) A B) D C) C D) K

24. __________ pose the greatest health risk if regularly consumed in excess.

A) Vitamins D and E B) Vitamins A and D C) Vitamins A and B-complex D) Vitamins C and E

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25. The amino acid homocysteine may increase stroke and heart attack risk by __________.

A) damaging the internal layer of arterial walls B) decreasing the risk for blood clots C) promoting the creation of vitamins that line the arterial wall D) decreasing cholesterol levels

26. Vitamins C, E, and beta-carotene __________.

A) serve as protective antioxidant agents to blunt potential cellular damage from free radical attack B) reduce the frequency and duration of fungal infections C) facilitate energy metabolism during exercise D) reduce the risk of osteoporosis

27. Which of the following is true regarding osteoporosis?

A) It afflicts between 5 and 10 million Americans.

B) It accounts for more than 4.5 million bone fractures yearly.

C) It represents a bone density value greater than 2.5 standard deviations below the mean.

D) It coincides with the marked increase in estrogen production associated with menopause.

28. Hormone that conserves sodium via the kidneys.

A) Norepinephrine B) Glucagon C) Aldosterone D) Antidiuretic hormone

29. Which of the following is classified as a trace (minor) mineral?

A) Potassium B) Chromium C) Sodium D) Calcium

30. Calcium plays an important role in __________.

A) bone and tooth formation, blood clotting, and nerve transmission B) thyroid activity, blood clotting, and heart function C) blood clotting and heart function D) heart function and thyroid activity

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31. The daily water intake requirement of a sedentary adult in a temperate climate equals about __________ L. A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 1.5 D) 2.5

32. Prolonged cessation of the menstrual cycle contributes to __________.

A) loss of bone mass B) gain in aerobic capacity C) increase in plasma levels of estrogen D) development of hypertension

33. Provitamins __________.

A) represent vitamin supplements advertised by professional athletes B) facilitate the loss of water-soluble vitamins C) represent vitamins in inactive form D) represent precursors of water-soluble vitamins

34. The majority of body water is contained within the __________.

A) adipose tissue B) intracellular compartment C) interstitial space D) extracellular compartment

35. Metabolic water represents the __________.

A) majority of a sedentary adult's daily water requirement B) water contained in ingested foods C) water required for the hydrolysis of food nutrients D) water formed in the hydrolysis of food nutrients

36. Dietary iron deficiency may cause __________.

A) osteoporosis B) sickle cell syndrome C) anemia D) decreased anaerobic exercise performance

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37. Calcium __________.

A) forms bones and teeth when combined with phosphorous B) is essential for blood clotting when combined with phosphorous C) absorbs more readily with ingestion of vitamin E D) increases skin cancer risk when deficient in the diet

38. Which of the following serve as structural components of hydrogen carrier molecules in glycolysis?

A) Vitamins C and E B) Riboflavin and niacin C) Vitamins A and D D) Beta-carotene and vitamin K

39. Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A) Being overweight B) Cigarette smoking C) Caucasian or Asian ethnicity D) Frequent meat consumption

40. Cessation of the menstrual cycle for at least three consecutive months is called __________.

A) primary oligomenorrhea B) eumenorrhea C) secondary amenorrhea D) menses

41. A true statement about free radicals and antioxidants.

A) A normal to above normal intake of vitamin E and beta-carotene may eliminate the progression of coronary artery narrowing and reduce heart attack risk.

B) Nutritive-reducing agents include vitamins D, C, and E, and beta-carotene, the vitamin A precursor.

C) Antioxidant scavenger enzymes include catalase, glutathione peroxidase, superoxide dismutase, and phosphofructokinase.

D) Antioxidants exert a destructive effect on the lipid components of the cell's plasma membrane.

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42. The accumulation of potentially damaging free radicals is called __________.

A) oxidative stress B) redox state C) oxygenation enhancement D) electron scavenging

43. Superoxide dismutase __________.

A) catalyzes the catabolism of lipids within muscle B) catalyzes the conversion of free radicals to oxygen and water C) inhibits mitochondrial oxygen uptake D) facilitates oxygen transfer across the alveolar membrane

44. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Consuming a 1000-milligram vitamin C supplement daily for 6 weeks causes undesirable changes in cellular DNA. B) Antioxidant vitamins protect the plasma membrane.

C) Vitamin E increases prostate cancer risk.

D) Vitamins increase damage to cellular constituents.

45. Foods or parts of foods that provide medical or health benefits are known as: A) vitamins B) minerals C) oxidants D) nutraceuticals

46. Vitamins play an important physiologic role related to __________.

A) fluid osmolality B) metabolic reactions C) temperature regulation D) diffusion

47. Minerals __________.

A) regulate metabolism as part of enzymes and hormones B) come mainly from animal dietary sources C) occur in limited quantities in the plant kingdom D) can catalyze metabolic reactions by themselves

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48. Three sources that supply the body's water needs: A) liquids, fruits, and vegetables B) foods, fluids, and metabolism C) fruits, liquids, and solids D) lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates

49. Excess vitamin B6 intake __________.

A) can cause liver and nerve damage B) has no known side effects C) accelerates osteoporosis D) stunts growth if accompanied by excessive vitamin B12 intake

50. Coenzymes __________.

A) activate lipid clearance from arterial walls B) are inactive vitamin precursors C) are composed of fat-soluble components D) participate in chemical reactions

51. Shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discovery of vitamin B1 (thiamine).

A) Eijkman B) Saltin C) Bouchard D) Asmussen

52. Women consuming vegetarian-type diets __________.

A) are at a higher risk for developing iron insufficiency B) are at a lower risk for developing iron insufficiency C) should decrease intake of vitamin C–rich foods D) should consume fat-soluble vitamins to increase heme iron absorption

53. Maintaining a diet with recommended levels of vitamin C __________.

A) can raise serum uric acid levels and precipitate gout in people predisposed to this disease B) reduces the risk for several types of cancer C) reduces hypertension risk D) decreases endurance exercise performance

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54. __________ provides for the greatest loss of daily water.

A) Urine B) Feces C) Insensible perspiration D) Pulmonary ventilation

55. Vitamin B1 __________.

A) facilitates pyruvate conversion to acetyl-CoA in carbohydrate breakdown B) needs may be higher in physically active people C) acts as a catalyst in glucose synthesis D) serves as part of CoA that augments aerobic macronutrient breakdown

56. Which of the following represents a prudent, nonpharmacologic behavioral approach to treat athletic amenorrhea?

A) Reduce training level by 40% to 60%.

B) Gradually increase total energy intake.

C) Increase body weight by 10% to 15%.

D) Decrease daily calcium intake

57. Free radicals are produced by these environmental factors except: A) cigarette smoke B) exposure to cleaning supplies C) environmental pollutants D) heat and ionizing radiation

58. This diet lowers blood pressure: A) low protein B) mineral water C) high sodium D) DASH

59. Which of the following turns inactive enzymes into active form?

A) Vitamins B) Minerals C) Coenzymes D) Trace minerals

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60. Cortical bone represents the __________.

A) spongy, less dense, and relatively weaker bone found in the vertebrae and ball of the femur B) bone cells destroyed by the body C) bone cells created by the body D) dense, hard outer layer of bone in the shafts of the long bones of the arms and legs

61. __________ represents a midway condition between normal bone mass and osteoporosis.

A) Osteomalacia B) Osteofibrosis C) Osteopenia D) Osteochondrosis

62. Which of the following does not represent a risk for osteoporosis?

A) Being male B) Slight build or tendency to be underweight C) Sedentary lifestyle D) Early menopause

63. The only vitamin not available in a vegan's diet is __________.

A) vitamin E B) folic acid C) ascorbic acid D) vitamin B12

64. Components of the female athlete triad include all of the following except: A) disordered eating B) hypertension C) amenorrhea D) osteoporosis

65. Compared to fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins __________.

A) must be consumed regularly, usually daily or within a several-day period B) can be routinely consumed in excess above the RDA without any health risk C) are inorganic compounds D) consist of vitamins A, D, E, and K

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66. The majority of the body's iron is found in __________.

A) myoglobin B) hemosiderin C) hemoglobin D) ferritin

67. Factors that contribute to female athlete triad include the following except: A) amenorrhea B) osteoporosis C) disordered eating D) dehydration

68. True or false? Fat-soluble vitamins dissolve and are stored in the body's fatty tissues so there is no need to consume them daily.

A) True B) False 69. True or false? Consuming a true “fat-free” diet will not lead to the development of a fat-soluble vitamin insufficiency.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Children are more susceptible than adults to developing complications from consumption of excess fat-soluble vitamins.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Sweating, even during extreme physical activity, probably produces a negligible loss of water-soluble vitamins.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Most individuals require salt tablets to maintain adequate sodium levels.

A) True B) False

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73. True or false? Low-energy availability, menstrual dysfunction, and impaired bone health are components of the female athlete triad.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Trabecular bone represents the spongy, less dense, and relatively weaker bone most prevalent in the vertebrae and ball of the femur.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Supplemental vitamin D can improve skeletal muscle function and muscular strength in frail vitamin D-insufficient individuals.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Physical activity can produce reactive oxygen from an electron leak in the mitochondria, probably at the cytochrome level, which produces superoxide radicals.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? There is limited evidence to recommend for or against the use of multivitamins in the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? A deficiency of the mineral zinc can result in growth failure.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? The body manufactures just about all of the required vitamins.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Swimming is one of the best physical activities to promote bone health.

A) True B) False

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81. True or false? Approximately 100 to 200 milliliters of fluid are lost per day through water droplets in exhaled air.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Excessive intake of milk and milk products facilitates bone loss.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Pharmacologic approaches are considerably more effective than dietary approaches in treating borderline hypertension.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Sodium, potassium, and chlorine are collectively called erythrocytes.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Aldosterone is a hormone that acts on the kidneys to conserve calcium.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? Vitamin K occurs only in foods of animal origin.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Carotenes comprise the yellow and yellow-orange pigment precursors of vitamin A that give color to vegetables (carrots, squash, corn, and pumpkins) and fruits (apricots and peaches).

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Trabecular bone represents the dense, hard outer layer of bone.

A) True B) False

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89. True or false? Plasma membrane damage occurs during oxidative stress during a chain reaction known as lipid peroxidation.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Micronutrients are molecules required in large amounts by the body and are a source of energy.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Potassium represents the chief extracellular mineral.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Heme iron is iron that is obtained from plant sources.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Sodium and chloride represents the chief extracellular minerals.

A) True B) False 94. True or false? Vitamins A, C, and E represent “antioxidant” vitamins.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Weight-bearing exercise provides the most effective exercise mode for stimulating bone mass development.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Myoglobin aids in oxygen storage and transport within red blood cells.

A) True B) False

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97. True or false? Hemosiderin transports iron in the blood.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble vitamins.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Vitamin supplementation above the RDA improves aerobic exercise performance.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Adequate mineral intake usually occurs when consuming a well-balanced diet.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Water makes up between 40% and 70% of the total body mass.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? Water helps protect the heart, lungs, intestines, and eyes.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? The loss of body water from profuse sweating has minimal consequences.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? The body can synthesize all vitamins except vitamin E. A) True B) False

105. True or false? Calcium requirements are often not met.

A) True B) False

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106. True or false? Measuring serum ferritin concentrations provides useful information about iron reserves.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? Extracellular water volume exceeds intracellular water volume.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? Each pound of weight lost during exercise is equal to a 750-milliliter fluid loss.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? Vitamins A and D, niacin, and folic acid become activated from their inactive precursor or provitamin form.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? Men are immune to developing osteoporosis because of sex differences in bone structure.

A) True B) False

111. True or false? Rich sources of folic acid (folate) include enriched whole-wheat products, legumes, green vegetables, meat, eggs, milk products, and liver.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? Free radicals facilitate low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol oxidation, thus accelerating atherosclerosis.

A) True B) False

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113. True or false? Researchers from the National Eye Institute found that those with a high intake of lutein and zeaxanthin have a lower risk for macular degeneration.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? A free radical is a highly reactive atom with an unpaired electron.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? Daily consumption of excess fat-soluble vitamins can produce serious toxic effects.

A) True B) False

116. True or false? Lycopene is a potent antioxidant that makes tomatoes red and has been linked to reduced heart disease and cancer risk.

A) True B) False

117. True or false? From a survival perspective, food is of greater importance than water.

A) True B) False

118. True or false? Hydrogen and oxygen bond to form cohydrates when food molecules catabolize for energy.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? Because it is readily compressible, water gives structure and form to the body through the turgor provided for body tissues.

A) True B) False

120. True or false? Consuming recommended amounts of folate supports fetal nervous system development in early stages of pregnancy.

A) True B) False

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121. True or false? Depletion of the body's sodium content to critical levels creates a condition termed hypocalemia.

A) True B) False

122. True or false? The hormone aldosterone acts on the kidneys to conserve sodium.

A) True B) False

123. True or false? The chief intracellular mineral is calcium.

A) True B) False

124. True or false? A compound with some similarities to hemoglobin that aids in oxygen storage and transport within the muscle cell is myoglobin.

A) True B) False

125. True or false? Maintaining a diet with appropriate amounts of antioxidants decreases the risk for heart disease, diabetes, osteoporosis, cataracts, premature aging, and some cancer.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. B

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45. D 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. D 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. B 58. D 59. C 60. D 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. A 116. A 117. B 118. B 119. B 120. A 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. A

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1. Enzyme that aids in the breakdown of disaccharides include all of the following except.

A) Sucrase B) Galactase C) Maltase D) Lactase

2. A powerful enzyme released by the pancreas to complete the breakdown of starch.

A) Salivary amylase B) Pancreatic lactase C) Salivary maltase D) Pancreatic amylase

3. Allows cells to maintain reasonable consistency in chemical composition.

A) Selective permeability of cell membranes B) Cell membrane's absolute impermeability C) Continual action of sodium/potassium pumps D) Facilitated transport across microvilli

4. Process that permits glucose passage through cell membranes.

A) Simple diffusion B) Osmosis C) Filtration D) Facilitated diffusion

5. Protein carrier molecule that spans the cell membrane.

A) Transport peptide B) Facilitator C) Permease D) Translocator

6. Movement of water from an area of lower to higher concentration.

A) Simple diffusion B) Osmosis C) Filtration D) Facilitated diffusion

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7. When a cell neither loses nor gains water when placed in a solution, the solution becomes __________ in relation to the cell.

A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) catatonic D) isotonic

8. A solution that contains a higher concentration of nonpenetrating solutes outside the cell membrane than inside.

A) Hypertonic B) Hypotonic C) Catatonic D) Isotonic

9. Active transport process requires the expenditure of cellular energy from __________.

A) PCr B) ADP C) ATP D) osmotic pressure

10. Refers to the simultaneous transport of two chemicals in the same direction.

A) Symport B) Bulk transport C) Filtration D) Facilitated diffusion

11. Sodium-potassium pump.

A) Major osmosis mechanism B) Major diffusion mechanism C) Major active transport mechanism D) Involved only in lipid digestion

12. The 25-centimeter portion of the GI tract that connects the pharynx to the stomach.

A) Trachea B) Larynx C) Esophagus D) Bronchi

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13. Stomach's volume averages _____ liters.

A) 1.5 B) 2.5 C) 3.5 D) 4.0

14. The following secretions deliver fluids and digestive enzymes to degrade food particles to prepare them for absorption except: A) synovial fluid B) pancreatic juice C) saliva D) bile

15. This enzyme attacks starch and reduces it to smaller linked glucose molecules and the simpler disaccharide form maltose.

A) Galactose B) Salivary amylase C) Lactose D) Pancreatic lipase

16. A peptide hormone released from the wall of the duodenum that controls the release of enzymes into the stomach and small intestine.

A) Hepatic lipase B) Cholecystokinin C) Somatostatin D) Calcitonin

17. The powerful enzyme that initiates protein digestion chiefly to short-chain polypeptides in the stomach.

A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin D) Pepsin

18. Vitamin absorption occurs mainly by __________.

A) diffusion B) symport C) bulk transport D) filtration

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19. __________ catabolizes complex organic molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins into simpler forms that the body easily absorbs and assimilates.

A) Oxidation B) Osmosis C) Condensation D) Hydrolysis

20. Enzymes.

A) Highly specific protein catalysts B) Decrease the number of chemical reactions C) Increase activation energy required for chemical reactions D) Undergo changes when participating in chemical reactions

21. Extracellular fluid becomes __________ when the concentration of nondiffusible particles outside a cell falls below the concentration inside the cell.

A) hyperosmotic B) isotonic C) hypotonic D) hypertonic

22. __________ is the passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A) Facilitated diffusion B) Endocytosis C) Simple diffusion D) Coupled transport

23. The __________ of a solution refers to the physical pressure on one side of a membrane required to compress the fluid and prevent the net movement of water from the other side.

A) diffusion gradient B) osmotic pressure C) hypertonic force D) osmotic gradient

24. All of the following are examples of passive transport except __________.

A) coupled transport B) simple diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) osmosis

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25. Parietal cells.

A) Secrete hydrochloric acid B) Secrete sodium bicarbonate C) Secrete bile D) Found only in the small intestine

26. Transfers hormones, neurotransmitters, and mucous secretions from intracellular to extracellular fluids.

A) Endocytosis B) Exocytosis C) Bulk transport D) Coupled transport

27. The four hormones that regulate digestion are: A) gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, and gastric inhibitory peptide B) gastrin, pepsin, oxytocin, and cholecystokinin C) gastrin, gastric inhibitory peptide, pepsin, and peptin D) cholecystokinin, secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide, and norepinephrine

28. A highly specific protein catalyst that accelerates the forward and reverse rates of chemical reactions without being consumed or changed in the reaction.

A) Oxidizing agent B) Hormone C) Enzyme D) Condensing agent

29. From the beginning to end of the gastrointestinal tract, which of the following is in the correct order?

A) Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum B) Stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, and rectum C) Esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum D) Rectum, large intestine, small intestine, stomach, esophagus

30. High-fat foods may remain in the __________ for up to 6 hours.

A) esophagus B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine

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31. Passive transport of materials across the cell's plasma membrane occurs by __________.

A) facilitated diffusion B) endocytosis C) exocytosis D) coupled transport

32. Secreted in the stomach and required for absorption of vitamin B12.

A) Chyme B) Cholecystokinin C) Intrinsic factor D) Gastrin

33. Bile is produced by the __________ and is stored and secreted by the __________.

A) liver, stomach B) liver, gallbladder C) stomach, liver D) gallbladder, liver

34. The major sections of the large intestine include __________.

A) jejunum, ileum, duodenum, and sigmoid B) duodenum, jejunum, and ascending C) ascending, transverse, descending, and duodenum D) ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid

35. Form when water-insoluble monoglycerides and free fatty acids bind with bile salts.

A) Low-density lipoproteins B) Micelles C) Pepsin D) CCK

36. What organ secretes between 1.2 and 1.6 liters of alkali-containing juice every day?

A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Gallbladder D) Stomach

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37. Delivers nutrient-rich blood to the liver.

A) Hepatic-portal artery B) Greater mesenteric artery C) Hepatic-portal vein D) Duodenal vein

38. Powerful waves of rhythmic contractions and relaxations propel the food bolus down the gastrointestinal tract.

A) Endocytosis B) Bolus admixture C) Chyme propulsion D) Peristalsis

39. The ring or valve of smooth muscle that regulates the one-way movement of food down the digestive tract.

A) Bolus B) Constrictor C) Sphincter D) Gastric modulator

40. Little absorption takes place in the stomach except for __________.

A) water B) sugars C) amino acids D) alcohol

41. Percentage of digestion (and essentially all lipid digestion) takes place in the first two sections of the small intestine.

A) 90% B) 60% C) 35% D) 20%

42. Finger-like structures that greatly increase intestinal surface area.

A) Lacteals B) Alveoli C) Portals D) Villi

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43. Does not relate to lipid digestion?

A) Bile B) Emulsification C) Pepsin D) Gallbladder

44. The largest amount of digestion and absorption of food nutrients occurs in the __________.

A) duodenum B) large intestine C) jejunum D) ileum 45. Broken down by the enzyme salivary -amylase (ptyalin).

A) Protein B) Lipids C) Starch D) Water

46. Glucose and galactose intestinal absorption.

A) Carrier-mediated active transport B) Simple diffusion C) Facilitated diffusion D) Endocytosis

47. Rate of fructose absorption from small intestine is __________ when compared with glucose.

A) much slower B) significantly quicker C) slightly slower D) no different

48. Gallbladder.

A) Secretes hydrochloride B) Secretes bile C) Secretes enzymes that help with digestion D) Involved in active transport of lipid

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49. Which of the following is not a fate of amino acids in the liver?

A) Conversion to glucose B) Conversion to fat C) Conversion to water D) Direct release into the bloodstream as plasma proteins

50. Which statement is true about medium-chain triglycerides?

A) Medium-chain triglycerides are water-soluble lipids with 14 to 18 carbons in the fatty acid chain.

B) Medium-chain triglycerides become absorbed directly into the portal vein bound to albumin as glycerol and medium-chain free fatty acids.

C) Because medium-chain triglycerides bypass the circulatory system, they enter the lymph for rapid delivery to the liver for immediate utilization by various tissues in energy metabolism.

D) Medium-chain triglycerides increase tissue wasting and intestinal malabsorption.

51. Lymphatic vessels that absorb most digested lipids from the intestine.

A) Lymphocytes B) Villi C) Microvilli D) Lacteals

52. Major vitamins absorption.

A) Equally throughout the gastrointestinal tract B) In the stomach C) In the small intestine D) In the large intestine

53. Calcium absorption rarely exceeds __________% of amount ingested.

A) 15 B) 35 C) 55 D) 75

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54. Which statement is true concerning dietary minerals?

A) Extrinsic (dietary) and intrinsic (cellular) factors control the eventual absorption of ingested minerals.

B) Decreased intestinal absorption preserves the small micronutrient quantities when dietary intake of a particular mineral falls below the body's requirement.

C) Overall, the body absorbs minerals extremely well.

D) Men and women absorb equal amounts of minerals.

55. Mineral absorption affected by: A) water consumption B) exercise intensity C) bioavailability D) body composition

56. Small intestine absorbs about _____ liters of total water every day.

A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9

57. Contains starch that does not cause abdominal gas or colonic gas.

A) Potatoes B) Wheat C) Corn D) Rice

58. Substance in oat bran, bean, peas, and most fruit that causes gas.

A) Water B) Fiber C) Pigments D) Minerals

59. Most likely to occur with a physically active lifestyle?

A) Increased constipation B) Enhanced gut emptying C) Gallstone formation D) Gastroenteritis

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60. Small intestine absorbs about __________% of total water ingested.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 65 D) 85

61. Chronic pain in the upper abdomen without obvious physical causes.

A) Functional dyspepsia B) Diarrhea C) Functional epiglottis D) Appendicitis

62. The most common causes for dyspepsia does not include the following.

A) Peptic ulcer disease B) GERD C) Gastritis D) Type 2 diabetes

63. Lifestyle and dietary modifications that effectively counters IBS? A) Eating large meals B) Consuming a low-fiber diet C) Stress reduction D) Mineral intake

64. Exercise-related GERD symptoms do not include.

A) Sour taste B) Nausea C) Vomiting D) Constipation

65. Osmolality.

A) Expresses in g·kg–1 B) Expresses in Osm·L–1 C) Expresses in SOm·L–1 D) Expresses in m·L–1

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66. Factor that does not affect gastric emptying rate.

A) Meal osmolality B) Caloric content C) Vitamin content D) pH of foods

67. Hepatic portal circulation.

A) Regulates circulatory transport from the GI tract B) Regulates active transport C) Affected more by water than bile D) Regulates amino acid breakdown

68. Too much dietary fiber usually.

A) Produces overly hard stool B) Produces overly soft stool C) Has no affect on human stool production D) Delays stool production

69. Athletes show susceptibility to travel-induced __________ from bacterial and viral causes.

A) lactose intolerance B) migraine headaches C) heart disease D) acute gastroenteritis

70. True or false? Osmotic pressure refers to the physical pressure on one side of a membrane required to prevent the osmotic movement of water from the other side.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? With swallowing, the bolus of food moves past the pharynx at the back of the mouth and enters the trachea.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? The initial stages of protein digestion begin in the upper portion of the small intestine.

A) True B) False

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73. True or false? Micelles form when water-insoluble monoglycerides and free fatty acid end products from lipid hydrolysis bind with bile salts.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? After eating, the stomach usually takes 1 to 4 hours to empty depending on the relative concentration of each nutrient and the volume of the meal.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Segmentation contractions refer to intermittent oscillating contraction and relaxation of the intestinal wall's circular smooth muscle.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Cholecystokinin released from the wall of the intestinal duodenum controls enzyme release into the stomach and small intestine.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Most nutrient absorption through the intestinal villi occurs by diffusion.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Chylomicrons in the bloodstream readily move into the various peripheral tissues through the hydrolyzing action of the enzyme pancreatic amylase, which lines capillary walls.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Each villus contains small lymphatic vessels called lacteals.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Diffusion is a process that requires energy.

A) True B) False

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81. True or false? Enzymes are unaltered by reactions in which they participate.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Active transport does not require chemical energy.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? A diet history represents the best method to assess dietary intake.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? The water gradient determines the direction and magnitude of molecular movement.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Filtration refers to the concentration of particles in a solution.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? Although dietary fiber negatively impacts absorption of certain minerals, consuming 20 to 30 grams of fiber daily does not significantly interfere with mineral absorption.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Total calcium absorption from the small intestine rarely exceeds 10% of the amount ingested.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Osmosis moves particles through a selectively permeable membrane because of a difference in the concentration of water molecules on both sides of the membrane.

A) True B) False

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89. True or false? Bulk transport refers to absorption of intestinal glucose by a form of active transport.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? The liver removes the greatest portion of absorbed glucose and almost all of the absorbed fructose and galactose from the plasma.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Distance runners and female athletes are least susceptible to diarrhea and IBS. A) True B) False

92. True or false? Twenty minutes of light- to moderate-intensity running results in a faster fluid gastric emptying rate than cycling.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Diverticulosis is more common in younger athletes.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? More female athletes than male athletes report GI symptoms.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Athletes in sports that incorporate gliding such as in cycling report more GI symptoms than other athletes.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Gastric emptying rate is affected by fitness status.

A) True B) False

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97. True or false? Participating in regular physical exercise has no effect in treating IBS. A) True B) False

98. True or false? Gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) represent the four hormones that regulate digestion.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Secretin is produced by the duodenum and jejunum.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Saliva breaks down carbohydrate.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Bile is produced in the pancreas.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? The sodium-potassium pump operates in both facilitated diffusion and bulk transport.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? The appendix has no digestive function.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Esophageal sphincter help prevent the stomach contents from regurgitating back into the esophagus.

A) True B) False

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105. True or false? Primary function of the anus is to hold the rectum closed.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Pyloric sphincter allows passage of substances from the stomach to small intestine.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? Lingual lipase is secreted from the small intestine.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? Gastric lipase is secreted from the small intestine.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? Hemorrhoids occur more frequently in men.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? Fitness status represents a major factor that affects gastric emptying rate.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C

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45. C 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. D 58. B 59. B 60. D 61. A 62. D 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. B 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. B 89. B 90. A

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91. B 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. B 110. B

Page 20

1. Energy that is contained within the chemical bonds of a substance such as ATP may be classified as __________.

A) kinetic energy B) mechanical energy C) free energy D) potential energy

2. When exercise becomes intense, pyruvate accepts additional hydrogens, forming __________.

A) acetyl CoA B) lactate C) pyruvic acid D) alpha-ketoglutarate

3. Most of the energy for ATP phosphorylation comes from __________ of the carbohydrate, lipid, and protein consumed in the diet.

A) oxidation B) nitrogen removal C) reduction D) the phosphorous molecules

4. Highly specific __________ catalyze hydrogen's release from the nutrient substrate.

A) dehydrogenase coenzymes B) hydrogen removers C) hydrogenators D) kinases

5. The process of __________ phosphorylation synthesizes ATP by transferring electrons from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen.

A) reductive B) oxidative C) catabolic D) synthetic

6. Glucose breaks down relatively rapidly to two molecules of pyruvate in a process called __________.

A) glycolysis B) the citric acid cycle C) gluconeogenesis D) glycogenolysis

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7. __________ is the term used to describe cleavage of glucose from stored glycogen.

A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid cycle C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycogenolysis

8. The liver cells conserve the potential energy in the lactate and pyruvate molecules formed during exercise as the carbon skeletons of these molecules become synthesized to glucose in the __________.

A) glucose-alanine cycle B) citric acid cycle C) Cori cycle D) electron transport system

9. The most important function of the citric acid cycle is to generate __________.

A) large quantities of ATP from each glucose molecule B) large quantities of NAD C) large quantities of FAD D) electrons (H+)

10. The process called __________ splits the triacylglycerol molecule into glycerol and three water-insoluble fatty acid molecules.

A) lipogenesis B) the citric acid cycle C) lipolysis D) glycogenolysis

11. Citric acid cycle degradation of fatty acids depends on sufficient __________ availability to combine with the acetyl-CoA formed during -oxidation.

A) oxaloacetate B) citrate C) isocitrate D) pyruvate

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12. During extreme carbohydrate depletion, the acetate fragments produced in -oxidation cannot readily enter the citric acid cycle. The liver converts these compounds to __________.

A) ATP B) glucose C) pyruvate D) ketone bodies

13. __________ describes the formation of lipid that occurs mostly in the cytoplasm of liver cells.

A) Lipogenesis B) The citric acid cycle C) Lipolysis D) Glycogenolysis

14. The term to describe reactions that require oxygen is __________.

A) chemical B) anaerobic C) aerobic D) mechanical

15. The purpose for energy released in macronutrient breakdown is to __________.

A) convert amino acids to glucose B) phosphorylate ADP to reform ATP C) move from higher potential energy to lower potential energy D) phosphorylate NAD+ to FAD

16. When deaminated, some amino acids yield intermediate products for the synthesis of __________.

A) essential proteins B) glucose C) nonessential proteins D) polypeptides

17. Without the availability of __________ for phosphorylation to ATP, electrons do not travel down the respiratory chain to oxygen.

A) ADP B) vitamin D C) GTP D) creatine

Page 3

18. The first law of thermodynamics states that __________.

A) ADP synthesis creates energy B) energy is neither created nor destroyed, but transforms from one form to another C) energy becomes lost with the production of work D) energy output always exceeds energy input

19. Toward the end of prolonged physical effort (with glycogen reserves low), circulating FFAs supply nearly __________% of the total energy required.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80

20. All of the following represent forms of biologic work except __________.

A) mechanical work of muscle contraction B) osmotic work of fluid movement C) chemical work for synthesizing cellular molecules D) transport work that concentrates various substances in the intracellular and extracellular fluids

21. Anaerobic and aerobic breakdown of ingested food nutrients provides the __________ for synthesizing the body's chemical fuel.

A) energy B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) atoms

22. Exercise performance is greatly influenced by: A) the ability to extract energy from body proteins B) the availability of amino acids C) the diffusion of the water molecule D) the ability to extract energy from stored macronutrients

23. At rest for a 70-kilogram person, oxygen uptake averages about __________ mL·kg–1·min–1 or 1 metabolic equivalent (MET).

A) 2.0 B) 2.5 C) 3.0 D) 3.5

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24. __________ is the process by which the plant pigment chlorophyll absorbs solar energy to synthesize glucose.

A) Photosynthesis B) Cellular respiration C) Biologic work D) Mechanical work

25. Which of the following donates or loses electrons when oxidized?

A) A substrate B) An enzyme C) An oxidizing agent D) A reducing agent

26. The intracellular mediator __________ activates lipase to regulate lipid breakdown.

A) insulin B) phosphocreatine C) cyclic AMP D) adenosine triphosphatase

27. The enzyme __________ catalyzes triacylglycerol breakdown to one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.

A) lipodehydrogenase B) fatty acid transferase C) hormone-sensitive lipase D) adipocytase

28. During __________, the chemical energy stored in glucose, lipid, or protein molecules is extracted in the presence of oxygen.

A) aerobic anabolism B) photosynthesis C) chemical work D) cellular respiration

29. __________ generated by muscle contraction provides the most obvious example of energy transformation.

A) Mechanical work B) Chemical work C) Transport work D) Anaerobic work

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30. The biologic work of concentrating substances in the body is known as __________.

A) mechanical work B) chemical work C) transport work D) anaerobic work

31. __________ energy and __________ energy constitute the total energy of any system.

A) Kinetic, biologic B) Kinetic, cellular C) Potential, biologic D) Potential, kinetic

32. Releasing __________ energy transforms it into kinetic energy of motion.

A) chemical B) potential C) cellular D) biologic

33. __________ are intramuscular high-energy phosphates.

A) ADP and PCr B) ADP, AMP, and PCr C) ATP and PCr D) ATP, ADP, AMP, and PCr

34. Carbohydrates in the body __________.

A) mainly function to supply energy for cellular work B) are the only macronutrient used for energy C) mainly function to build tissues D) are the only macronutrient that undergoes deamination

35. The term __________ reaction describes a coupled oxidation-reduction reaction.

A) potential B) kinetic C) coupling D) redox

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36. Energy transformations in the body largely depend upon __________.

A) mechanical reactions B) lactic acid reactions C) oxidation-reduction reactions D) adenosine triphosphate reactions

37. The body's special carrier for free energy is __________.

A) adenosine triphosphate B) adenosine diphosphate C) adenosine monophosphate D) high-energy phosphate

38. The bonds linking the two outermost phosphates of ATP are known as __________.

A) high-energy bonds B) adenosine bonds C) low-energy bonds D) pyruvate bonds

39. In the degradation of one mole of ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), the outermost phosphate bond splits and liberates approximately __________ of free energy.

A) 1.2 kilocalories B) 3.4 kilocalories C) 6.4 kilocalories D) 7.3 kilocalories

40. Substrate-level phosphorylation is an __________ reaction.

A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) oxidation D) reduction

41. The onset of intense exercise triggers __________ for energy.

A) PCr hydrolysis B) ATP condensation C) PCr condensation D) ADP hydrolysis

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42. PCr hydrolysis reaches a maximum in about ___________.

A) 10 seconds B) 1 minute C) 10 minutes D) 1 hour

43. The splitting of an ATP molecule takes place immediately and without __________.

A) oxygen B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) water

44. __________ and glycogen represent the major energy sources to maintain continual ATP resynthesis at rest.

A) Amino acids B) Glycerol C) Fatty acids D) Alcohols

45. __________ places a limit on the rate of glycolysis.

A) Amylase B) Oxidative kinase C) Creatine kinase D) Phosphofructokinase

46. The body stores only __________ of ATP at any one time.

A) 40 to 60 grams B) 80 to 100 grams C) 120 to 200 grams D) 200 to 300 grams

47. Other than ATP, __________ is an intracellular high-energy phosphate compound that releases a large amount of energy when bonds split.

A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) B) adenosine monophosphate (AMP) C) phosphocreatine (PCr) D) phosphate

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48. Energy release from the intramuscular energy-rich phosphates ATP and PCr sustains all-out exercise for approximately __________.

A) 1 to 2 minutes B) 1 to 2 seconds C) 5 to 8 minutes D) 5 to 8 seconds

49. Aerobic energy from glucose metabolism occurs in __________.

A) the citric acid cycle B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) glycolysis D) lactate formation

50. __________ refers to energy transfer through phosphate bonds.

A) Phosphocreatine B) Hydrolysis C) Phosphorylation D) Respiratory oxidation

51. The net amount of ATP generated from the complete breakdown of one glucose molecule is __________.

A) 28 B) 32 C) 36 D) 42

52. The enzyme __________ regulates and limits the breakdown of stored glycogen for energy.

A) glycogen phosphorylase B) glycogen synthetase C) phosphofructokinase D) glycogen dehydrogenase

53. The most plentiful source(s) of potential energy in the body is/are __________.

A) glucose B) glycerol C) fatty acids D) amino acids

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54. Excessive protein catabolism __________.

A) occurs during glycolysis B) increases water needs C) forms free fatty acids D) occurs during -oxidation

55. The coenzyme FAD, which serves as an important electron acceptor in oxidizing food fragments, contains what vitamin?

A) Riboflavin B) Niacin C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin C

56. Early scientist involved in the discovery of ATP. A) Balke B) Taylor C) Saltin D) Lohmann

57. Fuel sources that supply substrate for oxidation and subsequent ATP formation include all of the following except: A) glucose derived from liver glycogen B) triacylglycerol and glycogen molecules stored within muscle cells C) free fatty acids derived from triacylglycerol in liver and adipocytes that enter the bloodstream for delivery to active muscle D) intracellular nitrogen skeletons of amino acids

58. The first stage of glucose degradation within cells involves a series of chemical reactions collectively termed __________.

A) gluconeogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycogen phosphorylase D) glycolysis

59. In the presence of __________, glucose joins with other glucose molecules to form glycogen.

A) glycogen synthase B) glycogen phosphorylase C) lactate dehydrogenase D) aerobic glycolysis

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60. In carbohydrate catabolism, the oxidation of hydrogen at about the same rate that it becomes available is known as __________.

A) glycogen synthase B) aerobic glycolysis C) anaerobic glycolysis D) glycogen phosphorylase

61. The end product of aerobic glycolysis is __________.

A) NAD+ B) acetyl CoA C) pyruvate D) FADH

62. The citric acid cycle degrades the __________ to carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms within the mitochondria.

A) acetyl-CoA substrate B) pyruvate molecule C) glucose molecule D) ATP substrate

63. __________ tissue serves as an active and major supplier of fatty acid molecules.

A) Renal B) Cardiac C) Muscle D) Adipose

64. All of the following hormones augment lipase activation and subsequent lipolysis and FFA mobilization from adipose tissue except: A) epinephrine B) glucagon C) insulin D) growth hormone 65. -Oxidation of fatty acids provides the same two-carbon acetyl unit as acetyl generated from __________ breakdown.

A) glucose B) linoleic acid C) protein D) amino acid

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66. When intense, long-duration exercise depletes glycogen reserves, __________ serves as the primary fuel for exercise and recovery.

A) lipid B) glucose C) amino acid D) glycerol

67. The hormone __________ influences the activity of glycogen phosphorylase to cleave glucose from glycogen.

A) glucagon B) epinephrine C) gastrin D) secretin

68. The liver removes nitrogen from amino acids during __________.

A) deamination B) translocation C) gluconeogenesis D) transamination

69. Glycogen depletion could occur in all of the following scenarios except: A) prolonged exercise B) inadequate energy intake C) increased intake of whole grains D) diabetes

70. Dietary protein consumed in excess converts to __________.

A) lipid B) muscle tissue C) glycerol D) pyruvate

71. Under anaerobic glycolysis, nonoxidized hydrogens combine temporarily with pyruvate to form __________.

A) glycogen B) lactate C) water D) carbon dioxide

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72. When protein provides energy, the body must eliminate the __________-containing amine group from protein breakdown.

A) hydrogen B) oxygen C) nitrogen D) carbon

73. __________ cannot contribute to glucose synthesis because the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is not reversible.

A) Amino acids B) Pyruvate C) ADP D) Fatty acids

74. True or false? Aerobic chemical reactions generate energy rapidly for short durations without oxygen.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Photosynthesis serves as the plant's mechanism for synthesizing carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? The bonds between the phosphates of an ATP molecule are considered low-energy bonds.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Cells store only a small quantity of ATP. A) True B) False

78. True or false? Cells store approximately four to six times more PCr than ATP. A) True B) False

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79. True or false? The citric acid cycle serves as the final common pathway where the electrons extracted from hydrogen pass to oxygen.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Free fatty acids are stored directly within the muscle fiber in close proximity to the mitochondria.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? The glycerol and fatty acid molecules contain similar amounts of potential energy.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? The complete oxidation of glucose in skeletal muscle yields 40 ATP. A) True B) False

83. True or false? The anaerobic reactions of glycolysis generate energy more slowly than the reactions of fatty acid catabolism.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Amino acid deamination occurs primarily in the pancreas.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Fatty acids can contribute to glucose synthesis.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The hydrogens released during fatty acid catabolism oxidize through the respiratory chain.

A) True B) False

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87. True or false? The cytochromes carry electrons and contain the mineral chromium.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? The transport of electrons by specific carrier molecules constitutes the respiratory chain.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? The splitting of an ATP molecule does not require oxygen.

A) True B) False 90. True or false? NAD+ and FAD are derived from the water-soluble vitamins niacin and riboflavin.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Exogenous glycerol supplementation contributes a significant energy substrate during exercise.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Glucagon is a hormone of the sympathetic nervous system.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? The breakdown of glucose occurs only when oxygen is present.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? The citric acid cycle's main function is to degrade acetyl-CoA to carbon dioxide and nitrogen within the mitochondria.

A) True B) False

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95. True or false? Biologic work occurs in two forms: muscular and cellular.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Free radical formation in muscle during intense aerobic exercise may contribute to muscle fatigue or soreness and a reduction in metabolic potential.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Lipid metabolism maximizes at an average intensity of about 55% to 72% of aerobic capacity.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Anaerobic energy release can proceed in the absence of oxygen for short periods of time.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? The respiratory chain releases free energy progressively in relatively small amounts.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Aerobic refers to reactions that do not require energy.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Photosynthesis and respiration provide the most fundamental examples of energy conversion in living cells.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? Energy from the sun is in the form of alpha radiation, which then converts to nuclear energy.

A) True B) False

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103. True or false? Water at the brink of a waterfall has more potential and less kinetic energy than water at the bottom of the fall.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Solar energy coupled with photosynthesis powers the animal world with food and oxygen.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? Secretion and reabsorption in the kidney tubules use passive transport mechanisms.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Compounds such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and phosphocreatine (PCr) provide energy to the cell.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? The substance being reduced or gaining electrons is called the reducing agent.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? Electron transport represents the final common pathway in aerobic (oxidative) metabolism.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? Kinetic energy represents the energy associated with position or structure, whereas potential energy represents energy of motion.

A) True B) False

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110. True or false? One of the cell's major energy-transforming activities is to extract kinetic energy from food and conserve it within the bonds of ATP. A) True B) False

111. True or false? The first law of thermodynamics states that energy transforms from one state to another and is used up.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? Reactions of energy transfer increase rapidly when exercise begins.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? Human energy dynamics involve transferring energy by means of chemical bonds.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? Cellular oxidation-reduction constitutes the body's mechanism for energy metabolism.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? On average, six ATP molecules form from the oxidation of one NADH molecule.

A) True B) False

116. True or false? Muscular contraction represents the only form of mechanical work performed by the body.

A) True B) False

117. True or false? The reactions of photosynthesis in plants are the same as respiration in animals.

A) True B) False

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118. True or false? In anaerobic metabolism, oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the respiratory chain and combines with hydrogen to form water.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? The crucial purpose of energy released in macronutrient breakdown is to phosphorylate ADP to reform the energy-rich compound ATP. A) True B) False

120. True or false? A small amount of ATP forms from anaerobic reactions in the cytochromes in the initial phase of glucose or glycogen breakdown.

A) True B) False

121. True or false? The enzyme adipocytase catalyzes triacylglycerol breakdown.

A) True B) False

122. True or false? Only three forms of energy exist: heat, light, and nuclear energy.

A) True B) False

123. True or false? Electron transport by specific carrier molecules constitutes the respiratory chain.

A) True B) False

124. True or false? Cellular ADP concentration exerts the greatest effect on the rate-limiting enzymes that control the energy metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

A) True B) False

125. True or false? The term bioenergetics refers to the flow of energy within a living system.

A) True B) False

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126. True or false? The term hyperox reaction describes a coupled oxidation-reduction reaction.

A) True B) False

127. True or false? In essence, solar energy coupled with photosynthesis powers the animal world with food and oxygen.

A) True B) False

128. True or false? Reduction refers to energy transfer through phosphate bonds.

A) True B) False

129. True or false? A series of iron-protein electron carriers called cytochromes make up the electron transport system.

A) True B) False

130. True or false? Once fatty acids diffuse from the adipocyte into the circulation, nearly all bind to plasma albumin for transport as free fatty acids.

A) True B) False

131. True or false? Under physiological conditions, the majority of lactic acid dissociates and presents as lactate.

A) True B) False

132. True or false? The process of converting a free fatty acid to multiple acetyl-CoA molecules is called -oxidation.

A) True B) False

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133. True or false? When intense, long-duration exercise depletes glycogen reserves, amino acids serves as a primary fuel for exercise and recovery.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. A 43. A 44. C

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45. D 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. D 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. A 71. B 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A

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91. B 92. B 93. B 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. B 111. B 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. B 117. B 118. B 119. A 120. B 121. B 122. B 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. B 127. A 128. B 129. A 130. A 131. A 132. A 133. B

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1. Which of the following is not a factor that influences the fuel mixture that powers physical activity?

A) Exercise intensity B) Duration of exercise C) Group exercise D) Nutritional status of individual

2. Intense physical activity continued beyond 90 seconds places a progressively greater demand on the relatively slower __________ energy pathways.

A) aerobic B) glycolytic C) ATP-PCr D) glycogenolytic

3. __________ sources supply most of the energy for fast movements or during increased resistance to movement at a given speed.

A) Aerobic B) Anaerobic C) Fatty acids D) Amino acids

4. Macronutrient energy sources for ATP resynthesis during exercise include all of the following except __________.

A) liver and muscle glycogen B) triacylglycerols within adipose tissue C) pancreatic glycogen D) amino acids within skeletal muscle

5. Glycogen stored within the __________ serves as the predominant carbohydrate energy source as exercise intensity increases.

A) liver B) muscle C) pancreas D) kidneys

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6. Carbohydrate availability during exercise helps to regulate __________ and its use for energy.

A) lipid mobilization B) gluconeogenesis C) lactate D) epinephrine

7. As exercise intensity increases, output of the hormone __________ decreases.

A) epinephrine B) norepinephrine C) insulin D) glucagon

8. Compared with lipid, carbohydrate generates about __________ more energy per unit of oxygen consumed.

A) 2% B) 6% C) 10% D) 50%

9. The action of the enzyme __________ stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver and active muscles.

A) glycogen phosphorylase B) glycogen synthase C) glycogen dehydrogenase D) pyruvate kinase

10. In the transition from rest to moderate exercise, __________ supplies almost all of the energy.

A) glycogen stored in the liver B) glycogen stored in active muscle C) free fatty acid circulating in the blood D) triacylglycerol stored in adipocytes

11. As muscle glycogen stores diminish, __________ becomes the major supplier of carbohydrate energy.

A) glucose from gluconeogenesis B) glucose from nonactive muscles C) blood glucose from the liver D) glucose generated from fatty acids

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12. __________ occurs when blood glucose levels decrease to less than 45 milligram glucose per 100 mL [dL] blood.

A) Hypoglycemia B) Hyperglycemia C) Proteinuria D) Euglycemia

13. Endurance athletes commonly refer to the extreme sensation of fatigue due to carbohydrate depletion as __________.

A) being in the zone B) zoning C) losing the will D) hitting the wall

14. Aerobically trained muscle has a(n) __________ capacity for carbohydrate metabolism.

A) drastically reduced B) improved C) slightly reduced D) unaltered

15. During submaximal exercise, the endurance-trained muscle exhibits a(n) __________.

A) increased reliance on muscle glycogen and blood glucose as fuel sources and a greater lipid utilization B) decreased reliance on muscle glycogen and blood glucose as fuel sources and a reduced lipid utilization C) decreased reliance on muscle glycogen and blood glucose as fuel sources and a greater lipid utilization D) increased reliance on muscle glycogen and blood glucose as fuel sources and a reduced lipid utilization

16. During submaximal exercise, women derive __________ proportion of total energy from carbohydrate oxidation than men.

A) a greater B) a smaller C) the same D) a significant

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17. Compared with untrained muscle, trained muscle tends __________ glycogen reserves.

A) to conserve B) to rapidly deplete C) not to conserve D) to completely deplete

18. Research reveals __________ gender differences in carbohydrate metabolism in exercise.

A) no B) negligible C) significant D) minor

19. The catecholamine response of women after exercise training tends to be __________ compared with that of men.

A) less blunted B) more blunted C) slightly increased D) drastically increased

20. Lactate accumulation leads to fatigue because this compound: A) causes capillaries to constrict, which reduces muscle blood flow B) facilitates fatty acid mobilization and utilization, thus reducing the total energy available to muscle C) inhibits myoglobin from transporting oxygen into the mitochondria D) lowers the intramuscular pH, which interferes with enzyme activity and energy metabolism

21. Endurance capacity of individuals fed a high-carbohydrate diet tends to be __________ than individuals fed a high-fat diet.

A) dramatically higher B) slightly higher C) slightly lower D) dramatically lower

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22. From the standpoint of energy supply, a low-carbohydrate diet makes __________ to engage in vigorous physical activity.

A) it significantly easier B) it extremely difficult C) it slightly easier D) no difference in the ability

23. Fatty acids from each of the following sources except __________ supply the major energy for light exercise.

A) those released from adipocytes B) circulating plasma triacylglycerol bound to lipoproteins C) triacylglycerol within the active muscle itself D) those associated with cell membranes

24. This hormone does not activate lipase.

A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Norepinephrine D) Glucagon

25. The primary fuel during light and moderate exercise is __________.

A) lipid B) protein C) lipoprotein D) carbohydrate

26. __________ and lipid contribute energy equally during moderate-intensity exercise.

A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Amino acids D) Catecholamines

27. __________ is the preferred fuel during intense aerobic exercise because it rapidly supplies ATP via oxidative processes.

A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Protein D) Amine groups

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28. Forty minutes into intense activity glucose uptake by the active muscle increases between __________ the resting uptake.

A) 1 and 2 times B) 2 and 3 times C) 7 and 20 times D) 25 and 50 times

29. During light exercise, __________ remains the main energy substrate.

A) carbohydrate B) lipid C) protein D) water

30. Severely lowered levels of liver and muscle glycogen during physical activity induce all of the following except __________.

A) hypoglycemia B) fatigue C) muscle pain D) hyperglycemia

31. Lactate in the body: A) represents a metabolic waste product B) continually forms C) inhibits citric acid cycle metabolism if not deaminated D) forms from the union of six pyruvate molecules

32. Toward the end of prolonged exercise for more than 2 hours, circulating __________ supply (supplies) nearly 80% of the total energy contribution.

A) blood glucose B) free fatty acids C) glycerol D) amino acids

33. Represents the most rapid energy system to phosphorylate ADP to ATP A) electron transport-oxidative phosphorylation B) PCr C) substrate-level phosphorylation via glycolysis D) citric acid cycle

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34. Which of the following stimulates FFA liberation for energy in prolonged exercise?

A) A decrease in glucagon B) An increase in glucagon C) An increase in insulin D) A decrease in epinephrine

35. Moderate physical activity provide benefits as great, if not greater, __________.

A) if capillaries can constrict to reduce trunk and extremity blood flow B) if capillaries can constrict to increase trunk blood flow C) provided hemoglobin does not block mitochondrial transformation D) at more intense doses

36. A carbohydrate-deficient diet rapidly depletes __________.

A) brain and muscle glycogen B) liver glycogen C) muscle glycogen D) liver and muscle glycogen

37. __________ tissue releases more free fatty acids (FFAs) to active muscle as blood flow increases with exercise.

A) Renal B) Cardiac C) Adipose D) Muscle

38. Which of the following statements is true concerning macronutrient catabolism during physical activity?

A) The liver markedly increases its release of protein for use by active muscle as activity progresses from low to high intensity.

B) Muscle glycogen serves as the predominant carbohydrate energy source during the early stages of physical activity and as intensity increases.

C) Compared with carbohydrates and protein catabolism, lipid remains the preferential fuel during intense aerobic activity because it rapidly supplies ATP during oxidative processes.

D) In anaerobic efforts, proteins are the only contributor to ATP formation.

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39. During the first hour of prolonged exercise, lipid supplies about __________ of the energy, whereas during the third hour, lipid contributes up to __________ of the total energy requirement.

A) 5%, 10% B) 90%, 30% C) 50%, 70% D) 50%, 50%

40. Well-nourished endurance athletes rely almost completely on __________ oxidation during near-maximal, sustained aerobic effort.

A) blood glucose B) stored glycogen C) stored fat D) free fatty acids

41. One hour of intense exercise would significantly decrease __________ glycogen content.

A) liver B) kidney C) pancreas D) nonactive muscle

42. __________ stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver and active muscle.

A) Phosphatase B) Glycogen phosphorylase C) Phosphofructokinase D) Sucrase

43. Compared to lipid oxidation, carbohydrate oxidation generates about __________% greater energy per unit oxygen consumed.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

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44. Branched-chain amino acids that are oxidized in skeletal muscle rather than in liver include all of the following except __________.

A) arginine B) leucine C) isoleucine D) valine

45. Endurance capacity averaged about __________ times greater when subjects consumed a high-carbohydrate rather than a high-fat diet.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

46. Factors that justify a possible increased need for protein among those involved in exercise training include all of the following except: A) There is an increased protein breakdown during prolonged exercise.

B) There is an increased protein breakdown during intense training.

C) There is an increased protein synthesis during exercise recovery.

D) The liver and muscles need to store protein as the primary source of exercise fuel.

47. When athletes consume a high-carbohydrate diet rather than a high-fat diet, __________.

A) they often complain of nausea B) endurance capacity tends to decrease C) endurance capacity tends to increase D) they often experience abdominal cramping

48. Toward the end of prolonged exercise, when glycogen reserves are low, __________.

A) protein synthesis in skeletal muscles increases B) circulating FFAs supply a greater percentage of the exercise fuel C) exercise intensity usually increases D) circulating insulin levels increase

49. Which of the following reflects an aerobic training adaptation that enhances lipid oxidation during exercise?

A) Increased size and number of mitochondria in trained muscle B) Decreased number of capillaries in trained muscle C) Augmented HDL transport within the trained muscle cell D) A decreased utilization of intramuscular triacylglycerols

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50. Hormones that is a potent inhibitor of lipolysis: A) insulin B) glucagon C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine

51. True or false? Intramuscular high-energy phosphates supply the majority of energy for intense exercise.

A) True B) False

52. True or false? A 2-hour strenuous workout greatly depletes glycogen in the liver and specifically exercised muscles.

A) True B) False

53. True or false? During 30 minutes of intense exercise, blood glucose decreases to hyperglycemic levels.

A) True B) False

54. True or false? The fuel mixture that powers physical activity generally depends on the intensity and duration of effort.

A) True B) False

55. True or false? Carbohydrate is the predominant fuel during intense aerobic exercise.

A) True B) False

56. True or false? Carbohydrate and lipid breakdown use identical pathways for acetyl-CoA oxidation.

A) True B) False

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57. True or false? The relative contributions from the three energy transfer systems fall on a continuum depending on the exercise intensity and duration.

A) True B) False

58. True or false? The two main macronutrient sources that provide energy for ATP resynthesis during physical activity include liver and muscle glycogen and amino acids.

A) True B) False

59. True or false? Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than 90 mg/100 mL of blood.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? With carbohydrate depletion, exercise capacity (expressed as a percentage of maximum) progressively decreases after 2 hours to 50% of the starting intensity.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? Initiation of exercise produces a prolonged decrease in plasma FFA. A) True B) False

62. True or false? The ATP-PC systems provide about one-half of the energy required for intense exercise lasting 10 minutes, whereas aerobic reactions provide the remainder.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? For macronutrient catabolism, carbohydrate (reactions of glycolysis) becomes the sole ATP contributor in anaerobic exercise.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? The contribution of lipids is greater than carbohydrates for energy metabolism during intense exercise.

A) True B) False

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65. True or false? The hormone insulin activates hormone-sensitive lipase.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? A lipid molecule is dense in terms of water content.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Carbohydrate and protein breakdown use identical pathways for vitamin A and CoA oxidation.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? A trained muscle's augmented mitochondrial oxidative capacity and increased glycogen storage helps to explain the muscle's enhanced capacity for carbohydrate breakdown in exercise.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? Fat cells in the gluteal-femoral region represent a particularly lively area for lipolysis compared with adipocytes in the subcutaneous abdominal region.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Maintenance of a high-protein diet stimulates adaptive responses that augment lipid utilization and consistently enhances endurance exercise performance.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Protein's primary role is to provide amino acid building blocks for tissue synthesis.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Regular aerobic exercise profoundly improves ability to oxidize long-chain fatty acids during mild- to moderate-intensity exercise.

A) True B) False

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73. True or false? If energy intake fails to match energy expenditure during intense training, even twice the protein RDA may not maintain nitrogen balance.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Although protein breakdown generally increases only modestly with exercise, muscle protein synthesis decreases markedly following both endurance and resistance-type exercise.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? After a few seconds of intense exercise, the glycolytic pathway generates an increasingly greater proportion of energy from carbohydrate sources.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Exercise performances of long duration require a fairly steady energy supply derived aerobically without reliance on lactate formation.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? During anaerobic exercise, lipid becomes the sole macronutrient contributor to ATP. A) True B) False

78. True or false? During light exercise, lipid is the macronutrient that provides the main energy substrate.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? At the same relative workload after training, women display an exaggerated shift toward lipid catabolism, whereas men do not.

A) True B) False

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80. True or false? A protein-deficient diet rapidly depletes muscle and liver glycogen.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? The branched chain amino acids leucine, valine, and isoleucine are often oxidized in skeletal muscle.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Muscle protein breakdown rises markedly after both endurance and resistance-type exercise.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Protein breakdown generally decreases only modestly with intense exercise.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? A blood glucose level below 45 mg/100 mL of blood constitutes a hypoglycemic level.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? In the body, glucose can be converted to lipid for energy storage.

A) True B) False 86. True or false? The “insulin antagonist” hormone is thyroxine.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? A lipid can be of plant or animal origin.

A) True B) False

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88. True or false? Protein has the same RDA for children as for adults.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? A complete protein contains all of the essential amino acids in the proportions required for optimal bodily function and growth.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Saturated fatty acids occur predominantly in foods from the animal kingdom.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Adult humans must consume six different amino acids on a regular basis.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Cholesterol is a constituent of all hormones.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Dietary fibers that show a cholesterol-lowering effect are contained only in fruit.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? Lactose consists of glucose plus fructose.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? The typical American diet contains a daily fiber intake of about 4 to 8 grams.

A) True B) False

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96. True or false? A typical 80-kilogram person stores approximately 200 grams of carbohydrate.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Inadequate insulin production by the pancreas to control blood sugar is a factor that can produce high blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? The condition of metabolic syndrome is defined by factors that include bulimia nervosa.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? The contribution of lipid to the energy requirements of physical activity depends upon the level of creatine kinase in active muscle.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? If energy intake falls below total energy expended during intense training, even augmented protein intake above recommended values may fail to maintain proper nitrogen balance.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. A

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45. A 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. A 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. A 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. B 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. A

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91. B 92. B 93. B 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. A

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1. One calorie expresses the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of __________ water by __________.

A) 1 kg (1 L), 1°C B) 1 kg (1 L), 10°C C) 1 gallon, 1°C D) 1 gallon, 10°C

2. The standard international (SI) unit for expressing food energy.

A) Calorie B) Kilocalorie C) Newton D) Joule, or kilojoule (kJ)

3. BTU. A) British thermal unit B) Heat of combustion of sugar C) Same as Kelvin measures D) Measure of energy transfer from one body to another

4. Two factors that affect energy release from protein combustion.

A) Type of protein in the food and relative sulfur content of the protein B) Relative nitrogen content of the protein and relative sulfur content of the protein C) Relative sulfur content of the protein and the source of the protein D) Type of protein in the food and relative nitrogen content of the protein

5. Macronutrient with the highest average heats of combustion.

A) Proteins B) Vitamins C) Lipids D) Carbohydrates

6. Represents the percentage of ingested food that is digested and absorbed.

A) Coefficient of digestibility B) Digestion index C) Absorption index D) Digestion:absorption quotient

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7. Dietary fiber reduces the amount of food absorbed by __________.

A) wrapping tightly around other macronutrients B) speeding transit time through the gastrointestinal tract C) deactivating digestive enzymes D) neutralizing pancreatic lipase

8. All energy-releasing reactions in the body ultimately depend on __________ use.

A) oxygen B) iron C) nitrogen D) calcium

9. Which of the following is not a method of indirect calorimetry?

A) Open-circuit spirometry B) Human calorimeter C) Doubly labeled water technique D) Bag technique

10. Represents the ultimate fate of all of the body's metabolic processes.

A) Water B) Oxygen C) Hydrogen D) Heat

11. Permits considerable freedom of movement for estimating energy expenditure in diverse activities.

A) Portable spirometer B) Closed-circuit spirometer C) Bomb calorimeter D) Human calorimeter

12. The respiratory quotient (RQ).

A) O2 produced/CO2 consumed B) CO2 produced/N2 consumed C) O2 produced/O2 consumed D) CO2 produced/O2 consumed

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13. The oxygen consumed relative to carbon dioxide produced for fat catabolism.

A) Greater B) Less C) Significantly less D) The same

14. RQ = 0.70: A) carbohydrate metabolism B) dietary fiber metabolism C) lipid metabolism D) protein metabolism

15. The Atwater general factor for lipid.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 9

16. An individual's caloric intake equals the sum of __________.

A) energy from fats and carbohydrates B) all energy consumed C) energy from protein and fat D) all nonnutrients consumed

17. Before protein oxidation.

A) Carbon dioxide excretion B) Creation of a water molecule C) Lipolysis D) Deamination

18. A high-fiber meal has __________ total energy absorbed than a fiber-free meal of equivalent caloric content.

A) less B) an equal amount of C) significantly greater D) slightly higher

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19. Bomb calorimetry.

A) CO2 liberated B) Heat liberated C) O2 consumed D) H2O produced

20. Indirect calorimetry includes all of the following except: A) bomb calorimeter B) closed-circuit spirometry C) open-circuit spirometry D) doubly labeled water technique

21. Measuring oxygen uptake to estimate energy expenditure.

A) Inaccurate compared to closed-circuit spirometry estimates B) Same as bomb calorimetry estimates C) Indirect calorimetry D) Significantly lower than direct estimates

22. Estimates total daily energy expenditure of humans in free-living conditions without the normal constraints imposed by laboratory procedures.

A) Closed-circuit spirometry B) Doubly labeled water technique C) Weir technique D) Douglas-bag technique

23. Heat of combustion.

A) Determined by a food's water content B) The same for each macronutrient C) Highest for protein D) A food's total energy value

24. Net kcal values for 1 gram of carbohydrate, lipid, and protein.

A) 4.0, 9.0, 6.5 B) 4.0, 4.0, 9.0 C) 6.5, 9.0, 4.0 D) 4.0, 9.0, 4.0

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25. A bomb calorimeter's principle of operation.

A) Atwater factors B) Direct calorimetry C) Indirect calorimetry D) Digestive efficiency

26. Closed-circuit spirometry.

A) Carbon dioxide measurement B) Oxygen uptake measurement C) Best used during physical activity D) Direct calorie measurement

27. The coefficient of digestibility.

A) Reveals energy content of a meal B) Reveals fiber content of a meal C) Reveals digestive efficiency for a food D) Reveals meal's nutritive value

28. The relative percentage of carbohydrates completely digested and absorbed.

A) 10% B) 50% C) 75% D) 97%

29. Net metabolizable energy value of typically consumed foods.

A) Wingate B) Krebs C) Cori D) Atwater

30. One British thermal unit (BTU): A) measurement of energy value of 1 gram protein B) 1 ton C) represents the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1°F from 63°F to 64°F D) represents the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of carbohydrate 1°F from 63°F to 64°F

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31. In a bomb calorimeter, __________.

A) water absorbs the liberated heat B) the food being tested must first be transaminated C) the food being tested must first be oxidized D) hydrogen is released and captured in the bomb

32. Heat of combustion of 1 gram pure carbohydrate.

A) 5.0 B) 4.20 C) 9.0 D) 5.45

33. Heat liberated by a food's complete oxidation.

A) Same as metabolic equivalent B) Same as energy cost factor C) Same as heat of combustion D) Same as the Atwater factor

34. Complete oxidation of lipid in the bomb calorimeter.

A) 50% more energy than carbohydrate B) 75% more energy than carbohydrate C) 90% more energy than carbohydrate D) 120% more energy than carbohydrate

35. Highest number of hydrogen atoms available for oxidation to supply energy?

A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Water

36. Which of the following equivalents is accurate?

A) 1 foot-pound (ft-lb) = 0.23889 kcal B) 1 foot-pound (ft-lb) = 1000 J C) 1 kcal = 9.8066 J D) 1 J = 1 Newton-meter (Nm)

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37. Net energy value.

A) Heat of combustion determined by direct calorimetry B) Sum of the energy liberated from the heat of combustion and the amount of available energy C) Difference between the energy liberated from the heat of combustion and the amount of energy available to the body D) Amount of energy actually available to the body

38. Accurately estimates the net energy typically metabolized for consumed foods.

A) Heat of combustion factors B) Net energy values C) Atwater general factors D) Bomb calorimeters

39. Not an approach to accurately quantifying the energy generated during rest and physical activity?

A) Bomb calorimeter B) Direct calorimetry C) Indirect calorimetry D) Doubly labeled water technique

40. An airtight chamber with an oxygen supply where a person lives and works for an extended time period.

A) Bomb calorimeter B) Human calorimeter C) Closed-circuit spirometer D) Open-circuit spirometer

41. Benefits of indirect calorimetry.

A) Measures anaerobic oxygen use B) Directly measures oxygen output C) No benefits to using this method D) Relatively simple to operate

42. Indirect calorimetry procedures that measure oxygen uptake during physical activity include all of the following except __________.

A) portable spirometry B) bag technique C) closed-circuit spirometer D) computerized instrumentation

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43. Indirect calorimetry.

A) Computerized instrumentation B) Ability to directly measure heat dissipation C) Closed-circuit spirometry D) Doubly labeled water technique

44. RQ calculation.

A) CO2 produced × O2 consumed B) CO2 produced × O2 consumed × N2 correction factor C) CO2 produced ÷ O2 consumed D) O2 consumed ÷ CO2 produced

45. Limitation of the doubly labeled water technique.

A) Too expensive B) Too many constraints C) Can only assess individuals, not groups D) Too inaccurate

46. Method to calculate the metabolic mixture during physical activity.

A) Portable spirometer B) Atwater factor C) Respiratory exchange ratio D) Respiratory quotient

47. Respiratory quotient.

A) Applies to vitamin and combustion B) Approximately 0.70 for lipid combustion C) Only infers macronutrient metabolism during intense activity D) Averages approximately 1.20 for carbohydrate combustion

48. Nitrogen excretion.

A) Measured when carbohydrate metabolizes B) Measured when protein metabolizes C) Only occurs in steady-rate activity D) Does not occur in humans

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49. Not a component of total daily energy expenditure.

A) Energy expended from vitamin and mineral metabolism B) Energy expended during physical activity and recovery C) Thermogenic influence of food consumed D) Resting metabolic rate

50. Directly affects total daily energy expenditure.

A) Food pH B) Amount of water consumed C) Dietary-induced thermogenesis D) Gender

51. Generally accounts for 15% to 30% of total daily energy expenditure.

A) DIT B) Physical activity C) RMR D) BMR

52. Energy required for digesting, absorbing, and assimilating nutrients.

A) Basal metabolic rate B) Resting energy expenditure C) Dietary-induced thermogenesis D) Physical energy expenditure

53. Has the highest resting metabolic rate.

A) An individual living in a cold climate performing activity in the cold B) An individual living in a cold climate performing activity in the heat C) An individual living in a tropical climate performing activity in the heat D) An individual living in a tropical climate performing activity in the cold

54. Considered a non–weight-bearing activity?

A) Walking B) Stationary cycling C) Jogging D) Tennis

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55. Two types of indirect calorimetry.

A) Nitrogen analysis and oxygen analysis B) Closed-circuit and direct C) Closed-circuit and open-circuit D) Bomb and closed-circuit

56. During closed-circuit spirometry: A) the person rebreathes CO2, and O2 is absorbed B) VO2 and VCO2 are measured C) soda lime absorbs CO2 in exhaled air D) the RQ equals 1.00

57. Precisely determines the body's heat production.

A) RQ and lactate formed B) RQ and amount of oxygen uptake C) RQ and amount of carbon dioxide produced D) Blood lactate level and oxygen consumed

58. Nonprotein RQ assumption.

A) Protein is only used during rest.

B) Protein contributes 25% to total energy expenditure.

C) The metabolic mixture comprises only carbohydrate and fat.

D) High-intensity exercise causes excess CO2 production.

59. RQ for a mixed diet.

A) Assumes combustion of 12% protein, 35% carbohydrate, and 53% fat B) Assumes combustion of 40% carbohydrate and 60% fat C) Equals RQ for carbohydrate combustion D) Assumes combustion of an equal mixture of fat and protein

60. True or false? Dietary fiber reduces the coefficient of digestibility.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? Major differences exist in digestive efficiency between obese and lean individuals.

A) True B) False

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62. True or false? Carbohydrates are readily available and easily metabolized by muscle.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? During activities ranging from rest to moderate aerobic activity, the RQ always reflects the oxidation of pure carbohydrate or pure fat.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? Application of the RQ assumes that oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange measured at the lungs reflects the actual gas exchange from macronutrient metabolism in the cell.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? The closed-circuit spirometer provides an ideal way to assess total energy expenditure of groups over prolonged time periods, including bed rest and during extreme activities like climbing.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? A general value for the gross heat of combustion for protein is 5.65 kcal·g–1.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? The bomb calorimeter requires an external supply of carbon dioxide.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? Carbohydrate can be used to form ATP. A) True B) False

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69. True or false? To adjust for the effects of variations in body size on oxygen consumption, researchers frequently express oxygen consumption in terms of body mass known as relative oxygen consumption.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Excessive fat catabolism produces excessive urea.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Thermic effect of feeding is the minimum energy requirement to sustain the body's functions.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Only indirect calorimetry can directly estimate the power and capacity of the different energy systems.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? The value 4.2 kilocalorie represents the gross heat of combustion for a gram of carbohydrate.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Plant protein has a relatively low coefficient of digestibility.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? The loss of hydrogen in protein metabolism represents a 19% loss of the protein molecule's potential energy.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? The basal metabolic rate is the minimum energy requirement to sustain the body's functions during physical activity.

A) True B) False

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77. True or false? A lower total energy absorption occurs with a high-fiber meal compared with a fiber-free meal of equivalent caloric content.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Obese individuals usually exhibit greater digestive efficiency compared with lean counterparts.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Regular physical activity blunts an age-related decrease in basal metabolic rate (BMR).

A) True B) False

80. True or false? The BMR is usually decreased with aging.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? A woman's larger percent body fat and smaller muscle mass relative to body size help explain her lower metabolic rate per unit surface area.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? The coefficient of digestibility for protein exceeds that of lipid and carbohydrate.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Most common proteins contain approximately 16% nitrogen.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? 1 kcal = 1000 cal = 4186 J = 4.184 kJ A) True B) False

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85. True or false? The Atwater general factor for 200-proof alcohol equals 7 kcal·g–1.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? A calorie reflects food energy regardless of food source.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Pregnancy affects total daily energy expenditure mainly through its effect of increasing the energy cost of many modes of physical activity.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? The RQ for lipid equals about 0.70.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? Physical activity has no impact on human energy expenditure.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Complete oxidation of one glucose molecule produces six oxygen molecules.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Overfat individuals often have an increased thermic response to eating.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? The RQ for a mixed diet equals about 0.82.

A) True B) False

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93. True or false? Physical activity performed in hot weather results in an elevation in oxygen uptake compared with the same work performed in a thermoneutral environment.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? Portable spirometry, bag technique, and computerized instrumentation are examples of direct calorimetric procedures.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Pregnancy compromises the absolute value for aerobic capacity.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed during macronutrient combustion.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? The net energy expenditure equals gross energy expenditure added to the energy requirement of rest for an equivalent time.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Body weight plays an important contributing role in exercise-energy requirements.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Walking and other weight-bearing exercises require a substantially lower calorie burn for heavier people.

A) True B) False

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100. True or false? Physical activity increases with age, and sufficient activity becomes more common among women than men.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? RQ2 = VCO2 ÷ VO2 A) True B) False

102. True or false? With open-circuit spirometry, potassium hydroxide absorbs exhaled CO2.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? All of the body's metabolic processes ultimately produce heat.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? One metabolic equivalent (MET) represents an adult's average seated resting oxygen consumption or energy expenditure.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? The MET provides a convenient way to rate oxygen consumption during exercise compared with a resting baseline.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? The RQ for carbohydrate equals 1.00.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? The oxygen consumed equals the carbon dioxide produced during physical activity are always the same.

A) True B) False

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108. True or false? Foods high in protein content contain considerably more calories than foods low in protein content.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? With open-circuit spirometry, a subject inhales ambient air with a constant composition of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? Proteins are readily available and easily metabolized by muscles.

A) True B) False

111. True or false? Carbohydrate represents a limited energy source.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? Carbohydrates can generate FFAs in times of starvation through lipogenesis.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? Coefficients of digestibility average 97% for carbohydrates, 95% for lipids, and 92% for proteins.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? Atwater calorific values allow one to compute the caloric content of any meal from the food's carbohydrate, lipid, and protein content.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? 500 kilocalories of chocolate ice cream topped with whipped cream and hazelnuts is no more fattening than 500 kilocalories of watermelon.

A) True B) False

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116. True or false? For each RQ value, a corresponding caloric value exists for each liter of oxygen consumed.

A) True B) False

117. True or false? The RQ does can indicate specific substrate use during non–steady-rate physical activity.

A) True B) False

118. True or false? BMR relates directly to age and sex, averaging 5% to 10% lower in women than in men.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? Gross (total energy expenditure) values do not need to include the resting energy requirement.

A) True B) False

120. True or false? One MET represents an adult's average seated resting oxygen uptake or energy expenditure—about 250 mL O2·min–1, 3.5 mL O2·kg–1·min–1, or 1 kcal·kg–1·h–1.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. C

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45. A 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. C 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. B 55. C 56. C 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. B 68. A 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. A 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. A 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. B

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. A 115. A 116. A 117. B 118. B 119. B 120. A

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1. If total food calories exceed daily energy expenditure, excess calories accumulate as __________.

A) glycogen in the kidneys B) protein in the liver C) glycogen in the pancreas D) lipid in adipose tissue

2. When caloric intake equals caloric expenditure, __________.

A) body mass remains constant B) fat accumulates in adipose tissue C) glycogen accumulates in the pancreas D) glycogen accumulates in the kidneys

3. For the typical Western diet, it is recommended to __________ the intake of certain foods to achieve a balanced diet.

A) moderate rather than eliminate B) totally eliminate C) strictly avoid D) focus on one source for

4. An extra __________ through either increased energy intake or decreased energy output approximates the calories contained in 1 pound of stored body fat.

A) 1200 kilocalories B) 1600 kilocalories C) 3500 kilocalories D) 4200 kilocalories

5. Proper nutrition achieves the following effects except?

A) Improves sports performance B) Optimizes programs of physical conditioning C) Improves recovery from fatigue D) Reduces likelihood of urinary tract infections

6. Dietary recommendations for physically active men and women must do which of the following?

A) Account for the energy requirements of a particular activity or sport and its training demands B) Include only foods high in complex carbohydrates C) Be low in overall energy and prevent the storage of excessive glycogen D) Include a vitamin and mineral supplement to complement a well-balanced diet

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7. There has been a surprising rise in eating disorders among __________ young women.

A) British B) Japanese C) Australian D) German

8. __________ associates with sustained poor exercise performance, frequent infections particularly of the loss of interest in high-level training, and injuries.

A) Overtraining B) Insufficient training C) Optimal training D) Excessive training

9. Energy expenditure averaged __________ kilocalories daily for nearly 3 weeks during the Tour de France.

A) 4000 B) 6500 C) 8000 D) 10,500

10. In 2011, the USDA unveiled __________, a new icon with nutritional guidelines for healthy eating.

A) MyPyramid B) MyPlate C) MyCommunity D) MyDiet

11. The MyPlate strategy emphasizes more __________.

A) exercise B) lipid intake C) plant-based foods D) dairy food intake

12. The MyPlate guidelines build on the messages of the __________.

A) 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans B) 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans C) 2009 FDA Food Code D) 2010 ACSM Guidelines for Athletes

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13. In the typical American diet, __________ foods are common.

A) energy-poor but nutrient-rich B) energy-rich but nutrient-poor C) nutrient dense D) high-fiber

14. __________, produced at a greater rate during aerobic exercise than at rest, can cause damage to the cells' plasma membrane and intracellular structures.

A) Hydrogen ions B) Free radicals C) Homocysteine and lactate D) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide

15. Which of the following is not a key recommendation of the current Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

A) Increase physical activity and reduce time spent in sedentary behaviors B) Control total calorie intake to manage body weight C) Consume the same amount of calories during each stage of life D) Prevent and/or reduce overweight and obesity

16. A potential problem with MyPlate is __________.

A) it emphasizes more plant-based eating habits B) it has different-sized plate portions to symbolize the recommended food groups C) that protein is listed as a food and not as a macronutrient found in foods D) its practicality and intuitiveness compared with MyPyramid

17. The AHA recommends that men should maintain a waistline of __________ inches or less and women should maintain a waistline of __________ inches or less.

A) 50, 40 B) 40, 35 C) 35, 30 D) 45, 40

18. Based on the latest research, the new AHA guidelines have dropped passages recommending __________ to reduce cardiovascular risk.

A) hormone supplements and water-soluble vitamins B) smoking cessation and antioxidant vitamins C) hormone supplements and antioxidant vitamins D) weight reduction and smoking cessation

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19. Current acceptable __________ intake ranges between 20% and 35% of caloric intake.

A) lipid B) carbohydrate C) dietary fiber D) starch

20. The USDA designed the Healthy Eating Index to evaluate how well a person's diet conforms to the __________.

A) recommended daily allowances B) Dietary Guidelines for Americans C) adequate intake levels D) dietary reference levels

21. Vitamins synthesized in a laboratory are __________ effective for bodily functions than vitamins from natural sources.

A) more B) no less C) slightly less D) significantly less

22. During exercise, the body's normal antioxidant defenses __________.

A) improve via upregulation B) are greatly suppressed C) undergo downregulation D) remove all free radicals within seconds

23. This individual's research refocused attention on man's minimal protein requirement while resting or exercising and influenced future research in nutrition and exercise physiology.

A) Balke B) Saltin C) Taylor D) Chittenden

24. It is believed that __________ acts as an antioxidant within the respiratory chain.

A) coenzyme Q10 B) iron C) selenium D) copper

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25. The use of single-mineral supplements is __________.

A) highly recommended by the Dietary Guidelines B) ill-advised unless prescribed by a physician or registered dietitian C) recommended for all strength athletes D) recommended for all endurance athletes

26. Physically active adults should generally consume diets similar to sedentary adults with the exception of __________.

A) megavitamin amounts of micronutrients B) relative percentages of lipids C) relative percentages of carbohydrates D) relative percentages of protein

27. According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, daily sodium intake should be limited to __________ or less.

A) 1300 milligrams B) 2300 milligrams C) 3300 milligrams D) 4300 milligrams

28. According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, alcohol intake should be limited to: A) up to three drinks a day for women, two for men B) up to two drinks a day for women, one for men C) up to one drink a day for women, two for men D) up to three drinks a day for men and women

29. The protein RDA equals __________ g/kg body mass.

A) 0.6 B) 0.8 C) 1.0 D) 1.2

30. According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, at least __________ of whole-grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pasta should be consumed every day.

A) 1 ounce B) 3 ounces C) 6 ounces D) 12 ounces

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31. The dietary guidelines from the American Heart Association are written for __________.

A) the general public over the age of 2 years B) all age groups C) the general public between the ages of 19 and 65 years D) those age 40 years and older

32. Dietary guidelines from the American Heart Association include all of the following goals except __________.

A) achieving and maintaining a healthful body weight B) increasing the level of regular physical activity C) eliminating all tobacco use D) eliminating the intake of saturated fat

33. The AHA guidelines recommend a daily dose of aspirin for which individuals?

A) Those who have no risk of a heart attack B) Those who are on blood thinning medications C) Everyone D) Those who have already suffered a heart attack or stroke

34. To meet daily energy and nutrient needs while minimizing risk for chronic diseases, adults should consume between __________ of total calories from carbohydrates.

A) 10% and 25% B) 45% and 65% C) 50% and 75% D) 75% and 95%

35. The __________ posits that energy in the universe can transfer from one system to another in many forms but cannot be created or destroyed.

A) first law of thermodynamics B) law of large numbers C) second law of thermodynamics D) law of Fick 36. The bran “outer shell” of the whole-grain seed is a rich source of __________.

A) vitamin C B) fiber C) homocysteine D) amino acids

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37. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mediterranean Diet?

A) It is high in monounsaturated fatty acid content.

B) It increases risk for age-related memory loss and heart disease.

C) It increases risk of recurrence after a first myocardial infarction.

D) It is low in antioxidant content.

38. A score of 4 or less on the Diet Quality Index indicates a __________.

A) diet that does not provide enough complex carbohydrates B) diet that contains too much saturated fat C) diet that is in need of improvement D) more healthful diet

39. Muscle protein can be conserved in individuals who engage in protracted intense training by consuming __________.

A) a high-protein diet with adequate energy intake B) a high-carbohydrate diet with adequate energy intake C) a high-protein diet that is low in overall energy D) a high-fat diet that is low in overall energy

40. Protein intake recommendations are increased by __________ for vegetarians.

A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40%

41. Which of the following statements is true regarding amino acid supplement use?

A) Most individuals do not obtain adequate protein to sustain muscle growth with resistance training by consuming ordinary foods in a well-balanced diet.

B) The use of amino acid supplements increases muscle mass and improves muscular strength, power, and endurance.

C) The body absorbs complex amino acids more readily than simple amino acids.

D) The healthy intestine absorbs amino acids rapidly when they exist in both complex and simpler form.

42. To promote good health, lipid intake should not exceed __________ of the diet's energy content.

A) 10% B) 35% C) 50% D) 75%

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43. A __________ diet rapidly compromises energy reserves for vigorous physical activity and regular training.

A) high-protein B) moderate-lipid C) well-balanced D) low-carbohydrate

44. Chronic fatigue experienced during workouts and in subsequent recovery periods that increase incidence of infections and persistent muscle soreness: __________.

A) fibromyalgia B) overtraining syndrome C) chronic fatigue syndrome D) iron deficiency anemia

45. It takes at least __________ to replenish muscle glycogen levels after prolonged exhaustive exercise.

A) 2 hours B) 12 hours C) 24 hours D) 48 hours

46. Vitamin-mineral deficiencies in active people are most likely to occur among __________.

A) those who consume a high-complex carbohydrate diet B) those who eliminate one or more food groups from their diet C) those who consume a low amount of processed foods D) those with high-energy intakes

47. What vitamins play a key role as coenzymes in energy-yielding reactions during carbohydrate, lipid, and protein catabolism?

A) B complex vitamins B) Vitamins A and D C) Vitamins C and D D) Niacin and vitamin K

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48. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of vitamin-mineral supplements and physical activity?

A) If a little amount of a vitamin or mineral is beneficial, consuming more will be better.

B) Research shows that vitamin-mineral supplements benefit athletic performance.

C) No exercise benefit exists for vitamins C and E with intakes above recommended values.

D) Supplementing with vitamin C benefits endurance performance.

49. Daily supplements of __________ may confer some benefit to individuals engaged in strenuous exercise who experience frequent viral infections.

A) vitamin E B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) vitamin K

50. A megavitamin is: A) a vitamin that contains at least three different antioxidants B) a vitamin supplement at dosage at least 10 times the RDA C) a vitamin that has been proven to enhance physical performance D) a vitamin that is taken in pill form and rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream

51. These chemicals, produced at a greater rate during aerobic exercise than at rest, can cause damage to the cells' plasma membrane and intracellular structures.

A) Hydrogen ions B) Free radicals C) Homocysteine and lactate D) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide

52. Excessive intake of vitamin B6 can cause __________.

A) an allergic response B) visual problems C) kidney stones D) liver disease and nerve damage

53. Antioxidant minerals include all of the following except __________.

A) zinc B) selenium C) calcium D) copper

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54. The immune system has two functional divisions known as __________.

A) innate and acquired immunity B) natural and unnatural immunity C) covert and overt immunity D) subjective and objective immunity

55. This type of exercise boosts natural immune functions and host defenses.

A) Low-intensity B) Moderate-intensity C) High-intensity D) Anaerobic

56. This type of exercise severely impairs the body's first line of defense against infection.

A) Prolonged low-intensity exercise B) Short-term anaerobic exercise C) Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise D) Prolonged exhaustive aerobic exercise

57. Nonessential amino acid that plays an important role in normal immune function?

A) Proline B) Glutamine C) Isoleucine D) Arginine 58. The __________ provides a general appraisal of the “healthfulness” of one's diet and gives a score based on a composite of the eight food- and nutrient-based recommendations of the National Academy of Sciences.

A) Diet Quality Index B) Four Food Group Plan C) Health Factor Index D) Lipid Assessment Index

59. Which of the following statements is false concerning protein and exercise?

A) The sweat mechanism excretes nitrogen from protein breakdown during exercise.

B) Oxidation of plasma and intracellular leucine increases significantly during moderate exercise independent of changes in urea production.

C) Protein use for energy reaches its highest levels when individuals exercise when glycogen-depleted.

D) Protein does not provide an energy source during rest or exercise.

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60. Athletes who train intensely should consume between __________ of protein per kg of body mass daily.

A) 0.8 and 1.2 grams B) 1.2 and 1.6 grams C) 1.8 and 2.2 grams D) 2.2 and 2.8 grams

61. Athletes who undergo intense endurance training should consume __________ g of carbohydrate per kg of body mass on a daily basis.

A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12

62. At least __________ of rest or light-intensity exercise combined with a high-carbohydrate intake re-establishes pre-exercise muscle glycogen levels after exhaustive training or competition.

A) 10 hours B) 15 hours C) 1 to 2 days D) 3 to 4 days

63. Supplementing with __________ may confer some benefit to individuals engaged in heavy exercise and to those who have problems with frequent viral upper respiratory tract infections.

A) selenium B) omega-3 fatty acids C) homocysteine D) vitamin C

64. A vitamin megadose exceeds the RDA by at least __________ fold.

A) two B) three C) five D) 10

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65. Elevated aerobic exercise metabolism increases the production of __________.

A) hydrogen ions B) free radicals C) homocysteine and lactate D) carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide

66. Which statement is false concerning exercise, free radicals, and oxidative stress?

A) Exercise produces free radicals via an electron leak in the mitochondria, probably at the cytochrome level, that produces superoxide radicals.

B) The potential for free radical damage increases during trauma, stress, and muscle damage, and from environmental pollutants including smog.

C) The risk of oxidative stress depends on exercise intensity and the participant's state of training because exhaustive exercise by the untrained more likely produces oxidative damage in the active muscles.

D) If supplementation proves beneficial, vitamin K may be the most important antioxidant related to exercise.

67. Which of the following is not a dietary antioxidant?

A) Beta-carotene B) Vitamin E C) Vitamin B6 D) Vitamin C

68. Vigorous exercise triggers a rapid and coordinated release of __________ to minimize sodium and water loss through the kidneys.

A) the hormones testosterone and aldosterone and the enzyme sodiumase B) the hormones glucagon and insulin and the enzyme renin C) antidiuretic hormone and the enzyme pepsin D) the hormones vasopressin and aldosterone and the enzyme renin

69. Strenuous exercise may increase excretion of all the following trace elements except __________.

A) chromium B) sulfur C) copper D) manganese

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70. All of the following are considered high-risk sports for marginal nutrition except __________.

A) gymnastics B) ballet C) wrestling D) American football

71. The __________ hypothesis posits that an inordinate increase in training or actual competition exposes the person to “nonnormal” stress that depresses NK cell immune function?

A) excessive training B) exercise-infection C) open window D) closed window

72. The study of the interactions of physical, environmental, and psychological factors on immune function is known as __________.

A) environment physiology B) exercise psychology C) exercise training physiology D) exercise immunology

73. Dietary sources of vitamin E include all of the following except __________.

A) wheat germ B) seafood C) citrus fruit D) poultry

74. Vitamin E deficiencies may impair __________ function.

A) psychological B) muscular C) neurologic D) cardiovascular

75. True or false? To regularly consume a healthful diet requires a lifetime of deprivation and misery.

A) True B) False

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76. True or false? Choosing foods from a variety of sources creates a diet that contains sufficient amounts of all required nutrients.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? To maintain a healthful body weight, dietary attention must focus on portion size and number of calories.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend an increased intake of trans fats.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? For males and females in the U.S. population, energy intakes peak between ages 16 and 29 and then decline for succeeding age groups.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? People who follow a Mediterranean-style diet are less likely to develop Alzheimer's disease compared with individuals who avoid this diet.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? A score of 10 or higher on the Diet Quality Index indicates a healthy diet.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Athletes in training require at least 2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight each day.

A) True B) False

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83. True or false? Vigorous physical activity triggers a rapid and coordinated release of the hormones vasopressin and aldosterone and the enzyme renin to minimize sodium and water loss through the kidneys.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Supplementing with vitamins and minerals is essential even if a well-balanced diet is consumed.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? An individual would have to burn 5000 kilocalories in extra exercise to lose 1 pound of body fat.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The open-window hypothesis maintains that an inordinate increase in training or actual competition exposes even the highly conditioned person to “nonnormal” stress that depresses NK cell function.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Increased protein catabolism during endurance activity and intense training often mirrors the metabolic mixture during short-term starvation.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? The Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest an optimal sodium intake that ranges between 2400 and 3500 mg·day–1.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? The Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest that children and adolescents need at least 60 minutes of physical activity a day for healthy growth.

A) True B) False

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90. True or false? The U.S. Department of Agriculture and the Food and Drug Administration use the same definition for food serving sizes.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? A bout of moderate physical activity boosts natural immune function and host defenses for up to several hours.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Restaurants are now required to serve foods that are in serving sizes as defined by the U.S. Department of Agriculture.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Proper use of the Dietary Guidelines results in nutritional practices that reduce the incidence of obesity, hypertension, heart disease, and type 2 diabetes.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? The Dietary Guidelines for Americans do not address physical activity recommendations.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? According to the American Heart Association, men should maintain a waistline of 45 inches or less and women should maintain a waistline 35 inches or less.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? An objective assessment of energy and nutrient intake provides the frame of reference for judging the adequacy of one's diet in relation to recommended guidelines.

A) True B) False

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97. True or false? The Diet Quality Index provides an indication of the disease risks associated with a particular diet.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? A score of 4 or less on the Diet Quality Index reflects a more healthful diet.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? The Healthy Eating Index was designed for nutrition promotion activities and to monitor changes in diet quality over time.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? When vitamin intakes achieve recommended levels, supplements neither improve exercise performance nor increase blood levels of these micronutrients.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Protein use for energy reaches its highest level during exercise in a glycogen-depleted state.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? Eating a high-carbohydrate diet with adequate energy intake conserves muscle protein in individuals who engage in protracted intense training.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? Protein catabolism becomes less apparent when exercising with low carbohydrate reserves and/or low energy intake.

A) True B) False

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104. True or false? Those involved in resistance training need at least 2.3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? It is recommended that vegetarians increase protein intake by 10% to adjust for less efficient digestion of plant protein.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? The body absorbs simple amino acid molecules more readily than more complex di- and tripeptide molecules.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? A potential problem with MyPlate lumps all foods within a food category together (e.g., bread, cereal, rice, pasta group) without distinguishing between healthful and not so healthful foods within that category.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? To promote good health, lipid intake should exceed 40% of the diet's energy content.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? Significant reductions in dietary lipid intakes are beneficial to exercise performance.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? The vegetarian diet pyramid is composed largely of foods from the plant kingdom with dietary lipid consisting mostly of unsaturated fatty acids.

A) True B) False

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111. True or false? Stored muscle glycogen and blood-borne glucose become prime energy contributors in exercise near-maximal intensity.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? The overtraining syndrome reflects chronic fatigue experienced during workouts and in subsequent recovery periods, increased incidence of infections, persistent muscle soreness, and general malaise and loss of interest in sustaining high-level training.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? It takes about 3 hours to replenish muscle glycogen levels after prolonged exhaustive exercise.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? Daily supplements of 500 to 1500 milligrams of vitamin C per day may provide some benefit to individuals engaged in strenuous exercise who experience frequent viral infections.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? Eating a low-carbohydrate diet with adequate energy intake conserves muscle protein in individuals who train intensely.

A) True B) False

116. True or false? Vitamins synthesized in a laboratory are more effective for bodily functions than vitamins from natural sources.

A) True B) False

117. True or false? A gradual depletion of the body's carbohydrate reserves with repeated strenuous training exacerbates the overtraining syndrome.

A) True B) False

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118. True or false? As of 2017, sales of all dietary supplements in the United States exceeded $40 billion.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? No known side effects exist from consuming large doses of vitamin E. A) True B) False

120. True or false? Elevated aerobic exercise metabolism increases the production of free radicals.

A) True B) False

121. True or false? If supplementation proves beneficial, vitamin K may be the most important antioxidant related to exercise.

A) True B) False

122. True or false? The sweat mechanism serves an important role in excreting the nitrogen from protein breakdown during physical activity.

A) True B) False

123. True or false? Nutrient antioxidants are best obtained from supplements, not from food sources.

A) True B) False

124. True or false? The innate immune system includes anatomic and physiologic components such as the skin, mucous membranes, body temperature, and specialized defenses such as natural killer cells, diverse phagocytes, and inflammatory barriers.

A) True B) False

125. True or false? Exhaustive exercise boosts natural immune functions and host defenses.

A) True B) False

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126. True or false? The Mediterranean Diet Pyramid applies to individuals whose diet consists largely of foods from the plant kingdom, or fruits, nuts, vegetables, and all manner of grains and protein derived from fish, beans, and chicken with dietary lipid composed mostly of monounsaturated fatty acids.

A) True B) False

127. True or false? Gymnasts, ballet dancers, ice dancers, and weight-class athletes in boxing, wrestling, and judo who engage in arduous training are at risk for marginal or inadequate nutrition.

A) True B) False

128. True or false? Vitamin K supplements positively affect natural immune functions and resistance to stress in young and older individuals and in the obese during periods of weight loss.

A) True B) False

129. True or false? Recent government guidelines for good nutrition emphasize specific numeric goals for different individual nutrients.

A) True B) False

130. True or false? Daily supplements of 500 to 1500 milligrams of vitamin D per day may confer some benefit to individuals engaged in strenuous exercise who experience frequent viral infections.

A) True B) False

131. True or false? Regular periods of exhaustive exercise enhance the body's immune function.

A) True B) False

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132. True or false? Typical strength trainers benefit from taking high doses of amino acid supplements to provide required “building blocks” to increase muscle mass.

A) True B) False

133. True or false? Supplementing with vitamin D may confer some benefit to individuals engaged in intense exercise and to those who have problems with frequent viral upper respiratory tract infections.

A) True B) False

134. True or false? More than 60% of the U.S. population fail to incorporate even a moderate level of activity into their lives, and 25% of the U.S. population are not physically active at all.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B

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45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. D 57. B 58. A 59. D 60. B 61. C 62. C 63. D 64. D 65. B 66. D 67. C 68. D 69. B 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. C 74. B 75. B 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. B 83. A 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. A 108. B 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. A 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. A 127. A 128. B 129. B 130. B 131. B 132. B 133. B 134. A

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1. The ideal precompetition meal __________.

A) provides glucose for intestinal absorption during exercise B) does not include simple sugars C) severely limits complex carbohydrates D) is high in dietary fiber

2. The ideal precompetition meal should be consumed __________.

A) within 15 minutes of physical activity B) 3 to 4 hours before undertaking physical activity C) over 4 hours prior to physical activity D) within 60 minutes of physical activity

3. Nutrition bars, protein bars, diet bars, or energy bars contain a relatively high __________ content that ranges between 10 and 30 grams per bar.

A) fat B) carbohydrate C) dietary fiber D) protein

4. Nutrition bars should not be used as meal replacements because __________.

A) they lack a broad array of plant fibers and phytochemicals B) they contain a relatively low level of saturated fatty acids C) they are low in protein D) they lack vitamins and minerals

5. Nutrient composition of a single serving of nutrition powders and drinks __________ a powder depending on the mix.

A) is identical to B) varies considerably from C) is very similar to D) differs slightly different

6. One way to eliminate potential negative effects and re-establish hormonal balance is to ingest them __________.

A) at least 60 minutes before activity begins B) within 15 minutes of physical activity C) more than 4 hours before physical activity D) 48 hours before physical activity

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7. Consuming a high-fructose beverage often produces significant __________.

A) insulin release B) sugar rush C) vomiting and diarrhea D) episodes of hypoglycemia

8. When absorbed by the small intestine, fructose travels to the __________ for conversion to glucose.

A) mitochondria B) liver C) kidneys D) pancreas

9. Carbohydrate feeding during physical activity at 60% to 80% of aerobic capacity creates __________.

A) severe abdominal cramping B) glycogen reserves in the liver and working muscles C) vomiting and diarrhea D) a distinct ergogenic advantage between 15% and 35%

10. The glycemic response describes __________.

A) the rise in blood sugar after ingesting carbohydrates B) the rise in insulin after ingesting carbohydrates C) the rise in blood sugar after ingesting amino acids D) the rise in insulin after ingesting amino acids

11. Factors that affect the glycemic index include all of the following except __________.

A) manner of food preparation B) ripeness C) portion size D) other foods combined with the food of interest

12. The __________ represents the product of the amount of available carbohydrate in that serving and the food's glycemic index.

A) glycemic tolerance B) digestibility quotient C) glycemic response D) glycemic load

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13. To speed glycogen replenishment following intense training or competition, one should immediately consume __________.

A) high-glycemic, carbohydrate-rich foods B) high-glycemic, carbohydrate-rich foods after 2 hours C) low-glycemic, lipid-rich foods D) low-glycemic, protein-rich foods

14. Under the best of circumstances, it takes __________ to replenish glycogen stores following a glycogen-depleting exercise bout.

A) 2 hours B) at least 20 hours C) at least 48 hours D) 90 minutes

15. Stomach emptying rate greatly affects the small intestine's fluid and __________.

A) carbohydrate flux in extracellular fluids B) protein flux in intracellular fluids C) GI distension D) nutrient absorption

16. Alcohol- or caffeine-containing beverages facilitate water loss (with alcohol the most pronounced).

A) Diuretic effect B) Antidiuretic effect C) Decreased osmotic effect D) Increased osmotic effect

17. Optimally replenishes glycogen reserves following exhaustive physical activity?

A) Immediate high-glycemic carbohydrate intake B) Immediate protein intake C) Drinking 12 ounces of water D) Immediate low-glycemic carbohydrate intake

18. Maltodextrin.

A) Long-chain glucose polymer B) Concentrated glycogen molecule C) Concentrated long-chain osmotic molecules D) Short-chain glucose polymer

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19. On the day of competition, athletes should __________.

A) eliminate a low-carbohydrate breakfast B) eliminate high-lipid and protein foods C) perform 1 hour of high-intensity aerobic physical activity D) perform a 2-hour low-intensity workout

20. Ingesting low-glycemic index carbohydrates (e.g., starch with high amylose content) immediately prior to physical activity may __________.

A) provide a source of “slow release” intestinal glucose during subsequent physical activity B) stimulate insulin release early in physical activity C) stimulate insulin release later in physical activity D) facilitate thermoregulation

21. Seven days of consuming a high-fat diet containing 74% of calories from lipid __________ (i.e., increases the oxygen cost of a set physical activity task) by more than 10% in sedentary men.

A) intensifies whole-body exercise economy B) maintains whole-body exercise economy C) increases whole-body exercise economy D) reduces whole-body exercise economy

22. The ideal oral rehydration solution contains between __________ carbohydrate and does not adversely impact fluid balance and thermoregulation.

A) 1% and 3% B) 5% and 8% C) 7% and 12% D) exceeding 15%

23. The ideal precompetition meal should be designed to maximize __________.

A) long-chain carbohydrate and lipid intake B) short-chain carbohydrate and protein intake C) intake of up to 20 grams of long-chain carbohydrates D) muscle and liver glycogen storage and provide glucose for intestinal absorption

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24. __________ digest slowly and remain in the digestive tract longer than carbohydrates of similar energy content.

A) Long-chain carbohydrates and lipids B) High-lipid and -protein foods C) Short-chain carbohydrates and proteins D) Maltose and fructose molecules

25. __________ greatly impacts gastric emptying rate.

A) Fluid temperature B) Ingested fluid volume C) Physical activity frequency D) Physical activity mode

26. For collegiate wrestlers, short-term weight loss through energy restriction without dehydration impairs __________.

A) aerobic capacity B) anaerobic capacity C) protein metabolism D) lipid metabolism

27. A high-protein, pregame meal __________.

A) facilitates protein breakdown and subsequent dehydration B) takes longer to digest than a high-carbohydrate meal C) results in a decrease in plasma cholesterol D) decreases plasma insulin factor

28. Liquid meals (e.g., smoothies and milkshakes) provide relatively high-carbohydrate content but also contain enough __________ to contribute to satiety.

A) maltodextrin B) dextrose C) sucrose and amylose D) lipid and protein

29. For the precompetition meal, __________.

A) avoid foods high in lipid and protein B) avoid foods high in carbohydrate C) include vitamin and mineral supplements D) eat within at least 6 hours before competition

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30. The preferred precompetition meal should contain relatively little lipid and fiber to facilitate gastric emptying and __________.

A) minimize gastrointestinal distress B) minimize rapid maltodextrin influx of maltodextrin C) minimize submaximal physical activity D) minimize triglyceride and cholesterol elimination

31. Fasting before a competition __________.

A) benefits athletic performance B) ensures an empty stomach to prevent gastrointestinal disturbances during physical activity C) allows for an optimal hydration state before physical activity D) rapidly depletes liver and muscular glycogen

32. All of the following should be considered when planning an individualized precompetition meal plan except __________.

A) food preferences B) psychological set C) foods high in lipid content D) food digestibility

33. What impact does the increased stress and tension that usually accompany competition have on the gastrointestinal system?

A) Increase blood flow to the digestive tract B) Decrease blood flow to the digestive tract C) Enhance intestinal absorption D) Stop intestinal absorption

34. Avoid __________ for the precompetition meal.

A) consuming maltodextrin B) consuming vitamins and minerals supplements C) foods high in lipid and protein D) bicarbonate-rich foods

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35. Kathy weighs 60 kilograms. Her ideal precompetition meal should include __________.

A) between 150 and 300 grams of carbohydrate, low-fat and -fiber foods, ingested 3 to 4 hours before exercising B) between 300 and 500 grams of carbohydrate, low-fat and -fiber foods, and ingested 3 to 4 hours before exercising C) between 150 and 300 grams of carbohydrate, be high in fat and fiber, and ingested 1 hour before exercising D) between 150 and 300 grams of carbohydrate, low-fat and -fiber foods, and ingested 30 to 45 minutes before exercising

36. A carbohydrate-rich precompetition meal requires __________ to digest, absorb, and replenish muscle and liver glycogen.

A) 30 minutes B) 45 minutes C) more than 4 hours D) 1 to 4 hours

37. Nutrition bar benefit as a precompetition meal: A) easy way to obtain important nutrients B) high in protein C) tested and approved for safety by the FTC D) tested and approved for safety by the FDA

38. Which of the following statements is true regarding fructose as a source of energy?

A) Fructose consumption causes an increased insulin response.

B) Fructose causes a significant decline in blood glucose.

C) Fructose absorbs more slowly from the gut than either glucose or sucrose.

D) Fructose becomes rapidly available as an energy source.

39. During physical activity, sympathetic nervous system hormones __________.

A) inhibit insulin release B) enhance insulin release C) result in hypoglycemia D) inhibit glucagon release

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40. Consuming __________ per hour of liquid or solid carbohydrates benefits high-intensity, long-duration aerobic physical activity greater than 1 hour.

A) 30 grams B) 60 grams C) 90 grams D) 120 grams

41. True regarding exogenous carbohydrate intake during physical activity.

A) Can cause headache, light-headedness, nausea, and nervous system distress B) Lowers plasma insulin levels and elevates cortisol levels C) Spares muscle glycogen D) Depletes muscle glucose and glycogen reserves

42. The latest two systematic reviews of the worldwide literature reported that MVM supplementation in healthy populations had __________ on all-cause mortality, cancer incidence or mortality, or cardiovascular disease incidence or mortality.

A) no protective effect B) a modest protective effect C) a substantial protective effect D) a minimal protective effect

43. Reliable research has __________ consistent ergogenic benefits that a high-fat diet stimulates adaptive responses that assist lipid catabolism.

A) not demonstrated B) clearly demonstrated C) a solid research basis regarding D) proven

44. Available research __________ the popular notion that reducing carbohydrate while increasing lipid intake above 30% of total calories optimizes a metabolic “zone” for endurance performance.

A) clearly emphasizes B) proves C) supports D) does not support

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45. Starch with relatively high amylopectin content digests and absorbs __________ as other foods with a moderate to high glycemic index.

A) more rapidly B) less rapidly C) identically to protein D) identically to lipids

46. When replenishing glycogen reserves, all of the following should be avoided except __________.

A) bread B) legumes C) fructose D) milk

47. Adding a small amount of __________ to an oral rehydration solution causes little negative effect on gastric emptying and may actually facilitate water's intestinal absorption.

A) lysine B) glucose C) salt plus lactate dehydrogenase D) lactate dehydrogenase

48. Ingesting up to an __________ glucose-sodium oral rehydration beverage causes little negative effect on __________.

A) 8%; gastric emptying B) 13%; gastric emptying C) 18% to 22%; gastric emptying D) 8%; gastric volume

49. __________ occurs from large sweat–sodium loss coupled with drinking copious amounts of plain water.

A) Hyponatremia B) Hypernatremia C) Hypoglycemia D) Hyperglycemia

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50. Maintaining __________ with added sodium in the rehydration beverage also reduces urine output and sustains the sodium-dependent osmotic drive to drink.

A) intercellular sodium in gaseous form B) plasma volume C) plasma osmolality D) 25 grams of potassium

51. Adding protein to carbohydrate-containing beverages has the effect of __________ compared with supplementation with carbohydrate only.

A) decreasing blood flow to the digestive tract B) extending time to fatigue and reducing acute muscle damage C) decreasing plasma volume D) minimizes anaerobic and aerobic physical activity

52. Most fruits and vegetables contain __________.

A) more than 90% water B) less than 50% water C) an equal percentage of carbohydrates and fiber D) a lower than RDA recommended percentage of vitamins and minerals

53. Butter, oils, dried meats and chocolate, cookies, and cakes contain __________.

A) more than 40% water B) less than 20% water C) between 50% and 75% water D) twice as much protein as fat

54. True or false? Eat meals that contain 2.5 grams of high glycemic carbohydrate per kilogram of body mass at 2, 4, 6, 8, and 22 hours postexercise to replenish glycogen to levels achieved similarly with the same protocol begun immediately following exercise.

A) True B) False

55. True or false? Foods with a high amylose content include beans and legumes, starchy fruits and vegetables, whole grains, and some cooked than cooled potatoes and some rice varieties usually have a low GI. A) True B) False

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56. True or false? The glycemic index serves as a numerical indicator of how carbohydrate-containing food impacts glucose appearance in the parasympathetic neural circulation.

A) True B) False

57. True or false? Dates, quiche, carrots, maltose, and jasmine rice have a high glycemic index above 90.

A) True B) False

58. True or false? Elite male and female athletes in diverse sport groups use less dietary supplements than nonelite counterparts.

A) True B) False

59. True or false? The insulin index compares insulin's response to different foods administered as a standard 1000-kilojoule food portion with 220 milliliters of water, with whole wheat bread serving as the reference comparison.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? On any given day, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports that approximately half of the U.S. population consumes 12 ounces of sugar-containing drinks, with males consuming more drinks than females, and teenagers and young adults consuming more drinks than any other age group.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? Optimal glycogen replenishment benefits persons involved in competitive events scheduled with only 1 or 2 recuperation days.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Premature depletion of glycogen reserves almost always negatively impacts endurance performance.

A) True B) False

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63. True or false? Of the most common fats and oils, avocado oil and olive oil have the highest fatty acid content.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? Consuming 400 to 600 milliliters of fluid 20 minutes before physical activity negates the beneficial effect of increased stomach volume on fluid and nutrient passage into the small intestine.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? Scientific evidence now indicates that only about 20% of your blood cholesterol level comes from dietary intake, with the pancreas producing the majority of the body's cholesterol.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Increasing the diet's percentage of lipid calories to 50% for physically active persons who maintain a stable body weight adversely affects heart disease risk factors, including plasma lipoprotein profiles.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Consider 2 nutrition bars, one costing $1.50 and the other $2.50.

Checking the nutrition label, both bars contain 13 grams of protein. Clearly, the cheaper bar provides more value per amount of protein per gram.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? Athletes participating in physical activity lasting less than 1 hour should not consume energy beverages (EBs).

A) True B) False

69. True or false? The nonathlete consumer and athlete should not mix energy beverages (EBs) with alcohol because it can mask intoxication and precipitate undesirable dehydrating effects.

A) True B) False

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70. True or false? Fructose exists in foods as either a monosaccharide (free fructose) or a unit of the sucrose disaccharide molecule because the small intestine directly absorbs free fructose.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? The winner of a marathon race usually sustains intense aerobic effort during the run with sufficient energy reserves to sprint to the finish.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Repeated feedings of solid carbohydrate (43 g sucrose with 400 mL water) at the beginning and at 1, 2, and 3 hours during physical activity cannot maintain blood glucose and slow glycogen depletion during longer duration activities like 4 hours of cycling.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? The rise in blood sugar—termed the glycemic response—is determined after ingesting a food containing 50 grams of a digestible carbohydrate (total carbohydrate minus fiber) and comparing it over a 2-hour period with a “standard” for carbohydrate, usually white bread or glucose with an assigned value of 100.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? The glycemic index provides the least useful physiologic concept compared to the glycemic load, which classifies a simple or complex sugar or starch, or available or unavailable.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Low glycemic foods are those identified with an assigned value of 55 or less.

A) True B) False

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76. True or false? A food with a high glycemic index rating usually indicates the food is of relatively poor nutritional quality.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? A high glycemic load reflects a greater expected blood glucose elevation with greater insulin release.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Increased type 2 diabetes and coronary heart disease risk coincides with chronic low–glycemic load meals.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? The most rapid strategy to replenish glycogen following longer duration physical activity consumes foods with medium to high glycemic indices rather than foods rated low, even if the replenishment meal contains a small lipid and protein content.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? During the first 2 hours of recovery with muscle glycogen content at its lowest level, consuming a glucose polymer solution with low osmolality restores glycogen more rapidly than an energy-equivalent solution of monomers with high osmolality.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? Athletes and others involved in endurance-type physical activities should eliminate foods high in maltodextrins because of their poor intestinal absorptive quality.

A) True B) False

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82. True or false? In the mid-1800s, British chemist Thomas Kingsford (1814–1869), while working with his son Thomson in a New Jersey starch factory, built the famous Kingsford corn starch factory in Oswego, NY, making this cheap corn starch sweetener a major food industry product as it gained prominence worldwide.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? The average American currently consumes between 50 and 70 grams (1.7–2.5 oz) of high-fructose corn syrup (HFCS) in sugar-sweetened beverages (cola-type drinks) daily, which translates to an extra daily consumption of 200 to 250 kilocalories.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Examples of sugar-sweetened drinks include nondiet soft drinks, fruit drinks, iced tea, and energy, electrolyte replacement, and vitamin water beverages.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Persons who drink one or two nondiet drinks daily increase their type 2 diabetes risk by 26% compared with those drinking less than one drink monthly. A 20% greater risk also occurs for central obesity, hypertension, abnormal cholesterol, insulin resistance, and lack of physical activity—the cluster of factors that increase cardiovascular disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes risk.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? A report from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention revealed that 50% of Americans drink a soda or other sugary beverage each day, with 1 in 20 people drinking the equivalent of more than four cans daily!

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Drinking a nondiet single can of Coca Cola, Coke, Mello Yellow, or Mountain Dew contains more than 40 grams of sugar (1.4 oz), the equivalent of about three tablespoons of sugar or almost one-half cup of sugar when drinking four sodas daily!

A) True B) False

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88. True or false? Leucine, valine, and isoleucine, the branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) from muscle oxidize in energy metabolism during physical activity, making them play important roles during activities of short duration like 25 yard swims or 10-minute walks performed comfortably.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? A combination carbohydrate-plus-protein supplement consumed during physical activity stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn increases muscle and liver glycogen as physical activity progresses.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? A cascade of three factors, rebound hypoglycemia, depressed lipid catabolism, and premature depletion of glycogen reserves, negatively impacts endurance performance.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Adding a small amount of glucose and sodium (glucose being the more important factor) to the oral rehydration solution negatively impacts gastric emptying.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Adding a small amount of glucose and sodium (glucose being the more important factor) to the oral rehydration solution facilitates fluid uptake by the intestinal lumen because rapid glucose-sodium cotransport across the intestinal mucosa stimulates water's passive uptake by osmotic action.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? About 1 liter of fluid consumed (34 oz = 4.3 cups = 2.1 pints = about 1 quart) delivered each hour to the small intestine meets the fluids needs of most endurance athletes.

A) True B) False

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94. True or false? Consuming about 60 grams of liquid or solid carbohydrates each hour during 1 hour or more of longer, more intense physical activity benefits aerobic physical activity and repetitive short bouts of near-maximal exercise intensity.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? For rapid carbohydrate replenishment following prolonged physical activity, a food with a high glycemic index rating is more desirable than one rated low.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? It takes about 4 hours of strenuous aerobic physical activity to severely deplete the body's glycogen reserves.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Except for total caloric and carbohydrate intake, similar daily requirements for proper nutrition exist for the physically active person and the competitive athlete.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? An egg yolk contains the egg's cholesterol content of approximately 210 mg, total fat of 4.5 grams, and minute amounts of vitamins A, D, B12, B6, calcium, and magnesium.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Egg whites contain about the same amount of total protein but less fat than the egg yolk.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Two American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) Position Stands recommend that sports drinks contain 0.5 to 0.7 grams of sodium per liter of fluid consumed when physical activity is less than 1-hour duration.

A) True B) False

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101. True or false? An insulin overshoot from the rapid blood sugar rise can trigger a relative hypoglycemia, which would impair central nervous system function and produce a fatiguing effect during physical activity.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? In a large, comprehensive study of 71,751 nonvegetarian and vegetarian participants (mean age 59), nonvegetarians had the highest intakes of plant proteins, fiber, -carotene, and magnesium and the highest intakes of saturated, trans, arachidonic, and docosahexaenoic fatty acids compared with those following vegetarian dietary patterns.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D

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45. A 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. A 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. B 79. B 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. B 90. A

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. B 101. A 102. B

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1. Not a factor affecting food choices.

A) Age-old traditions B) Convenience and availability C) BMI D) Age

2. Pleasure associated with taste, texture, and aroma.

A) Basic physiologic response B) Learned within a perceptual and cultural context C) Attained through trial and error D) Is based on genetics

3. Large-scale epidemiological studies have linked __________ to dietary practices.

A) many forms of cancer B) smoking C) daily exercise patterns D) stress management techniques

4. Umami.

A) One of the five basic taste categories B) Relates to a foods consistency C) Method of preparing meat D) Type of farming

5. Taste intimately links to.

A) Visual sensations B) Gastric secretions C) Olfactory sensations D) Food color

6. Regulates food product advertising in various media and pursues legal action against manufacturers who advertise unsubstantiated claims or use deceptive ads.

A) Federal Trade Commission B) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms C) Food and Drug Administration D) U.S. Department of Agriculture

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7. Regulates what claims manufacturers are permitted to state on food labels.

A) Federal Trade Commission B) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms C) Food and Drug Administration D) U.S. Department of Agriculture

8. Regulates what additives manufacturers can add to foods and handles potential food additive hazards.

A) Federal Trade Commission B) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms C) Food and Drug Administration D) U.S. Department of Agriculture

9. Responsible for overseeing the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act. A) FDA B) USDA C) FTC D) U.S. Congress

10. Consumers must recognize that quality control for dietary supplements __________.

A) is virtually nonexistent B) is very strict C) is comparable to that for pharmaceuticals D) only applies to synthetic supplements

11. Gustation.

A) Pleasure response B) Taste C) INQ D) Supercharged

12. Deals with farm and foreign agricultural services; food, nutrition, and consumer services; food safety; marketing and regulatory programs; natural resources; and environment.

A) FTC B) FDA C) CFSAN D) USDA

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13. Basis for reporting each food's nutrient contents.

A) Quantity B) Serving size C) Portion size D) Proper dose size

14. Reclassified vitamin, mineral, enzymes, hormones, botanicals, and herb supplements as foods, not drugs.

A) Food Safety Act B) Fair Advertising Act C) Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act D) Dietary Health Act

15. Represent one of the primary sources of added sugars in U.S. diets.

A) Processed foods B) Soda and fruit drinks C) Breads D) Whole fruits

16. About 2000 flavoring agents and 200 coloring agents are included on a list of additives known as __________.

A) GRAS B) RDI C) ESSDI D) RDA

17. The quantity of a specific nutrient per 100 grams of the food or per 1000 kilocalories of that food.

A) Nutrient index B) Nutrient load C) Nutrient density D) Nutritional quality

18. Taste, cost, nutritional value.

A) Factors that affect food chooses B) Factors the FDA considers when evaluating food efficacy C) Most important factors that determine a foods INQ rating D) Primary factors in ethnic food choices

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19. The FDA regulates the __________ of biologicals such as insulin and vaccines.

A) proper doses B) expiration/shelf-life C) proper handling D) purity and effectiveness

20. To ensure that alcohol beverage labels do not contain misleading information and adhere to regulatory mandates, the __________ examines all label applications for approval.

A) USDA B) RDA C) ATF D) FTC

21. The __________ represents the federal government's statement of nutrition policy, formed by a consensus of scientific and medical professionals.

A) MyPlate.gov B) Dietary Guidelines for Americans C) National Nutrition Guide D) Diet Quality Index

22. The nutrition panel of a food label must include all of the following except __________.

A) dietary fiber B) cholesterol C) calories from protein D) total fat

23. The Daily Reference Value (DRV) on the nutrition panel of the new food label is based on __________.

A) total fat intake B) a 2000-kilocalories diet C) a 3000-kilocalories diet D) total carbohydrate intake 24. “Low calorie” on the new food label means fewer than __________ calories per serving.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 40 D) 80

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25. “Fat-free” on the new food label means fewer than __________ gram(s) of fat per serving.

A) 0.2 B) 0.5 C) 0.75 D) 1 26. “Low fat” on the new food label means fewer than __________ grams of fat per serving.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 27. “Low cholesterol” on the new food label means __________ milligrams or less per serving.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 28. “High” on the new food label means the food contains __________ or more of the daily value.

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% 29. “Good source” on the new food label means the food contains __________ of the daily value.

A) 10% or more B) 7% to 9% C) 80% or more D) 40% or more

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30. An Index of Nutritional Quality (INQ) rating above __________ denotes that a food represents an excellent source of a specific nutrient.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 12

31. The mission of the __________ is to enforce a variety of federal antitrust and consumer protection laws.

A) Federal Trade Commission B) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms C) Food and Drug Administration D) United States Department of Agriculture 32. A “Supplement Facts” panel must contain all of the following except: A) serving size determined by manufacturer's recommendation for daily consumption at one occasion B) if a botanical, where the plant was harvested C) if a botanical, the part of the plant identified by common name D) the list of all dietary ingredients

33. Which of the following allergens must be listed on a food panel?

A) Milk, eggs, sodium, soy, and peanuts B) Milk, eggs, peanuts, wheat, soy, fish, shellfish, and tree nuts C) Peanuts, shellfish, gluten, and eggs D) Peanuts, sodium, gluten, potassium, shellfish, and tree nuts

34. Sum of all free mono- and disaccharides.

A) Total carbohydrate B) Polyunsaturated fat C) Sugars D) Monounsaturated fat

35. Emissions from livestock can account for about __________ of global total GHGs. A) 3% B) 5% C) 10% D) 15%

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36. Aggregate nutrient density index.

A) An alternative to the INQ for rating a food's nutritional quality B) Index to rate protein quality C) Index to rate amount of sugar in a food D) Index to rate amount of lipid in a food

37. The Daily Value comprises what two sets of dietary standards?

A) Dietary Reverence Values (DRVs) and Recommended Daily Allowances (RDAs) B) Daily Reference Values (DRVs) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDIs) C) Recommended Daily Allowances (RDAs) and Adequate Intakes (AIs) D) Adequate Intakes (AIs) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDIs)

38. Reference number of calories for determining the DRVs for a nutrient.

A) 2000 kilocalories B) 2500 kilocalories C) 3000 kilocalories D) 3500 kilocalories

39. Hunger-obesity paradox.

A) The obese is always hungry due to physiological factors.

B) Hunger and obesity are not related.

C) The obese are always hungry due to psychological factors.

D) Hunger and obesity in the same person or group can be explained by the increased lipid content of food eaten when the person lacked adequate financial resources to purchase more healthful foods.

40. Differences between vegetarians and nonvegetarians in terms of protein consumption.

A) About the same B) Vegetarians always higher C) Vegetarians always lower D) Vegetarians always lower by a factor of 3

41. Which of the following is the primary goal of food advertising?

A) To promote healthy lifestyle choices B) To create, alter, and shape perceptions C) To encourage participation in food safety D) To educate consumers

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42. Which of the following is the mission of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)?

A) To enforce a variety of federal antitrust and consumer protection laws B) To ensure that the food supply remains safe, nutritious, and wholesome C) To regulate the use and sales of tobacco, alcohol, and firearms D) All of the above

43. The areas of responsibility for the CFSAN do not include: A) cosmetics and colors B) food labeling C) plant and dairy foods and beverages D) meat products

44. Dietary supplement definition.

A) A product taken by mouth that contains a dietary ingredient intended to supplement the diet B) A product taken by mouth that has been proven to be beneficial to health C) A product taken by mouth that contains vitamins and minerals that decrease the risk for disease D) A product taken by mouth that contains plant extracts scientifically proven to benefit health

45. Under the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act, the FDA approval requires proof of all of the following except __________.

A) purity B) ingredient origin C) safety D) effectiveness

46. Antioxidant on a food label.

A) 50% or less of the established Reference Daily Intake for a vitamin or mineral B) A nutrient that has been proven to prevent the development of cancer C) 100% or more of the established Reference Daily Intake for a vitamin or mineral D) A nutrient for which scientific evidence has shown that it inactivates free radicals

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47. Dietary supplements.

A) Need not meet the same quality control for purity and potency as pharmaceuticals, allowing for considerable variation in compound concentration B) Must meet the same quality control for purity and potency as pharmaceuticals C) Does not require any federal oversight D) Must be approved by USDA prior to sale

48. The term fresh as defined by the FDA. A) A food that has been preserved B) A food that was fresh before processing C) A food that is raw or unprocessed D) A food that was manufactured using raw ingredients

49. Additives include all of the following except __________.

A) flavoring agents B) emulsifiers C) bleaches D) pesticides

50. Criteria for health claims for nutrients or foods.

A) Must state the degree of disease risk reduction by consuming the nutrient or food B) Must be phrased so consumers understand the relationship between the nutrient and the disease C) Must be written in scientific medical terminology D) Must state that there is a definite link between the nutrient or food and disease risk reduction

51. The ingredient list on a food label.

A) Represents each ingredient's listing in descending order of predominance by weight B) Represents each ingredient's listing in descending order of predominance by volume C) Represents each ingredient's listing in descending order of predominance by number of grams D) Can use abbreviations on the label

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52. On a food label, you read the following: “Ingredients: Pinto Beans, Water, Salt, Spices”; which of these ingredients would contain the highest amount?

A) Pinto beans B) Water C) Salt D) Spices 53. On a food label, you read the following: “Ingredients: Pinto Beans, Water, Salt, Spices”; which of these ingredients would contain the lowest amount?

A) Pinto beans B) Water C) Salt D) Spices

54. What nongovernmental agency publishes information about a variety of food- and health-related topics, including analyses of menu items from different ethnic eateries?

A) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI) C) ConsumerLab D) Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition

55. A recognized, approved health claim.

A) Insoluble fiber and risk of chronic kidney disease B) Soluble fiber from certain foods and risk of coronary heart disease C) Dietary cholesterol and risk of chronic kidney disease D) Fiber-containing grains and chronic kidney disease

56. Which of the following may result in developing a positive association with a food?

A) Given a food as a reward for good behavior as a child B) Always having fruit on the table C) Being offered new and unusual foods as a child D) Eating foods from other countries as a child

57. In all cases, the new food label lists amounts per __________.

A) 1 gram B) package C) 1 serving D) 1 kg body weight

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58. RDIs have been established for the following nutrients except __________.

A) vitamin C B) iron C) copper D) sulfur

59. What two organizations work together to help consumers choose more healthful diets and offer an incentive to food companies to improve the nutritional qualities of their products?

A) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) B) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) The Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) D) The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

60. As part of the 2012 Affordable Care Act, the FDA now requires restaurants and similar retail food establishments with 20 or more locations to __________.

A) list calorie content information for standard menu items B) list calorie content and amount of added sugar for all beverages C) list amount of sodium and added sugar for all beverages D) list lipid and protein amounts for standard menu items

61. The average Chinese dinner contains more __________ than the daily requirements.

A) carbohydrate B) protein C) lipid D) sodium

62. What is the name of the Act from 1990 that defines commonly consumed dietary supplements in the marketplace in the form of capsules, tablets, liquids, or powders?

A) Nutrition Labeling and Education Act B) The Act of Better Consumerism C) The Dietary Supplement Act D) Over-the-Counter Act

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63. Organics as a percent of the overall food market purchases in the U.S. A) 2 B) 4 C) 10 D) 15

64. Which of the following statements is true regarding additives that are placed on the generally recognized as safe (GRAS) list?

A) Substances placed on the list receive permanent approval.

B) Once a substance is placed on the list, it is not subject to review.

C) Additives on the list include emulsifiers, stabilizers, and thickeners.

D) The list is finalized, and no other additives can be placed on the list.

65. Products containing a minimum of 70% organic ingredients can be labeled __________.

A) organic B) made with organic ingredients C) no genetically engineered components D) no synthetic pesticides

66. The physiological drive to consume food.

A) Hunger B) Appetite C) A combination of hunger and appetite D) Satiety

67. Appetite represents the desire to eat and is mainly associated with a __________.

A) psychological urge for a particular food B) response to the body's central and peripheral system C) craving for high-fat, high-sugar food D) the physiological drive to eat 68. To use the word “organic” on a label, the product must A) contain at least 95% organic ingredients B) contain a minimum of 70% organic ingredients C) use organic methods of production but not necessarily all organic ingredients D) contain at least 50% organic ingredients and 50% organic production methods

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69. The term “food insecurity” refers to foods that are __________.

A) nutritious and appealing that are unavailable due to a lack of economic resources B) prone to tampering by terrorists C) known to contain potential food allergens D) known to cause food-borne illnesses

70. What is the best way to describe the relationship between frequent fast-food consumption and athletes' food choices?

A) With careful food selection and portion control, it is possible to eat healthfully in fast-food restaurants.

B) Considering the quality of fast-food, it is not viable to eat healthfully at fast-food restaurants.

C) Dining in fast-food restaurants is likely to cause unwanted weight gain, elevated blood pressure and impaired athletic performance.

D) Athletes should resist the temptation to consume fast-food even if the person is hungry and there are no other food options available.

71. True or false? “High potency” describes a nutrient in a food product (including dietary supplements) at 30% or more of the RDI established for that vitamin or mineral.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? The Nutrition Labeling and Education Act (NLEA) of 1990 requires food manufacturers to strictly adhere to regulations about what claims can and cannot be printed on food labels.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? The nutrition panel of the new food label must include the amount of lead, chromium, and zinc per serving.

A) True B) False 74. True or false? The term “high” can be used on a label if the food contains 20% or more of the Daily Value for a particular nutrient in a serving.

A) True B) False

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75. True or false? The relationship between dietary fiber and reduced risk for cancer is among the health claims that were denied approval for food labels.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? The format for declaring nutrient content per serving on the nutrition panel of the new food label is as “percentage of the Daily Value.”

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Food and drug companies underwrite the cost of publishing journal articles and research papers presented at conferences they frequently support.

A) True B) False 78. True or false? “Healthy” on the new food label implies a serving of the food must comply to low in total fat, low in saturated fatty acids, and limited cholesterol and sodium.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? With the exception of poultry and meat products, the FDA regulates what manufacturers state on food labels and the safety of cosmetics, medicines, medical devices, and feed and drugs for pets and farm animals.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Manufacturers of dietary supplements must provide research to prove their products' safety and effectiveness.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? An INQ rating of less than 1.0 indicates that a food provides an adequate source for a specific nutrient.

A) True B) False

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82. True or false? A list of additives generally recognized as safe (GRAS) currently includes about 2000 flavoring agents and 200 coloring agents.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? The FDA regulates food product advertising in various media and pursues legal action against manufacturers who advertise unsubstantiated claims or use deceptive ads.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? The motivators for making food choices normally lie outside our conscious awareness.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Portion sizes served in restaurants have gotten smaller in the last few years.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The Index of Nutritional Quality (INQ) provides a comparison between the amount of carbohydrate and the amount of lipid contained within a food.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? The term nutrient density refers to the amount of saturated fat that is contained within a food.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Food labels must indicate the amount of a nutrient in packaged foods.

There is no requirement to list nutrient composition in foods sold over-the-counter or in restaurants.

A) True B) False

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89. True or false? The ingredient list on a food label is the listing of each ingredient in descending order based on how much each ingredient contributes to the overall caloric content of a food.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? The FDA does not allow the broad use of nutrient claims on infant and toddler foods.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? A manufacturer wishing to include an additive in a food must test to ensure the additive meets its claims.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? The Daily Reference Value (DRV) for saturated fat based on a 2000-kilocalories diet is 40 grams.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? The Nutrition Facts Panel must contain two sets of label reference values: the Daily Reference Values (DRVs) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDIs).

A) True B) False

94. True or false? The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms (ATF) has responsibilities dedicated to reducing violent crime, collecting revenue, and protecting the public.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Botanicals must state a plant's country of origin on the label.

A) True B) False

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96. True or false? The term high potency is used to describe a nutrient for which scientific evidence shows that, after absorption of a sufficient quantity, the nutrient inactivates free radicals.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? It is required for products labeled as dietary supplements to carry a “Supplement Facts” panel with information similar to the “Nutrition Facts” panel that appears on most processed foods.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) works to enhance the smooth operation of the marketplace by eliminating marketing practices that are unfair or deceptive.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? The Federal Trade Commission does not have the authority to remove a product from the marketplace if the product's claims lack verification.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Food manufacturers often pay a premium to supermarkets to locate and display products for easy identification.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Advertising purposely attempts to create, shape, and alter perceptions about what we eat and how we engage in physical activity A) True B) False

102. True or false? Manufacturers are required to register their products with the FDA or obtain FDA approval before producing or selling dietary supplements.

A) True B) False

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103. True or false? The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) enforces the Federal Anti-Tampering Act. A) True B) False

104. True or false? Marketing a supplement can progress with only the FDA's assurance of safety.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? All dietary supplements must meet the same quality control for purity and potency as pharmaceuticals.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Information on the amount per serving of saturated fat, cholesterol, dietary fiber, and other nutrients considered of major health concern to consumers must be included on a food label.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? Food labels must state whether a product contains allergens such as milk, eggs, peanuts, wheat, soy, fish, shellfish, and tree nuts.

A) True B) False 108. True or false? The definition of total fat when it appears on a food label is “the sum of all fatty acids containing no double bonds.”

A) True B) False

109. True or false? The term fresh can describe a raw food, a food that has never been frozen or heated, or one that contains no preservatives.

A) True B) False

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110. True or false? Splenda is 7000 to 13,000 times sweeter than sucrose.

A) True B) False

111. True or false? Health claims must be phrased so that consumers can understand the relationship between the nutrient and the disease and the nutrient's importance to a daily diet.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? Product imagery definitely affects consumer purchases.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? The law defines a dietary supplement as a product taken by mouth that contains a “dietary ingredient” intended to supplement the diet.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? The FDA requires manufacturers to do clinical trials for all prescription drugs in order to prove a products purity, safety, and effectiveness.

A) True B) False

115. True or false? Legislation places the burden on the ATF to prove that a supplement is harmful before it can be removed from the market.

A) True B) False

116. True or false? A daily intake of 1500 calories serves as the reference number of calories for determining the DRVs for the energy-producing nutrients.

A) True B) False

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117. True or false? The RDI replaces the term “U.S. RDA,” which was introduced in 1973 as a label reference value for vitamins, minerals, and protein in voluntary nutrition labeling.

A) True B) False

118. True or false? Ethnic heritage has an influence on food choice.

A) True B) False

119. True or false? Stress does not affect your hunger.

A) True B) False

120. True or false? Rapid weight loss increases the thermic effect of protein.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. B 43. D 44. A

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45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. A 61. D 62. A 63. B 64. C 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. B 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. B 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. A 119. B 120. B

Page 23

1. Heat loss occurs by these two physical mechanisms.

A) Radiation and convection B) Radiation and conduction C) Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation D) Conduction and convection

2. Provides the major physiologic defense against overheating.

A) Evaporation B) Radiation C) Conduction D) Convection

3. Contains the central coordinating center for temperature regulation.

A) Brainstem B) Medulla oblongata C) Pons D) Hypothalamus

4. During physical activity in hot weather, competition exists between mechanisms that __________.

A) regulate body temperature and mechanisms that regulate urine production B) maintain a large muscle blood flow and mechanisms that regulate fat metabolism C) maintain a large muscle blood flow and mechanisms that regulate body temperature D) regulate body temperature and mechanisms that regulate fat metabolism

5. Body heat loss that occurs via electromagnetic heat waves.

A) Radiation B) Conduction C) Convection D) Evaporation

6. Directly transfers heat through a liquid, solid, or gas from one molecule to another.

A) Radiation B) Conduction C) Convection D) Evaporation

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7. Sweat evaporation from the skin depends on three factors.

A) Skin exposed to the environment, temperature and relative humidity, and convective air currents B) Skin exposed to the environment, temperature and relative humidity, and hydration level C) Skin exposed to the environment, hydration level, and convective air currents D) Hydration level, temperature and relative humidity, and convective air currents

8. Refers to the percentage of water in ambient air at a particular temperature compared to the total quantity of moisture that the air could carry.

A) Dew point B) Relative humidity C) Moisture index D) Heat index

9. Hormone that increases water reabsorption from the kidney tubules causing urine to become more concentrated.

A) Cortisol B) Insulin C) Glucagon D) ADH

10. Hormone that decreases sodium concentration in sweat, which aids in electrolyte conservation.

A) Aldosterone B) ADH C) ACTH D) Thyroxin

11. __________ fabrics worn close to the skin provide optimal transfer of heat and moisture from the skin to the environment.

A) Nylon B) Cotton C) Polyester D) Moisture-wicking

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12. Several hours of intense sweating can cause __________ fatigue, which ultimately impairs core temperature regulation.

A) hormonal B) heat generating C) central nervous system D) sweat gland

13. Does not associate with progressive dehydration.

A) Decreased plasma volume B) Increased blood flow to active muscles C) Diminished sweating rate D) Diminished peripheral blood flow

14. The risk for dehydration __________ during vigorous cold-weather physical activity.

A) increases B) decreases dramatically C) is eliminated D) decreases slightly

15. Cold stress __________ urine production, which adds to total body fluid loss.

A) increases B) dramatically decreases C) eliminates D) slightly decreases

16. Not associated with creating a distinct performance disadvantage for athletes who use diuretics to lose body water to rapidly “make weight”?

A) Disproportionate reduction in plasma volume B) Decreased thermoregulatory capabilities C) Increased hematocrit D) Impaired cardiovascular function

17. Athletes who use __________ to lose weight not only produce dehydration but also cause excessive mineral loss associated with muscle weakness and impaired neuromuscular function.

A) vomiting and diarrhea B) saunas C) long runs D) plastic clothing

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18. Not a benefit associated with hyperhydration to help protect the athlete against heat stress before exercising in a hot environment?

A) Delays dehydration B) Increases sweating during physical activity C) Dilutes electrolytes in extracellular fluid D) Inhibits the rise in core temperature

19. Pre-exercise hyperhydration __________ the need to continually replace fluid during physical activity.

A) does not replace B) eliminates C) dramatically reduces D) increases

20. Not a urine characteristic of well-hydrated individuals?

A) Large volume B) Deep yellow-orange in color C) Light in color D) Lacks a strong smell

21. Transfer of heat via air movement.

A) Evaporation B) Radiation C) Convection D) Conduction

22. Most readily facilitates fluid replenishment when added to an oral rehydration beverage.

A) Calcium B) Potassium C) Chloride D) Sodium

23. Dehydration as little as __________ of total body mass impairs physical work capacity and physiologic function.

A) 2% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

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24. Sweat gland classification.

A) Apocrine B) Eccrine C) Endocrine D) Exocrine

25. Amount of body heat (kcal) lost for each liter of sweat evaporated from the body's surfaces.

A) 5 B) 300 C) 580 D) 3500

26. Osmolality of sweat considered __________ in relation to other body fluids.

A) isotonic B) iso-osmotic C) hypotonic D) hypertonic

27. The hypothalamus.

A) Receives input from receptors in the blood sensitive to changes in PO2 B) Acts as a “thermostat” for temperature regulation C) Is a thermoregulatory organ that functions only during strenuous physical activity D) Receives input from the blood relative to PCO2 changes 28. Provides “fine tuning” for temperature regulation.

A) Hormonal adjustments B) PH adjustments C) Circulatory adjustments D) Pulmonary adjustments

29. Full acclimatization generally occurs within about __________ days of heat exposure.

A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20

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30. Football uniforms effectively seal off about __________ of the body's surface from the benefits of evaporative cooling.

A) 20% B) 35% C) 50% D) 65%

31. The most serious and complex heat-stress malady and requires immediate medical attention.

A) Heat intolerance B) Exertional heat stroke C) Heat cramps D) Heat exhaustion

32. Excess __________ has a negative effect on performance in hot environments.

A) muscle mass B) hydration C) body fluid D) body fat

33. Sweating is the body's defense against __________. The effect of __________ enables moisture to __________ the body.

A) overheating, radiation, cool B) thermoregulation, conduction, warm C) thermoregulation, convection, warm D) overheating, evaporation, cool

34. Which statement is true concerning thermoregulation and gender?

A) Women are at least as efficient as men in thermoregulation during physical activity when considering level of fitness and acclimatization.

B) Men tend to produce less sweat than women while maintaining the same core temperature.

C) Men possess more heat-activated sweat glands per unit skin area than women.

D) Men rely more on circulatory mechanisms for heat dissipation.

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35. The wet-bulb globe temperature index make use of __________ to evaluate environmental heat challenges.

A) cold weather comparisons B) altitude C) relative humidity D) water evaporation

36. Heat acclimatization.

A) Reduces the distribution of blood flow to the skin B) Increases sweating capacity C) Produces more concentrated sweat D) Decreases sweating volume

37. Hormone that increases water reabsorption by the kidney tubules.

A) Aldosterone B) ADH C) TSH D) Oxytocin

38. Fluid loss as little as __________ of body mass increases rectal temperature compared to exercising in the heat without fluid loss.

A) 1% B) 3% C) 5% D) 7%

39. Occurs when body temperature increases by 5°C or more.

A) Hyponatremia B) Hypernatremia C) Hypothermia D) Hyperthermia

40. The most important performance-enhancing nutrient when physical activity and heat stress combine.

A) Water B) Sodium C) Glycogen D) Protein

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41. The temperature of deep tissues is known as __________ temperature.

A) shell B) core C) superficial D) muscle

42. An important avenue for heat loss during physical activity–induced hyperthermia.

A) Head B) Neck C) Hands D) Feet

43. During sustained physical activity by aerobically fit men and women, metabolic rate often increases __________ times above the resting level.

A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 30 to 35 D) 40 to 45

44. The most common heat illness among physically active people.

A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat cramps C) Heat flush D) Heat stroke

45. Cells that play the most important role in initiating regulatory responses to cold environments?

A) Hair follicle cells B) Cutaneous heat receptors C) Cutaneous cold receptors D) Deep tissue nerve receptors

46. Increased ambient temperature __________ the effectiveness of heat loss by conduction, convection, and radiation.

A) supports B) has no effect on C) increases D) reduces

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47. Which of the following statements regarding relative humidity and heat loss is true?

A) Continually drying the skin with a towel before sweat evaporates enhances evaporative cooling.

B) One can tolerate relatively high environmental temperatures as long as humidity remains low.

C) Sweat cools the skin more effectively in high temperatures with high humidity.

D) With high humidity, ambient air's vapor pressure approaches that of moist skin, which enhances evaporative heat loss.

48. Serves as the “workhorse” to maintain thermal balance.

A) Pulmonary B) Neurologic C) Circulatory D) Renal

49. Represents the best clothing choice for participating in physical activity in hot temperatures?

A) Dark-colored, moisture-wicking clothing B) Dark-colored, cotton clothing C) Light-colored, moisture-wicking clothing D) Light-colored, cotton clothing

50. Fluid lost during thermoregulation often creates a relative state of __________.

A) dehydration B) hypothermia C) hypernatremia D) hypoglycemia

51. Regarding core temperature during physical activity?

A) Heat generated by active muscles can decrease shell temperature to hypothermic levels.

B) A significant rise in shell temperature reflects a favorable internal adjustment.

C) A well-regulated rise in core temperature occurs even during physical activity in the cold.

D) An increased core temperature with physical activity reflects a failure of heat-dissipating mechanisms.

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52. An imbalance in fluid dynamics when fluid intake does not replenish water loss.

A) Water intoxication B) Hyponatremia C) Hyperhydration D) Dehydration

53. A moderate workout generally produces a __________ sweat loss over a 1-hour period.

A) 0.5- to 1.5-liter B) 2- to 4-liter C) 0.5- to 1.5-milliliter D) 2- to 4-milliliter

54. Body fluid loss coincides with which of the following?

A) Increased stroke volume B) Decreased plasma volume C) Decreased heart rate D) All of the above

55. Hyperhydration before physical activity in a hot environment protects against heat stress because it fosters the following.

A) Increases sweat osmolality B) Decreases skin temperature C) More rapidly restores lost plasma volume D) Delays dehydration

56. With prolonged physical activity in the heat, sweat loss can deplete the body of this much sodium.

A) 13 to 17 grams B) 20 to 25 grams C) 26 to 30 grams D) 35 to 40 grams

57. Which of the following minerals has the greatest need for replenishment after heavy sweating?

A) Potassium B) Sodium C) Magnesium D) Calcium

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58. Exists when the serum sodium concentration falls below 135 mEq/L. A) Hypernatremia B) Dehydration C) Hyponatremia D) Hypokalemia

59. Should be done to reduce risk of overhydration and hyponatremia during prolonged physical activity?

A) Drink 400 to 600 milliliters of fluid 2 to 3 hours before physical activity.

B) About 30 minutes before physical activity, drink 1500 to 3000 milliliters of fluid.

C) Restrict salt in the diet.

D) Drink more than 1000 mL·h–1 of plain water.

60. Aging blunts the magnitude of the sweating response by __________.

A) increasing sweat gland output B) causing the onset of sweating to occur sooner C) modifying thermoreceptors sensitivity D) greater vasodilation of skin receptors

61. Elevation in core body temperature causes __________.

A) increased gastric emptying rate B) reduced stomach and intestinal motility C) increased efficiency of digestion D) no change in efficiency of digestion

62. The use of a cycling helmet is __________ because __________.

A) not recommended, wearing a helmet causes actual heat strain in riders B) not recommended, wearing a helmet causes perceived and actual heat strain in riders C) recommended, wearing a cycling helmet protects the head from injury and does not cause heat strain D) not recommended, wearing a helmet impairs performance and causes heat strain that outweigh any safety benefits

63. From a practical standpoint, __________ exposed to environmental heat stress should exercise at reduced intensity and receive more time to acclimatize than __________.

A) children, mature adults B) mature adults, children C) men, women D) child athletes, sedentary children

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64. True or false? Development of hypernatremia requires extreme sodium loss through prolonged sweating coupled with dilution of existing extracellular sodium.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? Children exposed to environmental heat stress should exercise at reduced intensity and receive more time to acclimatize than more mature competitors.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Radiation is a form of heat transfer that does not require molecular contact between objects.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Skin cooling occurs only when sweat evaporates.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? Men possess more heat-activated sweat glands per area of skin area than women.

A) True B) False 69. True or false? The endocrine system represents the “workhorse” for temperature regulation.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Aldosterone facilitates sodium absorption by the small intestine.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Heat acclimatization refers to the physiologic adaptations to improve heat tolerance.

A) True B) False

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72. True or false? Full heat acclimatization cannot take place without exposure to environmental heat stress.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? Excess body fat decreases metabolic cost of weight-bearing activities and increases effective heat exchange.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Factors other than air temperature that determine the physiologic strain imposed by heat include body size and fatness, level of training, acclimatization, adequacy of hydration, and external factors.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Wet-bulb temperature is the air temperature in the shade recorded by a mercury thermometer.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Heat cramps, or involuntary muscle spasms, occur during or after intense physical activity, usually in the specific muscles exercised.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Whole-body cold or ice water immersion is not an effective treatment for a collapsed hyperthermic individual.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Core temperature rises quickly when heat gain exceeds heat loss during vigorous physical activity in a warm environment.

A) True B) False

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79. True or false? The pituitary gland contains the central coordinating center for temperature regulation.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? The body's thermoregulatory mechanisms primarily protect against overheating.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? The rate of conductive heat loss depends on the temperature gradient between the skin and surrounding surfaces and their thermal qualities.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? The effectiveness of heat loss by evaporation via air depends on how rapidly air near the body exchanges once it warms.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Sweating rate increases directly with increases in ambient temperature.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Relative humidity has no impact on the effectiveness of evaporative heat loss.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Dehydration refers to an imbalance in fluid dynamics when fluid intake does not replenish water loss from either hyperhydrated or normally hydrated states.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? Sweat is hypertonic compared with other body fluids.

A) True B) False

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87. True or false? The risk of heat illness decreases when a person begins exercising in a dehydrated state.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Any degree of dehydration can impair the capacity of circulatory and temperature-regulating mechanisms to adjust to physical activity demands.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? The risk for dehydration decreases during vigorous cold-weather physical activity.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Strictly following an adequate water replacement schedule reduces the risk of dehydration and its consequences, particularly hyperthermia.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Adequate hydration provides the most effective defense against heat stress.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Voiding small volumes of dark yellow urine with a strong odor provides a qualitative indication of inadequate hydration.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Physical activity in hot, humid weather produces a sweat rate of more than 1 liter per hour, with a sweat-sodium concentration ranging between 20 and 100 mEq/L. A) True B) False

Page 15

94. True or false? Younger adults recover suboptimally from dehydration compared with older counterparts because of younger adults' reduced thirst drive.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Women show heat tolerance similar to that of men of equal aerobic fitness at the same physical activity level.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Heat cramps most likely occur from an imbalance in hydration level and electrolyte concentrations.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Characteristics of heat exhaustion include weak, rapid pulse; low blood pressure in the upright position; headache; nausea; dizziness; “goose bumps”; and general weakness.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Heat exhaustion is the most serious and complex heat-stress malady and requires immediate medical attention.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Research demonstrates that extreme physical activity in a hot environment increases the requirements for all fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? The clothing worn by the typical recreational physical activity thwarts the dissipation of heat generated during physical activity to a greater extent than the uniform of American football players.

A) True B) False

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101. True or false? Core temperature rises quickly when heat gain exceeds heat loss during vigorous physical activity in a warm environment.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? Excessive internal heat buildup dilates peripheral vessels that channel warm blood to the cooler periphery.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? The brain stem contains the central coordinating center for temperature regulation.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Thermal receptors in the skin provide input from the periphery to modulate hypothalamic activity.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? The body absorbs radian heat energy when the temperature of objects in the environment exceeds skin temperature.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Evaporation of sweat provides the major physiologic defense against overheating.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? By far, the relative temperature exerts the greatest impact on the effectiveness of evaporative heat loss.

A) True B) False

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108. True or false? Heat stress initiates hormonal adjustments to enhance the loss of salts and fluid in sweat over a prolonged period of time.

A) True B) False

109. True or false? Just about any degree of hydration helps the capacity of circulatory and temperature-regulating mechanisms to adjust to physical activity demands.

A) True B) False

110. True or false? Inadequate water replenishment not only impairs physical activity capacity but also creates life-threatening disturbances in fluid balance and core temperature.

A) True B) False

111. True or false? Heat cramps are the most serious and complex heat-stress malady and requires immediate medical attention.

A) True B) False

112. True or false? Heat cramps the most common heat illness among physically active people and usually develops in dehydrated, untrained, and unacclimatized people.

A) True B) False

113. True or false? Excessive water intake under certain physical activity conditions can produce potentially serious medical complications from the syndrome known as hyper-dehydration.

A) True B) False

114. True or false? Heat loss by conduction transfers heat directly through a liquid, solid, or gas from one molecule to another.

A) True B) False

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115. True or false? Adding salt to food facilitates rehydration.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. B 42. A 43. B 44. A

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45. C 46. D 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. A 84. B 85. A 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. B 90. A

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91. A 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. B 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. B 114. A 115. A

Page 22

1. This term comprises those foods and their natural bioactive components for promoting optimal well-being, health, and body function and disease reduction.

A) Functional foods B) Alternative supplements C) Nutritional supplements D) Complimentary supplements

2. This emerging field of __________ identifies ways to modify biochemical pathways by introducing genes having markedly different properties than the original host plant or animal.

A) immunopsychology B) nutritional ecology C) transgenic nutraceuticals D) supplemental pharmacology

3. Glutamine exerts many regulatory functions. The main function that attracts many bodybuilders is that it __________.

A) provides a catabolic effect that augments protein synthesis B) provides an anticatabolic effect and augments protein synthesis C) provides a catabolic effect that inhibits protein synthesis D) reduces glycogen stores

4. The ideal research methodology to evaluate performance-enhancing effects of an exogenous supplement requires that experimental and control subjects remain unaware of the substance administered in a design called __________.

A) random assignment B) single-blind C) baseline level research D) double-blind, placebo-controlled

5. The critical review and evaluation of research by colleagues with expertise in the specific area of investigation is __________.

A) peer review B) research review C) statistical analysis D) joint review

Page 1

6. __________, a bioactive metabolite generated from the breakdown of leucine, may decrease protein loss during stress by inhibiting protein catabolism.

A) HMB B) DHEA C) HGH D) Androstenedione

7. Lab testing of __________ samples provides the primary drug detection method.

A) salivary B) blood C) hair D) urine

8. The blood-boosting drug __________ is a genetically engineered copy of the kidney hormone erythropoietin.

A) renin B) recombinant epoetin C) recombinant epocyte D) recombinant erythro

9. __________, designed for therapeutic medical use, became prominent in the early 1950s to treat patients deficient in natural androgens or with muscle-wasting diseases.

A) Creatine B) Anabolic steroids C) DHEA D) HGH

10. Androstenedione occurs naturally __________ and some plant extracts.

A) in the liver B) in meats C) in polyphenols D) in protein powders

11. __________ refers to combining supraphysiologic dosages of multiple steroid preparations in oral and injectable forms because advocates believe various androgens differ in their physiologic actions.

A) Pyramiding B) Tapering C) Stacking D) Loading

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12. __________ refers to progressively increasing drug dosage, usually during 6- to 12-week cycles.

A) Pyramiding B) Tapering C) Stacking D) “Loading the deck” 13. __________ is the excessive male mammary gland development observed noted in steroid-using men.

A) Gynemammalia B) Androgyny C) Gynecomastia D) Gynepolymorphia

14. A pathologic condition called __________ occurs from the effects of androgens on the liver, when multiple, randomly distributed blood-filled cavities of pathologic origin develop, raining in diameter from millimeters to several centimeters.

A) viral hepatitis B) cirrhosis C) bacterial encephalitis D) peliosis hepatis

15. This effect is not associated with human growth hormone.

A) Stimulates amino acid uptake B) Stimulates muscle protein synthesis C) Inhibits lipid breakdown D) Conserves glycogen reserves

16. Synthetic dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and its sulfated ester DHEAS are relatively weak steroid hormones synthesized from __________ in the __________.

A) estrogen; pituitary gland B) cholesterol; adrenal cortex C) estradiol; hypothalamus D) HGH; testosterone

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17. The supplement __________ is believed to directly stimulate endogenous testosterone production or form androgen-like derivatives.

A) androstenedione B) 17-hydroxy-progesterone C) HGH D) dihydrotestosterone

18. Androstenedione produced in the __________ serves as an intermediary step that eventually forms testosterone, estrone, and estradiol.

A) gonads and liver B) gonads and hypothalamus C) gonads and adrenal glands D) gonads and pituitary gland

19. Caffeine overconsumption stimulates the __________ to produce these unwelcome outcomes—restlessness, headaches, insomnia and nervous irritability, muscle twitching, tremulousness, psychomotor agitation, and trigger premature left ventricular contractions.

A) central nervous system B) allosteric central system C) sensory and transcutaneous nervous systems D) cranial nerves

20. __________ refers to a substance which enhances physiologic capacity, exercise performance, or both.

A) Exergonic B) Endergonic C) Exophthalmic D) Ergogenic

21. Consuming one to six cups of coffee daily seems to provide a modifiable factor to __________ for developing the most harmful forms of certain cancers.

A) lower the risk B) increase the risk C) not change the risk D) accelerate the risk

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22. The __________ aspect of the body's buffering system provides guards against increased intracellular H ion concentration.

A) carbon dioxide B) bicarbonate C) lactate D) intracellular phosphate

23. Bicarbonate loading: A) decreases extracellular pH B) decreases extracellular NaH2CO3 C) allows higher blood lactate accumulation during strenuous anaerobic exercise D) increases mitochondrial “leakage” from muscle cells into red blood cells 24. True about anabolic steroids.

A) Drugs that function similar to the male hormone estrogen.

B) Bind with specific receptor sites on skeletal muscle.

C) Prevent development of male secondary sex characteristics.

D) Prevent development of sex-based individual differences in muscle mass, strength, and power.

25. Anabolic steroid use, particularly orally active 17-alkylated androgens in healthy men and women, __________ in plasma lipoproteins.

A) reduces high-density lipoprotein cholesterol B) lowers high-density lipoprotein cholesterol C) lowers total cholesterol D) increases the HDL-C–to–LDL-C ratio

26. This particularly worrisome outcome, __________, likely occurs for the male anabolic steroid abuser.

A) impaired normal sperm concentration (azoospermia) B) decreased female estrogen hormone levels C) failure to produce blood lactate during resting metabolism D) failure of the bicarbonate system to buffer excess lactic acid

27. __________ exert a powerful stimulating effect on central nervous system function.

A) Creatine monohydrate B) Pangamic acid C) Amphetamines D) Buffering solutions

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28. General side effects of amphetamines include all of the following except __________.

A) drowsiness B) headache C) insomnia D) tremulousness

29. Human growth hormone __________.

A) slows glucose and amino acid breakdown B) decreases fatty acid oxidation C) decreases bone and cartilage growth D) increases carbohydrate catabolism

30. Anabolic steroids function similarly to the hormone __________.

A) estrogen B) epinephrine C) testosterone D) aldosterone

31. Excessive growth hormone production in adults causes __________.

A) acromegaly (enlarged hands and feet, diminished facial features) B) gynecomastia (overgrowth of chest cavity) C) abnormal brain and spinal growth D) acromegaly (small hands and feet, diminished facial features)

32. The ergogenic effect of caffeine in high-intensity endurance occurs from __________.

A) increased use of fat a fuel to spare the body's limited carbohydrate reserves B) catecholamine release from the adrenal cortex C) increased use of fat a fuel to spare the body's limited protein reserves D) increased use of fat a fuel to spare the body's limited glycogen reserves

33. One cup of brewed coffee generally contains between __________ of caffeine.

A) 60 and 150 milligrams B) 60 and 150 grams C) 60 and 150 micrograms D) 60 and 150 ounces

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34. Amphetamines: A) pharmacologic compounds that exert a powerful stimulating effect on central nervous system functions B) sympathomimetic because their action mimics pancreatic hormone release C) decrease blood pressure, pulse rate, cardiac output, and breathing rate D) decrease vital capacity and lower body muscle strength, decrease probability of headaches and nervousness

35. Human growth hormone (hGH) A) also called somatotropin B) produced endogenously by the hypothalamus C) decreases bone and cartilage growth and enhances fatty acid oxidation D) catabolic hormone

36. True about caffeine.

A) Depresses central nervous system function B) Causes headache, insomnia, and nervous irritability and produces premature left ventricular contractions C) Potent antidiuretic.

D) Consuming five to six cups of coffee over a 30-minute period decreases urinary caffeine levels

37. Substances function similarly to testosterone.

A) Amphetamines B) Growth hormones C) Anabolic steroids D) Estrogens

38. Ergogenic benefit of preexercise bicarbonate loading.

A) Significantly reduces short-term maximal effort in dosages of at least 0.9 g kg–1 body mass B) Dosage influences the potential effects C) Increases heavy resistance training workouts D) Benefits low-intensity aerobic physical activity

39. Beta-hydroxy--methylbutyrate (HMB) A) Generated from the breakdown of the essential monoglyceride glucose B) Generated from the breakdown of the essential branched-chain amino acid leucine C) Generated from the breakdown of the essential branched-chain amino acid alanine D) Generated from the breakdown of plasma creatine phosphokinase (CPK)

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40. The mechanism for any HMB effect __________.

A) depends on HMB initial concentration B) depends on HMB final concentration in vivo C) depends on HMB final concentration in vitro D) remains unknown

41. True about clenbuterol A) 2-Adrenergic agonist B) 2-Adrenergic protagonist C) Lessens fatigue during short-term, intense muscle actions D) Produce similar androgenic side effects in females as do anabolic steroids in males

42. Albuterol's ergogenic benefit supposedly comes from its __________ on skeletal muscle 2-receptors to increase muscle force and power.

A) stimulating effects B) depressive effects C) interaction with clenbuterol derivatives D) sensory tract effect

43. Excessive hGH production following growth cessation produces the irreversible disorder __________.

A) acromegaly B) gynecomastia C) Type 1 diabetes D) dwarfism

44. Harmful side effect of exogenous DHEA supplementation A) Promotes negative changes in the blood lipid profile B) Osteoporosis C) Shrinking of prostate gland D) Relatively weak steroid hormone synthesized from cholesterol in the pancreas

45. Popular hormone __________ supplemented by some in the hope of optimizing training and countering the effects of aging.

A) TSH B) FSH C) ADH D) DHEA

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46. Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) A) Classifies as a depressant drug B) Classifies as a stimulating drug C) Composed of atoms of hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen D) Least abused substance by adolescents, adults, athletes, nonathletes

47. True about alcohol's effects on the body A) Produces an acute anxiolytic effect to temporarily reduce tension and anxiety, enhance self-confidence, and promote aggression.

B) Acts as a generalized neurologic stimulant to improve steadiness and accuracy in demanding motor tasks C) Promotes an ergolytic effect.

D) Improves performance in long-duration aerobic activities

48. Negative effect of alcohol A) Impairs cardiac function.

B) Stimulates the liver to synthesize glucose from noncarbohydrate sources via gluconeogenesis.

C) Increases water retention by increasing antidiuretic hormone release from the posterior pituitary gland.

D) Increases anxiety and tension.

49. Excess plasma phosphate stimulates the secretion of __________.

A) aldosterone B) antidiuretic hormone C) parathormone D) thyroxine

50. Structural component of the internal layer of plasma membranes that surrounds all cells and may modify body's neuroendocrine stress response.

A) -Hydroxy--methylbutyrate B) Androstenedione C) Phosphatidylserine D) Aldosterone

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51. True regarding glutamine A) Alters the normal hormonal milieu and training responsiveness in healthy men and women.

B) Counters the catabolic effects of cortisol.

C) Depresses mood and emotion and should not be consumed.

D) An essential amino acid found primarily in cardiac tissue

52. __________ exerts a stimulating effect on central nervous system functions.

A) TMJ adjustment B) Pangamic acid C) Amphetamines D) Buffering agents

53. Side effect of amphetamines A) Relief from gastrointestinal distress B) Deterioration in psychomotor skills C) Tremulousness, headache, confusion D) Central nervous system depressant

54. Amphetamine's medical risks A) Decreased breast size associated with Type 2 diabetes B) Hypertension, glucose intolerance, stroke, sudden death C) Complete cessation of menstrual cycle D) Deterioration in perceptual motor skills

55. True or false? Athletes of ancient Greece from about 700 to 300 B.C. reportedly used hallucinogenic mushrooms, plant seeds, and ground dog testicles for ergogenic purposes, while Roman gladiator athletes ingested the equivalent of “speed” to enhance performance in the Circus Maximus (about 200–300 A.D.).

A) True B) False

56. True or false? In the mid-19th century in Europe, a tonic mixture of Bordeaux wine and natural cocaine extracted from cocoa leaves developed by French chemist Ange-François Mariani (1821–1873) was sold as a curative for medicinal and recreational purposes to “rev up” the body. Athletes would consume the drink to ward off fatigue, sometimes during the actual sport performance!

A) True B) False

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57. True or false? Testing of urine samples is the “gold standard” method to detect illicit drug use.

A) True B) False

58. True or false? The new genetic engineering technique of CRISPR (acronym for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeat), discovered by UC Berkeley American biochemist Jennifer Doudna, has opened up a new era for the proper medical intervention into disease, and not for “gene doping” advocated by some to thwart illegal drug use in sports.

A) True B) False

59. True or false? The emerging field of transgenic nutraceuticals uses genes introduced into a host plant or animal to modify a biochemical pathway and thereby “create” a new, “genetically modified” substance with markedly different properties than the original plant or animal.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? The term functional food, beyond meeting three basic nutrition needs for survival, hunger satisfaction, and preventing adverse effects, comprise those foods and their bioactive components (e.g., olive oil, soy products, omega-3 fatty acids, phytochemicals) to promote five major outcome functions and disease risk reduction.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? Five outcome strategies of functional food science include bioregulation, biodefense, and reduced muscle fatigue from overly strenuous physical activity.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Supplements are regulated differently than medications, and companies who sell such products are not required to seek FTC approval before marketing them.

A) True B) False

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63. True or false? The ideal experiment to evaluate the performance-enhancing effects of an exogenous supplement requires that experimental and control subjects remain unaware or “unblinded” to the substance administered.

A) True B) False 64. True or false? “Stacking” refers to using amphetamines every other week.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? The conclusions of a scientific research study must not always logically follow from the research findings.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Inferential statistical analysis makes predictions and inferences about a particular population with sample data drawn randomly from the population.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? A reduced heart rate of three beats a minute during submaximal physical activity may reach statistical significance (greater than chance occurrence), yet confer little practical effect on altering aerobic fitness or cardiovascular function.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? High-quality research withstands the rigors of critical review and evaluation by colleagues with expertise in the specific area of investigation. Thus, such peer review provides a measure of quality control over the scholarship and interpretation of research findings.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? Publications in such popular magazines as People, Glamour, Self, Men's Fitness, Muscle and Fitness, Flex, or quasi-professional journals such as Physician and Sports Medicine do not undergo the same degree of review rigor as a peer-reviewed article published in a mainstream sports science-related research journal.

A) True B) False

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70. True or false? Drinking 2.5 cups of regularly percolated coffee 1 hour before exercising significantly extends endurance in strenuous aerobic exercise.

A) True B) False 71. True or false? Some so-called “experts” who write articles in popular strength, training, and fitness magazines also own the magazines—as continues to occur to promote and sell a particular line of equipment or promote a particular nutritional supplement they endorse.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Two articles in the New York Times in August and September 2015 described Coca-Cola's support of academic researchers who founded the Global Energy Balance Network to promote physical activity as an effective method to prevent obesity.

The article relied on e-mail evidence to document how Monsanto, the multinational agricultural biotechnology corporation, and the organic food industry recruited professors and researchers to lobby, write, and testify to Congress on their behalf.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? Scientific evidence has proven that ginseng supplements offer an ergogenic benefit for physiologic function.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Major industrial companies often use industry-funded academic research to change the narrative to misdirect the public and to “manufacture doubt” about the science so it becomes more difficult to establish regulatory limits or guidelines on consumption and health outcomes, the same strategy used by the tobacco companies to promote the beneficial (healthful) effects of smoking.

A) True B) False

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75. True or false? Drug testing of athletes has consistently expanded, with the initiation of the International Olympic Committee random, unannounced drug testing in track and field in 1989 to the administration of 3500 tests before the opening ceremonies of the 2002 Winter Games in Salt Lake City, 4500 tests during the 2008 Beijing Games, 6250 blood and urine samples at the 2012 London Olympics, and over 5000 tests analyzed at the 2016 Rio Olympics.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Anabolic steroids available for therapeutic use in oral, injectable, and through-the-skin (transdermal) forms became prominent in the early 1900s to treat patients deficient in natural androgens or with muscle-wasting diseases.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Up to 5 million athletes worldwide (90% of male and 80% of female professional bodybuilders) currently use androgens, often combined with stimulants, hormones, and diuretics, believing their use augments training effectiveness.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? A survey of 500 steroid users reported that nearly 80% were nonathletes who take these drugs for cosmetic purposes. The majority self-administer with intramuscular injections, with nearly 1 in 10 reporting hazardous injection techniques.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Anabolic steroids function similarly to the chemical structure of the female hormone estradiol.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? For more than seven decades, researchers and athletes have debated the true effect of anabolic steroids on body composition and exercise performance. Much of the confusion about anabolic steroids' ergogenic effectiveness stems from variations in these variables; experimental design; poor selection of controls; accompanying nutritional supplementation; individual differences in response.

A) True B) False

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81. True or false? Animal research had suggested that anabolic steroid treatment, when combined with exercise and adequate protein intake, stimulated protein synthesis and increased the subcellular architecture of muscle protein—myosin, myofibrils, and sarcoplasmic factors.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Steroid abuse also typically associates with the following worrisome medical consequences in men—testicular atrophy; baldness; prostate hypertrophy; Injury and alterations in cardiovascular function and myocardial cell cultures.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Francis G. Benedict and Wilbur Olin Atwater conducted more than 500 experiments concerning rest, exercise, and diet using the Atwater–Rosa respiration calorimeter.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Orally active 17-alkylated androgens in healthy men and women rapidly increases high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), decreases both low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) and total cholesterol, and reduces the HDL-C–to–LDL-C ratio.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? According to an ACSM Position statement, anabolic–androgenic steroids with an adequate diet and training can contribute to decreases in body weight, often in the lean to fat mass compartment.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The sympathomimetic amine clenbuterol has become popular among athletes in many different sports because of its purported tissue building, fat-reducing benefits.

A) True B) False

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87. True or false? Clenbuterol, one of a group of chemical compounds classified as a 2-adrenergic agonist diminishes responsiveness of adrenergic receptors to circulating epinephrine, norepinephrine, and other 2 adrenergic cholamines.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Clenbuterol (Albuterol an example) comes from its stimulating effects on skeletal muscle 2-receptors to increase muscle force and power.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? Human growth hormone (hGH) competes with anabolic steroids in the illicit market of illeged tissue-building performance-enhancing drugs (PEDs) without FDA approval.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Somatotropic hormone produced by the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis facilitates tissue-building processes and normal human growth.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? DHEA and its sulfated ester, DHEAS, are relatively weak steroid hormones synthesized from triglyceride in the liver.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? The WADS (World Anti Doping Society) and USOCS (United States Office of Controlled Substances) do not include DHEA on their banned substance lists at zero-tolerance levels.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? For all its popularity among sports enthusiasts (young adult men and women athletes and nonathletes), no data support an ergogenic effect of exogenous DHEA. A) True B) False

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94. True or false? Delivery systems for the food supplement androstenedione include capsules, percutaneous gels, transdermal patches, chewing gums, and steroid lozenges that dissolve under the tongue.

A) True B) False 95. True or false? Tetrahydrogestrinone (THG or “the Clear”), closely related to the banned anabolic steroids gestrinone and trenbolone, represents an anabolic steroid originally designed by an American organic chemist and developed by an American nutritional supplement company to escape detection by standard drug testing.

A) True B) False 96. True or false? Amphetamines or “pep pills,” first synthesized in 1887, are pharmacologic compounds that exert powerful stimulating effects on central nervous system function.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? The two most popular amphetamines used by athletes are amphetamine (Benzedrine) and dextroamphetamine sulfate (Dexedrine).

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Caffeine's metabolic half-life ranges between 6 and 12 hours. Caffeine clears the body in about 2 hours before it's blood caffeine concentration decreases by one-half. As a frame of reference, it requires about 10 hours for clearance of other stimulants like methamphetamine.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Caffeine enhances motoneuronal excitability and facilitates motor unit recruitment do not result from its direct action on the central nervous system, rather from indirectly stimulating the nervous system by blocking the chemical neuromodulator adenosine to calm brain and spinal cord neurons.

A) True B) False

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100. True or false? Alcohol (more specifically ethyl alcohol or ethanol—a form of carbohydrate) classifies as a depressant drug and provides 7 kilocalories of energy per gram (mL) of pure substance (100% or 200% proof).

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Drinkers who consume alcohol mixed with energy drinks are three times more likely to binge-drink than drinkers who do not report mixing alcohol with energy drinks.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? MEOS is the acronym for microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? Phosphate loading increases the potential for ATP phosphorylation.

A) True B) False

104. Testosterone, but not aldosterone, progesterone, or adrenalin, functions similarly to: A) an anabolic steroid B) an anabolic derivative C) an anabolic analogue D) the ketone, androsteindrone

105. An amphetamine-like alkaloid compound, banned by the FDA, exhibits sympathomimetic physiologic effects: A) hemosiderin B) ferritin C) thyroxine D) erythropoietin

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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. A 43. A 44. A

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45. D 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. C 51. B 52. C 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. A 57. A 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. A 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A

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91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. D

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1. The expression “hitting the wall” during endurance activities describes fatigue and discomfort in the active muscles coinciding with severe __________.

A) fat depletion B) glycogen depletion C) protein depletion D) accumulation of lactate in the blood

2. Undesirable side effect of consuming 30 to 100 grams of pyruvate daily A) Diarrhea and some gastrointestinal gurgling and discomfort B) Blunts insulin response C) Interfere with phenylalanine metabolism D) Prevents facilitated glycogen loading

3. Not an anabolic hormone A) Growth hormone B) Glucagon C) Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) D) Testosterone

4. Beetroot's rich nitrate content may play a significant modulator role in __________ through the body's nitric oxide production cycle.

A) neural energetics and oxygen delivery during exercise and subsequent recovery B) energetics of digestion and oxygen delivery during exercise and subsequent recovery C) muscle energetics and oxygen delivery during exercise and subsequent recovery D) one-minute all-out exercise

5. Vanadium A) exhibits human insulin-like properties B) not involved in stimulating glycogen synthesis C) apples provide the best “natural” source of vanadium D) is commonly consumed by bodybuilders because there is no toxic effect if consumed in excess

6. Research __________ an ergogenic role for vanadium supplements.

A) strongly supports B) does not support C) has not been conducted to assess D) shows that adding two, 10-gram zinc tables provides

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7. Cofactor for a low molecular weight protein that potentiates insulin function A) Boron B) Zinc C) Chromium D) Copper

8. Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) or __________ functions as an integral component of the mitochondrion's electron transport system of oxidative phosphorylation.

A) ubiquinone B) cytochrome E C) cytochrome C D) PCr

9. What substance obtained in food as part of the lecithin molecule acts to either depress fat accumulation in the liver or increase the liver's fatty acids uptake?

A) Inosine B) Vanadium C) Choline D) Glycerol 10. PCr serves as the cells' “energy reservoir” to provide rapid __________ to resynthesize ATP in the reversible creatine kinase reaction.

A) creatine as a nitrogen source B) intermuscular energy sources C) ATP bond energy D) phosphate–bond energy

11. Creatine supplementation __________ high level aerobic energy transfer.

A) slightly improves B) dramatically improves C) decreases D) does not improve

12. __________ provide rich creatine sources, containing approximately 4 to 5 grams per kilogram food weight.

A) Hamburger, chicken, salmon B) Carrots and lettuce C) Avocados D) Cake with chocolate icing

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13. Consuming carbohydrate __________ creatine loading.

A) slightly decreases B) dramatically decreases C) facilitates D) does not improve

14. Do not consume __________ containing substances when taking creatine.

A) caffeine B) argenine C) choline D) lysine

15. Many popular articles and advertisements tout inosine as an amino acid when, in fact, it is a __________ found naturally in brewer's yeast (e.g., used to make beer and bread) and various organ meats (e.g., kidney and liver).

A) nucleic acid derivative B) polypeptide C) dipeptide D) glycoprotein

16. This five-carbon sugar __________ has become a competitor to creatine supplements to increase power and replenish high-energy compounds following intense physical activity.

A) glucose B) ribose C) fructose D) sucrose

17. Metabolically, inosine serves as an energy substrate for __________.

A) ATP resynthesis B) ATP synthesis C) CP anabolism D) CP catabolism

18. __________ provide a more rapid source of fatty acid fuel.

A) Chylomicrons B) Medium-chain triacylglycerols (MCT) C) Glycerols D) Amino acid–containing powders

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19. During digestion, __________ hydrolyze by lipase action in the mouth, stomach, and duodenum to glycerol and MCFAs. A) sirloin steak, baked chicken, and sea bass B) medium-chain triacylglycerols C) fruits and vegetables D) grain products

20. In the tissues, MCFAs move through the plasma membrane and diffuse across the inner mitochondrial membrane for __________.

A) hydrolysis B) reduction C) oxidation D) semipermeable condensation

21. L-carnitine: A) vitamin-like compound that facilitates influx of long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria during energy metabolism B) essential amino acid C) ergogenic aid that promotes protein catabolism D) isomer of L-dopamine

22. Chronic chromium deficiency increases risk for __________.

A) liver toxicity B) osteoporosis C) type 2 diabetes D) gall bladder and pancreatic cancers

23. After achieving creatine loading, switching to a reduced dosage of __________ daily maintains elevated creatine levels up to 28 days.

A) about 2 to 3 grams B) about 6 grams C) about 0.3 grams D) about 0.5 grams

24. Glycogen depletion increases formation of intermediate forms of the glycogen-storing enzyme __________ in skeletal muscle fibers.

A) glycogen phosphatase B) glycogen synthetase C) glycogen phosphorylase D) glycogen kinase

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25. Carbohydrate loading's potential benefits apply only to intense and prolonged aerobic activities lasting longer than __________ minutes duration.

A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60

26. Each gram of muscle glycogen stores an additional __________ of water.

A) 0.6 grams B) 1.4 grams C) 2.7 grams D) 4.5 milliliters

27. The water liberated during glycogen breakdown aids in __________ to benefit physical activity in hot environments.

A) temperature regulation B) respiratory dynamics C) cardiovascular dynamics D) liver and pancreatic dynamics

28. A Russian zoologist, Ilya Mechnikov working in the Pasteur Institute in Paris shared the 1908 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine with German physician and scientist Paul Ehrlich for work __________.

A) demonstrating that beneficial microbes have insulin-like properties B) demonstrating that beneficial microbes can replace harmful ones to treat intestinal illnesses C) demonstrating that beneficial microbes modulate probiotic antigens D) demonstrating that beneficial microbes decrease humoral and cellular immunity

29. Men and women possess __________ to accumulate muscle glycogen when fed comparable amounts of carbohydrate relative to their lean body mass.

A) equal capacity B) unequal capacity C) about the same capacity D) no capacity

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30. L-carnitine: A) protein-containing, vitamin-like compound found mostly in meat and vegetable products B) liver cells store about 95% of the body's total C) facilitates long-chain fatty acid influx into the mitochondrial matrix to enter -oxidation during energy metabolism D) small intestine stores about 95% of the body's total.

31. Forms part of the cells' phospholipid plasma membrane A) Choline B) Glycine C) Glycerol D) Inosine

32. To rapidly achieve creatine loading, an individual should ingest __________ of creatine monohydrate daily for 6 days.

A) 8 grams B) 600 milligrams C) 4000 milligrams D) 20,000 milligrams

33. Component of a triacylglycerol molecule, gluconeogenic substrate, important constituent of a cells' phospholipid plasma membrane, osmotically active natural metabolite.

A) Glycerol B) Vanadium C) Boron D) Choline

34. Potentiates insulin function A) Sodium B) Chromium C) Iron D) Cadmium

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35. Coenzyme Q10: A) integral component of the mitochondrion's electron transport system of oxidative phosphorylation B) has free radical properties that promote cell damage C) used therapeutically to treat kidney disease D) water-soluble component of tissues

36. This compound, found primarily in meats, peanuts, and soybean oil, functions in the mitochondrion's electron transport system of oxidative phosphorylation.

A) Chromium picolinate B) L-carnitine C) Creatine monohydrate D) Coenzyme Q10

37. Maintaining high intramuscular concentrations of ATP and PCr enhances maximal exercise for __________.

A) up to 10 seconds B) about 60 seconds C) about 120 seconds D) 3 minutes or longer

38. Unintended side effects of creatine supplementation A) Cramping in multiple muscles during sports activities B) Cramping in the diaphragm during sports activities C) Decreased hamstring flexibility D) Precipitate gastrointestinal tract nausea, indigestion, and difficulty absorbing food

39. Creatine supplementation has been shown to increase __________ by as much as 2.4 kilograms.

A) body mass B) bench press capabilities C) urine production D) plasma volume

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40. What is the possible role of the brain's glycogen content in resisting fatigue when glucose supply from the blood becomes inadequate, a condition called hypoglycemia?

A) Automatically increases in fatiguing conditions.

B) No change in fatiguing conditions.

C) Preliminary findings with animals showed that decreases in brain glycogen content may link to central brain fatigue when physical activity exceeds 2 hours.

D) Brain activity in the animals decreased substantially during 60 minutes of treadmill running.

41. Produces significant muscle glycogen “packing” A) Combining a high-fat diet with physical activity B) Combining amino acid supplements with physical activity C) Combining anabolic steroids with physical activity D) Combining carbohydrate loading with physical activity

42. Not an essential nutrient A) 12- to 18-carbon long-chain fatty acid B) Inosine C) ATP D) Carnitine

43. Independent, nonprofit organization of scientists that establishes high standards for medicine, food ingredients, and dietary supplements.

A) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) B) Federal Trade Commission (FTC) C) United States Pharmacopeia (USP) D) National Consumer Testing Lab (NCTL)

44. Medium-chain fatty acids (MCFAs or MCT) A) Contain fatty acids with 20 to 28 carbon atoms along the fatty acid chain B) Contain fatty acids with 13 to 21 carbon atoms along the fatty acid chain C) Diffuse directly from the gastrointestinal tract into the portal vein without modification for use as energy D) Bypass the liver's degradation cycle to directly enter muscle mitochondria

45. Very long–chain fatty acids (VLCFAs).

A) Accelerate resting heart rate B) Elevate resting systolic blood pressure C) Have more than 22 carbons along the fatty acid chain D) Increased serum uric acid levels in the kidney tubules

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46. Long-chain fatty acids (LCFAs) require __________ for incorporation into chylomicrons for transport through lymph for deposit as fat.

A) bile salts for digestion B) thyroxine C) inosine D) emulsification with short-chain fatty acids

47. First line of corrective therapy for metabolic syndrome.

A) Healthful diet, weight reduction (when required), increased physical activity B) Healthful diet, weight reduction (when BMI exceeds 40), and 30 minutes of vigorous daily extra walking C) Correct elevated HDL levels with a statin drug D) Correct elevated HDL levels without a statin drug

48. Which of the following alleged health benefits of probiotics is most credible?

A) Prevents colon cancer B) Reduces plasma cholesterol levels C) Lowers frequency and duration of diarrhea associated with antibiotics D) Reduces Helicobacter pylori infection

49. Clinical identification of metabolic syndrome A) Abdominal obesity, high triacylglycerols, high HDL, high blood pressure, fasting blood glucose exceeds 110 mg/dL B) Abdominal obesity, high triacylglycerols, HDL above 40 mg/dL, high blood pressure, high fasting blood glucose C) Triceps skin fold below 22 centimeters, high triacylglycerols, high HDL, high blood pressure, high fasting blood glucose D) Abdominal obesity, high triacylglycerols, high HDL, systolic blood pressure lower than 130 mm Hg, high fasting blood glucose

50. True or false? Exercise performance benefits from increased carbohydrate intake before and during high-intensity aerobic exercise and heavy training.

A) True B) False

51. True or false? Less than 60 minutes of intense exercise requires extremely high levels of carbohydrate intake and glycogen reserves.

A) True B) False

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52. True or false? Significant gender differences exist in carbohydrate metabolism during exercise before and after endurance training.

A) True B) False

53. True or false? The effect of protein supplementation in the immediate postexercise period of resistance exercise may prove effective for repair and synthesis of muscle proteins following aerobic exercise.

A) True B) False

54. True or false? Immediate carbohydrate-protein supplementation inhibits hormonal response to resistance exercise.

A) True B) False

55. True or false? Consuming caffeine augments creatine's ergogenic effect.

A) True B) False

56. True or false? L-carnitine, a mineral-like compound, found mostly in fruits and vegetables.

A) True B) False

57. True or false? Sport-governing bodies do not consider creatine an illegal chemical substance.

A) True B) False

58. True or false? Oral amino acid supplements in healthy subjects induce ergogenic effects on hormone secretion, training responsiveness, and exercise performance.

A) True B) False

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59. True or false? Research generally indicates ergogenic benefits, positive metabolic alterations, and body fat–reducing effects from L-carnitine supplementation.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? Medium-chain triglycerides (MCTs) are converted proteins, which enhance fat metabolism and conserve glycogen during endurance exercise due to their relatively slow rate of digestion, assimilation, and energy catabolism.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? Amino acid infusion or ingestion has been used in clinically deficient patients to regulate anabolic hormones.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Glycogen stored in the liver and active muscles supplies most of the energy for intense aerobic physical activity.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? Carbohydrate loading produces an equal percentage increase in glycogen content of all major muscle groups, particularly quadriceps.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? Caffeine blunts the negative ergogenic effects of creatine supplementation.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? Creatine supplementation provides no ergogenic effect on exercise performance requiring a high level of aerobic energy transfer.

A) True B) False

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66. True or false? Inosine stimulates glucagon release to slow myocardial glucose delivery to the myocardium.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Creatine loading occurs by ingesting 100 grams of creatine monohydrate for six consecutive days, and then reducing intake to 20 grams daily to maintain elevated intramuscular creatine levels.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? The modified carbohydrate loading procedure provides for almost the same high level of glycogen storage as the classic carbohydrate loading procedure.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? No research documents an ergogenic effect of vanadium supplementation, and extreme intake produces toxic effects.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Reliable research does not support chromium supplements to reduce body fat or increase muscle mass and energy level.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Creatine increases intermuscular creatine and phosphocreatine, enhances aerobic power output capacity, and facilitates recovery from two to four bouts of intense effort within 60-minutes.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? Hamburger and bison beef, chicken, eggs, and turkey, and salmon and tuna represent poor sources of creatine.

A) True B) False

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73. True or false? (—)-Hydroxycitrate (HCA) is a compound promoted as a “natural fat burner” to facilitate weight loss and enhance endurance performance.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Oral supplements (1 g/day) of creatine monohydrate significantly increase muscle creatine and performance in high-intensity exercise, particularly repeated intense muscular effort.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Research confirms that many herbal/botanical supplement substantially improve recovery from DOMS or training adaptations to strength, balance, and muscle function A) True B) False

76. True or false? Medium-chain triacylglycerols (MCTs) are processed oils, frequently produced for patients with intestinal malabsorption and other tissue-wasting diseases.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? The insolubility of MCFAs enables them to transport rapidly across the intestinal mucosa directly into the liver from the portal vein without necessity of chylomicron transport required for medium-chain triacylglycerols.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Cramping and diarrhea often accompany excess MCT intake.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Vanadium, a trace element widely distributed in nature, comes from the bluish salt of vanadium acid discovered in 1801 by Spanish chemist Andrés Manuel del Río.

A) True B) False

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80. True or false? The relatively slow rate of digestion, absorption, and assimilation of long-chain triglycerides makes them undesirable as a supplement to improve energy metabolism in active muscle during exercise.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? Medium-chain fatty acids oxidize more slowly than long-chain fatty acids.

A) True B) False 82. True or false? Supplement manufacturers promote L-carnitine as a “metabolic stimulator” to enhance fat burning and spare glycogen.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Chromium serves as a cofactor for potentiating glucagon function.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Chromium chloride is the form of chromium that has the best intestinal absorption.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? L-Carnitine is a vasoconstrictor and decreases blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? Ribose must be obtained from meat products because the body cannot synthesize it on its own.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Vanadium supplements do not confer ergogenic benefits.

A) True B) False

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88. True or false? Chromium potentiates glucagon function.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? There are limited data to support potential benefits of probiotic supplementation in exercise. However, any purported enhancements to immune system function following exercise would benefit individuals explodes to high levels of physical and environmental stressors.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Bodybuilders consume vanadium supplements as part of their daily supplement ritual, usually in its oxidized form as vanadyl sulfate.

A) True B) False 91. True or false? Exercise enthusiasts believe that vanadium provides the “pumped look” to give the “shredded” appearance of muscular hypertrophy characterized by hardness, density, and size because of enhanced muscle glycogen storage and amino acid uptake.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Research generally indicates ergogenic benefits, positive metabolic alterations, and body fat–reducing effects from L-carnitine supplementation.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Consuming amino acids in the quantities recommended in commercial supplements benefits the body's hormonal milieu, body composition, and muscle size.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? Research remains inconclusive about the endurance-enhancing effect of medium-chain triacylglycerol supplementation.

A) True B) False

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95. True or false? Consuming triacylglycerols composed mostly of long-chain fatty acids significantly increases gastric emptying.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Consuming carbohydrate and/or protein supplements immediately following resistance exercise workouts offers a potential ergogenic effect by elevating insulin and growth hormone levels.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? For individuals with adequate dietary chromium intakes, research fails to show any beneficial effect of chromium supplements on training-related changes in muscular strength, physique, fat-free body mass, or muscle mass.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Reduced levels of muscle glycogen induce fatigue in intense aerobic and anaerobic physical activity.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? The hyperhydration effect of glycerol supplementation reduces overall heat stress during physical activity, lowers heart rate and core temperature, and enhances endurance performance under heat stress.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Vigilance and mood improve with a carbohydrate beverage administered during a day of sustained aerobic activity interspersed with rest.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Epinephrine contains choline.

A) True B) False

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102. True or false? Successful operative outcomes often depend on an optimal nutritional state, which preoperative dietary restrictions often compromise.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? Preoperative carbohydrate loading now serves as a strategy to reduce postoperative stress and speed recovery processes—shorter postoperative hospital stays, faster return to normal functions, and reduced occurrence of surgical complications.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Targeted immunonutrients (e.g., omega-3 fatty acids, arginine, glutamine, nucleotides) to boost immune system function, improve wound healing, and reduce markers of inflammation.

A) True B) False

105. True or false? Example of popular live probiotic cultures in fermented dairy products and probiotic-fortified foods—bifidobacterium, lactobacillus acidophilus, bifidobacterium animalis.

A) True B) False

106. True or false? Frederick Gowland Hopkins won the 1929 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for employed new methods to isolate lactic acid in muscle.

A) True B) False

107. True or false? A muscle contracts under high oxygen conditions produces lactic acid at the expense of carbohydrate.

A) True B) False

108. True or false? Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10), found in peanuts and soybean oil, functions as an integral component of mitochondrion's electron transport system of oxidative phosphorylation, and exists in high concentrations within myocardial tissue.

A) True B) False

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109. True or false? Four drug categories used in WADA sanctioned drug testing: anabolic–androgenic steroids, 2-agonists, cannabinoids, and -blockers in specific sports.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. C

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45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. A 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. A

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1. Derived from body mass related to stature to evaluate the “normalcy” of one's body weight.

A) Waist to hip ratio B) Body mass index (BMI) C) Percent body fat D) Obesity index

2. Complication associated with obesity.

A) Impaired glucose tolerance B) Frequent urination C) Bladder infections D) Kidney infections

3. The reference man is taller and heavier, his skeleton weighs more, and has __________ content than the reference woman.

A) a lower muscle mass and lower total fat B) a larger muscle mass and larger total fat C) a lower muscle mass and higher total fat D) a larger muscle mass and lower total fat

4. __________ consists of the fat stored within the marrow of bones, internal organs, muscles, and tissues of the central nervous system.

A) Subcutaneous fat B) Storage fat C) Essential fat D) Nonessential fat

5. __________ consists of fat accumulated within adipose tissue.

A) Essential fat B) Fat in the marrow of bones C) Lipid-rich tissues of the central nervous system D) Storage fat

6. __________ provides the basis for determining body composition via hydrostatic weighing.

A) Archimedes' principle B) Bernoulli's principle C) Dalton's law D) Boyle's law

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7. Siri equation calculates: A) body density B) percent body fat C) body volume D) body mass index

8. Measuring skinfold thickness requires grasping a fold of skin and __________ firmly with the thumb and forefingers and pulling it away from the underlying lean tissue.

A) skeletal muscle B) visceral fat C) subcutaneous fat D) smooth muscle

9. Exercise triggers the release of an array of hormones, this one having anti-reproductive properties.

A) Estrogen B) Cortisol C) Testosterone D) Aldosterone

10. Method that measures the resistance to current flow between the source and detector electrodes to estimate body composition.

A) Hydrostatic weighing B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) C) Near-infrared interactance (NIR) D) Duel-energy x-ray absorptiometry

11. A state of underhydration decreases accuracy of impedance measures, thus __________ the percent body fat estimate, whereas hyperhydration __________ the estimate.

A) lowering, increases B) increasing, decreases C) invalidating, increases the accuracy of D) increasing the accuracy of, invalidates

12. Employs principles of light absorption and reflection to assess body composition.

A) Hydrostatic weighing B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) C) Near-infrared interactance (NIR) D) Body mass index (BMI)

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13. The generalized density values for the body's fat-free and fat tissues equal __________ g/cm3, respectively.

A) 1.90 and 1.18 B) 1.10 and 0.90 C) 1.10 and 0.77 D) 0.77 and 1.10

14. Most widely accepted clinical tool to assess spinal osteoporosis and related bone disorders.

A) Computed tomography (CT) B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) D) Body mass index (BMI)

15. According to Behnke's model for the reference man and woman, __________.

A) a woman may jeopardize her health when her body fat goes below 22% B) a man may jeopardize his health if his body fat goes below 8% C) a man's average quantity of essential fat averages about 3% of body mass D) a woman's average quantity of storage fat averages about 26% of body mass

16. American constitutionalist psychologist described body shape (called somatotyping) from nude photographs by placing a person into one of three categories—thin, muscular, or fat—but his work was later criticized for attempting to identify superior and inferior human physiques tied to personality and intellectual pursuits.

A) William H. Sheldon B) Alexander Thomas C) William Shockley D) Lindsey Carter

17. Components of total body fat A) Essential, storage B) Visceral, storage C) Essential, visceral D) Essential, subcutaneous

18. Body mass index: A) body mass (kg) ÷ age (years) B) stature (m2) ÷ body mass (kg) C) age (years) ÷ body mass (kg) D) body mass (kg) ÷ stature (m2)

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19. Approximately 12% body fat in the average young adult male A) Storage fat B) Sex-specific fat C) Essential fat D) Visceral fat

20. Irregular menstrual cycle: A) oligomenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) eumenorrhea D) dysmenorrhea

21. Female athletes who start training in high school or earlier show a lower lifetime occurrence of __________ compared to less active counterparts.

A) cancer of the pancreas and intestines B) degenerative arthritis C) cancer of the breast and reproductive organs D) cystic fibrosis

22. BMI associated with the lowest health risk A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 25 to 30 D) 30 to 35

23. Least valid method to assess body composition A) Near-infrared interactance (NIR) B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) C) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) D) X-ray

24. Dividing body mass by body volume.

A) Fat-free body mass B) Body fat mass C) Percent body fat D) Body density

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25. Lean athletes who train intensely and attempt to keep a low body weight and high fat-free mass.

A) Gymnasts B) Basketball players C) Ice hockey players D) Wrestlers

26. Competitive __________ generally have higher body fat levels than distance runners, probably from self-selection related to economically exercising in the different environments rather than real metabolic effects caused by the environments.

A) male and female swimmers B) male and female gymnasts C) male pole vaulters D) female ballet dancers

27. Body weight measured in the air minus body weight in water with temperature correction for water density.

A) Body density B) Body volume C) Lean body mass D) Body specific gravity

28. Delayed onset of menarche in chronically active young women confers health benefits related to __________.

A) osteoporosis B) hypertension C) diabetes D) reproductive system cancers

29. Body mass related to stature A) BMR B) BMI C) TDEE D) SDA

30. Air displacement plethysmography to assess body volume.

A) Hydrodensitometry B) NIR C) BIA D) BOD POD

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31. Visual appraisal of body shape A) Somatotyping B) Androgyny C) Densitometry D) Visual dynamics

32. Can probably alter muscle size by almost the same relative extent as male bodybuilders.

A) Sumo wrestlers B) Female bodybuilders C) Male marathon runners D) Male gymnasts

33. On average, professional football players have __________.

A) less body fat than top collegiate football players B) more body fat than top collegiate football players C) about the same body fat as top collegiate football players D) low lean-to-fat ratios

34. Male and female triathletes possess a physique most similar to elite __________.

A) gymnasts B) volleyball players C) jockeys D) cyclists

35. Male body builders generally average __________ body fat based on underwater weighing to assess body composition.

A) 9% to 10% B) 3% to 5% C) 6% to 8% D) 15% to 17%

36. Central excess fat deposition reflects an altered metabolic profile that increases risk for __________ and __________.

A) type 1 diabetes; hyperinsulinemia B) hypertriglyceridemia; type 2 diabetes C) hypertriglyceridemia; hypotension D) very high HDL; type 1 diabetes

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37. Lack of nightly sleep may have __________ with an increased BMI and obesity.

A) a positive association B) nothing to do C) a skewed and negative association D) an inverse, negative association

38. Refers to a condition in which body fat exceeds an age- or sex-appropriate average by a predetermined amount. In most situations, this condition represents the correct term to assess individual and group body fat levels.

A) Overweight B) Thin C) Overfatness D) Obesity

39. Refers to the overfat condition that accompanies a constellation of disease comorbidities that accompany the “obese syndrome.”

A) Overweight B) Thin C) Overfatness D) Obesity

40. A typical beauty model's body weight averages approximately __________ than the national average weight of females of similar age.

A) 10% to 15% lower B) 20% to 25% lower C) 25% to 30% lower D) greater than 30%

41. Obesity defined by the BMI for six heights ranging from 5 feet 6 inches to 6 feet 3 inches A) 30.0 kg·m–2 B) 32.0 kg·m–2 C) 34.0 kg·m–2 D) 38.0 kg·m–2

42. Required for normal physiologic functioning A) Essential fat B) Storage fat C) Abdominal central fat D) Lower body peripheral fat

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43. Region of the body devoid of all extractable fat A) Lean body mass B) Muscle C) Adipose tissue D) Fat-free body mass

44. Refers to decreases in muscle mass and increases in fat mass with aging A) Cytopenic B) Arthropenic C) Sarcopenic D) Osteopenic

45. Directly affects inflammation, which negatively affects muscle mass (and strength) and thus contributes to __________.

A) sarcopenic obesity B) osteopenia obesity C) arthropenic obesity D) cytopenic obesity

46. Discovered a fundamental physics principle currently applied to evaluate male and female human body composition.

A) Siri B) Behnke C) King Hieron of ancient Syracuse D) Archimedes' 47. Being above some “average,” “ideal,” or “desirable” body mass based on weight-for-height tables should not dictate whether someone should __________.

A) gain body weight B) reduce body weight C) undergo fasting D) seek medical attention

48. Which of the following methods to assess body composition involves submersion in water?

A) Hydrostatic weighing B) Monostatic weighing C) Polystatic weighing D) Dual x-ray weighing

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49. The rationale for using skinfolds to estimate body fat comes from the relationships among all of the following factors except __________.

A) percentage of lean tissue B) subcutaneous fat C) internal fat D) whole body density

50. Developed the concept of BMI to explain observations of the Belgian population in the 1850s that body mass increased relative to stature squared.

A) Jonathon N. Magelish B) Albert R. Behnke C) Adolphe Quetelet D) Ancel B. Keystone

51. BMI for a person who weighs 100.0 kilograms with stature of 180.0 centimeters (HINT: convert cm to meters) A) 0.31 B) 30.9 C) 0.33 D) 5.7

52. In the human body, the BIA technique reduces resistance or impedance to electrical current flow.

A) This produces overestimates of FFM and underestimates of % body fat.

B) This produces underestimates of FFM and % body fat.

C) This produces overestimates of FFM and % body fat.

D) This makes it possible to very accurately estimate FFM and % body fat.

53. The BOD POD uses this equation to determine % body fat.

A) Siri B) Behnke C) King Hieron of Syracuse D) Archimedes

54. Visual appraisal of a muscular body shape A) Ectomorphy B) Endomorphy C) Mesomorphy D) Visual dynamics

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55. Sheldon, the developer of the somatographic method, believed this technique: A) related human biologic traits and physique with future social behaviors.

B) did not determine one's world destiny C) did not believe knowledge of an individual's body type provided tantalizing clues how to approach various disease and disability treatments D) could not identify superior and inferior human physiques tied to personality and intellectual pursuits 56. Visual appraisal of a “thin” body shape A) Visual dynamics B) Endomorphy C) Mesomorphy D) Ectomorphy

57. CT scan shows the percentage contribution of these tissue types in a cross section of a body part (such as both thighs).

A) Adipose, connective, epithelial B) Adipose, tendon, epithelial C) Adipose and muscle volume D) Tendon striated strips and myomuscular deposits

58. True or false? The concept of reference standards proves useful for statistical comparisons and data interpretations based on population studies of elite athletes, individuals involved in exercise training and physical activity, different racial and ethnic groups, those at the extremes of underweight and obesity, and individuals intent on improving physique status.

A) True B) False

59. True or false? Height–weight tables provide extremely reliable information about body composition.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? Body density computes as body volume ÷ body mass.

A) True B) False

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61. True or false? In premenopausal women, menstrual irregularity or absence of menstrual function increases risk of bone loss and musculoskeletal injury in vigorous physical activity.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Specific gravity refers to the ratio of the weight of an object in air divided by its loss of weight in water.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? Body volume computes as the difference between body mass measured in water and body specific gravity.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? The amount of time a caliper remains on the skin surface does not impact skinfold thickness.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? The most common anatomic locations for measuring skinfolds include the triceps, subscapular, suprailiac, abdominal, and upper thigh.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Fat stored in the gluteal and femoral regions shows greater metabolic responsiveness and greater risk for heart disease than fat stored in the abdominal region.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? The percentage of visceral fat in men decreases progressively with age.

A) True B) False

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68. True or false? Bioelectrical impedance analysis measures body composition using principles of light absorption and reflection.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? Near-infrared interactance may be less accurate than skinfolds in assessing % body fat.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? MRI effectively quantifies total and subcutaneous adipose tissue in individuals of varying body fatness levels.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) reliably quantifies fat and nonbone regional lean body mass, and the mineral content of the body's deeper bony structures and muscle mass.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? An increase in physical activity provides a reason for the progressive decrease in body fat associated with aging.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? Women and men who exercise regularly have lower percent body fat values than the population average for an equivalent age range.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Proper assessment of body weight, not body composition, determines a physically active person's ideal body fat to lean body mass ratio.

A) True B) False

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75. True or false? Somatotyping describes body shape by placing a person into a convenient category of thin, obese, or muscular.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Successful weightlifters of all races (compared with other athletic groups) have relatively short arms and legs for their stature.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? The prime components for the highest level of performance blend a genetically optimal physique profile with a lean body composition, a highly developed aerobic system, and proper psychological attitude for prolonged, intensive training.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? The triathlon combines continuous endurance physical activity in a five mile swim, 100 mile bicycle ride, and 22.6 mile run.

A) True B) False

79. True or false? Male and female competitive swimmers generally have more body fat than distance runners.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Elite Division 1 collegiate football players and NFL professional football players maintain similar body size and body composition.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? At a given BMI level, Asians have greater body fat content than Caucasians and thus show greater disease risks related to adipose levels.

A) True B) False

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82. True or false? Central fat deposition, independent of fat storage in other anatomic regions, increases these undesirable medical conditions: hypertension; hyperinsulinemia; glucose intolerance; Type 2 diabetes; hypertriglyceridemia and negatively altered lipoprotein profile.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? An increased incidence of high blood pressure, diabetes, and coronary heart disease occurs when BMI values exceed 27.8 for men and 24.6 for women.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Retired legend Kobe Bryant of the Los Angeles Lakers had a BMI of 26.3 and 2016 NBA champion LeBron James now with the Los Angeles Lakers has a BMI of 27.4. Both players would classify as “overweight” by height–weight standards. One would still conclude that both players are fit, not overweight, and possess a large lean-tissue component.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? In terms of ethnicity and gender, significantly more black, Mexican, Cuban, and Puerto Rican men and women classify as overweight compared with white counterparts.

A) True B) False

86. True or false? The reference woman is taller and heavier, her skeleton weighs more, and she has a larger muscle mass and lower total fat content than the reference man.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Storage fat represents fat present in bone marrow, nerve tissue, and the various organs.

A) True B) False

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88. True or false? Storage fat includes visceral fatty tissues that protect thoracic and abdominal organs and a larger subcutaneous fat tissue volume accumulated beneath the skin's surface.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? The reference man and reference woman have similar percentages of storage fat—approximately 12% of body mass in men and 15% in women.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? Lean body mass, a theoretical entity, contains non–sex-specific essential fat (equivalent to 6%–10% of body mass) located chiefly within the brain and central nervous system, bone marrow, and internal organs.

A) True B) False 91. True or false? Being above some “average,” “ideal,” or “desirable” body mass based on weight-for-height tables is a reliable clinical measurement and should be used to set weight loss goals.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? Fat-free body mass (FFM) represents body mass devoid of all extractable fat (FFM = body mass – fat mass).

A) True B) False

93. True or false? Lean body mass in men and minimal body mass in women consist chiefly of essential fat (plus sex-specific fat for women), muscle, water, and bone.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? The fat-free body mass (FFM) for Japanese elite sumo (rikishi) wrestlers averages 109 kilograms, making these supersized competitors share the distinction of being among the world's largest athletes, similar to some American professional football players who weigh 227 kilograms.

A) True B) False

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95. True or false? University of Minnesota physiologist Ancel Keys conducted one of the classic nutrition experiments sponsored by the U.S. Army on body wasting and physiologic functioning ever conducted. Keys studied conscientious objectors or pacifists to military service who voluntarily reduced their body fat stores substantially through semistarvation during a year-long nutritional experiment near the end of World War II. A) True B) False 96. True or false? The famous military “K rations,” compact nutritional packets used by the U.S. military in World War II, was named to honor University of Minnesota physiologist Ancel Keys, the man who invented them.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Generally, the leanest women in the population do not have body fat levels below 10% to 12%, representing a narrow range probably at the lower limit for most women in good health.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Appearing thin or skinny corresponds to a diminutive frame size or critically low body fat percentage, as proposed in Behnke's model for minimal body mass and essential body fat.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Economic, social, and nutritional changes (overnutrition and improper nutrition) over the past 20 to 30 years combined with a decline in regular physical activity, link closely to the creeping obesity epidemic (which has increased diabetes risk approximately 10-fold).

A) True B) False

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100. True or false? Two general approaches determine the body's fat and fat-free components: (1) direct measurement by chemical analysis of the animal carcass or human cadaver, and (2) indirect estimation by hydrostatic weighing and simple anthropometric measurements.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? According to legend, Archimedes', Greek mathematician, engineer, researcher, and inventor, reasoned that a substance such as gold must have a volume equal to its mass; measuring the body mass of an irregularly shaped object would require submersion in water and determining the water's overflow volume.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? An object's loss of weight in water equals the weight of the volume of water it displaces, making its specific gravity equal to the mass of an object in air divided by its gain of water weight.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? Archimedes' Principle allows the application of hydrodensitometry to directly determine a body's volume by chemical means, and from this to compute body density and percentage body fat.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? Fat mass (kg) = body mass (kg) × (percentage fat ÷ 100) A) True B) False

105. True or false? Fat mass (kg) = body mass (kg) ÷ (percentage fat × 100) A) True B) False

106. True or false? The FFM of female bodybuilders is less than their body mass and exceeds the FFM of elite male bodybuilders.

A) True B) False

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107. True or false? Existing equations formulated from assumptions for Whites to calculate body composition from body density in Blacks or Hispanics overestimate FFM and underestimate % body fat.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. A 43. D 44. C

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45. A 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. A 54. C 55. A 56. D 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. A 66. B 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. A 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. B 107. A

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1. To lose weight, a caloric deficit created by consuming fewer calories and engaging in at least __________ minutes of moderate physical activity weekly.

A) 50 B) 150 C) 250 D) 350

2. Body weight should be viewed as the end result of complex interactions between __________.

A) eating behavior and environmental influences B) exercise levels and environmental influences C) eating behavior and physical activity levels D) genes and environmental influences

3. The genetically susceptible person gains weight in an obesity-producing environment coupled with a sedentary and __________ with easy access to calorie-dense foods.

A) nonstressful environment B) high glucagon sensitivity C) easy access to low-dense foods D) stressful environment

4. Acclaimed as the greatest physiologist of all time prior to 1900 for discovering fundamental properties related to liver function physiology and nutritional science.

A) Claude Bernard B) Emil Adolf von Behring C) Charles Richet D) Étienne-Jean Georget

5. The ob gene normally becomes activated in __________ to stimulate production of a body fat–signaling protein.

A) adipose tissue B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle tissue D) liver tissue

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6. Activated in adipose tissue where it encodes and stimulates production of a body fat–signaling hormone-like protein, which then enters the bloodstream.

A) Ghrelin B) Leptin (ob lipid) C) Serotonin D) Leptin (ob protein)

7. Specialized collection of neurons in the mediobasal hypothalamus that controls appetite and metabolism and develops soon after birth.

A) Hypothalamus sensory neuron B) Hypothalamus motor neuron C) Arcuate nucleus D) Hypothalamus interneuron

8. Leptin travels to the __________, the area of the brain that controls appetite and metabolism.

A) medulla oblongata B) hypothalamus C) pons D) pituitary

9. Increases resistance to satiety chemicals.

A) Active receptor action B) Increased leptin receptors C) Defective receptor action D) Enhanced receptor activity

10. In young and middle-aged men, inversely relates physical activity level to __________.

A) body fat levels B) leptin levels C) sensory motor neurons D) final calorie levels

11. Combinations of increased physical activity and caloric restraint offer considerably more flexibility to achieve a negative caloric imbalance than __________.

A) aerobic physical activity alone B) anaerobic physical activity alone C) diet alone D) physical activity alone or diet alone

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12. __________ metabolism decreases when food restriction progressively produces weight loss.

A) Resting B) Exercise C) Set point D) Thermoregulatory

13. Excessive body fat health risk.

A) Preservation of cartilage and bone and joints B) Decreased uric acid nephrolithiasis C) Increased arterial mechanical work D) Increased insulin resistance in children and adults

14. Low-carbohydrate diets.

A) Glycemic B) Ketogenic C) Antiaging D) Gluconeogenic

15. Increase in a muscle's metabolic activity stimulates relatively greater fat mobilization from the adipose tissue in proximity to the active muscle.

A) Spot reduction B) Glycogen depletion C) Protein accretion D) Amino acid turnover

16. The __________ thermic effect of dietary protein, as well as the relatively __________ coefficient of digestibility, ultimately reduces the net calories available from ingested protein.

A) decreased, low B) elevated, high C) elevated, low D) decreased, high

17. Human eating behavior intimately ties to external cues and __________ to power the body's vital processes and sustain life.

A) conditioned responses B) physiologic cues C) delayed cues D) predominant cues

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18. Standard resistance training performed regularly increases ___________ (if FFM increases).

A) resting metabolic rate B) exercise metabolic rate C) obligatory thermogenesis D) nonobligatory thermogenesis

19. Daily energy expenditure: A) includes thermogenic influences (particularly food's thermic effect) and resting metabolic rate B) includes 95% thermogenic influences C) includes 95% nonshivering thermogenesis D) includes 95% energy generated during physical activity

20. Percentage of the U.S. population classified as overweight or obese.

A) 15% B) 30% C) 50% D) 65%

21. Documented health risk of obesity.

A) Cardiovascular disease B) Hypotension C) Hyperthyroidism D) Lymphatic cancer

22. Most effective strategy to reduce excess body fat.

A) Diet only B) Increased physical activity only C) Diet plus increased physical activity D) Physical activity plus behavior therapy

23. Percentage of American men and women currently struggling to reduce body weight and fat.

A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80%

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24. Standard dietary approach to help obese patients to lose weight that decreases caloric intake below the requirement for current weight maintenance.

A) Generally about 2.0 kg·wk–1 B) Generally about 1.5 kg·wk–1 C) Generally about 1.0 kg·wk–1 D) Generally about 0.5 kg·wk–1

25. Inadvisable for weight loss because it precipitates significant lean tissue loss.

A) No more than 2350 calories daily with minimal protein and no “extra” physical activity B) Semistarvation C) No more than 2200 calories daily with minimal carbohydrate and no “extra” physical activity D) Glycogen loading with creatine

26. Reducing 100 kilocalories in daily metabolism.

A) Translates to nearly 1 pound (0.45 kg) of body fat gained every month B) Translates to nearly 1 pound (0.45 kg) of body weight gained every 2 weeks C) Translates to nearly 1 pound (0.45 kg) of lean body mass gained every month D) Translates to nearly 1 pound (0.45 kg) of fat-free body weight gained every 2 weeks

27. A __________ diet emphasizes carbohydrate restriction while generally ignoring the diet's total caloric content and the diet's cholesterol and saturated fat content.

A) very-low-calorie B) set point C) ketogenic D) protein-sparing modified fast 28. Atkins “diet revolution” diet represents a low-carbohydrate, high-fat, or high-protein food plan generates excess __________, by-products of incomplete __________ from inadequate carbohydrate catabolism.

A) plasma neutrafil bodies; gluconeogenic breakdown B) plasma ketone bodies; lipid breakdown C) plasma ketone bodies; protein breakdown D) plasma ketone bodies; glycogen breakdown

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29. Does not have a dramatic effect in reducing excess body weight.

A) Endurance running B) Soccer C) Pole vaulting and shot-put D) Swimming

30. Body fat losses of up to 2 pounds (0.9 kg) each week fall within acceptable limits, but this steady weekly weight loss weekly is more desirable.

A) 0.5 to 1.0 pound B) 1 to 3 kilograms C) Maximum 4 pounds D) Maximum 6 pounds

31. Proponents of __________ maintain that all persons, fat or thin, have a well-regulated internal control mechanism similar to a thermostat located deep within the brain's __________.

A) weight balance theory; posterior hypothalamus B) set point theory; lateral hypothalamus C) set point theory; frontal hypothalamus D) energy balance theory

32. Resistance training.

A) Decreases fat-free body mass to fat mass ratio B) Decreases resting metabolism C) Initiates metabolic changes to facilitate fat breakdown D) Increases coronary heart disease risk

33. A reasonable goal progressively increases moderate physical activity to between __________ or a level that burns __________ kilocalories weekly.

A) 60 and 90 minutes weekly; 2100 to 2800 B) 60 and 90 minutes daily; 2100 to 2800 C) 30 and 60 minutes daily; 1800 to 2200 D) 90 minutes daily; 1500 to 1800

34. Negative consequence of a ketogenic diet.

A) Raises serum uric acid levels B) Negative alkalosis C) Increases glycogen reserves D) Increases calcium balance

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35. Water loss helps to reduce body fat.

A) Nonsense B) Possibly, but ends in lethargy and possible malnutrition C) Possibly, but may negatively impact resting metabolism D) Lean tissue loss also occurs

36. One of three factors that unbalances the energy balance equation to produce weight loss.

A) Increase energy intake B) Increase energy output C) Decrease energy expenditure D) Increase carbohydrate intake

37. Best strategy to minimize sarcopenia with aging.

A) Combine regular aerobic physical activity for fat loss and engage in resistance workouts to curb insulin resistance B) Decrease daily caloric intake and increase daily energy expenditure through anaerobic, short burst activities C) Consume vitamins daily combined with iron and potassium supplements D) Consume flaxseed and fish oil supplements with enriched grains

38. The ideal first step in eating behavior modification.

A) Getting involved in a physical activity program.

B) Carrying out a detailed, accurate 3-day food recall C) Writing down foods that were typically consumed over the past year D) Describing the person's various eating behaviors, not immediately changing the diet

39. Leptin.

A) Body fat–signaling, hormone-like satiety protein B) Requires TSH during leptin's enzymatic catabolism C) Requires erythropoietin for proper enzyme action D) Secretes erythropoietin during leptin synthesis

40. According to developmental programming theory, environmental experiences in the womb and immediately after birth can impact and subsequently alter __________.

A) DNA B) RNA C) cellular mitochondria D) Krebs Cycle activity in neonatal cells

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41. Three main techniques maximize success when including physical activity for weight loss.

A) Progress slowly, include variety, become goal oriented B) Progress slowly, decrease proteins and fat, include variety C) Include variety, decrease carbohydrates, be systematic D) Set short-term goals, set long-term goals, decrease calories

42. When using physical activity to reduce body weight, consider the FITT acronym.

A) Focus, Intent, Training, Type B) Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type C) Focus, Intensity, Targets, Training D) Focus, Intensity, Target, Time

43. Most favorable physical activity strategy to alter body composition in overfat boys and girls.

A) High intensity, short duration B) Low-intensity, long-duration physical activity combined with high-repetition resistance training and a behavior modification component C) Anaerobic physical activity combined with high-repetition resistance training D) Many enhanced physical activity programs that exclude behavior modification

44. Average energy expenditure in low resistance, high-repetition circuit resistance training.

A) 6 kilocalories a minute B) 9 kilocalories a minute C) 12 kilocalories a minute D) 18 kilocalories a minute

45. Behavioral strategies for interrupting poor eating behaviors include __________.

A) avoiding B) believing C) calorie counting D) denial

46. The two factors that largely determine one's daily energy expenditure include __________.

A) resting energy requirement and energy expended in daily physical activities B) energy expended in daily physical activities and thermic effect of food C) thermic effect of food and resting energy requirement D) basal metabolism and resting energy requirement

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47. Typical resistance training performed regularly positively impacts three factors.

A) Coronary heart disease risk, glycemic control, lipoprotein profile B) Dietary-induced thermogenesis, glycemic control, uric acid buildup C) Energy expenditure, glycemic control, ketosis D) Lipoprotein profile, glyconeogenesis, glycogen repletion 48. “South Beach” diet.

A) Liquid protein, low fat B) Semi-starvation C) Low-carbohydrate, high fat D) Low-fat, high carbohydrate

49. A 25-year epidemiological Swedish study concluded that over time reducing dietary animal fat decreased blood cholesterol levels. In contrast, a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet __________.

A) increased these levels B) decreased these levels C) had yo-yo effect; first increased then decreased these levels D) did not change these levels

50. Approximately __________ of weight lost over the first week of energy deficit consists of water loss. Thereafter, water loss progressively changes, representing only about __________ of weight loss in the second and third weeks.

A) 70%; 20% B) 20%; 70% C) 30%; 60% D) 60%; 30%

51. Daily weight loss over 4 weeks of dieting reveals that protein's contribution to weight loss increases from __________ initially to about __________ following the fourth week.

A) 5%; 15% B) 15%; 5% C) 5%; 20% D) 15%; 25%

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52. Maximizing fat loss and minimizing lean-tissue mass loss follow a general guideline known as the “Quarter Fat-Free Mass Rule,” which states that the expected lean tissue loss as fat-free mass follows a pattern of about __________ comes from fat-free mass, with the remainder mostly fat mass and some fluid.

A) one fourth of each pound of lost weight B) one half of each pound of lost weight C) 1 pound of lost weight D) 2 pounds of lost weight

53. Weight-loss diets should contain the recommended micronutrients and protein, with reduced cholesterol, saturated fat, and essentially no __________.

A) alpha or beta ketone bodies B) nonessential amino acids C) trans fatty acids D) lipolytic, protein-generated enzymes

54. True or false? The storage of excess calories as fat occurs only when caloric intake from food exceed daily energy needs.

A) True B) False

55. True or false? The prevalence of overweight and obesity in adult Americans has decreased by 25% in the last 20 years.

A) True B) False

56. True or false? Excessive body fat represents the most common chronic disorder among poor and minority children.

A) True B) False

57. True or false? Increased leptin receptor sensitivity signals the brain that the body lacks fat reserves.

A) True B) False

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58. True or false? By age 50, a physically active man can expect to weigh about 10 pounds more (with a 2-in. larger waist) than he weighed at age 20, despite maintaining a constant level of physical activity.

A) True B) False

59. True or false? Comorbidities caused by obesity represent the second leading cause of preventable death in America.

A) True B) False

60. True or false? Increases in obesity worldwide have contributed to the rising incidence of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.

A) True B) False

61. True or false? A child or adolescent with a high BMI percentile ranking shows a significant risk of being overweight or obese at age 35.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Overweight children and adolescents do not have the same health risks associated with obesity in adulthood.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? The overweight condition may or may not accompany an increase in body fat.

A) True B) False

64. True or false? Overfatness refers to a condition where body fat exceeds an age- and/or gender-appropriate average by a predetermined amount.

A) True B) False

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65. True or false? Increasing physical activity exerts a considerable influence in reducing risk for cardiovascular disease and a more moderate effect on diabetes risk in those who are obese.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Modest weight reduction decreases insulin sensitivity and increases low-density lipoprotein levels.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Research indicates no genetic link for susceptibility to obesity.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? A child younger than age 10 (regardless of current weight) who has one or two obese parents has more than 10 times the normal risk of becoming an obese adult.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? An effective calorie-burning strategy replaces daily periods of inactivity with additional physical activity requiring greater energy expenditure.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? Regular physical activity, with or without dietary restriction, protects against weight gain and favorably changes body mass and body composition.

A) True B) False

71. True or false? Neuropeptide Y is a powerful appetite-stimulating hormone (and slows energy output) produced in the stomach and small intestine.

A) True B) False

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72. True or false? The UCP2 gene activates a protein that stimulates the burning of excess calories as heat without coupling to other energy-consuming process.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? Vigorous physical activity increases the risk of premature mortality for women and men.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Below normal leptin levels signal the brain to increase appetite so that body fat levels increase.

A) True B) False 75. True or false? All individuals have the same physiologic “set point” to regulate body weight.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Repeated bouts of weight loss–weight regain increase the likelihood of death from a heart attack.

A) True B) False 77. True or false? Efforts to selectively reduce fat at specific body areas by localized “spot exercise” produces no greater local fat loss than more general physical activity.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? Total daily energy expenditure largely depends on level of resting metabolism, physical activity, and thermic effect of food ingestion.

A) True B) False

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79. True or false? From a public health perspective, the risks from overfatness and obesity far exceed those for weight cycling.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? Overweight and obesity usually trigger yo-yo dieting as a legitimate way to reduce excess body fat.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? Heavy muscular overload through resistance training, supported by adequate energy and protein intake, greatly increases muscle mass and strength.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Inappropriate strategies for weight loss can increase impaired physiologic function and exercise performance.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? Overweight refers to the overfat condition that accompanies a constellation of comorbidities.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Muscle fiber type, genetics, body size, and previous training experience affect the magnitude of lean tissue synthesis with resistance training in men and women.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? The 3500-kilocalorie rule grossly overestimates actual weight loss.

A) True B) False

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86. True or false? The new weight-loss model relies on controlled feeding studies that show a “metabolic slowdown” and loss of weight directly contribute to increased energy expended in physical activity.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? A 25-year epidemiological Swedish study concluded that over time reducing dietary animal fat increased blood cholesterol levels, yet a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet decreased these levels.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? While low-carbohydrate/high-fat diets may help short-term weight loss, long-term weight loss is not maintained, increasing blood cholesterol with a potential, major impact on cardiovascular disease risk.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? The low body fat levels of marathon runners, ranging from 1% to 8% of body weight, probably reflect an adaptation to long-term training for distance running and a reduced energy intake relative to energy output from intense training.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? A relatively low body fat increases the energy cost of weight-bearing physical activity and also provides a worsening gradient to dissipate metabolic heat generated during up to 45 minutes of physical activity.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Researchers maintain that more than 75% of the U.S. adult population may reach overweight or obesity status by the year 2020, with essentially the entire adult population becoming overweight within three generations.

A) True B) False

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92. True or false? More than 69% of the U.S. population now classify as either overweight or obese with 25% to 30% achieving the overweight classification.

A) True B) False

93. True or false? More likely than not, the culprits in the fattening of America are predominantly a sedentary lifestyle and ready availability of tasty, lipid-rich, and calorie-rich foods currently offered in increasingly larger portions.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? In adults, brown fat spurs the body to burn calories to generate body heat without ATP production via uncoupled metabolism.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? The elevated thermic effect of dietary protein, with its relatively low coefficient of digestibility particularly for plant protein, reduces the net calories available from ingested protein compared with a well-balanced meal of equivalent caloric value.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Excessive body fatness becomes particularly prevalent among affluent, white children.

A) True B) False

97. True or false? Intense aerobic training should not coincide with resistance training when trying to achieve maximal increases in muscle mass.

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Selective physical activity of specific body areas proves more effective for localized fat loss than more general physical activity.

A) True B) False

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99. True or false? Substantial alterations in the population's gene pool likely explain the dramatic worldwide obesity epidemic.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Research indicates no genetic link for susceptibility to obesity.

A) True B) False

101. True or false? Age-trend data indicate that men and women lose weight as they grow older throughout middle age.

A) True B) False

102. True or false? The calorie-burning effects of exercise are cumulative in their contribution to the caloric deficit.

A) True B) False

103. True or false? The threshold energy expenditure to stimulate body fat loss with exercise equals about 300 kilocalories per day.

A) True B) False

104. True or false? A low-carbohydrate diet depletes glycogen reserves and severely impacts hard training and competition.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. B 44. B

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45. A 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. A 51. A 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. A 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. A 66. B 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. A

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1. Disordered eating behaviors generally affect __________.

A) women between the ages of 30 and 45 years B) women between the ages of 15 and 35 years C) men between the ages of 30 and 45 years D) men between the ages of 15 and 35 years

2. Which of the following is not a common risk factor for development of eating disorders in adolescent girls?

A) Preoccupation with a thin body image B) Social pressure C) Participation in team sports D) Obsessive-compulsive personality

3. A female model's body weight averages __________ below the national average for women.

A) 2 pounds B) 23 pounds C) 35 pounds D) 40 pounds

4. In reference to the prevalence of eating disorders among female athletes, coaches __________.

A) are always trained to counsel their athletes B) are never supportive of their athletes C) openly encourage vomiting and laxative use D) often compound the problem

5. A term used to describe the cluster of personality traits among athletes that are common to patients with clinical eating disorders.

A) Anorexia athletica B) Anorexia nervosa C) Bulimarexia D) Athletic eating disorder

6. Which of the following population(s) associate with a greater prevalence rates for men with eating disorders?

A) Male models and dancers B) Male gymnasts C) Contact sport athletes D) Male swimmers

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7. The term used to describe the pathologic preoccupation with muscle size and overall muscularity.

A) Muscle dysmorphia B) Muscle madness C) Oedipus complex D) Narcissistic complex

8. American men project the ideal man's body as possessing about __________ more muscle than their own bodies.

A) 2 pounds B) 28 pounds C) 50 pounds D) 10 ounces

9. Which of the following traits is not among those common to muscle dysmorphia and anorexia nervosa?

A) A history of depression and anxiety B) Unrealistic shame about one's body C) Compulsive weight lifting D) Self-destructive behaviors

10. For the exercise addict, one's sense of worth becomes inextricably tied to __________.

A) the volume of exercise accomplished B) performing a wide variety of exercises C) exercising at least 3 days per week D) avoiding interpersonal relationships

11. Which of the following is not among the four factors used to characterize anorexia nervosa?

A) Distortions of body image B) A preoccupation with dieting and thinness C) Excessive bouts of anaerobic exercise D) Refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight

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12. Treatment of anorexics often results in __________.

A) a disproportionate portion of the weight gain as abdominal fat B) modest weight gain, with most of it being water weight C) a disproportionate portion of the weight gain as fat within the buttocks and thigh area D) weight gain to the point where obesity becomes a problem

13. Characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating followed by purging, laxative abuse, fasting, or extreme exercise and intense feelings of guilt or shame.

A) Anorexia athletica B) Anorexia nervosa C) Bulimarexia D) Bulimia nervosa

14. A large percentage of bulimics.

A) Are obese B) Are genetically predisposed to be underweight C) Are under the supervision of registered dieticians D) Are under the clinical supervision of a physician

15. The most obvious difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is that bulimics __________.

A) are always in complete control B) frequently binge on calorically dense food C) have accurate body size perceptions D) often starve themselves

16. For bulimics, purging __________.

A) provides their only perceived way to regain control of their inability to stop eating voluntarily B) represents an effective means of stress management C) demonstrates that they are under complete control D) allows them to avoid becoming anorexic

17. In addition to binging and purging, bulimics also __________ at a higher rate than the general population.

A) lose more than 25% of their body weight B) abuse alcohol and drugs C) commit nonviolent crimes to get money for food D) commit violent crimes to get money for food

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18. Characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating that often occur without subsequent purging or abusing laxatives to compensate for overeating.

A) Bulimia nervosa B) Anorexia nervosa C) Binge-eating disorder D) Muscle dysmorphia

19. The Adonis complex.

A) Profoundly affects the capacity to train and recover B) Same as muscle dysmorphia C) Results in muscle wasting D) Enhances nutritional choices

20. Successful treatment of eating disorders usually involves a team approach utilizing __________.

A) coaches, personal trainers, and teammates B) coaches, personal trainers, and family members C) coaches, teammates, and family members D) psychotherapeutic, medical, nutritional, and family support

21. Which of the following eating disorders associates with menstrual dysfunction?

A) Muscle dysmorphia B) Binge-eating disorder C) Bulimia nervosa D) Anorexia nervosa

22. The continuum of subclinical eating behaviors of athletes who fail to meet the criteria for a true eating disorder but who exhibit at least one unhealthy method of weight control.

A) Bulimia athletica B) Athletica nervosa C) Anorexia athletica D) Amenorrhea athletica

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23. The two new eating disorder categories under the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

A) Anorexia nervosa and unspecified eating disorders B) Unspecified eating disorders and other specified eating disorders C) Bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa D) Persistent eating disorders and benign eating disorders

24. Male __________ exhibit a relatively high incidence of bingeing behaviors.

A) hockey players B) wrestlers C) soccer players D) football players

25. Assesses eating behaviors.

A) FAT-26 B) EAT-26 C) SAT-26 D) Anorexia assessment test

26. The greatest controversy exists about the prevalence of eating disorders among female __________.

A) endurance runners B) ballet dancers C) gymnasts D) figure skaters

27. Anorexia nervosa and muscle dysmorphia share the following traits.

A) History of depression and anxiety B) Self-destructive behaviors and use of laxatives C) Use of laxative, use of drugs D) Low body weight, disruptions of menstrual cycle

28. Which statement is true about anorexia nervosa?

A) Body weight increases above normal for age and stature.

B) Anorexics have a positive body image.

C) Compulsive exercise behaviors go hand-in-hand with anorexia nervosa.

D) Involves binge eating followed by purging.

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29. Physical ailments associated with anorexia nervosa do not include __________.

A) cardiac abnormalities B) increased bone density C) impaired kidney function D) electrolyte disturbances

30. Which statement is true about bulimia nervosa?

A) Characterized by extreme self-starvation B) Prevalent in approximately 30% to 45% of all adolescents and adults in the general population C) Includes binge eating of calorically dense foods D) Most bulimics are extremely underweight

31. Who is credited with the first medical description in 1689 of a wasting (anorectic) disease often associated with tuberculosis?

A) Ernest Charles Lasègue B) Richard Morton C) Claude Bernard D) Sir William Gull 32. Who is credited as the first person to “officially” use the term anorexia nervosa?

A) Ernest Charles Lasègue B) Richard Morton C) Claude Bernard D) Sir William Gull

33. Refers to the estimated population of people afflicted with an eating disorder at any given time.

A) Incidence B) Prevalence C) Morbidity D) Mortality

34. Consequences of anorexia for skin and hair.

A) Overly oily skin B) Greenish skin tone C) Excessive growth of nails D) Languo

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35. Risk factors for disordered eating among athletes.

A) Pressure to optimize performance B) High self-esteem C) Adequate coping skills D) Satisfaction with appearance

36. Sixty-seven percent of athletes with an eating disorder dieted because of their __________ recommendation.

A) parent's B) teacher's C) coach's D) friend's

37. Characteristics of muscle dysmorphia among body builders.

A) Totally or mostly satisfied with their body B) Report little or no control over compulsive weightlifting and dietary patterns C) Spend more than 16 hours daily thinking about their muscularity D) Only want to participate in activities in which they find satisfaction or joy

38. If untreated, between 6% and 21% of anorectics die prematurely.

A) From kidney disease B) From liver failure C) From pneumonia D) From heart disease

39. A primary goal in the treatment of anorexia nervosa.

A) Weight gain B) Control over emotions C) Developing a realistic body image D) Ending purging

40. Warning signs of anorexia nervosa.

A) Cessation of menstrual cycle B) Altered kidney function C) Altered liver function D) High anxiety

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41. Physical consequences of bulimia nervosa include which of the following?

A) Kidney failure B) Cardiac arrhythmias C) Liver damage D) Scaring of lung tissue

42. A feature that distinguishes binge-eating disorder (BED) from anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

A) Show obsessive-compulsive tendencies B) Are underweight C) Are overweight D) Are depressed

43. Maintains that individuals with an existing eating disorder find reward by participating in aesthetic-type sports that emphasize an excessively lean appearance.

A) Thinness hypothesis B) Athlete eater hypothesis C) Sport and exercise hypothesis D) Attraction to sport hypothesis

44. Young women with anorexia nervosa.

A) Particularly vulnerable to osteoporotic fractures B) Particularly vulnerable to arthritis C) Particularly vulnerable to high blood calcium levels D) Particularly vulnerable to rheumatoid arthritis

45. Bulimia mean __________.

A) physiologic initiated hunger B) neurologic initiated hunger C) ox hunger D) cardiovascular initiated hunger

46. Feelings of cleanliness, renewal, relaxation, mindlessness, and emotional numbness are common.

A) Bulimics after purging B) Common among athletes who fast C) Similar in bulimia and anorexia D) Never present for bulimics

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47. Particularly effective in treating bulimia nervosa and focuses on teaching the patient to identify, monitor, and modify dysfunctional attitudes, core beliefs, and eating habits to lessen binges and “retrain” normal hunger and satiety responses.

A) Pharmacologic treatment B) Interpersonal psychotherapy C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy D) Electroconvulsive therapy

48. Helps those with eating disorders and their family to examine interpersonal relationships to positively affect problem areas.

A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy B) Interpersonal psychotherapy C) Pharmacologic treatment D) Electroconvulsive therapy

49. Which of the following is not a sign and symptom of muscle dysmorphia?

A) Person gives up important social, occupational, or recreational activities to maintain their exercise regimen B) Person avoids situations in which their body is exposed to others, such as at a beach or swimming pool C) Person stops exercising, dieting, and using supplements when they become aware of the adverse physical and psychological consequences of their behavior D) Person experiences significant distress or impairment in important areas of life

50. Rumination disorder.

A) Eating disorders that exist but are not diagnosed because the person does not accept a medical diagnosis as fact B) Eating disorders that combine all of the criteria for anorexia and bulimia C) Involves the regular throwing up (regurgitation) of food that occurs for a protracted time period of at least 1 month D) Eating disorders that clinicians are not able to identify because the person is successful at concealing the signs and symptoms

51. Pica.

A) Eating less than 250 kcals/day B) Characterized by bloating/nausea/abdominal pain C) Characterized by tooth decay and rotting of teeth D) Involves eating substances not typically thought of as food

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52. Warning sign of OSFED. A) Eating less than 250 kcals/day B) Person must present with feeding or eating behaviors that cause clinically significant distress C) Decay and rotting of teeth due to acid in vomit D) Eating food with low nutritional value

53. Warning sign of purging disorder.

A) Eating less than 250 kcals/day B) Bloating/nausea/abdominal pain C) Decay and rotting of teeth due to acid in vomit D) Eating 5000–20,000 kcal/h

54. Binge-eating disorder.

A) Eating less than 250 kcals/day B) Bloating/nausea/abdominal pain C) Decay and rotting of teeth due to acid in vomit D) Eating 5000–20,000 kcal/h

55. Serotonin (5HT) pathway.

A) Contributes to the modulation of a many behaviors common in persons with eating disorders B) Responsible for bulimia C) Serotonin interferes with normal cellular function D) Same as the reverse-testosterone hypothesis

56. Only about __________ of those with eating disorders are compulsive exercisers.

A) >85% B) 50% C) 25% D) 10%

57. Body weight as a distinguishing characteristics of binge-eating disorder.

A) Below normal (<85% of recommended weight) B) Usually normal C) Usually above normal D) Below normal (<5% of recommended weight)

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58. Preoccupation with body weight and associated eating disorders among female gymnasts during college usually __________ after retirement from the sport.

A) gets worse B) stays the same C) stays the same for about 1 year and then gets worse D) abates

59. For the following data, female; age 19 years; body weight = 66.0 kg (145.5 lb.); %BF from hydrostatic weighing = 30.0%; optimal %BF = 25.0%, compute the persons optimal body weight (OPT).

A) 125 lbs B) 130 lbs C) 135 lbs D) 150 lbs

60. Formula to compute optimal body weight (OBW).

A) OBW = FFM × (1.00 – %BF) B) OBW = FFM ÷ (1.00 – %BF) C) OBW = (1.00 – %BF) ÷ FFM D) OBW = FM – (1.00 – %BF) 61. True or false? Disordered eating represents a temporary or mild change in eating behavior.

A) True B) False

62. True or false? Female athletes face a unique set of circumstances that make them particularly vulnerable to disordered eating behaviors.

A) True B) False

63. True or false? For many athletes, disordered eating patterns coincide with the competitive season and abate when the season ends.

A) True B) False

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64. True or false? Anorexia nervosa is the only eating disorder in which there is a restriction in food intake.

A) True B) False

65. True or false? Compared with men, women with a weight problem exhibit greater binge eating during periods of negative emotions such as anxiety, frustration, depression, or anger.

A) True B) False

66. True or false? Disordered eating behaviors generally affect women and men between the ages 15 and 35 years.

A) True B) False

67. True or false? Eating disorders are not found among African American women.

A) True B) False

68. True or false? Disordered eating behaviors occur most frequently among female athletes in aesthetic sports such as ballet, body building, diving, figure skating, and gymnastics.

A) True B) False

69. True or false? Interpersonal psychotherapy focuses on teaching the patient to identify, monitor, and modify dysfunctional attitudes, core beliefs, and eating habits to lessen binges and “retrain” normal hunger and satiety responses.

A) True B) False

70. True or false? If left untreated, about 3% of diagnosed anorexics die prematurely from suicide, heart disease, or infections.

A) True B) False

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71. True or false? Bulimia nervosa occurs far less frequently than anorexia nervosa.

A) True B) False

72. True or false? In contrast to anorexia nervosa, the majority of individuals with bulimia nervosa maintain a normal or above normal body weight.

A) True B) False

73. True or false? The majority of patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa also meet the criteria for a major depressive disorder.

A) True B) False

74. True or false? Bulimics exhibit substance abuse behaviors far less frequently than individuals with anorexia nervosa.

A) True B) False

75. True or false? Men experience binge-eating disorder more frequently than women.

A) True B) False

76. True or false? Several days of disordered eating behaviors probably have little effect on an athlete's ability to train and compete.

A) True B) False

77. True or false? Patients with anorexia nervosa generally maintain normal bone mineral density.

A) True B) False

78. True or false? No one best treatment currently exists for treating disordered eating behaviors.

A) True B) False

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79. True or false? Persons with muscle dysmorphia have a pathologic preoccupation with muscle size and overall muscularity, and these individuals view themselves as small and frail, when in reality, many are large and muscular.

A) True B) False

80. True or false? For individuals with an eating disorder, the focus on food becomes a source of consistent stress and anxiety and requires professional intervention.

A) True B) False

81. True or false? People with anorexia nervosa chronically consume massive quantities of food and are typically overfat.

A) True B) False

82. True or false? Among 3000 middle-school children studied for body image and dietary practices, 55% of eighth-grade girls believed they were fat, and 50% had dieted.

A) True B) False

83. True or false? It is possible to perform a proper medical assessment of anorexia nervosa by measuring only weight, body mass index, and blood samples.

A) True B) False

84. True or false? Formal diagnostic criteria exist for the diagnosis of a person at risk for muscle dysmorphia.

A) True B) False

85. True or false? Exercise addiction and compulsive exercise are synonymous terms.

A) True B) False

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86. True or false? Adolescent girls who experience physical and/or sexual violence when dating show a relatively high rate of abnormal weight control behaviors such as laxative use, vomiting, or both.

A) True B) False

87. True or false? Cultural differences in the view of attractiveness often cause some African American women to gain weight by binge eating.

A) True B) False

88. True or false? Disordered eating patterns and unrealistic weight goals occur most frequently among female athletes in team sports.

A) True B) False

89. True or false? Eating disorders are not included in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders' official roster of psychiatric illnesses.

A) True B) False

90. True or false? People with binge-eating disorder actually perceive themselves as fat despite their emaciation.

A) True B) False

91. True or false? Eating more high-fat foods becomes the primary goal in the treatment of anorexia nervosa.

A) True B) False

92. True or false? A feature that distinguishes binge-eating disorder (BED) from anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is that people seeking treatment for BED are often overweight.

A) True B) False

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93. True or false? The concept that individuals with potentially pathologic concerns about body size and shape gravitate (self-select) to sport is called the attraction to sport hypothesis.

A) True B) False

94. True or false? A person with anorexia nervosa will likely experience an increased sex drive.

A) True B) False

95. True or false? Those with orthorexia nervosa usually have a fixation on maintaining a normal body weight.

A) True B) False

96. True or false? Physical activity has proven useful to treat bulimia.

A) True B) False 97. True or false? Most persons consider eating disorders a “female problem.”

A) True B) False

98. True or false? Coaches should not watch athletes eat at a training table or during practice, and refrain from discussing food or body weight and body composition with their athletes.

A) True B) False

99. True or false? Orthorexia nervosa represents a form of obsessive-compulsive disorder and is based on an obsessive food fixation.

A) True B) False

100. True or false? Eating disorders have rarely been observed in middle-school children.

A) True B) False

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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. A

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45. C 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. D 59. C 60. A 61. A 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. B 71. B 72. A 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. B 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. B 90. B

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. B

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